ODES ACADEMY VADODRA

ORAl pathology , diagnosis , RADIOLOGY

1) Lichen planus occurs most frequently on the

A. buccal mucosa. B. tongue. C. floor of the mouth. D. gingiva.

2) What is the most likely diagnosis of a white lesion on the retromolar pad opposing a non-functional
molar?

A. Alveolar ridge keratosis. B. Candidiasis. C. Lichen planus. D. Squamous cell carcinoma

3) Which of the following is the most likely cause of osteoporosis, glaucoma, hypertension and peptic
ulcers in a 65 year old with Crohn’s disease?

A. Uncontrolled diabetes. B. Systemic corticosteroid therapy. C. Chronic renal failure. D. Prolonged

NSAID therapy. E. Malabsorption syndrome.

4) Which condition has NOT been associated with Candida albicans infection?

A. Median rhomboid glossitis. B. Angular cheilitis. C. Denture stomatitis. D. Aphthous ulcerations. E. Oral
hairy leukoplakia

5) The predominant immunoglobulin isolated from saliva is

A. IgG. B. IgM. C. IgA. D. IgD

6) Acute or subacute suppurative osteomyelitis occurs most frequently in the

A. anterior maxilla. B. posterior mandible. C. posterior maxilla. D. anterior mandible

7) Intraoral soft tissue examination will NOT assist in the diagnosis of

A. lichen planus. B. sinusitis. C. erythema multiforme. D. anemia. E. vitamin deficiencies

8) Hyperplastic lingual tonsils may resemble which of the following?

A. Epulis fissuratum. B. Lingual varicosities. C. Squamous cell carcinoma. D. Median rhomboid

glossitis. E. Prominent fungiform papillae

9) Which of the following is/are NOT usually affected by hereditary ectodermal dysplasia?

A. Salivary glands. B. Teeth. C. Sweat glands. D. Hair. E. Fingernails.

10) Desquamation of the gingiva usually occurs as a result of

A. inflammation. B. benign neoplasia. C. normal cell turnover. D. a developmental abnormality.

11) Abrasion is most commonly seen on the

A. lingual surface of posterior teeth. B. occlusal surface of posterior teeth. C. incisal edges. D. facial
surfaces of teeth.

DR VIJAY K PATEL[Type text]

12) An adult patient has several multilocular lesions associated with vital mandibular teeth. A
histopathologic analysis reveals the presence of multinucleated giant cells. The most appropriate
management for this patient is to

A. extract the involved teeth. B. obtain a serum parathormone (PTH) level. C. commence antibiotic
therapy. D. initiate endodontic treatments. E. perform a mandibular resection.

13) The tissue which is most sensitive to radiation is

A. nerve. B. dental pulp. C. lymphoid. D. muscle.

14) Periapical osseous dysplasia (periapical cementoosseous dysplasia)

A. is associated with a vital tooth. B. is found mainly in children. C. has an orange peel radiographic
pattern

15) "Tic douloureux" is synonymous with

A. psychogenic facial pain. B. trigeminal neuralgia. C. facial paralysis. D. temporomandibular joint

dysfunction.

16) The start of a mandibular bone formation coincides with

A. tooth germ development. B. completion of fusion of the facial processes. C. bone formation in the
maxilla. D. completion of a mandible cartilage model.

17) A 35 year old female patient has multiple petechiae hemorrhages of the palatal mucosa and
ecchymoses of the right and left buccal mucosae. Which of the following is the most likely laboratory
finding?

A. Anemia. B. Prolonged partial thromboplastin time (PTT). C. Elevated INR. D. Thrombocytopenia.

18) Osteogenesis imperfecta is manifested by

A. punched-out radiolucencies in the jaws. B. numerous unerupted supernumerary teeth. C.

osteoporosis and anemia. D. multiple fractures and blue sclera.

19)Keratocystic odontogenic tumours (odontogenic keratocysts) have a/an

A. inflammatory origin. B. mixed radiopaque/radiolucent appearance. C. solid consistency. D. tendency

to recur.

