1. How many digits of the DNIC (Data Network Identification Code) identify the country?

A. first three

B. first four

C. first five

D. first six

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

2. A station in a network forwards incoming packets by placing them on its shortest output
queue. What routing algorithm is being used?
A. hot potato routing

B. flooding

C. static routing

D. delta routing

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

3. The probability that a single bit will be in error on a typical public telephone line using 4800
bps modem is 10 to the power -3. If no error detection mechanism is used, the residual error
rate for a communication line using 9-bit frames is approximately equal to
A. 0.003

B. 0.009

C. 0.991

D. 0.999

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

4. Frames from one LAN can be transmitted to another LAN via the device
A. Router

B. Bridge

C. Repeater

D. Modem
Answer: Option B

5. Which of the following condition is used to transmit two packets over a medium at the same
time?
 A. Contention

B. Collision

C. Synchronous

D. Asynchronous

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

6. You have a class A network address 10.0.0.0 with 40 subnets, but are required to add 60
new subnets very soon. You would like to still allow for the largest possible number of host
IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign?
A. 255.240.0.0

B. 255.248.0.0

C. 255.252.0.0

D. 255.254.0.0

E. 255.255.255.255
Answer: Option D

7. What are the most commonly used transmission speeds in BPS used in data
communication?
A. 300

B. 1200

C. 2400

D. 9600

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

8. What is the default subnet mask for a class C network?

A. 127.0.0.1

B. 255.0.0.0

C. 255.255.0.0

D. 255.255.255.0

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

9. Which of the following is used for modulation and demodulation?

A. modem
 B. protocols

C. gateway

D. multiplexer

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

10. Which of the following is not a disadvantage of wireless LAN?

A. Slower data transmission

B. higher error rate

C. interference of transmissions from different computers

D. All of the above

Answer: Option D

11. The Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)

A. allows gateways to send error a control messages to other gateways or hosts

provides communication between the Internet Protocol Software on one machine and
B.
the Internet Protocol Software on another

reports error conditions to the original source, the source must relate errors to
C.
individual application programs and take action to correct the problem

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

12. Your company has a LAN in its downtown office and has now set up a LAN in the
manufacturing plant in the suburbs. To enable everyone to share data and resources
between the two LANs, what type of device(s) are needed to connect them? Choose the
most correct answer.
A. Modem

B. Cable

C. Hub

D. Router
Answer: Option D

13. The term 'duplex' refers to the ability of the data receiving stations to echo back a confirming
message to the sender. In full duplex data transmission, both the sender and the receiver
A. cannot talk at once

B. can receive and send data simultaneously

 C. can send or receive data one at a time

D. can do one way data transmission only

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

14. How many hosts are attached to each of the local area networks at your site?
A. 128

B. 254

C. 256

D. 64

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

15. Which of the following technique is used for fragment?

A. a technique used in best-effort delivery systems to avoid endlessly looping packets

a technique used by protocols in which a lower level protocol accepts a message from
B.
a higher level protocol and places it in the data portion of the low level frame

one of the pieces that results when an IP gateway divides an IP datagram into smaller
C. pieces for transmission across a network that cannot handle the original datagram
size

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

1. Which of the following refers to the terms "residual error rate"?

the number of bit errors per twenty four hours of continuous operation on an
A.
asynchronous line

The probability that one or more errors will be undetected when an error detection
B.
scheme is used

the probability that one or more errors will be detected when an error detection
C.
mechanism is used

D. signal to noise ratio divided by the ratio of energy per bit to noise per hertz

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

2. Which of the following summation operations is performed on the bits to check an error-
detecting code?
 A. Codec

B. Coder-decoder

C. Checksum

D. Attenuation
Answer: Option C

3. The research and development department at your office has been experimenting with
different technologies to help improve the performance of the network. One group has been
examining the use of a broadband network versus a based band network. Select the correct
statement about broadband and baseband.
Broadband networks carry several channels on a single cable, whereas in a baseband
A.
network several cables carry one channel

Baseband networks carry a single channel on a single cable, whereas broadband

B.
networks carry several channels on a single cable

C. Baseband refers to local area networks, and broadband refers to wide area networks.

Baseband operates at a standard bit rate, whereas broadband may operate at

D.
different rates as needed

Broadband and baseband refer to the different frequencies at which infrared operates
E.
then transmitting signals in certain conditions
Answer: Option B

4. An error-detecting code inserted as a field in a block of data to be transmitted is known as

A. Frame check sequence

B. Error detecting code

C. Checksum

D. flow control

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

5. The cheapest modems can transmit

A. 300 bits per second

B. 1,200 bits per second

C. 2,400 bits per second

D. 4,800 bits per second

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A
7. What is the usual number of bits transmitted simultaneously in parallel data transmission
used by microcomputers?
A. 16

B. 9

C. 8

D. 4

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

8. The receive equalizer reduces delay distortions using a

A. tapped delay lines

B. gearshift

C. descrambler

D. difference engine

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

9. Four routers have to be interconnected in a point-to-point Network. Each pair of root us may
connected by a high-speed line, a medium speed line or a low speed line. Find the total
number of topologies.
A. 12

B. 81

C. 48

D. 729
Answer: Option D

10. A network consists of eight NT servers. You are planning to move servers to different
segments of your network, what utility should be used at each server to determine which
server generates the most traffic?
A. NBTSTAT

B. NETSTAT.EXE

C. Performance Monitor

D. Network Monitor

E. ARP.EXE
Answer: Option D
11. Sending a file from your personal computer's primary memory or disk to another computer is
called
A. uploading

B. downloading

C. logging on

D. hang on

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

12. What is the name of the software package that allows people to send electronic mail along a
network of computers and workstations?
A. Memory resident package

B. Project management package

C. Data communication package

D. Electronic mail package

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

13. The communication mode that supports two-way traffic but only one direction at a time is
A. simplex

B. duplex

C. half duplex

D. multiplex

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

14. HMP (Host Monitoring Protocol) is:

a TCP/IP protocol used to dynamically bind a high level IP Address to a low-level
A.
physical hardware address

B. a TCP/IP high level protocol for transferring files from one machine to another.

C. a protocol used to monitor computers

D. a protocol that handles error and control messages

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

15. Which of the following is a voiceband channel?

 A. Telephone line

B. Telegraph line

C. Coaxial cable

D. Microwave systems

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

1. Modem is used in data transmission. When was it invented and in which country?
A. 1963, USA

B. 1965, Germany

C. 1950, USA

D. 1950, Japan

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

2. Which of the following technique is used for Time-To-Line (TTL)?

A. a technique used in best-effort delivery system to avoid endlessly looping packets.

a technique used by protocols in which a lower level protocol accepts a message from
B.
a higher level protocol and places it in the data portion of the low level frame

One of the pieces that results when an IP gateway divides an IP datagram into smaller
C. pieces for transmission across a network that cannot handle the original datagram
size.

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

3. Communication network is
one or more conductors that serve as a common connection for a related group of
A.
devices

a continuous frequency capable of being modulated or impressed with a second

B.
signal

the condition with two or more stations attempt to use the same channel at the same
C.
time

a collection of interconnected functional units that provides a data communications

D.
service among stations attached to the network

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D
4. Which of the following is an advantage to using fiber optics data transmission?
A. resistance to data theft

B. fast data transmission rate

C. low noise level

D. few transmission errors

E. All of the above

Answer: Option E

5. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A. if a host moves from one network to another, its IP address must change

routing uses the network portion of the IP address, the path taken by packets
B.
travelling to a host with multiple IP addresses depends on the address used.

IP addresses encode both a network and a host on that network, they do not specify
C.
an individual machine, but a connection to a network.

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

6. Bandlimited signal is
A. transmission of signals without modulation

B. a signal all of whose energy is contained within a finite frequency range

C. simultaneous transmission of data to a number of stations

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

7. Computers in a LAN can be interconnected by radio and infrared technologies.

A. Wireless LANs

B. Network Topologies

C. Multiplexer

D. Modem
Answer: Option A

8. You have a network ID of 134.57.0.0 and you need to divide it into multiple subnets in which
at least 600 host IDs for each subnet are available. You desire to have the largest amount of
subnets available. Which subnet mask should you assign?
 A. 255.255.224.0

B. 255.255.240.0

C. 255.255.248.0

D. 255.255.255.0

E. 255.255.255.255
Answer: Option D

9. How many digits of the Network User Address are known as the DNIC (Data Network
Identification Code)?
A. first three

B. first four

C. first five

D. first seven

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

10. Which of the following is the address of the router?

A. The IP address

B. The TCP address

C. The subnet mask

D. The default gateway

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

11. Thorough planning must take place when setting up an 802.3 network. A maximum number
of segments can separate any two nodes on the network. What is the maximum number of
segments allowed between two nodes?
A. Five

B. Two

C. Four

D. Six

E. Three
Answer: Option A

12. A devices that links two homogeneous packet-broadcast local networks, is

A. hub
 B. bridge

C. repeater

D. gateway

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

13. Identify the odd term amongst the following group:

A. Coaxial cable

B. Optical fibre

C. Twisted pair wire

D. Microwaves

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

14. Which of the following divides the high speed signal into frequency bands?
A. t-switch

B. modem

C. frequency-division multiplexer

D. time-division multiplexer

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

15. What is the first octet range for a class C IP address?

A. 192 - 255

B. 192 - 223

C. 192 - 226

D. 128 - 191

E. 1 - 126
Answer: Option B

1. What protocol is used between E-Mail servers?

A. FTP

B. SMTP

C. SNMP
 D. POP3
Answer: Option B

2. If you configure the TCP/IP address and other TCP/IP parameters manually, you can always
verify the configuration through which of the following? Select the best answer.
A. Network Properties dialog box

B. Server Services dialog box

C. DHCPINFO command-line utility

D. Advanced Properties tab of TCP/ IP Info.

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

3. In a PC to telephone hookup for long distance communication, modem is connected between

the telephone line and
A. PC

B. synchronous port

C. crossover cable

D. asynchronous port

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

4. Which of the following communications service provides message preparation and

transmission facilities?
A. Teletex

B. Teletext

C. x400

D. Fax

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

5. Four bits are used for packet sequence numbering in a sliding window protocol used in a
computer network. What is the maximum window size?
A. 4

B. 8

C. 15

D. 16
 E. None of the above
Answer: Option C

6. A hard copy would be prepared on a

A. typewriter terminal

B. line printer

C. plotter

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

7. Which of the following device copies electrical signals from one Ethernet to another?
A. bridge

B. repeater

C. hub

D. passive hub

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

8. Stephanie is in charge of a small network and wants to make it simple but secure. The users
want to have full control over their data and still be able to share data with the rest of the
office. The networking knowledge of the office staff is basic. Which network(s) would be the
best for Stephanie to set up?
A. Peer-to-peer

B. Master domain

C. Server-based

D. WAN

E. Share-level
Answer: Option C

9. When UPC is used, the price of the item is located

A. on the item

B. on the item and on the shelf

C. in computer storage

D. on the shelf and in computer storage

E. None of the above

 Answer: Option D

10. Error control is needed at the transport layer because of potential errors occurring _____.
A. from transmission line noise

B. in routers

C. from out-of-sequence delivery

D. from packet losses.

Answer: Option B

11. The transport layer protocol is connectionless.

A. NVT

B. FTP

C. TCP

D. UDP

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

12. The fundamental requirements of private-to-public network interconnection methods which

need to be provided in gateways is/are
A. universal accessibility for private network Data Terminal Equipment (DTE)

B. adequate cost control mechanisms for administration of the private networks

C. to assign address to private network DTEs

D. a and b both

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

13. Communication between computers is almost always

A. serial

B. parallel

C. series parallel

D. direct

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

14. Which of the following is considered a broadband communications channel?

A. coaxial cable
 B. fiber optic cable

C. microwave circuits

D. satellites systems

E. All of the above

Answer: Option E

15. Data link layer retransmits the damaged frames in most networks. If the probability of a
frame's being damaged is p, what is the mean number of transmissions required to send a
frame if acknowledgements are never lost.
A. P I (K + 1)

