Unit 5: Energy, Exercise & Coordination
Question Question
Number
1.(a) The table below refers to four functions of the human brain. Complete the
table to show which region of the brain is responsible for each function.
Correct Answer Acceptable Reject Mark
Answers
Cerebral Cerebrum Hemispheres
hemispheres; 3
Cerebellum
Hypothalamus;
Medulla oblongata Medulla
Question Question
Number
1.(b) Suggest two pieces of information this scan could give to a surgeon about
this tumour.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in
context to a maximum of two marks. 2
1. Locality
2. Size
3. What brain functions might be affected
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Question Question
Number
2.(a) With reference to the structures of dopamine and L-dopa, suggest why the
drug L-dopa is effective in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to
a maximum of four marks. 4
1. PD results from low levels of dopamine;
2. structure of L-Dopa similar to dopamine / credit details of
similarities;
3. therefore can bind to the dopamine receptor
{protein/molecule};
4. initiating action potential;
5. idea that L-Dopa can be converted to dopamine;
6. credit details of mechanism;
7. ref to ability to cross the blood brain barrier;
8. (possibly) due to COOH grouping;
Question Question
Number
2.(b) Scientists believe that the release of dopamine from the presynaptic
membrane is triggered by certain emotional responses. Describe how the
release of this neurotransmitter generates an action potential in the
postsynaptic neurone.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to
a maximum of five marks. 5
1. neurotransmitter diffuses across cleft;
2. binds to receptor {molecules/proteins} on postsynaptic
membrane; ligand-gated ion channels;
3. sodium gates open/ increase in permeability to sodium
ions;
4. diffusion of sodium ions into postsynaptic neurone;
5. depolarisation of membrane;
6. idea of more (sodium) channels opening;
7. summation of postsynaptic potential to form action
potentials;
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Question Question
Number
3.(a) Describe the changes that have occurred in the muscle strength of these
weight-lifters over this time period.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to a
maximum of three marks 2
1. the % increase is the same for the first 16 years/eq;
2. the % increase is greatest in period 1980-1983/eq;
3. smallest increase in strength during 1984-1987/eq;
Question Question
Number
3.(b) Suggest possible reasons for the changes that occurred in the muscle strength
of weight-lifters during the period 1980-1987.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to a
maximum of three marks. 3
1. Use of testosterone/anabolic steroids/eq
2. Idea of higher dose
3. Stronger drugs were taken
4. Use of more effective training routines
5. More suitable lifestyles/eq
6. Idea that strength had reached a maximum / genetic
maximum
7. Weight-lifters choosing not to use drugs
8. More effective screening methods
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Question Question
Number
3.(c) Many people feel that the use of performance-enhancing drugs in sport is
unethical. State whether you consider the use of performance-enhancing
drugs in sport is unethical. Give two ethical arguments to support your
opinion.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to a
maximum of two marks. 2
Marks must both be from either agree or disagree
Agree:
1. can no longer compare weight-lifters/competition is no
longer fair;
2. illegal;
3. uninformed decision taking;
4. possibility of death;
5. health risks;
Disagree:
6. individual has right to make own decision re health risks;
7. drug free sport is not fair anyway;
8. due to differences in training resources;
9. pressures from coach / sponsors / public;
10.financial rewards;
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Question Question
Number
3.(d) It is sometimes claimed that outstanding athletes are born and not made.
Explain whether you agree with this view.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to a
maximum of three marks. 3
1. Phenotype (athleticism) is a result of an interaction between
genes/genotype and the environment/eq;
2. Muscle development could be improved by
diet/drugs/training (environment)/eq;
3. But the extent of muscle development will also be influenced
by the person’s genetic makeup/genotype;
4. Ref to (inherited) proportion of fast/slow twitch muscle
fibres;
5. Ref to polygeneric inheritance and continuous variation in
context
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Question Question
Number
4.(a)(i) Compare the effects of this exercise on the ventilation rate of the two
individuals.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context
to a maximum of two marks. 2
1. Ventilation rates at rest are similar;
2. Ventilation rate of trained individual rises higher than
that of the untrained individual during the 5 minute
exercise period;
3. After 1 minute ventilation rate of trained individual
continues to rise rapidly whereas untrained rises
gently/becomes constant;
Question Question
Number
4.(a)(ii) Suggest what other information would be needed to allow a valid comparison
to be made of the effect of a training programme on ventilation rate.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context
to a maximum of three marks 3
1. gender;
2. age;
3. level of rest;
4. drugs;
5. were the exercises the same;
6. repeat the study with these two individuals;
7. repeat the study with more individuals;
8. allow other valid factors;
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Question Question
Number
4.(b)(i) Nerve impulses from the aortic body would not reach the respiratory
centre.
