SME MCQ All UT
SME MCQ All UT
5. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1°C is called:
A. work capacity B. heat capacity C. Energy capacity D. none of the above
7………………….. is neither created nor destroyed it can only change one form to another.
A. work
B. Heat
C. Energy
D. Mass of body
13. In Conduction process the molecules of the solid pass the heat from one to another:
A. Without themselves moving from their positions.
B. themselves move from one place to another
C. without themselves moving from one place to another.
D. None of the above
17. It is the process of heat transfer from a hot body to a colder body without heating the space
between the two is called:
A. Conduction B. Radiation C. Convection D. absorption
18. At night a current of air blows from the colder land to the warmer sea is called as:
A. Air Breezes B. Sea Breezes C. Land Breeze D. none of the above
20. The air over the land is heated, becomes lighter & rises while the cooler air from the sea
blows towards land to take its place is called as:
A. Land Breeze
B. Sea Breezes
C. air Breezes
D. none of the above
21. At what factor heat absorbed on radiation by the body depends on?
A. Distance between bodies
B. source of heat
C. its color
D. All the above
26. A cold steel spoon is dipped in a cup of hot milk. It transfers heat to its other end by the
process of…………….
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. absorption
D. Radiation
27. Clothes of ………………… colors absorb heat better than clothes of ………….colors.
A. Light, dark
B. Dark, light
C. soft, dark,
D. none of the above
32. An iron ball at 40°C is dropped in a mug containing water at 40°C. The heat will….
A. Not flows from iron ball to water or from water to iron ball.
B. Flow from iron ball to water.
C. Flow from water to iron ball.
D. none of the above
33. The materials which allow heat to pass through them easily are called:
A. insulators of heat
B. conductors of heat
C. semiconductors of heat
D. none of the above
34. Stainless steel pans are usually provided with copper bottoms. The reason for this could be
that.
A. copper bottom makes the pan more durable.
B. such pans appear colourful.
C. Copper is a better conductor of heat than stainless steel.
D. none of the above
35. Which of the following is not a requirement for site selection of hydroelectric power plant?
a) Availability of water
b) Large catchment area
c) Rocky land
d) Sedimentation
36. The amount of electrical energy that can be generated by a hydroelectric power plant depends
upon ___________
a) Head of water
b) Quantity of water
c) Specific weight of water
d) Efficiency of Alternator
44. Which element of hydroelectric power plant prevents the penstock from water hammer
phenomenon?
a) Valves and Gates
b) Draft tubes
c) Spillway
d) Surge Tank
45. Dam having very wide base as compared to its height is called _________
a) buttress dam
b) arch dam
c) earth dam
d) solid gravity dam
46. Spillway discharges the overflow water to the downstream side when the reservoir is full.
a) True
b) False
49. The pressure at the inlet or exit of the draft tube should not be _________
a) less than one third of atmospheric pressure
b) greater than one third of atmospheric pressure
c) less than one atmospheric pressure
d) greater than one atmospheric pressure
57. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparison to a conventional thermal power plant
is
(a) same
(b) more
(c) less
(d) may be less or mote depending on size
62. Reflecting mirrors used for exploiting solar energy are called........
A. Mantle
B. Ponds
C. Diffusers
D. Heliostats
73. What are used to turn wind energy into electrical energy?
a) Turbine
b) Generators
c) Yaw motor
d) Blades
79. The process by which a heavy nucleus is splitted into two light nuclei is known as
(a) splitting
(b) fission
(c) fusion
(d) disintegration
80. Cost of nuclear fuel in nuclear power plant economics is considered as __________
a) running cost
b) maintenance cost
c) capital cost
d) development cost
MCQ’s on
Unit II: Introduction to Thermal Engineering
1. Which of the following laws was formulated by Nernst?
Answer: (c)
2. Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) volume
(d) all of the above
(e) atomic mass.
Answer : d
(a) Centigrade
(b) Celsius
(c) Fahrenheit
(d) Kelvin
(e) Rankine.
Answer : d
(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(c) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(d) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(e) thermodynamic reactions take place.
Answer : a
(a) + ve
(b) -ve
(c) zero
(d) maximum
(e) minimum.
Answer : c
(a) mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
(b) neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
(c) both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
(d) mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
(e) thermodynamic reactions do not occur.
Answer : b
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) specific volume
(d) heat
(e) density.
Answer : d
(a) pressure
(b) temperature
(c) density
(d) heat
(e) specific volume.
Answer : d
Answer: c
Answer: d
Answer: a
17. Which device maintains a body at a temperature higher than the temperature of the
surroundings?
a) PMM1
b) PMM2
c) refrigerator
d) heat pump
Answer: d
18. In a heat pump, there is heat leakage from the body to the surroundings.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
19. What is the relation between COP of heat pump and refrigerator?
a) COP of pump=COP of refrigerator – 1
b) COP of pump=COP of refrigerator + 1
c) COP of pump=COP of refrigerator – 2
d) COP of pump=COP of refrigerator + 2
Answer: b
20. Heat leakage from a heat pump to surroundings is always greater than work done on pump.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
21. Which of the following statements are true?
a) a heat pump provides a thermodynamic advantage over direct heating
b) COP for both refrigerator and pump cannot be infinity
c) work input for both refrigerator and pump is greater than zero
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Answer: b
23. If one of the Kelvin-Planck‟s or Clausius‟ statement is violated, then other is also violated.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Answer: c
25. Which of the following is true for a heat pump and a refrigerator?
a) a refrigerator removes heat to achieve cooling
b) a heat pump supplies heat at high temperature
c) both of the mentioned
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
26. The condenser and evaporator in vapour compression system are called cooler and
refrigerator respectively.
a) true
b) false
Answer: a
Answer: b
28. In which phase of a substance does conduction mode of heat transfer take place?
a. solid
b. liquid
c. gaseous
d. all of the above
30. What is the condition for conduction mode of heat transfer between two bodies?
31. In which mode, does the heat energy transfer between two bodies when they are
separated by some distance and there is no any medium between them?
32. The radiant heat emitted by any body travels at the speed
33. The conduction heat transfer with combination of transfer of material also is called as
34. The literature of heat transfer generally recognizes distinct modes of heat transfer. How many
modes are there?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer: c
35. Consider system A at uniform temperature t and system B at another uniform temperature T
(t > T). Let the two systems be brought into contact and be thermally insulated from their
surroundings but not from each other. Energy will flow from system A to system B because of
a) Temperature difference
b) Energy difference
c) Mass difference
d) Volumetric difference
Answer: a
Answer: d
Answer: a
38. The rate equation used to describe the mechanism of convection is called Newton‟s law of
cooling. So rate of heat flow by convection doesn‟t depend on
a) Convective heat transfer coefficient
b) Surface area through which heat flows
c) Time
d) Temperature potential difference
Answer: c
Answer: b
Answer: d
Answer: b
42. According to Stefan Boltzmann law, the total radiation from a black body per second
per unit area is directly proportional to the
A) Absolute temperature
B) Square of the absolute temperature
C) Cube of the absolute temperature
D) Fourth power of the absolute temperature
Answer: Option D
43. In case of liquids and gases, the heat transfer takes place according to
A) Conduction
B) Convection
C) Radiation
D) None of these
Correct Answer
Answer: Option B
45. According to Newton's law of cooling, the heat transfer from a hot body to a cold body
is
Correct Answer
Answer: Option D
Answer: a
Answer: a
Explanation: According to Stefan-Boltzmann law, q = α A T4.
Answer: b
Explanation: α is Stefan-Boltzmann constant whose value is 5.67 * 10 -8 W/m2 K4.
49. Calculate the radiant flux density from a black surface at 400 degree Celsius?
a) 1631.7 W/m2
b) 31.7 W/m2
c) 631.7 W/m2
d) 11631.7 W/m2
Answer: d
Explanation: E = σ T4 = 5.67 * 10 –8 (400 + 273)4 = 11631.7 W/m2.
50. If the emitted radiant energy is to be doubled, to what temperature surface of black body
needs to be raised? Take radiant flux density as 11631.7 W/m 2.
a) 894.4 K
b) 200.4 K
c) 800.3 K
d) 600.4 K
Answer: d
Explanation: 2(11631.7) = 5.67 * 10 –8 T 4.
51. A furnace having inside temperature of 2250 has a glass circular viewing of 6 cm diameter. If
the transmissivity of glass is 0.08, make calculations for the heat loss from the glass window due
to radiation
a) 234.54 W
b) 652.32 W
c) 328.53 W
d) 762.32 W
Answer: c
Explanation: Q = σ A T4 (t) = 328.53 W.
Answer: a
Explanation: q = α A T4.
53. In a two stroke engine, the working cycle is completed in two revolutions of the crankshaft.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
54. A two stroke cycle engine gives _____________ the number of power strokes as compared
to the four stroke cycle engine, at the same engine speed.
a) half
b) same
c) double
d) four times
Answer: c
55. A two stroke cycle engine occupies larger floor area than a four stroke cycle engine.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
56. A two stroke engine gives _____________ mechanical efficiency than a four stroke cycle
engine.
a) higher
b) lower
c) equal
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Answer: a
58. Thermal efficiency of a two stroke cycle engine is _____________ a four stroke cycle
engine.
a) equal to
b) less than
c) greater than
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
59. In a petrol engine, the mixture has the lowest pressure at the
a) beginning of suction stroke
b) end of suction stroke
c) end of compression stroke
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
60. The work required to overcome the friction of the exhaust and suction strokes is saved.
a) True
b) False
Answer: a
61. As there is a working stroke in every revolution, a more uniform turning moment is obtained
on the crankshaft and therefore, a __________ flywheel is required.
a) heavier
b) slower
c) lighter
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
62. Two stroke engines are __________ than four stroke engines for the same power output and
speed.
a) heavier
b) slower
c) lighter
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
63. For the same output, two stroke engines occupy ___________ space.
a) greater
b) lesser
c) same
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
64. The construction of a two stroke cycle engine is ____________ because it has ports instead
of valves.
a) complex
b) simple
c) unpredictable
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
65. In case of two stroke engines because of scavenging, burnt gases remain in the clearance
space as in case of four stroke engines.
a) True
b) False
Answer: b
Answer: a
Answer: a
68. How can we classify steam generators on the basis of application?
a) utility steam generators
b) industrial steam generator
c) marine steam generator
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
69. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) A simple vertical boiler has one fire tube
b) A fire tube boiler occupies less space than a water tube boiler, for a given power
c) Steam at a high pressure and in large quantities can be produced with a simple vertical boiler
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: a
Answer: b
Answer: a
72. The boiler in which the tubes are surrounded by hot gases is called ___________
a) fire tube boiler
b) water tube boiler
c) both fire and water tube boiler
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
73. Which of these is not a type of steam generator depending upon the kind of applications?
a) utility steam generators
b) marine steam generators
c) agricultural steam generators
d) industrial steam generators
Answer: c
Answer: b
75. A definite area where some thermodynamic process takes place is known as
a) Thermodynamic System
b) Thermodynamic circle
c Thermodynamic process
d) Thermodynamic laws
Answer: a
Unit III Vehicles and their Specifications.
