IJSO-BIOLOGY MODULE - (PART-3)

CONTENT

Sr. No. Topic Name Page No.

1. ANIMAL PHYSIOLOGY 1 - 126

2. REPRODUCTION IN LIVING ORGANISMS 127 - 161

3. PLANT PHYSIOLOGY 162 - 205

 ANIMAL PHYSIOLOGY- NUTRITION
 Nutrition is the sum of the processes by which an organism takes in metabolises and utilizes food
substance.
 Nutrients are the organic or inorganic substances which help in our survival and in maintaining
proper health. A nutrient supplies energy to the body, builds and repairs body tissues and regulates
the body metabolism.

Nutritional Requirements
 Our bodies have certain nutritional needs and if they are not met will, cause catabolism of its own
fats carbohydrates and proteins.
 Vitamins and minerals are not used as energy, but are essential in enzyme reactions. Living tissue is
kept alive by using the expenditure of ATP, found in the breakdown of food.
 A balanced diet is one that contains all essential nutrients in suitable proportion and amount to
provide necessary energy and keep the body in a healthy state.
 Foods energy value is measured in kilocalories.

1 kilocalorie = 4.18kJ
1 kilojoule = 1/ 4.181000 calories
 An energy-yielding nutrient. Macronutrients are those nutrients that together provide the vast
majority of metabolic energy to an organism. The three main macronutrients are carbohydrates,
proteins and fat.
 Microminerals or trace elements, are dietary minerals needed by the human body in very small
quantities (generally less than 100mg/day) as compared to macrominerals which are required in
larger quantities.

Carbohydrates
 They are made of organic compounds carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.
 There are three sizes of carbohydrate and they are distinguished by a classification of two that is.
Simple carbohydrates (monosaccharide’s and disaccharides) and complex carbohydrates
(polysaccharides). Polysaccharides are the most abundant carbohydrate in the body along with
glycogen.
A. Monosaccharides : Single carbohydrate unit, such as, Glucose, Fructose and Galactose.
B. Disaccharides : Two single carbohydrates bound together, these are Sucrose, Maltose and Lactose
C. Polysaccharides : Have many units of monosaccharides joined together such as, Starch and Fiber

Proteins
 Proteins form hormones, enzymes, antibodies. It is a part of fluid and electrolyte regulation, the
buffering effect for pH, and transporter of nutrients. A good example of a protein is the oxygen
carrying hemoglobin found in red blood cells.
 Proteins are made of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen and nitrogen an inorganic molecule the thing that
clearly distinguishes them form the other macronutrients.
 The body requires amino acids to produce new body protein (protein retention) and to replace
damaged proteins (maintenance) that are lost in the urine.
 Amino acids are the basic structural building units of proteins.
 They form short polymer chains called peptides or longer poly-peptides which in turn form structures
called proteins.
Lipids
 Lipids are made of organic molecules carbon, hydrogen and oxygen. Fats consist of glycerol and
fatty acids joined by an ester bond.
 Provide 9 Kcalories per gram; it is a high energy-yielding nutrient.

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Functions
 They acts as a stored energy (adipose tissue) organ protection, temperature regulator insulation such
as myelin that covers nerve cells, lipid membrane around cells, and emulsifiers to keep fats dispersed
in body fluids.
 Lipids are structural components found in every cell of the human body. That is they form the lipid
bilayer found in individual cells. They also serve as the myelin sheath found in neurons.
 Lipids provide us with energy, most of that energy is in the form of triacylglycerols.
 Both lipids and lipid derivatives serve as vitamins and hormones.
 Lipophilic bile acids aid in lipid solubility.
A. Triglycerides composed of three fatty acids and one glycerol molecule.
B. Saturated fatty acid fatty acid with carbon fully saturated with hydrogen.
C. Monounsaturated fatty acid fatty acid that has a carbon chain with one unsaturated double bond.
D. Polyunsaturated fatty acid a fatty acid that has two or more double bonds on the carbon chain.

Vitamins
 Vitamins are organic compounds that are essential for our body to function properly.
 Most vitamins are obtained from what you consume, because the body is unable to manufacture most
of the essential vitamins that you need to survive.

Vitamin A (Retinol)
 Functions : night vision, growth and repair of tissues, immune system functions
 Sources : eggs, dark green and yellow fruits and vegetables, dairy products, liver
 Deficiency : skin dryness, dry mucous membranes

Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid)

 Functions : wound healing, collagen maintenance, infection resistance essential for healthy gums and
blood vessels
 Sources : citrus fruits, tomatoes, melons, berries, green and red peppers, broccoli
 Deficiency : Scurvy-hemorrhages, loosening of teeth, bone damage.

Vitamin D (Calciferol)
 Functions : bone and tooth formation
 Sources : egg yolk, fatty fish, milk synthesized in skin when exposed to sunlight.
 Deficiency : Rickets-deformation of rib cage, skill and bowlegs.

Vitamin E (Tocoferol)
 Functions : Free radical scavenger, immune system function
 Sources : vegetable oil, wheat germ, nuts, dark green vegetables, whole grains beans

Vitamin K
 Function : blood clotting, bone metabolism
 Sources : green leafy vegetables, beef liver
 Deficiency : blood clotting disorders
Thiamin (B1)
 Functions : carbohydrate metabolism, appetite regulation, nervous system functions, growth
 Sources : pork, whole and enriched grains, dried beans, seafood
 Deficiency : Beriberi-muscular weakness, swelling of the heart and leg cramps

Riboflavin (B2)
 Functions : carbohydrate, fat and protein metabolism, mucous membranes
 Sources : dairy products green leafy vegetables, whole and enriched grains, beef, lamb, eggs
 Deficiency : skin lesions and sensitivity to light
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Niacin (B3)
 Functions : carbohydrate, fat and protein metabolism, maintenance of the GI system, blood
circulation, nerve function, appetite regulation.
 Sources : meat, fish, whole and enriched grains, beans, nuts, peas
 Deficiency : Pellagra-sunburn-like eruption of the skin.

Pyridoxine (B6)
 Functions : carbohydrate and protein metabolism, formation of antibodies and red blood cells nerve
function.
 Sources : fish, poultry, lean meat, whole grains, potatoes.
 Deficiency : skin disorders, kidney stones.

Folate/Folic Acid
 Functions : red blood cell formation, protein metabolism, cell division and growth.
 Sources : green leafy vegetables, dried beans, poultry, fortified cereals, oranges, nuts

Cobalamin (B12)
 Functions : carbohydrate, fat and protein metabolism, maintenance of the nervous system, blood cell
formation.
 Sources : beef, fish, poultry, eggs, dairy products
 Deficiency : anemia

Pantothenic Acid
 Functions : energy production, vitamin utilization, nerve function
 Sources : plant and animal foods, whole grains, legumes
Biotin
 Functions : carbohydrate, fat and protein metabolism, fatty acid production, B vitamin utilization
 Sources : egg yolk, meat, dairy products, dark green vegetables.

Choline
 Functions : cardiovascular and brain function, cellular membrane composition and repair
 Sources : beef liver, egg yolks peanuts sunflower seeds

Minerals
 Minerals are atoms of certain chemical elements that are essential for body processes.
 Minerals are inorganic, meaning that they are not man-made
 They are either produced by our body, or we obtain them by eating certain foods that contain them.
 They are ions found in blood plasma and cell cytoplasm, such as sodium, potassium and chloride

 In addition minerals represent much of the chemical composition of bones (calcium, phosphorus,
oxygen)
 They also contribute to nerve and muscle activity (sodium, potassium, calcium). Minerals serve
several many other as well
 There are 21 minerals considered essential for our bodies. Nine of the essential minerals in the body
for less than. 01% of your body weight. Because of the small amount of these minerals that our body
needs, we call them trace minerals.

IMPORTANT MINERALS
Calcium
 Functions : essential for healthy bones and teeth, regulates muscle action, nerve function, blood
clotting
 Sources : dairy products, calcium fortified orange juice, green leafy vegetables
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  Chromium
 Functions : essential for glucose metabolism, increase effectiveness of insulin muscle function.
 Sources : cheese, whole grains, meat, peas, beans

Copper
 Functions : formation of red blood cells, pigment, essential for bone health
 Sources : nuts, dried beans, oysters, cocoa

Fluoride
 Functions : hardens tooth enamel, decreases cavities
 Sources : fluoridated water, toothpaste

Iodine
 Functions : essential for thyroid gland function
 Sources : seafood, iodized salt

Iron
 Functions : formation of hemoglobin
 Sources : meat, fish, poultry, organ meats, beans, whole and enriched grains, green leafy vegetables

Magnesium
 Functions : enzyme activation, nerve and muscle function, bone growth
 Sources : nuts, green vegetables, whole grains, beans

Manganese
 Functions : bone growth and development, sex hormone production, cell function.
 Sources : nuts whole grains vegetables, fruits, tea, coffee, bran.

Molybdenum
 Functions : kidney and liver functions, essential in the storage of iron, growth
 Sources : meats, whole grain, peas, beans, green leafy vegetables.

Phosphorus
 Functions : bone development, carbohydrate, fat and protein utilization
 Sources : meat, poulty, fish, eggs, dairy products, beans, whole grains
Selenium
 Functions : fights cell damage
 Sources : seafood, lean meat, grains, eggs, chicken, garlic
Zinc
 Functions : regulation of metabolism, aids in healing
 Sources : meat, eggs, seafood, whole grains, dairy products

Potassium
 Functions : fluid balance, controls activity of the heart, nervous system function.
 Sources : vegetables and fruits, beans, bran, dairy products

Sodium
 Functions : fluid balance, transmission of nerve impulses
 Source : : salt

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Water
 Water is an important constituent of our diet. 75% of an infant body and 60% of an adult body is
nothing but water. Various functions of water are as follows.
 Essential for the transport and digestion of food material.
 Excretes wastes
 Maintains the body temperature
 As solvent in various reactions in the body.

Roughage
 Roughage is the fibre present in some food items like fruits and vegetables. Though roughage is not a
food, it forms an important part of our diet. Roughage consists mainly of cellulose.

Function
 It helps in bowel movement
 It cleans our digestive tracts and protects from digestive aliments.
 It prevents constipation
 It helps in retaining water in the body.
 It helps in maintaining optimum levels of blood sugar and cholesterol.

DIGESTIVE SYSTEM
 To perform various functions of the body, energy is required, which is obtained from food. The
process of conversion of complex indiffusible food material into simple and diffusible food by
mechanical and biochemical (hydrolysis) process, is termed as Digestion.
 The alimentary canal is divided into following parts
(1) Mouth and Buccopharyngeal cavity
(2) Oesophagus
(3) Stomach
(4) Intestine

MOUTH AND BUCCOPHARYNGEAL CAVITY

 Mouth is a horizontal transverse slit aperture which is surrounded by upper and lower lip, a specific
muscle is associated with lip called orbicularis oris muscle.
 Mouth opens into Buccopharyngeal cavity, this cavity is divided into two parts.
(i) Buccal vestibule – The space between the gums and cheeks where the food is stored temporarily for
some time.
(ii) Oral cavity- It is inner & central part which is surrounded by upper and lower jaw
 The roof of oral cavity is called as Palate.


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TONGUE

Location of taste buds on the tongue

 On the floor of oral cavity a muscular, flat, fleshy plate like structure is present which is called
Tongue.
2
 Four types of papillae are found in the anterior part in which gustatory or taste receptors are
3
present in the form of taste buds.

(i) Fungi form Papillae

 It is pink coloured, small & spherical in shape. It is found on the entire surface of tongue but mostly
present at the anterior part of tongue. It provides pink colour to the tongue.
(ii) Filiform papillae (Conical papillae)
 They are thread like, white coloured & conical in shape. They are also found on the entrie surface of
tongue. They are most numerous, but devoid of taste buds.
(iii) Foliate Papillae
 They are found on the mid lateral surface of tongue. They are vestigial in the human.
(iv) Circumvallate papillae
 It is largest and least in number ( 8 to 12), they are large spherical in shape.

TEETH
 In human, teeth of upper jaw are attached to the Maxilla bone. While teeth of lower jaw are attached
to Mandible bone.

Structure of Teeth
 Crown-It is 2 outer part of the tooth, exposed outside gums
 Neck-It is the internal part of the tooth which is embedded inside the gums
 Root- It is the part of tooth that is inserted inside the socket of jaw bond (Alveoli)
 The crown part of the tooth is made up of a very hard substance called the Enamel. It is the hardest
material in all animals of animal kingdom.
 Enamel is secreted by Ameloblast cells

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  Dentine is the main part of tooth.
 Dentine surrounds cavity called pulp-cavity. This cavity contains soft connective tissue, blood
capillaries and nerve fibres. Pulp cavity is necessary for the nutrition and survival of the teeth. At the
base of pulp cavity and aperture is present. Through this apetune blood capillaries and nerve bibres
enter inside the teeth. This apertune is called apical – foramen.
 A special type of cells form the lining of the pulp-cavity called the Odonotoblast cells. These cells
are the dentine secreting cells. Cytoplasmic process of odonotoblasts are embedded into dentine in
the form of line nubule. These processes are called canaliculi . These canaliculi secretes dentine. The
teeth continue grow till the odontoblast cells remain active. In adults, the pulp-cavity shrinks and the
odonotablasts become inactive so the teeth stops to grow.
 The cement layer is made up of the cementocytes cells

Four types of teeth found in mammals are

 Incior – These are long, chisel like teeth for gnawing the food.
 Canines- These are sharp pointed teeth meant for tearing and shearing the food. Canines are most
developed in carnivorous animals.
 Pre molar- These teeth are meant for chewing and crushing of food. They are triangular in shape.
 Molars ( cheek teeth)- These also meant for chewing & crushing of food. They are rectangular in
shape. Premolar and molar help in the mastication of food.

Monophyodont- The teeth which appear only once in life.eg. Pre Molars & last molar of man.
Diphyodont- The teeth which appear twice in lice eg. Incisors, Canines, Molars.
Thecodont- The teeth which are present in bony socket of Jaw.eg. Man & crocodile.
Heterodont- When the teeth are of different type in mammals on the basis of structure and fucntion.eg.
Mammal.
Wisdom teeth- These are the last molar teeth of humans which appear in the age of 18 to 25 year.

SALIVARY GLANDS
Parotid-glands(largest salivary glands)
 These glands are located just below the (ear). Their duct is called Parotid duct/ Stenson’s duct which
open in the vestibule of the upper jaw i.e. the Buccal-vestibule. Ehenever in human, these glands are
infected by viruses, this disease is called as Mumps. Due to this the gland swells up

Submaxillary or Submandibular glands

 These are located at the junction of the upper and the lower jaw. Their duct is called Wharion’s duct
(largest salivary duct). These ducts open in the lower jaw just behind the incisor teeth.

Location of salivary glands

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  Sublingual gland- These are the smallest salivary glands. These glands are found in the lower jaw.
Many ducts from these glands called as the Ducts of Rivinus or Bartholin’s ducts. These ducts open
in the bucco-pharyngeal cavity
 Maximum saliva is secreted by the sub-lingual glands (Smallest salivary duct) Salivary glands are
Exocrine glands. The secretion of salivary glands is termed as the saliva.
 Mucus, starch-digesting Ptyalin enzyme, lysozyme and thiocyanates and few ions like sodium,
potassium chloride, IgA antibody, urea and uric acid etc., are present
 Ptyalin is secreted only by the parotid gland. Lysozyme and Thiocyanates mainly kill bacteria. They
also check the growth of bacteria in bucco-pharyngeal cavity

OESOPHAGUS
 Oesophagus is simple uniform tube which runs downward and pierces the diaphragm and finally
opens into stomach.
 Longitudinal folds are found on the inner surface of Oesophagus, in which digestive glands are
absent, only mucous glands are present.
 It is the widest part of alimentary canal. It is a bag like muscular structure J shaped in empty
condition
 The stomach contains four parts (Pyloric, Fundus, Body, Pylorus or anirum).

It has two orifices (opening)

(i) Cardiac orifice is joined by the lower end of the oesophagus
(ii) Pyloric orifice opens into the duodenum.

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Gastric Glands – These are numerous microscopic, simple tubular glands formed by the invagination of
epithelium in the stomach. The following types of cells are present in the epithelium of the gastric glands.
 Chief cells or peptic cells (= Zymogen cells) are usually basal in location and secreted gastric
digestive enzymes as proenzymes or zymogens called pepsinogen and prorennin. The chief cells also
produce small amount of gastric amylase and gastric lipase. Gastric amylase action is inhibited by
the highly acid condition. Gastric lipase contributes little to digestion of fat. Prorennin is secreted in
young mammals (childhood stage). It is not secreted in adult.
 Oxyntic cells (=Parietal cells) are large and are most numerous on the side walls of the gastric
glands. They secrete hydrochloric acid and castle intrinsic factor.
 Mucous cells (= Goblet cells) are present through out the surface epithelium and secrete mucus.
 G-cells secrete Gastrin
 Gastrin stimulates the gastric glands to release the gastric juice.

INTESTINE
It is divided into two part
(i) Small intestine (ii) Large intestine

SMALL INTESTINE
Small intestine is differentiated into three part
(i) Duodenum (25 cm) (ii) Jejunum (1 m) (iii) Ileum (2m)
 For absorption of digested food a very large surface area is required. Therefore some adaptations are
present here
(a) great length of the intestine
(b) The presence of permanent deep folds in mucosa is called plicae circularlis, along with villi and
microvilli

LARGE INTESTINE
 Large intestine (Large in diameter)-Large intestine is differentiated into three parts caecum, colon
and rectum.
 A worm like structure arises from the caecum called as vermiform appendix. It is a vestigial organ.

COLON
 Caecum continues in colon, which is the middle part of large intestine.

RECTUM
 This colon then continues in a uniform tube called Rectum. (Storage chamber for faeces)
 Rectum open into a small bag like structure called anal-canal.

ANAL-CANAL
 Anal canal opens outside by anus. Anus is controlled by anal sphincter.
 Two types of spincter muscles are found in Anal canal.
Internal Anal sphincter 
 Involuntary
External Anal sphincter  Voluntary

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Brunners Gland
 They are small spherical multicellular glands
 They open into crypts of lieberkuhn with the help of fine tubules
 These glands are found in the submucoa of duodenum.
 They synthesize and secrete the non enzymatic alkaline secretion of intestinal juice.

Paneth Cells
 These cells are found in cypts of lieberkuhn of jejunuem
 They are unicellular glands.
 These cells secrete antibacterial substance hence it provides immunity
 They synthesize and secrets enzymes of intestinal juice

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  The secretory substances of brunners glands and paneth cells are combindly called intestinal juice or
succus entericus.

Peyer’s patches
 They are small lymph nodes which are found in the mucosa of small intestine (Jejunum and Ileum
more in number).
They are also called intestinal tonsils and provide immunity.

LIVER

 In human it is found in right side of abdominal cavity, below the diaphragm.

 The liver is the largest gland of body.
 Right and left hepatic duct develop from right and left liver lobe. Both these ducts combine to form a
Common Hepatic duct.
 Gall bladder is situated below right lobe of liver
 Cystic duct of gall bladder is connected to common hepatic duct to form a common bile duct.
 The functional and structural unit of liver is lobule.
 These lobules are covered by fibrous connective tissue covering called Glisson’s Capsule.

FUNCTIONS OF LIVER- (Liver is known as biological and chemical factory of the body)
 Most of the biochemical functions of the body are done by the liver.

1. Secretion & synthesis of bile

 This is the main function of liver. Bile is yellowish-green, alkaline fluid. In bile juice, bile salts, bile
pigments cholesterol etc. are present.
 Bile salts help in emulsification of fats. Bile prevents the food from decomposition. It kills the
harmful bacteria.

2. Carbohydrate Metabolism
 The main centre of carbohydrate metabolism is liver.

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 Following steps are related with carbohydrate metabolism
Glycogenesis- The conversion and storage of extra amount of glucose into glycogen from the
digested food is called glycogenesis. The main stored food in the liver is glycogen.
Glycogenolysis – The conversion of glycogen into glucose again when glucose level in blood falls
down is called glycogenolysis.
Gluconeogenesis – At the time of need, liver converts non-carbohydrate compounds (e.g Amino
acids, fatty acids) into glucose. This conversion is called glucogeogenesis
Glyconeogenesis- Synthesis of glycogen from lactic acid (which comes from muscles) is called
glyconeogenesis

3. Storage of fats
 Liver stores fats in a small amount. Hepatic cells play an important role in fat metabolism.
 The storage of fat increases in the liver of alcohol addict persons (Fatty liver). This stored fat
decreases the activity of liver. The damage of liver due to alcohol intake is called Alcoholic Liver
cirrhoris.

4. Deamination and Urea formation

 Deamination of amino acids is mainly done by liver (Amino acid  NH 3 )
 Liver converts ammonia (more toxic) into urea (less toxic) through ornithine cycle.

5. Purification of blood
 Kupffer cells of liver & splenocytes of spleen are the phagocytic cells, helps in phagocytosis of dead
blood cells and bacteria from the blood.

6. Synthesis of plasma proteins

 Many types of proteins are present in blood plasma. All the proteins except Gama-globulins are
synthesized in the liver. Chemically antibodies are gama globulins formed by lymphocytes.

7. Synthesis of heparin
 Heparin is a natural anticoagulant (mucopolysaccharide)

8. Synthesis of Vitamin – A

9. Liver stores vitamins A, D, E, K, B12

10. Storage of minerals

 Liver stores iron, copper, zinc, cobalt, molybdenum etc. Liver is a good source of iron.

11. Detoxification
 The conversion of toxic substances into non-toxic substance is done by liver.

12. Haemopoiesis
 The formation of blood cells is called haemopoesis. In embryonic stage R.B.C and WBC are formed
by liver.

13. Prothrombin and fibrinogen proteins are also formed in hepatic cells. These in blood clotting.

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PANCREAS

 It is made up of numerous acini, Acini is a group of secretory cells surrounding a cavity. These
acinar cells secrete the enzyme of pancreatic juice.
 Some group of endocrine cells are also found in between groups of acini called islets of Langerhan’s
These islets secrete insulin & glucagon hormone. So this gland is exocrine as well as endocrine
(Hetero-crine). Its 99% part is exocrine while 1% part is endocrine.

 In humans both bile duct and pancreatic duct combine to form common duct called as Hepato-
Pancreatic duct. The terminal end of common duct is swollen and is called as Ampulla of Vater or
hepato pancreatic ampulla. Ampulla of vater opens into middle part of Duodenum and controlled by
sphincter of Oddi white bile duct is controlled by sphincter of Boyden.

PHYSIOLOGY OF DIGESTION
 Digestion is divided in two ways-Mechanical digestion and Chemical digestion. Mechanical
digestion take place in mouth and small intestine.

DIGESTION IN ORAL CAVITY

 Food enters through mouth food is tasted in oral cavity and mixed saliva, tongue mixes the food with
saliva. This food with saliva is called bolus.

Mechanical digestion
 In mouth, teeth, tongue and lips have important role in mechanical digestion through the process of
chewing or mastication.

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Chemical digestion
Ptyalin
Ptyalin
 Starch   Maltose +  –Dextin

 Bolus s pushed inward through the pharynx into the oesophagus, this process is called swallowing or
deglutition. It is coordinated activity of tongue, soft palate, pharynx and oesophagus.
 When a peristaltic wave reaches at the end of the oesophagus. (Digestion or digestive enzymes are
absent in Oesophagus) the cardiac sphincter opens allowing the passage of bolus to the stomach.

DIGESTION OF FOOD IN STOMACH

 When the food enters into stomach G-cells secrete gastrin hormones which stimulate the secretion of
gastric juice by gastric glands.

Functions of HCl
1. The main function of HCl (activater) is to convert inactive enzymes (zymogens) into active enzymes.
HCl
Pepsinogen  Pepsin
HCl
Prorennin  Rennin.
2. It destroys all the bacteria present in the food.
3. HCl stops the action of saliva on food. In stomach, the medium is highly acidic
4. It dissolves the hand portions of the food and makes is soft
 Pepsinogen and Prorennin are inactive enzymes

Digestion by Rennin
 Rennin is active in the childhood stage of mammals only. It converts milk into curd like substance
and then digests it. In adult stages, it is inactive.
 Rennin, acts on milk protein casein. Casein is a soluble protein.
 In presence of Rennin, casein gets converted into insoluble Ca-paracaseinate. This process is termed
as Curdling of milk. After becoming insoluble, milk can remain in the stomach for a large time,
Rennin is absent in human.

Digestion by Pepsin
Pepsin is a strongest Endopeptidase. It breaks proteins into smaller molecules.
Pepsin
Proteins   Peptones + Proteoses + Peptides
 Peristalsis continues during the process of digestion so the gastric juice mixes properly with the food.
Due to peristalsis the food is converted into a paste. This form of food which is thick acidic &
semidigested in the stomach is called chyme.
 After short intervals the pyloric valves keeps on opening and closing so the chime is fed into the
intestine in installments.

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DIGESTION OF FOOD IN SMALL INTESTINE
DUODENUM
 When food leaves the stomach through its pyloric end and enters the duodenum it is called chime
(acidic).
 The HCl of chime stimulates different enteroendocrine cells which are found in intestinal gland or
crypts of liberkuhn.

Secretin- It is the most important hormone of digestive tract and also first discovered hormone. This
hormone stimulates pancreas for synthesis and secretion of non enzymatic part of pancreatic juice. It also
stimulates liver for secretion of bile juice and inhibit the gastric juice secretion in stomach and reduce rate of
contraction of stomach.
Pancreozymin- It stimulates the synthesis as well as secretion of pancreatic-juice
Cholecystokinin- It stimulates the liver and the Gall-bladder (mainly gall-bladder) to secrete Bile-juice.

FUNCTION OF BILE JUICE

 Neutralization of HCl. Its sodium neutralizes HCl of chime (semifluid food found in the stomach).
 Emulsification sodium glycocholate and sodium taurocholate are bile salts which break the large fat
droplets into the smaller ones.
 Absorption of fat and fat-soluble vitamins- Its salts help in the absorption of fat (fatty acids and
glycerol) and fat-soluble vitamins S (A, D, E and K)
 Excretion- Bile pigments (billirubland billiverdin) are excretory products.

PANCREATIC JUICE
 Pancreozymin stimulates the acini and glandular cells so pancreatic juice are secreted
 The pancreatic-juice is secreted by the exocrine cells of the pancreas
 Pancreatic Amylase – Amylase dissociated starch into Maltose. Majority of starch breaks up into the
duodenum.
 Trypsinogen and Chymotrypsinogen – The step by step action of these enzymes is as follows
Ca 
 Trypsinogen 
Enterokinase or Enteropeptidase
 Trypsin
Trypsin
 Chymotrypsinogen   Chymotrypsin
 Proteins   Large peptide
 Procarboxy Peptidase-These are also called zymogens. Trypsin convert it into active Carboxy-
peptidase
 Large peptide   Amino-acid
 Large Peptides   Oligopeptides
 Fat digesting enzymes- In pancreatic-juice various Fat-digesting enzymes are found which are
collectively called steapsin.
(I) Pancreatic Lipase- It converts triglyceride into monoglyceride fatty acid, glycerol
(II) Phospholipase- These digest phospholipids

JEJUNUM AND ILEUM

 These hormones stimulate the crypts of Leiberkuhn to secrete Succus-entericus or intestinal juice
 Succus-entericus mainly contains the following enzymes
 Peptidase or Exepsin – It converts oligopeptides into amino-acids

Disaccharidases
 Sucrase- It is also known as Invertase. It converts sucrose into glucose and fructose
 Maltase-It converts maltose sugar into glucose molecules.
 Lactase- This enzymes is found only in mammals. It converts milk sugar Lactose into glucose and
galactose
 Intestinal Lipase-This fat-digesting enzyme converts fats into fatty-acids and glycerol
 Maximum digestion of carbohydrates is done in duodenum, but its digestion is completed in Jejunum
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ABSORPTION OF DIGESTED FOOD
 The process through which the food stuff diffuses through the intestinal mucous membrane and
reaches the blood, is termed as absorption.
Absorption in stomach-In the stomach, absorption of water, some salts, alcohol, glucose and few drugs like
Aspirin takes place, complete absorption of alcohol takes place in the stomach.
Absorption in duodenum- Iron & calcium ion are absorbed in the duodenum.
Absorption in jejunum- Maximum absorption take place in jejunum.
 Millions of microscopic folds or finger like projections are present in the lumen of gut which are
called villi, villus is unit absorption.
 These villi are supplied with a network of blood capillaries and Lymphatic capillaries. The cells that
line the surface of villi numerous microscopic bristle like projections are called micro villi or brush
border. These further increase the surface area for the absorption of the nutrients/digested food.
 On the surface of the mucous epithelium are billions of single cell (Unicellular) mucous glands
called mucous or goblet cells. These cells mainly secrete mucus that acts as a lubricant and protects
the epithelial surface from damage and digestion.

Digestion and absorption of Carbohydrate

 The principal carbohydrate of our food is usually starch (from rice or wheat) which is broken down
by the pancreatic amylase. Disaccharides are broken down to their monosaccharide by enzymes of
the succus-entericus
 Monosaccharides are absorbed via the capillary blood within the villi to finally reach into portal vein.

Digestion and absorption of amino acid

 All these proteins are exposed to pepsin, trypsin, chymotrypsin carboxypeptidases etc. and as a result
they are converted into tri and dipeptides or free amino acids.
 Amino acids are absorbed actively as well as passive process.

Digestion and absorption of Fat

 One molecule of triglyceride is hydrolyzed into one molecule of monoglyceride and two molecule of
fatty acids by pancreatic lipase.
 After hydrolysis the bile salt, monoglyceride and the fatty acid together produce a complex called a
mixed micelle. These are water soluble & enter in the enterocytes. Monoglyceride and fatty acid are
resynthesized with in enterocyte to form a molecule of triglyceride  To  . TG combines with a small
amount of protein and resultant complex is called chylomicron. Chylomicron enters the lacteal.
 Fat soluble vitamins are absorbed along with dietary fat whereas water soluble vitamins are absorbed
by passive diffusion.
 In Ileum vit B12 & Bile salt are absorbed occurs from upper part of small intestine passively.

Absorption in colon
 Colon absorbs water from the undigested food.

Disorders of digestive system

 Hemorrhoids- Hemorrhoids (also known as haemomhoids, emerods or piles) are varicosities or
swelling and inflammation of vein in the rectum and anus.
 Gastrointestinal Stromal Tumors or GIST is an uncommon type of cancer in the GI tract (esophagus,
stomach, small intestine and colon)
 Hepatitis is a viral condition that inflames a person’s liver which can cause it to lose its ability to
functions.
 Cystic fibrosis is a chronic, inherited illness where the production of abnormally thick mucous
blocks the duct or passageways in the pancreas and prevents the digestive fluids from entering the
intestines making it difficult for the person with the disorder to digest protein and fats which cause
important nutrients to pass through without being digested.

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 ANIMAL PHYSIOLOGY- RESPIRATION
Respiration
 A process in which oxidation of organic compounds occurs in cell and energy is released is called as
respiration.

Stage of Respiration- According to scientist G.S. Carter there are three stages in respiration
(i) External Respiration (Ventilation) Gaseous exchange between environment and lung.
(ii) Internal Respiration
(1) Gaseous exchange between lungs and blood
(2) Gaseous exchange between blood and tissue fluid.
(iii) Cellular Respiration – Oxidation of organic compounds in cell in which energy is released.

STRUCTURE OF RESPIRATORY SYSTEM

(1) Respiratory tract (Conduction zone)
(2) Lungs (Exchange zone)

Respiratory tract – A passage from external nostrils to lungs

Or
A passage by which air enters into lungs
Lungs- Anatomical organ which is the actual site for exchange of gases

1. Nose and Nasal-passage

 The respiratory path begins from the Nose and the Nasal passage
 This part contains hair and sebaceous glands. In this manner dust particles cannot enter in
 The nasal-passage is long and spiral. This helps in making the temperature of air equal to the body
temperature before it reaches the lungs and does not allow unwanted materials like dust to reach the
lungs.

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2. Bucco-pharyngeal cavity
 It is divided into two parts. Anterior part is called the Buccal-cavity and the posterior part is called
Pharyngeal-cavity.
 Pharynx is the only part where food and air passage mix together

3. Larynx (voice producing organ)

 It is present in anterior part of trachea so it is considered as modification of trachea.

4. Trachea
 It is a 10-12 cm long tube like structure present in complete length of neck upto anterior part of
thoracic cavity
 In length of trachea 16-20 ‘C’ shaped rings are present which prevent trachea from collapsing.

5. (B.T.) & Respiratory Tree (R.T.)

 When trachea enters into thoracic cavity, it divides in two branches called as primary bronchus,
Branches of primary bronchus upto terminal bronchioles makes bronchial tree.
 Volume of air which is filled in B.T. is a part of dead space volume, which doesn’t take a part in
gaseous exchange. (150 ml)

6. Lungs
 A pair of lungs are present in the thoracic-cavity. Lungs are covered by double membranes which are
called the Pleural-membranes. Outer membrane is the Parietal Pleura and inner-membrane is the
visceral-pleura both these membranes are derived from the mesoderm. In between both the
membranes a very narrow cavity called pleural-cavity is present. In this cavity a very thin layer of
pleural fluid is present (about 150ml). Sometimes due to bacterial infection the amount of this fluid
increases. So, the organism feels a difficulty in breathing (dyspnea). This is termed as pleurisy or
pleural disease. In human being right lung made up of 3 lobes & left lung made up of 2 lobes.

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7. Alveoli
 Structural & functional unit of lungs is called alveoli.
 Approximately 300 million alveoli are present in both lung. Inner (alveolar) surface area of both
lungs is approximately 100 m2. Wall of alveoli consist of two layers, outer layer is composed of
yellow fibrous C.T. inner layer is composed of simple squamous epithelium.
 Squamous cells are called as pneumocytes
 A dense network of blood capillaries is found in alveoli
 These blood capillaries come from pulmonary artery. Pulmonary artery divides into blood capillaries
after reaching in lungs. All these capillaries combine to form pulmonary vein at the another end.
These veins carry pure blood to the left auricle of the heart. There are small pores present in the walls
of alveoli. These pores make diffusion of gases easy. These pores are called pores of Kohn. It is the
characteristic feature of mammalian lungs, that there is no central cavity, Mammalian lungs are solid
and spongy.

MECHANISM OF BREATHING
 Inspiration and expiration are included in breathing

Inspiration- At the time of inspiration, contraction in diaphragm and external intercostals muscles takes
place.
 Diaphragm becomes flat and is pushed towards abdominal cavity.
 Ribs move towards outside, As a result of all these reactions, the volume of thoracic cavity is
increased. Due to the spongy nature, lungs expand. As a result of this, air pressure in the lungs is
decreased by 1-3 mm mercury column as compared to atmospheric pressure. Now air rushes from
outside, through respiratory track and fills the lungs. Inspiration is an active process. Normally it
takes around 2 seconds.

Expiration
 Normal expiration is a passive activity. It takes around 3 seconds. During expiration, contraction (in
any muscle) does not take place. During expiration, relaxation in diaphragm and external intercostals
muscles takes place.

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TRANSPORT OF GASES IN BLOOD
Transport of oxygen
 As much oxygen comes in the blood from air, it is approximately 3% dissolves in the blood plasma.
Remaining 97% oxygen combines with hemoglobin to form oxyhaemoglobin. One molecule of
hemoglobin combines with 4 molecules of oxygen.
 1 gm of hemoglobin transports 1.34 ml of oxygen.
 100 ml (1 dL) of blood contains normally 15gm of hemoglobin so 100 ml blood transports
approximately 20ml of oxygen.
 At the time, oxyhaemoglobin reaches upto the tissues it dissociation, O 2 freed from it goes into the
tissue from blood. In place of it CO 2 from tissue fluid comes into blood. Gaseous exchange blood and
tissue is called internal respiration or tissue respiration. It is also done by simple diffusion.
Transport of Carbon dioxide
 The blood transports carbon dioxide comparatively easily because of its higher solubility. There are
three ways of transport of carbon dioxide by which 100ml of blood manages to deliver about 4 to 4.2
ml of carbon dioxide to the alveoli.
(a) In dissolved state- Approximately 5-7 percent of carbon dioxide is transported, being dissolved in the
plasma of blood. Hence 0.3 ml of carbon dioxide is transported per 100 ml of blood plasma.
(b) In the form of bicarbonate- Carbon dioxide produced by the tissues, diffuses passively into the blood
stream and passes into the red blood corpuscles, where it reacts with water to form carbonic acid
 H 2 CO 3  . This reaction is catalysed by the enzyme, carbonic anhydrase, found in the erythrocytes,
and takes than one second to complete the process.
(c) In combination with amine group of protein- Besides the above two methods, carbon dioxide reacts
directly with the amine radicals  NH 2  of haemoglobin molecule and forms a
carbminohaemoglobin
 HHb.NHCOOH  molecule. This combination of carbon dioxide with haemoglobin is a reversible
reaction Nerly 23 percent of carbon dioxide is transported through this mode

Gaseous Exchange in lungs

Alveoli are the primary sites of exchange of gases also between
blood and tissues. Exchange of gases in the lungs is done between alveolar air
and arterial blood. Gaseous exchange is a passive activity. It is held by simple
diffusion. Diffusion pressure for every gas (in blood on in air) is called partial
pressure. At the time of diffusion, gases move from high partial pressure to law
partial pressure. At the time of diffusion, gases move from high partial pressure
to low partial pressure.

The pressure of O 2 in alveolar air  P1  is 104 mm mercury column its value in arterial blood is 40 mm
mercury column (Hg). So oxygen goes from alveolar air to arterial air
In alveolar air partial pressure of CO 2  PO  is 40 mm Hg and its value in arterial blood is 45-46 mm Hg. So
2

CO 2 moves from arterial blood to alveoli. In this way, according to partial pressure exchange of gases takes
place in the lungs.

Table of partial pressures and percentage concentrations (in brackets) of gases in various airs

Gas Atmospheric air Functional residual Expired air

Alveolar air
C2 159.0(20.84%) 104.0(13.6%) 120.0(15.7%)
CO 2 0.3(0.04%) 40.0(5.3%) 27.0(3.6%)

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Partial pressure Pulmonary Arterial Pulmonary Venous Tissue fluid Inside of cell
Blood Blood
(Deoxygenated blood) (Oxygenated blood)
PO2 40 mm Hg 95-104 mm Hg 40 mm Hg 20 mm Hg
45-46 mm Hg 40 mm Hg 45 mm Hg 50 mmHg
PO2

Thus partial pressure of O 2 in pure blood PO2  104 mm Hg and PCO2  40 mm Hg

Pure blood goes to tissues from heart. Inspirated air contains 19.6%. Oxygen and expirated air has 15.7%
O 2 so approximately 4% oxygen goes to blood form air. In the same way inspirited air contains CO 2
0.04%and expiated air has 3.6% CO 2 so approximately 3.56% CO 2 goes to air from blood.
Diffusing Capacity- Volume of gas that diffuses through the membrane per minute for a difference of 1 mm
Hg is 21 ml/mt/mm Hg for O 2
Diffusing capacity depends on solubility of diffusing gases.
DC of CO 2 is 20 times more than O 2
DC of O 2 is twice more than N 2
As the solubility of CO 2 is 20-25 times higher there that of O 2 the amount of CO 2 that can diffuse membrane
per unit different in partial.

Oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve

A graph is plotted between O 2 concentration and
percentage saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen (we get a
sigmoid curve) this curve is called Dissociationcurve.
Dissociation curve is sigmoid curve. As the concentration of
CO 2 increases, saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen
decreases. At higher CO 2 concentration dissociation curve
shifts towards right side. This effect is called Bohr’s effect. The
measing of right side shifting of dissociation curve is that O 2 is
readily dissociating from oxyhaemoglon.
Shift to left Means that increase in affinity between O 2 and Hb
(which may be due to  pH ,  CO 2 )

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Shift to Right Means that decrease in affinity between O 2 & Hb.(which may be due to  pH  temp  CO 2 )
Hb can not take up O 2 beyond a saturation level of 97%
Hb is 50% saturated with O 2 at 30mm Hg
P50 value - PO2 at which the Hb is 50% saturated with O 2 . Higher the P50 lower is the affinity of Hb for O 2 
2,3 DPG will cause shift to right.

PULMONARY VOLUMES
Physical capacity of lungs is measured by spirometer
1. Tidal volume [T.V.]- It is amount of air inspired or expired during normal breathing. Its value for
man is 500ml. Whole inspired air does not reach up to lungs. The portion of air which remains in the
respiratory track is called Anatomical dead-space. Its value for man is 150 ml.
2. Inspiratory Reserve Volume [I.R.V.]-It is the maximum amount of air inspired over tidal volume by
deepest inspiration. Its value is about 3000 ml (2500 to 3000 ml)
3. Expiratory reserve volume [E.R.V.]- It is the amount of air expired over tidal volume by most
forceful expiration. Its value is 1000 ml [1000-1100]

4. Residual volume- [R.V.]-It is the amount of air that remains inside lungs after forceful exploration
residual volume can not be given out of lungs. Its value is 1200 ml (1200-1500 ml)

PULMONARY CAPACITIES
1. Inspirer capacity- [I.C.]-It is the amount of air one can inspire by maximum distension or expansion
of his lungs, it is called I.C. In it inspiratory reserve volume and tidal volume are included
I.C. = I.R.V. + T.V.
= 3000 ml + 500 ml
I.C. = 3500 ml

2. Functional Residual capacity [FRC]-It is the amount of air that normally remains inside lungs after
expiration. In it expiratory reserve volume and residual volume are included
FRC = ERV + RV
= 1000 ml + 1200 ml
FRC = (2200-2500ml)

3. Vital capacity- [V.C.]-It is the amount of air that can be expired by most forceful expiration after a
deepest inspiration. Inspiratory reserve volume expiratory reserve volume and tidal volume are
included in it
V.C.= IRV + RV + TV
= 3000 ml + 1000 ml + 500 ml
= 4500 ml ( 4300 to 4800 ml)

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4. Total lung capacity- [T.L.C] It is the maximum amount of air that lungs can hold volume, tidal
volume, expiratory reserve volume and residual volume are included
TLC = IRV + TV + ERV + RV
= 3000 + 500 + 1000 + 1200
TLC = 6000 ml (approx) (5700 to 6000 ml)

Respiratory Disorders
Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and bronchioles.
Emphysema is a chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are damaged due to which respiratory surface is
decreased. One of the major causes of this is cigarette smoking .
Occupational Respiratory Disorders- In certain industries especially those involving grinding or stone
Breaking so much dust is produced that the defense mechanism of the body cannot fully cope with the
situation. Long exposure can give rise to inflammation leading to fibrosis (proliferation of fibrous tissues)
and thus causing serious workers in such industries should wear protective masks.

SOME TERMS TELATED TO RESPIRATION

1. Eupnoea- It is the state of normal breathing. In man rate of normal breathing is 12-16 per minute in
infants rate of breathing is 44 per minute. Rate of breathing is slowest while sleeping.
2. Bradymea or Hyponoea – It is the state of slow breathing
3. Taclynea or Hypernoea – It is the state of fast breathing
4. Apnoea – It is the state of stoppage of breathing temporarily
5. Dyspnea – It is the state of discomfort due to difficulty in breathing
6. Asphyxia – It is the state of suffocation due to high CO2 conc. or low O2 conc.
7. Anoxia – It is absence of O2 supply to tissues.
8. Hypocapnoea – It is the state of reduced CO2 conc. in blood
9. Hypercapnoea - It is the state of increased CO2 conc. in blood

CELL RESPIRATION
Is the release of energy from food by progressive oxidation. Cell respiration can be aerobic or
anaerobic. Bachs (1890) discovered that respiration can occur without oxygen.

(1) Aerobic respiration

 It is a multi step complete oxidative breakdown of respiratory substrate into carbon dioxide and
water with the help of oxygen acting as terminal oxidant.
Enzyme
C6 H12O6  6O2   6CO2  6H 2O  686kcal / 2870 kilojoules
The energy is stored in some 38 molecules of ATP
Aerobic respiration occurs in following steps.
(a) Glycolysis (b) Link reaction
(c) Krebs cycle (d) Oxidative phosphorylation
(a) Glycolysis- (GK-glykys sugar, lysis breakdown) on EMP pathway (Embden Meyerhof and
parnas). This pathway is common to both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Enzyme
C 6 H12 O 6  2ADP  2Pi  2NAD    2C 3 H 4 O 3  2ATP  2NADH 2
 Pyruvic acid 
Oddative
(b) Link reaction: Pyruvate  NAD  CoA   
Dubonylation
 Acetyl CoA  NADH 2  CO 2
In mitochondria – pyruvic acid or pyruvate undergoes oxidative decarboxylation to produce
acetyl-CoA, CO2, NADH2
(c) Krebs cycle- (Krebs, 1940)Also known as Citric acid cycke or TCA cycle (tricarboxlic acid
cycle). Acetyl CoA enters the Krebs cycle.
Acety CoA  3NAD   FAD  ADP   Pi   CoA  3NADH 2  FADH 2  2CO 2  ATP  3H  NADH 2
l and FADH 2 liberates H  and electron.
They are used in building up ATP molecules.
They activate oxygen molecules to combine with hydrogen for forming water.
(d) Oxidative phosphorylation – Generation of ATP and inorganic phosphate with the help of
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 electron generated energy during oxidation of reduced coenzymes  NADH 2 .FADH 2  water
formed in respiration is called metabolic water. As oxygen is used at the end of Kreb cycle for
combining with hydrogen the process is called terminal oxidation.

Making ATP by phosphorylation

(ATP is energy currency of cell, it breaks to form ADP and (Pi) and release energy)
In the cell ATP is made by adding a phosphate group to a molecule of ADP. This is phosphorylation. This
requires energy. Hence energy is stored in ATP this way, it is carried out in two different way. Substrate
level phosphorylation and Oxidative phosphorylation.

1. Substrate level phosphorylation – Is the process in which a phosphate group from a substance
molecule (a molecule other than ATP, ADP or AMP) is transferred to a molecule of ADP giving a
new molecule of ATP. This of phosphorylation occurs in glycolysis and Kreb’s cycle.

2. Oxidation phosphorylation- ATP is synthesize using free phosphate group. The energy is required
in this process. The energy required is obtained from the series of oxidation reactions. The process is
complex and occurs at internal membrane of mitochondrion (cristae) where electron transport chain
is present.
 Firstly breaking of NADH & FADH2 takes place to form NAD and FAD and release H+ and
electrons. Electrons are accepted by electron acceptors (carrier molecules) in electron transport
chain. Finally at the end of electron transport chain electrons are accepted by oxygen and it gets
reduced, which then combines with H+ ions to form H2O. The electron transport chain consist of a
series of carruer molecule accept an electron (reduced) and then loose it again (oxidized) the energy
is lost by the electron at each transfer, which can be used to power the active transport of H+ across
the inner mitochondrial membrane.
 This result in high conc of H+ in outer mitochondrion space and a low conc. in inner mitochondrial
space
 Because of this conc. difference hydrogen ions leaks back to inner compartment. The only route that
they have is through middle of stalked granules ATP ase enzyme.
 As the stream of hydrogen ions flow down the conc. gradient enough energy is released to allow free
inorganic phosphate molecules to be added to ADP to form ATP.
 This is called chemistry in (1978).

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 Stage Site Within cell Over all process No. of ATP Molecules
produces
1 Glycolysis Cytosol Glycose in split into 2 2 per glucose
molecules of pyruvate
2 Pyruvate oxidation Matrix Pyruvate  acetyi CoA None
(inner fluid of
mitochondria)
3 Kreb’s cycle Matrix Acetyl CoA drives a cycle of 2 per cycle (4 per glucose)
reactions which produces
hydrogen
4 Electron transport chain Inner membrane of Hydrogen drives a series of Up to 32 per glucose
(oxidative mitochondria (cristae) redox reactions which
phosphorylation) release enough to make ATP

NAD and FAD

 NAD (Nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide) and FAD (flavine adenine dinucleotide) are Coenzyme,
organic compounds that catalysis reaction. As their name implies, coenzymes works closely with
enzymes. Unlike enzyme they are not proteins.
 NAD and FAD carry electrons from electron donors in glycolysis Pyruvate oxidation (link reaction)
and Kreb’s cycle to electron acceptors in electron transport chain in mitochondrial membrane. When
NAD and FAD accept electron they become reduced and becomes NADH and FADH2. In this form
they are reduced co-enzymes. This reduction always requires dehydrogenase enzyme.
Dehydrogenase enzyme removes H+ from other molecules and spilt H into H+ and electron. NAD
and FAD accepts electrons and H+ plays an important role in electron transport chain, combines with
oxygen to form H2O. In Human body NAD is synthesized from Vit. B3 (nicotinic acid) and FAS
from vit B2 (riboflavin)
 NAD delivers its electrons to a higher energy level in chain then does FAD. As a result NAD will
provide 50% more energy for ATP synthesis than FAD reach NAD produces 3ATP while each FAD
produces 2ATP molecules.

Que. How many ATP molecules are produced, per molecule of glucose in aerobic cell respiration?
Ans. ATP can be made in the of two ways by substrate level phosphorylation and oxidative
phospholylation.
(i) Substrate level phosphorylation-Glycolysis and Krebs cycle produce ATP in this way
Stage ATP formed
Glycolysis 2(2 used but 4 made)
Pyruvate oxidation 0
Kreb’s cycle 2(1 per turn)
Total 4
(ii) Oxidative phosphorylation- This is production of ATP by electron transport chain. It relies on
continuous supply of high energy electron from the preceding processes. These electron are
provided by the reduced co-enzyme NADH, FADH2
Stage NADH produced FADH2 produced
Glycolysis 2 0
Pyruvate oxidation 2 0
Kreb’s cycle 6(3 per turn) 2(1 per turn)
Total 10 2
 We know that for every molecule of NADH fed into the chain 3 molecule of ATP are produced
and for every molecule of FADH2 fed into the chain 2 molecule of ATP are produced.

