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SME MCQ All UT

The document contains 55 multiple choice questions about hydroelectric power plants. It covers topics like the basic components of hydroelectric power plants such as dams, penstocks, surge tanks, draft tubes, and turbines. It also discusses the factors that affect the power output of hydroelectric plants like head of water, quantity of water, and efficiency of the alternator. Additionally, it provides information on the advantages of hydroelectric power plants such as being a renewable, low-cost source of energy.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
438 views306 pages

SME MCQ All UT

The document contains 55 multiple choice questions about hydroelectric power plants. It covers topics like the basic components of hydroelectric power plants such as dams, penstocks, surge tanks, draft tubes, and turbines. It also discusses the factors that affect the power output of hydroelectric plants like head of water, quantity of water, and efficiency of the alternator. Additionally, it provides information on the advantages of hydroelectric power plants such as being a renewable, low-cost source of energy.

Uploaded by

live
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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MCQ

Systems in Mechanical Engineering (102003) 2019 Pattern

Unit I: Introduction of energy sources & its conversion


1. The capacity to do work is called:
A. Heat B. Energy C. work D. none of the above

2. Heat is measured in:


A. Joule B. Calorie C. both A and B D. Joule/second

Ans: A It is measured in Joule.

3. With the increase in temperature, heat will be:


A. increase B. constant C. decrease D. double

4. How we measure the energy value of food?


A. Joule B. Joule/second C. Calorie D. none of the above

5. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1°C is called:
A. work capacity B. heat capacity C. Energy capacity D. none of the above

6 . Heat capacity depends on


A. change in temperature
B. Mass of body
C. Nature of substance
D. All the above

7………………….. is neither created nor destroyed it can only change one form to another.
A. work
B. Heat
C. Energy
D. Mass of body

8. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance by …………..


A. 1°C
B. 1°F
C. 10°C
D. 10°F

9. Which of the following has the highest heat capacity?


A. Water
B. air
C. soil
D. none of the above

10. Which of the following are the processes of transfer of heat?


A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. All the above

11. The process of transfer of heat in solids is called:


A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. none of the above
(Ans: C In this process the molecules of the solid pass the heat from one to another, without
themselves moving from their positions.)

12. The temperature at which liquid changes into vapour is called:


A. Melting point
B. boiling point.
C. expansion point
D. none of the above

13. In Conduction process the molecules of the solid pass the heat from one to another:
A. Without themselves moving from their positions.
B. themselves move from one place to another
C. without themselves moving from one place to another.
D. None of the above

14. The process of transfer of heat in liquids & gases is called:


A. Conduction B. Radiation C. Convection D. absorption

Ans: C It is the process of transfer of heat in liquids & gases

15. In convection, the molecules:


A. without themselves moving from their positions.
B. themselves move from one place to another
C. without themselves moving from one place to another.
D. None of the above

16. Solids are not heated by convection because:


A. solid are not free to move from one place to another
B. molecules only vibrate about a fixed position
C. both A and B
D. none of the above

17. It is the process of heat transfer from a hot body to a colder body without heating the space
between the two is called:
A. Conduction B. Radiation C. Convection D. absorption

18. At night a current of air blows from the colder land to the warmer sea is called as:
A. Air Breezes B. Sea Breezes C. Land Breeze D. none of the above

19. The transfer of heat by radiation:


A. Does not require any medium.
B. require any medium.
C. does not require any space.
D. require any space.

20. The air over the land is heated, becomes lighter & rises while the cooler air from the sea
blows towards land to take its place is called as:
A. Land Breeze
B. Sea Breezes
C. air Breezes
D. none of the above

21. At what factor heat absorbed on radiation by the body depends on?
A. Distance between bodies
B. source of heat
C. its color
D. All the above

22. The heat of the sun reaches the earth by:


A. Radiation
B. Convection
C. absorption
D. Conduction

23. The land breeze blows during:


A. day
B. night
C. winter
D. summer
24. A wooden spoon is dipped in a cup of ice cream. Its other end…
A. becomes cold by the process of radiation.
B. becomes cold by the process of conduction.
C. “does not become cold.”
D. becomes cold by the process of convection.

25. The sea breeze blows during:


A. summer
B. winter
C. day
D. night

26. A cold steel spoon is dipped in a cup of hot milk. It transfers heat to its other end by the
process of…………….
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. absorption
D. Radiation

27. Clothes of ………………… colors absorb heat better than clothes of ………….colors.
A. Light, dark
B. Dark, light
C. soft, dark,
D. none of the above

287. Dark colored clothes are preferred during:


A. Winter
B. day
C. night
D. summer

29. No medium is required for transfer of heat by the process of :


A. absorption
B. Conduction
C. Radiation
D. Convection

30. Light coloured clothes are preferred during


A. winter
B. summer
C. day
D. night

31. Why conduction is only possible in solids:


A. particles of solids are closely packed
B. heat is transferred from the hotter end to the colder end of an object.
C. heat is transferred from the colder end to the hotter end of an object.
D. both A and B
Ans: D In solids, generally, the heat is transferred by the process of conduction because particles
of solids are closely packed and heat is transferred from the hotter end to the colder end of an
object.

32. An iron ball at 40°C is dropped in a mug containing water at 40°C. The heat will….
A. Not flows from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball.
B. Flow from iron ball to water.
C. Flow from water to iron ball.
D. none of the above

33. The materials which allow heat to pass through them easily are called:
A. insulators of heat
B. conductors of heat
C. semiconductors of heat
D. none of the above

34. Stainless steel pans are usually provided with copper bottoms. The reason for this could be
that.
A. copper bottom makes the pan more durable.
B. such pans appear colourful.
C. Copper is a better conductor of heat than stainless steel.
D. none of the above

35. Which of the following is not a requirement for site selection of hydroelectric power plant?
a) Availability of water
b) Large catchment area
c) Rocky land
d) Sedimentation
36. The amount of electrical energy that can be generated by a hydroelectric power plant depends
upon ___________
a) Head of water
b) Quantity of water
c) Specific weight of water
d) Efficiency of Alternator

37. Potential energy of water is used to drive the turbine.


a) True
b) Faise

38. Hydroelectric power plant is __________


a) Non-renewable source of energy
b) Conventional source of energy
c) Non-conventional source of energy
d) Continuous source of energy

39. Hydroelectric power plant is generally located near load centre.


a) True
b) False

40. Hydroelectric power plant is mainly located in ____________


a) Flat areas
b) Deserts
c) Hilly areas
d) Deltas

41. Which statement about hydroelectric power plant is wrong?


a) Efficiency of hydroelectric power plant does not reduce with age
b) Its construction coast is very high and takes a long time for erection.
c) It is very neat and clean plant because no smoke or ash is produced.
d) Meeting rapidly changing load demands is not possible in hydroelectric power plant.

42. Which of the following is not an advantage of hydroelectric power plant?


a) No fuel requirement
b) Low running cost
c) Continuous power source
d) No standby losses
43. Which of the following statement is true about hydroelectric power plant?
a) Hydroelectric power plants are multipurpose.
b) Due to non-uniform flow of water frequency control in such plants is very difficult.
c) Hydroelectric power plant has high running cost
d) Water is used as fuel in hydroelectric power plant

44. Which element of hydroelectric power plant prevents the penstock from water hammer
phenomenon?
a) Valves and Gates
b) Draft tubes
c) Spillway
d) Surge Tank

45. Dam having very wide base as compared to its height is called _________
a) buttress dam
b) arch dam
c) earth dam
d) solid gravity dam

46. Spillway discharges the overflow water to the downstream side when the reservoir is full.
a) True
b) False

47. Trash racks are built for ___________


a) discharging the water freely from the turbine exit to tailrace
b) preventing the turbine from ingress of floating and other materials
c) creating artificial head to store sufficient potential energy of water
d) controlling the opening of valves

48. Penstock in a hydroelectric power plant is _____________


a) a pipe connected to runner outlet
b) nozzle that release high pressure water on turbine blades
c) a conduit connecting forebay to scroll case of turbine
d) a pipe connecting surge tank to dam

49. The pressure at the inlet or exit of the draft tube should not be _________
a) less than one third of atmospheric pressure
b) greater than one third of atmospheric pressure
c) less than one atmospheric pressure
d) greater than one atmospheric pressure

50. Draft tube increases the operating head on the turbine.


a) True
b) False

51. Which statement about surge tank is wrong?


a) Ideal location of surge tank is at the turbine inlet
b) A decrease in load demands cause a rise in water level in surge tank
c) Surge tanks are totally closed to avoid entry of unwanted objects to penstock
d) Surge tanks are installed to reduce harm effects of water hammer phenomenon

52. Trash racks are located _____________


a) near tailrace
b) at the entrance of turbine
c) inside penstock
d) intake

53. What is the function of booms?


a) It supports the dam
b) it supports the penstock
c) It divert the Icebergs from flowing into the penstock
d) To hold the turbine structure

54. The cheapest plant in operation and maintenance is.......


A. Steam power plant
B. Nuclear power plant
C. Hydro-electric power plant
D. None of the above

55. Pelton turbines are mostly........


A. Horizontal
B. Vertical
C. Inclined
D. None of the above
56. The power output from a hydro-electric power plant depends on three parameters........
A. Head,type and dam of discharge
B. Head, discharge and efficiency of the system
C. Efficiency of the system, type of draft tube and type of turbine used
D. Type of dam, discharge and type of catchment area

57. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparison to a conventional thermal power plant
is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) may be less or mote depending on size

58. A nuclear unit becoming critical means

(a) it is generating power to rated capacity


(b) it is capable of generating much more than rated capacity
(c) there is danger of nuclear spread
(d) chain reaction that causes automatic splitting of the fuel nuclei has been established

59. Moderator in nuclear plants is used to


(a) Reduce temperature
(b) extract heat from nuclear reaction
(c) control the reaction
(d) cause collision with the fast moving neutrons to reduce their speed

60. The most commonly used moderator in nuclear plants is


(a) Heavy water
(b) concrete and bricks
(c) graphite and concrete
(d) deuterium

61. The nuclear energy is measured as


(a) MeV
(b) curie
(c) farads
(d) MW

62. Reflecting mirrors used for exploiting solar energy are called........
A. Mantle
B. Ponds
C. Diffusers
D. Heliostats

63. The output of solar cell is of the order of........


A. 1 W
B. 5 W
C. 10 W
D. 20 W

64. Photovoltaic cell or solar cell converts........


A. Thermal energy into electricity
B. Electromagnetic radiation directly into electricity
C. Solar radiation into thermal energy
D. Solar radiation into kinetic energy

65. Temperature attained by a flat-plate collector is of the........


A. Order of about 900C
B. Range of 1000C to 1500C
C. Above 1500C
D. None of the above

66. Solar cells,for power generation,entail the following major disadvantages........


A. Variable power
B. High cost
C. Lack of availability
D. Large area requirement

67. Largest geothermal plant in operation is in........


A. Maxico
B. Italy
C. Russia
D. California
68. The process of producing energy by utilizing heat trapped inside the earth surface is called
_________
a) Hydro-thermal energy
b) Geo-Thermal energy
c) Solar energy
d) Wave energy

69. Earth‟s outer layer rock is called as __________


a) Mantle
b) Crust
c) Outer core
d) Asthenosphere

70. How much is the efficiency of geothermal plant?


a) 28%
b) 15%
c) 42%
d) 30%

71. The geothermal energy is the ________ from the earth.


a) Heat
b) Light
c) Photons
d) Protons

72. What type of energy is wind energy?


a) Renewable energy
b) Non-renewable energy
c) Conventional energy
d) Commercial energy

73. What are used to turn wind energy into electrical energy?
a) Turbine
b) Generators
c) Yaw motor
d) Blades

74. Wind energy can be used to


(A) Generate electricity
(B) Operate flour mills
(C) Draw underground water
(D) all of the above
75. This is also called as a bio gas
(a) bio butanol
(b) biodiesel
(c) bio ethanol
(d) bio methane

76. Which country has world‟s largest tidal power plant?


a) Netherlands
b) South Korea
c) Laos
d) Bolivia

77. Reflector in nuclear plants is used to


(a) return the neutrons back into the core
(b) shield the radioactivity completely
(c) check polllution
(d) conserve energy

78. In nuclear fission each neutron that causes fission releases


(a) no new neutron
(b) at least one new neutron
(c) one new neutron
(d) more than one new neutrons

79. The process by which a heavy nucleus is splitted into two light nuclei is known as
(a) splitting
(b) fission
(c) fusion
(d) disintegration

80. Cost of nuclear fuel in nuclear power plant economics is considered as __________
a) running cost
b) maintenance cost
c) capital cost
d) development cost
MCQ’s on
Unit II: Introduction to Thermal Engineering
1. Which of the following laws was formulated by Nernst?

a. First law of thermodynamics


b. Second law of thermodynamics
c. Third law of thermodynamics
d. None of the above

Answer: (c)
2. Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas

(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) all of the above
(e) atomic mass.
Answer : d

3. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is

(a) Centigrade
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) Kelvin
(e) Rankine.
Answer : d

4. A closed system is one in which

(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(c) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(d) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(e) thermodynamic reactions take place.
Answer : a

5. Work done in a free expansion process is

(a) + ve
(b) -ve
(c) zero
(d) maximum
(e) minimum.
Answer : c

6. An isolated system is one in which

(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(c) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(d) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
Answer : b

7. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system

(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) specific volume
(d) heat
(e) density.
Answer : d

8. Which of the following is not the intensive property

(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) density
(d) heat
(e) specific volume.
Answer : d

9. The basis for measuring thermodynamic property of temperature is given by

(a) zeroth law of thermodynamics


(b) first law of thermodynamics
(c) second law of thermodynamics
(d) third law of thermodynamics
(e) Avogadro‟s hypothesis.
Answer : a

10. First law of thermodynamics furnishes the relationship between

(a) heat and work


(b) heat, work and properties of the system
(c) various properties of the system
(d) various thermodynamic processes
(e) heat and internal energy.
Answer : b

11. According to first law of thermodynamics

(a) work done by a system is equal to heat transferred by the system


(b) total internal energy of a system during a process remains constant
(c) internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain constant
(d) total energy of a system remains constant
(e) entropy of a system remains constant.
Answer : d

12. First law of thermodynamics

(a) enables to determine change in internal energy of the system


(b) does not help to predict whether the system will or not undergo a change
(c) does not enable to determine change in entropy
(d) provides relationship between heat, work and internal energy
(e) all of the above.
Answer : e

13. According to first law of thermodynamics

(a) mass and energy are mutually convertible


(b) Carnot engine is most efficient
(c) heat and work are mutually convertible
(d) mass and light are mutually convertible
(e) heat flows from hot substance to cold substance.
Answer : c
14. Which device maintains a body at a temperature lower than the temperature of the
surroundings?
a) PMM1
b) PMM2
c) refrigerator
d) heat pump

Answer: c

15. What does a refrigerant do?


a) absorbs the heat leakage into body from surroundings
b) evaporates in the evaporator
c) absorbs latent heat of vaporization form the body which is cooled
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

16. Coefficient of performance(COP) is defined as


a) heat leakage/work input
b) work input/heat leakage
c) latent heat of condensation/work input
d) work input/latent heat of condensation

Answer: a

17. Which device maintains a body at a temperature higher than the temperature of the
surroundings?
a) PMM1
b) PMM2
c) refrigerator
d) heat pump

Answer: d

18. In a heat pump, there is heat leakage from the body to the surroundings.
a) true
b) false

Answer: a

19. What is the relation between COP of heat pump and refrigerator?
a) COP of pump=COP of refrigerator – 1
b) COP of pump=COP of refrigerator + 1
c) COP of pump=COP of refrigerator – 2
d) COP of pump=COP of refrigerator + 2

Answer: b

20. Heat leakage from a heat pump to surroundings is always greater than work done on pump.
a) true
b) false

Answer: a
21. Which of the following statements are true?
a) a heat pump provides a thermodynamic advantage over direct heating
b) COP for both refrigerator and pump cannot be infinity
c) work input for both refrigerator and pump is greater than zero
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d

22. Kelvin-Planck‟s and Clausius‟ statements are


a) not connected to each other
b) virtually two parallel statements of second law
c) violation of one doesn‟t violate the other
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b

23. If one of the Kelvin-Planck‟s or Clausius‟ statement is violated, then other is also violated.
a) true
b) false

Answer: a

24. A heat pump,


a) extracts energy at low temperature heat source
b) gives energy to high temperature heat source
c) both of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

25. Which of the following is true for a heat pump and a refrigerator?
a) a refrigerator removes heat to achieve cooling
b) a heat pump supplies heat at high temperature
c) both of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

26. The condenser and evaporator in vapour compression system are called cooler and
refrigerator respectively.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a

27. The COP of gas-cycle refrigeration cycle is very high.


a) true
b) false

Answer: b

28. In which phase of a substance does conduction mode of heat transfer take place?

a. solid
b. liquid
c. gaseous
d. all of the above

ANSWER: d. all of the above

29. Mass transfer does not take place in

a. conduction heat transfer


b. convection heat transfer
c. radiation heat transfer
d. none of the above

ANSWER: c. radiation heat transfer

30. What is the condition for conduction mode of heat transfer between two bodies?

a. the two bodies must be in physical contact


b. there must be temperature gradient between the bodies
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above

ANSWER: c. both a. and b.

31. In which mode, does the heat energy transfer between two bodies when they are
separated by some distance and there is no any medium between them?

a. conduction mode of heat transfer


b. convection mode of heat transfer
c. radiation mode of heat transfer
d. heat transfer cannot takes place with above condition

ANSWER: c. radiation mode of heat transfer

32. The radiant heat emitted by any body travels at the speed

a. less than the speed of light


b. more than the speed of light
c. equals to the speed of light
d. unpredictable

ANSWER: c. equals to the speed of light

33. The conduction heat transfer with combination of transfer of material also is called as

a. material conduction heat transfer


b. convection heat transfer
c. solid convection heat transfer
d. none of the above

ANSWER: b. convection heat transfer

34. The literature of heat transfer generally recognizes distinct modes of heat transfer. How many
modes are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four

Answer: c

35. Consider system A at uniform temperature t and system B at another uniform temperature T
(t > T). Let the two systems be brought into contact and be thermally insulated from their
surroundings but not from each other. Energy will flow from system A to system B because of
a) Temperature difference
b) Energy difference
c) Mass difference
d) Volumetric difference

Answer: a

36. Unit of the rate of heat transfer is


a) Joule
b) Newton
c) Pascal
d) Watt

Answer: d

37. Convective heat transfer coefficient doesn‟t depend on


a) Surface area
b) Space
c) Time
d) Orientation of solid surface

Answer: a

38. The rate equation used to describe the mechanism of convection is called Newton‟s law of
cooling. So rate of heat flow by convection doesn‟t depend on
a) Convective heat transfer coefficient
b) Surface area through which heat flows
c) Time
d) Temperature potential difference

Answer: c

39. How many types of convection process are there?


a) One
b) Three
c) Four
d) Two

Answer: b

40. Thermal conductivity is maximum for which substance


a) Silver
b) Ice
c) Aluminum
d) Diamond

Answer: d

41. Which of the following is an example of forced convection?


a) Chilling effect of cold wind on a warm body
b) Flow of water in condenser tubes
c) Cooling of billets in the atmosphere
d) Heat exchange on cold and warm pipes

Answer: b

42. According to Stefan Boltzmann law, the total radiation from a black body per second
per unit area is directly proportional to the

A) Absolute temperature
B) Square of the absolute temperature
C) Cube of the absolute temperature
D) Fourth power of the absolute temperature

Answer: Option D

43. In case of liquids and gases, the heat transfer takes place according to

A) Conduction
B) Convection
C) Radiation
D) None of these
Correct Answer
Answer: Option B

44. The radiation emitted by a black body is known as


A) Black radiation
B) Full radiation
C) Total radiation
D) All of these
Correct Answer
Answer: Option D

45. According to Newton's law of cooling, the heat transfer from a hot body to a cold body
is

A) Directly proportional to the surface area


B) Directly proportional to the difference of temperatures between the two bodies
C) Either (A) or (B)
D) Both (A) and (B)

Correct Answer
Answer: Option D

46. Newtons law is given by


a) Q = h A (t s – t f)
b) Q = 2 h A (t s – t f)
c) Q = 3 h A (t s – t f)
d) Q = 4 h A (t s – t f)

Answer: a

47. The Stefan-Boltzmann constant has units of


a) kcal/m2 hr K4
b) kcal/m hr K4
c) kcal/hr K4
d) kcal/m2 K4

Answer: a
Explanation: According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, q = α A T4.

48. According to Stefan-Boltzmann law of thermal radiation


a) q = α A T
b) q = α A T4
c) q = α A T3
d) q = α A T5

Answer: b
Explanation: α is Stefan-Boltzmann constant whose value is 5.67 * 10 -8 W/m2 K4.

49. Calculate the radiant flux density from a black surface at 400 degree Celsius?
a) 1631.7 W/m2
b) 31.7 W/m2
c) 631.7 W/m2
d) 11631.7 W/m2

Answer: d
Explanation: E = σ T4 = 5.67 * 10 –8 (400 + 273)4 = 11631.7 W/m2.

50. If the emitted radiant energy is to be doubled, to what temperature surface of black body
needs to be raised? Take radiant flux density as 11631.7 W/m 2.
a) 894.4 K
b) 200.4 K
c) 800.3 K
d) 600.4 K
Answer: d
Explanation: 2(11631.7) = 5.67 * 10 –8 T 4.

51. A furnace having inside temperature of 2250 has a glass circular viewing of 6 cm diameter. If
the transmissivity of glass is 0.08, make calculations for the heat loss from the glass window due
to radiation
a) 234.54 W
b) 652.32 W
c) 328.53 W
d) 762.32 W

Answer: c
Explanation: Q = σ A T4 (t) = 328.53 W.

52. The value of radiation coefficient or the Stefan-Boltzmann constant is


a) 5.67 * 10 -8 W/m2 K4
b) 5.67 * 10 -7 W/m2 K4
c) 5.67 * 10 -6 W/m2 K4
d) 5.67 * 10 -5 W/m2 K4

Answer: a
Explanation: q = α A T4.
53. In a two stroke engine, the working cycle is completed in two revolutions of the crankshaft.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

54. A two stroke cycle engine gives _____________ the number of power strokes as compared
to the four stroke cycle engine, at the same engine speed.
a) half
b) same
c) double
d) four times

Answer: c

55. A two stroke cycle engine occupies larger floor area than a four stroke cycle engine.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

56. A two stroke engine gives _____________ mechanical efficiency than a four stroke cycle
engine.
a) higher
b) lower
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a

57. The two stroke cycle engine have lighter flywheel.


a) True
b) False

Answer: a

58. Thermal efficiency of a two stroke cycle engine is _____________ a four stroke cycle
engine.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b

59. In a petrol engine, the mixture has the lowest pressure at the
a) beginning of suction stroke
b) end of suction stroke
c) end of compression stroke
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b

60. The work required to overcome the friction of the exhaust and suction strokes is saved.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a

61. As there is a working stroke in every revolution, a more uniform turning moment is obtained
on the crankshaft and therefore, a __________ flywheel is required.
a) heavier
b) slower
c) lighter
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

62. Two stroke engines are __________ than four stroke engines for the same power output and
speed.
a) heavier
b) slower
c) lighter
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: c

63. For the same output, two stroke engines occupy ___________ space.
a) greater
b) lesser
c) same
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b

64. The construction of a two stroke cycle engine is ____________ because it has ports instead
of valves.
a) complex
b) simple
c) unpredictable
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b

65. In case of two stroke engines because of scavenging, burnt gases remain in the clearance
space as in case of four stroke engines.
a) True
b) False

Answer: b

66. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, compression


a) starts at 40º after bottom dead center and ends at 10º before top dead center
b) starts at 40º before top dead center and ends at 40º after bottom dead center
c) starts at top dead center and ends at 40º before bottom dead center
d) may start and end anywhere

Answer: a

67. In a four stroke cycle diesel engine, the exhaust valve


a) opens at 30º before bottom dead center and closes at 10º after top dead center
b) opens at bottom dead center and closes at top dead center
c) opens at 30º after bottom dead center and closes at 10º before top dead center
d) may open or close anywhere

Answer: a
68. How can we classify steam generators on the basis of application?
a) utility steam generators
b) industrial steam generator
c) marine steam generator
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: d
69. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) A simple vertical boiler has one fire tube
b) A fire tube boiler occupies less space than a water tube boiler, for a given power
c) Steam at a high pressure and in large quantities can be produced with a simple vertical boiler
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: a

70. In a fire-tube boiler, the water is in ___________


a) tube
b) shell
c) drum
d) all of the mentioned

Answer: b

71. In a water-tube boiler, water flows through?


a) drum
b) shell
c) tube
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: a
72. The boiler in which the tubes are surrounded by hot gases is called ___________
a) fire tube boiler
b) water tube boiler
c) both fire and water tube boiler
d) none of the mentioned

Answer: b

73. Which of these is not a type of steam generator depending upon the kind of applications?
a) utility steam generators
b) marine steam generators
c) agricultural steam generators
d) industrial steam generators

Answer: c

74. What is the critical pressure of steam in a utility steam generator?


a) 220.2 bar
b) 221.2 bar
c) 222.2 bar
d) 225.2 bar

Answer: b
75. A definite area where some thermodynamic process takes place is known as

a) Thermodynamic System
b) Thermodynamic circle
c Thermodynamic process
d) Thermodynamic laws

Answer: a
Unit III Vehicles and their Specifications.
1. Two door and four door type automobiles are classified as
a) Sedan
b) Convertible
c) Special purpose vehicles
d) Pick ups
Ans. A
2. Which of these falls under LMV(Light Motor Vehicle) category based on capacity?
a) Motorbikes
b) Cars
c) Buses
d) Trains
Ans. B
3. A delivery van falls under the category of which type of vehicles.
a) Heavy passenger vehicles
b) Light passenger vehicles
c) Heavy goods vehicles
d) Light goods vehicles
Ans. D
4. Abbreviation HEVs stands for what
a) Highly Efficient Vehicles
b) Hybrid Electric Vehicles
c) Highly Economic Vehicles
d) Highly Engineered Vehicles
Ans. B
5. Abbreviation SUVs stands for what
a) Supply Unit Vehicles
b) Sub-urban Utility Vehicles
c) Short Urban Vehicles
d) Super Utility Vehicles
Ans. B
6. BMW is a leading German engine and automobile manufacturing company. Here BMW is an
abbreviation for
a) British Motor Works
b) Bayerische Motoren Werke
c) Bayerische Machine Werke
d) Bright Motor Works
Ans. B
7. The transmission system transmits _________ from engine to wheels.
a) Speed
b) Power
c) Current
d) Pressure
Ans. B
8. Which of the following is not a part of the transmission system
a) Clutch
b) Axles
c) Wheels
d) Gear box
Ans. C
9. The loads supported by an automobile frame are
a) Weight of the body, passengers and cargo loads
b) Torque from engine and transmission
c) Sudden impacts from collisions
d) All of the mentioned
Ans. D
10. An automobile chassis does not include which one of the following parts
a) Shock absorbers
b) Steering system
c) Differential
d) Brakes
Ans, c
11. The electrical system of an automobile contains which of the following
a) Battery
b) Alternators
c) Lighting systems
d) All of the mentioned
Ans. D
12. Which of these were or are used in automobiles to provide suspension.
a) Leaf springs
b) Coil springs
c) Torsion bars
d) All of the mentioned
Ans. D
13. Which of these is not necessary for the description of an automobile
a) Type
b) Capacity
c) Colour
d) Model
Ans. C
14. Which of these is necessary for the description of an automobile
a) Make
b) Model
c) Capacity
d) All of the mentioned
Ans. D
15. „Volkswagen Polo‟ is a
a) Ultra-compact car
b) Sub-compact car
c) Compact car
d) Executive car
Ans. B
16. „Maruti 800‟ is a
a) Sub-compact car
b) Compact car
c) City car
d) Sports car
Ans. C
17. What is actual power delivered by the engine known as?
a) Shaft power
b) Horse power
c) Brake power
d) None of the mentioned
Ans. A
18. If „T‟ is torque(in Nm) and „N‟ is speed(in rpm) then the required expression for Brake power
„B.P‟ in kWs is
a) 2πNT/6000
b) 2πNT/60000
c) πNT/6000
d) πNT/60000
Ans. B
19. One Horse Power(H.P) is approximately equal to _____ Watts.
a) 810
b) 545
c) 634
d) 746
Ans. D
20. In a Otto cycle engine, combustion occurs at
a) Constant pressure
b) Constant temperature
c) Constant volume
d) Constant heat
Ans. C
21. In a Diesel cycle engine, combustion occurs at
a) Constant pressure
b) Constant temperature
c) Constant volume
d) Constant heat
Ans. A
22. In a four stroke ic engine the number of strokes covered for one complete crankshaft
revolution is
a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0.5
Ans. B
23. Trucks and Buses use which type of fuel?
a) Petrol
b) LPG
c) CNG
d) Diesel
Ans, d
24. A 4*2 drive vehicle implies that
a) It has 4*2=8 wheels
b) It has 2 auxiliary wheels and 4 drive wheels
c) It has 4 wheels out of which 2 are drive wheels
d) None of the mentioned
Ans. C
25. In a four stroke engine each cylinder has
a) One valve
b) Two valves
c) Three valves
d) Four valves
Answer: b
26. In a diesel engine the fuel injection pressure is in the range
a) 100 to 170 atm
b) 60 to 70 atm
c) 30 to 40 atm
d) 20 to 25 atm
Answer: a
27. The valve is opened as the cam lobe on the cam raises the
a) Bearing
b) Piston
c) Valve lifter
d) Valve seat
Answer: c
28. Exhaust valve temperature is about
a) 35 degree celsius
b) 100 degree celsius
c) 150 degree celsius
d) 500 degree celsius
Answer: d
29. The size of the engine intake valve is
a) Same as that of exhaust valve
b) Smaller than that of exhaust valve
c) Larger than that of exhaust valve
d) Does not depend upon the size of exhaust valve
Answer: b
30. The device used to measure the clearance between the valve and tappet of an IC Engine is
a) Feeler gauge
b) Snap gauge
c) Slip gauge
d) Micrometer
Answer: a
31. The purpose of valve clearance is to
a) Allow the valve to expand
b) Allow the sliding of valve in the guide
c) Ensure that the valve closes fully
d) Ensure that the crankshaft is free to rotate
Answer: c
32. The opening and closing of a valve is respectively done by
a) A cam and a spring
b) A spring and a cam
c) Gas pressure and cam
d) Cylinder vacuum and spring
Answer: a
33. On modern four stroke engines the exhaust valve opens just
a) Before TDC
b) After TDC
c) Before BDC
d) After BDC
Answer: c
34. On modern four stroke engines the inlet valve opens just
a) Before TDC
b) After TDC
c) Before BDC
d) After BDC
Answer: a
35. A relief valve is fitted to the main oil gallery of an engine. The purpose of this valve is to
a) Limit the maximum oil pressure
b) Open when the oil is hot
c) Maintain the supply if the gallery becomes blocked
d) Stop the oil flow to the bearings
Answer: A relief valve limits the maximum oil pressure.
36. The temperature indicating instrument in vehicles indicates the temperature of
(A) Engine piston
(B) Engine cylinder
(C) Lubricating oil
(D) Jacket cooling water
Answer: Option D
37. Two general types of tyres are
(A) Tube type and tubeless
(B) Solid and tubeless
(C) Air and pneumatic
(D) Split rim and drop centre
Answer: Option A
38. How many cells are used in a 12 volt car battery?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer: Option C
39. The motion of the cam is transferred to the valves through
(A) Pistons
(B) Rocker arms
(C) Camshaft pulley
(D) Valve stems
Answer: Option B
40. The power actually developed inside the engine cylinder is called as
(A) Indicated power
(B) Brake power
(C) Frictional power
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
41. If the air-fuel mixture in a spark ignition engine is too rich, then air-fuel ratio is about
(A) 17:1
(B) 15:1
(C) 13:1
(D) 10:1
Answer: Option D
42. Petrol that detonates easily is called
(A) High octane petrol
(B) Low octane petrol
(C) Unleaded petrol
(D) Blended fuel
Answer: Option B
43. The advantage of a tubeless tyre over tube type tyre is
(A) Slow air leakage
(B) Better fuel efficiency
(C) Less chances of running flat
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
44. The battery is an electrochemical device, which means battery
(A) Makes chemicals by mechanical means
(B) Uses chemical action to provide electricity
(C) Has curved plates instead of flat plates
(D) Does not use an electrolyte
Answer: Option B
45. Two advantages of using helical gears rather than spur gears in a transmission system are
(A) Strength and cost
(B) Strength and less end thrust
(C) Noise level and strength
(D) Noise level and economy
Answer: Option C
46. The correct flow of power through the drive train is
(A) Engine drive shafts, clutch, main shaft, counter shaft, final driven gear,
wheels
(B) Engine clutch, main shaft, counter shaft, final driven gear, drive shafts,
wheels
(C) Engine clutch, counter shaft, main shaft, final driven gear, drive shafts,
wheels
(D) Engine main shaft, counter shaft, clutch, final driven gear, drive shafts,
wheels
Answer: Option B
47. The most commonly used power plant in automobiles is
(A) Gas turbine
(B) I.C. engine
(C) Battery
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
48. In commercial vehicle layouts engine is located forward, rear or under floor mainly to
a. Better utilization of space
b. Increase fuel economy
c. Better weight distribution
d. Reduce the weight of chassis
Ans: c
49. The type of air cycle used in diesel engine is called
a. Otto cycle
b. Carnot cycle
c. Diesel cycle
d. Rankine cycle
Ans: c
50. During suction stroke the pressure inside the cylinder is
a. Equal to atmospheric pressure
b. Above atmospheric pressure
c. Above or below atmospheric pressure
d. Below atmospheric pressure
Ans: d
51. During compression stroke the air is compressed according to
a. Isothermal process
b. Hyperbolic process
c. Adiabatic process
d. Constant pressure process
Ans: c
52. The heat is added in the cycle at
a. Constant pressure
b. Constant volume
c. Approximately constant pressure and constant volume
Ans: c
53. The crankcase scavenging the the crankcase or underside of the piston acts as
a. An air compressor
b. A blower
c. A ventilator
d. A breather
Ans: a
54. The two-stroke engine has valve ports in the
a. Pistons
b. Cylinder walls
c. Piston rings
Ans: b
55. The temperature of the piston will be more at
a. The piston walls
b. The crown of the piston
c. The skirt of the piston
d. The piston pin
Ans: b
56. Connecting rods are generally of the following from
a. Forged round section steel
b. Cast steel triangular section
c. Forged square section steel
d. Forged I section steel
Ans: d
57. For petrol engines the nominal compression ratio will vary between
a. 1 to 2:1
b. 18 to 21:1
c. 1 to 5:1
d. 7.5 to 8.5:1
Ans: d
58. For diesel engines the nominal compression ratio is from
a. 17 to 21:1
b. 7.5 to 8.5:1
c. 30 to 40:1
d. 1 to 5:1
Ans: a
59. Engine torque is highest at
a. Low speed
b. Intermediate speed
c. High speed
Ans: b
60. The characteristic of an object which makes it resist any tendency to change its direction
of motion iscalled
a. Inertia
b. Power
c. Internal energy
Ans: a
61. The maximum pressure of air at the end of compression in diesel engines is about
a. 10 Kg/cm2
b. 100 Kg/cm2
c. 300 Kg/cm2
d. 30 Kg/cm2
Ans: d
62. Immediately after ignition, combustion chamber temperatures may reach a value of
a. 15000C
b. 55000C
c. 25000C
d. 75000C
Ans: a
63. The compression ratio in a diesel engine is as high as
a. 25:1
b. 20:1
c. 10:1
d. 5:1
Ans: b
64. The temperature of the compressed air should be ………….. of the fuel
a. Below the flash point
b. Above the flash point
c. Above the fire point
d. Between the fire and flash point
Ans: c
65. The compression pressure in diesel engine is around
a. 30 Kg/cm2
b. 10 Kg/cm2
c. 20 Kg/cm2
d. 40 Kg/cm2
Ans: a
66. The combustion process in a diesel engine is
a. Constant pressure process
b. Isothermal process
c. Constant volume process
d. Adiabatic process
Ans: a
67. Most of the mopeds in India have capacity of
a. 10 cc
b. 250 cc
c. 50 cc
d. 175 cc
e. 150 cc
Ans: c
68. Which motor cycle has maximum power rating
a. Rajdoot
b. Jawa
c. Yamaha
d. Bullet
Ans: c
69. Piston displacement is calculated from the
a. Cylinder diameter and length
b. Piston length and diameter
c. Bore and stroke
Ans: c
70. The power used in overcoming friction in the engine is called
a. FHP
b. BHP
c. IHP
Ans: a
71. During combustion the pressure in the cylinder may increase to as much as
a. 50 Kg/cm2
b. 400 Kg/cm2
c. 10 Kg/cm2
Ans: a
72. The size of intake valve is
a. Smaller than that of the exhaust valve
b. Equal to that of the exhaust valve
c. Larger than that of the exhaust valve
d. Not depending upon the size of exhaust valve
Ans: c
73. Two stoke engine is preferred for small vehicles because
a. Fuel consumption is low
b. Shock and vibrations are less
c. Its size is small
d. It is easy to control
Ans: c
74. The part of the vehicle which holds the passengers and the cargo to be transported, is
known as
A. Chassis B. Hull
C. Aft D. Senan
E. Cabin
Answer: Option B

75. Which one of the following is not a part of the chassis?


A. WheelsB. Front axle
C. Steering system D. Passenger seats
E. Rear axles
Answer: Option D

76. Diesel engines are generally preferred for road transport these days because of low
A. Initial cost B. Manufacturing cost
C. Prime cost D. Operating cost
E. Maintenance cost
Answer: Option D
77. The device for smoothening out the power inpulses from the engine is called
A. Clutch B. Differential
C. Flywheel D. Torque convertor
E. Gear box
Answer: Option C

78. Which vechicle is generally provided with four wheel drive


A. Ambassador car B. Standard wagon
C. Metador D. Jeep
E. Padmini car
Answer: Option D
79. In a four wheel drive the number of gear boxes is
A. 1 B. 2
C. 4 D. One gear box with more gears
E. Depends on the design of vehicle
Answer: Option B
80. Which one of the following is mounted between the engine and gear box?
A. Propellor shaft B. Differential gear
C. Reduction gear D. Clutch
E. None of the above
Answer: Option D
81. In case of four cylinder in line engine, the number of firing stroke (s) in one revolution of
crank is
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. Depends on the design of engine.
Answer: Option B
82. At the first sight a petrol engine is identified by
A. Cylinder size B. Power output
C. Operating speed D. Spark plug
E. Size of air cleaner
Answer: Option D
83. Which part is not common between the petrol and diesel engines
A. Air cleaner B. Exhaust silencer
C. Battery D. Dynamo
E. Fuel injector
Answer: Option E
84. The heating value of petrol is
A. 7650 kcal/kg B. 8000-8500 kcal/kg
C. 10,000-10400 kcal/kg D. 12750-13850 kcal/kg
E. 15000-16000 kcal/kg
Answer: Option C
85. Which one of the following does not form a part of the fuel supply system for a Diesel
engine?
A. Supply pump B. Filter
C. Air cleaner D. Spray nozzles
E. Injector
Answer: Option C
Unit IV: Vehicle Systems
1. The transmission system transmits ___ from engine to wheels.
a) Speed
b) Power
c) Current
d) Pressure

2. Which of the following is not a part of the transmission system


a) Clutch
b) Axles
c) Wheels
d) Gear box

3. The loads supported by an automobile frame are


a) Weight of the body, passengers and cargo loads
b) Torque from engine and transmission
c) Sudden impacts from collisions
d) All of the mentioned

4. An automobile chassis does not include which one of the following parts
a) Shock absorbers
b) Steering system
c) Differential
d) Brakes

5. The electrical system of an automobile contains which of the following


a) Battery
b) Alternators
c) Lighting systems
d) All of the mentioned

6. Which of these were or are used in automobiles to provide suspension.


a) Leaf springs
b) Coil springs
c) Torsion bars
d) All of the mentioned
7. „Head restraints‟ are an
a) Automotive style feature
b) Automotive safety feature
c) Automotive performance feature
d) None of the mentioned

8. What is actual power delivered by the engine known as?


a) Shaft power
b) Horse power
c) Brake power
d) None of the mentioned

9. If „T‟ is torque(in Nm) and „N‟ is speed(in rpm) then the required expression for
Brake power „B.P‟ in kWs is
a) 2πNT/6000
b) 2πNT/60000
c) πNT/6000
d) πNT/60000

10. One Horse Power(H.P) is approximately equal to _____ Watts.


a) 810
b) 545
c) 634
d) 746

11. In a four stroke cycle engine camshaft revolves at ______ the crank speed.
a) Two times
b) Half
c) Four times
d) Three times

12. In which of the following fuel injector is used?


a) Compression-ignition engines
b) Spark-ignition engines
c) Steam engines
d) Sterling engines

13. At which stroke the fuel is injected in the CI engine?


a) Suction stroke
b) Compression stroke
c) Expansion stroke
d) Exhaust stroke

14. Where is the clutch located?


a) Between transmission and engine
b) Between transmission and rear axle
c) Between transmission and propeller shaft
d) Between transmission and differential

15.Which of the following parts of the cover assembly that hold the pressure plate
against the clutch plate?
a) Springs
b) Thrust bearings
c) Struts
d) Lever

16. Which of the following is the need of the gearbox?


a) To vary the speed of the vehicle
b) To vary the torque of the vehicle
c) To vary the power of the vehicle
d) To vary the acceleration of the vehicle

17. In which of the gearbox all gears are always in contact?


a) Constant-mesh gearbox
b) Sliding mesh gearbox
c) Synchromesh gearbox
d) Epicyclical gearbox
18. Which types of gears are used in constant mesh gearbox?
a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Bevel gear
d) Worm gear

19. Why are the helical gears used commonly in transmission over spur gears?
a) Low cost and high strength
b) Low noise level and high strength
c) Low noise level and economy
d) Low noise level and low cost

20. Increase of torque in a vehicle is obtained by decreasing power.


a) True
b) False

21. Which types of joints are used when the shafts are inclined?
a) Universal joint
b) Hinge joint
c) Ball and socket joint
d) Pivot joint

22. Where is the differential located?


a) Between transmission and rear axle
b) Between engine and transmission
c) Between two propeller shaft
d) Between steering wheel and steering column

23. What is the need of the universal joint?


a) To change inclination
b) To bend sideways
c) To transfer torque at an angle
d) To change length
24. A two-piece propeller shaft requires one universal joint.
a) True
b) False

25. On what principle does the braking system in the car work?
a) Frictional force
b) Gravitational force
c) Magnetic force
d) Electric force

26. Generally which brakes are on the front wheels?


a) Drum brake
b) Disk brake
c) Shoe brake
d) Double shoe brake

27. In Front engine rear wheel drive Engine is located at


a) Front
b) Rear
c) Left
d) Right

28. In Rear engine rear wheel drive Engine is located at


a) Front
b) Rear
c) Left
d) Right

29. In Front engine front wheel drive Engine is located at


a) Front
b) Rear
c) Left
d) Right
30. In Rear engine rear wheel drive Engine is located at
a) Front
b) Rear
c) Left
d) Right

31. Functions of Steering System:

a) To change the direction of vehicle


b) To provide the directional stability to vehicle when moving along straight path
c) To facilitate straight motion recovery after completing the turn
d) All above options

32. Which is not a Component of Steering System

a) Axle Beam
b) Stub Axle
c) King Pin
d) Brake

33) Which is not a function of the braking system

a) To provide a mean to slow the vehicle without affecting the engine speed.
b) To provide a mean to stop the vehicle while the engine is still running.
c) To change gears
d) To provide emergency stop of the vehicle within lowest time and distance.