20) In radiography, minimum magnification and maximum definition are achieved by

A. minimum OFD (object-film distance) and minimum FFD (focal-film distance). B. minimum OFD
(object-film distance) and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). C. maximum OFD (object -film distance)
and maximum FFD (focal-film distance). D. maximum OFD (object-film distance) and minimum FFD
(focal-film distance).

DR VIJAY K PATEL[Type text]

21) By definition, a compound fracture of the mandible must have

A. multiple bone fragments. B. exposure to the external environment. C. a tooth in the line of fracture.
D. displacement of the fractured segments.

22) Side effects of chemotherapeutic treatment for malignancy include

A. thinning of the oral mucosa. B. ulceration. C. necrosis. D. spontaneous bleeding. E. all of the
above

23) What is the most probable syndrome affecting a 9 year old patient with a history of 3 keratocystic
odontogenic tumours (odontogenic keratocyst)?

A. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome (Gorlin Syndrome). B. Familial colorectal polyposis (Gardner’s
Syndrome). C. Crouzon Syndrome. D. Apert Syndrome

24) Odontoblast gap junctions

A. adhere the cells to one another. B. attach the cells to the basement membrane. C. seal off the dentin
from the pulp. D. permit lateral cell-cell communication.

25) Which of the following conditions may develop as a result of juvenile diabetes mellitus?

A. Ataxia. B. Aphasia. C. Deafness. D. Blindness. E. Motor paralysis.

26) Which condition is associated with elevated serum alkaline phosphatase and elevated urinary
hydroxyproline levels?

A. Fibrous dysplasia. B. Paget disease. C. Sjögren syndrome. D. Gardner syndrome

27) Sickle cell anemia is

A. a genetic disease. B. caused by exposure to radiation. C. a viral infection. D. a drug reaction. E. an

auto-immune disease.

28) Biocompatibility tests conducted in vitro

A. follow screening with an animal model. B. predict human cell growth or death. C. reproduce the in
vivo environment. D. are more easily standardized than clinical studies.

29) Bite-wing radiographs are most valuable for detecting

A. hyperemia of the pulp. B. occlusal carious lesions. C. proximal surface caries. D. cervical caries

30) Which of the following presents with high serum calcium levels, thinning of cortical bone and giant
cell osteoclasts in the jaw and drifting teeth?

A. Hyperthyroidism. B. Hyperparathyroidism. C. Hypothyroidism. D. Hypoparathyroidism.

DR VIJAY K PATEL[Type text]

31) Which of the following characteristics is common to all types of aphthous ulcers?

A. History of pain. B. Involvement of keratinized mucosa. C. Presence of vesicles. D. Presence of

fever. E. Scar formation after healing

32) All of the following conditions are associated with AIDS EXCEPT

A. acute marginal periodontitis. B. hairy leukoplakia. C. candidiasis. D. geographic tongue

33) What is the most likely diagnosis of a white diffuse lesion with a wrinkled appearance on the buccal
mucosa which disappears upon stretching?

A. Leukoedema. B. Lichen planus. C. Candidiasis. D. Linea alba. E. White sponge nevus

34) When exposing radiographic film, the amount of radiation received by the patient is best reduced by

A. collimation. B. decreased object-film distance. C. low kVp correlated with high milliamperage. D.
decreased target-object distance.

35) The most radiosensitive cell type is a/an

A. neuron. B. chondrocyte. C. myocyte. D. epithelial basal cell.

36) Which syndrome has multiple cysts of the jaws?

A. Gardner syndrome. B. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome. C. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. D. Sjögren
syndrome

37) In dental radiography, the most effective method of reducing patient somatic exposure is to use

A. a lead apron. B. high speed film. C. added filtration. D. collimation

38) The most common senile dementia in the elderly is

A. vascular dementia. B. Alzheimer’s disease. C. a result of cerebral arteriosclerosis. D. multi-infarct

dementia.

39) Hypochromic anemia is associated with

A. iron deficiency. B. aminopyrine therapy. C. vitamin B12 deficiency. D. folic acid deficiency

40) Which of the following tumours has the best prognosis?

A. Osteosarcoma. B. Melanoma. C. Ameloblastoma. D. Adenocarcinoma.

41) A pleomorphic adenoma is characterized by

A. metastases. B. recurrence. C. pain. D. ulceration.

DR VIJAY K PATEL[Type text]

42) A 4 year old has generalized bone loss, mobile teeth and generalized calculus. Which condition
should NOT be included in the differential diagnosis?