Therefore- 10 NADH will provide = 30 ATP

2FADH2 will provide = 4 ATP
__________
34 ATP
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 By oxidative phosphorylation ATP produced = 34
By substrate level phosphorylation ATP produced = 4
_____________
Total 38 ATP
 In practice, the figure is usually 36 molecule of ATP. Because the mitochondrial membrane is
impermeable to NADH, the 2 molecule & NADH formed during glycolysis in the cytosol cannot
carry their electrons directly into the electron transport chain. To get over this most cells hve a
shuttle system in which electron released by the NADH and passed across the mitochondrial
membrane where they are picked up by FADH2. As we saw earlier, FADH2 only produces
2ATPs compared with 3 made by NADH, thus reducing the final total (38) to (36)
 This is the ATP total under ideal conditions.

2. Anaerobic respiration- Occurs in many lower organisms eg. Certain bacteria, yeast in human body is
occurs regularly in red blood cells and during heavy in muscles. Anaerobic respiration occurs in
cytoplasm.
In yeast

In muscle cells

 Fermentation (L fermentum-froth) It is anaerobic breakdown of carbohydrates by microgranisms

producing acids and a variety of other products along with heat and waste gases. Fermentation is
used in brewing industry (for producing wine, whisky, beer), baking industry (for making bread
spongy) curd and yoghurt formation, synthesis of vinegar citric acid lactic acid softening and
aromatization of Tobacco, Tea and other beverages cleaning of hides and separating or retting of
fibres (e.g. Jute Hemp).

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 ANIMAL PHYSIOLOGY- TRANSPORTATION IN ANIMALS
 In human beings (on the basis of circulating fluid) two types of circulatory system are observed
(1) Food circulatory system- It consist of-Blood, Blood vessels, Heart
(2) Lymphatic system- It consist of lymph, lymph capillaries, lymph vessels, lymph nodes, lymphoid
tissues/ organs.
 The study of blood vascular system or circulatory system is called-Angiology.
William Harvey is known as father of angiology. He called heart as the “Pumping station of body”

CIRCULATION OF BLOOD
Single Circuit : Example :Fishes

Double Circuit : Example : Man, Rabbit

Transitional type circuit : Two circuits are not completely separate

Example- FROG-Blood mixes in ventricles
 Evolutionary sequence is present in vertebrates

(1) Fishes have a tubular “Venous-Heart” In their heart deoxygenated blood enters from one side and from
the other side enters inside the gills for purification. This is called the “Single Heart Circuit”.

(2) In amphibians (like Frog) and Reptiles the auricles are divided into right and left. Right auricle gets
impure and left auricle gets pure blood from the body. But only 1 ventricle is present or is incompletely
divided so after coming here the pure and impure blood mix up.

 In some reptiles (Crocodile, Gavialis and Alligator) and in all birds and mammals the heart is divided
into 2 auricles and 2 ventricles so while circulating inside the heart the pure and impure blood remain
separated. The right portion of the heart collects impure blood from the body and sends it to the
lungs for purification while the left portion takes pure blood from the lungs and distributes it to the
whole body.

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Path of Blood in Double Circuit (Man)
 It was first discovered by “William-Harvey”.

STRUCTURE OF HEART
EXTERNAL STRUCTURE
 Heart is situated in the meditational space of thoracic cavity in between the lungs. Covering of heart
is called pericardium which consists of two layers
(i) Outer : Parietal pericardium
(ii) Inner : Visceral pericardium or epicardium made up of simple squamous epithelium (Serous
membrane).
 These two membranes is called pericardial cavity.
 A serous fluid is present in this cavity it is called pericardial fluid. It is secreted by the pericardium.

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Functions of pericardial fluid
(1) It prevents the heart from external jerks
(2) It provides moisture to heart. It prevents the two membranes from collapsing
 The heart of man is four chambered 2 auricles and 2 ventricles. It is pinkish in colour and conical in
shape.
 The broad upper part of heart is called auricular part or base and lower conical part is called
ventricular part (its tip is called apex).
 In between the auricles and ventricles, a clear groove is present, which is known as coronary sulcus.

(a) Auricles-Auricular part of heart is smaller and of dark colour its wall are thin. It is divided into right
and left auricles by fissure called interauricular sulcus out of these two, right auricular surface is bigger
than left auricle. Each auricle forms an bulbous structure called auricular appendages. It covers a small
part of ventricle of its side

(b) Ventricles- Ventricular part is broad, muscular and of light colour. Ventricles have thicker walls than
auricles. The grooves which divide the two ventricles are termed as inter-ventricular groove or sulcus.
The right ventricle is smaller than the left ventricle.
 Left ventricle is more muscular and thick walled then right because it has to pump blood into those
arteries which take blood throughout the body while right ventricle has to pump blood only to the
lungs.

Blood supply of heart (coronary circulation)

 The oxygenated blood is supplies to the heart musculature for its consumption with the help of two
coronary arteries, left and right. These arteries arise from the common origin at arch of aorta. The left
and right coronary arteries then further subdivides into a number of branches carrying blood to
different regions of heart. The impure blood from heart walls return back via coronary veins which
drain into the coronary sinus. The coronary sinus opens in the right atricum.

1. Septum
 Interauricular septum- It is a partition between the left and right auricles
 Interventricular septum – It is a partition dividing the right and left Ventricles
 Auriculoventriculat septum – It separates the two auricles from the two ventricles.

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2. Chambers
 The mammalian heart has four chambers
i) Right Auricle of Atrium- Inlets it receives one S.V.C one I.V.C and one opening of coronary sings in
man, SVC superior vena cava = anterior vena cava = pre caval IVC = inferior vena cava= posterior
vena cava. The SVC & IVC bring from the upper and lower body parts respectively. The coronary
sinus receives impure blood from the rt & it. Coronary veins and drains it in the right auricle.
Outlets- This impure blood drains through the right AV foramen into the right ventricle
ii) Right Ventricle- Inlets receives impure blood through right AV foramen from right auricle.
Outlets- drains the impure blood into pulmonary artery through which it reaches lungs for
oxygenation.
iii) Left Auricle- Inlets receives oxygenated blood from lungs via pulmonary vein
Outlets this pure blood is drained into left ventricle through left AV foramen

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 iv) Left Ventricle – Inlets receives pure blood through left AV foramen from left auricle
Outlets – drains pure blood into the Aorta from where it is supplied to systemic organs.

3. Walls
Auricles – The inner wall surface here presents a series of transverse muscular ridges called musculi
pectinati.
Ventricles- The inner wall is rough due to presence of muscular ridges or columnae carnae. These
continue as papillary muscles whose one end is attached to the ventricular wall and the other end
connected to the cusps of AV valves by chordate tendinae . These are meant for preventing the
pushing of flaps into atrium during ventricular contraction.

4. Valves
 Rt. Atrium- All its inlets are guarded with valves to prevent backflow of the blood. The SVC
opening is said to be guarded by Haversian valve. The IVC which opens below this has its opening
guarded by a valve called Eustachian valve. The opening of coronary sinus in rt. Atrium is guarded
by Thebesian valve
 Lt Atrium- At its inlet is pulmonary vein (four veins in man and two in rabbit) these have no
guarding valve.
 AV foramen- The right AV foramen has a unidirectional valve called tricuspid valve. The
unidirectional valve present on left AV foramen is made of two cups only hence called bicuspid
valve (also called as the Mitral valve).
 Rt Ventricle- Its outlet is in the pulmonary artery it is guarded by a pulmonary semilunar valve
 Lt Ventricle- Its outlet is in the systemic aorta. This opening is guarded by an aortic semilunar valve.

CONGENITAL HEART DISEASE

 These are the diseases present since birth due to defects in the development of heart where there is
incomplete separation of oxygenated and deoxygenated parts of blood due to which there is mixing
of pure and impure blood. Some common types are
1) Patent foramen ovale- The foramen ovale fails to close after birth as a result of which there is an
atrial septal defect through which the impure blood in Rt atrium reaches the left atrium and mixes
with the pure blood present there.

2) Patentductus arteriosus – The ductus arteriosus fails to close after birth due to which the impure
blood in the pulmonary arch mixes with the pure blood in the aortic arch.

3) Ventricular septal defect- The inter ventricular septum is incomplete thus allowing mixing of the
blood in the two ventricles.
 Mixing of impure deoxygenated blood in the pure oxygenated blood in any of the above cases leads
to decrease in the quantity of oxygen supply to the body. Thus symptoms of cyanosis (bluish
discolouration of skin) develop
 Such babies are called Blue babies. These children get exhausted early due to inefficient oxygen
supply.

Conduction Pathway
The conducting system of Heart
 It is made of myocardium that is specialized in for initiation and conduction of the cardiac impulse.
Its fibres are finer than other myocardial fibres and possess special nerve like properties (= self
excitatory neuromuscular pathway).
The conducting system has the following parts.

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 S.A. Node (Pacemaker)

Inter nodal pathway

A.V. Node

Bundle of His

Purkinje fibres (Rt & Lt)
Rate of conduction is fastest in bundle of His and slowest in AV node

1) Sinoatrial node (SA node) It is known as the “pacemaker” of the heart. It is present in right upper
corner of the right atrium. It generates impulses at the rate of about 72 per minute
2) Internodal pathway- It is the network of neuromuscular pathway that connects the SA node to the
AV node.
3) Atrioventricular node (AV node) It is smaller than SA node and is situated in the lower left corner of
the right atrium close to the atrio-ventricular septum. It is capable of generating impulse at rate of
about 40/min
4) Bundle of His (AV Bundle) It is the connection between the atrial and ventricular musculature. It
begins at the AV node and then divides into left and right branches as it descends down towards
ventricles.
5) The Purkinje fibres these are distributed through the endocardium of the ventricles and propogate the
impulse in the entire ventricle musculature (18-25 per min)

WORKING OF HEART
Heart Beat
 Rhythmic contraction and relaxation of heart is called heart beat. Actually contraction and relaxation
occur separately in atria and ventricles. However ventricular movements are quire prominent and
forceful. These fore heart beat is synonym with ventricular or apex beat. The rate of heart beat in an
adult male is on the average 72 per minute.
 Heart beat is entirely controlled by nervous supply in arthropods and some annelids. It is called
neurogenic heart beat and the heart is called neurogenic heart. In molluscs and vertebrates heart beat

originates from a special muscular tissue. Such a heart beat is called myogenic heart beat and the
heart is called myogenic heart. Human heart is myogenic.

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Differences between Neurogenic and Myogenic Hearts

Neurogenic Heart Myogenic Heart

1 Impulse of heart beat comes from outside The impulse of heart beat develops within
heart. the heart
2 Impulse is generated by nervous system Impulse is generated by a special muscular
tissue
3 Nerve fibres are spread over the heart to There are special conducting muscle fibres
bring about contraction and relaxation for spreading the impulse
4 Heart will stop beating if removed from If will continue to beat for some time, if
the body detached heart is supplied with proper
nourishment and favourable conditions.
 Each heart beat has two components, systole and diastole. Systole represents contraction while
diastole represents relaxation of heart chambers.
 Heart beats are listened with the help of an instrument called stethoscope (invented by Laennec)

Regulation of Heart Beat

 Centre for heart beat regulation is located in medulla oblongata (Brain stem) through sympathetic
and parasympathetic nerves.
 The Adrenaline hormone and Thyroxine hormone secreted by Adrenal medulla and thyroid
respectively also increase heart beat.
 Tachycardia it is the condition where heart rate exceeds 90 per minute for an average adult
 Bradycardia it is the condition where the heart rate falls below 60 per minute in an average adult
 The cardiac events that occur from the beginning of one heart beat to beginning of the next are called
cardiac cycle. The action potential travels rapidly through both atria and them through the AV bundle
into the wall of ventricles

Cardiac-Cycle
 The process of heart beat begins from the time of embryonal development. Once the heart beat starts
it continues thought out the life (inherent capacity). In resting stage of man in 1 minute the heart
beats around 72 times and during this 1 minute, 5 litres of blood is pumped to different parts of the
body through heart through left ventricle.
 The serial wise or sequential changes which take place in the heart are called cardiac-cycle
 The contraction of the auricles is termed as auricular systole or atrial systole and their relaxation is
called atrial-diastole
 Some way the contraction and relaxation of ventricles is termed as ventricular systole and ventricular
diastole.
 The time of cardiac-cycle is the reverse ratio of heart beat per minute. If heart beat per minute is 72,
then the time of cardiac cycle is 60/72 = 0.8 seconds.

Joint Diastole 0.8 – 0.4 = 0.4 sec. (Period during which entire heart is in Diastole)
Joint Diastole 0.8 – 0.4 = 0.4 sec. (Period during which entire heart is in Diastole)
In a single cardiac cycle of man
(1) Auricular systole = 0.1 sec
(2) Auricular diastole = 0.7 sec
(3) Ventricular systole = 0.3 sec
(4) Ventricular diastole = 0.5 sec
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Following events are related to the Cardiac-cycle
Outer circle  Auricles
Inner circle  Ventricles

Heart- Sound
(1) 1st sound- This is a contraction sound which denotes the beginning of ventricle-contraction. It arises
due to closing of mitral of mitral valve and the tricuspid valve. It is weak and appears in the form of
“Lubb” (L-U-B-B)
(2) 2nd sound – This is a diastolic sound which denotes the beginning of ventricular diastole. This arises
due to the closing of the semi-lunar valves of the two arches and is heard in the form of “Dup”. It is
shrill than the 1st sound and takes less time.
 These “Lubb” and “Dup” sounds of the heart can be heard with the help of an instrument called
“Stethoscope”.

Blood Pressure
 Blood pressure is the pressure exerted by the flowing blood on the elastic walls of arteries. Blood
flows in closed vessels so it exerts a pressure on the walls of these vessels. As soon as the blood is
pumped into the arteries it exerts a pressure on the artery wall. This pressure is known as blood-
pressure.
 Blood pressure is measured in two stages
(1) Systolic pressure – It is the higher limit of blood pressure that shows the state of heart (systole)
contraction for man this limit is 120 mm Hg (normal)
(2) Diastolic pressure – It is the lower limit of B.F that shows the state of heart relaxation (expansion
diastole) for man this limit is 80 mm Hg normal)
Factors Affecting Blood-Pressure- B.P. may be affected by following factors
(1) Exercise- At the time of physical labour B.P. is increased
(2) Emotions and Excitement- In the state of excitement or emotions B.P. is increased in man. At the
time of Adrenal secretion at the time of fear and in some hereditary conditions B.P. is increased
(3) Contraction of Blood Vessels – B.P. is increased when contraction takes place in arteries and blood
Capillaries
(4) Body posture- In a laying (relaxing) person B.P. is low compared to a standing man
(5) Sex- In women B.P. is slightly low as compared to men.
(6) Obesity – In obese persons B.P. is increased
(7) Age B.P. increases as the age advances due to increase in vasomotor tone

Pulse
 The pulse is felt in the radial artery present in the wrist of a man. It is also felt in the artery of neck
region. The graph of pulse of an artery is marked by an instrument that is called sphygmograph pulse
pressure is the pressure difference which generates a pulse. This is systolic minus diastolic B.P.

BLOOD VESSELS
In closed type of blood vascular system blood vessels of 3 types
(1) Arteries (2) Veins (3) Capillaries

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  Normally artery carries pure blood from heart to the different organs of the body
 Veins carry impure blood body organs to the heart and this blood is impure normally
 Capillaries are present in the organs and these are the vessels through which exchange takes palce

Anatomy of arteries and veins- Normally there are three layers are found in the walls of blood vessels
(i) Tunica externa- It is the outer most layer. It is formed of loose connective tissue in which many collagen
fibres, elastin finres and longitudinal muscles are found.
(ii) Tunica media – It is a thick layer of circular non striated muscles and a network of elastin fibres
(iii) Tunica interna – Thus layer is made up of squamous epithelium it is also known as Endothelium

ARTERY VEIN
1 It carries blood from the heart to the 1 It carries blood from organs to the
organs heart
2 All the arteries carry pure blood 2 All the veins carry impure blood
except pulmonary artery which except pulmonary vein which carries
carries impure blood. pure blood.
3 Blood flows with a high pressure & 3 In the vein, blood flows with a low
speed pressure &
4 Arteries are deeply situated in the 4 Vein are superficial just below the
body skin
5 The walls of arteries are thick and 5 The walls of veins are thin and soft
tough
6 Their lumen is constricted 6 Their lumen is wide
7 Valves are absent in the walls of 7 Walls of veins contain valves
arteries
8 These are pinkish or bright red in 8 These are deep red or bluish in colour.
colour
9 Arteries do not collapse when 9 Veins usually collapse when empty.
empty, because their walls are thick
10 Their tunica media layer is much 10 Their tunica media layer of wall is
thicker as compared to veins thinner as compared to arteries

 These all layers are well developed in the walls of arteries as compared to the walls of veins
 Walls of arteries are thick and more muscular and these walls are elastic and non-collapsable
 The walls of veins are thin, less muscular non elastic and collapsible
 In the walls of blood capillaries only endothelium layer is found. Its cells are flat and squamous.
Their walls are perforated. These blood capillaries join the arteries with the veins

PORTAL SYSTEM
 When the vein of any organ of the body does not open in the caval vein or heart but it divides into
capillaries in any other organ and its blood is transported by vein of that other organs to the heart
then this type of system is termed as portal system.

It is of following types
(i) Renal portal system
(ii) Hepatic portal system
(iii) Hypophysial portal system

(I) Renal portal system

 Veins which collect blood from posterior parts of the body and legs combine to form a renal portal
vein. This vein goes into kidney and divides into capillaries kidneys separate nitrogenous wastes
from this blood. This partly purified blood is now transported to the heart. It is present in frog
 In mammals renal portal system is absent.

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 (II) Hepatic Portal System
 It is a portal system which brings venous blood directly from digestive tract, spleen, pancreas and
gall bladder to liver for extraction of nutrients and other metabolites by breaking up into single celled
thick capillaries and sinusoids portal veins is about 8 cm long.

(III) Hypophysial Portal System

 It is a portal system formed by a vein from hypothalamus which breaks up into capillaries in
hypophysis or pituitary gland. The vein is called hypophysial portal vien

LYMPHATIC CIRCULATORY SYSTEM

 Here a different kind of circulating fluid (lymph) transferees CO2 and waste products from the
interstitial spaces to the veins through lymph vessels. This fluid is derived from filtration of blood in

the capillaries. If is devoid of RBC’s. The lymph vessels originated from lymph capillaries and
either in the vein or a main big lymph vessel called thoracic duct.

The Lymph
 From arteriolar regions of capillaries about 90 percent fluid is returned back into their venous
regions. To drain back the remaining ten percent of the filtered out fluid, vertebrates possess
additional independent system of pipelines, called lymphatic system. The cavity of lymph capillaries
is wider and irregular. Their wall is thinner than that of blood capillaries but its pores are so much
larger as to allow entrance of even bacteria, cell debris and proteins and other larger colloid particles.
The fluid that flows into these capillaries from the interstitial space is called lymph.

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  W. B. Cs and plasma are found in lymph but R.B.Cs. and platelets are absent from lymph,
 Lymph forms second circulatory system in the body. Lymphatic system is also known as helping
circulatory system.
 Clotting capacity is present in lymph but its clotting takes more time as compared to blood.

Differences between lymph and blood

Blood Lymph
1. It forms circulatory system 1. It forms lymphatic system
2. R.B.Cs present 2. R.B.Cs. absent
3. Neutrophils more 3. Lymphocytes in largest amount
4. Soluble proteins in large amount but insoluble 4. Soluble proteins in small amount but in soluble
protein in small amount proteins in large amount
5. O2 & nutrients in large amount but CO2 very less 5. O2 & nutrients in small amount CO2 in large
amount
6. It is of red colour 6. It is of colourless, just like water
7. More WBC 7. Lesser WBC

Lymph Vessels
 Lymph capillaries combine together to form lymph vessels in rabbit/man
 Lymph vessels are like veins in structure. Their wall is comparatively thin. One way semilunar
valves are present in these vessels which open towards heart valves are more in number than veins.
 Lymphatic capillaries of intestinal villi are called lacteals. The lymph is milky in colour due to the
absorbed fat from the intestine. It is called chyle.

Lymphoid organs and lymph nodes- Lymphoid organs made up of lymph tissue are present in hymphatic
system, which are related to lymph capillaries and lymph vessels. Lymph nodes, spleen, thymus, patches of
payer, tonsil etc, are such type of organs.

(a) Lymph nodes – At places many lymphatics may intersect with each other forming a knob or node like
structure called the lymph node.
 The lymph node thus acts as a filter apparatus which filter the lymph coming from the interstitial
space and remove cellular debris etc. from it.
 Lymph nodes are present in all parts of body, but their number is comparatively more in armpits of
hands legs, groins necks and abdomen. Their number is much more in neck region

The other functions are as follows

1. These form lymphocytes and pour into lymph
2. Filter and clean the lymph
3. Synthesize the antibodies
4. Destroy bacteria and other harmful substance by feeding upon (phagocytosis)

Spleen
 Spleen is known to be the largest lymph node of body. It is the blood banks of the body
 Spleen is also called “Graveyard of RBC”
 Spleen originates from embryonic mesoderm
 Spleen is red-coloured lymph node it is found to the lateral side of stomach. It is the largest solid
mass of reticulo-endotherlial tissue in the body

Functions of spleen
 Its macrophages engulf or phagocytize and destroy worn out blood cells, live or dead pathogens cell
debris etc
 In the embryonal stage it produce RBCs
 Some antibodies are synthesized here
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  In adult stage spleen work as blood bank. Its sinuses serve as reservoirs of blood when required their
blood is squeezed into circulation.
 Spleen stores iron
 The size of spleen increases at the time of malaria because lymphocytes and dead RBC number is
increased in it at that time (spleenomegaly)

Circulatory system disorders

1. Hypertension- High blood pressure
Causes :diet, strees, inactivity
Effect on body : Leads to heart disease and possible failure

2. Arteriosclerosis- Hardening of the Arteries

Causes, Diet High in cholesterol (LDL) and Fats
Effect on body : Causes arteries to become inelastic which can reduce the amount of blood flow in them.
This can lead to a heart attack and/or stroke

3. Atherosclerosis- Narrowing of Arteries

Causes : Fatty deposits within the artery walls from poor diet/fat intake etc.
Effect on body : Narrowing of arteries reduces blood flow to heart and brain which may lead to heart
attack and/or stroke

4. Stroke : Loss of blood flow to brain tissue causing cell death

Causes : Any one of the above and others
Effect on Body : loss of brain function and/or motor control (paralysis) death

5. Coronary Blockage : A blockage in the coronary arteries of the heart

Causes : Diet lack of exercise
Effect on Body : Heart attack death

ANIMAL PHYSIOLOGY- EXCRECTION

EXCRETION- Excretion is the removal of the metabolic wastes of an organism. Wastes that are removed
include carbon dioxide, water, salt, urea and uric acid. All excreted wastes travel at some time in the blood.
Function of the excretory system
 The excretory system functions in ridding the body of nitrogenous (nitrogen-containing, discussed
below) and other wastes.
 It also regulates the amount of water and ions present in the body fluids

OSMOCONFORMERS & OSMOREGULATIORS

Osmoregulation
 The regulation of solute movement and hence water movement (which follows solutes by osmosis) is
called osmoregulation.
 On the basis of osomoregulation, animals are either osmoconformer or osmoregulators.

Osmoconformers
 These animals can not actively control the osmotic condition of their body fluids. Instead of this they
change or adapt the osmolarity of body fluids according to the osmolarity of the surrounding
medium.
Example
 All marine invertebrates and some fresh water inverrebrates
 Osmoconformes show an excellent ability to tolerate a wide range of cellular osmotic environments
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Osmoregulators
 These animals maintain an internal osmolarity different from the surrounding medium in which they
inhabit. Osmoregulator animals must either eliminate excess water if they are in hypotonic medium
or they should continuously take in water to compensate for water loss if they are hypertonic medium
 Due to this the osmoregulator animals have to spend energy
e.g. most vertebrates.

Water and solute regulation in freshwater environment

 Body fluids of fresh water animals (osmolarity 200-300 m osm L–1) are hypertonic to surrounding
medium (osmolarity 50 m osm L–1) Due to this the freshwater animals constantly face two problems
(1) They gain water passively due to osmotic gradient
(2) Continuous loss of body salts to surrounding low salt containing medium occurs
To encounter these problems the fresh water fishes perform following acts
(1) They do not drink water
(2) Specialised cells called ionocytes or chloride cells are present in the gill membrane of fresh water
fish. These cells can actively import Na+ & Cl– from surrounding water (containing less than 1mM
NaCl) against concentration gradient

Water and solute regulation in Marine environment

 Body fluids of marine bony fishes is hypotonic to seawater (osmolarity 1000 m osm L–1) So the
osmoregulatory problems are opposite here
(1) Marine fishes loose water from the body through permeable surfaces (like gill membranes, oral and
anal membranes
(2) To compensate this water loss the marine fishes have to drink water, this drinking results in gain of
excess salts

These problems are encountered by marine bony fishes by following acts

(1) The ionocytes or chloride cells of the gill membrane eject out excess of ions
(2) Excess of Divalent cations are excreted with faeces
 When fishes like Hilsa & Salman (which live in both sea & fresh water) migrate from fresh water to
sea water they drink water and excrete excess salts through gill membranes

Water and solute regulation in terrestrial environment

 Land animals continuously loose water through oral, nasal or respiratory surface during breathing. A
loss of 12 percent of body water may lead conservation in different animals are as follows
 Kangaroo rats loose very little water, because they can recover 90 percent of the loss by using
metabolic water.
 When water is not available, the camels do not produce urine but store urea in tissues and solely
depend on metabolic water. When water is available they rehydrate themselves by drinking upto 80
litres of water in 10 minutes.

ELIMINATION OF NITROGENOUS WASTES

 On the basis of type of excretory products (ammonia urea or uric acid) three types of animals are
present

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 (1) Ammonotelics : Most aquatic animals excrete nitrogenous waste such as ammonia the water soluble
ammonia molecules diffuse across the body surface into surrounding water. In fishes most of the
ammonia  NH 3  is lost as ammonium ions  NH 4   across the gill epithelium.
Eg of ammonotelic animals are modern bony fish tadpoles and aquatic insects
(2) Ureotelics : Animals like mammals, most adult amphibians living on land, marine fish and turtles
face the problem of conserving water. Excretion of urea is beneficial for these animals than ammonia
because of following reasons.
(1) Urea can be tolerated in much more concentrated form because it is 100000 times less toxic than
ammonia
(2) Urea excretion helps to sacrifice less water while disposing off the nitrogenous wastes
 In mammals urea is excreted by kidney. However entire amount of urea produced is not excreted
immediately but some portion of it is retained in the kidneys for osmoregulation. (important for
water reabsorption)
 Urea is produced in the liver by urea cycle
(3) Uricotelics : These animals excrete uric acid as waste products
Eg. Land snails, insects, birds & many reptiles
 Excretion of wastes in the form of uric acid is particularly advantageous for land vertebrates which
lay shelled eggs. This is because shelled eggs of reptiles & birds possess many fine pores which are
permeable to gases only.
 If the embryo would have produced ammonia or urea inside the shelled egg, the soluble nitrogenous
waste would have accumulated to toxic concentration levels. But because the wastes are in the form
of uric acid which is thousand times less soluble than NH3 or urea, this uric acid precipitates out of
the solution and can be stored in the shell as a solid waste which is left behind when the animal
hatches.

Excretory organs in animals

Animals Flatworms Earthworm Insects Crustaceans All
Eg. Planaria Eg. Cockroach Eg. Prawn chordates
Excretory Protonephridia Nephridia Malpighian Green glands Kidneys
Organs (Flame cells) Tubules

HUMAN EXCRETORY SYSTEM

 Excretory organ are also termed as organs of homeostasis

 The main excretory organ in human is kidney

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 Other excretory organs are skin, liver, lungs & large intestine
 Human excretory system consists of
Two kidneys & their blood supplies
A pair of ureters
Urinary bladder
Urethra
 Mammalian kidneys are bean shaped, Dark brown coloured with a tough fibrous connective tissue
covering capsule

 Each kidney measures 10 cm in length, 5 cm in breadth and 3cm in thickness weighing about 125-
170 gm in adult. Lateral surfaces of kidney are convex while medial surfaces are concave.
 On the concave margins of the kidney longitudinal opening called Hilum is present. Through this,
renal artery and nerve enter while renal vein and ureter leave the kidney.
 The Hilum leads to a funnel shaped space called the renal pelvis
 The kidney tissue surrounding the pelvis is arranged in an outer functional layer renal cortex and
inner functional layer renal medulla.
 The renal medulla forms conical pyramid shaped masses which project into the renal pelvis. These
are called as medullary pyramids or renal pyramids
 The functional units of mammalian Kidney are called Nephrons
 These nephrons are arranged within the renal pyramids
 Urine produced by each nephron empties into collecting duct
 The collecting duct passes through a papilla into the renal calyx (Pleural calyces)
 The renal calyces drain urine in the central cavity of renal pelvis
 Urine passes from the pelvis into the ureter. Both the ureters open through separate oblique openings
into the urinary bladder.
 Externally the bladder is lined by detrusor muscle it is involuntary in nature while internally the
bladder is lined by transitional epithelium or urothelium.
 Opening of urinary bladder is controlled by sphincters made of circular muscles. These normally
remain contracted and during maturation these relax to release urine
Nephron  Collecting duct  Papilla  Renal calyx  Renal pelvis  Ureters  Urinary
bladder  Urethra
 During act of micturition urine leaves the urine leaves the urinary bladder and enters the
membranous duct called Urethra

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STRUCTURE OF NEPHRON

 Nephron is the structural and functional unit of kidney. It is an epithelial tube which is about 3 cm
long and 20-60 m in diameter. (Each kidney has about one million nephrons in human & 2 lakh in
rabbit)
A nephron can be divided into three regions
(I) Proximal nephron (Bowman’s capsule + Proximal convoluted tubule)
(II) Loop of Henle (Ascending + Descending limb)
(III) Distal nephron (Distal convoluted tubule which opens into collecting duct)

(I) Proximal nephron : Nephron tubule is closed at its proximal (starting) end but its distal end is open and
continues into the loop of Henle. At the proximal or closed end the nephron is expanded and curved
inwardly to form a double walled cup shaped Bowman’s capsule. Within the Bowman’s capsule a
network or tuft of capillaries is present it is called Glomerulus.

Malpighian corpuscle : Glomerules and its surround Bownman’s capsule together form this specialized
structure.
 The outer wall of Bowmans capsule is composed of flattened squamous cells.
 The inner, invaginated wall that lines the concavity of Bowmans capsule is composed of a special
type of cells called Podocytes.
 These cells bear finger like projections which are coiled around the capillaries of glomerulus.
 Proximal convoluted tubule : The epithelial cells of this region are specialized for transport of salts
and other substances from the lumen to the interstitial fluid
 The membranes of these cells facing the tubule lumen has numerous microvilli (finger like
projections or Brusin Borders) which increase the surface area
(III) Loop of Henle : It starts after the proximal convolunted tubule, it ends before the distal convoluted
tubule. This hairpin like loop has a descending limb, followed by an ascending limb

(a) Descending limb

Its upper part Constitutes thick segment
Has the same diameter as PCT
Is also lined by cuboidal epithelium
Has less microvilli and mitochondria in comparison to cells of PCT

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(b) Ascending limb

 This part too has a thin segment first which widens abruptly at medullary zone to form thick
segment. Lower thin segment is lined by simple squamous epithelium while upper thick segment is
lined by cuboidal epithelium.
(III) Distal nephron :The ascending limb of henle’s loop merges into distal convoluted tubule. This is
lined by cuboidal epithelial cells with a few microvilli. Coils of both PCT & DCT are intermingled.
 The distal convoluted tubules of a number of adjacent nephrons open into a common collecting duct
or tubule.
 Several adjacent collecting ducts converge to open into a common short and thick duct of Bellini
 All ducts of Bellini then open at the tip of the papillae into the pelvis.

Renal cortex : The malpighian corpuscle, PCT & DCT of the nephrons are located here.
Renal medulla : Loop of henle, collecting duct and ducts of Bellini are found in this region.

Type of nephrons
According to their position, nephrons are of two types
(i) Cortical nephrons
 These constitute about 85% of total (75–85%)
 Malnghian corpuscles of cortical nephrons are located close to the kidney surface.
 Their loops of Henle are mostly confined to cortex and a very small part of it runs in the medulla

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(ii) Juxtamedullary nephrons
 About 15% of total (15-25%)
 Malpighian corpuscles of these nephrons are located at the junction of cortex and medulla
 The loop of Henle of these nephrons are long, dipping deep down into the medulla

BLOOD VESSELS OF KIDNEY

 Each kidney receives its blood supply by a single renal artery from dorsal aorta, and is drained off by
a single renal vein which opens in the inferior vena cava.
 As the artery enters into the medulla after traversing through the hilum, it divides into a number of
branches.
 These branches enter into renal cortex through the columns of Bertini and subdivide into afferent
arterioles which form glomerular capillaries. These capillaries are drained, not by venules but by
efferent arterioles.

MECHANISM OF URINE FORMATION

The mechanism of urine formation involves three steps or processes
(I) Ultrafiltration or Glomerular filtration
(II) Selective tubular reabsorption
(III) Tubular secretion

(I) Ultrafiltration or Glomerular filtration

 This process occurs in the Malpighian corpuscles of the nephrons.
 From the blood flowing through glomerular capillaries, about 20% of plasma fluid filters out into the
Bowman’s capsule through a thin glomerular-capsular membrane
 A special characteristic of glomerular capsule membrane is that about 100 to 500 times more
permeable than the walls of blood capillaries in other tissues of body.
 The plasma fluid that filters out from glomerular capillaries into Bowman’s capsules of nephrons is
called glomerular filtrate

(II) Selective tubular reabsorption

 The glomerular filtrate is like blood plasma minus plasma proteins (colloids) in chemical
composition. Thus it is mostly water with all soluble and diffusible solutes of plasma which include
nutrients (glucose, amino acids etc) electrolytes of salts (Na+, K+, Cl–, HCO3–, H+, etc) and waste
products of protein metabolism (urea, uric acid etc). In contrast to glomerular filtrate the urine which
is ultimately extracted from the filtrate in nephrons contains water, urea, uric acid, creatinine and
useless electrolytes in considerably higher concentrations, whereas are almost absent in it. This
proves that, while the filtrate flows through a uriniferous tubule not only its volume is reduced, but
its composition is also considerably changed. These changes are obviously due to an exchange of
materials between the filtrate and the blood Peritubular capillaries.
 A selective reabsorption of useful materials into the blood from the filtrate.
 Absorption of remaining unfiltered amount of excretory substance from blood flowing in the
peritubular capillaries, by the cells of uriniferous tubules and then subsequent secretion of these
substances into the filtrate. This selective reabsorption and secretion are finely tuned to maintain
homeostatic balances in body fluids.
 This reabsorption involves both active and passive processes.

(III) Tubular secretion

 In addition to its role in selective reabsorption of materials from the glomerular filtrate back into the
blood of peritubular capillaries.
 The distal part of proximal convoluted tubule also alters the composition of filitrate by a process of
secretion. Epithelial cells in this part extract certain excretory substances from the blood of
peritubular capillaries and secrete these into the filtrate.

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  Kidneys also perform the important function of osmoregulation (regulation of osmolarity) by
regulating the amount of water in body fluids.
 This function of kidneys is regulated by the antidiuretic hormone (ADH or Vasorpressin) secreted
by the posterior lobe of pituitary gland. This hormone increases the water permeability of the last
part of distal convoluted tubules and proximal part of the collecting ducts. In absence of ADH these
parts are almost impermeable to water and therefore the urine is dilute. But in presence of ADH,
these parts become quite permeable to water, so that much of the water present in tubular fluid is
reabsorbed and the urine becomes concentrated.

Diseases of urinary system

 Nephritis is an inflammation of the glomeruli due to a number of possible causes including things
like strep throat. Symptoms include bloody urine scant urine, scant urine output and edema
(swelling/puffliness).
 Nephrosis also affects the glomeruli and is characterized by excretion of abnormally large amounts
of protein (often causing “foamy” urine) and generalized edema (water retension/swelling)
throughout the whole body, especially noted as “puffy” eyelids.
 Infections of urinary tract. Most urinary tract infections (UTLs) are caused by Gram negative
bacteria such as E. coli)
 In some cases, excess wastes crystallize as kidney stones. They grow and cap become a painful
irritant that may require surgery or ultrasound treatments.

Some Facts about Excretory System

 The excretory system of an adult human being normally passes about 1-1.8 L of urine in 24 hours
 The urine (waste product) consists of 95% water, 2.5% urea and 2.5% other waste products.
 The way in which waste chemicals are removed from the body of the animal depends on the
availability of water.
 Sometimes a person’s kidneys may stop working due to infection or injury. As a result of kidney
failure waste products start accumulating in the blood. Such persons cannot survive unless their
blood is filtered periodically through an artificial kidney. This process is called dialysis.

ANIMAL PHYSIOLOGY- CONTROL & COORDINATION

HORMONES IN ANIMALS
 Hormones (GK hormones-to excite or to set in motion)
 Hormones are chemical messengers or informational molecules produced by ductless glands which
are translocated by circulatory system to other parts for inducing a specific physiological response.
First hormone, secretion was discovered by Baylisss and starling (1902). The term hormone was
coined by starling (1905).
 Once a hormone is released into the blood, it is carried to target cells that response to the hormone.
All the body cells are target cells for one or more hormones but all cells do not responded to a
particular hormone.

Characteristics
 Hormones are produced by endocrine or ductless glands.
 They are poured into circulatory system for passage to different body parts
 Hormones act on specific cells, tissues and organs called target sites, generally away from the place
of their synthesis.
 They function as chemical messengers or informational molecules that trigger chemical and
physiological process of target cells.
 Since hormones reach the target sites through blood, their effect appears after a lag period. They are
slow acting with the exception of adrenaline.
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  The hormones are effective in very low concentration e.g. adrenaline (one in 300 million parts)
 It is very specific. TSH acts only on thyroid while thyroxine affects all body parts
 Hormones are generally produced in response to specific stimuli
 Hormones are ultimately broken down or consumed during their activity in target cells
 Both deficiency and excess of hormone are harmful, often leading to serious disorders

Glands
A cell tissue or organ that produces a secretion for performing a particular function is called gland. Glands
are of four types-exocrine glands, endocrine glands, Heterocrine glands and mixed organs.

(i) Exocrine glands : They are glands which drain out their secretion through ducts. Their secretion
performs a metabolic e.g., gastric glands, milk glands, sweat glands.
(ii) Endocrine glands : They are isolated glands which do not have ducts for draining out secretion but
instead pour the same into circulatory system for reaching target sites e.g., thyroid, pituitary.
(iii) Heterocrine glands : Mixed glands they have both endocrine and exocrine regions. Their endocrine
part pours its secretion into circulatory system while exocrine part drain out its secretion through
ducts e.g., pancreas.
(iv) Mixed Organs : They are organs of metabolic or cytogenic (cell forming) importance which also
possess endocrine e.g. testes, ovaries.

ENDOCRINE SYSTEM
It is a system of isolated ductless glands that pour their secretion directly into circulatory system for passage
to different target organs/cells in order to control their metabolism, permeability growth differentiation,
activity etc. It is also called as hormonal system. Endocrine system often operates in coordination with
nervous system. In many cases nervous system stimulates the components of endocrine system. In other
cases some hormones (ex-adrenaline) or some specific metabolite stimulates the nervous system to act.
Nervous system through very fast, however the effect cannot reach every cell of the body. Endocrine is slow
but influences all cells of target tissues/organs.

The major components of human

endocrine system are
1. Hypothalamus
2. Pituitary glands
3. Pineal glands
4. Thyroid
5. Parathyroid
6. Thymus
7. Adrenals
8. Gonads (ovary and testis)
9. Pancreas
10. Kidney
11. Gastrointestinal tract

Hypothalamus
It lies at the floor of diencephalon. Although the hypothalamus is small (weighing 4gm, about 0.3% of total
weight of brain the hypothalamic region has important regulatory functions. Hypothalamus produces
neurohomones (formed by secretory neuron) which are passed on to pituitary glands for controlling its
activity. They are two types.

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 Releasing hormones (RH) Inhibiting hormones (IH)
 TSH-RH (Thyroid stimulating hormone TSH-RH
Releasing hormone)
 ACTH-RH (Adrenocorticotrophic hormone P-IH
Releasing hormone)
 FSH-RH (Follicular stimulating hormone GH-IH or STH-IM
Releasing hormone)
 P-RH (Prolactin-Releasing hormone)
 GH-RH (Growth hormone-Releasing hormone)
Or
STH-RH (Somatostatin hormone
Releasing hormone)
 MSH-RH (Melanocyte stimulsting hormone
Releasing hormone)
Vasopression oxytocin - Released into neurohypophysis for secretion.

Pituitary glands (Hypophysis)

It is a small pea shaped gland that is attached to the inferior surface of hypothalamus by a stalk. It has 3 parts

1. Anterior 
Adenohypophysis
2. Middle 
3. Posterior- Neurohypophysis
Hormones release by pituitary controls the functions of other endocrine glands.

1. Anterior pituitary
Growth hormones (GH) or Somatostatin Hormone (STH)
 Stimulates body growth.
 Increase anabolic activities
 Retention of calcium
 Synthesis of more proteins
 Enlargement of long bones, muscles and visceral organs
 Over secretion (uncontrolled secretion) in growth years causes “Gigantism” (height above 2.15 m)
 Decrease/deficient secretion in growth years causes. “Dwarfism” (height 1-1.3 m)
 Excessive secretion in an adult causes acromegaly (Increase size of bones of hands, feet and face).
(Note : disproportionate growth of bones occurs)

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Prolactin (Maternity hormones)
 Released during and after pregnancy
(lactation period)
 Stimulates growth of mammary glands
 Stimulate milk production

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)

 Stimulates thyroid to produce and release
its hormones.
 Stimulates growth of thyroid glands.

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)

 Activates Adrenal cortex to produce
cortisone

Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)

 Stimulates sperm formation is males
 Growth of ovarian follicle in females
stimulating the secretion of oetrogen from ovarian follicles

Luteinising hormone (LH)

 In females-Stimulates the secretion of progesterone from corpus luteum.
In males-Also known as Interstitial cell stimulating hormone ICSH
 Induce leydig cells of testis to secrete testosterone. FSH and LH are collectively known as
gonadotropin or gonadotrophic hormones.

2. Middle or intermediate lobe

It is a small relatively muscular region which secretes. MSH (melanocyte stimulating hormone)
Mclanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH) : The hormone cause dispersal of melanin or pigment
granules in chromatophores causing darkening or skin. Chromatophores are situated in
melanocytesor melanin producing cells.

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3. Posterior lobe of pituitary
It contains axon terminations of neurons whose cells bodies are located in the hypothalamus. It stores
and releases two important hormones produced by the hypothalamus.

Oxytocin (Birth hormone/Milk ejection hormones)

 Stimulated uterine contraction during child birth
 Causes labon pains
 Stimulates milk ejection under control of prolactin during sucking of infant. (Milk let down
response)

Vasopressin (antidiuretic hormone) ADH

An antidiuretic is any chemical substance that prevents excessive urine
production. As such, vasopressin regulates the amount of water
excreted in the urine. It is essential for reabsorption of water from
distal convoluted tubules, collecting tubules and collecting ducts for
producing concentrated urine. Deficiency of hormone causes disorder
known as diabetes insipidus. It produces a lot of dilute urine at short
intervals resulting in excessive thirst and dehydration.
Control of blood volume and pressure : Since it regulate water
reabsorption, ADH also regulates blood volume. A drop in blood
volume leads to a drop in blood pressure which is detected by stretch
receptors in the walls of the aorta and the carotid arteries. Impulses
from the detectors pass to the hypothalamus, which then secretes more
ADH. This acts on the kidneys to cause water to be retained and so
blood pressure increases.

Pineal gland
 It is small stalked body present over the epithalamus
 The gland secretes hormone melatonin which controls mood, sleep, regulates sexual cycle
 It also possesses antigonadotrophic characteristics

Thyroid gland
Largest endocrine glands
 The thyroid glands is bilobular it’s structure is H-shaped
 The two lobes are located on either side of the trachea in front of the larynx. The lobes are connected
by a mass of tissue called the isthmus
 The thyroid gland looks like a butterfly straddled on the wind-pipe. The tissue of each lope is made
up of a multitude of glandular sacs called follicles.

It secrets two hormones

1. Thyroxine 2. Caicitonin

1. Thyroxine- Main hormone of thyroid gland is an iodine containing hormone-Thyroxine. Thyroxine

controls basal metabolic rate (BMR). BMR is defined as rate of energy used by someone who has
fasted for 12 hours and who is awake but resting, at a comfortable
external environment. The BMR is the rate of metabolism which
the body needs to keep it ticking over during periods of inactivity.

The principal effects on the body of thyroid hormones

(1) Regulation of organic metabolism and energy balance all protein fat
and carbohydrate metabolism is influenced by thyroxine. Since the
overall effect is to increase catabolism they increase the basal

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 metabolic rate (BMR). The energy produced raises the body temperature.
(2) Regulation of growth and development the regulate tissue (especially nervous tissue) growth,
particularly in children (Mental development)
(3) Increases the reactivity of the nervous system
(4) It also plays vital role in sexual development

Control of release of thyroxin

The hypothalamus in the brain detects even a small decrease in metabolic rate and responds by releasing
more thyrotrophic releasing hormone. This acts on the pituitary gland, causing it to release more thyroid
stimulating hormone. This passes to the thyroid gland which responds by secreting more thyroxine the
hormone which acts on individual cells to increase metabolic rate. As soon as metabolic rate gets back to
normal levels the hypothalamus responds by releasing less thyrotropin releasing hormone and in a healthy
person homeostasis is maintained.

Effect of hyposecretion
Cretinism : It is caused due to undersection during growth years. Its two main effects are:
(a) Dwarfism : Due to failure of the skeleton to grow and mature.
(b) Mental retardation : Due to failure of the brain to develop fully
Cretins also show retarded sexual development, yellowish skin colour, round face, large thick protruding
tongue and thick nose. Metabolism is lowered by 30 to 40% resulting in low body temperature and heart
rate.
Myxoedema : Caused due to undersecretion in adults, this disorder is characterize by edema (retention of
fluids) that causes the facial muscles to swell and look puffy.
Other effects include slow heart rate, low body temperature, sensitivity to cold general lethargy and a
tendency to gain weight. It is more frequent in females.
Simple Goitre : It is generally caused due to deficiency of iodine in the diet.

It may also develop if the intake of iodine is not increased during conditions that put a high demand on the
body for thyroxine (e.g. pregnancy, exposure to cold, high fat and protein diet). It manifests as a
disproportionate swelling of the neck.
People living in the interior (away from the sea) and in hilly regions are more prone to goiter than people
living near the sea. This is because the soil is deficient in iodine-rich compounds. Sea food is rich in iodine
which is essential for the synthesis of thyroxine.

Effects of Hypersecretion
Expothalmic goiter (Grave’s disease) : The thyroid is enlarged by possible 2-3 times its original size. Fluid is
retained behind the eye which causes the eyes to protrude. The metabolic rate becomes abnormally high
with effects such as increased pulse, high blood pressure, high body temperature, flushed skin, tremor,
sweating and heat intolerance. Appetite increases but the person loses weight. More frequent in females.

(ii) Calcitonin : It regulates the calcium and phosphate levels in the blood
 Calcium levels in the blood need to be maintained to ensure normal muscle contractions.

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  If Ca 2 level is high in the blood, then more calcitonin is secreted and the calcium ions are moved
from the blood to the bones.
 Low Ca 2 levels inhibit secretion of calcitonin.

Note : Both calcitonin and PTH control calcium metabolism, but their action is antagonist e.g., When the
Ca 2 in the blood rises, less PTH and more calcitonin is secreted. When the Ca 2 in the blood falls, more
PTH and less calcitonin is secreted.
Effects of hyposecretion : Twiching, spasm and cramps
Effects of hypersecretion : Demineralisation or softening of bones
 The destroyed bone tissues are replaced by cavities that fill with fibrous, tissue
 The bone becomes highly susceptible to fractures
 This condition is called as “Osteitis fibrosa cystic”
 Deposit the calcium in urinary tract eventually leads to “Renal colic” (Kidney stones)

Parathyroids
They are two pairs of small oval yellow glands which lie close to back of thyroid, two over each pole. The
glands secrete parathormone (Collip’s hormone)
 Maintains optimum level of blood calcium and phosphorus by
(i) Reducing their excretion
(ii) Mobilizing from bones
 Essential for proper functioning of nerves and muscles
 The secretion of hormone (Parathormone PTH) is not under control of pituitary

Adrenal glands (suprarenal glands)

They are a pair of yellowish, flat pyramid-like glands which lie over the upper
end of kidneys. Each gland has an outer yellow adrenal cortex and inner
reddish brown adrenal medulla.
Each region produces different hormones
(1) Adrenal cortex : The various hormones secreted by the cortex are
grouped under glucocorticoid, mineralocorticoid and adrenocorticoid
(sex hormones). These are collectively known as cortisone (steroid)
(2) Adrenal medulla : The hormones secreted by the medulla are adrenaline
or epinephrine and noradrenaline.
The gland is covered by a connective tissue called capsule. The
adrenals are critically vital glands and the removal of both leads to
death.

