Sunday, February 20, 2011

Central Bank of India P.O. Exam., 2010

COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE
(ExamHeld on 25-7-2010) 

1. If a word is typed that is not in Word’s dictionary, a____________wavy underline

appears below the word.
(A) red
(B) green
(C) blue
(D) black
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)

2. The____________button on the quick access Toolbar allows you to cancel your recent
commands or actions.
(A) Search
(B) Cut
(C) Document
(D) Undo
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

3. In Excel, any set of characters containing a letter , hyphen, or space is considered—

(A) a formula
(B) text
(C) a name
(D) a title
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

4. ____________Software allows users to perform calculations on rows and columns of

data.
(A) Word processing
(B) Presentation graphics
(C) Database Management Systems
(D) Electronic Spreadsheet
P a g e | 61
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

5. A ____________represent approximately one billion memory locations.

(A) kilobyte
(B) megabyte
(C) gigabyte
(D) terabyte
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

6. ____________cells involves creating a single cell by combining two or more selected

cells.
(A) Formatting
(B) Merging
(C) Embedding
(D) Splitting
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)

7. The operating system is the most common type of____________software.

(A) communication
(B) application
(C) system
(D) word-processing
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

8. When you quickly press and releaes the left mouse button twice , you are—
(A) Primary-clicking
(B) pointing
(C) Double-clicking
(D) Secondary-clicking
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

9. The horizontal and vertical lines on a worksheet are called—

(A) cells
(B) sheets
(C) block lines
(D) gridlines
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

10. To delete an incorrect character in a document, ____________ to erase to the right of

the insertion point.
(A) press the left mouse key
(B) double-click the right mouse key
(C) press the BACKSPACE key
(D) press the delete key
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

11. The operating system does all of the following EXCEPT:

(A) provide a way for the user to interact with the computer.
(B) manage the central processing unit (CPU).
(C) manage memory and storage.
(D) enable users to perform a specific task such as document editing.
Ans : (D)

12. During the boot process, the____________looks for the system files.
(A) CD
B. BIOS
C. CPU
D. DVD
Ans : (B)
13. ____________ are lists of commands that appear on the screen.
(A) GUIs
(B) Icons
(C) Menus
(D) Windows
Ans : (C)

14. ____________ is the ability of an operating system to control the activities of multiple
programs at the same time.
(A) Multitasking
(B) Streamlining
(C) Multiuser
(D) Simulcasting
Ans : (A)

15. The unique signal, generated by a device, that tells the operating system that it is in
need of immediate attention is called an:
(A) action.
(B) event.
(C) interrupt.
(D) activity.
Ans : (C)

16. The operating system controls access to the processor by assigning a(n) ____________
to each task requiring the processor’s attention.
(A) CPU
(B) slice of time
(C) stack
(D) event
Ans : (B)

17. The blocks of code, included in the operating system, that software applications interact
with are known as:
(A) application programming interfaces (APIs).
(B) complimentary metal-oxide conductors (CMOS).
(C) device drivers.
(D) bootstrap loaders.
Ans : (A)

18. MS-DOS is a ____________ operating system.

(A) point-and-click
(B) user-friendly
(C) command-driven
(D) Mac
Ans : (C)

19. An interrupt handler is a(n):

(A) location in memory that keeps track of recently generated interrupts.
(B) peripheral device.
(C) utility program.
(D) special numeric code that indicates the priority of a request.
Ans : (D)
20. A spooler is a(n):
(A) location in memory that maintains the contents of a document until it prints out.
(B) print job.
(C) program that coordinates the print jobs that are waiting to print.
(D) message sent from the printer to the operating system when a print job is completed.
Ans : (C)

21. Virtual memory is typically located:

(A) on a floppy disk.
(B) in the CPU.
(C) in a flash card.
(D) on the hard drive.
Ans : (D)

22. The purpose of a swap (or page) file is to:

(A) maintain pages of documents that are being spooled to the printer.
(B) hold a program’s data or instructions in virtual memory when it can’t fit in RAM.
(C) prevent thrashing in a multitasking environment.
(D) allow multiple print jobs to print their pages out simultaneously.
Ans : (B)

23. The definition of thrashing is:

(A) swapping data between virtual memory and RAM too frequently.
(B) insufficient hard disk space.
(C) too many processors being managed by the operating system.
(D) inaccurate information stored in the registry.
Ans : (A)

24. All of the following are TRUE of Safe Mode EXCEPT:

(A) Safe Mode is a special diagnostic mode.
(B) Safe Mode loads all nonessential icons.
(C) Safe Mode allows users to troubleshoot errors.
(D) Safe Mode loads only the most essential devices.
Ans : (B)

25. Verification of a login name and password is known as:

(A) configuration.
(B) accessibility.
(C) authentication.
(D) logging in.
Ans : (C)

26. The combination of the operating system and the processor is referred to as the
computer’s:
(A) CPU.
(B) platform.
(C) BIOS.
(D) CMOS.
Ans : (B)

27. The following message generally means:

(A) a nonsystem floppy has been left in the floppy disk drive.
(B) the CD drive is not functioning.
(C) the BIOS is corrupted.
(D) there is a problem loading a device.
Ans : (A)

28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of actions that takes place during the
boot-up process?
(A) Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Check configuration settings
(B) Activate BIOS ? Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Check configuration settings
(C) Perform POST ? Load operating system ? Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings
(D) Activate BIOS ? Check configuration settings ? Perform POST ? Load operating system
Ans : (B)

29. All of the following are steps involved in the boot process EXCEPT:
(A) load the operating system into RAM.
(B) the power-on self-test.
(C) activate the basic input/output system (BIOS).
(D) load application programs.
Ans : (D)

30. The ____________, stored on a ROM chip, is responsible for loading the operating
system from its permanent location on the hard drive into RAM.
(A) BIOS
(B) API
(C) device driver
(D) supervisor program
Ans : (A)

31. The basic input/output system (BIOS) is stored in:

(A) RAM.
(B) ROM.
(C) the CPU.
(D) the hard drive.
Ans : (B)

32. Ensuring that the essential peripheral devices are attached and operational is the
____________ process.
(A) configuration
(B) CMOS
(C) POST
(D) ROM
Ans : (C)

33. The memory resident portion of the operating system is called the—
(A) registry.
(B) API.
(C) CMOS.
(D) kernel.
Ans : (D)

34. Which of the following does NOT occur during the power-on self-test (POST)?
(A) The ScanDisk utility begins to run.
(B) The video card and video memory are tested.
(C) The BIOS identification process occurs.
(D) Memory chips are checked to ensure they are working properly.
Ans : (A)

35. All of the following are TRUE regarding virtual memory EXCEPT—
(A) any amount of RAM can be allocated to virtual memory.
(B) the setting for the amount of hard drive space to allocate to virtual memory can be
manually changed.
(C) this temporary storage is called the swap file (or page file).
(D) virtual memory is physical space on the hard drive.
Ans : (A)

36. The operating system allows users to organize the computer’s contents in a hierarchical
structure of directories that include all of the following EXCEPT:
(A) files.
(B) folders.
(D) drives.
(D) systems.
Ans : (D)

37. All of the following statements concerning windows are true EXCEPT—
(A) windows are an example of a command-driven environment.
(B) windows can be resized and repositioned on the desktop.
(C) more than one window can be open at a time.
(D) toolbars and scrollbars are features of windows.
Ans : (A)

38. All of the following statements concerning files are true EXCEPT—
(A) A file is a collection of related pieces of information stored together for easy reference.
(B) Files can be generated from an application.
(C) Files are stored in RAM.
(D) Files should be organized in folders.
Ans : (C)