A. Cyclic neutropenia. B. Papillon-Lefèvre syndrome. C. Chédiak-Higashi syndrome. D. Crouzon

syndrome. E. Leukocyte adhesion deficiency syndrome

43) Enamel pearls form when

A. ameloblasts migrate apically down the root. B. cells of the epithelial root sheath do not migrate away
from the dentin. C. cells of the dental follicle fail to develop. D. epithelial rests transform into ameloblast
vesicles

44) Which of the following should be performed to confirm a diagnosis of pseudomembranous

candidiasis?

A. An incisional biopsy. B. A cytological smear. C. An excisional biopsy. D. A complete blood count.

45) A 70 year old patient was diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma of the lateral border of the
tongue. The tumour measures 3.5 x 3.0 cm. A CT of the neck confirms the presence of a 2.5cm ipsilateral
submandibular lymph node suggestive of locoregional disease. Chest X-rays and liver function tests were
within normal limits. The TNM classification of this patient’s disease is

A. T1N1M0. B. T1N2M0. C. T2N1M0. D. T2N2M1.

46) What percentage of natal teeth are supernumerary?

A. 10. B. 50. C. 90.

47) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hypercalcemia?

A. Paresthesia. B. Constipation. C. Anoxia. D. Lethargy

48) Which disorder presents with all permanent teeth exhibiting bulbous crowns, cervical constriction
and obliterated pulp canals and chambers?

A. Amelogenesis imperfecta. B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta. C. Dentin dysplasia type I. D. Dentin

dysplasia type II.

49) Multiple neurofibromatosis and "café au lait" spots on the skin are typical of

A. Gardner's syndrome. B. Plummer-Vinson syndrome. C. Von Recklinghausen's disease. D. Down

syndrome

50) The mean annual radiation dose equivalent for human populations on earth is approximately

A. 3 to 4 micro- (µ) Sv. B. 3 to 4 milli- (m) Sv. C. 3 to 4 Sv. D. 3 to 4 kSv.

51) Metastasis is most likely to occur in

DR VIJAY K PATEL[Type text]

A. squamous cell carcinoma. B. basal cell carcinoma. C. ameloblastoma. D. complex odontoma. E.
odontogenic fibroma.

52) Mandibular growth

A. is sustained over a longer period of time in girls. B. is sustained over a longer period of time in boys. C.
occurs at the same chronologic age in both sexes. D. occurs two years earlier in boys than in girls.

53) A mixed lesion with a radiolucent rim and corticated border causing impaction of a permanent tooth
is most likely a/an

A. adenomatoid odontogenic tumour. B. calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour. C. odontoma. D.

ameloblastic fibro-odontoma

54) The physiologic wear of hard dental tissue resulting from mastication is known as

A. decalcification. B. attrition. C. abrasion. D. erosion.

55) Sickle cell anemia is

A. a genetic disease. B. caused by exposure to radiation. C. a viral infection. D. a drug reaction. E. an

auto-immune disease.

56) Blue sclera is characteristic of

A. osteopetrosis. B. osteogenesis imperfecta. C. osteitis deformans. D. fibrous dysplasia.

57) The collimator of an X ray tube

A. produces a more homogeneous X ray beam. B. prevents secondary radiation. C. focuses the X ray
beam. D. restricts the diameter of the X ray beam.

58) What is the most likely diagnosis of an ulcerated gingival lesion whose biopsy report confirms
epithelial basal layer separation from the lamina propria?

A. An aphthous ulcer. B. Erosive lichen planus. C. Pemphigus vulgaris. D. Mucous membrane pemphigoid
(cicatricial pemphigoid).

59) Chewing “automatism” is dependent on which mechanism?

A. Reflexes between jaw closing and opening muscles. B. Swallowing and respiration neuronal activity.
C. Periodontal receptor stimulation. D. Reticular formation neuronal activity.

60) Condensing osteitis in the periapical region is indicative of a/an

A. acute inflammation of the pulp. B. pulpal abscess. C. chronic inflammation of the pulp. D. early
apical abscess formation.