Function of adrenal cortex hormones :

(i) Giurcocorticcid : Influence carbohydrate, protein and fat metabolism.
(ii) Mineralocorticoid (Aldosterones) : Influence Na   K balance. Stimulates the kidneys to retain Na 
and excrete K  .
(iii) Adrenalcorticoid *sex hormones) : These stimulate the development of the reproductive organs in
childhood when the gonadal endocrine function is not yet developed. They are also responsible for
the development of secondary sexual characteristics in males and females.

Effects of Hyposecretion
(1) Addison’s disease : It is caused due to undersecretion of the adrenal cortex (glucocorticoids). In the
early stage of the disease, symptoms are dark pigmentation of the skin (especially hands, neck face)
loss of energy, nausea, increased sensitivity to cold and pains, susceptibility to infection, etc
(2) Adrenal Virilism : If the synthesis of glucocorticoids is reduced then the pituitary secretes more
ACTH to compensate this. This results in the production of excess androgens a male hormone. This
gives rise to adrenal virilism or masculisation. In females it appears as growth of beard, body hair,
atrophy of the breast, low pitch of voice, lack of menstruation etc. In the male adult, the effect is
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 masked by the normal characteristics of the testosterone secreted by the testes but in the prepubertal
male this syndrome causes the secondary sexual characteristics of the female to develop in addition
to rapid development of sexual organs and desires.

Adrenal medulla hormones : (i) Adrenaline (ii) Nor adrenaline

(i) Adrenaline : Also called emergency hormone or Triple F hormone (fight, fear flight). Produce in
response to cold, joy, anger, fear, emotional stress. When we are nervous, our body is preparing for
action by secreting adrenaline. This hormone increase heart beat, increase ventilation rate causes
vasoconstriction resulting in redirection of blood from intestine to skin, lungs, muscles and brain
dilates pupil and influence carbohydrate metabolism stimulates glycogen break down in muscles
hence glucose level in blood increase.
(ii) Nor adrenaline : Functions are same as adrenaline

Gonads (Testes and ovaries)

Testes
The male has two oval glands called testes that lie in the scrotum. It is provided with rich blood supply and
sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibres. Under the influence of LH or ICSH (Intertitial cell
stimulating hormone) Interstitial cell or leydig cell produces male hormones (Androgens)
(i) Testosterones, (ii) Androsterone
Functions of testosterone and androsterone are
 They are required for the normal maturation of sperms which are the male reproductive cells.
 They stimulate the growth and development of the male reproductive system and secondary sex
characteristics .
 They influence sex instincts and reflexes.
 Growth of bones and muscles.

Points to note
(i) The gonads are endocrine and non endocrine in function. Their non endocrine function is to produce male
and female reproductive cells (sperms and ova respectively). Their endocrine function is to release male and
female hormones into the blood stream.
(ii) Primary sex characteristics are concerned with the structure and function of the gonads (testes and
ovaries) and the genitalia (the penis, and prostate in males and the vagina, uterus and uterine tube in
females).
(iii) Secondary sex characteristics are concerned with the structure and function of organs other than the
genitals.

In males : Facial hair (beard), pattern of body hair (chest) low pitch of voice
In females : Curved hips, breasts, high pitch of voice, pattern of body hair.

Ovaries
The female gonads are called ovaries. The ovaries are paired oval bodies located in the pelvic cavity. Under
the influence of FSH they produce. The important hormones secreted by ovaries are
(i) Oestrogen (ii) Progesterones (iii) Relaxin

(i) Oestrogen : These hormones are responsible for the development and maintenance of female sexual
characteristics. Along with the gonadotrophic hormones of the pituitary gland, they regulate the
menstrual cycle, maintain pregnancy and prepare the mammary glands for lactation.
 Maturing ova produces female sex hormone Oestrogen.
 Also synthesized by the ovarian follicles and placenta stimulates the development of the primary sex
characteristics i.e., the growth of the fallopian (uterine), tubes, the uterus vagina and the innermost
uterine layer and also the development of the secondary sex characteristics. It increases the
sensitivity of the uterus to oxytocin secreted by the posterior pituitary.

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(ii) Progesterone : Synthesized in the tissues of the corpus lustrum (which is formed at the site of the
ruptured follicle). Progesterone is also produced by placenta during pregnancy. It helps in thickening of
uterine wall, attachment of embryo to uterine wall, non formation of new ova and maintenance of
pregnancy (hence called pregnancy hormone)

(iii) Relaxin : Produced by the ovaries and the placenta, it helps to dilate the uterine cervix towards the end
of pregnancy.

Placenta
 Placenta of a pregnant woman produces certain hormones. One such hormone is human chorionic
gonadotropin (HCG), which maintains the activity of corpus luteum in secreting progesterone
continuously.

Pancreas
It is a heterocrine gland located posterior and slightly inferior to the stomach. Exocrine part produces
pancreatic juice. The islets are infiltrated by blood capillaries and surrounded by clusters of cells that form
the exocrine part of the gland. The endocrine portion of the pancreas consists of about the million cells
clustered together forming the islets of Langerhans. Three kinds of cells are recognized in this area.
(1) Alpha cells which secrete the hormone glucagon. A low level of glucose in the blood, exercise and a
protein diet stimulates the secretion of glucagon. (Normal blood sugar is 80-120 mg%).
(2) Beta cells which secrete the hormone insulin.
(3) Delta cells which secrete growth hormone inhibiting hormone (GHIH-somatostatin).

(i) Glucagon : Increases blood glucose levels.

 If levels of blood glucose gets too low  -cells secrete glycogen.
 This hormone fits into receptor sites on cells membranes and activates the enzyme inside the cell
which convert glycogen into glucose.
 The glucose then passes out of the cells and into the blood, raising blood sugar levels.

(ii) Insulin : Cells, tissues and organs recognize and absorb glucose only in the presence of insulin. The
pancreas detects and change the level of glucose in the blood. If the levels get too high,  -cells in
the islets of Langerhans respond by releasing insulin. This travels to all parts of the body in the
blood, but mainly affects cells in muscles, liver and adipose (fat storage) tissue. Insulin lowers blood
sugar by making cell membranes more permeable to glucose. It activates transport proteins, allowing
glucose to pass into cells. Although the exact mode of action of is still unclear, it also seems to
activate enzymes inside the cells. These enzymes convert the glucose into glycogen and also increase
protein and fat synthesis.

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(iii) GHIH : It prevents the secretion of insulin and glucagon.

Diabetes mellitus Diabetes insipidus

1 Blood sugar. Sugar level of blood is Sugar level of blood is normal.
high
2 Glycosuria. There is excretion of Sugar is not excreted in urine.
sugar in urine.
3 Cause. It is due to deficiency of It is caused by deficiency of ADH or
insulin. antidiuretic hormone.
4 Urine concentration. Urine has normal Urine is dilute.
concentration

 A common mistake in examination is to write the insulin converts glucose to glycogen. Insulin has
more indirectly connection, it opens gates in membranes, allowing glucose to pass into cells where
enzymes may convert if into glycogen.

Glycogen
Glycogen   Glucose
Insulin
Glucose  Glycogen

Hyposecretion Hypersecretion
Inadequate insulin secretion leads to diabetes Increased insulin secretion leads to hypoglycemia
mellitus i.e., decreased glucose level in the blood.
Typical symptoms are increased thirst and urination Results in sweating tremor, increased heart rate,
increase appetite, presence of glucose in the urine hunger and weakness. In extreme cases the
and an high level of glucose in the blood individual may go into coma (insulin shock).
(hyperglycemia)

 Unattended diabetes results in wasting of body tissues, reducing healing power, ketone bodies,
blurred vision and kidney problems. They may end up with gangrene and coma.

Gastrointestinal tract
A number of hormones regulates the functioning of digestive tract e.g.
(i) Gastrin (ii) Secretin (iii) Cholecystokinin (CCK) (iv) Enterocrinin
(i) Gastrin : Food in the stomach stimulates the lining to secrete the hormone gastrin.
 Gastrin acts on gastric glands of stomach and increase gastric juice secretion.
 Partially digested food stimulates the duodenal linings produces, enteric gastrin.
 This hormone also acts on stomach to produce the same effect.
(ii) Secretion : Lining of the duodenum secretes secretin in presence of acidic chime.
 Stimulates pancreas to secrete pancreatic juice rich in hydrogen carbonate ions.

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(iii) Cholecystokinin (also called pancreozymin) : Lining of duodenum secretes in response to the
presence of acidic chyme in the lumen of duodenum.
 Stimulates the call bladder to release bile.
 Stimulates pancreas to release digestive enzymes (Trypsinogen, chymotrypsinogen,
procarboxypeptidase, pancreatic amylase pancreatic lipase nuclease).
(iv) Enterocrinin : Secretion of intestinal juice.

Kidneys
The produce two hormones : (i) Erythropoietin (ii) Renin
(i) Erythropoietin : Stimulates bone marrow to produce more RBCs
(ii) Renin : Plays a vital role in salt balance.
Lets understand this vital function of body. The concentration of sodium ions in body fluids is controlled by
the lets understand, this vital hormones aldosterone (Remember secreted by adrenal cortex).
 When sodium iron are actively transported a negative ion usually chloride automatically follows to
maintain electrolyte balance.
 When body lose sodium ion, it also loses water by Osmosis.
 Excess loss of water (from urine/sweat) leads to fall in blood volume and blood pressure.
 This is detected by group of cells (receptor cells) in juxtaglomerular complex situated next to
Bowman’s capsule.
 These cell respond to fall in blood pressure by releasing an enzyme Renin.
 Renin converts the plasma protein angiotensinogen into angiotensin (hormones)
 Angiotensin stimulate adrenal cortex to release aldosterone.
 Aldosterone increase reabsorption of Na+ from kidney and intestine, increase salt conc. in the blood
leads to greater retention of water and bringing back blood volume and blood pressure.

Thymus
The thymus is a bilobed structure situated posterior to the sternum (breast bone) and between the lungs. The
two lobes are held together by a layer of connective tissue. The gland is prominent in infants and it reaches
its maximum size of about 40g during puberty. After puberty, it shrinks and much of its tissues are replaced
by fat and connective tissue. It produces several hormones (thymosin, thymoprotein etc) all of which are
polypeptides.

Special points
Pheromone is a chemical substance released by many kinds of animals to communicate with other members
of their species. The animals that secrete pheromones range from one-called organism to rhesus monkeys
and many other mammals. Both males and females use pheromones to establish territories sign of danger
and attract mates.
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Example :
(i) Certain ants, mice and snails release alarm pheromones when injured or threatened. The odor warms
other members of the species to leave the area.
(ii) A pheromone secreted by the queen bee of a hive prevents all the other females in the group from
becoming sexually mature. The queen then becomes the only be in the hive that can mate and lay eggs.
Since 1959 chemists have developed synthetic pheromones that are used to control insect pests. Unlike
many pesticides, pheromones do not harm the environment.
Artificial female pheromones of such insects as moths and beetles are used as bait to capture males of the
same species. Farmers also spread their crops with fibres soaked in an insect pheromones. The odor prevents
the male insects from finding the females for mating.

HUMAN NERVOUS SYSTEM

Introduction
It is a system of nervous organs, nerves and neurons that forms a network throughout the body for
conducting information in the form of electrical impulse so as to control and coordinate activities of various
organs and organ systems in our body.
The nervous system is concerned with receiving stimuli from external or internal environment of the body,
interpreting these stimuli and producing the appropriate response to these stimuli. To achieve this highly
specialized cells are required which can receive the messages and conduct them to the chef centres of
nervous system where they are to be interpreted and then returned to be relevant part of the body.

Key words
Stimulus : Is an agent physical or chemical change in external or internal environment that brings about
response in an individual. E.g. Mechanical stimuli such as pressure touch thermal stimuli (heat & cold) light
and chemical stimuli such as taste small and concentration of CO2 and O2 in blood.
Response : Reaction of an organism to a stimulus.
Receptors : Cells, tissue and organs which receives stimuli and initiates impulses to be picked up by sensory
nerves.

Impulse : Self propagated electric current that runs along the surface of the nerve fibres for the passage of
information.
Effector : Muscles, glands, tissues or cells which act in response to a stimuli received from nervous system.

Type of sensory receptors in human body.

Receptor Name Action Example
Classified by stimulus
Photoreceptor Responds to light eye
Chemoreceptor Responds to chemicals Taste bud
Thermoreceptor Responds to changes in temperature Temperature receptors in skin
Mechanoreceptor Responds to mechanical (touch) Nerve fibres around hairs
stimuli
Baroreceptor Responds to changes in pressure Baroreceptors in carotid artery
Classified by location
Interoceptor Responds to stimuli within the body Baroreceptors in carotid antery
Exteroceptor Responds to stimuli outside the body Eye and ear
Proprioceptor Responds to mechanical stimuli Muscle spindle
conveying information about body
position
Classified by complexity
General senses Single cells or small groups of cells Temperature receptors in skin
Special senses Complex sense organs Eye and ear

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Functions of nervous system
Control : Nervous system exerts control over the functioning of different tissues, organs and parts of the
body.
Coordination : It coordinates the activity of different but inter-related organs so as a perform a particular
function. Eg. Swallowing.
Awareness : It makes an animal aware of its surrounding with the help of sense organs.
Internal environment : Nervous system gathers information about internal environment of the body.
Higher functions : Intelligence, reasoning, memory, emotions will etc.
Involuntary movement : these are movements of internal organs carried out by a section of nervous system
without consulting the will of the individual, e.g. Peristalsis

Reflexes : They are immediate, automatic, protective response to harmful stimuli e.g. withdrawal of hand
after touching hot object.

Neuron
Structure of neuron of nerve cell
Neuron is a structural and functions unit of nervous system that is specialized to receive, conduct and
transmit impulse. A neuron has three parts cell body (cyton or perikaryon) dendrites and axon. The term
neuritis is used for both dendrites and axon. Neurons vary in size and complexity. The receptive part of the
neuron is the dendrite or dendrite zone. The conduction (propagating) part is axon. The transmitting end is
called the synaptic terminal or terminal arborization or telodendrion.

Cell body : (Soma, cyton, perikaryon) is the metabolic centre of a neuron. It is broad, rounded, pyriform or
stellate part of neuron that contains well defined nucleus and nucleolus surrounded by a granular cytoplasm.
Typical cell organelle like lysosomes, mitochondria and Golgi complex are found within the cytoplasm.
Neurofibrils are found within the cytoplasm. Neurofibrils are also present in cell body.

Nissl substance or nissl bodies are endoplasmic reticulum with ribosomes constitute a protein synthesizing
apparatus involves in the formation of neurotransmitters. Cytoplasm of cell body is also called neuroplasm.
Centrioles are absent, hence neurons cannot divide.
Dendrites/ dendron : They are fine, short and branched protoplasmic processes of the cell body that pick up
sensations (Physical, mechanical, electrical chemical) and transmit the same to the cell body. Dendrites
contain Nissl granules and neurofibrils. The receptive surface areas of the dendrites (dendritic zone) is
usually for large than that of the cell body. A neuron can have hundreds of dendrites.

Axon : Most neurons have only one axon. The axon is a cylindrical tube of cytoplasm covered by a cell
membrane the axolemma. The axon is a specialized structure that conducts electrical signals, away from the
cell body. Axon is branched terminally. The terminal branches are called telodendria or terminal
arborisation. Axon is branched terminally. The terminal branches are called telodendria or terminal
arborisation. Axon terminals may end in muscle fibres, glands other structures or form synapases with
dendrites of other neurons Axon terminals are often knob-like (synaptic knobs or boutons) which store
chemicals called neurotransmitters. In large neurons, the initial segment arises conspicuously from a cone
shaped portions of the cell body called the axon hillock. Axon range in length from a few m to well over a
meter and in diameter from 0.1 m to 20 m . Axon is covered by one or two sheaths. The sheathed axon is
called nerve fibre. A number of nerve fibres are joined to form a nerve. Cytoplasm of axon is termed as
axoplasm. It lack Nissl granules. Neurofibrils are present. The single sheath present over axon is made of
Schwann cells. It is called neurolemma or neurilemma. If two or more sheaths are present in axon than a
layer of insulating myelin or fat occurs between neurolemma and axon. Myelin sheath-Many axons are
convered by multiple concentric layers of myelin is a lipid rich insulating material produced by ‘Schwann
cells’ in peripheral nervous system and by oligodendrocytes in the central nervous system.
The two types of nerve fibres are respectively called non-myelinated and myelinated. Myelinated nerve
fibres are more efficient in transmission of impulses than non-myelinated fibres. At intervals they bear
unmyelinated areas called nodes of Ranvier. Nerve impulses which tranvels along a myelinated axon jump

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between nodes of Ranvier. This is called salutatory conduction. Myelinated neurons can conduct impulse at
twice the speed of unmvelinated ones.

Functions of the myelin sheath

(i) To increase the speed of nerve impulse conduction.
(ii) To insulate the axon, i.e., prevents mixing of impulses in the adjacent fibres.

Based on function, the neurons are divided into three categories-sensory (afferent) neurons, motor (efferent)
neurons and interneurons or association neurons.

Sensory neurons : These carry nerve impulses from a sense organ such as the eyes, ears or from another
neuron to the brain and spinal cord, i.e., to the central nervous system, their processes are called afferent
fibres.

Motor neurons : These transmit impulses from the central nervous system through the efferent fibres to
various organs and alter the organs state and functions. It stimulates effecters (muscles; gland) e.g. can
stimulate a digestive gland to release a digestive enzyme or to stimulate a muscle to contract.

Interneurons : These cells are typically multipolar and confined to the CNS (brain & spinal cord). They
receive sensory stimuli and transfers the information directly to a motor neuron or to the brain for
processing. These connect different neurons.

Based on structure and their branching neurons may be unipolar bipolar or multipolar

Unipolar neurons have a single process which is very short, and almost always immediately divides into
proximal and distal fibres, which head in different direction. The distal fibre is often associated with a
sensory receptor and is sometimes referred to as the peripheral process. Dendrites are absent e.g. sensory
neuron has it’s incoming or peripheral process in the outer parts of the body, while the other branch, the
axon extends to the spinal cord.

Bipolar neuron : Bipolar neurons have just two processes, an axon and a dendrite. These neurons are rare in
adults. But when found are usually acting as receptor cells in some of the sense organs such as the eyes or
nose. Neurons in the nervous system of a human embryo are bipolar but most of them then develop into
other two types.

Multipolar neuron : The cyton is branched at many points, thus forming many poles. The most common
types of neurons in the brain and the spinal cord of mammals are multipolar neurons.

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Cells associated with neurons in central nervous system are called glial cells. Glial cells are packed between
neurons, making up tissue called neuroglia. Glial cells are oligodendrocyte astrocyte, microglia. Functions
of glial cells.

Astrocytes : Provide structural support and proliferate to aid in repair of damaged neural tissue.

Oligodendrocyte : Structural support and myelin formation

Microglia : Have an elongated nucleus they are the macrophages or scavengers in central nervous system.

How impulse travels along the nerve

Passage of impulse
Impulse is a self propagated electrochemical current that travels from one end to another of a neuron for the
passage of message. The pathway is

Stimulus  dendrite  cell body  axon  axon terminal  passage of stimulus.

A stimulus received by a neuron travels through it in the form of a electrochemical disturbance. During the
rest the outer surface of a neuron is positively charged while the interior has negative charge. Like most
cells, neurons can maintain an internal fluid composition different from outside the cell. There are more
sodium ions (Na+) and chloride ions (Cl–) outside the axon than inside, and more negatively charged proteins
and more potassium ions (K+) inside the axon than outside. This imbalance gives electrical gradient needed
to create a Resting Membrane Potential (RMP). This difference in charge is about–70mV. When stimuli
reaches a neuron, it causes opening of ion channels which make the outer surface negatively charged while
the internal surface becomes positively charged. This creates outer potential which moves forward as action
potential which is the new electrical potential that can be detected inside and outside the axon, just after it
has been stimulated it is about +40mV.The posterior region returns to the condition of rest. At the end of the
neuron the impulse is passed on to the next neuron an organ muscle or gland via a neurotransmitter,
Neurotransmitter is a chemical secreted by axon terminal for transmission of impulse to the next neuron,
muscle, gland or organ e.g. acetylcholine, nor adrenaline, glutamic acid.

Electrical signaling
 In normal resting condition the outside of the nerve fibre carries positive (+) charge. In this condition
nerve fibre is said to be polarized.
 The polarization is due to the presence of more Na+ ions outside the cell membrane. Such state is
maintained due to the sodium ions being continuously pumped out by means of the sodium
potassium pump and operated by active transport using ATP for energy.
 Sodium potassium pump is a carrier protein on the plasma membrane which transports sodium and
potassium ions across the membrane. Normally ions move from the region of their high
concentration to the region of their low concentration.
 The changes when a stimulus arrives at the nerve fibre are as follows.
 The axon membrane at that spot becomes more permeable to Na+ ions, which move inward and bring
about depolarization on that spot.
 This point of depolarization itself becomes the stimulus for the adjoining area of the membrane,
which in turn becomes depolarized.
 Meanwhile the previous area becomes repolarized due to active movement of the sodium ions to the
outside of the membrane by means of what is called sodium pump.
 And now the fibre is ready for the next wave of depolarization.
 Thus a nerve impulse is a self-propagating wave of depolarization and repolarization.

Communication between neurons

When an impulse reaches the end of an axon it is passed out the next neurons, as on to an effectors cell such
as a muscle or gland. The axon of one neuron does not usually make direct contact with the cell body of the
next the two cells are separated by a gas called synapse. Communication between neurons usually occurs
from the terminal of transmitting neuron (pure synaptic side or pre synaptic knob or button) to the receptive
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region of neuron (post synaptic side). A narrow fluid filled space, called synaptic deft occurs between the
two (of about 20 nm). Synapse can be between axon and dendrite (axodendritic), axon to cell body of
receptor neuron (axosmomatic), Dendron transmitting neuron to Dendron of receptor neuron
(dendrodendritic) and the last axon of transmitting neuron to axon of receptor one (axon axonal)
The synaptic bulb contains many mitochondria which provide energy for the manufacture of chemical
transmitters.

As the impulse travel down the axon, pre synaptic knob releases the neurotransmitter in neurosynaptic cleft.
The neurotransmitters cross the gap and excite activity in the second neuron which then fires an electrical
impulse along its own axon.

Note. At each synapse the neurotransmitter chemicals are either absorbed by other neuron or chemically
destroyed. This ensures that the nerves do not get over stimulated and cause tremors and spasms.

What does a synapse do?

 It allows the information to pass from one neuron to another.
 It ensures the passage of nerve impulse in one direction only.
 It helps information processing by combining the effects of all impulses received.
 It filters out low-level stimuli.

Neuromuscular junction
It is the place of opposition of motor end plate of a neuron with the surface of the muscle. Motor end
plate consists of a number of knobbed branches. The knobs or burtons are plugged into shallow depressions
present on the surface of muscle fibre called sole plate. A narrow space or synaptic cleft occurs between the
two. On excitation the motor end plate passes out acetylcholine which reaches the Ach receptors on the
surface of muscle. The excitation spreads over the whole muscle fibre. The latter contracts.

The Reflex action

Reflex action is an quick involuntary action in response to an external or internal stimulus, generally without
involvement of the brain. It is a rapid, automated response to a stimulus e.g. pulling your hand away from
hot pan is a reflex action. A simple reflex involves communication between neurons in the peripheral
nervous system and the spinal cord. The brain may be informed, but does not take part in the actual
response. Although many reflexes above a protective function they can also help the body to co-ordinate
complex muscular events such as swallowing.
It was discovered by Marshal Hall (1833). Reflex action is an accurate, unconscious involuntary and
instantaneous response to a stimulus where delay can be harmful. On being pricked or coming in contact
with hot surface or flame the hand is withdrawn even before pain is perceived by brain. Other examples of

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reflex action are wider opening of pupil in dimlight narrowing of pupil in strong light salivation when food
is eaten, secretion of digestive enzymes when food reaches a particular region of alimentary canal, closing of
eyes when a flash of light is targeted sweating during exercise and hot weather.

Reflex arc
A reflex arc is the shortest route that can be taken by an impulse from a receptor to an effectors. The basic
components of reflex arc are a receptor, a sensory neuron a relay centre a motor neuron and an effector
(muscles or gland)
Stimulus  Receptor organs  Sensory neurons  CNS (Brain/Spinal cord)  Motor neuron  Effector
organ  Response

Receptor organs- It is a tissue or special sense organ stimulation of which initiates an impulse in a sense
neurons eg,. Skin, Eye, Ear.
Afferent/sensory neuron : They conduct impulse from receptor to central nervous system.
Part of central nervous system : It can be spinal cord or brain. Accordingly, there are two types of reflexes
spinal reflexes and cerebral reflexes. Cerebral reflexes include closure of eyes when exposed to flash of
light, salivation at sight or smell of favourite food, salivation at the time of crushing of food, peristalsis,
inspiration and expiration. Example of spinal reflexes are withdrawal of hands or feet on being pricked and
knee reaction. In central nervous system the impulse is transferred from sensory neuron to motor neuron
either direct or through an interneuron. The centre usually contains one or more association neuron
(intercalated neuron or interneuron ) between the sensory neuron and the motor neurons.
Motor neurons : They conduct motor impulse from central nervous system to the effectors organs.
Effector organ : It is a muscle gland or organ. The effector organ is activated by motor impulse to provide a
suitable response to the stimulus.

Key word
Ganglion : It is aggregation of nerve cell bodies and the proximal portions of their processes. The nerve cell
with common form, function and connections outside central nervous system are called ganglia.
Spinal reflex-eg. Withdrawal of hand after coming in contact with hot surface.

Cerebral reflex-eg. Closing of eyes when bright light is focused on them.

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The Russian scientist Ivan Pavlov classified all reflex responses of an organism into unconditioned or
conditioned.
Unconditioned reflex (Simple Reflex) : These reflexes are inborn and inherited. Response to the stimulus
requires no previous experience, learning or judgement.
Condition Reflexes : Conditioned reflexes are learned response to stimuli acquired individual during the life
of an organism. These vary in different individuals of a species. They are changeable and easily induced or
lost depending on the environmental conditions. They are dominated by the cerebral cortex.
E.g. Spontaneous application of brakes to avoid accident, knitting while watching television etc.
Pavlov’s Experiment
Step 1 : A bell is rung near a dog. Dog does not respond
Step 2 : Food is placed near the dog. Dog salivates.
Step 3 : Bell is rung and then the dog is provided with food. Dog salivates.
Step 4 : Bell is rung but food is not given to the dog yet the dog salivates.
In this experiment the ringing of the bell is an indifferent or neutral stimulus.
Food is the stimulus which evokes the unconditioned reflex- salivations.
Even when the food is not provided after ringing the bell, the dog is conditioned into responding to the bell
by salivating.

THE BRAIN
It is the widest and the uppermost part of
central nervous system which weights
approximately 1.2–1.4kg. Human brain is
the most developed and most advanced of
all animals. The brain is broadly divided
into three parts.

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Covering of brain and spinal cord
Both brain and spinal cord are protected from mechanical injury and shock by bony cases around them.
Brain is covered by the cranium or brain box of skull. Spinal cord is similarly covered by vertebral column.
Additional protective covering called Meninges (singular meninx) occur between brain or spinal cord and
the surrounding skeleton. They are three in number-duramater, arachnoid and piamater.
Duramater : It is thick fibrous membrane which lies in contact with internal surface of bony case. If is the
toughest layer and protects the inner parts prevents slipping of brain and spinal cord from bony covering.
Arachnoid : It is middle thin webby porous menix. The space between it and duramater is fluid filled. It is
known as subdural space. It contains blood vessel and the cerebrospinal fluids layer of fluid around brain
and spinal cord protect them from shock.
Piamater : It is vascularised, pigmented and moderately thick meninx that lies over the brain and spinal cord.
The space between it and arachnoid is called sub-arachnoid space. The same is filled with cerebrospinal
fluid. It nourishes the brain.

Cerebrospinal fluid
It is clear colourless slightly alkaline fluid that occurs in the ventricles of brain, central canal of spinal cord
and subarachnoid space around the two, cerebrospinal fluid is filtered out from blood in the region of
choroid plexus. It also passes back into blood. The fluid is rich in nutrients, minerals, hormones, and
respiratory gases.
(i) It supplies food and oxygen to different parts of the brain and spinal cord
(ii) It picks up carbon dioxide, urea and other waste products from CNS
(iii) It carries hormones to and from the brain
(iv) It keeps CNS moist and protects it from shocks
(v) By its buoyancy it reduces the weight of brain

Fore-Brain
1. Olfactory lobes
They are a pair of widely separated dub-shaped structure which occurs on inferior surface of cerebrum. Each
olfactory lobe consists of an anterior swollen part called olfactory bulb and a posterior stalk called olfactory
tract. Olfactory lobes relay sense of smell received from olfactory epithelium (nose) to the cerebrum.

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2. Cerebrum
It is the largest part of the brain. Cerebrum occupies the front lateral superior parts of the brain. It has two
closely placed cerebral hemispheres separated by a longitudinal cerebral fissures. The cerebral hemisphere
are attached inferiorly by a thick nerve band composed of white matter called corpus callosum. Superior
surface is convex while inferior surface is concave. Internally, each cerebral hemispheres has a fluid filled
cavity Lateral ventricles. Cerebrum has thick outer layer of grey matter called cerebral cortex, inner to it is
cerebral medulla consisting of white matter which is formed of myelinated nerve fibres. Cerebral cortex has
many folds in it, the elevations are called gyri while depressions care called sulci. Cerebrum is main
thinking part of brain. It has sensory, motor, association area, reasoning, memory, special areas. Association
areas have the different types of sensory information already stored in brain. (i) Right hemisphere is
associated with creativity, left handed control, music and artistic imagination and generating mental images
of sight, sound, touch and smell. (ii) Left hemisphere is important for right handed control, logic abilities,
spoken and written language, reasoning and scientific skills, calculations etc.

Each cerebral hemisphere is divided into four parts-Frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital.

Frontal lobe : Occur in front or anterior region association with (i) intelligence, (ii) reasoning (iii) problem
solving (iv) emotions (v) control of movements (both voluntary and involuntary) including facial muscles
chewing swallowing movement of tongue lips essential for speech. An association area provides association
between sensations and movements.

Parietal lobes : Situated in mid upper area associated with (i) movement (ii) orientation (iii) recognition (iv)
perception of stimuli. Parietal lobes have centres for taste, pain touch pressure and temperature and also
some components of speech.

Temporal lobes : They lie on lateral sides associated with (i) hearing (ii) smell (iii) recall or audio-video
events and some components of speech.

Occipital lobes : They occur in hinder part associated with visual processing. Area present at the junction of
temporal parietal and occipital lobes is the centre of language comprehension and intelligence.

3. Diencephalon
Lies on inferior side of cerebrum. It has epithalamus on its roof, thalami on sides and hypothalamus on floor.
Pineal body and pituitary gland that lies on the inferior side of hypothalamus. Thalamus is associated with
interpretation of sensory impulses such as pain, temperature, light touch and pressure. Hypothalamus has
controls centres for hunger, thirst fatigue sleep sweating body temperature and emotions. It produces its own
hormones some of them controls the pituitary gland.

Mid brain
It is small area having two thick fibrous tracts and four swellings, fibrous tracts are called cerebral peduncles
or crura cerebri. They connect hind brain with fore brain. The four swellings are known are corpora
quadrigemina or colliculi. They are connected with reflex movements of head neck and trunk in response to
light sight and sound stimuli superior colliculi have centres for sight reflexes. Inferior colliculi have centres
for auditory reflexes.

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Hind brain
1. Cerebellum
It is second largest part of the brain located at the base, under the cerebrum and about medulla oblongata. It
has two large furrowed lateral cerebellar hemisphers and a central worm like vermis. Its main function is
control and coordination of muscular activity of the body it maintain equilibrium or posture of the body
during walking jumping bending etc.

2. Pons (Pons varolli)

It is a cross wide bundle of nervous tissue that connect the two lobes of cerebellum, medulla oblongata and
cerebrum (i) Pons acts as relay centre among different part of brain function (ii) It ensures a coordination of
muscular movements on both sides of the body (iii) It also possesses pneumotactic area of respiratory centre,
associated with control of breathing.

3. Medulla oblongata
It is the hindermost part of the brain which lies below cerebellum. It continues behind into spinal cord.
Medulla oblongata has a fluid filled cavity called fourth ventricle. Its roof bears posterior choroid plexus (for
filtering cerebrospinal fluid from blood) and three pores for connecting external cerebrospinal fluid with
internal cerebrospinal fluid. Medulla oblongata contains (i) Respiratory centre for regulating rate of
breathing (ii) Cardiac centre of regulating rate of heart beat (iii) Regulation of blood pressure (iv) Reflex
centre for swallowing vomiting coughing sneezing salivation peristalsis etc. Pons, medulla oblongata and
mid brain are collectively called brain stem.

Spinal cord
It is a narrow cylindrical lower part of central nervous system which is 43-45 cm in length. The cord is well
protected within a bony canal formed by vertebral column. Protection is also provided by the meninges and
the cerebrospinal fluid.

It is however connected to the end of vertebral column by fibrous connective tissue called filum terminale.
The spinal nerves seen inside the vertebral column in the area of filum terminate to form a grouping called
cauda equina. The spinal cord is a series cord is a series of 31 sections called segment each segment giving
rise to a pair of spinal nerves. Each pair of spinal nerves is connected to a segment of the spinal cord by two
points of attachment called roots. The posterior or dorsal root contains sensory fibres only and conducts
nerve impulses from the periphery to the spinal cord each dorsal root also has a swelling called the dorsal
root ganglion. It contains the cell bodies of the sensory neurons. The other point of attachment of a spinal
nerve to the cord, is the ventral root it contains motor neuron axons only and conducts impulses from the

spinal cord to the periphery. In cross-section the spinal cord shows an

inner H-shaped gray matter lying within a white matter. Located in
the centre of cross bar of the H of the gray matter is a small space
called the central canal. The canal runs the length of the spinal cord
and contains the cerebrospinal fluid.

Function of the spinal cord

It conveys sensory nerve impulses from the periphery to the brain and to conduct motor impulses from the
brain to the periphery (skin muscle). It serves as a reflex centre.

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Peripheral nervous system
Peripheral nervous system (PNS) is lateral part of nervous system that develops from central nervous system
connecting different parts of the body with the same. It has two components voluntary and involuntary.

Voluntary peripheral nervous system

Consists of nerves that directly arise from central nervous system connecting different part of the body for
voluntary or conscious control of brain. The peripheral nerves coming from brain are cranial nerves (12
pairs) and from spinal cord are spinal nerves (31 pairs)

31 pairs spinal nerves

8 pairs cervical nerves
12 pairs thoracic nerves
5 pairs lumbar nerves
5 pairs sacral nerves
1 pair coccygeal nerves

Differences between cranial and spinal nerves

Cranial Nerves Spinal Nerves
1. Origin they develop from brain They arise from spinal cord
2. Number the number of cranial nerves is 12 pairs The number of spinal nerves is 31 pairs
3. Nature they can be sensory motor or mixed All spinal nerves are mixed in nature
4. Root a cranial nerve develops from a single root It develops from two roots
5. Ganglion it is not associated with all cranial nerve A ganglion occurs in the dorsal root of each
spinal nerve.
Involuntary peripheral nervous system
It is also called autonomic nervous system it is a special system of ganglia and peripheral motor nerve fibres
which innervates various organs and glands of the body for stimulating slowing down and stopping their
functions without consulting the will nerves are conveying impulses to glands involuntary (smooth) muscles
and heart muscles constitute the autonomic nervous system. The autonomic nervous system consists of 22
pairs of chairs of ganglia located close to or embedded in the organs they control. Autonomic nervous
system develops from branches of some cranial and spinal nerves called visceral nerves. Therefore
autonomic nervous system is also called visceral nervous system. Autonomic nervous system has two
opposing divisions sympathetic and parasympathetic.

Sympathetic nervous system- Formed from branches of 12 thoracic and first 3 lumber spinal nerves. That
is why known as “Dorsolumbar Outflow”. The system forms 2 long chains of ganglia a few isolated ganglia
and long postganglionic fibres that inneryate different organs, muscles and glands of the body. The
sympathetic fibres secrete noradrenaline into them for activation. Sympathetic system is also specialized to
prepare the body for any emergency like hormone adrenaline. It causes constriction of peripheral blood
vessel increased blood supply to heart increased heart beat higher breathing rate dilation of pupil etc.

Parasympathetic nervous system – It is formed from branches of III, VIII, IX and X cranial nerves and
sacral spinal nerves II, III and IV. That’s why known as cranio-sacral outflow. The ganglia are located over
the organs from where short postganglionic fibres develop to innervate the organs. The organs are
influenced by secretion of neurotransmitter acetylcholine. Parasympathetic nervous system moderates or

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reduces heart beat, reduces blood pressure dilates peripheral blood vessels constricts pupils stimulates
excretion and peristalsis.

Table of Nervous Control of Visceral Organs

Name of Visceral Organs Affect of sympathetic nervous Affect of parasympathetic nervous

system system
1. Secretion Acetyl choline + sympathetin Only acetylcholine
2. Iris of eye Dilates pupils Constricts pupils
3. Tear glands or lachrymal Stimulates secretion of lachrymal Inhibit’s secretion of lachrymal
glands glands glands
4. Heart Increases the rate of cardiac Inhibits the rate of cardiac
contraction i.e., accelerates heart contraction i.e., retards heart beat
beat
5. Secretion of adrenal gland Stimulates adrenal secretion Inhibits adrenal secretion
6. Salivary secretion Inhibits the secretion of salivary Stimulates the secretion of
and digestive glands salivary and digestive glands
7. Blood vessels Constricts cutaneous blood vessels Dilates all blood vessels (except
which causes increased blood coronary vessels) decreasing
pressure but dilates blood vessels blood pressure
of brain lungs heart striated
muscles
Increase RBC count in blood.
8. Lungs, trachea and bronchi Dilates trachea breathing Constricts these organs during
normal breathing.
9. Alimentary canal Inhibits peristalsis of alimentary Stimulates the peristalsis of
canal. alimentary canal
10. Digestive glands Inhibits the secretion of these Stimulates the secretion of the
glands glands
11. Sweat glands Stimulates secretion of sweat Inhibits secretion of sweat
12. Arrector pilli muscles Stimulates contraction of these
muscles of skin causing goose Relaxes Arrector pilli muscles.
flesh
13. Urinary bladder Relaxes the muscles of urinary Contracts the muscles for
bladder. ejaculation of urine (Micturition).
14. Anal sphincter Closes anus by contracting anal Relaxes anal sphincter and opens
sphincters the anus (Defaecation).
15. External genitalia Ejaculation Erection
16. Basal melabolic rate Accelerates BMR Retards BMR

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 ANIMAL PHYSIOLOGY- NUTRITION

1. Dental formula of adult man is

2,1,2,3 2,1,2,3 2,1,2,3 2,1,3, 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2,1,2,3 2,1,2,2 2,1,2,4 2,1,3, 2

2. Rumen of a cow is a part of its

(a) Intestine (b) Stomach (c) Caecum (d) Rectum

3. Number of teeth which are monophyolont in man is

(a) 4 (b) 22 (c) 32 (d) 12

4. The cells of the epithelial lining in the vertebrate stomach are not damaged by HCl because of
(a) Mucus secretion covering the epithelium
(b) Neutralization of HCl by alkaline gastric juice
(c) HCl being to dilute
(d) Epithelium being resistant to HCl

5. The structure which prevents entry of food into wind pipe during swallowing in mammals is
(a) Larynx (b) Glottis (c) Epiglottis (d) Pharynx

6. Which of the following is a common passage in swallowing food and breathing?

(a) Pharynx (b) Larynx (c) Glottis (d) Gullet

7. The hardest constituent of the tooth is

(a) Enamel (b) Dentine (c) Bone (d) Pulp

8. Posterior part of soft palate, hangs down in pharynx called

(a) Palatine (b) Tonsils (c) Velum Palati (d) Jacobson’s organ

9. Nasal chambers and buccal cavity are separated

(a) By uvula (b) By palate (c) By palatine (d) None of these

10. Cheek teeth are

(a) Incisors and Canines (b) Canines and Premolars
(c) Premolars and molar (d) Canines and Molars

11. In which part of stomach mainly digestion occurs

(a) Cardiac region (b) Fundic region (c) Pyloric region (d) All above

12. Parietal cells of mucosa in stomach secrets

(a) Mucin (b) Pepsin (c) HCl (d) All of these

13. Hydrochloric acid is secreted by the

(a) Paneth cells (b) Goblet cells (c) Chief cells (d) Parietal cells

14. In Human being sphincter of oddi is situated in

(a) Common bile duct (b) Ampulla of vater
(c) Main pancreatic duct (d) Common hepatic duct

15. Enamel of teeth is secreted by

(a) Ameloblast (b) Odontoblast (c) Osteoblast (d) Osteoclast

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16. Dental formula of adolescent human being before seventeen year
(a) 2122 (b) 2123 (c) 2102 (d) 2023
2122 2123 2102 1023

17. Which cells of mucous layer of stomach secretes pepsinogen?

(a) Chief cell (b) Goblet cell (c) Parietal cell (d) Oxyntic cell

18. Duodenum has characteristic Brunner’s glands which secrete

(a) Estrogen (b) Prolactin, Parathormone
(c) Extradiol, progesternone (d) None

19. Brunner’s gland are found in which of the following layers

(a) Submucosa and stomach (b) Mucosa of ileum
(c) Submucosa of duodenum (d) Mucosa of oesophanus

20. How many teeth in man grows twice in life

(a) 32 (b) 28 (c) 20 (d) 12

21. In human teeth, which help in cutting?

(a) Canine (b) Incisor (c) Molar (d) Premolar

22. Pulp cavity of teeth is lined by

(a) Odontoblast (b) Chondroblast (c) Osteoblast (d)Amyloblast

23. The crypts of lieberkuhn secret

(a) Gastrin (b) Rennin (c) Cholecystokinin (d) Succus entricus

24. Brunner’s glands are located in

(a) Oesophagus (b) Duodenum (c) Intestine (d) Stomach

25. Ptyalin is secreted by

(a) Stomach (b) Salivary gland (c) Pancreas (d) Bile

26. Ptyalin an enzyme work in saliva in

(a) Alkaline medium (b) medium (slightly acidic)
(c) Acidic medium (d) All media

27. In pancreases, pancreatic juice and hormone are secreted by

(a) Same cells (b) Different cells
(c) Same cells at different times (d) None of these

28. Largest gland of body

(a) Pancreas (b) Duodenum (c) Liver (d) Thyroid

29. Insulin is secreted by pancreatic cells

(a)  -cells (b)  -cells (c) Delta cells (d) Gama cells

30. Which substance of saliva destroy the harmful bacteria

(a) Cerumin (b) Chyme (c) Lysozyme (d) Secretin

31. One of the following is not a constituent of saliva

(a) Bicarbonate (b) Lysozyme (c) Glucose (d) Immunoglobulin

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32. What statement is wrong about bile
(a) Is necessary for fat digestion
(b) Is stored in the gall bladder
(c) Is important only for normal digestion of sugar
(d) None of above

33. Which of the following is not a function of liver?

(a) Deamination (b) Blue storage
(c) Synthesis of plasma protein (d) Storage of fat soluble vitamin

34. The glucose is converted into glycogen in liver and stored in

(a) Liver (b) Liver and muscles (c) Liver and spleen (d) Spleen and muscles

35. Parotid salivary gland are present

(a) Below the tongue (b) Below the ear
(c) Below the eye orbit (d) In the angle between two jaws

36. The major site of protein breakdown to form free amino acids, is in the
(a) Kidney (b) Spleen (c) Liver (d) Bone-marrow

37. A person addict for alcohol gets his liver destroyed because
(a) Liver sores excess of protein (b) Liver stores excess of fat
(c) Liver stores excess of starch (d) Liver stores excess of glycogen

38. Specific cells found in liver are

(a) Hepatic cells (b) Beta cells (c) Kupffer’s cells (d) Islets of Langerhans

39. Cells of liver which act as phagocytes are

(a) Dieter’s cells (b) Kupffer’s cells (c) Hensen cells (d) Aciner cells

40. Bilirubin and bilivirdin are found in

(a) Blood (b) Bile (c) Saliva (d) None of these

41. Herbivorous animals can digest cellulose because

(a) Their molar and premolar teeth can crush and grind the food
(b) Bacteria present in their caecum help in digestion of cellulose
(c) Gastric juice has a digestive enzyme for cellulose digestion
(d) Alimentary canal is very long

42. Amylase enzyme acts on the

(a) Starch (b) Protein (c) Fat (d) Cane, sugar

43. Sucrose is found in

(a) Milk (b) Honey (c) Sugarcane (d) Orange

44. Liver cells secrete

(a) Amylopsin (b) Trypsin (c) Lipase (d) Bile and no enzyme

45. Peristaltic movements is found in different part of alimentary canal in which one of these there is
least peristalsis
(a) Stomach (b) Duodenum (c) Rectum (d) Oesophagus

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46. The enzyme invertase hydrolase
(a) Glucose into sucrose (b) Sucrose into glucose and fructose
(c) Starch into maltose (d) Starch into sucrose

47. Amino acids are absorbed in

(a) Blood capillaries of villi (b) Wall of rectum
(c) Lacteals and blood capillaries of villi (d) Lacteals of villi

48. Digestion of carbohydrate is affected by

(a) Amylopsin (b) Lipase (c) Erepsin (d) Pepsin

49. Trypsinogen is secreted by

(a) Pancreas (b) Stomach (c) Liver (d) Ileum

50. Proteins are broken down into amino acids in

(a) Buccal cavity (b) Stomach (c) Intestine (d) Rectum

51. Which reserve a starving man first consumes

(a) Fat (b) Protein (c) Glycogen (d) Vitamin

52. Ptyalin cannot work in stomach, because it becomes

(a) Inactive due to HCl (b) Inactive due to Renin
(c) Inactive due to Pepsin (d) None of these

53. What is the important function of bile

(a) For digestion by emulsification of fats (b) Elimination of excretory products
(c) For digestion by enzymes (d) Coordination of digestive activities

54. Some proteolytic enzymes are

(a) Trypsin, Erepsin, Pepsin (b) Amylase, Lipase, Zymase
(c) Ampylopsin, Steapsin, Ptyalin (d) Urease, Dehydrogenase, Zymase

55. Bacteria entering with contaminated food are killed in stomach by

(a) Pepsin (b) Renin (c) Sodium bicarbonate (d) HCl

56. Glycogen is stored in

(a) Blood (b) Liver (c) Lungs (d) Kidney

57. Chymotrypsin is
(a) Proteolytic enzyme (b) Fat digestive enzyme(c) Vitamin (d) Hormone

58. Emulsification of fats by bile takes place in

(a) Duodenum (b) Liver (c) Stomach (d) Intestine

59. Excess amino acids are deaminated & converted into urea in
(a) Kidneys (b) Liver (c) Spleen (d) Pancreas

60. Secretin hormone is produced in

(a) Stomach and stimulates gastric glands (b) Intestine and stimulates pancreatic glands
(c) Liver and stimulates gall bladder (d) Intestine and stimulates crypts of lieberkuhn

61. Digestion of carbohydrates, proteins and fats completes in

(a) Stomach (b) Liver (c) Small intestine (d) Large intestine

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62. Rennin is found in
(a) Liver (b) Kidney (c) Pancreatic juice (d) Gastric juice in stomach

63. Absorption of digested food chiefly occurs in

(a) Stomach (b) Colon (c) Small intestine (d) Large intestine

64. Pancreatic juice takes part in digestion of

(a) Proteins carbohydrate and fats (b) Proteins and fats
(c) Protein, carbohydrate (d) Proteins only

65. The enzyme trypsinogen is secreted from

(a) Duodenum (b) Pancreas (c) Liver (d) Stomach

66. Enzyme pepsin acts upon food at a pH of about

(a) 3 to split proteins (b) 2 to split carbohydrate
(c) 7 to change protein into peptones (d) 2 to change protein in amino acids

67. Our food mainly contains

(a) Carbohydrates (b) Cellulose (c) Sucrose (d) Glucose

68. Which one is differ from the category of other three

(a) Gastrin (b) Glucagon (c) Secretin (d) Ptyalin

69. Stomach is the main site for the digestion of

(a) Fats (b) Carbohydrate (c) Protein (d) All of these

70. The hormone involved in the discharge of pancreatic juice in mammal is called
(a) Gastrin (b) Secretin (c) Secretin & CCK (d) Enterogastrin

71. Function of HCl in stomach is to

(a) Kill micro-organism of food (b) Facilitate absorption of food
(c) Dissolve enzymes secreted by gastric glands (d) Active trypsinogen to trypsin

72. Which is sweet in taste but is not sugar

(a) Starch (b) Saccharine (c) Lactose (d) Protein

73. Simple sugar of food is

(a) Galactose (b) Lactose (c) Sugar (d) Glucose

74. During prolonged starvation, body derives nutrition from storage of

(a) Liver and adipose tissue (b) Spleen
(c) Liver and lungs (d) Subcutaneous fat and pancreas