B. KIK (1 + F)

C. 1/ (1 - F)

D. K I (K - P)

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

1. In a synchronous modem, the receive equalizer is known as

A. adaptive equalizer

B. impairment equalizer

C. statistical equalizer

D. compromise equalizer

E. None of the above

Answer: Option A

2. Alex is required to provide information on how many people are using the network at any one
time. Which network will enable him to do so?
A. Server-based

B. Token-Ring

C. Ethernet

D. Star

E. Peer-to-peer
Answer: Option A

3. Now-a-days computers all over the world can talk to each other. Which is one of the special
accessories essential for this purpose?
A. Keyboard
 B. Modem

C. Scanner

D. Fax

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

4. To make possible the efficient on-line servicing of many teleprocessing system users on
large computer systems, designers are developing
A. communication systems

B. multiprogramming systems

C. virtual storage systems

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

5. Which of the following best describes the scopes on each DHCP server, in the absence of
configuration problems with DHCP addresses, if you use multiple DHCP servers in your
environment?
A. Unique to that subnet only

B. For different subnets

C. For no more than two subnets

D. For no subnets

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

6. The main difference between TCP and UDP is

A. UDP is connection oriented where as TCP is datagram service

B. TCP is an Internet protocol where as UDP is an ATM protocol

C. UDP is a datagram where as TCP is a connection oriented service

D. All of the above

Answer: Option C

7. What operates in the Data Link and the Network layer?

A. NIC

B. Bridge

C. Brouter
 D. Router

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

8. What is the name of the computer based EMMS that provides a common forum where users
can check in at their convenience, post messages, actively exchange ideas and participate in
ongoing discussions?
A. E-mail

B. Bulletin board system (BBS)

C. Teleconferencing

D. Videoconferencing

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

9. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

The CCITT Recommendation X.25 specifies three layers of communication: physical,
A.
link and network.

B. The second layer of communication is the data-link layer

C. Errors in the physical layer can be detected by the data link layer

D. The fourth layer, in reference to the OSI model, is the session layer

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

10. Devices on one network can communicate with devices on another network via a
A. file server

B. utility server

C. printer server

D. gateway

E. None of the above

Answer: Option D

11. After coding a document into a digital signal, it can be sent by telephone, telex or satellite to
the receiver where the signal is decoded and an exact copy of the original document is
made. What is it called?
A. Telex

B. Word processor
 C. Facsimile

D. Electronic mail

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

12. Which file transfer protocol uses UDP?

A. NFS

B. TELNET

C. TFTP

D. FTP

E. None of the above

Answer: Option C

13. You are working with a class C network. You are required to configure it for five subnets,
each of which will support 25 nodes. What subnet should you use?
A. 255.255.255.0

B. 255.255.255.224

C. 255.255.255.240

D. 255.255.255.248

E. 255.255.255.252
Answer: Option B

14. A network designer wants to connect 5 routers as point-to-point simplex line. Then the total
number of lines required would be
A. 5

B. 10

C. 20

D. 32

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B

15. Which of the following medium access control technique is used for bus/tree?
A. token ring

B. token bus

C. CSMA
D. MAC

E. None of the above

Answer: Option B
1) This is not a application layer protocol
a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) FTP
d) TCP
ANSWER: d

2)The packet of information at the application layer is called

a) Packet
b) Message
c) Segment
d) Frame
ANSWER: B

3) This is one of the architecture paradigm

a) Peer to peer
b) Client-server
c) HTTP
d) Both a and b
Answer: d

4) Application developer has permission to decide the following on transport layer side
a) Transport layer protocol
b) Maximum buffer size
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c

5) Application layer offers _______ service

a) End to end
b) Process to process
c) Both of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

6) E-mail is
a) Loss-tolerant application
b) Bandwidth-sensitive application
c) Elastic application
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c

7) Pick the odd one out

a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Interactive games
Answer: d

8) Which of the following is an application layer service ?

a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

9) To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the _______
address must be consulted
a) IP
b) MAC
c) Port
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c

10) This is a time-sensitive service

a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Internet telephony
Answer: d

11) Transport services available to applications in one or another form

a) Reliable data transfer
b) Timing
c) Security
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

12) Electronic mail uses this Application layer protocol

a) SMTP
b) HTTP
c) FTP
d) SIP

Answer: a

13. The ____ translates internet domain and host names to IP address.
a) domain name system
b) routing information protocol
c) network time protocol
d) internet relay chat
Answer:a

13. Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to another site
and then pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) telnet
d) none of the mentioned
Answer:c

14. Application layer protocol defines

a) types of messages exchanged
b) message format, syntax and semantics
c) rules for when and how processes send and respond to messages
d) all of the mentioned

Answer:d

15. Which one of the following protocol delivers/stores mail to reciever server?
a) simple mail transfer protocol
b) post office protocol
c) internet mail access protocol
d) hypertext transfer protocol
Answer:a

16. The ASCII encoding of binary data is called

a) base 64 encoding
b) base 32 encoding
c) base 16 encoding
d) base 8 encoding
Answer:a

17. Which one of the following is an internet standard protocol for managing devices on IP
network?
a) dynamic host configuration protocol
b) simple newtwork management protocol
c) internet message access protocol
d) media gateway protocol
Answer:b
18. Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol?
a) media gateway protocol
b) dynamic host configuration protocol
c) resource reservation protocol
d) session initiation protocol
Answer:c

19. Which protocol is a signalling communication protocol used for controlling multimedia
communication sessions?
a) session initiation protocol
b) session modelling protocol
c) session maintenance protocol
d) none of the mentioned
Answer:a

20. Which one of the following is not correct?

a) application layer protocols are used by both source and destination devices during a
communication session
b) application layer protocols implemented on the source and destination host must match
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned
Answer:c

21. When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the
a) HTTP protocol
b) FTP protocol
c) SMTP protocol
d) none of the mentioned
Answer:a

22. Which DNS client maps an address to a name or a name to an address especially when
required by a host?

a. Resolver
b. Mapper
c. Primary Server
d. Secondary Server
ANSWER: a

23. Which intermediaries are more likely to get involved during the transfer function of an e-mail
system?

a. Storage and forwarding of e-mail for certain addresses

b. Act as gateways to other e-mail or messaging systems
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: c

24. Which among the below specified illustrations belongs to the category of GUI based user
agents?

a. mail
b. pine
c. Outlook & Netscape
d. All of the above
ANSWER: c

25. Which phase/s of POP3 allow/s an user agent to retrieve the messages as well as to mark
the messages for deletion purpose?

a. Authorization Phase
b. Transaction Phase
c. Update Phase
d. All of the above
ANSWER: b

Application Layer - MCQs with Answer

Topics >>
Electronics and Communication Engineering >>
Computer Network -07/09/15

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Application Layer - MCQs with Answer

1. Which DNS client maps an address to a name or a name to an address especially when
required by a host?

a. Resolver
b. Mapper
c. Primary Server
d. Secondary Server

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: a. Resolver

2. Which application-level protocol plays a crucial role in carrying out the data definition and
manipulation in addition to X-500 features?

a. TCP
b. LDAP
c. FTP
d. None of the above

View Answer / Hide Answer

3. Which intermediaries are more likely to get involved during the transfer function of an e-mail
system?

a. Storage and forwarding of e-mail for certain addresses

b. Act as gateways to other e-mail or messaging systems
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: c. Both a & b

4. Which among the below specified illustrations belongs to the category of GUI based user
agents?

a. mail
b. pine
c. Outlook & Netscape
d. All of the above

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: c. Outlook & Netscape

5. Which phase/s of POP3 allow/s an user agent to retrieve the messages as well as to mark
the messages for deletion purpose?
a. Authorization Phase
b. Transaction Phase
c. Update Phase
d. All of the above

View Answer / Hide Answer

ANSWER: b. Transaction Phase

26. Consider the assertions given below. Which among them prove to be beneficial for
Persistent HTTP connections?

A. Reduction in latency over the sub-sequent requests

B. Pipeline-oriented connection over the requests and responses

C. Increase in number of packets due to TCP opens

D. Prevention in opening and closing of some TCP connections

a. A & B
b. C & D
c. A & C
d. B & B

ANSWER: a

27. Which URL method of HTTP performs similar function as that of PUT method only with an
exception of request comprising a list of differences that exhibit the necessity to get
implemented in the existing file?

a. POST
b. GET
c. PATCH
d. OPTION
ANSWER: c

28. Which language in WWW specifies a web's way by describing three-dimensional objects?

a. HTML
b. VRML
c. XML
d. UML
ANSWER: b

29. Which field of cookie in WWW represents the server's directory structure by identifying the
utilization of part associated with server's file tree?

a. Domain
b. Path
c. Content
d. Secure

ANSWER: b

30. Which among the below mentioned protocols provides a mechanism of acquiring an IP
address without manual intervention in addition to plug and play type of networking?

a. BOOTP
b. DHCP
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
ANSWER: b
Computer Networks II (CS - 343)
Unit 1 Multiple Choice Quiz

1: What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the Ethernet address 01011010 00010001

01010101 00011000 10101010 00001111?
a. 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0 b. 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F
c. 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F d. 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F
The correct answer is d

2: If an Ethernet destination address is 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a ______

address.
a. unicast b. multicast
c. broadcast d. any of the above
The correct answer is b

3: If an Ethernet destination address is 08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a ______

address.
a. unicast b. multicast
c. broadcast d. any of the above
The correct answer is a

4: Which of the following could not be an Ethernet unicast destination?

a. 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00 b. 44:AA:C1:23:45:32
c. 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4 d. 48:32:21:21:4D:34
The correct answer is a

5: Which of the following could not be an Ethernet multicast destination?

a. B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00 b. 7B:AA:C1:23:45:32
c. 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4 d. 83:32:21:21:4D:34
The correct answer is c

6: _______ is the most widely used local area network protocol.

a. Token Ring b. Token Bus
c. Ethernet d. none of the above
The correct answer is c

7: The IEEE 802.3 Standard defines _________ CSMA/CD as the access method
for first-generation 10-Mbps Ethernet.
a. 1-persistent b. p-persistent
c. non-persistent d. none of the above
The correct answer is a

8: The _______ layer of Ethernet consists of the LLC sublayer and the MAC
sublayer.
a. data link b. physical
c. network d. none of the above
The correct answer is a

9: The _____ sublayer is responsible for the operation of the CSMA/CD access
method and framing.
a. LLC b. MII
c. MAC d. none of the above
The correct answer is c

10: Each station on an Ethernet network has a unique _______ address imprinted
on its network interface card (NIC).
a. 5-byte b. 32-bit
c. 48-bit d. none of the above
The correct answer is c

11: The minimum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is _______bytes.

a. 32 b. 80
c. 128 d. none of the above
The correct answer is d

12: The maximum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is ________ bytes.
a. 1518 b. 1500
c. 1200 d. none of the above
The correct answer is a

13: _________ uses thick coaxial cable.

 a. 10Base5 b. 10Base2
c. 10Base-T d. 10Base-F
The correct answer is a

14: __________ uses thin coaxial cable.

a. 10Base5 b. 10Base2
c. 10Base-T d. 10Base-F
The correct answer is b

15: _________ uses four twisted-pair cables that connect each station to a common
hub.
a. 10Base5 b. 10Base2
c. 10Base-T d. 10Base-F
The correct answer is c

16: ________ uses fiber-optic cable.

a. 10Base5 b. 10Base2
c. 10Base-T d. 10Base-F
The correct answer is d

17: Fast Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps.

a. 10 b. 100
c. 1000 d. 10,000
The correct answer is b

18: In _________, autonegotiation allows two devices to negotiate the mode or data
rate of operation.
a. Fast Ethernet b. Ten-Gigabit Ethernet
c. Gigabit Ethernet d. All of the above
The correct answer is d

19: __________ uses two pairs of twisted-pair cable.