39. Using Windows Explorer, a plus (+) sign in front of a folder indicates—
(A) an open folder.
(B) the folder contains subfolders.
(C) a text file.
(D) a graphics file.
Ans : (B)

40. In Windows XP, if you want to see the file size and modified dates of all files in a folder,
the best viewing option is the __________ view.
(A) List
(B) Thumbnails
(C) Details
(D) Icon
Ans : (C)
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Labels: CENTRAL BANK OF INDIA, COMPUTER KNOWLEDGE

Saturday, February 19, 2011

CORPORATION BANK PO EXAM (16-01-2011) SOLVED
PAPER

FOR CORPORATION BANK PO EXAM (16-

01-2011) SOLVED PAPER CLICK HERE
Posted by BANK EXAMINATIONS at 8:58:00 PM 0 comments   
Labels: CORPORATION BANK

Kashi-Gomti Samyut Gramin Bank Clerk Exam., 2010

English Language 
(Exam Held on 12-12-2010)   

Directions—(Q. 1 to 15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words have been printed inbold to help you to locate them while answering some of the
questions— 

An old tailor and his wife lived on the outskirts of a city. They had a daughter whom they both loved
very much and as she was about to be married they took great pains to save money. The man toiled for
long hours and his wife worked too. With the money they saved they purchased a few ornaments and
kept them in a small wooden box for safekeeping. One day their hut caught fire. The man and his wife
escaped just in time but the fire spread rapidly and soon engulfed the whole house. The neighbours
soon gathered around and would not allow the man to risk his life and enter the house to save the
precious ornaments. They drew water from nearby wells to pour onto the fire. A young traveller saw
the poor man in tears and said, “Why are you so upset ? Your house can soon be rebuilt.” “It is not my
house that I am shedding tears for,” the tailor replied, “But the ornaments that we have bought were
for our daughter. Now we shall not be able to give her the wedding gift we worked so hard for!” The
traveller thought for a while and seeing the plight of the poor man decided to help, but for a price. “I
will help you on condition that I will give you only what I like.” The poor man was so desperate to
salvage a few of the ornaments at least that he agreed. 

The young man entered the house carefully, and located the box hidden exactly where the old man had
said it would be. He came out of the house with the box, opened it, removed the ornaments and
returned the box to the tailor. The old man was bewildered. “But the ornaments are mine. Why have
you done this ?” The tailor asked, “I agreed to give you what I liked and so I have given you the box.”
The young man retorted cheekily. The neighbours were annoyed with the young man but could think of
no solution. The old man had agreed to the condition after all. But his wife intervened, “Let us go to
the magistrate. He is a just man. Surely he will find a solution. “The young man was not willing to go
to the magistrate but the neighbours insisted. When he heard the story the magistrate realised the
young man had taken advantage of the poor tailor. “You told the tailor that you would give him what
you liked and he agreed, is that correct ?” He asked, “Yes. I will give you what I like were my exact
words, “the young man replied. “Do you like the ornaments ?” the magistrate questioned. “Yes of
course!” “Well as you like the ornaments you have to give them back to the old man as was agreed
between you. “The young man realized that he had been outwitted. 

1. Why did the tailor work very hard ? 

(A) To save money so that his wife and he could live comfortably in their old age 
(B) To have enough money to give his daughter a lavish wedding 
(C) To earn enough to rebuild his house 
(D) To buy his daughter ornaments as a wedding gift with the money he earned 
(E) None of these 
Ans : (D) 

2. How did the neighbours react when they saw the fire ? 
(A) They attempted to put out the fire 
(B) They prevented the tailor from saving the ornaments because they were jealous of his new wealth 
(C) They requested the young traveller to rescue the ornaments 
(D) They stood by and allowed the fire to burn down the house 
(E) All of them only gathered around and comforted the tailor 
Ans : (A) 

3. Which of the following can be said about the tailor ? 

(A) He was greedy and cared only about saving the ornaments he owned 
(B) He was cheated by the traveller 
(C) He was dishonest because he had no intention of honouring the agreement he had made with the
young man 
(D) He had a poor memory and could not remember exactly where he had kept the ornaments 
(E) He did not want to risk his own life to save the ornaments 
Ans : (B) 

4. Why did the tailor cry during the fire ? 

(A) Only his wife and he could escape and he did not know where his daughter was 
(B) He was afraid for the young man's safety 
(C) He was worried about the cost of rebuilding his house 
(D) His neighbours had refused to help him to rescue the ornaments 
(E) He was helpless to save the ornaments he had bought his daughter 
Ans : (E) 

5. Which of the following is True about the traveller ? 

1. He was a cheat 
2. He wanted a reward for rescuing the ornaments 
3. He did the old man a good turn by saving the ornaments. 
(A) Only 1 
(B) Both 1 and 2 
(C) Only 3 
(D) Only 2 
(E) None of these 
Ans : (B) 
6. Why did the tailor agree to the condition that the young man had laid down ? 
1. He was afraid to save the ornaments himself. 
2. His wife advised him to do so. 
3. It was important to him to save the ornaments. 
(A) All 1, 2 and 3 
(B) Both 1 and 2 
(C) Only 1 
(D) Only 3 
(E) None of these 
Ans : (D) 

7. How was the dispute resolved ? 

(A) The magistrate confiscated the ornaments and did not give them to either the tailor or the
traveller 
(B) The magistrate took the tailor's side and sent the young man to jail 
(C) The neighbours requested the young man to return the ornaments to the tailor 
(D) The young man felt sorry for the tailor and returned the ornaments 
(E) None of these 
Ans : (E) 

8. Which of the following is True in the context of the passage ? 

(A) The young man had difficulty locating the ornaments inside the hut 
(B) The neighbours supported the young man's claim 
(C) The young man was the rightful owner of the ornaments 
(D) The tailor and his wife were badly burnt in the fire 
(E) The young man wanted a reward for helping the tailor 
Ans : (E) 

9. What did the young man do with the box that he recovered from the burning house ? 
(A) He emptied the contents and gave the empty box to the tailor 
(B) He kept the box and refused to hand it over 
(C) He hid the box 
(D) He handed the box over to the magistrate 
(E) None of these 
Ans : (A) 

10. What was the magistrate's opinion about the young man ? 
1. He was a helpful person who had risked his life for the tailor 
2. He was a cheat 
3. He deserved to be punished and sent to jail 
(A) Only 1 
(B) Both 2 and 3 
(C) Only 2 
(D) Only 3 
(E) None of these 
Ans : (C) 

Directions—(Q. 11 to 13) Choose the word which is most nearly the Same in meaning as the word given
in bold as used in the passage. 

11. Plight 
(A) Sight 
(B) Nature 
(C) Health 
(D) Purpose 
(E) Difficulty 
Ans : (E) 

12. Pains 
(A) Sadness 
(B) Efforts 
(C) Aches 
(D) Insults 
(E) Cramps 
Ans : (B) 

13. Just 
(A) Even 
(B) Right 
(C) Strict 
(D) Objective 
(E) Deserved 
Ans : (B) 

Directions—(Q. 14 and 15) Choose the word which is most Opposite in meaning of the word given
in bold as used in the passage. 

14. Desperate 
(A) Hopeful 
(B) Careful 
(C) Unimportant 
(D) Critical 
(E) Hopeless 
Ans : (A) 

15. Annoyed 
(A) Agreed 
(B) Enjoyed 
(C) Patient 
(D) Happy 
(E) Worried 
Ans : (D) 

Directions—(Q. 16 to 25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it.
The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is
no error, the answer is (E) i.e. ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any). 

