ORAL SURGERY :

Q.No. 1 False about B fibers is/are: 3. Anterior and posterior superior alveolar nerves
4. Anterior, posterior and middle superior alveolar nerves
1. Upto 3 micra in diameter
2. Conduct impulses at the rate of 3 to 14 meters per second Q.No. 10 Sympathetic root of ciliary ganglion arises from:
3. Confined to preganglionic autonomic fibers
4. They have both efferent as well as afferent function 1. Sensory root of the nasociliary nerve
2. Internal carotid plexus
Q.No. 2 The sensory nerve ending responsible for the sensation of 3. External carotid plexus
cold is: 4. Both 1 & 2

1. Krause’s end bulb Q.No. 11 Vidian nerve is formed by union of:

2. Meissner’s corpuscle
3. Pacini corpuscle 1. Greater superficial petrosal and deep petrosal nerves
4. Ruffini’s end organ 2. Inferior nasal branch of anterior ethmoidal nerve and external
nasal nerve
Q.No. 3 The return of the resting potential occurs within 3. Postero superior lateral nasal and postero superior medial
________ after initial stimulation: nasal nerve
4. Posterior, middle and inferior palatine nerve
1. 1 to 2 m sec
2. 0.5 to 1.2 m sec Q.No. 12 The trigeminal nerve has a distinct motor root that
3. 1.5 to 2.6 m sec conveys efferent fibers to muscles derived from second branchial
4. 3 to 4 m sec arch; trigeminal ganglion has a motor root to otic ganglion:

Q.No. 4 Which of the following is a characteristic of muscle pain? 1. First statement is true; second is false
2. First statement is false; second is true
1. Sharp burning and intense pain; constant or intermittent 3. Both statements are true
2. Diffuse in nature, may be referred, difficult to localize 4. Both statements are false
3. Dull in nature, limited to area of origin
4. All of the above Q.No. 13 Mylohyoid branch of mandibular nerve supplies to:

Q.No. 5 The sensory nerve supply to corner of the mouth is by: 1. Tensor tympani
2. Anterior belly of diagnostic
1. Superior labial fibers of infraorbital nerve of V2 3. Buccinators
2. Long buccal nerve of V3 4. None of the above
3. Mandibular branch of VII
4. Buccal and mandibular branch of VII Q.No. 14 Superior dental plexus is composed of:

Q.No. 6 The secretory nerve supply of hard palate is by: 1. Anterior, middle, posterior, superior alveolar nerves
2. Anterior, middle, posterior palatine nerves
1. Nasopalatine branch of V2 3. Pterygopalatine and zygomatic nerves
2. Palatine nerve of IX 4. Frontal, lacrimal and nasociliary nerves
3. Greater superficial nerve of VII
4. All of the above Q.No. 15 Largest branch of mandibular division is:

Q.No. 7 Sensory nerve supply of maxillary gingivae on to the 1. Auriculotemporal nerve

lateral side is by: 2. Lingual nerve
3. Inferior alveolar nerve
1. Superior labial nerve of infra orbital nerve of V2 4. Nerves tentorii
2. Greater palatine nerve of V2
3. Nasopalatine nerve of V2 Q.No. 16 For a maximum effect the injected local anaesthetic drug
4. Middle superior alveolar nerve of V2 must come into contact with atleast _____ ofnerve to block two or
three adjacent nodes of Ranvier:
Q.No. 8 The ophthalmic nerve enters the orbit through:
1. 1 to 2 mm
1. Superior orbital fissure 2. 3 to 4 mm
2. Infraorbital foramen 3. 0.5 to 2.5 mm
3. Inferior orbital fissure 4. 8 to 10 mm
4. Supraorbital foramen
Q.No. 17 The needle used for interseptal injection technique is of
Q.No. 9 The ganglion of valentine is located at the junction of: ___ gauge:

1. Posterior and middle superior alveolar nerves 1. 21

2. Anterior and middle superior alveolar nerves 2. 19
3. 23 Q.No. 26 Exfoliative cytology was introduced by:
4. 24
1. Papanicolaou and Traunt
Q.No. 18 All of the following is/are benzoic acid esters except: 2. Lee White
3. Blumberg
1. Piperocaine 4. Hutchison and Peterson Ellis
2. Meprylcaine
3. Isobucaine Q.No. 27 A needle of ______ gauge is used for FNAC:
4. Primacaine
1. 19
Q.No. 19 All of the following is / are esters except: 2. 24
3. 29
1. Propoxycaine 4. 36
2. 2 chloroprocaine
3. Butethamine Q.No. 28 Excision biopsy is suitable for lesions measuring:
4. Mepivacaine
1. 1 cm
Q.No. 20 All anaesthetic salts are formed by a combination of: 2. 2 cm
3. 3 cm
1. A weak base and a strong acid 4. 2.4 cm
2. A weak acid and a strong base
3. A weak acid and a weak base Q.No. 29 A positive Australia Antigen Test is indicative of:
4. A strong acid and a strong base
1. Positive HIV 1
Q.No. 21 The adrenal medulla contains about ______ of 2. Positive HIV 2
epinephrine and norepinephrine per gram of tissue: 3. Positive Hepatitis B virus
4. Positive Herpes simplex virus
1. 0.2 to 0.6 mg
2. 2 to 4 mg Q.No. 30 According to the, ASA physical classification ASA IV
3. 5 to 6 mg refers to:
4. 4.5 to 6.8 mg
1. A patient with severe systemic disease, that limits activity, but
Q.No. 22 Procaine was synthesized by: is not incapacitating
2. A patient with incapacitating systemic disease, that is a
1. Einhorn constant threat to life
2. Hurley 3. A moribund patient not expected to survive 24 hours with or
3. Schriffrin without surgery
4. Hodgkin 4. Emergency operation of any kind, E precedes the ASA
number indicating the patient’s physical status
Q.No. 23 LA does not act in presence of infection due to:
Q.No. 31 The most commonly used Bard Parker Blade Handle in
1. Increase in cationic form oral surgery is no:
2. Increase in anion form
3. Presence of free base molecules 1. 2
4. High pH 2. 3
3. 10
Q.No. 24 Anatomical landmarks for administration of posterior 4. 8
superior alveolar nerve block are mucobuccal fold, occlusal plane,
coronoid process and: Q.No. 32 Blade indicated for making stab incision is no:

1. Anterior border of ramus 1. 10

2. Mandibular 2nd premolar 2. 11
3. Pterygomandibular raphe 3. 12
4. Palatine tonsils 4. 18

Q.No. 25 All of the following areas are best viewed in Q.No. 33 The osteotome is similar to the chisel except that:
posteroanterior view of each mandibular radiograph except:
1. The working edge is beveled
1. Body of mandible 2. The working edge is unibeveled
2. Mandibular symphysis 3. The working edge is bibeveled
3. Condylar neck 4. The working edge is tribeveled
4. Nasal cavity
Q.No. 34 The elevator is a lever of _______ order:
 3. 3
1. First 4. 4
2. Second
3. Third Q.No. 43 The most commonly seen impacted third molar is:
4. Fourth
1. Horizontal
Q.No. 35 Cryer’s Elevator is based on _______ principle: 2. Mesioangular
3. Linguoangular
1. Wheel and Axle 4. Buccoangular
2. Wedge
3. Lever Q.No. 44 According to classification of impacted maxillary
4. Lever and Wedge
1. Palatally placed
Q.No. 36 Winter’s elevator works on the principle of: 2. Involving both buccal and palatal bone
3. Impacted in alveolar process between incisors and first
1. Lever and wedge premolar
2. Wheel and axle 4. Impacted in the edentulous mandible
3. Wheel and axle and wedge
4. Wheel and axle and lever Q.No. 45 Every additional mm to the red line renders the removal
of molars _____ times more difficult:
Q.No. 37 The first description of sutures used in operative
procedures is recorded by: 1. Two
2. Three
1. Rhazes 3. Five
2. Papyrus 4. Six
3. Claudius
4. Hayton Williams Q.No. 46 Amber line is drawn:

Q.No. 38 Absorption rate of polydiaxonone suture material is: 1. Touching the occlusal surface of first and second molar
2. Perpendicular to the white line to an imaginary point of
1. 60 days application of the elevator
2. 90 days 3. Crest of interdental septum between the molars extending
3. 7 days posteriorly to distal to third molar
4. 210 days 4. Touching occlusal surface of first, second molar and extending
to the third molar
Q.No. 39 In semilunar incision, a gap of __ must be present from
the base of gingival sulcus to the incision: Q.No. 47 The normal position of the lingual nerve is:

1. 0.26 mm 1. 2 mm above the crest and 0.2 mm lingual to lingual cortex of

2. 0.5 mm mandible in third molar region
3. 5 mm 2. 0.2 mm above the crest and 0.5 mm buccal to buccal cortex of
4. 2.4 mm mandible in third molar region
3. 0.5 mm lateral to the crest and 0.5 mm medial to lingual cortex
Q.No. 40 Vertical incisions should be placed at an _____ angle to of mandible in third molar region
the horizontal incision: 4. 2 mm inferior to the crest and 0.5 mm lingual to the lingual
cortex of mandible in third molar region
1. Acute
2. Right Q.No. 48 ____ is called as ‘check ligament’ of TMJ:
3. Obtuse
4. Zero degree 1. Temporomandibualr ligament
2. Sphenomandibualr ligament
Q.No. 41 All of the following is / are contraindications for 3. Stylomandibular ligament
placement of incisional lines except: 4. Both 1 & 2

1. Vertical incision on the lingual side of mandibular arch Q.No. 49 The volume of upper joint space of TMJ is about:
2. Over canine prominence
3. Over bony lesions 1. 1.2 ml
4. None of the above 2. 0.9 ml
3. 2.6 ml
Q.No. 42 Difficulty index of vertically impacted lower molar is: 4. 3.8 ml

1. 1 Q.No. 50 The articular eminence is located approximately:

2. 2
1. 1.5 cm anterior to external auditory meatus
2. 0.5 cm lateral to external auditory meatus Q.No. 58 While breathing, speaking or swallowing ______ is a
3. 1.6 mm medial to internal auditory meatus link between supra and infrahyoid group of:
4. 1.8 mm medial to internal auditory meatus
1. Masseter
Q.No. 51 Depression of mandible is dominated by ____ and 2. Temporalis
3. Condylar disc
1. Digastric and lateral pterygoid 4. Diagastric
2. Masseter and geniohyoid
3. Lateral pterygoid and temporalis Q.No. 59 Dosage of ultrasound therapy for treatment of MPDS
4. Diagastric and temporalis
1. 0.2 to 0.8 watts per cm2/15 minutes/daily
Q.No. 52 Accessory ligament makes no contribution to joint 2. 2.6 to 3.8 watts per cm2/10 minutes/daily
activity; condylar disc has a very little potential for repair after 3. 3.4 to 6.4 watts per cm2/12 minutes/once a week
insult: 4. 0.7 to 1.0 watts per cm2/10 minutes/alternate day

1. First statement is true, second is false Q.No. 60 In intra-articular injection for treatment of MPDS the
2. First statement is false, second is true direction of needle is _______ till it strikes the root of the glenoid
3. Both statements are true fossa at a depth of_____:
4. Both statements are false
1. Inward, forward, upward; 2 to 3 cm
Q.No. 53 _____ performed an osteotomy on the eminence and 2. Inward, backward, upward; 1 to 2 cm
turned it down in front of the condylar head to prevent forward 3. Inward, backward, downward; 3 to 4 cm
movement of hypermobile condyle: 4. Outward, forward, downward; 3 to 4 cm