75. Intake of food is called

(a) Ingestion (b) Egestion (c) Digestion (d) Nutrition

76. Maximum digestion of food take place in

(a) Stomach (b) Jejunum (c) Colon (d) Duodenum

77. Pancreatic juice is released into

(a) Duodenum (b) Ileum (c) Stomach (d) Jejunum

78. Animals which eat their own faeces are called

(a) Omnivorous (b) Herbivorous (c) Coprophagous (d) Carnivorous

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79. The three secretions meeting the food in small intestine are
(a) Bile juice, pancreatic juice and intestinal juice
(b) Pancreatic, intestinal and gastric juice
(c) Bile, pancreatic and gastric juice
(d) Bile, gastric juice and Saliva

80. Which one of the following hormone inhibits the secretion of gastric juice
(a) Gastrin (b) Secretion (c) CCK (d) Enterogastrin

81. The enzyme that catalyse the changing of emulsified oils to fatty acids and glycerol is
(a) Pepsin (b) Lipase (c) Amylase (d) Sucrose

82. Point out the odd one

(a) Rennin (b) Secretin (c) Calcitonin (d) Oxytocin

83. Which one is not an enzyme of digestive system

(a) Enterokinase (b) Amylase (c) Trypsin (d) Enterogastrin

84. Secretin stimulates the production of

(a) Saliva (b) Gastrin (c) Bile (d) Pancreatic juice

85. Pancreatic lipase acts upon

(a) Glycogen (b) Triglycerides (c) Disaccharides (d) Polypeptides

86. Amount of fat increases in the body due to excess intake of

(a) Vitamins (b) Minerals (c) Carbohydrates (d) None of these

87. Bile is formed in

(a) Gall bladder (b) Liver (c) Spleen (d) Blood

88. Enzyme trypsinogen is changed to trypsin by

(a) Gastrin (b) Enterogastrone (c) Enterokinase (d) Secretin

89. Aminopeptidase, a digestive enzyme produces

(a) Dipeptides (b) Smaller peptides (c) Peptones (d) Amino acids

90. Highest BMR occurs in

(a) Elephant (b) Rabbit (c) Human (d) Whale

91. Maximum number of enzymes occurs in

(a) Omnivorous (b) Herbivores (c) Carnivores (d) None of the above

92. Cholesterol is synthesized in

(a) Brunner’s gland (b) Liver (c) Spleen (d) Pancreas

93. Excessive intake of alcohol caused

(a) Jaundice (b) Dermatitis (c) Liver cirrhosis (d) Lung Fibrosis

94. Rennin acts on

(a) Milk changing casein into calcium paracaseinate at 7.2-8.2 PH
(b) Proteins in stomach
(c) Fat in intestine
(d) Milk changing casein into calcium paracascinate at 1-3 PH

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95. Muscular contraction of Alimentary canal are
(a) Circulation (b) Deglutition (c) Churning (d) Peristalsis

96. Fatty acids and glycerol are first absorbed by

(a) Lymph vessels (b) Blood (c) Blood capillaries (d) Hepatic portal Vein

97. During rest, metabolic requirements are minimum. This indicated by

(a) Pulse (b) Breathing
(c) O2 intake and CO2 output (d) All the above

98. Which of the following is absorbed in ileum?

(a) Fat (b) Bile salts (c) Vit-K (d) Glucose

99. Which food substance is absorbed during digestion

(a) Carbohydrates (b) Proteins (c) Vitamins (d) Fats

100. Human is unable to digest dilatory

(a) Glycogen (b) Glucose (c) Dextrin (d) Cellulose

101. Pepsinogen is converted to pepsin by

(a) Low pH (HCl) (b) Trypsinogen (c) Chymotrypsin (d) Enterokinase

102. Mucus is secreted by the

(a) Stomach (b) Duodenum (c) Large intestine (d) All of the above

103. Water absorption is mainly occur in

(a) Colon (b) Intestine (c) Gastrium (d) Appendix

104. Which of the a following is absorbed in proximal intestine

(a) Iron (b) Sodium (c) Bile salts (d) Vitamin B

105. Jaundice is a disonder of

(a) Skin and eyes (b) Digestive system (c) Liver (d) Excretory system

106. Which of the following stimulates the secretion of gastric juice?

(a) Gastrin (b) Enterogasterone (c) Secretin (d) Hepatocrinin

107. In stomach after physical and chemical digestion food is called

(a) Chyme (b) Chyle (c) Amino acid (d) Bolus

108. Fully digested food reaches to liver by

(a) Hepatic portal vein (b) Hepatic artery (c) Hepatic vein (d) All the above

109. A person who is eating rice. His food contains

(a) Cellulose (b) Starch (c) Lactose (d) Protein

110. Stool of a person contain whitish grey colour due to malfunction of which type of organ.
(a) Pencreas (b) Spleen (c) Kidney (d) Liver

111. If all the peptide bonds of protein are broken, then the remaining part is
(a) Amide (b) Cligosaccharide (c) Polypeptide (d) Amino acid

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112. Hydrolysis of lipid yields
(a) Fats (b) Fatty acids and glycerol
(c) Mannose and glycerol (d) Maltose and iatty acid

113. The chief function of bile is to

(a) Digest fat by enzymatic action (b) Emulsify fats for digestion
(c) Eliminate waste products (d) Regulate digestion of proteins

114. The toxic substance are detoxicated in the human body by

(a) Lungs (b) Kidneys (c) Liver (d) Stomach

115. The end product of carbohydrate metabolism is

(a) CO2 and H2O (b) NH3 and CO2 (c) NH3 and H2O (d) CO2

116. End products of proteins hydrolysis are

(a) Mixture of amino acids (b) Sugars
(c) Peptides (d) 25 amino acis

117. Which one of the following amino acids is not found in proteins?
(a) Aryinine (b) Ornithine (c) Aspartic acid (d) Tyrosine

118. Succus entericus is also called

(a) Gastric juice (b) Intestinal juice (c) Bile juice (d) Saliva

119. Just as hydrochloric acid is for pepsinogen, so is the

(a) Haemoglobin to oxygen (b) Enterokinase to typsinogen
(c) Bile juice to fat (d) Glucagon to glycogen

120. What is the function of globlet cells

(a) Production of enzyme (b) Production of mucin
(c) Production of hormone (d) Production of HCl
121. Trypsin differs from pepsin because it digests
(a) Carbohydrate in alkaline medium in stomach
(b) Protein in alkaline medium in stomach
(c) Protein in acidic medium of stomach
(d) Protein in alkaline medium in duodenum

122. Pancreatic juice is

(a) Alkaline in nature (b) Acidic in nature
(c) Enzymes nature (d) Earth acidic and alkaline in nature

123. The function of enterogasterone hormone is

(a) To control excretion (b) To inhibit gastric juice secretion
(c) To regulate the absorption of food (d) To gastric glands to release gastric juice

124. What is the common passage for bile and pancreatic juices
(a) Ampulla of vater (b) Ductus Choledochus
(c) Duct or wirsung (d) Duct of santorini

125. Pepsinogen is secreted from

(a) Argentaffin cells (b) Goblets cells (c) Chief cells (d) Parietal cells

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126. Cells of the pancreas is not digested by their own enzymes because
(a) Enzymes are secreted in inactive form (b) Cells are lined by mucous membrane
(c) Enzymes are released only when needed (d) None of the above

127. Secretin
(a) Stimulated enzymes secretion by pancreas inhibits acid secretion in stomach stimulates gall
bladder
(b) Stimulates bicarbonate secretion by pancreas inhibits acid secretion in stomach, stimulates
bicarbonate secretion by liver
(c) Stimulates acid secretion in stomach protentiats action of CCK inhibits intestinal movement
(d) Stimulates gall bladder inhibits acid secretion in stomach simulates bicarbonate secretion by
pancreas

128. If a man is allowed to live exclusively on the diet of milk, egg & bread he would suffer from
(a) Rickets (b) Beri-Beri (c) Night-blindness (d) Scurvy

129. Deficiency of Vitamin A causes

(a) Night blindness (b) Scurvy (c) Beri-Beri (d) Rickets

130. Scurvy is a disease caused by

(a) A virus (b) Deficiency of Vitamin E
(c) Deficiency of Vitamin C (d) Deficiency of Vitamin D

131. Vitamines are

(a) Inorganic substances and can be synthesized by animals
(b) Inorganic substances and can be synthesized by animals
(c) Organic substances which cannot mostly be synthesized by animals
(d) Organic substances which can mostly be synthesized by animals.

132. Which of the following is the best source of Vitamin A

(a) Carrot (b) Apple (c) Peanuts (d) Honey

133. Vitamin necessary for blood clotting

(a) A (b) E (c) C (d) K

134. Vitamin K is required for

(a) Regulation of Ca and P metabolism
(b) Respiration
(c) Carbohydrate metabolism
(d) Synthesis of prothrombin in liver required for blood clotting

135. Man needs carbohydrate as a source of energy and gets these from
(a) Starch (b) Cellulose (c) Both (d) None of these

136. Beri-Beri is caused due to

(a) Deficiency of Vitamin B1 (b) Deficiency of vitamin B2
(c) Deficiency of Vitamin B12 (d) Deficiency of vitamin C

137. Ascorbic acid is the

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C (c) Vitamin E (d) Biotin

138. Which one of these are most essential for body growth and formation of new cells
(a) Sugar (b) Fats (c) Nucleic acid (d) Protein

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139. The most common concentrated source of proteins for vegetarians in out country is
(a) Potatoes (b) Meat (c) Eggs (d) Pulses

140. Vitamin A from carotene is synthesized in

(a) Spleen (b) Skin (c) Pancreases (d) None of these

141. Which one of the carbohydrate is monosaccharide

(a) Glucose (b) Sucrose (c) Starch (d) Cellulose

142. Vitamin promoting wound healing is

(a) B (b) A (c) D (d) C

143. Night blindness is caused due to deficiency of Vitamin

(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) A

144. To get ample supply of carbohydrates one should eat

(a) Meat (b) Gram (c) Carrots (d) Rice

145. Meat, milk and egg mainly supply us with

(a) Hormones (b) Carbohydrates (c) Proteins (d) Fats

146. Protein are mainly required in the body for

(a) Growth (b) Repair (c) Both of these (d) None of these

147. A person deficient in Rhodopsin (visual pigement) should take

(a) Tomatoes (b) Radish (c) Carrot (d) Guavas

148. Rickets is caused by the deficiency of

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin C (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin B

149. Which vitamins are water soluble

(a) Vitamin B & C (b) Vitamin A & C (c) Vitamin C & D (d) Vitamin A & B

150. Which is the source of Vitamin C

(a) Banana (b) Potato (c) Orange (d) Mango

151. A person with bleeding gums should daily take

(a) Milk (b) Carrots (c) Lemons (d) Butter

152. Rickets is disease of which category

(a) Infective disease (b) Deficiency disease
(c) Communicable disease (d) Inheritable disease

153. Thiamine is another name for

(a) Vitamin B2 (b) Vitamin A (c) Vitamin B1 (d) Vitamin B complex

154. Vitamin D is also called

(a) Calciferol (b) Ascorbic acid (c) Retinol (d) Folic Acid

155. The mineral element whose deficiency in human body may leads to goiter is
(a) Iodine (b) Fluorine (c) Calcium (d) Sodium

156. Deficiency of Vitamin E brings about

(a) Scurvy (b) Beri-Beri (c) Slow clotting blood (d) Impotence

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157. Which pairing is not correct
(a) Vit D-Rickets (b) Vit K-Sterlity (c) Thiamine-Beri-Neri (d) Niacin-Pellagra

158. Bow-shaped legs in children are due to deficiency of vitamin

(a) D (b) A (c) B (d) C

159. Beri-Beri, scurvy and Rickets are respectively caused by deficiency of

(a) B, D & C (b) B, C & D (c) D, B & A (d) A, D & C

160. Vit-D is produced in human body by

(a) Muscles (b) Nerves (c) Skin (d) None of these

161. Dermatits diarrhea and dementia are seen in deficiency of

(a) Thiamine (b) Riboflavin (c) Niacin (d) Foliate

162. Deficiency of protein leads to

(a) Rickets (b) Scurvy (c) Kwashioker (d) Carotenemia

163. Which one is wrong pair

(a) Scurvy-Vitamin C (b) Rickets-Vitamin D
(c) Night blindness (Xerophthalmia) Vitamin A (D) Beriberi-Vitamin K

164. Which one correctly matched

(a) Vitamin E – Tocoferole (b) Vitamin D – Riboflavin
(c) Vitamin B – Calciferol (d) Vitamin A – Thiamine

165. Most abundant organic compound on earth is

(a) Protein (b) Cellulose (c) Lipids (d) Steroids

166. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched

(a) Vitamin C- Scurvy (b) Vitamin B2 – Pellagra
(c) Vitamin B12-Pernicious anemia (d) Vitamin B6-Beri-beri

167. Which one of the following is the correct matching of a vitamin, its nature and its deficiency disease
(a) Vitamin K-Fat soluble-Beri-Beri (b) Vitamin A-Fat soluble Beri-Beri
(c) Vitamin K-Water soluble-Pellagra (d) Vitamin A-Fat soluble-Night blindness

168. Which of the following vitamin is synthesized in animal body by bacteria

(a) B1 (b) A (c) B (d) B12

169. Vitamin-C is mainly helpful in

(a) Growth of bones (b) Formation of connective tissue
(c) Treatment of anemia (d) Formation of visual pigment
170. Marasmus disease is caused due to
(a) Protein along with some mineral deficiency (b) Obesity
(c) Dwarfism (d) Deficiency of vitamins

171. Which of the following does not belong to vitamin B group

(a) Riboflavin (b) Nicotin (c) Cyanocooalamine (d) Tocopherol
172. Deficiency of which vitamin causes night blindness
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin D

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173. Certain B vitamins are
(a) Enzymes (b) Co-enzymes (c) Hormone (d) Digestive substance

174. Deficiency of thiamine causes

(a) Beri-beri (b) Rickets (c) Caries (d) Pellagera

175. Vitamin C is helpful in the

(a) Formation of visual pigment (b) Growth of bones
(c) Treatment of pernicious anaemia (d) Wound healing

176. In adults the deficiency of vitamin D causes

(a) Xeropthalamia (b) Beri-beri (c) Scurvy (d) Osteomalacia

177. Continuous bleeding from an injured part of body is due to deficiency of

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin K (d) Vitamin E

178. Part of bile juice useful in digestion is

(a) Bile salt (b) Bile pigment (c) Bile matrix (d) All of them

179. Secretion of pancreatic juice is stimulated by

(a) Gastrin (b) Secretin (c) Enterogastrone (d) Enterokinase

180. From which of the following pepsin is secreted

(a) Lungs (b) Stomach (c) Salivary gland (d) Sebaceous gland

181. Secretion hormone stimulates

(a) Gastric glands (b) Pancreas (c) Gall bladder (d) Crypts of Lieberkuhn

182. pH of gastric juice is

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

183. Which of the following hormone helps in secretion of HCl from stomach?
(a) Renin (b) Gastrin (c) Secretin (d) Somatomedin

184. Which of the following vitamins are fat soluble?

(a) A, B, C, K (b) A, B, D, E (c) A, D, E, K (d) A, D, C,K

185. ‘Crypts of ieber kuhn’ are found in

(a) Gall bladder (b) Liver (c) Pancreas (d) Intestinal glands

186. Glisson’s capule is associated with

(a) Liver (b) Pancreas (c) Lungs (d) Kidney

187. Osteomalacia occurs due to the deficiency of

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D

188. Vitamin B12 consists of which type of mineral?

(a) Co (b) Ni (c) Fe (d) None of these

189. Identify the false statement

(a) Oesophagus does not secrete any enzyme
(b) Gall bladder is absent in horse
(c) Human teeth are thccodont
(d) There are two pairs of salivary glands in humans

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190. Which of the following hormones help in contraction of gall bladder?
(a) Gastrin (b) Secretin (c) Cholecystokinin (d) Insulin

191. Identify the false statement?

(a) Bile is secreted by gall bladder (b) Fundic stomach is the site of digestion
(c) Parietal cell lie in wall of stomach (d) Bile is secreted by liver

192. Which part of body secretes the hormone secretin?

(a) Stomach (b) Oesophagus (c) Illeum (d) Duodenum
193. Gluconeogenesis is
(a) Formation of ammonia from glucose
(b) Breakdown of glycogen
(c) Formation of glycogen
(d) Formation of glucose from sources other than carbohydrate

194. Carbohydrate digestion occurs first in which structure?

(a) Mouth (b) Intestine (c) Stomach (d) None of these

195. Enzyme pepsin acts in

(a) Acidic medium in the pancreas (b) Acidic medium in the stomach
(c) Intestine (d) Mouth

196. Bile secretion is propotional to the concentration of

(a) Protein (b) Fat (c) Carbohydrate (d) None of these

197. Digestive enzymes are

(a) Hydrolase (b) Oxido-reductase (c) Transferase (d) None of these

198. Protein deficiency leads to

(a) Kwashiorkar (b) Marasmus (c) Cretinism (d) Both (a) and (b)

199. Prorennin is secreted by

(a) Zymogen cells (b) Sertoli cells (c) Islets of langerhans (d) Hepatacytes

200. Which of the following is a water soluble vitamin?

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin E

201. In mammals the teeth are

(1) Of different type
(2) Embedded in the cuplike socket in the jaw bones
(3) Only two sets present throughout lice
The condition are referred as
(a) Heterodont, thecodont, diphyodont (b) Thecodont, heterodont, diphyodont
(c) Diphyodont, thecodont, heterodont (d) Heterodont, diphyodont, thecodont

202. Find out the correctly matched pair

(a) Pepsinogen Zymogenic cells (b) HCl Goblet cells
(c) Mucous Oxyntic cells (d) Pancreatic enzyme Salivary glands

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203. Find out the correct match
Column I Column II
A. Hepatic loluble i. Sub mucosal glands
B. Brunner’s glands ii. Base of villi
C. Crypts of liberkuhn iii. Glisson’s capsule
D. Sphincter of Oddi iv. Gall bladder
E. Cystic duct v. Hepatopancreatic duct
vi. Serous gland’s
A B C D E
(a) iii vi ii v iv
(b) v ii iii vi i
(c) iii i ii v iv
(d) iv vi v ii i
(e) iv ii vi v iii

204. Continued consumption of a diet rich in butter red meat and eggs for a long period may lead to
(a) Vitamin A toxicity (b) Kidney stones
(c) Hypercholesterolmia (d) Urine iaden with ketone bodies

205. Which of the following is a fat-soluble vitamin and its related deficiency disease?
(a) Retinol : Xerophthalmia (b) Cobalamine : Beri Beri
(c) Calciferol : Pellagra (d) Ascorbic acid : Scurvy

206. It is present in rod cells and useful in high vision

(a) Vitamin K (b) Melanin (c) Rhodopsin (d) Vitamin C

207. Which of the following process will be affected by the absence of enterokinase?
(a) Lipid Fatty acid + glycerol (b) Dipeptides Amino acid
(c) Proteoses Dipeptide (d) Amylose Maltose

208. Succus entericus is secreted by

(a) Crypts of leiberkuhn (b) Brunner’s glands
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these

209. Gall bladder is found in

(a) Right lobe of liver (b) Left lobe of liver
(c) In between the two lobes of liver (d) Third lobe of liver

210. Among mammals a significant role in the digestion of milk is played by

(a) Rennin (b) Invertase (c) Amylase (d) Intestinal bacteria

211. A patient is generally advised to specially, consume more meat, lentils milk and eggs in diet only
when the suffers from
(a) Kwashiorkar (b) Rickets (c) Anaemia (d) Scurvy

212. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the site of action on the given substrate the
enzyme acting upon it and the end product
(a) Small intestine : proteins  pepsin
 amino acis
(b) Stomach : fats  lipase
 micelles
(c) Duodenum : triglycerides  tryp sin
 monoglycerides
(d) Small intestine : starch  disaccharide (maltose)
amylase

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213. What will happen if the secretion of parietal cells of gastric glands is blocked with an inhibitor
(a) In the absence of HCl secretion, inactive pepsinogen is not converted into the active enzyme
Pepsin
(b) Enterokinase will not be released from the duodenal mucosa and so trypsinogen is not converted
to trypsin
(c) Gastric juice will be deficient in chymosin
(d) Gastric juice will be deficient in pepsinogen

214. In human teeth, which help in cutting

(a) Canine (b) Incisor (c) Molar (d) Premolar

215. Osteomalacia occurs due to the deficiency of

(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin C (d) Vitamin D

216. Pulp cavity of teeth is lined by

(a) Odontoblast (b) Chondroblast (c) Osteoblast (d) Amyloblast

217. Which of the following metal is present in vitamin B12

(a) Cobalt (b) Copper (c) Zinc (d) Magnesium

218. Digestion of protein is completed in

(a) Stomach (b) Duodenum (c) Ileum (d) Duodenum and ileum

219. Bile secretion is proportional to the concentration of

(a) Protein (b) Fat (c) Carbohydrate (d) None of these

220. Where the lysozymes are found

(a) In saliva and tears both (b) In tears
(c) In saliva (d) In mitochondria

221. The hormone which lowers the secretion of hydrochloric acid and gastric juice is
(a) Secretin (b) Enterogastrone (c) Enterokinin (d) Gastrin

222. Which of the following vitamins is essential for D.N.A synthesis and cell division
(a) Vitamin E (b) Vitamin D (c) Floic acid (d) Vitamin K

223. Which of the following does not belong to vitamin B group

(a) Riboflavin (b) Nicotin (c) Cyanocobalamine (d) Tocopherol

224. Deficiency of thiamine causes

(a) Beri-beri (b) Rickets (c) Caries (d) Pellagera

225. Vitamin C is helpful in the

(a) Formation of visual pigment (b) Growth of bones
(c) Treatment of pernicious anaemia (d) Wound healing

226. The longitudinal muscular folds of inner wall of stomach are called
(a) Papilla of vater (b) Rugae (c) Villi (d) Fissure

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QUESTIONS ASKED IN PREVIOUS EXAMS

227. The sense of taste is normally caused by the stimulation of chemoreceptors in the taste buds of the
tongue. There are four main ‘tastes’. Sweet salty, bitter and sour. The tongue also has receptors for
temperature. It is known that the taste of food can vary according to whether it is cold, warm or hot.
Scientists discovered that just warming or cooling parts of the tongue, even when no food was
present also caused a sensation of taste
Scientists experimented with a group of people. They gradually cooled the tips of their
tongues and measured the intensity of the taste felt by each member of the group. The experiment
was repeated, this time warming the tip of the tongue. The graphs show the average values for the
group. Identify which taste was felt most strongly when the tip of the tongue was cooled

(a) Bitter (b) Sour

(c) Sweet (d) Cannot decide from the data given

228. The alimentary canal of insect consists of mouth, pharynx, oesophagus, crop, proventriculus, gizzard
and highgut. In insects and birds the gizzard helps in grinding the food. Select the statements that
most accurately compate the gizzards of the bird and of insect
(i) The gizzard of the bird contains gravel and the gizzard of insect bears chitinious teeth
(ii) The gizzard of the bird is muscular but that of the insect is devoid of muscles
(iii) The gizzard in both case in muscular
(iv) The gizzard or bird bears bristles which are absent in the gizzard of insect
(a) i and iii (b) i and ii (c) ii and iv (d) iii and iv

229. Which of the following secretions of the alimentary canal in human DO NOT contain any enzymes?
(a) Salivary juice (b) Gastric juice (c) Bile juice (d) Pancreatic juice

230. The following graphs represent activities of different enzymes (A to D) at different temperature and
pH

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 Observe the graphs carefully and infer which of the following options given below (most likely)
presents correctly the combination A, B, C and D
(a) A-enzyme of thermophilic bacteria, B-typical human enzyme, C-pepsin (stomach enzyme),D-
trypsin (intestinal enzymes)
(b) A-enzyme of thermophilic bacteria, B-typical human enzyme, C-trypsin (intestine enzyme), D-
pepsin(Stomach enzyme)
(c) A-typical human enzyme, B-enzyme of thermophilic bacteria, C-typsin (intestinal enzyme), D-
pepsin (stomach enzyme)
(d) A-typical human enzyme, B-enzyme of thermophilic bacteria, C-pepsin (stomach enzyme), D-
trupsin (intestinal enzyme)

231. The part of the digestive system that digests lipids in the food is
(a) Stomach (b) Duodenum (c) Illium (d) Large intestine

232. The feature indicating omnivorous nature of man is

(a) Presence of canines and molars (b) Long intestine and vestigial appendix
(c) Ability to taste salty and sweet material (d) Spacious stomach and caecum

233. Complete digestive juice having enzymes to digest all types of organic materials is secreted by
(a) Salivary of organic materials is secreted by (b) Gastric gland and pancreatic gland
(c) Salivary gland and intestinal gland (d) Pancreatic gland and intestinal gland

234. Human body cannot digest carbohydrate in the form of

(a) Sugars (b) Starch (c) Cellulose (d) Glycogen

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 ANSWER EKY

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (c)
11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (d) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (c)

21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (d) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (b) 27. (b) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (c)

31. (c) 32. (c) 33. (b) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (b) 40. (b)

41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (c) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (a) 49. (a) 50. (c)

51. (c) 52. (a) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (d) 56. (b) 57. (a) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (b)

61. (c) 62. (d) 63. (c) 64. (a) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (c)

71. (a) 72. (b) 73. (d) 74. (a) 75. (a) 76. (d) 77. (a) 78. (c) 79. (a) 80. (d)
81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (d) 84. (d) 85. (b) 86. (c) 87. (b) 88. (c) 89. (d) 90. (b)
91. (a) 92. (b) 93. (c) 94. (d) 95. (d) 96. (a) 97. (d) 98. (b) 99. (c) 100. (d)
101. (a) 102. (d) 103. (a) 104. (a) 105. (c) 106. (a) 107. (a) 108. (a) 109. (b) 110. (d)
111. (d) 112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (c) 115. (a) 116. (a) 117. (b) 118. (b) 119. (b) 120. (b)
121. (d) 122. (a) 123. (b) 124. (a) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (b) 128. (d) 129. (a) 130. (c)
131. (c) 132. (a) 133. (d) 134. (d) 135. (a) 136. (a) 137. (b) 138. (d) 139. (d) 140. (d)
141. (a) 142. (d) 143. (d) 144. (d) 145. (c) 146. (c) 147. (c) 148. (c) 149. (a) 150. (c)
151. (c) 152. (b) 153. (c) 154. (a) 155. (a) 156. (d) 157. (b) 158. (a) 159. (b) 160. (c)
161. (c) 162. (c) 163. (d) 164. (a) 165. (b) 166. (d) 167. (d) 168. (a) 169. (b) 170. (a)
171. (d) 172. (c) 173. (b) 174. (a) 175. (d) 176. (d) 177. (c) 178. (a) 179. (b) 180. (b)
181. (b) 182. (a) 183. (b) 184. (c) 185. (d) 186. (a) 187. (d) 188. (a) 189. (d) 190. (c)
191. (a) 192. (d) 193. (d) 194. (a) 195. (b) 196. (b) 197. (a) 198. (a) 199. (a) 200. (b)
201. (a) 202. (a) 203. (c) 204. (c) 205. (a) 206. (c) 207. (c) 208. (c) 209. (a) 210. (a)
211. (a) 212. (d) 213. (b) 214. (b) 215. (d) 216. (a) 217. (a) 218. (d) 219. (b) 220. (a)
221. (b) 222. (a) 223. (d) 224. (a) 225. (d) 226. (b) 227. (b) 228. (a) 229. (c) 230. (d)
231. (b) 232. (a) 233. (d) 234. (c)

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 ANIMAL PHYSIOLOGY- RESPIRATION
1. Respiration is
(a) Physical process (b) Chemical process
(c) Physico chemical process (d) None

2. Larynx is a modified portion of

(a) Pharynx (b) Trachea (c) Bronchus (d) Lungs

3. Thoracic cavity is enlarged by contraction of

(a) Internal intercostals muscles (b) Diaphragm
(c) Lungs (d) All of above

4. Cartilaginous rings in trachea are incomplete at which surface

(a) Dorsal (b) Ventral (c) Lateral (d) Ventrolateral

5. Breathing by ribs is more pronounced in

(a) Male (b) Female (c) Pregnant female (d) None

6. The most important muscular structure in respiratory system of rabbit is

(a) External intercostals muscles (b) Internal intercostals muscles
(c) Diaphragm (d) Vertebral column

7. Wall of alveoli is composed of

(a) Simple squamous epithelium (b) Simple cuboidal epithelium
(c) Pseudostratified epithelium (d) Simple columnar epithelium

8. Abdominal breathing refers to

(a) Normal breathing (b) Slow breathing
(c) Voluntary breathing (d) All of these

9. Under normal condition 100ml blood carry

(a) 4 ml CO2 (b) 10 ml CO2 (c) 1.34 ml CO2 (d) 30 ml CO2

10. External respiration refers to exchange of gases between

(a) Inspired air and blood (b) Blood and tissue fluid
(c) Alveolar air and blood (d) Environmental air and lungs

11. If expiratory reserve volume is 1100 ml, residual volume is 1200 ml and tidal volume is 500 ml,
what shall be the functional residual capacity?
(a) 1600 ml (b) 2800 ml (c) 2300 ml (d) 1200 ml

12. What percentage of CO2 flows in blood in form of bicarbonates

(a) 7% (b) 23% (c) 50% (d) 70%

13. Effect of CO2 concentration on dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin is called

(a) Bohr’s effect (b) Haldane effect (c) Hamburger effect (d) Gaudi Kov’s effect

14. Which part of thyroid cartilage in larynx is closed

(a) Dorsal (b) Ventral (c) Anterior (d) Posterior

15. Oxygen in expired air

(a) 10% (b) 16% (c) 19% (d) 4%
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16. How oxygen enters in blood from alveoli of lungs
(a) Pressure of CO2 (b) Simple diffusion (c) By Hb (d) None of these

17. During inspiration muscles of diaphragm

(a) Contracts (b) Expands (c) No effect (d) Coiled like string

18. Air filed in dead space is

(a) 150 CC (b) 350 CC (c) 500 CC (d) 1500 CC

19. Very high number of alveoli present in a lung is meant for

(a) More space for increasing volume of inspired air
(b) More area for diffusion
(c) Making the organ spongy
(d) Increasing nerve supply

20. Expiration involves

(a) Relaxation of diaphragm and intercostals muscles
(b) Contraction of diaphragm and intercostals muscles
(c) Contraction of diaphragm muscles
(d) Contraction of intercostals muscles

21. Expiratory muscles contract at the time of

(a) Deep inspiration (b) Normal inspiration and expiration
(c) Forceful expiration (d) Normal expiration

22. Inflammation of the lung covering causing severe chest pain is

(a) Emphysema (b) Pleurisy (c) Asphyxia (d) Hypoxia

23. In the process of transport of CO2 which phenomenon occurs between RBCs and plasma
(a) Osmosis (b) Adsorption (c) Chloride shift (d) Absorption

24. For proper transport of O2 and CO2 blood should be

(a) Slightly acidic (b) Strongly acidic (c) Strongly alkaline (d) Slightly alkaline

25. What would happen when blood is acidic

(a) Of oxygen with haemoglobin increases
(b) Red blood corpuscles are formed in higher number
(c) Binding of oxygen with haemoglobin decreases
(d) There is no change in oxygen binding non number of RBC

26. Which one of the following statement is correct?

(a) Chest expands because air enters into the lungs
(b) Air enters into the lungs because chest expands
(c) The muscles of the diaphragm contracts because air enters into the lungs
(d) All of the above statement are correct

27. The combination of oxygen with haemoglobin is called

(a) Oxidation (b) Oxygenation (c) Reduction (d) None of the above

28. Each lung is enclosed in a doubled membrane called as pleura. The membrane which closely covers
the lung is
(a) Lung pleura (b) Visceral pleura (c) Peritoneal pleura (d) Parietal pleura

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29. Which of the following prevents collapsing of Trachea
(a) Muscles (b) Diaphragm (c) Ribs (d) Cartilaginous rings

30. The covering of lungs in Rabbit is

(a) Peritoneum (b) Pericardium (c) Pleural membrane (d) Glission capsule

31. Respiratory system is derived from

(a) Ectoderm (b) Endoderm (c) Both (a) & (b) (d) Endo mesoderm

32. Among mammals the efficiency of ventilation of lungs as compared to reptiles and birds is better
developed by the presence of
(a) Ribs & costal muscles (b) Only ribs
(c) Only costal muscles (d) Diaphragm

33. The structure which prevents the entry of food into respiratory tract is
(a) Pharynx (b) Larynx (c) Glottis (d) Epiglottis

34. If the thoracic wall but not the lungs are punctured
(a) The lungs get inflated (b) The man dies as the lungs get collapsed
(c) The breathing rate decreases (d) The breathing rate increases

35. Larynx open into pharynx by

(a) Gullet (b) Glottis (c) Epiglottis (d) None

36. The most important function of diaphragm of mammals is

(a) To divide the body cavity into compartments
(b) To protect lungs
(c) To aid in digestion
(D) To aid in ventilation

37. Ratio of oxyhaemoglobin and haemoglobin in blood is based upon

(a) Oxygen tension (b) Carbondioxide tension
(c) Carbonate tension (d) Bicarbonate tension

38. In fever breathing rate

(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Stop (d) None

39. Which forms stable compound with haemoglobin?

(a) O2 (b) CO2 (c) CO (d) All

40. Total lung capacity is

(a) One lit (b) 3 lit (c) 6 lit (d) 8 lit

41. Asthma is a respiratory disease caused due to

(a) Infection of trachea (b) Infection of lungs
(c) Bleeding into pleural cavity (d) Spasm in bronchial muscles

42. The process of respiration is concerned with

(a) In take of O2 (b) Liberation of O2 (c) Liberation of CO2 (d) Liberation of energy

43. Maximum expiration after full inspiration is called

(a) Vital capacity (b) Lung capacity (c) Tidal volume (d) Residual volume

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44. Mammalian lungs are
(a) Hollow (b) Solid & spongy (c) Spongy (d) None

45. CO2 + H2O is produced during as end product in

(a) Anaerobic respiration (b) Aerobic respiration
(c) Both (d) None

46. Nasal chamber is lined by

(a) Olfactory epithelium (b) Glandular epithelium
(c) Highly vascularised epithelium (d) All

47. In thoracic cavity of man one is present

(a) Lungs only (b) Lungs + Heart
(c) Lungs + heart + stomach (d) Hearts only

48. Respiratory rate in new born body is

(a) Equal to adult (b) Less than adult (c) More than adult (d) None

49. Air that remains in lung after most powerful expiration is

(a) Inspiratory air (b) Dead space air (c) Tidal air (d) Residual air

50. During inspiration the pressure of air is maximum in

(a) Trachea (b) Bronchus (c) Alveoli (d) Between lungs and chest

51. One of the following is correct statements

(a) All animals breathe
(b) All animals do not breathe
(c) All cells of the body do not respire for energy
(d) None

52. A molecule of haemoglobin can carry oxygen molecule

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8

53. Number of alveoli present in human lungs is

(a) 7-10 million (b) 70-100 million (c) 300-400 million (d) 800-1000 million

54. One of the following is a difference between pulmonary respiration of frog and human
(a) Diaphragm and ribs play role in breathing
(b) Lungs are respiratory organs
(c) Respiration occurs due to pressure gradient
(d) None

55. Residual air mostly occurs in

(a) Alveoli (b) Bronchus (c) Nostrits (d) Trachea

56. Volume of air inspired or expired with each normal breath is known as
(a) Inspiratory capacity (b) Total lung capacity
(c) Tidal volume (d) Residual volume

57. Rate of respiration is directly affected by

(a) CO2 concentration (b) O2 in trachea (c) Concentration of O2 (d) Diaphragm expansion

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58. Which is correct
(a) Respiratory centres are not affected by CO2
(b) In human vital capacity is just double the expiratory volume
(c) A human lungs has 103alveoli
(d) During respiration the lungs acts as suction pump

59. Body tissues obtain O2 from haemoglobin because of its dissociation in tissues caused by
(a) Low oxygen concentration and high CO2 concentration
(b) High O2 concentration
(c) Low CO2 concentration
(d) High CO2 concentration

60. Narrowest and most abundant tubes of lungs are

(a) Bronchioles (b) Bronchus (c) Alveoli (d) Trachea

61. Oxygen in lungs ultimately reaches

(a) Alveoli (b) Trachea (c) Bronchus (d) Bronchioles

62. Most of the carbon dioxide is carried in the blood as

(a) Bicarbonates (b) Carbon monoxide (c) Carbonic acid (d) Carbonates

63. In vertebrate blood the carrier of oxygen to the tissues or respiratory pigment is
(a) Plas (b) Lymphocytes (c) Lymphocytes (d) Haemoglobin

64. Characteristic feature of haemogobin is

(a) Reversible union with oxygen (b) It is blue colour
(c) Presence of Cu (d) Presence of globulin protein

65. What is the common element in haemoglobin and Myoglobin

(a) Fe (b) Cu (c) Mn (d) Mg

66. In humans sound is produced by

(a) Syrinx (b) Larynx (c) Bronchus (d) Trachea

67. Carbon monoxide prevents transport of oxygen by

(a) Forming stable compound with haemoglobin
(b) Destrolying haemogobin
(c) Forming carbon dioxide with oxygen
(d) Destrolying RBC’s

68. Oxyhaemoglobin acts as

(a) Alkali (b) Acid (c) Neutral (d) Buffer

69. Lungs are covered by

(a) Perichonrium (b) Pleural sac (c) Pericardium (d) Peristomium

70. Percentage of oxygen transported by haemoglobin is

(a) 93 (b) 95 (c) 97 (d) 99

71. The alveolar epithelium in the lung is

(a) Nonciliated columnar (b) Nonciliated squamous
(c) Ciliated columnar (d) Ciliated squamous

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72. Air is breathed through
(a) Trachea lungs  larynx pharynx alveoli
(b) Nose larynx pharynx bronchus alveoli bronchioles
(c) Nostrils pharynx larynx trachea bronchi bronchioles alveoli
(d) Nose mouth lungs

73. During transport of CO2 blood does not become acidic due to
(a) Neutralisation of H2CO3 by Na2CO3 (b) Absorption of leucoyctes
(c) Blood buffers (d) Nonaccumulation

74. Carbon monoxide has greater affinity for haemoglobin as compared to oxygen
(a) 1000 times (b) 200 times (c) 20 times (d) 2 times

75. At high altitude, RBC of human blood will

(a) Increase in number (b) Decrease in number (c) Decrease in size (d) Increase in size

76. CO2 is transported as

(a) Dissolved in blood plasma (b) As carbonic acid
(c) In carbarminohaemoglobin (d) As carbaminohaemoglobin and carbonic acid

77. About 1500 ml of air left in lungs is called

(a) Tidal volume (b) Ispiratory reserve volume
(c) Residual volume (d) Vital capacity

78. Which one protects the lungs

(a) Rib (b) Vertebral column (c) Sternum (d) All above

79. Which one has the lowest value

(a) Tidal volume (b) Vital capacity
(c) Inspiratory reserve volume (d) Expiratory reserve volume

80. In carbon monoxide poisoning there is

(a) Increase in carbon dioxide concentration (b) Decrease in oxygen availability
(c) Decrease in free haemoglobin (d) None of these

81. Exchange of gases in lung alveoli occurs through

(a) Active transport (b) Osmosis
(c) Simple diffusion (d) Passive transport

82. Haemoglobin is
(a) Vitamin (b) Skin pigment (c) Blood carrier (d) Respiratory pigment

83. Concentration of carbonic acid does not increase in blood due to presence of
(a) Na+ (b) Mg2+ (c) Ca2+ (d) K+

84. Adam’s Apple represents

(a) Arytenoid cartilage of larynx (b) Cricoid cartilage of larynx
(c) Thyroid cartilage of larynx (d) All the above

85. Respiratory centre of brain is stimulated by

(a) Carbon dioxide content in venous blood (b) Carbon dioxide content in arterial blood
(c) Oxygen content in venous blood (d) Oxygen content in arterial blood

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86. Carbon dioxide entering erythrocytes reacts with water to form carbonic acid. The enzyme is
(a) Carbonic anhydrase (b) Carboxypeptidase (c) Hydrolase (d) Oxidoreductase

87. Determination of oxygen carried by haemoglobin is done by

(a) pH (b) Partial pressure of oxygen
(c) Partial pressure of carbon dioxide (d) All of the above

88. CO is harmful because

(a) It forms stable compound with hemoglobin (b) It blocks mitosis
(c) It is mutagenic (d) It causes defoliation

89. When CO2 concentration in blood increases breathing becomes

(a) There is no effect on breathing (b) Slow and deep
(c) Faster (d) Shallower and slow

91. In which part of lungs gaseous exchange takes place in Rabbit

(a) Trachea & alveolar duct (b) Trachea & bronchi
(c) Alveolar duct & alveoli (d Alveoli & Trachea

92. Lungs ventilation movements is due to

(a) Costal muscle and diaphragm (b) Costal muscle
(c) Diaphragm (d) Wall of the lungs

93. In lung, maximum gaseous exchange is due to

(a) Simple diffusion (b) Active transport (c) Passive transport (d) Facilitated diffusion

94. By which mechanism oxygen is transported from lungs to cells

(a) Diffusion (b) Facilitated diffusion (c) Transpiration (d) Osmosis

95. Why is CO poisonous for man

(a) CO affects the nerves of the lungs
(b) CO affects the diaphragm and intercostals muscles
(c) CO reacts with oxygen reducing percentage of O2 in air
(d) Haemoglobin combines with CO instead O2 and the product cannot dissociate

96. One haemoglobin carries how many molecules of O2

(a) 4 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 8

97. Respiratory centre is present in

(a) Cerebellum (b) Cerebrum (c) Medulla oblongata (d) Hypothalamus

98. After deep inspiration capacity of maximum expiration of lung is called

(a) Total lung capacity (b) Functional residual capacity
(c) Vital capacity (d) Inspiratory capacity

99. If a man from sea coast goes to Everest peak then

(a) His breathing and heart beat will increase (b) His breathing and heart beat will decrease
(c) His respiratory rate will decrease (d) His heart beat will decrease

100. Hb is a
(a) Reproductive pigment (b) Respiratory pigment
(c) Carbohydrate (d) Fat

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101. During normal respiration without any effort the volume of air inspired or expired is called
(a) Tidal volume (b) Reserve volume (c) Residual volume (d) None of these

102. The type of tissue lining the nasal passage, bronchioles and fallopian tubes is
(a) Columnar ciliated epithelium (b) Cuboidal epithelium
(c) Neurosensory epithelium (d) Germinal epithelium

103. Match the items in column I with column II and choose the correct option
Column I Column II
(A) Tidal volume (i) 2500 to 3000 ml. of air
(B) Inspiratory reserve (ii) 1000 ml of air
(C) Expiratory reserve volume (iii) 500ml of air
(D) Residual volume (iv) 3400 to 4800 ml air
(E) Vital capacity (v) 1200 ml of air

A B C D E
(a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) (v) (b) (iii) (i) (ii) (v) (iv)
(c) (iii) (i) (iv) (v) (ii) (d) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (v)

104. What is the function of region labeled as ‘a’ in the given diagram?

(a) Passage to lungs (b) Connection of larynx (c) Sound producing (d) Warm providing

105. The cavities of lungs alveoli are lined by

(a) Cuboidal epithelium (b) Columnar epithelium
(c) Stratified cuboidal epithelium (d) Squamous epithelium

106. Residual volume is

(a) Lesser than tidal volume (b) Greater than inspiratory volume
(c) Greater than vital capacity (d) Greater than tidal volume

107. Arrange the following in the order of increasing volume

(A) Tidal volume (B) Residual volume
(C) Inspiratory reserve volume (D) Vital capacity

(a) A < B < C < D (b) A < C < B < D (c) A < D < C < B (d) A < D< B < C

108. About 97% of O2 is transported by RBC. The remaining 3% is

(a) Dissolved in plasma and transported (b) Remains in lungs
(c) Attached to cell membranes (d) Inside the mitochondria

109. Whether a child died after normal birth or died before birth can be confirmed by measuring
(a) Tidal volume of air (b) Residual volume of air
(c) The weight of the child (d) The dead space air

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110. What is vital capacity of our lungs?
(a) Inspiratory reserve volume plus expiratory reserve volume
(b) Total lung capacity minus residual volume
(c) Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume
(d) Total lung capacity minus expiratory reserve volume

111. CO is more toxic than CO2 because it

(a) Damages lungs
(b) From acid with water
(c) Affects the nervous system
(d) Reduces the oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin

112. The oxygen toxicity is related with

(a) Blood poisoning (b) Collapse of alveolar walls
(c) Failure of ventilation of lungs (d) Both a and b

113. Which of the following factors raise the P50 value and shifts the HbO2 dissociation curve to right and
vice versa
(A) Rise in Pco2 (B) Fall in temperature
(C) Raise in H (= fall in pH) (D) Fall in diphosphoglyceric acid
Answer codes
(a) A and B are correct (b) B and D are correct
(c) A and C are correct (d) A, B and C are correct

114. Lungs have large number of narrow tubes

(a) Bronchi (b) Bronchioles (c) Tracheae (d) All of these

115. Haemoglobin-oxygen dissociation curve is

(a) Hyperbolic (b) Sigmoid (c) Straight (d) Constant

116. In which disease, due to flattening of tracheal vessels, alveoli are deprived of oxygen
(a) Bronchitis (b) Asthma (c) Pneumonia (d) Emphysema

QUESTION ASKED IN PREVIOUS EXAMS

117. Of the following products, which is produced by both anaerobic respiration and aerobic respiration in
humans?
I. Pyruvate
II. ATP
III. Lactate
(a) I only (b) I and II only (c) I, II and III (d) II and III only

118. During aerobic respiration, energy is released in step wise manner and ATP formation takes place
with the help of the energy. What will happen if this energy is released at single step instead of in
parts
(a) Incomplete oxidation of glucose takes place
(b) All the amount of energy can be utilized by the cell as more ATP molecules are produced
(c) Many amount of this released energy is wasted in form of heat and cell may die
(d) Cell will follow anaerobic pathway of respiration

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119. When one glucose molecule undergoes one turn of aerobic respiration, 38 ATP molecules are
produced. Cellular reparation takes party in cytoplasm and partly in mitochondria. During the
process, some ATP molecules are produce in the cytoplasm, some in the mitochondrial matrix and
some in the oxysomes on cristae. Maximum number of these ATP molecules is produced in
(a) Cytoplasm
(b) Mitochondrial matrix
(c) Cytoplasm and mitochondrial matrix together
(d) Oxysomes on cristae

120. Respiratory quotient (R, Q) is defined as the ratio of volume of CO2 evoled to the volume of O2 taken
in during the respiration processes. Value of R, Q depends on the nature of respiratory substance and
to the extent to which this substance is broken down into simpler products. Which of the following
situation will given us the R.q. value as infinity?
(a) Fats used as substance under aerobic conditions
(b) Organic acid is used as a substrate under aerobic conditions
(c) Any type of substrate used under anaerobic conditions
(d) Any type of substrate used under aerobic conditions

ANSWER KEY

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (d)
11. (c) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (a) 19. (a) 20. (a)

21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (d) 30. (c)

31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (d) 34. (b) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (c) 40. (c)

41. (d) 42. (d) 43. (a) 44. (b) 45. (b) 46. (d) 47. (b) 48. (c) 49. (d) 50. (d)

51. (b) 52. (b) 53. (c) 54. (a) 55. (a) 56. (c) 57. (a) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (a)

61. (a) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (a) 66. (b) 67. (a) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (c)

71. (a) 72. (c) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (b) 76. (d) 77. (c) 78. (d) 79. (a) 80. (b)
81. (c) 82. (d) 83. (a) 84. (c) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (d) 88. (a) 89. (c) 90. (c)
91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (c) 94. (a) 95. (d) 96. (a) 97. (c) 98. (c) 99. (a) 100. (b)
101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (b) 104. (b) 105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (a) 108. (a) 109. (d) 110. (b)
111. (b) 112. (c) 113. (c) 114. (b) 115. (b) 116. (d) 117. (b) 118. (c) 119. (c) 120. (b)

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 ANIMAL PHYSIOLOGY- TRANSPORTATION IN ANIMALS
1. Cell forming the wall of blood capillaries are called
(a) Oxyntic cells (b) Endothelium cells (c) Parietal cells (d) Haemocytes

2. Blood pressure and heart beat is regulated by

(a) Insulin (b) Adrenalin (c) Optic nerve (d) Growth hormone

3. Blood Capillaries are made of

(a) Endothelium and thin coat of connective tissue
(b) Endothelium and thin coat of muscle fibres
(c) Endothelium and thin coat of connective tissue and muscle fibres
(d) Only endothelium

4. The heart sound “DUP” is produced when

(a) Mitral value opens (b) Mitral value closes
(c) Semilunar valve at the base of aorta closes (d) Tricuspid valve opens

5. When is the pace marker situated

(a) In left auricle near opening of pulmonary vein
(b) In right auricle near Eustachian valve
(c) On inter-auricular septum
(d) On inter-ventricular septum

6. Right atrium or auricle in mammalian heart receives blood from

(a) Precavals (b) Precavals and post cavals
(c) Pulmonary veins (d) Sinus venosus

7. Blood circulation take following course in heart of man

(a) Left auricle- left ventricle-body-right auricle-right ventricle
(b) Right auricle- left ventricle
(c) Left auricle- left ventricle- lungs-right auricle-right ventricle
(d) None of them