DR VIJAY K PATEL[Type text]

61) Which of the following compounds released by inflammatory cells induces bone resorption?

A. Nitric oxide. B. Interleukin-1. C. Bradykinin. D. Alkaline phosphatase

62) A radiograph displaying a “cotton-wool”' appearance and generalized hypercementosis is suggestive

of

A. fibrous dysplasia. B. osteopetrosis. C. osteogenesis imperfecta. D. Paget’s disease. E. cleidocranial

dysplasia.

63) Continued smoking will impair wound healing following a surgical procedure because of

A. stain development. B. increased rate of plaque formation. C. increased rate of calculus formation. D.
contraction of peripheral blood vessels. E. superficial irritation to tissues by smoke.

64) A patient complains of lip and tongue hypersensitivity (allodynea) following intake of hot, spicy
food. The sensory nerve fibers that are associated with this form of pain are

A. A-alpha. B. A-beta. C. A-gamma. D. A-delta and C.

65) The most common barrier preventing elderly individuals from seeking dental treatment is

A. the cost associated with dental treatments. B. difficulty getting to and from the dental office. C. a lack
of perceived need for treatment. D. fear of being “hurt”.

66) Which of the following most appropriately describes a traumatic neuroma?

A. A slow-growing, painless neoplasm. B. A slow-growing, hypersensitive nodule. C. A tumour at a

recent extraction site. D. A tumour of the tongue.

67) A double blind controlled clinical trial that assessed the analgesic effects of etoricoxib and
comparator agents on the second and third days after third molar extraction included 600 officers from
dental clinics at 10 military bases. What form of bias is present in this study?

A. Publication. B. Recall. C. Sampling. D. Selection

68) An incisional biopsy of a clinically suspicious malignant lesion fails to support the clinical diagnosis.
The most appropriate management is to

A. reassure the patient that there is no malignancy. B. contact the pathologist to discuss the case. C.
recall the patient in six months. D. perform a cytological smear.

69) Fordyce spots or granules is/are

A. sweat glands. B. implanted epithelium. C. cystic formations. D. sebaceous glands. E. hyperkeratosis.

70) In comparison to visible light, X rays

DR VIJAY K PATEL[Type text]

A. have a longer wavelength. B. have higher energy. C. travel faster. D. can be focused.

71) The characteristic oral lesion(s) of pemphigus is/are

A. vesicles and bullae. B. Fordyce granules. C. white plaques. D. hairy tongue. E. candidiasis

72) Increasing the kilovoltage setting on the dental x-ray machine results in

A. more gamma radiation. B. greater collimation. C. more penetration. D. greater secondary radiation
at the level of the skin.

73) Which substance found in radiograph processing solutions is of most concern environmentally?

A. Ammonium thiosulfate. B. Acetic acid. C. Silver. D. Sodium sulfite.

74) Increased tooth mobility and the absence of lamina dura are signs of

A. hyperthyroidism. B. hyperpituitarism. C. hyperparathyroidism. D. scleroderma

75) Which of the following is a proliferative response of the soft tissue to an irritant?

A. Cellulitis. B. Abscess. C. Pyogenic granuloma. D. Aphthous ulcer.

76) Pyogenic granuloma is most frequently found on the

A. tongue. B. gingiva. C. buccal mucosa. D. tonsillar pillars. E. lips

77) In a xerostomic patient, which salivary glands are most likely responsible for the lack of lubrication?

A. Accessory. B. Labial. C. Parotid. D. Sublingual and submandibular.

78) Hypothyroidism affects the dental developmental pattern by

A. interfering with jaw growth. B. delaying the eruption timetable. C. causing sclerotic bone to form
over the occlusal surface of erupting teeth. D. accelerating the eruption timetable.

79)What is the earliest age to confirm the diagnosis of a congenitally missing mandibular second
premolar?