1. Lindermann Q.No. 61 A needle of _______ gauge is used for arthrocentesis

2. Mayor technique:
3. Dautry
4. Findlay 1. 19
2. 25
Q.No. 54 Eminectomy was first reported by: 3. 23
4. 22
1. Myrhang
2. Risdon Q.No. 62 During arthrocentesis technique which of the following
3. Dingman nerve is blocked:
4. Thoma
1. Inferior
Q.No. 55 An ‘inverted hockey stick’ incision a modification of 2. Lingual
preauricular incision over the zygomatic arch was used by: 3. Masseteric
4. Auriculotemporal
1. Al Kayat and Bramley
2. Thoma Q.No. 63 The technique of TMJ arthroscopy was made popular
3. Blair and Ivy by:
4. Popowich and Crane
1. Mackenzie
Q.No. 56 According to grading of TMJ ankylosis by Sawhney, 2. Banks
Type III refers to: 3. Toller
4. Ohnishi
1. The condylar head is present without much distortion,
movement impossible Q.No. 64 The diameter of arthroscope used for TMJ arthroscopy
2. Bony fusion of misshaped head and the articular surface is:
without involvement of sigmoid notch and coronoid process
3. A bony block bridging across the ramus and zygomatic arch 1. 1.7 mm
with involvement of sigmoid notch and coronoid process 2. 2.6 mm
4. Complete bony block between the ramus and the skull base 3. 3.4 mm
4. 3.8 mm
Q.No. 57 _______ was the first one to indicate an occlusal
aetiology is TMJ pain: Q.No. 65 In single puncture athroscopy technique, the trocar and
cannula should be kept at a _____ angle to skin and directed
1. Laskin anterosuperiorly at an angle of _______ to horizontal plane:
2. Schwartz
3. Costen 1. 90 degree and 10 degree
4. Toller and Poswillo 2. 46 degree and 30 degree
3. 60 degree and 10 degree 3. Retrogasserian rhizotomy
4. 120 degree and 60 degree 4. Nerve section and avulsion

Q.No. 66 In a normal joint the synovial capillaries have a _____ Q.No. 74 Peripheral Neurectomy is rarely performed on:
appearance:
1. Infraorbital
1. Spider web 2. Inferior alveolar-mental
2. Cherry blossom 3. Lingual
3. Leafless tree 4. Both 1 & 2
4. Branched tree
Q.No. 75 In patients of trigeminal neuralgia, more of daily drug
Q.No. 67 Surgical treatment of TMJ Dysfunction disorders was dosage should be taken at night because:
first introduced by:
1. Symptoms like nausea, vomiting, gastric
1. Humphrey 2. Side effects like visual blurring, dizziness, somnolence can be
2. Topazian controlled
3. Schwartz 3. Rate of hepatic dysfunction and thrombocytopenia is reduced
4. Mackenzie and Banks 4. Adequate serum concentration can be present early morning

Q.No. 68 For interposition arthroplasty using autogenous Q.No. 76 The dosage of tegretol for treatment of trigeminal
costochondral graft which rib is harvested: neuralgia is:

1. 5th 1. 400 mg once daily

2. 6th 2. 200 mg twice daily
3. 7th 3. 200 mg thrice daily
4. All of the above 4. 100 mg thrice daily

Q.No. 69 The term ‘Tic Douloureux’ was coined by: Q.No. 77 The dosage of Tolceram for treatment of trigeminal
neuralgia is:
1. John Locke
2. Nicholas Andre 1. 1200 mg/day
3. John Fothergill 2. 600 mg/day
4. Costen 3. 100 mg thrice daily
4. 5 to 15 ml / 5 times / daily
Q.No. 70 Petrous ridge compression was suggested as etiological
factor of trigeminal neuralgia by: Q.No. 78 Braun’s transantral approach has got the potential to
have sound treatment for intractable _______ neuralgia:
1. Olfson
2. Lee 1. V1
3. Westrum and Black 2. V2
4. Shetrington 3. V3
4. All of the above
Q.No. 71 _____ forms the definitive diagnosis of trigeminal
neuralgia: Q.No. 79 For inferior alveolar nuerectomy, the incision given for
extraoral approach is:
1. MRI scanning
2. CT scan 1. Caldwell Luc incision
3. Well taken history 2. Risdon’s incision
4. Response to carbamazepine 3. Dr. Ginwalla’s incision
4. Braun’s incision
Q.No. 72 A response to anticonvulsant in cases of trigeminal
neuralgia was showed by: Q.No. 80 For infraorbital neurectomy the incision given in
intraoral approach is:
1. John Locke
2. John Fothergill 1. Cald Well Luc incision
3. Nicholas Andre 2. Hilton’s stab incision
4. Blom 3. Inverted T incision
4. Dr. Ginwalla’s incision
Q.No. 73 All of the following is/are intracranial surgical treatment
modalities of trigeminal neuralgia except: Q.No. 81 The temperature used for cryoneurolysis of peripheral
nerves is around:
1. Medullary tractotomy
2. RFTC at gasserian ganglion 1. – 60 degree C
2. – 50 degree C Q.No. 89 The size of the Fogarty catheter used for Balloon
3. – 20 degree C compression to destroy nerve fibers of trigeminal nerve is:
4. – 10 degree C
1. 2FG
Q.No. 82 True about cryosurgery is/are: 2. 4FG
3. 6FG
1. No regeneration of axons occur, after cryosurgery 4. 8FG
2. Does not produce wallerian degeneration
3. Produces wallerian degeneration along with the destruction of Q.No. 90 A spinal needle of ______ gauge is used for balloon
nerve sheath compression of the trigeminal nerve:
4. Produces wallerian degeneration without destroying the nerve
sheath itself 1. 0.2
2. 0.6
Q.No. 83 Surgical management of trigeminal pain with radio 3. 0.8
frequency lesions of the peripheral nerves was reported by: 4. 12

1. Greenwood & Gilchrist Q.No. 91 During balloon compression of the trigeminal nerve, the
2. Mckenzie balloon should remain inflated in the Meckel’s care for:
3. Hydson
4. Gregg & Small 1. 0.2 seconds
2. 0.6 seconds
Q.No. 84 During thermocoagulation, lesioning is carried out at a 3. 2.2 minutes
temperature of: 4. 1 minute

1. 110 to 120 degree C Q.No. 92 Intradural root section is superior to extradural root
2. 140 to 160 degree C section approach because:
3. 210 to 220 degree C
4. 65 to 75 degree C 1. Less chances of bleeding
2. Less damage to facial nerve
Q.No. 85 ______ introduced percutaneous electrocoagulation of 3. Less damage to superior petrosal nerve
the gasserian ganglion: 4. All of the above

1. Harris Q.No. 93 _______ recommended posterior fossa surgery for

2. Tapatas trigeminal root section:
3. Hartel
4. Kirschner 1. Frazier
2. Sweet
Q.No. 86 During percutaneous Gasserian ganglion 3. Dandy
electrocoagulation the point of penetration of needle / electrode is: 4. Wilkins

1. Midpoint of perpendicular drawn from lateral orbital rim till Q.No. 94 Dysesthesia refers to:
the inferior border of mandible
2. 2.5 cm from the centre of external auditory meatus 1. Pain due to a stimulus that does not normally evoke pain
3. Hartel’s second point 2. Absence of pain in response to a stimulus that would be
4. Hartel’s fourth point normally painful
3. Total loss of all types of sensations in response to the
Q.No. 87 A single needle of _____ gauge is used for glycerol stimulation that would be normally painful or non-painful
injection for percutaneous ganglion neurolysis: 4. An unpleasant painful abnormal sensation either spontaneous
or evoked
1. 0.2
2. 0.6 Q.No. 95 According to Sunderland’s classification of nerve injury,
3. 9 axonotmesis is classified as:
4. 16
1. 1degree
Q.No. 88 In Gasserian ganglion injection techniques the ganglion 2. 2 degree
is approached through: 3. 2 degree 3 degree 4 degree
4. 5 degree
1. Foramen ovale
2. Foramen spinosum Q.No. 96 Complete Wallerian degeneration is seen in:
3. Stylomastoid foramen
4. Infraorbital foramen 1. Neuropraxia
2. Axonotmesis
3. Neurotmesis
4. All of the above 4. Glossopharyngeal

Q.No. 97 True about Tinel’s sign, is/are: Q.No. 105 Guillain-Barre syndrome leads to paralysis of which
cranial nerve:
1. Indication of start of nerve regeneration
2. Indication of amount of Wallerian degeneration 1. IIIrd
3. Indication of conduction failure 2. VIIth
4. Indication of degeneration of axons 3. IX
4. X
Q.No. 98 According to Sunderland’s classification of nerve
injuries, the indications for micro-constructive surgery are Q.No. 106 According to House-Brackman’s classification of facial
strongest for: palsy grade V refers to:

1. 3 degree 1. Moderately severe dysfunction

2. 4 degree 2. Severe dysfunction
3. 5 degree 3. Total paralysis
4. 1 degree 4. Normal function without weakness

Q.No. 99 Stump neuromas results from ______ injury: Q.No. 107 The nerve / nerves used for autogenous grafting of
facial nerve is/are:
1. 1 degree
2. 3 degree 1. Hypoglossal
3. 2 degree 2. Sural nerve
4. 5 degree 3. Cervical plexus from ipsilateral or contralateral side
4. All of the above
Q.No. 100 All of the following is/are indications for
microneurosurgery except: Q.No. 108 The recommended dose of prednisolone for relieving
pain in facial palsy is:
1. Dysesthesia not abolished by LA nerve block
2. Dysesthesia beyond 4 months 1. 0.2 mg / kg / d
3. Total anaesthesia beyond 3 months 2. 0.6 mg / kg / d
4. Severe hypoesthesia without improvement beyond 4 months 3. 20 mg / kg / d
4. 1 mg / kg / d
Q.No. 101 As the facial nerve exists from the stylomastoid
foramen it gives all of the following branches except: Q.No. 109 According to Glasgow coma scale, no. 4 refers that
verbal response is:
1. Posterior auricular
2. Posterior belly of diagastric 1. No sound
3. Stylohyoid 2. Incomprehensible sound
4. Chorda tympani 3. Confused conservation
4. Appropriate and oriented
Q.No. 102 Lower motor neurons of which cranial nerve crosses
the midline: Q.No. 110 According to Glasgow coma scale, no. 3 refers that
motor response is:
1. Facial
2. Trochlear 1. Abnormal extensor response
3. Glossopharyngeal 2. Abnormal flexor response
4. Hypoglossal 3. Localizes pain
4. Withdraws to pain
Q.No. 103 Crocodile Tear syndrome can be treated by dividing
_____ nerve: Q.No. 111 The cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhoea can be seen in:

1. Mandibular 1. Le Fort I
2. Ophthalmic 2. Le Fort II
3. Optic 3. Le Fort III
4. Greater petrosal 4. Both 2 & 3

Q.No. 104 The cranial nerve involved in Melkersson – Rosenthal Q.No. 112 For zygomatico maxillary complex fracture, the xray
syndrome is: indicated is/are:

1. Trochlear 1. Occipitomenton view 150 and 300

2. Facial 2. PA view – Water’s position
3. Mandibular 3. Submentovertex projection
4. All of the above 3. Multiple miniplates
4. Single miniplate which gives functional union
Q.No. 113 In condylar fractures immobilization is done for a
period of: Q.No. 121 Type of healing seen after compression plating is:

1. 2 – 3 months 1. Primary
2. 3 to 4 weeks 2. Secondary
3. 4 – 6 weeks 3. Tertiary
4. 2 – 3 weeks 4. All of the above