8. Pulmonary veins are those which

(a) Carry impure blood from lungs to heart (b) Carry pure blood from lungs to heart
(c) Carry impure blood from heart to lung (d) Carry pure blood from heart to lungs

9. To reach the left side of heart the blood must pass through
(a) Sinus venosus (b) Kidneys (c) Liver (d) Lungs

10. How many contraction nodes are found in heart of Human

(a) One (b) Two (c) Many (d) None

11. Largest amount of urea in blood is found in

(a) Hepatic portal vein (b) Hepatic artery
(c) Coeliac artery (d) Renal artery

12. Oxygenated blood is carried by

(a) Pulmonary artery (b) Pulmonary vein (c) Renal vein (d) Hepatic portal vein

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13. Lymph can be defined as
(a) Blood minus corpuscles (b) Blood minus Piasma
(c) Blood minus WBC (d) Blood minus RBC & Platelets

14. Sphygmomanometer measures

(a) Blood pressure (b) Pulse rate (c) Rate of heart beat (d) All

15. A pace marker or S.A. Node is found in

(a) Lungs (b) Brain (c) Spleen (d) Heart

16. The blood during diastole

(a) Leaves the heart (b) Enters the heart (c) Enters lungs (d) Leaves the ventricles

17. Rate of heart beat is under the control of

(a) Autonomic nervous system (b) Vagus nerve
(c) Glossopharyngeal nerve (d) None

18. Eustachian value occurs in

(a) Connection between middle ear and Pharynx
(b) Middle ear
(c) Left ventricles of heart
(d) Right auricle of heart

19. Heart of man is

(a) Myogenic (b) Neurogenic (c) Cardiogenic (d) Digenic

20. In heart of Human bicuspid value is situated in

(a) Right auricle and pulmonary aorta (b) Post caval and avricle
(c) Left auricle and left ventricle (d) Right auricle and right ventricle

21. Which has no muscular walls?

(a) Capillary (b) Arteriote (c) Veins (d) Artery

22. Pulse beat is measured in

(a) Veins (b) Artery (Radial) (c) Nerve (d) Capillary

23. pH of blood in arteries and veins is

(a) More in veins and less in arteries (b) More in arteries and less in veins
(c) Same (d) Not definite

24. In a normal man blood pressure is

(a) 120/80 mm of Hg (b) 80/100 mm of Hg
(c) 80/120 mm of Hg (d) 100/80 mm of Hg

25. When the right ventricle contracts the blood is pump in to

(a) Superior vena cava (b) Dorsal aorta
(c) Pulmonary aorta (d) Pulmonary veins

26. The blood leaving the lungs is richer than the blood entering the lung in
(a) Oxygen (b) CO2 (c) Hydrogen (d) Moisture

27. Carotid artery carries the blood which is

(a) Impure blood to kidneys (b) Oxygenated blood to brain
(c) Oxygenated blood to heart (d) Impure blood from brain

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28. Pace maker influences
(a) Contraction of heart muscles (b) Flow of blood in heart
(c) Rate of heart beat (d) Formation of nerve impulse

29. In which of the following character a vein differs from an artery

(a) Having values to control flow of blood (b) Having narrow lumen
(c) Having muscular wall (d) Having pigmented wall to give dark look

30. Systolic pressure is higher than diastolic pressure due to

(a) Volume of blood in the heart is greater during systole
(b) Arteries contract during systole
(c) Blood vessels offer resistance to flowing blood during systole
(d) Blood is forced into arteries during systole

31. First heart sound is

(a) Lubb sound at the end of systole
(b) Lubb sound at the beginning of ventricular systole
(c) Dup sound at the end of systole
(d) Dup sound at the beginning of ventricular systole

32. Which one of the following organ can be called a sort of “blood bank”
(a) Heart (b) Liver (c) Spleen (d) Lungs

33. Purkinje fibres are found in

(a) Brain (b) Liver (c) Eyes (d) Heart

34. All arteries carry oxygenated blood except

(a) Systemic (b) Hepatic (c) Pulmonary (d) Cardiac

35. Heart beat in vertebrates is

(a) Neurogenic (b) Myogenic (c) Both (d) None

36. Single heart circuit occurs in

(a) Fishes (b) Frog (c) Reptiles (d) Man

37. Which of these has a closed type of circulatory system

(a) Cockroach (b) Fish (c) Mollusca (d) Scorpion

38. Circulatory system in human body consists of

(a) Cardio vascular system (b) Lymphatic system
(c) Both a and b (d) Venous system

39. Coronary artery supplies blood to

(a) Mammary glands (b) Ribmuscles (c) Skin (d) Heart

40. When there is a sudden loss of blood from the body the organ which supplies blood is
(a) Spleen (b) Heart (c) Liver (d) Lung

41. The blood vascular system of rabbit is

(a) Open type (b) Closed type (c) Semi closed type (d) Semi open type

42. The colour of lymph is

(a) Red (b) Brown (c) Colourless (d) Milky

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43. Lymph nodes in man are found abundantly in
(a) Fingers (b) Neck (c) Arms (d) Legs

44. Coagulation of lymph is

(a) Faster than blood (b) Not possible
(c) Slower than blood (d) A passive process

45. An artery can be distinguished from a vein in having

(a) Thicker wall (b) Lesser lumen (c) No valves (d) All of the above

46. The renal portal system of vertebrates is significant for

(a) Elimination of excess fats by kidneys
(b) Removing nitrogenous wasters in kidneys
(c) Supplying food to the kidneys
(d) Draining blood from the kidney

47. The spleen of Human serves to

(a) Generate all blood cells in early foetal life
(b) Produce lymphocytes monocytes and antibodies in adult state
(c) Acts as blood bank for the period of emergency and control blood volume in adults
(d) All of the above

48. The wall of Human heart is thick due to pressure of

(a) Inner layer endocardium (b) Middle layer myocardium
(c) Outer most layer pericardium (d) Outer layer epicardium

49. Removal of which organ will have least effect in an adult Human
(a) Spleen (b) Liver (c) Pancreas (d) Pituitary

50. The pulmonary aorta aries from

(a) Left ventricle (b) Right ventricle (c) Left auricle (d) Right auricle

51. Contraction of heart is called

(a) Peristalsis (b) Systole (c) Diastole (d) Voluntary contraction

52. Purkinje fibers mainly help in contraction of

(a) Right auricle (b) Left ventricle (c) Ventricles (d) Aorta

53. Which one of the following is the main graveyard of RBC

(a) Bone marrow (b) Spleen (c) Liver (d) Kidney

54. After the death of Human

(a) Both veins and arteries are full of blood
(b) Both veins & arteries are empty
(c) Arteries are full of blood while veins are empty
(d) Veins are full of blood while arteries are empty

55. Indicate correct statement for Human

(a) Arteries always carry oxygenated blood while veins always carry deoxygenated blood
(b) Venous blood is returned to left auricle
(c) Arteries are provided with valves while veins are devoid to valves
(d) Arteries always carry blood away from the heart while veins always carry blood towards the heart

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56. A vein differ from an artery in having
(a) Strong muscular walls
(b) Narrow lumen
(c) Valves control direction of blood flow opposite to heart
(d) Valves control direction of blood flow towards heart

57. The “Lubb” and “Dupp” heart sound are due to

(a) Opening of heart valves 7(b) Action of papillary muscles
(c) Closing of heart valves (d) Activity of pace marker

58. The rate of heart beat per minute is highest in case of

(a) Elephant (b) Whale (c) Man (d) Mouse

59. Blood circulation that starts in capillaries and ends in capillaries is called
(a) Portal circulation (b) Hepatic circulation
(c) Cardiac arrest (d) None

60. Double circulatory system means that blood

(a) Passes through two chamber (b) Passes two times through heart
(c) Both (d) None

61. The heart of a healthy man beats normally per minutes

(a) 50-60 times (b) 70-80 times (c) 90-100 times (d) None

62. The smallest blood vessel in the body is

(a) Capillary (b) Artery (c) Vein (d) Vena cava

63. Membrane surrounding the heart is

(a) Peritoneum (b) Visceral membrane
(c) Pericardium (d) None

64. Which has the thickest walls

(a) Right auricle (b) Left auricle (c) Right ventricles (d) Left ventricle

65. Three chambered heart is found in

(a) Fish (b) Frog (c) Rabbit (d) Man

66. Blood supply to heart muscles is Vis

(a) Cardiac artery (b) Coronary artery (c) Aorta (d) Pulmonary vein

67. Normal Cardiac output is

(a) 15 litres/min (b) 5 litres 72 min (c) 5 litres/min (d) 5/72 litres/min

68. Which of the following is value less

(a) Arteries (b) Veins (c) Lymphatics (d) Chambers in Heart

69. Iron in Hb is in
(a) Ferric form (b) Ferrous form (c) Both (d) Free

70. Impulse for heart contraction is generated in

(a) S. A. node (b) A. V. node (c) Bundle of HIS (d) Purkinje fibre

71. Circulation in Human is

(a) Single & open (b) Double & open (c) Double & close (d) Single & closed
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72. 1st Heart sound is due to
(a) Closure of Semilunar value
(b) Closure of pulmonary & aortic valve
(c) Vibration just after closure of mitral & tricuspid valve
(d) Vibration after closure of pulmonary & aortic values

73. 1st Heart sound is due as

(a) “LUBB” at end of systole
(b) “DUBB” at end of systole
(c) “LUBB” at beginning of ventricular systole
(d) “DUBB” at beginning of ventricular systole

74. Which of the following carries deoxygenated blood only

(a) Carotid artery (b) Pulmonary artery (c) Pulmonary vein (d) Aorta

75. Which vessel carries most oxygenated blood

(a) Pulmonary artery (b) Pulmonary vein (c) Coronary artery (d) Cerebral artert

76. Pulse pressure is

(a) Systolic (b) Diastolic (c) Difference of these (d) Sum of these

77. Wall of blood capillary is

(a) Single layered
(b) Multilayered
(c) Multilayered but differentiated into 3 coats
(d) Nonceliular

78. Wall of blood capillary is made of

(a) Parietal cells (b) Muscle cells (c) Transitional cells (d) Endothelial cells

79. The sound of lubb is produced during closure of

(a) Bicuspid value (b) Tricuspid value (c) Semilunar valves (d) Both a and b

80. The largest and the thickest heart chamber is

(a) Left ventricle (b) Left atrium (c) Right atrium (d) Right ventricle

81. Right atrioventricular apeature is guarded by

(a) Tricuspid value (b) Semilunar values (c) Mitral value (d) Bicuspid value

82. Pace marker is

(a) Instrument for measuring heart beat
(b) Instrument for measuring pulse rate
(c) Auriculo-ventricular node that provides impulse for heart beat
(d) Sinu-auricular node that provides impulse for heart beat

83. Valves present between right auricle and right ventricle is

(a) Mitral valve (b) Tricuspid valve (c) Bicuspid valve (d) Semilunar valve

84. Tricupsid valve is found in between

(a) Sinus venous and right auricle (b) Right auricle and right ventricle
(c) Left ventricle and left auricle (d) Ventricle and aorta

85. Dup sound is produced during closure of

(a) Semilunar values (b) Bicuspid value (c) Tricuspid value (d) Both b and c

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86. Closed circulatory system occurs in
(a) Cockroach (b) Tadpole/fish (c) Mosquito (d) Housefly

87. Pace marker of heart is

(a) AV node (b) Boundle of His (c) SA node (d) Purkinje fibres

88. Origin by heart beat and its conduction is represented by

(a) Av node Bundle of His SA node Purkinje fibers
(b) SA node Purkinje fibers AV node Bundle of His
(c) Purkinje fibres AV node AV node Bundle of His
(d) SA node AV node Bundle of His Purkinje fibres

89. The hormone that stimulates heart beat is

(a) Insulin (b) Adrenaline (c) Glucagon (d) Gastrin

90. Typical “lubb-dup” sound heard in heart beat are due to

(a) Closing of bicuspid and tricuspid valves
(b) Closing of semilunar valves
(c) Blood under pressure through aorta
(d) Closure of bicuspid-tricuspid valves followed by semilunar valves

91. Neurogenic heart is characteristic of

(a) Human (b) Lower in vertebrates (c) Rat (d) Rabbit

92. Lymph
(a) Transports O2 to brain (b) Transports CO2 to lungs
(c) Returns interstitial fluid to blood (d) Returns RBCs and WBCs to lymph nodes

93. Largest heart is of

(a) Giraffe (b) Elephant (c) Crocodile (d) Lion

94. Cardiac output is blood

(a) Received by heart per minute (b) Pumped by ventricles per sec
(c) Pumped by left ventricle per minute (d) Pumped by left ventricle per hous

95. Pericardial fluid is secreted by

(a) Myocardium (b) Perietal peritoneum
(c) Visceral peritoneum (d) Pericardium

96. Which one generates heart beat?

(a) Purkinje fibres (b) Cardiac branch of vagus nerve
(c) SA node (d) AV node

97. Glucose is carried from digestive tract to liver by

(a) Hepatic artery (b) Hepatic portal vein (c) Pulmonary vein (d) None of the above

98. During high blood pressure, regulations of heart beat and circulation are controlled by
(a) Vasodilator and vascostrictor centres
(b) Cardio-stimulatory and vasoconstrictor centres
(c) Cardio-inhibitory and vasoconstrictor centres
(d) Cardio-inhibitory and vasodilator centers

99. Pulmonary artery, differs from pulmonary vein in having

(a) Thick wall (b) Thin wall (c) Valves (d) Both b and c
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100. Blood vessel which brings oxygenated blood to left auricle is
(a) Precaval vein (b) Post caval vein (c) Fulmonary vein (d) Pulmonary artery

101. Blood pressure is measured by

(a) Sphygmonanometer (b) Phonocardiogram
(c) Electrocardiogram (d) Stethoscope

102. Heart beat is infiltrated by

(a) AV node (b) SA node (c) Bundle of His (d) Purkinje fibres

103. Match the columns

Column I Column II
A. Bicuspid valve p. Brain
B. Nephron q. Liver
C. Alveoli r. Heart
D. Cerebrum s. Kidney
t. Lungs
(a) A-s, B-r, C-p, D-t (b) A-r, B-t, C-s, D-p
(c) A-r, B-s, C-t, D-p (d) A-s, B-q, C-p, D-t

104. The value of diastolic blood pressure is

(a) 120 mm Hg (b) 80 mm Hg (c) 120/80 mg Hg (d) 40 mg Hg

105. Normal pulse pressure is

(a) 80 mm Hg (b) 120 mm Hg (c) 40 mm Hg (d) 320 mm Hg

106. Ventricular contraction in command of

(a) S.A. node (b) A.V. node (c) Purkinje fibers (d) Papillary muscles

107. The cardiac impulse that results into the heart beat is delayed at
(a) Intermodal tract (b) AV node (c) Bundle of His (d) Purkinje fibres

108. The heart keeps on beating throughout the life without fatigue because
(a) In contracts slowly
(b) It has a resting or recovery period
(c) It can use lactic acid as an extra source of energy
(d) None of the above

109. 72 beat per minute heart beat rate of man is controlled by

(a) SA node (b) Veptricles (c) Purkinje fibers (d) AV node

110. Cardiac muscles contract

(a) Quickly and they fatigue (b) Quickly and unfatigued
(c) Slowly and are not fatigued (d) Slowly and thy fatigue

111. ECG is a measure of

(a) Rate of heart beat (b) Difference in electric potential of heart
(c) Volume of blood pumped (d) Ventricular contraction

112. Heart of elephant is

(a) Neurogenic (b) Myogenic (c) Loop of Henle (d) Bowman’s capsule

113. Blood leaving liver and moving to heart will have more concentration of
(a) Bile (b) Urea (c) Glycogen (d) Amino acid

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114. Maximum surface area of circulating system is seen in
(a) Heart (b) Capillaries (c) Arterioles (d) Veins

115. “Bundle of His” is group of

(a) Nerve fibres (b) Ganglia (c) Connective tissue (d) Muscle fibres

116. Cardiac muscle fibres are differ from skeletal muscles because these are
(a) Striated involuntary (b) Non-striated voluntary
(c) Non striated involuntary (d) Antagonistic

117. All arteries carry oxygenated blood except

(a) Hepatic artery (b) Renal artery (c) Pulmonary artery (d) Cardiac artery

118. “Nucleated RBC” is found in

(a) Man (b) Rat (c) Rabbit (d) Frog

119. In which of the following animals Hb is found dissolved in plasma

(a) Planaria (b) Cockroach (c) Sepia (d) Earthworm

120. Which one is correct

(a) Blood = Plasma + RBC+ WBC + Blood platelets
(b) Plasma = Blood – Lymphocytes
(c) Lymph = plasma + RBC + WBC
(d) All of these

121. The largest RBC’s have been seen in

(a) Elephant (b) Whale (c) Amphibia (d) Man

122. Coronary heart disease is due to

(a) Streptococci bacteria (b) Inflammation of pericardium
(c) Both a and b (d) Insufficient blood supply to the heart muscles

123. Mature RBC contain enzyme

(a) Carbonic anhydrase (b) Thrombin (c) Fibrinogen (d) Haemoglobin

124. The opening of right auricle into the right ventricle is guarded by
(a) Mitral valve (b) Pulmonary semilunar valve
(c) Aortic semilunar valve (d) Tricuspid valve

125. The heart beat of which animal is myogenic in nature

(a) Cockroach (b) Leech (c) Elephant (d) All of these

126. A heart murmur indicated a defective

(a) Bundle of His (b) Hear valves (c) Sinuauricular node (d) Atrioventricular node

127. Hepatic portal system starts from

(a) Digestive system to liver (b) Kidney to liver
(c) Liver to heart (d) Liver to kidney

128. Purkinje fibers are found in

(a) Brain (b) Kidney (c) Skin (d) Heart

129. Cardiac output is determined by

(a) Heart rate (b) Stroke volume (c) Blood flow (d) Both a and b

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130. Which one indicates the hypertension?
(a) 90/60 (b) 120/85 (c) 110/70 (d) 140/100

131. Open type of vascular system is predominant in

(a) Fishes (b) Arthropods (c) Amphibians (d) Eathworm

QUESTIONS ASKED IN PREVIOUS EXAMS

132. What is required to form a blood clot?

I. Platelets
II. Clotting factors
III. Antibodies
IV. Fibrinogen
(a) I and II only (b) I, II and III only (c) I, II and IV only (d) I, II, III and IV

133. If a red blood cell has a diameter of 8  um and a student shows it with a diameter of 40mm in a
drawing what is the magnification of the drawing
(a) 0.0002 (b) 0.2 (c) 5 (d) 5000

134. Which is the correct sequence of blood flow in normal human circulation?
(a) Pulmonary vein right atrium aorta vena cava
(b) Vena cava pulmonary vein aorta right atrium
(c) Vena cava right atrium pulmonary vein aorta
(d) Pulmonary vein vena cava aorta right atrium

135. Human blood pressure (B.P.) is represented by what is called “Pressure picture”. In a normal human
being, the pressure picture is 120/80/40 where 120 represents systolic pressure, 80 represents
diastolic pressure and 40 represents the pulse pressure which is the resultant difference in the two
pressure. In one of the patients, the pressure picture was found to be 140/110/30 suggesting that there
has been
(a) An increase in the resistance from arteries
(b) A decrease in the resistance from arteries
(c) An increase in the resistance from veins
(d) A decrease in the resistance from veins

136. Human heart consisting of auricles and ventricles and muscular values is an interesting functional
system. The valve regulation the flow of impure blood from the right ventricle to the pulmonary
artery is a
(a) Tricuspid valve (b) Semilunar valve (c) Aortic valve (d) Bicuspid valve

137. Sumit went to a fair with his friends, Amit and Rohit. Rohit and Amit were scared to sit on a merry
go round and preferred to strollaround. Sumit was very excited when he came down from the merry
go round. How will this change the pH of his blood?
(a) Increase (b) Decreases (c) No change in pH (d) pH level gets adjusted at 7

138. A heart is said to be myogenic when it has pacemarker

(a) Originating in motor nerves present in the heart muscles
(b) Originating in motor nerves present near the heart
(c) Made up of specialized muscle tissues and located in the heart itself
(d) Made up of specialized muscle tissues and located near the heart
139. The human blood pigment haemoglobin has maximum affinity towards
(a) NH3 (b) CO (c) CO2 (d) O2

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140. Thebecian valve is present
(a) It between left atrium and left ventricle (b) In between right atrium and right ventricle
(c) In the middle part of right atrium (d) At the base of inferior vena cava

ANSWER KEY

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (a) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (c)

21. (a) 22. (b) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (a) 29. (a) 30. (d)

31. (b) 32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (a) 37. (b) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (a)

41. (b) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (d) 46. (b) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (a) 50. (b)

51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (d) 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (d) 59. (a) 60. (b)
61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (d) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (c) 68. (a) 69. (b) 70. (a)

71. (c) 72. (c) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (b) 76. (c) 77. (a) 78. (d) 79. (d) 80. (a)
81. (a) 82. (d) 83. (b) 84. (b) 85. (a) 86. (b) 87. (c) 88. (d) 89. (b) 90. (d)
91. (b) 92. (c) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95. (d) 96. (c) 97. (b) 98. (d) 99. (a) 100. (c)
101. (a) 102. (b) 103. (c) 104. (b) 105. (c) 106. (a) 107. (b) 108. (b) 109. (a) 110. (b)
111. (b) 112. (b) 113. (b) 114. (b) 115. (d) 116. (a) 117. (c) 118. (d) 119. (d) 120. (a)
121. (c) 122. (d) 123. (a) 124. (d) 125. (c) 126. (b) 127. (a) 128. (d) 129. (d) 130.(d)
131. (b) 132. (c) 133. (d) 134. (c) 135. (d) 136. (b) 137. (c) 138. (c) 139. (b) 140. (d)

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 ANIMAL PHYSIOLOGY- EXCRECTION
1. Workers in deep mines usually suffer from dehydration because
(a) Water is lost due to evaporation
(b) Water is lost due to defecation
(c) Water is lost in the form of urines
(d) Water is lost along with salts in the form of sweat

2. Loops of Henle occurs in

(a) Cortex (b) Medulla (c) Pelvis (d) Ureter

3. Excretion is
(a) Removal of substances not required by body
(b) Removal of metabolic waste
(c) Formation of substances having some role in body
(d) All the above

4. In mammals the urinary bladder opens into

(a) Uterus (b) Urethra (c) Vestibule (d) Ureter

5. Excretory product of mammals is

(a) Salts (b) Glucose (c) Urea (d) Ammonia

6. Malpighian corpuscles occur in

(a) Medulla (b) Cortex (c) Pelvis (d) Pyramid

7. Part not belonging to uriniferous tubule is

(a) Glomerulus (b) Henle’s loop
(c) Distal convoluted tuble (d) Collecting duct

8. Henle’s loop is found in

(a) Lungs (b) Heart (c) Kidney (d) Liver

9. Uriniferous tubules occur in

(a) Stomach (b) Testes (c) Ovary (d) Kidney

10. The two kidneys lie in man

(a) At the level of ovaries
(b) At the same level
(c) Left kidney at a higher level than the right one
(d) Right kidney at a higher level than the left one

11. Functional & structural unit of kidney is

(a) Nephron (b) Seminiferous tubule
(c) Acini (d) None

12. Nephron is also known as

(a) Juxta glomerular tubule (b) Seminiferous tubule
(c) Uriniferous tubule (d) All

13. Nephron is made up of

(a) Malpighian body (b) Colled tubule (c) Both (d) None

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14. Which is false
(a) Nephron-Excretion (b) Alveoli-Respiration
(c) Kidney-osmoregulation (d) Renin-Zymogen

15. Which of the following is the part of kidney?

(a) Cortex (b) Medulla (c) Pelvis (d) All of the above

16. Inner wall of urinary bladder is composed of

(a) Unnstriped muscles (b) Striped muscles
(c) Stratified epithelium (d) Transitional epithelium

17. Bile pigments are formed in

(a) Liver (b) Spleen (c) Every body cells (d) a and b both

18. Excretory material are formed in

(a) Kidney (b) Rectum (c) Anus (d) Every body cell

19. What is the cause that right kidney is at slightly lower level than the left kidney in human being
(a) Due to improper ascentment of kidney during embryonic life.
(b) Presence of liver in right side therefore kidney does not ascends properly in I.UL.
(c) Presence of colon in right side during I.U.L
(d) None of these

20. In cortex area of kidney all structure are found except

(a) Bowman capsule (b) D.C.T
(c) Majority of collecting duct (d) Malphigian body

21. Which pair is correct

(a) Sweat = temperature regulation (b) Saliva = Sense of food taste
(c) Sebum = Sexual attraction (d) Humerus = Hind leg

22. In rabbit and humans, the kidney is

(a) Metanephric (b) Mesonephric (c) Pronephric (d) Opisthonephric

23. Brush border is characteristic of

(a) Neck of nephron (b) Collecting tube
(c) Proximal convoluted tube (d) All the above

24. Vasa rectae are tubular capillaries around

(a) Posterior part of alimentary canal (b) PCT
(c) Loop of Henle (d) DCT

25. Diameter of the renal afferent vessel is

(a) Same as that of efferent (b) Smaller than that of efferent
(c) Larger than that of efferent (d) There is no efferent vessel

26. The afferent and efferent vessels are

(a) Arterial in nature (b) Venous in nature
(c) One is arterial and the other is venous (d) None of the above

27. Bowman’s capsule is lined by

(a) Ciliated cuboidal epithelium (b) Squamous epithelium
(c) Nonciliated cuboidal epithelium (d) Non ciliated columnar epithelium

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28. Loop of Henel is found in
(a) Pronephric kidney (b) Meta nephric kidney
(c) Both (d) None

29. Incomplete loop of Henle is found in

(a) Human (b) All mammals (c) Bird (d) All of these

30. Mammals are characterised by

(a) Metanephric kidney with loop of Henle
(b) Mesonephric kidney with out Henle loop
(c) Metanephric kidney with out Henle loop
(d) Proanephric without Henle loop

31. Prodocyte are present in

(a) Afferent arteriole (b) Efferent arteriole (c) Peritubular network (d) Bowman’s cup

32. Kidney is
(a) Ectodermal (b) Mesodermal (c) Endodermal (d) None

33. Which type of kidneys are found in amphibian

(a) Holonephric (b) Mesonephric (c) Pronephric (d) Meta nephric

34. Difference between glomerular filtrate and plasma is of

(a) Proteins
(b) Potassium
(c) First is white where as later is yellow
(d) First is yellow whereas later is white

35. Excretory products of mammalian embryo are eliminated by

(a) Placenta (b) Amniotic fluid (c) Allantosis (d) Ureters

36. A condition of failure of kidney to from urine is called

(a) Creatinine (b) Hematuria (c) Anuria (d) Ketonuria

37. Effective filtration pressure in the glomerulus in kidney of man is about

(a) +75 mm Hg (b) +20 mm Hg (c) +35 mm Hg (d) +50 mmHg

38. The filtrate from the glomerulus contains

(a) Urea and uric acid (b) Urea, uric acid and ammonia
(c) Urea, uric acid ammonia and water (d) Urea, uric acid glucose and water

39. Nitrogenous waste products are eliminated mainly as

(a) Urea in tadpole & ammonia in adult frog (b) Ammonia in tadpole and urea in adult frog
(c) Urea in both tadpole & adult frog (d) Urea in tadpole and uric acid in adult frog

40. Presence of RBC in urine is called

(a) Anuria (b) Haematuria (c) Glycosuria (d) Ketonuria

41. A person who is not taking food or beverages will have in urine
(a) Little glucose (b) Less urea (c) Excess urea (d) Little fat

42. Omithine cycle is related to

(a) Respiration (b) Excretion (c) Digestion (d) Nutrition

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43. Ammonia is excretory material in
(a) Cartilaginous fishes (b) Fresh water fishes
(c) Whale (d) Camel

44. Animals which excrete large amount of ammonia are

(a) Terrestrial (b) Amphibians (c) Egg laying (d) Aquatic

45. Ureotelic animals are those in which the main nitrogenous waste product is
(a) Amino acids (b) Urea (c) Uric acid (d) Ammonia

46. Urine of a human being suffering from diabities inspidus is

(a) Tasteless and thick (b) Sweet and thick
(c) Tasteless and watery (d) Sweet and watery

47. Blood fraction remaining unchanged after circulation through kidney is

(a) Urea and uric acid (b) Urea and proteins
(c) Urea and glucose (d)Glucose and proteins

48. Which one is uricotelic

(a) Frog and loads (b) Lizards and birds
(c) Cattle monkey and man (d) Molluscs and telcost fishes

49. Which one is the most coluble in water

(a) Uric acid (b) Ammonia (c) Fatty acids (d) Casein

50. What will happen if one kidney is removed from the body of a human being
(a) Heath due to poisoning
(b) Uremia and death
(c) Stoppage of urination
(d) Nothing the person will survive and remain normal and kidney will become hypertrophied

51. Occurrence of excess urea in blood is due to kidney failure is

(a) Urochrome (b) Ureamia (c) Uricotelism (d) Ureotelism

52. In kidney glomerulus is involved in

(a) Reabsorption of salts (b) Urine collection
(c) Urine formation by blood filtration (d) All the above

53. Glomerular filtrate contains glucose in comparison to plasma

(a) More (b) Same (c) Less (d) Nill

54. If kidneys fail to reabsorbed water the effect on tissue would

(a) Remain unaffected (b) Shrink and shrivel
(c) Absorb water from blood plasma (d) Take more O2 from blood

55. Reabsorption of chloride ions from glomerule filtrate in kidney tubule occurs by
(a) Active transport (b) Diffusion (c) Osmosis (d) Brownian movement

56. Main functions of kidney is

(a) Passive adsorption (b) Ultrafiltration
(c) Selective reabsorption (d) Both b and c

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57. Urea is formed in liver from
(a) Ammonia and nitrogen (b) Ammonia and carbon dioxide
(c) Ammonia carbon dioxide and aspartic acid (d) Ammonia and carbon monoxide

58. Micturition is
(a) Removal of urea from blood (b) Removal of uric acid
(c) Passing out urine (d) Removal of faces

59. One is increased in blood of a person whose kidney is not working property
(a) Urea (b) Ammonia (c) Sodium chloride (d) None

60. Excretion in the from of uric acid and urates in birds is helpful in
(a) Conserving body heat (b) Eliminating excess water
(c) Conserving body water (d) Eliminating body water

61. One of the following is impermeable to H2O normally

(a) PCT (b) DCT (c) Descending limb (d) All

62. Which one is not the function of kidney

(a) Osmoregulation (b) Salt retention (c) Excretion (d) Synthesis of urea

63. Which one of following is the simplest excretory organs

(a) Alveoli (b) Flame cells (c) Nephridia (d) Kidney

64. NH3 is
(a) Less toxic (b) Toxic (c) Highly toxic (d) None

65. Which of the following is completely absorbed in P.C. T.

(a) Water (b) Salt (c) Na+ (d) Glucose

66. Glomerulus filterate at the base of Henle’s loop is

(a) Isotonic (b) Hypotonic (c) Hypertonic (d) Insoluble

67. Which vitamin is excreted out in high quantity through urine in man?
(a) Vitamin C (b) Vitamin B (c) Vitamin E (d) Vitamin K

68. Which is absent in Glomerular filtrate

(a) Blood corpuscles (b) Fats (c) Proteins (d) All

69. Which part of nephron is effected by aldosterone

(a) P. C. T (b) Late part of C. T (c) D. C. T (d) Duct of bellini

70. Drugs & Toxin are mainly excreted by which process

(a) Ultra filtration (b) Digestion in the form of excreta
(c) Tubular secretion (d) Diffusion

71. Concentration of urine depends upon which organ

(a) Bowman’s capsule (b) Length of Henle’s loop
(c) P.C.T (d) Network of capillaries arising from glomerulus

72. The movement of Ions against the concentration gradient will be

(a) Active transport (b) Osmosis (c) Diffusion (d) All

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73. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron, which of the following is to be expected
(a) There will be no urine formation
(b) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
(c) The urine will be more concentrated
(d) The urine will be more dilute

74. Correct order of excretory organs in Cockroach, Earthworm and Rabbit respectively
(a) Skin, Malpighi tubules, kidney
(b) Malpighian tubules, nephridia, kidney
(c) Nephridia, malplghi tubules kidney
(d) Nephridia, kidney, green gland

75. Which one of the following body functions is not performed by kidneys
(a) Excretion (b) Osmoregulation
(c) Regulation of blood volume (d) Destruction of dead blood corpuscles

76. Which of the following is excreted in mammals in the form of nitrogen

(a) Ammonium ion (b) Ammonia (c) Uric acid (d) Urea

77. Which one of the following blood vessel in mammals contains least amount of urea
(a) Hepatic portal vein (b) Hepatic vein
(c) Dorsal aorta (d) Renal vein

78. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is surviving only on water, will have
(a) Less urea in his urine (b) More sodium in his urine
(c) Less amino acids in his urine (d) More glucose in his blood

79. The appearance of albumin in the urine is most likely due to

(a) Increase in the blood pressure
(b) Decrease in the blood osmotic pressure
(c) Damage to the Malpighian corpuscles
(d) Damage to the proximal convoluted tubules

80. The yellow colour of urine of the vertebrates is due to

(a) Cholesterol (b) Urochrome (c) Uric acid (d) Melanin

81. Which one of the four parts mentioned below does not constitute a part of a single unniferous tubule
(a) Bowman’s capsule (b) Distal convoluted tubule
(c) Loop of Henle (d) Collecting duct

82. Diuresis is a specific pathological condition which leads to

(a) Increased volume of urine excretion (b) Decreased volume of urine excretion
(c) Increased glucose excretion (d) Decreased electrolyte concentration

83. Which one of the following pair of waste substances is removed from blood in ornithine cycle
(a) CO2 and urea (b) Ammonia and urea
(c) CO2 and ammonia (d) Urea and sodium salt

84. Maximum absorption of water in mammals is in

(a) Lung (b) Skin (c) Kidneys (d) Small intestine

85. The term haematurla is used to describe

(a) Internal bleeding (b) Blood in urine (c) Blood cancer (d) Blood poisoning

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86. Match the following
‘A’ ‘B’
A. Loop of Henle 1. Carries blood to the kidney
B. Rental artery 2. Area where a considerable amount of reabsorption
takes place
C. Proximal convoluted tubule 3. Main area of secretion
D. Glomerulus 4. Filtration of blood
E. Distal convoluted 5. Flays a role in concentration of urine
The correct pairing sequence is
(a) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 5, 1, 2, 3, 4 (c) 1, 5, 3, 4, 2 (d) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4

87. If Henle’s loop were absent from mammalian nephron. Which of the following is to be expected
(a) The urine will be more in volume
(b) There will be no urine formation
(c) There will be hardly any change in the quality and quantity of urine formed
(d) The urine will be more concentrated

88. The hormone secreted by kidney is

(a) Gastrin (b) Secretin (c) Erythropoietin (d) Aldosterone

89. Fresh water bony fishes maintain water balance by

(a) Excreting a hypotonic urine (b) Excreting salt across their gills
(c) Drinking small amount of water (d) Excreting wastes in the form of uric acid

90. Which is mismatched

(a) Bowman’s capsule – Glomerular filteration
(b) PCT – Absorption of Na+ and K+
(c) DCT – Absorption of glucose
(d) None of these

91. Haemodialysis helps in the patient having

(a) Uremia (b) Anaemia (c) Diabetes (d) Goitre

92. If ADH level of blood is less

(a) Volume of urine increases (b) Volume of urine decreases
(c) Volume of urine is normal (d) Volume of urine is unaffected

93. Human urine as compared to human blood is normally

(a) Hypotonic (b) Hypertonic (c) Isotonic (d) All of these

94. Main function of glomerulus is

(a) Filtration of blood (b) Reabsorption of H2O
(c) Reabsorption of Na+ (d) Concentration of urine

95. Kidney of frog is

(a) Pronephric (b) Mesonephric (c) Metanephric (d) None of these

96. Which of the following is concerned with the formation of urea in rabbit
(a) Blood (b) Kidney (c) Spleen (d) Liver

97. Absorption of H2O in DCT is controlled by

(a) ADH (b) ACTH (c) LH (d) Oxytocin

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98. Glomerular filtrate is
(a) Blood minus blood corpuscles and plasma protein
(b) Blood minus corpuscles
(c) Mixture of water, ammonia and corpuscles
(d) Urine

99. A condition in which body’s internal environment remains relatively constant within limits is called
(a) Homeostasis (b) Hemostasis (c) Hematoma (d) Haemopoiesis

100. The most abundant harmful and universal waste product of metabolism is
(a) CO2 (b) Uric acid (c) H2O (d) C2H5OH

101. ADH acts on the

(a) Collecting tubule of kidney (b) Loop of Henle
(c) Collecting ducts of testes (d) None of the above

102. Absorption of Na+ and K+ ions does not occur in

(a) Bowman’s capsule (b) Loop of henle
(c) Distal convoluted tubule (d) Proximal convoluted tubule

103. Liquid which collects in the cavity of Bowman’s capsule is

(a) Blood plasma minus blood proteins
(b) Glycogen and water
(c) Urea, glycogen and water
(d) Urea

104. Urea synthesis takes place in

(a) Urinary bladder (b) Alimentary canal (c) Liver (d) Kidney

105. Mammalian kidney resemble contractile vacuole of Amoeba in excretion of

(a) Glucose (b) Excess water (c) Urea (d) Ammonia

106. Renin is released from

(a) Juxta glomerular apparatus (b) Cortical nephron
(c) Collecting duct (d) Pelvis

107. Loop of Henle is primarily meant for absorption of

(a) Potassium (b) Glucose (c) Urea (d) Water

108. Which of the following is metabolic waste of protein metabolism

(a) NH3, urea and CO2 (b) Urea, oxygen and N2
(c) Urea, ammonia and alanine (d) Urea, ammonia and creatinine

109. Blood vessel leading into Bowman’s capsule are called

(a) Renal vein (b) Renal artery (c) Efferent arteriole (d) Afferent arteriole

110. Urea formation takes place through

(a) Nitrogen cycle (b) Omithne cycle (c) Cori cycle (d) Kreb’s cycle

QUESTIONS ASKED IN PREVIOUS EXAMS

111. Where in the kidney does ultra filtration take place?

(a) Glomerulus (b) Loop of Henle (c) Proximal tubule (d) Collecting ducts

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112. Humans are called ureotelic animals as they execrate nitrogen primarily in the form of urea.
However, urine of a healithy human being also contains traces of unc acid. The source of this waste
product is
(a) Metabolism of DNA and RNA (b) Lipid metabolism
(c) Carbohydrate metabolism (d) Protein metabolism

113. Which of the following part of Nephron is situated in the cortex of kidney?
(a) Malpighian corpuscles (b) PCT
(c) DCT (D) All the above

114. Kidney stone is formed of

(a) Cholesterol (b) Calcium oxalate (c) Uric acid (d) MgPO4

115. Which of the following condition is highly harmful and may lead to kidney failure?
(a) Pyurea (b) Ketonuria (c) Uremla (d) Polyurea

ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (c)

21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (c) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (b) 28. (b) 29. (c) 30. (a)

31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (a) 35. (a) 36. (c) 37. (b) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (b)

41. (b) 42. (b) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (d)

51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (d) 54. (b) 55. (b) 56. (d) 57. (c) 58. (c) 59. (a) 60. (c)

61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (b) 64. (c) 65. (d) 66. (c) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (c)

71. (b) 72. (a) 73. (d) 74. (b) 75. (d) 76. (d) 77. (d) 78. (a) 79. (c) 80. (b)
81. (d) 82. (a) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (b) 86. (a) 87. (a) 88. (c) 89. (a) 90. (c)
91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (b) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (d) 97. (a) 98. (a) 99. (a) 100. (a)
101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (a) 104. (c) 105. (b) 106. (a) 107. (d) 108. (a) 109. (d) 110. (b)
111. (a) 112. (a) 113. (d) 114. (b) 115. (c)

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 ANIMAL PHYSIOLOGY- CONTROL & COORDINATION
EXERCISE

1. Nissl’s bodies found in neutrons are:

(a) Made of DNA (b) Masses of ribosomes and RER
(c) Help in formation and RER (d) Masses of mitochondria

2. Chemical transmission of nerve impulses from one neuron to another at a synapse is by:
(a) Cholestrol (b) Acetychloline (c) Cholecystokinin (d) ATF

3. “Nodes of Ranvelers” are found in:

(a) Brain (b) Heat (c) Axon (d) Eye

4. Afferent nerve fiber conducts impulse from:

(a) C.N.S. to effector (b) Receptor to C.N.S.
(c) Receptor to effector (d) Effector to receptor

5. Chemical substance which take part in synaptic transmission is:

(a) Adrenaline (b) Epinephrine (c) Colchicine (d) Acetylcholine

6. Nissl’s granules in which part and what is their function:

(a) Neurons and help in formation of neurotransmitter
(b) Blood and help in nutrition and excretion
(c) Sarcoplasm and help in contraction
(d) Cell and secrete mucous

7. When a nerve fibers is stimulated the inside of the membrane becomes

(a) Filled with acetylcholine (b) Negatively charged
(c) Positively charged (d) Neutral

8. The parts of the neurons that perform basic cellular functions such as protein synthesis etc:
(a) Axons (b) Dendrites (c) Synaptic knobs (d) Soma

9. The nerves leading to the central system are called:

(a) Afferent (b) Efferent (c) Motor (d) None

10. “Jumping of the action potential” at the nodes of ranvier is knows as:
(a) Saltatory conduction (b) Neuro transmission
(c) Recovery phase (d) Active phase

11. Nerve impulses are initiated by nerve fibers only when the membrane shall become more permeable
to:
(a) Adrenaline (b) Phosphorus (c) Sodium ions (d) Potassium ions

12. Power of regeneration is lowest in:

(a) Brain cell (b) Liver cell (c) Bone cell (d) Muscle cell

13. Unit of nervous ststem:

(a) Neuron (b) Neuroglia (c) Axon (d) Cyton

14. The functional connection between two neurons is called:

(a) Synapse (b) Synapsis (c) Chiasma (d) Chiasmata
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15. Conduction of nerve impulse is
(a) Faster in non-mylinated fibres
(b) Faster in myelinated fibres
(c) No difference in the rate of conduction in myelinated & non myelinated fibres
(d) None of the above

16. Enzyme acetyle is choline is concerned with:

(a) Digestion of protein (b) Synthesis of protein
(c) Digestion of polypeptide (d) Conduction of nerve impulse

17. Integrative system in the body are:

(a) Endocrine system (b) Nervous system
(c) Blood vascular system (d) Both (a) and (b)

18. The function of an axon is:

(a) Transformation of nerve impulse (b) Reception of stimuli from neurons
(c) Reception of external stimuli (d) Conduction of nerve impulse

19. Rapid integration of the functional activities in human is achieved by:

(a) Nervous system (b) Endocrine system (c) Blood (d) Muscular system

20. Which cell-organelle synthesises acetyl choline:

(a) Golgi complex (b) Ribosome (c) Mitochondria (d) Lysosome

21. When the axons membrane is positively charged outside and negatively charged in side, then the
condition is known as:
(a) Action potential (b) Resting potential (c) Active potential (d) Different potential

22. The rate at which a nerve impulse travels along a nerve fibers is dependent up on:
(a) Length of the nerve fibre (b) Diameter of the nerve fibre
(c) Presence of connective tissue.sheath (d) None of the above

23. Which cell-organelle absent in neurons:

(a) Mitochondris (b) Ribosome (c) Centrole (d) Nicleus

24. The main function of acetycholine is to:

(a) Increase heart beat
(b) Help in synaptic transmission of nerve impulse
(c) Help in conduction of nerve impulse through axon
(d) Control reflex action

25. Ions needed for nerve conduction:

(a) Na  (b) Mn (c) Mg (d) None

26. Depolarization of exolemma during nerve conduction takes place because of:
(a) Equal amount of Na  & K move out across axolema
(b) Na  move inside
(c) More Na  outside
(d) None

27. What is used to be described as Nisal granules in a nerve celi are now identified as:
(a) Cell metabolites (b) Fat granules (c) Ribosomes (d) Mitochondria

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28. Unidirectional transmission of a nerve impulse through nerve fibre is due to the fact that:
(a) Nerve fibre is insulated by a medullary sheath
(b) Sodium pump starts insulateroly the fact that
(c)
(d)

29. Nerve cells do not possess:

(a) Neurilemma (b) Sarcolemma (c) Dendrites (d) Axon

30. Myelin sheath covers which of the following

(a) Muscle fibre (b) Nerve fibre (c) Collagen fibre (d) Tendons

31. Denrites are associated with which system:

(a) Nervous system (b) Digestive system
(c) Muscular system (d) Blood vascular syste,

32. During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of the
plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?
(a) First positive, the negative and continue to be negative
(b) First negative, then negative and again back to be positive
(c) First positive, then negative and again back to negative
(d) First negative, then positive and again back to negative

33. Menings surrounding the brain of Human from outside to inside are:
(a) Duramater, arachnoid, piamater (b) Piameter, arachnoid, piameter
(c) Durameter, plamater, arachnold (d) Plamater, durameter, arachoid

34. Corpus callosum connects:

(a) Two cerebral hemisphere (b) Two optic lobes
(c) Two olfactory lobes (d) optic chlasina

35. Outer most covering of brain is called

(a) Choroid (b) Duramater (c) Piamater (d) Arachnoid

36. The membrane which cover the brain and the spinal cord is:
(a) White matter (b) Grey matter (c) peritonium (d) Menix

37. Cerebellum is concerned with:

(a) Co-ordination of muscular movement (b) Memory
(c) Vision (d) Reflex action

38. Piameter is
(a) Inner most meninge (b) Middle meninge
(c) Outer meninge (d) None

39. The box like bony structure which encloses the brain is called
(a) Cranium (b) Pericardium (c) Peritoneum (d) Periosteum

40. If pons is destroyed, then which activity of body is affected mostly?

(a) Respiration is not controlled property (b) Tanchycardia
(c) Die immediately (d) No much effect

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41. The function of cerebrospinal fluid surrounding CNS is to:
(a) Protect the brain from external jerks
(b) Provide nourishment and O2 to the brain
(c) Take away unwanted substance from the brain
(d) All of the above

42. Hypothalamus is situated on the:

(a) Upper lateral surface of diencephalon (b) Lower lateral surface of diencephalon
(c) Ventral side of optic lobes (d) Dorsal side of optic lobes

43. Epithalamus is situated on the:

(a) Roof of diencephalon (b) Lateral wall of diencephalon
(c) Dorsal side of optic lobes (d) Floor of diencephalon

44. Which of the following is not an organ of the central nervous system:
(a) Brain (b) Spinal cord (c) Meddula oblongata (d) Vagus

45. Which of the following is a richly vascular layer with lots of blood capipparies:
(a) Duramater (b) Piamater (c) Epidermis of skin (d) Both (a) & (b)

46. Which of the following is not a part of hind brain:

(a) Medulla oblongata (b) Thalamus
(c) Cerebellum (d) Pons

47. If the corpus callosum is removed in mammalian brain then what will be affected:
(a) Coordination of cerebrun (b) Involuntary activity of brain
(c) Coordination of Cerebellum (d) Behaviour and emotional disturbances

48. In which of the following speed of conduction is the fastest?

(a) a (b) b (c) c (d) a, b

Note: Diameter and length of all the three a, b, c are same.