Correct Answer Mark
B 1
Question Question
Number
4.(b)(ii) Nerve impulses from the respiratory centre would not reach the
diaphragm.
Correct Answer Mark
D 1
Question Question
Number
4.(b)(iii) Nerve impulses from the respiratory centre would not reach the stretch
receptors.
Correct Answer Mark
A 1
Question Question
Number
4.(b)(iv) Nerve impulses from the carotid body would not reach the respiratory
centre.
Correct Answer Mark
C 1
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Question Question
Number
5.(a) Describe the electrical activity that occurs in the heart during one
complete heart beat.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to
a maximum of four marks. 4
1. wave of excitation sent from SAN;
2. spreads over atria walls;
3. delayed at atrioventricular septum;
4. wave of excitation sent from AVN;
5. passes along bundles of His/purkine fibres;
6. spreading over walls of ventricles;
Question Question
Number
5.(b) Calculate the heart rate of the individual with a normal heart beat, using
the information in the ECG. Show your working.
Answer Mark
Duration of 1 beat OR
60 / duration; 2
Correct answer, 50
Beats min-1 / bpm;
Question Question
Number
5.(c) Compare the ECG of the normal individual with that of the individual with
tachycardia.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to
a maximum of two marks. 2
1. Interval between QRS phases longer (in normal
rhythm);
2. Credit correctly manipulated figures;
3. Lower voltage during QRS phase in normal rhythm;
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Question Question
Number
5.(d) Suggest what effect tachycardia would have on cardiac output. Explain
your answer.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to
a maximum of three marks. 3
1. Cardiac output could decrease if there was insufficient
time to fill the ventricles (between contractions);
2. Cardiac output could increase if ventricles fill sufficiently;
3. The change in cardiac output will depend on whether the
decrease in stroke volume is compensated by the increase
in heart rate/eq;
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Question Question
Number
6.(a)(i) Put a cross in the box next to the arrow that correctly shows the direction of
impulse travel in cell A.
Correct answer Mark
Question Question
Number
6.(a)(ii) Identify the type of neurone for cell A and cell B by putting a cross in the
correct box in the table below.
Correct answer Mark
Relay Motor Sensory
2
neurone neurone neurone
Cell A
Cell B
1 mark for each row. Do not award the mark if there is more
than one cross in the row.
Question
Question
Number
6.(b)(i) Complete the equation below to show the chemical changes in rhodopsin in
the presence of light.
Correct answer Acceptable answers Reject Mark
Retinal Transretinal Cis retinal 1
Retinine retinol
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Question Question
Number
6.(b)(ii) Describe the movement of sodium ions across the rod cell membrane, in the
presence of opsin.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to a
maximum of three marks. 3
1. opsin binding to membrane/eq
2. cation channels closed
3. sodium ions cannot enter cell by diffusion
4. active pumping
5. of sodium ions is unaffected
6. net loss of sodium ions
Question Question
Number
6.(b)(iii) State the term that describes the electrochemical state of a rod cell in light.
Correct answer Acceptable answers Reject Mark
hyperpolarised hyperpolarisation Bleached 1
depolarised
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Question Question
Number
7.(a) Describe the effect of repeated touching on the time taken for the gill to be
exposed again.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to a
maximum of three marks. 3
1. Recovery time falls steeply initially
2. Stays low
3. Fluctuations
4. ref to reinforcement
5. credit appropriate manipulation of data ref to anomalous
point 3
Question Question
Number
7.(b) Name the type of learning shown by a sea slug in this investigation.