1. Two door and four door type automobiles are classified as
a) Sedan
b) Convertible
c) Special purpose vehicles
d) Pick ups
Ans. A
2. Which of these falls under LMV(Light Motor Vehicle) category based on capacity?
a) Motorbikes
b) Cars
c) Buses
d) Trains
Ans. B
3. A delivery van falls under the category of which type of vehicles.
a) Heavy passenger vehicles
b) Light passenger vehicles
c) Heavy goods vehicles
d) Light goods vehicles
Ans. D
4. Abbreviation HEVs stands for what
a) Highly Efficient Vehicles
b) Hybrid Electric Vehicles
c) Highly Economic Vehicles
d) Highly Engineered Vehicles
Ans. B
5. Abbreviation SUVs stands for what
a) Supply Unit Vehicles
b) Sub-urban Utility Vehicles
c) Short Urban Vehicles
d) Super Utility Vehicles
Ans. B
6. BMW is a leading German engine and automobile manufacturing company. Here BMW is an
abbreviation for
a) British Motor Works
b) Bayerische Motoren Werke
c) Bayerische Machine Werke
d) Bright Motor Works
Ans. B
7. The transmission system transmits _________ from engine to wheels.
a) Speed
b) Power
c) Current
d) Pressure
Ans. B
8. Which of the following is not a part of the transmission system
a) Clutch
b) Axles
c) Wheels
d) Gear box
Ans. C
9. The loads supported by an automobile frame are
a) Weight of the body, passengers and cargo loads
b) Torque from engine and transmission
c) Sudden impacts from collisions
d) All of the mentioned
Ans. D
10. An automobile chassis does not include which one of the following parts
a) Shock absorbers
b) Steering system
c) Differential
d) Brakes
Ans, c
11. The electrical system of an automobile contains which of the following
a) Battery
b) Alternators
c) Lighting systems
d) All of the mentioned
Ans. D
12. Which of these were or are used in automobiles to provide suspension.
a) Leaf springs
b) Coil springs
c) Torsion bars
d) All of the mentioned
Ans. D
13. Which of these is not necessary for the description of an automobile
a) Type
b) Capacity
c) Colour
d) Model
Ans. C
14. Which of these is necessary for the description of an automobile
a) Make
b) Model
c) Capacity
d) All of the mentioned
Ans. D
15. „Volkswagen Polo‟ is a
a) Ultra-compact car
b) Sub-compact car
c) Compact car
d) Executive car
Ans. B
16. „Maruti 800‟ is a
a) Sub-compact car
b) Compact car
c) City car
d) Sports car
Ans. C
17. What is actual power delivered by the engine known as?
a) Shaft power
b) Horse power
c) Brake power
d) None of the mentioned
Ans. A
18. If „T‟ is torque(in Nm) and „N‟ is speed(in rpm) then the required expression for Brake power
„B.P‟ in kWs is
a) 2πNT/6000
b) 2πNT/60000
c) πNT/6000
d) πNT/60000
Ans. B
19. One Horse Power(H.P) is approximately equal to _____ Watts.
a) 810
b) 545
c) 634
d) 746
Ans. D
20. In a Otto cycle engine, combustion occurs at
a) Constant pressure
b) Constant temperature
c) Constant volume
d) Constant heat
Ans. C
21. In a Diesel cycle engine, combustion occurs at
a) Constant pressure
b) Constant temperature
c) Constant volume
d) Constant heat
Ans. A
22. In a four stroke ic engine the number of strokes covered for one complete crankshaft
revolution is
a) 4
b) 2
c) 1
d) 0.5
Ans. B
23. Trucks and Buses use which type of fuel?
a) Petrol
b) LPG
c) CNG
d) Diesel
Ans, d
24. A 4*2 drive vehicle implies that
a) It has 4*2=8 wheels
b) It has 2 auxiliary wheels and 4 drive wheels
c) It has 4 wheels out of which 2 are drive wheels
d) None of the mentioned
Ans. C
25. In a four stroke engine each cylinder has
a) One valve
b) Two valves
c) Three valves
d) Four valves
Answer: b
26. In a diesel engine the fuel injection pressure is in the range
a) 100 to 170 atm
b) 60 to 70 atm
c) 30 to 40 atm
d) 20 to 25 atm
Answer: a
27. The valve is opened as the cam lobe on the cam raises the
a) Bearing
b) Piston
c) Valve lifter
d) Valve seat
Answer: c
28. Exhaust valve temperature is about
a) 35 degree celsius
b) 100 degree celsius
c) 150 degree celsius
d) 500 degree celsius
Answer: d
29. The size of the engine intake valve is
a) Same as that of exhaust valve
b) Smaller than that of exhaust valve
c) Larger than that of exhaust valve
d) Does not depend upon the size of exhaust valve
Answer: b
30. The device used to measure the clearance between the valve and tappet of an IC Engine is
a) Feeler gauge
b) Snap gauge
c) Slip gauge
d) Micrometer
Answer: a
31. The purpose of valve clearance is to
a) Allow the valve to expand
b) Allow the sliding of valve in the guide
c) Ensure that the valve closes fully
d) Ensure that the crankshaft is free to rotate
Answer: c
32. The opening and closing of a valve is respectively done by
a) A cam and a spring
b) A spring and a cam
c) Gas pressure and cam
d) Cylinder vacuum and spring
Answer: a
33. On modern four stroke engines the exhaust valve opens just
a) Before TDC
b) After TDC
c) Before BDC
d) After BDC
Answer: c
34. On modern four stroke engines the inlet valve opens just
a) Before TDC
b) After TDC
c) Before BDC
d) After BDC
Answer: a
35. A relief valve is fitted to the main oil gallery of an engine. The purpose of this valve is to
a) Limit the maximum oil pressure
b) Open when the oil is hot
c) Maintain the supply if the gallery becomes blocked
d) Stop the oil flow to the bearings
Answer: A relief valve limits the maximum oil pressure.
36. The temperature indicating instrument in vehicles indicates the temperature of
(A) Engine piston
(B) Engine cylinder
(C) Lubricating oil
(D) Jacket cooling water
Answer: Option D
37. Two general types of tyres are
(A) Tube type and tubeless
(B) Solid and tubeless
(C) Air and pneumatic
(D) Split rim and drop centre
Answer: Option A
38. How many cells are used in a 12 volt car battery?
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 8
Answer: Option C
39. The motion of the cam is transferred to the valves through
(A) Pistons
(B) Rocker arms
(C) Camshaft pulley
(D) Valve stems
Answer: Option B
40. The power actually developed inside the engine cylinder is called as
(A) Indicated power
(B) Brake power
(C) Frictional power
(D) None of these
Answer: Option A
41. If the air-fuel mixture in a spark ignition engine is too rich, then air-fuel ratio is about
(A) 17:1
(B) 15:1
(C) 13:1
(D) 10:1
Answer: Option D
42. Petrol that detonates easily is called
(A) High octane petrol
(B) Low octane petrol
(C) Unleaded petrol
(D) Blended fuel
Answer: Option B
43. The advantage of a tubeless tyre over tube type tyre is
(A) Slow air leakage
(B) Better fuel efficiency
(C) Less chances of running flat
(D) All of these
Answer: Option D
44. The battery is an electrochemical device, which means battery
(A) Makes chemicals by mechanical means
(B) Uses chemical action to provide electricity
(C) Has curved plates instead of flat plates
(D) Does not use an electrolyte
Answer: Option B
45. Two advantages of using helical gears rather than spur gears in a transmission system are
(A) Strength and cost
(B) Strength and less end thrust
(C) Noise level and strength
(D) Noise level and economy
Answer: Option C
46. The correct flow of power through the drive train is
(A) Engine drive shafts, clutch, main shaft, counter shaft, final driven gear,
wheels
(B) Engine clutch, main shaft, counter shaft, final driven gear, drive shafts,
wheels
(C) Engine clutch, counter shaft, main shaft, final driven gear, drive shafts,
wheels
(D) Engine main shaft, counter shaft, clutch, final driven gear, drive shafts,
wheels
Answer: Option B
47. The most commonly used power plant in automobiles is
(A) Gas turbine
(B) I.C. engine
(C) Battery
(D) None of these
Answer: Option B
48. In commercial vehicle layouts engine is located forward, rear or under floor mainly to
a. Better utilization of space
b. Increase fuel economy
c. Better weight distribution
d. Reduce the weight of chassis
Ans: c
49. The type of air cycle used in diesel engine is called
a. Otto cycle
b. Carnot cycle
c. Diesel cycle
d. Rankine cycle
Ans: c
50. During suction stroke the pressure inside the cylinder is
a. Equal to atmospheric pressure
b. Above atmospheric pressure
c. Above or below atmospheric pressure
d. Below atmospheric pressure
Ans: d
51. During compression stroke the air is compressed according to
a. Isothermal process
b. Hyperbolic process
c. Adiabatic process
d. Constant pressure process
Ans: c
52. The heat is added in the cycle at
a. Constant pressure
b. Constant volume
c. Approximately constant pressure and constant volume
Ans: c
53. The crankcase scavenging the the crankcase or underside of the piston acts as
a. An air compressor
b. A blower
c. A ventilator
d. A breather
Ans: a
54. The two-stroke engine has valve ports in the
a. Pistons
b. Cylinder walls
c. Piston rings
Ans: b
55. The temperature of the piston will be more at
a. The piston walls
b. The crown of the piston
c. The skirt of the piston
d. The piston pin
Ans: b
56. Connecting rods are generally of the following from
a. Forged round section steel
b. Cast steel triangular section
c. Forged square section steel
d. Forged I section steel
Ans: d
57. For petrol engines the nominal compression ratio will vary between
a. 1 to 2:1
b. 18 to 21:1
c. 1 to 5:1
d. 7.5 to 8.5:1
Ans: d
58. For diesel engines the nominal compression ratio is from
a. 17 to 21:1
b. 7.5 to 8.5:1
c. 30 to 40:1
d. 1 to 5:1
Ans: a
59. Engine torque is highest at
a. Low speed
b. Intermediate speed
c. High speed
Ans: b
60. The characteristic of an object which makes it resist any tendency to change its direction
of motion iscalled
a. Inertia
b. Power
c. Internal energy
Ans: a
61. The maximum pressure of air at the end of compression in diesel engines is about
a. 10 Kg/cm2
b. 100 Kg/cm2
c. 300 Kg/cm2
d. 30 Kg/cm2
Ans: d
62. Immediately after ignition, combustion chamber temperatures may reach a value of
a. 15000C
b. 55000C
c. 25000C
d. 75000C
Ans: a
63. The compression ratio in a diesel engine is as high as
a. 25:1
b. 20:1
c. 10:1
d. 5:1
Ans: b
64. The temperature of the compressed air should be ………….. of the fuel
a. Below the flash point
b. Above the flash point
c. Above the fire point
d. Between the fire and flash point
Ans: c
65. The compression pressure in diesel engine is around
a. 30 Kg/cm2
b. 10 Kg/cm2
c. 20 Kg/cm2
d. 40 Kg/cm2
Ans: a
66. The combustion process in a diesel engine is
a. Constant pressure process
b. Isothermal process
c. Constant volume process
d. Adiabatic process
Ans: a
67. Most of the mopeds in India have capacity of
a. 10 cc
b. 250 cc
c. 50 cc
d. 175 cc
e. 150 cc
Ans: c
68. Which motor cycle has maximum power rating
a. Rajdoot
b. Jawa
c. Yamaha
d. Bullet
Ans: c
69. Piston displacement is calculated from the
a. Cylinder diameter and length
b. Piston length and diameter
c. Bore and stroke
Ans: c
70. The power used in overcoming friction in the engine is called
a. FHP
b. BHP
c. IHP
Ans: a
71. During combustion the pressure in the cylinder may increase to as much as
a. 50 Kg/cm2
b. 400 Kg/cm2
c. 10 Kg/cm2
Ans: a
72. The size of intake valve is
a. Smaller than that of the exhaust valve
b. Equal to that of the exhaust valve
c. Larger than that of the exhaust valve
d. Not depending upon the size of exhaust valve
Ans: c
73. Two stoke engine is preferred for small vehicles because
a. Fuel consumption is low
b. Shock and vibrations are less
c. Its size is small
d. It is easy to control
Ans: c
74. The part of the vehicle which holds the passengers and the cargo to be transported, is
known as
A. Chassis B. Hull
C. Aft D. Senan
E. Cabin
Answer: Option B
76. Diesel engines are generally preferred for road transport these days because of low
A. Initial cost B. Manufacturing cost
C. Prime cost D. Operating cost
E. Maintenance cost
Answer: Option D
77. The device for smoothening out the power inpulses from the engine is called
A. Clutch B. Differential
C. Flywheel D. Torque convertor
E. Gear box
Answer: Option C
4. An automobile chassis does not include which one of the following parts
a) Shock absorbers
b) Steering system
c) Differential
d) Brakes
9. If „T‟ is torque(in Nm) and „N‟ is speed(in rpm) then the required expression for
Brake power „B.P‟ in kWs is
a) 2πNT/6000
b) 2πNT/60000
c) πNT/6000
d) πNT/60000
11. In a four stroke cycle engine camshaft revolves at ______ the crank speed.
a) Two times
b) Half
c) Four times
d) Three times
15.Which of the following parts of the cover assembly that hold the pressure plate
against the clutch plate?
a) Springs
b) Thrust bearings
c) Struts
d) Lever
19. Why are the helical gears used commonly in transmission over spur gears?
a) Low cost and high strength
b) Low noise level and high strength
c) Low noise level and economy
d) Low noise level and low cost
21. Which types of joints are used when the shafts are inclined?
a) Universal joint
b) Hinge joint
c) Ball and socket joint
d) Pivot joint
25. On what principle does the braking system in the car work?
a) Frictional force
b) Gravitational force
c) Magnetic force
d) Electric force
a) Axle Beam
b) Stub Axle
c) King Pin
d) Brake
a) To provide a mean to slow the vehicle without affecting the engine speed.
b) To provide a mean to stop the vehicle while the engine is still running.
c) To change gears
d) To provide emergency stop of the vehicle within lowest time and distance.