49. Voluntary activities of body are controlled by:

(a) Diencephalon (b) Cerebrum (c) Crua cerebri (d) Cerebellum

50. Thermo regulatory center in human brain is

(a) Pituitary (b) Diencephalon (c) Hypothalamus (d) None

51. Number of cranial nerves in human:

(a) 12 (b) 24 (c) 11 (d) 29

52. Respiratory control in brain occurs in:

(a) Medulla oblongata (b) Cerebellum
(c) Hypothalmus (d) Pericardium
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53. Drinking of alcohol affects mostly:
(a) Cerebrum (b) Cerebellum (c) Medulla oblongata (d) Diencephalon

54. Which part of the brain regulates the body temperature, hunger and water balance:
(a) Hypothalamus (b) Infundibulum (c) Medulla oblongata (d) Pons varoli

55. Which of the following is responsible for control of reflex actions:

(a) Motor nerves (b) Sensory nerves
(c) Central nervous system (d) Sympathetic nervous system

56. If cerebral hemispheres of rabbit are removed, then it will:

(a) Die Immediately (b) Die after some time
(c) Behave normally (d) Stop feeding

57. Find out the correct sequence of a sample reflex are:

(a) Brain-spinal cord-nerves-effector
(b) Effector-spinal cord-brain-receptor
(c) Muscles-spinal cord-brain-receptor
(d) Receptor-sensory nerves-CNS-effector

58. Most of the involuntary action are controlled by:

(a) Medulla oblongata (b) Cerebrum
(c) Cerebellum (d) Diemcephalon

59. If cerebellum of man gets damaged, his movement become:

(a) Shaky & speech become defective
(b) Unbalanced, walk uncontrolled, defective speech & intention tremor
(c) Jerky & defective speech
(d) Jerky & walked uncontrolled

60. The “butter fly” like structure surrounding the central part of human’s spinal cord is called:
(a) Funiculus (b) Hom (c) White matter (d) Gray matter

61. Hearing is controlled by

(a) Cerebral hemisphere (b) Temporal lobes
(c) Cerebellum (d) Hypothalamus

62. When the medulla oblongata (M.O.) is compressed, that what happen?
(a) Immediately die (b) Die after few hrs.
(c) Live at 1 hrs & after it may die (d) No affect

63. Cerebral hemisphere is the centre of:

(a) Vomiting (b) Swallowing (c) Reflexes (d) Thinking

64. Which part of brain is supposed to be damaged id in accident, a person lost control of water balance,
hunger and body temp:
(a) Cerebellum (b) Hypothalamus
(c) Medula oblongata (d) Corpora quadrigemina

65. Which part of brain controls emotions like love, anger and pleasure:
(a) Medulla oblongata (b) Pons
(c) Cerebrum (d) Cerebellum

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66. Which statement is wrong about the function of brain:
(a) Hypothalamus mainly controls A.N.S
(b) Voluntary muscle activity is started by cerebellum
(c) Medulla oblongata regulates involuntary activity of our body
(d) Thalamus is responsible for crude sensation

67. All are the functions of Medulla oblongata except

(a) Regulate respiration (b) Regulate heart beats
(c) Vomiting reflex (d) Body balance

68. Column ‘I’ lists the parts of human brain and column ‘II’ lists the functions. Match the two columns
and identify the correct choice from those given:
Column I Column II
(A) Cerebrum (i) Controls the pituitary
(B) Cerebellum (ii) Controls vision and hearing
(C) Hypothalamus (iii)Controls the rate of heart beat
(D) Midbrain (iv) Maintains body posture

(a) A-v, B-iv, C-ii, D-i (b) A-iv, B-v, C-ii, D-i
(c) A-v, B-iv, C-i, D-ii (d) A-iv, B-v, C-i, D-ii

69. The pneumotaxic center of rabbit is located in:

(a) Brain (Pons) (b) Heart (c) Medulla (d) Lungs

70. Which has H-shaped gray matter?

(a) Cerebrum (b) Spinal cord (c) Cerebellum (d) Medulla oblongata

71. The nervous system is derived from

(a) Ectoderm (b) Endoderm
(c) Mesoderm (d) Ecto and Mesoderm

72. Function of nervous tissue is:

(a) Irritability or Excitability (b) Sensitivity
(c) Responsiveness (d) Contraction

73. Which of the following process occur only in animals:

(a) Hormonal control (b) Respiration (c) Nervous control (d) Nutrition

74. Which part of the brain is more developed in humans

(a) Medulla (b) Cerebellum (c) Cerebrum (d) Optic lobes

75. Effect of anesthetics on body

(a) Inhibits Na-K pump (b) Kills nerves
(c) Stop brain functions (d) Inactivates skin cells

76. Deficiency of oxygen affects mainly the:

(a) Brain (b) Skin (c) Kidney (d) Intestine

77. In which animal, nerve cell is present but brain is absent:

(a) Sponge Earthworm (b) Earthworm
(c) Cockroach (d) Hydra

78. Which of the following is dominant intracellular anion:

(a) Potassium (b) Chloride (c) Phosphate (d) Calcium

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79. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) Neither hormones control neural activity nor the neuron control endocrine activity
(b) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, but not vice versa
(c) Neurons regulate endocrine activity, but not vice versa
(d) Endocrine glands regulate neural activity, and nervous system regulates endocrine glands

80. Which of the following two systems are opposite in action to each other?
(a) Nervous – Sensory (b) Nervous – Endocrine
(c) Sensory – Endocrine (d) Parasympathetic – Sympathetic

81. Acetycholimesterase enzyme spilts acetycholine into:

(a) Acetone and choline (b) Acetic acid and choline
(c) Amino acid and choline (d) Aspartic acid and acetycholine

82. Which part of brain controls intellectual ability?

(a) Frontal lobe (b) Parietal lobe (c) Temporal lobe (d) Occipital lobe

83. Synaptic vesicles are found in

(a) Presynaptic neuron (b) Post synaptic neuron
(c) Synaptic cleft (d) None of these

84. In mammals the brain centre, which regulates body temperature is situated in:
(a) Cerebellum (b) Cerebral lobe (c) Medulle oblongata (d) Hypothalamus

85. Nissl’s granules are absent in:

(a) Axon (b) Cyton (c) Soma (d) Schwann cells

86. These processes occurs during repolarisation of nerve fibre:

(i) Open Na  Channel (ii) Closed Na  Chnnel
(iii)Closed K Channel (iv) Open K channel
(a) (ii) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (i) and (ii)

87. Reflex arc consist of:

(a) Motor nerve (b) Sensory nerve
(c) Both sensory and motor nerves (d) None of these

QUESTION ASKED IN PREVIOUS EXAMS:

88. Assume that there is a set of triples in which two of them are identical separated at birth and were
brought up by different families. After 25 years, the three individuals were traced and brought
together. The following data was recorded. Study the data carefully and infer which are the identical
twins.

Traits Person ‘A’ Person ‘B’ Person ‘C’

Height 190 cm 190 cm 180 cm
Weight 60 kg 65 kg 75 kg
Blood group O AB O
Measure of 135 140 125
intelligence
Skin colour White White Dark
(a) AB (b) AC (c) CB (d) BC

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89. Daily charges in the concentration of which hormone are represented by the graph
  arrow indicating the time of food consumption

(a) Thyroxin (b) Glucagon (c) Insulin (d) Cortisol

90. Suresh accidentally touched silencer of his wheeler while parking and withdrew his leg immediately.
Identify the correct order of the flow of message to the brain?
(a) Receptor CNS Motor neuron Effectors Receptors
(b) Sensory neuron CNS Motor neuron Effectors Receptors
(b) CNS Motor neuron Effectors Receptors Sensory neuron
(d) Effectors Receptors Sensory neuron Motor neuron

91. On a field trip in North America, students noticed that when threatened, Homed lizard (Genus:
phymosoma) squirt blood at the attachers. When the professor asked what could have been the
reason behind such behavior of Horned lizard, one student said that certain sensory receptor had fired
and triggered a neuronal reflex culminating in increasing the pressure in their sinus cavities until the
blood vessels in the comers of the eyes burst. Another student said that it was just an act no frighten
off the predator. Thus is can be said that,
(a) The first response is correct, while the second is incorrect
(b) Both explanations are reasonable and can be scientifically tested.
(c) The first response is biological, while the second is philosophical
(d) The first explanation is testable as a scientific hypothesis, while the second is not

92. The figure below gives the level of ovarian and gonadotropic hormone is a blood sample of a normal
healthy female of 35 years.

According to you, which phase of menstrual cycle was she undergoing at the time of blood test?
(a) Menstrual phase (b) Proliferative phase
(c) Ovulatory phase (d) Luteal or secretory phase

93. Which of the following (s) is/are correct statements

(s) with respect of motor neurons?
(i) They are multipolar
(ii) They are unipolar
(iii)They carry messages from CNS (Central Nervous System) to muscle fibres or glands.
(iv) They carry message from sensory receptors to CNS.
(a) (i) only (b) (ii) only (c) (i) and (iii) only (d) (i) and (iv) only

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94. If an axolotal larve of Mexican salamander is kept in iodine depleted water, then
(a) It will fail to metamorphose but become sexual mature.
(b) There will be no effect on its metamorphosis
(c) It will metamorphose but remain sexually immature
(d) It will fail to metamorphose and will remain sexually immature.

95. Alka was walking through a forest. A leech caught one of her kegs. It sucked blood and got detached
from Alka’s leg when it was full with blood. Find which of the following observation of the table in
column ‘A’ will be true in this case. Further from the options given below (1, 2, 3,4) find the correct
option which maches the suitable explanation (In column ‘B’) to your selected answer in column A.

Column A Column B
(i) Bleeding from Alka’s leg will stop 1. Leech produces only anticoagulant when it
immediately attached to human body.
(ii) Bleeding from Alka’s leg will stop 2. Leech produces anticoagulant as well as
immediaterly but she will feel acute pain anti-inflammatory substance (histamine
immediately after the leech detaches from like) when it attaches to human body.
her leg.
(iii) Alka will continue to bleed for some time 3. Leech plugs the blood vessel when it
with acute pain in her leg after the leech detaches from human body.
detaches from her leg.
(iv) Alka will continue to bleed for some times 4. Leech plugs the vessel and removes anti-
without any pain after the leech detaches inflammatory substances when it detaches
from her leg. from the human body.

(a) i-3 (b) ii-4 (c) iii-1 (d) iv-2

Answer key

1. (b) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (b) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (d) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (c)

21. (b) 22. (b) 23. (c) 24. (b) 25. (a) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (b)

31. (a) 32. (d) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (a) 40. (d)

41. (d) 42. (b) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (b) 47. (a) 48. (c) 49. (b) 50. (c)
51. (b) 52. (a) 53. (b) 54. (a) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (d) 58. (a) 59. (b) 60. (d)

61. (b) 62. (a) 63. (d) 64. (b) 65. (b) 66. (b) 67. (d) 68. (d) 69. (a) 70. (b)

71. (a) 72. (a) 73. (c) 74. (c) 75. (a) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (c) 79. (d) 80. (d)
81. (b) 82. (a) 83. (a) 84. (d) 85. (a) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (b) 89. (c) 90. (a)
91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (d)

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 REPRODUCTION IN LIVING ORGANISMS
REPRODUCTION
 Creation of new living things from the existing living things of the same species is known as
reproduction which is essential for the survival of a species or for the continuity of life.
 DNA (blue print of life) stores all the information about the body design, building and running of the
cellular machinery and functioning of the individuals.
 Simply coping DNA is not enough to maintain continuity of life. An organized cellular structure (with
genetic material) is required to maintaining life processes. The process of DNA coping leads to
variation. This inbuilt tendency for variation during reproduction is the basis for evolution.
 Variation beneficial to the species but not necessarily for the individual.
 Niche is the part of habitat specified by operational requirements of a population.

Significance of reproduction
 For maintenance of continuity of a species
 For adding variation for evolution
 For maintenance of population size

TYPES OF REPRODUCTION
There are two types of reproduction in living organisms:
1. Asexual reproduction 2. Sexual reproduction
1. Asexual reproduction: In asexual reproduction, only one parent involved
(i) Fission
 Binary fission: The splitting of an organism into two, e.g. Amoeba and Leishmania (cause kala-azar
and have single flagella at one end of the cell).


Irregular Binary Fission in Amoeba

 Multiple fission: When one cell divides in repeated fashion into many daughter cells simultaneously
e.g. Plasmodium (Malaria parasite). Amoeba in unfavorable conditions.
 Unicellular organisms never die a natural death, since they never become old. Because before getting
of they reproduce to give two cells and become new again.

(ii) Budding
 In Hydra, a bud develops as an outgrowth due to repeated cell division at one specific site.
 Hydra use regenerative cells for reproduction in the process of budding.
 Budding takes place in Yeast also.

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(iii) Regeneration
 Regeneration is the ability of an organism to replace its lost or missing body part. This ability to
regenerate is due to presence of stem cells. Eg, Hydra and Planaria
 Higher animals have limited power of regeneration (tail in wall lizard, arm in star fish)
 As the organisms become more and more complex they lose the property of regeneration.

(iv) Fragmentation
 It takes place in organisms which have filamentous body, Eg. Spirogyra (multicellular green algae).

(v) Spore Formation

 It takes place in fungi like Rhizopus (bread mould) by formation of spores in sporangia.
 Moss and Ferns are the example of the spore type of asexual reproduction.

Cloning
 Cloning is creating an exact copy of a biological entity. A clone is created by inserting the complete
genetic material of a regular body cell from a donor into recipient. Sheep are viviparous animals, and
so propagate their offspring sexually. Dolly (5 July 1996-14 February 2003), was the first cloned
mammal, and is genetically identical to its parent sheep. Sir Ian Wilmut from Rosin Institute in
Edinburg, Scotland created Dolly.

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Advantages of sexual reproduction
 It is only method reproduction in most unicellular organisms.
 The parental properties are preserved.
 It is rapid method and only one individual is enough.
 Does not require any sexual maturation, production of gametes, transfer of gamete and their fusion.

2. Sexual reproduction
 It is a type of reproduction in which two different sex cells or male and female gametes are involved.

Sexual reproduction involves following steps

(i) Gametogenesis: Organisms have two sets of chromosomes. Number of chromosomes reduced to one
set by cell division called meiosis (reductional division) in which four cells are produced and each
with only one set of chromosomes, which later develops into gametes.
 Male gamete or sperms are motile (by tail) and smaller female gametes. While female gametes (ova)
are large in size and store enough food in it, ova do not have a tail and it often remain fixed in female
body.

(ii) Fertilization: Fusin of gametes (plasmogamy and karyogamy), result formation of zygote

(iii) Embryogenesis: Development of zygote to an embryo through mitosis (equational division)

 In some species male and female gametes are produced by one single individual only, such organisms
are called hermaphrodite.

REPRODUCTION – IN FLOWERING PLANTS – [EMBRYOLOGY]

 “Reproduction is one of the important processes by which every living organism make a copy of itself.
It is the means of multiplication and perpetuation of species because the older individual of each
species undergo senescence and die:

SEXUAL REPRODUCTION
 In Angiosperms male and female gametes are formed in male and female sex organs by the process of
meiosis. Both the gametes fuse together to form a diploid zygote which gives embryo. The process in
which embryo is formed by meiosis and fertilization is called amphimixis.

Male reproductive Organ – Androecium

 Male reproductive organ is called androecium and their unit is called stamen. Stamen is also known as
microsporophyll.
 A typical stamen is differentiates into three parts a long, thin structure is called filament which joins
the stamen to the thalamus. The free end of the filament, a swollen spore bearing structure is called
anther. Anther and filament the attached together with help of small region, called connective
contains vascular tissue. The main parts of the stamen is the anther.

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 Each anther generally bilobed structure i.e., anther has two anther lobes.
 Each lobe of anther has two chambers which are called pollen sacs or pollen chambers.
 Therefore, a typical anther has four pollen sacs is called tetrasporangiate.
 Pollen grains are formed inside the pollen sac through the meiotic division in pollen mother cells.
 At the maturity of the pollen grains, sterile tissue degenerate which are present in between the pollen
pollen sacs.
Both the pollen sac fused together. Because of this reason, only one chamber appears in each anther
lobe at maturity. So two chambers are seen in the mature anther at time of dehiscence.

The following structures are present in the anther

(i) Epidermis: It is the outermost layer of anther. It is single celled thick and continuous. It forms the
outermost protective layer.

(ii) Endothecium: This layer is present below the epidermis. It is single celled thick layer.
 It helps in dehiscence of anther

(iii) Middle layer: Middle layer consists of parenchyamatous cells. This layer is one to three celled thick
structure. Food is stored by parenchyamatous cells in this layer.
(iv) Tapetum: It is the inner most layer which acts as nutritive layer. Pollen sacs are surrounding by
tapetum. This is also single celled thick layer. The cells of the tapetum initially diploid but they
become polyploid and multinucleate due to endomitosis, free nuclear division and polyteny. It means
these cells contain many chromosomes.
 Tapetum absorbs food from the middle layer and provides nutrition to the microspore mother cells or
microspores. The cells of tapetum secrete hormones and enzymes. The tapetum layer disappears in the
mature anther.

Note: Tapetum helps in transfer of food, storage of food, formation of sporopollenin and pollenkit materials.
Pollen sacs: Four Pollen sacs are present in the anther, Pollen sacs are also known as Macrosporangia.
Inside the pollen sacs, microspores are formed by the meiotic division of microspore cells.

MICROSPOROGENESIS
 The anther appears as outgrowth like in the initial stage which shows spherical or oval shaped
structure.
 At this stage, it is a mass undifferentiated and homogeneous meristematic cells which is surrounded by
a single cell thick outer layer. This layer is known as epidermis. First of all vascular tissue are formed
in middle region. Simultaneously group of cells located just below the epidermis in vertical rows in the
region of hypodermis at the four corners are become large has visible nucleus with dense cytoplasm.
Due to this reason they are different from the rest of the cells. These cells are called archesporial cells.
 These cells divide to form primary parietal cells below the epidermis and primary sporogenous cells
towards the centre. Both of the cells usually undergo further divisions to form complete structure of
anther except epidermis
 Primary parietal cells undergo further to from a series of 3–5 layers making the walls of the anther.
 Out of them outer most layer of anther is formed just below the epidermis by primary parietal cells is
called endothermic or fibrous layer. The endothecium is followed by 1–3 celled thick layer is termed
middle layer. The innermost layer of the anther which surrounds pollen sacs, is called tapetum. Later
the tapetal cells play a significant role during the meiotic cell division in microsporogenous cells and
pollen development.
 The primary sporogenous cells divide twice or more than two by mitotic division to form sporogenous
cells and later sporogenous differentiated into microspore mother cells during the formation of wall of
pollen sac.
 Each microspore mother cell divide to form four haploid microspore or pollen grain by meiotic
division or reduction division.

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 During this period spherical bodies are formed inside the tapetal cells before their disintegration. These
spherical bodies are known as Ubisch-body.
 Ubisch body is made up of a complex substance called sporopollenin. It is the polymer of carotenoids.
 After the formation of ubisch body, the tapetum layer degenerates. Ubisch bodies participate in the
formation of exine of the micropores inside the pollen sacs. Now thick walled microspores are called
pollen grains.
 At the initial stage all four microspores are attached together with the help of callose layer. This group
of microspores is called tetrad. After some time, this callose layer dissolve by callase enzyme which is
secreted by tapetum.

Structure of Anther. A, longitudinally dehisced anther cut transversely to show pollen sacs and connecting
T. S. young anther C.T.S. anther at the time of dehiscence (common or longitudinal type)

STRUTURE OF MICROSPORE OR POLLEN GRAIN

 Pollen grain is the first cell id a male gametophyte
 Pollen grain is termed as immature male gametophyte.
Usually, they are in round shape. Pollen grain surrounded
by two distinct layers. The outer layer (wall) is thick, rigid
and ornamented, called exine. This layer is formed by cutin
and sporopollenin. Sporopollenin is highly resistant
material. It is non-biodegradable.
 The internal layer is thin, soft and elastic in nature. It is
called intine. It is made up of pectin and Cellulose or pecto-
cellulose.
 Usually, at few places on outer surface exine is absent or present in the form of thin layer. These thin
places are called germ pore. The intine comes out through the any germpore during the germination of
pollen grain in the form of pollen tube.

MICRO-GAMETOGENSIS OR DEVELOPMENT OF MALE GAMETOPHYTE

 In flowering plants, pollen grain or microspore considered as first cell of male gametophyte.
Germination or development of pollen grain place before dehiscence of anther.

(i) Pre Pollination development

 In the beginning of the process, only nucleus of pollen grain divided by in equal mitotic division,
resulting two unequal size of nucleus are formed. Small nucleus present near the wall is called
generative nucleus and large nucleus surrounded by cytoplasm is called Tube of Vegetative nucleus.

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 Both the nucleus surrounded by cytoplasm and it becomes dense, then followed by unequal
cytokinesis, resulting two unequal size of the cells are formed.
 Larger cell in which large nucleus is present known as Vegetative cell and smaller cell in which small
nucleus is present, called generative cell.
 Now pollen grains come in bicelled and binucleated stage.
 Generative cell detached from the wall and changed into vermiform of spimdle shaped structure and
enters inside the vegetable cell.
(ii) Post Pollination development
 Further development of pollen grain (Immature male gametophyte) takes place on the stigma of Carpel
after pollination. Pollens absorb moisture and sugar content from the sigma. Due to this volume of
internal contents of cytoplasm increased. It exerts pressure on the both outer layers. Because of this
pressure intine comes out through any one germpore in the form of tube like structure called pollen
tube.
 First of all vegetative nucleus enter into the pollen tube and assumes terminal [tips] position. This
spindle shaped generative now enters into the pollen tube. Inside the pollen tube, generative cell
divides mitotically and to form a two non motile male gametes. Now male gametophyte comes in three
celled structure in which one vegetative cell and two male gametes are present.
 This three celled stage represents the mature male gametophyte of Angiosperm.

FEMALE REPRODUCTIVE ORGAN-GYNNOECIUM

 Gynoecium is the female reproductive organ. The free unit of gynoecium is called pistil or carpel.
Carpel is also known is differentiate into three distinct region
(i) Stigma (ii) Style (iii) Ovary
 The free end of the carpel which receives pollen grains is called stigma. A long, narrow tubular
structure ovary. The ovule is also known as megasporongia which are borne on a cushion-like tissue
called placenta in the ovary. One or more than one ovules are present inside the ovary.

STRUCTURE OF OVULE OR MEGASPORANGIUM

 A ride stalk like out growth is formed from the placenta of
the ovary on which body of ovules are present. Each ovule
attached to the placenta by means of a thin stalk called
funicle or funiculus/Funiculum.
 The point of attachment of the funicle with the ovule is
called hilum.
 The main region of the ovule is composed by mass of
parenchymatous cells called nucellus. Nucellus is the main
part of ovule. The nucellus is covered by ore or two coats
called integuments.
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 Vascular tissue are present inside the funiculus which supple food material from the placenta to the
body of ovule.
 A place from where funicle and integuments arise is called Chalaza.
 Integument is absent just opposite to the chalaza, so that a narrow passage (pore) is formed which is
called micropyle.

MEGASPOROGENESIS
 During the development of ovule, in the beginning of this process, nucellus developes form the
placenta in the form of a small rounded out growth like structure. At this stage, all the cells of nucellus
are undifferentiated, homogeneous and meristematic. This mass of cells surrounded by single celled
thick layer of epidermis.
 Any one hypodermal cell of nucellus is differentiated and increase in size. It becomes different from
rest of the cells due to presence of distinct nucleys. It is called archesporial cell. Archesporium divides
to form an outer primary parietal cell and inner Primary Sporogenous cell.
 The primary sporogenous cell directly act as a megaspore mother cell. It divides meiptically to form,
four haploid megaspores.
 The four haploid megaspores generally arranged in linear tetrad. Generally the lower most or chalazal
megaspore remains functional out of tetrad of megaspores and the other three lie towards the
micropyle degenerate. This functional megaspore produces female gametophyte.

DEVELOPMENT OF EMBRYOSAC OR FEMALE GAMETOPHYTE

 Megagametogenesis: Megaspore is the first cell of the female gametophyte. This megaspore grows in
size and obtain nutrition from the nucellus. The nucleus of megaspore divides mitotically to form a two
nuclei. Each nucleus moves towards the opposite pole and reached at their respective poles. Both the
nuclei lie at poles divide twice mitotically. Resulting, four-four nuclei are formed at each poles [Total
8-nuclei]

 Out of the four, one-one nucleus migrates from the both poles [one nucleus from chalazal side and one
nucleus from micropylar side] towards the centre. They are known as polar nuclei. Both polar nuclei
are present in the centre.
 Remaining three-three nuclei at each pole surrounded by cytoplasm to form cells as a result of
cytokinesis. Three cells are formed towards the micropyle in which one cell is large and more distinct
out of three cells. This is called egg cell and remaining two smaller cells are known as synergids.
These three micropylar cells collectively known as egg-apparatus. [1 egg + 2 synergids]
 The three cell are towards the Chalaza are called antipodal cells. Both the polar nuclei present in the
central cell. But just before the process of fertilization they unite of fuse together in the center to form
secondary nucleus. It is diploid in nature [2n] and one in number.
 Therefore, seven cells and eight nucleated structure is formed. This eight nucleated and seven celled
structure is called gametophyte or embryosac of Angiosperms.

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POLLINATION
 “Pollinatoin is defined as the process of transfer of pollen grains from to the stigma of the same flower
of the same species.”

Pollination is of two types

1. Self pollination of Autogamy
 If the pollen grain are transferred from an anther to the stigma of the same flower, or different flowers
of the same plant is called self pollination or autogamy.

2. Cross pollination or Allogamy

 When the pollen grain are transferred to the stigma of other flower of the same species is called Cross
pollination or Allogamy. It takes place in between two different flowers

Cross pollination is of two types

(i) Geitonogamy
 When, pollination takes place in between the two flowers of the same plant then it is called
geitonogamy. From the genetical point of view geitonogamy is self pollination because all flowers of
the same plant are genetically. But ecologically, it is considered as cross pollination.

(ii) Xenogamy
 When the pollination takes place in between the two different flowers of two different plants of the
same species then it is called xenogamy. This is real or true cross pollination genetically, as well as
ecologically, it is cross pollination

FERTILIZATION
 The fusion of male gamete with female gametes is called fertilization

GERMILIZATION POLLEN GRAINS

 After pollination, pollen grains germinate on the stigma. They absorb moisture and sugar contents
from stigma and swell up. The intine of pollen grain grows out through the any one germinal pore of
exine, in the form of tube like out growth is called pollen tube.
 When the pollen tube comes down from the stigma into the style, first if all vegetative nucleus enter,
into the pollen tube then it is followed by generative cell. The tube nucleus always occupies in terminal
position ceil divide mitotically to form two male gametes. Both of the male gametes are non motile.
 Finally, the pollen tube enters in the ovary at that time, ovule becomes mature.
 Pollen tube can into the ovule through the any passage
but inside embryo sac, it enters only through the egg
apparatus. After the entrance inside the ovule, it grows
towards the egg apparatus because synergids cells
secrete the chemical (hormones) which attracts the
growth of pollen tube. It means pollen tube shows
chemotropic movement ovule.
 Any one synergid starts degenerating when pollen tube
comes near egg apparatus. The pollen tube enter into
the embryo sac through the degenerating synergids
 When tip of the pollen tube enters into the embryo sac
vegetative degenerates. The tip of the pollen tube
swells and burst [Endosmosis] after reaching inside
the embryo sac. The pollen tube released all contents
including both male gametes inside the degenerating
synergids of embryo sac.

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FUSION GEMETES
 Before or after the entrance of pollen tube into the embryo sac, both polar nuclei of the central cell
fused together to form a diploid nucleus. It is known as secondary nucleus or definitive nucleus.
 Out of two, one male gamete fertilized with egg cell and to form a diploid zygote. This fusion known
as syngamy. This is true mechanism of fertilization process
 The second male gamete fused with diploid secondary nucleus which is formed by the fusion of two
polar nuclei. This fusion is known as triple fusion resulting, a triploid (3n) structure is formed. It is
called primary endosperms nucleus.
 Fertilization takes place twice at a time in Angiosperm is called double fertilization.
 Double fertilization and triple fusion is the specific or universal characteristic of Angiosperm. There
are five nuclei and three gametes participate in double fertilization.
 A zygote is formed by true fertilization (syngamy) develops into embryo. Triploid primary endosperm
nucleus is formed by triple fusion develops into the endosperm which is used as nutrition for growing
embryo.
 All the remaining cells of embryo sac like antipodal cells, synergids degenerate zygote and primary
endosperm nucleus after the fertilization. At this time, zygote obtains food from degenerating
synergids and antipodal cells.
 The fertilization in which non motile gametes are carried to female gamete through pollen tube is
known as ‘Siphonogamy’

VEGETATIVE REPRODUCTION / PROPAGATION

 Plants belonging to this category propagate by a part of their body than a seed. The structural unit that
is employed in place of seed for the propagation of new plants is calledpropagule. In Angiosperms any
parts of the plants – roots, steam and leaves used for vegetative propagation.
 Generally method of vegetative propogation have been further divide into two types

[A] NATURAL VEGETATIVE PROPOGATION

(a) By roots: Modified tuberous root of Sweet potato. Dahlia and Tinospora can be propogated
vegetatively when planted in soil.

(b) Under ground Steam: In some plants ground modified stem such as
Rhizomes: Ginger, Turmeric
Corn: Colocasia
Bulbs : Onion, Garlic
Tubers: potato
Sucker: Mint
(c) Creepers
 In creesing stem of the plants adventure root are developed from the nodes and to form a aerial shoots
such as
(i) Runners – Cynodon, Oxalis
(ii) Stolon – Fragaria (Strawberry)
(iii) Offset – Pistia, Eichhornia (water hyacinth)

(d) Leaves
 Some plants produce adventitious buds on their leaves e.g., Bryophyllum. These buds remain
dormant, when the leaves attached with plants but after separation, when it comes in contact with
moist soil develop new plantlets [buds] which form new plants.

[B] ARTICIAL PROPAGATION

 Gardeners and Horticulturists have employed the various method of vegetative propogation for
economic production. All the methods are man-made so that their practices constitute artificial means
of vegetative propagation. These are as follows

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(i) Cutting: A cutting is separated portion of root, stem or leaf which is used for propogation. Some time
the stem cutting are treated with rooting hormone [IBA, IAA or NAA] for proper development of
adventitious roots e.g. Tapioca, Chinarose (Stem cutting) Lemon, Tamarind (Root cutting), [Favorable
time for cutting – Rainy season]
(ii) Grafting: Grafting is done between two closely related dicotyledonous plats having vascular
cambium. The rooted supported portion of one plant called stock is joined with a twig of another plant
called Scion, e.g. Roses, Orange. [Favorable time for grafting – Spring season]

(a) Tongue or whip grafting. (b) Crown grafting. (c) Wedge grafting. (d) Side grafting. (E) Approach
grafts.

(iii) Layering: This method is used in those plants which are having flexible long branches. In this method,
roots are artificially induced on the stem branches before they are detached from the parent plants for
propagation.

 Mound/Ground Layering: This method is only utilized in herbaceous plants. In this method, the
lower branch of stem is bent down and partially defoliated and injury is made on defoliated part. It is
covered by thin layer of moist soil in such a way that the growing tip of the branch remains above the
soil surface. After a few days the pegged portion develops adventitious roots. Then rooted branch cut
and separated from parent and grown into a new plant e.g. Jasmine, Strawberry, Raspberry etc.

 Air layering or Gootee: This method is commonly employed in case of shrubs and trees which do not
posses branches near the ground. In this method a ring bark is removed [girdled] from the aerial
branch. This girdled portion is covered with moist grafting clay and wrapped with a polythene sheet.

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 This wrapped portion of the branch is called gootee. Inside the gootee roots development within a
period of a or two months e.g., Litchi, Pomegranate, Orange, Lemon, Bougainvillea, Guava etc.

DIFFERENCE BETWEEN ASEXUAL REPRODUCTION

Asexual Reproduction Sexual Reproduction
1. It does not involves the formation and It involves the formation and fusion of two gametes,
fusion of gametes. generally distinguished into male and female.
2. New individual develops from one cell or New individual develops from zygote or fusion product
a part of one paraent. of two gametes, which may or may not be produced by
two parents.
3. New individuals are genetically similar New individuals or offsprings are generally different
to the parents. from either of the two parents. It involves meiosis at
one or the other stage. In higher plants, it occurs at the
time of sporogenesis.
4. It does not require the formation of sex Formation of sex organ is a pre-requisite for sexual
organs. reproduction.
5. It does not introduce variability. Hence In introduces variability and is, hence of evolutionary
has no evolutionary importance importance.

 Gymnosperms are naked seeded plant i.e. no fruit formation takes place is these plant. i.e.
gymnosperm embryo & seed formation takes place but no fruit formation occur.
 All gymnosperm are vascular plants. Therefore vascular tissue present i.e. xylem & phloem. Xylem
lack vessels & phloem lacks companion cells.

SEXUAL REPRODUCTION ANIMALS

Male reproductive system
 The male reproductive organs include a pair of testes, two sperm ducts, and a penis. The testis
produces the male gametes (sperms) and testosterone hormone.
 The testes are situated outside the abdominal cavity within a pouch called scrotum. The scrotum helps
in maintaining the low temperature of the testes (2-2.5oC lower than the normal internal body
temperature necessary for spermatogenesis. Each testis has about 250 compartments called testicular
lobules.
 Each lobule contains seminiferous tubules (have male germs cells or sperbatogonia and setroli ceils)
the male germs cells undergo meiotic divisions finally leading to sperm formation, while Serioli cell
provide nutrition to the germ cells.
 The regions outside the seminiferous tubules called interstitial spaces, contain small blood vessels and
interstitial cells or leyding cells which synthesis and secrete testicular hormones called androgens. The
male sex accessory ducts include rete testis, vasa efferentia, epididymis and vas deferens.
 The epididymis leads to vas deferens that ascends to the abdomen and loops over the urinary bladder.
It receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct. These ducts store
and transport the sperm from the testis to the outside through urethra.
 The urethra (common passes of urine and semen) originates from the urinary bladder and extends
through the penis (male copulatory organ) to external opening called urethral meatus.
 The male accessory glands include paired seminal vesicles, a prostate and paired bulbourenthral glands
(cowper’s gland)
 Secretion of these glands constitutes the seminal plasma (fructose, calcium and certain enzymes)
which make transport of sperms easier and provide nutrition.
 The seminal plasma along with the sperms constitutes the semen.
 The secretion of bulbourethral glands also helps in the lubrication of the penis.
 Sperms have a head, a middle piece and a tail. Sperms contain cell membrane, cytoplasm and nucleus.

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The testes and spermatogenesis
 The production of sperm in human males is a continuous
process, beginning at puberty and continuous process,
beginning at puberty and continuing well into old age.
Spermatogenesis centres around the process of meiosis, and
occurs at a remarkable rate over a thousand human sperm are
made every second. Look the given figure, and you will see
that each testis is composed of a series of lobules. They contain
seminiferous tubules, the structure in which sperm production
takes place. This process, shown in figure, has three main
phases:
 Multiplication. As large numbers of sperm are needed, cells of
the germinal epithelium divide by mitosis to produce many
spermatogonia (sometimes called sperm mother cells).
 Growth. The spermatogonia grow into primary spermatocytes.
At this stage the cells are still diploid (2n).
 Maturation. The diploid primary spermatyclytes undergo
meiosis. After the first division they become secondary
spermatocytes and when meiosis is complete they have
become haploid spermatids. In the final part of the maturation
process spermatids differentiate into the familiar spermatozoa
(sperm).
 Throughout their development, sperm cells are closely associated with Sertoli or nurse cells, from
which they obtain nutrients. In the lumen of the seminiferous tubule.

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T.S. Testes

Structure of the sperm

(i) Head: It is the enlarged end of a sperm, containing the
large nucleus. It forms the acrosome. The acrosome
contains hydrolytic enzymes which are used to contact and
penetrate the egg (ovum) at the time of fertilization.
(ii) Neck: It is very short and is present between the head and
middle piece. It contains the proximal centriole towards
the nucleus which plays a role in the first cleavage of the
zygote and the distal centriole which gives rise to the axial
filament of the sperm.
(iii) Middle piece: The middle piece of human sperm contains
the mitochondria spiral. They provide energy for the
movement of the sperm. So it is the “Power house of the
sperm”. At the end of the middle piece there is a ring
centriole (annulus) with unknown function. Posterior half
of nucleus, neck and middle piece sperm are covered by a
sheath called manchette.
(iv) Tail: The tail is several times longer than the head. In its
most part called main piece, the axial filament is
surrounded by a thin layer of cytoplasm. The sperm swims
about by its tail in a fluid medium.

Female reproductive system

 The female reproductive system consists of a pair of ovaries along with a pair of oviducts, uterus,
cervix, vagina and the external genitalia located in pelvic region.

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 Ovaries are the primary female sex organs that produce the female gamete or ovum (oogenesis) and
hormones (oestrogen and progesterone). The ovaries are located one on each side of the lower abdomen
near the kidney. One ovum is released every month alternately by one of the ovary.

 The oviducts (fallopian tubes) are paired cooled tubes like structures that transport the egg from the
ovary to the uterus (the womb)
 The oviducts (fallopian tubes), uterus and vagina constitute the female accessory ducts.
 The uterus (inverted pear shape) is single and it is also called womb. The wall of the uterus has three
layers of tissue. The external thin membranous perimetrium, middle thick layer of smooth muscle,
myometrium and inner glandular layer called endometrium that lines the uterine cavity.
 The uterus opens into vagina through a narrow cervix. The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal
which along with vagina (female copulatory organ) forms the birth canal.

Oogenesis:
 Throughout this section we refer to the female gamete as an egg
cell. The egg cell is surrounded by several layers of cells and
the complete unit is called a follicle.

 The production of egg cells, oogenesis, takes place within the

ovaries of the developing female foetus. At birth, a girl already
has about 2 million primary oocytes. Most of these degenerate
during childhood and by puberty there are only about 200000
left. Of these, only about 450 ever fully – one per month
throughout the female’s reproductive life. As in
spermatogenesis, the process of oogenesis is divided into three
phases.

 Multiplication. As the female embryo grows, primordial germs

cells in the epithelium (outer layer) of the ovary go through a
series of mitotic divisions to produce a population of larger
cells called oogonia.

 Growth. Oogonia move towards the middle of the ovary where

they grow and go through further mitotic divisions to become
primary oocytes. Each oocyte is surrounded by a layer of
follicle cells. Together they form a primary follicle.

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 Maturation. Form puberty onwards, a few primary follicles mature each month. Usually, only on
completes its development the rest degenerate. The remaining follicle grows larger, becoming an ovarian
follicle. Its cells secrete follicle. Its cells secrete follicular fluid producing droplets which join together to
form a fluid that fills the space known as the antrum. The mature follicle, the Graffian follicle, is almost
1 cm in diameter. It protrudes from the wall of the ovary just before ovulation.

 Inside the developing follicle, the oocyte begins its first meiotic division. There is no need for more than
one egg cell, so the second set of chromosomes formed at meiosis is discarded, passing into a small cell
(with very little cytoplasm) known as the first polar body. This appears to have no function, but it often
completes the meiotic division, producing two similar cells; both later break down. After meiosis I, the
egg is known as a secondary occyte. It then begins the second meiotic division but gets no further than
metaphase. The division is completed only if the egg cell is fertilized.
 When fertilisation occurs, meiosis II is completed and the egg cell becomes the mature ovum. This
produces another ‘spare’ set of chromosomes, the second polar body, a cell that also degenerates.

T.S. ovary

Structure of the ovum

 The mature ovum or a female gamete is spherical in shape. The human ovum is almost free of yolk and
is said to be alecithal. Its cytoplasm is called ooplasm containing large nucleus, termed the germinal
vesicle. The nucleus contains a prominent nucleous. There are no centrioles in the ovum. The cytoplasm
is enveloped by the plasma membrane (cell membrane). Very small vesicles called cortial granules are
present under the plasma membrane. A narrow perivitelline space is present outside the plasma
membrane. Just outer to perivitelline space, there is thick, non-cellular zone pellucid; probably secreted
by the follicular cells. Outer to the zona pellucid there is very thick cellular corona radiata. The latter is
formed of radially elongated follicular cells. The side of the ovum which extrudes polar bodies is termed
the animal pole. The opposite side is called the vegetal pole. Human ovum (egg) loses its ability to be
fertilized about 24 hours after ovulation.

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 Fertilization: The nuclei of the sperm and the egg fuse to form a zygote, and the process is called
fertilization. What male and female gametes unite outside the body (external fertilization) takes place is
water, example-frog toads, and fishes.
 When fertilization takes place inside the body, it is called internal fertilization. Example-cow, dog,
human.
 When fertilization takes place in a test tube, the offspring are called test tube babies. Fertilization that
takes place outside the human body is in vitro fertilization.
 Super cell: The zygote, marks the beginning of a new individual. The zygote undergoes rapid division
after fertilization and moves down the oviduct. During this period, many protective layers form as a hard
shell around the developing embryo.
 The mitotic division starts as the zygote called cleavage forms 2, 4, 8, 16 daughter cells called
blastomeres. The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called a morula continuous to divide and
transforms into blastocyst which moves which moves further into the uterus. The blastomeres in the
blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called trophoblast and an inner group of cells attached to
trophoblast called the inner cell mass.
 The trophoblast layer then gets attached to the endometrium and the inner cell mass gets differentiated as
the embryo. After attachment, the uterine cell divide rapidly and covers the blastocyst. As a result, the
blastocyst becomes embedded in the endometrium of the uterus. This is called implantation and it leads
to pregnancy.
 After implantation, finger-like projective appear on the trophoblast called chorionic villi which are
surrounded by the uterine tissue and material blood. The chorionic villi and uterine tissue become inter
digitated with each other and jointly form a structure and functional unit between developing embryo
(foetus) and maternal body called placenta.
 The placenta facilitate the supply of oxygen and nutrients to the embryo and also removal of carbon
dioxide and excretory / waste material produced by the embryo. The placenta is connected to the embryo
through an umbilical cord which helps in the transport of substances to and from the embryo.
 The development of the embryo takes place in the mother’s uterine wall. The stage of the embryo in
which all the body parts can be identified is called a foetus. When the development of the foetus is
complete, the mother gives birth to the baby. This process of delivery of the foetus (childbirth) is called
parturition.
 The mammary glands of the female undergo differentiation during pregnancy and starts producing milk
towards the end of pregnancy by the process called lactation. This helps the mother in feeding the
newborn.
 The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called colostrum which contains several
antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the new-born babies.
 One ovum matures and is released by one of the ovaries once in about 28 to 30 days. During this period,
the wall of the uterus becomes thick so as to receive the egg. In case it is fertilized and begins to

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 develop. This result in pregnancy. If fertilization does not occur, the released egg, and thickened lining
of the uterus along with its blood vessels are shed off. This causes bleeding in women which is called
menstruation. Initially, menstrual cycle may be irregular. It take some time to become regular.
 Menstruation occurs in about 28 to 30 days. The first menstrual flow begins at puberty and is termed
menarche (10 to 12 years of age). At 45 to 50 years of age, the menstrual cycle stops. Stoppage of
menstruation is termed menopause.
 MENSTRUAL CYCLE

This is exhibited by primate group of animals. In this cycle the female body prepared itself for a possible
pregnancy. If the pregnancy does not occur then the body aborts all preparation done and restarts the
preparation for pregnancy again in a monthly cyclic manner.
Menstrual cycle has three main phases:
(i) Bleeding phase or menstruation phase
(ii) Proliferative / preovulatory/ follicular phase or oestrogenic phase
(iii) Secretor / post ovulatory / luteal phase or progesteronic phase.

(i) Bleeding phase

The cycle starts with bleeding phase in its first four to five days. During this bleeding the part of the layer of
endometrium gets shed off. Total loss of blood per day is about 20 ml, so an average of 40 to 80 ml
blood/cycle is lost. This blood not clot.

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(ii) Prevulatory/Proliferative phase:
After first of five days this phase begins. During this phase, due to release of some GnRH, Pituitary secrets
some FSH to stimulate the ovarian follicle. The ovarian follicle now begins to develop. Developing follicle
now starts secreting an increasing amount of oestrogen.
The rising level of oestrogen causes the endometrium to proliferate and thicken. It also causes increases in
the vascularity and glandularity of the endometrium.
Rising level of oestrogen also activities the hypothalamus. Due to this, the hypothalamus release more of
GnRH. This GnRH induces the pituitary to release more of FSH. The rising FSH levels not cause
(i) Further growth and development of ovarian follicle to form Graafian follicle.
(ii) Even further release of oestrogen from the theca interna of this developing follicle.
As the oestrogen level goes on rising, by the end of 10 day the extreme levels of oestrogen (which have by
then caused maturation of Graafian follicle and growth of endometrium) now give a positive feed back of
high concentration of oestrogen causing a rise in LH secretion but due to release of inhibit by graffian
follicle, FSH falls therefore the LH secretion from the pituitary goes on rising. This abrupt rise (on 11th to
13th day) in LH concentration in blood is called as LH surge. This LH now cause the Graafian follicle to
rupture after partial completion of II meiotic division in ocyte and thus the secondary oocyte released. The
release of egg (secondary oocyte) which occurs around 14 days is called as ovulation.

(iii) Post ovulatory/secretory phase

After ovulation the ruptured Graafian follicle transform into corpus luteum. The granulosa and theca cells of
the ruptured Graafian follicle (which is now called as corpus luteum) is found only in mammals and contain
a yellow lutein or carotene pigment.
In case of absence of pregnancy this corpus luteum will get degenerate after 14 days of its formation. The
degenerate corpus luteum is called albicans (white body)

Function of corpus luteum: Stimulated by the rising levels LH, the corpus luteum secrets progesterone
hormone. The progesterone facilities the prepatation of endometrium for receiving the embryo and its
implantation. Progesterone inhibits the contractions of uterus so that the pregnancy could be maintained.
Progesterone also inhibits development of next new ovarian follicle. If pregnancy occurs then the corpus
luteum perists and secrets progesterone. Progesterone is important to maintain the pregnancy and it is thus
called as the pregnancy hormone. By the fourth month of pregnancy, the placenta has developed completely.
This placenta now takes over this job of further progesterone secretion. Ovary also secrets some amount of
relaxin at the time of parturition.
If pregnancy does not occur after ovulation, then as the progesterone level rise, its rising inhibits the release
of GnRH from hypothalamus. Due to this FSH, LH secretion by pituitary falls and thereby progesterone
secretion by the corpus luteum (which was due to influence of LH) also now falls.
As the progesterone level drops, the corpus luteum begins to degenerate and transform in corpus albicans
(which can not secrete progesterone). Due to the lack progesterone.
(i) The overgrown endometrium now begin to break and separate from the inner wall causing bleeding.
(ii) The uterine contraction (which was till now inhibited due to presence of progesterone) now start.

Thus the separated endometrium along with blood is now being passes out via vaginal route. This is again
the beginning of next menstrual of bleeding phase.
The period between ovulation and next menstrual bleeding (post ovulatory period) is always constant (i.e. 14
days) However, the ovulation date may vary (causing achange in pre ovulatory period).
After ovulation the ovum is viable only for two days, while sperms introduced into the vagina can survive
for a maximum of four days.

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Sex determination
 The sex of the baby is determined by the Sex chromosomes in sperms or male sex chromosomes XY
which is inside the fertilized egg or zygote.
 When zygote would have two X chromosomes and develop into a female child and when zygote would
have one X and Y chromosomes which develop into a male child.
 A gamete is a mature reproductive cell – a sperm or an ovum.
 In humans the diploid number of chromosomes is 46, or 23 pairs. There are 22 pairs of homologous
chromosones (look alike) called autosomes. The 23rd pair chromosomes differs in males and females.
These two chromosomes, which determine the sex of an individual, are called sex chromosomes.

REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
 Healthy food have more nutritional value.
 Balanced diet contains nutrients like carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, minerals and water in the
right proportions.
 Iron builds blood and iron-rich food such as vegetables, jaggery, meat, citrus, Indian gooseberry
(Amla) are good adolescents.
 Adolescents need to avoid junk food. Junk foods no or little nutritional value.
 A person with complete physical and mental health is termed a healthy individual.
 Personal hygiene is the first step in maintaining health.
 Cleanliness cleaning of private part is important to prevent possible infections.
 Body parts such as hair, skin, nails and feet are vulnerable to bacterial and fungal infections. If we
don’t keep them clean.
 The activity of sweat glands increases in puberty and makes the body smell. Sweating helps you to
release toxins and wastes from your body.
 Physical exercise keeps your fit and healthy. A lot of people take anabolic steroids to increase body
mass, but it has dangerous side effects. Drugs are addictive and should only be taken under
prescription of a physician.
 AIDS is caused by a virus called HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus). AIDS can be transmitted
from an infected mother to her new born baby during pregnancy.
 Sexual contact with the infected person.

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Oviparous and Viviparous Animals
 Animals such as human beings, cows and dogs which give birth to young ones are called viviparous
animals. Viviparous animals undergo internal fertilisation.
 Animals such hen, frog, lizard and butterfly which lay eggs are called oviparous animals Oviparous
animals undergo external fertilisation. The chick hatches from the egg after three weeks.
 There are three distinct stages in the life cycle of a frog – egg, tadpole and adult. In the first stage, the
egg fuses with a sperm to form a zygote. The zygote further divides to form an early tadpole, which
matures into a late tadpole. During metamorphosis, the larva transforms into an adult frog.

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 REPRODUCTION IN LIVING ORGANISMS

1. Temp. of scrotum as compared abdominal cavity is less by

(a) 1o C (b) 5o C (c) 3o C (d) 10 o C

2. Vasa deference is cut for

(a) Female sterilization (b) Male sterilization

(c) Both of the above (d) Temporary sterilization

3. Secretion of which gland his high percentage of fructose

(a) Prostate gland (b) Cowper’s gland (c) Seminal vesicle (d) Tyson

4. Function of seminal fluid is

(a) Sexual attraction
(b) To provide stability to egg
(c) To provide a medium for movement of sperms
(d) To provide acidic medium

5. Vasa-efferentia connect the

(a) Testes with epididymis (b) Kidneys with cloaca
(c) Testes with urinogential duct (d) None

6. In mammals, failure of testes to descend into scrotum is known as

(a) Paedogonesis (b) Castration (c) Cryptorchidism (d) Impotency

7. Common duct formed by union of vas-deference and duct from seminal vesicle is
(a) Urethra (b) Tunica-vascuiosa (c) Ejaculatory duct (d) Spermatic duct

8. Scroctum communities with abdominal cavity through

(a) Urethra (b) Inguinal canal (c) Vas-deference (d) Epididymis

9. The functional unit of testis of man is

(a) Uriniferous tubules (b) Malpighian tubules
(c) Seminiferous tubules (d) Acint or lobules

10. Testosterone is secreted by

(a) Leydigs cell (b) Sertoli cells (c) Pituitary (d) Testis

11. Seminiferous tubules are composed of

(a) Spermatogonia (b) Glandular epithelium
(c) Sensory epithelium (d) Germinal epithelium

12. In mammals, the testes occur in scrotal sacs, out-side the viscera because of the
(a) Presence of urinary balder
(b) Presence of rectum
(c) Long vas-deference
(d) Requirement of low temperature spermatogenesis

13. In between spematogonia are found

(a) Germinal cells (b) Sertoli cells (c) Epithelial cells (d) Lymph space

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14. Flacenta is the region where
(a) Foetus is attached to mother by spermatic cord
(b) Foetus is provided with mother’s blood
(c) Foetus receives nourishment from mother’s blood
(d) Foetus is covered by membranes.