Q.No. 114 The gauge of wire used for Essig’s wiring is: Q.No. 122 A case of subcondylar fracture with fragment overlap
of greater than 5 mm and deviation of greater than 370 degrees
1. 28 would require:
2. 26
3. 14 1. Closed reduction IMF
4. 16 2. ORIF
3. Soft diet
Q.No. 115 The metallic ‘Halo Frame’ used for external fixation 4. No treatment
was devised by:
Q.No. 123 Anterior open bite occurs in the fracture of:
1. Obwegeser
2. Crewe 1. Symphysis
3. Risdon 2. Bilateral angle
4. Gilmer 3. Bilateral condyle
4. Unilateral condyle
Q.No. 116 Champy plate is:
Q.No. 124 Bilateral subconjunctival ecchymosis is not associated
1. Monocorticol compressive with:
2. Monocortical non compressive
3. Biocortical non compressive 1. Le-fort II fracture
4. Bicortical compressive 2. Le-fort III fracture
3. Naso-ethmoidal complex fracture
Q.No. 117 When a case is transferred to ICU, mandibular 4. Le-fort I fracture
fractures are evaluated in:
Q.No. 125 Choice of intubation in a patient with Lefort II, Lefort
1. Primary survey III and nasoethmoid fracture would be:
2. Secondary survey
3. Primary survey with IMF 1. Oral
4. Away from resuscitation room 2. Oral & nasal
3. Nasal
Q.No. 118 According to rule of tension and compressional forces 4. Submental
acting along the condylar border, best way to stabilize a condylar
fracture against these forces would require: Q.No. 126 Anterior displacement in condylar fractures is due to
the action of:
1. One plate at anterior border and one at posterior
2. A plate at anterior border 1. Medial pterygoid
3. A plate at posterior border 2. Lateral pterygoid
4. A plate at lateral border 3. Buccinator
4. Temporalis
Q.No. 119 A patient had a fall resulting in midsymphyseal
guardsman fracture. White reducing the fracture lingual splaying Q.No. 127 The most common site of leak in CSF rhinoerhoea is:
of the segments was noted. This will cause increase in:
1. Sphenoid Sinus
1. Interpupillary distance 2. Frontal Sinus
2. Intercanthal distance 3. Cribriform plate
3. Interangular distance 4. Tegmen tympani
4. Go-Gn distance
Q.No. 128 Battles sign is:
Q.No. 120 Treatment of comminuted fracture of mandible would
require use of: 1. Subconjunctival ecchymosis
2. Sublingual ecchymosis
1. Reconstruction plates with centric screws 3. Palatal ecchymosis
2. Dynamic compression plates with eccentric screws 4. Ecchymosis in the mastoid region
 4. Lateral oblique
Q.No. 129 An average patient with maxillofacial trauma requires
how much of daily sodium: Q.No. 137 _____ described the reduction of fracture by rubber
dam sheets or by means of long ribbon / strip gauze or rubber
1. 100 mmo1 catheters:
2. 50-60 mmo1
3. 10 mmo1 1. Dingman
4. 1000 mmo1 2. Hurding
3. Propescu and Burlibasa
Q.No. 130 Pathognomic sign of mandibular fracture: 4. Hayton William

1. Malocclusion Q.No. 138 According to Olson’s study, the least common area of
2. Hematoma (Sublingual) fracture of mandible is:
3. Tenderness and swelling at site
4. Inability to open mouth 1. Symphysis
2. Ramas
Q.No. 131 Paraesthesia is seen with which of the following types 3. Dentoalveolar
of fractures: 4. Coronoid

1. Subcondylar Q.No. 139 According AO classification of mandbiular fracture

2. Zygomaticomaxillary classifies the following case – communited fracture of condyle of
3. Coronoid process edentulous mandible open extraorally associated with fracture of
4. Symphyseal zygoma:

Q.No. 132 Non-compression Monocortical Screw system was 1. F3L602S2A3

developed by: 2. F2L40053A4
3. F2L701S1A2
1. Michelet 4. F4L301S1A5
2. Champy
3. Shea and Anthony Q.No. 140 Concept of management of mandibular fracture using
4. Lesney transosseous silver wiring was given by:

Q.No. 133 In every mandibular fracture, the forces of mastication 1. Erich & Austin
produce tension forces at: 2. Buck
3. Gordon
1. The upper border of mandible 4. Michelet
2. The lower border of mandible
3. Alveolar crest region Q.No. 141 Concept of osteosynthesis lines was put forward by:
4. Both 1 & 2
1. Spiessel
Q.No. 134 According to Marciani’s modification of Le Fort’s 2. Gordon
fracture classification, Le Fort IV(a) refers to: 3. Michelet
4. Champy
1. Plus supraorbital rim fracture
2. Plus anterior cranial fossa and supraorbital rim Q.No. 142 The minimum diameter of miniplate osteosynthesis is
3. Plus anterior cranial fossa and orbital wall fracture _______ with bevel of:
4. Pyramidal and NOE fracture
1. 0.9 mm and 45 degree
Q.No. 135 According to Rowe and Killey’s classification of the 2. 0.5 mm and 60 degree
Zygomatico complex fractures, Type VIII refers to: 3. 1.5 mm and 90 degree
4. 2.1 mm and 30 degree
1. Displacement of the complex en bloc
2. Displacement of the orbitoantral partition Q.No. 143 According to Wassmund’s classification of condylar
3. Displacement of the orbital rim segments fracture, class IV refers to:
4. Complex comminuted fractures
1. An angle of 10 to 450 exits between the head and the axis of
Q.No. 136 In forced duction test, the tendon of ____ muscle is the ramus
grasped through the conjunctiva of the inferior fornix to check the 2. An angle of 45 to 900 exits between the head and the ramus
entire range of ocular motion: 3. Fractured head articulates on or forward to the articular
eminence
1. Superior rectus 4. Vertical or oblique fracture through head of the condyle
2. Inferior rectus
3. Superior oblique
Q.No. 144 Condylar fracture above the level of the lateral Q.No. 152 Normal value of the angle between a line drawn from
pterygoid muscle insertion: the lower lip to the soft tissue pogonion and a line drawn tangent
to the soft tissue contour below the body of mandible is:
1. Exhibits medial and upward displacement
2. Exhibits lateral and downward displacement 1. – 8 degree ± 2
3. Exhibits lateral and upward displacement 2. – 11 degree ± 2
4. Do not exhibit displacement 3. 110 degree ± 8 degree
4. 51 degree ± 6 degree
Q.No. 145 True about Meta-arthrosis is/are:
Q.No. 153 The deepest point of the bridge of the nose is:
1. Malunion resulting in disturbances, in anatomy as well as
function with non articulating condyle 1. Subnasale
2. False joint, very painful during normal excursions 2. Soft tissue nasion
3. Anatomically altered, transformed, modified 3. Supranasale
4. None of the above 4. Anterior nasal spine

Q.No. 146 ‘Knobby’ appearance of the chin is a fracture of: Q.No. 154 The importance of accurately estimating facial growth
based on facial pattern was recognized as a result of work by:
1. Prognathic mandible
2. Retrognathic mandible 1. Ricketts
3. Vertical maxillary excess 2. Fist and Epker
4. Vertical maxillary deficiency 3. Bell and White
4. Profitt
Q.No. 147 Definitive orthodontic surgical treatment is carried out
in which phase of diagnosis and treatment planning: Q.No. 155 The normal value of Wit’s appraisal in females is:

1. Phase II 1. 0 mm
2. Phase III 2. Minus 1 mm
3. Phase IV 3. Plus 1 mm
4. Phase V 4. Plus 1.5 mm

Q.No. 148 Normal intercanthal and interpupillary distance is: Q.No. 156 In a cephalometric analysis of a male patient SNA was
880; SNB was 930, ANB was 50, and Wit’s appraisal was – 9
1. 32 ± 3 mm and 65 ± 3 mm mm. It indicates:
2. 22 ± 2 mm and 46 ± 2 mm
3. 10 ± 3 mm and 25 ± 3 mm 1. Maxilla is prognathic
4. 40 ± 1.5 mm and 60 ± 1.5 mm 2. Mandible is prognathic
3. Bimaxillary protusion
Q.No. 149 The normal upper lip length for males is: 4. Mandible is retrognathic

1. 20 ± 2 mm Q.No. 157 Wire ideal for correction of rotations, alignment and

2. 22 ± 2 mm leveling when used in loop firm is:
3. 25 ± 2 mm
4. 26 ± 2 mm 1. 0.08” supreme grade Australian Wilcock wire
2. 0.12” Australian Wilcock wires of premium + grade
Q.No. 150 Provided upper lip length is normal, the distance from 3. 0.16” coaxial wire
the glabella to subnasale and subnasale to menton should be in 4. 0.14” nickel titanium wire
______ ratio:
Q.No. 158 The extraction pattern for presurgical orthodontics of
1. 1:1 skeletal class II is/are:
2. 2:1
3. 3:1 1. Extract upper first and lower second premolar
4. 1:2 2. Extract upper first and lower first premolar
3. Extract upper second and lower second premolar
Q.No. 151 In normal position, the lower lip should protrude by: 4. No maxillary tooth extraction is advocated and

1. 3.5 mm Q.No. 159 The extraction pattern for presurgical orthodontics for
2. 3.4 mm skeletal class III malocclusion is/are:
3. 1.2 mm
4. 2.2 mm 1. No maxillary extraction is advocated and lower first premolar
extraction is advocated
2. No maxillary extraction is advocated and lower second
premolar extraction is advocated
 3. Upper second premolars and lower first premolar extraction is 2. Caldwell-Letterman
advocated 3. Le Fort
4. Upper first premolars and lower second premolar extraction is 4. Trauner
advocated
Q.No. 168 Subsigmoid oblique subcondylar osteotomy was
Q.No. 160 ________ performed first anterior mandibular advocated by:
osteotomy for the patient of distortion of face due to severe burns:
1. Robinsons and Hinds
1. Hullihen 2. Caldwell-Letterman
2. Edward Angle 3. Obwegeser
3. Blair 4. Trauner
4. Kole
Q.No. 169 Intraoral vertical ramus osteotomy was first described
Q.No. 161 One stage anterior maxillary osteotomy was developed by:
by:
1. Winstanley
1. Trauner 2. Spiessel
2. Wassmund 3. Wassmund
3. Converse 4. Hunsuck
4. Hunsuck
Q.No. 170 ______ modified BSSO by placing vertical cut on the
Q.No. 162 Step osteotomy of the mandibular body for the buccal cortex between the first and second molars:
correction of mandibular prognathism was developed by:
1. Dal Pont
1. Obwegeser 2. Hunsuck
2. Converse 3. Epker
3. Caldwell 4. Obwegeser and Trauner
4. Schuchhardt
Q.No. 171 The advantage of Epkers modification of BSSO is/are:
Q.No. 163 _____ developed posterior maxillary osteotomy:
1. Gives broader contact surfaces
1. Schuchhardt 2. Minimal muscular displacement with improved access
2. Obwegeser 3. Reduced postoperative swelling oedema, haemorrhage
3. Hullihen 4. All of the above
4. Blair
Q.No. 172 The first anterior maxillary setback was performed by
Q.No. 164 Vertical subsigmoid osteotomy of ramus was given by: ________ in 1921:

1. Caldwell-Letterman 1. Wassmund
2. Obwegeser 2. Cohn Stock
3. Blair 3. Wunderer
4. Kole 4. Epker

Q.No. 165 _______ was first to apply rigid fixation in Q.No. 173 Acrylic splints are desirable during post-operative
orthognathic surgery: phase of management in which of following procedures:

1. Luhr 1. Mandibular alveoloplasty

2. Spiessel 2. Torus palatinus reduction
3. Rickettes 3. Mental tubercle reduction
4. Bell & White 4. Excision of labial epulis fissuratum

Q.No. 166 ______ introduced the miniplate fixation in Q.No. 174 Abbey - Estlander flap is used in the reconstruction of:
orthognathic surgery:
1. Buccal mucosa
1. Luhr 2. Lip
2. Hunsuck 3. Tongue
3. Bell 4. Palate
4. Wassmund
Q.No. 175 An edentulous patient has carcinoma of the oral cavity
Q.No. 167 ____ was first to describe bimaxillary surgery for infiltrating into alveolar margin, which of the following would not
correction of bimaxillary protusion: be indicated in managing the case:

1. Kole 1. Segmental mandibulectomy

2. Marginal mandibulectomy with removal of the 4. Shunting
3. Marginal mandibulectomy with removal of
4. Radiotherapy Q.No. 184 Name of the lesion which is not a radiolucent lesion of
jaws:
Q.No. 176 Denker’s operation may result in injury to which nerve:
1. Ameloblastoma
1. Posterior superior alveolar nerve 2. Cherubism
2. Anterior superior alveolar nerve 3. Focal periapical osteopetrosis
3. Greater palatine nerve 4. Odontogenic cyst
4. Nasopalatine nerve
Q.No. 185 Name the lesion where cotton wool, multifocal
Q.No. 177 A patient has squamous cell carcinoma of lip with radiodense conglomerates is not seen usually:
invasion into the alveolus. The patient is edentulous. Appropriate
treatment is: 1. Gardner’s syndrome
2. Cement-osseous dysplasia
1. Segmental mandibulectomy 3. Paget’s disease
2. Marginal mandibulectomy 4. Fibrous dysplasia
3. Hemi-mandibulectomy
4. Commando operation Q.No. 186 The main causative organism in Ludwig Angina is:

Q.No. 178 Antibiotic prophylaxis is mandatory before extraction 1. Streptococcus viridans

in which of the following conditions: 2. Staphylococcus albus
3. Staphylococcus aureus
1. Ischaemic heart diseases 4. Streptococcus hemolyticus
2. Hypertension
3. Congestive heart failure Q.No. 187 The trismus following a lower molar extraction after 4
4. Congenital heart disease weeks may be due to:

Q.No. 179 Treatment of pleomorphic adenoma of parotid is: 1. Breakage of needle in pterygomandibular space
2. Hematoma of TMJ
1. Total parotidectomy 3. Submassetric space abscess
2. Superficial parotidectomy 4. Root stump in the socket
3. Deep parotidectomy
4. Radical parotidectomy Q.No. 188 Which of the following cardiovascular conditions can
result in a medical emergency in the dental office causing
Q.No. 180 During the removal of a torus palatines it was noticed substernal pain, facial pallor, and cold perspiration?
that a portion of palatal bone is fractured. One would expect:
1. Angina pectoris
1. An opening into the nasal cavity 2. Cor pulmonale
2. An opening into the maxillary antrum 3. Hypertension
3. Vertical fracture of maxilla 4. Patent ductus arteriosus
4. Horizontal fracture of maxilla
Q.No. 189 The secondary palate fuses with triangular primary
Q.No. 181 Following a Caldwell-Luc procedure a nasal palate and the incisive foramen is formed at this junction between
antrostomy is done through the: ______ of intrauterine life:

1. Superior meatus 1. 7th to 10th weeks

2. Middle meatus 2. 12 to 16th weeks
3. Inferior meatus 3. 22nd to 26th weeks
4. Middle and inferior meatus 4. 3 to 4 weeks

Q.No. 182 Treatment of localized pain 3-4 days post extraction Q.No. 190 The theory of failure of mesodermal migration for
formation of cleft was put forward by:
1. Irrigation of the socket & placement of sedative dressing
2. Curettage of socket 1. Dursy – His
3. Creation of new blood clot 2. Veau
4. Placement of antibiotics and analgesics directly in socket 3. Fleischmann
4. Davis and Ritchie
Q.No. 183 The technique employed in radiotherapy to
Q.No. 191 The four flap method of repair of cleft was evolved by:
1. Arc technique
2. Modulation 1. Veau
3. Gating 2. Wardill
3. Langenback 2. Middle meatus
4. Kernatan 3. Upper meatus
4. Antral puncture is not carried out in children
Q.No. 192 Surgical repair of cleft palate and placement of
pressure equalization tubes is done at age of: Q.No. 197 _____ has been credited as the first surgeon to have
attempted nasal and sinus endoscopy with a modified cytoscope:
1. 3 – 6 months
2. 3 to 6 years 1. Hirschmann
3. 10 to 12 weeks 2. Maxwell and Maltz
4. Before age 1 to 18 months 3. Moscher
4. Van Alyea
Q.No. 193 Pre alveolar bone grafting is done at the age of:
Q.No. 198 Minor oral surgical procedures can be safely done only
1. 5 to 6 years if platelet count is:
2. 10 to 12 weeks
3. 9 to 11 years 1. 1,50,000 to 4,50,000 per cu mm
4. 15 years or later 2. 50,000 to 70, 000 per cu mm
3. 20,000 to 50, 000 per cu mm
Q.No. 194 The antral floor of maxillary sinus parallels the nasal 4. 80,000 to 1,00,000 per cu mm
floor at the age of:
Q.No. 199 The concentration of factor VIII in genetically
1. 12 weeks intrauterine engineered factor VIII is:
2. At birth
3. 9 years 1. 1 unit / vial
4. 12 years 2. 5 to 10 units / vial
3. 1000 to 1500 units / vial
Q.No. 195 The diameter of ostium of maxillary sinus is: 4. 250 to 500 units / vial

1. 5.6 mm Q.No. 200 The term Adenomatoid Odontogenic Tumour was

2. 8.4 mm coined by:
3. 0.2 mm
4. 1.2 mm 1. Stafne
2. Philipsen and Birn
Q.No. 196 Whenever antral puncture is to be carried out in 3. Waldron
4. Thoma and Goldmann
1. Inferior meatus
 Online Exam - Results
Q.No. 1 False about B fibers is/are:     
 
1.Upto 3 micra in diameter     
2.Conduct impulses at the rate of 3 to 14 meters per second     
3.Confined to preganglionic autonomic fibers     
4.They have both efferent as well as afferent function     
 
 Right ->  They have both efferent as well as afferent function  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/3  
Q.No. 2 The sensory nerve ending responsible for the sensation of cold is:     
 
1.Krause’s end bulb     
2.Meissner’s corpuscle     
3.Pacini corpuscle     
4.Ruffini’s end organ     
 
 Right ->  Krause’s end bulb  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/5  
Q.No. 3 The return of the resting potential occurs within ________ after initial
stimulation:     
 
1.1 to 2 m sec     
2.0.5 to 1.2 m sec     
3.1.5 to 2.6 m sec     
4.3 to 4 m sec     
 
 Right ->  3 to 4 m sec  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/8  
Q.No. 4 Which of the following is a characteristic of muscle pain?     
 
1.Sharp burning and intense pain; constant or intermittent     
2.Diffuse in nature, may be referred, difficult to localize     
3.Dull in nature, limited to area of origin     
4.All of the above     
 
 Right ->  Dull in nature, limited to area of origin  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/17  
Q.No. 5 The sensory nerve supply to corner of the mouth is by:     
 
1.Superior labial fibers of infraorbital nerve of V2     
2.Long buccal nerve of V3     
3.Mandibular branch of VII     
4.Buccal and mandibular branch of VII     
 
 Right ->  Superior labial fibers of infraorbital nerve of V2  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/22  
 Q.No. 6 The secretory nerve supply of hard palate is by:     
 
1.Nasopalatine branch of V2     
2.Palatine nerve of IX     
3.Greater superficial nerve of VII     
4.All of the above     
 
 Right ->  Greater superficial nerve of VII  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/  
Q.No. 7 Sensory nerve supply of maxillary gingivae on to the lateral side is by:     
 
1.Superior labial nerve of infra orbital nerve of V2     
2.Greater palatine nerve of V2     
3.Nasopalatine nerve of V2     
4.Middle superior alveolar nerve of V2     
 
 Right ->  Superior labial nerve of infra orbital nerve of V2  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/22  
Q.No. 8 The ophthalmic nerve enters the orbit through:     
 
1.Superior orbital fissure     
2.Infraorbital foramen     
3.Inferior orbital fissure     
4.Supraorbital foramen     
 
 Right ->  Superior orbital fissure  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/25  
Q.No. 9 The ganglion of valentine is located at the junction of:     
 
1.Posterior and middle superior alveolar nerves     
2.Anterior and middle superior alveolar nerves     
3.Anterior and posterior superior alveolar nerves     
4.Anterior, posterior and middle superior alveolar nerves     
 
 Right ->  Posterior and middle superior alveolar nerves  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/37  
Q.No. 10Sympathetic root of ciliary ganglion arises from:     
 
1.Sensory root of the nasociliary nerve     
2.Internal carotid plexus     
3.External carotid plexus     
4.Both 1 & 2     
 
 Right ->  Both 1 & 2  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/30  
Q.No. 11Vidian nerve is formed by union of:     
 
1.Greater superficial petrosal and deep petrosal nerves     
2.Inferior nasal branch of anterior ethmoidal nerve and external nasal nerve     
3.Postero superior lateral nasal and postero superior medial nasal nerve     
4.Posterior, middle and inferior palatine nerve     
 
 Right ->  Greater superficial petrosal and deep petrosal nerves  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/39  
Q.No. 12The trigeminal nerve has a distinct motor root that conveys efferent fibers to
muscles derived from second branchial arch; trigeminal ganglion has a motor
root to otic ganglion:     
 
1.First statement is true; second is false     
2.First statement is false; second is true     
3.Both statements are true     
4.Both statements are false     
 
 Right ->  Both statements are false  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/54  
Q.No. 13Mylohyoid branch of mandibular nerve supplies to:     
 
1.Tensor tympani     
2.Anterior belly of diagnostic     
3.Buccinators     
4.None of the above     
 
 Right ->  Anterior belly of diagnostic  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/54  
Q.No. 14Superior dental plexus is composed of:     
 
1.Anterior, middle, posterior, superior alveolar nerves     
2.Anterior, middle, posterior palatine nerves     
3.Pterygopalatine and zygomatic nerves     
4.Frontal, lacrimal and nasociliary nerves     
 
 Right ->  Anterior, middle, posterior, superior alveolar nerves  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/677  
Q.No. 15Largest branch of mandibular division is:     
 
1.Auriculotemporal nerve     
2.Lingual nerve     
3.Inferior alveolar nerve     
4.Nerves tentorii     
 
 Right ->  Inferior alveolar nerve  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/680  
Q.No. 16For a maximum effect the injected local anaesthetic drug must come into contact
with atleast _____ ofnerve to block two or three adjacent nodes of Ranvier:     
 
1.1 to 2 mm     
2.3 to 4 mm     
3.0.5 to 2.5 mm     
4.8 to 10 mm     
 
 Right ->  8 to 10 mm  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/55  
Q.No. 17The needle used for interseptal injection technique is of ___ gauge:     
 
1.21     
2.19     
3.23     
4.24     
 
 Right ->  23  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/61  
Q.No. 18All of the following is/are benzoic acid esters except:     
 
1.Piperocaine     
2.Meprylcaine     
3.Isobucaine     
4.Primacaine     
 
 Right ->  Primacaine  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/124,125  
Q.No. 19All of the following is / are esters except:     
 
1.Propoxycaine     
2.2 chloroprocaine     
3.Butethamine     
4.Mepivacaine     
 
 Right ->  Mepivacaine  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/124,125  
Q.No. 20All anaesthetic salts are formed by a combination of:     
 
1.A weak base and a strong acid     
2.A weak acid and a strong base     
3.A weak acid and a weak base     
4.A strong acid and a strong base     
 
 Right ->  A weak base and a strong acid  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/125  
Q.No. 21The adrenal medulla contains about ______ of epinephrine and norepinephrine
per gram of tissue:     
 
1.0.2 to 0.6 mg     
2.2 to 4 mg     
3.5 to 6 mg     
4.4.5 to 6.8 mg     
 
 Right ->  2 to 4 mg  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/155  
Q.No. 22Procaine was synthesized by:     
 
1.Einhorn     
2.Hurley     
3.Schriffrin     
4.Hodgkin     
 
 Right ->  Einhorn  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-6th/131  
Q.No. 23LA does not act in presence of infection due to:     
 
1.Increase in cationic form     
2.Increase in anion form     
3.Presence of free base molecules     
4.High pH     
 
 Right ->  Presence of free base molecules  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > -------  
Q.No. 24Anatomical landmarks for administration of posterior superior alveolar nerve
block are mucobuccal fold, occlusal plane, coronoid process and:     
 
1.Anterior border of ramus     
2.Mandibular 2nd premolar     
3.Pterygomandibular raphe     
4.Palatine tonsils     
 
 Right ->  Anterior border of ramus  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Monheim’s-7th/82  
Q.No. 25All of the following areas are best viewed in posteroanterior view of each
mandibular radiograph except:     
 
1.Body of mandible     
2.Mandibular symphysis     
3.Condylar neck     
4.Nasal cavity     
 
 Right ->  Mandibular symphysis  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/11  
Q.No. 26Exfoliative cytology was introduced by:     
 
1.Papanicolaou and Traunt     
2.Lee White     
3.Blumberg     
4.Hutchison and Peterson Ellis     
 