42. If heat lost to cylinder wall is not dissipated or removed is leads not to?
a) damage of cylinder due to overheating
b) seizing of piston due to overheating
c) burning of lubricating oil
d) increase efficiency
43. Which is not a component of Fuel supply and fuel injection system in Diesel
engine?
a) Fuel Filter
b) Fuel Rail:
c) Fuel Injector
d) Spark Plug
48. The automobile engine is running at 6000 rpm. The speed of propeller shaft is
1500 rpm in first gear determine the speed in first gear?
a) 6
b) 4
c) 5
d) 7
49. The automobile engine is developing 70 KW power at 4000 rpm. If the gear
ratio in Ist gear is 3.9: 1, determine input torque of gear box?
a) 100 Nm
b) 80 Nm
c) 167.11 Nm
d) 50 Nm
50. The automobile engine is developing 70 KW power at 4000 rpm. If the gear
ratio in Ist gear is 3.9: 1, determine output speed of gear box?
a) 500 rpm
b) 1025.64 rpm
c) 5000 rpm
d) 50 rpm
UNIT V Introduction to Manufacturing
2. The temperature at which the new grains are formed in the metal is called
(a) Lower critical temperature
(b) Upper critical temperature
(c) Eutectic temperature
(d)Recrystallisation temperature
30. Binding wire used to support the joint for soldering is made of ----
(a) soft iron (b)aluminium
(c)mild steel (d) copper
36. When a metal returns to its original shape after an applied load has been removed, the
metal is said to have:
(a) Plasticity (b) Ductility
(c) Elasticity (d) Malleability
37. Which one of the following casting processes is the most widely used:
(a)centrifugal casting (b) die casting
(c)investment casting (d) sand casting
38. In sand casting, the volumetric size of the pattern than the casted part is
(a)bigger than, (b) the same size
(c) smaller than the cast part d) all of above
40. The property of a material by which it can be drawn into wires is known as
(a) ductility (b)elasticity
(c) softness (d) tempering
42. The preheating of parts to be welded and slow cooling of the welded structure will
reduce
(a) cracking and incomplete fusion
(b) cracking and residual stress.
(c) residual stress and incompl
45. For assembly of electronic components to the printed circuit boards ____method is
commonly used.
a) brazing
b) soldering
c) welding
d) All of above
46. The change in structure from hot working improves mechanical properties like ____.
a) ductility
b) toughness
c) resistance to shock and vibration
d) all of the above
ANS: B
ANS: D
ANS: A
B. ANS: D
ANS: D
ANS: B
a) Casting
b) Welding
c) Forging
d) Fabrication
a) lancing
b) Piercing
c) blanking
d) punching
64. Identify the manufacturing process.
a) gate
b) riser
c) runner
d) core
a) gate
b) riser
c) runner
d) core
a) gate
b) riser
c) runner
d) core
75. ____ process uses closed impression die to obtain the required shape of component.
a) hand forging
b) casting
c) drop forging
d) soldering
77. In ____ process the ram I raised to a definite height and then allowed to fall freely under
its own weight.
a) hand forging
b) casting
c) drop forging
d) soldering
79. In ____operations the sheet metal is stressed beyond its ultimate strength.
a) forming
b) cutting
c) bending
d) drawing
81. In CNC machines various functions are controlled with the help of ------------
i)MCU
ii) CNE Machine tools,
iii) Part programs
83. Phenominon which connects a varity of things, everything‟s that has ability to
communicate is known as -------------
i)IOT,
ii) Rapid prototyping,
iii) Micromachining
84. Interconnectivity, Heterogegety, things related services, Dynamic changes are the
characteristics of --------------
i)IOT,
ii) Rapid prototyping,
iii) Reconfigurable manufacturing
85. Interconnectivity, Heterogeneity, things related services, Dynamic changes are the -------
-------of IOT
i)Concept,
ii) components
iii) characteristics
88. -------- is a process of creating three dimensional physical objects from a computer
model or digital file
i)Micro machining,
ii) Rapid prototyping,
iii)3D Printing
90. In 3D printing process to create 3D prototype -------- of deposited powder are solidified
i)Layers
ii)Stages
iii)Slices
94. Technique of producing the features with dimensions ranging from few microns to few
hundred microns is known as --------------
i) Micro machining,
iii) Rapid prototyping,
iii) Post processing
101. In a lathe machine, the movement of a cutting tool against the rotating work piece
is called as
i) Cutting speed
ii) Feed
iii) Greed
106. In a lathe machine, during turning operation, the cutting tool is mounted on
i) Tail stock
ii) Chuck
iii) Tool post
107. In a lathe machine, during drilling operation, the cutting tool is mounted on
i) Chuck
ii) Tail stock
iii) Bed
109. In a lathe machine, during turning operation, the movement of a cutting tool is
i) Perpendicular to the axis of work piece
ii) Parallel to the axis of work piece
iii) Vertical to the axis of work piece
110. During the lathe machine operation, if the movement of a cutting tool is parallel
to the
axis of work piece, then that operation is termed as
i) Facing operation
ii) Taper turning operation
iii) None of above
111. In a lathe machine, during facing operation, the movement of a cutting tool is
i) Parallel to the axis of work piece
ii) Vertical to the axis of work piece
iii) None of above
9. The process of filling the liquid into the suction pipe and pump casing upto the
level of delivery valve is called as _________.
a. filling
b. pumping
c. priming
d. leveling
10. Due to slip of the belt, the velocity ratio of the belt drive
a) decreases
b) increases
c) does not change
d) none of the mentioned
15. A gear meshes with another gear and a sprocket meshes with another sprocket.
a) True
b) False
20. The process of extraction of the certain required amount of water from air is
known as ___________
a) Heating
b) Cooling
c) Humidification
d) Dehumidification
27. In a electric iron, the transfer of heat from coil to base plate is mainly through
A Convection
B Radiation
C Conduction
D None of the above
29. Which part of washing machine actually perform the cleaning operation of
cloth clothes?
A Agitator
B Timer
C Drain
D Tub
31. In microwave oven, the micro waves have a special property that they are
absorb by
(a) water.
(b) fats.
(c) sugar.
(d) all of the above.
32. When the door of a refrigerator is kept open, the temperature of room will
(a) increase.
(b)decrease.
(c) remain same.
(d) none of the above.
(In reverted gear train and last gear train is on the same axis. Such an arrangement
has application on speed reducers clocks and machine tools.)
35. The term _________ is used to mean the free passage of clean air in a
structure.
a) Circulation
b) Ventilation
c) Dissipation
d) Condensation
36. Where people are working, there has to be ______________ to cause proper
ventilation of the premises.
a) Air change
b) Humidity
c) Temperature
d) Moisture
37. Exhaust system, supply system, air conditioning, etc. comes under ________
type of ventilation system.
a) Natural
b) Mechanical
c) Man-made
d) Doors
38. In ______________ system, the partial vacuum is created inside of the room by
exhausting the vitiated inside air by fans or blowers.
a) Supply
b) Plenum
c) Air conditioning
d) Exhaust
39. When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted
to
(A) Mechanical energy
(B) Heat energy
(C) Electrical energy
(D) Potential energy
Efficiency is denoted by η.
Efficiency formula regarding Work is given as
49. If a cyclist puts 600 J of work on his bicycle and the bicycle gives out 140 J of
useful work. Calculate the efficiency of a cyclist.
A. 48 %
B. 34%
C. 23.3 %
D. 55%
Solution:
Work Input = 600 J,
Work Output = 140 J
The efficiency is given as
η ={ Work Output / Work Input }× 100 %
= {140 / 600} × 100 %
= 23.3 %
50. A heat engine gives out 500 J of heat energy as useful work. Determine the
energy supplied to it as input if its efficiency is 40%.
A.1400 J
B. 1250 J
C. 1170 J
D. 1920 J
Efficiency η = 40 %
Efficiency η = {Energy Output / Energy Input}× 100 %
∴ Energy input = Energy Output / η
= 500 / 0.40
= 1250 J
Strength of Mechanical Engineering
1. Which of the following is manufacturing a. reduce the diameter of a work piece along
process? its length
a. Forging b. reduce the diameter by removing material
b. Welding about an axis offset from the axis of work
c. Casting piece
d. All of the above c. remove the material from end surface of a
work piece
2. Which of the following is not a part of d. All of the above
carriage of the centre lathe?
a. Tool post 8. The process of removing sharp ends of a
b. Apron work piece is called as
c. Compound rest a. Knurling
d. Gear box controls b. Grooving
c. Facing
3. The centre lathes receive their power through d. Chamfering
a. Headstock
b. Tailstock 9. What is meant by drag in casting process?
c. Both a & b a. Upper part of casting flask
d. None of the above b. Molten metal
c. Lower part of casting flask
4. A flat surface can be produced by a lathe d. Upper & lower part of casting flask
machine, if the cutting tool moves
a. parallel to the axis of rotation of workpiece 10. Casting replica used to make the cavity is
b. at an angle of 450 called as
c. perpendicular to the axis of rotation of a. Mould
work piece b. Pattern
d. None of the above c. Cope
d. None of the above
5. What is the function of pulley drive in lathe
machines 11. The process of joining similar or dissimilar
a. Drive the lead screw materials by heating them below 4500C using
b. Change the spindle speed non-ferrous filler material is called as
c. Drive the tail-stock a. Brazing
d. All of the above b. Soldering
c. Welding
6. Which of the following is a mechanism for d. All of the above
mechanized movements of the carriage along
longitudinal axis? 12. Which process squeezes metals into peaks
a. Cross-slide and troughs with plastic deformation?
b. Compound rest a. Knurling
c. Apron b. Grooving
d. Saddle c. Reaming
d. None of the above
7. The function of taper turning process is to
13. Which of the following operations is/are create an extremely elongated strip of
performed on a lathe machine uniform and comparatively smaller cross-
a. Spot-facing sectional area, called?
b. Parting a. Rolling
c. Reaming b. Extrusion
d. All of the above c. Drawing
d. Spinning
14. The process of chamfering the entrance of a
drilled hole is known as 19. Castings are usually
a. counter-boring a. costlier than forgings
b. counter-sinking b. cheaper than forgings
c. counter-fillet c. at the same rate as forging for
d. trepanning similar metal
d. none of the above
15. On drilling machine, which process is known
as reaming? 20. Which of the following options best
a. Enlargement of existing hole describes the centre lathes?
b. Hole made by removal of metal along the a. Machining machines
hole circumference b. Shaping machines
c. Smoothly finishing and accurately sizing a c. Turning machines
drilled hole d. None of the above
d. All of the above
21. The process of joining two pieces of metal
16. Match the following Manufacturing with a different fusible metal applied in a
processes with their Types and select the molten state is called as
correct option. a. welding
1.Metal forming ———— A. Grinding b. soldering
2.Surface finish —————— B. Rivetting c. both a. and b
3.Sheet metal working ---------------C. d. none of the above
Extrusion
4. Metal joining ————— 22. Which gears are used to connect two
————————-D. Blanking intersecting shaft axes?
a. 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B a. Crossed helical gear
b. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B b. Worm and worm wheel
c. 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C c. Bevel gears
d. 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – C d. All of the above
17. In which of the following processes, material 23. What is meant by gear ratio?
is neither added nor removed but is a. The ratio of pinion speed and gear
deformed into desired shape speed
a. Surface finishing process b. The ratio of number of teeth on
b. Metal forming process pinion and number of teeth on gear
c. Casting c. Both a. and b
d. Machining d. None of the above
18. What is the process, in which the metal is 24. The sand in its natural or moist state is called
caused to flow through a restricted orifice to as
Answer Sheet:
1 d 8 d 15 c 22 c
2 d 9 c 16 b 23 a
3 a 10 b 17 b 24 a
4 c 11 b 18 b 25 a
5 b 12 a 19 b 26 c
6 c 13 b 20 c
7 a 14 b 21 b
Q18. What is the material of the Q24. Which of the following is NOT the
connecting rod type of Hybrid Vehicle?
1. Mild steel 1. Plug-in Hybrid
2. Parallel Hybrid
3. Natural Gas For Vehicles
4. Series Hybrid
Q25.