16. The new project is (A) / to big for (B) / the trainee to handle (C) / on his own. (D) No error. (E) 
Ans : (B) 

17. The explanation that (A) / he gave for (B) / missing the meeting (C) / were not satisfactory. (D) No
error (E) 
Ans : (D) 

18. Mr. Singh's son has applied (A) / to the post (B) / of Assistant Manager (C) / in a construction
company. (D) No error (E) 
Ans : (B) 

19. The manager has sent (A) / many reminders to Mr. Rao (B) / to repay the loan but (C) / has not
received no reply. (D) No error (E) 
Ans : (D) 

20. Beside the Chairman (A) / all the Committee members (B) / were present (C) / at the shareholders
meeting. (D) No error (E) 
Ans : (E) 

21. He submitted (A) / the request for compensation (B) / of time but (C) / it was denied. (D) No error
(E) 
Ans : (E) 

22. Unfortunately today many (A) / parents cannot afford (B) / to send its (C) / children to school. (D)
No error (E) 
Ans : (C) 

23. He was convinced (A) / that he (B) / loss the account (C) / because of bad luck. (D) No error (E) 
Ans : (C) 

24. Many customers have (A) / complained because (B) / his goods was (C) / inferior in quality. (D) No
error (E) 
Ans : (C) 

25. In his opinion (A) / every senior citizens (B) / will benefit (C) / from the new rule. (D) No error (E) 
Ans : (B) 

Directions—(Q. 26 to 30) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the
phrase given in bold in the following sentences to make the sentence grammatically correct ? If the
sentence is correct as it is and there is ‘No correction required’, mark (E) as the answer. 

26. We usual have a meeting of all department heads every Friday. 

(A) as usual has 
(B) as usually have 
(C) usually have 
(D) unusually have 
(E) No correction required 
Ans : (C) 

27. Over fifty per cent of people in the country not have any access to banking services. 
(A) have not any 
(B) are having not 
(C) does not have 
(D) do not have any 
(E) No correction required 
Ans : (D) 

28. Anil's friends have convinced him withdrawn his resignation. 

(A) in withdrawing him 
(B) for withdrawal of 
(C) to withdraw from his 
(D) to withdraw his 
(E) No correction required 
Ans : (D) 

29. India and China have many large number of educated workers than Brazil. 
(A) a larger number 
(B) the largest number 
(C) large numbers 
(D) very larger number 
(E) No correction required 
Ans : (C) 

30. Many accidents at the factory are caused of workers do not read warning signs. 
(A) is the cause of 
(B) are caused by 
(C) are caused because 
(D) are a cause of 
(E) No correction required 
Ans : (C) 

Directions—(Q. 31 to 35) In each sentence below, four words printed in bold type is given. These are
lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these boldly printed words may be wrongly spelt or
inappropriate in the context of the sentence or grammatically incorrect. The letter of that word is the
answer. If there is no 
error of any of the above types, the answer is (E) i.e. “All correct.” 

31. Shareholders used to be llabel (A) for the debts (B) of the company in proportion (C) to

the size (D) of their holdings. All correct (E) 
Ans : (A) 

32. The popular (A) understanding (B) of the incidence (C) was that he had resigned. (D) All correct

(E) 
Ans : (C) 

33. He was felicitated (A) for his roll (B) in resolving (C) the conflict (D) in the region. All correct (E) 
Ans : (E) 

34. He firmly (A) denied (B) that the document (C) existed. (D) All correct (E) 

Ans : (E) 

35. Today banks offer (A) the facility (B) of instint (C) transfer (D) of funds to their customers. All

correct (E) 
Ans : (C) 

Directions—(Q. 36 to 40) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the
proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them. 

1. His friend, however, used to lose his temper at the slightest excuse. 
2. Socrates however quietly said, “I was expecting this, after thunder comes rain.” 
3. One day this friend decided to test Socrates' self control. 
4. Since Socrates paid no attention to the insults he emptied a bucket of water over him. 
5. Socrates, the Greek philosopher tried hard to control himself and never lost his temper. 
6. He began to shout at the philosopher and even insulted him. 

36. Which of the following is the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ? 

(A) 1 
(B) 2 
(C) 3 
(D) 4 
(E) 5 
Ans : (E) 
37. Which of the following is the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ? 
(A) 1 
(B) 2 
(C) 3 
(D) 4 
(E) 5 
Ans : (A) 

38. Which of the following is the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ? 

(A) 1 
(B) 2 
(C) 3 
(D) 4 
(E) 6 
Ans : (C) 

39. Which of the following is the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ? 

(A) 2 
(B) 3 
(C) 4 
(D) 5 
(E) 6 
Ans : (C) 

40. Which of the following is the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement ? 

(A) 6 
(B) 5 
(C) 4 
(D) 3 
(E) 2 
Ans : (E) 

Directions—(Q. 41 to 50) In the following passage there are blanks each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested one of which
fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case. 

Though most of us know him …(41)… for his lightning and kite experiment, Ben Franklin was first and …
(42)… a printer. Born humbly in Boston in 1708, he was the fifteenth …(43)… seventeen children of a
poor candle maker. At the …(44)… age of seventeen he went to Philadelphia, where after working for
others he …(45)… his own printing shop. Printing …(46)… Ben to writing and waiting to publishing and
publishing to business success and …(47)… . He was passionate about writing and to satisfy this …(48)…
he taught himself science, philosophy and languages. In time he became the …(49)… known writer of
the English speaking world and many of his works remain …(50)… read even today. 

41. (A) except 

(B) best 
(C) hardly 
(D) greatly 
(E) sometimes 
Ans : (D) 

42. (A) previous 

(B) only 
(C) foremost 
(D) above 
(E) lastly 
Ans : (C) 

43. (A) between 

(B) before 
(C) with 
(D) besides 
(E) of 
Ans : (E) 

44. (A) elder 

(B) early 
(C) delicate 
(D) old 
(E) tough 
Ans : (C) 

45. (A) set 

(B) establish 
(C) opened 
(D) shared 
(E) purchase 
Ans : (A) 

46. (A) led 

(B) send 
(C) showed 
(D) followed 
(E) take 
Ans : (A) 

47. (A) failure 

(B) character 
(C) fame 
(D) defeat 
(E) poverty 
Ans : (C) 

48. (A) call 

(B) worry 
(C) problem 
(D) conflict 
(E) need 
Ans : (E) 

49. (A) best 

(B) well 
(C) fine 
(D) leading 
(E) excellent 
Ans : (B) 

50. (A) partly 

(B) wisely 
(C) rarely 
(D) widely 
(E) almost 
Ans : (D)
Posted by BANK EXAMINATIONS at 3:15:00 PM 0 comments   
Labels: ENGLISH, Kashi Gomti Samyut Gramin Bank

Central Bank of India P.O. Exam., 2010

English Language 
(Exam Held on 25-7-2010) 

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the
question.

A few weeks ago, a newspaper article quoted a well known scientist saying, “IT has destroyed Indian
science”. One can speculate about the various ways in which the growth of the IT sector and other
similar knowledge industries such as biotechnology has led to a decline in basic scientific research in
India.

The most obvious reason is money; pay scales in IT and BT are much higher than one can aspire to in
academia. The argument goes : why should a bright B. Tech. or M.Sc. student enroll in a Ph.D.
programme when she can make a lot more money writing code ? Not only does afresh IT employee
make a lot more than a fresh M.Tech. student, her pay will rise much faster in IT than in academia. A
professor’s pay at a government-run university, even after the Sixth Pay Commission, tops out at far
less than a senior executive's salary in a major industry.