a. 100Base-TX b. 100Base-FX
c. 100Base-T4 d. none of the above
The correct answer is a
20: _________ uses two fiber-optic cables.
a. 100Base-TX b. 100Base-FX
c. 100Base-T4 d. none of the above
The correct answer is b
21: _________ uses four pairs of voice-grade, or higher, twisted-pair cable.
a. 100Base-TX b. 100Base-FX
c. 100Base-T4 d. none of the above
The correct answer is c

22: Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps.

a. 10 b. 100
c. 1000 d. 10,000
The correct answer is c

23: Gigabit Ethernet access methods include _______ mode.

a. half-duplex b. full-duplex
c. both (a) and (b) d. neither (a) nor (b)
The correct answer is c

24: __________ uses two optical fibers and a short-wave laser source,
a. 1000Base-SX b. 1000Base-LX
c. 1000Base-T d. none of the above
The correct answer is a

25: __________uses two optical fibers and a long-wave laser source.

a. 1000Base-SX b. 1000Base-LX
c. 1000Base-T d. none of the above
The correct answer is b

26: __________ uses four twisted pairs.

a. 1000Base-SX b. 1000Base-LX
c. 1000Base-T d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
27: ________ uses short-wave 850-nm multimode fiber.
a. 10GBase-S b. 10GBase-L
c. 10GBase-E d. none of the above
The correct answer is a

28: ________uses long-wave 1310-nm single mode fiber.

a. 10GBase-S b. 10GBase-L
c. 10GBase-E d. none of the above
The correct answer is b

29: ________ uses 1550-mm single mode fiber.

a. 10GBase-S b. 10GBase-L
c. 10GBase-E d. none of the above
The correct answer is c

30: In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 0, the address
is _________.
a. unicast b. multicast
c. broadcast d. none of the above
The correct answer is a

31: In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 1, the address
is _________.
a. unicast b. multicast
c. broadcast d. none of the above
The correct answer is b

32: In Ethernet addressing, if all the bits are 1s, the address is _________.
a. unicast b. multicast
c. broadcast d. none of the above
The correct answer is c

33: ______defines a protocol data unit (PDU) that is somewhat similar to that of
HDLC.
a. MAC b. LLC
 c. LLU d. none of the above
The correct answer is b

34: The purpose of the _______ is to provide flow and error control for the upper-
layer protocols that actually demand these services
a. MAC b. LLC
c. LLU d. none of the above
The correct answer is b
35: In the Ethernet, the _______field is actually added at the physical layer and is
not (formally) part of the frame.
a. CRC b. preamble
c. address d. none of the above
The correct answer is b

36: In the Ethernet frame, the _______ field contains error detection information.
a. CRC b. preamble
c. address d. none of the above
The correct answer is a

37: Standard Ethernet (10-Mbps) uses _______ encoding

a. NRZ b. AMI
c. Manchester d. differential Manchester
The correct answer is c

38: 100Base-TX uses _________ block coding and ________ line coding.
a. 4B/5B; NRZ b. 8B/10B; NRZ
c. 4B/5B; MLT-3 d. 8B/10B; NRZ
The correct answer is c

39: 100Base-FX uses _________ block coding and ________ line coding.
a. 4B/5B; NRZ-I b. 8B/10B; NRZ
c. 4B/5B; MLT-3 d. 8B/10B; NRZ
The correct answer is a

40: 100Base-T4 uses ________ line coding.

a. NRZ b. 8B6T
c. MLT-3 d. Manchester
The correct answer is b

41: 1000Base-SX, 1000Base-LX, and 1000Base-CX use _________ block coding

and ________ line coding.
 a. 4B/5B; NRZ b. 8B/10B; NRZ
c. 4B/5B; MLT-3 d. 8B/10B; NRZ
The correct answer is b

42: 1000Base-T uses ________ line coding.

a. 4D-PAM5 b. 8B6T
c. MLT-3 d. Manchester
The correct answer is a
1: IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN, called _______, which covers the
physical and data link layers.
a. IEEE 802.3
b. IEEE 802.5
c. IEEE 802.11
d. IEEE 802.2
The correct answer is c

2: In IEEE 802.11, a ___ is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations and an optional
central base station, known as the access point (AP).
a. ESS
b. BSS
c. CSS
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b

3: In IEEE 802.11, a BSS without an AP is called an _________.

a. an ad hoc architecture
b. an infrastructure network
c. either (a) or (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)
The correct answer is a

4: In IEEE 802.11, a BSS with an AP is sometimes referred to as ____________.

a. an ad hoc architecture
b. an infrastructure network
c. either (a) or (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)
The correct answer is b

5: In IEEE 802.11, communication between two stations in two different BSSs usually occurs
via two ________.
a. BSSs
b. ESSs
c. APs
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c

6: In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility is either stationary (not moving) or
moving only inside a BSS.
a. no-transition
b. BSS-transition
c. ESS-transition
d. none of the above
The correct answer is a
7: In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________mobility can move from one BSS to another, but
the movement is confined inside one ESS.
a. no-transition
b. BSS-transition
c. ESS-transition
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b

8: In IEEE 802.11, a station with ________ mobility can move from one ESS to another.
a. no-transition
b. BSS-transition
c. ESS-transition
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c

9: In IEEE 802.11, _______ is an optional access method that can be implemented in an

infrastructure network (not in an ad hoc network).
a. DCF
b. PCF
c. either (a) or (b)
d. neither (a) nor (b)
The correct answer is b

10: In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one station in a BSS to another without
passing through the distribution system, the address flag is _____
a. 00
b. 01
c. 10
d. 11
The correct answer is a

11: In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is coming from an AP and going to a station, the address
flag is _______.
a. 00
b. 01
c. 10
d. 11
The correct answer is b

12: In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from a station to an AP, the address flag is
_____.
a. 00
b. 01
c. 10
d. 11
The correct answer is c
13: In IEEE 802.11, when a frame is going from one AP to another AP in a wireless
distribution system, the address flag is _____
a. 00
b. 01
c. 10
d. 11
The correct answer is d

14: The IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LANs defines two services: ______ and
_______.
a. BSS; ASS
b. ESS; SSS
c. BSS; ESS
d. BSS; DCF
The correct answer is c

15: In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the DCF sublayer is _________.
a. ALOHA
b. CSMA/CA
c. CSMA/CD
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b

16: In IEEE 802.11, the access method used in the PCF sublayer is ______.
a. contention
b. controlled
c. polling
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c

17: In IEEE 802.11, the ______ is a timer used for collision avoidance.
a. NAV
b. BSS
c. ESS
d. none of the above
The correct answer is a

18: In IEEE 802.11, the MAC layer frame has ______ fields.
a. four
b. five
c. six
d. none of the above
The correct answer is d
19: In IEEE 802.11, the addressing mechanism can include up to ______addresses.
a. four
b. five
c. six
d. none of the above
The correct answer is a

20: The original IEEE 802.11, uses _________.

a. FHSS
b. DSSS
c. OFDM
d. either (a) or (b)
The correct answer is d

21: The IEEE 802.11a, uses _________.

a. FHSS
b. DSSS
c. OFDM
d. either (a) or (b)
The correct answer is c

22: The IEEE 802.11b, uses _________.

a. FHSS
b. DSSS
c. OFDM
d. either (a) or (b)
The correct answer is b

23: The IEEE 802.11g, uses _________.

a. FHSS
b. DSSS
c. OFDM
d. either (a) or (b)
The correct answer is c

24: The original IEEE 802.11, has a data rate of _____Mbps.

a. 1
b. 6
c. 11
d. 22
The correct answer is a

25: IEEE 802.11a, has a data rate of _____Mbps.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 6
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c

26: IEEE 802.11b, has a data rate of _____Mbps.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 5.5
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c

27: IEEE 802.11g, has a data rate of _____Mbps.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 11
d. 22
The correct answer is d

28: The IEEE 802.11 wireless LANs use ________ types of frames.
a. four
b. five
c. six
d. none of the above
The correct answer is d

29: Bluetooth is a _______ technology that connects devices (called gadgets) in a small
area.
a. wired LAN
b. wireless LAN
c. VLAN
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b

30: A Bluetooth network is called a ________.

a. piconet
b. scatternet
c. bluenet
d. none of the above
The correct answer is a

31: In Bluetooth, multiple ________ form a network called a _________.

a. scatternet; piconets
b. piconets: scatternet
c. piconets: bluenet
d. bluenet; scatternet
The correct answer is b
32: A Bluetooth network consists of _____ primary device(s) and up to ____ secondary
devices.
a. one; five
b. five; three
c. two; six
d. one; seven
The correct answer is d

33: The RTS and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the hidden station problem. The RTS
and CTS frames in CSMA/CA ____ solve the exposed station problem.
a. can; cannot
b. cannot; can
c. can; can
d. cannot; cannot
The correct answer is a

34: In Bluetooth, the current data rate is ____Mbps

a. 2
b. 5
c. 11
d. none of the above
The correct answer is d

35: In Bluetooth, the _______ layer is roughly equivalent to the physical layer of the Internet
model.
a. radio
b. baseband
c. L2CAP
d. none of the above
The correct answer is a

36: In Bluetooth, the _____layer is roughly equivalent to the MAC sublayer in LANs.
a. radio
b. baseband
c. L2CAP
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b

37: In Bluetooth, the L2CAP sublayer, is roughly equivalent to the LLC sublayer in LANs.
a. radio
b. baseband
c. L2CAP
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
38: The access method in Bluetooth is ________.
a. FDMA
b. TDD-TDMA
c. CDMA
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b

39: In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when avoiding latency (delay in data delivery) is
more important than integrity (error-free delivery).
a. SCO
b. ACL
c. ACO
d. SCL
The correct answer is a

40: In Bluetooth, the _____ link is used when data integrity is more important than avoiding
latency.
a. SCO
b. ACL
c. ACO
d. SCL
The correct answer is b

41: Bluetooth uses ______method in the physical layer to avoid interference from other
devices or other networks.
a. DSSS
b. FHSS
c. FDMA
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b
Computer Networks (CS: 343)
Unit 3 MCQs
1: An IPv4 address consists of _______ bits.
a. 4 b. 8
c. 32 d. 64
The correct answer is c

2: In IPv4, class _______ has the greatest number of addresses in each block.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
The correct answer is a

3: Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 4.5.6.7.