The Hybrid Electric Vehicle consists of :
1. Internal Combustion Engine +
Electric Motor
2. Motor Electric 1 + Motor electric
2
3. NGV engine + Gasoline engine
1.Coil springs absorb shocks by (A) are simply beams which supports the vehicle
weight
(A) bending
(B) are usually the front axles
(B) twisting
(C) contain differential
(C) compression
(D) all of the above
(D) tension
7.The following represents the correct
2.The following is a type of leaf springs specification of a tyre
(A) three Quarter elliptic (A) 155-80-R-13
(B) semi elliptic (B) R-155-80-13
(C) quarter elliptic (C) 155-80-13-R
(D) all of the above (D) 155-R-80-13
3.The material used for making torsion bar is 8.Telescopic shock observer consists of
(A) Steel (A) One chamber
(B) Cast iron (B) two chambers
(C) High carbon steel (C) three chamber
(D) All of the above (D) four chambers
4.Shackles are sort of 9.Cam actuated double acting hydraulic shock
(A) coupling absorber contains
(A) chassis frame and spring 10.The stabilizers (sway bars) are
(C) chassis frame and axle (B) used to connect shock absorber operating
arms
(D) all of the above
11.The following is (are) the independent 16.A combination of roll and pitch is called
suspension system(s)
(A) circular pitch
(A) Wishbone Arm system
(B) lateral pitch
(B) Trailing Link system
(C) transverse pitch
(C) Sliding Pillar system
(D) diagonal pitch
(D) all of the above
17.Viscosity index (VI) is a measure for the
12.The coil spring in used in change of viscosity with change in
30.The device for smoothening out the power (C) Pore point
impulses from the engine:
(D) Fire point
(A) Crank shaft
(B) Flywheel
(C) Clutch
(B) Voltmeter
(C) Hydrometer
(D) Thermometer
(A) Suction
(B) Compression
(C) Power
(D) Exhaust
Que. In case of multi-disk clutches, oil is Que. Which of the following statement is
used wrong ?
A. to reduce the friction A. A key is used as a temporary fastening
B. to carry away the heat B. A key is subjected to tensile stresses
C. to lubricate the contacting surfaces C. A key is always inserted parallel to the
D. for all above functions axis of the shaft
Ans. D D. A key prevents relative motion between
the shaft & boss of the pulley
Que. The friction material of the clutch Ans. B
should have
A. high coefficient of friction Que. A transmission shaft does not
B. low coefficient of friction includes
C. high surface hardness A. counter shaft
D. high endurance limit strength B. line shaft
Ans. A C. over head shaft
D. axle
Que. The sleeve or muff coupling is Ans. D
designed as a
A. hollow shaft Que. --------------- are mounted on shaft
B. solid shaft A. pulleys & gears
C. thick cylinder B. flywheel
D. hollow cyllinder C. couplings & cranks
Ans. A D. all of these
Ans. D
Que. The clutch is located between the
transmission and the Que. Power is transmitted through the
A. engine shaft by ------------------
B. rear axle A. axial force & torque
C. propeller shaft B. radial force & torque
D. differential C. tangential force & torque
Ans. A D. shear force & torque
Ans. C
Que. The flywheel and the pressure plate
bind the clutch disc between them so that Que. Machine shaft is an____________ of
the engine and the transmission can be machine
engaged A. connecting part
A. correct B. separating part
B. incorrect C. integral part
C. partially incorrect D. non integral part
D. partially correct Ans. C
Ans. A
Que. Which of the following element are
Que. Which type of key is used for not used to transmit power
mounting shifting gears in gear boxes? A. Shafts
A. Saddle key B. Key
B. Flat key C. Clutch
C. Square key D. Coupling
Ans. B
Que. ____ elements are used to transmit
Que. _____ key is a tapered key which power from one part to another
completely fits in the keyway Provided A. Holding
in the hub of rotating element B. Supporting
A. sunk C. Power transmitting
B. saddle D. None of the above
C. spline Ans. C
D. tangent
Ans. B Que. A coupling used to transmit power
between two parallel shafts which are
Que. Shaft should be made out of material slightly offset
with __________________ A. Oldham coupling
A. High Resilience B. universal coupling
B. Low Resilience C. muff coupling
C. Low Ductility D. flange coupling
D. None of the above Ans. A
Ans. A
Que. Stress induced in the balls or rollers
Que. In a clutch, energy is absorbed by of rolling contact bearing is
A. Clutch Plate A. torsional shear stress
B. Friction Lining B. tensile stress
C. Friction Plate C. crushing stress
D. None of the above D. None of these
Ans. B Ans. C
Que. After the brake is pressed Que. The rolling contact bearing is known
A. Brake drum and brake shoe are at rest as
B. Brake drum is rotating and brake shoe A. sleeve bearing
is at rest B. thin film bearing
C. Brake drum is at rest and brake shoe is C. antifriction bearing
rotating D. bush bearing
D. None of the above Ans. C
Ans. A
Que. Parallel sunk key can be of___ cross-
Que. After the brake is released section.
A. Brake drum and brake shoe are at rest A. Circular
B. Brake drum is rotating and brake shoe B. Rectangular
is at rest C. Square
C. Brake drum is at rest and brake shoe is D. Both B and C
rotating Ans. D
D. None of the above
Ans. B Que. During slowing or stopping of
vehicles ___ is used to disengage engine
Que. Energy absorbed by car brake is from wheels and enable smooth stopping
A. Kinetic Energy of vehicle.
B. Potential Energy A. Clutch
C. Kinetic +Potential Energy B. Coupling
D. None of the above C. Brake
Ans. A D. none of above
Ans. A Ans. C
Que. _________clutches are mostly used. Que. The overall size of________clutches
A. centrifugal clutch is high.
B. cone clutch A. Cone
C. multi-plate clutch B. Centrifugal
D. single plate clutch C. Single plate
Ans. D D. All of the these
Ans. C
Que. The brake absorbs ……….energy
given by objects being lowered by cranes Que. During slowing or stopping of
elevators etc. vehicles ___ is used to disengage engine
A. Potential from wheels and enable smooth stopping
B. Kinetic of vehicle.
C. Thermal A. Clutch
D. Electric B. Coupling
Ans. A C. Brake
D. none of above
Que. In rigid flange coupling, one flange Ans. A
has projected portion and other has a
corresponding recess for Que. ………..is a device with the help of
A. bringing two shafts in line and which artificial frictional resistance is
maintaining alignment applied to a moving machine.
B. transmitting torque from one flange to A. coupling
other flange B. Clutch
C. connecting two shafts C. Brake
D. reducing the friction between the two D. None of these
flanges Ans. C
Ans. A
Que. When the brake lever is released the
Que. The …….brake are used in hoisting two piston are pushed back by
machinery. A. Wheel hub
A. Disk brake B. Fluid line
B. Drum brake C. Brake disc
C. Double block D. Retractor spring
D. Band brake Ans. D
Ans. B
Que. The disc brake consists of
Que. The flexible flange couplings can --- ………………..
A. tolerate small lateral misalignment A. Rotating brake disc
B. not tolerate small lateral misalignment B. Two friction pads mounted on either
C. tolerate small angular misalignment side of disc
D. Both A and C C. Hydraulic caliper
Ans. D D. All of these
Ans. D
Que. Keys are subjected to ____ stresses.
A. crushing Que. In rigid flange coupling, the torque is
B. shearing transmitted from the driving shaft to the
C. both A and B driven shaft ----.
D. none of these A. directly
B. through flanges
C. through key-flange-bolts-key Que. In case of sunk key, power is
D. through keys transmitted by means of,
Ans. C A. friction force
B. shear resistance of key
Que. The shafts will have same strength on C. torsional shear resistance of key
the basis of torsional rigidity, if D. tensile force
A. diameter and length of both shafts is Ans. B
same
B. material of both shafts is same Que. The standard width for square or flat
C. angle of twist for both shafts is same key in terms of shaft diameter D is,
D. all of above conditions are satisfied A. d
Ans. D B. d/2
C. d/4
Que. Which is the correct statement, D. d/8
A. cold rolling produces stronger shafts Ans. C
than hot rolling
B. hot rolling produces stronger shafts than Que. The standard height for flat key in
cold rolling terms of shaft diameter D. is,
C. cold rolling and hot rolling produces A. d
equally strong shafts B. d/2
D. strength of shaft is independent of C. d/4
rolling processes D. d/6
Ans. A Ans. D
Que. The function of key is Que. The standard length for square or flat
A. to connect transmission shaft to a key in terms of shaft diameter D is,
rotating machine elements like gears A. d
B. to transmit torque from shaft to hub and B. 2d
vice versa C. A.5d
C. to prevent relative rotational motion D. 2.5d
between the shaft and the connected Ans. C
element
D. all of above three functions Que. The type of key used when the gear
Ans. D is required to slide on the shaft is
A. sunk key
Que. The standard taper for sunk key is B. feather key
A. 1 in 100 C. Woodruff key
B. 1 in 50 D. Kennedy key
C. 1 in 10 Ans. B
D. 1 in 1000
Ans. A Que. The key in the form of semi-circular
disk of uniform thickness is called,
Que. In case of sunk key, A. sunk key
A. the keyway is cut in the shaft only B. feather key
B. the keyway is cut in the hub only C. Woodruff key
C. the keyway is cut in both the shaft and D. Kennedy key
the hub Ans. C
D. none of the above
Ans. C
Que. The key, which fits in the keyway of D. bicycle
hub, only is called, Ans. B
A. saddle key
B. feather key Que. While designing a shaft, key and hub,
C. Woodruff key care is taken so that
D. Kennedy key A. shaft is the weakest component
Ans. A B. key is the strongest component
C. key is the weakest component
Que. In case of saddle key, power is D. the hub is the weakest component
transmitted by means of, Ans. C
A. friction force
B. shear resistance of key Que. A flange coupling is used
C. crushing resistance of key A. for intersecting shafts
D. tensile force B. for collinear shafts
Ans. A C. for small shafts rotating at slow speeds
D. for parallel shafts
Que. The key, which consists of two Ans. B
square keys, is called,
A. saddle key Que. While designing a flange coupling,
B. feather key care is taken so that
C. Woodruff key A. shaft is the weakest component
D. Kennedy key B. bolts are the weakest component
Ans. A C. key is the weakest component
D. the flange is the weakest component
Que. Kennedy key is used in Ans. C
A. light duty applications
B. heavy duty applications Que. A bushed-pin type flange coupling is
C. high speed applications used
D. precision equipments A. for intersecting shafts
Ans. B B. when the shafts are not in exact
alignment
Que. The keyway, C. for small shafts rotating at slow speeds
A. reduces strength of shaft D. for parallel shafts
B. reduces rigidity of shaft Ans. B
C. increases stress concentration
D. all of above Que. A muff coupling is
Ans. D A. rigid coupling
B. flexible coupling
Que. Splines are used if, C. shock absorbing coupling
A. the power to be transmitted is high D. none of the above
B. the torque to be transmitted is high Ans. A
C. the speed is high
D. there is relative motion between shaft Que. In case of clamp coupling, power is
and hub transmitted by means of,
Ans. D A. friction force
B. shear resistance
Que. Splines are commonly used in C. crushing resistance
A. machine tool gear box D. none of the above
B. automobile gear box Ans. A
C. hoist and crane gear box
Que. In radial bearings, the load acts B. thin film bearing
A. along the axis of rotation C. antifriction bearing
B. perpendicular to the axis of rotation D. bush bearing
C. parallel to the axis of rotation Ans. C
D. A and C
Ans. B Que. The balls of rolling contact bearings
are made of
Que. In thrust bearings, the load acts A. case hardened steel
A. along the axis of rotation B. plain carbon steel
B. perpendicular to the axis of rotation C. high carbon chromium steel
C. parallel to the axis of rotation D. free cutting steel
D. a and c Ans. C
Ans. A
Q. The rollers of rolling contact bearings
Que. Antifriction bearings are are made of
A. oil lubricated bearings A. case hardened steel
B. bush bearings B. plain carbon steel
C. ball and roller bearings C. high carbon chromium steel
D. boundary lubricated bearings D. free cutting steel
Ans. C Ans. A
Que. Rolling contact bearings as compared Que. The catalogue life of bearing is
to sliding contact bearings have A. minimum life that 90% of the bearings
A. lower starting torque will reach or exceed
B. require considerable axial space B. maximum life for 90% of the bearings
C. generate less noise C. average life
D. costly D. median life
Ans. A Ans. A
Que. Stress induced in the balls or rollers Que. In case of full journal bearing, the
of rolling contact bearing is angle of contact of the bushing with the
A. torsional shear stress journal is
B. tensile stress A. 60°
C. crushing stress B. 90°
D. contact stress C. 180°
Ans. D D. 360°
Ans. D
Que. In an application, the bearing is
subjected to radial as well as axial loads. Que. In case of partial bearing, the angle
Which type of rolling contact bearings you of contact of the bushing with the journal
would suggest? is -------
A. cylindrical roller bearing A. 270°
B. needle roller bearing B. more than 180°
C. thrust ball bearing C. less than 180°
D. taper roller bearing D. 360°
Ans. D Ans. C
Que. The rolling contact bearing is known Que. In case of partial bearing, the angle
as of contact of the bushing with the journal
A. sleeve bearing is usually
A. 120° B. dimensions of friction lining
B. 180° C. axial force provided to engage the
C. 45° clutch
D. 360° D. all the above three factors
Ans. A Ans. D
Que. The clutch used in trucks is Que. The friction moment in a clutch with
A. centrifugal clutch uniform wear as compared to friction
B. cone clutch moment with uniform pressure is
C. multi-plate clutch A. more
D. single plate clutch B. equal
Ans. D C. less
D. more or less depending on speed
Que. The clutch used in scooters is Ans. C
A. multi-plate clutch
B. single plate clutch Que. The friction radius for new clutch
C. centrifugal clutch compared to worn out clutch will be
D. cone clutch A. more
Ans. A B. equal
C. less
Que. The friction material of the clutch D. more or less depending on size of
should have clutch
A. high coefficient of friction Ans. A
Que. When the frictional force helps to Que. Shaft should be made out of material
apply the brake, the brake is said to be with __________________
A. partially self-energizing A. High Resilience
B. self-locking B. Machinability
C. back-stop C. Ductility
D. self-acting D. All of the above
Ans. A Ans. D
A. parallel key
B. round key A. single plate clutch
C. spline B. multi-plate clutch
D. woodruff C. cone clutch
Ans. D D. centrifugal clutch
Ans. A
Que. Identify the machine element.