34) Type of Brake


a) Single Plate Clutch
b) Multi Plate Clutch
c) Disc Brakes
d) Cone Clutch

35. Which is not a part of Internally Expanding Brake?


a) Brake shoe
b) Retractor spring
c) Brake drum
d) Disc
36. Which is not a advantage of Internally Expanding Brake?
a) The wear and tear on brake shoes is not uniform.
b) It consists of large friction shoes providing better braking.
c) The overall system design and construction simple.
d) The drum brakes are most economical at cost.

37. Which is not a part of Disc Brake?


a) Rotating Disc
b) Expander
c) Calliper
d) Fluid lines

38. Front Axle is made by _____ manufacturing process


a) Casting
b) Powder Metallurgy
c) 3D printing
d) Forging

39. Which is not a Function of Suspension System ?


a) To isolate the vehicle body from road shocks
b) To stop vehicle
c) To safeguard passengers and cargo from the road shocks
d) To maintain the contact between the tyres and road.

40. Which is not a part of Leaf Spring (Semi-Elliptic Leaf Spring)?


a) Rebound clips
b) Shackle
c) U-Bolts
d) Helical compression spring

41. Which is not a part of Telescopic Suspension System?


a) Helical compression spring
b) Damper
c) Rebound clips
d) Telescopic system

42. If heat lost to cylinder wall is not dissipated or removed is leads not to?
a) damage of cylinder due to overheating
b) seizing of piston due to overheating
c) burning of lubricating oil
d) increase efficiency
43. Which is not a component of Fuel supply and fuel injection system in Diesel
engine?
a) Fuel Filter
b) Fuel Rail:
c) Fuel Injector
d) Spark Plug

44. Which is not a type of Clutch?


a) Plate or Disc
b) Cone
c) Internal Expanding
d) Centrifugal

45. Which is not the function of Gear Box?


a) Gear box reduces the speed and increases the torque.
b) Increase Power
c) Gear box provides wide range of speeds and torque to the vehicle
d) With reverse gear, gear box provides the means to move the vehicle in reverse
direction

46. Which is not a Vehicle Passive System?


a) Antilock Braking System (ABS)
b) Seat belts
c) Air bags
d) Laminated Glass

47. Which is not a Vehicle Active System?


a) Night Vision System
b) Seat Belts
c) Lane Departure Warning
d) Antilock Braking System (ABS)

48. The automobile engine is running at 6000 rpm. The speed of propeller shaft is
1500 rpm in first gear determine the speed in first gear?
a) 6
b) 4
c) 5
d) 7

49. The automobile engine is developing 70 KW power at 4000 rpm. If the gear
ratio in Ist gear is 3.9: 1, determine input torque of gear box?
a) 100 Nm
b) 80 Nm
c) 167.11 Nm
d) 50 Nm

50. The automobile engine is developing 70 KW power at 4000 rpm. If the gear
ratio in Ist gear is 3.9: 1, determine output speed of gear box?
a) 500 rpm
b) 1025.64 rpm
c) 5000 rpm
d) 50 rpm
UNIT V Introduction to Manufacturing

1. The metal is subjected to mechanical working for


(a) Refining grain size
(b) Reducing original block into desired shape
(c) Controlling the direction of flow lines
(d) All of these

2. The temperature at which the new grains are formed in the metal is called
(a) Lower critical temperature
(b) Upper critical temperature
(c) Eutectic temperature
(d)Recrystallisation temperature

3. The dowels are


(a) Wooden nails
(b) Box nails
(c) Wire nails
(d)None of these

4. Which of the following material can be used for making patterns?


(a) Aluminum
(b) Wax
(c) MS
(d) All of these

5. Aluminum is the best material for making patterns because it is


(a) A light in weight
(b) Easy to work
(c) Corrosion resistant
(d) All of these

6. The purpose of a riser is to


(a) Deliver molten metal into the mould cavity
(b) Act as a reservoir for the molten metal
(c) Feed the molten metal to the casting in order to compensate for the shrinkage
(d) Deliver the molten metal from pouring basin to gate

7. Which “term” is not associated with casting process?


(a) Gate
(b) Runner
(c) Riser
(d) Swage
8. A “die” is used in
(a)casting process
(b)extrusion process
(c)forging process
(d) all of these.

9. Investment casting uses pattern made of


(a)wax (b) clay (c)metal (d) wood

10. In sand mould the upper half of the box is named as


(a) Cope
(b) drag
(c)cheek
(d) none of above

11. To pour the molten metal equipment used is


(a)Lifter
(b) ladle
(c)slick
(d) flask

12. In sand mould the bottom half of the box is named as


(a) Cope
(b) drag
(c)cheek
(d) none of above

13. A welding procedure is useful to:


(a) Give information to the welder
(b) Give information to the inspector
(c) Give “Confidence” to a product
(d)All of the above

14. The main causes of porosity in welded joints are:


(a) Poor access
(b) Loss of gas shield
(c)“Dirty” materials
(d) All of the above

15. Porosity is caused by:


(a) Entrapped slag in the solidifying weld
(b) Entrapped gas in the solidifying weld
(c) Entrapped metallic inclusions in the solidifying weld
(d) None of the above

16. Why welding is shielded?


(a) To eliminate hydrogen
(b) To retard the cooling rate of the weld
(c) To eliminate the atmosphere
(d)To ensure maximum heat input

17. “Blanking” is an expression used in


(a) sheet metal work
(b) casting process
(c)drawing
(d) rolling.
18. In drawing operation the metal flows due to
(a)ductility
(b) work hardening
(c)plasticity
(d) shearing

19. Metal forming is the process in which


(a) Removal of metal takes place
(b) Shaping of metal by forces applied through various dies and tools
(c) Some additional materials are joined to the raw material
(d) Material addition, through melting and pouring

20. Casting is the process in which


(a) Removal of metal takes place
(b) Shaping of metal by forces applied through various dies and tools
(c) Some additional materials are joined to the raw material
(d) Material addition, through melting and pouring

21. Welding is the process in which


(a) Removal of metal takes place
(b) Shaping of metal by forces applied through various dies and tools
(c) Two piece of metal sheets are joint by adding the filler material
(d) Material addition, through melting and pouring

22. In hot working metal is to be heated


(a) Below recystallization temperature (b) Above recystallization temperature
(c) At recystallization temperature (d) none of above

23. In cold working metal is to be heated


(a) Below recystallization temperature (b) Above recystallization temperature
(c) At recystallization temperature (d) none of above

24. Rollers are used to shape the metal in ---- process


(a) forging (b) casting
(c) rolling (d) none of above

25. In a welding a flux is used


(a)to permit perfect cohesion of metal
(b) To remove the oxides of the metal formed at higher temperature
(c)both (a) and (b) above
(d)none of above

26. In arc welding current used is


(a) AC current of high frequency (b) AC current of low frequency
(c) DC current (d) all of above

27. Brazing process is carried out in the temperature range of ---


(a)150-250 deg C (b) 250-450 deg C
(c) 500-700 deg C (d) 700-900 deg C
28. The flux in brazing process is used in the form of ----
(a) Solid (b) liquid
(c) Gas (d) all of above

29. Filler material in welding should have ----


(a) same composition as the parent metal to be welded
(b) same melting temperature as the parent metal to be welded
(c) same composition and same melting point as the parent metal to be welded
(d) same composition as of electrode

30. Binding wire used to support the joint for soldering is made of ----
(a) soft iron (b)aluminium
(c)mild steel (d) copper

31. Advantage of cold working is


(a)better dimensional accuracy (b) better surface finish
(c)higher strength (d) all of these.

32. Typical hot working temperature range for steel is


(a) 650–1050°C (b) 650–723°C
(c)500–910°C (d) none of these.

33. The forging operation of “upsetting” is


(a) reverse of drawing down process (b) it is a bending operation
(c)it is a drifting operation d) none of these.

34. “Blanking” is an expression used in


(a)sheet metal work (b) casting process
(c) drawing (d) rolling.

35. The strength of a brazed joint


(a) decreases with increase in gap between the two joining surfaces
(b) increases with increase in gap between the two joining surfaces
(c) decreases up to certain gap between the two joining surfaces beyond which it
increases
(d) increases up to certain gap between the two joining surfaces beyond which it
decreases

36. When a metal returns to its original shape after an applied load has been removed, the
metal is said to have:
(a) Plasticity (b) Ductility
(c) Elasticity (d) Malleability

37. Which one of the following casting processes is the most widely used:
(a)centrifugal casting (b) die casting
(c)investment casting (d) sand casting

38. In sand casting, the volumetric size of the pattern than the casted part is
(a)bigger than, (b) the same size
(c) smaller than the cast part d) all of above

39. The application of runner is;


(a) horizontal distribution channel that accepts molten metal from the sprue and delivers
it to the gates, trap dross
(b) regions with larger circles (fillet radii), slower cooling rates, can develop shrinkage
cavities and porosity
(c) used to trap large contaminants and reduce metal velocity and make flow more
laminar
(d) goal is to achieve required metal flow rates (s.t. turbulence is avoided) while
preventing aspiration or dross formation

40. The property of a material by which it can be drawn into wires is known as
(a) ductility (b)elasticity
(c) softness (d) tempering

41. Malleability of a metal is the


(a) ability to withstand compressive stresses
(b) ability to withstand deformation under shear
(c) property by which a material can be cold-worked
(d) ability to undergo permanent deformation

42. The preheating of parts to be welded and slow cooling of the welded structure will
reduce
(a) cracking and incomplete fusion
(b) cracking and residual stress.
(c) residual stress and incompl

43. In drop forging the component is kept on____.


a) upper die
b) lower die
c) anvil block
d) all of the above

44. In mechanical working the flow of metal is ______.


a) Electric flow
b) Plastic flow
c) continuous flow
d) all of the above

45. For assembly of electronic components to the printed circuit boards ____method is
commonly used.
a) brazing
b) soldering
c) welding
d) All of above

46. The change in structure from hot working improves mechanical properties like ____.
a) ductility
b) toughness
c) resistance to shock and vibration
d) all of the above

47. Welding of _____ components is difficult.


a) cast
b) forged
c) sheet metal
d) None of above

48. If material is more ____, it can be more cold worked.


a) ductile
b) brittle
c) tough
d) stiff

49. Which of the following represents Slitting operations?

ANS: B

50. Which of the following represents Notching operations?

ANS: D

51. The Blanking operation is given by

ANS: A

52. Identify the operation performed on sheet metal working


A. Piercing B. Punching C. Perforating D. Blanking

53. Identify the operation performed on sheet metal working

A)Shearing B) Notching C) Bending D)Angle making

54. Which of the following is not angle bending operation?

B. ANS: D

55. The Piercing operation is given by

ANS: D

56. Which of the following represents Lancing operations?

ANS: B

57. Which one of the following represents shaving operation?


ANS: D

58. The following component produced by operation

Slitting B. Punching C. Lancing D. Notching

59. Identify the manufacturing process.

a) Casting
b) Welding
c) Forging
d) Fabrication

60. Identify the manufacturing process.

a) Close die forging


b) Open die forging
c) Drop Forging
d) Fabrication

61. Identify the manufacturing process.


a) Coining
b) Drawing
c) Embossing
d) Blanking

62. Identify the manufacturing process.

a) Close die forging b)Open die forging c)Drop Forging d) Fabrication

63. Identify the manufacturing process.

a) lancing
b) Piercing
c) blanking
d) punching
64. Identify the manufacturing process.

a)punching b) piercing c) coining d) blanking

65. Identify the part indicated by arrow.

a)sprue b) riser c) gate d) core

66. Identify the part indicated by arrow.

a) gate
b) riser
c) runner
d) core

67. Identify the part indicated by arrow.

a) gate
b) riser
c) runner
d) core

68. Identify the part indicated by arrow.

a) gate
b) riser
c) runner
d) core

69. The various brazing processes are____.


a) torch brazing
b) silver brazing
c) furnace brazing
d) all

70. In brazing process


a) strength of joint is less
b) joint can be damaged by under high temperature
c) joint colour is different than that of base metal
d) all of the above
71. which is metal cutting operation?
a) punching
b) blanking
c) piercing
d) all of above

72. which is metal forming operation?


a) punching
b) blanking
c) piercing
d) drawing

73. Welding produces_____.


a) harmful radiations
b) fumes
c) spatter
d) all of above

74. Welding results in _____.


a) residual stresses
b) deformation of workpieces
c) metallurgical changes in workpieces
d) all of above

75. ____ process uses closed impression die to obtain the required shape of component.
a) hand forging
b) casting
c) drop forging
d) soldering

76. ______ temperature differentiates hot working and cold working.


a) heating
b) cooling
c) recrystallisation
d) none of above

77. In ____ process the ram I raised to a definite height and then allowed to fall freely under
its own weight.
a) hand forging
b) casting
c) drop forging
d) soldering

78. Casting process is also called as ______.


a) forging
b) founding
c) joing
d) soldering

79. In ____operations the sheet metal is stressed beyond its ultimate strength.
a) forming
b) cutting
c) bending
d) drawing

80. The following machine is called as mother of all machine tools


(a) Shaping machine
(b) Milling machine
(c) Lathe machine
(d) Universal machine
Ans.: (c)

81. In CNC machines various functions are controlled with the help of ------------
i)MCU
ii) CNE Machine tools,
iii) Part programs

82. Micro controller is the ---------- of the of the CNC system.


i)MCU,
ii) Feedback device,
iii) Mamory storage device

83. Phenominon which connects a varity of things, everything‟s that has ability to
communicate is known as -------------
i)IOT,
ii) Rapid prototyping,
iii) Micromachining

84. Interconnectivity, Heterogegety, things related services, Dynamic changes are the
characteristics of --------------
i)IOT,
ii) Rapid prototyping,
iii) Reconfigurable manufacturing

85. Interconnectivity, Heterogeneity, things related services, Dynamic changes are the -------
-------of IOT
i)Concept,
ii) components
iii) characteristics

86. Out of following which is not advantage of CNC Machine-----


i) Program storage,
ii) Reduced jigs and fixtures,
iii) Skill operators

87. 3D printing also known as -----------


i)Additive manufacturing,
ii)Micro machining,
iii)Rapid prototyping

88. -------- is a process of creating three dimensional physical objects from a computer
model or digital file
i)Micro machining,
ii) Rapid prototyping,
iii)3D Printing

89. Three dimentional printing is --------rapid prototyping system


i)Powder based
ii)Skill based
iii)Computer based

90. In 3D printing process to create 3D prototype -------- of deposited powder are solidified
i)Layers
ii)Stages
iii)Slices

91. What is the file format we export to print in 3D printing


i)Obj ,
ii)stl
iii)stj

92. --------spreads a new layer of material on top of previously printed layer


i)Feed platform
ii)Roller mechanism
iii)Feed bed

93. Sanding operation is ----------operation


i) post processing
ii) Pre processing
iii) Finishing

94. Technique of producing the features with dimensions ranging from few microns to few
hundred microns is known as --------------
i) Micro machining,
iii) Rapid prototyping,
iii) Post processing

95. Microsurgical equipments are manufactured by ----------


i) Rapid prototyping,
ii) 3D printing
Iii) Micro machining
96. ---------is the heart of NC machine tool system and consists of many sub- units inside it
i) Part programme
ii) MCU
iii) Interfaces

97. A lathe machine consists of a head stock


i) On right side of lathe machine
ii) On left side of lathe machine
iii) At center of lathe machine

98. Carriage assembly of lathe machine consists of


i) Electric motor
ii) Tail stock
iii) None of above

99. Carriage assembly of lathe machine consists of


i) Cross slide
ii) Tail stock
iii) Chuck

100. Tool post of lathe machine supports


i) Live center
ii) Cutting tool
iii) Work piece

101. In a lathe machine, the movement of a cutting tool against the rotating work piece
is called as
i) Cutting speed
ii) Feed
iii) Greed

102. The head stock of a lathe machine consists of


i) Power transmission elements
ii) Power absorbing elements
iii) Power producing elements

103. The operations performed on lathe machine are


i) Turning
ii) Chamfering
iii) All of above

104. The operations performed on lathe machine are


i) Knurling
ii) Grooving
iii) All of above

105. The operations performed on lathe machine are


i) Forging
ii) Parting off
iii) Forming

106. In a lathe machine, during turning operation, the cutting tool is mounted on
i) Tail stock
ii) Chuck
iii) Tool post

107. In a lathe machine, during drilling operation, the cutting tool is mounted on
i) Chuck
ii) Tail stock
iii) Bed

108. The quality of job produced on a lathe machine depends on


i) Rotating speed of work piece
ii) Tail stock
iii) Carriage

109. In a lathe machine, during turning operation, the movement of a cutting tool is
i) Perpendicular to the axis of work piece
ii) Parallel to the axis of work piece
iii) Vertical to the axis of work piece

110. During the lathe machine operation, if the movement of a cutting tool is parallel
to the
axis of work piece, then that operation is termed as
i) Facing operation
ii) Taper turning operation
iii) None of above

111. In a lathe machine, during facing operation, the movement of a cutting tool is
i) Parallel to the axis of work piece
ii) Vertical to the axis of work piece
iii) None of above

UNIT VI : Engineering Mechanisms and their application


in Domestic Appliances
1. The volume of air delivered by the compressor is called.......
A. Free air delivery
B. Compressor capacity
C. Swept volume
D. None of the abovea
2. The value of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke is called.......
A. Free air delivery
B. Compressor capacity
C. Swept volume
D. none of the above

3. The ratio of indicated HP to shaft HP is known as.......


A. Compressor efficiency
B. Isothermal efficiency
C. Volumetric efficiency
D. Mechanical efficiency

4. Volumetric efficiency is.......


A.The ratio of stroke volume to clearance volume
B.The ratio of the air actually delivered to the amount of piston
displacement
C.Reciprocal of compression ratio
D.Index of compressor performance

5. Pump transfers the mechanical energy of a motor or of an engine into


_________ of a fluid.
a. pressure energy
b. kinetic energy
c. either pressure energy or kinetic energy
d. pressure energy, kinetic energy or both

6. Which of the following is NOT a type of positive displacement pumps?


a. Reciprocating pump
b. Rotary displacement pump
c. Centrifugal pump
d. None of the above

7. ___________ pump is also called as velocity pump.


a. Reciprocating
b. Rotary displacement
c. Centrifugal
d. Screw

8. Discharge capacity of the reciprocating pump is __________ that of the


centrifugal pump.
a. higher than
b. lower than
c. same as
d. unpredictable

9. The process of filling the liquid into the suction pipe and pump casing upto the
level of delivery valve is called as _________.
a. filling
b. pumping
c. priming
d. leveling

10. Due to slip of the belt, the velocity ratio of the belt drive
a) decreases
b) increases
c) does not change
d) none of the mentioned

11. V-belts are usually used for


a) long drives
b) short drives
c) long and short drives
d) none of the mentioned
12. The included angle for the v-belt is usually
a) 100 to 200
b) 200 to 300
c) 300 to 400
d) 600 to 800

13. Power is transmit by belt is dependent on....

A. Arc Contact between belt and pulley


B. Velocity of belt.
C. Tension under which the belt is placed on the pulley
D. All of these

14. For non-parallel shafts, chain drives are highly recommended.


a) True
b) Gear drive is preferred
c) Depends on the transmission ratio
d) can‟t be stated

15. A gear meshes with another gear and a sprocket meshes with another sprocket.
a) True
b) False

16. In a refrigeration system, the expansion device is connected between the

(A) Compressor and condenser


(B) Condenser and receiver
(C) Receiver and evaporator
(D) Evaporator and compressor

17. The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycle


A) Rankine
B) Carnot
C)Reversed Rankine
D) Reversed Carnot
18. The ________ the salt rejection, the better the system is performing.
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Moderate
d) Poor

19. Which of the following is not a component of packaged air conditioners?


a) Compressor
b) Condenser
c) Chiller
d) Evaporator

20. The process of extraction of the certain required amount of water from air is
known as ___________
a) Heating
b) Cooling
c) Humidification
d) Dehumidification

21. Which of the following refrigerant is widely used in domestic refrigeration?


A ammonia
B alcohol
C oxygen
DD. neon

22. In a refrigerator, the lowest temperature occur at


A evaporator
B expansion valve
C condenser
D compressor

23. Which type of magnet is used in an electric bell?


A Electromagnet
B Carbon magnet
C Temporary magnet
D Permanent magnet.

24. The heating element in an electric iron is wound around a sheet of


A Cotton
B Cardboard
C Mica
D None of the above

25. The capacity an air conditioner is expressed in


A kWh
B tons
C watt
D None of the above

26. The capacity of a domestic refrigerator is expressed in


A tons
B watt-hours
C watt
D HP

27. In a electric iron, the transfer of heat from coil to base plate is mainly through
A Convection
B Radiation
C Conduction
D None of the above

28. The heating element in an electric iron is usually made of


A Nichrome
B Platinum.
C Brass
D None of the above

29. Which part of washing machine actually perform the cleaning operation of
cloth clothes?
A Agitator
B Timer
C Drain
D Tub

30. In electric iron the heating element is kept


(A) Over the pressure plate
(B) Between the asbestos sheet and pressure plate
(C) Between the Sole plate and pressure plate
(D) Between the Sole plate and asbestos sheet

31. In microwave oven, the micro waves have a special property that they are
absorb by
(a) water.
(b) fats.
(c) sugar.
(d) all of the above.

32. When the door of a refrigerator is kept open, the temperature of room will
(a) increase.
(b)decrease.
(c) remain same.
(d) none of the above.

33. A differential gear in automobiles is used to


a) reduce speed
b) assist in changing speed
c) provide jerk-free movement of vehicle
d) help in turning

34. The gear train usually employed in clocks is a


a) reverted gear train
b) simple gear train
c) sun and planet gear
d) differential gear

(In reverted gear train and last gear train is on the same axis. Such an arrangement
has application on speed reducers clocks and machine tools.)

35. The term _________ is used to mean the free passage of clean air in a
structure.
a) Circulation
b) Ventilation
c) Dissipation
d) Condensation

36. Where people are working, there has to be ______________ to cause proper
ventilation of the premises.
a) Air change
b) Humidity
c) Temperature
d) Moisture

37. Exhaust system, supply system, air conditioning, etc. comes under ________
type of ventilation system.
a) Natural
b) Mechanical
c) Man-made
d) Doors

38. In ______________ system, the partial vacuum is created inside of the room by
exhausting the vitiated inside air by fans or blowers.
a) Supply
b) Plenum
c) Air conditioning
d) Exhaust

39. When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted
to
(A) Mechanical energy
(B) Heat energy
(C) Electrical energy
(D) Potential energy

40. Hand brake is applicable to


(A) only front wheels
(B) only rear wheels
(C) both front and rear wheels
(D) all of the above

41. What causes the ink to vaporize in an inkjet printer?


A. Electrical pulses
B. A heating element within the ink cartridge
C. A solenoid in each chamber of the ink cartridge
D. Drying of the ink when the cartridge has not been used for some time
42. The speed of the rotary compressor is.......as compared to reciprocating air
compressor
A.High
B.Low
C.Equal
D.None of the above

43. The pressure of air at the beginning of the compression stroke


is......atmospheric pressure
A.Equal to
B.Less than
C.More than
D.None of the above

44. A solar water heater system must have:


a) wind turbines
b) PV cells
c) a storage tank
d) gas

45. What is solar water heater?


a) Use solar energy to heat water
b) Use solar energy to generate current which is then used to heat water
c) Use water to generate heat
d) Use solar energy to generate steam

46. Following is not a part of roller chain


(A) Bushing
(B) Inner link plate
(C) Centre link plate
(D) Outer link plate

47. Chain drives are used in


(A) Bicycle
(B) Motorcycle
(C) Automobile
(D) All of the above
48. What is the purpose of using steel chains?
a) To avoid slipping
b) To avoid friction
c) To avoid accelerated motion
d) To avoid jerks

Efficiency is denoted by η.
Efficiency formula regarding Work is given as

Efficiency formula regarding Energy is given as

49. If a cyclist puts 600 J of work on his bicycle and the bicycle gives out 140 J of
useful work. Calculate the efficiency of a cyclist.

A. 48 %
B. 34%
C. 23.3 %
D. 55%

Solution:
Work Input = 600 J,
Work Output = 140 J
The efficiency is given as
η ={ Work Output / Work Input }× 100 %
= {140 / 600} × 100 %
= 23.3 %

50. A heat engine gives out 500 J of heat energy as useful work. Determine the
energy supplied to it as input if its efficiency is 40%.

A.1400 J
B. 1250 J
C. 1170 J
D. 1920 J

Solution: Energy output = 500 J

Efficiency η = 40 %
Efficiency η = {Energy Output / Energy Input}× 100 %
∴ Energy input = Energy Output / η
= 500 / 0.40
= 1250 J
Strength of Mechanical Engineering

Unit 5 -Introduction to Manufacturing

1. Which of the following is manufacturing a. reduce the diameter of a work piece along
process? its length
a. Forging b. reduce the diameter by removing material
b. Welding about an axis offset from the axis of work
c. Casting piece
d. All of the above c. remove the material from end surface of a
work piece
2. Which of the following is not a part of d. All of the above
carriage of the centre lathe?
a. Tool post 8. The process of removing sharp ends of a
b. Apron work piece is called as
c. Compound rest a. Knurling
d. Gear box controls b. Grooving
c. Facing
3. The centre lathes receive their power through d. Chamfering
a. Headstock
b. Tailstock 9. What is meant by drag in casting process?
c. Both a & b a. Upper part of casting flask
d. None of the above b. Molten metal
c. Lower part of casting flask
4. A flat surface can be produced by a lathe d. Upper & lower part of casting flask
machine, if the cutting tool moves
a. parallel to the axis of rotation of workpiece 10. Casting replica used to make the cavity is
b. at an angle of 450 called as
c. perpendicular to the axis of rotation of a. Mould
work piece b. Pattern
d. None of the above c. Cope
d. None of the above
5. What is the function of pulley drive in lathe
machines 11. The process of joining similar or dissimilar
a. Drive the lead screw materials by heating them below 4500C using
b. Change the spindle speed non-ferrous filler material is called as
c. Drive the tail-stock a. Brazing
d. All of the above b. Soldering
c. Welding
6. Which of the following is a mechanism for d. All of the above
mechanized movements of the carriage along
longitudinal axis? 12. Which process squeezes metals into peaks
a. Cross-slide and troughs with plastic deformation?
b. Compound rest a. Knurling
c. Apron b. Grooving
d. Saddle c. Reaming
d. None of the above
7. The function of taper turning process is to

Sinhgad College of Engineering, Vadgaon Page 1


Strength of Mechanical Engineering

13. Which of the following operations is/are create an extremely elongated strip of
performed on a lathe machine uniform and comparatively smaller cross-
a. Spot-facing sectional area, called?
b. Parting a. Rolling
c. Reaming b. Extrusion
d. All of the above c. Drawing
d. Spinning
14. The process of chamfering the entrance of a
drilled hole is known as 19. Castings are usually
a. counter-boring a. costlier than forgings
b. counter-sinking b. cheaper than forgings
c. counter-fillet c. at the same rate as forging for
d. trepanning similar metal
d. none of the above
15. On drilling machine, which process is known
as reaming? 20. Which of the following options best
a. Enlargement of existing hole describes the centre lathes?
b. Hole made by removal of metal along the a. Machining machines
hole circumference b. Shaping machines
c. Smoothly finishing and accurately sizing a c. Turning machines
drilled hole d. None of the above
d. All of the above
21. The process of joining two pieces of metal
16. Match the following Manufacturing with a different fusible metal applied in a
processes with their Types and select the molten state is called as
correct option. a. welding
1.Metal forming ———— A. Grinding b. soldering
2.Surface finish —————— B. Rivetting c. both a. and b
3.Sheet metal working ---------------C. d. none of the above
Extrusion
4. Metal joining ————— 22. Which gears are used to connect two
————————-D. Blanking intersecting shaft axes?
a. 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B a. Crossed helical gear
b. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B b. Worm and worm wheel
c. 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C c. Bevel gears
d. 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – C d. All of the above

17. In which of the following processes, material 23. What is meant by gear ratio?
is neither added nor removed but is a. The ratio of pinion speed and gear
deformed into desired shape speed
a. Surface finishing process b. The ratio of number of teeth on
b. Metal forming process pinion and number of teeth on gear
c. Casting c. Both a. and b
d. Machining d. None of the above

18. What is the process, in which the metal is 24. The sand in its natural or moist state is called
caused to flow through a restricted orifice to as

Sinhgad College of Engineering, Vadgaon Page 2


Strength of Mechanical Engineering

a. green sand b. False


b. loam sand
c. dry sand 26. Choose the odd one out.
d. none of the above a. micro-turning
b. micro-milling
25. Micro machining processes (MMPs) are used c. micro-EBM
to increase selectivity, accuracy, d. micro-grinding
performance, etc. parameters
a. True

Answer Sheet:

Q. No. Solution Q. No. Solution Q. No. Solution Q. No. Solution

1 d 8 d 15 c 22 c

2 d 9 c 16 b 23 a

3 a 10 b 17 b 24 a

4 c 11 b 18 b 25 a

5 b 12 a 19 b 26 c

6 c 13 b 20 c

7 a 14 b 21 b

Sinhgad College of Engineering, Vadgaon Page 3


Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice questions
UNIT 6 – Engineering Mechanism & C) Hand operated pump
their applications in domestic D) Refrigerator
appliances. E) None of the above
8. The compressor which is motor driven,
1. Pump is mechanical devices which is squeeze the refrigerant, raise the
converting the mechanical energy into temperature of gas and pressure as well
hydraulic energy. so that it exists the compressor as a hot
A) True and high-pressure gas.
B) False A) True
2. Which pump flow rate is continuous B) False
and smooth? 9. Reciprocating pump is suitable for
A) Reciprocating pump high capacities and low heads.
B) Centrifugal pump A) True
C) All of the above B) False
D) None of the above 10. The hydraulic machines which convert
3. Which of the following is not the main mechanical energy into hydraulic
part form of centrifugal pump? energy are called as………
A) Impeller A) Fan
B) Casing B) Compressor
C) Suction pipe C) Pump
D) Delivery pipe D) Fan
E) None of the above 11. What is application for the pump
4. Which pump work is complicated and A) Split AC unit
with much noise. B) Washing machine
A) Centrifugal pump C) Water filter/ purifier unit
B) Reciprocating pump D) Vacuum cleaner
C) None of the above 12. A machine which is used to produce
D) All of the above large volume of gas with a moderate
5. A device or machine providing air at increase in pressure is called as……….
high pressure is called as ………. A) Fan
A) Pump B) Pump
B) Air compressor C) Blower
C) Blower D) Compressor
D) Fan 13. A machine that is used to create flow
E) None of the above within a fluid, such as air is known
6. Which of the following is application as……...
for compressor? A) Compressor
A) Household refrigerator B) Fan
B) Split AC unit C) Blower
C) Water cooler D) Pump
D) All of the above E) None of the above
7. Which of the following is not used 14. It works on the principle of
application for pump? configuration which is the fictitious
A) Hydraulic jacks force that pull out from the center on
B) Kerosene pump

Sinhgad College of Engineering Page 1


Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice questions
the body while moving in the circular D) None of the above
path. 21. The branch of science that deals with
A) Vacuum cleaner the process of reducing and
B) Washing machine maintaining the temperature of that
C) Refrigerator space or material below the
D) Centrifugal pump temperature of surroundings.
15. What is an example forblower? A) Refrigeration
A) Kitchen chimney B) Motor fan
B) Reciprocating pump C) Refrigerator
C) Exhaust fan D) All of above
D) Dryer 22. Vapour compression refrigeration
16. Which is not an example for fan. system is most commonly used method
A) Motor fan of refrigeration for refrigerators, air -
B) Dryer conditioners.
C) None of the above A) True
D) All of the above B) False
17. If current carrying conductor is placed 23. An elastic body or elastic machine
in a magnetic field it experiences a element which deflects under the
force and start to rotate. action of the load and recovers its
A) Refrigerator originals shape when load is removed.
B) Kitchen chimney A) Damper
C) Motor fan B) Spring
D) Centrifugal pump C) Gear
18. It works on the principle of pressure D) Belt drive
difference the two locations. 24. springs are used in door closure and
A) Vacuum cleaner door locks.
B) Motor fan A) True
C) Split AC B) False
D) Washing machine 25. The power from the engine to the rear
E) None of the above axle of an automobile is transmitted by
19. It is used to remove organic and means of
inorganic substances like smoke, soot, A) Worm and worm wheel
water vaporous oil fumes and bits of B) Spur gear
food. C) Bevel gear
A) Refrigerator D) Hooke’s joint
B) Motor fan E) All of the above
C) All of the above 26.The arrangement is called bevel
D) Kitchen chimney gearing, when two …………are connected
20. It is a ventilation device which draws by gears
out the polluted air from the room and A) Intersecting and coplaner shaft
replaces it with fresh air. B) non-intersecting and non-coplanar
A) Exhaust fan shafts
B) Motor fan C)parallel and coplaner shaft
C) Washing machine D)parallel and non-coplaner shaft

Sinhgad College of Engineering Page 2


Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice questions
27.When two non-intersecting non- A) Flat belt drive
coplaner shaft are connected by gears, the B) V belt drive
arrangement isknown as helical gear C) Chain drive
A) Right D) None of the above
B) Wrong 36.Which of the following is not the
28. An imaginary circle which by pure component of chain drive.
rolling action, gives the same motion as A) Chain
the actual gear, is called B) Sprocket
A) Addendum circle C) Gear
B) Dedendum circle D) All of the above
C) Pitch circle 37. High torque at the driven shaft the size
D) Clearance circle of the driven sprocket.
29. Size of the gear is usually specified by A) Equal to the driving sprocket
A) Pressure circle B) Less than the driving sprocket
B) Circular pitch C) More than the driving sprocket
C) Diametral circle D) None of the above
D) Pitch circle diameter 38. What is the role of the sprocket in
30. The gear train usually employed in chain drive to transmit.
clocks is a A) Motion
A) Simple gear train B) Power
B) Reverted gear train C) Velocity
C) Sun and planet gear D) Force
D) Differential gear 39. What is the role of the chain in chain
31. In order to have a good grip on the drive to transmit
pulley the V- belt should touch the bottom A) Motion
of the groove in the pulley B) Power
A) True C) Velocity
B) False D) Force
32. V – belts are usually used for 40.What is the purpose of the valve
A) Long drives A) To control leakage
B) Short drives B) To control power loss
C) Long and short drives C) To control flow
D) None of the above D) To control motion
33. When two pulleys are connected by 41. Which one is not the application of
means of cross belt drive, then both the valve
pulley will rotate in ……. directions. A) Water tap
A) Same B) Flushing of toilet
B) Opposite C) Kitchen
34. When two pulleys are connected by D) Door latch
means of open belt drive, then both the 42. Where the levers are pivoted at point is
pulley will rotate …… direction. known as
A) Same A) fulcrum
B) Opposite B) Hinged support
35. Which one is positive drive? C) Fixed support

Sinhgad College of Engineering Page 3


Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice questions
D) Rollers C) Motion and power
43. Ratio of load to effort is called as D) None of the above
A) Mechanical Advantage
B) Leverage
C) Efficiency
D) All of the above
44. Ratio of effort arm to load arm is
called as
A) Mechanical Advantage
B) Leverage
C) Efficiency
D) All of the above
45. Efficiency in terms of power is the
ratio of output power to input power
A) False
B) True
46. What is mean by specification
A) Detailed description of requirement
B) Dimensions
C) Material
D) All of the above
47. In electric heater energy conversion is
A) Electric to heat
B) Solar to heat
C) Hydraulic to heat
D) Pressure to heat
48. In solar water heater energy conversion
is
A) Solar to hydraulic
B) Solar to heat
C) Solar to wind
D) Solar to vibration
49. What is the speed ratio
A) Speed of driver shaft to driven
shaft
B) Speed of driven shaft to driver
shaft
C) Velocity of driver shaft to driven
shaft
D) Speed of driven shaft to driver
shaft
50. Gears are used to transmit
A) Motion
B) Power

Sinhgad College of Engineering Page 4


Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice questions

Question no answer Question no answer


1 A 26 A
2 B 27 B
3 E 28 C
4 B 29 D
5 B 30 B
6 D 31 B
7 D 32 B
8 A 33 B
9 B 34 B
10 C 35 C
11 C 36 C
12 C 37 C
13 B 38 A
14 B 39 D
15 A 40 C
16 C 41 D
17 C 42 A
18 A 43 A
19 D 44 B
20 A 45 B
21 A 46 D
22 A 47 A
23 B 48 B
24 A 49 A
25 C 50 C

Sinhgad College of Engineering Page 5


Strength of mechanical Engg Multiple Choice Questions

UNIT - 3 1. Shaft power


2. Horse power
3. Brake power
Q1. The force that opposes the motion of a 4. None of the mentioned
vehicle is
Q8. Engine pistons are usually made of
1. Rolling resistance aluminium alloy because it
2. Gradient resistance
3. Wind or air resistance 1. Is lighter
4. All of the mentioned 2. Wear is less
3. Absorbs shocks
Q2. Which of these falls under LMV(Light 4. Is stronger
Motor Vehicle) category based on capacity? Q8. The stroke of an engine is the
1. Motorbikes
1. Volume of the cylinder
2. Cars 2. Length of the connecting rod
3. Buses 3. Internal diameter of the cylinder
4. Trains
4. Distance between TDC and BDC
Q3. A conventional suspension system uses
which of these Q9. In a Otto cycle engine, combustion
1. Leaf Springs occurs at
2. Coil Springs 1. Constant pressure
3. Torsion bars 2. Constant temperature
4. None of the mentioned 3. Constant volume
4. Constant heat
Q4. The electrical system of an automobile
contains which of the following Q10. Compression rings have which type
1. Battery of cross section
2. Alternators 1. Rectangular
3. Lighting systems 2. L shaped
4. All of the mentioned 3. Keystone
4. All of the mentioned
Q5. Which of these were or are used in
automobiles to provide suspension.
Q11. Cylinder liner materials are made of
1. Leaf springs
alloy iron containing
2. Coil springs
1. Manganese
3. Torsion bars
2. Nickel
4. All of the mentioned
3. Chromium
Q6. Which of the following is not a part of the 4. All of the mentioned
transmission system
1. Clutch Q12. Crankshafts are usually constructed
2. Axles by
3. Wheels 1. Casting
4. Gear box 2. Drop forging
3. Drawing
Q7. What is actual power delivered by the 4. Extrusion
engine known as?