Second, the social status of IT and BT jobs equal or even exceed the social status of corresponding
academic positions, since they are seen as knowledge industries, which plays to best and worst
instincts of the societal order. As quintessential white collar professions, neither do they compel a
successful entrepreneur to resort to violence and corruption, nor do they demand any physical labour.
Unlike real estate or road construction, it is felt that IT workers can become rich while staying honest
and sweat-free.

Assuming that the labour pool for academia and IT is roughly the same, the difference in our collective
preferences biases the labour market towards IT and away from academia. Further, when the
imbalance between IT and academia continues for years and even decades, a destructive loop, from
academia’s point of view, is created. When our best and brightest take IT jobs over academic ones for
a decade or more, faculty positions in our universities and research centres are no longer filled by the
best candidates.

As faculty quality goes down, so does the capacity to train top-class graduate students who, after all,
are teachers in training. In response to decreasing faculty quality, even those students who would
otherwise choose an academic profession, decide to join industry or go abroad for their studies. These
foreign trained graduates prefer to come back to corporate India—if at all they do come back—and the
downward cycle replicates itself in each generation. In other words, academia is trapped within a
perfect storm created by a combination of social and economic factors.

In this socio-economic calculus, the members of our societal classes should prefer an IT job to an
academic one. Or, to put it another way, the knowledge economy, i.e., the creation of knowledge for
profit, trumps the knowledge society, i.e., the creation of knowledge for its own sake or the sake of
the greater good. As is said, “knowledge is power, but money is even more power.” Perhaps the
scientist wasalluding to this victory of capitalism over the pursuit of pure knowledge when he accused
IT of having a negative influence on Indian science.

Surely, knowledge has become a commodity like any other and as a result, knowledge workers are like
any other labourers, who will sell their wares to the highest bidder. One solution is to accept and even
encourage the commoditization of knowledge; if so, Indian universities and research centres should
copy their western counterparts by becoming more and more like corporations. These centres of
learning should convert themselves into engines of growth. In this logic, if we increase academic
salaries and research grants to match IT paycheques we will attract good people into academia, where,
in any case, it is rumoured that a certain elusive feeling called ‘the quality of life’ is better.

1. According to the passage, what did the scientist actually mean when he said, “IT has destroyed
Indian Science ?”
(A) The centres meant for Scientific research are being utilized by IT industries
(B) The IT industry does not employ people pursuing higher studies
(C) As information is readily available on the internet because of IT, there is no need to seek further
information
(D) IT has distorted the truth as stated by Indian science
(E) The desire for money has overshadowed the search for knowledge
Ans : (B)

2. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) Is the Future of IT Bright ?
(B) The IT Industry and the World Economy
(C) Research and Academics – Losing the Battle Against IT
(D) Scientific Research and the Need for Well – Trained Faculty
(E) Information Technology and its Advantages
Ans : (C)

3. Why does the author say that knowledge has become a commodity ?
(A) As it is no longer desirable in any professional field
(B) As there are too many educational institutes in the country which do not provide quality education
(C) As knowledge is now available easily as compared to the past
(D) As knowledgeable people sell their services for the highest price possible
(E) Like commodities knowledge too becomes stale after a certain period
Ans : (D)

4. What, according to the author, is a destructive loop ?

(A) Many people quit their existing jobs to work in the IT industry which in turn leads to the downfall of
the other industries
(B) The fact that the best minds do not want to become teachers and this in turn leads to good
students seeking knowledge elsewhere
(C) The fact that people working in the IT industry do not pursue higher studies which in turn leads to
the deterioration in quality of employees
(D) The unending use of resources by the IT industry leading to a dearth of resources in the country
(E) Less grants are being provided by the Government to academic institutes which in turn leads to
poor quality students joining the same
Ans : (C)

5. Which of the following mentioned below is/are the author’s suggestion/s to promote interest in
Indian academia ?
(1) Research centres should adopt the corporate culture as is done in the West
(2) Lessening the number of research grants given
(3) Making academic salaries equivalent to those paid in IT industries.
(A) Only (3)
(B) Only (1)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) Only (1) and (3)
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)

6. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage ?

(1) It is believed that the quality of life is better when pursuing scientific research
(2) People currently seek knowledge only for the greater good of the society.
(3) Money is not perceived to be as powerful as knowledge.
(A) Only (1) and (3)
(B) Only (2)
(C) Only (1) and (2)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following, according to the author, are factors responsible for the declining interest in
scientific research ?
(1) Slower progress of work in research
(2) Lesser monetary compensation in research related activities
(3) Societal perception towards research
(A) Only (1)
(B) Only (3)
(C) Only (2) and (3)
(D) Only (1) and 2)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3)
Ans : (C)

8. Which of the following is true about the perception towards IT jobs as given in the passage ?
(1) They are physically tiring.
(2) They are considered to be managerial level jobs.
(3) They require usage of dishonest means.
(A) Only (2)
(B) Only (1) and (2)
(C) Only (3)
(D) Only (2) and (3)
(E) All (1), (2) and (3) are true
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 9–12) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the
word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. CAPACITY
(A) volume
(B) capability
(C) voltage
(D) quantity
(E) qualification
Ans : (B)

10. ALLUDING
(A) referring
(B) breaking
(C) escaping
(D) imposing
(E) clinging
Ans : (A)

11. SPECULATE
(A) visit
(B) contemplate
(C) remark
(D) argue
(E) regulate
Ans : (B)

12. QUINTESSENTIAL
(A) typical
(B) different
(C) necessary
(D) unique
(E) excellent
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the
word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. BRIGHT
(A) soft
(B) dark
(C) dull
(D) vivid
(E) dim
Ans : (C)

14. ELUSIVE
(A) definite
(B) happy
(C) mysterious
(D) worthwhile
(E) remarkable
Ans : (A)

15. FRESH
(A) used
(B) stale
(C) tired
(D) experienced
(E) aged
Ans : (B)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should
replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the
sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. The poor Brahmin led a hand to mouthful existence and could use any job which paid him a little—
(A) handful to mouthful existence
(B) hand to mouth existence
(C) handing for mouthful existing
(D) hand and mouth exist
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

17. In order earning decent living we need to have a good job which pays a substantial amount of
money—
(A) earned decency life
(B) earning decency live
(C) earn a decent living
(D) earned decently life
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

18. We went to the famous restaurant to eat and were served piped hot food—
(A) served piping hotter
(B) serving pipe hot
(C) served piping hot
(D) serve pipe hotten
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

19. Akshay considered Suresh a complete pain in the neck as he kept asking baseless questions—
(A) paining in the neck
(B) painless neck
(C) painful necks
(D) pain in necking
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

20. I jump through hoop to finish this project in time but was not rewarded adequately—
(A) jumped through hoops
(B) jumping for hooping
(C) jumped on hoop
(D) jumping from hoop
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has
been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a
whole.