Que. Identify the machine element.
A. spindle
B. line shaft
C. axel
D. counter shaft A. rigid flange coupling
Ans. B. compression coupling
C. Oldham coupling
Que. Identify the machine element. D. Bushed-pin type flexible coupling
Ans. D
A. crankshaft
B. spindle A. rigid flange coupling
C. axel B. compression coupling
D. counter shaft C. Oldham coupling
Ans. A D. universal coupling
Ans. D
Que. Identify the machine element.
Unit IB
Que. The power transmitted by belt drive
depends upon
A. belt velocity
B. initial belt tension
C. arc of contact
D. all of the above
A. calliper disc brake
Ans. D
B. single plate clutch
C. multi-plate clutch
D. drum and shoe brake
Que. The suitable material for belt in
Ans. A
agricultural machinery is
A. leather
B. rubber
Que. Identify the machine element.
C. cotton duck
D. balata gum
Ans. B
B. rubber
C. canvas or cotton duck D. none of the above
Ans. A
D. balata gum
Ans. C
Que. The included angle between the sides
of V belt is
Que. When the belt speed increases A. 400
A. power transmitted increases B. 450
B. power transmitted decreases C. 380
C. power transmitted increases to a D. 420
maximum value and then decreases Ans. A
D. power transmitted remains the same
Ans. C
Que. The groove angle of pulleys for V
belt is
A. 340 to 360
B. 420 to 450
Que. The creep in the belt is due to C. more than 400
A. effect of temperature on belt D. 300 to 320
B. material of belt Ans. A
C. unequal extensions in the belt due to
tight and slack side tensions
D. stresses beyond elastic limit of belt Que. The objective of ‘crowning’ of the
material flat pulleys of belt drive is to
Ans. C A. prevent the belt from running off the
pulley
B. increase the power transmission
Que. The coefficient of friction in belt capacity
drive depends upon C. increase the belt velocity
A. material of belt D. prevent the belt joint from damaging
B. material of pulley the belt surface
C. materials of belt and pulley Ans. A
D. belt velocity
Ans. C
Que. The objective of idler pulley in belt
drive is to
Que. Which is positive drive? A. decrease the tendency of belt to slip
A. flat belt drive B. increase the power transmission
B. V belt drive capacity
C. crossed belt drive C. increase the wrap angle and belt
D. timing belt tension
Ans. D D. all the above objectives
Ans. D
Que. Fabric belts are used in industrial Que. In case of V belt drive
applications because A. the belt should touch the bottom of
A. they are cheap groove in the pulley
B. they can work at high temperature B. the belt should not touch the bottom of
C. they are unaffected by moisture and groove in the pulley
humidity
C. the belt should not touch the sides of Ans. C
groove in the pulley
D. none of the above
Ans. B Que. In some applications, chain drives are
preferred to belt drive because of
A. compact construction
Que. In case of V belt drive, the belt makes B. positive transmission
contact at C. low cost
A. the bottom of groove in the pulley D. A. and B.
B. the bottom and the sides of groove in Ans. D
the pulley
C. the sides of groove in the pulley
D. none of the above Que. Following type of chain is used in
Ans. C motorcycle
A. roller
B. silent
Que. The belt slip occurs due to C. link
A. heavy load D. None of the above
Ans. A
B. loose belt
C. driving pulley too small
Que. A chain drives is used for
D. any one of the above A. short distance
Ans. D B. long distance
C. medium distance
D. distance is no criterion for chain drive
Que. For same pulley diameters, centre Ans. D
distance, belt speed and belt and pulley
materials, Que. The number of teeth on driving
A. open belt drive transmits more power sprocket should be more than 17 in order
than crossed belt drive to
B. crossed belt drive transmits more A. reduce wear
power than open belt drive B. reduce interference
C. open and crossed belt drives transmit C. reduce variation in chain speed
same power D. reduce undercutting
D. power transmission does not depend Ans. C
upon open and crossed types of
constructions
Ans. B Que. The variation in chain speed is due to
A. chordal action
B. creep
Que. In replacing the V belts, a complete C. slip
set of new belts is used instead of D. backlash
replacing a single damaged belt because Ans. A
A. belts are available in sets
B. only one belt cannot be fitted with
other used belts Que. The number of teeth on sprocket
C. the new belt will carry more than its should be odd in order to
share and result in short life A. reduce polygonal effect
D. new and old belts will cause vibrations B. reduce wear
C. reduce back sliding
D. evenly distribute wear on all sprocket Que. When the axes of two shafts are
teeth perpendicular and non-intersecting, use
Ans. D A. spur gears
B. bevel gears
C. worm gears
Que. Main types of failure in roller chain D. helical gears
are Ans. C
A. breakage of link plates
B. wear of rollers and pins
C. wear of sprocket wheel Que. When the axes of two shafts are non-
D. all of the above parallel and non-intersecting, use
Ans. D A. helical gears
B. crossed helical gears
C. straight bevel gears
Que. As compared to belt drive, the chain D. spiral bevel gears
drive transmits Ans. B
A. more power
B. less power Que. When the velocity ratio is high and
C. same power space is limited, use
D. none of the above A. spur gears
Ans. A B. bevel gears
C. worm gears
D. helical gears
Que. Which of the following type of drives Ans. C
transmit power by friction?
A. spur gear drive
B. chain drive Que. Which of the following type of gears
C. worm gear drive are free from axial thrust?
D. belt drive A. herringbone gears
Ans. D B. Bevel gears
C. worm gears
D. Helical gears
Que. When the axes of two shafts are Ans. A
parallel, use
A. crossed helical gears
B. bevel Que. Which of the following type of gears
C. worm gears are used for noiseless operation?
D. spur or helical gears A. spur gears
Ans. D B. bevel gears
C. worm gears
D. helical gears
Que. When the axes of two shafts are Ans. D
perpendicular and intersecting, use
A. spur gears Que. Which of the following type of gears
B. bevel gears provide maximum velocity ratio?
C. worm gears A. spur gears
D. helical gears B. bevel gears
Ans. B C. worm gears
D. helical gears C. involute
Ans. C D. a and c
Ans. D
Que. Cycloidal tooth gears are used in
A. automobile gearbox Que. Driven pulley is also called as ___
B. machine tool gearbox A. Tail pulley
C. spring driven watches and clocks B. Driving pulley
D. materials handling equipment C. Head pulley
Ans. C D. All of the above
Ans. A
Que. An open belt drive is used when Que. In a multiple V-belt drive if one of
A. shaft are arranged parallel & rotate in the belts break then
the opposite directions A. only the broken belt is replaced
B. shafts are arranged parallel & rotate in B. the entire set of belts is replaced
the same directions C. the broken belt & the belt on either side
C. shafts are arranged at right angles & of it is replaced
rotate in one definite direction D. the broken belt need not to be replaced
D. driven shaft is to be started or stopped Ans. B
whenever desired without interferring with
the driving shaft.
Ans. B Que. Crowning on pulley helps
A. in decreasing the slip of the belt
B. in increasing the slip of the belt
Que. In a crossed belt drive,the shafts are C. to keep the belt in centre on a pulley
arranged parallel & rotate in the same while it is in motion
directions D. to increase pulley life
A. Right Ans. C
B. Wrong
C. partially wrong
D. partially right Que. Idler pulley is used for
Ans. B A. increasing velocity ratio
B. for applying tension
C. changing the direction of motion of belt
D. incresing the speed D. working depth
Ans. B Ans. B
Que. The V-belt are particularly suitable Que. The radial distance of a tooth from
for ______ drives the pitch circle to the bottom of the tooth is
A. short called
B. long A. dedendum
C. very long B. addendum
D. all of the above C. clearance
Ans. A D. working depth
Ans. A
Que. The gear pair does not create axial Que. Which of the following type of gears
thrust on shaft has sudden line contact provide maximum velocity ratio?
between meshing teeth .Then it must be A. spur gears
A. spur gear B. bevel gears
B. helical gear C. worm gears
C. herringbone D. helical gears
D. (a) or (b) Ans. C
Ans. A
A. Spur gear
A. Spur gear
B. Helical gear
B. Helical gear
C. Worm and Worm wheel
C. Worm and Worm wheel
D. Bevel gear
D. Bevel gear
Ans. A
Ans. C
Que. Identify type of gear
((Q))1_UnitIIA// __________________
material undergoes plastic deformation
under tensile loading
A. Malleable
B. Ductile
C. Hard
D. Brittle
Ans. B
A. Spur gear
B. Helical gear
C. Worm and Worm wheel
D. Bevel gear ((Q))1_UnitIIA// __________________ is
Ans. B the unit for stiffness
A. N/mm^2
B. kg/mm^2
C. N/mm^3
D. None of the above
Ans. D
Que. Identify type of drive
((Q))1_UnitIIA// __________________ is
the unit for stiffness
A. N/mm ((Q))1_UnitIIA//The opposite of ductility
B. kg/mm is ________________
C. N/mm^2 A. Malleability
D. All of the above B. Hardness
Ans. A C. Brittleness
D. None of the above
Ans. C
((Q))1_UnitIIA// __________________
material resists deformation under stress
A. Stiff ((Q))1_UnitIIA// ____________ material
B. Strong resists scratches
C. Hard A. Malleable
D. Tough B. Ductile
Ans. A C. Hard
D. Brittle
Ans. C
((Q))1_UnitIIA//The total amount of
energy absorbed by a material before it
fails is called _______________ ((Q))1_UnitIIA//_________________ is a
A. Plasticity compressive property
B. Strength A. Malleability
C. Toughness B. Ductility
D. Elasticity C. Hardness
Ans. C D. Brittleness
Ans. A
A. Elasticity
B. Hardness
C. Toughness
D. None of the above
Ans. B
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Which property is
required to manufacture following object?
A. Elasticity
B. Stiffness
C. Toughness
D. None of the above
Ans. B
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Which property is
required for following object?
((A)Malleability
B. Hardness
C. Toughness
D. None of the above
Ans. A
A. Elasticity
B. Hardness
((Q))1_UnitIIA//_________ is the most
C. Toughness
desirable property to avoid damage of car
D. None of the above
bonnet in below case.
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Scratchproof screens in
below picture should
possess___________
A. Plasticity
((A)Malleability B. Hardness
B. Hardness C. Toughness
C. Toughness D. None of the above
D. None of the above Ans. A
Ans. C
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Which property is tested
((Q))1_UnitIIA//_________ type of
in following object?
material shows following failure.