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. none of the above
The correct answer is a
Your answer is a
Feedback :

CORRECT
4: Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 229.1.2.3.
a. A
b. B
c. D
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
5: Identify the class of the following IPv4 address: 191.1.2.3.
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b
Your answer is b
Feedback :

CORRECT
6: What is the result of ANDing 255 and 15?
a. 255
b. 15
c. 0
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b
Your answer is b
Feedback :

CORRECT
7: What is the result of ANDing 0 and 15?
a. 255
b. 15
c. 0
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
8: What is the result of ANDing 254 and 15?
a. 254
b. 14
c. 0
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b
Your answer is b
Feedback :

CORRECT
9: What is the result of ANDing 192 and 65?
a. 192
b. 65
c. 64
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :
CORRECT
10: Which one is not a contiguous mask?
a. 255.255.255.254
b. 255.255.224.0
c. 255.148.0.0
d. all are
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
11: The number of addresses in a class C block is _______.
a. 65,534
b. 16,777,216
c. 256
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
12: The number of addresses in a class B block is _______.
a. 65,536
b. 16,777,216
c. 256
d. none of the above
The correct answer is a
Your answer is a
Feedback :

CORRECT
13: The number of addresses in a class A block is _______.
a. 65,534
b. 16,777,216
c. 256
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b
Your answer is b
Feedback :

CORRECT
14: The number of addresses assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______.
 a. can be any number
b. must be a multiple of 256
c. must be a power of 2
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
15: The first address assigned to an organization in classless addressing _______.
a. must be a power of 4
b. must be evenly divisible by the number of addresses
c. must belong to one of the A, B, or C classes
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b
Your answer is b
Feedback :

CORRECT
16: Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 32 classless addresses?
a. 2.4.6.5
b. 2.4.6.16
c. 2.4.6.64
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
17: Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 16 classless addresses?
a. 2.4.6.5
b. 2.4.6.15
c. 2.4.6.62
d. none of the above
The correct answer is d
Your answer is d
Feedback :

CORRECT
18: Which address could be the beginning address of a block of 256 classless addresses?
a. 2.4.6.5
b. 2.4.6.15
c. 2.4.6.0
 d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
19: What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses
is 12.2.2.76/27?
a. 12.2.2.0
b. 12.2.2.32
c. 12.2.2.64
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
20: What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses
is 12.2.2.76/10?
a. 12.0.0.0
b. 12.2.0.0
c. 12.2.2.2
d. none of the above
The correct answer is a
Your answer is a
Feedback :

CORRECT
21: What is the first address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses
is 12.2.2.127/28?
a. 12.2.2.0
b. 12.2.2.96
c. 12.2.2.112
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
22: Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses
is 12.2.2.7/24.
a. 32
b. 64
 c. 256
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
23: Find the number of addresses in a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses
is 12.2.2.7/30.
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b
Your answer is b
Feedback :

CORRECT
24: What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses
is 12.2.2.127/28?
a. 12.2.2.16
b. 12.2.2.112
c. 12.2.2.127
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
25: What is the last address of a block of classless addresses if one of the addresses
is 12.2.2.6/30?
a. 12.2.2.2
b. 12.2.2.6
c. 12.2.2.7
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
26: An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/20. The organization needs
10 subnets. What is the subnet prefix length?
a. /20
 b. /24
c. /25
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b
Your answer is b
Feedback :

CORRECT
27: An organization is granted a block; one address is 2.2.2.64/25. If the subnet prefix length
is /28, what is the maximum number of subnets?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 8
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
28: An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting
address 199.34.76.64/28. How many addresses are granted?
a. 8
b. 16
c. 32
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b
Your answer is b
Feedback :

CORRECT
29: An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting
address 199.34.76.128/29. How many addresses are granted?
a. 8
b. 16
c. 32
d. none of the above
The correct answer is a
Your answer is a
Feedback :

CORRECT
30: An organization is granted a block of classless addresses with the starting
address 199.34.32.0/27. How many addresses are granted?
 a. 8
b. 16
c. 32
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
31: What is the default mask for class A in CIDR notation?
a. /9
b. /8
c. /16
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b
Your answer is b
Feedback :

CORRECT
32: What is the default mask for class B in CIDR notation?
a. /9
b. /8
c. /16
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
33: What is the default mask for class C in CIDR notation?
a. /24
b. /8
c. /16
d. none of the above
The correct answer is a
Your answer is a
Feedback :

CORRECT
34: In classless addressing, the ______ is another name for the common part of the address
range.
a. suffix
b. prefix
 c. netid
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b
Your answer is b
Feedback :

CORRECT
35: In classless addressing, the _______ is the varying part (similar to the hostid).
a. suffix
b. prefix
c. hostid
d. none of the above
The correct answer is a
Your answer is a
Feedback :

CORRECT
36: In classless addressing, the prefix length defines the _____________.
a. netid
b. hostid
c. mask
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
37: In a block, the prefix length is /24; what is the mask?
a. 255.255.255.0
b. 255.255.242.0
c. 255.255.0.0
d. none of the above
The correct answer is a
Your answer is a
Feedback :

CORRECT
38: In a block, the prefix length is /15; what is the mask?
a. 255.254.0.0
b. 255.255.255.0
c. 255.255.255.128
d. none of the above
The correct answer is a
Your answer is a
Feedback :

CORRECT
39: In a block, the mask is 255.255.192.0; what is the prefix length?
a. /20
b. /28
c. /18
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
40: An IPv6 address is _________ bits long.
a. 32
b. 64
c. 128
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
41: An IPv6 address consists of ________ bytes (octets);
a. 4
b. 8
c. 16
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is c
Feedback :

CORRECT
42: To make addresses more readable, IPv6 specifies ____________notation.
a. dotted decimal
b. hexadecimal colon
c. both a and b
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b
Your answer is b
Feedback :
INCORRECT
43: In hexadecimal colon notation, a 128-bit address is divided into _______ sections, each
_____ hexadecimal digits in length.
a. 8: 2
b. 8: 3
c. 8: 4
d. none of the above
The correct answer is c
Your answer is a
Feedback :

CORRECT
44: An IPv6 address can have up to __________ colons.
a. 8
b. 7
c. 4
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b
Your answer is b
Feedback :

CORRECT
45: An IPv6 address can have up to __________ hexadecimal digits.
a. 16
b. 32
c. 8
d. none of the above
The correct answer is b
Your answer is b
Feedback :

CORRECT
46: In IPv6, _______ address defines a single computer.
a. a unicast
b. a multicast
c. an anycast
d. none of the above
The correct answer is a

47: In IPv6, ____ address defines a group of computers with addresses that have the same
prefix.
a. a unicast b. a multicast
c. an anycast d. none of the above
The correct answer is c

48: In IPv6, _________ address defines a group of computers.

a. a unicast b. a multicast
c. an anycast d. none of the above
The correct answer is b

49: In IPv6, the ________ prefix defines the purpose of the address.
a. type b. purpose
c. both a and b d. none of the above
The correct answer is a

50: In IPv6, the___________ address is generally used by a normal host as a unicast

address.
a. provider-based unicast b. link local
c. site local d. none of the above
The correct answer is a
Your answer is a

51: In IPv6, a _________address comprises 80 bits of zero, followed by 16 bits of one,

followed by the 32-bit IPv4 address.
a. link local b. site local
c. mapped d. none of the above
The correct answer is c

52: In IPv6, a ___________ address is an address of 96 bits of zero followed by 32 bits of

IPv4 address.
a. link local b. site local
c. mapped d. none of the above
The correct answer is d

53: In IPv6, a _______ address is used if a LAN uses the Internet protocols but is not
connected to the Internet for security reasons.
a. link local b. site local
c. mapped d. none of the above
The correct answer is a

54: In IPv6, a ______address is used if a site with several networks uses the Internet
protocols but is not connected to the Internet for security reasons.
a. link local b. site local
c. mapped d. none of the above
The correct answer is b
 Computer Networking II

MKSSS's Shri Siddhivinayak Mahila Mahavidyalaya , Karve Nagar, Pune-52

Department of Computer Science TYBSc(CS) SEM II CS-343 Computer Networking II Question Bank
Sr. Question Option 1 Option 2 Option 3 Option 4
No.
1 Physical or logical arrangement of network is ______ Topology Routing Networking Control
2 Which network topology requires a central controller or hub Star Mesh Ring Bus
3 _______ topology requires a multipoint connection. Star Mesh Ring Bus
4 Data communication system spanning states, countries, or the whole world is LAN WAN MAN PAN
________
5 Data communication system within a building or campus is________ LAN WAN MAN PAN
6 WAN stands for __________ World area network Wide area network Web area network Web access network
7 In TDM, slots are further divided into __________ Seconds Frames Packets Bits
8 WLANs use high power levels and generally require a license for spectrum true FALSE
use.
9 Which of the following specifies a set of media access control (MAC) and IEEE 802.16 IEEE 802.3 IEEE 802.11 IEEE 802.15
physical layer specifications for implementing WLANs?
10 The network layer is concerned with __________ of data. bits frames packets bytes
11 Which one of the following is not a function of network layer? routing inter-networking congestion control error control
12 A 4 byte IP address consists of __________ only network address only host address network address & host network address & MAC
address address
13 In virtual circuit network each packet contains ___________ full source and destination a short VC number only source address only destination address
address
14 Which of the following is not correct in relation to multi-destination routing? is same as broadcast contains the list of all data is not sent by packets there are multiple receivers
routing destinations
15 A subset of a network that includes all the routers but contains no loops is spanning tree spider structure spider tree special tree
called ________
16 Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control? traffic aware routing admission control load shedding routing information protoco
17 The network layer protocol for internet is ________ ethernet internet protocol hypertext transfer protocol file transfer protocol
18 Which is a reason for avoiding doing route redistribution on two routers Higher cost of two routers Routing feedback Cisco IOS incompatibility Not possible to use two
between the same two routing domains? routers
19 Which of the following is false with respect to TCP? Connection-oriented Process-to-process Transport layer protocol Unreliable
20 In TCP, sending and receiving data is done as ______ Stream of bytes Sequence of characters Lines of data Packets
21 TCP process may not write and read data at the same speed. So we need Packets Buffers Segments Stack
__________ for storage.
22 TCP groups a number of bytes together into a packet called _______ Packets Buffers Segments Stack
23 Communication offered by TCP is ________ Full-duplex Half-duplex Semi-duplex Byte by byte

1
 Computer Networking II

24 To achieve reliable transport in TCP, ___________ is used to check the safe Packet Buffer Segments Acknowledgment
and sound arrival of data.
25 In segment header, sequence number and acknowledgement number fields Byte number Buffer number Segment number Acknowledgment
refer to _______
26 Suppose a TCP connection is transferring a file of 1000 bytes. The first byte is 10000 10001 12001 11001
numbered 10001. What is the sequence number of the segment if all data is
sent in only one segment?
27 Bytes of data being transferred in each connection are numbered by TCP. Fixed number Random sequence of 0’s One Sequence of zero’s and
These numbers start with a ________ and 1’s one’s
28 The value of acknowledgement field in a segment defines _______ sequence number of the total number of bytes to sequence number of the sequence of zeros and ones
byte received previously receive next byte to be received
29 In the layer hierarchy as the data packet moves from the upper to the lower Added Removed Rearranged Modified
layers, headers are ___________
30 Communication between a computer and a keyboard involves Automatic Half-duplex Full-duplex Simplex
______________ transmission
31 Which of this is not a network edge device? PC Smartphones Servers Switch
32 Protocols are set of rules to govern _________ Communication Standard Metropolitan Bandwidth
communication
33 An internet is a __________ Collection of WANS Network of networks Collection of LANS Collection of identical
LANS and WANS
34 Checksum is used in Internet by several protocols although not at the Session layer Transport layer Network layer Data link layer
_________
35 In version field of IPv4 header, when machine is using some other version of Discarded Accepted Interpreted Interpreted incorrectly
IPv4 then datagram is ______
36 Network layer at source is responsible for creating a packet from data coming Station Link Node Protocol
from another ______
37 Header of datagram in IPv4 has _________ 0 to 20 bytes 20 to 40 bytes 20 to 60 bytes 20 to 80 bytes
38 In IPv4 layer, datagram is of ________ Fixed length Variable length Global length Zero length
39 In IPv4, service type of service in header field, first 3 bits are called ______ Type of service Code bits Sync bits Precedence bits
40 Which is a link layer protocol? ARP TCP UDP HTTP
41 Which of the following is false with respect to UDP? Connection-oriented Unreliable ransport layer protocol Low overhead
42 Beyond IP, UDP provides additional services such as _______ Routing and switching Sending and receiving of Multiplexing and Demultiplexing and error
packets demultiplexing checking
43 What is the main advantage of UDP? More overload Reliable Low overhead Fast
44 The ______ field is used to detect errors over the entire user datagram. udp header checksum source port destination port
45 Which of the following is not applicable for IP? Error reporting Handle addressing Datagram format Packet handling
conventions conventions