Sinhgad College of Engineering pg. 1


Strength of mechanical Engg Multiple Choice Questions

Q13. Which stroke for a 4-stroke ic engine 2. Forged steel


is considered as the working or power 3. Tool steel
stroke 4. Cast iron
1. Suction stroke
2. Compression stroke Q19. What is the disadvantage of using
3. Expansion stroke diesel engine in comparison to petrol
4. Exhaust stroke engine
1. Higher weight-to-power ratio
Q14. Connecting rod is attached to the 2. Higher maintenance cost
piston by the 3. Greater starting difficulties
1. Rod cap 4. All of the mentioned
2. Piston pin
3. Cap bolt Q20. Piston rings are not completely
4. Lower cap closed because
1. Closed rings are hard to manufacture
2. Gap allows the ring to expand and fit
over
Q15. The function of a piston is 3. They are designed to let pass some
1. It forms a movable wall of combustion lubricant to the combustion chamber
chamber 4. None of the mentioned
2. It transmits turning force to the
crankshaft via connecting rod Q21. Piston pin is also known as
3. It functions like crosshead and 1. Gudgeon pin
transmits side thrusts 2. Crank pin
4. All of the mentioned 3. Screw pin
4. None of the mentioned
Q16. In a four stroke ic engine the number
of strokes covered for one complete
crankshaft revolution is Q22. The crankshaft rotates the camshaft
1. 4 using
2. 2 1. Belt drive
3. 1 2. Chain drive
4. 0.5 3. Gear drive
4. Motor drive
Q17. The plate which acts as a packing
between cylinder block and cylinder head Q23. In a four stroke engine each cylinder
is called has
1. Chaplet a) One valve
2. Liner b) Two valves
3. Gasket c) Three valves
4. Flange d) Four valves

Q18. What is the material of the Q24. Which of the following is NOT the
connecting rod type of Hybrid Vehicle?
1. Mild steel 1. Plug-in Hybrid

Sinhgad College of Engineering pg. 2


Strength of mechanical Engg Multiple Choice Questions

2. Parallel Hybrid
3. Natural Gas For Vehicles
4. Series Hybrid

Q25.
The Hybrid Electric Vehicle consists of :
1. Internal Combustion Engine +
Electric Motor
2. Motor Electric 1 + Motor electric
2
3. NGV engine + Gasoline engine

Sinhgad College of Engineering pg. 3


Strength of mechanical Engg Multiple Choice Questions

Unit 4 Vehicles Systems 6.Drive (live) axles

1.Coil springs absorb shocks by (A) are simply beams which supports the vehicle
weight
(A) bending
(B) are usually the front axles
(B) twisting
(C) contain differential
(C) compression
(D) all of the above
(D) tension
7.The following represents the correct
2.The following is a type of leaf springs specification of a tyre
(A) three Quarter elliptic (A) 155-80-R-13
(B) semi elliptic (B) R-155-80-13
(C) quarter elliptic (C) 155-80-13-R
(D) all of the above (D) 155-R-80-13
3.The material used for making torsion bar is 8.Telescopic shock observer consists of
(A) Steel (A) One chamber
(B) Cast iron (B) two chambers
(C) High carbon steel (C) three chamber
(D) All of the above (D) four chambers
4.Shackles are sort of 9.Cam actuated double acting hydraulic shock
(A) coupling absorber contains

(B) link (A) no piston

(C) spring (B) single piston

(D) none of the above (C) double pistons

5.Spring shackles are used to join (D) three pistons

(A) chassis frame and spring 10.The stabilizers (sway bars) are

(B) Spring and Axle (A) alloy steel bars

(C) chassis frame and axle (B) used to connect shock absorber operating
arms
(D) all of the above

Sinhgad College of Engineering pg. 1


Strength of mechanical Engg Multiple Choice Questions

(C) placed parallel to cross members (C) rolling

(D) all of the above (D) all

11.The following is (are) the independent 16.A combination of roll and pitch is called
suspension system(s)
(A) circular pitch
(A) Wishbone Arm system
(B) lateral pitch
(B) Trailing Link system
(C) transverse pitch
(C) Sliding Pillar system
(D) diagonal pitch
(D) all of the above
17.Viscosity index (VI) is a measure for the
12.The coil spring in used in change of viscosity with change in

(A) Wishbone Arm system (A) Temperature

(B) Trailing Link system (B) Pressure

(C) Sliding Pillar system (C) Volume

(D) all of the above (D) All of the above

13.Un-sprung weight is 18.The following type of Lubrication system is


used in two stroke engines
(A) Weigh of vehicle
(A) Petroil (mist) system
(B) Weigh of chassis frame
(B) Wet sump system
(C) Weight of wheels
(C) Dry sump system
(D) Weight of wheels and axles
(D) All of the above
14.Sprung weight is
19.In the following system, lubricating oil is
(A) Weigh of vehicle minus unsprung weight carried in separate tanks from where it is fed to
(B) Weigh of chassis frame the engine

(C) Weight of wheels (A) Mist lubrication system

(D) Weight of wheels and axles (B) Wet sump system

15.While in motion, the vehicle suspension is (C) Dry sump system


subjected to (D) Splash system
(A) bouncing
20.The following type of Lubrication system is
(B) pitching used in Aircraft Engines

Sinhgad College of Engineering pg. 2


Strength of mechanical Engg Multiple Choice Questions

(A) Mist lubrication system 25.The following part is not lubricated by


Pressure feed system
(B) Wet sump system
(A) Timing gears
(C) Dry sump system
(B) Valve rods and Push rods
(D) Splash system
(C) Rocker arms
21.The following type(s) of Oil pump(s) is (are)
used in Engine Lubrication system (D) Main bearings of crankshaft

(A) Gear type 26.In an engine the temperature of the piston


will be more at
(B) Rotor type
(A) The crown of the piston
(C) Plunger type
(B) The skirt of the piston
(D) All of the above
(C) The piston walls
22.The following is (are) oil pressure gauge(s)
(D) The land of the piston
(A) Pressure expansion type
27.The firing order of a four cylinder inline
(B) Electric type engine is usually
(C) both (A) and (B) (A) 1-2-3-4
(D) None of the above (B) 1-2-4-3
23.The purpose of crankcase ventilation is to (C) 1-3-4-2
(A) remove harmful particles from the engine (D) 4-1-2-3
(B) provide proper lubrication to the engine 28.Engine alternator is driven by:
(C) provide air for combustion to the engine
(A) V-belt drive
(D) all of the above (B) Flat belt drive
24.The following part(s) is(are) lubricated by
(C) Gear drive
splash system
(D) Chain drive
(A) Piston and piston rings
29.Which part is not common between the
(B) Tappets petrol and diesel engines?
(C) Cams on camshaft (A) Air cleaner
(D) All of the above
(B) Silencer

Sinhgad College of Engineering pg. 3


Strength of mechanical Engg Multiple Choice Questions

(C) Crank shaft (A) Viscosity

(D) Spark plug (B) Flash point

30.The device for smoothening out the power (C) Pore point
impulses from the engine:
(D) Fire point
(A) Crank shaft

(B) Flywheel

(C) Clutch

(D) Shock absorber

31.The instrument used for measuring the


specific gravity of electrolyte in a battery:

(A) Cell tester

(B) Voltmeter

(C) Hydrometer

(D) Thermometer

32.The stroke of an engine in which the exhaust


valve is fully closed:

(A) Suction

(B) Compression

(C) Power

(D) Exhaust

33.Find out the odd one from the following:

(A) Master cylinder

(B) Engine cylinder

(C) Wheel cylinder

(D) Brake drum

34.The property of lubricating oil to resist flow


is called:

Sinhgad College of Engineering pg. 4


Ans. C
Basic Mechanical
Engineering Que. ___ are multiple keys which are
made integral with the shaft.
A. Saddle
Unit IA B. kenedy
C. pin
D. Splines
Que. ----------- are power transmitting Ans. D
elements
A. Nuts Que. Shaft may be
B. Bolts A. solid
C. shafts B. hollow
D. rivets C. solid or hollow
Ans. C D. neither solid nor hollow
Ans. C
Que. ---------- is a supporting element
A. Chassis Que. The friction moment in a clutch with
B. crankshaft uniform wear as compared to friction
C. camshaft moment with uniform pressure is
D. countershaft A. more
Ans. A B. equal
C. less
Que. ----------- is a rotating element which D. more or less depending on speed
transmits power Ans. C
A. axel
B. mechanism Que. The brake used in railway coaches is
C. shaft A. shoe brake
D. none of these B. block brake
Ans. C C. band brake
D. disk brake
Que. Brackets are Ans. B
A. supporting elements
B. power transmitting element Que. When the frictional force helps to
C. holding element apply the brake, the brake is said to be
D. none of above A. partially self energizing
Ans. C B. self-locking
C. back-stop
Que. Holding elements are used to D. self-acting
A. to hold the parts Ans. A
B. to modify the parts
C. to separate the parts Que. In order to prevent the brake arm
D. to support the parts from grabbing, the moment of friction
Ans. A force about the brake arm pivot should be
A. less than the total required braking
Que. _____ keys are difficult to fit effort
A. Saddle B. more than the total required braking
B. Round effort
C. Tangent C. equal to the total required braking
D. Splines effortess
D. none of the above D. Splines
Ans. A Ans. D

Que. In case of multi-disk clutches, oil is Que. Which of the following statement is
used wrong ?
A. to reduce the friction A. A key is used as a temporary fastening
B. to carry away the heat B. A key is subjected to tensile stresses
C. to lubricate the contacting surfaces C. A key is always inserted parallel to the
D. for all above functions axis of the shaft
Ans. D D. A key prevents relative motion between
the shaft & boss of the pulley
Que. The friction material of the clutch Ans. B
should have
A. high coefficient of friction Que. A transmission shaft does not
B. low coefficient of friction includes
C. high surface hardness A. counter shaft
D. high endurance limit strength B. line shaft
Ans. A C. over head shaft
D. axle
Que. The sleeve or muff coupling is Ans. D
designed as a
A. hollow shaft Que. --------------- are mounted on shaft
B. solid shaft A. pulleys & gears
C. thick cylinder B. flywheel
D. hollow cyllinder C. couplings & cranks
Ans. A D. all of these
Ans. D
Que. The clutch is located between the
transmission and the Que. Power is transmitted through the
A. engine shaft by ------------------
B. rear axle A. axial force & torque
C. propeller shaft B. radial force & torque
D. differential C. tangential force & torque
Ans. A D. shear force & torque
Ans. C
Que. The flywheel and the pressure plate
bind the clutch disc between them so that Que. Machine shaft is an____________ of
the engine and the transmission can be machine
engaged A. connecting part
A. correct B. separating part
B. incorrect C. integral part
C. partially incorrect D. non integral part
D. partially correct Ans. C
Ans. A
Que. Which of the following element are
Que. Which type of key is used for not used to transmit power
mounting shifting gears in gear boxes? A. Shafts
A. Saddle key B. Key
B. Flat key C. Clutch
C. Square key D. Coupling
Ans. B
Que. ____ elements are used to transmit
Que. _____ key is a tapered key which power from one part to another
completely fits in the keyway Provided A. Holding
in the hub of rotating element B. Supporting
A. sunk C. Power transmitting
B. saddle D. None of the above
C. spline Ans. C
D. tangent
Ans. B Que. A coupling used to transmit power
between two parallel shafts which are
Que. Shaft should be made out of material slightly offset
with __________________ A. Oldham coupling
A. High Resilience B. universal coupling
B. Low Resilience C. muff coupling
C. Low Ductility D. flange coupling
D. None of the above Ans. A
Ans. A
Que. Stress induced in the balls or rollers
Que. In a clutch, energy is absorbed by of rolling contact bearing is
A. Clutch Plate A. torsional shear stress
B. Friction Lining B. tensile stress
C. Friction Plate C. crushing stress
D. None of the above D. None of these
Ans. B Ans. C

Que. After the brake is pressed Que. The rolling contact bearing is known
A. Brake drum and brake shoe are at rest as
B. Brake drum is rotating and brake shoe A. sleeve bearing
is at rest B. thin film bearing
C. Brake drum is at rest and brake shoe is C. antifriction bearing
rotating D. bush bearing
D. None of the above Ans. C
Ans. A
Que. Parallel sunk key can be of___ cross-
Que. After the brake is released section.
A. Brake drum and brake shoe are at rest A. Circular
B. Brake drum is rotating and brake shoe B. Rectangular
is at rest C. Square
C. Brake drum is at rest and brake shoe is D. Both B and C
rotating Ans. D
D. None of the above
Ans. B Que. During slowing or stopping of
vehicles ___ is used to disengage engine
Que. Energy absorbed by car brake is from wheels and enable smooth stopping
A. Kinetic Energy of vehicle.
B. Potential Energy A. Clutch
C. Kinetic +Potential Energy B. Coupling
D. None of the above C. Brake
Ans. A D. none of above
Ans. A Ans. C

Que. _________clutches are mostly used. Que. The overall size of________clutches
A. centrifugal clutch is high.
B. cone clutch A. Cone
C. multi-plate clutch B. Centrifugal
D. single plate clutch C. Single plate
Ans. D D. All of the these
Ans. C
Que. The brake absorbs ……….energy
given by objects being lowered by cranes Que. During slowing or stopping of
elevators etc. vehicles ___ is used to disengage engine
A. Potential from wheels and enable smooth stopping
B. Kinetic of vehicle.
C. Thermal A. Clutch
D. Electric B. Coupling
Ans. A C. Brake
D. none of above
Que. In rigid flange coupling, one flange Ans. A
has projected portion and other has a
corresponding recess for Que. ………..is a device with the help of
A. bringing two shafts in line and which artificial frictional resistance is
maintaining alignment applied to a moving machine.
B. transmitting torque from one flange to A. coupling
other flange B. Clutch
C. connecting two shafts C. Brake
D. reducing the friction between the two D. None of these
flanges Ans. C
Ans. A
Que. When the brake lever is released the
Que. The …….brake are used in hoisting two piston are pushed back by
machinery. A. Wheel hub
A. Disk brake B. Fluid line
B. Drum brake C. Brake disc
C. Double block D. Retractor spring
D. Band brake Ans. D
Ans. B
Que. The disc brake consists of
Que. The flexible flange couplings can --- ………………..
A. tolerate small lateral misalignment A. Rotating brake disc
B. not tolerate small lateral misalignment B. Two friction pads mounted on either
C. tolerate small angular misalignment side of disc
D. Both A and C C. Hydraulic caliper
Ans. D D. All of these
Ans. D
Que. Keys are subjected to ____ stresses.
A. crushing Que. In rigid flange coupling, the torque is
B. shearing transmitted from the driving shaft to the
C. both A and B driven shaft ----.
D. none of these A. directly
B. through flanges
C. through key-flange-bolts-key Que. In case of sunk key, power is
D. through keys transmitted by means of,
Ans. C A. friction force
B. shear resistance of key
Que. The shafts will have same strength on C. torsional shear resistance of key
the basis of torsional rigidity, if D. tensile force
A. diameter and length of both shafts is Ans. B
same
B. material of both shafts is same Que. The standard width for square or flat
C. angle of twist for both shafts is same key in terms of shaft diameter D is,
D. all of above conditions are satisfied A. d
Ans. D B. d/2
C. d/4
Que. Which is the correct statement, D. d/8
A. cold rolling produces stronger shafts Ans. C
than hot rolling
B. hot rolling produces stronger shafts than Que. The standard height for flat key in
cold rolling terms of shaft diameter D. is,
C. cold rolling and hot rolling produces A. d
equally strong shafts B. d/2
D. strength of shaft is independent of C. d/4
rolling processes D. d/6
Ans. A Ans. D

Que. The function of key is Que. The standard length for square or flat
A. to connect transmission shaft to a key in terms of shaft diameter D is,
rotating machine elements like gears A. d
B. to transmit torque from shaft to hub and B. 2d
vice versa C. A.5d
C. to prevent relative rotational motion D. 2.5d
between the shaft and the connected Ans. C
element
D. all of above three functions Que. The type of key used when the gear
Ans. D is required to slide on the shaft is
A. sunk key
Que. The standard taper for sunk key is B. feather key
A. 1 in 100 C. Woodruff key
B. 1 in 50 D. Kennedy key
C. 1 in 10 Ans. B
D. 1 in 1000
Ans. A Que. The key in the form of semi-circular
disk of uniform thickness is called,
Que. In case of sunk key, A. sunk key
A. the keyway is cut in the shaft only B. feather key
B. the keyway is cut in the hub only C. Woodruff key
C. the keyway is cut in both the shaft and D. Kennedy key
the hub Ans. C
D. none of the above
Ans. C
Que. The key, which fits in the keyway of D. bicycle
hub, only is called, Ans. B
A. saddle key
B. feather key Que. While designing a shaft, key and hub,
C. Woodruff key care is taken so that
D. Kennedy key A. shaft is the weakest component
Ans. A B. key is the strongest component
C. key is the weakest component
Que. In case of saddle key, power is D. the hub is the weakest component
transmitted by means of, Ans. C
A. friction force
B. shear resistance of key Que. A flange coupling is used
C. crushing resistance of key A. for intersecting shafts
D. tensile force B. for collinear shafts
Ans. A C. for small shafts rotating at slow speeds
D. for parallel shafts
Que. The key, which consists of two Ans. B
square keys, is called,
A. saddle key Que. While designing a flange coupling,
B. feather key care is taken so that
C. Woodruff key A. shaft is the weakest component
D. Kennedy key B. bolts are the weakest component
Ans. A C. key is the weakest component
D. the flange is the weakest component
Que. Kennedy key is used in Ans. C
A. light duty applications
B. heavy duty applications Que. A bushed-pin type flange coupling is
C. high speed applications used
D. precision equipments A. for intersecting shafts
Ans. B B. when the shafts are not in exact
alignment
Que. The keyway, C. for small shafts rotating at slow speeds
A. reduces strength of shaft D. for parallel shafts
B. reduces rigidity of shaft Ans. B
C. increases stress concentration
D. all of above Que. A muff coupling is
Ans. D A. rigid coupling
B. flexible coupling
Que. Splines are used if, C. shock absorbing coupling
A. the power to be transmitted is high D. none of the above
B. the torque to be transmitted is high Ans. A
C. the speed is high
D. there is relative motion between shaft Que. In case of clamp coupling, power is
and hub transmitted by means of,
Ans. D A. friction force
B. shear resistance
Que. Splines are commonly used in C. crushing resistance
A. machine tool gear box D. none of the above
B. automobile gear box Ans. A
C. hoist and crane gear box
Que. In radial bearings, the load acts B. thin film bearing
A. along the axis of rotation C. antifriction bearing
B. perpendicular to the axis of rotation D. bush bearing
C. parallel to the axis of rotation Ans. C
D. A and C
Ans. B Que. The balls of rolling contact bearings
are made of
Que. In thrust bearings, the load acts A. case hardened steel
A. along the axis of rotation B. plain carbon steel
B. perpendicular to the axis of rotation C. high carbon chromium steel
C. parallel to the axis of rotation D. free cutting steel
D. a and c Ans. C
Ans. A
Q. The rollers of rolling contact bearings
Que. Antifriction bearings are are made of
A. oil lubricated bearings A. case hardened steel
B. bush bearings B. plain carbon steel
C. ball and roller bearings C. high carbon chromium steel
D. boundary lubricated bearings D. free cutting steel
Ans. C Ans. A

Que. Rolling contact bearings as compared Que. The catalogue life of bearing is
to sliding contact bearings have A. minimum life that 90% of the bearings
A. lower starting torque will reach or exceed
B. require considerable axial space B. maximum life for 90% of the bearings
C. generate less noise C. average life
D. costly D. median life
Ans. A Ans. A

Que. Stress induced in the balls or rollers Que. In case of full journal bearing, the
of rolling contact bearing is angle of contact of the bushing with the
A. torsional shear stress journal is
B. tensile stress A. 60°
C. crushing stress B. 90°
D. contact stress C. 180°
Ans. D D. 360°
Ans. D
Que. In an application, the bearing is
subjected to radial as well as axial loads. Que. In case of partial bearing, the angle
Which type of rolling contact bearings you of contact of the bushing with the journal
would suggest? is -------
A. cylindrical roller bearing A. 270°
B. needle roller bearing B. more than 180°
C. thrust ball bearing C. less than 180°
D. taper roller bearing D. 360°
Ans. D Ans. C

Que. The rolling contact bearing is known Que. In case of partial bearing, the angle
as of contact of the bushing with the journal
A. sleeve bearing is usually
A. 120° B. dimensions of friction lining
B. 180° C. axial force provided to engage the
C. 45° clutch
D. 360° D. all the above three factors
Ans. A Ans. D

Que. The clutch used in trucks is Que. The friction moment in a clutch with
A. centrifugal clutch uniform wear as compared to friction
B. cone clutch moment with uniform pressure is
C. multi-plate clutch A. more
D. single plate clutch B. equal
Ans. D C. less
D. more or less depending on speed
Que. The clutch used in scooters is Ans. C
A. multi-plate clutch
B. single plate clutch Que. The friction radius for new clutch
C. centrifugal clutch compared to worn out clutch will be
D. cone clutch A. more
Ans. A B. equal
C. less
Que. The friction material of the clutch D. more or less depending on size of
should have clutch
A. high coefficient of friction Ans. A

B. Low coefficient of friction Que. The commonly used angle between


C. high surface hardness leather or asbestos friction lining surface
and axis of cone clutch for a cone clutch is
D. high endurance limit strength A. 14.50
Ans. A B. 200
C. 12.50
Que. The cone clutches have become D. 450
obsolete because Ans. C
A. strict requirement of coaxiality of two
shafts Que. The brake used in railway coaches is
B. difficult to disengage A. shoe brake
C. difficult construction B. block brake
D. none of the above C. band brake
Ans. A D. disk brake
Ans. B
Que. In case of multi-disk clutches, oil is
used, Que. The brake used in most of the
A. to reduce the friction automobile vehicles is
B. To carry away the heat A. internal expanding shoe brake
C. To lubricate the contacting surfaces B. block brake
D. for all above functions C. band brake
Ans. D D. disk brake
Ans. A
Que. Torque transmitting capacity of
clutch depends upon
A. coefficient of friction
Que. The brake used in most of
motorcycles is Que. __ bearing have low starting friction
A. internal expanding brake A. Plain
B. block brake B. sliding
C. band brake C. Ball
D. disk brake D. None of the above
Ans. D Ans. C

Que. When the frictional force helps to Que. Shaft should be made out of material
apply the brake, the brake is said to be with __________________
A. partially self-energizing A. High Resilience
B. self-locking B. Machinability
C. back-stop C. Ductility
D. self-acting D. All of the above
Ans. A Ans. D

Que. In order to prevent the brake arm Que. In a un-protected flange


from grabbing, the moment of friction coupling________________
force about the brake arm pivot should A. Nut and bolt are shielded
be B. Nut and bolt are not shielded
A. less than the total required braking C. There is no nut & bolt
effort D. None of the above
B. more than the total required braking Ans. B
effort
C. equal to the total required braking effort Que. A bearing _____________
D. none of the above A. Allows transfer of energy between two
Ans. A shafts
B. Allows relative motion of the shaft
Que. ___keys are used in heavy duty C. Minimizes bending of shaft
applications D. None of the above
A. Saddle Ans.
B. Tangent
C. Round Que. A
D. Splines bearing____________________________
Ans. B A. Supports Load
B. Constrains motion
Que. Torque transmission capacity of C. Minimizes vibration
saddle key is ____ D. All of the above
A. High Ans. D
B. Low
C. Medium Que. Identify the machine element
D. All of the above indicated by arrow.
Ans. B

Que. __are type of mechanical brakes


A. block & band
B. Disc
C. Internal shoe breaks
D. all of the above
Ans. D
A. hollow shaft Ans. A
B. solid shaft
C. axel Que. Identify the machine element.
D. transmission shaft
Ans. C

Que. Identify the machine element.

A. cylindrical roller bearing


A. parallel key B. ball bearing
B. round key C. taper roller bearing
C. spline D. angular contact bearing
D. woodruff Ans. A
Ans. A
Que. Identify the machine element.
Que. Identify the machine element.

A. parallel key
B. round key A. single plate clutch
C. spline B. multi-plate clutch
D. woodruff C. cone clutch
Ans. D D. centrifugal clutch
Ans. A
Que. Identify the machine element.
Que. Identify the machine element.

A. single plate clutch


B. multi-plate clutch
A. rigid flange coupling C. cone clutch
B. muff coupling D. centrifugal clutch
C. split muff coupling Ans. B
D. protected type rigid flange coupling
Que. Identify the machine element. Que. Identify the machine element.

A. spindle
B. line shaft
C. axel
D. counter shaft A. rigid flange coupling
Ans. B. compression coupling
C. Oldham coupling
Que. Identify the machine element. D. Bushed-pin type flexible coupling
Ans. D

Que. Identify the machine element.

A. rigid flange coupling


B. muff coupling
C. split muff coupling
D. protected type rigid flange coupling
Ans. B
A. clutch plate
Que. Identify the machine element.
B. bush bearing
C. split muff coupling
D. shaft
Ans. C

Que. Identify the machine element.

A. rigid flange coupling


B. compression coupling
C. Oldham coupling
D. universal coupling
A. journal bearing
Ans. D
B. bush bearing
C. split muff coupling
D. shaft
Ans. A
Que. Identify the machine element. A. crankshaft
B. transmission shaft
C. axel
D. counter shaft
Ans. A

Que. Identify the machine element.

A. crankshaft
B. spindle A. rigid flange coupling
C. axel B. compression coupling
D. counter shaft C. Oldham coupling
Ans. A D. universal coupling
Ans. D
Que. Identify the machine element.

Unit IB
Que. The power transmitted by belt drive
depends upon
A. belt velocity
B. initial belt tension
C. arc of contact
D. all of the above
A. calliper disc brake
Ans. D
B. single plate clutch
C. multi-plate clutch
D. drum and shoe brake
Que. The suitable material for belt in
Ans. A
agricultural machinery is
A. leather
B. rubber
Que. Identify the machine element.
C. cotton duck
D. balata gum
Ans. B

Que. The suitable material for belt used in


flour mill is
A. leather

B. rubber
C. canvas or cotton duck D. none of the above
Ans. A
D. balata gum
Ans. C
Que. The included angle between the sides
of V belt is
Que. When the belt speed increases A. 400
A. power transmitted increases B. 450
B. power transmitted decreases C. 380
C. power transmitted increases to a D. 420
maximum value and then decreases Ans. A
D. power transmitted remains the same
Ans. C
Que. The groove angle of pulleys for V
belt is
A. 340 to 360
B. 420 to 450
Que. The creep in the belt is due to C. more than 400
A. effect of temperature on belt D. 300 to 320
B. material of belt Ans. A
C. unequal extensions in the belt due to
tight and slack side tensions
D. stresses beyond elastic limit of belt Que. The objective of ‘crowning’ of the
material flat pulleys of belt drive is to
Ans. C A. prevent the belt from running off the
pulley
B. increase the power transmission
Que. The coefficient of friction in belt capacity
drive depends upon C. increase the belt velocity
A. material of belt D. prevent the belt joint from damaging
B. material of pulley the belt surface
C. materials of belt and pulley Ans. A
D. belt velocity
Ans. C
Que. The objective of idler pulley in belt
drive is to
Que. Which is positive drive? A. decrease the tendency of belt to slip
A. flat belt drive B. increase the power transmission
B. V belt drive capacity
C. crossed belt drive C. increase the wrap angle and belt
D. timing belt tension
Ans. D D. all the above objectives
Ans. D

Que. Fabric belts are used in industrial Que. In case of V belt drive
applications because A. the belt should touch the bottom of
A. they are cheap groove in the pulley
B. they can work at high temperature B. the belt should not touch the bottom of
C. they are unaffected by moisture and groove in the pulley
humidity
C. the belt should not touch the sides of Ans. C
groove in the pulley
D. none of the above
Ans. B Que. In some applications, chain drives are
preferred to belt drive because of
A. compact construction
Que. In case of V belt drive, the belt makes B. positive transmission
contact at C. low cost
A. the bottom of groove in the pulley D. A. and B.
B. the bottom and the sides of groove in Ans. D
the pulley
C. the sides of groove in the pulley
D. none of the above Que. Following type of chain is used in
Ans. C motorcycle
A. roller
B. silent
Que. The belt slip occurs due to C. link
A. heavy load D. None of the above
Ans. A
B. loose belt
C. driving pulley too small
Que. A chain drives is used for
D. any one of the above A. short distance
Ans. D B. long distance
C. medium distance
D. distance is no criterion for chain drive
Que. For same pulley diameters, centre Ans. D
distance, belt speed and belt and pulley
materials, Que. The number of teeth on driving
A. open belt drive transmits more power sprocket should be more than 17 in order
than crossed belt drive to
B. crossed belt drive transmits more A. reduce wear
power than open belt drive B. reduce interference
C. open and crossed belt drives transmit C. reduce variation in chain speed
same power D. reduce undercutting
D. power transmission does not depend Ans. C
upon open and crossed types of
constructions
Ans. B Que. The variation in chain speed is due to
A. chordal action
B. creep
Que. In replacing the V belts, a complete C. slip
set of new belts is used instead of D. backlash
replacing a single damaged belt because Ans. A
A. belts are available in sets
B. only one belt cannot be fitted with
other used belts Que. The number of teeth on sprocket
C. the new belt will carry more than its should be odd in order to
share and result in short life A. reduce polygonal effect
D. new and old belts will cause vibrations B. reduce wear
C. reduce back sliding
D. evenly distribute wear on all sprocket Que. When the axes of two shafts are
teeth perpendicular and non-intersecting, use
Ans. D A. spur gears
B. bevel gears
C. worm gears
Que. Main types of failure in roller chain D. helical gears
are Ans. C
A. breakage of link plates
B. wear of rollers and pins
C. wear of sprocket wheel Que. When the axes of two shafts are non-
D. all of the above parallel and non-intersecting, use
Ans. D A. helical gears
B. crossed helical gears
C. straight bevel gears
Que. As compared to belt drive, the chain D. spiral bevel gears
drive transmits Ans. B
A. more power
B. less power Que. When the velocity ratio is high and
C. same power space is limited, use
D. none of the above A. spur gears
Ans. A B. bevel gears
C. worm gears
D. helical gears
Que. Which of the following type of drives Ans. C
transmit power by friction?
A. spur gear drive
B. chain drive Que. Which of the following type of gears
C. worm gear drive are free from axial thrust?
D. belt drive A. herringbone gears
Ans. D B. Bevel gears
C. worm gears
D. Helical gears
Que. When the axes of two shafts are Ans. A
parallel, use
A. crossed helical gears
B. bevel Que. Which of the following type of gears
C. worm gears are used for noiseless operation?
D. spur or helical gears A. spur gears
Ans. D B. bevel gears
C. worm gears
D. helical gears
Que. When the axes of two shafts are Ans. D
perpendicular and intersecting, use
A. spur gears Que. Which of the following type of gears
B. bevel gears provide maximum velocity ratio?
C. worm gears A. spur gears
D. helical gears B. bevel gears
Ans. B C. worm gears
D. helical gears C. involute
Ans. C D. a and c
Ans. D
Que. Cycloidal tooth gears are used in
A. automobile gearbox Que. Driven pulley is also called as ___
B. machine tool gearbox A. Tail pulley
C. spring driven watches and clocks B. Driving pulley
D. materials handling equipment C. Head pulley
Ans. C D. All of the above
Ans. A

Que. In metric system, the size of the gear


tooth is specified by, Que. Driving pulley is also called as
A. circular pitch _______
B. diametral pitch A. Tail pulley
C. module B. Head pulley
D. pitch circle diameter C. Driving pulley
Ans. C D. All of the above
Ans. B
Que. All dimensions for a standard gear
system can be defined in terms of, Que. The width of flat belt is __ than its
A. module and number of teeth thickness
B. pressure angle and number of teeth A. greater
C. module B. less
D. circular and diametral pitch C. same
Ans. A D. none of these
Ans. A

Que. The thickness of gear tooth is


measured Que. The pulley on which flat belts are
A. along the pitch circle mounted is ____
B. along the base circle A. Grooved pulley
C. along the addendum circle B. Crown pulley
D. along the root circle C. Flat pulley
Ans. A D. Compound pulley
Ans. B

Que. The tooth thickness of an involute


gear in terms of module ‘m’ is Que. Flat belts are used when two pulleys
A. A.157m are not more than ____ meter apart
B. A.5m A. 10
C. 2m B. 12
D. A.5708m C. 14
Ans. D D. 8
Ans. D

Que. The curves that satisfy fundamental


law of gearing are, Que. The power transmitted by means of a
A. cycloid belt does not depends upon
B. spiral A. velocity of the belt
B. tension under which the belt is Que. In a belt drive,the velocity ratio is the
placed on the pulleys inverse ratio of the diameters of driving &
C. arc of contact between the belt & driven pulleys
the smaller pulley A. True
D. material of the belt B. False
Ans. D C. partially true
D. partially false
Ans. A
Que. When the speed of belt increases
A. the coefficient of friction between the
belt & pulley increases Que. The tensions on the slack side of belt
B. the coefficient of friction between the is always ------- the tight side of the belt
belt & pulley decreases A. equal to
C. power transmitted will decrease B. less than
D. all of the above C. greater than
Ans. A D. negligible
Ans. B

Que. Creep in belt is due to


A. material of the belt Que. All stresses produced in a belt are
B. material of the pulley A. compressive stresses
C. uneven extension & contraction due to B. tensile stresses
varying tension C. both tensile &compressive stresses
D. low coefficent of friction D. shear stresses
Ans. C Ans. B

Que. An open belt drive is used when Que. In a multiple V-belt drive if one of
A. shaft are arranged parallel & rotate in the belts break then
the opposite directions A. only the broken belt is replaced
B. shafts are arranged parallel & rotate in B. the entire set of belts is replaced
the same directions C. the broken belt & the belt on either side
C. shafts are arranged at right angles & of it is replaced
rotate in one definite direction D. the broken belt need not to be replaced
D. driven shaft is to be started or stopped Ans. B
whenever desired without interferring with
the driving shaft.
Ans. B Que. Crowning on pulley helps
A. in decreasing the slip of the belt
B. in increasing the slip of the belt
Que. In a crossed belt drive,the shafts are C. to keep the belt in centre on a pulley
arranged parallel & rotate in the same while it is in motion
directions D. to increase pulley life
A. Right Ans. C
B. Wrong
C. partially wrong
D. partially right Que. Idler pulley is used for
Ans. B A. increasing velocity ratio
B. for applying tension
C. changing the direction of motion of belt
D. incresing the speed D. working depth
Ans. B Ans. B

Que. The V-belt are particularly suitable Que. The radial distance of a tooth from
for ______ drives the pitch circle to the bottom of the tooth is
A. short called
B. long A. dedendum
C. very long B. addendum
D. all of the above C. clearance
Ans. A D. working depth
Ans. A

Que. A drive ______ transmits more


power as compared to belt drive is Que. Following is not an example of
A. chain power transimission device
B. rope A. gear pairs
C. intermediate B. belt
D. compound C. chain
Ans. A D. bearing
Ans. D

Que. The size of a gear is usually specified


by Que. In belt pulley power is transmitted
A. pressure angle from driving pulley to driven pulley
because of
B. pitch circle diameter A. mass of belt
C. circular pitch B. surface area of belt
C. friction between belt and pulley
D. diametral pitch D. all of the above
Ans. B Ans. C

Que. Flat belts are made of


Que. An imaginary circle which by pure A. leather
rolling action gives the same motion as the B. polyamide
actual gear is called C. polyester
A. addendum circle D. all of above
B. dedendum circle Ans. D
C. pitch circle
D. clearance circle
Ans. C Que. The polygon effect is related to
A. spur gear
B. chain drive
Que. The radial distance of a tooth from C. belt drive
the pitch circle to the top of the tooth is D. both A. and B.
called Ans. B
A. dedendum
B. addendum Que. The driving and driven wheels of
C. clearance chain drive are called as
A. rollers D. Both A. and B.
B. pulleys Ans. A
C. sheaves
D. sprockets
Ans. D Que. The drive does not need initial
tension,Then it must be a
A. chain drive
Que. The chains are made of B. Rope drive
A. steel C. belt drive
B. polyamide D. both A. and B.
C. leather Ans. A
D. none of the above
Ans. A
Que. The gear tooth profile is
A. parabolic
Que. The chains are made of number of B. involute
rigid links connected by C. cycloidal
A. pin joints D. both B. or C.
B. bolted joints Ans. D
C. welded joints
D. none of the above
Ans. A Que. In a spur gear chain, when power
torque is reduced form input shaft to
output shaft
Que. The silent chain is known as A. power is reduced
A. inverted tooth chain B. power is increased
B. involute tooth chain C. power remains unchanged
C. roller chain D. power depends on speed change
D. sprocket chain Ans. C
Ans. A

Que. Gear drive is used when distance


between 2 shafts is____
A. Long
Que. Which of following drives is used for B. Very short
high speed applications C. Very long
A. roller chain D. None of the above
Ans. B
B. inverted tooth chain
C. flat belt drive

D. V-belt drive Que. Gear ratio is defined as___


Ans. B A. np/ng
B. dg/dp
C. Zg/Zp
Que. Which of following drives need D. All of the above
lubricant Ans. D
A. chain drive
B. V-belt drive
C. flat belt drive
Que. Gear ratio is defined as ratio of
___speed
A. gear to pinion Que. For effective functioning of chain
B. pinion to pinion drive___ is required
C. pinion to gear A. Cleaning
D. All of the above B. maintenance
Ans. C C. Lubrication
D. covering
Ans. C
Que. Spur gear can be made of___
A. Plastic
B. brass Que. The chains are made up of number of
C. aluminium rigid links which are hinged together by
D. steel means of pin joint to provide ___ around
Ans. D the wheel
A. Rigidity
B. connectivity
Que. Teeths of spur gears are cut___ C. Flexibility
A. Perpendicular to axis of gear D. all of the above
B. inclined to axis of gear Ans. C
C. along the curve
D. Parallel to axis of gear
Ans. D Que. ____ are more noisy at higher
operating speeds
A. rectangular belts
Que. Spur gears are___ B. Circular belts
A. Easy to manufacture C. v-belts
B. Less expensive D. Flat belts
C. made in variety of size Ans. D
D. all of the above
Ans. D
Que. ___ drive provide increased
frictional contact between belt and pulley
Que. In precision machines or mechanism A. Open belt
definite speed ratio is obtained by B. Crossed belt
___drive C. Open belt with idler pulley
A. Gear D. None of the above
B. chain Ans. B
C. belt
D. all of the above
Ans. A Que. In ------- drive there is more wear of
belt
A. Open belt drive
B. Crossed belt drive
Que. Chains are made of ___ C. Open belt with idler pulley
A. Leather D. None of these
B. steel Ans. B
C. plastic
D. copper
Ans. B
Que. --------- drive provides high Ans. C
reduction ratio
A. open belt
B. crossed belt
C. open belt with idler pulley Que. If the no. of intermediate gears are
D. compound belt odd then the motion of driver & driven
Ans. D gear is
A. same
B. opposite
Que. The links of hoisting chains are of --- C. a or b
---- shape D. none of these
A. oval Ans. A
B. square
C. oval or square
D. none of these Que. If the no. of intermediate gears are
Ans. C even then the motion of driver & driven
gear is
A. same
Que. Gear drive is used when the distance B. opposite
between the driver & follower is ----- C. a or b
A. long D. none of these
B. small Ans. B
C. very long
D. none of these
Ans. B Que. Helical gears are used to connect two
-------- shafts
A. parallel
Que. Both the gears which are engaged, B. intersecting
always rotate in ----------- direction C. perpendicular
A. same D. collinear
B. opposite Ans. A
C. same or opposite
D. none of these
Ans. B Que. ---------- gears are used for higher
speed reductions
A. helical
Que. Spur gears are not used for B. bevel
A. low speed applications C. worm & worm wheel
B. moderate speed applications D. rack & pinion
C. very low speed applications Ans. C
D. high speed applications
Ans. D
Que. ------------- gears are used to convert
rotary motion into sliding motion
Que. Gear train is necessary to obtain ------ A. helical
-- B. bevel
A. High friction C. worm & worm wheel
B. High torque D. rack & pinion
C. Large speed reduction Ans. D
D. none of these
Que. The arrangement used for converting
Que. Life of a gear drive is ___________ rotary motion into a linear motion is
A. Short known as
B. Long A. worm gear pair
C. Very short B. rack and pinion
D. Average C. linear gears
Ans. B D. none of above
Ans. B

Que. The fuction of gear pair is


A. To increase torque and reduce speed Que. When the velocity ratio is high and
from input shaft to output shaft space is limited, use
B. To increase speed and reduce torque A. spur gears
from input shaft to output shaft B. bevel gears
C. to change direction of rotation from C. worm gears
one shaft to another shaft D. helical gears
D. all of above Ans. C
Ans. D

Que. Which of the following type of gears


Que. The spur gear pair can be used for are free from axial thrust?
reduction ratio up to A. herringbone gears
A. 15:01 B. Bevel gears
B. 06:01 C. worm gears
C. 40:01:00 D. Helical gears
D. 02:01 Ans. A
Ans. B

Que. Which of the following type of gears


Que. The gears used in the differential gear are used for noiseless operation?
box of automobiles are A. spur gears
A. helical gear B. bevel gears
B. bevel gear C. worm gears
C. worm gears D. helical gears
D. both (b) and © Ans. D
Ans. B

Que. The gear pair does not create axial Que. Which of the following type of gears
thrust on shaft has sudden line contact provide maximum velocity ratio?
between meshing teeth .Then it must be A. spur gears
A. spur gear B. bevel gears
B. helical gear C. worm gears
C. herringbone D. helical gears
D. (a) or (b) Ans. C
Ans. A

Que. Cycloidal tooth gears are used in


A. automobile gearbox
B. machine tool gearbox
C. spring driven watches and clocks ((Q))2_UnitIB//A spur gear train consists
D. materials handling equipment of four gears A, B, C & D in mesh. The
Ans. C numbers of teeth on gears are 20, 60, 10
and 30 respectively. If the diameter of gear
D is 60 mm, then the diameter of gear A is
((Q))2_UnitIB//A spur gear train consists A. 40 mm
of four gears A, B, C & D in mesh. The B. 120 mm
gear A rotates in clockwise direction, then C. 20 mm
the direction of rotation of gear B is D. 60 mm
A. Clockwise Ans. A
B. Anticlockwise
C. Linear
D. None of above ((Q))2_UnitIB//A spur gear train consists
Ans. B of four gears A, B, C & D in mesh. The
diameters of gears are 120 mm, 40 mm, 60
mm and 20 mm respectively. If the
((Q))2_UnitIB//A spur gear train consists numbers of teeth of gear A are 60, then the
of four gears A, B, C & D in mesh. The numbers of teeth on gear D are
gear A rotates in anticlockwise direction, A. 20
then the direction of rotation of gear B is B. 60
A. Clockwise C. 10
B. Anticlockwise D. 30
C. Linear Ans. D
D. None of above
Ans. A
((Q))2_UnitIB//A spur gear train consists
((Q))2_UnitIB//A spur gear train consists of four gears A, B, C & D in mesh. The
of four gears A, B, C & D in mesh. The diameters of gears are 120 mm, 40 mm, 60
gear B rotates in clockwise direction, then mm and 20 mm respectively. If the
the direction of rotation of gear A is numbers of teeth of gear C are 30, then the
A. Clockwise numbers of teeth on gear B are
B. Anticlockwise A. 20
C. Linear B. 60
D. None of above C. 10
Ans. B D. 30
Ans. A