 Right ->  Papanicolaou and Traunt  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/16  
Q.No. 27A needle of ______ gauge is used for FNAC:     
 
1.19     
2.24     
3.29     
4.36     
 
 Right ->  24  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/16  
Q.No. 28Excision biopsy is suitable for lesions measuring:     
 
1. 1 cm     
2. 2 cm     
3. 3 cm     
4. 2.4 cm     
 
 Right ->   1 cm  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/17  
Q.No. 29A positive Australia Antigen Test is indicative of:     
 
1.Positive HIV 1     
2.Positive HIV 2     
3.Positive Hepatitis B virus     
4.Positive Herpes simplex virus     
 
 Right ->  Positive Hepatitis B virus  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/16  
Q.No. 30According to the, ASA physical classification ASA IV refers to:     
 
1.A patient with severe systemic disease, that limits activity, but is not incapacitating     
2.A patient with incapacitating systemic disease, that is a constant threat to life     
3.A moribund patient not expected to survive 24 hours with or without surgery     
4.Emergency operation of any kind, E precedes the ASA number indicating the patient’s
physical status     
 
 Right ->  A patient with incapacitating systemic disease, that is a constant threat to life  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/33  
Q.No. 31The most commonly used Bard Parker Blade Handle in oral surgery is no:     
 
1.2     
2.3     
3.10     
4.8     
 
 Right ->  3  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/42  
Q.No. 32Blade indicated for making stab incision is no:     
 
1.10     
2.11     
3.12     
4.18     
 
 Right ->  11  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/42  
Q.No. 33The osteotome is similar to the chisel except that:     
 
1.The working edge is beveled     
2.The working edge is unibeveled     
3.The working edge is bibeveled     
4.The working edge is tribeveled     
 
 Right ->  The working edge is bibeveled  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/47  
Q.No. 34The elevator is a lever of _______ order:     
 
1.First     
2.Second     
3.Third     
4.Fourth     
 
 Right ->  First  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/53  
Q.No. 35Cryer’s Elevator is based on _______ principle:     
 
1.Wheel and Axle     
2.Wedge     
3.Lever     
4.Lever and Wedge     
 
 Right ->  Lever and Wedge  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/55  
Q.No. 36Winter’s elevator works on the principle of:     
 
1.Lever and wedge     
2.Wheel and axle     
3.Wheel and axle and wedge     
4.Wheel and axle and lever     
 
 Right ->  Wheel and axle  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/55  
Q.No. 37The first description of sutures used in operative procedures is recorded by:     
 
1.Rhazes     
2.Papyrus     
3.Claudius     
4.Hayton Williams     
 
 Right ->  Papyrus  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/59  
Q.No. 38Absorption rate of polydiaxonone suture material is:     
 
1.60 days     
2.90 days     
3.7 days     
4.210 days     
 
 Right ->  210 days  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/60  
Q.No. 39In semilunar incision, a gap of __ must be present from the base of gingival sulcus
to the incision:     
 
1.0.26 mm     
2.0.5 mm     
3.5 mm     
4.2.4 mm     
 
 Right ->  5 mm  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/120  
Q.No. 40Vertical incisions should be placed at an _____ angle to the horizontal incision:     
 
1.Acute     
2.Right     
3.Obtuse     
4.Zero degree     
 
 Right ->  Obtuse  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/120  
Q.No. 41All of the following is / are contraindications for placement of incisional lines
except:     
 
1.Vertical incision on the lingual side of mandibular arch     
2.Over canine prominence     
3.Over bony lesions     
4.None of the above     
 
 Right ->  None of the above  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/120  
Q.No. 42Difficulty index of vertically impacted lower molar is:     
 
1.1     
2.2     
3.3     
4.4     
 
 Right ->  3  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/124  
Q.No. 43The most commonly seen impacted third molar is:     
 
1.Horizontal     
2.Mesioangular     
3.Linguoangular     
4.Buccoangular     
 
 Right ->  Mesioangular  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/124  
Q.No. 44According to classification of impacted maxillary     
 
1.Palatally placed     
2.Involving both buccal and palatal bone     
3.Impacted in alveolar process between incisors and first premolar     
4.Impacted in the edentulous mandible     
 
 Right ->  Impacted in alveolar process between incisors and first premolar  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/126  
Q.No. 45Every additional mm to the red line renders the removal of molars _____ times
more difficult:     
 
1.Two     
2.Three     
3.Five     
4.Six     
 
 Right ->  Three  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/127,128  
Q.No. 46Amber line is drawn:     
 
1.Touching the occlusal surface of first and second molar     
2.Perpendicular to the white line to an imaginary point of application of the elevator     
3.Crest of interdental septum between the molars extending posteriorly to distal to third
molar     
4.Touching occlusal surface of first, second molar and extending to the third molar     
 
 Right ->  Crest of interdental septum between the molars extending posteriorly to distal to third
molar  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/127  
Q.No. 47The normal position of the lingual nerve is:     
 
1.2 mm above the crest and 0.2 mm lingual to lingual cortex of mandible in third molar
region     
2.0.2 mm above the crest and 0.5 mm buccal to buccal cortex of mandible in third molar
region     
3.0.5 mm lateral to the crest and 0.5 mm medial to lingual cortex of mandible in third
molar region     
4.2 mm inferior to the crest and 0.5 mm lingual to the lingual cortex of mandible in third
molar region     
 
 Right ->  2 mm inferior to the crest and 0.5 mm lingual to the lingual cortex of mandible in third
molar region  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/130  
Q.No. 48____ is called as ‘check ligament’ of TMJ:     
 
1.Temporomandibualr ligament     
2.Sphenomandibualr ligament     
3.Stylomandibular ligament     
4.Both 1 & 2     
 
 Right ->  Temporomandibualr ligament  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/206,207  
Q.No. 49The volume of upper joint space of TMJ is about:     
 
1.1.2 ml     
2.0.9 ml     
3.2.6 ml     
4.3.8 ml     
 
 Right ->  1.2 ml  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/207  
Q.No. 50The articular eminence is located approximately:     
 
1.1.5 cm anterior to external auditory meatus     
2.0.5 cm lateral to external auditory meatus     
3.1.6 mm medial to internal auditory meatus     
4.1.8 mm medial to internal auditory meatus     
 
 Right ->  1.5 cm anterior to external auditory meatus  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/219  
Q.No. 51Depression of mandible is dominated by ____ and     
 
1.Digastric and lateral pterygoid     
2.Masseter and geniohyoid     
3.Lateral pterygoid and temporalis     
4.Diagastric and temporalis     
 
 Right ->  Digastric and lateral pterygoid  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/210  
Q.No. 52Accessory ligament makes no contribution to joint activity; condylar disc has a
very little potential for repair after insult:     
 
1.First statement is true, second is false     
2.First statement is false, second is true     
3.Both statements are true     
4.Both statements are false     
 
 Right ->  Both statements are true  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/207,208  
Q.No. 53_____ performed an osteotomy on the eminence and turned it down in front of the
condylar head to prevent forward movement of hypermobile condyle:     
 
1.Lindermann     
2.Mayor     
3.Dautry     
4.Findlay     
 
 Right ->  Lindermann  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/217  
Q.No. 54Eminectomy was first reported by:     
 
1.Myrhang     
2.Risdon     
3.Dingman     
4.Thoma     
 
 Right ->  Myrhang  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/218  
Q.No. 55An ‘inverted hockey stick’ incision a modification of preauricular incision over
the zygomatic arch was used by:     
 
1.Al Kayat and Bramley     
2.Thoma     
3.Blair and Ivy     
4.Popowich and Crane     
 
 Right ->  Blair and Ivy  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/223  
Q.No. 56According to grading of TMJ ankylosis by Sawhney, Type III refers to:     
 
1.The condylar head is present without much distortion, movement impossible     
2.Bony fusion of misshaped head and the articular surface without involvement of sigmoid
notch and coronoid process     
3.A bony block bridging across the ramus and zygomatic arch with involvement of sigmoid
notch and coronoid process     
4.Complete bony block between the ramus and the skull base     
 
 Right ->  A bony block bridging across the ramus and zygomatic arch with involvement of
sigmoid notch and coronoid process  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/231  
Q.No. 57_______ was the first one to indicate an occlusal aetiology is TMJ pain:     
 
1.Laskin     
2.Schwartz     
3.Costen     
4.Toller and Poswillo     
 
 Right ->  Costen  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/240  
Q.No. 58While breathing, speaking or swallowing ______ is a link between supra and
infrahyoid group of:     
 
1.Masseter     
2.Temporalis     
3.Condylar disc     
4.Diagastric     
 
 Right ->  Diagastric  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/245  
Q.No. 59Dosage of ultrasound therapy for treatment of MPDS     
 
1.0.2 to 0.8 watts per cm2/15 minutes/daily     
2.2.6 to 3.8 watts per cm2/10 minutes/daily     
3.3.4 to 6.4 watts per cm2/12 minutes/once a week     
4.0.7 to 1.0 watts per cm2/10 minutes/alternate day     
 
 Right ->  0.7 to 1.0 watts per cm2/10 minutes/alternate day  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/249  
Q.No. 60In intra-articular injection for treatment of MPDS the direction of needle is
_______ till it strikes the root of the glenoid fossa at a depth of_____:     
 
1.Inward, forward, upward; 2 to 3 cm     
2.Inward, backward, upward; 1 to 2 cm     
3.Inward, backward, downward; 3 to 4 cm     
4.Outward, forward, downward; 3 to 4 cm     
 
 Right ->  Inward, forward, upward; 2 to 3 cm  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/250  
Q.No. 61A needle of _______ gauge is used for arthrocentesis technique:     
 
1.19     
2.25     
3.23     
4.22     
 
 Right ->  19  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/252  
Q.No. 62During arthrocentesis technique which of the following nerve is blocked:     
 
1.Inferior     
2.Lingual     
3.Masseteric     
4.Auriculotemporal     
 
 Right ->  Auriculotemporal  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/252  
Q.No. 63The technique of TMJ arthroscopy was made popular by:     
 
1.Mackenzie     
2.Banks     
3.Toller     
4.Ohnishi     
 
 Right ->  Ohnishi  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/252  
Q.No. 64The diameter of arthroscope used for TMJ arthroscopy is:     
 
1.1.7 mm     
2.2.6 mm     
3.3.4 mm     
4.3.8 mm     
 
 Right ->  1.7 mm  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/252  
Q.No. 65In single puncture athroscopy technique, the trocar and cannula should be kept
 at a _____ angle to skin and directed anterosuperiorly at an angle of _______ to
horizontal plane:     
 
1.90 degree and 10 degree     
2.46 degree and 30 degree     
3.60 degree and 10 degree     
4.120 degree and 60 degree     
 
 Right ->  90 degree and 10 degree  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/254  
Q.No. 66In a normal joint the synovial capillaries have a _____ appearance:     
 
1.Spider web     
2.Cherry blossom     
3.Leafless tree     
4.Branched tree     
 
 Right ->  Spider web  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/255  
Q.No. 67Surgical treatment of TMJ Dysfunction disorders was first introduced by:     
 
1.Humphrey     
2.Topazian     
3.Schwartz     
4.Mackenzie and Banks     
 
 Right ->  Humphrey  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/256  
Q.No. 68For interposition arthroplasty using autogenous costochondral graft which rib is
harvested:     
 
1.5th     
2.6th     
3.7th     
4.All of the above     
 
 Right ->  All of the above  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/235  
Q.No. 69The term ‘Tic Douloureux’ was coined by:     
 
1.John Locke     
2.Nicholas Andre     
3.John Fothergill     
4.Costen     
 
 Right ->  Nicholas Andre  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/685  
Q.No. 70Petrous ridge compression was suggested as etiological factor of trigeminal
neuralgia by:     
 
1.Olfson     
2.Lee     
3.Westrum and Black     
4.Shetrington     
 
 Right ->  Lee  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/686  
Q.No. 71_____ forms the definitive diagnosis of trigeminal neuralgia:     
 
1.MRI scanning     
2.CT scan     
3.Well taken history     
4.Response to carbamazepine     
 