15. Cells of leyding occur in

(a) Liver (b) Ovary (c) Testis (d) Spleen

16. Location and secretion of leydig cells are

(a) Liver-chloreseterol (b) Ovary-oestrogen
(c) Testis-Testosterone (d) Pancrease-Glucagon

17. Seminal vesicle is present at the junction of

(a) Prostate and urethra (b) Prostate and vas-deferens
(c) Prostate and cowper’s gland (d) Vas-deferens and testis

18. Seminiferous rubules occur in

(a) Liver (b) Kidney (c) Ovary (d) Testis

19. During differentiation the spermatids remain associated with

(a) Leyding’s cells (b) Kuffer’s cells (c) Spermatogonia (d) Sertoli cell

20. Seminal fluid has sperms and secretions of

(a) Prostate, Cowper’s & Bertholin glands (b) Seminal vesicle, prostate & cowper’s glands
(c) Seminal vesicle, ureter & prostate gland (d) Follicles, ureters and prostate gland

21. Sugar fructose is present in the secretion of

(a) Seminal vesicle (b) Perineal gland
(c) Cowper’s gland bertholin’s gland (d) Bertholin’s gland

22. Spermatozoa are nourished during their development by

(a) Sertoli cells (b) Interstitial cells
(c) Connective tissue cells (d) None

23. What would happer if vasa deferantia of man are cut

(a) Sperms are non nucleate (b) Spermatogenesis does not occur
(c) Semen is with out sperms (d) Sperm are non motile

24. If the epididymis is not present then what will happen-

(a) Sperm life cycle is short (b) Early cross the pathway
(c) Functional maturation is early (d) Sperm will be incapable for fertilization

25. In majority of pre mature testis us situated in

(a) Scrotal sac (b) Adbominal cavity
(c) Descending pathway (d) Come into scrotal sac but not attached properly

26. After vasectomy what happens-

(a) Absence of semen
(b) Sperm are dead or inactive
(c) Sperm immediately disappear in semen
(d) Sperm gradually disappear in semen

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27. Sertoli cells occur in
(a) Human testis (b) Frog testis (c) Human ovary (d) Frog ovary

28. Which one is primary sex organ?

(a) Scrotum (b) Penis (c) Testis (d) Prostrate

29. Meaning of oligospermia is

(a) Eggs are fertilized in less number (b) Less number of sperms in semen
(c) More number of sperms are formed (d) Inactive sperm are formed

30. In aged person inguinal canal becomes loose, and some part of intestine is pushed into scrotal sac,
the disease is called
(a) Mycialopia (b) Hernia (c) Achondroplasia (d) None

31. Vagina of the female reproductive system is

(a) Primary sex organs (b) Essential sex organs
(c) Secondary sex organs (d) None

32. External/accessory sexual characteristic first appear in

(a) Childhood (b) Puberty (c) Foetus (d) Adulthood

33. Puberty occurs in females at the age of

(a) 8-10 years (b) 11-14 years (c) 15-17 years (d) 18-20 years

34. At puberty women start producing

(a) Sperms (b) Urine (c) Young ones (d) Ova

35. Eggs from ovary are released in

(a) Oviduct (b) Kidney (c) Ureter (d) Coelom

36. Development of foetus takes place in

(a) Vagina (b) Uterus (c) Ovary (d) Oviduct

37. Lower narrow end of uterun is called

(a) Urethra (b) Cervix (c) Clitoris (d) Vulva

38. Process by which Graffian follicles are formed in the ovary is known as
(a) Oogenesis (b) Luteirisation (c) Folliculogenesis (d) All

39. Eggs librated from overy in human in

(a) Secondary oocyte stage (b) Primary oocyte stage
(c) Oogonial state (d) Mature ovum stage

40. Graffian follicle are found in

(a) Testis of mammal (b) Ovary of frog
(c) Ovary of cockroach (d) Ovary of mammels
41. Site of fertilization in mammal is
(a) Ovary (b) Uterus (c) Vagina (d) Fallopian tube

42. Endometrium is lining of

(a) Testis (b) Urinary bladder (c) Uterus (d) Ureter

43. A secondary sexual character is

(a) Breast (b) Ovary (c) Testis (d) Thyroid
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44. Expanded proximal part of oviduct in female is
(a) Uterus (b) Fallopian tube (c) Fimbriated funnel (d) Vestibule

45. The endocrinal structure formed after ovulation (release of ovum from graafian follicle) is
(a) Corpus albicans (b) Corpus callosum (c) Corpus leuteum (d) Corpus striatum

46. Which is not a secondary sex organ?

(a) Vagina (b) Penis (c) Prostate (d) Mammary gland

47. Cowper’s glands are found in

(a) Male mammals (b) Female birds (c) Male amphibians (d) Female amphibians

48. A female gland corresponding to prostate of males is

(a) Bartholin’s gland (b) Bulbourethral gland
(c) Clitoris (d) None

49. Progesterone is secreted by

(a) Corpus Leuteum (b) Thyroid (c) Thymus (d) Testis

50. Release of oocytes from ovarys is

(a) Gestation (b) Ovulation (c) Parturition (d) Implanation

51. Growth and maturation of graafian follicle is controlled by

(a) FSH-LH (b) FSH-LTS (c) ACTH-LH (d) GH-ADH

52. If Cowpers gland is removed which of the following will be affected

(a) Sexual attraction (b) Fertilization (c) Hardness of penis (d) Copulation

53. Oral-contraceptives prevent the

(a) Fertilisation (b) Ovulation (c) Implantation (d) Entrance in Vagina

54. Voice is high pitched in

(a) Aged persons (b) Adult males (c) Boys (d) Females

55. First menstrual cycle starts at

(a) Parturition (b) Menopause (c) Menarche (d) Implantation

56. Menstrual cycle is generally of

(a) 21 days (b) 28 days (c) 38 days (d) 40 days

57. In menstrual cycle ovum is released during

(a) Beginning (b) Midday (c) End (d) Any time

58. Menstrual cycle is controlled by

(a) Estrogen and progesterone of ovary (b) FSH and LH of pituitary
(c) Both 1 & 2 (d) FSH of pituitary

59. Stages in menstrual cycle are

(a) Recovery and proliferative phase
(b) Proliferative and secretory phase
(c) Proliferative, secretory and menstrual phase
(d) Recovery phase, secretory phase and phase of menstrual flow

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60. Luteal phase is the other name of
(a) Follicular phase (b) proliferative phase
(c) Menstrual flow phase (d) Secretory phase

61. Follicular phase of menstrual cycle is the other name of

(a) Proliferative phase (b) Secretory phase
(c) Leteal phase (d) Menstruation

62. Testosterone is secreted by

(a) Sertoli cells (b) Sustenfacular cells
(c) Leyding cell or interstitial cells (d) Both (1) & (2)

63. The expulsion of completely developed foetus from the uterus is known as
(a) Ovulation (b) Oviposition (c) Gestation (d) Parturition

64. Spermatogenels and sperm differentiation are under the control of

(a) FSH (b) LH (c) Progesterone (d) Parathyroid Harmone

65. Loss of reproductive capacity in women after the age of 45 years is

(a) Menstruation (b) Ageing (c) Menopause (d) Menarche

66. During preganancy, the urine of women contain

(a) LH (b) Progesterone (c) FSH (d) HCG

67. Ovulation occurs under the influence of

(a) LH (b) FSH (c) Estrogen (d) progesterone

68. Secondary sex organ is

(a) Testis (b) Ovary (c) Beard (d) Vasa deference

69. If the menstrual cycle is of 35 days then what is risk period (cycle start on 1st day):
(a) 9th to 17th days (b) 11th to 18th days (c) 16th to 24th days (d) 18th to 35th days

70. In the absence of preganancy, corpus leutumm

(a) Becomes active, secrets FSH and LH (b) Produces lot of oxytocin and relaxin
(c) Degenerates after some time (d) Degenerates after some time-

71. 10 oogonia yield 10 primary ooxyres, then how many ova are produced on completion of oogenesis
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) 40

72. Paturition duct in female is called:

(a) Uterus (b) Oviduct (c) Vagina (d) Cervix

73. In mammals, corpus luteum is found in which organ

(a) Brain (b) Ovary (c) Liver (d) Eyes

74. Which temporary endocrine gland forms in ovary after ovulation.

(a) Corpus callosum (b) Corpus albicans
(c) Corpus luteum (d) Corpus striata

75. In mammals, egg is fertilized in

(a) Ovary (b) Fallopian (c) Uterus (d) Vagina

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76. Oral contraceptives contain
(a) Progesterone (b) LH (c) Oxytocin (d) Steroides

77. Which substances can be used as male contraceptive in future?

(a) FSH (b) LH (c) Testosterone (d) Progesterone

78. Which induces the development of corpus leuteum:

(a) LH (b) Oestrogen (c) FSH (d) LTH

79. What is the work of copper T?

(a) To inhibit ovuiation (b) To inhibit fertilization
(c) To inhibit implantation of blastocyst (d) To inhibit gametogeneous

80. What is the work of progesterone which is present in oral contraceptive pills?
(a) To inhibit ovulation
(b) To check oogenesis
(c) To check entry of sperms into cervix & to make them inactive
(d) TO check sexual behavior

81. Which gland secretes odourous secretion in mammals?

(a) Bartholins (b) Prostate (c) Anal gland (d) Liver-bile

82. Which set is similar?

(a) Corpus leutreum-graafian follucles (b) Sebum-sweet
(c) Bundle of his-pace macker (d) Vita B7  Niacin

83. Mainly which type of hormones control the menstrual cycle in human beings:
(a) FSH (b) LH (c) FSH, LH, Estrogen (d) progesterone only

84. Spermatogenesis process occur in

(a) Rete testis (b) Seminiferous Tubles
(c) Septula testis (d) Medianstenum testis

85. In parturition process, which of the following does not happen

(a) Oxytocin Hormone is secreted by posterion pituritory
(b) Relaxin hormone responsible for narrowing of pelvic cavity
(c) Progesterone hormone secretion is stopped
(d) General position of foetus of occipitoanterior

86. Which of the following homologus structures are mismatched?

(a) Clitoris and penis
(b) Vagina and prostatic utricle
(c) Fallopian tube and prostate
(d) All of above

87. In mammals, maturation of sperms take place at a temperature

(a) Equal to that of body (b) Higher than that of body
(c) Lower that that of body (d) At any piece of mammalian sperm

88. In a 30 years old lady, eggs are released form of

(a) Oogonia (b) Primary oocyte (c) Secondary oocyte (d) Article follicle

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89. Which is not correct about secondary sexual characters of female?
(a) Development of mammary gland (b) Presence of public hair
(c) Low pitched voice (d) Menarche

90. Onset of pregnancy

(a) Stimulates testosterone secrection (b) Inhibits further ovulation
(c) Leads to degeneration of ovary (d) All of these

91. Bartholin’s glands occurs in

(a) Females and help in vestibular lubrication
(b) Females and produce oestrogen for regulating secondary sexual characters
(c) Males and form liquid part of spermatic fluid
(d) Males and produce alkaline fluid for neutralizing urethral acidity.

92. Which is correct?

(a) Menstrual cycle is present in all mammals
(b) Menstrual cycle is present in all primates
(c) Estrous cycle occurs in all mammals
(d) Most mammals are ovoviviparous

93. Prostate gland produces a secretion for

(a) Attracting sperms (b) Stimulating sperm activity
(c) Attractive egg (d) None of the above

94. Seminal vesicles are located in

(a) Caput epidydimis (b) Uterus
(c) Above Cowper’s glands (d) Glans penis

95. Number of eggs released in the life time of a woman is approximately.

(a) 40 (b) 400 (c) 4000 (d) 20000

96. Correct sequence of hormone secretion from beginning of menstruation is

(a) FSH, progesterone, estrogen (b) Estrogen, FSHm progesterone
(c) FSH, estrogen, progesterone (d) Esterogen, progesterone, FSH

97. Graafian, follicle contains

(a) Many oocytes (b) Many sperms
(c) A sigle oocytes (d) Site for egg fertilization

98. Mullerian duct is

(a) Ureter (b) Urethra (c) Sperm duct (d) Oviduct

99. Progesterone level falls leading to

(a) Gestation (b) Menopause (c) Lactation (d) Mensturation

100. Head of epididymis present at head of testis is

(a) Caput epididymis (b) Cauda epididymis (c) Vas deferens (d) Guberbaculum

101. Estrogen is secreted by

(a) Corpus luteum (b) Memranous granulose of Graafian follicle
(c) Germinal epithelium of ovary (d) Pitituray

102. Phase of menstrual cycle in human that lasta for 7-8 days is
(a) Follicular phase (b) Ovulatory phase (c) Luteal phase (d) Menstruation

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103. Menstruation is caused by
(a) Increase in FSH level (b) Fall in oxytocin level
(c) Fall in progesterone level (d) Increase in oestrogen level

104. The hormone that prevents ovulation and formation of corpus luteum is
(a) Progesterone (b) Estrogen (c) LH (d) FSH

105. In uterus, endometrium, proliferates in response to

(a) Relaxin (b) Oxytocin (c) Progesterone (d) Oestrogen

106. If mammalian ovum fails to get fertilized, which one of the following is unlikely in this cycle?
(a) Estrogen secretion further decreases (b) Progesterone secretion rapidly declines
(c) Corpus luteum will disintegrate (d) Primary follicle starts developing

107. Sertoli cells are regulated by the pituitary hormone known as

(a) FSH (b) GH (c) Prolactin (d) LH

108. In the human female, menstruation can be deferred by the administration of

(a) FSH only (b) LH only
(c) Combination of FSH and LH (d) Combination of estrogen and progesterone

109. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about menstruation?

(a) At menopause in the female, there is especially abrupt increase in gonadoptropic hormones
(b) The beginning of the cycle of menstruation is called menarche
(c) During normal menstruation about 40 ml blood is lost
(d) The menstrual fluid can easily clot

110. Given below is a diagrammatic sketch of a portion of human male reproductive system. Select the
correct set of the names of the parts labeled A, B, C, D:

A B C D
(a) Ueter Seminal vesicle Prostate Bulbourethral gland
(b) Ureter Prostate Seminal vesicle Bulbourethral gland
(c) Vas deferens Seminal vesicle Prostate Bulbourethral gland
(d) Bas deferebs Seminal vesicle Bulbourethral gland Prostate
111. Which one of the following is the correct matching of the events occurring during menstrual cycle?
(a) Menstruation: Breakdown of mymetrium and ovum not fertilized
(b) Ovulation: LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp fall in the secretion of progesterone.
(c) Proliferative Phase: Rapid regeneration of mymetrium and maturation of graffian follicle
(d) Development of Corpus luteum Secretory phase and increased secretion of progesterone

112. Progesterone hormone is secreted by

(a) Corpus albicans (b) Corpus collosum
(c) Corpus luteum in ovaries (d) Corpus uteri

113. Testosterone is secreted by

(a) Leyding cells (b) Sertoli cells
(c) Seminiferous tubule (d) None of these
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114. Most important component of oral contraceptive is
(a) LH (b) GH (c) Thyroxine (d) Progesterone

115. Purpose of tubectomy is to prevent

(a) Fertilization (b) Coitus (c) Egg formation (d) Embryonic development

116. Accessory sexual charater in female is promoted by

(a) Androgen (b) Progesterone (c) Estrogen (d) Testosterone

117. Sertoli cells are found in testis. These cells are

(a) Nurse cell (b) Reproductive cell (c) Receptor cell (d) None of these

118. The functional maturation of sperms takes place in

(a) Oviduct (b) Epididymis (c) Vagina (d) All of these

119. Surgical removal or cutting and ligation of the ends of oviduct is known as
(a) Tubectomy (b) Oviductomy (c) Castration (d) Vasectomy

120. The follicle that ruptures at the time of ovulation promptly fills with blood, forming
(a) Corpus haemorrhagicum (b) Corpus haemorrhagicum
(c) Corpus luteum (d) Corpus callosum

121. Ornithophily takes place in

(a) Yellowflower having nectaries (b) Scented flower
(c) Flower with charming colour (d) Modified corolla

122. The plant having largest flower is

(a) Total stem parasite (b) Epiphyte
(c) Total root parasite (d) Partial step parasite

123. Eight nucleated embryosac is

(a) Only monosporic (b) Only bisporic (c) Only tetrasponic (d) Any of the above

124. Endosperm is formed during the double fertilization by

(a) Two polar nuclei & one o male famele (b) One polar nuclei & one male gamete
(c) Ovum and male gamete (d) Two polar nuclei & two male gametes

125. Anemophily type of pollination is found in

(a) Salvia (b) Bottle brush (c) Vallisneria (d) Coconut

126. What is the eyes of potato?

(a) Auxillary bud (b) Accessary bud (c) Adventure bud (d) Apical bud

127. Which one of breaks the dormancy of potato tuber

(a) Gibberellin (b) 1AA (c) ABA (d) Zeatin

128. In grass what happens in microspore mother cell for the formation of mature pollen grains
(a) One meiotic and two mitotic divisions (b) One meiotic and one miotic division
(c) One meiotic division (d) One miotic division

129. Adventure embryony in Citus is due to

(a) Nucellus (b) Integuments (c) Zygotic embryo (d) Fertilized egg

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130. In Angiosperms pollen tube liberate their male gametes into the
(a) Central cell (b) Antipodal cell (c) Egg cell (d) Synergids

131. What is the direction of mictropyle in anatropous ovule?

(a) Upward (b) Downward (c) Right (d) Left

132. Which type of association is found in between entomophilous flower and pollinating agent?
(a) Mutualism (b) Commensalism (c) Co-operation (d) Co-evolution

133. In Angioperms all the four microspores of retrad are covered by a layer which is formed by
(a) Pectocellulose (b) Callose (c) Cellulose (d) Sporpollenin

134. Seed dormancy is due to the presence of

(a) Ethylene (b) Abscisic (c) I.A.A. (d) Starch

135. The aleurone layer in Maize grain is specially rich in

(a) Proteins (b) Starch (c) Lipids (d) Auxins

136. When a diploid plant is crossed with a tetraploid male, the ploidy of endosperm cells in the resulting
seed is?
(a) Pentaploidy (b) Diploidy (c) Triploidy (d) Tetraploidy

137. When the pollens of one flower falls on the stigma of another flower of the same plant then it is
known as?
(a) Cleistogamy (b) Allogamy (c) Autogamy (d) Dichogamy

138. What is the liquid part of green Coconut?

(a) Endosperm (b) Female gemestophyte
(c) Nucellus (d) Embryo

139. Parthenogenesis occurs

(a) When embryo is formed without the fusion of egg and the sperm
(b) When embryo is formed by the fusion of egg and sperm
(c) When embryo is formed by the fusion of egg and sperm
(d) When sperm produces the embryo directly

140. Nucellus is found in

(a) Cell (b) Pollen (c) Ovule (d) Leaf

141. That haploid cell which divides by mitosis to form embryosac

(a) Megaspore mother cell (b) Microspore mother cell
(c) Functional megaspore (d) Non functional megaspore

142. Seed coat is derived from

(a) Pericarp (b) Epicarp
(c) Integuments of ovule (d) Nucellus

143. What is pollen grain?

(a) Microspore mother cell (b) Male gamete
(c) Partially developed (d) All of these

144. Anther culture yields some haploid and diploid plants. Diploid plants are produced from
(a) Zygote (b) Seed coat (c) Anther wall (d) Wall of pollengrains

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145. Endosperm nucleus is formed by the fusion of
(a) 2 nuclei (b) 3 nuclei (c) 4 nuclei (d) 5 nuclei

146. Embryosac is represented by

(a) Megametophyte (b) Megasporophyll
(c) Megagametes (d) Megaspore

147. Double fertilization is essential for formation of

(a) Cotyledons (b) Seed coat (c) Endosperm (d) Nucellus

148. Entry of pollen tube through micropyle is called

(a) porogamy (b) Syngamy (c) Chalazogamy (d) Mesogamy

149. Pollen grains are able to withstand extremes of temperature and dessication because their exine is
composed of
(a) Cutin (b) Suberin (c) Sporopollenin (d) Callose

150. In which one pair both the plants can be vegetatively propagated by leaf pieces:
(a) Bryphyllum and Kalanchoe (b) Chrysanthemum and Agave
(c) Agave and Kalanchoe (d) Asparagus and Bryophyllum

151. In a type apomixes known as adventives ambryony, ambroyos develop directly from the
(a) Nucellus or integuments (b) Synergids is antipodals in an embryosac
(c) Accessory embroyosac in the ovule (d) Zygote

152. Which one of the following represents an ovule, where the emryosac becomes horse-shoe shaped and
the funiculus and micropyle are close to each other?
(a) Circinotropous (b) Anatropous (c) Amphitrpous (d) Atropous

153. What would be the number of chromosomes in the cells of the aleurone layer in a plant specles with
8 chromosomes in its synergids?
(a) 16 (b) 24 (c) 32 (d) 8

154. The arrangement of the nuclei in a normal embryosac in the dicot plants is
(a) 2  4  2 (b) 3  2  3 (c) 2  3  3 (d) 3  3  2

155. In a Cereal grain the single cotyledon of embryo is represented by

(a) Coleorrhiza (b) Scutellum (c) Prophyll (d) Coleptile

156. Long filamentous threads protruding at the end of a young cob of maize are
(a) Hairs (b) Anthers (c) Style (d) Ovaries

157. In which of the following fruits is the edible part the aril?
(a) Litchi (b) Custard apple (c) Pomegranate (d) Orange

158. A scion is grafted to a stock. The quality of fruits produced will be determined by the genotype of
(a) Stock (b) Scion
(c) Both stock and scion (d) Neither stock and scion

159. Male gemets in angiosperms are formed by the division of

(a) Microspore mother cell (b) Microspore
(c) Vegetable cell (d) All of these

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160. Which one of the following is surrounded by a callose wall?
(a) Pollen grain (b) Microspore mother cell
(c) Male gamete (d) Egg

161. Unisexuality of flowers prevents:

(a) Geithonogamy, but not xenogamy (b) Autogamy and geitonogamy
(c) Autogamy, but not geitonogamy (d) Both geitonogamy and xenogamy

162. Which of the following pairs of plant structures has haploid number of chromosomes?
(a) Nucellus and antipodal cells (b) Egg nucleus and secondary
(c) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cells (d) Egg cell and antipodal cells

163. What does Angiosperm mean:

(a) Naked seed (b) Covered seed (c) Leaf fall (d) Seed bud

164. How many times flowering takes place in biennial plants?

(a) Once (b) Twice (c) Many (d) None

165. Endosperm of Angiosperm is”

(a) 2n (b) 3n (c) n (d) 2n  1

166. Syngamy is the process in which

(a) Male gamete fuses with female gamete
(b) Pollen tube enters into the ovule through chalaza
(c) Pollen tube enter into the ovule through micropyle
(d) Generative cell and tube cell fuse

167. In embryo sac, n 2n, 3n conditions are found respectively in

(a) Egg, antipodal, endosperm (b) Nucellus, endosperm, egg
(c) Antipodal, zygote, endosperm (d) Endosperm, nucellus, egg

168. Microsporophyll contains

(a) Pollen tube (b) Pollen grain (c) Nucellus (d) All of these

169. Nucellus forms which of the following part of fruit

(a) Seed coat (b) Perisperm (c) Seed (d) Raphe

170. If root of a flowering pant has 24 chromosomes, then its gamete has how many chromosomes:
(a) 24 (b) 12 (c) 4 (d) 8

171. A bisexual flower which never opens in life is known as

(a) Homogarnous (b) Heterprogramous (c) Anatropous (d) Cleistogampous

172. Embryo sac of an Angiospermic plant is

(a) Male gametophyte (b) Female gametophyte
(c) Male sporophyte (d) Either female sporophyte

173. Pollination by wind is called

(a) Anemophily (b) Hydrophily (c) Zoophily (d) Entromophily

174. Development of embryo from egg without fertilization is called

(a) Parthenogenesis (b) Parthenocarpy
(c) Apospory (d) Apomixis

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175. In the anther wall
(a) Tapeum lies between endothecium and middle layers
(b) Tapetun lies just inner to endothecium
(c) Middle layer lies between endothecium and tapetum
(d) Endothecium lies just inner to middle layer

Question asked in previous exams

176. The seven celled and eight nucleated female gametophyte of an angiospermic plant is produced as a
result of
(a) Three mitotic (b) One meiotic and two mitotic
(c) Two mitotic (d) One meitotic and three mitotic

177. Monozygotic twins have:

(a) Same genetic make up and different biological sex
(b) Same genetic make up and same biological sex
(c) Dissimilar genetic make up and different biological sex.
(d) Dissimilar genetic make up but same biological sex.

178. Which type of an individual is contained actually in a haploid set of chromosomes?

(a) Budding in hydra
(b) Multiple fission in amoeba
(c) Development of male honey bee (Drone) from egg
(d) Binary fission in paramecium

179. Which of the following statements regarding pollen grain is correct

(a) Tapetum nourishes the developing pollen
(b) Sporohenous tissue in the anther is haploid
(c) Endothesium produces the microspores
(d) Only pollen cannot produces a complete plant in any condition

180. Which one of the following is said to produce seeds exposed and they called naked seed plant
(a) Deodar & Pinus (b) Marsilea & Pinus
(c) Maize & Garden Pea plant (d) Spirogyra & Funaria

181. Cycas is classified as gymnosperm because of

(i) Presence of naked seeds
(ii) Lack of vessels in the xylem
(iii)Presence of sieve tubes
(iv) Fruit formation
The correct reason is
(a) (i) and (iv) (b) (i) and (iii) (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (ii) and (iii)

182. The body of hydra is cut transversely into three pieces and the middle piece is kept upside down on
the substratum. Then
(a) It fails to regenerate into an independent hydra
(b) It would form tentacles and foot in the same locations as oriented
(c) It would form tentacies and foot at the original upper and lower ends.
(d) It will form a hydra with tentacles at both the ends.

183. Plants with inferior ovary always bear

(a) Pseudocarps (b) Berries (c) Aggregate fruits (d) Seedles fruits

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184. Testes descend down the scrotum through
(a) Outurator canal (b) Inguinal canal (c) Vertebral canal (d) Vertebra arterial canal

185. Ripened follicle in the ovary is called

(a) Corpus albicans (b) Corpus luteum (c) Mature follicel (d) Graafian follicle

186. In pregnant women, foetus’s physiological functions like nourishment, respiration and excretion are
taken up by
(a) Stomach of mother (b) Placenta (c) Placenta (d) Uterus

187. The figure below gives the level if ovarian and gonadotropin hormone is a blood sample of a normal
healthy female of 35 years.

According to you, which phase of menstrual cycle was she undergoing at the time of blood test?
(a) Menstrual phase (b) Proliferative phase
(c) Ovulatory phae (d) Luteral or secretory phase

188. Consider the following characters.

(i) Flowers with trimerous symmetry
(ii) Vascular bundles scattered in ground tissue.
(iii) Leaves with reticular ventatiuon
(iv) Plant with tap root system.
The characters exhibited by monocotyledons are
(a) (i) and (iii) only (b) (iii) and (iv) only (c) (i) and (ii) only (d) (ii) and (iv) only

189. During fertilization in amphibians, the fusion of egg and sperm plasma, is preceded by
(i) Release of enzymatic contents from the acrosomal visicle through excytosis.
(ii) Binding and interaction of the sperm to vitelline membrane.
(iii) Chemo-attraction of the sperm to the egg by soluble factors secreted by egg.
(iv) Release of the sperm nucleous into the coplasm
Which of the following is the correct sequence?
(a) (i –ii-iv-iii) (b) (ii-i-iii-iv) (c) (iii-i-ii-iv) (d) (iii-ii-i-iv)

190. Seed of an angiosperm is composed of cells

(a) Having diploid (2n) number of chromosomes
(b) Having tripold (3n) number of chromosomes only
(c) Having tripold (2n) and tripold (3n) number of chromosomes
(d) Having diploid (2n) and haploid (n) number of chromosomes

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 Answer Key

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (a)
11. (d) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (b)

21. (a) 22. (a) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (c) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b)

31. (c) 32. (b) 33. (b) 34. (d) 35. (d) 36. (b) 37. (b) 38. (c) 39. (a) 40. (d)

41. (d) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (c) 45. (c) 46. (d) 47. (a) 48. (d) 49. (a) 50. (b)

51. (a) 52. (b) 53. (b) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (b) 57. (b) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (d)

61. (a) 62. (c) 63. (d) 64. (a) 65. (c) 66. (d) 67. (a) 68. (d) 69. (c) 70. (c)

71. (b) 72. (c) 73. (b) 74. (c) 75. (b) 76. (a) 77. (d) 78. (a) 79. (b) 80. (a)
81. (c) 82. (a) 83. (c) 84. (b) 85. (b) 86. (c) 87. (c) 88. (c) 89. (c) 90. (b)
91. (a) 92. (b) 93. (b) 94. (c) 95. (b) 96. (c) 97. (c) 98. (d) 99. (d) 100. (a)
101. (a) 102. (a) 103. (c) 104. (a) 105. (d) 106. (d) 107. (a) 108. (d) 109. (d) 110. (c)
111. (d) 112. (c) 113. (a) 114. (d) 115. (a) 116. (c) 117. (a) 118. (b) 119. (a) 120. (a)
121. (a) 122. (c) 123. (d) 124. (a) 125. (d) 126. (a) 127. (a) 128. (b) 129. (a) 130. (d)
131. (b) 132. (a) 133. (b) 134. (b) 135. (a) 136. (d) 137. (c) 138. (a) 139. (a) 140. (c)
141. (c) 142. (b) 143. (b) 144. (c) 145. (b) 146. (a) 147. (c) 148. (a) 149. (c) 150. (a)
151. (a) 152. (c) 153. (a) 154. (b) 155. (b) 156. (c) 157. (a) 158. (b) 159. (c) 160. (b)
161. (c) 162. (d) 163. (b) 164. (a) 165. (b) 166. (a) 167. (c) 168. (b) 169. (b) 170. (b)
171. (d) 172. (b) 173. (a) 174. (a) 175. (c) 176. (b) 177. (b) 178. (c) 179. (a) 180. (a)
181. (c) 182. (c) 183. (a) 184. (b) 185. (d) 186. (c) 187. (d) 188. (c) 189. (c) 190. (c)

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 PLANT PHYSIOLOGY
PHOTOSYNTHESIS
 The study of various vital activities and metabolism of plants is known as plant physiology.
 Equation of photosynthesis

 Absorption spectrum of photosynthesis is blue and red light (maximum absorbed part of spectrum).
 Action spectrum of photosynthesis is red and blue light (most effective in reaction).
 Rate of photosynthesis is higher in red light, but highest in white light.
 Hill reaction-Experiment on isolated chloroplast (Stelaria plant) study of light reaction, which is
called Hill reaction.
 O2 gas librated from photolysis of H2O. Only in the presence of suitable e– acceptor. (DCPIP
(Dichlorophenol indophenols- a dye), ferricynaide, NADP+ – Hill reagents).

 Emerson and Arnold- worked on Chlorella and gave the concept of two photosystem or two pigment
systems.
 When Emerson gave light, shorter and greater than 680 nm (combined light) then photosynthetic,
activity increases, this is called as Emerson effect or enhancement effect.
(i) 680 nm  PS –I (Cyclic process) red drop appears
(ii) 680 nm  + 680 nm (Mixed light) both cyclic and non cyclic operates. (Emerson effect).
 Many pigment present in photosynthetic cells. PSU (Photosynthetic units) presents on thylakoid
membranes are made up of 230-400 molecules of various pigments, called Quantasomes by Park and
Biggins.
 PS I located- on both granum and intergranum (Stroma thylakoid), (P-700, 680 nm , Cyclic ETS)
 PS II located – on only granum, (P-680,680 nm, non cyclic ETS)
 In paper chromatography/chromatogram
Chlorophell ‘a’ appears bright or blue-green
Chlorophyll ‘b’ as –– yellow green/grass green
Xanthophyll as –– yellow
Carotenoids as –– yellow to yellow – orange

MECHANISM OR PHOTOSYNTHESIS
(A) Light reaction/Hill reaction/Photochemical reaction/Generation of assimilatory powers
(NADPH2 + ATPs)
(I) Cyclic ETS and Photophosphorylation
 In cyclic ETS, only PS-I works, which consists of carotenoids, some molecules of chi-
‘b’ and reaction centre –Chi-‘a’–700/P–700.
 Cyclic ETS OR PS –I is a activated by wavelength of light greater than 680 nm.
 It occurs at grana thylakoids and stroma thylakoids.
 During Cyclic ETS the electron ejected from reaction centre of PS-I, returns back to its
reaction centre.
 In cyclic ETS, no oxygen evolution occurs, because photolysis of water is absent,
 NADPH2 (reducing power) is not formed in cyclic process.
 Phosphorylation takes place at two places, thus two ATP generates in each cyclic ETS.

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 (II) Z-Scheme/Non-cyclic ETS and Photophosphorylation
 Both PS-I and PS –II involved in non cyclic ETS.
 PS-II (P-680) consists of Chl-a, Chl-b or Chl-c or Chl-d, carotenoids and phycobilins.
Phycobilins present only in PS II.
 It occurs at grana thylakoids only.
 The e– ejected from PS-II never back to Chl-a-680 (reaction centre) and finally gained by
NADP. Thus gap of e– in PS-II is filled by photolysis of water as a result, oxygen evolution
occurs in Z-scheme.
 Each turn of non cyclic ETS produces 1 ATP and 2NADPH2 (4 mol. Of water are photolysed
and 1 O2 released).
 12 NADPH2 + 18 ATP are required as assimilatory power to produce one molecule of
Glucose in dark reaction, thus 6 turns of Z-scheme are necessary for the production of one
glucose molecule by Calvin cyclic.
 Additional 12 ATP come from 6 turn of cyclic ETS (over all 54 ATP equivalents).
 Final e– acceptor in Z-scheme in NADP+ (Hill reagent)

(B) Dark Reaction/Blackman Reaction/Calvin cycle/C3-Cycle/Biochemical phase /Carbon

assimilation.
 Blackman reaction is called as dark reaction, because no direct light is required for this, Calvin
presented these reactions in cyclic manner and thus called as Calvin cycle.
 Rubisco (Ribulose bis-phosphate carboxylase-oxygenase) is main enzyme in C3-cycle, which is
present in stroma. Rubisco is most abundant enzyme.
 CO2-acceptor in Calvin cycle is RuBp. This carboxylation reaction is catalysed by Rubisco.
 Carboxylation 
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 (1) 6 RuBp  RuDp   6CO2  HCO3   Rubisco
 Carboxydismutase 
12 3  PGA  3C 
 6C unstable comp. 
 Glycolytic reversal 
Trioldnase
(2) 12Mol. 3  PGA  12 ATP  12 1,3  BiPGA
 3C 

(3)

(4) 5 Molecules of PGAL isomerise in to DHAP (Dihydroxy acetone phosphate)

Aidolase
3.PGAL  3mol.DHAP   3.Fructose  1, 6  Biphosphate
9C  3C  3 9C  3C  3 18C  6C  3
isomerase
[1 mol. fructose   C6 H12 O6 Glu cos e 
 Surcore / Starch]
(5) Regeneration of ribulose 1, 5 biphosphate
In this process molecule of RUBP will be regenerated again and again

DIVERSITY IN DARK REACTIONS

C4 cycle/Hatch and Slack Pathway
 Hatch and Slack Australia (1967) Studied in detail and proposed pathway for dark reactions in
sugarcane and maize leaves.
 Kranz (Wreath) anatomy –Present in leaves of C4
plants.
(I) Green bundle sheath cells (BS cells) present around the
vascular bundles.
(II) Dimorphic chloroplasts present in leaf cells. Chloroplast
of B.S. cells or Kranz cells are larger and without grana.
Mesophyll chloroplast are small and with grana.
 Rubisco preset in BS cells, while PEPCase in
mesophyll cells.
 In the C4-Plant, C3- cycle occurs in bundle sheath
cells, while C4- cycle occurs in mesophylls.
 Thus operation of Hatch and Slack pathway require
cooperation of both photosynthetic cell i.e.
mesophyll cells and BS cells.
 Photosynthetically C4 plants are more efficient.
 C4-plant are found in tropical habitats and adapted themselves, with high temperature, low water
availability and intense light.
 First carboxyiation in C4- cycle occurs by PEP Case in mesophyll cytoplasm, white second
carboxylation or final CO2 fixation by C3- cycle occurs in bundle sheath cells.

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CAM –Plants/Crassulacean acid metabolism
 Primary acceptor of CO2 is PEP (Phosphoenol pyruvate) and oxaloacetic acid is the first product of
carboxylation reaction.
 In CAM plants stomata are of scotoactive type, so initial CO2 fixation is found in night but light
reactions operates at day time, Final CO2 fixation (C3 cycle) occurs in day time. PEP case induces
carboxylation reaction in night.
 PEP carboxylase and Rubisco present in mesophyll cells. (No Kranz-anatomy).
 CAM plants exhibits ecophysiological adaptation with xeric habits.

Photorespiration
During photorespiration, 75 percent of the carbon lost by the oxygenation of RUBP is recovered. Because
two molecules of glycine (2C + 2C = 4C) form one molecule of serine (3C). During this one carbon releases
in form of CO2 in mitochondria thus 25 percent carbon is lost.

FACTORS AFFECTING PHOTOSYNTHESIS

(1) Light
 Light Quality or wavelength  Maximum photosynthesis takes place in red light than in blue light.
But rate of photosynthesis is highest in white light. Minimum in green light.

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  P/R(Photosynthesis : Respiration) Ratio at mid day is 10 : 1; but can reach upto 20 : 1 ratio. AT the
time point.
 Plants which are adapted to grow in high intensity of light is called heliophytes and plants which are
adapted to grow in shade is sciophytes.
(2) Temperature
 Optimum temperature for photosynthesis is 20 – 35oC.
 At high temperature of photosynthesis decreases due to denaturation of enzymes.
(3) CO2 (0.03%/314 ppm)
 An increase in CO2 concentration upto 1% rate of photosynthesis is increased. Higher CO2
concentration is toxic to plant and also closes stomata.
(4) O2
 High O2 conc. reduces photosynthesis due to photorespiration.
(5) Water
 Less availability of water reduces the rate of photosynthesis (stomata get closed).

SPECIAL POINTS
 First true oxygenic photosynthesis started in Cyanobacteria (BGA).
 Roots of Tinospora and Trapa are photosynthetic.
 Chlorophyll pigment soluble in organic solvents like acetone, either etc. (Anthocynain is non
photosynthetic water soluble pigment, which is present in vacuole).

Significance of photosynthesis
 Photosynthesis is vital process for life on planet earth as it is the only process, that links the physical
and biological would by conversation of solar energy into organic matter, which make bulk of the
dry matter of any organism.
 Presence of O2 in the atmosphere is also an outcome of photosynthesis. This oxygen is helpful to
living organisms in two ways.

1. Oxidative break down of organic food matter (respiration)

2. Making ozone (O3), in outer layer of atmosphere, which helps in stopping the highly destructive
U.V. rays.

C3-pathway C4-pathway CAM-pathway

st st
(1) 1 stable compound is 3-C (1) 1 stable compound is 4-C (1) First formed compound is
PGA. OAA. OAA.
(2) 18 ATP and 12 NADPH2 (2) 30 ATP and 12 NADPH2 (2) 30 ATP and 12 NADPH2 used
used for 1 glucose used for 1 glucose formation for production of 1 glucose
formation (3) Kranz anatomy present (3) Kranz anatomy absent
(3) Kranz anatomy absent (4) Absence of photorespiration (4) Photorespiration may present
(4) Presence of (5) Two type of carboxylase (5) Two type of carboxylase
photorespiration enzyme Rubisco and PEP case enzyme Rubisco and PEP case
(5) One type of carboxylase (6) Primary CO2 acceptor –PEP (6) Primay CO2 acceptor is PEP
enzyme, Rubisco only and RUBP is secondary and RUBP is secondary
(6) CO2 acceptor –RUBP acceptor acceptor

GROWTH IN PLANTS
 Growth is a characteristic feature of all living organisms.
 Growth is a vital process, which brings about permanent and irreversible change in any plant or its
part.
 Growth in plants means increase in shape, size, weight and volume of a plant or plant part.
 Growth leads to increase in fresh weight, dry weight, length, area, volume and cell number. All these
are controlled externally (by environmental factors) and internally (by genetics).

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  Growth is diffused in animals, but in plants growth is localized and irregular (nail in plant stem,
occupies same height till several years of growth).
 Seed germination is the first step of plant growth. Almost all the plants face a period of suspended
growth.
(1) Phase of cell division or cell formation: Number of cells is increases by cell division.
(2) Phase of cell enlargement or cell elongation: Size of cells increases due to vacuolization and TP
(turgor pressure).
(3) Cell maturation or differentiation phase: (also called as
morphogenetic, organogenic phase)
Development or qualitative change is important feature of
this phase.

Pattern or course of plant growth : (growth curve)

(1) Lag phase: - In lag period the growth is slow.
(2) Log phase: - also called as exponential phase
growth is maximum and most rapid.
(3) Steady or stationary phase
Time taken in growth phases (mainly log phase) is called as
“grand period of growth”.

Measurement of growth
(1) By direct observation
(2) By horizontal microscope
(3) By Crescograph (J.C. Bose):- It magnifies growth as10,000 times.

Factors affecting plant growth

(1) Light:- Light involves in photosynthesis and determine the direction of shoot and root growth. Light
controlled morphogenesis of plant is called photomorphogenesis.
(2) Temperature :- Optimum temperature for growth is 20-35Co temperature above 45oC damages the
protoplasm and growth can be retarded.
Effect of low temperature on flowering is called verbalization.
(3) Water:- Water maintains the turgidity of cell, which is essential for growth. (TP is important for
growth) in order to cell to grow  must not be allowed to reach zero.
Water is essential for the enzyme activity in protoplasm.
(4) Oxygen :- Necessary for cell respiration.
(5) Mineral nutrients :- All essential element are compulsory for growth and metabolism.
(6) Genetic factors :- Genotype and Phenotype.

AUXINS
 Boysen and Jensen 1910: Experiments of oat (Avena sativa) plant.
In the first experiment, he removed the coleoptiles tip and then replaced it on stump. On providing
unilateral light the coleoptile tip gave positive curvature.
They observed, that if gelatin inserted between the tip and cut stump, then coleoptiles bends towards
the unilateral light. If mica inserted then coleoptiles fall to show phototropism.

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Physiological effects and applications of auxin
(1) Apical dominance :- The phenomenon, in which apical bud dominates over the growth of lateral
buds is called apical dominance. Prunning in gardens promotes densing of hedge.
(2) Cell division and cell enlargement/Callus formation: Auxin is important in tissue culture and
grafting. It stimulates division of intrafascicular cambium. Also in healing of wounds.
(3) Shortening of internodes : -NAA induces the formation of dwarf shoot or spurs in apple, pear etc,
thus number of fruits increases.
(4) Prevention of lodging :- Auxin spray prevents lodging of crops, immature leaves and fruits.
(5) Root initiation : Rooting on stem cutting is promoted by IBA and NAA (Root growth inhibited by
auxin).
(6) Prevention of abscission: - IAA, NAA prevents premature abscission of plant organs.
(7) Flower initiation:- Auxin is inhibition of flowering but it promotes uniform flowering in pineapple
and litchi plants.
(8) Parthenocarpy :- Seed less fruits can be produced by spray of IAA.

(9) Selective weed killer :- Dicot broad leave weeds can be eradicated by
Agent orange is used in biowar. It was used by USA against Vietnam (1966-70)
(10) Femaleness: Feminising effect in some plants.
(11) Flower and fruit thinning :- Certain trees like mango form less number of fruits in alternate years.
But auxins can produced normal fruit crops every year. This is known as fruit thinning.

GIBBERELLINS
 First of all Japanese farmers observed peculiar symptoms in rice seedlings and called the bakane disease
(foolish seedling disease).
(1) Stem/intermode elongation : GA induces internode elongation, leaf expansion and used in sugarcane
cultivation. Gibberellins induce stem elongation in rosette plants (Cabbage). This phenomenon known
as bolting effect. (Elimination of rosette habit in some plants by gibberellins action is bolting).
(2) Elongation of genetic dwarf plants :- When gibberellins are applied to dwarf maize, Pisum and Vicia
faba, then they become tall. The rosette plant of sugarbeet indicate an extreme dwarfism, this habit can
be eliminate by CA.
(3) Flowering in LDP, in short light duration : (shortening of life cycle)
(4) Parthenocarpy :-Like auxin, exogenous use of GA also induces the formation of seedless fruits
(5) Substitution of cold treatment or vernalisation :-The biennials plants form their vegetative body in the
1st year. Then they pass through a winter season and produce flower and fruits in IInd year. GA induces
flower in first year.
(6) Breaking of dormancy : GA breaks the dormancy of seeds, buds and tubers.
(7) Seed germination : Gibberellin induce the synthesis of hydrolyzing enzymes like -amylse, lipases
and protease.
(8) Sex expression :- GA induces maleness in Cucumis, Cannabis.
(9) Fruits and flower enlarger :- Size of grape fruits and bunch and Geranium flowers increased by GA
(10) In fermentation :- More growth of yeast cells by GA.
(11) Increase height of sugarcane plant :- More sugar contents by GA

CYTOKININS (CK)
The first natural cytokinin was identified and crystallized from immature corn grains by Letham and named
as Zeatin.
(1) Cell division and cell enlargement :- One of the most important biological effect of CK (cytonkinin) on
plants is induction of cell division. In tissue culture also.
(2) Formation of interfascicular cambium and induce secondary growth.
(3) Morphogenesis:- Morphogenetic changes induced by CK in presence of IAA.
High auxin + low CK- Root formation
(4) Counteraction of apical dominance :- promotes growth of lateral buds.

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(5) Breaking the dormancy of seeds :- Like GA the dormancy certain seeds can be broken by CK.
(6) Seed germination :-Seeds of parasite plant can geminate in the absence of host by CK treatment.
(7) Delay in senescence :- (Richmond Lang Effect) The ageing process of leaves usually accompanies with
loss of chlorophyll and rapid catabolism. This is called as senescence. Senescence postponed by CK ,
(increase short life of plant parts)
(8) Parthenocarpy in some fruits
(9) Femaleness
(10) Induce stomatal opening

ABSCISSIC ACID
ABA also known as stress hormone, because it protects plants from adverse conditions like water stress.
ABA increases tolerance of plants of various types of stresses.
(1) Induce abscission – ABA causes ageing and abscission of leaves and fruits (antiauxin).
(2) Induce bud and seed dormancy – ABA regulates (anti-GA) bud and seed dormancy.
ABA plays a major role in seed maturation enabling seeds to become dormant.
(3) Induce senescence- ABA accelerates senescence of leaves.
(4) Inhibition of cell division and cell elongation –anti CK.
(5) Stomatal closing-ABA causing the stomatal closing under the water stress conditions. Increases
resistance to frost injury. (anti transparent and stress hormone)
(6) Delaying of flowering in LDP
(7) Geotropism in roots.

ETHYLENE
Gaseous hormone
Ethylene also formed in roots in water logged condition.

Physiological effects and applications

(1) Post harvest ripening of fruits-citrus, oranges, banana, apple, tomato, used at commercial level.
(2) Stimulation of senescence and abscission of leaves. Ethylene is synthesized in large quantity by ripening
fruits and senescent organs.
(3) Flowering in pineapple.
(4) Inhibits root growth:- Ethylene is inhibitor of root growth but stimulates the formation of root hairs
(5) Femaleness (Feminising effect) pineapple (Bromeliaceae).

PHOTOPERIODISM
 The relative length of day and right is called as photoperiod.
 The response of plans to the photoperiod expressed in the form of flowering is called as
photoperiodism. “Effect or requirement of relative length of day (photoperiod) and night (dark
phase) on flowering of plants is called as photoperiodism”.
(1) SDP (Short Day Plants):- “These plants give flowers on exposure to photoperiod equal or shorter
than their critical day length”.
 They need a continuous (uninterrupted) dark period for flowering. Thus SDP also called as LNP
(Long Night Plants);
 Ex. of SDP :- Tobacco, Soyabean, Viola, Xanthium (Cocklebur), Chrysanthemum, Cannable,
Caleus, Chenopodium, Mustard, Dahila, Sugarcane, Strawberry, Cosmos, Rice etc.
 In SDP the dark period is critical and must be continuous ark period, initiates early and good
flowering in SDP.
(2) LDP (Long Day Plants) :- These plants flowers only when they exposed to critical photoperiod or
photoperiod longer than their critical day length”.
 The light period is critical for LDP
 Ex. Spinach, Sugarbeets, Radish, Carrot, Wheat, Barley, Potato.
 A brief exposure in the dark period stimulates flowering in LDP
(3) DNP (Day Neutral Plants) or Intermediate plans : These plants do not need specific light period for
the flowering. Ex. Zea, Cotton, Tomato, Sunflower, Cucumber.
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 PHYTOCHROME
 Borthwick and Hendricks : Discovered a light sensitive pigment responsible for flowering.
 Phytochrome mainly located on cell membrane of all type of plants.
 Phytocrome : exists in two different forms.
 Pr(Phytochrome red) – Ted light absorbing form, induce flowering in SDP.
 Pfr (Phytochrome far red)- This is far-red light absorbing form, induce flowering in LDP.
 The Pfr (Yellowish) form, gradually changed in to Pr (bluish) form in dark

 During the day the Pfr form is accumulated in the plants, which is inhibited to flowering in SDP but
stimulates in LDP.
 All plaits don’t flower at the same time. Each species has its own flowering season, sometimes quite
brief. So how do plants know when to start flowering. Answer lies in the mechanism of
photoperiodism, The effect of deity duration of light hours or photoperiods on growth and
development of plants, especially flowering is called photoperiodism. It was discovered by Garner
and Allard (1920) in case of Maryland mammoth variety of tobacco. The environmental stimulus a
plant uses to detect the time of year is the photo period. The relative length of day and night is
usually the stimulus. Plants have a biological clock set to a 24 hours day, known circardian rhythm.
The photoreceptor responsible for keeping track of the length of day and night is the pigment
phytochrome. The phytochrome molecule is a protein that exists in two form called photo isomers
that are converted one to another by light. Phytochrome, Pr is created in plant. If the pr form of
protein is exposed to red light it is converted to its Isomer Pfr. Pfr is changed to Pr on exposure to the
far red (far red light is bordering on the Infrared light) Pfr does not last indefinitely it slowly changes
into Pr. Daylight contains more red light than far red. So the plants exposed to sun light contain only
the Pfr form of phytochrome. In darkness Pfr, slowly changes back to Pr. So the relative amounts of
the two forms phytochrome found in a plant depend on how long the day is and therefore on what
time for year it is. On the basis of photoperiodic response to flowering, plants are of three types:
SDP, LDP and DNP.