2
 Computer Networking II

46 Which of the following field in IPv4 datagram is not related to fragmentation Flags Offset TOS Identifier
47 Which of these is not applicable for IP protocol? is connectionless offer reliable service offer unreliable service does not offer error
reporting
48 Which field helps to check rearrangement of the fragments? offset flag ttl identifer
49 IP Security operates in which layer of the OSI model? Network Transport Application Physical
50 Two broad categories of congestion control are Open-loop and Closed-loop Open-control and Closed- Active control and Passive Active loop and Passive
control control loop
51 In open-loop control, policies are applied to _________ Remove after congestion Remove after sometime Prevent before congestion Prevent before sending
occurs occurs packets
52 . Retransmission of packets must not be done when ____ Packet is lost Packet is corrupted Packet is needed Packet is error-free
53 Closed-Loop control mechanisms try to _____ Remove after congestion Remove after sometime Prevent before congestion Prevent before sending
occurs occurs packets
54 The technique in which a congested node stops receiving data from the Admission policy Backpressure Forward signaling Backward signaling
immediate upstream node or nodes is called as _______
55 Backpressure technique can be applied only to __ Congestion networks Closed circuit networks Open circuit networks Virtual circuit networks
56 The packet sent by a node to the source to inform it of congestion is called Explicit Discard Choke Backpressure
_______
57 In the slow-start algorithm, the size of the congestion window increases exponentially additively multiplicatively suddenly
__________ until it reaches a threshold
58 The address that is unique in the scope of the network or internationally if the Global address Network address Physical address IP address
network is part of an international network is called as ______
59 The Identifier that is used for data transfer in virtual circuit network is called Global address Virtual circuit identifier Network identifier IP identifier
_____
60 During teardown phase, the source, after sending all the frames to destination, teardown response teardown request termination request termination response
sends a _____ to notify termination.
61 The data link layer takes the packets from _________ and encapsulates them network layer physical layer transport layer application layer
into frames for transmission.
62 Which of the following tasks is not done by data link layer? framing error control flow control channel coding
63 CRC stands for __________ cyclic redundancy check code repeat check code redundancy check cyclic repeat check
64 Which of the following is a data link protocol? ethernet point to point protocol hdlc all of the mentioned
65 The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing acknowledgements so that piggybacking cyclic redundancy check fletcher’s checksum parity check
they can be hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is called ___
66 . Expansion of FTP is __________ Fine Transfer Protocol File Transfer Protocol First Transfer Protocol Fast Transfer Protocol
67 FTP is built on _____ architecture. Client-server P2P Data centric Service oriented
68 FTP uses _________ parallel TCP connections to transfer a file. 1 2 3 5
69 Identify the incorrect statement regarding FTP. FTP stands for File FTP uses two parallel TCP FTP sends its control FTP sends exactly one file
Transfer Protocol connections information in-band over the data connection

3
 Computer Networking II

70 FTP server _____________ Maintains state information Is stateless Has single TCP connection Has UDP connection for
for a file transfer file transfer
71 The password is sent to the server using ________ command PASSWD PASS PASSWORD PWORD
72 Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP) utilizes _________ as the transport TCP UDP DCCP SCTP
layer protocol for electronic mail transfer.
73 SMTP connections secured by SSL are known as __________ SMTPS SSMTP SNMP STARTTLS
74 SMTP uses which of the following TCP port? 22 23 74 25
75 Which one of the following protocol is used to receive mail messages? SMTP POP IMAP FTP
76 What is on-demand mail relay (ODMR)? protocol for SMTP security an SMTP extension protocol for web pages protocol for faster mail
transfer
78 An email client needs to know the _________ of its initial SMTP server. IP address MAC address URL Name
79 An SMTP session may not include _______ zero SMTP transaction one SMTP transaction more than one SMTP one HTTP transaction
transaction
80 SMTP defines _______ message transport message encryption message content message password
81 Which one of the following is an SMTP server configured in such a way that open mail relay wide mail reception open mail reception short mail reception
anyone on the internet can send e-mail through it?
82 SMTP is not used to deliver messages to ______ user’s terminal user’s mailbox user’s word processor user’s email client
83 An asymmetric-key cipher uses 1 Key 2 Key 3 key 4 key
84 .Which one of the following protocol is used to secure HTTP connection? Resource reservation Transport layer security Xplicit congestion Stream control transmission
protocol (TSL) notification (ECN) protocol (SCTP)
85 Cryptography term is used to transforming messages to make them secure and Change Defend Idle Attacks
to prevent from
86 Shift cipher is also referred to as the Caesar cipher cipher text Shift cipher None of the above
87 Which one is the Heart of Data Encryption Standard (DES)? DES function Encryption Rounds Cipher
88 DES stands for………………… Data Encryption Slots Data Encryption Data Encryption Standard Data Encryption Solutions
Subscription
89 Encryption algorithm is used to transforms plaintext into…………… Simple Text Cipher Text Empty Text None of the above
90 What is cipher in Cryptography ? Algorithm for performing Algorithm for performing Encrpted Messages Both algorithm for
encryption decryption performing encryption and
Decryption and encrypted
message
91 The message before being transformed, is Simple Text Cipher Text Empty Text plain text
92 Which technique is used for data protection ?. Data piracy Authentication Encryption None of these
93 ________are the types of firewalls. Packet Filtering Dual Homed Gateway Both A and B None of these
94 In networks protocol TCP/ IP stands for. Transaction control Transmission control Transmission contribution None of these
protocol protocol protocol
95 Which of the following services use TCP? DHCP SMTP HTTP TFTP

4
 Computer Networking II

96 What layer in the TCP/IP stack is equivalent to the Transport layer of the OSI Application Host-to-Host Internet Network Access
model?
97 You want to implement a mechanism that automates the IP configuration, SMTP SNMP DHCP ARP
including IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS information.
Which protocol will you use to accomplish this?
98 The DoD model (also called the TCP/IP stack) has four layers. Which layer of Application Host-to-Host Internet Network Access
the DoD model is equivalent to the Network layer of the OSI model?
99 Which of the following services use UDP? DHCP SMTP SNMP TFTP
100 Which statements are true regarding ICMP packets? ICMP guarantees datagram ICMP can provide hosts ICMP is encapsulated ICMP is encapsulated
delivery. with information about within IP datagrams. within UDP datagrams.
network problems.
101 Which layer 4 protocol is used for a Telnet connection? IP TCP TCP/IP UDP

5
 T.Y. B. Sc. COMPUTER SCIENCE
Computer Networks -II
CH:1 Wired LANs

1) The technique of temporarily delaying outgoing acknowledgements so that they can be

hooked onto the next outgoing data frame is known as
a) Bit stuffing
b) Piggy backing
c) Pipelining
d) 1Broadcasting
Answer: (b).

2) The data link layer takes the packets from _________ and encapsulates them into frames
for transmission.
a) network layer
b) physical layer
c) transport layer
d) application layer
Answer: a

3) Which of the following tasks is not done by data link layer?

a) framing
b) error control
c) flow control
d) channel coding

Answer: d
Explanation: Channel coding is the function of physical layer. Data link layer mainly deals with
framing, error control and flow control. Data link layer is the layer where the packets are
encapsulated into frames.

4) Which sublayer of the data link layer performs data link functions that depend upon the
type of medium?
a) logical link control sublayer
b) media access control sublayer
c) network interface control sublayer
d) error control sublayer
Answer:b
Explanation: Media access control (MAC) deals with transmission of data packets to and from the
network-interface card, and also to and from another remotely shared channel. The MAC sublayer
also prevents collision using protocols like CSMA/CD.

5) Header of a frame generally contains ______________

a) synchronization bytes
b) addresses
c) frame identifier
d) all of the mentioned
Answer:d
Explanation: In a frame, the header is a part of the data that contains all the required information
about the transmission of the file. It contains information like synchronization bytes, addresses,
frame identifier etc. It also contains error control information for reducing the errors in the
transmitted frames.

6) Ethernet frame consists of ____________

a) MAC address
b) IP address
c) Default mask
d) Network address

Answer: a
Explanation: The Ethernet frame has a header that contains the source and destination MAC
address. Each MAC address is of 48 bits.

7) MAC address is of ___________

a) 24 bits
b) 36 bits
c) 42 bits
d) 48 bits

Answer: d
Explanation: MAC address is like a local address for the NIC that is used to make a local Ethernet
(or wifi) network function. It is of 48 bits.

8) What is the hexadecimal address 01011010 00010001 01010101 00011000 10101010

00001111?
a) 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0
b) 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F
c) 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F
d) C.5A:11:55:18:AA:0F

Answer: B
9) The field of the MAC frame that alerts the receiver and enables it to synchronize is known
as
a) SFD
b) Preamble
c) Source address
d) Destination address
Answer : b Preamble

10) Preamble contains

a) 6 Bytes
b) 4 Byres
c) 2 Bytes
d) 7 Bytes
Answer : d 7 Bytes

11) A destination address can be

a) Unicast
b) Multicast
c) Broadcast
d) All of above
Answer : d

12) In Ethernet frame both source and destination address are of length
a) 1 Bytes
b) 2 Bytes
c) 4 Bytes
d) 6 Bytes
Answer : 6 Bytes

13) The ethernet frame contains

a) 3 Fields
b) 5 Fields
c) 7 Fields
d) 9 Fields
Answer : c 7 Fields

14) NIC stand for

a) Network Interface Card
b) National Internet Code
c) Network Isolated Card
d) Network International Code
Answer : a Network Interface Card

15) A Source address is always as

a) Unicast
b) Multicast
c) Broadcast
d) All of above
Answer : a Unicast

16) In Ethernet frame the flag of the Start Frame Delimiter (SFD) is
a) 11000011
b) 10101011
c) 10010011
d) 11011011
Answer : b 10101011

17) The CRC Field is used to show the

a) Error Correction
b) Sender Address
c) Receiver Address
d) Error detection information
Answer : d Error detection information

18) The Minimum and Maximum length of data in ethernet frame is

a) 64 Bytes and 1518 Bytes
b) 46 Bytes and 1500 Bytes
c) 48 Bytes and 1500 Bytes
d) 46 Bytes and 1518 Bytes
Answer : b Minimum 46 Bytes and Maximum 1500 Bytes

19) The Minimum and Maximum length of Ethernet frame is

a) 64 Bytes and 1518 Bytes
b) 46 Bytes and 1500 Bytes
c) 48 Bytes and 1500 Bytes
d) 46 Bytes and 1518 Bytes
Answer : a Minimum 64Bytes and Maximum 1518 Bytes

20) In 10Base5, the cable is

a) Thin
b) Thick
c) Twisted pair
d) None of the above
Answer : b Thick

21) In 10Base2 , the cable is

a) Thin
b) Thick
c) Twisted pair
d) None of the above
Answer : a Thin

22) In 10Base-T , the cable is

a) Thin
b) Thick
c) Twisted pair
d) None of the above
Answer : c Twisted pair

23) In 10Base-FL, the cable is

a) Thick
b) Twisted pair
c) Fiber Optic
d) Thin
Answer : c Fiber Optic

24) 10Base T is used to connect the station by using

a) Star Topology
b) Bus Topology
c) Ring Topology
d) Mesh Topology
Answer : a Star Topology

25) Header plus trailer of Ethernet is

a) 12 Bytes
b) 14 Bytes
c) 16 Bytes
d) 18 Bytes
Answer : d 18 Bytes

26) This is a device that can be used to connect one Ethernet network to another nearby
Ethernet network.
a) gateway
b) switch
c) bridge
d) forwarder
Answer c brige

27) If an Ethernet destination address is 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a ______ address.

a) unicast
b) multicast
c) broadcast
d) any of the above
Answer b Multicast

LSB of 1st octate 0 in unicast

LSB of 1 Multicast
ALL 1 Broadcast for above example its 1 hence it is multicast

28) The _______ layer of Ethernet consists of the LLC sublayer and the MAC sublayer.
a) data link
b) physical
c) network
d) none of the above

Answer : a data link

29) The _____ sublayer is responsible for the operation of the CSMA/CD access method and
framing.
a) LLC
b) MII
c) MAC
d) none of the above
Answer : c MAC

30) Fast Ethernet has a data rate of ________Mbps.

a) 10
b) 100
c) 1000
d) 10,000
Answer : b 100Mbps

31) Gigabit Ethernet access methods include _______ mode.

a) half-duplex
b) full-duplex
c) both (a) and (b)
d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer: (c).both (a) a(b)

32) In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 0, the address is
_________.
a) Unicast
b) multicast
c) broadcast
d) none of the above

Answer: (a).unicast

33) In Ethernet addressing, if the least significant bit of the first byte is 1, the address is
_________.
a) Unicast
b) Multicast
c) Broadcast
d) None of the above