((Q))2_UnitIB//A spur gear train consists


of four gears A, B, C & D in mesh. The ((Q))2_UnitIB//A spur gear train consists
numbers of teeth on gears are 20, 60, 10 of four gears A, B, C & D in mesh. The
and 30 respectively. If the diameter of gear rotations ofgears are 20 rpm, 60 rpm, 40
D is 60 mm, then the diameter of gear C is rpm and 120 rpm respectively. If the
A. 40 mm numbers of teeth on gear D are 10, then
B. 120 mm the numbers of teeth on gear C are
C. 20 mm A. 20
D. 60 mm B. 60
Ans. C C. 10
D. 30
Ans. D
((Q))2_UnitIB//A spur gear train consists
of four gears A, B, C & D in mesh. The
numbers of teeth on gears are 60, 20, 30
and 10 respectively. If the gear D rotates
with 120 rpm, then the rotation of gear A
is
A. 60 rpm
B. 20 rpm
C. 120 rpm
D. 40 rpm
Ans. B

((Q))2_UnitIB//A spur gear train consists


of four gears A, B, C & D in mesh. The
A. Driving pulley
numbers of teeth on gears are 60, 20, 30
B. Idler pulley
and 10 respectively. If the gear A rotates
C. Driven pulley
with 20 rpm, then the rotation of gear B is
D. None of the above
A. 60 rpm
Ans. B
B. 20 rpm
C. 120 rpm
D. 40 rpm
Que. Identify the type of belt drive
Ans. A

Que. Identify the drive

A. Flat belt drive


B. V-Belt drive
C. Cross belt drive
D. Timing belt drive
A. Gear drive Ans. D
B. Chain drive
C. Belt drive
D. None of the above
Ans. C Que. Identify the type of belt drive shown
by arrow
Que. Identify the element indicated by
arrow
A. Flat belt drive
A. Spur gear
B. Open belt drive
B. Helical gear
C. Cross belt drive
C. Worm and Worm wheel
D. Compound belt drive
D. Bevel gear
Ans. C
Ans. D

Que. Identify type of gear


Que. Identify type of gear

A. Spur gear
A. Spur gear
B. Helical gear
B. Helical gear
C. Worm and Worm wheel
C. Worm and Worm wheel
D. Bevel gear
D. Bevel gear
Ans. A
Ans. C
Que. Identify type of gear

Que. Identify type of gear


A. Spur gear
B. Herringbone gear
C. Double helical gear A. Gear drive
D. both b& c B. Chain drive
Ans. D C. Belt drive
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Que. Identify type of gear
UNIT IIA
UNIT.2 Design Fundamentals-A

((Q))1_UnitIIA// __________________
material undergoes plastic deformation
under tensile loading
A. Malleable
B. Ductile
C. Hard
D. Brittle
Ans. B
A. Spur gear
B. Helical gear
C. Worm and Worm wheel
D. Bevel gear ((Q))1_UnitIIA// __________________ is
Ans. B the unit for stiffness
A. N/mm^2
B. kg/mm^2
C. N/mm^3
D. None of the above
Ans. D
Que. Identify type of drive
((Q))1_UnitIIA// __________________ is
the unit for stiffness
A. N/mm ((Q))1_UnitIIA//The opposite of ductility
B. kg/mm is ________________
C. N/mm^2 A. Malleability
D. All of the above B. Hardness
Ans. A C. Brittleness
D. None of the above
Ans. C
((Q))1_UnitIIA// __________________
material resists deformation under stress
A. Stiff ((Q))1_UnitIIA// ____________ material
B. Strong resists scratches
C. Hard A. Malleable
D. Tough B. Ductile
Ans. A C. Hard
D. Brittle
Ans. C
((Q))1_UnitIIA//The total amount of
energy absorbed by a material before it
fails is called _______________ ((Q))1_UnitIIA//_________________ is a
A. Plasticity compressive property
B. Strength A. Malleability
C. Toughness B. Ductility
D. Elasticity C. Hardness
Ans. C D. Brittleness
Ans. A

((Q))1_UnitIIA// __________________ ((Q))1_UnitIIA// ____________ material


material can be rolled resists cutting
A. Malleable A. Malleable
B. Ductile B. Ductile
C. Hard C. Hard
D. Brittle D. Brittle
Ans. A Ans. C

((Q))1_UnitIIA//_________________ is a ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Fatigue failure is


tensile property observed in __________________
A. Malleability A. Shafts
B. Ductility B. Gears
C. Hardness C. Couplings
D. Brittleness D. All of the above
Ans. B Ans. D
Ans. A

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Cracks that lead to fatigue


failure are ______________________ in ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Cast iron is
size ________________ in nature
A. Large A. Tough
B. Medium B. Brittle
C. Macroscopic C. Stiff
D. Microscopic D. Resilient
Ans. D Ans. B

((Q))1_UnitIIA//_________________ ((Q))1_UnitIIA// Cast Iron is used to


combine to form cast iron manufacture ________________
A. Iron & Carbon A. cylinder head
B. Iron & Copper B. cylindr block
C. Iron & Steel C. gearbox case
D. Iron & Aluminum D. All of the above
Ans. A Ans. D

((Q))1_UnitIIA//The cheapest alloy is ((Q))1_UnitIIA//_________________


_______________ provides high compressive strength
A. Steel A. Cast Iron
B. Copper B. Steel
C. Cast Iron C. Rubber
D. Aluminum D. Plastic
Ans. C Ans. A

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Melting point of cast iron ((Q))1_UnitIIA//_________________


is __________________ combine to form steel
A. High A. Iron & Carbon
B. Medium B. Iron & Copper
C. Low C. Iron & Nickel
D. All of the above D. Iron & Aluminum
Ans. C Ans. A

((Q))1_UnitIIA//_________________ ((Q))1_UnitIIA//In comparison to cast


provides good damping capacity iron, steel is ______________
A. Cast Iron A. All of the below
B. Steel B. Tough
C. Rubber C. Stiff
D. Plastic D. Resilient
Ans. A Ans. D

((Q))1_UnitIIA//_______________ cannot ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Bronze can be rolled into


be cast into complicated shapes _____________________
A. Steel A. All of the below
B. Cast Iron B. Sheets
C. Alloys C. Rods
D. None of the above D. Wires
Ans. A Ans. A

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Cost Iron is ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Bronze has high


__________________ than Steel ____________________
A. None of the below A. Tensile Strength
B. Expensive B. Malleability
C. Cheaper C. Corrosion Resistance
D. D. All of the above
Ans. C Ans. D

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Carbon steel is used to ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Rubber is ____________


manufacture in nature
A. Nuts A. Hard
B. Bolts B. Soft
C. Shafts C. Rigid
D. All of the above D. All of the above
Ans. D Ans. B

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Major alloying elements ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Rubber is used to


in copper are __________________ manufacture _____________________
A. Zinc & Silicon A. None of the below
B. Aluminium & Lead B. Nuts
C. Manganese & Nickel C. Bolts
D. All of the above D. Automobile Parts
Ans. D Ans. A

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Plastic has high


((Q))1_UnitIIA//Copper has high _______________________
____________________ A. Tensile Strength
A. Ductility B. Thermal Resistance
B. Thermal Conductivity C. Corrosion Resistance
C. Corrosion Resistance D. All of the above
D. All of the above Ans. C
((Q))1_UnitIIA// Link that has no
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Engine can be classified connection to the fixed link is known as
as __________________ ___________
A. Mechanism A. Input link
B. Machine B. output link
C. Link C. Coupler
D. None of the above D. None of the above
Ans. B Ans. C

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Analysis and synthesis is ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Piston & Cylinder form a


performed on ________________ ________________ pair
A. Mechanism A. Sliding
B. Machine B. Rotating
C. Link C. Turning
D. All of the above D. All of the above
Ans. A Ans. A

((Q))1_UnitIIA//_________________ ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Crank & Connecting rod


involves design of mechanism form a _________________ pair
A. Analysis A. Sliding
B. Synthesis B. Rotating
C. Analysis & Synthesis C. Turning
D. None of the above D. All of the above
Ans. C Ans. C

((Q))1_UnitIIA//A machine is made of ((Q))1_UnitIIA//A four bar chain will


_____________________ links consist of ___________ turning pairs
A. Fixed & Moving A. 1
B. Fixed B. 2
C. Moving C. 3
D. None of the above D. 4
Ans. A Ans. D

((Q))1_UnitIIA//A Structure is used to


______________________ ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Lever in four bar chain is
A. Support load also called as __________
B. Transfer load A. Rocker
C. Transfer motion B. Driver
D. None of the above C. Frame
Ans. A D. Coupler
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIA//________________
connects crank and lever ((Q))1_UnitIIA//When crank rotates, the
A. Coupler connecting rod _________________
B. Frame A. Rotates
C. Connecting rod B. Slides
D. None of the above C. Oscillates
Ans. A D. None of the above
Ans. C

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Slider crank mechanism


consists of __________ turning pairs ((Q))1_UnitIIA//When crank rotates 0 to
A. 4 180 deg clockwise, the slider moves to
B. 3 _________________
C. 2 A. Left
D. 1 B. Right
Ans. B C. UPWARDS
D. None of the above
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Slider crank mechanism
consists of __________ sliding pairs
A. 4 ((Q))1_UnitIIA//When crank rotates 180
B. 3 to 360 deg clockwise, the slider moves to
C. 2 _________________
D. 1 A. Left
Ans. D B. Right
C. None of the above
((Q))1_UnitIIA//The connecting rod of D.
slider crank mechanism Ans. B
________________
A. Rotates
B. Slides ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Which property is
C. Oscillates required for following object?
D. None of the above
Ans. C

((Q))1_UnitIIA//The piston of slider crank


mechanism ________________
A. Rotates
B. Slides
C. Oscillates
D. None of the above A. Elasticity
Ans. B B. Hardness
C. Toughness
D. None of the above
Ans. B

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Which property is mostly


required for the spring in following
system?

A. Elasticity
B. Hardness
C. Toughness
D. None of the above
Ans. B

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Which property is
required to manufacture following object?
A. Elasticity
B. Stiffness
C. Toughness
D. None of the above
Ans. B

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Which property is
required for following object?

((A)Malleability
B. Hardness
C. Toughness
D. None of the above
Ans. A
A. Elasticity
B. Hardness
((Q))1_UnitIIA//_________ is the most
C. Toughness
desirable property to avoid damage of car
D. None of the above
bonnet in below case.
Ans. A

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Scratchproof screens in
below picture should
possess___________
A. Plasticity
((A)Malleability B. Hardness
B. Hardness C. Toughness
C. Toughness D. None of the above
D. None of the above Ans. A
Ans. C
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Which property is tested
((Q))1_UnitIIA//_________ type of
in following object?
material shows following failure.

((A)Malleability
B. Hardness
C. Toughness
((A)Ductile D. None of the above
B. Hard Ans. B
C. Brittle
D. None of the above
Ans. C ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Area under the Stress-
Strain curve below is_______.

((Q))1_UnitIIA//_________ is the most


desirable property to get product in below
case.
A. Malleability
B. Hardness
C. Toughness
D. None of the above
Ans. A

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Which property is
required to manufacture the foundation
bed in below animation?

A. Malleability
B. Hardness
C. Toughness
D. None of the above
Ans. C

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Which property is
required to manufacture following object?

A. Malleability
B. Plasticity
C. Toughness
D. None of the above
Ans. C

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Product needs to be
A. Malleability designed for_______
B. Hardness
A. functional requirements
C. Ductility
B. appearance
D. None of the above
C. user comfort
Ans. C
D. All of the above
Ans. D
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Which property is
required to manufacture following object?
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Following is not a type
of machine design:
A. Product design
B. Element design
C. System design
D. Process design
Ans. D
C. make product economical
D. make product stronger
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Design of a car is an Ans. B
example of:
A. Product design
B. Element design ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Aesthetics deals with the
C. System design A. appearance of the product
D. Process design B. human comfort
Ans. C C. delicacy of the product
D. human safety
((Q))1_UnitIIA//The process of selecting Ans. A
or creating the mechanism for the machine
and the shapes of the mechanical elements ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Ability of the machine
so as to get the desired output for the given element to avoid the failure due to yielding
input is known as or fracture under load is known as
A. Analysis A. Rigidity
B. Optimization B. Strength
C. Synthesis C. Toughness
D. Creative design D. Safety
Ans. C Ans. B

((Q))1_UnitIIA//In Design procedure, the ((Q))1_UnitIIA//The important area


synthesis is always followed by, covered under ergonomics is
A. Analysis A. energy expenditure in hand and foot -
B. Selection of material operations
C. Synthesis B. cost of material
D. Asthetics C. cost of manufacturing
Ans. A D. aesthetics
Ans. A

((Q))1_UnitIIA//In Design procedure, the


last step is ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Design of computer chair
A. Selection of material is a best example of
B. Definition of problem A. computer aided design
C. Preparation of drawing B. system design
D. Analysis of forces C. machine design
Ans. C D. ergonomic design
Ans. D

((Q))1_UnitIIA//The objective of
ergonomics is to ((Q))1_UnitIIA//The aerodynamic shape
A. make user adopt himself to the m/c of the car is an example of the following
B. make m/c fit for user guideline of the aesthetic design:
A. the appearance should reflect the cost
of the product
B. the appearance should contribute to the ((Q))1_UnitIIA//The prime objective of
comfort of the user factor of safety is:
C. the appearance should contribute to the A. to reduce the cost of the product
performance of the product B. to improve the efficiency
D. all of the above C. to account for the uncertainty
Ans. C D. all of above
Ans. C

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Hooke’s law holds good


upto, ((Q))1_UnitIIA//if the % elongation is
A. elastic limit more than 5%, it is rated as
B. yield point A. ductile
C. proportional limit B. elastic
D. ultimate strength C. brittle
Ans. C D. rigid
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIA//In Hooke’s law, the
constant of proportionality is called as: ((Q))1_UnitIIA//the static strength of a
A. Modulus of elasticity material is measured by
B. stress A. yield strength
C. strain B. ultimate strength
D. Poission’s ratio C. fatigue strength
Ans. A D. both A and B
Ans. D

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Brittle material does not


show ((Q))1_UnitIIA//the following property is
A. fracture important for components subjected to
B. yielding surface stresses
C. breaking A. creep
D. fatigue limit B. fatigue strength
Ans. B C. hardness
D. static stregth
Ans. C
((Q))1_UnitIIA//the stress at which strain
increases without increase in stress is
called as: ((Q))1_UnitIIA//the unit of hardness is
A. elastic limit A. N/m2
B. constant stress B. kg/m2
C. proportional limit C. N-m
D. yield strength D. brinell hardness number
Ans. D Ans. D
C. high strength, high stiffness, high
density
((Q))1_UnitIIA//the properties which are D. high fatigue strength, high hardness,
required for mechanical springs are high stiffness
A. brittleness & resilience Ans. B
B. stiffness & resilience
C. stiffness & malleability
D. plasticity & toughness ((Q))1_UnitIIA//V-belts and O-rings are
Ans. B made of
A. composites
B. plastics
((Q))1_UnitIIA//the molten iron is very C. natural rubber
fluid due to D. synthetic rubber
A. high Silicon content Ans. D
B. high manganese content
C. high cobalt content
D. high carbon content ((Q))1_UnitIIA//The engg. applications of
Ans. D ceramics are limited due to
A. high melting point
((Q))1_UnitIIA//the cast iron does not B. high cost
contain C. brittleness
A. carbon D. high hardness
B. silicon Ans. C
C. cobalt
D. manganese ((Q))1_UnitIIA//composites are used for
Ans. C A. boat hulls
B. nut, bolts
C. shafts
((Q))1_UnitIIA//The following is not the D. all
bearing material Ans. A
A. Brass
B. Bronze
C. Babbit ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Grinding wheel is made
D. Alloy steel of
Ans. D A. steel
B. cast iron
C. ceramic
((Q))1_UnitIIA//The Aluminium is used in D. composites
engg. applications due to: Ans. D
A. low specific weight , high strength,
high stiffness
B. low specific weight, high thermal ((Q))1_UnitIIA//The following material is
conductivity, good castability used as reinforcement in composites
A. Graphite fibres
B. ceramic B. Cast Iron
C. cast iron C. Brass
D. all D. Bronze
Ans. A Ans. D

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Polymerization is ((Q))1_UnitIIA//In stainless steel, the


associated with major alloying element is
A. thermoplastics A. Cobalt
B. thermosetting plastics B. Chromium
C. ceramics C. Cast Iron
D. all of the above D. Tungsten
Ans. B Ans. B

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Following is the example ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Creep is defined as


of thermoplast A. progressive deformation under load
A. Epoxy B. progressive deformation under load at
B. Bakelite high temperature
C. Teflon C. progressive deformation under load at
D. Durite subzero temperature
Ans. C D. progressive deformation under load at
high pressure
((Q))1_UnitIIA//The example of Ans. B
particulate composite is
A. Metal Matrix Composites
B. Glass Fibre Composites UNIT IIB
C. Sintered Carbides
D. All ((Q))1_UnitIIB//An element is
Ans. C __________________________
A. Rigid Body
B. Resistant body
((Q))1_UnitIIA//The journal bearings are C. Free body
made of D. Strong body
A. alloy steel Ans. B
B. stainless steel
C. composite material
D. bronze
Ans. D ((Q))1_UnitIIB//A link must be
________________________
A. a resistant body
B. connected to other parts of the machine
((Q))1_UnitIIA//which is the costliest
C. must have motion relative to other
material from below options:
connected parts of the machine
A. Plain carbon steel
D. All of the above ((Q))1_UnitIIB//Any Kinematic chain
Ans. D requires at least
_____________________
A. Two links
B. three links
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A Kinematic Pair C. four links
has two links D. five links
________________________ Ans. B
A. Fixed together
B. Connected together with constrained relative
motion ((Q))1_UnitIIB//Door Hinges are
C. connected together without relative motion example of _____________________
D. Connected together with free relative motion A. Kinematic pair
Ans. B B. Mechanism
C. Structure
D. None of the above
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIB//Connecting rod and
Crank forms a
__________________________ A. ((Q))1_UnitIIB//If one of the link of kinematic
Mechanism chain is fixed, the arrangement is called as
B. Machine __________________
C. Kinematic Pair A. Structure
D. Structure B. Mechanism
Ans. C C. Fixed Chain
D. Machine
Ans. B
((Q))1_UnitIIB//If two links are welded to each
other forms a _____________________
A. Kinematic Pair ((Q))1_UnitIIB//Every Mechanism is a
B. Kinematic Chain _________________
C. Machine A. Kinematic Chain
D. None of the above B. Machine
Ans. D C. Structure
D. All of the above
Ans. A

((Q))1_UnitIIB//In a kinematic chain, each link


has to be__________________
((Q))1_UnitIIB//Mechanism is a
A. a part of only one kinematic pair
______________________
B. a part of two kinematic pairs
A. Machine
C. a part of three kinematic pairs
B. Kinematic chain used for power transmission
D. rigidly fixed to all other links
C. Kinematic chain with one link fixed
Ans. B
D. Kinematic chian used for doing work
Ans. C
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A nut and bolt
((Q))1_UnitIIB//An example of _________________
mechanism is ___________________ A. can form a kinematic pair
A. Typewriter B. can form a non-kinematic pair
B. I. C Engine C. can form a structure
C. Shaping Machine D. can form a chain
D. All of the above Ans. A
Ans. D

((Q))1_UnitIIB// Slider crank mechanism


((Q))1_UnitIIB//The machine is defined as consist of______________________
follows __________________ A. Two links
A. Mechanism required to absorb energy B. three links
B. Mechanism required to do some kind of work C. four links
C. Mechanism required to transmit motion D. five links
D. Both a and c Ans. C
Ans. B

((Q))1_UnitIIB//Door HInges are


((Q))1_UnitIIB//Slider chain mechanism is used example of_________________
in _________________ A. Screw Pair
A. Reciprocating air compressor B. SLiding Pair
B. I.C Engine C. Rotating Pair
C. Gas turbine D. Turning Pair
D. Both a and b Ans. D
Ans. D

((Q))1_UnitIIB//Grashof's Law is
((Q))1_UnitIIB// Four bar chain related to
consists of _____________________ _________________________
A. Four turning pairs A. Slider crank chain
B. Two turning pairs B. Four bar chain
C. Two sliding and two turning pairs C. Double slider crank chain
D. One sliding and three turning pairs D. both a and b
Ans. A Ans. B

((Q))1_UnitIIB//In hand pump Mechanism ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Steps in design


____________________ includes_____________________
A. There is a one rotating link A. Selection of material
B. There are two rotating links B. Selection of Factor of Safety
C. There are three rotating links C. Analysis of forces
D. There is no rotating link D. all of the above
Ans. C Ans. D
((Q))1_UnitIIA//The first step in design Ans. A
process is______________________
A. Selection of material
B. Selection of Factor of Safety ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Ability to resist stress without
C. Analysis of forces failure under fatigue loading is called as
D. definition of problem ________________
Ans. D A. Static strength
B. Fatigue strength
C. Elasticity
((Q))1_UnitIIA//In design process the synthesis is D. Plasticity
always followed by________________________ Ans. B
A. analysis
B. selection of material
C. preparation of drawing ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Ability to regain original shape
D. selection of factor of safety after load removal is called as
Ans. A _____________________ A. Static strength
B. Fatigue strength
C. Elasticity
((Q))1_UnitIIA//The last step in design D. Plasticity
process is_____________________ Ans. C
A. Selection of material
B. Selection of Factor of Safety
C. Analysis of forces
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Ability to retain permanent
D. preparation of drawing
deformation is called as
Ans. D
________________________ A. Static strength
B. Fatigue strength
C. Elasticity
((Q))1_UnitIIA//The process of selecting or
D. Plasticity
creating the mechanism for machine and the
Ans. D
shapes of the mechanical elements so as to
get the desired output for the given input is
known as ____________________
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Ability to resist deformation
A. analysis
under load is called as
B. synthesis
__________________________ A. Stiffness
C. optimization
B. Ductility
D. Definition of problem
C. Brittleness
Ans. B
D. Malleability
Ans. A

((Q))1_UnitIIA//Ability to resist stress without


failure under static loading is called as
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Ability to be drawn into wire or
___________________
elongated is called as
A. Static strength
_______________________ A. Stiffness
B. Fatigue strength
B. Ductility
C. Elasticity
C. Brittleness
D. Plasticity
D. Malleability
Ans. B _________________________
A. Stiffness
B. Toughness
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Ability to rupture with negligible C. Hardness
deformation is called as D. Malleability
_______________________ Ans. C
A. Stiffness
B. Ductility
C. Brittleness ((Q))1_UnitIIA//If the percentage elongation is
D. Malleability more than 5%, it is ______________________
Ans. C A. ductile material
B. brittle material
C. rigid material
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Rigidity of object is called D. elastic material
as__________________________ Ans. A
A. Stiffness
B. Ductility
C. Brittleness ((Q))1_UnitIIA//The choice of material depends
D. Malleability on ____________________
Ans. A A. Availability of materials
B. Cost of Material
C. Manufacturing Considerations
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Resilience is D. All of above
____________________________ Ans. D
A. Capacity to absorb energy when deformed
within elastic range
B. Ability to rupture with negligible deformation ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Manufacturing consideration
C. Resistance to penetration, abrasion or plastic plays vital role in
deformation ________________________ A. Selection of
D. Capacity to absorb enery without fracture material
Ans. A B. Selection of Factor of Safety
C. Analysis of forces
D. definition of problem
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Creep is Ans. A
_____________________________
A. Progressive deformation under load at high
temperature
B. Ability to rupture with negigible deformation ((Q))1_UnitIIA//The property which is important
C. Resistance to penetration, abrasion or plastic to impact loads are normally designed for
deformation ________________
D. Capacity to absorb energy without fracture A. resilience
Ans. A B. hardness
C. Toughness
D. stiffness
Ans. C
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Resistance to penetration,
abrasion or plastic deformation is called as
((Q))1_UnitIIA//A product should be
desined such that ________________ is ((Q))1_UnitIIA//The fourth step in design
reduced process is
A. Safety A. Analysis of forces
B. Comfort B. Selection of material
C. Cost C. Detailed drawing
D. Appearance D. Problem Definition
Ans. C Ans. B

((Q))1_UnitIIA//A product should be ((Q))1_UnitIIA//___________________ is more


designed such that ________________ is elastic than rubber
improved A. Plastic
A. Safety B. Wood
B. Comfort C. Steel
D. Efficiency D. Copper
D. All of the above Ans. C
Ans. D

((Q))1_UnitIIA//A _______________ material


((Q))1_UnitIIA//The first step in design process is regains its shape after being deformed
__________________ A. Plastic
A. Analysis of forces B. Strong
B. Selection of material C. Tough
C. Detailed drawing D. Elastic
D. Problem Definition Ans. D
Ans. D

((Q))1_UnitIIA//A __________________
((Q))1_UnitIIA//The second step in design material retains deformation when loaded
process is _________________________ A. Plastic
A. Analysis of forces B. Strong
B. Selection of material C. Tough
C. Synthesis D. Elastic
D. Problem Definition Ans. A
Ans. C

((Q))1_UnitIIA//A __________________
((Q))1_UnitIIA//The third step in design process material resists failure due to loading
is ______________________ A. Plastic
A. Analysis of forces B. Strong
B. Selection of material C. Tough
C. Detailed drawing D. Elastic
D. Problem Definition Ans. B
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A Unconstrained rigid A. Spherical pair
body in space will have ----------DOF. B. Revolute pair
A. 1 C. Cylindrical pair
B. 2 D. Screw pair
C. 3 Ans. D
D. 6
Ans. D
((Q))1_UnitIIB//The lead screw of a lathe with
nut forms a----------
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A In a planer pair, number of A. Sliding Pair
DOF IS……… B. Revolute Pair
A. 3 C. Prismatic Pair
B. 2 D. Screw Pair
C. 6 Ans. A
D. 5
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIB//When crank rotates, the
connecting rod _________________loading
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A screw pair with 0 pitch can A. Slides
be called as ------ B. Rotates
A. Cylindrical Pair C. Oscillates
((B)Spherical Pair D. None of the above
C. Prismatic Pair Ans. C
D. Revolute Pair
Ans. B
((Q))1_UnitIIB//The piston of slider crank
mechanism ________________
A. Slides
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A The mechanism form a
B. Rotates
structure, when DOF=
C. Oscillates
A. 0
D. Fixed
B. 1
Ans. A
C. 2
D. 3
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIB//The connecting rod of slider
crank mechanism ________________
A. Slides
((Q))1_UnitIIB//Kinematic chain having N links B. Rotates
will have C. Oscillates
A. (N-1) Inversion D. Fixed
B. (N-1-1) Inversion Ans. C
C. N Inversion
D. N+1Inversion
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIB//Slider crank mechanism consists
of __________ sliding pairs.
A. 1
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A bolt and nut forms_______ B. 2
C. 3 Ans. C
D. 0
Ans. 1
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A nut and bolt
_________________
((Q))1_UnitIIB//Slider crank mechanism consists A. can form a kinematic pair
of __________ turning pairs B. can form a non-kinematic pair
A. 2 C. can form a structure
B. 3 D. can form a chain
C. 0 Ans. C
D. 4
Ans. B
((Q))1_UnitIIB//Mechanism is a
______________________
((Q))1_UnitIIB//________________ connects A. Machine
crank and lever B. Kinematic chain used for power transmission
A. Coupler C. Kinematic chain with one link fixed
D. Kinematic chian used for doing work
B. Connecting Rod
Ans. C
C. Frame
D. None of the above
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIB//for a given image, Frame and
glass forms a

((Q))1_UnitIIB//Lever in four bar chain is also


called as __________
A. Rocker
B. Connecting Rod
C. Frame
D. None of the above
Ans. A A. Revolute Pair
B. Spherical Pair
C. Cylindrical Pair
((Q))1_UnitIIB//Piston & Cylinder form a D. Sliding Pair
________________ pair Ans. B
A. Sliding pair
B. Revolute Pair ((Q))1_UnitIIB//In a given image,Glass and
C. Cylindrical Pair body of helmet forms
D. Fixed Pair
Ans. A

((Q))1_UnitIIB//Structure is used to
______________________
A. Transfer Motion
B. Transfer Load
C. Support Load
D. None
A. Revolute pair
B. Sliding Pair
C. Cylindrical Pair
D. Screw Pair
Ans. A

((Q))1_UnitIIB//Double wishbone suspension


system consists of
A. Four bar chain mechanism
B. Slider crank mechanism A. Revolute pair
C. Double crank mechanism B. Sliding pair
D. NO mechanism C. Cylindrical pair
Ans. A D. Fixed pair
Ans. B

((Q))1_UnitIIB//In folding chair, fold and chair


forms
((Q))1_UnitIIB//In given image, door lock has

A. Revolute and Sliding Pair


B. Sliding Andscrew Pair
A. Sliding Pair C. Sliding and Fixed Pair
B. Cylindrical Pair D. None of the above
C. Turning pair Ans. A
D. Screw pair
Ans. C
((Q))1_UnitIIB//Which PAIR is used in the
following image
((Q))1_UnitIIB//In given image, glass and
window frame forms
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A __________________
mechanism is used for intermittent motion
A. GENEVA
B. Slider Crank
C. Double lever
D. whitworth
Ans. A

((Q))1_UnitIIB//In a __________________
A. Spherical Pair mechanism , rotary motion is converted into
B. Revolute Pair reciprocating motion
C. Cylindrical Pair A. Whitworth
D. Scew B. Beam Engine
Ans. A C. Scotts russel
D. Geneva
Ans. B
((Q))1_UnitIIB//Double wishbone suspension
system consists of __________________
revolute pair ((Q))1_UnitIIB//A __________________
A. 2 mechanism is inversion of slider crank
B. 4 mechanism
C. 3 A. Slotted crank
D. 1 B. Beam engine
Ans. B C. Geneva
D. None
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A __________________pairis
used in Seesaw
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A __________________is fixed
in whitworth mechanism
A. Slider
B. Crank
C. Connecting Rod
D. Ground Body
Ans. B

((Q))1_UnitIIB//A __________________ is
A. Sliding
fixed in Reciprocating Engine
B. Turning
A. Ground Body
C. Spherical
B. Slider
D. None of the above
C. Crank
Ans. B
D. Connecting Rod
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A __________________ is
fixed in slotted crank mechanism
A. Slider
B. Crank
C. Connecting rod
D. Ground body
Ans. C

((Q))1_UnitIIB//A __________________ is
fixed in hand pump
A. Slider
B. Crank
C. Connecting rod
D. Ground Body
Ans. A
Basic Mechanical
Engineering
Q.A prototype of a part to be casted which
is used to create cavity inside the sand
UNIT IIIA
mould is called
1.Pattern
Q.Draft on pattern is provided for
B. Cope
1.Allowance for machining
C. Core
B. Easy removal of pattern
D. Sprue
C. Compensation for shrinkage during
Ans. A
solidification
D. Compensation for shrinkage after
Q.Pattern can be made from
solidification
1.Wax
Ans. B
B. Plaster of Paris
C. Both (a) and (b)
Q.Shrinkage allowance on pattern is
D. None of the above
provided for
Ans. C
1.Compensation for finishing operation
after completion of casting
B. Easy removal of casting
Q.Core can be made from
C. Compensation for shrinkage during
1.Wax
solidification
B. Plastic
D. Compensation for shrinkage after
C. Refractory material
solidification
D. All of the above
Ans. C
Ans. C

Q.Riser is provided to
1.Check whether mould cavity is
Q.The portion of mould which lies
completely filled
between sprue and gate is called
B. Reduce impurities
1.Gate
C. Store molten metal to compensate for
B. Runner
shrinkage during solidification
C. Riser
D. All of these
D. Core
Ans. A
Ans. B
B. Increase cooling rate
Q.The portion of mould which lies C. Reduce impurities
between mould cavity and runner is called D. Support core
1.Gate Ans. B
B. Runner
C. Riser Q.„Chaplet‟ is used to
D. Core 1.Reduce washout of sand during pouring
Ans. A B. Increase cooling rate
C. Reduce impurities
Q.The vertical conical portion of mould D. Support core
through which molten metal is poured is Ans. D
called
1.Riser Q.„Pads‟ are used to
B. Sprue 1.Reduce washout of sand during pouring
C. Runner B. Increase cooling rate
D. Gate C. Reduce impurities
Ans. B D. Support core
Ans. D
((Q))2_UnitIIIA// Arrange the following
parts of mould in correct sequence as per Q. „Skim bob‟ is used to
path followed by molten metal 1.Reduce washout of sand during pouring
1. Cavity B. Increase cooling rate
2. Sprue C. Reduce impurities
3. Gate D. Support core
4. Runner Ans. C
5. Pouring basin
1.5-3-2-4-1 Q.Draft is provided on sprue to
B. 5-2-4-3-1 1.Facilitate removal of casting
C. 1-5-2-4-3 B. Reduce aspiration effect
D. 5-4-2-3-1 C. Decrease turbulence of molten metal
Ans. B D. Reduce washout of sand during
pouring
Q.„Chill‟ is used to Ans. B
1.Reduce washout of sand during pouring
Q.„Core‟ is used to Q.Green sand consists of
1.Reduce aspiration effect 1.Sand, copper sulphate, water
B. To produce hollow castings B. Sand, graphite powder, water
C. Reduce impurities C. Sand, clay, water
D. Support core D. Sand, refractory powder, water
Ans. B Ans. C

Q.During metal pouring, if pressure inside Q.Upper part of mould box is


the mould cavity falls below atmospheric 1.Core
pressure, the outside air will come into B. Cope
moulD. This phenomenon is called C. Drag
1.Aspiration effect D. Cap
B. Porosity Ans. B
C. Inhalation
D. None Q.Lower part of mould box is
Ans. A 1.Base
B. Cope
Q.Aspiration effect is caused because of C. Core
1.Sudden change in flow direction D. None of these
B. Straight sprue Ans. D
C. Sudden change in flow area
D. All Q. Identify the incorrect statements
Ans. B regarding casting process
1. Sand casting is inexpensive process as
Q.An ability of sand to allow to escape compared to most of other
entrapped gases is called manufacturing process
1.Aspiration effect 2. Surface finish is poor in sand casting as
B. Permeability compared to most of other
C. Permittivity manufacturing process
D. Transmissibility 3. Sand casting cannot be used to create
Ans. B products complicated shapes
4. Gearbox casing manufactured using
casting
5. Exact dimensional tolerances can be
achieved in sand casting C. Vents provided in
6. Material wastage in casting is high as sand
compared to most of other D. All of the above
manufacturing process Ans. D
7. Energy consumption in casting is high
as compared to most of other Q.The place where casting process is
manufacturing being carried out is popularly known
process 1.Furnace
1.1,3,5,6 B. Foundry
B. 1,2,4,7 C. Workshop
C. 3,5 D. Smith‟s Shop
D. 1,3,4, Ans. B
Ans. C
Q. Arrange the following operations as
Q.Solidification time for riser should be per reverse chronological sequence of
1.Less than that of casting casting
B. More than that of 1. Metal melting and pouring
casting 2. Creation of mould
C. Same as that of casting 3. Creation of pattern and core
D. It doesn‟t matter , It can be same, more 4. Product Inspection
or less 5. Finishing the product to exact shape
Ans. B 6. Cooling and
solidification
Q.Molten metal is carried from furnace to 1.3-2-1-6-5-4
mould box by B. 4-5-6-1-3-2
1.Pouring cup C. 4-5-6-1-2-3
B. Ladle D. 5-4-6-1-2-3
C. Sprue Ans. C
D. None
Ans. B
Q.Which of the following helps to escape Q. Assertion(A): Riser is always through
air inside the mould cavity Reason(R): Through riser allows
1.Permeability of sand gases entrapped in mould cavity to
B. Through Riser escape
1.Statement (A) is true but statement (R) is B. Statement (R) is true but statement (A)
false is false
B. Statement (R) is true but statement (A) C. Both statements are true but statement
is false (R) is not correct explanation of statement
C. Both statements are true but statement D. Both statements are true and statement
(R)is not correct explanation of (R)is correct explanation of statement (A)
statement(A) Ans. D
D. Both statements are true and statement
(R)is correct explanation of statement (A) Q.Size of casting is 10×15×20 cm, if the
Ans. B shrinkage allowance is 2% then size of
pattern is
Q. Assertion(A): Solidification time of 1.100×150×200 mm
riser should be always more than that of B. 102×153×204
casting Reason(R): Riser should be able to mm
supply molten metal till the end of C. 98×147×196 mm
solidification process D. None of these
1.Statement (A) is true but statement (R) is Ans. B
false
B. Statement (R) is true but statement (A) Q.Size of casting is 50×70×90 cm, if the
is false machining allowance is 3% per dimension
C. Both statements are true but statement and if the shrinkage allowance is 7% then
(R)is not correct explanation of size of pattern is
statement(A) 1.550×770×990 mm
D. Both statements are true and statement B. 505×707×909 mm
(R)is correct explanation of statement (A) C. 495×693×891 mm
Ans. D D. 551×771.5×992
mm
Q. Assertion(A): Internal chills have to be Ans. B
made from same material as that of the
castings Reason(R): Internal chills cannot Q. The shape in forging changed by
be taken out after the completion of …………
solidification force
1.Statement (A) is true but statement (R) is 1.Tensile
false B. Compressive
C. Shear Q.If the deformation is carried out above
D. All of the above RCT, it is
Ans. B 1.Cold working
B. Hot working
Q.Material utilization is better in C. Both a and b
1.Open die forging D. None
B. Closed die forging Ans. B
C. Both a and b
D. Can‟t say Q.If the deformation is carried out below
Ans. A RCT, it is
1.Cold working
Q.Forged components are ……… B. Hot working
compared to cast C. Both a and b
components D. None
1.Stronger Ans. A
B. Weaker
C. Can‟t say Q.If the deformation is carried at 1000C, it
D. is
Ans. A 1.Cold working
B. Hot working
Q.Grain structure of forged components is C. both
1.Aligned D. Can‟t say
B. Random Ans. D
C. Can‟t say
D. Q.If the deformation is carried at 5000C, it
Ans. A is
1.Cold working
Q.Forging is related to B. Hot working
1.Malleability C. Both
B. Hardness D. Can‟t say
C. Ductility Ans. D
D. Toughness
Ans. A Q.If the deformation is carried at 00C, it is
1.Cold working
B. Hot working Q.Handling is difficult in
C. Both 1.Hot working
D. Can‟t say B. Cold working
Ans. D C. Both
D. Can‟t say
Q.Surface finish is good in Ans. A
1.Hot working
B. Cold working Q.Which one of following should be
C. Both preferred for brittle materials
D. Can‟t say 1.Hot working
Ans. B B. Cold working
C. Both
Q.Surface finish is poor in D. Can‟t say
1.Hot working Ans. A
B. Cold working
C. Both Q.Deformation of lead at room
D. Can‟t say temperature is
Ans. A 1.Hot working
B. Cold working
Q.In Cold work,strength C. Both
1.Increases D. Can‟t say
B. Decreases Ans. A
C. Remains same
D. None Q.Deformation of tin at room temperature
Ans. A is
1.Hot working
Q.Dimensional accuracy is better in B. Cold working
1.Hot working C. Both
B. Cold working D. Can‟t say
C. Both Ans. A
D. Can‟t say
Ans. A Q.Deformation of steel at room
temperature is
1.Hot working
B. Cold working 1.Die
C. Both B. Punch
D. Can‟t say C. Either die or punch
Ans. B D. Both
Ans. B
Q.The connecting rod is produced by
1.Casting Q. The metal is subjected to mechanical
B. Sheet metal working for
C. Forging 1.Refining grain size
D. None of the above B. Reducing original block into desired
Ans. A shape
C. Controlling the direction of flow lines
Q.The car body is produced by D. All of these
1.Casting Ans. B
B. Sheet metal
C. Forging Which of the following material can be
D. None of the above used for making patterns?
Ans. B 1.Aluminum
B. Wax
Q.Shear on punch is provided to C. MS
1.Easy removal D. All of these
B. Reduce material Ans. A
C. Reduce capacity or press
D. None Q. Aluminum is the best material for
Ans. A making patterns because it is
1.A light in weight
Q.In blanking shear is provided on B. Easy to work
1.Die C. Corrosion resistant
B. Punch D. All of these
C. Either die or punch Ans. D
D. Both
Ans. A Q. The purpose of a riser is to

Q.In punching shear is provided on


1.Deliver molten metal into the mould B. drag
cavity C. cheek
B. Act as a reservoir for the molten metal D. none of above
C. Feed the molten metal to the casting in Ans. A
order to compensate for the shrinkage
D. Deliver the molten metal from pouring Q. To pour the molten metal equipment
basin to gate used is
Ans. C A. Lifter
B. lader
Q. Which “term” is not associated with C. slick
casting process? D. flask
A. Gate Ans. B
B. Runner
C. Riser Q. In sand mould the bottom half of the
D. Swage box is named as
Ans. D A. Cope
B. drag
Q. A “die” is used in C. cheek
A. casting process D. none of above
B. extrusion process Ans. B
C. forging process
D. all of these. Q. The main causes of porosity in welded
Ans. C joints are:
A. Poor access
Q. Investment casting uses pattern made of B. Loss of gas shield
A. wax C. “Dirty” materials
B. clay D. All of the above
C. metal Ans. B
D. wood
Ans. A Q. Porosity is caused by:
A. Entrapped slag in the solidifying weld
Q. In sand mould the upper half of the box B. Entrapped gas in the solidifying weld
is named as C. Entrapped metallic inclusions in the
A. Cope solidifying weld
D. None of the above B. Above recystallization temperature
Ans. B C. At recystallization temperature
D. none of above
Q. Why welding is shielded? Ans. A
A. To eliminate hydrogen
B. To retard the cooling rate of the weld Q. Rollers are used to shape the metal in --
C. To eliminate the atmosphere -- process
D. To ensure maximum heat input A. forging
Ans. A B. casting
C. rolling
Q. “Blanking” is an expression used in D. none of above
A. sheet metal work Ans. C
B. casting process
C. drawing Q. Which one of the following casting
D. rolling processes is the most widely used:
Ans. A A. centrifugal casting
B. die casting
Q. In drawing operation the metal flows C. investment casting
due to D. sand casting
A. ductility Ans. D
B. work hardening
C. plasticity Q. In sand casting, the volumetric size of
D. shearing the pattern than the casted part
Ans. A A. bigger than,
B. the same size
Q. In hot working metal is to be heated C. smaller than the cast part
A. Below recystallization temperature D. all of above
B. Above recystallization temperature Ans. A
C. At recystallization temperature
D. none of above Q. The application of runner is;
Ans. B A. horizontal distribution channel that
accepts molten metal from the sprue and
Q. In cold working metal is to be heated delivers it to the gates, trap dross
A. Below recystallization temperature
B. regions with larger circles (fillet radii),
slower cooling rates, can develop Q. The statement which are true for a cold
shrinkage cavities and porosity working process are,
C. used to trap large contaminants and A. Yield strength increases
reduce metal velocity and make flow more B. grain structure is modified
laminar C. Larger deformation can be carried out
D. goal is to achieve required metal flow D. locked in stresses are imparted
rates (s.t. turbulence is avoided) while Ans. A
preventing aspiration or dross formation
Ans. A Q. The process which takes place below
recrystallization temperature is called as
Q. The property of a material by which it A. Hot working process
can be drawn into wires is known as B. cold working
A. ductility C. Casting
B. elasticity D. Grinding
C. softness Ans. B
D. tempering
Ans. A Q. Hot working process takes place
A. At recrystallization temp.
Q. Forging of the metal is B. below recrystallization temp.
A. Matching process C. Above recrystallization temp.
B. metal forming process D. none of these
C. Joining process Ans. C
D. welding process
Ans. B Q. Which one is the correct statement
about hot working process
Q. Which one of the following is the A. Surface finish of the product is fine
advantage of forging B. Life of tools, used for hot working is
A. Good surface finish high
B. low tooling cost C. It is rapid and economical process
C. Close tolerance D. Tooling and handling cost is less
D. improved physical properties Ans. C
Ans. D
Q. The grain structure is refined in Q. The collapsible tooth paste tubes are
A. Cold working manufactured by
B. hot working A. Extrusion
C. Both a & b B. casting
D. none of these C. Forging
Ans. B D. piercing
Ans. A
Q. Pick up wrong statement about results
of hot working Q. Which of the following is the process
A. Poor surface finish for joining two metals
B. improvement in mechanical properties A. Casting
C. Close dimensional tolerances B. forging
D. refinement grain structure C. Extrusion
Ans. C D. welding
Ans. D
Q. Pick up wrong statement about effect of
cold working Q. Steel balls are manufactured by
A. Increase in strength and hardness A. Casting
B. improved surface finish B. machining
C. Close dimensional tolerances C. Cold heading
D. grain structure is unaffected D. sintering
Ans. D Ans. A

Q. Which of the following process is Q. Casting process is prefferd for parts


different from the rest of the processes having
A. Shot peening A. A few details
B. cold extrusion B. many details
C. Sand blasting C. No details
D. drop forging D. non symmetrical shape
Ans. C Ans. A
D. Feed molten metal from pouring basin
Q. Core are used to to gate
A. Make desired recess in castings Ans. C
B. strengthen molding sand
C. Support loose pieces Q. The purpose of chaplet is to
D. remove pattern easily A. Provide benting
Ans. A B. induce directional solidification
C. Compensate shrinkage
Q. The purpose of gate is D. support the core
A. Feed the casting at a rate consistent Ans. D
with the rate of solidification
B. Act as reservoir for molten metal Q. Cope in foundry practice refers to
C. Help feed the casting until all A. Bottom of moulding box
solidification takes place B. Top of moulding box
D. Feed molten metal from pouring basin C. Middle portion of moulding box
to gate D. Heavy weight kept on moulding box to
Ans. A overcome buoyant effect of molten metal
Ans. B
Q. The purpose of pouring basin is to
A. Feed the casting at a rate consistent Q.Which of the following operation
with the rate of solidification doesn‟t require shear?
B. Act as reservoir for molten metal A. Punching
C. Help feed the casting until all B. Blanking
solidification takes place C. Deep Drawing
D. Feed molten metal from pouring basin D. All
to gate Ans. C
Ans. A
Q. In drop forging the component is kept
Q. The purpose of riser is to on____
A. Feed the casting at a rate consistent A. upper die
with the rate of solidification B. lower die
B. Act as reservoir for molten metal C. anvil block
C. Help feed the casting until all D. all of the above
solidification takes place Ans. B
Q. The upper limit of working temperature Q.Identify the manufacturing process.
depends upon____
A. Composition of metal
B. Prior deformation
C. Impurities within the metal
D. all of the above
Ans. D

Q. ____is a fusion welding process in A. Casting


which welding heat is provided by electric B. Welding
arc between electrode and workpiece C. Forging
A. Resistance welding D. Fabrication
B. Arc welding Ans. C
C. Gas welding
D. none of above Q.Identify the manufacturing process.
Ans. B

Q. The various brazing processes are____


A. torch brazing
B. silver brazing
C. furnace brazing
D. all of above
Ans. D A. Coining
B. Drawing
Q. In ____ process the ram I raised to a C. Embossing
definite height and then allowed to fall D. Blanking
freely under its own weight Ans. C
A. hand forging
B. casting Q.Identify the manufacturing process.
C. drop forging
D. soldering
Ans. C
A. runner
B. riser
C. gate
D. core
Ans. B

A. Close die forging Q.Identify the part indicated by arrow.

B. Open die forging


C. Drop Forging
D. Fabrication
Ans. A

Q.Identify the part indicated by arrow.