21. Adding to a growing body of research …… cutting back on sweetened beverages it is now found that
drinking …… sugary drinks may help lower blood pressure.
(A) for, all
(B) sustaining, increased
(C) against, lesser
(D) behind, more
(E) supporting, fewer
Ans : (E)

22. The blame game for the air tragedy is already in full …… with the authorities involved making
attempts to …… for themselves.
(A) sway, defend
(B) view, try
(C) fledged, protect
(D) swing, cover
(E) roll, hide
Ans : (D)

23. The actress, wearing a dark gray suit and open necked shirt, sat …… the proceedings looking
nervous throughout, occasionally frowning as her lawyer …… with the judge.
(A) through, spoke
(B) on, argued
(C) for, addressed
(D) with, discussed
(E) along, lectured
Ans : (B)

24. It was an excellent social evening with people from all ……… of life getting a chance to let their
hair ………
(A) areas, drop
(B) realms, flow
(C) arena, undone
(D) walks, down
(E) types, loose
Ans : (D)

25. There can be no denying the fact that in sports, star coaches have the …… to get something extra
out of their ………
(A) apprehension, work
(B) ability, teams
(C) fear, member
(D) capability, house
(E) desirous, players
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following Six sentence (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—
(1) It is therefore a contributing factor to the growth of landfills and waterway pollution, both of which
are costly and energy intensive to solve.
(2) Making an effort to use those resources and avoid polystyrene ones can help to decrease your
environmental impact.
(3) Non-biodegradable essentially means that any polystyrene that makes its way into a landfill will
stay there indefinitely, never breaking down and returning to the earth.
(4) Polystyrene, as a product, is very convenient to use, but it has some important effects we should
consider when making choices as consumers.
(5) While recycling polystyrene material can cushion the environmental blow of its use, alternatives are
available that are created from renewable resources and biodegrade more readily.
(6) For example, while polystyrene has some excellent uses and is, technically, recyclable, it is not a
substance that biodegrades.

26. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (C)

28. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (E)

30. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or
idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the
answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

31. Sugar-sweetened drinks does not (A) /pose any particular health risk, and (B) / are not a unique
risk factor (C) / for obesity or heart disease (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

32. Airline managements should note (A) / that the ultimate passenger unfriendliness (B) / is to have
their planes crash (C) / due to the adopted of unsafe procedures (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

33. Celebrating its ten long years (A) / in the industry, a private entertainment channel (B) / announce
a series of (C) / programmes at a press conference (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)
34. The award ceremony ended (A) / on a note of good cheer (B) / with audiences responding warmly
(C) / to its line up of film (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

35. The actress was ordered for (A) / wear an alcohol monitoring bracelet and (B) / submit to random
weekly drug testing after (C) / she failed to appear for a court date last week (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)

36. Coaches have the advantage of (A) / draw on their personal experiences (B) / and providing their
players (C) / with unique inputs (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

37. The actor loves to think (A) / never enjoys stick to one kind of role (B) / and finds it difficult to
(C) / fulfil everyone’s expectations (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)

38. A major computer security firm urged (A) / the social networking site to set up (B) / an early-
warning system after hundreds of users were (C) / hit by a new wave of virus attacks (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)

39. The finding may help doctors (A) / to give more personalised care to patients (B) / and to modify
the amount of powerful drugs (C) / administered over their patients (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)

40. The actress made a rare appearance (A) / at the party and was (B) / overheard talking in (C) / her
next big project (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered.
These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which
‘fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Hundreds of plants and animals are (…41…) every-day due to deforestation and urbanization, what
might happen if this continues in the future ? The last mass extinction of plant and animal species
occurred 65 million years ago with the Dinosaurs. In all, five mass extinctions have occurred and
scientists (…42…) earth is in the sixth mass extinction. The world as it is now is threatened, including
people, who are responsible for earth’s (…43…). Pesticides contaminating water; overharvesting of
animals and plants; air pollution; illegal fishing and the clearing of land are direct results of
urbanization and deforestation. People have (…44…) and damaged almost half of earth’s land, at a very
unsustainable rate.

Global warming is having a serious impact as well. A six-degree Celsius increase in global temperature
killed 95% of all species on Earth 251 million years ago. An increase of six-degrees Celsius is forecast
this century if a change is not made to (…45…) the damage done to earth. Humans will be one of the
95% of species lost. Noticeable changes of global warming include migration (…46…) and the change in
season timings. Migrating birds are migrating earlier, which in turn is causing them to hatch eggs and
(…47…) young earlier than they did at the beginning of this century. While this is just the tip of the
iceberg, many other (…48…) regarding the extinction of plant and animal species need addressing. It is
more important now than ever before to pull our heads out of the sand and make changes for the (…
49…) of the earth. Future generations are (…50…), as they are a species as well.

41. (A) killing

(B) alive
(C) born
(D) left
(E) lost
Ans : (E)

42. (A) speak

(B) told
(C) estimation
(D) believe
(E) consider
Ans : (D)

43. (A) shape

(B) development
(C) deterioration
(D) warmth
(E) expansion
Ans : (C)

44. (A) altered

(B) created
(C) produced
(D) made
(E) brought
Ans : (A)

45. (A) void

(B) dissipate
(C) augment
(D) reverse
(E) increase
Ans : (D)

46. (A) delay

(B) birds
(C) slowdown
(D) hasten
(E) acceleration
Ans : (E)

47. (A) spare

(B) bear
(C) destroy
(D) amend
(E) generation
Ans : (B)

48. (A) animals

(B) difficulty
(C) issues
(D) humans
(E) problem
Ans : (C)

49. (A) extinction

(B) better
(C) wealth
(D) stigma
(E) demand
Ans : (B)

50. (A) endangered

(B) threaten
(C) evaluated
(D) living
(E) compared
Ans : (A)
Posted by BANK EXAMINATIONS at 3:14:00 PM 0 comments   
Labels: CENTRAL BANK OF INDIA, ENGLISH

Friday, February 18, 2011

BANK OF INDIA OFFICERS EXAM RESULT
The results for Bank of India`s recruitment of General Banking Officers was released couple of days
ago with the shortlisted candidates being called for the final stage – Interview.

The Written exams for banking officers posts were held on October 30, 2010 & November 3, 2010 at 31
centres across India. While objective test was for 300 marks in 2 hrs, descriptive test was for 100 marks
in 1 hr.Apart from 0.25 as negative marks in objective test, candidates should clear all tests & score
above a certain cut-off to be eligible for Interview.
Interviews are scheduled to happen from 14th March 2011 for the 5800 candidates who have cleared
the test.The total for Interview has been fixed as 100 marks & qualifying marks as 50. Download the
centre wise list of  successful candidates from the bank site here
Posted by BANK EXAMINATIONS at 10:13:00 AM 0 comments   
Labels: BANK OF INDIA, RESULT

Federal Bank PO And Clerk Results,2011

Federal bank recruitment 2010 results for the posts of
Probationary Officers and Clerks. Results of Fedral Bank
PO and Clerk can be checked here online at the official
website of the bank. Exam was held on 5th Dec 2010
Result of written test conducted on 5th Dec ,2010
Roll number of candidates, who have come out
successful in the written test conducted on 5.12.10
at various centers.
For Results of Bank PO And Clerk :Click Here
Posted by BANK EXAMINATIONS at 10:11:00 AM 0 comments   
Labels: FEDERAL BANK, RESULT

Wednesday, February 16, 2011

SyndicateBank Asst. Manager Rural Development
(AMRD) Recruitment
                              
                              SyndicateBank
 (A GOVERNMENT OF INDIA UNDERTAKING)
HEAD OFFICE: MANIPAL-576 104

 Advt. No.PD/HRDD/REC/01/2011

Recruitment of Asst Manager Rural Development (AMRD) in JMGS-I (2011-12)

Syndicate Bank, a Premier Nationalised Bank, invites applications from Indian citizens for
recruitment of 750 AMRD.

OPENING DATE FOR ONLINE REGISTRATION  15.02.2011

LAST DATE FOR ONLINE REGISTRATION   09.03.2011

(Including for candidates from far-flung areas )

DATE OF WRITTEN TEST  15.05.2011

                   NAME OF THE POST/VACANCIES:

Post Scale
Code  Post No. of Vacancies  #
No. TOTAL SC ST OBC GEN
01 Asst. Manager (RD) JMGS- 750
112 56 202 380
I
             
                Note: 1) AMRD Post is not identified for PWD candidates. Therefore no post is
                              reserved for them.
                        