 Right ->  Response to carbamazepine  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/687  
Q.No. 72A response to anticonvulsant in cases of trigeminal neuralgia was showed by:     
 
1.John Locke     
2.John Fothergill     
3.Nicholas Andre     
4.Blom     
 
 Right ->  Blom  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/687  
Q.No. 73All of the following is/are intracranial surgical treatment modalities of trigeminal
neuralgia except:     
 
1.Medullary tractotomy     
2.RFTC at gasserian ganglion     
3.Retrogasserian rhizotomy     
4.Nerve section and avulsion     
 
 Right ->  Nerve section and avulsion  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/688  
Q.No. 74Peripheral Neurectomy is rarely performed on:     
 
1.Infraorbital     
2.Inferior alveolar-mental     
3.Lingual     
4.Both 1 & 2     
 
 Right ->  Lingual  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/690  
Q.No. 75In patients of trigeminal neuralgia, more of daily drug dosage should be taken at
night because:     
 
1.Symptoms like nausea, vomiting, gastric     
2.Side effects like visual blurring, dizziness, somnolence can be controlled     
3.Rate of hepatic dysfunction and thrombocytopenia is reduced     
4.Adequate serum concentration can be present early morning     
 
 Right ->  Adequate serum concentration can be present early morning  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/688  
Q.No. 76The dosage of tegretol for treatment of trigeminal neuralgia is:     
 
1.400 mg once daily     
2.200 mg twice daily     
3.200 mg thrice daily     
4.100 mg thrice daily     
 
 Right ->  100 mg thrice daily  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/687,688  
Q.No. 77The dosage of Tolceram for treatment of trigeminal neuralgia is:     
 
1.1200 mg/day     
2.600 mg/day     
3.100 mg thrice daily     
4.5 to 15 ml / 5 times / daily     
 
 Right ->  5 to 15 ml / 5 times / daily  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/688  
Q.No. 78Braun’s transantral approach has got the potential to have sound treatment for
intractable _______ neuralgia:     
 
1.V1     
2.V2     
3.V3     
4.All of the above     
 
 Right ->  V2  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/690  
Q.No. 79For inferior alveolar nuerectomy, the incision given for extraoral approach is:     
 
1.Caldwell Luc incision     
2.Risdon’s incision     
3.Dr. Ginwalla’s incision     
4.Braun’s incision     
 
 Right ->  Risdon’s incision  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/691  
Q.No. 80For infraorbital neurectomy the incision given in intraoral approach is:     
 
1.Cald Well Luc incision     
2.Hilton’s stab incision     
3.Inverted T incision     
4.Dr. Ginwalla’s incision     
 
 Right ->  Cald Well Luc incision  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/690  
Q.No. 81The temperature used for cryoneurolysis of peripheral nerves is around:     
 
1.– 60 degree C     
2.– 50 degree C     
3.– 20 degree C     
4.– 10 degree C     
 
 Right ->  – 60 degree C  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/693  
Q.No. 82True about cryosurgery is/are:     
 
1.No regeneration of axons occur, after cryosurgery     
2.Does not produce wallerian degeneration     
3.Produces wallerian degeneration along with the destruction of nerve sheath     
4.Produces wallerian degeneration without destroying the nerve sheath itself     
 
 Right ->  Produces wallerian degeneration without destroying the nerve sheath itself  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/693  
Q.No. 83Surgical management of trigeminal pain with radio frequency lesions of the
peripheral nerves was reported by:     
 
1.Greenwood & Gilchrist     
2.Mckenzie     
3.Hydson     
4.Gregg & Small     
 
 Right ->  Gregg & Small  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/693  
Q.No. 84During thermocoagulation, lesioning is carried out at a temperature of:     
 
1.110 to 120 degree C     
2.140 to 160 degree C     
3.210 to 220 degree C     
4.65 to 75 degree C     
 
 Right ->  65 to 75 degree C  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/693  
Q.No. 85______ introduced percutaneous electrocoagulation of the gasserian ganglion:     
 
1.Harris     
2.Tapatas     
3.Hartel     
4.Kirschner     
 
 Right ->  Kirschner  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/693  
Q.No. 86During percutaneous Gasserian ganglion electrocoagulation the point of
penetration of needle / electrode is:     
 
1.Midpoint of perpendicular drawn from lateral orbital rim till the inferior border of
mandible     
2.2.5 cm from the centre of external auditory meatus     
3.Hartel’s second point     
4.Hartel’s fourth point     
 
 Right ->  Hartel’s second point  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/694  
Q.No. 87A single needle of _____ gauge is used for glycerol injection for percutaneous
ganglion neurolysis:     
 
1.0.2     
2.0.6     
3.9     
4.16     
 
 Right ->  16  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/694  
Q.No. 88In Gasserian ganglion injection techniques the ganglion is approached through:   
 
1.Foramen ovale     
2.Foramen spinosum     
3.Stylomastoid foramen     
4.Infraorbital foramen     
 
 Right ->  Foramen ovale  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/695  
Q.No. 89The size of the Fogarty catheter used for Balloon compression to destroy nerve
fibers of trigeminal nerve is:     
 
1.2FG     
2.4FG     
3.6FG     
4.8FG     
 
 Right ->  4FG  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/697  
Q.No. 90A spinal needle of ______ gauge is used for balloon compression of the trigeminal
nerve:     
 
1.0.2     
2.0.6     
3.0.8     
4.12     
 
 Right ->  12  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/697  
Q.No. 91During balloon compression of the trigeminal nerve, the balloon should remain
inflated in the Meckel’s care for:     
 
1.0.2 seconds     
2.0.6 seconds     
3.2.2 minutes     
4.1 minute     
 
 Right ->  1 minute  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/697  
Q.No. 92Intradural root section is superior to extradural root section approach because:   
 
1.Less chances of bleeding     
2.Less damage to facial nerve     
3.Less damage to superior petrosal nerve     
4.All of the above     
 
 Right ->  All of the above  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/697  
Q.No. 93_______ recommended posterior fossa surgery for trigeminal root section:     
 
1.Frazier     
2.Sweet     
3.Dandy     
4.Wilkins     
 
 Right ->  Dandy  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/697  
Q.No. 94Dysesthesia refers to:     
 
1.Pain due to a stimulus that does not normally evoke pain     
2.Absence of pain in response to a stimulus that would be normally painful     
3.Total loss of all types of sensations in response to the stimulation that would be normally
painful or non-painful     
4.An unpleasant painful abnormal sensation either spontaneous or evoked     
 
 Right ->  An unpleasant painful abnormal sensation either spontaneous or evoked  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/698,699  
Q.No. 95According to Sunderland’s classification of nerve injury, axonotmesis is classified
as:     
 
1.1degree     
2.2 degree     
3.2 degree 3 degree 4 degree     
4.5 degree     
 
 Right ->  2 degree 3 degree 4 degree  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/699  
Q.No. 96Complete Wallerian degeneration is seen in:     
 
1.Neuropraxia     
2.Axonotmesis     
3.Neurotmesis     
4.All of the above     
 
 Right ->  Neurotmesis  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/699  
Q.No. 97True about Tinel’s sign, is/are:     
 
1.Indication of start of nerve regeneration     
2.Indication of amount of Wallerian degeneration     
3.Indication of conduction failure     
4.Indication of degeneration of axons     
 
 Right ->  Indication of start of nerve regeneration  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/700  
Q.No. 98According to Sunderland’s classification of nerve injuries, the indications for
micro-constructive surgery are strongest for:     
 
1.3 degree     
2.4 degree     
3.5 degree     
4.1 degree     
 
 Right ->  5 degree  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/702  
Q.No. 99Stump neuromas results from ______ injury:     
 
1.1 degree     
2.3 degree     
3.2 degree     
4.5 degree     
 
 Right ->  5 degree  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/702  
Q.No.
All of the following is/are indications for microneurosurgery except:     
100
 
1.Dysesthesia not abolished by LA nerve block     
2.Dysesthesia beyond 4 months     
3.Total anaesthesia beyond 3 months     
4.Severe hypoesthesia without improvement beyond 4 months     
 
 Right ->  Dysesthesia not abolished by LA nerve block  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/704  
Q.No. As the facial nerve exists from the stylomastoid foramen it gives all of the
101 following branches except:     
 
1.Posterior auricular     
2.Posterior belly of diagastric     
3.Stylohyoid     
4.Chorda tympani     
 
 Right ->  Chorda tympani  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/709  
Q.No.
Lower motor neurons of which cranial nerve crosses the midline:     
102
 
1.Facial     
2.Trochlear     
3.Glossopharyngeal     
4.Hypoglossal     
 
 Right ->  Trochlear  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/711  
Q.No.
Crocodile Tear syndrome can be treated by dividing _____ nerve:     
103
 
1.Mandibular     
2.Ophthalmic     
3.Optic     
4.Greater petrosal     
 
 Right ->  Greater petrosal  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/713  
Q.No.
The cranial nerve involved in Melkersson – Rosenthal syndrome is:     
104
 
1.Trochlear     
2.Facial     
3.Mandibular     
4.Glossopharyngeal     
 
 Right ->  Facial  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/711,713  
Q.No.
Guillain-Barre syndrome leads to paralysis of which cranial nerve:     
105
 
1.IIIrd     
2.VIIth     
3.IX     
4.X     
 
 Right ->  VIIth  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/714  
Q.No.
According to House-Brackman’s classification of facial palsy grade V refers to:   
106
 
1.Moderately severe dysfunction     
2.Severe dysfunction     
3.Total paralysis     
4.Normal function without weakness     
 
 Right ->  Severe dysfunction  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/715  
Q.No.
The nerve / nerves used for autogenous grafting of facial nerve is/are:     
107
 
1.Hypoglossal     
2.Sural nerve     
3.Cervical plexus from ipsilateral or contralateral side     
4.All of the above     
 
 Right ->  All of the above  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/715  
Q.No.
The recommended dose of prednisolone for relieving pain in facial palsy is:     
108
 
1.0.2 mg / kg / d     
2.0.6 mg / kg / d     
3.20 mg / kg / d     
4.1 mg / kg / d     
 
 Right ->  1 mg / kg / d  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/720  
Q.No.
According to Glasgow coma scale, no. 4 refers that verbal response is:     
109
 
1.No sound     
2.Incomprehensible sound     
3.Confused conservation     
4.Appropriate and oriented     
 
 Right ->  Confused conservation  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/324  
Q.No.
According to Glasgow coma scale, no. 3 refers that motor response is:     
110
 
1.Abnormal extensor response     
2.Abnormal flexor response     
3.Localizes pain     
4.Withdraws to pain     
 
 Right ->  Abnormal flexor response  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/324  
Q.No.
The cerebrospinal fluid rhinorrhoea can be seen in:     
111
 
1.Le Fort I     
2.Le Fort II     
3.Le Fort III     
4.Both 2 & 3     
 
 Right ->  Both 2 & 3  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/326  
Q.No.
For zygomatico maxillary complex fracture, the xray indicated is/are:     
112
 
1.Occipitomenton view 150 and 300     
2.PA view – Water’s position     
3.Submentovertex projection     
4.All of the above     
 
 Right ->  All of the above  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/327  
Q.No.
In condylar fractures immobilization is done for a period of:     
113
 
1.2 – 3 months     
2.3 to 4 weeks     
3.4 – 6 weeks     
4.2 – 3 weeks     
 
 Right ->  2 – 3 weeks  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/330  
Q.No.
The gauge of wire used for Essig’s wiring is:     
114
 
1.28     
2.26     
3.14     
4.16     
 
 Right ->  26  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/330  
Q.No.
The metallic ‘Halo Frame’ used for external fixation was devised by:     
115
 
1.Obwegeser     
2.Crewe     
3.Risdon     
4.Gilmer     
 
 Right ->  Crewe  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/338  
Q.No.
Champy plate is:     
116
 
1.Monocorticol compressive     
2.Monocortical non compressive     
3.Biocortical non compressive     
4.Bicortical compressive     
 
 Right ->  Monocortical non compressive  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Michael G. Stewart/95  
Q.No.
When a case is transferred to ICU, mandibular fractures are evaluated in:     
117
 