Answer: (b).multicast

34) In Ethernet addressing, if all the bits are 1s, the address is _________.
a) Unicast
b) Multicast
c) Broadcast
d) None of the above

Answer: (c).broadcast

35) A hub is used in ......................... Ethernet.

a) 10Base 5
b) 10Base 2
c) 10Base – T
d) 10Base – F
Answer: (c).10Base – T

36) A transceiver cable is used in ......................... Ethernet.

a) 10Base 5
b) 10Base 2
c) 10Base – T
d) 10Base – F

Answer: (a).10Base 5

37) VLANs provides

a) time-efficiency and security
b) reduce network traffic
c) both a and b
d) None of the Above
Answer : c Both a and c

38) Virtual LANs create

a) broadcast domains
b) limited domains
c) metropolitan area domains
d) All of the Above

Answer: (a).broadcast domains

39) In backbone network, the topology of the backbone is

a) bus
b) star
c) mesh
d) ring

Answer: a

40) By using fast Ethernet two stations are connected via

a) point to point
b) Switch
c) Hub
d) Bridge

Answer: (a).point to point

41) Gigabit Ethernet has a data rate of

a) 100 Mbps
b) 1000 Mbps
c) 1500 Mbps
d) 2000 Mbps

Answer : B 1000 Mbps

42) The latest Ethernet standard is Ten-Gigabit Ethernet operates at

a) 2 Gbps
b) 6 Gbps
c) 8 Gbps
d) 10 Gbps

Answer: (d).10 Gbps

43) 10 Gigabit Ethernet operates only in

a) Duplex Mode
b) Half Duplex Mode
c) Quadratic Duplex Mode
d) Full Duplex Mode

Answer: (d).Full Duplex Mode

44) Which station characteristics can be used to group stations into a VLAN
a) Port Number
b) MAC Address
c) IP Address
d) All of the above
Answer : d All of the above

45) In a VLAN, stations are separated into group by

a) Physical methods
b) Software methods
c) Location
d) Switches

Answer : b Software Methods

 T.Y. B. Sc. COMPUTER SCIENCE
Computer Networks -II
CH:2 Wiredless LANs
1. What is the access point (AP) in a wireless LAN?
a) device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network
b) wireless devices itself
c) both device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network and wireless devices
itself
d) all the nodes in the network
Answer: a
Explanation: Access point in a wireless network is any device that will allow the wireless
devices to a wired network. A router is the best example of an Access Point.

2. In wireless ad-hoc network _________

a) access point is not required
b) access point is must
c) nodes are not required
d) all nodes are access points
Answer: a
Explanation: An ad-hoc wireless network is a decentralized kind of a wireless network. An
access point is usually a central device and it would go against the rules of the ad-hoc network to
use one. Hence it is not required.

3. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
a) CDMA
b) CSMA/CA
c) ALOHA
d) CSMA/CD
Answer: b
Explanation: CSMA/CA stands for Carrier-sense multiple access/collision avoidance. It is a
multiple access protocol used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN. It’s based on the
principle of collision avoidance by using different algorithms to avoid collisions between
channels.

4. In wireless distribution system __________

a) multiple access point are inter-connected with each other
b) there is no access point
c) only one access point exists
d) access points are not required
Answer: a
Explanation: A Wireless Distribution System allows the connection of multiple access points
together. It is used to expand a wireless network to a larger network.

5. A wireless network interface controller can work in _______

a) infrastructure mode
b) ad-hoc mode
c) both infrastructure mode and ad-hoc mode
d) WDS mode
Answer: c
Explanation: A wireless network interface controller works on the physical layer and the data
link layer of the OSI model. Infrastructure mode WNIC needs access point but in ad-hoc mode
access point is not required.

6. In wireless network an extended service set is a set of ________

a) connected basic service sets
b) all stations
c) all access points
d) connected access points
Answer: a
Explanation: The extended service set is a part of the IEEE 802.11 WLAN architecture and is
used to expand the range of the basic service set by allowing connection of multiple basic service
sets.

7. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN.

a) time division multiplexing
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing
Answer: b
Explanation: In orthogonal frequency division multiplexing, digital data is encoded on multiple
carrier frequencies. It is also used in digital television and audio broadcasting in addition to
Wireless LANs.

8. Which one of the following event is not possible in wireless LAN?

a) collision detection
b) acknowledgement of data frames
c) multi-mode data transmission
d) connection to wired networks
Answer: a
Explanation: Collision detection is not possible in wireless LAN with no extensions. Collision
detection techniques for multiple access like CSMA/CD are used to detect collisions in Wireless
LANs.

9. What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?

a) security algorithm for ethernet
b) security algorithm for wireless networks
c) security algorithm for usb communication
d) security algorithm for emails
Answer: b
Explanation: WEP is a security algorithm for wireless network which intended to provide data
confidentiality comparable to that of traditional wired networks. It was introduced in 1997.

10. What is WPA?

a) wi-fi protected access
b) wired protected access
c) wired process access
d) wi-fi process access
Answer: a
Explanation: WPA or WiFi Protected Access is a security protocol used to provide users and
firms with strong data security and protection for their wireless networks (WiFi) to give them
confidence that only authorized users can access their network.

11. IEEE has defined the specifications for a wireless LAN,called________, which covers
the physical and data link layers.
a) IEEE 802.3
b) IEEE 802.5
c) IEEE 802.11
d) IEEE 802.2
Answer : C

12. In IEEE 802.11, a is made of stationary or mobile wireless stations and an optional
central base station, known as the access point (AP).
a) ESS
b) BSS
c) CSS
d) none of the above
Answer : B

13. In IEEE802.11, a ESS without an AP is called

a) an ad hoc architecture
b) an infrastructure network
c) either (a) or (b)
 d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer : A

14. In IEEE802.11, a ESS with an AP is sometime referred to as ________________

a) an ad hoc architecture
b) an infrastructure network
c) either (a) or (b)
d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer : B

15. In IEEE802.11, Communication between two stations in two different BSSs usually
occurs via two________.
a) BSSs
b) ESSs
c) APs
d) None of the above
Answer : C

16. In IEEE 802.11, a station with __________mobility is either stationary (not moving) or
moving only inside a BSS.
a) no-transition
b) BSS-transition
c) ESS-transition
d) none of the above
Answer : A

17. In IEEE 802.11, a station with_______mobility can move from one BSS to another, but
the movement is confined inside one ESS.
a) no-transition
b) BSS-transition
c) ESS-transition
d) none of the above
Answer : B

18. In IEEE 802.11, a station with___________mobility can move from one ESS to another.
a) no-transition
b) BSS-transition
c) ESS-transition
d) none of the above
Answer :C

19. In IEEE 802.11, _____is an optional access method that can be implemented in an
infrastructure network (or it in an adhoc network).
a) DCF
b) PCF
c) either (a) or (b)
d) neither (a) nor (b)
Answer : PCF

20. The IEEE 802.11 s andard for wireless LANs defines two services:
a) BSS; ASS
b) ESS; SSS
c) BSS; ESS
d) BSS; DCF
Answer : C

21. Bluetooth is a ________technology that connect (called gadgets) in a small area

a) wired LAN
b) wireless LAN
c) VLAN
d) none of the above
Answer : B

22. A Bluetooth network is called a ______________ .

a) piconet
 b) scatternet
c) bluenet
d) none of the above
Answer : A

23. In Bluetooth, multiple_________form a network called a____________

a) scatternet; piconets
b) piconets: scatternet
c) piconets: bluenet
d) bluenet; scatternet
Answer : B

24. A Bluetooth network consists of_____ primary device(s) and up to_____secondary

devices.
a) one; five
b) five; three
c) two; six
d) one; seven
Answer : D

25. In Bluetooth, the current data rate is ______Mbps

a) 2
b) 5
c) 11
d) none of the above
Answer : D
Correct Answer : 1mbps
 Unit 1 – Wired LAN
1. What is the hexadecimal equivalent of the Ethernet address 01011010 00010001 01010101
00011000 10101010 00001111?
A. 5A:88:AA:18:55:F0
B. 5A:81:BA:81:AA:0F
C. 5A:11:55:18:AA:0F
D. 5A:18:5A:18:55:0F

2. If an Ethernet destination address is 07:01:02:03:04:05, then this is a __________ address.

A. unicast
B. multicast
C. broadcast
D. any of the above

3. If an Ethernet destination address is 08:07:06:05:44:33, then this is a _________address.

A. unicast
B. multicast
C. broadcast
D. any of the above

4. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet unicast destination?

A. 43:7B:6C:DE:10:00
B. 44:AA:C1:23:45:32
C. 46:56:21:1A:DE:F4
D. 48:32:21:21:4D:34

5. Which of the following could not be an Ethernet multicast destination?

A. B7:7B:6C:DE:10:00
B. 7B:AA:C1:23:45:32
C. 7C:56:21:1A:DE:F4
D. 83:32:21:21:4D:34

6. _______ is the most widely used local area network protocol.

A. Token Ring
B. Token Bus
C. Ethernet
D. none of the above

7. The IEEE 802.3 Standard defines CSMA/CD as the access method for first-generation 10-Mbps
Ethernet.
A. 1-persistent
B. p-persistent
C. non-persistent
D. none of the above
 8. The _______layer of Ethernet consists of the LLC sublayer and the MAC sublayer.
A. data link
B. physical
C. network
D. none of the above

9. The _______ sublayer is responsible for the operation of the CSMA/CD access method and
framing.
A. LLC
B. MII
C. MAC
D. none of the above

10. Each station on an Ethernet network has a ______ unique address imprinted on its network
interface card (NIC).
A. 5-byte
B. 32-bit
C. 48-bit
D. none of the above

11. The minimum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is_________bytes.

A. 32
B. 80
C. 128
D. none of the above

12. The maximum frame length for 10-Mbps Ethernet is_______ bytes.
A. 1518
B. 1500
C. 1200
D. none of the above

13. ________ uses thick coaxial cable

A. 10Base5
B. 10Base2
C. 10Base-T
D. 10Base-F
14. _______ uses thin coaxial cable
A. 10Base5
B. 10Base2
C. 10Base-T
D. 10Base-F

15. _______ uses four twisted-pair cables that connect each station to a common hub.
A. 10Base5
B. 10Base2
C. 10Base-T
D. 10Base-F

16. ________ uses fiber-optic cable

A. 10Base5
B. 10Base2
C. 10Base-T
D. 10Base-F

17. Fast Ethernet has a data rate of __________Mbps.

A. 10
B. 100
C. 1000
D. 10000

18. In __________, auto negotiation allows two devices to negotiate the mode or data
rate of operation.
A. Standard
B. Fast Ethernet
C. Gigabit Ethernet
D. Ten-Gigabit Ethernet

19. ________ uses two pairs of twisted-pair cable.

A. 100Base-TX
B. 100Base-FX
C. 100Base-T4
D. none of the above
20. ________ uses two fiber-optic cables.
A. 100Base-TX
B. 100Base-FX
C. 100Base-T4
D. none of the above

UNIT 2 – Wireless LAN

1. What is the access point (AP) in a wireless LAN?
a) device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network
b) wireless devices itself
c) both device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network and wireless devices
itself
d) all the nodes in the network
Answer: a
Explanation: Access point in a wireless network is any device that will allow the wireless devices
to a wired network. A router is the best example of an Access Point.

2. In wireless ad-hoc network _________

a) access point is not required
b) access point is must
c) nodes are not required
d) all nodes are access points
Answer: a
Explanation: An ad-hoc wireless network is a decentralized kind of a wireless network. An access
point is usually a central device and it would go against the rules of the ad-hoc network to use
one. Hence it is not required.

3. Which multiple access technique is used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN?
a) CDMA
b) CSMA/CA
c) ALOHA
d) CSMA/CD
Answer: b
Explanation: CSMA/CA stands for Carrier-sense multiple access/collision avoidance. It is a
multiple access protocol used by IEEE 802.11 standard for wireless LAN. It’s based on the
principle of collision avoidance by using different algorithms to avoid collisions between
channels.
4. In wireless distribution system __________
a) multiple access point are inter-connected with each other
b) there is no access point
c) only one access point exists
d) access points are not required
Answer: a
Explanation: A Wireless Distribution System allows the connection of multiple access points
together. It is used to expand a wireless network to a larger network.