                          2) Candidates willing to serve in Rural/Semi Urban branches only need apply

                         #   State/UT-wise distribution of vacancies

Vacancies in States/
State Union Territories
code. No of
vacancies
11 Andhra Pradesh 135
12 Arunachal Pradesh 01
 13 Assam 04
14 Bihar 13
15 Chhattisgarh 05
16 Delhi 05
17 Gujarat 12
18 Goa 10
19 Himachal Pradesh 05
20 Haryana 20
21 Jammu &  Kashmir 01
22 Jharkhand 10
23 Karnataka 220
24 Kerala 50
25 Maharashtra 35
26 Meghalaya 02
27 Madhya Pradesh 20
28 Mizoram 01
29 Nagaland 01
30 Orissa 30
31 Punjab 12
32 Rajasthan 07
33 Sikkim 01
34 Tamil Nadu 35
35 Uttarkhand 10
36 Tripura 01
37 Uttar Pradesh 75
38 West Bengal 20
39 A&N Island 03
40 Chandigarh 01
41 Lakshadweep 02
42 Puducherry 03
Total 750

Abbreviations used:         

SC      - Scheduled Caste       ST - Scheduled Tribe              OBC   - Other Backward Classes
GEN   - General Category     

                Pay Scale, Allowances and Perquisites as applicable

Gross per Month
Scale Pay Scale
(appx)
 JMGS - ` 14500-600/7-18700-700/2-20100-800/7-
` 21199/-
I 25700
                  
In addition, Quarters facility (in lieu of HRA) Conveyance, Medical Aid, LFC and retirement
benefits are admissible as per the rules of the Bank.
 Note: Candidates belonging to Reserved Category, including Persons with Disabilities, for which no
reservation has been announced, are free to apply for vacancies announced for General
category.

The number of vacancies and also the number of reserved vacancies is provisional and may
vary according to actual requirements of the Bank.

A candidate can apply for vacancies in more than one State/Union Territory in the order
of preference but not more than 3 States/Union Territories subject to Knowledge of
Official/Regional Language of the State/UT to which the candidate applies.
  1.   ELIGIBILITYCRITERIA:NATIONALITY/CITIZENSHIP:

A candidate must be either i) a Citizen of India or ii) a subject of Nepal or iii) subject of Bhutan
or iv) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India before 1st  January, 1962 with the intention of
permanently settling in India or v) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan,
Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania
(formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar), Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the
intention of permanently settling in India.  Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii),
(iii), (iv) & (v) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued
by the Government of India.  A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary
may be admitted to the interview conducted by the Bank but on final selection the offer of
appointment may be given only after the Government of India has issued the necessary
eligibility certificate to him/her.
 2.  MINIMUMEDUCATIONALQUALIFICATION(Ason01.01.2011)

                                                         
FOR SC/ST/OBC Candidates   FOR General Candidates

Graduate with minimum 50% marks in Graduate with minimum 55 % marks in

Agriculture/ Horticulture/ Animal Agriculture/ Horticulture/ Animal
Husbandry/ Veterinary Science/ Dairy Husbandry/ Veterinary Science/ Dairy
Science/ Agriculture Engineering/ Fishery Science/ Agriculture Engineering/ Fishery
Science/ Pisciculture/ Agriculture Marketing Science/ Pisciculture/ Agriculture Marketing
and Co-Operation from a University and Co-Operation from a University
recognized by the Govt. of India. recognized by the Govt. of India.

OR OR

Post Graduate Degree in any of the above Post Graduate Degree in any of the above
disciplines disciplines

(1) Knowledge of Official/Regional Language (1) of Knowledge of Official/Regional Language of

the State/UT to which the candidate applies the State/UT to which the candidate applies
is essential. (i.e., to Read, write & speak) is essential. (i.e., to Read, write & speak)

(2)  Computer Proficiency is essential (2)   Computer Proficiency is essential

Note:
 1.    The candidates should have studied as regular students.

2.    In addition to the qualification, the Candidates should have working knowledge in Computers.

a) The educational qualification prescribed for the post is the minimum. Candidates must possess
the educational qualifications as on 01.01.2011 (inclusive).

b) Candidates must specifically indicate the percentage of marks obtained calculated to the nearest
two decimals in the relevant field of the online application. Where no percentage of marks is
awarded by the University, but only CGPA/OGPA is awarded, the same should be converted
into percentage.

c) Candidates who are awaiting their results of the qualifying examination OR who have not passed
the qualifying examination on or before 01.01.2011 are not eligible.  In other words, the result of
the qualifying examination should have been announced by the Board/University on or
before 01.01.2011.

AGE LIMIT (AS ON 01.01.2011)    

 Minimum 21 Years
 Maximum 30 Years

3.    RELAXATION IN UPPER AGE LIMIT:  (In case of candidates belonging to the following categories)

i) Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe candidates by 5 years

ii) Other Backward Classes candidates by 3 years
All persons who have ordinarily been domiciled in Kashmir
iii) by 5 years
Division of J & K State during 01.01.1980 and 31.12.1989
In the case of Ex-servicemen and Commissioned Officers
including Emergency Commissioned Officers (ECOs) /
Short Service Commissioned Officers (SSCOs) who have
rendered atleast 5 years military service and have been
released on completion of assignment (including those
iv) by 5 years
whose assignment is due to be completed within the next
one year from the last date for receipt of application) other
than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of
misconduct or inefficiency or on account of physical
disability attributable to military service or  on invalidment.
The Children/Family members of those who died in the
v)  by 5 years
1984 riots

Note:

a)    In the case of a candidate who is eligible for relaxation under more than one of the above
categories, the age relaxation will be available on cumulative basis with any one of the
 remaining categories for which age relaxation is permitted as mentioned above. This cumulative
age relaxation is available to SC/ST/OBC candidates only.

b)    Candidates claiming relaxation under 3 (i to ii) should enclose necessary certificate as

documentary proof.

c)    Candidates eligible for age relaxation under 3 (iii) above must produce the Domicile Certificate at
the time of interview from the District Magistrate in the Kashmir Division within whose
jurisdiction he/she had ordinarily resided or any other authority designated in this regard by
Govt. of J & K to the effect that the candidate had ordinarily been domiciled in the Kashmir
Division of the State of J & K during 1stJan, 1980 and the 31st day of December 1989.

4.    RESERVATIONS:

A.   Reservation for SC/ST/OBC candidates will be provided as per Government guidelines.

5.          APPLICATION FEE  (INCLUDING POSTAGE CHARGES) (NON-REFUNDABLE) :

              
For all others
Name of the Post For SC/ST
(including OBC)
Asst Manager(RD) `.50/- `.300/-
           
The fee for SC/ST is towards postage only and for others the fee includes postal charges
of `.50/-

Requisite Application Fee has to be paid at any of the Branches of Syndicate Bank, by means
of a Payment Challan as per the format given in the Bank’s website.  The payment at
Syndicate Bank Branches will be accepted free of charge.

NOTE:

(i)   Demand Drafts, Cheques, Money Orders, Postal Orders, Pay Orders, Banker’s Cheques, postal
stamps, etc., will not be accepted

(ii)   The payment towards application fee will be accepted by our Branches between 15.02.2011 and
before the last date indicated herein above, i.e., 09.03.2011

(iii)  The Payment challan contains two parts. The first part will be retained by the Branch second
part must be retained by the candidate.