1.Primary survey     
2.Secondary survey     
3.Primary survey with IMF     
4.Away from resuscitation room     
 
 Right ->  Primary survey  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Peter Wardbooth /31,34,53; Fonseca-3rd/1-2  
Q.No. According to rule of tension and compressional forces acting along the condylar
118 border, best way to stabilize a condylar fracture against these forces would
require:     
 
1.One plate at anterior border and one at posterior     
2.A plate at anterior border     
3.A plate at posterior border     
4.A plate at lateral border     
 
 Right ->  One plate at anterior border and one at posterior  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Peter Wardbooth /291-292  
Q.No. A patient had a fall resulting in midsymphyseal guardsman fracture. White
119 reducing the fracture lingual splaying of the segments was noted. This will cause
increase in:     
 
1.Interpupillary distance     
2.Intercanthal distance     
3.Interangular distance     
4.Go-Gn distance     
 
 Right ->  Interangular distance  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Peter Wardbooth /282  
Q.No.
Treatment of comminuted fracture of mandible would require use of:     
120
 
1.Reconstruction plates with centric screws     
2.Dynamic compression plates with eccentric screws     
3.Multiple miniplates     
4.Single miniplate which gives functional union     
 
 Right ->  Reconstruction plates with centric screws  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > -------  
Q.No.
Type of healing seen after compression plating is:     
121
 
1.Primary     
2.Secondary     
3.Tertiary     
4.All of the above     
 
 Right ->  Primary  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Peterson’s Principle of Oral & Maxillofacial surgery-2nd(Vol-1) /371-381  
Q.No. A case of subcondylar fracture with fragment overlap of greater than 5 mm and
122 deviation of greater than 370 degrees would require:     
 
1.Closed reduction IMF     
2.ORIF     
3.Soft diet     
4.No treatment     
 
 Right ->  ORIF  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Peter Wardbooth /282  
Q.No.
Anterior open bite occurs in the fracture of:     
123
 
1.Symphysis     
2.Bilateral angle     
3.Bilateral condyle     
4.Unilateral condyle     
 
 Right ->  Bilateral condyle  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Fonseca-3rd/536  
Q.No.
Bilateral subconjunctival ecchymosis is not associated with:     
124
 
1.Le-fort II fracture     
2.Le-fort III fracture     
3.Naso-ethmoidal complex fracture     
4.Le-fort I fracture     
 
 Right ->  Le-fort I fracture  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Fonseca-3rd/650  
Q.No. Choice of intubation in a patient with Lefort II, Lefort III and nasoethmoid
125 fracture would be:     
 
1.Oral     
2.Oral & nasal     
3.Nasal     
4.Submental     
 
 Right ->  Submental  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Peter Wardbooth /243-245,39-40  
Q.No.
Anterior displacement in condylar fractures is due to the action of:     
126
 
1.Medial pterygoid     
2.Lateral pterygoid     
3.Buccinator     
4.Temporalis     
 
 Right ->  Lateral pterygoid  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > -----  
Q.No.
The most common site of leak in CSF rhinoerhoea is:     
127
 
1.Sphenoid Sinus     
2.Frontal Sinus     
3.Cribriform plate     
4.Tegmen tympani     
 
 Right ->  Cribriform plate  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Rowe & Williams-2nd/92  
Q.No.
Battles sign is:     
128
 
1.Subconjunctival ecchymosis     
2.Sublingual ecchymosis     
3.Palatal ecchymosis     
4.Ecchymosis in the mastoid region     
 
 Right ->  Ecchymosis in the mastoid region  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Rowe & Williams-2nd/116  
Q.No. An average patient with maxillofacial trauma requires how much of daily
129 sodium:     
 
1.100 mmo1     
2.50-60 mmo1     
3.10 mmo1     
4.1000 mmo1     
 
 Right ->  100 mmo1  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Fonseca-2nd/72  
Q.No.
Pathognomic sign of mandibular fracture:     
130
 
1.Malocclusion     
2.Hematoma (Sublingual)     
3.Tenderness and swelling at site     
4.Inability to open mouth     
 
 Right ->  Hematoma (Sublingual)  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Fonseca-2nd/489  
Q.No.
Paraesthesia is seen with which of the following types of fractures:     
131
 
1.Subcondylar     
2.Zygomaticomaxillary     
3.Coronoid process     
4.Symphyseal     
 
 Right ->  Zygomaticomaxillary  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Fonseca-2nd/678  
Q.No.
Non-compression Monocortical Screw system was developed by:     
132
 
1.Michelet     
2.Champy     
3.Shea and Anthony     
4.Lesney     
 
 Right ->  Michelet  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/346  
Q.No. In every mandibular fracture, the forces of mastication produce tension forces
133 at:     
 
1.The upper border of mandible     
2.The lower border of mandible     
3.Alveolar crest region     
4.Both 1 & 2     
 
 Right ->  The upper border of mandible  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/347  
Q.No. According to Marciani’s modification of Le Fort’s fracture classification, Le Fort
134 IV(a) refers to:     
 
1.Plus supraorbital rim fracture     
2.Plus anterior cranial fossa and supraorbital rim     
3.Plus anterior cranial fossa and orbital wall fracture     
4.Pyramidal and NOE fracture     
 
 Right ->  Plus supraorbital rim fracture  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/357  
Q.No. According to Rowe and Killey’s classification of the Zygomatico complex
135 fractures, Type VIII refers to:     
 
1.Displacement of the complex en bloc     
2.Displacement of the orbitoantral partition     
3.Displacement of the orbital rim segments     
4.Complex comminuted fractures     
 
 Right ->  Displacement of the orbital rim segments  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/359  
Q.No. In forced duction test, the tendon of ____ muscle is grasped through the
136 conjunctiva of the inferior fornix to check the entire range of ocular motion:     
 
1.Superior rectus     
2.Inferior rectus     
3.Superior oblique     
4.Lateral oblique     
 
 Right ->  Inferior rectus  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/362  
Q.No. _____ described the reduction of fracture by rubber dam sheets or by means of
137 long ribbon / strip gauze or rubber catheters:     
 
1.Dingman     
2.Hurding     
3.Propescu and Burlibasa     
4.Hayton William     
 
 Right ->  Propescu and Burlibasa  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/364  
Q.No.
According to Olson’s study, the least common area of fracture of mandible is:     
138
 
1.Symphysis     
2.Ramas     
3.Dentoalveolar     
4.Coronoid     
 
 Right ->  Coronoid  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/381  
Q.No. According AO classification of mandbiular fracture classifies the following case –
139 communited fracture of condyle of edentulous mandible open extraorally
associated with fracture of zygoma:     
 
1.F3L602S2A3     
2.F2L40053A4     
3.F2L701S1A2     
4.F4L301S1A5     
 
 Right ->  F3L602S2A3  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/385  
Q.No. Concept of management of mandibular fracture using transosseous silver wiring
140 was given by:     
 
1.Erich & Austin     
2.Buck     
3.Gordon     
4.Michelet     
 
 Right ->  Buck  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/386  
Q.No.
Concept of osteosynthesis lines was put forward by:     
141
 
1.Spiessel     
2.Gordon     
3.Michelet     
4.Champy     
 
 Right ->  Champy  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/386  
Q.No.
The minimum diameter of miniplate osteosynthesis is _______ with bevel of:     
142
 
1.0.9 mm and 45 degree     
2.0.5 mm and 60 degree     
3.1.5 mm and 90 degree     
4.2.1 mm and 30 degree     
 
 Right ->  2.1 mm and 30 degree  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/395  
Q.No.
According to Wassmund’s classification of condylar fracture, class IV refers to:   
143
 
1.An angle of 10 to 450 exits between the head and the axis of the ramus     
2.An angle of 45 to 900 exits between the head and the ramus     
3.Fractured head articulates on or forward to the articular eminence     
4.Vertical or oblique fracture through head of the condyle     
 
 Right ->  Fractured head articulates on or forward to the articular eminence  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/404  
Q.No.
Condylar fracture above the level of the lateral pterygoid muscle insertion:     
144
 
1.Exhibits medial and upward displacement     
2.Exhibits lateral and downward displacement     
3.Exhibits lateral and upward displacement     
4.Do not exhibit displacement     
 
 Right ->  Do not exhibit displacement  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/408,409  
Q.No.
True about Meta-arthrosis is/are:     
145
 
1.Malunion resulting in disturbances, in anatomy as well as function with non articulating
condyle     
2.False joint, very painful during normal excursions     
3.Anatomically altered, transformed, modified     
4.None of the above     
 
 Right ->  Anatomically altered, transformed, modified  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/413  
Q.No.
‘Knobby’ appearance of the chin is a fracture of:     
146
 
1.Prognathic mandible     
2.Retrognathic mandible     
3.Vertical maxillary excess     
4.Vertical maxillary deficiency     
 
 Right ->  Vertical maxillary deficiency  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/262  
Q.No. Definitive orthodontic surgical treatment is carried out in which phase of
147 diagnosis and treatment planning:     
 
1.Phase II     
2.Phase III     
3.Phase IV     
4.Phase V     
 
 Right ->  Phase III  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/268  
Q.No.
Normal intercanthal and interpupillary distance is:     
148
 
1.32 ± 3 mm and 65 ± 3 mm     
2.22 ± 2 mm and 46 ± 2 mm     
3.10 ± 3 mm and 25 ± 3 mm     
4.40 ± 1.5 mm and 60 ± 1.5 mm     
 
 Right ->  32 ± 3 mm and 65 ± 3 mm  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/268  
Q.No.
The normal upper lip length for males is:     
149
 
1.20 ± 2 mm     
2.22 ± 2 mm     
3.25 ± 2 mm     
4.26 ± 2 mm     
 
 Right ->  22 ± 2 mm  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/268  
Q.No. Provided upper lip length is normal, the distance from the glabella to subnasale
150 and subnasale to menton should be in ______ ratio:     
 
1.1 : 1     
2.2 : 1     
3.3 : 1     
4.1 : 2     
 
 Right ->  1 : 1  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/269  
Q.No.
In normal position, the lower lip should protrude by:     
151
 
1.3.5 mm     
2.3.4 mm     
3.1.2 mm     
4.2.2 mm     
 
 Right ->  2.2 mm  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/270  
Q.No. Normal value of the angle between a line drawn from the lower lip to the soft
152 tissue pogonion and a line drawn tangent to the soft tissue contour below the body
of mandible is:     
 
1.– 8 degree ± 2     
2.– 11 degree ± 2     
3.110 degree ± 8 degree     
4.51 degree ± 6 degree     
 
 Right ->  110 degree ± 8 degree  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/270  
Q.No.
The deepest point of the bridge of the nose is:     
153
 
1.Subnasale     
2.Soft tissue nasion     
3.Supranasale     
4.Anterior nasal spine     
 
 Right ->  Soft tissue nasion  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/271  
Q.No. The importance of accurately estimating facial growth based on facial pattern
154 was recognized as a result of work by:     
 
1.Ricketts     
2.Fist and Epker     
3.Bell and White     
4.Profitt     
 
 Right ->  Ricketts  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/272  
Q.No.
The normal value of Wit’s appraisal in females is:     
155
 
1.0 mm     
2.Minus 1 mm     
3.Plus 1 mm     
4.Plus 1.5 mm     
 
 Right ->  0 mm  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/273  
Q.No. In a cephalometric analysis of a male patient SNA was 880; SNB was 930, ANB
156 was 50, and Wit’s appraisal was – 9 mm. It indicates:     
 
1.Maxilla is prognathic     
2.Mandible is prognathic     
3.Bimaxillary protusion     
4.Mandible is retrognathic     
 
 Right ->  Mandible is prognathic  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/275  
Q.No. Wire ideal for correction of rotations, alignment and leveling when used in loop
157 firm is:     
 
1.0.08” supreme grade Australian Wilcock wire     
2.0.12” Australian Wilcock wires of premium + grade     
3.0.16” coaxial wire     
4.0.14” nickel titanium wire     
 
 Right ->  0.12” Australian Wilcock wires of premium + grade  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/279  
Q.No.
The extraction pattern for presurgical orthodontics of skeletal class II is/are:     
158
 