A. gate
B. riser
C. runner
D. core
Ans. C

A. sprue Q.Identify the part indicated by arrow.

B. riser
C. gate
D. core
Ans. A

Q.Identify the part indicated by arrow.

A. runner
B. riser
C. gate
D. core
Ans. D
UNIT IIIB current
B. High voltage and low

Q. In welding process which of the current

following must present C. Low voltage and high current

A. Filler D. High voltage and high power

material Ans. C

B. Pressure
C. Heat
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. C ((Q))2_UnitIIIB// Arrange the following
processes in increasing order of operating

Q. In welding process, the heat required temperature

for welding is obtained from A. Sheet metal forming

A. Electric Energy 2. Hot working of steel

B. Chemical Reaction 3. Brazing

C. Combustion of 4. Casting

gases 5. Soldering

D. All of the above 6. Welding

Ans. D A. 1-3-5-6-2-4
B. 1-2-5-3-6-4

Q. In „arc‟ welding process, the heat C. 1-5-3-2-6-4

required for welding is obtained from D. 3-1-5-2-6-4

A. Electric Energy Ans. C

B. Chemical Reaction
C. Combustion of Q. Typical operating current in electric

gases arc welding is

D. All of the above A. 100 to 500

Ans. A mA
B. 1 to 5 A

Q. Which of the following is the C. 10 to 25 A

requirement of power supply of electric D. Above 200

arc welding A

A. High voltage and high Ans. D


Q. Typical operating voltage n electric arc C. Negative terminal of power supply is
welding is connected to electrode and work piece
A. 20 to 40 V grounded
B. 220 to 240 V D. It doesn‟t matter which terminal is
C. 420 to 440 V connected to electrode as long as work
D. Above 1000 V piece is grounded
Ans. A Ans. A

Q. Typical operating temperature in Q. Assertion(A): In electric arc welding


electric arc welding process negative terminal of power supply
is is connected to electrode Reason(R):Flow
A. Below 5000C of electrons and hence arc will be directed
B. Around 15000C away from the negative terminal
C. Around 50000C A. Statement (A) is true but statement (R)
0
D. Above 10000 C is false
Ans. B B. Statement (R) is true but statement (A)
is false
Q. Flux coating is provided on the C. Both statements are true but statement
electrode of electric arc welding (R)is not correct explanation of
A. To protect electrode from corrosion statement(A)
B. To create shield gases during the D. Both statements are true and statement
welding (R)is correct explanation of statement (A)
C. To avoid electric shock to the operator Ans. D
D. To enhance heat produced during the
welding Q. Which of the following statements are
Ans. B incorrect regarding electric arc welding
1. Two joining metals never melt during
Q. In electric arc welding the welding process but only electrode
A. Positive terminal of power supply is melts
connected to work piece and negative 2. Electrode must be always in the contact
terminal to electrode of work piece during welding
B. Negative terminal of power supply is 3. Strength of welded joint is much less
connected to work piece and positive than strength of base metal
terminal to electrode 4. Welded joint changes the metallurgical
properties of base metals 3. During brazing base metals are not
A. 1,2,3 melted
B. 2,4 4. During brazing molten metal flows in
C. 1,2 the gap by capillary action
D. None of the statement is incorrect 5. Brazed joint is thermally and
Ans. C electrically conductive
A. 2,3,4
Q. In soldering ,composition of soldering B. 1,2,4
wire is C. 1,3,4
A. 63% tin, 37% D. All statements are correct
lead Ans. D
B. 37% tin, 63%
lead Q. In which of the following metal joining
C. 63% tin, 37% process base metals are not melted?
zinc A. Soldering
D. 37% tin, 63% B. Brazing
zinc C. Welding
Ans. C D. Both soldering and brazing
Ans. D
Q. Which of the following metal joining
process is quickest in terms of molten Q. Which of the following metal joining
metal solidification time? process produces strongest joint?
A. Soldering A. Soldering
B. Brazing B. Brazing
C. Welding C. Welding
D. Can‟t say D. Can‟t say
Ans. A Ans. C

Q. Identify the correct statements Q. Assertion(A): In electric arc welding


regarding brazing process electrode is coated with flux
A. Brazed joint strengthens slowly as Reason(R): During welding the flux burns
compared to welding and soldering and creates protective shield of gases
2. Brazing can be used join metals as well around the weld pool avoiding formation
as non metals brittle phases such as metal oxides and
nitrides C. Car bodies
A. Statement (A) is true but statement (R) D. None of the above
is false Ans. C
B. Statement (R) is true but statement (A)
is false
C. Both statements are true but statement Q. Curling is a method of
(R)is not correct explanation of statement A. Forming
(A) B. Blanking
D. Both statements are true and statement C. Drawing
(R)is correct explanation of statement (A) D. Bending
Ans. D Ans. D

Q. When thickness is more than 6mm it is


called as
A. Plate Q. Advantage of sheet metal
B. Sheet A. Light weight
C. Anyone of a and B. Good
b formability
D. None of the C. Low cost
above D. All of the above
Ans. A Ans. D

Q. When thickness is less than 6mm it is


called as
A. Plate Q. Out of following - are used in sheet
B. Sheet metal operation
C. Anyone of a and b A. Electrode
D. None of the 2. Die
above 3. Punch
Ans. B 4. Hammer
A. 1,2 and 3
Q. Sheets are used to make B. 2,3 and 4
A. Engine parts C. 2 and 3 only
B. Turbine blades D. All of the above
Ans. B D. Notching
Ans. A
Q. The following is not a metal shearing
process
A. Lancing Q. In a rectangular plate number of
B. Embossing circular holes are produced by sheet metal
C. Notching operations, then operation is
D. Blanking A. Blanking
Ans. B B. Piercing
Q. In sheet metal working, shearing or C. Perforating
cracking starts at D. Notching
A. Contact Ans. D
surfaces
B. Middle surface Q. Cutting a metal sheet in a straight line
C. Both a and b is
D. None of the above A. Blanking
Ans. A B. Piercing
C. Slitting
Q. In a rectangular plate a circular hole is D. Notching
produced by sheet metal operations. If Ans. C
remaining of rectangular plate is used then Q.
the operation is Removing a
A. Blanking small part
B. Piercing from edge of
C. Perforating the metal
D. Notching sheet is
Ans. B A. Blanking
B. Piercing
Q. In a rectangular plate a circular hole is C. Slitting
produced by sheet metal operations. If cut D. Notching
circular plate is used then the operation is Ans. D
A. Blanking
B. Piercing Q. Cutting small portion of sheet and
C. Perforating bending it is
A. Blanking D. Can‟t say
B. Lancing Ans. A
C. Slitting
D. Notching Q. In compound die, how many number
Ans. B of operations are performed in one stroke?
A. One
Q. Springback is related to B. Only Two
A. Blanking C. Many
B. Bending D. Can‟t say
C. Slitting Ans. C
D. Notching
Ans. B Q. In progressive die, number of
operations are performed at……..
Q. A cup can be formed by which of the A. One station
following operation B. Only Two
A. Blanking C. Two or more
B. bending D. Can‟t say
C. Drawing Ans. C
D. Notching
Ans. C Q. In sheet metal working, which of
following is immovable
Q. In sheet metal working, which of A. Die
following is movable B. Punch
A. Die C. Both a and b
B. Punch D. None
C. Both a and b Ans. A
D. None
Ans. B Q. The main causes of porosity in welded
joints are:
Q. In simple die, how many number of A. Poor access
operations are performed in one stroke? B. Loss of gas shield
A. One C. “Dirty” materials
B. Two D. All of the above
C. Many Ans. B
Ans. B
Q. Metal forming is the process in which
A. Removal of metal takes place Q. Brazing process is carried out in the
B. Shaping of metal by forces applied temperature range of ---
through various dies and tools A. 150-250 deg C
C. Some additional materials are joined to B. 250-450 deg C
the raw material C. 500-700 deg C
D. Material addition, through melting and D. 700-900 deg C
pouring Ans. C
Ans. B
Q. The flux in brazing process is used in
Q. Welding is the process in which the form of ----
A. Removal of metal takes place A. Solid
B. Shaping of metal by forces applied B. liquid
through various dies and tools C. Gas
C. Some additional materials are joined to D. all of above
the raw material Ans. D
D. Material addition, through melting and
pouring Q. ARC length in arc welding should be
Ans. C nearly equal to
A. diameter of electrode
Q. In a welding a flux is used B. 2d
A. to permit perfect cohesion of metal C. 3d
B. To remove the oxides of the metal D. 4d
formed at higher temperature Ans. B
C. both A. and C. above
D. none of above Q. Advantage of cold working is
Ans. C A. better dimensional accuracy
B. better surface finish
Q. In arc welding current used is C. higher strength
A. AC current of high frequency D. all of these.
B. AC current of low frequency Ans. D
C. DC current
D. all of above
Q. Material used for coating the electrode D. Malleability
is called as Ans. E
A. protective layer
B. binder Q. Which arc welding process utilizes a
C. slag non-consumable electrode?
D. flux A. MIG
Ans. C B. TIG
C. MMA
Q. “Blanking” is an expression used in D. SAW
A. sheet metal work Ans. B
B. casting process
C. drawing Q. The preheating of parts to be welded
D. rolling. and slow cooling of the welded structure
Ans. A will reduce
A. cracking and incomplete fusion
Q. The strength of a brazed joint B. cracking and residual stress.
A. decreases with increase in gap between C. residual stress and incomplete
the two joining surfaces penetration
B. increases with increase in gap between D. cracking and underfill.
the two joining surfaces Ans. C
C. decreases up to certain gap between the
two joining surfaces beyond which it Q. The process of increasing of the cross
increases section of the bar at the expense of its
D. increases up to certain gap between the length is known as
two joining surfaces beyond which it A. Drawing down
decreases B. upsetting
Ans. A C. peening
D. spinning
Q. When a metal returns to its original Ans. B
shape after an applied load has been
removed, the metal is said to have: Q. The filler metals used in ____ process
A. Plasticity are copper based and silver based alloys
B. Ductility A. brazing
C. Elasticity B. soldering
C. welding Q. The temperature produced at the center
D. All of above of arc in electric arc welding is______
Ans. A A. 6000 to 7000°C
B. 5000 to 10000°C
Q. In____ process the base metals are not C. 6000 to 10000°C
melted during the joining D. 1000 to 10000°C
A. brazing Ans. A
B. soldering
C. welding Q. For assembly of electronic components
D. All of above to the printed circuit boards ____method is
Ans. A commonly used
A. brazing
Q. Brazing process can join_________ B. soldering
A. non-metals to metals C. welding
B. porous metal components D. All of above
C. dissimilar metals Ans. B
D. All of above
Ans. D Q. For assembly of electronic components
to the printed circuit boards ____method is
Q. Brazing is used in the joining of commonly used
__________ A. brazing
A. electrical equipments B. soldering
B. pipes and heat exchanger C. welding
C. tool tips and turbine blades D. All of above
D. All of above Ans. B
Ans. D
Q. Vehicle parts like doors, roofs, fuel
Q. _____ process metallic parts are joined tanks, can be produced by___
by non-ferrous filler metal A. casting
A. brazing B. sheet metal working
B. soldering C. forging
C. welding D. All of above
D. All of above Ans. B
Ans. A
Q. ___ process is used for manufacturing D. None of above
of drums, pots, vessels, pans etc Ans. A
A. U-bending
B. V-bending Q. Welding of _____ components is
C. curling difficult
D. angle bending A. cast
Ans. C B. forged
C. sheet metal
Q. A good weld is as strong as _____ D. None of above
A. electrode material Ans. A
B. base metal
C. none of the above Q. If material is more ____, it can be
Ans. B more cold worked
A. ductile
Q. In mechanical working the flow of B. brittle
metal is ______ C. tough
A. Electric flow D. stiff
B. Plastic flow Ans. A
C. continuous flow
D. all of the above Q. In drop forging the component is
Ans. B produced by _______
A. impact
Q. The change in structure from hot B. expansion
working improves mechanical properties C. contraction
like ____ D. joining
A. ductility Ans. A
B. toughness
C. resistance to shock and vibration Q. In drop forging the hot metal kept on
D. all of the above the lower die is called as _____
Ans. D A. cast
Q. _____ components are brittle in nature B. pattern
A. cast C. sheet metal
B. forged D. billet
C. sheet metal Ans. D
Q. _____ of forged parts is easy D. all of above
A. casting Ans. D
B. machining
C. weldig Q. ___ are types of Arc welding
D. all of the above A. MIG
Ans. C B. TIG
C. SMAW
Q. _____ supply is used for arc welding D. all of above
A. AC Ans. D
B. DC
C. AC or DC Q. ___ is the most versatile welding
D. all of above process which can be applied for thin and
Ans. C thick sections
A. Arc welding process
Q. Electrod metal gets _____ at the weld B. Resistance welding process
A. melted C. gas welding process
B. deposited D. none of above
C. melted and deposited Ans. A
D. none of above
Ans. C Q. In brazing process
A. strength of joint is less
Q. _____ electrodes are used in arc B. joint can be damaged by under high
welding process temperature
A. bare C. joint colour is different than that of base
B. coated metal
C. bare and coated D. all of the above
D. none of above Ans. D
Ans. C
Q. which is metal cutting operation?
Q. During arc welding process _____ A. punching
A. welding control is difficult B. blanking
B. edge preparation is not required C. piercing
C. good quality welding can be done in D. all of above
any posion Ans. D
B. deformation of workpieces
C. metallurgical changes in workpieces
Q. which is metal forming operation? D. all of above
A. punching Ans. D
B. blanking
C. piercing Q. ____are important applications of
D. drawing welding
Ans. D A. aircraft constructions
B. Rail-road equipments
Q. Casting process is also called as C. Pipelines and piping
______ D. all of above
A. forging Ans. D
B. founding
C. joing Q. ____are important applications of
D. soldering welding
Ans. B A. crankshaft
B. piston and cylinder
Q. ____ are commonly used joing C. leaf spring
processes D. all of above
A. welding Ans. D
B. soldering
C. brazing Q. Plastic welding is called as
D. all of above _____welding
Ans. D A. pressure
B. non pressure
Q. Welding produces_____ C. fusion
A. harmful radiations D. none of above
B. fumes Ans. A
C. spatter
D. all of above Q. ____ process uses closed impression
Ans. D die to obtain the required shape of
component
Q. Welding results in _____ A. hand forging
A. residual stresses B. casting
C. drop forging D. drawing
D. soldering Ans. A
Ans. C
Q. Which of the following represents
Q. ______ temperature differentiates hot Slitting operations?
working and cold working
A. heating
B. cooling
C. recrystallisation
D. none of above
A. A
Ans. C
B. B
C. C
Q. In drop forging the billet is kept on
D. D
lower die while the ____ delivers 4 to 5
Ans. B
blows in quick succession
A. anvil block
Q. Which of the following represents
B. upper die
Notching operations?
C. ram
D. wooden board
Ans. C

Q. In ____operations the sheet metal is


stressed beyond its ultimate strength A. A
A. forming B. B
B. cutting C. C
C. bending D. D
D. drawing Ans. C
Ans. B

Q. The Blanking operation is given by


Q. In ____operations the stresses are
below ultimate strength of the metal
A. forming
B. cutting A. A
C. bending
B. B
C. C
D. D
Ans. A

Q. Identify the operation performed on


sheet metal working

A. Drawing
B. Deep Drawing
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
A. Piercing Ans. B
B. Punching
C. Perforating
D. Blanking
Ans. C

Q. Identify the operation performed on


sheet metal working Q. Which of the following is not angle
bending operation?

A. Shearing
B. Notching
A. A
C. Bending
B. B
D. Angle making
C. C
Ans. A
D. D
Ans. D
Q. Identify the operation performed on
sheet metal working
Q. The angle bending operation is given Ans. C
by
Q. Which of the following represents
Lancing operations?

.
A. A
B. B
C. C
A. A
D. D
B. B
Ans. D
C. C
D. D
Q. The Piercing operation is given by
Ans. D

Q. Which one of the following represents


shaving operation?
.
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Ans. D
A. A
B. B
Q. Which one of the following represents
C. C
shearing operation
D. D
Ans. D

Q. The following component produced by


A. A operation
B. B
C. C
D. D
A. Piercing
B. Punching
C. Blanking
D. Perforating
A. Close die forging
Ans. Bs
B. Open die forging
C. Drop Forging
Q. The following component produced by
D. Fabrication
operation
Ans. B

Q. Identify the manufacturing process.


A. lancing
A. Slitting
B. Punching
C. Lancing
D. Notching
Ans. D

B. Piercing
Q. The following component produced by C. blanking
operation D. punching
Ans. A

A. Bending Q. Identify the manufacturing process.

B. Notching
C. Lancing
D. Deep Drawing
Ans. A
A. punching
Q. Identify the manufacturing process. B. piercing
C. coining
D. blanking
Ans. A rotating tool into stationary workpiece is
called as _____________
A. Drilling Machine
Q. Identify the manufacturing process.
B. Lathe Machine
C. Boring Machine
D. All the above
Ans. A

Q. In lathe machine, in order to produce


flat surface, the cutting tool must '-------'
A. punching
A. move perpendicular to the axis of
B. piercing rotation
C. coining B. move parallel to the axis of rotation
C. move in vertical direction
D. blanking
D. be stationary
Ans. D Ans. A

Q. In lathe machine, the tool has


UNIT IVA A. one type of motion
B. two types of motions
Q. In lathe machine, in order to produce C. three types of motion
cylindrical surface, the cutting tool must D. no motion
'-------' Ans. B
A. Move perpendicular to the axis of
rotation Q. ____________________ is a accessory
B. Move parallel to the axis of rotation of the lathe machine
C. Move along the circumference of the A. Tail stock
surface B. Head stock
D. Be stationary C. Carriage
Ans. B D. All of above
Ans. D
Q. Lathe machine produces '--------'
A. Spherical surface Q. To support the long length job on lathe
B. Cylindrical surface machine ____________________ is
C. Flat surface used
D. Both B and C A. Carriage
Ans. D B. Steady rest
C. Follower rest
D. Tails stock
Q. The machine tool used for making the Ans. D
ole in the workpiece by forcing the
Q. The tailstock and carriage in a lathe are A. Perpendicular
guided on _________________ B. Parallel
A. Different guideways C. Parallel or Inclined
B. Rails D. All of the above
C. Same guide way Ans. D
D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q. Lathe bed is made of
Q. The angle between lathe centre is _____________________
________________ A. Plastic
A. 15° B. Aluminium
B. 30° C. Wood
C. 45° D. None of the above
D. 60° Ans. D
Ans. D
Q. Lathe bed is made of
Q. To remove material in form of large _____________________
chips _________________ is used A. Cast Iron
A. Lathe B. Steel
B. Drill C. Aluminium
C. Mill D. All of the above
D. All of the above Ans. A
Ans. D
Q. Carriage, in a lathe machine, is
mounted between
Q. To remove material in form of large ____________________
chips _________________ is used A. Toolpost and chuck
A. Lathe Machine B. Headstock and tailstock
B. Soldering C. Toolpost and tailstock
C. Brazing D. Toolpost and headstock
D. None of the above Ans. B
Ans. A
Q. ___________________ is a long
Q. In a lathe machine, during operation, threaded shaft on the lathe
the workpiece __________________ A. Spindle
A. Rotates B. Lead Screw
B. Reciprocates C. Cross slide
C. Oscillates D. All of the above
D. All of the above Ans. B
Ans. A
Q. In drilling operation on a lathe, the tool
Q. In a lathe machine, the tool moves is held in ________________
____________________ to the axis of A. Toolpost
the material being cut B. Headstock
C. Tailstock D. no motion
D. None of the above Ans. B
Ans. C
Q. ----------' is not a part of lathe machine
Q. In facing operation on a lathe, the tool A. bed
is held in ________________ B. carriage
A. Toolpost C. column
B. Headstock D. lead screw
C. Tailstock Ans. C
D. None of the above
Ans. A Q. ----------' is a par of lathe machine
A. headstock
Q. During drilling operation on a lathe B. tailstock
machine, the tool moves C. carriage
____________________ the axis of the D. All the above
workpiece Ans. D
A. Perpendicular to
B. Parallel to Q. ---------' is a type of lathe.
C. Along A. speed lathe
D. None of the above B. bench lathe
Ans. C C. turret lathe
D. All the above
Q. To cut threads using a lathe machine Ans. D
_______________ is required A.
Toolpost Q. Engine lathe is also known as '-------'.
B. Lead screw A. motor lathe
C. Headstock B. turning lathe
D. All of the above C. centre lathe
Ans. D D. None of the above
Ans. C
Q. During grooving operation on a lathe
machine, the tool moves Q. Speed lathe is a '-------' lathe machine.
____________________ the axis of the A. low production
workpiece B. medium production
A. Perpendicular to C. high production
B. Parallel to D. special purpose
C. Along Ans. A
D. None of the above
Ans. A Q. The machine used for making the hole
in the workpiece by forcing the non-
Q. In lathe machine, the tool has rotating tool into rotating workpiece is
A. one type of motion called as '-------'.
B. two types of motions A. drilling machine
C. three types of motions B. boring machine
C. lathe machine A. Lathe machine
D. All the above B. Grinding machine
Ans. C C. Honing machine
D. Welding machine
Q. The shape of turret in turret lathe is '--- Ans. A
-----'.
A. rectangle Q. The following machine is called as
B. square mother of all machine tools
C. hexagon A. Shaping machine
D. triangle B. Milling machine
Ans. C C. Lathe machine
D. Universal machine
Q. The following machine is called as Ans. C
mother of all the machines.
A. Shaping machine Q. The machine tool is
B. Milling machine A. A lathe machine
C. Lathe machine B. A drilling machine
D. Universal Machine C. A grinding machine
Ans. C D. All of above
Ans. D
Q. The machine tools are broadly
classified as Q. The lathe machine is a
A. Metal machine tools and non metal A. Machine tool
machine tools B. Carpentry tool
B. Metal cutting machine tools and surface C. Smithy tool
finishing machine tools D. Fabrication tool
C. Lathe machine and drilling machines Ans. A
D. Both a and b
Ans. B Q. which of the following machine is
called as universal machine
A. Lathe machine
Q. The machine tools used for removing B. Grinding machine
the material from the cylindrical surface is C. Milling machine
known as D. Shaping machine
A. Shaping machine Ans. A
B. Milling machine
C. Lathe machine Q. In lathe machine, the function of bed is
D. Both b and c to
Ans. C A. Prove sling surface for carriage
B. Prove sling surface for tailstock
Q. -----------machine tool is used to C. Support tailstock
remove the material in the form of large D. All a b and c
sized chips Ans. D
Q. In lathe machine, the mechanism used
Q. In lathe machine, the head stock for mechanized movements of the carriage
A. Support the carriage is known as
B. Support the tail stock A. Saddle
C. Support the spindle B. Apron
D. All a b and c C. Cross sle
Ans. C D. Compound rest
Ans. B
Q. In lathe machine, the function of
tailstock is to
A. Support the spindle Q. The jobs produced on a Lathe machine
B. Hold the main drive are of
C. Hold the dead centre ((A))Cylindrical shapes
D. Both b and c ((B))Square shapes
Ans. C ((C))Triangular shapes
((D))All of above
Q. In lathe machine of main drive is to ((E))A
A. Drive an electric motor
B. Drive the spindle Q. The jobs produced on a Lathe machine
C. To change the spindle speed are of
D. Both b and c ((A))An odd shapes
Ans. D ((B))Square shapes
((C))Triangular shapes
Q. In lathe machine, the function of ((D))All of above
carriage is to ((E))D
A. Support the spindle ((F))
B. Hold and give feed to cutting tool
C. To hold the dead centre Q. The job produced on a Lathe machine is
D. Both b and c hold & supported by
Ans. B ((A))Chuck
((B))Tool post
((C))Tail stock
Q. In lathe machine ((D))All of above
A. Tailstock is located between head stock ((E))A
and carriage ((F))
B. Headstock is located between tailstock
and carriage Q. The job produced on a Lathe machine is
C. Carriage is located between head stock hold & supported by
and tailstock ((A))Bed
D. Spindle is located between bed and ((B))Tool post
carriage ((C))Tail stock
Ans. C ((D))None of above
((E))D
((F))
Q. The tool post on a Lathe machine is
Q. The work piece on lathe machine has used to hold & support
((A))Linear motion ((A))Work piece
((B))Oscillatory motion ((B))Chuck key
((C))Rotary motion ((C))Coolant pipe
((D))Reciprocating motion ((D))None of above
((E))C ((E))D
((F)) ((F))

Q. The cutting tool on a Lathe machine is Q. The tail stock on a Lathe machine is
hold & supported by used to hold & support
((A))Bed ((A))Cutting tool
((B))Tool post ((B))Chuck key
((C))Chuck ((C))Coolant pipe
((D))All of above ((D))Work piece
((E))B ((E))A
((F)) ((F))

Q. The cutting tool on a Lathe machine is Q. The tail stock on a Lathe machine is
hold & supported by used to hold & support
((A))Bed ((A))Work piece
((B))Tail stock ((B))Chuck key
((C))Chuck ((C))Coolant pipe
((D))All of above ((D))None of above
((E))B ((E))D
((F)) ((F))

Q. The cutting tool on a Lathe machine is Q. The rotation of chuck of lathe machine
hold & supported by is due to
((A))Bed
((B))Carriage ((A))Crank shaft
((C))Chuck ((B))Counter shaft
((D))None of above ((C))Spindle shaft
((E))B ((D))Main shaft
((F)) ((E))C
((F))
Q. The tool post on a Lathe machine is
used to hold & support Q. The rotation of chuck of lathe machine
((A))Cutting tool is due to
((B))Chuck key ((A))Crank shaft
((C))Coolant pipe ((B))Counter shaft
((D))Work piece ((C))Main shaft
((E))A ((D))None of above
((F)) ((E))D
((F))
Q. The spindle shaft of lathe machine Q. The carriage assembly of a lathe
drives machine gives movement to
((A))Chuck ((A))Chuck
((B))Carriage ((B))Cutting tool
((C))Tail stock ((C))Tail stock
((D))Electric motor ((D))Electric motor
((E))A ((E))B
((F)) ((F))

Q. The spindle shaft of lathe machine Q. The carriage assembly of a lathe


drives machine gives movement to
((A))Electric motor ((A))Chuck
((B))Carriage ((B))Electric motor
((C))Tail stock ((C))Tail stock
((D))None of above ((D))None of above
((E))D ((E))D
((F)) ((F))

Q. The tail stock of a lathe machine gives


Q. The movement of cutting tool on lathe movement to
machine is due to ((A))Chuck
((A))Chuck ((B))Cutting tool
((B))Electric motor ((C))Carriage assembly
((C))Bed ((D))Electric motor
((D))Carriage assembly ((E))B
((E))D ((F))
((F))
Q. The rotation of workpiece on lathe
Q. The movement of cutting tool on lathe machine is due to
machine is due to ((A))Crank shaft
((A))Chuck ((B))Counter shaft
((B))Electric motor ((C))Spindle shaft
((C))Bed ((D))Main shaft
((D))None of above ((E))C
((E))D ((F))
((F))
Q. The rotation of workpiece on lathe
Q. The movement of cutting tool on lathe machine is due to
machine is due to ((A))Crank shaft
((A)) Chuck ((B))Counter shaft
((B)) Electric motor ((C))Main shaft
((C)) Bed ((D))None of above
((D)) Tail stock ((E))D
((E)) D ((F))
((F))
Q. The spindle shaft of lathe machine ((A))To support spindle only
gives rotation to ((B))To support electric motor only
((A))Work piece ((C))To support, both spindle & electric
((B))Cutting tool motor
((C))Tail stock ((D))None of above
((D))Electric motor ((E))D
((E))A ((F))
((F))
Q. Carriage is mounted on the lathe bed &
Q. The spindle shaft of lathe machine proves motion to
gives rotation to ((A))Work piece
((A))Electric motor ((B))Cutting tool
((B))Cutting tool ((C))Coolant
((C))Tail stock ((D))Electric motor
((D))None of above ((E))B
((E))D ((F))

Q. In a lathe machine, power transmission Q. The live center of lathe machine is


from electric motor to the spindle shaft is ((A))Carriage center
through ((B))Tail stock center
((A))A flat belt drive ((C))Chuck center
((B))A V belt drive ((D))Electric motor center
((C))A rope drive ((E))C
((D))A coupling ((F))
((E))B
((F)) Q. The dead center of lathe machine is
((A))Carriage center
Q. A lathe machine consists of a head ((B))Tail stock center
stock ((C))Chuck center
((A))On right se of lathe machine ((D))Electric motor center
((B))On left se of lathe machine ((E))B
((C))At center of lathe machine ((F))
((D))On the bed of lathe machine
((E))B Q. During a metal cutting process on lathe
((F)) machine, the work piece is rotated towards
((A))Head stock
Q. A lathe machine consists of a tail stock ((B))Dead stock
((A))On right se of lathe machine ((C))Away from operator
((B))On left se of lathe machine ((D))None of above
((C))At center of lathe machine ((E))D
((D))On the bed of lathe machine ((F))
((E))A
((F)) Q. Carriage assembly of lathe machine
consists of
Q. The function of lathe bed is ((A))Tool post
((B))Tail stock ((C))Compound rest hand wheel
((C))Chuck ((D))Tail stock hand wheel
((D))Electric motor ((E))D
((E))A ((F))
((F))
((Q))2_Unit4A//The head stock of a lathe
Q. Carriage assembly of lathe machine machine consists of
consists of ((A))Power transmission elements
((A))Electric motor ((B))Power absorbing elements
((B))Tail stock ((C))Power rejecting elements
((C))Chuck ((D))Power producing elements
((D))None of above ((E))A
((E))D
((F)) Q. The operations performed on lathe
machine are
Q. Tool post of lathe machine supports ((A))Taper turning
((A))Dead center ((B))Knurling
((B))Live center ((C))Grooving
((C))Cutting tool ((D))All of above
((D))Work piece ((E))D
((E))C ((F))
((F))
Q. The operations performed on lathe
Q. Tool post of lathe machine supports machine are
((A))Work piece ((A))Thread cutting
((B))Live center ((B))Reaming
((C))Dead center ((C))Drilling
((D))None of above ((D))All of above
((E))C ((E))D
((F)) ((F))

Q. In a lathe machine, the movement of a Q. In a lathe machine, during turning


cutting tool against the rotating work piece operation, the cutting tool is mounted on
is called as ((A))Tail stock
((A))Cutting speed ((B))Chuck
((B))Feed ((C))Tool post
((C))Read ((D))Bed
((D))Greed ((E))C
((E))B ((F))
((F))
Q. In a lathe machine, during chamfering
Q. The feeding of a cutting tool in a lathe operation, the cutting tool is mounted on
machine tail stock is done by ((A))Tail stock
((A))Carriage hand wheel ((B))Tool post
((B))Cross sle hand wheel ((C))Chuck
((D))Bed ((C))Chuck
((E))B ((D))Bed
((F)) ((E))A
((F))
((Q))2_Unit4A//In a lathe machine, during
parting off operation, the cutting tool is Q. In a lathe machine, during centering
mounted on operation, the cutting tool is mounted on
((A))Tail stock ((A))Tail stock
((B))Tool post ((B))Tool post
((C))Chuck ((C))Chuck
((D))Bed ((D))Bed
((E))B ((E))A
((F)) ((F))
Q. In a lathe machine, during grooving Q. In a lathe machine, during drilling
operation, the cutting tool is mounted on operation, the cutting tool is mounted on
((A))Tail stock ((A))Tool post
((B))Tool post ((B))Chuck
((C))Chuck ((C))Bed
((D))Bed ((D))None of the above
((E))B ((E))D
((F)) ((F))
Q. In a lathe machine, during cutting Q. In a lathe machine, during reaming
operation, the cutting tool is mounted on operation, the cutting tool is mounted on
((A))Tail stock ((A))Chuck
((B))Chuck ((B))Tail stock
((C))Bed ((C))Bed
((D))None of the above ((D))Tool post
((E))D ((E))B
((F)) ((F))
Q. In a lathe machine, during boring Q. In a lathe machine, during reaming
operation, the cutting tool is mounted on operation, the cutting tool is mounted on
((A))Tail stock ((A))Chuck
((B))Tool post ((B))Tool post
((C))Chuck ((C))Bed
((D))Bed ((D))None of above
((E))B ((E))D
((F)) ((F))
Q. In a lathe machine, during centering
operation, the cutting tool is mounted on ((Q))2_Unit4A//The quality of job
((A))Tail stock produced on a lathe machine depends on
((B))Tool post ((A))Rotating speed of work piece
((B))Cost of lathe machine
((C))Tail stock C. Drill is rotating and workpiece is
((D))Carriage rotating
((E))A D. Drill is moving and workpiece is
((F)) moving
Ans. B

((Q))2_Unit4A//The quality of job


produced on a lathe machine depends on Q. The material used for frill can be
((A)) Cost of lathe machine A. Plain carbon steel
((B)) Depth of cut of cutting tool B. Stainless steel
((C)) Tail stock C. Cast steel
((D)) Carriage D. High speed steel
((E)) B Ans. D
((F))

UNIT IVB Q. In Drilling Machine, the drill is a


A. Single point cutting tool
B. Two point cutting tool
Q. The process of removing the material
C. Line cutting tool
from the workpiece, in the form of chips,
D. Multipoint cutting tool
by means of cutting tools so as to give
Ans. D
the desired shape and size to the
component is called _____________
Q. In Drilling Machine, the linear motion
A. Metal forming
of drill is called as
B. Surface finishing
A. speed
C. Machining
B. depth of cut
D. (a) or (b)
C. travel
Ans. C
D. feed
Ans. D

Q. ‟_____________'is an example of metal


Q. The end of drill bit is -------------in
cutting process
shape
A. Milling
A. semi-circular
B. Grinding
B. flat
C. Casting
C. conical
D. All the above
D. (b) or (c)
Ans. A
Ans. C

Q. In Drilling Machine, the drill head is


Q. In Drilling Machine,
supported by------------
A. Drill is stationary and workpiece is
A. work table
rotating
B. column
B. Drill is rotating and workpiece is
C. base
stationary
D. chuck
Ans. B A. drilling
B. boring
Q. In Drilling Machine, the chuck is C. counter-boring
mounted on--------------- D. counter-sinking
A. spindle Ans. C
B. column
C. base
D. work table Q. The tool used for making internal
Ans. A threads is called as
A. lead screw
Q. In Drilling Machine, the work table B. screw tool
has-------- C. tap
A. rotary motion about base D. drill
B. up and down motion along the column Ans. C
C. swing about the axis of the column
D. both (b) and (c)
Ans. D Q. Bench drilling machine is also known
as------------,
Q. The drilling head contains A. piller drilling machine
A. work table B. radial drilling machine
B. drive mechanism C. portable drilling machine
C. feed mechanism D. sensitive drilling machine
D. both (b) and (c) Ans. D
Ans. D
Q. Piller drilling machine is also known as,
Q. The following operation cannot be A. Bench drilling machine
performed on drilling machine B. Sensitive drilling machine
A. Tapping C. Upright drilling machine
B. Trepanning D. Radial drilling machine
C. Grooving Ans. C
D. Boring
Ans. C Q. ‟------------‟ drilling machine is the
largest and most versatile of all drilling
machines.
Q. The following is a finishing operation A. Piller
A. Drilling B. Bench
B. Reaming C. Upright
C. Tapping D. Radial
D. Parting Ans. D
Ans. B
Q. In Piller Drilling Machine, the feed is --
-----------
Q. The recess for bolt heads or nut can be A. bench drilling machine
provided by B. sensitive drilling machine
C. upright drilling machine Q. Surfaces to be machined are marked on
D. radial drilling machine the pattern by the
Ans. C A. Black colour
B. Yellow colour
C. Red colour
Q. In Bench Drilling Machine, the cone D. Blue colour
pulley is used for Ans. B
A. transmitting power from electric motor
to spindle
Q. Which of the following process is
B. transmitting power from electric motor
used to manufacture a hexagonal nut
to workpiece
_____________________
C. transmitting motion from electric motor
A. Indexing
is lead screw
B. Grinding
D. transmitting motion from electric motor
C. Turning
to column
D. Reaming
Ans. A
Ans. A