((A)Malleability
B. Hardness
C. Toughness
((A)Ductile D. None of the above
B. Hard Ans. B
C. Brittle
D. None of the above
Ans. C ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Area under the Stress-
Strain curve below is_______.
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Which property is
required to manufacture the foundation
bed in below animation?
A. Malleability
B. Hardness
C. Toughness
D. None of the above
Ans. C
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Which property is
required to manufacture following object?
A. Malleability
B. Plasticity
C. Toughness
D. None of the above
Ans. C
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Product needs to be
A. Malleability designed for_______
B. Hardness
A. functional requirements
C. Ductility
B. appearance
D. None of the above
C. user comfort
Ans. C
D. All of the above
Ans. D
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Which property is
required to manufacture following object?
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Following is not a type
of machine design:
A. Product design
B. Element design
C. System design
D. Process design
Ans. D
C. make product economical
D. make product stronger
((Q))1_UnitIIA//Design of a car is an Ans. B
example of:
A. Product design
B. Element design ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Aesthetics deals with the
C. System design A. appearance of the product
D. Process design B. human comfort
Ans. C C. delicacy of the product
D. human safety
((Q))1_UnitIIA//The process of selecting Ans. A
or creating the mechanism for the machine
and the shapes of the mechanical elements ((Q))1_UnitIIA//Ability of the machine
so as to get the desired output for the given element to avoid the failure due to yielding
input is known as or fracture under load is known as
A. Analysis A. Rigidity
B. Optimization B. Strength
C. Synthesis C. Toughness
D. Creative design D. Safety
Ans. C Ans. B
((Q))1_UnitIIA//The objective of
ergonomics is to ((Q))1_UnitIIA//The aerodynamic shape
A. make user adopt himself to the m/c of the car is an example of the following
B. make m/c fit for user guideline of the aesthetic design:
A. the appearance should reflect the cost
of the product
B. the appearance should contribute to the ((Q))1_UnitIIA//The prime objective of
comfort of the user factor of safety is:
C. the appearance should contribute to the A. to reduce the cost of the product
performance of the product B. to improve the efficiency
D. all of the above C. to account for the uncertainty
Ans. C D. all of above
Ans. C
((Q))1_UnitIIB//Grashof's Law is
((Q))1_UnitIIB// Four bar chain related to
consists of _____________________ _________________________
A. Four turning pairs A. Slider crank chain
B. Two turning pairs B. Four bar chain
C. Two sliding and two turning pairs C. Double slider crank chain
D. One sliding and three turning pairs D. both a and b
Ans. A Ans. B
((Q))1_UnitIIA//A __________________
((Q))1_UnitIIA//The second step in design material retains deformation when loaded
process is _________________________ A. Plastic
A. Analysis of forces B. Strong
B. Selection of material C. Tough
C. Synthesis D. Elastic
D. Problem Definition Ans. A
Ans. C
((Q))1_UnitIIA//A __________________
((Q))1_UnitIIA//The third step in design process material resists failure due to loading
is ______________________ A. Plastic
A. Analysis of forces B. Strong
B. Selection of material C. Tough
C. Detailed drawing D. Elastic
D. Problem Definition Ans. B
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A Unconstrained rigid A. Spherical pair
body in space will have ----------DOF. B. Revolute pair
A. 1 C. Cylindrical pair
B. 2 D. Screw pair
C. 3 Ans. D
D. 6
Ans. D
((Q))1_UnitIIB//The lead screw of a lathe with
nut forms a----------
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A In a planer pair, number of A. Sliding Pair
DOF IS……… B. Revolute Pair
A. 3 C. Prismatic Pair
B. 2 D. Screw Pair
C. 6 Ans. A
D. 5
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIB//When crank rotates, the
connecting rod _________________loading
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A screw pair with 0 pitch can A. Slides
be called as ------ B. Rotates
A. Cylindrical Pair C. Oscillates
((B)Spherical Pair D. None of the above
C. Prismatic Pair Ans. C
D. Revolute Pair
Ans. B
((Q))1_UnitIIB//The piston of slider crank
mechanism ________________
A. Slides
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A The mechanism form a
B. Rotates
structure, when DOF=
C. Oscillates
A. 0
D. Fixed
B. 1
Ans. A
C. 2
D. 3
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIB//The connecting rod of slider
crank mechanism ________________
A. Slides
((Q))1_UnitIIB//Kinematic chain having N links B. Rotates
will have C. Oscillates
A. (N-1) Inversion D. Fixed
B. (N-1-1) Inversion Ans. C
C. N Inversion
D. N+1Inversion
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIB//Slider crank mechanism consists
of __________ sliding pairs.
A. 1
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A bolt and nut forms_______ B. 2
C. 3 Ans. C
D. 0
Ans. 1
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A nut and bolt
_________________
((Q))1_UnitIIB//Slider crank mechanism consists A. can form a kinematic pair
of __________ turning pairs B. can form a non-kinematic pair
A. 2 C. can form a structure
B. 3 D. can form a chain
C. 0 Ans. C
D. 4
Ans. B
((Q))1_UnitIIB//Mechanism is a
______________________
((Q))1_UnitIIB//________________ connects A. Machine
crank and lever B. Kinematic chain used for power transmission
A. Coupler C. Kinematic chain with one link fixed
D. Kinematic chian used for doing work
B. Connecting Rod
Ans. C
C. Frame
D. None of the above
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIB//for a given image, Frame and
glass forms a
((Q))1_UnitIIB//Structure is used to
______________________
A. Transfer Motion
B. Transfer Load
C. Support Load
D. None
A. Revolute pair
B. Sliding Pair
C. Cylindrical Pair
D. Screw Pair
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIB//In a __________________
A. Spherical Pair mechanism , rotary motion is converted into
B. Revolute Pair reciprocating motion
C. Cylindrical Pair A. Whitworth
D. Scew B. Beam Engine
Ans. A C. Scotts russel
D. Geneva
Ans. B
((Q))1_UnitIIB//Double wishbone suspension
system consists of __________________
revolute pair ((Q))1_UnitIIB//A __________________
A. 2 mechanism is inversion of slider crank
B. 4 mechanism
C. 3 A. Slotted crank
D. 1 B. Beam engine
Ans. B C. Geneva
D. None
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A __________________pairis
used in Seesaw
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A __________________is fixed
in whitworth mechanism
A. Slider
B. Crank
C. Connecting Rod
D. Ground Body
Ans. B
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A __________________ is
A. Sliding
fixed in Reciprocating Engine
B. Turning
A. Ground Body
C. Spherical
B. Slider
D. None of the above
C. Crank
Ans. B
D. Connecting Rod
Ans. A
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A __________________ is
fixed in slotted crank mechanism
A. Slider
B. Crank
C. Connecting rod
D. Ground body
Ans. C
((Q))1_UnitIIB//A __________________ is
fixed in hand pump
A. Slider
B. Crank
C. Connecting rod
D. Ground Body
Ans. A
Basic Mechanical
Engineering
Q.A prototype of a part to be casted which
is used to create cavity inside the sand
UNIT IIIA
mould is called
1.Pattern
Q.Draft on pattern is provided for
B. Cope
1.Allowance for machining
C. Core
B. Easy removal of pattern
D. Sprue
C. Compensation for shrinkage during
Ans. A
solidification
D. Compensation for shrinkage after
Q.Pattern can be made from
solidification
1.Wax
Ans. B
B. Plaster of Paris
C. Both (a) and (b)
Q.Shrinkage allowance on pattern is
D. None of the above
provided for
Ans. C
1.Compensation for finishing operation
after completion of casting
B. Easy removal of casting
Q.Core can be made from
C. Compensation for shrinkage during
1.Wax
solidification
B. Plastic
D. Compensation for shrinkage after
C. Refractory material
solidification
D. All of the above
Ans. C
Ans. C
Q.Riser is provided to
1.Check whether mould cavity is
Q.The portion of mould which lies
completely filled
between sprue and gate is called
B. Reduce impurities
1.Gate
C. Store molten metal to compensate for
B. Runner
shrinkage during solidification
C. Riser
D. All of these
D. Core
Ans. A
Ans. B
B. Increase cooling rate
Q.The portion of mould which lies C. Reduce impurities
between mould cavity and runner is called D. Support core
1.Gate Ans. B
B. Runner
C. Riser Q.„Chaplet‟ is used to
D. Core 1.Reduce washout of sand during pouring
Ans. A B. Increase cooling rate
C. Reduce impurities
Q.The vertical conical portion of mould D. Support core
through which molten metal is poured is Ans. D
called
1.Riser Q.„Pads‟ are used to
B. Sprue 1.Reduce washout of sand during pouring
C. Runner B. Increase cooling rate
D. Gate C. Reduce impurities
Ans. B D. Support core
Ans. D
((Q))2_UnitIIIA// Arrange the following
parts of mould in correct sequence as per Q. „Skim bob‟ is used to
path followed by molten metal 1.Reduce washout of sand during pouring
1. Cavity B. Increase cooling rate
2. Sprue C. Reduce impurities
3. Gate D. Support core
4. Runner Ans. C
5. Pouring basin
1.5-3-2-4-1 Q.Draft is provided on sprue to
B. 5-2-4-3-1 1.Facilitate removal of casting
C. 1-5-2-4-3 B. Reduce aspiration effect
D. 5-4-2-3-1 C. Decrease turbulence of molten metal
Ans. B D. Reduce washout of sand during
pouring
Q.„Chill‟ is used to Ans. B
1.Reduce washout of sand during pouring
Q.„Core‟ is used to Q.Green sand consists of
1.Reduce aspiration effect 1.Sand, copper sulphate, water
B. To produce hollow castings B. Sand, graphite powder, water
C. Reduce impurities C. Sand, clay, water
D. Support core D. Sand, refractory powder, water
Ans. B Ans. C
A. gate
B. riser
C. runner
D. core
Ans. C
B. riser
C. gate
D. core
Ans. A
A. runner
B. riser
C. gate
D. core
Ans. D
UNIT IIIB current
B. High voltage and low
material Ans. C
B. Pressure
C. Heat
D. Both (A) and (C)
Ans. C ((Q))2_UnitIIIB// Arrange the following
processes in increasing order of operating
C. Combustion of 4. Casting
gases 5. Soldering
Ans. D A. 1-3-5-6-2-4
B. 1-2-5-3-6-4
B. Chemical Reaction
C. Combustion of Q. Typical operating current in electric
Ans. A mA
B. 1 to 5 A
arc welding A
A. Drawing
B. Deep Drawing
C. Both A and B
D. None of the above
A. Piercing Ans. B
B. Punching
C. Perforating
D. Blanking
Ans. C
A. Shearing
B. Notching
A. A
C. Bending
B. B
D. Angle making
C. C
Ans. A
D. D
Ans. D
Q. Identify the operation performed on
sheet metal working
Q. The angle bending operation is given Ans. C
by
Q. Which of the following represents
Lancing operations?
.
A. A
B. B
C. C
A. A
D. D
B. B
Ans. D
C. C
D. D
Q. The Piercing operation is given by
Ans. D
B. Piercing
Q. The following component produced by C. blanking
operation D. punching
Ans. A
B. Notching
C. Lancing
D. Deep Drawing
Ans. A
A. punching
Q. Identify the manufacturing process. B. piercing
C. coining
D. blanking
Ans. A rotating tool into stationary workpiece is
called as _____________
A. Drilling Machine
Q. Identify the manufacturing process.
B. Lathe Machine
C. Boring Machine
D. All the above
Ans. A
Q. The cutting tool on a Lathe machine is Q. The tail stock on a Lathe machine is
hold & supported by used to hold & support
((A))Bed ((A))Cutting tool
((B))Tool post ((B))Chuck key
((C))Chuck ((C))Coolant pipe
((D))All of above ((D))Work piece
((E))B ((E))A
((F)) ((F))
Q. The cutting tool on a Lathe machine is Q. The tail stock on a Lathe machine is
hold & supported by used to hold & support
((A))Bed ((A))Work piece
((B))Tail stock ((B))Chuck key
((C))Chuck ((C))Coolant pipe
((D))All of above ((D))None of above
((E))B ((E))D
((F)) ((F))
Q. The cutting tool on a Lathe machine is Q. The rotation of chuck of lathe machine
hold & supported by is due to
((A))Bed
((B))Carriage ((A))Crank shaft
((C))Chuck ((B))Counter shaft
((D))None of above ((C))Spindle shaft
((E))B ((D))Main shaft
((F)) ((E))C
((F))
Q. The tool post on a Lathe machine is
used to hold & support Q. The rotation of chuck of lathe machine
((A))Cutting tool is due to
((B))Chuck key ((A))Crank shaft
((C))Coolant pipe ((B))Counter shaft
((D))Work piece ((C))Main shaft
((E))A ((D))None of above
((F)) ((E))D
((F))
Q. The spindle shaft of lathe machine Q. The carriage assembly of a lathe
drives machine gives movement to
((A))Chuck ((A))Chuck
((B))Carriage ((B))Cutting tool
((C))Tail stock ((C))Tail stock
((D))Electric motor ((D))Electric motor
((E))A ((E))B
((F)) ((F))
Q. ____________________ is located
Q. To remove material in form of large on the top of the compound post.
chips _________________ is not used A. Cross slide
A. Welding B. Toolpost
B. Soldering C. Tailstock
C. Brazing D. None of the above
D. All of the above Ans. B
Ans. D
Q. _____________________ invloves
Q. To remove material in form of small production of cylindrical surface
chips _________________ is used. A. Straight turning
A. Grinding Machine
B. Taper turning C. Boring
C. Facing D. Grooving
D. None of the above Ans. D
Ans. A
A. Conical turning
A. Cutting
B. Chamfering
B. Grooving
C. Facing
C. Facing
D. None of the above
D. Turning
Ans. D
Ans. B
A. Lathe
B. Drilling
C. Boring
D. Threading A. Drill
Ans. A B. Carriage
C. Facing Tool
D. Boring Tool
Q. Part shown in the following fig.
Ans. D
is…..