5. A wireless network interface controller can work in _______

a) infrastructure mode
b) ad-hoc mode
c) both infrastructure mode and ad-hoc mode
d) WDS mode
Answer: c
Explanation: A wireless network interface controller works on the physical layer and the data
link layer of the OSI model. Infrastructure mode WNIC needs access point but in ad-hoc mode
access point is not required.

6. In wireless network an extended service set is a set of ________

a) connected basic service sets
b) all stations
c) all access points
d) connected access points
Answer: a
Explanation: The extended service set is a part of the IEEE 802.11 WLAN architecture and is used
to expand the range of the basic service set by allowing connection of multiple basic service
sets.

7. Mostly ________ is used in wireless LAN.

a) time division multiplexing
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) space division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing
Answer: b
Explanation: In orthogonal frequency division multiplexing, digital data is encoded on multiple
carrier frequencies. It is also used in digital television and audio broadcasting in addition to
Wireless LANs.

8. Which one of the following event is not possible in wireless LAN?

a) collision detection
b) acknowledgement of data frames
c) multi-mode data transmission
d) connection to wired networks
 Answer: a
Explanation: Collision detection is not possible in wireless LAN with no extensions. Collision
detection techniques for multiple access like CSMA/CD are used to detect collisions in Wireless
LANs.

9. What is Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)?

a) security algorithm for ethernet
b) security algorithm for wireless networks
c) security algorithm for usb communication
d) security algorithm for emails
Answer: b
Explanation: WEP is a security algorithm for wireless network which intended to provide data
confidentiality comparable to that of traditional wired networks. It was introduced in 1997.

10. What is WPA?

a) wi-fi protected access
b) wired protected access
c) wired process access
d) wi-fi process access
Answer: a
Explanation: WPA or WiFi Protected Access is a security protocol used to provide users and firms
with strong data security and protection for their wireless networks (WiFi) to give them
confidence that only authorized users can access their network.

11. An interconnected collection of piconet is called ___________

a) scatternet
b) micronet
c) mininet
d) multinet
Answer: a
Explanation: Piconet is the basic unit of a bluetooth system having a master node and upto
seven active slave nodes. A collection of piconets is called scatternet and a slave node of a
piconet may act as a master in a piconet that is part of the scatternet.

12. In a piconet, there can be up to ________ parked nodes in the network.

a) 63
b) 127
c) 255
d) 511
Answer: c
Explanation: A slave node in a piconet can be instructed by the master node to go into parked
mode. Then the slave node enters the parked mode in which the node is not disconnected from
the network but is inactive unless the master wakes it up.
13. Bluetooth is the wireless technology for __________
a) local area network
b) personal area network
c) metropolitan area network
d) wide area network
Answer: b
Explanation: Bluetooth is a wireless technology used to create a wireless personal area network
for data transfer up to a distance of 10 meters. It operates on 2.45 GHz frequency band for
transmission.

14. Bluetooth uses __________

a) frequency hopping spread spectrum
b) orthogonal frequency division multiplexing
c) time division multiplexing
d) channel division multiplexing
Answer: a
Explanation: Frequency hopping spread spectrum is a method of transmitting radio signals by
rapidly changing the carrier frequency and is controlled by the codes known to the sender and
receiver only.

15. Unauthorised access of information from a wireless device through a bluetooth connection is
called _________
a) bluemaking
b) bluesnarfing
c) bluestring
d) bluescoping
Answer: b
Explanation: Unauthorised access of information from a wireless device through a bluetooth
connection is called Bluesnarfing. It is done through exploiting the vulnerabilities of the
Bluetooth device to steal the transmitted information.

16. In a piconet, one master device ________

a) can not be slave
b) can be slave in another piconet
c) can be slave in the same piconet
d) can be master in another piconet
Answer: b
Explanation: In a scatternet, a slave node of one piconet may act as a master in a piconet that is
part of the scatternet. The scatternet uses this property to connect many piconets together to
create a larger network.

17. Bluetooth supports _______

a) point-to-point connections
b) point-to-multipoint connection
 c) both point-to-point connections and point-to-multipoint connection
d) multipoint to point connection
Answer: c
Explanation: In Bluetooth, each slave node communicates with the master of the piconet
independently i.e. each master-slave connection is independent. The slave is not allowed to
communicate with other slaves directly.

18. A scatternet can have maximum __________

a) 10 piconets
b) 20 piconets
c) 30 piconets
d) 40 piconets
Answer: a
Explanation: A scatternet can have maximum of 10 piconets and minimum of 2 piconets. To
connect these piconets, a slave node of one piconet may act as a master in a piconet that is part
of the scatternet.

Unit 3 – Network Layer

1. The network layer is concerned with __________ of data.

a) bits
b) frames
c) packets
d) bytes
Answer: c
Explanation: In computer networks, the data from the application layer is sent to the transport
layer and is converted to segments. These segments are then transferred to the network layer
and these are called packets. These packets are then sent to data link layer where they are
encapsulated into frames. These frames are then transferred to physical layer where the frames
are converted to bits.

2. Which one of the following is not a function of network layer?

a) routing
b) inter-networking
c) congestion control
d) error control
Answer: d
Explanation: In the OSI model, network layer is the third layer and it provides data routing paths
for network communications. Error control is a function of the data link layer and the transport
layer.

3. A 4 byte IP address consists of __________

a) only network address
b) only host address
 c) network address & host address
d) network address & MAC address
Answer: c
Explanation: An ip address which is 32 bits long, that means it is of 4 bytes and is composed of a
network and host portion and it depends on address class. The size of the host address and
network address depends upon the class of the address in classful IP addressing.

4. In virtual circuit network each packet contains ___________

a) full source and destination address
b) a short VC number
c) only source address
d) only destination address
Answer: b
Explanation: A short VC number also called as VCID (virtual circuit identifier) is a type of
identifier which is used to distinguish between several virtual circuits in a connection oriented
circuit switched network. Each virtual circuit is used to transfer data over a larger packet
switched network.

5. Which of the following routing algorithms can be used for network layer design?
a) shortest path algorithm
b) distance vector routing
c) link state routing
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The routing algorithm is what decides where a packet should go next. There are
several routing techniques like shortest path algorithm, static and dynamic routing,
decentralized routing, distance vector routing, link state routing, Hierarchical routing etc. The
routing algorithms go hand in hand with the operations of all the routers in the networks. The
routers are the main participants in these algorithms.

6. Which of the following is not correct in relation to multi-destination routing?

a) is same as broadcast routing
b) contains the list of all destinations
c) data is not sent by packets
d) there are multiple receivers
Answer: c
Explanation: In multi-destination routing, there is more than one receiver and the route for each
destination which is contained in a list of destinations is to be found by the routing algorithm.
Multi-destination routing is also used in broadcasting.

7. A subset of a network that includes all the routers but contains no loops is called ________
a) spanning tree
b) spider structure
 c) spider tree
d) special tree
Answer: a
Explanation: Spanning tree protocol (STP) is a network protocol that creates a loop free logical
topology for ethernet networks. It is a layer 2 protocol that runs on bridges and switches. The
main purpose of STP is to ensure that you do not create loops when you have redundant paths
in your network.

8. Which one of the following algorithm is not used for congestion control?
a) traffic aware routing
b) admission control
c) load shedding
d) routing information protocol
Answer: d
Explanation: The Routing Information Protocol (RIP) is used by the network layer for the
function of dynamic routing. Congestion control focuses on the flow of the traffic in the network
and uses algorithms like traffic aware routing, admission control and load shedding to deal with
congestion.

9. The network layer protocol for internet is __________

a) ethernet
b) internet protocol
c) hypertext transfer protocol
d) file transfer protocol
Answer: b
Explanation: There are several protocols used in Network layer. Some of them are IP, ICMP,
CLNP, ARP, IPX, HRSP etc. Hypertext transfer protocol is for application layer and ethernet
protocol is for data link layer.

10. ICMP is primarily used for __________

a) error and diagnostic functions
b) addressing
c) forwarding
d) routing
Answer: a
Explanation: ICMP abbreviation for Internet Control Message Protocol is used by networking
devices to send error messages and operational information indicating a host or router cannot
be reached. ICMP operates over the IP packet to provide error reporting functionality as IP by
itself cannot report errors.

11. Datagram switching is done at which layer of OSI model?

a) Network layer
b) Physical layer
 c) Application layer
d) Transport layer
Answer: a
Explanation: Datagram switching is normally done at network layer. In datagram switching, the
datagram stream need not be in order as each datagram can take different routes to the
destination.

12. Packets in datagram switching are referred to as ________

a) Switches
b) Segments
c) Datagrams
d) Data-packets
Answer: c
Explanation: As the name suggests, in datagram switching packets are called as datagram. Each
datagram/packet is treated as an individual entity and routed independently through the
network.

13. Datagram networks mainly refers to _________

a) Connection oriented networks
b) Connection less networks
c) Telephone networks
d) Internetwork
Answer: b
Explanation: The switch does not keep the information about the connection state, hence it is
connection less. There is no need for establishing a handshake to begin the transmission in such
networks.

14. Datagrams are routed to their destinations with the help of ________
a) Switch table
b) Segments table
c) Datagram table
d) Routing table
Answer: c
Explanation: Routing table is used to route the packets to their destinations. The
packet/datagram header contains the destination header for the whole journey to source to the
destination through the routers.

15. The main contents of the routing table in datagram networks are ___________
a) Source and Destination address
b) Destination address and Output port
c) Source address and Output port
d) Input port and Output port
Answer: b
Explanation: Routing table contains destination address and output port to route the packets to
 their destinations. The port address specifies the particular application that the packet has to be
forwarded to after it has reached the destination.

16. Which of the following remains same in the header of the packet in a datagram network during
the entire journey of the packet?
a) Destination address
b) Source address
c) Checksum
d) Padding
Answer: a
Explanation: Destination address remains same in the header during the entire journey of the
packet. There is no pre-decided route for the packets so each datagram/packet is treated as an
individual entity and routed independently through the network.

17. Which of the following is true with respect to the delay in datagram networks?
a) Delay is greater than in a virtual circuit network
b) Each packet may experience a wait at a switch
c) Delay is not uniform for the packets of a message
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: The delay of each packet in a datagram network is different as each packet might
take a different route to the destination. The delay includes the propagation delay and the
processing delay that is induced at each stop/switch that the packet encounters in its journey.

18. During datagram switching, the packets are placed in __________ to wait until the given
transmission line becomes available.
a) Stack
b) Queue
c) Hash
d) Routing table
Answer: b
Explanation: When there are too many packets to be transmitted and the transmission line gets
blocked while transmitting some packets, the remaining packets are stored in queue during
delay and are served as first in first out. The delay is called as queuing delay.

19. The probability of the error in a transmitted block _________ with the length of the block
a) Remains same
b) Decreases
c) Increases
d) Is not proportional
Answer: c
Explanation: Probability of the error in a transmitted block increases with the length of the
block. Hence, the blocks should be as short as possible for ideal transmission with low possibility
of an error.
20. Which of the following is false with respect to the datagram networks?
a) Number of flows of packets are not limited
b) Packets may not be in order at the destination
c) Path is not reserved
d) Delay is the same for all packets in a flow
Answer: d
Explanation: The delay of each packet in a datagram network is different as each packet might
take a different route to the destination. This happens because there is no pre-decided route for
the packets.
 UNIT 4- Address Mapping
1)An ARP reply is normally _______.

a) broadcast

b) multicast

c) unicast

d) none of the above

2)DHCP (dynamic host configuration protocol) provides __________ to the client.

a) IP address

b) MAC address

c) Url

d) None of the mentioned

3. The DHCP server _________

a) maintains a database of available IP addresses

b) maintains the information about client configuration parameters

c) grants a IP address when receives a request from a client

d) all of the mentioned

4) A _______ is an ARP that acts on behalf of a set of hosts

a) ​ARP

b) ​RARP
c) proxy ARP

d) none of the above

5) Which protocol is used to resolve an IP address to Ethernet address.

a) ​BootP

b) ​RARP

c) ARP

d) none of the above

6) Which protocol does DHCP uses at the transport layer.

a) IP

b) UDP

c) ARP

d) TCP

7) ARP is a---

a) 8

b) 10

c) 12

d) 16

8) Which of the following describes the function of ARP?

a)It is used to map a 32-bit IP address to a 48-bit ethernet address.

b)It is used to map a 48-bit ethernet address to a 32-bit IP address.

c)It is used to map a 32-bit ethernet address to a 48-bit IP address.

d)It is used to map a 48-bit IP address to a 32-bit ethernet address.