Q. Machine tools ____________


Q. ____________________ process
A. Cut a metal
gives high quality surface finish
B. Provide surface finish
A. Casting
C. Cut a metal and provide surface finish
B. Hot Forging
D. None of the above
C. Machining
Ans. C
D. All of the above
Ans. C
Q. Machine tools can be used to generate
______________ shapes
Q. __________________ is used for
A. All of the below
holding and guiding the tool in
B. Flat
drilling operation
C. Spherical
A. Jig
D. Cylindrical
B. Fixture
Ans. A
C. Templates
D. both (a) and (b)
Q. The hardness of a grinding wheel is Ans. A
determined by the
A. Hardness of abrasive grains
Q. __________________ is used for
B. Ability of the bond to retain abrasives
holding and guiding the tool in
C. Hardness of the bond
grinding operation
D. Ability of the grinding wheel to
A. Jig
penetrate the work piece
B. Fixture
Ans. A
C. Templates
D. both (a) and (b)
Ans. A C. To reduce weight
D. None of the above
Ans. B
Q. When the cutting speed increases, the
power requirement
____________________ Q. .In order to obtain a high surface
A. Increases finish, the machine should
B. Varies randomly _______________
C. Remain constant A. Have vibration of maximum
D. Decreases amplitude
Ans. A B. Have vibration of minimum
amplitude
C. Be free from vibration
Q. _______________________ is used D. None of the above
as cutting fluid for the turning operation Ans. C
on alloy steels
A. C02
B. Kerosene Q. .Drilling is an example of
C. Soluble oil _____________________
D. Sulphurised mineral oil A. Simple cutting
Ans. C B. Orthogonal cutting
C. Oblique cutting
D. None of the above
Q. A grinding wheel gets glazed due to Ans. C
________________
A. Wear of abrasive particles
B. Wear of bond Q. The temperature rise during grinding
C. Cracks can be reduced by
D. None of the above ___________________
Ans. A
A. Increasing chip thickness
B. Decreasing wheel speed and chip
Q. The main cutting edge of a drill that thickness
is formed by intersection of the flank C. Increasing wheel speed
and surface are known as D. Increasing wheel speed and chip
A. shanks thickness
B. Lips Ans. B
C. Webs
D. None of the above
Ans. B Q. Machine tools are classified as per
____________________
A. Purpose and size of chip removal
Q. Flutes are provided on Drill bit for --- B. Power Consumption
- _______________________ C. Size of Machine
A. Easy Insertion D. Cost of Machine
B. Chip removal
Ans. A B. Soldering
C. Brazing
D. None of the above
Ans. A

Q. To remove material in form of


large chips _________________ is Q. Spindle is a __________________
used A. Hollow rotating shaft
A. Welding B. Solid rotating shaft
B. Soldering C. Hollow stationary shaft
C. Brazing D. Solid Stationary shaft
D. None of the above Ans. A
Ans. D

Q. ____________________ is located
Q. To remove material in form of large on the top of the compound post.
chips _________________ is not used A. Cross slide
A. Welding B. Toolpost
B. Soldering C. Tailstock
C. Brazing D. None of the above
D. All of the above Ans. B
Ans. D

Q. __________ is defined as the


Q. To remove material in form of large movement of the tool relative to the
chips _________________ is used workpiece
A. Drilling Machine A. Depth of cut
B. Soldering B. Speed
C. Brazing C. Feed
D. None of the above D. All of the above
Ans. A Ans. C

Q. __________ is defined as the


Q. To remove material in form of movement of the tool relative to the
large chips _________________ is
workpiece
used.
A. Depth of cut
A. Milling Machine B. Speed
B. Soldering C. Feed
C. Brazing D. None of the above
D. None of the above Ans. C
Ans. A

Q. _____________________ invloves
Q. To remove material in form of small production of cylindrical surface
chips _________________ is used. A. Straight turning
A. Grinding Machine
B. Taper turning C. Boring
C. Facing D. Grooving
D. None of the above Ans. D
Ans. A

Q. To produce holes in a solid material


Q. ________________ tool is used __________________ operation is done
in turning operation A. Drilling
A. Turning B. Grinding
B. Drilling C. Welding
C. Boring D. None of the above
D. All of the above Ans. A
Ans. A

Q. During drilling operation, the


Q. ________________ tool is used workpiece __________________
in facing operation A. Rotates
A. Turning B. Reciprocates
B. Drilling C. Oscillates
C. Boring D. None of the above
D. Facing Ans. A
Ans. A

Q. During drilling operation, the tool


Q. Boring is used to machine __________________
______________ surface A. Rotates
A. Internal B. Reciprocates
B. External C. Oscillates
C. Both a & b D. None of the above
D. Neither a or b Ans. A
Ans. A

Q. During drilling operation, the


Q. Chamfering ____________________ workpiece is clamped
A. Removes burrs to__________________
B. Protects ends of workpiece from A. Worktable
being damaged B. Spindle
C. Provides smooth surface C. Chuck
D. All of the above D. All of the above
Ans. B Ans. A

Q. ________________ tool is used in Q. The drill tool is _________________


grooving operation than the workpiece
A. Turning A. Softer
B. Drilling B. Same
C. Harder B. Forging
D. None of the above C. Forming
Ans. C D. All of the above
Ans. A

Q. During drilling operation, material is


removed in the form of Q. The drill head is mounted on
_________________ A. Chips ___________ of the column
B. Burr A. Right side
C. Powder B. Top
D. All of the above C. Left side
Ans. A D. Bottom
Ans. A
Q. The feed handle of the drilling
machine rotates in ______________
Q. Drill is inserted in ____________
direction A. Counter clockwise
A. Column
B. Any
B. Base
C. Clockwise
D. None of the above C. Spindle
Ans. A D. Worktable
Ans. C

Q. After the operation is complete,


the feed handle of the drilling Q. Workpiece is mounted on
machine is rotated in ____________
______________ direction A. Column
A. Counter clockwise B. Base
B. Any C. Spindle
C. Clockwise D. Worktable
D. None of the above Ans. D
Ans. C
Q. In a drilling machine, driving
mechanism is used to drive
Q. During drilling operation, coolant is
_____________________
used to ______________
A. Reduce the cost of drilling A. Column
B. Base
B. Reduce the power consumed
C. Spindle
C. Reduce the heat generated
D. Worktable
D. Reduce the effort of drilling
Ans. A
Ans. C

Q. During the drilling operation, spindle


Q. Base of drilling machine is
__________________
manufactured using _______________
A. Rotates
A. Casting
B. Moves up and down
C. Rotates as well as moves up and Q. ___________________ cannot be
down performed using drilling machine A.
D. None of the above Drilling
Ans. C B. Turning
C. Boring
D. Reaming
Q. During the drilling operation, spindle Ans. B
__________________
A. Rotates
B. Moves up Q. __________________ can be
C. Moves down performed using drilling
D. All of the above machine A. None of the below
Ans. D B. Threading
C. Chamfering
Q. Portable drilling machine operates at D. Knurling
_______________ Ans. A
A. High speeds
B. Low speeds
C. Moderate speeds Q. A drilled hole is finished
using _______________
D. Very low speed
A. Boring
Ans. A
B. Drilling
C. Counter boring
D. Reaming
Q. Upright drilling machine is
Ans. D
_____________ than sensitive drilling
machine
A. Smaller Q. _____________ tool has one cutting
B. Lighter edge
C. Larger A. Boring
D. None of the above B. Drilling
Ans. C C. Reaming
D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q. Spindle of a Upright drilling machine
can operate at _____________ speeds
A. Constant Q. To enlarge limited portion of a hole
B. Variable _______________ operation is done A.
C. only one Boring
D. Can‟t say B. Drilling
Ans. B C. Counter boring
D. Reaming
Ans. C
Q. Tool used in tapping operation is Q. To machine a flat surface,
called ____________ _________________ grinders are
A. Tap used
B. Drill A. Cylindrical
C. Boring bar B. Surface
D. Reamer C. Centreless
Ans. A D. All of the above
Ans. C

Q. ___________________ operation Q. ----------' is not a part of lathe


is done to sharpen knifes machine
A. Turning A. bed
B. Grinding B. carriage
C. Boring C. column
D. Counter-boring D. lead screw
Ans. B Ans. C

Q. ___________________ operation Q. ----------' is a par of lathe machine


is done to sharpen scissors A. headstock
A. Grinding B. tailstock
B. Turning C. carriage
C. Boring D. All the above
D. Counter-boring Ans. D
Ans. A

Q. Turning tool is a '---------'


Q. Grinding machines are used to A. Multipoint cutting tool
___________ B. Three point cutting tool
A. Reduce diameter of shafts C. Line cutting tool
B. Generate holes D. Single point cutting tool
C. Generate threads Ans. D
D. None of the above
Ans. D
Q. Following fig. shows__________
operation on lathe machine.
Q. Grinding machines are used to
___________
A. Reduce diameter of shafts
B. Generate threads
C. Provide surface finish
D. All of the above
Ans. C
A. Concentric turning
B. Eccentric turning A. Chamfering
C. Taper turning B. Taper turning
D. All of the above C. Facing
Ans. B D. None of the above
Ans. A

Q. Following fig. shows__________


operation on lathe machine. Q. Following fig. shows__________
operation on lathe machine.

A. Conical turning
A. Cutting
B. Chamfering
B. Grooving
C. Facing
C. Facing
D. None of the above
D. Turning
Ans. D
Ans. B

Q. Following fig. shows__________


Q. Following fig. shows__________
operation on lathe machine.
operation on lathe machine.
A. Drilling
B. Internal Turning
C. Boring A. Spindle
D. None of the above B. Workpiece
Ans. C C. Shaft
D. Lead Screw
Q. Following fig. shows__________ Ans. D
which machine.
Q. Part shown in the following fig.
is….

A. Lathe
B. Drilling
C. Boring
D. Threading A. Drill
Ans. A B. Carriage
C. Facing Tool
D. Boring Tool
Q. Part shown in the following fig.
Ans. D
is…..
Q. The machine shown in the fig. Q. Knurling tool is.
is….. A. A single point cutting tool
B. Not a cutting tool
C. A pointless cutting tool
D. None of the above
Ans. D

Q. Reamer tool is.


A. A single point cutting tool
B. Not a cutting tool
C. A pointless cutting tool
D. None of the above
Ans. D

A. Turret Room Lathe Q. Turning tool is.


B. Multi Spindle Drilling Machine A. A single point cutting tool
C. Twin Spindle Drilling Machine B. Not a cutting tool
D. Engine Lathe C. A pointless cutting tool
Ans. A D. None of the above
Ans. A
Q. The operation is shown in the
fig.….. Q. Facing tool is.
A. A single point cutting tool
B. Not a cutting tool
C. A pointless cutting tool
D. None of the above
Ans. A

A. Boring Q. shows_____________ operation on


B. Tapping
C. Trepanning
D. Drilling
Ans. C

Q. Drill tool is.


A. A single point cutting tool drilling machine
B. A multipoint cutting tool .
C. A pointless cutting tool A. Drilling
D. Not a cutting tool B. Boring
Ans. B C. Threading
D. Reaming
Ans. D
A. Reaming
B. Counter Boring
C. Threading
Q. ‟shows_____________ operation on D. Counter Sinking
drilling machine. Ans. B

Q. ‟shows ___________operation on
drilling machine.

A. Reaming
B. Boring
C. Threading
D. Both( a) and (b)
Ans. B

Q. ‟shows an operation on drilling


machine.Part C is known as

A. Counter boring
B. Countersinking
C. Spot Facing
D. Reaming
Ans. B
A. Reaming
B. Boring
C. Threading
D. Both( a) and (b)
Ans. B

Q. ‟shows ___________operation on
drilling machine.
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Systems In Mechanical Engineering
(Multiple Choice Questions)

1. In an isolated system, can be transferred between the system and its


surrounding
a. only energy b. only mass
c. both energy and mass d. neither energy nor mass.

2. Which of the following is an extensive property?


a. Volume. b. Pressure
c. Viscosity d. All of the above

3. The extensive properties of a system,


a. are independent of the mass of the system
b. depend upon temperature of the system
c. depend upon the mass of the system
d. none of the above

4. According to Kelvin-Planck statement, it is impossible to construct a device


operating on a cycle which transfers heat from
a. low pressure heat reservoir to high pressure reservoir
b. low temperature heat reservoir to high temperature reservoir
c. high pressure heat reservoir to low pressure reservoir
d. high temperature heat reservoir to low temperature reservoir

5. Which of the following relations is true, for coefficient of performance (C.O.P)?


a. (C.O.P)heat pump – (C.O.P)refrigerator = 1
b. (C.O.P)heat pump – (C.O.P)refrigerator > 1
c. (C.O.P)heat pump – (C.O.P)refrigerator < 1
d. (C.O.P)heat pump – ( C.O.P)refrigerator = 0

6. Which among the following statements are correct?


1. Energy is an extensive property 2. Specific energy is an extensive property
3. Energy is a point function 4. Heat capacity is an extensive property

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a. Statement (1), (2) and (3) b. Statement (1), (3) and (4).
c. Statement (2), (3) and (4) d. Statement (1), (2), (3) and (4)

7. A cyclic heat engine operates between a source temperature of 927 oC and a


sink temperature of 27 oC. What will be the maximum efficiency of the heat
engine?
a. 100 % b. 80 %
c. 75 % d. 70 %

8. PMM2 is the machine which violates


a. Kelvin-Planck statement b. Clausius statement
c. both a. and b. d. none of the above

9. A flat surface can be produced by a lathe machine, if the cutting tool moves

a. parallel to the axis of rotation of workpiece


b. perpendicular to the axis of rotation of workpiece.
c. at an angle of 45°
d. none of the above

10. What is the function of cone pulley drive in lathe machines?


a. Drive the lead screw b. Change the spindle speed.
c. Drive the tail-stock d. All of the above

11. Which of the following is a mechanism for mechanized movements of the car-
riage along longitudinal axis?
a. Cross-slide b. Compound rest
c. Apron. d. Saddle

12. The function of taper turning process is to


a. reduce the diameter of a workpiece along its length.
b. reduce the diameter by removing material about an axis offset from the axis of
workpiece
c. remove the material from end surface of a workpiece
d. all of the above

13. The process of bevelling sharp ends of a workpiece is called as


a. knurling b. grooving
c. facing d. chamfering.

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14. In an isolated system, can be transferred between the system and its
surrounding.
a. only energy b. only mass
c. both energy and mass d. neither energy nor mass.
15. Which of the following energy conversion devices convert heat into work?
a. Electrical generators b. I. C engines.
c. Condensers d. All of the above
16. Smoke tube boilers have large water to steam ratio, hence
a. have high evaporation rates
b. are slow in operations.
c. temperature stresses inducing failure of feed water arrangement are maximum
d. all of the above
17. In four stroke cycle engine, cycle is completed in
a. two strokes of the piston b. two revolutions of the crankshaft.
c. three strokes of the piston d. four revolutions of the crankshaft
18. Determine torque transmitted on the pinion shaft if torque transmitted on
gear shaft is 20 Nm. Consider Gear ratio = 4
a. 8 Nm b. 5 Nm.
c. 80 Nm d. 16 Nm
19. Which of the following statements is/are true for gear drives?
a. They can be used for long centre distances
b. They are used to transmit power between non-intersecting and parallel shafts.
c. They cannot be used for high reduction ratios
d. All of the above
20. In which power transmitting drive polygon effect is observed?
a. Belt drive b. Chain drive.
c. Both a. and b d. None of the above
21. What is meant by gear ratio?
a. The ratio of pinion speed and gear speed.
b. The ratio of number of teeth on pinion and number of teeth on gear
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above

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22. Which gears are used to connect two intersecting shaft axes?
a. Crossed helical gear b. Worm and worm wheel
c. Bevel gears. d. All of the above

23. Which of the following statements are false for belt drives?
1. Belt drive is used in applications having constant speed drive
2. Belt drives can be used at extremely high speeds
3. Belt drives have low power transmitting capacity
4. Belt drives need continuous lubrication
a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 4.

24. Determine power rating of an electric motor if it runs at 1440 r.p.m and line
shaft transmits torque of 75 Nm. Assume Reduction ratio = 1.6
a. 10.36 kW b. 11.3 kW
c. 7.068 kW d. 9.12 kW

25. In simple gear trains the direction of rotation of driven gear is opposite to the
direction of rotation of driving gear only if
a. even number of idler gears are present.
b. odd number of idler gears are present

26. Why is an idler gear used in gear trains?


a. To obtain minimum centre distance between driving and driven shaft
b. To have required direction of rotation.
c. Both a. and b
d. None of the above

27. Match the following Manufacturing processes with their Types and select the
correct option.
1. Metal forming A. Grinding
2. Surface finish B. Rivetting
3. Sheet metal working C. Extrusion
4. Metal joining D. Blanking

a. 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B b. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B.
c. 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C d. 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – C

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28. Which of the following factors reduce strength of casted components?


a. Blow holes b. Gas cavities
c. Non-metallic inclusions d. All of the above.
29. In which of the following processes, material is neither added nor removed
but is deformed into desired shape?
a. Surface finishing process b. Metal forming process.
c. Casting d. Machining
30. What is meant by drag in casting process?
a. Upper part of casting flask b. Molten metal
c. Lower part of casting flask. d. Upper and lower part of casting flask
31. Casting replica used to make the cavity is called as
a. Mould b. Pattern
c. Cope d. None of the above
32. The process of joining similar or dissimilar materials by heating them below
450° C using non-ferrous filler material is called as
a. Brazing b. Soldering.
c. Welding d. All of the above
33. At forging temperature when a compressive force is applied on the material,
it deforms
a. elastically in the direction of least resistance
b. elastically in the direction of maximum resistance
c. plastically in the direction of least resistance.
d. plastically in the direction of maximum resistance
34. Which process squeezes metals into peaks and troughs with plastic
deformation?
a. Grooving b. Knurling.
c. Reaming d. None of the above
35. Which of the following operations is/are performed on a lathe machine?
a. Spot-facing b. Parting.
c. Reaming d. All of the above
36. The process of chamfering the entrance of a drilled hole is known as
a. counter-boring b. counter-sinking.
c. counter-fillet d. trepanning

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37. On drilling machine, which process is known as reaming?


a. Enlargement of existing hole
b. Hole made by removal of metal along the hole circumference
c. Smoothly finishing and accurately sizing a drilled hole.
d. All of the above
38. What is the function of a moderator?
a. Increases the speed of neutrons b. Increases the speed of electrons
c. Reduces the speed of neutrons. d. Reduces the speed of electrons
39. Which of the following protects penstock due to sudden variation of flow or
velocity of water?
a. Anchors b. Forebays
c. Trash rack d. Surge tank.
40. Pump transfers input mechanical energy of an engine, into
a. pressure energy of a fluid b. kinetic energy of a fluid
c. both a. and b. d. none of the above
41. Which of the following statements is/are true for mechanisms?
a. A slider crank mechanism is formed, if one link in slider crank chain is fixed.
b. Three kinematic links joined together forms a mechanism
c. Kinematic chain is a part of kinematic pair
d. All of the above
42. Which body transmits force with negligible deformation?
a. Elastic body b. Resistant body.
c. Deforming body d. All of the above
43. What is the primary function of mechanism?
a. Power transmission b. Power absorption
c. Force transmission d. Motion transmission.
44. What are the number of sliding and turning pairs in a slider crank mechanism?
a. 1 sliding pair and 3 turning pairs.
b. 2 sliding pairs and 2 turning pairs
c. 3 sliding pairs and 1 turning pair
d. None of the above

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45. What is the average temperature required for hot forging of aluminium
alloys?
a. 1100 °C to 1200 °C b. 350 °C to 525 °C.
c. 2000 °C to 2500 °C d. None of the above
46. The clutch used in scooter is
a. Multiplate clutch b. single plate clutch
c. centrifugal clutch d. cone clutch
47. The brake used in most of motorcycle is
a. Internal expanding shoe brake b. block brake
c. band brake d. disk break
48. The power transmitted in belt depends upon
a. Belt velocity b. initial belt tension
c. arc of contact d. all the above
49. The brake used in railway
a. Shoe brake b. block brake
c. band brake d. disk brake
50. The type of spring used in vehicle clutches
a. Helical compression spring b. Belleville spring
c. both a and b d. Helical torsion spring
51. Which is type of brake
a. Mechanical brake b. hydraulic brake
c. electric and magnetic brake d. All of the above
52. The overall cost of disk brake is
a. Low b. high
c. moderate d. None of the above
53. Clutch is of which material
a. Smooth b. hard
c. friction d. All of the above
54. is the prime-mover
a. Electric Motor b. I.C.Engine
c. Steam Engines d. All of the above

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55. is a example of rigid drive.


a. Gear b. Clutch
c. Coupling d. All of the above
56. Gears, cams, brakes, clutches etc. are the examples of
a. rigid
b. flexible
c. All of the above
57. is the example of the rigid drive
a. Belt b. Rope
c. Chain d. None of the above
58. are the element of the chain drive
a. Chain b. Driving pulley
c. Driven pulley d. All of the above
59. The manufacturing cost of is less.
a. Belt drive b. Gear Drive
c. Chain Drive d. All of the above
60. The operating noise of is more
a. Belt drive b. Gear Drive
c. Chain Drive d. All of the above
61. In lubrication is not required
a. Belt drive b. Gear Drive
c. Chain Drive d. All of the above
62. can be used for long centre distances between the shafts.
a. Belt drive b. Gear Drive
c. Chain Drive d. All of the above
63. For effective functioning of chain drive is required
a. Lubrication b. Cleanining
c. Maintenanace d. Covering

64. The toothed wheels of chain drive are called as


a. Gear b. Sprocket
c. Pulley d. All of the above

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65. The chain are made of


a. Leather b. Plastic
c. Steel d. Copper
66. In Drive while transmitting the motion, slipping may occure.
a. Gear b. chain
c. belt d. All of the above
67. Belts are made of
a. Leather b. Fabric Rubber
c. Polyster Fabric d. All of the above
68. The idler pulley causes increase in frictional contact between the
a. Belt and driven pulley b. Belt and Idler pulley
c. Belt and Driving pulley d. All of the above
69. In drivethere is more wear of belt
a. Open Belt b. Open Belt with idler pulley
c. Cross Belt d. Compound Belt
70. require low maintenance
a. V-belts b. Flat belts
c. Circular belts d. All of the above
71. are restricted to single belt usage.
a. V-belts b. Flat belts
c. Circular belts d. All of the above
72. are smooth and quite at low and high speeds.
a. V-belts b. Flat belts
c. Circular belts d. All of the above
73. are more noisy at higher operating speeds.
a. V-belts b. Flat belts
c. Circular belts d. All of the above

74. drive is compact in size.


a. V-belts b. Flat belts
c. Circular belts d. All of the above

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75. Which is positive drive


a. Flat belt drive b. v-belt drive
c. crossed belt drive d. Timing belt
76. Belt ,Rope, Chain etc. are the examples of
a. rigid drive
b. flexible drive
c. None of the above
77. are used to transmit power from one shaft to another shaft by using
pulleys.
a. Belt drives b. Gear Drives
c. Chain Drives d. All of the above
78. are the element of the gear drive
a. Gear
b. Pinion
c. All of the above
79. For less space is required
a. Belt drive b. Gear Drive
c. Chain Drive d. All of the above
80. In precise alignment is very important.
a. Belt drive b. Gear Drive
c. Chain Drive d. All of the above
81. The manufacturing cost of is very high.
a. Belt drive b. Gear Drive
c. Chain Drive d. All of the above
82. Gear train is combination of
a. Two or more gears b. One gear and one pulley
c. One gear and one sprocket d. One pulleyand one sprocket

83. Spur gears are comonly used for in


a. Machine tools b. Watches
c. Automobile Gear Box d. All of the above

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84. Spur gears are


a. Easy to manufacture b. Less Expensive
c. Made in variety of sizes d. All of the above
85. Spur gears are used to transmit motion between shafts.
a. Two perpendicular b. two inclined
c. two parallel d. All of the above
86. Gear ratio is given by
a. np/ng b. dg/dp
c. Zg/Zp d. All of the above
87. Gear ratio is defined as a ratio of speed
a. Gear to pinion
b. Pinion to gear
c. None of the above
88. In gear drive Larger wheel is known as
a. Gear b. Sprocket
c. Pinion d. None of the above
89. In gear drive Smaller wheel is known as
a. Gear b. Sprocket
c. Pinion d. None of the above
90. Both the gears which are engaged, always rotate in direction
a. Same
b. Opposite
c. None of the above
91. Gear drive is used when the distance between the driver and follower is
a. Long b. Very Long
c. Small d. Very Small

92. The links of hoisting chains are of


a. Oval shape
b. Square Shape
c. All of the above

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93. Chain Drives arae commonly used in


a. Bicycles and motor cycles b. Conveyors
c. Road Rollers and rolling mills d. All of the above
94. An element is a .
a. Rigid body b. resistant body
c. free body d. strong body
95. Liquid can be used as a link
a. always. b. sometimes
c. never d. only if density is very high
96. The kinematic link must be a .
a. strong body b. elastic body
c. resistant body. d. all of the above
97. In IC engine is a example of kinematic link.
a. cylinder b. connecting rod
c. piston d. all of the above.
98. Kinematic link is also known as
a. kinematic chain b. element
c. Kinematic pair d. all of the above
99. If two links are welded together, they form
a. kinematic pair b. kinematic chain
c. Machine. d. None of the above
100. A nut and screw can form .
a. kinematic pair b. non kinematic pair
c. a structure. d. a chain.
101. Every mechanism is .
a. kinematic chain b. machine
c. structure d. all of the above
102. mechanism is a kinematic chain with .
a. An ability to transfer power
b. four links.
c. Four links and four kinematic pairs
d. one link fixed.

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103. Every kinematic chain is .


a. not a mechanism b. a mechanism
c. a machine d. a structure
104. In cranks and lever mechanism
a. the length of rotating link is largest
b. length of oscillating link is smallest
c. length of rotating link is smallest
d. length of all links same.
105. In crank and lever mechanism, the lever is also called as,
a. car. b. rocker.
c. coupler. d. B and C
106. the number of inversions of four bar chain are
a. 2. b. 3
c. 5. d. none of the above.
107. The example of machine is
a. clock b. hand pump.
c. shaping machine d. all.
108. In four bar mechanism, the link which can make oscillation called .
a. crank. b. rocker
c. shaft. d. (a) or (b)
109. Kinematic link is also known as
a. kinematic chain b. element
c. Kinematic pair d. all of the above
110. If two links are welded together, they form
a. kinematic pair b. kinematic chain
c. Machine. d. None of the above
111. A nut and screw can form .
a. kinematic pair b. non kinematic pair
c. a structure. d. a chain.
112. Every mechanism is .
a. kinematic chain b. machine
c. structure d. all of the above

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113. mechanism is a kinematic chain with .


a. An ability to transfer power
b. four links.
c. four links and four kinematic pairs
d. one link fixed.
114. The metal is subjected to mechanical working for
a. Refining grain size
b. Reducing original block into desired shape
c. Controlling the direction of flow lines
d. All of these
115. The temperature at which the new grains are formed in the metal is called
a. Lower critical temperature b. Upper critical temperature
c. Eutectic temperature d. Recrystallization temperature
116. The dowels are
a. Wooden nails b. Box nails
c. Wire nails d. None of these
117. Which of the following material can be used for making patterns?
a. Aluminium b. Wax
c. MS d. All of these
118. Aluminum is the best material for making patterns because it is
a. A light in weight b. Easy to work
c. Corrosion resistant d. All of these
119. The purpose of a riser is to
a. Deliver molten metal into the mould cavity
b. Act as a reservoir for the molten metal
c. Feed the molten metal to the casting in order to compensate for the shrinkage
d. Deliver the molten metal from pouring basin to gate
120. Which “term” is not associated with casting process?
a. Gate b. Runner
c. Riser d. Swage

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121. A “die” is used in


a. casting process b. extrusion process
c. forging process d. all of these.
122. Investment casting uses pattern made of
a. wax b. clay
c. metal d. wood
123. In sand mould the upper half of the box is named as
a. Cope b. drag
c. cheek d. none of above
124. “Blanking” is an expression used in
a. sheet metal work b. casting process
c. drawing d. rolling.
125. In drawing operation the metal flows due to
a. ductility b. work hardening
c. plasticity d. shearing
126. Metal forming is the process in which
a. Removal of metal takes place
b. Shaping of metal by forces applied through various dies and tools
c. Some additional materials are joined to the raw material
d. Material addition, through melting and pouring
127. In sheet metal work, metals used are,
a. Galvanised iron b. Brass
c. Copper d. All of these
128. Which of the following is not sheet metal operation,
a. Shearing b. Drawing
c. Turning d. Bending
129. Forging of the metal is
a. Matching process b. metal forming process
c. Joining process d. welding process

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130. Which one of the following is the advantage of forging


a. Good surface finish b. low tooling cost
c. Close tolerance d. improved physical properties
131. The process which takes place below recrystallization temperature is called
as
a. Hot working process b. cold working
c. Casting d. Grinding
132. Hot working process takes place
a. At recrystallization temp. b. below recrystallization temp.
c. Above recrystallization temp. d. none of these
133. Which one is the correct statement about hot working process
a. Surface finish of the product is fine
b. Life of tools, used for hot working is high
c. It is rapid and economical process
d. Tooling and handling cost is less
134. In single V butt welds, the angle between edges is kept about
a. 40-50° b. 50-60°
c. 60-70° d. 70-90°
135. In a welding a flux is used
a. To permit perfect cohesion of metal
b. To remove the oxides of the metal formed at higher temperature
c. Both (a) and (b) above
d. None of above
136. In arc welding current used is
a. AC current of high frequency b. AC current of low frequency
c. DC current d. All of above
137. Welding is the process in which
a. Removal of metal takes place
b. Shaping of metal by forces applied through various dies and tools
c. Two piece of metal sheets are joint by adding the filler material
d. Material addition, through melting and pouring.

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138. Filler material in welding should have


a. same composition as the parent metal to be welded
b. same melting temperature as the parent metal to be welded
c. same composition and same melting point as the parent metal to be welded
d. same composition as of electrode
139. In case of joining processes lowest skill is required for
a. . Brazing b. Soldering
c. Welding d. Both (a) and (b)
140. Brazing process is carried out in the temperature range of
a. 150° - 250° C b. 250° - 450° C
c. 500° - 700° C d. 700° - 900° C
141. The flux in brazing process is used in the form of
a. Solid b. Liquid
c. Gas d. All of above
142. Binding wire used to support the joint for soldering is made of
a. Soft iron b. Aluminum
c. Mild steel d. Copper
143. The strength of joint of soldering as compared to brazing is
a. Strong b. Weak
c. All of Above d. None of above
144. The following is the metal cutting process
a. Shaping b. Grinding
c. Honing d. Lapping
145. In lathe machine the function of bed is
a. To provide sliding surface for carriage
b. To provide sliding surface for tail stock
c. To support tail stock
d. All
146. The machine tools are broadly classified as
a. Metal machine tools and non metal
b. Metal cutting, machine tools and surface finishing machine tools

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c. lathe machine and drilling machine


d. both a and b
147. In lathe machine the tools like drill and reamer are hold by
a. Tool post b. Headstock
c. Spindle d. Tailstock
148. In lathe machine the function of main drive is to
a. To drive an electric motor b. Drive the spindle
c. To change the spindle speed d. Both b and c
149. In lathe machine the mechanism used for mechanized moments of the car-
riage is known as
a. Saddle b. Apron
c. Cross slide d. Compound rest
150. In lathe headstock is on the of the bed
a. Right side b. Left side
c. Middle d. All are wrong
151. In lathe machine feed drive is placed between
a. Head stock and tailstock b. Tailstock and carriage
c. Tool post and tailstock d. Main drive and lead screw
152. In lathe position for mounting workpiece is given by
a. Headstock b. Carriage
c. Bed d. Tailstock
153. Carries cross slide and tool post
a. Carriage b. Saddle
c. Lead screw d. Feed rod
154. Spindle carried by headstock of lathe machine is
a. Solid b. Hollow
c. Semisolid d. None of these
155. In drilling operation on lathe machine
a. Workpiece as well as drill are rotating in same direction
b. Workpiece as well as drill are rotating in opposite direction
c. Workpiece is rotating while drill is not rotating
d. Workpiece is stationary while drill is rotating
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156. Material is removed from the periphery of cylindrical surface in


a. Turning b. Facing
c. Drilling d. Knurling
157. the chamfering helps in
a. Material saving
b. Avoiding injuries to the persons handling the finished product
c. Giving aesthetic look to the finished product
d. Both b and c
158. Lead screw is specially useful in
a. Taper turning b. Boring
c. Thread cutting d. Knurling
159. the following operation cannot be performed on lathe machine
a. Drilling b. Boring
c. Milling d. All
160. In turning operation motion of the tool is
a. Linear b. Rotary
c. Stand still d. None
161. In facing operation motion of the tool is
a. Perpendicular to the axis of lathe b. Parallel to the axis of lathe
c. Both a and b d. None
162. The knurling helps in
a. Improving the strength of material
b. Providing a non slip grip on the surface
c. Saving of material
d. Both b and c
163. Beveling the extreme end of the workpiece is also known as
a. Chamfering b. Tapering
c. Shunting d. Shaving
164. Eccentric turning on lathe requires
a. Two jaw chuck b. Three jaw chuck
c. Four jaw chuck d. Eccentric chuck

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165. In drilling machine column


a. Supports the table b. Is made up of steel
c. Is square in shape d. Is separated from the base
166. Feeding mechanism of spindle is located in
a. Column b. Table
c. Bed d. Drill head
167. Rotary motion of motor is given to drill via
a. Gears b. Spindle
c. Chain d. Belt
168. Drill head is mounted on
a. Top of the table b. Bottom of the column
c. Top of the column d. Top of the bed
169. In drilling machine the drill has
a. One type of motion b. Two types of motion
c. Three types of motion d. Four types of motion
170. In drilling machine during operation the workpiece
a. Is rotating b. Is having linear as well as rotary motion
c. Is stationary d. Is having linear motion
171. The drilling head contains
a. Worktable b. Drive mechanism
c. Feed mechanism d. Both b and c
172. The drive mechanism of drilling machine consists of
a. Clutch b. Belt drive
c. Gear box d. B or C
173. In drilling machine the linear motion of the drill is called as
a. Speed b. Depth of cut
c. Travel d. Feed
174. The drill is a
a. Single point cutting tool b. Two point cutting tool
c. Line cutting tool d. Multi point cutting tool

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175. Radial drilling machine has


a. Two spindles b. Single spindle
c. Multi spindle d. None of the above
176. Radial arm in radial drilling machine can swing in
a. 90° b. 360°
c. 180° d. 120°
177. The following operation cannot be performed on drilling machine
a. Tapping b. Trepanning
c. Grooving d. Boring
178. which of the following operations is performed before reaming
a. Boring b. Drilling
c. Grooving d. Tapping
179. End of drilled hole is
a. Flat b. Conical
c. Circular d. Chamfered
180. Size of a drilled hole is increased by
a. Reaming b. Boring
c. Threading d. Pressing
181. The counter sinking operation can be performed on
a. Grinding machine b. Drilling machine
c. Lathe machine d. both b and c
182. Which operation is not done after drilling
a. Tapping b. Boring
c. Counter sinking d. Milling
183. The process of making internal threads in drilled hole is called as
a. Reaming b. Tapping
c. Countersinking d. None of the above
184. Counter boring is done to
a. Enlarge the end of the hole cylindrically
b. Enlarge complete hole

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c. Enlarge middle part of hole


d. None of the above
185. The following operation cannot be carried out on drilling machine
a. Internal threading b. External threading
c. Boring d. Both a and b
186. Reaming is popular for
a. Finishing process b. Done after drilling
c. Speed of the spindle is very less d. All of above
187. Which element does following image represents ?
a. Pressure plate b. Driving plate
c. Friction plate d. All of these

188. A ,B & C represents ?


a. Caliper-Piston-Brake pad b. Hub-Caliper-Brake pad
c. Caliper-hub-Brake pad d. caliper-Rotor-Piston

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189. Which element does following image represents ?

a. Spur gear b. Helical gear


c. Worm gear d. Bevel gear
190. Which element does following image represents ?
a. Bevel gear b. Helical gear
c. Worm gear d. All of these

191. Which element does following image represents ?


a. Spiral gear b. Rack and Pinion
c. Heringe bone gear d. None of these

192. In which direction the last gear will rotate ?


a. Anti-clockwise b. Clockwise
c. both a & b d. none of these

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193. Which element does following image represents ?


a. Flat belt b. Double V-Belt
c. V-Belt d. none of these

194. Which element does following image represents ?


a. Flat belt b. rectangular belt
c. V-Belt d. none of these

195. Which element does following image represents ?


a. Gear drive b. Chain drive
c. V-belt drive d. none of these

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196. Which element does following image represents ?


a. Spur gear b. Helical gear
c. Worm gear d. Bevel gear

197. Which element does following image represents ?


a. V belt b. Flat belt
c. Pulley d. Timing Belt

198. Which element does following image A and B represents respectively?


a. Spur Gear and V- Belt drive b. Spur Gear and Flat- Belt drive
c. Flat- Belt drive and Spur Gear d. Worm Gear and Flat Belts

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199. Which element does following image represents?


a. Simple Gear train b. complex gear train
c. compound gear train d. Epicyclic gear train

200. Which element does following image A and B represents ?

a. Simple Gear train b. complex gear train


c. compound gear train d. Epicyclic gear train
201. What is the Speed of Gear B and C in RPM if Gear A rotates 60 RPM in clock-
wise ?

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a. 120 RPM and 60 RPM Respectively


b. 20 RPM and 120 RPM Respectively
c. 120 RPM and 20 RPM Respectively
d. 180 RPM and 120 RPM Respectively
202. If the Right side Gear B rotates clockwise direction what will be the direction
of rotation for A Gear ?

a. Clockwise b. anticlockwise
c. cannot be specify d. all of the above
203. The temperature indicating instrument in vehicles indicates the tempera-
ture of
a. Engine piston b. Engine cylinder
c. Lubricating oil d. Jacket cooling water.
204. Two general types of tyres are
a. Tube type and tubeless. b. Solid and tubeless
c. Air and pneumatic d. Split rim and drop centre
205. The power actually developed inside the engine cylinder is called as
a. Indicated power. b. Brake power
c. Frictional power d. None of these
206. The advantage of a tubeless tyre over tube type tyre is
a. Slow air leakage b. Better fuel efficiency
c. Less chances of running flat d. All of these.

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207. In a single dry plate clutch, torsional vibrations are absorbed by


a. Coil springs known as torsional springs.
b. Cushion springs
c. Central hub
d. Clutch pedal
208. The battery is an electrochemical device, which means battery
a. Makes chemicals by mechanical means
b. Uses chemical action to provide electricity.
c. Has curved plates instead of flat plates
d. Does not use an electrolyte
209. The calorific value of Diesel is about
a. 36.5 MJ/kg b. 38.5 MJ/kg
c. 42.5 MJ/kg. d. 45.5 MJ/kg
210. The correct flow of power through the drive train is
a. Engine drive shafts, clutch, main shaft, counter shaft, final driven gear, wheels
b. Engine clutch, main shaft, counter shaft, final driven gear, drive shafts, wheels.
c. Engine clutch, counter shaft, main shaft, final driven gear, drive shafts, wheels
d. Engine main shaft, counter shaft, clutch, final driven gear, drive shafts, wheels

211. The calorific value of petrol is about


a. 36.5-38.5 MJ/kg b. 39.4-42.5 MJ/kg
c. 42.7-43.5 MJ/kg d. 45.5-47 MJ/kg
212. The coefficient of friction for the clutch facing is approximately
a. 0.1 b. 0.4.
c. 0.8 d. 1.2
213. The stroke of an engine is the
a. Volume of the cylinder b. Length of the connecting rod
c. Internal diameter of the cylinder d. Distance between T.D.C. and B.D.C.
214. In petrol engines, during suction stroke, is drawn in the cylinder
a. Air and fuel. b. Only fuel
c. Only air d. None of these

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215. The capacity of a battery is usually expressed in terms of


a. Volts b. Amperes
c. Weight d. Ampere hours.
216. The most commonly used power plant in automobiles is
a. Gas turbine b. I.C. engine.
c. Battery d. None of these
217. In a square type engine
a. Geometrical shape is square
b. Diameter and length of piston are same
c. Two cylinders are placed horizontal and two vertical
d. Stroke length and cylinder bore are same.
218. The path taken by intake air is
a. Carburettor (or throttle body) air cleaner intake manifold intake ports cylinders
b. Air cleaner carburettor (or throttle body) intake ports intake manifold cylinders
c. Air cleaner intake manifold carburettor (or throttle body) intake ports cylinders
d. Air cleaner carburettor (or throttle body) intake manifold intake ports cylinders.
219. If the air-fuel mixture ignites before the spark takes place at spark plug, the
condition is called
a. Detonation b. Ignition
c. Pre-ignition. d. Rumble
220. The instrument used to check specific gravity of acid in a battery is
a. Hydrometer. b. Hygrometer
c. Anemometer d. Multimeter
221. The engine oil viscosity is defined by ratings.
a. Automatic transmission fluid (ATF)
b. Society of automotive engineers (SAE).
c. Gross vehicle weight (GVW)
d. American petroleum institute (API)
222. The vehicle ride will be comfortable if
a. Unsprung mass is kept minimum. b. Sprang mass is kept minimum
c. Vehicle mass is kept minimum d. All of these

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223. When the brake pedal free play is less than the specified value, then the
a. Brake drags.
b. Brake fades
c. Vapour locking occurs in the brake lines
d. Antilock braking system malfunctions
224. The acid used in automobile battery is
a. Hydrochloric acid b. Hydrofluoric acid
c. Nitric acid d. Sulphuric acid.
225. A four cylinder engine has a capacity of 2.4 litres. The swept volume of one
cylinder is
a. 400 cm³ b. 600 cm³.
c. 1200 cm³ d. 2400 cm³
226. For the same maximum pressure and temperature
a. Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle.
b. Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
c. Both Otto cycle and Diesel cycle are equally efficient
d. None of the above
227. The petrol engines are also known as
a. Spark ignition (S.I.) engines. b. Compression ignition (C.I.) engines
c. Steam engines d. None of these
228. The compression ratio of a petrol engine is nearly
a. 4:1 b. 8:1.
c. 15:1 d. 20:1
229. The component in the radiator of an automobile that increases the boiling
point of water is
a. Drain plug b. Water jacket
c. Vacuum valve d. Pressure cap.
230. An engine has a clearance volume of 100 cm³ and a swept volume of 800 cm³.
The compression ratio is
a. 7 : 1 b. 8 : 1
c. 9 : 1 d. 10 : 1

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231. If the engine coolant leaks into the engine oil, then engine oil
a. Appears milky. b. Become foamy
c. Turns black d. None of these
232. A clutch is usually designed to transmit maximum torque which is
a. Equal to the maximum engine torque
b. 80% of the maximum engine torque
c. 150% of the maximum engine torque.
d. None of these
233. In a four stroke engine for each crankshaft revolution, the camshaft revolves
a. One half turn. b. One turn
c. Two turns d. Four turn
234. During braking, the brake shoe is moved outward to force the lining against the
a. Wheel piston or cylinder b. Anchor pin
c. Brake drum. d. Wheel rim or axle
235 The basic purpose of tyres is to
a. Grip the road and provide good traction.
b. Substitute for springs
c. Act as brake
d. None of these
236. In Diesel engines, during suction stroke, is drawn in the cylinder.
a. Air and fuel b. Only fuel
c. Only air. d. None of these
237. The clutch is located between the transmission and the
a. Engine. b. Rear axle
c. Propeller shaft d. Differentia
238. In a ventilated disc brake
a. A duct directs air towards the caliper for cooling while the vehicle is moving
b. Caliper is covered with cooling fins
c. Disc contains many small holes for optimum cooling performance
d. Disc contains radial vanes between its rubbing surfaces for optimum cooling
performance.