A. 1 year. B. 3 years. C. 5 years. D. 7 years.

80) The prolonged use of antibacterial lozenges or mouthwashes contributes to the development of

A. oral candidiasis. B. geographic tongue. C. cancrum oris. D. Koplik's spots. E. aphthous ulcers.

81)Solitary eosinophilic granuloma is associated with

A. multiple myeloma. B. hyperparathyroidism. C. hypoparathyroidism. D. Langerhans cell histiocytosis

82) If hydroquinone is added to the monomer, it will

DR VIJAY K PATEL[Type text]

A. inhibit polymerization. B. initiate polymerization. C. activate polymerization. D. None of the above.

83) The most appropriate management for a gingival cyst of the newborn is

A. curettage. B. incisional biopsy. C. cytologic smear. D. excisional biopsy. E. observation.

84) The most common primary tooth to become ankylosed is a

A. maxillary molar. B. mandibular molar. C. maxillary canine. D. mandibular canine.

85) The most frequent location of a dentigerous cyst is the

A. inferior third molar area. B. symphysis of the mandible. C. midline of the hard palate. D. apical
area of a devitalized tooth. E. premolar area

86) When tumour cells revert to a more primitive, embryonic or undifferentiated form with an increased
capacity for reproduction and a decreased function, this is called

A. anaplasia. B. metaplasia. C. hypoplasia. D. hyperplasia.

87) Which of the following is the most frequent major congenital malformation of the head and neck?

A. Cystic hygroma colli. B. Cleft palate. C. Encephalotrigeminal angiomatosis. D. Double lip. E.

Commissural pits.

88) Hyperkeratosis, acanthosis, dysplasia, increased mitosis, intact basal cell layer and chronic
inflammatory cells are histologic features that may be found in

A. squamous cell carcinoma. B. carcinoma in situ. C. papillofibroma. D. endothelioma.

89) The purpose of calibrating examiners in a randomized controlled clinical trial is to ensure

A. consistent measurement of clinical outcomes. B. similarity of experimental and control groups. C. high
ethical standards in conducting the trial. D. measurement of all relevant clinical outcomes

90) An ameloblastoma is most frequently found in

A. the anterior region of the maxilla. B. the mandible, near the junction of the body and the ramus. C.
the posterior region of the maxilla. D. in the anterior region of the mandible near the midline

91) Histologically, a pulp polyp consists of all of the following EXCEPT for

A. a mass of collagenous fibres. B. epithelial rests of Malassez. C. proliferating capillaries. D.

fibroblasts

92) A 24 year old patient complains of abdominal pain, frequent diarrhea and weight loss. The oral
clinical examination shows linear mucosal ulcers with hyperplastic margins in the buccal vestibule. What
is the most likely diagnosis?

DR VIJAY K PATEL[Type text]

A. Crohn’s disease. B. Leukemia. C. AIDS. D. Diabetes mellitus.

93) Mean x-ray beam energy is a function of

A. exposure time. B. tube current. C. tube voltage. D. collimation.

94) In comparing D and F speed intraoral radiographic films, F speed film emulsion is approximately

A. 20% more sensitive than D speed film. B. 40% more sensitive than D speed film. C. 60% more sensitive
than D speed film. D. 80% more sensitive than D speed film.

95) Pernicious anemia may cause

A. glossitis. B. lingual ulceration(s). C. parotid swelling. D. gastric hyperacidity

96) What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient who exhibits fatigue, nausea and yellow sclera?

A. Acute viral hepatitis. B. Appendicitis. C. Peptic ulcer. D. Ulcerative colitis

97) The most frequent cause of hyposalivation in elderly patients is

A. Alzheimer’s disease. B. multiple medications. C. salivary gland atrophy. D. Sjögren’s syndrome.

98) A patient with pain, fever and unilateral parotid swelling following a general anesthetic most likely
has

A. Mumps. B. sialolithiasis. C. acute bacterial sialadenitis. D. Sjögren’s syndrome. E. sarcoidosis

99) Multiple congenitally missing teeth may be characteristic of

A. cleidocranial dysplasia. B. ectodermal dysplasia. C. Gardner’s syndrome. D. Gorlin-Goltz’s syndrome

100) In an adult, progressive increase in mandibular length and interdental spacing is a feature of

A. hyperparathyroidism. B. hyperpituitarism. C. hyperthyroidism. D. Addison's disease. E. Cushing's

disease

DR VIJAY K PATEL[Type text]