(iv)  Application once made will not be allowed to be withdrawn and fee once paid will NOT be
refunded under any circumstances nor can it be held in reserve for any other future selection
process.

6.   THE COMPETENT AUTHORITY FOR ISSUE OF CERTIFICATE TO SC/ST/OBC CANDIDATES IS AS UNDER:

   (a)   For SC/ST/OBC:

          District
Magistrate/Additional Dist Magistrate/Collector/Deputy Commissioner/ Additional Dy.
Commissioner/Dy.Collector/First Class Stipendary Magistrate/Sub-Division Magistrate/ Taluka
Magistrate/Executive Magistrate/Extra Assistant Commissioner/ Chief Presidency
Magistrate/Additional Chief Presidency Magistrate/Presidency Magistrate/ Revenue Officer not
below the rank of Tahsildar/Sub-Divisional Officer of the area where the candidate and/or
his/her family normally resides.

7.  SELECTION PROCEDURE: 

            Selection for the post of `Asst. Manager (RD)’ will be made on the basis of performance
in written test and Interview. 

8.  WRITTEN TEST:

       (i)    Objective Tests (Duration : 3 hours i.e. 180 minutes)

Sl No. of Max.
Name of the Test Medium of Exam
No. questions Marks

1 Test of Reasoning English & Hindi 75 80

2 Quantitative Aptitude English & Hindi 50 60
3 Test of General English & Hindi 50 60
Awareness  
4 English Language English 50 00*
5. Professional Knowledge English & Hindi 50 100
                                                      TOTAL 275 300
* This test is only qualifying and carries no weightage. 

      
  Note: (a) Candidates have to pass in the Objective Tests and there will be negative marks for
wrong answers in the Objective Test.   (b) Depending upon the number of vacancies, only those
candidates who rank sufficiently high in the Objective Test will be called for Interview.  Mere
eligibility/pass in the Test shall not vest any right in a candidate for being called for Interview. 
(c) Final selection will be on the basis of the ranking accorded after adding the marks obtained
in the written Test and Interview (d) The detailed information regarding the Written Test will be
given in the booklet which will be sent to the eligible candidates along with the Call Letter for the
Test. 

             The bank reserves the right to hold a second stage of written examination if required on
the basis of the order of merit in the written examination of the first stage as referred to
above. If the second stage of written examination is held, the subsequent process of
interview and further process would be on the basis of order of merit secured in the
second stage examination.
 9.      INTERVIEW: Candidates who qualify in the Written Test shall be called for Personal interview in
the order of their ranking as per the marks obtained by them in the objective test.

10.      Written Test Centres :

The written test will be held at the following centres and the address of the venue will be
advised in the call letters.  The address of the venues and the contact Officials will be displayed
in the Bank’s website also one week before the date of written test. List of written test centres
with the centre codes are given below:

Centr
Centre Centre
Name of Centre Name of Centre e Name of Centre
Code Code
Code
21 AHMEDABAD 34 ERNAKULAM 47 AGRA
22 BENGALURU 35 KOLLAM 48 PANTNAGAR
23 HUBLI 36 THIRUVANANTHAPURAM 49 BAREILLY
24 MANGALORE 37 KAVARATTI 50 DELHI
25 CHENNAI 38 PORT BLAIR 51 CHANDIGARH
26 COIMBATORE 39 GUWAHATI 52 FARIDABAD
27 TIRUCHIRAPALLI 40 KOLKATA 53 JALANDAR
28 MUMBAI 41 PATNA 54 AMBALA
29 PUNE 42 RANCHI 55 JAIPUR
30 NAGPUR  43 BHUBANESHWAR 56 UDAIPUR
     31 HYDERABAD  44 BHOPAL 57 PANAJI
32 VIJAYAWADA  45 LUCKNOW
33 NELLORE  46 MEERUT 

Note:   (i)   Request for change of Centre of Examination shall NOT be entertained.

(ii)    Bank reserves the right to cancel any of the centres and/or add some other centres, depending
upon the response, administrative feasibility, etc. Bank also reserves the right to allot the
candidate to any of the centres other than the one he/she has opted for.
     

11. Pre-Examination Training – SC/ST/Minority Communities Candidates

     
      It is proposed to impart free Pre-Examination Training to a limited number of candidates  on first
come first serve basisbelonging to Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribes/Minority Communities
at Chennai, Delhi, Kolkata and Mumbai centres at the discretion of the Bank. An eligible
candidate who wishes to avail Pre-Examination Training should fill in the relevant column in
the online application.  All expenses regarding traveling, boarding, lodging, etc, for attending the
pre-examination training programme at the Training Centre will have to be borne by the
candidate.  The pre-examination training will be tentatively imparted between 02.05.2011 and
07.05.2011.

12.  GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS
 (a) Before applying for the post, the candidate should ensure that he/she fulfils the eligibility norms
mentioned in this advertisement.  Decision of the Bank in all matters regarding eligibility of the
candidate, the stages at which scrutiny of such eligibility is to be undertaken, the documents to
be produced for the purpose of the conduct of examination, interview, selection and any other
matter relating to recruitment will be final and binding on the candidate. No correspondence or
personal enquiries shall be entertained by the bank on this behalf.

(b)  In case it is detected at any stage of recruitment that a candidate does not fulfil the eligibility
norms and/or that he/she has furnished any incorrect/false information/certificate/documents or
has suppressed any material fact(s), his/her candidature will stand cancelled.  If any of these
shortcomings is/are detected even after appointment, his/her services are liable to be
terminated.

(c) Candidates belonging to OBCs but coming in the “CREAMY LAYER” are not entitled to OBC
reservation.  They should indicate their category as “Gen” or “Gen Persons With Disabilities” as
applicable.  OBC Certificates in the format as prescribed by the Govt. of India and issued by the
Competent Authority, inter alia, specifically stating that the candidate does not belong to the
Socially Advanced Sections excluded from the benefits of reservations for OBCs in Civil Posts
and Services under Govt. of India, i.e., carrying ‘CREAMY LAYER’ clause based on income
issued recently (i.e., issued on or after 01.04.2010) should be submitted at the time of interview.

(d)  The candidates will have to appear for written test and interview at their own expense. However,
unemployed eligible SC/ST outstation candidates attending the interview will be reimbursed to
and fro second class ordinary train/bus fare by the shortest route on production of evidence of
travel.

(e)  Candidates serving in Government/Public Sector Undertakings (including banks) should send
their application through proper channel and produce a "No Objection Certificate" from their
employer at the time of interview, in the absence of which their candidature may not be
considered. 

(f)   Any request for change of address will not be entertained. 

(g) Any resultant dispute arising out of this advertisement shall be subject to the sole jurisdiction of
the Courts situated at Udupi.                  .

(h)  In case any dispute arises on account of interpretation of version other than English, English
version will prevail.

(i)   No candidate is permitted to use calculator, telephones of any kind, pagers or any such other
instruments during the written examination/selection process.

(j)   The candidates will appear for the written examination at the allotted centres at their expenses
and risks and the Bank will not be responsible for any injury/ losses, etc., of any nature.

(k)  The Bank may at its discretion hold re-examination wherever necessary in respect of a
centre/venue.

(l)   Appointment of selected candidates is subject to his/her being declared medically fit as per the
requirement of the Bank.  Such appointment will also be subject to the Service & Conduct Rules
of the Bank.
 (m) Banking is a versatile activity, which needs all round grooming of the selected candidates.
Accordingly, the Probationary Officers, recruited/selected in the Bank, will be required to acquire
overall knowledge of various facets of banking for which the Bank will provide necessary on-the-
job/theoretical training at its Branches/Offices including Staff Training College,  so as to enable
candidates recruited perform/undertake all type of banking activities expected of AMRDs.