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239. The size of engine cylinder is referred in terms of its


a. Diameter and bore b. Displacement and efficiency
c. Bore and stroke. d. Bore and length
240. The connecting rod connects the piston and the
a. Cylinder head b. Cylinder block
c. Camshaft d. Crankshaft.
241. The main function of the brake fluid is
a. Lubrication
b. Power transmission.
c. Cooling
d. None of these
242. The compression ratio for Diesel engines usually lies in the range of
a. 6-10 b. 10-15
c. 15-25. d. 25-40
243. In a forced feed lubrication system, the device used to guard against exces-
sive oil pressure, is known as
a. Release chamber b. Balancer
c. Relief valve. d. Stop valve
244. The natural gas is compressed in a CNG cylinder at a pressure of
a. 200 bar. b. 220 bar
c. 250 bar d. 300 bar
245. The main task of a battery in automobiles is to
a. Supply electricity to the alternator
b. Act as a reservoir or stabilizer of electricity
c. Supply electricity to the vehicle’s electrical system at all times while the engine is
running
d. Supply a large amount of power to turn the starter motor when the engine is
being started.
246. The self ignition temperature of Diesel as compared to petrol is
a. Higher b. Lower.
c. Same d. Depends on fuel quality

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247. The main purpose of an engine’s air cleaner is that it


a. Controls the engine’s air intake volume
b. Reduces the engine’s air intake noise
c. Prevents rain water from entering the engine
d. Prevents dust and other foreign matter from entering the engine.
248. The device for smoothening out the power impulses from the engine is called
a. Clutch b. Differential
c. Flywheel. d. Torque converter
249. The main function of a master cylinder is to
a. Adjust the extent of brake pedal free play
b. Boost the force applied to brake pedal
c. Convert brake pedal force into hydraulic pressure.
d. Ensure that all the wheel brakes are supplied with the same amount of fluid
pressure
250. The sequence in which the force is transmitted through a brake system when
the brake pedal is depressed is
a. Brake pedal, master cylinder, brake lines, vacuum servo mechanism, brake pads
b. Brake pedal, vacuum servo mechanism, master cylinder, brake lines, brake pads.
c. Brake pedal, master cylinder, vacuum servo mechanism, brake lines, brake pads
d. Brake pedal, brake lines, vacuum servo mechanism, master cylinder, brake pads
251. The basic purpose of a four wheel drive (4WD) system is that it
a. Delivers improved cornering on dry road surfaces
b. Eliminates the need of snow tyres, tyre chains, etc.
c. Ensures effective transmission of engine torque to all four wheels, even on slip-
pery road surfaces.
d. Ensures that effective braking can be performed, even on slippery surfaces
252. The basic characteristics of a brake fluid is
a. A high boiling point
b. Low viscosity
c. Compatibility with rubber and metal parts
d. All of these.

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253. The function of a radiator fan in the cooling system is that


a. It blows air through the radiator when necessary.
b. It is turned by wind force as the vehicle moves forward, and its rotation drives
the water pump
c. It cools the engine by blowing air onto the cylinder block
d. It draws heat out of the engine compartment
254. Instead of valves, the ports are used in case of
a. Four stroke I.C. engines
b. Two stroke I.C. engines.
c. V6 engines
d. None of these
255. The order in which effort applied to the steering wheel is transferred to the
front wheel is
a. Steering wheel, steering gearbox, steering shaft, tie rod, steering knuckle, front
wheels
b. Steering wheel, steering shaft, steering gearbox, tie rod, steering knuckle, front
wheels.
c. Steering wheel, steering shaft, steering gearbox, steering knuckle, tie rod, front
wheels
d. Steering wheel, tie rod, steering gearbox, steering shaft, steering knuckle, front
wheels
256. Damper is also known as
a. Shock absorber. b. Torsion bar
c. Spring d. Radius rod
257. The mechanical efficiency (ηm) of an I.C. engine is equal to (where I.P. = Indi-
cated power, B.P. = Brake power and F.P. = Frictional power)
a. I.P/B.P. b. B.P/I.P.
c. B.P/F.P. d. F.P/B.P.
258. During suction stroke, the inside pressure of cylinder is
a. More than the atmospheric pressure
b. Less than the atmospheric pressure.
c. Equal to the atmospheric pressure
d. None of these

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259. The lubrication oil flow in an engine is in the order as


a. Oil strainer, oil pump, relief valve, oil filter, cylinder block, cylinder head and oil
pan.
b. Oil pump, oil strainer, relief valve, oil filter, cylinder block, cylinder head and oil
pan
c. Oil strainer, oil filter, relief valve, oil pump, cylinder block, cylinder head and oil
pan
d. Oil strainer, oil pump, relief valve, oil filter, cylinder head, cylinder block and oil
pan
260. Which of the following is not an automobile?
a. Motor cycle b. Passenger car
c. Aeroplane. d. Truck
261. The ignition in a spark ignition engine takes place when the piston is
a. Exactly at the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
b. Approaching the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke.
c. Leaving the T.D.C. position on its compression stroke
d. Approaching the T.D.C position on its exhaust stroke
262. The rolling resistance is because of the friction between the
a. Wheel rim and tyre b. Tyre and the road surface.
c. Wheel rim and road surface d. None of these
263. When a gear box has four forward speeds and one reverse speed, it is said to
be a
a. 3-speed gear box b. 4-speed gear box.
c. 5-speed gear box d. 6-speed gear box
264. When the piston is at T.D.C., the volume above the piston in the combustion cham-
ber is the
a. Clearance volume. b. Cylinder volume
c. Exhaust volume d. None of these
265. The Diesel engine works on
a. Otto cycle b. Carnot cycle
c. Diesel cycle. d. Rankine cycle
266. The indicated power of a four stroke engine (in watts) is equal to (where P =

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Mean effective pressure in N/m², L = Length of stroke in metres, A = Cross-


sectional area of the piston in m², and N = Speed of the engine in revolutions
per second (r.p.s)
a. P.L.A.N/2. b. P.L.A.N
c. 2 × P.L.A.N d. P.L.A.N/4
267. The Diesel engines are also known as
a. Spark ignition (S.I.) engines b. Compression ignition (C.I.) engines.
c. Steam engines d. None of these
268. If a tyre is designated as 175/65 R-14 82-S, then the aspect ratio for the tyre is
a. 175 b. 65.
c. 14 d. 82
269. The firing order for an inline four cylinder I.C. engine is
a. 1-2-3-4 b. 1-3-4-2.
c. 1-2-4-3 d. 1-3-2-4
270. The advantage of the fuel injection system over the carburettor system is
a. Improved fuel efficiency b. Improved emission
c. Improved power output d. All of these.
271. The brake pedal during ABS operation
a. Is pushed upward forcefully
b. Pedal stroke becomes longer
c. Transmits slight kickback to the driver’s foot.
d. All of the above
272. The function of a connecting rod is
a. To turn the flywheel
b. To drive the drive plate
c. To drive the fuel pump
d. To transmit motion of the piston to the crankshaft.
273. The cam shaft in an engine is always mounted
a. Parallel to the crankshaft. b. Perpendicular to the crankshaft
c. Inclined to the crankshaft d. None of these

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274. The sequence order of events in a four stroke engine is


a. Suction exhaust power compression
b. Suction power compression exhaust
c. Suction compression power exhaust.
d. Exhaust compression power suction
275. Which of the following is not a part of the chassis?
a. Wheels b. Front axle
c. Steering system d. Seats.
276. The component that is responsible for converting the rotation of the steering
wheel into lateral motion is the
a. Steering wheel b. Steering shaft
c. Steering gearbox. d. Tie rod
277. The function of anti-lock brake system (ABS) is that is
a. Reduces the stopping distance
b. Minimizes the brake fade
c. Maintains directional control during braking by preventing the wheels from
locking.
d. Prevents nose dives during braking and thereby postpones locking of the wheels
278. In a Diesel engine, the fuel is ignited by
a. An electric spark b. The heat of compression.
c. The hot exhaust d. None of these

279. In a four cylinder inline engine, the number of firing strokes in one revolution
of the crank is
a. 1 b. 2
c. 3 d. 4
280. Suction Takes Place at of Centrifugal Pump
a. Eye of impeller. b. Casing
c. Delivery end d. Sump
281. Photocopier machine works on principle of
a. Photodiode Effect b. Photoconductivity.
c. Seebeck Effect d. Electromeric Effect

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282. Springs are used in


a. Shock absorber b. Cam & Follower
c. Clutch d. all of the above.
283. Match the Pair
A. Ceiling Fan 1. if Current carrying conductor placed in
Magnetic field, starts to rotates
B. Chimney 2. 
Powerful fan exhausts the gases,
smokes to outside
C. Reciprocating Pump 3. Pushing of liquid by piston in cylinder
D. Specification of Machine 4. Precise requirement or detail descrip-
tion of Process
a. A-1 B-2 C-4 D-3 b. A-1 B-2 C-3 D-4.
c. A-2 B-1 C-3 D-4 d. A-4 B-3 C-2 D-1
284. G-code in case CNC machine G00 generally represents
a. Linear interpolation b. Exact Stop
c. Positioning at rapid speed. d. none of the above
285. Which of the following represents Passive safety in case of automobiles
a. ABS b. Seat Belts
c. Air bags d. both b & c.
286. Which of the following represents Active safety in case of automobiles
a. ABS. b. Seat Belts
c. Air bags d. both b & c
287. Identify which of the following is incorrect statement
1. Clutch is Placed between Engine and Gear box
2. Function of steering system is to rotary movement of steering wheel into angu-
lar turn of front wheel
3. Radiator is places in front of vehicle which cools Hot coolant coming from en-
gine and send it back to engine
4. 
Disc brakes transmit power from engine to gear box by connecting them
together
a. 1 is incorrect b. 2 & 3 are incorrect
c. 4 is incorrect. d. 2 is incorrect

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288. Cars, jeeps are example of


a. Light Motor Vehicles. b. Heavy Transport vehicles
c. Special Purpose vehicles d. all of above
289. A device which converts kinetic and pressure energy of water into mechani-
cal work.
a. Pump b. compressor
c. turbine. d. I.C. Engines
290. Which of the following is example of High Grade energy
a. Electrical Energy b. Chemical Energy
c. both a&b. d. Heat Energy
291. In Fuel cell electrolyte used can be
a. H2So4 Acid b. KOH Alkali
c. a or b. d. none of them
292. Fuel cell consist of
a. Anode b. cathode
c. electrolyte d. All of above.
293. Heat derived from steam or water from internal heat of earth is
a. Wind energy b. geothermal energy.
c. hydro energy d. nuclear energy
294. A device which converts light energy directly into electricity by photovoltaic
effect is
a. Hydrogen Fuel Cell b. Wind Turbine
c. Nuclear reactor d. Solar Cell.
295. Match the Following:
1. Motor A. Door Locks
2. Valves B. Water Tap
3. Gears C. Watches
4. Solar Energy D. Water Heater
5. Chain- Sprocket E. Bicycle
6. Springs F. Washing Machine
a. 1-A 2-B 3-C 4-D 5-E 6-F b. 1-F 2-B 3-C 4-D 5-E 6-A.
c. 1-F 2-C 3-B 4-D 5-E 6-A d. 1-F 2-C 3-B 4-E 5-D 6-A

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296. Electric Motor is used in which of the following application-


a. Fan b. Washing Machine
c. Mixer/Grinder d. all of the above.
297. What is Unit of Refrigeration is
a. Ton of refrigeration TR. b. COP
c. Degree Kelvin d. Joule/Sec
298. Which one of the following is not machining operations:
a. Turning b. Drilling
c. Milling d. Grinding.
299. Which one of the following is machining operations:
a. Shaping and planing b. Milling
c. boring d. All of the above.
300. The connecting rods of IC engines are manufactured using the process of

a. extrusion b. drop forging.


c. rolling d. spinning
301. Fig. represents
a. facing b. turning.
c. deep drawing d. Parting

302. Fig represents operation


a. Reaming b. Facing
c. Counter boring d. Drilling.

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303. Fig represents operation


a. Turning b. Facing
c. Counter sinking d. Groving

304. Fig represents tools


a. Turning and facing b. Turning and parting.
c. Counter sinking and boring d. Grooving and turning

305. Fig represents tools


a. Turning b. Contour turning.
c. Contour sinking d. step turning

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306. Fig represents Operation


a. Turning b. Facing
c. Chamfering. d. parting

307. Fig represents Operation


a. Turning b. Grooving.
c. Chamfering d. Facing

308. Fig represents Operation


a. Turning b. Threading.
c. step turning d. Parting

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309. Fig represents


a. Chuck. b. tool post
c. Dead centre d. Cross Slide

310. this represents


a. Depth of cut. b. Feed
c. speed ratio d. Reduction ratio

311. this represents


a. Depth of cut b. Feed rate
c. Spindle speed. d. Reduction ratio

312. This represents


a. Depth of cut b. Feed rate
c. Taper angle. d. Reduction ratio

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313. Fig represents which machine


a. drilling b. Milling
c. Shaper d. Lathe.

314. Fig represents Operation


a. knurling. b. Threading
c. step turning d. Cut off

315. Fig represents Operation


a. Taper Turning. b. Facing
c. Step turning d. Counter turning

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316. Fig represents which machine


a. Turning machine b. centre lathe.
c. Shaper d. Milling

317. Fig represents


a. Radial Drilling b. Drilling machine
c. Portable drilling machine. d. turning tool

318. Fig represents


a. Reamer b. Drill.
c. cutting tool d. turning tool

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319. Fig represents machine


a. Turning machine b. centre lathe
c. Radial Arm Drilling d. Bench Drilling machine.

320. Fig represents Operation


a. Drilling b. counter boring
c. Reaming. d. Counter turning

321. Fig represents which Operation


a. Drilling b. counter boring.
c. Reaming d. Counter turning

322. Fig represents which Operation


a. Turning b. counter boring
c. Reaming d. Boring.

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323. Fig represents which Operation


a. Turning b. counter boring
c. counter Sinking. d. Boring

    

324. Fig represents which Operation


a. Turning b. counter boring
c. threading d. Tapping.

     

325. Fig represents which Operation


a. Turning b. counter boring
c. Drilling. d. Boring

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326. Fig represents which Operation


a. Turning b. Eccentric Turning.
c. Drilling d. Step Turning

  

327. Fig represents


a. sensitive Drilling b. Radial Arm Drilling.
c. Bench Drilling d. Shaper

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Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions

Unit 1– Introduction of energy sources and its conversion

1. Hydropower is a 8. Biogas is produced by


conventional form of energy anaerobic decomposition of organic
a. True b. false waste by suitable bacteria.
a. True b. False.
2. Which of the following is 9. The energy which is not
not the renewable form of energy? derived from the sun is
a. Solar a. Biomass
b. Hydropower b. Fossil fuels
c. Tidal c. Nuclear energy
d. All of the above. d. Geothermal energy.
e. None of the above. 10. Bio fuels can be produced
from
3. A source of energy is a. Biomass
known as renewable source b. Agriculture waste
a. Fossil fuel c. Municipal garbage
b. Nuclear d. All of the above.
c. CNG 11. The function of steam
d. All of the above. nozzles is to convert the pressure
energy into
4. Which of the following a. Kinetic energy
energy is converted into electricity b. Mechanical energy
in a hydro power plant? c. Thermal energy
a. Nuclear energy d. Power
b. Potential energy of water 12. Steam turbine is used to
c. Thermal energy produce ____ energy by expanding
d. All of the above. high pressure steam.
e. None of the above. a. Kinetic
b. Mechanical
5. Solar energy is preferred c. Heat
because it is d. Power
a. Free from pollution 13. A generator converts the
b. Available in abundance a. Mechanical energy into
c. No fuel transportation electrical energy.
d. Can be converted in b. Thermal energy into
power electrical energy
e. All of the above. c. Electrical energy into
6. A solar collector is a mechanical energy.
device for collecting solar radiation d. Pressure energy into
on a surface called absorber and Kinetic energy
transfer this energy to another fluid.
a. True b. False 14. The control rods are used
7. The function of a dam / to regulate the energy released by
reservoir in hydro power plant is to absorbing.
provide high working head. a. Neutrons
a. True b. False b. Heat
Sinhgad College of Engineering, Pune-41 Page 1
Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions

c. Coolant them.
d. Nuclear energy
15. In hydro electrical plants 18. Dam is used to increase
the …. energy of water is used to the storage capacity of.. … and
move hydraulic turbine. increase the working.. ... of the
a. Potential Energy plant.
b. Kinetic energy
c. Both option a and b. 19. Function of surge tank is
protect the …. due to sudden
16. Function of a boiler is to variations of flow of water.
generate ….. on expense of heat
energy supplied.
20. Hydraulic turbines are
17. Moderators in a nuclear used to convert the ……..energy of
reactor are used to reduce the speed water into.… energy
of fast moving neutrons without ..…

SOLUTION

Q. No. Solution Q. No. Solution


1 b 11 a
2 e 12 b
3 b 13 a
4 b 14 a
5 e 15 a
6 True 16 Steam
7 True 17 Absorbing
8 True 18 Reservoir, Head
9 c 19 penstock
10 d 20 Kinetic, Mechanical

Sinhgad College of Engineering, Pune-41 Page 2


Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions

Unit II– Introduction to


Thermal Engineering 7. An internal combustion engine is one in
which:
1. Zeroth law of thermodynamics forms a. Combustion of fuel takes place
the basis of measurement of the inside the cylinder
following: b. Chemical energy is converted into
a. Pressure mechanical energy
b. Temperature c. A part of chemical energy
c. Work released during combustion has to
d. Heat Exchanger be released to atmosphere
d. All the above
2. An isolated system is the one which
a. Allows transfer of energy and mass 8. In four stroke petrol engine during the
across its boundaries suction stroke,
b. Allows transfer mass only across its a. Only air is sucked
boundaries b. Mixture of fuel and air is sucked
c. Allows transfer of energy across its c. Only fuel is sucked
boundaries only d. None of the above
d. Does not allow neither transfer of
energy not mass across its boundary.
9. In open system:
3. Prime mover is a device which a. Mass content of the system
converts natural energy into remains same.
a. True b. Transfer of mass and/or energy
b. False takes place
c. There is only mass transfer even
4. A refrigerator and a heat pump through there may not be any
operate between the same energy transfer.
temperature limits COP of heat d. There is only energy transfer.
pump is 4.The COP of refrigerator
will be : 10. Fire tube boilers are not suitable for
a. 4 large power plants.
b. 5 a. True
c. 3 b. False
d. None of the above
11. Convective thermal resistance is given
5. Which one is not fire tube boiler as ------
a. Lancashire a. A/h
b. Cochron b. h/A
c. Babcok-Wilcox c. h.A
d. None of the above d. 1/hA

6. The suction compression expansion and 12. Thermal resistance to heat flow by
exhaust strokes of 4 strokes engine are conduction is
completed in x number of revolutions of a. k/Ax
crankshaft where the value of x is b. kx/A
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 c. x/kA

SinhgadCollegeofEngineering,Pune-41 Page 1
Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions

d. None of the above form the body which is cooled


d. all of the mentioned

13. Units of thermal conductivity are----. 19. Coefficient of performance(COP) is


a. W/mK defined as
b. kW/m2K a. heat leakage/work input
c. Wm/K b. work input/heat leakage
d. None of the above c. latent heat of condensation/work input
d. work input/latent heat of condensation
14. Petrol Engine is
a. Compression ignition engine
b. Spark Ignition engine 20. Which device maintains a body at a
c. Mixed ignition engine temperature higher than the temperature
d. All of the above of the surroundings?
15. Which of the following is an extensive a. PMM1
property? b. PMM2
a. Volume c. refrigerator
b. Pressure d. heat pump
c. Viscosity
d. All of the above 21. In a heat pump, there is heat leakage
16. According to Kelvin-Planck statement, it from the body to the surroundings.
is impossible to construct a device a. true
operating on a cycle which transfers heat b. false
from ____
22. What is the relation between COP of
a. low pressure heat reservoir to high heat pump and refrigerator?
pressure reservoir a. COP of pump=COP of refrigerator – 1
b. low temperature heat reservoir to high b. COP of pump=COP of refrigerator +
temperature reservoir 1
c. high pressure heat reservoir to low c. COP of pump=COP of refrigerator – 2
pressure reservoir d. COP of pump=COP of refrigerator +
d. high temperature heat reservoir to low 2
temperature reservoir
23. Kelvin-Planck’s and Clausius’
17. Which device maintains a body at a statements are
temperature lower than the temperature a. not connected to each other
of the surroundings? b. virtually two parallel statements of
a. PMM1 second law
b. PMM2 c. violation of one doesn’t violate the
c. refrigerator other
d. heat pump d. none of the mentioned

18. What does a refrigerant do? 24. If one of the Kelvin-Planck’s or


a. absorbs the heat leakage into body Clausius’ statement is violated, then
from surroundings other is also violated.
b. evaporates in the evaporator a. true
c. absorbs latent heat of vaporization b. false

SinhgadCollegeofEngineering,Pune-41 Page 2
Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions

d. None of these
25. The transfer of heat between two bodies
in direct contact is called 31. A two stroke cycle engine gives
a. radiation _____________ the number of power
b. convection strokes as compared to the four stroke
c. conduction cycle engine, at the same engine speed.
d. none of the mentioned a. half
b. same
26. The transfer of heat between a wall and c. double
a fluid system in motion is called d. four times
a. radiation
b. convection Q. No. Solution Q. No. Solution
c. conduction 1 b 21 a
d. none of the mentioned 2 d 22 b
3 a 23 b
27. The working cycle in case of four stroke 4 c 24 a
engine is completed in following number 5 c 25 c
of revolutions of crankshaft
6 b 26 b
a. 1/2
b. 1 7 d 27 c
c. 2 8 b 28 d
d. 4 9 b 29 a
e. 8 10 a 30 a
28. The Stefan Boltzman law states that 11 d 31 c
a. E α T 12 c
b. E α T2 13 a
14 b
c. E α T3 15 a
d. E α T4 16 b
17 c
29. The body which absorbs all radiations
incident upon it, is called as 18 d
a. Black body 19 a
20 d
b. White body
c. Opaque body
d. Transparent body
30. The process of heat transfer from one
particle of the body to another without
actual motion of the particle is called
a. Radiation
b. Conduction
c. Convection

SinhgadCollegeofEngineering,Pune-41 Page 3
Strength of Mechanical Engineering

Unit 5 -Introduction to Manufacturing

1. Which of the following is manufacturing a. reduce the diameter of a work piece along
process? its length
a. Forging b. reduce the diameter by removing material
b. Welding about an axis offset from the axis of work
c. Casting piece
d. All of the above c. remove the material from end surface of a
work piece
2. Which of the following is not a part of d. All of the above
carriage of the centre lathe?
a. Tool post 8. The process of removing sharp ends of a
b. Apron work piece is called as
c. Compound rest a. Knurling
d. Gear box controls b. Grooving
c. Facing
3. The centre lathes receive their power through d. Chamfering
a. Headstock
b. Tailstock 9. What is meant by drag in casting process?
c. Both a & b a. Upper part of casting flask
d. None of the above b. Molten metal
c. Lower part of casting flask
4. A flat surface can be produced by a lathe d. Upper & lower part of casting flask
machine, if the cutting tool moves
a. parallel to the axis of rotation of workpiece 10. Casting replica used to make the cavity is
b. at an angle of 450 called as
c. perpendicular to the axis of rotation of a. Mould
work piece b. Pattern
d. None of the above c. Cope
d. None of the above
5. What is the function of pulley drive in lathe
machines 11. The process of joining similar or dissimilar
a. Drive the lead screw materials by heating them below 4500C using
b. Change the spindle speed non-ferrous filler material is called as
c. Drive the tail-stock a. Brazing
d. All of the above b. Soldering
c. Welding
6. Which of the following is a mechanism for d. All of the above
mechanized movements of the carriage along
longitudinal axis? 12. Which process squeezes metals into peaks
a. Cross-slide and troughs with plastic deformation?
b. Compound rest a. Knurling
c. Apron b. Grooving
d. Saddle c. Reaming
d. None of the above
7. The function of taper turning process is to

Sinhgad College of Engineering, Vadgaon Page 1


Strength of Mechanical Engineering

13. Which of the following operations is/are create an extremely elongated strip of
performed on a lathe machine uniform and comparatively smaller cross-
a. Spot-facing sectional area, called?
b. Parting a. Rolling
c. Reaming b. Extrusion
d. All of the above c. Drawing
d. Spinning
14. The process of chamfering the entrance of a
drilled hole is known as 19. Castings are usually
a. counter-boring a. costlier than forgings
b. counter-sinking b. cheaper than forgings
c. counter-fillet c. at the same rate as forging for
d. trepanning similar metal
d. none of the above
15. On drilling machine, which process is known
as reaming? 20. Which of the following options best
a. Enlargement of existing hole describes the centre lathes?
b. Hole made by removal of metal along the a. Machining machines
hole circumference b. Shaping machines
c. Smoothly finishing and accurately sizing a c. Turning machines
drilled hole d. None of the above
d. All of the above
21. The process of joining two pieces of metal
16. Match the following Manufacturing with a different fusible metal applied in a
processes with their Types and select the molten state is called as
correct option. a. welding
1.Metal forming ———— A. Grinding b. soldering
2.Surface finish —————— B. Rivetting c. both a. and b
3.Sheet metal working ---------------C. d. none of the above
Extrusion
4. Metal joining ————— 22. Which gears are used to connect two
————————-D. Blanking intersecting shaft axes?
a. 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B a. Crossed helical gear
b. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B b. Worm and worm wheel
c. 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C c. Bevel gears
d. 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – C d. All of the above

17. In which of the following processes, material 23. What is meant by gear ratio?
is neither added nor removed but is a. The ratio of pinion speed and gear
deformed into desired shape speed
a. Surface finishing process b. The ratio of number of teeth on
b. Metal forming process pinion and number of teeth on gear
c. Casting c. Both a. and b
d. Machining d. None of the above

18. What is the process, in which the metal is 24. The sand in its natural or moist state is called
caused to flow through a restricted orifice to as

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Strength of Mechanical Engineering

a. green sand b. False


b. loam sand
c. dry sand 26. Choose the odd one out.
d. none of the above a. micro-turning
b. micro-milling
25. Micro machining processes (MMPs) are used c. micro-EBM
to increase selectivity, accuracy, d. micro-grinding
performance, etc. parameters
a. True

Answer Sheet:

Q. No. Solution Q. No. Solution Q. No. Solution Q. No. Solution

1 d 8 d 15 c 22 c

2 d 9 c 16 b 23 a

3 a 10 b 17 b 24 a

4 c 11 b 18 b 25 a

5 b 12 a 19 b 26 c

6 c 13 b 20 c

7 a 14 b 21 b

Sinhgad College of Engineering, Vadgaon Page 3


Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice questions
UNIT 6 – Engineering Mechanism & C) Hand operated pump
their applications in domestic D) Refrigerator
appliances. E) None of the above
8. The compressor which is motor driven,
1. Pump is mechanical devices which is squeeze the refrigerant, raise the
converting the mechanical energy into temperature of gas and pressure as well
hydraulic energy. so that it exists the compressor as a hot
A) True and high-pressure gas.
B) False A) True
2. Which pump flow rate is continuous B) False
and smooth? 9. Reciprocating pump is suitable for
A) Reciprocating pump high capacities and low heads.
B) Centrifugal pump A) True
C) All of the above B) False
D) None of the above 10. The hydraulic machines which convert
3. Which of the following is not the main mechanical energy into hydraulic
part form of centrifugal pump? energy are called as………
A) Impeller A) Fan
B) Casing B) Compressor
C) Suction pipe C) Pump
D) Delivery pipe D) Fan
E) None of the above 11. What is application for the pump
4. Which pump work is complicated and A) Split AC unit
with much noise. B) Washing machine
A) Centrifugal pump C) Water filter/ purifier unit
B) Reciprocating pump D) Vacuum cleaner
C) None of the above 12. A machine which is used to produce
D) All of the above large volume of gas with a moderate
5. A device or machine providing air at increase in pressure is called as……….
high pressure is called as ………. A) Fan
A) Pump B) Pump
B) Air compressor C) Blower
C) Blower D) Compressor
D) Fan 13. A machine that is used to create flow
E) None of the above within a fluid, such as air is known
6. Which of the following is application as……...
for compressor? A) Compressor
A) Household refrigerator B) Fan
B) Split AC unit C) Blower
C) Water cooler D) Pump
D) All of the above E) None of the above
7. Which of the following is not used 14. It works on the principle of
application for pump? configuration which is the fictitious
A) Hydraulic jacks force that pull out from the center on
B) Kerosene pump

Sinhgad College of Engineering Page 1


Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice questions
the body while moving in the circular D) None of the above
path. 21. The branch of science that deals with
A) Vacuum cleaner the process of reducing and
B) Washing machine maintaining the temperature of that
C) Refrigerator space or material below the
D) Centrifugal pump temperature of surroundings.
15. What is an example forblower? A) Refrigeration
A) Kitchen chimney B) Motor fan
B) Reciprocating pump C) Refrigerator
C) Exhaust fan D) All of above
D) Dryer 22. Vapour compression refrigeration
16. Which is not an example for fan. system is most commonly used method
A) Motor fan of refrigeration for refrigerators, air -
B) Dryer conditioners.
C) None of the above A) True
D) All of the above B) False
17. If current carrying conductor is placed 23. An elastic body or elastic machine
in a magnetic field it experiences a element which deflects under the
force and start to rotate. action of the load and recovers its
A) Refrigerator originals shape when load is removed.
B) Kitchen chimney A) Damper
C) Motor fan B) Spring
D) Centrifugal pump C) Gear
18. It works on the principle of pressure D) Belt drive
difference the two locations. 24. springs are used in door closure and
A) Vacuum cleaner door locks.
B) Motor fan A) True
C) Split AC B) False
D) Washing machine 25. The power from the engine to the rear
E) None of the above axle of an automobile is transmitted by
19. It is used to remove organic and means of
inorganic substances like smoke, soot, A) Worm and worm wheel
water vaporous oil fumes and bits of B) Spur gear
food. C) Bevel gear
A) Refrigerator D) Hooke’s joint
B) Motor fan E) All of the above
C) All of the above 26.The arrangement is called bevel
D) Kitchen chimney gearing, when two …………are connected
20. It is a ventilation device which draws by gears
out the polluted air from the room and A) Intersecting and coplaner shaft
replaces it with fresh air. B) non-intersecting and non-coplanar
A) Exhaust fan shafts
B) Motor fan C)parallel and coplaner shaft
C) Washing machine D)parallel and non-coplaner shaft

Sinhgad College of Engineering Page 2


Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice questions
27.When two non-intersecting non- A) Flat belt drive
coplaner shaft are connected by gears, the B) V belt drive
arrangement isknown as helical gear C) Chain drive
A) Right D) None of the above
B) Wrong 36.Which of the following is not the
28. An imaginary circle which by pure component of chain drive.
rolling action, gives the same motion as A) Chain
the actual gear, is called B) Sprocket
A) Addendum circle C) Gear
B) Dedendum circle D) All of the above
C) Pitch circle 37. High torque at the driven shaft the size
D) Clearance circle of the driven sprocket.
29. Size of the gear is usually specified by A) Equal to the driving sprocket
A) Pressure circle B) Less than the driving sprocket
B) Circular pitch C) More than the driving sprocket
C) Diametral circle D) None of the above
D) Pitch circle diameter 38. What is the role of the sprocket in
30. The gear train usually employed in chain drive to transmit.
clocks is a A) Motion
A) Simple gear train B) Power
B) Reverted gear train C) Velocity
C) Sun and planet gear D) Force
D) Differential gear 39. What is the role of the chain in chain
31. In order to have a good grip on the drive to transmit
pulley the V- belt should touch the bottom A) Motion
of the groove in the pulley B) Power
A) True C) Velocity
B) False D) Force
32. V – belts are usually used for 40.What is the purpose of the valve
A) Long drives A) To control leakage
B) Short drives B) To control power loss
C) Long and short drives C) To control flow
D) None of the above D) To control motion
33. When two pulleys are connected by 41. Which one is not the application of
means of cross belt drive, then both the valve
pulley will rotate in ……. directions. A) Water tap
A) Same B) Flushing of toilet
B) Opposite C) Kitchen
34. When two pulleys are connected by D) Door latch
means of open belt drive, then both the 42. Where the levers are pivoted at point is
pulley will rotate …… direction. known as
A) Same A) fulcrum
B) Opposite B) Hinged support
35. Which one is positive drive? C) Fixed support

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Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice questions
D) Rollers C) Motion and power
43. Ratio of load to effort is called as D) None of the above
A) Mechanical Advantage
B) Leverage
C) Efficiency
D) All of the above
44. Ratio of effort arm to load arm is
called as
A) Mechanical Advantage
B) Leverage
C) Efficiency
D) All of the above
45. Efficiency in terms of power is the
ratio of output power to input power
A) False
B) True
46. What is mean by specification
A) Detailed description of requirement
B) Dimensions
C) Material
D) All of the above
47. In electric heater energy conversion is
A) Electric to heat
B) Solar to heat
C) Hydraulic to heat
D) Pressure to heat
48. In solar water heater energy conversion
is
A) Solar to hydraulic
B) Solar to heat
C) Solar to wind
D) Solar to vibration
49. What is the speed ratio
A) Speed of driver shaft to driven
shaft
B) Speed of driven shaft to driver
shaft
C) Velocity of driver shaft to driven
shaft
D) Speed of driven shaft to driver
shaft
50. Gears are used to transmit
A) Motion
B) Power

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Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple choice questions

Question no answer Question no answer


1 A 26 A
2 B 27 B
3 E 28 C
4 B 29 D
5 B 30 B
6 D 31 B
7 D 32 B
8 A 33 B
9 B 34 B
10 C 35 C
11 C 36 C
12 C 37 C
13 B 38 A
14 B 39 D
15 A 40 C
16 C 41 D
17 C 42 A
18 A 43 A
19 D 44 B
20 A 45 B
21 A 46 D
22 A 47 A
23 B 48 B
24 A 49 A
25 C 50 C

Sinhgad College of Engineering Page 5


Strength of mechanical Engg Multiple Choice Questions

UNIT - 3 1. Shaft power


2. Horse power
3. Brake power
Q1. The force that opposes the motion of a 4. None of the mentioned
vehicle is
Q8. Engine pistons are usually made of
1. Rolling resistance aluminium alloy because it
2. Gradient resistance
3. Wind or air resistance 1. Is lighter
4. All of the mentioned 2. Wear is less
3. Absorbs shocks
Q2. Which of these falls under LMV(Light 4. Is stronger
Motor Vehicle) category based on capacity? Q8. The stroke of an engine is the
1. Motorbikes
1. Volume of the cylinder
2. Cars 2. Length of the connecting rod
3. Buses 3. Internal diameter of the cylinder
4. Trains
4. Distance between TDC and BDC
Q3. A conventional suspension system uses
which of these Q9. In a Otto cycle engine, combustion
1. Leaf Springs occurs at
2. Coil Springs 1. Constant pressure
3. Torsion bars 2. Constant temperature
4. None of the mentioned 3. Constant volume
4. Constant heat
Q4. The electrical system of an automobile
contains which of the following Q10. Compression rings have which type
1. Battery of cross section
2. Alternators 1. Rectangular
3. Lighting systems 2. L shaped
4. All of the mentioned 3. Keystone
4. All of the mentioned
Q5. Which of these were or are used in
automobiles to provide suspension.
Q11. Cylinder liner materials are made of
1. Leaf springs
alloy iron containing
2. Coil springs
1. Manganese
3. Torsion bars
2. Nickel
4. All of the mentioned
3. Chromium
Q6. Which of the following is not a part of the 4. All of the mentioned
transmission system
1. Clutch Q12. Crankshafts are usually constructed
2. Axles by
3. Wheels 1. Casting
4. Gear box 2. Drop forging
3. Drawing
Q7. What is actual power delivered by the 4. Extrusion
engine known as?

Sinhgad College of Engineering pg. 1


Strength of mechanical Engg Multiple Choice Questions

Q13. Which stroke for a 4-stroke ic engine 2. Forged steel


is considered as the working or power 3. Tool steel
stroke 4. Cast iron
1. Suction stroke
2. Compression stroke Q19. What is the disadvantage of using
3. Expansion stroke diesel engine in comparison to petrol
4. Exhaust stroke engine
1. Higher weight-to-power ratio
Q14. Connecting rod is attached to the 2. Higher maintenance cost
piston by the 3. Greater starting difficulties
1. Rod cap 4. All of the mentioned
2. Piston pin
3. Cap bolt Q20. Piston rings are not completely
4. Lower cap closed because
1. Closed rings are hard to manufacture
2. Gap allows the ring to expand and fit
over
Q15. The function of a piston is 3. They are designed to let pass some
1. It forms a movable wall of combustion lubricant to the combustion chamber
chamber 4. None of the mentioned
2. It transmits turning force to the
crankshaft via connecting rod Q21. Piston pin is also known as
3. It functions like crosshead and 1. Gudgeon pin
transmits side thrusts 2. Crank pin
4. All of the mentioned 3. Screw pin
4. None of the mentioned
Q16. In a four stroke ic engine the number
of strokes covered for one complete
crankshaft revolution is Q22. The crankshaft rotates the camshaft
1. 4 using
2. 2 1. Belt drive
3. 1 2. Chain drive
4. 0.5 3. Gear drive
4. Motor drive
Q17. The plate which acts as a packing
between cylinder block and cylinder head Q23. In a four stroke engine each cylinder
is called has
1. Chaplet a) One valve
2. Liner b) Two valves
3. Gasket c) Three valves
4. Flange d) Four valves

Q18. What is the material of the Q24. Which of the following is NOT the
connecting rod type of Hybrid Vehicle?
1. Mild steel 1. Plug-in Hybrid

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Strength of mechanical Engg Multiple Choice Questions

2. Parallel Hybrid
3. Natural Gas For Vehicles
4. Series Hybrid

Q25.
The Hybrid Electric Vehicle consists of :
1. Internal Combustion Engine +
Electric Motor
2. Motor Electric 1 + Motor electric
2
3. NGV engine + Gasoline engine

Sinhgad College of Engineering pg. 3


SME MCQ – UNIT VI
1. The volume of air delivered by the compressor is called.......
A. Free air delivery
B. Compressor capacity
C. Swept volume
D. None of the abovea

2. The value of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke is called.......
A. Free air delivery
B. Compressor capacity
C. Swept volume
D. none of the above

3. The ratio of indicated HP to shaft HP is known as.......


A. Compressor efficiency
B. Isothermal efficiency
C. Volumetric efficiency
D. Mechanical efficiency

4. Volumetric efficiency is.......


A.The ratio of stroke volume to clearance volume
B.The ratio of the air actually delivered to the amount of piston
displacement
C.Reciprocal of compression ratio
D.Index of compressor performance

5. Pump transfers the mechanical energy of a motor or of an engine into


_________ of a fluid.
a. pressure energy
b. kinetic energy
c. either pressure energy or kinetic energy
d. pressure energy, kinetic energy or both
6. Which of the following is NOT a type of positive displacement pumps?
a. Reciprocating pump
b. Rotary displacement pump
c. Centrifugal pump
d. None of the above

7. ___________ pump is also called as velocity pump.


a. Reciprocating
b. Rotary displacement
c. Centrifugal
d. Screw

8. Discharge capacity of the reciprocating pump is __________ that of the


centrifugal pump.
a. higher than
b. lower than
c. same as
d. unpredictable

9. The process of filling the liquid into the suction pipe and pump casing upto the
level of delivery valve is called as _________.
a. filling
b. pumping
c. priming
d. leveling
10. Due to slip of the belt, the velocity ratio of the belt drive
a) decreases
b) increases
c) does not change
d) none of the mentioned

11. V-belts are usually used for


a) long drives
b) short drives
c) long and short drives
d) none of the mentioned

12. The included angle for the v-belt is usually


a) 100 to 200
b) 200 to 300
c) 300 to 400
d) 600 to 800

13. Power is transmit by belt is dependent on....

A. Arc Contact between belt and pulley


B. Velocity of belt.
C. Tension under which the belt is placed on the pulley
D. All of these

14. For non-parallel shafts, chain drives are highly recommended.


a) True
b) Gear drive is preferred
c) Depends on the transmission ratio
d) can’t be stated
15. A gear meshes with another gear and a sprocket meshes with another sprocket.
a) True
b) False

16. In a refrigeration system, the expansion device is connected between the

(A) Compressor and condenser


(B) Condenser and receiver
(C) Receiver and evaporator
(D) Evaporator and compressor

17. The vapour compression refrigerator employs the following cycle


A) Rankine
B) Carnot
C)Reversed Rankine
D) Reversed Carnot

18. The ________ the salt rejection, the better the system is performing.
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Moderate
d) Poor

19. Which of the following is not a component of packaged air conditioners?


a) Compressor
b) Condenser
c) Chiller
d) Evaporator

20. The process of extraction of the certain required amount of water from air is
known as ___________
a) Heating
b) Cooling
c) Humidification
d) Dehumidification
21. Which of the following refrigerant is widely used in domestic refrigeration?
A ammonia
B alcohol
C oxygen
DD. neon

22. In a refrigerator, the lowest temperature occur at


A evaporator
B expansion valve
C condenser
D compressor

23. Which type of magnet is used in an electric bell?


A Electromagnet
B Carbon magnet
C Temporary magnet
D Permanent magnet.