Correct answer Acceptable answers Reject Mark
habituation 1
Question Question
Number
7.(c) Explain how this learned response may be of benefit to the sea slug in its
natural environment.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to a
maximum of four marks. 4
1. Ignore unimportant stimuli
2. More receptive to important stimuli
3. Less time wasted with gill covered
4. More time for oxygen uptake
5. Can remain active when being touched
6. Such as by wave action
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Question Question
Number
8.(a) Describe, using specific examples, the evidence that the Black Death was
caused by a virus.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to a
maximum of three marks. 3
1. Increased frequency of mutant CCR5 allele;
2. Pattern of disease similar to flu;
3. Symptoms eg bleeding consistent with known effect of virus;
4. Incubation period matches known viruses;
5. Contagion matches known viruses;
6. Other valid point;
Question Question
Number
8.(b) Suggest reasons why it is likely that a vaccine for bird flu can be produced
fairly easily, whereas no effective vaccine for malaria has yet been
produced.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to a
maximum of two marks. 2
1. Methods for flu vaccine production already exist;
2. Harmless version of virus can be produced;
3. Can’t use whole Plasmodium since too complex;
4. Antigens continually changing / mutations;
5. Several stages to life cycle;
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Question Question
Number
8.(c) Explain how small samples of DNA from a burial site can be amplified and
how such samples might be used to find the identity of an unknown virus.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to a
maximum of four marks. 4
1. Polymerase chain reaction / PCR;
2. Replication of DNA;
3. Many copies of same sequence of bases / nucleotides;
4. DNA / base sequence of unknown matched to sequence of
known virus;
5. Ref. to gene probe;
Question Question
Number
8.(d) Describe the risks of using genetically modified organisms.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to a
maximum of two marks. 2
1. unforeseen consequences;
2. danger of transmission of genetic material;
3. release of resistance markers/eq;
Question Question
Number
8.(e)(i) Explain how a hybrid virus could be particularly dangerous to humans.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to a
maximum of two marks 2
1. have genes for replicating in human cells;
2. can infect human cells;
3. and genes for damaging humans / haemagglutinin;
4. passed directly from human to human / more easily passed
from human to human;
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Question Question
Number
8.(e)(ii) Explain how a hybrid virus could be useful in producing a vaccine.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to a
maximum of two marks. 2
1. have H5N1 surface genes (producing antigens for immune
system to recognise);
2. antigens stimulate immune system/eq;
3. but less dangerous human flu genes;
Question Question
Number
8.(f) Explain what is meant by a ‘breathtaking selection pressure’, and how this
might have led to very high frequency of the mutant form of CCR5.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to a
maximum of three marks. 3
1. Likelihood of surviving much greater with mutation /
converse/eq;
2. To reach reproductive age;
3. Mutant allele much more likely to be passed to offspring;
4. Higher proportion of offspring have mutated allele;
5. In future generations;
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Question Question
Number
8.(g) The South African government decided not to allow the use of ARV drugs for
the treatment of HIV infected people. Suggest possible reasons for their
decision.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each of the following points in context to a
maximum of five marks. 5
1. High cost;
2. Drug companies profiteering;
3. Campaign for generic, cheap drugs;
4. Not necessarily best treatment;
5. Other methods such as diet control may be effective;
6. Traditional methods may be effective;
7. Drugs may be unsafe;
8. Patients receiving drugs fall ill;
9. AIDS not caused by HIV alone;
10. Other factors affecting immune system important;
11. AVRs may cause AIDS;
12. People taking drugs get AIDS;
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Question Question
Number
8.(h) Use information from the two studies of HIV infection in South Africa to
describe the current pattern of infection. You should include reference to
changes in infection rates between 2000 and 2005 and the effect of gender.
Suggest reasons for the trends you observe, including reasons for the
different findings of the two studies for infection of women with HIV in
2005.
Answer Mark
Award one mark for each valid points in context to a maximum
of seven marks. Possible points include: 7
1. Infection rate stable under 24;
2. Fewer infected from birth due to drugs;
3. Better education;
4. Still rising over 24;
5. Sexually active;
6. Must be unprotected sex if pregnant;
7. Lower over 35;
8. Higher death rate of infected individuals;
9. Fewer males infected under 35;
10. Young males less likely to take the test;
11. DOH study shows higher infection rate;
12. Not all of National study having unprotected sex;
13. Those at risk might be more likely to refuse test;
14. Under 20 group includes children in National study;
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