Q. The machine shown in the fig. Q. Knurling tool is.
is….. A. A single point cutting tool
B. Not a cutting tool
C. A pointless cutting tool
D. None of the above
Ans. D
Q. ‟shows ___________operation on
drilling machine.
A. Reaming
B. Boring
C. Threading
D. Both( a) and (b)
Ans. B
A. Counter boring
B. Countersinking
C. Spot Facing
D. Reaming
Ans. B
A. Reaming
B. Boring
C. Threading
D. Both( a) and (b)
Ans. B
Q. ‟shows ___________operation on
drilling machine.
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a. Statement (1), (2) and (3) b. Statement (1), (3) and (4).
c. Statement (2), (3) and (4) d. Statement (1), (2), (3) and (4)
9. A flat surface can be produced by a lathe machine, if the cutting tool moves
11. Which of the following is a mechanism for mechanized movements of the car-
riage along longitudinal axis?
a. Cross-slide b. Compound rest
c. Apron. d. Saddle
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14. In an isolated system, can be transferred between the system and its
surrounding.
a. only energy b. only mass
c. both energy and mass d. neither energy nor mass.
15. Which of the following energy conversion devices convert heat into work?
a. Electrical generators b. I. C engines.
c. Condensers d. All of the above
16. Smoke tube boilers have large water to steam ratio, hence
a. have high evaporation rates
b. are slow in operations.
c. temperature stresses inducing failure of feed water arrangement are maximum
d. all of the above
17. In four stroke cycle engine, cycle is completed in
a. two strokes of the piston b. two revolutions of the crankshaft.
c. three strokes of the piston d. four revolutions of the crankshaft
18. Determine torque transmitted on the pinion shaft if torque transmitted on
gear shaft is 20 Nm. Consider Gear ratio = 4
a. 8 Nm b. 5 Nm.
c. 80 Nm d. 16 Nm
19. Which of the following statements is/are true for gear drives?
a. They can be used for long centre distances
b. They are used to transmit power between non-intersecting and parallel shafts.
c. They cannot be used for high reduction ratios
d. All of the above
20. In which power transmitting drive polygon effect is observed?
a. Belt drive b. Chain drive.
c. Both a. and b d. None of the above
21. What is meant by gear ratio?
a. The ratio of pinion speed and gear speed.
b. The ratio of number of teeth on pinion and number of teeth on gear
c. Both a. and b.
d. None of the above
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22. Which gears are used to connect two intersecting shaft axes?
a. Crossed helical gear b. Worm and worm wheel
c. Bevel gears. d. All of the above
23. Which of the following statements are false for belt drives?
1. Belt drive is used in applications having constant speed drive
2. Belt drives can be used at extremely high speeds
3. Belt drives have low power transmitting capacity
4. Belt drives need continuous lubrication
a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 4.
24. Determine power rating of an electric motor if it runs at 1440 r.p.m and line
shaft transmits torque of 75 Nm. Assume Reduction ratio = 1.6
a. 10.36 kW b. 11.3 kW
c. 7.068 kW d. 9.12 kW
25. In simple gear trains the direction of rotation of driven gear is opposite to the
direction of rotation of driving gear only if
a. even number of idler gears are present.
b. odd number of idler gears are present
27. Match the following Manufacturing processes with their Types and select the
correct option.
1. Metal forming A. Grinding
2. Surface finish B. Rivetting
3. Sheet metal working C. Extrusion
4. Metal joining D. Blanking
a. 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B b. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B.
c. 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C d. 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – C
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45. What is the average temperature required for hot forging of aluminium
alloys?
a. 1100 °C to 1200 °C b. 350 °C to 525 °C.
c. 2000 °C to 2500 °C d. None of the above
46. The clutch used in scooter is
a. Multiplate clutch b. single plate clutch
c. centrifugal clutch d. cone clutch
47. The brake used in most of motorcycle is
a. Internal expanding shoe brake b. block brake
c. band brake d. disk break
48. The power transmitted in belt depends upon
a. Belt velocity b. initial belt tension
c. arc of contact d. all the above
49. The brake used in railway
a. Shoe brake b. block brake
c. band brake d. disk brake
50. The type of spring used in vehicle clutches
a. Helical compression spring b. Belleville spring
c. both a and b d. Helical torsion spring
51. Which is type of brake
a. Mechanical brake b. hydraulic brake
c. electric and magnetic brake d. All of the above
52. The overall cost of disk brake is
a. Low b. high
c. moderate d. None of the above
53. Clutch is of which material
a. Smooth b. hard
c. friction d. All of the above
54. is the prime-mover
a. Electric Motor b. I.C.Engine
c. Steam Engines d. All of the above
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a. Clockwise b. anticlockwise
c. cannot be specify d. all of the above
203. The temperature indicating instrument in vehicles indicates the tempera-
ture of
a. Engine piston b. Engine cylinder
c. Lubricating oil d. Jacket cooling water.
204. Two general types of tyres are
a. Tube type and tubeless. b. Solid and tubeless
c. Air and pneumatic d. Split rim and drop centre
205. The power actually developed inside the engine cylinder is called as
a. Indicated power. b. Brake power
c. Frictional power d. None of these
206. The advantage of a tubeless tyre over tube type tyre is
a. Slow air leakage b. Better fuel efficiency
c. Less chances of running flat d. All of these.
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223. When the brake pedal free play is less than the specified value, then the
a. Brake drags.
b. Brake fades
c. Vapour locking occurs in the brake lines
d. Antilock braking system malfunctions
224. The acid used in automobile battery is
a. Hydrochloric acid b. Hydrofluoric acid
c. Nitric acid d. Sulphuric acid.
225. A four cylinder engine has a capacity of 2.4 litres. The swept volume of one
cylinder is
a. 400 cm³ b. 600 cm³.
c. 1200 cm³ d. 2400 cm³
226. For the same maximum pressure and temperature
a. Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle.
b. Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
c. Both Otto cycle and Diesel cycle are equally efficient
d. None of the above
227. The petrol engines are also known as
a. Spark ignition (S.I.) engines. b. Compression ignition (C.I.) engines
c. Steam engines d. None of these
228. The compression ratio of a petrol engine is nearly
a. 4:1 b. 8:1.
c. 15:1 d. 20:1
229. The component in the radiator of an automobile that increases the boiling
point of water is
a. Drain plug b. Water jacket
c. Vacuum valve d. Pressure cap.
230. An engine has a clearance volume of 100 cm³ and a swept volume of 800 cm³.
The compression ratio is
a. 7 : 1 b. 8 : 1
c. 9 : 1 d. 10 : 1
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231. If the engine coolant leaks into the engine oil, then engine oil
a. Appears milky. b. Become foamy
c. Turns black d. None of these
232. A clutch is usually designed to transmit maximum torque which is
a. Equal to the maximum engine torque
b. 80% of the maximum engine torque
c. 150% of the maximum engine torque.
d. None of these
233. In a four stroke engine for each crankshaft revolution, the camshaft revolves
a. One half turn. b. One turn
c. Two turns d. Four turn
234. During braking, the brake shoe is moved outward to force the lining against the
a. Wheel piston or cylinder b. Anchor pin
c. Brake drum. d. Wheel rim or axle
235 The basic purpose of tyres is to
a. Grip the road and provide good traction.
b. Substitute for springs
c. Act as brake
d. None of these
236. In Diesel engines, during suction stroke, is drawn in the cylinder.
a. Air and fuel b. Only fuel
c. Only air. d. None of these
237. The clutch is located between the transmission and the
a. Engine. b. Rear axle
c. Propeller shaft d. Differentia
238. In a ventilated disc brake
a. A duct directs air towards the caliper for cooling while the vehicle is moving
b. Caliper is covered with cooling fins
c. Disc contains many small holes for optimum cooling performance
d. Disc contains radial vanes between its rubbing surfaces for optimum cooling
performance.
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279. In a four cylinder inline engine, the number of firing strokes in one revolution
of the crank is
a. 1 b. 2
c. 3 d. 4
280. Suction Takes Place at of Centrifugal Pump
a. Eye of impeller. b. Casing
c. Delivery end d. Sump
281. Photocopier machine works on principle of
a. Photodiode Effect b. Photoconductivity.
c. Seebeck Effect d. Electromeric Effect
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Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions
c. Coolant them.
d. Nuclear energy
15. In hydro electrical plants 18. Dam is used to increase
the …. energy of water is used to the storage capacity of.. … and
move hydraulic turbine. increase the working.. ... of the
a. Potential Energy plant.
b. Kinetic energy
c. Both option a and b. 19. Function of surge tank is
protect the …. due to sudden
16. Function of a boiler is to variations of flow of water.
generate ….. on expense of heat
energy supplied.
20. Hydraulic turbines are
17. Moderators in a nuclear used to convert the ……..energy of
reactor are used to reduce the speed water into.… energy
of fast moving neutrons without ..…
SOLUTION
6. The suction compression expansion and 12. Thermal resistance to heat flow by
exhaust strokes of 4 strokes engine are conduction is
completed in x number of revolutions of a. k/Ax
crankshaft where the value of x is b. kx/A
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 c. x/kA
SinhgadCollegeofEngineering,Pune-41 Page 1
Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions
SinhgadCollegeofEngineering,Pune-41 Page 2
Strength of Mechanical Engineering Multiple Choice Questions
d. None of these
25. The transfer of heat between two bodies
in direct contact is called 31. A two stroke cycle engine gives
a. radiation _____________ the number of power
b. convection strokes as compared to the four stroke
c. conduction cycle engine, at the same engine speed.
d. none of the mentioned a. half
b. same
26. The transfer of heat between a wall and c. double
a fluid system in motion is called d. four times
a. radiation
b. convection Q. No. Solution Q. No. Solution
c. conduction 1 b 21 a
d. none of the mentioned 2 d 22 b
3 a 23 b
27. The working cycle in case of four stroke 4 c 24 a
engine is completed in following number 5 c 25 c
of revolutions of crankshaft
6 b 26 b
a. 1/2
b. 1 7 d 27 c
c. 2 8 b 28 d
d. 4 9 b 29 a
e. 8 10 a 30 a
28. The Stefan Boltzman law states that 11 d 31 c
a. E α T 12 c
b. E α T2 13 a
14 b
c. E α T3 15 a
d. E α T4 16 b
17 c
29. The body which absorbs all radiations
incident upon it, is called as 18 d
a. Black body 19 a
20 d
b. White body
c. Opaque body
d. Transparent body
30. The process of heat transfer from one
particle of the body to another without
actual motion of the particle is called
a. Radiation
b. Conduction
c. Convection
SinhgadCollegeofEngineering,Pune-41 Page 3
Strength of Mechanical Engineering
1. Which of the following is manufacturing a. reduce the diameter of a work piece along
process? its length
a. Forging b. reduce the diameter by removing material
b. Welding about an axis offset from the axis of work
c. Casting piece
d. All of the above c. remove the material from end surface of a
work piece
2. Which of the following is not a part of d. All of the above
carriage of the centre lathe?