24. The heating element in an electric iron is wound around a sheet of


A Cotton
B Cardboard
C Mica
D None of the above

25. The capacity an air conditioner is expressed in


A kWh
B tons
C watt
D None of the above

26. The capacity of a domestic refrigerator is expressed in


A tons
B watt-hours
C watt
D HP
27. In a electric iron, the transfer of heat from coil to base plate is mainly through
A Convection
B Radiation
C Conduction
D None of the above

28. The heating element in an electric iron is usually made of


A Nichrome
B Platinum.
C Brass
D None of the above

29. Which part of washing machine actually perform the cleaning operation of
cloth clothes?
A Agitator
B Timer
C Drain
D Tub

30. In electric iron the heating element is kept


(A) Over the pressure plate
(B) Between the asbestos sheet and pressure plate
(C) Between the Sole plate and pressure plate
(D) Between the Sole plate and asbestos sheet

31. In microwave oven, the micro waves have a special property that they are
absorb by
(a) water.
(b) fats.
(c) sugar.
(d) all of the above.
32. When the door of a refrigerator is kept open, the temperature of room will
(a) increase.
(b)decrease.
(c) remain same.
(d) none of the above.

33. A differential gear in automobiles is used to


a) reduce speed
b) assist in changing speed
c) provide jerk-free movement of vehicle
d) help in turning

34. The gear train usually employed in clocks is a


a) reverted gear train
b) simple gear train
c) sun and planet gear
d) differential gear

(In reverted gear train and last gear train is on the same axis. Such an arrangement
has application on speed reducers clocks and machine tools.)

35. The term _________ is used to mean the free passage of clean air in a
structure.
a) Circulation
b) Ventilation
c) Dissipation
d) Condensation

36. Where people are working, there has to be ______________ to cause proper
ventilation of the premises.
a) Air change
b) Humidity
c) Temperature
d) Moisture
37. Exhaust system, supply system, air conditioning, etc. comes under ________
type of ventilation system.
a) Natural
b) Mechanical
c) Man-made
d) Doors

38. In ______________ system, the partial vacuum is created inside of the room by
exhausting the vitiated inside air by fans or blowers.
a) Supply
b) Plenum
c) Air conditioning
d) Exhaust

39. When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted
to
(A) Mechanical energy
(B) Heat energy
(C) Electrical energy
(D) Potential energy

40. Hand brake is applicable to


(A) only front wheels
(B) only rear wheels
(C) both front and rear wheels
(D) all of the above

41. What causes the ink to vaporize in an inkjet printer?


A. Electrical pulses
B. A heating element within the ink cartridge
C. A solenoid in each chamber of the ink cartridge
D. Drying of the ink when the cartridge has not been used for some time
42. The speed of the rotary compressor is.......as compared to reciprocating air
compressor
A.High
B.Low
C.Equal
D.None of the above

43. The pressure of air at the beginning of the compression stroke


is......atmospheric pressure
A.Equal to
B.Less than
C.More than
D.None of the above

44. A solar water heater system must have:


a) wind turbines
b) PV cells
c) a storage tank
d) gas

45. What is solar water heater?


a) Use solar energy to heat water
b) Use solar energy to generate current which is then used to heat water
c) Use water to generate heat
d) Use solar energy to generate steam

46. Following is not a part of roller chain


(A) Bushing
(B) Inner link plate
(C) Centre link plate
(D) Outer link plate

47. Chain drives are used in


(A) Bicycle
(B) Motorcycle
(C) Automobile
(D) All of the above
48. What is the purpose of using steel chains?
a) To avoid slipping
b) To avoid friction
c) To avoid accelerated motion
d) To avoid jerks

Efficiency is denoted by η.
Efficiency formula regarding Work is given as

Efficiency formula regarding Energy is given as

49. If a cyclist puts 600 J of work on his bicycle and the bicycle gives out 140 J of
useful work. Calculate the efficiency of a cyclist.

A. 48 %
B. 34%
C. 23.3 %
D. 55%

Solution:
Work Input = 600 J,
Work Output = 140 J
The efficiency is given as
η ={ Work Output / Work Input }× 100 %
= {140 / 600} × 100 %
= 23.3 %
50. A heat engine gives out 500 J of heat energy as useful work. Determine the
energy supplied to it as input if its efficiency is 40%.

A.1400 J
B. 1250 J
C. 1170 J
D. 1920 J

Solution: Energy output = 500 J

Efficiency η = 40 %
Efficiency η = {Energy Output / Energy Input}× 100 %
∴ Energy input = Energy Output / η
= 500 / 0.40
= 1250 J
Unit III Vehicles and their Specifications (04 Hrs) Classification of automobile. Vehicle
specifications of two/three-wheeler, light motor vehicles, trucks, buses and multi-axle
vehicles. Engine components (Introduction). Study of engine specifications, comparison of
specifications of vehicles. Introduction of Electric and Hybrid Vehicles. Cost analysis of the
Vehicle.

1. Two door and four door type automobiles are classified as


a) Sedan
b) Convertible
c) Special purpose vehicles
d) Pick ups
Ans. A
2. Which of these falls under LMV(Light Motor Vehicle) category based on capacity?
a) Motorbikes
b) Cars
c) Buses
d) Trains
Ans. B
3. A delivery van falls under the category of which type of vehicles.
a) Heavy passenger vehicles
b) Light passenger vehicles
c) Heavy goods vehicles
d) Light goods vehicles
Ans. D
4. Abbreviation HEVs stands for what
a) Highly Efficient Vehicles
b) Hybrid Electric Vehicles
c) Highly Economic Vehicles
d) Highly Engineered Vehicles
Ans. B
5. Abbreviation SUVs stands for what
a) Supply Unit Vehicles
b) Sub-urban Utility Vehicles
c) Short Urban Vehicles
d) Super Utility Vehicles
Ans. B
6. BMW is a leading German engine and automobile manufacturing company. Here
BMW is an abbreviation for
a) British Motor Works
b) Bayerische Motoren Werke
c) Bayerische Machine Werke
d) Bright Motor Works
Ans. B
7. The transmission system transmits _________ from engine to wheels.
a) Speed
b) Power
c) Current
d) Pressure
Ans. B
8. Which of the following is not a part of the transmission system
a) Clutch
b) Axles
c) Wheels
d) Gear box
Ans. C
9. The loads supported by an automobile frame are
a) Weight of the body, passengers and cargo loads
b) Torque from engine and transmission
c) Sudden impacts from collisions
d) All of the mentioned
Ans. D
10. An automobile chassis does not include which one of the following parts
a) Shock absorbers
b) Steering system
c) Differential
d) Brakes
Ans, c
11. The electrical system of an automobile contains which of the following
a) Battery
b) Alternators
c) Lighting systems
d) All of the mentioned
Ans. D
12. Which of these were or are used in automobiles to provide suspension.
a) Leaf springs
b) Coil springs
c) Torsion bars
d) All of the mentioned
Ans. D
13. Which of these is not necessary for the description of an automobile
a) Type
b) Capacity
c) Colour
d) Model
Ans. C
14. Which of these is necessary for the description of an automobile
a) Make
b) Model
c) Capacity
d) All of the mentioned
Ans. D
15. ‘Volkswagen Polo’ is a
a) Ultra-compact car
b) Sub-compact car
c) Compact car
d) Executive car
Ans. B
16. ‘Maruti 800’ is a
a) Sub-compact car
b) Compact car
c) City car
d) Sports car
Ans. C
17. What is actual power delivered by the engine known as?
a) Shaft power
b) Horse power
c) Brake power
d) None of the mentioned
Ans. A
18. If ‘T’ is torque(in Nm) and ‘N’ is speed(in rpm) then the required expression for
Brake power ‘B.P’ in kWs is
a) 2πNT/6000
b) 2πNT/60000
c) πNT/6000
d) πNT/60000
Ans. B
19. One Horse Power(H.P) is approximately equal to _____ Watts.
a) 810
b) 545
c) 634
d) 746
Ans. D
20. In a Otto cycle engine, combustion occurs at
a) Constant pressure
b) Constant temperature
c) Constant volume
d) Constant heat
Ans. C
21. In a Diesel cycle engine, combustion occurs at
a) Constant pressure
b) Constant temperature
c) Constant volume
d) Constant heat
Ans. A
22. In a four stroke ic engine the number of strokes covered for one complete
crankshaft revolution is
a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0.5
Ans. B
23. Trucks and Buses use which type of fuel?
a) Petrol
b) LPG
c) CNG
d) Diesel
Ans, d
24. A 4*2 drive vehicle implies that
a) It has 4*2=8 wheels
b) It has 2 auxiliary wheels and 4 drive wheels
c) It has 4 wheels out of which 2 are drive wheels
d) None of the mentioned
Ans. C
25. In a four stroke engine each cylinder has
a) One valve
b) Two valves
c) Three valves
d) Four valves
Answer: b
26. In a diesel engine the fuel injection pressure is in the range
a) 100 to 170 atm
b) 60 to 70 atm
c) 30 to 40 atm
d) 20 to 25 atm
Answer: a
27. The valve is opened as the cam lobe on the cam raises the
a) Bearing
b) Piston
c) Valve lifter
d) Valve seat
Answer: c
28. Exhaust valve temperature is about
a) 35 degree celsius
b) 100 degree celsius
c) 150 degree celsius
d) 500 degree celsius
Answer: d
29. The size of the engine intake valve is
a) Same as that of exhaust valve
b) Smaller than that of exhaust valve
c) Larger than that of exhaust valve
d) Does not depend upon the size of exhaust valve
Answer: b
30. The device used to measure the clearance between the valve and tappet of
an IC Engine is
a) Feeler gauge
b) Snap gauge
c) Slip gauge
d) Micrometer
Answer: a
31. The purpose of valve clearance is to
a) Allow the valve to expand
b) Allow the sliding of valve in the guide
c) Ensure that the valve closes fully
d) Ensure that the crankshaft is free to rotate
Answer: c
32. The opening and closing of a valve is respectively done by
a) A cam and a spring
b) A spring and a cam
c) Gas pressure and cam
d) Cylinder vacuum and spring
Answer: a
33. On modern four stroke engines the exhaust valve opens just
a) Before TDC
b) After TDC
c) Before BDC
d) After BDC
Answer: c
34. On modern four stroke engines the inlet valve opens just
a) Before TDC
b) After TDC
c) Before BDC
d) After BDC
Answer: a
35. A relief valve is fitted to the main oil gallery of an engine. The purpose of this
valve is to
a) Limit the maximum oil pressure
b) Open when the oil is hot
c) Maintain the supply if the gallery becomes blocked
d) Stop the oil flow to the bearings
Answer: A relief valve limits the maximum oil pressure.
36. The temperature indicating instrument in vehicles indicates the temperature of
(A) Engine piston
(B) Engine cylinder
(C) Lubricating oil
(D) Jacket cooling water
Answer: Option D
37. Two general types of tyres are
(A) Tube type and tubeless
(B) Solid and tubeless
(C) Air and pneumatic
(D) Split rim and drop centre
Answer: Option A
38. How many cells are used in a 12 volt car battery?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer: Option C
39. The motion of the cam is transferred to the valves through
(A) Pistons
(B) Rocker arms
(C) Camshaft pulley
(D) Valve stems
Answer: Option B
40. The power actually developed inside the engine cylinder is called as
(A) Indicated power
(B) Brake power
(C) Frictional power
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
41. If the air-fuel mixture in a spark ignition engine is too rich, then air-fuel ratio is about
(A) 17:1
(B) 15:1
(C) 13:1
(D) 10:1
Answer: Option D
42. Petrol that detonates easily is called
(A) High octane petrol
(B) Low octane petrol
(C) Unleaded petrol
(D) Blended fuel
Answer: Option B
43. The advantage of a tubeless tyre over tube type tyre is
(A) Slow air leakage
(B) Better fuel efficiency
(C) Less chances of running flat
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
44. The battery is an electrochemical device, which means battery
(A) Makes chemicals by mechanical means
(B) Uses chemical action to provide electricity
(C) Has curved plates instead of flat plates
(D) Does not use an electrolyte
Answer: Option B
45. Two advantages of using helical gears rather than spur gears in a transmission
system are
(A) Strength and cost
(B) Strength and less end thrust
(C) Noise level and strength
(D) Noise level and economy
Answer: Option C
46. The correct flow of power through the drive train is
(A) Engine drive shafts, clutch, main shaft, counter shaft, final driven
gear, wheels
(B) Engine clutch, main shaft, counter shaft, final driven gear, drive
shafts, wheels
(C) Engine clutch, counter shaft, main shaft, final driven gear, drive
shafts, wheels
(D) Engine main shaft, counter shaft, clutch, final driven gear, drive
shafts, wheels
Answer: Option B
47. The most commonly used power plant in automobiles is
(A) Gas turbine
(B) I.C. engine
(C) Battery
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
48. In commercial vehicle layouts engine is located forward, rear or under floor mainly
to
a. Better utilization of space
b. Increase fuel economy
c. Better weight distribution
d. Reduce the weight of chassis
Ans: c
49. The type of air cycle used in diesel engine is called
a. Otto cycle
b. Carnot cycle
c. Diesel cycle
d. Rankine cycle
Ans: c
50. During suction stroke the pressure inside the cylinder is
a. Equal to atmospheric pressure
b. Above atmospheric pressure
c. Above or below atmospheric pressure
d. Below atmospheric pressure
Ans: d
51. During compression stroke the air is compressed according to
a. Isothermal process
b. Hyperbolic process
c. Adiabatic process
d. Constant pressure process
Ans: c
52. The heat is added in the cycle at
a. Constant pressure
b. Constant volume
c. Approximately constant pressure and constant volume
Ans: c
53. The crankcase scavenging the the crankcase or underside of the piston acts as
a. An air compressor
b. A blower
c. A ventilator
d. A breather
Ans: a
54. The two-stroke engine has valve ports in the
a. Pistons
b. Cylinder walls
c. Piston rings
Ans: b
55. The temperature of the piston will be more at
a. The piston walls
b. The crown of the piston
c. The skirt of the piston
d. The piston pin
Ans: b
56. Connecting rods are generally of the following from
a. Forged round section steel
b. Cast steel triangular section
c. Forged square section steel
d. Forged I section steel
Ans: d
57. For petrol engines the nominal compression ratio will vary between
a. 1 to 2:1
b. 18 to 21:1
c. 1 to 5:1
d. 7.5 to 8.5:1
Ans: d
58. For diesel engines the nominal compression ratio is from
a. 17 to 21:1
b. 7.5 to 8.5:1
c. 30 to 40:1
d. 1 to 5:1
Ans: a
59. Engine torque is highest at
a. Low speed
b. Intermediate speed
c. High speed
Ans: b
60. The characteristic of an object which makes it resist any tendency to change its
direction of motion iscalled
a. Inertia
b. Power
c. Internal energy
Ans: a
61. The maximum pressure of air at the end of compression in diesel engines is about
a. 10 Kg/cm2
b. 100 Kg/cm2
c. 300 Kg/cm2
d. 30 Kg/cm2
Ans: d
62. Immediately after ignition, combustion chamber temperatures may reach a value of
a. 15000C
b. 55000C
c. 25000C
d. 75000C
Ans: a
63. The compression ratio in a diesel engine is as high as
a. 25:1
b. 20:1
c. 10:1
d. 5:1
Ans: b
64. The temperature of the compressed air should be ………….. of the fuel
a. Below the flash point
b. Above the flash point
c. Above the fire point
d. Between the fire and flash point
Ans: c
65. The compression pressure in diesel engine is around
a. 30 Kg/cm2
b. 10 Kg/cm2
c. 20 Kg/cm2
d. 40 Kg/cm2
Ans: a
66. The combustion process in a diesel engine is
a. Constant pressure process
b. Isothermal process
c. Constant volume process
d. Adiabatic process
Ans: a
67. Most of the mopeds in India have capacity of
a. 10 cc
b. 250 cc
c. 50 cc
d. 175 cc
e. 150 cc
Ans: c
68. Which motor cycle has maximum power rating
a. Rajdoot
b. Jawa
c. Yamaha
d. Bullet
Ans: c
69. Piston displacement is calculated from the
a. Cylinder diameter and length
b. Piston length and diameter
c. Bore and stroke
Ans: c
70. The power used in overcoming friction in the engine is called
a. FHP
b. BHP
c. IHP
Ans: a
71. During combustion the pressure in the cylinder may increase to as much as
a. 50 Kg/cm2
b. 400 Kg/cm2
c. 10 Kg/cm2
Ans: a
72. The size of intake valve is
a. Smaller than that of the exhaust valve
b. Equal to that of the exhaust valve
c. Larger than that of the exhaust valve
d. Not depending upon the size of exhaust valve
Ans: c
73. Two stoke engine is preferred for small vehicles because
a. Fuel consumption is low
b. Shock and vibrations are less
c. Its size is small
d. It is easy to control
Ans: c
74. The part of the vehicle which holds the passengers and the cargo to be transported,
is known as
A. Chassis B. Hull
C. Aft D. Senan
E. Cabin
Answer: Option B
75. Which one of the following is not a part of the chassis?
A. Wheels B. Front axle
C. Steering system D. Passenger seats
E. Rear axles
Answer: Option D

76. Diesel engines are generally preferred for road transport these days because of low
A. Initial cost B. Manufacturing cost
C. Prime cost D. Operating cost
E. Maintenance cost
Answer: Option D
77. The device for smoothening out the power inpulses from the engine is called
A. Clutch B. Differential
C. Flywheel D. Torque convertor
E. Gear box
Answer: Option C

78. Which vechicle is generally provided with four wheel drive


A. Ambassador car B. Standard wagon
C. Metador D. Jeep
E. Padmini car
Answer: Option D
79. In a four wheel drive the number of gear boxes is
A. 1 B. 2
C. 4 D. One gear box with more gears
E. Depends on the design of vehicle
Answer: Option B
80. Which one of the following is mounted between the engine and gear box?
A. Propellor shaft B. Differential gear
C. Reduction gear D. Clutch
E. None of the above
Answer: Option D
81. In case of four cylinder in line engine, the number of firing stroke (s) in one
revolution of crank is
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4
E. Depends on the design of engine.
Answer: Option B
82. At the first sight a petrol engine is identified by
A. Cylinder size B. Power output
C. Operating speed D. Spark plug
E. Size of air cleaner
Answer: Option D
83. Which part is not common between the petrol and diesel engines
A. Air cleaner B. Exhaust silencer
C. BatteryD. Dynamo
E. Fuel injector
Answer: Option E
84. The heating value of petrol is
A. 7650 kcal/kg B. 8000-8500 kcal/kg
C. 10,000-10400 kcal/kg D. 12750-13850 kcal/kg
E. 15000-16000 kcal/kg
Answer: Option C
85. Which one of the following does not form a part of the fuel supply system for a
Diesel engine?
A. Supply pump B. Filter
C. Air cleaner D. Spray nozzles
E. Injector
Answer: Option C
SME MCQ’s

Unit IV: Vehicle Systems

1. The transmission system transmits ___ from engine to wheels.


a) Speed
b) Power
c) Current
d) Pressure

2. Which of the following is not a part of the transmission system


a) Clutch
b) Axles
c) Wheels
d) Gear box
3. The loads supported by an automobile frame are
a) Weight of the body, passengers and cargo loads
b) Torque from engine and transmission
c) Sudden impacts from collisions
d) All of the mentioned
4. An automobile chassis does not include which one of the following
parts
a) Shock absorbers
b) Steering system
c) Differential
d) Brakes
5. The electrical system of an automobile contains which of the
following
a) Battery
b) Alternators
c) Lighting systems
d) All of the mentioned

6. Which of these were or are used in automobiles to provide


suspension.
a) Leaf springs
b) Coil springs
c) Torsion bars
d) All of the mentioned

7. ‘Head restraints’ are an


a) Automotive style feature
b) Automotive safety feature
c) Automotive performance feature
d) None of the mentioned

8. What is actual power delivered by the engine known as?


a) Shaft power
b) Horse power
c) Brake power
d) None of the mentioned
9. If ‘T’ is torque(in Nm) and ‘N’ is speed(in rpm) then the required
expression for Brake power ‘B.P’ in kWs is
a) 2πNT/6000
b) 2πNT/60000
c) πNT/6000
d) πNT/60000

10. One Horse Power(H.P) is approximately equal to _____ Watts.


a) 810
b) 545
c) 634
d) 746

11. In a four stroke cycle engine camshaft revolves at ______ the crank
speed.
a) Two times
b) Half
c) Four times
d) Three times

12. In which of the following fuel injector is used?


a) Compression-ignition engines
b) Spark-ignition engines
c) Steam engines
d) Sterling engines
13. At which stroke the fuel is injected in the CI engine?
a) Suction stroke
b) Compression stroke
c) Expansion stroke
d) Exhaust stroke

14. Where is the clutch located?


a) Between transmission and engine
b) Between transmission and rear axle
c) Between transmission and propeller shaft
d) Between transmission and differential

15.Which of the following parts of the cover assembly that hold the
pressure plate against the clutch plate?
a) Springs
b) Thrust bearings
c) Struts
d) Lever

16. Which of the following is the need of the gearbox?


a) To vary the speed of the vehicle
b) To vary the torque of the vehicle
c) To vary the power of the vehicle
d) To vary the acceleration of the vehicle
17. In which of the gearbox all gears are always in contact?
a) Constant-mesh gearbox
b) Sliding mesh gearbox
c) Synchromesh gearbox
d) Epicyclical gearbox

18. Which types of gears are used in constant mesh gearbox?


a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Bevel gear
d) Worm gear

19. Why are the helical gears used commonly in transmission over spur
gears?
a) Low cost and high strength
b) Low noise level and high strength
c) Low noise level and economy
d) Low noise level and low cost

20. Increase of torque in a vehicle is obtained by decreasing power.


a) True
b) False
21. Which types of joints are used when the shafts are inclined?
a) Universal joint
b) Hinge joint
c) Ball and socket joint
d) Pivot joint

22. Where is the differential located?


a) Between transmission and rear axle
b) Between engine and transmission
c) Between two propeller shaft
d) Between steering wheel and steering column

23. What is the need of the universal joint?


a) To change inclination
b) To bend sideways
c) To transfer torque at an angle
d) To change length

24. A two-piece propeller shaft requires one universal joint.


a) True
b) False
25. On what principle does the braking system in the car work?
a) Frictional force
b) Gravitational force
c) Magnetic force
d) Electric force

26. Generally which brakes are on the front wheels?


a) Drum brake
b) Disk brake
c) Shoe brake
d) Double shoe brake

27. In Front engine rear wheel drive Engine is located at


a) Front
b) Rear
c) Left
d) Right

28. In Rear engine rear wheel drive Engine is located at


a) Front
b) Rear
c) Left
d) Right
29. In Front engine front wheel drive Engine is located at
a) Front
b) Rear
c) Left
d) Right

30. In Rear engine rear wheel drive Engine is located at


a) Front
b) Rear
c) Left
d) Right

31. Functions of Steering System:

a) To change the direction of vehicle


b) To provide the directional stability to vehicle when moving along
straight path
c) To facilitate straight motion recovery after completing the turn
d) All above options

32. Which is not a Component of Steering System

a) Axle Beam
b) Stub Axle
c) King Pin
d) Brake
33) Which is not a function of the braking system

a) To provide a mean to slow the vehicle without affecting the engine


speed.
b) To provide a mean to stop the vehicle while the engine is still
running.
c) To change gears
d) To provide emergency stop of the vehicle within lowest time and
distance.

34) Type of Brake


a) Single Plate Clutch
b) Multi Plate Clutch
c) Disc Brakes
d) Cone Clutch

35. Which is not a part of Internally Expanding Brake?


a) Brake shoe
b) Retractor spring
c) Brake drum
d) Disc

36. Which is not a advantage of Internally Expanding Brake?


a) The wear and tear on brake shoes is not uniform.
b) It consists of large friction shoes providing better braking.
c) The overall system design and construction simple.
d) The drum brakes are most economical at cost.
37. Which is not a part of Disc Brake?
a) Rotating Disc
b) Expander
c) Calliper
d) Fluid lines

38. Front Axle is made by _____ manufacturing process


a) Casting
b) Powder Metallurgy
c) 3D printing
d) Forging

39. Which is not a Function of Suspension System ?


a) To isolate the vehicle body from road shocks
b) To stop vehicle
c) To safeguard passengers and cargo from the road shocks
d) To maintain the contact between the tyres and road.

40. Which is not a part of Leaf Spring (Semi-Elliptic Leaf Spring)?


a) Rebound clips
b) Shackle
c) U-Bolts
d) Helical compression spring
41. Which is not a part of Telescopic Suspension System?
a) Helical compression spring
b) Damper
c) Rebound clips
d) Telescopic system

42. If heat lost to cylinder wall is not dissipated or removed is leads not
to?
a) damage of cylinder due to overheating
b) seizing of piston due to overheating
c) burning of lubricating oil
d) increase efficiency

43. Which is not a component of Fuel supply and fuel injection system
in Diesel engine?
a) Fuel Filter
b) Fuel Rail:
c) Fuel Injector
d) Spark Plug

44. Which is not a type of Clutch?


a) Plate or Disc
b) Cone
c) Internal Expanding
d) Centrifugal

45. Which is not the function of Gear Box?


a) Gear box reduces the speed and increases the torque.
b) Increase Power
c) Gear box provides wide range of speeds and torque to the vehicle
d) With reverse gear, gear box provides the means to move the vehicle
in reverse direction
46. Which is not a Vehicle Passive System?
a) Antilock Braking System (ABS)
b) Seat belts
c) Air bags
d) Laminated Glass

47. Which is not a Vehicle Active System?


a) Night Vision System
b) Seat Belts
c) Lane Departure Warning
d) Antilock Braking System (ABS)

48. The automobile engine is running at 6000 rpm. The speed of


propeller shaft is 1500 rpm in first gear determine the speed in first
gear?
a) 6
b) 4
c) 5
d) 7

49. The automobile engine is developing 70 KW power at 4000 rpm. If


the gear ratio in Ist gear is 3.9: 1, determine input torque of gear box?
a) 100 Nm
b) 80 Nm
c) 167.11 Nm
d) 50 Nm

50. The automobile engine is developing 70 KW power at 4000 rpm. If


the gear ratio in Ist gear is 3.9: 1, determine output speed of gear box?
a) 500 rpm
b) 1025.64 rpm
c) 5000 rpm
d) 50 rpm
UNIT V
MCQ
Syllabus: 2019 Pattern

1. The metal is subjected to mechanical working for


(a) Refining grain size
(b) Reducing original block into desired shape
(c) Controlling the direction of flow lines
(d) All of these

2. The temperature at which the new grains are formed in the metal is called
(a) Lower critical temperature
(b) Upper critical temperature
(c) Eutectic temperature
(d)Recrystallisation temperature

3. The dowels are


(a) Wooden nails
(b) Box nails
(c) Wire nails
(d)None of these

4. Which of the following material can be used for making patterns?


(a) Aluminum
(b) Wax
(c) MS
(d) All of these

5. Aluminum is the best material for making patterns because it is


(a) A light in weight
(b) Easy to work
(c) Corrosion resistant
(d) All of these

6. The purpose of a riser is to


(a) Deliver molten metal into the mould cavity
(b) Act as a reservoir for the molten metal
(c) Feed the molten metal to the casting in order to compensate for the shrinkage
(d) Deliver the molten metal from pouring basin to gate

7. Which “term” is not associated with casting process?


(a) Gate
(b) Runner
(c) Riser
(d) Swage
8. A “die” is used in
(a)casting process
(b)extrusion process
(c)forging process
(d) all of these.

9. Investment casting uses pattern made of


(a)wax (b) clay (c)metal (d) wood

10. In sand mould the upper half of the box is named as


(a) Cope
(b) drag
(c)cheek
(d) none of above

11. To pour the molten metal equipment used is


(a)Lifter
(b) ladle
(c)slick
(d) flask

12. In sand mould the bottom half of the box is named as


(a) Cope
(b) drag
(c)cheek
(d) none of above

13. A welding procedure is useful to:


(a) Give information to the welder
(b) Give information to the inspector
(c) Give “Confidence” to a product
(d)All of the above

14. The main causes of porosity in welded joints are:


(a) Poor access
(b) Loss of gas shield
(c)“Dirty” materials
(d) All of the above

15. Porosity is caused by:


(a) Entrapped slag in the solidifying weld
(b) Entrapped gas in the solidifying weld
(c) Entrapped metallic inclusions in the solidifying weld
(d) None of the above
16. Why welding is shielded?
(a) To eliminate hydrogen
(b) To retard the cooling rate of the weld
(c) To eliminate the atmosphere
(d)To ensure maximum heat input

17. “Blanking” is an expression used in


(a) sheet metal work
(b) casting process
(c)drawing
(d) rolling.

18. In drawing operation the metal flows due to


(a)ductility
(b) work hardening
(c)plasticity
(d) shearing

19. Metal forming is the process in which


(a) Removal of metal takes place
(b) Shaping of metal by forces applied through various dies and tools
(c) Some additional materials are joined to the raw material
(d) Material addition, through melting and pouring

20. Casting is the process in which


(a) Removal of metal takes place
(b) Shaping of metal by forces applied through various dies and tools
(c) Some additional materials are joined to the raw material
(d) Material addition, through melting and pouring

21. Welding is the process in which


(a) Removal of metal takes place
(b) Shaping of metal by forces applied through various dies and tools
(c) Two piece of metal sheets are joint by adding the filler material
(d) Material addition, through melting and pouring

22. In hot working metal is to be heated


(a) Below recystallization temperature (b) Above recystallization temperature
(c) At recystallization temperature (d) none of above

23. In cold working metal is to be heated


(a) Below recystallization temperature (b) Above recystallization temperature
(c) At recystallization temperature (d) none of above
24. Rollers are used to shape the metal in ---- process
(a) forging (b) casting
(c) rolling (d) none of above

25. In a welding a flux is used


(a)to permit perfect cohesion of metal
(b) To remove the oxides of the metal formed at higher temperature
(c)both (a) and (b) above
(d)none of above

26. In arc welding current used is


(a) AC current of high frequency (b) AC current of low frequency
(c) DC current (d) all of above

27. Brazing process is carried out in the temperature range of ---


(a)150-250 deg C (b) 250-450 deg C
(c) 500-700 deg C (d) 700-900 deg C

28. The flux in brazing process is used in the form of ----


(a) Solid (b) liquid
(c) Gas (d) all of above

29. Filler material in welding should have ----


(a) same composition as the parent metal to be welded
(b) same melting temperature as the parent metal to be welded
(c) same composition and same melting point as the parent metal to be welded
(d) same composition as of electrode

30. Binding wire used to support the joint for soldering is made of ----
(a) soft iron (b)aluminium
(c)mild steel (d) copper

31. Advantage of cold working is


(a)better dimensional accuracy (b) better surface finish
(c)higher strength (d) all of these.

32. Typical hot working temperature range for steel is


(a) 650–1050°C (b) 650–723°C
(c)500–910°C (d) none of these.

33. The forging operation of “upsetting” is


(a) reverse of drawing down process (b) it is a bending operation
(c)it is a drifting operation d) none of these.
34. “Blanking” is an expression used in
(a)sheet metal work (b) casting process
(c) drawing (d) rolling.

35. The strength of a brazed joint


(a) decreases with increase in gap between the two joining surfaces
(b) increases with increase in gap between the two joining surfaces
(c) decreases up to certain gap between the two joining surfaces beyond which it
increases
(d) increases up to certain gap between the two joining surfaces beyond which it
decreases

36. When a metal returns to its original shape after an applied load has been removed, the
metal is said to have:
(a) Plasticity (b) Ductility
(c) Elasticity (d) Malleability

37. Which one of the following casting processes is the most widely used:
(a)centrifugal casting (b) die casting
(c)investment casting (d) sand casting

38. In sand casting, the volumetric size of the pattern than the casted part is
(a)bigger than, (b) the same size
(c) smaller than the cast part d) all of above

39. The application of runner is;


(a) horizontal distribution channel that accepts molten metal from the sprue and delivers
it to the gates, trap dross
(b) regions with larger circles (fillet radii), slower cooling rates, can develop shrinkage
cavities and porosity
(c) used to trap large contaminants and reduce metal velocity and make flow more
laminar
(d) goal is to achieve required metal flow rates (s.t. turbulence is avoided) while
preventing aspiration or dross formation

40. The property of a material by which it can be drawn into wires is known as
(a) ductility (b)elasticity
(c) softness (d) tempering

41. Malleability of a metal is the


(a) ability to withstand compressive stresses
(b) ability to withstand deformation under shear
(c) property by which a material can be cold-worked
(d) ability to undergo permanent deformation
42. The preheating of parts to be welded and slow cooling of the welded structure will
reduce
(a) cracking and incomplete fusion
(b) cracking and residual stress.
(c) residual stress and incompl

43. In drop forging the component is kept on____.


a) upper die
b) lower die
c) anvil block
d) all of the above

44. In mechanical working the flow of metal is ______.


a) Electric flow
b) Plastic flow
c) continuous flow
d) all of the above

45. For assembly of electronic components to the printed circuit boards ____method is
commonly used.
a) brazing
b) soldering
c) welding
d) All of above

46. The change in structure from hot working improves mechanical properties like ____.
a) ductility
b) toughness
c) resistance to shock and vibration
d) all of the above

47. Welding of _____ components is difficult.


a) cast
b) forged
c) sheet metal
d) None of above

48. If material is more ____, it can be more cold worked.


a) ductile
b) brittle
c) tough
d) stiff
49. Which of the following represents Slitting operations?

ANS: B

50. Which of the following represents Notching operations?

ANS: D

51. The Blanking operation is given by

ANS: A

52. Identify the operation performed on sheet metal working

A. Piercing B. Punching C. Perforating D. Blanking

53. Identify the operation performed on sheet metal working

A)Shearing B) Notching C) Bending D)Angle making


54. Which of the following is not angle bending operation?

B. ANS: D

55. The Piercing operation is given by

ANS: D

56. Which of the following represents Lancing operations?

ANS: B

57. Which one of the following represents shaving operation?

ANS: D

58. The following component produced by operation

Slitting B. Punching C. Lancing D. Notching


59. Identify the manufacturing process.

a) Casting
b) Welding
c) Forging
d) Fabrication

60. Identify the manufacturing process.

a) Close die forging


b) Open die forging
c) Drop Forging
d) Fabrication

61. Identify the manufacturing process.


a) Coining
b) Drawing
c) Embossing
d) Blanking

62. Identify the manufacturing process.

a) Close die forging b)Open die forging c)Drop Forging d) Fabrication

63. Identify the manufacturing process.

a) lancing
b) Piercing
c) blanking
d) punching
64. Identify the manufacturing process.

a)punching b) piercing c) coining d) blanking

65. Identify the part indicated by arrow.

a)sprue b) riser c) gate d) core

66. Identify the part indicated by arrow.

a) gate
b) riser
c) runner
d) core

67. Identify the part indicated by arrow.

a) gate
b) riser
c) runner
d) core

68. Identify the part indicated by arrow.

a) gate
b) riser
c) runner
d) core

69. The various brazing processes are____.


a) torch brazing
b) silver brazing
c) furnace brazing
d) all
70. In brazing process
a) strength of joint is less
b) joint can be damaged by under high temperature
c) joint colour is different than that of base metal
d) all of the above

71. which is metal cutting operation?


a) punching
b) blanking
c) piercing
d) all of above

72. which is metal forming operation?


a) punching
b) blanking
c) piercing
d) drawing

73. Welding produces_____.


a) harmful radiations
b) fumes
c) spatter
d) all of above

74. Welding results in _____.


a) residual stresses
b) deformation of workpieces
c) metallurgical changes in workpieces
d) all of above

75. ____ process uses closed impression die to obtain the required shape of component.
a) hand forging
b) casting
c) drop forging
d) soldering

76. ______ temperature differentiates hot working and cold working.


a) heating
b) cooling
c) recrystallisation
d) none of above
77. In ____ process the ram I raised to a definite height and then allowed to fall freely under
its own weight.
a) hand forging
b) casting
c) drop forging
d) soldering

78. Casting process is also called as ______.


a) forging
b) founding
c) joing
d) soldering

79. In ____operations the sheet metal is stressed beyond its ultimate strength.
a) forming
b) cutting
c) bending
d) drawing

80. The following machine is called as mother of all machine tools


(a) Shaping machine
(b) Milling machine
(c) Lathe machine
(d) Universal machine
Ans.: (c)

81. In CNC machines various functions are controlled with the help of ------------
i)MCU
ii) CNE Machine tools,
iii) Part programs

82. Micro controller is the ---------- of the of the CNC system.


i)MCU,
ii) Feedback device,
iii) Mamory storage device

83. Phenominon which connects a varity of things, everything’s that has ability to
communicate is known as -------------
i)IOT,
ii) Rapid prototyping,
iii) Micromachining
84. Interconnectivity, Heterogegety, things related services, Dynamic changes are the
characteristics of --------------
i)IOT,
ii) Rapid prototyping,
iii) Reconfigurable manufacturing

85. Interconnectivity, Heterogeneity, things related services, Dynamic changes are the -------
-------of IOT
i)Concept,
ii) components
iii) characteristics

86. Out of following which is not advantage of CNC Machine-----


i) Program storage,
ii) Reduced jigs and fixtures,
iii) Skill operators

87. 3D printing also known as -----------


i)Additive manufacturing,
ii)Micro machining,
iii)Rapid prototyping

88. -------- is a process of creating three dimensional physical objects from a computer
model or digital file
i)Micro machining,
ii) Rapid prototyping,
iii)3D Printing

89. Three dimentional printing is --------rapid prototyping system


i)Powder based
ii)Skill based
iii)Computer based

90. In 3D printing process to create 3D prototype -------- of deposited powder are solidified
i)Layers
ii)Stages
iii)Slices

91. What is the file format we export to print in 3D printing


i)Obj ,
ii)stl
iii)stj
92. --------spreads a new layer of material on top of previously printed layer
i)Feed platform
ii)Roller mechanism
iii)Feed bed

93. Sanding operation is ----------operation


i) post processing
ii) Pre processing
iii) Finishing

94. Technique of producing the features with dimensions ranging from few microns to few
hundred microns is known as --------------
i) Micro machining,
iii) Rapid prototyping,
iii) Post processing

95. Microsurgical equipments are manufactured by ----------


i) Rapid prototyping,
ii) 3D printing
Iii) Micro machining

96. ---------is the heart of NC machine tool system and consists of many sub- units inside it
i) Part programme
ii) MCU
iii) Interfaces

97. A lathe machine consists of a head stock


i) On right side of lathe machine
ii) On left side of lathe machine
iii) At center of lathe machine

98. Carriage assembly of lathe machine consists of


i) Electric motor
ii) Tail stock
iii) None of above

99. Carriage assembly of lathe machine consists of


i) Cross slide
ii) Tail stock
iii) Chuck
100. Tool post of lathe machine supports
i) Live center
ii) Cutting tool
iii) Work piece

101. In a lathe machine, the movement of a cutting tool against the rotating work piece
is called as
i) Cutting speed
ii) Feed
iii) Greed

102. The head stock of a lathe machine consists of


i) Power transmission elements
ii) Power absorbing elements
iii) Power producing elements

103. The operations performed on lathe machine are


i) Turning
ii) Chamfering
iii) All of above

104. The operations performed on lathe machine are


i) Knurling
ii) Grooving
iii) All of above

105. The operations performed on lathe machine are


i) Forging
ii) Parting off
iii) Forming

106. In a lathe machine, during turning operation, the cutting tool is mounted on
i) Tail stock
ii) Chuck
iii) Tool post

107. In a lathe machine, during drilling operation, the cutting tool is mounted on
i) Chuck
ii) Tail stock
iii) Bed

108. The quality of job produced on a lathe machine depends on


i) Rotating speed of work piece
ii) Tail stock
iii) Carriage
109. In a lathe machine, during turning operation, the movement of a cutting tool is
i) Perpendicular to the axis of work piece
ii) Parallel to the axis of work piece
iii) Vertical to the axis of work piece

110. During the lathe machine operation, if the movement of a cutting tool is parallel
to the
axis of work piece, then that operation is termed as
i) Facing operation
ii) Taper turning operation
iii) None of above

111. In a lathe machine, during facing operation, the movement of a cutting tool is
i) Parallel to the axis of work piece
ii) Vertical to the axis of work piece
iii) None of above

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