9) Which of the following describes the function of RARP?

A. It is used to map a 32-bit IP address to a 48-bit ethernet address.

B. It is used to map a 48-bit ethernet address to a 32-bit IP address.

C. It is used to map a 32-bit ethernet address to a 48-bit IP address.

D. It is used to map a 48-bit IP address to a 32-bit ethernet address.

10) In ARP, each user has been assigned a

a) Trigger

b)Integer

c)Repeater

d)Process Header

11) DHCP stands for

a) Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol

b) Digital Host Communication Provider

c) Digital Host Communication Protocol

d) Dynamic Host Configuration Provide

12) DHCP provides static and dynamic address allocation that can be

a) Manual

b) Automatic
c) Both a and b

d) None

13) DHCP is used for ________

a) IPv6

b) IPv4

c) Both IPv6 and IPv4

d) None of the mentioned

14) DHCP uses UDP port _________ for sending data to the server.

a) 66

b) 67

c) 68

d) 69

15) DHCP client and servers on the same subnet communicate via _________

a) UDP broadcast

b) UDP unicast

c) TCP broadcast

d) TCP unicast

16) What is DHCP snooping?

a) Techniques applied to ensure the security of an existing DHCP infrastructure

b) encryption of the DHCP server requests

c) algorithm for DHCP

d) none of the mentioned

17) If DHCP snooping is configured on a LAN switch, then clients having specific ______ can
access the network.

a) MAC address

b) IP address

c) Both MAC address and IP address

d) None of the mentioned

18)Which of the following is the ethernet broadcast address used in ARP and RARP
requests?

a) 255.255.255.255

b) 08:00:20:11:aa:01

c) ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff

d) 224.0.0.0

MCQ on TRANSPORT LAYER:

1.​ W
​ hat are the functions of the transport layer?

a) Multiplexing/ Demultiplexing

b) Connection less Services

c) Connection oriented service

d) Congestion control

2.​ W
​ hich services are provided by transport layer?

a) Error control

b) Connection service
c) Connection less service

d) Congestion control

3.​ T
​ CP and UDP are called ________

a) Application protocols

b) Session protocols

c) Transport protocols

d) Network protocols

4.​ ​ Security based connection is provided by which layer?

a) Network layer

b) Session layer

c) Application layer

d) Transport layer

5.​ T
​ CP is the standard protocol with std no?

a) 5

b) 4

c) 7

d) 3

6.​ U
​ sing which method in transport layer data integrity can be ensured?

a) Checksum

b) Repetition codes
c) Cyclic redundancy checks

d) Error correcting codes

7.​ ​ Buffer overrun can be reduced by using what?

a) Traffic control

b) Flow control

c) Byte orientation

d) Data integrity

8.​ T
​ ransport layer can identify the symptoms of overload nodes using _________

a) Flow control

b) Traffic control

c) Byte orientation

d) Data integrity

9.​ T
​ ransport layer receives data in the form of __________

a) Packets

b) Byte streams

c) Bits stream

d) Both packets and Byte stream

10.​ T
​ ransport layer is which layer in OSI model?
a) Fourth layer

b) Third layer

c) Second layer

d) Fifth layer

11.​ ​Congestion control can control traffic entry into a telecommunications network, so to avoid
_________

a) Congestive connection

b) Connection collapse

c) Congestive collapse

d) Collapse congestive

12.​ F
​ CP stands for _________

a) Fiber Channel Protocol

b) Field Channel Protocol

c) Fast Channel Protocol

d) Fiber Carrying Protocol

13.​ U
​ DP packets are called as _________

a) Segments

b) Checksum

c) Frames
d) Datagrams

14.​ _​ ________ does not provide reliable end to end communication.

a) TCP

b) UDP

c) Both TCP and UDP

d) Neither TCP nor UDP

15.​ A
​ RQ stands for __________

a) Automatic Repeat Request

b) Automatic Request Repeat

c) Application Repeat Request

d) Application Request Repeat

16. Which among the following are delivered by the transport layer in process-to-process
delivery mechanism?

a) Frames

b) Datagrams

c)Packets

d) All of the above

17. Which among the following are uncontrolled and un-registered form of ephemeral ports in
accordance to IANA?

a)Well known Ports

b) Registered Ports

c)Dynamic Ports

d) All of the above

18. What is the purpose of using source & destination port numbers respectively in the addressing
method of transport layer?

a) For Delivery & Reply operations

b) For Reply & Delivery operations

c)Only for Delivery operations

d) Only for Reply operations

19. An endpoint of an inter-process communication flow across a computer network is called

__________

a) socket

b) pipe

c) port

d) machine

20. A _____ is a TCP name for a transport service access point.

a) port

b) pipe

c) node

d) protocol

21. Which one of the following is a transport layer protocol?

a) stream control transmission protocol

b) internet control message protocol

c) neighbor discovery protocol

d) dynamic host configuration protocol

22) Transport layer aggregates data from different applications into a single stream before passing
it to:

a) network layer

b) data link layer

c) application layer

d) physical layer

23) The ports ranging from 49,152 to 65,535 can be used as temporary or private port numbers.
They are called the ________ ports.

a) Well known ports

b) Registered

c) Dynamic

d)None

24) A port address in UDP is _______bits long.

a) 8

b) 16

c) 32
 d)64

25) The combination of an IP address and a port number is called a ____________.

a) transport address

b) network address

c) socket address

d) none of the above

Questions On APPLICATION LAYER and NETWORK SECURITY

1. Which is not an application layer protocol?

a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) FTP
d) TCP
Ans : d

2. The packet of information at the application layer is called __________

a) Packet
b) Message
c) Segment
d) Frame
Ans : b

3. Which one of the following is an architecture paradigms?

a) Peer to peer
b) Client-server
c) HTTP
d) Both Peer-to-Peer & Client-Server
Ans : c

4. Application developer has permission to decide the following on transport layer

side
a) Transport layer protocol
b) Maximum buffer size
c) Both Transport layer protocol and Maximum buffer size
d) None of the mentioned
Ans : c

5. Application layer offers _______ service.

a) End to end
b) Process to process
c) Both End to end and Process to process
d) None of the mentioned
Ans : a

6. E-mail is _________
a) Loss-tolerant application
b) Bandwidth-sensitive application
c) Elastic application
d) None of the mentioned
Ans : c

7. Pick the odd one out.

a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Interactive games
Ans : d

8. Which of the following is an application layer service?

a) Network virtual terminal
b) File transfer, access, and management
c) Mail service
d) All of the mentioned
Ans : d

9. To deliver a message to the correct application program running on a host, the

_______ address must be consulted.
a) IP
b) MAC
c) Port
d) None of the mentioned
Ans : c

10. Which is a time-sensitive service?

a) File transfer
b) File download
c) E-mail
d) Internet telephony
Ans: d

11. Transport services available to applications in one or another form _________

a) Reliable data transfer
b) Timing
c) Security
d) All of the mentioned

Ans : d

12. Electronic mail uses which Application layer protocol?

a) SMTP
b) HTTP
c) FTP
d) SIP
Ans: a

13.​The ____ translates internet domain and host names to IP address.

a) domain name system
b) routing information protocol
c) network time protocol
d) internet relay chat
Ans : a

14. ​ Which one of the following allows a user at one site to establish a connection to
another site and then pass keystrokes from local host to remote host?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) Telnet
d) none of the mentioned
Ans : c

15. ​Application layer protocol defines:

a) types of messages exchanged
b) message format, syntax and semantics
c) rules for when and how processes send and respond to messages
d) all of the mentioned
Ans : d
16 . ​ Which one of the following protocol delivers/stores mail to receiver server?
​a) simple mail transfer protocol
b) post office protocol
c) internet mail access protocol
d) hypertext transfer protocol
Ans : a

17. ​Which one of the following is not an application layer protocol?

a) media gateway protocol
b) dynamic host configuration protocol
c) resource reservation protocol
d) session initiation protocol
Ans : c

18. ​When displaying a web page, the application layer uses the:
a) HTTP protocol
b) FTP protocol
c) SMTP protocol
d) none of the mentioned
Ans : a

19. ​The packet of information at the application layer is called:

a) Packet
b) Message
c) Segment
d) Frame
Ans : b

20. ​This is one of the architecture paradigm:

a) Peer to peer
b) Client-server
c) HTTP
d) Both a and b
Ans : d

1. The field that covers a variety of computer networks, both public and private, that
are used in everyday jobs.
a) Artificial Intelligence
b) ML
c) Network Security
d) IT
Ans : c

2. Network Security provides authentication and access control for resources.

a) True
b) False
Ans : a

3. Which is not an objective of network security?

a) Identification
b) Authentication
c) Access control
d) Lock
Ans : d

4. Which of these is a part of network identification?

a) UserID
b) Password
c) OTP
d) fingerprint
Ans : a

5. The process of verifying the identity of a user.

a) Authentication
b) Identification
c) Validation
d) Verification
Ans : a

6. A concern of authentication that deals with user rights.

a) General access
b) Functional authentication
c) Functional authorization
d) Auto verification
Ans :c

7. CHAP stands for?

a) Challenge Handshake authentication protocol
b) Challenge Hardware authentication protocol
c) Circuit Hardware authentication protocol
d) Circuit Handshake authentication protocol
Ans : a
8. Security features that control that can access resources in the OS.
a) Authentication
b) Identification
c) Validation
d) Access control
Ans : d

9. An algorithm in encryption is called _____________

a) Algorithm
b) Procedure
c) Cipher
d) Module
Ans : c

10. The information that gets transformed in encryption is ____________

a) Plain text
b) Parallel text
c) Encrypted text
d) Decrypted text
Ans : a

11.Number of phases in the handshaking protocol?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Ans : c

12. Which is the key exchange algorithm used in CipherSuite parameter?

a) RSA
b) Fixed Diffie-Hellman
c) Ephemeral Diffie-Hellman
d) Any of the mentioned
Ans : d

13. The certificate message is required for any agreed-on key exchange method
except _______________
a) Ephemeral Diffie-Hellman
b) Anonymous Diffie-Hellman
c) Fixed Diffie-Hellman
d) RSA
Ans : b

14. The DSS signature uses which hash algorithm?

a) MD5
b) SHA-2
c) SHA-1
d) Does not use hash algorithm
Ans : c

15. The RSA signature uses which hash algorithm?

a) MD5
b) SHA-1
c) MD5 and SHA-1
d) None of the mentioned.
Ans : c

16. The certificate_request massage includes two parameters, one of which is-
a) certificate_extension
b) certificate_creation
c) certificate_exchange
d) certificate_type
Ans : d

17. An asymmetric key cipher uses

a) 1-key
b) 2-key
c) 3-key
d) 4-key
Ans : b

18. The shift cipher sometimes referred to as

a) Caesar cipher
b) Shift cipher
c) Cipher
d) Cipher text
Ans : a

19. Firewalls can be of _______ kinds.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Ans : c

20. _________________ is the kind of firewall is connected between the device and
the network connecting to internet.
a) Hardware Firewall
b) Software Firewall
c) Stateful Inspection Firewall
d) Microsoft Firewall
Ans : a