(n) All Candidates must submit the xerox copies of the prescribed certificates in support of their
educational qualification, experience, date of birth, caste, etc. The candidates belonging to
SC/ST/OBC/ Category are required to submit an attested copy of their caste
certificate/certificate of handicap issued by the competent authority as specified at Sr.No.06 in
addition to other certificates as specified above.  Candidates will have to produce original caste
certificate/relevant certificates at the time of interview, failing which his/her candidature will be
cancelled.

   (o) A recent, recognizable passport size photograph should be firmly pasted on the computer
generated application and should be signed across by the candidate. Three copies of the same
photograph should be retained for use at the time of written examination and interview.
Candidates are advised not to change their appearance till the recruitment process is complete.
Failure to produce the same photograph at the time of the written test/interview may lead to
disqualification.
 
    (p)  Canvassing in any form will be treated as disqualification.
     

   Action against candidates found guilty of misconduct :

Candidates are advised in their own interest that they should not furnish any particulars that are
false, tampered, fabricated or should not suppress any material information while with, filling up
the application form.

At the time of written examination/interview, if a candidate is (or has been) found guilty of

(i)            using unfair means during the examination

or
(ii)           impersonating or procuring impersonation by any person
or
(iii)          misbehaving in the examination hall or taking away the question booklet/answer sheet from the
examination hall
or
(iv)         resorting to any irregular or improper means in connection with his/her candidature by selection
or
(v)          obtaining support for his/her candidature by any means.

Such a candidate, in addition to rendering himself/herself liable to criminal prosecution, shall be

liable:

a.    to be disqualified from the examination for which he/she is a candidate

b.    to be debarred, either permanently or for a specified period, from any examination or recruitment
conducted by Bank.
 The Bank would be analyzing the responses of a candidate with other appeared candidates to
detect patterns of similarity in the written test.  If as per the laid down procedure it is suspected
that the responses have been shared and the scores obtained are not genuine/valid, the Bank
reserves the right to cancel his/her candidature.

13.          HOW TO APPLY

(i)   Candidates are required to apply online through website www.syndicatebank.in  No

other means/ mode of application will be accepted.

(ii)  Candidates are required to have a valid personal e-mail ID. It should be kept active during the
currency of this recruitment project. Bank may send call letters for written test, interview, etc.,.  to  the
registered e-mail ID.  Under no circumstances, he/she should share/mention e-mail ID to/
of any other person.

(iii)  In case a candidate does not have a valid personal e-mail ID, he/she should create his/her new
e-mail ID before applying on-line.

(iv) Applicants are first required to go to the Bank’s website ‘www.syndicatebank.in’ and click on the
link “Recruitment”.

(v)   Thereafter, open the Recruitment Notification entitled  “SYNDICATE BANK AMRD RECRUITMENT
PROJECT-2011-12”.

(vi)  Take a Print of the entire Recruitment Notification, including the ‘FEE PAYMENT CHALLAN’

(vii) Fill in the Fee Payment Challan in a clear and legible handwriting in BLOCK LETTERS.

(viii)    Go to the nearest Syndicate Bank Branch with the Fee payment Challan and pay, in Cash, the
appropriate Application Fee

(ix)      Obtain the Applicant’s Counterfoil Copy of the Application Fee Payment Challan
duly authenticated by the Bank with(a) Branch Name & BIC No, (b) Transaction ID/Scroll
number, (c) Date of Deposit & amount filled in by the Branch Official.

(x)       Candidates are now ready to Apply Online by re-visiting the Recruitment Link on the Bank’s
website and going to the sublink titled  “ONLINE APPLICATION FOR SYNDICATE BANK AMRD
RECRUITMENT PROJECT-2011-12”  to open up the appropriate Online Application Format.
All the fields in the online Application format should be filled up carefully.

(xi)      Carefully fill in the details from the Recruitment Application Fee Payment Challan in the Online
Application Form at the appropriate places.

(xii)  Original counterfoil of the Fee Payment Challan will have to be submitted with the Call Letter at the
time of written test.Without  original  counterfoil of the Fee Payment Challan the candidate will not
be allowed to appear in the written test.Candidates  are also advised to keep two photocopies of the
Fee Payment Challan. One photocopy has to be submitted at the time of Pre-Exam training and the other
may be retained by the candidate for future use.
[
(xiii) The name of the candidate, his/her father/husband, etc., should be spelt correctly in the
application as it appears in the certificates/mark sheets. Any change / alteration found
may disqualify the candidature.

(xiv)   CANDIDATES SHOULD NOT SUBMIT A PRINTOUT OF THE APPLICATION / CHALLAN TO THE
BANK AT THIS STAGE

 (xv)  The Application printout along with the Xerox copy of the challan and required copies of
documents should be kept ready for submission if selected for Interview.

(xvi) Please note that the above procedure is the only valid procedure for applying.  No other mode of
application or incomplete steps would be accepted and such applications would be rejected.

Note: There is provision to modify the submitted online application. Candidates are requested
to make use of this facility to correct the details in on-line application, if any. This
Modification facility shall be available after 2 days of registration & up to 11.03.2011.
Modification will be allowed only 3 times. After the last date, no modification will be
permitted.

The candidate should apply online through website www.syndicatebank.in  only. No other

mode of application will be accepted. Provision has been made for candidates to download a
challan for payment of application fees. The candidate should make payment of application
fees at any branch of Syndicate Bank by such computer-generated challan only and take
acknowledgement on the counterfoil. Once payment is made, the candidate should enter
name of the Branch, Branch Code and date of payment made, in application and take a printout
of the application. The applicant should sign and affix his/her photograph on such printout of
application and kept ready for submission if selected for interview along with copies of
required documents mentioned below:

1.    Xerox copy of authenticated challan;

2.    Attested copy of School leaving certificate or any other document showing proof of age
acceptable to the Bank.

3.    Attested copies of Mark sheets / certificates in support of Educational Qualification;

4.    Attested copy of certificate of Computer Course, as applicable;

5.    Caste any other related certificate as applicable.

If selected for interview, candidates serving in Government / Public Sector Undertakings

(including Banks &Financial Institutions) will be required to submit their
applications accompanied by a “No Objection Certificate” from their employer, in the absence
of which their candidature will not be considered.

It is for the candidate to ensure that he / she has met with the eligibility criteria and complied
with the requirements and adhered to the instructions contained in this advertisement as well
as in the application form. Candidates are, therefore, urged to carefully read the
advertisement and complete the application form and submit the same as per instructions
given in this regard.

14.       CALL LETTERS FOR THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION

The  date  of  the  Written  Examination  is  TENTATIVELY  FIXED  AS 15.05.2011. However,
it will be intimated in the Call Letter along with the Centre/Venue for the Examination,
well in advance of the date of the Written Examination.

Call letters for the written test will be sent by post to the eligible candidates to the address given
in the application form.

  
          PROCEDURE FOR DUPLICATE CALL LETTERS FOR ATTENDING TEST:
Eligible candidates, who do not receive the written test call letter by 09.05.2011, may download
the Duplicate Call Letter from our bank’s website http://www.syndicatebank.in/  by entering his /
her details, between the following dates;
Dates for downloading Duplicate Test Call Letter
From 10.05.2011 to 14.05.2011
Candidate has to affix his/her photograph on the call letter. Candidate has to bring this call letter
along with original Payment Challan while attending the written test.
Note: Candidates have to submit original Payment Challan along with Test Call Letter
while attending the written test, without which they will not be allowed to take up the
examination.