a. Tool post 8. The process of removing sharp ends of a
b. Apron work piece is called as
c. Compound rest a. Knurling
d. Gear box controls b. Grooving
c. Facing
3. The centre lathes receive their power through d. Chamfering
a. Headstock
b. Tailstock 9. What is meant by drag in casting process?
c. Both a & b a. Upper part of casting flask
d. None of the above b. Molten metal
c. Lower part of casting flask
4. A flat surface can be produced by a lathe d. Upper & lower part of casting flask
machine, if the cutting tool moves
a. parallel to the axis of rotation of workpiece 10. Casting replica used to make the cavity is
b. at an angle of 450 called as
c. perpendicular to the axis of rotation of a. Mould
work piece b. Pattern
d. None of the above c. Cope
d. None of the above
5. What is the function of pulley drive in lathe
machines 11. The process of joining similar or dissimilar
a. Drive the lead screw materials by heating them below 4500C using
b. Change the spindle speed non-ferrous filler material is called as
c. Drive the tail-stock a. Brazing
d. All of the above b. Soldering
c. Welding
6. Which of the following is a mechanism for d. All of the above
mechanized movements of the carriage along
longitudinal axis? 12. Which process squeezes metals into peaks
a. Cross-slide and troughs with plastic deformation?
b. Compound rest a. Knurling
c. Apron b. Grooving
d. Saddle c. Reaming
d. None of the above
7. The function of taper turning process is to
13. Which of the following operations is/are create an extremely elongated strip of
performed on a lathe machine uniform and comparatively smaller cross-
a. Spot-facing sectional area, called?
b. Parting a. Rolling
c. Reaming b. Extrusion
d. All of the above c. Drawing
d. Spinning
14. The process of chamfering the entrance of a
drilled hole is known as 19. Castings are usually
a. counter-boring a. costlier than forgings
b. counter-sinking b. cheaper than forgings
c. counter-fillet c. at the same rate as forging for
d. trepanning similar metal
d. none of the above
15. On drilling machine, which process is known
as reaming? 20. Which of the following options best
a. Enlargement of existing hole describes the centre lathes?
b. Hole made by removal of metal along the a. Machining machines
hole circumference b. Shaping machines
c. Smoothly finishing and accurately sizing a c. Turning machines
drilled hole d. None of the above
d. All of the above
21. The process of joining two pieces of metal
16. Match the following Manufacturing with a different fusible metal applied in a
processes with their Types and select the molten state is called as
correct option. a. welding
1.Metal forming ———— A. Grinding b. soldering
2.Surface finish —————— B. Rivetting c. both a. and b
3.Sheet metal working ---------------C. d. none of the above
Extrusion
4. Metal joining ————— 22. Which gears are used to connect two
————————-D. Blanking intersecting shaft axes?
a. 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – D, 4 – B a. Crossed helical gear
b. 1 – C, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – B b. Worm and worm wheel
c. 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C c. Bevel gears
d. 1 – D, 2 – B, 3 – A, 4 – C d. All of the above
17. In which of the following processes, material 23. What is meant by gear ratio?
is neither added nor removed but is a. The ratio of pinion speed and gear
deformed into desired shape speed
a. Surface finishing process b. The ratio of number of teeth on
b. Metal forming process pinion and number of teeth on gear
c. Casting c. Both a. and b
d. Machining d. None of the above
18. What is the process, in which the metal is 24. The sand in its natural or moist state is called
caused to flow through a restricted orifice to as
Answer Sheet:
1 d 8 d 15 c 22 c
2 d 9 c 16 b 23 a
3 a 10 b 17 b 24 a
4 c 11 b 18 b 25 a
5 b 12 a 19 b 26 c
6 c 13 b 20 c
7 a 14 b 21 b
Q18. What is the material of the Q24. Which of the following is NOT the
connecting rod type of Hybrid Vehicle?
1. Mild steel 1. Plug-in Hybrid
2. Parallel Hybrid
3. Natural Gas For Vehicles
4. Series Hybrid
Q25.
The Hybrid Electric Vehicle consists of :
1. Internal Combustion Engine +
Electric Motor
2. Motor Electric 1 + Motor electric
2
3. NGV engine + Gasoline engine
2. The value of air sucked by the compressor during its suction stroke is called.......
A. Free air delivery
B. Compressor capacity
C. Swept volume
D. none of the above
9. The process of filling the liquid into the suction pipe and pump casing upto the
level of delivery valve is called as _________.
a. filling
b. pumping
c. priming
d. leveling
10. Due to slip of the belt, the velocity ratio of the belt drive
a) decreases
b) increases
c) does not change
d) none of the mentioned
18. The ________ the salt rejection, the better the system is performing.
a) Higher
b) Lower
c) Moderate
d) Poor
20. The process of extraction of the certain required amount of water from air is
known as ___________
a) Heating
b) Cooling
c) Humidification
d) Dehumidification
21. Which of the following refrigerant is widely used in domestic refrigeration?
A ammonia
B alcohol
C oxygen
DD. neon
29. Which part of washing machine actually perform the cleaning operation of
cloth clothes?
A Agitator
B Timer
C Drain
D Tub
31. In microwave oven, the micro waves have a special property that they are
absorb by
(a) water.
(b) fats.
(c) sugar.
(d) all of the above.
32. When the door of a refrigerator is kept open, the temperature of room will
(a) increase.
(b)decrease.
(c) remain same.
(d) none of the above.
(In reverted gear train and last gear train is on the same axis. Such an arrangement
has application on speed reducers clocks and machine tools.)
35. The term _________ is used to mean the free passage of clean air in a
structure.
a) Circulation
b) Ventilation
c) Dissipation
d) Condensation
36. Where people are working, there has to be ______________ to cause proper
ventilation of the premises.
a) Air change
b) Humidity
c) Temperature
d) Moisture
37. Exhaust system, supply system, air conditioning, etc. comes under ________
type of ventilation system.
a) Natural
b) Mechanical
c) Man-made
d) Doors
38. In ______________ system, the partial vacuum is created inside of the room by
exhausting the vitiated inside air by fans or blowers.
a) Supply
b) Plenum
c) Air conditioning
d) Exhaust
39. When brakes are applied on a moving vehicle; the kinetic energy is converted
to
(A) Mechanical energy
(B) Heat energy
(C) Electrical energy
(D) Potential energy
Efficiency is denoted by η.
Efficiency formula regarding Work is given as
49. If a cyclist puts 600 J of work on his bicycle and the bicycle gives out 140 J of
useful work. Calculate the efficiency of a cyclist.
A. 48 %
B. 34%
C. 23.3 %
D. 55%
Solution:
Work Input = 600 J,
Work Output = 140 J
The efficiency is given as
η ={ Work Output / Work Input }× 100 %
= {140 / 600} × 100 %
= 23.3 %
50. A heat engine gives out 500 J of heat energy as useful work. Determine the
energy supplied to it as input if its efficiency is 40%.
A.1400 J
B. 1250 J
C. 1170 J
D. 1920 J
Efficiency η = 40 %
Efficiency η = {Energy Output / Energy Input}× 100 %
∴ Energy input = Energy Output / η
= 500 / 0.40
= 1250 J
Unit III Vehicles and their Specifications (04 Hrs) Classification of automobile. Vehicle
specifications of two/three-wheeler, light motor vehicles, trucks, buses and multi-axle
vehicles. Engine components (Introduction). Study of engine specifications, comparison of
specifications of vehicles. Introduction of Electric and Hybrid Vehicles. Cost analysis of the
Vehicle.
76. Diesel engines are generally preferred for road transport these days because of low
A. Initial cost B. Manufacturing cost
C. Prime cost D. Operating cost
E. Maintenance cost
Answer: Option D
77. The device for smoothening out the power inpulses from the engine is called
A. Clutch B. Differential
C. Flywheel D. Torque convertor
E. Gear box
Answer: Option C
11. In a four stroke cycle engine camshaft revolves at ______ the crank
speed.
a) Two times
b) Half
c) Four times
d) Three times
15.Which of the following parts of the cover assembly that hold the
pressure plate against the clutch plate?
a) Springs
b) Thrust bearings
c) Struts
d) Lever
19. Why are the helical gears used commonly in transmission over spur
gears?
a) Low cost and high strength
b) Low noise level and high strength
c) Low noise level and economy
d) Low noise level and low cost
a) Axle Beam
b) Stub Axle
c) King Pin
d) Brake
33) Which is not a function of the braking system
42. If heat lost to cylinder wall is not dissipated or removed is leads not
to?
a) damage of cylinder due to overheating
b) seizing of piston due to overheating
c) burning of lubricating oil
d) increase efficiency
43. Which is not a component of Fuel supply and fuel injection system
in Diesel engine?
a) Fuel Filter
b) Fuel Rail:
c) Fuel Injector
d) Spark Plug
2. The temperature at which the new grains are formed in the metal is called
(a) Lower critical temperature
(b) Upper critical temperature
(c) Eutectic temperature
(d)Recrystallisation temperature
30. Binding wire used to support the joint for soldering is made of ----
(a) soft iron (b)aluminium
(c)mild steel (d) copper
36. When a metal returns to its original shape after an applied load has been removed, the
metal is said to have:
(a) Plasticity (b) Ductility
(c) Elasticity (d) Malleability
37. Which one of the following casting processes is the most widely used:
(a)centrifugal casting (b) die casting
(c)investment casting (d) sand casting
38. In sand casting, the volumetric size of the pattern than the casted part is
(a)bigger than, (b) the same size
(c) smaller than the cast part d) all of above
40. The property of a material by which it can be drawn into wires is known as
(a) ductility (b)elasticity
(c) softness (d) tempering
45. For assembly of electronic components to the printed circuit boards ____method is
commonly used.
a) brazing
b) soldering
c) welding
d) All of above
46. The change in structure from hot working improves mechanical properties like ____.
a) ductility
b) toughness
c) resistance to shock and vibration
d) all of the above
ANS: B
ANS: D
ANS: A
B. ANS: D
ANS: D
ANS: B
ANS: D
a) Casting
b) Welding
c) Forging
d) Fabrication
a) lancing
b) Piercing
c) blanking
d) punching
64. Identify the manufacturing process.
a) gate
b) riser
c) runner
d) core
a) gate
b) riser
c) runner
d) core
a) gate
b) riser
c) runner
d) core
75. ____ process uses closed impression die to obtain the required shape of component.
a) hand forging
b) casting
c) drop forging
d) soldering
79. In ____operations the sheet metal is stressed beyond its ultimate strength.
a) forming
b) cutting
c) bending
d) drawing
81. In CNC machines various functions are controlled with the help of ------------
i)MCU
ii) CNE Machine tools,
iii) Part programs
83. Phenominon which connects a varity of things, everything’s that has ability to
communicate is known as -------------
i)IOT,
ii) Rapid prototyping,
iii) Micromachining
84. Interconnectivity, Heterogegety, things related services, Dynamic changes are the
characteristics of --------------
i)IOT,
ii) Rapid prototyping,
iii) Reconfigurable manufacturing
85. Interconnectivity, Heterogeneity, things related services, Dynamic changes are the -------
-------of IOT
i)Concept,
ii) components
iii) characteristics
88. -------- is a process of creating three dimensional physical objects from a computer
model or digital file
i)Micro machining,
ii) Rapid prototyping,
iii)3D Printing
90. In 3D printing process to create 3D prototype -------- of deposited powder are solidified
i)Layers
ii)Stages
iii)Slices
94. Technique of producing the features with dimensions ranging from few microns to few
hundred microns is known as --------------
i) Micro machining,
iii) Rapid prototyping,
iii) Post processing
96. ---------is the heart of NC machine tool system and consists of many sub- units inside it
i) Part programme
ii) MCU
iii) Interfaces
101. In a lathe machine, the movement of a cutting tool against the rotating work piece
is called as
i) Cutting speed
ii) Feed
iii) Greed
106. In a lathe machine, during turning operation, the cutting tool is mounted on
i) Tail stock
ii) Chuck
iii) Tool post
107. In a lathe machine, during drilling operation, the cutting tool is mounted on
i) Chuck
ii) Tail stock
iii) Bed
110. During the lathe machine operation, if the movement of a cutting tool is parallel
to the
axis of work piece, then that operation is termed as
i) Facing operation
ii) Taper turning operation
iii) None of above
111. In a lathe machine, during facing operation, the movement of a cutting tool is
i) Parallel to the axis of work piece
ii) Vertical to the axis of work piece
iii) None of above