1.Extract upper first and lower second premolar     
2.Extract upper first and lower first premolar     
3.Extract upper second and lower second premolar     
4.No maxillary tooth extraction is advocated and     
 
 Right ->  No maxillary tooth extraction is advocated and  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/279  
Q.No. The extraction pattern for presurgical orthodontics for skeletal class III
159 malocclusion is/are:     
 
1.No maxillary extraction is advocated and lower first premolar extraction is advocated     
2.No maxillary extraction is advocated and lower second premolar extraction is advocated 
3.Upper second premolars and lower first premolar extraction is advocated     
4.Upper first premolars and lower second premolar extraction is advocated     
 
 Right ->  Upper first premolars and lower second premolar extraction is advocated  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/279  
Q.No. ________ performed first anterior mandibular osteotomy for the patient of
160 distortion of face due to severe burns:     
 
1.Hullihen     
2.Edward Angle     
3.Blair     
4.Kole     
 
 Right ->  Hullihen  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/285  
Q.No.
One stage anterior maxillary osteotomy was developed by:     
161
 
1.Trauner     
2.Wassmund     
3.Converse     
4.Hunsuck     
 
 Right ->  Wassmund  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/285  
Q.No. Step osteotomy of the mandibular body for the correction of mandibular
162 prognathism was developed by:     
 
1.Obwegeser     
2.Converse     
3.Caldwell     
4.Schuchhardt     
 
 Right ->  Converse  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/285  
 Q.No.
_____ developed posterior maxillary osteotomy:     
163
 
1.Schuchhardt     
2.Obwegeser     
3.Hullihen     
4.Blair     
 
 Right ->  Schuchhardt  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/285  
Q.No.
Vertical subsigmoid osteotomy of ramus was given by:     
164
 
1.Caldwell-Letterman     
2.Obwegeser     
3.Blair     
4.Kole     
 
 Right ->  Caldwell-Letterman  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/285  
Q.No.
_______ was first to apply rigid fixation in orthognathic surgery:     
165
 
1.Luhr     
2.Spiessel     
3.Rickettes     
4.Bell & White     
 
 Right ->  Spiessel  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/285  
Q.No.
______ introduced the miniplate fixation in orthognathic surgery:     
166
 
1.Luhr     
2.Hunsuck     
3.Bell     
4.Wassmund     
 
 Right ->  Luhr  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/285  
Q.No. ____ was first to describe bimaxillary surgery for correction of bimaxillary
167 protusion:     
 
1.Kole     
2.Caldwell-Letterman     
3.Le Fort     
4.Trauner     
 
 Right ->  Kole  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/285  
Q.No. Subsigmoid oblique subcondylar osteotomy was advocated by:     
 168
 
1.Robinsons and Hinds     
2.Caldwell-Letterman     
3.Obwegeser     
4.Trauner     
 
 Right ->  Robinsons and Hinds  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/295  
Q.No.
Intraoral vertical ramus osteotomy was first described by:     
169
 
1.Winstanley     
2.Spiessel     
3.Wassmund     
4.Hunsuck     
 
 Right ->  Winstanley  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/297  
Q.No. ______ modified BSSO by placing vertical cut on the buccal cortex between the
170 first and second molars:     
 
1.Dal Pont     
2.Hunsuck     
3.Epker     
4.Obwegeser and Trauner     
 
 Right ->  Dal Pont  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/299  
Q.No.
The advantage of Epkers modification of BSSO is/are:     
171
 
1.Gives broader contact surfaces     
2.Minimal muscular displacement with improved access     
3.Reduced postoperative swelling oedema, haemorrhage     
4.All of the above     
 
 Right ->  Reduced postoperative swelling oedema, haemorrhage  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/299  
Q.No.
The first anterior maxillary setback was performed by ________ in 1921:     
172
 
1.Wassmund     
2.Cohn Stock     
3.Wunderer     
4.Epker     
 
 Right ->  Cohn Stock  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/302  
Q.No. Acrylic splints are desirable during post-operative phase of management in which
173 of following procedures:     
 
1.Mandibular alveoloplasty     
2.Torus palatinus reduction     
3.Mental tubercle reduction     
4.Excision of labial epulis fissuratum     
 
 Right ->  Torus palatinus reduction  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Laskin-1st/311  
Q.No.
Abbey - Estlander flap is used in the reconstruction of:     
174
 
1.Buccal mucosa     
2.Lip     
3.Tongue     
4.Palate     
 
 Right ->  Lip  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Moore’s surgery/1st/732  
Q.No. An edentulous patient has carcinoma of the oral cavity infiltrating into alveolar
175 margin, which of the following would not be indicated in managing the case:     
 
1.Segmental mandibulectomy     
2.Marginal mandibulectomy with removal of the     
3.Marginal mandibulectomy with removal of     
4.Radiotherapy     
 
 Right ->  Marginal mandibulectomy with removal of the  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Peterson-2nd/541  
Q.No.
Denker’s operation may result in injury to which nerve:     
176
 
1.Posterior superior alveolar nerve     
2.Anterior superior alveolar nerve     
3.Greater palatine nerve     
4.Nasopalatine nerve     
 
 Right ->  Anterior superior alveolar nerve  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > -------  
Q.No. A patient has squamous cell carcinoma of lip with invasion into the alveolus. The
177 patient is edentulous. Appropriate treatment is:     
 
1.Segmental mandibulectomy     
2.Marginal mandibulectomy     
3.Hemi-mandibulectomy     
4.Commando operation     
 
 Right ->  Marginal mandibulectomy  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Bellinger & Snow-15th/298  
Q.No. Antibiotic prophylaxis is mandatory before extraction in which of the following
178 conditions:     
 
1.Ischaemic heart diseases     
2.Hypertension     
3.Congestive heart failure     
4.Congenital heart disease     
 
 Right ->  Congenital heart disease  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Peterson-4th/362  
Q.No.
Treatment of pleomorphic adenoma of parotid is:     
179
 
1.Total parotidectomy     
2.Superficial parotidectomy     
3.Deep parotidectomy     
4.Radical parotidectomy     
 
 Right ->  Superficial parotidectomy  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neville-2nd/411,413  
Q.No. During the removal of a torus palatines it was noticed that a portion of palatal
180 bone is fractured. One would expect:     
 
1.An opening into the nasal cavity     
2.An opening into the maxillary antrum     
3.Vertical fracture of maxilla     
4.Horizontal fracture of maxilla     
 
 Right ->  An opening into the nasal cavity  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Peterson-3rd/303  
Q.No.
Following a Caldwell-Luc procedure a nasal antrostomy is done through the:     
181
 
1.Superior meatus     
2.Middle meatus     
3.Inferior meatus     
4.Middle and inferior meatus     
 
 Right ->  Inferior meatus  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Bellinger & Snow-15th/184  
Q.No.
Treatment of localized pain 3-4 days post extraction     
182
 
1.Irrigation of the socket & placement of sedative dressing     
2.Curettage of socket     
3.Creation of new blood clot     
4.Placement of antibiotics and analgesics directly in socket     
 
 Right ->  Irrigation of the socket & placement of sedative dressing  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Vinod Kapoor /50,79,134,636-638  
Q.No.
The technique employed in radiotherapy to     
183
 
1.Arc technique     
2.Modulation     
3.Gating     
4.Shunting     
 
 Right ->  Gating  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Article by Kornmehl  
Q.No.
Name of the lesion which is not a radiolucent lesion of jaws:     
184
 
1.Ameloblastoma     
2.Cherubism     
3.Focal periapical osteopetrosis     
4.Odontogenic cyst     
 
 Right ->  Focal periapical osteopetrosis  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neville-2nd/804-806  
Q.No. Name the lesion where cotton wool, multifocal radiodense conglomerates is not
185 seen usually:     
 
1.Gardner’s syndrome     
2.Cement-osseous dysplasia     
3.Paget’s disease     
4.Fibrous dysplasia     
 
 Right ->  Fibrous dysplasia  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neville-2nd/809,810  
Q.No.
The main causative organism in Ludwig Angina is:     
186
 
1.Streptococcus viridans     
2.Staphylococcus albus     
3.Staphylococcus aureus     
4.Streptococcus hemolyticus     
 
 Right ->  Streptococcus viridans  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Stell & Maran-4th/190  
Q.No.
The trismus following a lower molar extraction after 4 weeks may be due to:     
187
 
1.Breakage of needle in pterygomandibular space     
2.Hematoma of TMJ     
3.Submassetric space abscess     
4.Root stump in the socket     
 
 Right ->  Breakage of needle in pterygomandibular space  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Malamed LA-4th/246,247  
Q.No. Which of the following cardiovascular conditions can result in a medical
188 emergency in the dental office causing substernal pain, facial pallor, and cold
perspiration?     
 
1.Angina pectoris     
2.Cor pulmonale     
3.Hypertension     
4.Patent ductus arteriosus     
 
 Right ->  Angina pectoris  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > -------  
Q.No. The secondary palate fuses with triangular primary palate and the incisive
189 foramen is formed at this junction between ______ of intrauterine life:     
 
1.7th to 10th weeks     
2.12 to 16th weeks     
3.22nd to 26th weeks     
4.3 to 4 weeks     
 
 Right ->  7th to 10th weeks  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/547,548  
Q.No. The theory of failure of mesodermal migration for formation of cleft was put
190 forward by:     
 
1.Dursy – His     
2.Veau     
3.Fleischmann     
4.Davis and Ritchie     
 
 Right ->  Fleischmann  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/549  
Q.No.
The four flap method of repair of cleft was evolved by:     
191
 
1.Veau     
2.Wardill     
3.Langenback     
4.Kernatan     
 
 Right ->  Wardill  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/558  
Q.No. Surgical repair of cleft palate and placement of pressure equalization tubes is
192 done at age of:     
 
1.3 – 6 months     
2.3 to 6 years     
3.10 to 12 weeks     
4.Before age 1 to 18 months     
 
 Right ->  Before age 1 to 18 months  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/551  
Q.No.
Pre alveolar bone grafting is done at the age of:     
193
 
1.5 to 6 years     
2.10 to 12 weeks     
3.9 to 11 years     
4.15 years or later     
 
 Right ->  9 to 11 years  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/551  
Q.No.
The antral floor of maxillary sinus parallels the nasal floor at the age of:     
194
 
1.12 weeks intrauterine     
2.At birth     
3.9 years     
4.12 years     
 
 Right ->  12 years  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/564  
Q.No.
The diameter of ostium of maxillary sinus is:     
195
 
1.5.6 mm     
2.8.4 mm     
3.0.2 mm     
4.1.2 mm     
 
 Right ->  5.6 mm  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/563  
Q.No.
Whenever antral puncture is to be carried out in     
196
 
1.Inferior meatus     
2.Middle meatus     
3.Upper meatus     
4.Antral puncture is not carried out in children     
 
 Right ->  Middle meatus  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/566  
Q.No. _____ has been credited as the first surgeon to have attempted nasal and sinus
197 endoscopy with a modified cytoscope:     
 
1.Hirschmann     
2.Maxwell and Maltz     
3.Moscher     
4.Van Alyea     
 
 Right ->  Hirschmann  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/582  
Q.No.
Minor oral surgical procedures can be safely done only if platelet count is:     
198
 
1.1,50,000 to 4,50,000 per cu mm     
2.50,000 to 70, 000 per cu mm     
3.20,000 to 50, 000 per cu mm     
 4.80,000 to 1,00,000 per cu mm     
 
 Right ->  80,000 to 1,00,000 per cu mm  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/764  
Q.No.
The concentration of factor VIII in genetically engineered factor VIII is:     
199
 
1.1 unit / vial     
2.5 to 10 units / vial     
3.1000 to 1500 units / vial     
4.250 to 500 units / vial     
 
 Right ->  250 to 500 units / vial  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/770  
Q.No.
The term Adenomatoid Odontogenic Tumour was coined by:     
200
 
1.Stafne     
2.Philipsen and Birn     
3.Waldron     
4.Thoma and Goldmann     
 
 Right ->  Philipsen and Birn  
 Your Answer -> Not Attempt  
  Reference : - > Neelima Malik-2nd/490