VERNALIZATION
 There are plants for which flowering is either quantitatively or qualitatively dependent on exposure
to low temperature. This phenomenon is termed vernalization. It prevents precocious reproductive
development late in the growing season, and enables the plant to have sufficient time to reach
maturity.
 Site of vernalization is apical meristem or all the meristematic cells, e.g., shoot tip, embryo tips, root
apex, etc. As a result of vemaliztion, a flowering hormone called vernalin is formed (reported by
Melchers), but vernalin has never been isolated.

Importance of vernalization
 Crops can be grown earlier. Juvenile or vegetative period is shortened and brings about early
flowering. Plants can be grown in such regions where normally they do not grow. Yield to the plant
 Plants do not have nervous system neither they have nerves nor muscles. Even then they show
movements which are well coordinated and controlled. Plants possess only chemical co-ordination.

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MOVEMENT IN PLANTS
Movements in plants are change in position they are of 2 types
1. Movements of locomotion
2. Movements of curvature

Movements of locomotion
Are changes in position of whole organism as cellular components. They are of 2 types

(I) Autonomic or spontaneous movements of locomotion. They occur automatically due to intrinsic
reasons. E.g : flagellar movements in unicellular algae like Chlamydomonas, cyclosis or streaming
movements of cytoplasm in Amoeba.
(II) Paratonic or tactic movements of locomotion: They are locomotory movements of complete cell or
cell organelles in response to external stimuli.

(a) Chemotaxis : It is locomotory movement in response to chemicals, e.g. spermatozoids towards

archegonia.
(b) Phototaxis : Locomotory movement in response to light, e.g. Chloroplast in different intensities of
light inside palisade cells.

Movements of curvature
 Are changes in orientation of plants parts in relation to others like bending, twisting and elongation.
These movements are more common in plants because they are fixed. Curvature movements can be
growth movements or turgor movements.
1. They could be either autonomic (automatically, self induced) or paratonic (in response to external
stimuli).
2. Paratonic or induced movement of curvature are of two types:
(i) Tropic (directional) (ii) Nastic or nasties (non directional)

Plant movement due to turgor changes

 They occur in plant organs which have regions of bending, where cells shrink or sweil up due to loss
or gain of turgidity. These movements are commonly reversible. They could be autonomic or
paratonic.
1. Autonomic turgor movements : Movements that occurs due to turgor changes caused by intrinsic
reasons ex. Telegraph plant (Desmodium gyrans) where two leaflets show jerky rising and falling
because of rhythmic turgor changes in cells present at the base of leaflet stalks.
2. Paratonic turgor movements : Movements that occurs due to turgor changes caused/induced by
external factors. The external factor could be water, light, touch etc.
(a) Nyctinasty : (sleep movement) occurs in response to diurnal turgor changes in leaves. Here the
leaves folds up at night and opens up during the day e.g. legumes, oxalis.
(b) Hydronastry : In many grasses leaves folds up in drought and open up when sufficient water is
available.
 The quickest response to a stimulus by any plants is shown by sensitive plant. A quick response
to stimulus is observed in the leaves of sensitive plant (Mimosa pudica, also called Touch-me-
Not, Chhui-Mui). The stimulus is touch, injury, electric current and other shocks. Within 0.1 sec
the response starts. It consists of upward folding of pinnules, coming together of pinnae and
drooping down of petiole. The movement is called haptonasty or seismonasty (in response to
shock). The stimulus of touch or shock received by any part of the leaf is converted into either an
electrochemical potential or a chemical called turgorin. The same travels at the rate of 20 cm/sec.
and reaches bases of pinnules, pinnae and petiole. Here large thin walled cells occur, on the
upper side of pinnule bases and lower sides of pinna and petiole bases. As the impulse/chemical
reaches here, the thin walled cells eject K+ ions and then water. They shrink in size resulting in
folding and drooping movements. The leaf recovers after 10 minutes.

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Plant movements due to growth
 Unequal or differential growth in different parts of an organ results in its bending and other types of
movements. They are both autonomic and paratonic.

1. Autonomic movement of growth : They are shown by apical regions of stems and tendrils. The
movements are called nutations (or circumnutations). While growing, the apices of these organs bend
in different directions resulting in their rotation. It helps the climbing stems and tendrils to find
support for climbing or clinging.
2. Paratonic movements of growth : They are growth movements in response to an external stimulus.
Paratonic movements of growth are of two types, nastic and tropic.
(i) Nastic movement of growth: None directional movements that are determined by the responding
organ irrespective of the direction of stimulus which is generally diffuse. Greater growth on one side
causes the organ to bend to the opposite side.
Hyponasty : Greater growth on the lower side; the fiat organ began to bends upwards.
Epinasty : Greater growth on the upper side; the flat organ began to bend downwards. Ex. flowers
opens at maturity due to epinasty.
(ii) Trophic movement of growth: They are directional paratonic growth movement of curvature in
which the direction of movement is determined by the direction of stimulus. Tropic movements
generally occur in cylindrical organs like stems and roots. The important tropic movements are
phototropism, geotropism, hydrotropism, thigmotropism and chemotropism.

(a) Phototropism : It is directional growths movement of curvature which occurs in response to

unidirectional exposure to light. The region of photoperception is shoot apex while the region of
response is in area of elongation. The light effective in phototropic response is blue light. The
photoreceptor is a flavoprotein called phototropin. Leaves are essential for producing the response.
Stems generally bend towards the direction of light. They are positively phototropic. Leaves
generally come to lie at right angles to light. They are diaphototropic. Roots are either neutral
(nonphototropic) or negatively phototropic. Positively phototropic heads of sunflower perform solar
taking as they move from east to west along the direction of sun. Phototropic movement is brought
about by a plant hormone auxin. Uneven lighting does not change the amount produced, but it does
cause a redistribution of auxin. Auxin moves away from the source of light, leading to more auxin,
more growth on dark side and less auxin, less growth on light side. The opposite happens in root
where less auxin stimulates growth while higher auxin inhibits growth. Root is negatively
phototrophic stem is positively phototropic.

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 (b) Geotropism : It is directional growth movement of curvature which occurs in response to force of
gravity. Many parts respond to gravity and the way they detect it, known as perception mechanism. The
region of graviperception is (i) root cap in roots (ii) nodes and apex in shoots.
 The region of response or curvature is the zone of elongation in case of stem and root.
 Main root is positively geotropic
 Main stem or shoots are negatively geotropic.

 Runners are diageotropic (lies to 90o angle with the force of gravity)
 When roots and stem lie at angle ; the plant is said to be plagiogeotropic.
 Pneumatophores or breathing roots of mangroves are negatively
geotropic. The apical part of the shoot bent upwardly due to its negative
geotropic nature. Negative geotropic response of shoots is useful in
standing up of lodged crop plants. Similarly, seedlings coming out of the
seeds placed in different directions in the soil will pass their shoots upwards
out of soil (due to negative geotropic and positive phototropic
response)while their roots will bend downwardly (due to positive geotropic
response)

(c) Hydrotropism : It is directional growth movement of curvature which

occurs in response to unilateral stimulus of water. Hydrotropism is generally shown only by roots.
Roots are positively hydrotropic. Positive hydrotropic response of root sis stronger than their
geotropic response. This can be tested by placing germinating seeds in moist saw dust contained in a
sieve. The radicles will pass down and come out of the sieve pores under the influence of gravity.
However, after some growth, they bend back and enter the saw dust again showing that hydrotropic
response is stronger than geotropic response.

(d) Thigmotropism (Haptotropism) : it is directional growth movement of curvature which occurs in

response to stimulus of contact. Thigmotropism is found in twiners and tendrils. After initial contact
with support due to nutation, the tendril or twiner shows less growth in the region of contact and

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 more growth on the other side. As a result they bend over the support. Later on bending or coiling
may occur in lower parts of the tendril as well.

(e) Chemotropism : Chemotropism is directional growth movement of curvature that occurs in

response to a chemical stimulus. It is best seen in the growth of pollen tube inside style, ovary and
ovule. Here every region produces its own nutrients and chemotactic chemicals for growth and
passage of pollen tube; Chemotropism can be observed by germinating a number of pollen grains in
a minimal medium. A drop of nutrient medium containing boron will result in bending of pollen
tubes towards it from all directions.

WATER RELATIONS OF PLANTS

DIFFUSION
 “The movement of molecules or atoms or ions of a materials from an area of higher
concentration to an area of their lower concentration is called diffusion”.
 The diffusion is continue till the dynamic equilibrium is not established. As this stage the net
movement is equal in both direction.
 The kinetic energy, which is present in the molecule of material is distributed equally in their
available space by their nature.
 Diffusion rate  Gas  Liquid  Solid

DIFFUSION PRESSURE :
 Water molecules moves from their higher concentration to the their lower concentration in plants.
 The rate of diffusion decreases with increasing size of molecules.

Significance of diffusion
(1) Exchange of gases like CO2, O2 takes place through the diffusion,
(2) The distribution of hormones in the plants takes place through the diffusion.
(3) The process of transpiration is a diffusion process. The evaporation of water from the
intercellular spaces is linked with diffusion during the transpiration.
(4) The ions of the minerals may diffused into the plant body.
(5) The process of osmosis is a special type of diffusion of solvent molecules through semi-
permeable membranes.

OSMOSIS
 “Osmosis is defined as the special diffusion of solvent (water in this context) from the solution of
lower concentration to the solution of higher concentration when both the solutions are separated by
a semipermeable membrane.”

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  Passing of water through the semipermeable membrane is the example of osmosis.
 The water moves into the cell during the osmosis is called endosmosis.
 When the water starts moving out of the cell then it is called exosmosis.

PERMETABLITY
 The exchange of materials in and out through the membrane is called permeability.
 The membranes are divided in the following type on the basis of permeability.
(i) Permeable membrane
Such membranes are permeable for both- solutes and solvent, e.g. cell wall, filter paper.
(ii) Semipermeable membranes
Such membranes allow diffusion of solvent molecules, but do not allow the passage of solutes e.g.
artificial membranes like cellophane.
(iii)Selective permeable membrane OR differentially permeable membrane
These membranes are permeable for CO2, N2, O2 gases, alcohol, ether and water, but impermeable
for polysaccharides and proteins.
(iv) Impermeable membrane :
Rubber membrane, Al-foil, suberised cell wall, cork wall.

OSMOTIC PRESSURE ORO.P.

 Osmotic pressure is the pressure developed in a solution when solution and water are separated by
semipermeable membrane.
 The osmotic, pressure of pure water is zero. O.P. is due to presence of solute into the solution.
 The osmotic pressure of a solution is directly proportional to the concentration of solute in it.
 The osmotic pressure shows maximum variation in the plants cells.
 According to Hariss the osmotic pressure is highest in leaves and lowest in roots.
 The highest osmotic pressure is found in the halophyte group. Atriplex confortifolia (202 atm.)
 The lowest osmotic pressure is found in aquatic plants or hydrophytes.
 Hydrophytes < Mesophytes < Xerophytes < Halophytes.
 Generally osmotic pressure is lesser during the night and higher at noon.
 Water moves from lower O.P. towards the higher O.P.

Significance of Osmosis

(1) Root hairs of the roots absorb water from the soil through the process of osmosis.
(2) The conduction of water from one cell to another cell in plant and distribution of water in plant through
the osmosis.
(3) Turgidity is developed by the process of endosmosis, which helps to maintain a definite shape of leaves,
stem and flowers. Turgidity also provides mechanical strength to the plants.
(4) The opening and closing of stomata is also depends on the process of osmosis.
(5) The leaves of Mimosa pudica (“Touch me not”) are drooping down only by contact and dehiscence of
fruits depends upon turgor change after osmosis.
(6) The resistance power increases due to high osmotic concentration against the dry climate and low
temperature.

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TURGOR PRESSURE OR T.P. AND WALL PRESSURE OR WP
 “When a cell is immersed in water, then water enter into the cell because osmotic pressure of the cell
sap is higher. The cell content press upon the wall or develop a pressure against the cell wall, which
is called turgor pressure”.
 Plant cell does not burst, when placed in a pure water due to wall pressure, but an animal cell burst
when place in pure water because wall pressure is absent due to absence of cell wall.
 For example the consequence of endosmosis in animal cell can be demonstrated by placing RBCs of
human blood in distilled water. When examined after some time, the RBCs are found to have burst
upon, leaving their cell membranes as empty cases.
 A flaccid cell has zero turgor pressure.
 The highest value of turgor pressure is found in fully turgid cell and it is equal to the osmotic
pressure. Fully turgid cell has OP =TP

Significance of T.P.
(1) Protoplasm of the cell attached with the cell wall due to turgidity of the cell and cell is in stretched
condition. It maintains the normal shape of the cell in which physiological processes are going on.
(2) Turgor pressure helps in cell elongation or growth of cell.
(3) Plant movement like, movement of guard cells or stomata, wilting movements and seismonastic
movements etc. depend upon turgor pressure.
(4) Turgor pressure provides essential power to the plumule to coming out from the soil and help in
penetration of radical into the soil.

DIFFUSION PRESSURE DEFICIT (DPD) OR SUCTION PRESSURE (SP)

DPD: The difference between the diffusion pressure of the solution and it’s pure solvent at particular
temperature is called DPD.
Or The DPD of any solution is the difference between the diffusion pressure of the water, which is present in
the solution and diffusion pressure of pure water.
 The DPD of any free solution is equal to the osmotic pressure of that solution.
DPD = OP
(i) DPD in partially turgid or normal cell
DPD = OP – TP
(ii) DPD for fully turgid cell
So that DPD = 0
(iii) DPD for plasmolysed cell
 DPD of the plasmolysed cell is greater than osmotic pressure.
It means- DPD = OP + TP
Demand of water= Plasmolysed cell > Flaccid cell > Partially turgid cell > Fully turgid cell

WATER POTENTIAL OR  w
 “The difference between the free energy of molecules of pure water and free energy of the solution is
called water potential of the system”.
 The water potential of pure water is maximum the pure water has greater free energy. The free
energy, lower down by addition of solute.
 Water always flows from higher water potential to lower water potential.
 Water potential is represented by Greek word  (Psi)  w and it measured in bars or Pascal (Pa).

1. Osmotic potential (  S )
 Osmotic potential or solute potential represents the concentration of the solutes. Water potential
(  w )is negative in the presence of solutes. So that osmotic potential is also negative.
 According to thermodynamics, osmotic pressure is called solute potential or osmotic potential. It is
represented by  S and shown by negative sign (–ve) or it is better to say osmotic potential on the
basis of free energy.
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  Osmotic potential or solute potential measured in bars. [1Bar = 0.987 atmospheric pressure].
 OP = 22.4 atm  osmotic potential = – 22.4 atm, (1 M glucose solution)

2. Pressure potential (  P )
 Turgor pressure is known as pressure potential. It is shown by positive sign (+ve)
 According to this concept their relation is as follows.
 Water potential = Osmotic potential + pressure potential + matric potential
 or  w   S   P   m
 w   S   P As  m and  g (Matric potential and gravitational potential) are negligible.

TYPES OF SOLUTIONS
(i) Isotonic solution
 If solution, in which a cell is placed, has equal osmotic concentration to that of cell sap, the outer
solution is called isotonic solution.

(ii) Hypotonic solution

 If the osmotic concentration of outer solution is lesser than that of the cell sap, the outer solution is
called hypotonic solution. If a cell is placed in such solution endosmosis takes place, results, cell swells
up. e.g. Swelling of dried grape (resins).

(iii) Hypertonic solution

 If the osmotic concentration of a solution is higher than that of the other (cell sap), solution is known as
hypertonic solution)
 If a cell placed in this type of solution, exosmosis takes place. It means water of the cell sap differed out
into the outer solution, resulting cell become flaccid.
 e.g. Grapes placed in higher concentration of sugar solution becomes flaccid (contracts).

PLASMOLYSIS
 If a plant cell placed in a hypertonic solution, water molecules diffused out from the cell. As a result of
exosmosis, the protoplasm of the cell detached from the cell wall and starts shrinking. This is called
plasmolysis.
 The various sequences of plasmolysis are as follows 
(i) In a turgid cell, the cell sap pushed away the protoplasm, so that it is in close contact with cell wall.
(ii) When it placed in a hypertonic solution, the volume of the cell reduces due to shrinking of cell because
some amount of water of cell sap diffuses out by exosmosis. Turgor pressure decreases by which cell
wall is not pushed by the protoplasm, so that shrinking cell membrane reduces in total volume of the
cell. This situation, is called the first stage of plasmolysis.
(iii) If the diffusion of water to the outside is continue by the exosmosis then central vacuole contracts and
with this protoplasm also shrinks but cell wall is not contracting. So that protoplasm is seems to detach
from the corners of cell wall. This condition is known as second phase of the plasmolysis or incipient
plasmolysis.
(iv) The shrinking of protoplasm is continuous due to continuous exosmosis, it detaches from the cell wall
and assumed a spherical shape. This phase is known as evident plasmolysis/full plasmolysis.
Hypertonic solution is present in between the cell wall and protoplasm.

Significance of plasmolysis
(i) A living cell is distinguished from the non living [dead] cell through the plasmolysis. Because
plasmolysis does not occur in dead cell.
(ii) The osmotic pressure of any cell can be measured by incipient plasmolysis.
(iii) If the plasmolysis remains for long duration in a cell then it dies. To destroy the weeds, salts puts in
their roots.
(iv) High amount of chemical fertilizers near the root causes death or browning of the plant due to
plasmolysis.
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(v) The fresh water growing plants are either wilted or die when they are kept in marine water.

IMBIBITION
 Adsorption of undissolved liquid by any solid material is called imbibitions or adsorption of water by
hydrophilic colloids is known as imbibitions.
 This is a physical process by which a dry solid colloid material swells up by adsorption of water.
 The cell wall is made up of colloidal substances as cellulose, pectic, hemicelluloses etc. All they are
in nature. Therefore they imbibe water.
 A huge pressure is developed in material due to imbibitions. This pressure is called imbibition
pressure (IP).

Significance of Imbibition
(1) Absorption of water during the seed germination is only initiate through the imbibition.
(2) Initial process of water absorption in roots by root hairs is imbibition.
(3) The water enter into the aerial roots and dry fruits is due to imbibition.

ABSORPTION OF WATER BY PLANTS

 Water is an excellent solvent and essential for the physiological process and helps in uptake and
distribution of nutrients and solutes for growth and development of plants.
 Water participates in many vital activities of the plants. All the organic and inorganic material are
translocated only through the water. The cells of the plant remain in turgid condition due to water. It
helps in the growth of the plant. Water is essential for germination of seeds. All the enzyme action only
takes place in the presence of water. Plant movement sis due to the turgidity of the cells. Translocation
of nutrients and chemical reaction of plants take in aqueous solution.

PATH OF WATER ABSORPTION

 Soil solution  Root hairs  Epiblema/Epidermis  Cortex  Cortex  Endodermis (passage cells)
 Pericycle cells  Protoxylem  Metaxylem.
 The water situated in the soil is to be reach up to the xylem of root. Root hairs remain in the contact of
water. First of all water is easily adsorbed on pectin wall of root hairs, then water entered into the
epidermis of root hairs. From here water reaches up to the endodermis through the cortex. The wall of
endodermis are suberised. But cells lie in front of the protozylem are thin walled known as passage cells.
These cell transfer water to the xylem. From here water reached to the xylem from endodermal cells
through the thin walled pericycle cells.

(a) Symplast
A sustainable living path is known as symplast, this is the living passage. The movement of water from
cell to cell through plasmodesmata is called symplastic path in plant. This movement of water through
membrane is also called s transmembrane pathway.

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 (b) Apoplast
This is the non living pathway in plants. Water travel through cell wall, intercellular space and xylem
cavity together form apoplast.

MECHANISM OF WATER ABSORPTION

Water is absorbed by two different ways
(1) Active water absorption (2) Passive water absorption

Mechanism
1. Active absorption of water  Acc. to this method water is absorbed due to the activity of roots or by
expenditure of ATPs.
Only 4% of total absorbed water is taken by this process.
2. Passive absorption of water  According to this method forces for the absorption of water originates
in aerial parts by rapid transpiration and roots remain as passive organ.
About 96% of water is absorbed by passive method. Rapid transpiration, result in suction force,
which suck the water from roots.

Factors affecting water absorption

(1) Available soil water
(2) Soil temperature
Soil temperature affects the following mechanisms
(i) Low temperature decreases the permeability of cell membrane.
(ii) It is essential for the activity of enzymes for the formation of root hairs.
(iii) At low temperature viscosity of capillary water is increased.
(3) Soil Air
Absorption of water proceeds more rapidly in well aerated soil.
Poorly aerated soil is physiologically dry.
(4) Soil Concentration
The rate of the absorption is inversely proportional to the concentration of minerals present in soil.
(5) Transpiration
The rate of water absorption is directly proportional to the rate of transpiration, because passive water
absorption increases due to transpiration.

ASCENT OF SAP
 Upward movement of absorbed water against the gravitational force upto top parts of plants is called as
ascent of sap.
 Xylem is water conducting tissue in plants.

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Root pressure theory : By Priestley
 According to it, a positive pressure develop into xylem sap, due to turgidity or activity of root cells
(cortical cells). is called root pressure, which pushed water upwards is xylem.
 Transpiration pull and cohesion force theory : By Dixon and Jolly.
 Most accepted or universally accepted theory of ascent of sap.
 According to it 3 components are involved in ascent of sap.
(a) Cohesion : Mutual attraction between the water molecule is known as cohesion, which form a
continuous water column in xylem elements.
(b) Adhesion: Attraction between xylem walls and water molecules is called adhesion force, which helps in
maintenance of water column of xylem.
(c) Transpiration Pull : A tension or negative pressure develops in xylem, due to rapid transpiration in
leaves (because of high DPD) this creates a transpiration pull, which is responsible for the pulling up of
water column in xylem. So ascent of sap is constitutive effect of cohesion, adhesion and transpiration
pull.

FOOD TRANSLOCATION IN PLANTS

 Food/organic material conduction in plants mainly occurs by phloem. (Proved by Girding experiment)
Food conduction occurs in between source and sink, Source is net exporter while sink is importer.
 Generally green photosynthetic plant parts acts as source like leaves while non photosynthetic parts like
root, shoot, fruits acts as sink.
 Food conduction may be in any required direction unlike the water conduction which is a unidirectional
process.
 Translocation of food mainly occurs in the form of sucrose or it is non-reducing sugar and chemical inert
in pathway of conduction.
 Pressure flow/mass flow hypothesis of food/sucrose translocation-Given by E. Munch (1930). This is the
most accepted theory of food conduction in plants.
 Phloem loading/sucrose loading at source  It is an active process helped by carrier molecules. At
source due to phloem loading concentrating of sieve cells increase, results in increase in osmotic
pressure and water will moves from nearby xylem into sieve cells results in increase in turgor
pressure(T.P) and increase in water potential (  W ). It establish a higher T.P. at source and in sieve
tubes. Sucrose moves from source in sieve tubes towards sink from high T.P/High  W to towards the
low. T.P/low  W .

 Phloem unloading/sucrose unloading at sink I t is an active process helped by carrier molecules. At

sink sucrose is unloaded results in decrease in osmotic pressure (O.P), it results in exit of water into near

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by xylem leads to decrease in turgor pressure (T.P) and water potential (ψw) of phloem. In sink cells the
unloaded sucrose is either changed into starch (as starch not change O.P) or consumed, to maintain low
O.P and continuous unloading.

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TRANSPIRATION
Loss of water in form of vapour, from the aerial parts (organs) of living plats is known as Transpiration.
(i) Stomatal transpiration
 Transpiration takes place through the stomata which are present on the leaves of the plants and delicate
organs, is called stomatal transpiration. The maximum amount of water is lost by this transpiration about
80% to 90% transpiration is occurs through the stomata.
 Stomata are absent in algae, fungi and submerged aquatic plants
 Foliar transpiration : Total transpiration takes place through the leaves is called as foliar transpiration.
 Foliar transpiration = stomatal + cuticular from the leaves.

(ii) Cuticular Transpiration

Loss of water through the cuticle which present on the herbaceous stem and leaves. Cuticle is a wax
like thin layer present on epidermis. About 9% transpiration is cuticular.

(iii) Lenticular Transpiration

Minute pore like structure found on the stem of some woody plants and epidermis of some fruits
called lenticels. Some amount of water is lost by lenticels is known as lenticular transpiration.
However it is approximately 0.1% to 1% of the total water lost.

STUCTURE OF STOMATA

The cell wall bordering the stomatal pore is thicker than that of next to the surrounding cells
(A) Aperture closed (B) Aperture open

 Stomata are found on the aerial delicate organs and outer surface of the leaves in the form of minute
pores. Stomatal pore is surrounded by two specialised epidermal cells called as guard cell. They are
kidney shaped. The number of guard cells are two.
 The structure of guard cells in monocots (Gramineae) is dumbell shaped.
 Guard cells are epidermal cells. But due to presence of chloroplast they are different from that of
epidermal cells.
 The outer wall of the guard cells is thin and elastic, while wall is thick and non elastic.
 Guard cells are surrounded by some specialized epidermal cells called subsidiary cells or accessory cells.
 In xerophytic plants position of stomata is deep in the surface of the leaf. Stomata are present in this
position are called sunken stomata.

MECHANISM OR OPENING AND CLOSING OF STOMATA OR STOMATAL MOVMENT AND

MECHANISM IF TRANSPIRATION
 H  exchange theory or active proton transport mechanism
(3) Active K  
 First of all Fujino observed that influx of K+ ions in guard cells during stomatal opening. Detail study of
this phenomenon was done by Levitt, who proposed this theory. Acc. to him stomata opens by following
mechanism
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  Closing of stomata: Plant hormone ABA-acts on guard cells, which interfere the exchange of
 H  ions in guard cells, results in reverse of rxn. Of opening of stomata, hence stomata
K  
closed. pH of guard cells is decrease during night, which favours stomatal closing.

Factors affecting stomatal opening and closing

(1) Light
In most of the plants stomata open during the day except succulent xerophytic plants and close
during the dark. Opening of stomata completes in the presence of blue and red light. Blue light is
most effective and causing stomatal opening.
(2) Temperature
(3) CO2 concentration
Stomata opens at low concentration of CO2 while closed at high concentration of CO2.
CO2 is antitranspirant gas.

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(4) Growth Hormones
Cytokinin hormone induce opening of stomata. It increases the influx of K+ ions and stimulate the
stomata for opening.
While ABA stimulate the stomata for closing
(5) Atmospheric humidity
Stomata opens for long duration and more widen in the presence of humid atmosphere, while
stomata remains closed in dry atmosphere or partial opening at higher atm. Humidity transpiration
will be stop but stomata remain completely open.

(6) Anti transpirants

 Chemical substances which reduce the rate of transpiration are known as antitraspirants. Anti
transpirants are as follows:
 Aspirin, (Salicylic acid), Abscisic Acid (ABA), CO2 and low viscous wax.
 PMA closed the stomata for more than two weeks partially.
 Antitranspirants are used in dry-farming.

Significance of transpiration
(1) In regulation of temperature
 Cooling effect on the surface of leaves is produced by the process of transpiration, due to which
temperature remains constant in plants.
 The plants are protected from the burning of heat due to transpiration. Evaporation of water produces
cooling effect.
(2) Translocation of minerals in plant body
 Mass flow of water is found during the passive absorption of water. Hence it is assumed that
minerals enter the roots through the water.
(3) In ascent of sap
(4) In water absorption
(5) Distribution of absorbed salts
(6) Distribution of absorbed salts
(7) Control of hydrological cycle

GUTTATION
 Loss of water from the uninjured part or margin of leaves of the plant in the form of water droplets is
called as guttation.
 Exuded liquid of guttation along with water contains some organic and inorganic (dissolved) substances.
It means it is not pure water.
 Guttation occurs from the margins of the leaves through the special pore (always open) like structures
are called hydathodes or water stomata.
 Generally guttation take place due to root pressure, develop in cortex cells of root.

BLEEDING
 Fast flowing of liquid from the injured or cut parts of the plants is called bleeding or exudation.
 This process takes place due to high root pressure.
 Bleeding is important in economic biology, because opium, latex of rubber is obtained by this.

WILTING
 Dropping of soft parts of the plants due to loss of turgidity in their cells is called wilting. Wilting is
caused due to high rate of transpiration during mid-day or deficiency of water in soil and also in
prolonged drought condition.
 Wilting may be temporary or permanent.
 Incipient wilting : This is the starting of wilting without any external symptom is called incipient wilting

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MNERAL ABSORPTION AND NUTRITION OR PLANTS
There are two methods of absorption of mineral salts
(A) Passive absorption of minerals : (Without expenditure of ATP)
(1) By Simple diffusion : According to this method mineral ions may diffuse in root cells from the soil
solution.
(2) By mass flow : According to this method mineral ions absorption occurs with flow of water under the
influence of transpiration.
(3) By ion exchange : This is exchange of mineral ion with the ions of same charge.
(B) Active ion absorption : (By expenditure of ATPs)
 Carrier concept : By Vanden Honert. According to this theory some specific carrier molecules made
up of proteins are present in cell membrane of root cell, which absorb both the ions and forms ion-
carrier complex. This complex is broken inside the cell membrane with the use of energy.

MINERAL NUTRAITION
 About 50-60 elements are present in plant body but only 16/17 elements are considered as essential
elements.
According to Arnon-criteria of essentiality or minerals
(i) The element must be necessary for normal growth and reproduction of all plants.
(ii) The requirement of the element must be specific for plant life. That is indispensible element to plant.
(iii) The elements must be directly involved in metabolism of plant.

1. Major element/Macronutrients : concentration must be 1-10 pg L–1/10 m mole kg–1 of dry matter.
C, H, O, N, K, S, Ca, Mg, P
2. Minor element/Micronutrients : (Concentration present less than 1.0–0.1 pg L–1/10 m mole kg–1 per
gram of dry matter)
Fe, Cu, Zn, B, Cl, Mn, Mo
 Almost all types of soil are deficient of N, P and K so these elements are known as critical elements
and are given to the soil inform of NPK fertilizers to take good crop yield.
 Plants grown in moistened air with nutrients is aeroponics.

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 MINERAL – NUTRIATION

NAME ROLE/FUNCTION DEFICIENCY SYMPTOMS

NITROGEN (i) Imp. Constituent of proteins (i) Chlorosis (yellowing) in
(Imp. In growth, metabolism, (AA), RNA, DNA older leaves (highly mobile)
heredity and reproduction) (ii) Present in porphyrins of
NO3 form chlorophylls and cytochromes,
(Nitrate) thus active role in
photosynthesis and respiration
Rarely NO 2 or NH 4
(ETS).
(iii) Part of vitamins, Co-enzymes
(NAD, NADP) and alkaloids.
(iv) Constituent of plant hormones –
IAA, and AT ps.
(v) Absorbed from soil as
NO3 , NO2 , NH 3 some plants
from air by nitrogen fixers
(Rhizobia, Azolla, fungi)
SULPHUR (i) Parts of cystinine, cysteine and (i) Chlorosis or yellowing in
SO 24 (Sulphate) form methionine amino acids. younger leaves.

PHOSPHORUS (1) Very imp, in RNS, DNA (i) Premature leaf fall, necrosis,
H 2 Po 4 and HPO 24 (heredity) phospholipid (cell anthocyanin formation
(Orthophosphate anion form) membrane) NADP (co-enzyme)
ATP (Energy reactions)
(ii) Imp. In photosynthesis (NADP),
protein synthesis, (DNA, RNA,
ATP, AA)
CALCIUM (i) Imp. for mechanical strength, (i) Disintegration of growing
Ca++ form because Ca is constituent of apices (root, shoot, leaf
middle lamella (Ca-pectate in apex).
cell wall). (ii) Irregular cell divisions
(ii) Permeability of biomembrane is (mitosis) and death of
maintained
(iii) stability of chromosome
structure and in spindle
formation (Hewitt 1963)
MOLYBDENUM (i) Role as prosthetic group of (i) Interveinal chlorosis e.g.
MoO 24 form nitrate reductase and nitrogenase Lemon
(Molybdate ion) in nitrogen metabolism
 MoO 22 
POTASSIUM (i) Key role in stomatal movement (i) Mottled (interveinal)
K+ is only Monovalant cation in and transpiration chlorosis and shorter the
Free form (ii) In starch synthesis and internodes. (bushy habit)
distribution, regulation of
permeability and balance charge
of cells (Cation-anion balance)
MAGNESIUM (i) Constituent of Chlorophyll and (i) Interveinal chlorosis on large
Mg++ form in binding of ribosomal units scale and formation of
(ii) Activator of many enzymes in anthocyanin in older leaves.
Carbohydrate metabolism,
hexokinase
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IRON (Fe) (i) Iron-porphyrin protein for (i) Rapid Interveinal chlorosis
Absorption in Fe++(us) form, cytochromes, Peroxidase, (New leaves)
which is active form Catalases (Photorespiration) (ii) Inhibition of respiration
(ii) Important for ferredoxin
biological N2 fixation and ETS.
(iii) Essential role in chlorophyll
synthesis

MANGANESE (i) Essential for O2 evolution and (i) Deficiency causes chlorotic
Mn++ form photolysis of water in light and necrotic spots on leaves.
reaction (Mosaic pattern)
(ii) Marsh spot of pea and grey
speak of oat.

BORON (i) B is only micronutrient, which is (i) Stem and root tips (apex)
H3 BO3 or B(OH)3 or BO33 not associated with enzymes. dies, root growth stunted.
(Borate) (ii) Required for uptake and
utilization of Ca-, membrane
functioning, pollen germination
cell elongation cell
differentiation and carbohydrate
translocation
(iii) B is essential in pollen tube
formation
COPPER (i) Vit.–c (ascorbic acid) formation. (i) “Die-back of citrus” and
Cu++ form other fruit trees exanthema
Toxic in High cons in trees.
ZINC (i) Specific role in Auxin (IAA) (i) Mottle leaf disease in fruit
Zn++ form hormone synthesis in cell. trees little leaf disease.
(ii) Activator of carbonic anhydrase, (ii) ‘Khaira disease of paddy’
carboxylases, alcohol Rosette disease in walnut.
dehydrogenase, peptidase (iii) Inhibit seed formation,
(iii) In seed formation white bud disease in maize.

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 PLANT PHYSIOLOGY

1. When stomata open, the pH of guard cell

(a) Increases (b) Decreases (c) Remains same (d) both (a) & (b)

2. Water lost in guttation is

(a) Pure water (b) Impure water (c) In vapour form (d) Either (a) & (b)

3. Which of the following elements are essential for the photolysis of water ?
(a) Ca and Cl (b) Mn and Cl (c) Zn and I (d) Cu and Fe

4. Plant hormones are

(a) Growth regulators (b) Growth promoters (c) Growth inhibitors (d) None of these

5. The most common auxin is

(a) GA (b) ABA (c) kinetin (d) IAA

6. Gibbrtrllin promotes cell division and elongation in

(a) Leaves (b) Roots (c) Shoots (d) All of these

7. The deteriorative processes in plants, that naturally terminate their functional life, are collectively
called
(a) Wilting (b) Abscission (c) Plasmolysis (d) Senescence

8. Which of the following is used for ripening of fruits

(a) Auxin (b) ABA (c) Ethylene gas (d) Cytokinin

9. Induction of flowering in plants by low temperature treatment is called

(a) Vernalization (b) Photoperiodism (c) Cryobiology (d) Chilozology

10. Plant growth is

(a) Limited (b) Unlimited (c) Diffused (d) Both (a) & (b)

11. Hormone produced during leaf fall is

(a) IAA (b) ABA (c) Florigen (d) Kinetin

12. Climacteric fruit shows

(a) high respiration rate at ripening (b) sudden change in taste
(c) sudden change in colour and shape (d) none of the above

13. What will happen if plant cells are placed in hypertonic solution
(a) Turgid (b) Plasmolysed (c) Deplasmolysed (d) Lysed

14. Loss of water from tips of leaves is called

(a) Bleeding (b) Guttation (c) Respiration (d) Transpiration

15. Which of the following is related with transfer of food material :

(a) Xylem (b) Collenchyma (c) Phloem (d) Parenchyma

16. Which of the following apparatus is commonly used to measure the rate of transpiration is
(a) Porometer (b) altimeter (c) Potometer (d) Luxmeter

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17. Genetically dwarf plant can be converted into a plant of normal height with the application of
(a) Ethylene (b) Gibberellins (c) Cytoldnins (d) Auxin

18. Which of the following element is most mobile in plant metabolism:

(a) Calcium (b) Phosphorus (c) Carbon (d) Magnesium

19. The process of converting ammonia to nitrate by bacteria is known as

(a) Ammonification (b) Nitrification (c) Nitrogen fixation (d) Denitrification

20. Root nodules which are present in plants are meant for fertilizers and are found in/on
(a) Certain leguminous plants (b) Casurina
(c) Alanus (d) All of the above

21. Agriculturists have reported about 40-50% higher yields of rice by applying
(a) Azolla (b) Cyanophycean members
(c) Mycorrhizae (d) Thom forest

22. A nutrient element essential for the formation of micro-tubules of the mitotic spindle apparatus
during cell division is
(a) Phosphorus (b) Sulphur (c) Calcium (d) Zinc

23. Phytochrome is responsible for

(a) Photosynthesis (b) Flowering (c) Fruit formation (d) Respiration

24. Which of the following is a gaseous hormone

(a) Ethylene (b) Cytokinin
(c) Both ethylene and auxin (d) Gibberellin

25. Non-symbiotic N2 fixer is

(a) Anabaena (b) Rhizobium (c) Azotobactor (d) Azolla

26. The pineapple which under natural conditions is difficult to blossom has been made to produce fruits
throughout the year by the application of
(a) IAA, IBA (b) NAA, 2, 4-D
(c) Phenyl mercuric acid (d) Cytokinins

27. The N2 fixing bacterium associated with root nodules of legumes is known as
(a) Azotobacter (b) Nitrobacter (c) Lactobacillus (d) Rhizobium

28. The bacteria which convert nitrate in to molecular nitrogen is called

(a) Nitrifying bacteria (b) Methano bacteria
(c) Diazotrophic bacteria (d) Denitrifying bacteria

29. The bacterium capable of anaeroble H2 Fixation is known as

(a) Clostridium (b) Bacillus (c) Azotobacter (d) Rhizobium

30. A small mesophytic twig with green leaves is dipped into water in a big beaker under sunlight. It
demonstrates:
(a) Photosynthesis (b) Respiration (c) Transpiration (d) None of the above

31. Which one is not related to transpiration

(a) Regulation of plant body temperature (b) Absorption and distribution of mineral salts
(c) Circulation of water (d) Bleeding

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32. Which element is essential for photolysis of water ?
(a) Nitrogen (b) Manganese (c) Carbon (d) Oxygen

33. Most of the plants are seasonal due to

(a) Photoperiodism (b) Phototropism (c) Photosynthesis (d) Photolysis

34. Certain chemical substances having profound effect on plant growth are called
(a) Catalyic agents (b) Phytohormones (c) Enzymes (d) Compost

35. Which one of the following can utilize molecular nitrogen (N2) as nutrient for growth ?
(a) Rhizobium (b) Sourigtra (c) Mucor (d) Methancoccus

36. Stomata can open at night also in

(a) Xerophyte (b) Gametophyte (c) Hydrophyte (d) None of these

37. Who had said that “transpiration is necessary evil” :

(a) Curtis (b) Steward (c) Andersen (d) J.C. Bose

38. The activity of -amylase in the endospore of bariey germinating seed in induced by:
(a) Ethylene (b) Cytoldnin (c) IAA (d) Gibberellin

39. A pigment concerned with floral induction is

(a) Florigen (b) Chlorophyll (c) Plastocyanin (d) Phytochrome

40. Gibberellins were first discovered in fungal genus

(a) Mucor (b) Rhizopus (c) Agaricus (d) Fusarium

41. Which of the following is a biofertilizer

(a) Funaria (b) Fern (c) Anabaena (d) Fungus

42. Stomata opens during day because the guard cells have
(a) Outer walls thin (b) Kidney shape (c) Chlorophyll (d) large nuclei

43. Which one of the following elements is present in chlorophylls

(a) Manganese (b) Magnesium (c) Copper (d) Iron

44. Which one of the following bacteria has potential for nitrogen fixation
(a) Nitrosomonas (b) Nitrobacter (c) Nitrosomcoccus (d) Rhizobium

45. The presence of auxins in a solution could be tested

(a) Avena sativa stem tip test (b) Carbon tetrachloride test
(c) Iodine test (d) Defoliation test

46. Stomata open and close due to

(a) Turgor pressure change (b) Hormone change
(c) Temperature change (d) All of the above

47. For nitrogen fixation, pigment useful is

(a) Ntrogenase (b) Haemoglobin (c) Myoglobin (d) Leghaemoglobin

48. In plasmolyed cell, the space between cell wall and Protoplasm is occupied by
(a) Hypotonic solution (b) Hypertonic solution (c) Isotonic solution (d) Distill water

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49. The pigment sensitive for red and far red light is
(a) Chlorophyll (b) Phytochcome (c) Cytochrome (d) Carotene

50. Hormone which breaks seed dormancy is

(a) Auxin (b) Gibberellin (c) Ethylene (d) Cytokinin

51. In CAM plants stomata are

(a) Closed at night and open during the day (b) Closed during the day and open at night
(c) Never closes (d) Never opens

52. The real force responsible for the movement of water from cell to cell is
(a) OP (b) TP (c) DPD (d) WP

53. Which of the following is symbiotic bacteria

(a) Rhizobium (b) Azotobactor (c) Closridium (d) Streptomyces

54. Which of the following have sunken stomata

(a) Nerium (b) Mangifera (c) Hydrilla (d) Zea mays

55. If a cell shrinks when placed in a solution, this solution is

(a) Hypotonic (b) Hypertonic (c) Isotonic (d) Pure solvent

56. If a cell A with DPD 4 bars is B, C, D whose osomotic pressure and turger pressure are respectively
4 and 4, 10 and 5, 7 and 3 bar, the flow of water will be
(a) B to A, C and D (b) A to D, B and C (c) C to A, B and D (d) A to B, C and D

57. Which one of the following is not a synthetic auxin

(a) 2, 4-D (b) 2-4-5-T (c) NAA (d) IAA

58. Guard cell controls

(a) Intensity of light entering (b) Photosynthesis
(c) Closing and opening of stomata (d) Change in green colour

59. Which plant hormone causes fruit ripening?

(a) IAA (b) Cytokinin (c) Ethylene (d) GA

60. Which hormone is responsible for apical growth?

(a) IAA (b) ABA (c) GA (d) All of these

61. Active transport

(a) Releases energy (b) Requires energy
(c) Produces ATP (d) Produces a toxic substance

62. The metal ion involved in stomatal regulation is

(a) Fe (b) Mg (c) Zn (d) K

63. Abscisic acid controls

(a) Cell elongation and cell wall formation (b) Shoot elongation
(c) Leaf fall and dormancy (d) Cell division

64. Which hormone is used to induce ripening in banana

(a) Cytokinin (b) Ethylene (c) ABA (d) GA3

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65. Valamen tissues are associated with
(a) Haustorial function (b) Assimilation
(c) Absorption of moisture (d) Nutrition

66. Cohesion tension theory regarding ascent of sap was given by

(a) Dixon and Jolly (b) J.C. Bose (c) Christian Wolf (d) Godlewski

67. Which among the following is a synthetic plant hormone

(a) IAA (b) GA (c) 2, 4-D (d) ABA

68. Velamen tissue is found in

(a) Mesophytes (b) Epiphytes (c) Hydrophytes (d) Xerophytes

69. In a fully turgid plant cell which one is zero:

(a) Turgor pressure (b) Wall pressure (c) DPD (d) None of these

70. Ethylene gas is used for

(a) Growth of plants (b) Delaying fruit’s abscission
(c) Ripening of fruits (d) Stopping the leaf abscission

71. The most accepted theory for ascent of sap is

(a) Relay pump theory (b) Pulsation theory
(c) Root pressure theory (d) Transpiration pull cohesion theory

72. Legume plants are Important for crop production because they:
(a) Help in NO2 fixation (b) Do not help in NO2 fixation
(c) Increase soil fertility (d) All of these

73. Opening of flower is an example of

(a) spontaneous movement (b) Hyponastic movement
(c) Eplnastic movement (d) Clelstogramous movement

74. Removal of ring wood of tissue outside the vascular cambium from the tree trunk kills it because:
(a) Water cannot move up
(b) Food does not travel down and root become starved
(c) Shoot become starved
(d) Annual ring are not produced

75. Root hair absorb water from the soil on account of

(a) Turgor pressure (b) Osmotic pressure (c) Suction pressure (d) Root pressure

76. Which of the following plant hormone is extracted from fungus:

(a) Ethylene (b) Gibberellin (c) Cytokinin (d) 2, 4 D

77. Highest concentration of auxin is found in

(a) Root and shoot tips (b) Leaves and fruits (c) Mid stem portion (d) None of these

78. Increased humidity in atmosphere decreases rate of

(a) Transpiration (b) Photosynthesis (c) Glycolysis (d) Growth

79. In osmosis there is movement of

(a) Solute only (b) Solvent only
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Neither solute nor solvent

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80. The movement of pollen tube is called
(a) Chemotropism (b) Themotaxis (c) Thermonastic (d) Hydrotropism

81. Which of the following is a nitrogen fixing organism ?

(a) Some BGA (b) Rhizobium (c) Both (a) and (b) (d) Aspergillus

82. Which of the following pair of bacteria is involved in two step conversion of NH3 into nitrate:
(a) Azotobacter and nitrosomonas (b)Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter
(c) Azotobacter and Achromobacter (d) Pseudomonas and Nitrobacter

83. Phytochrome occurs in two forms. It’s stable form is

(a) Pfr forms (b) Pr forms (c) Both forms (d) None of these

84. The plant ash is an indication of

(a) Organic matter of plant (b) Waste product
(c) Mineral salts absorbed by plants (d) None of these

85. Guttation takes place through

(a) Lenticels (b) Pneumatophores (c) Stomata (d) Hydahodes

86. Plant as has maximum content of

(a) Mg (b) Fe (c) K (d) B

87. Which of the following is part of ctyochrome

(a) Mg (b) Zn (c) Fe (d) Ca

88. Food in plants is translocated in the form of

(a) Glucose (b) Starch (c) Sucrose (d) Fructose

89. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Cell membrane is involved only in exosmosis
(b) Cell membrane is involved only in endosmosis
(c) Cell membrane is involved both in exosmosis and endosmosis
(d) None of the above

90. Which of the following is not related to N2 fixation ?

(a) Rhizobium (b) Anabaena (c) pseudomonas (d) Azotobacter

91. The root hairs absorb which of the following type of water
(a) Capillary water (b) Hygroscopic water (c) Gravitational water (d) All of the water

92. Which pigment is responsible for flowering in plant ?

(a) Phytochrome (b) Cytochrome (c) Anthocyanin (d) Xanthophyll

93. Process of vernalization can be induced by

(a) Cytokinin (b) Auxin (c) Phototropin (d) GA

94. If flowers are cut and dipped in dilute NaCl solution, then
(a) Transpiration is low
(b) Endo-osmosis occurs
(c) No bacterial growth takes place
(d) Absorption of solute inside flower cell takes place

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95. Which of the following is not caused by deficiency of mineral
(a) Chlorosis (b) Etiolation
(c) Shortening of internodes (d) Necrosis

96. The mineral present in cell wall is

(a) Na (b) Ca (c) K (d) Mg

97. Which of the following plant is LDP

(a) Xanthium (b) Soyabean (c) Wheat (d) Tobacco

98. Phototropism is due to the hormone

(a) IAA (b) GA (c) 2-4 D (d) Cytokinin

99. What happened when we inoculated rhizobium in wheat field ?

(a) No increase in production (nitrogen content of soil remains same)
(b) A lot of increase in production (nitrogen content of soil increase)
(c) Fertility of soil decreases
(d) Fertility of soil increases

100. Nitrifying bacteria are able to

(a) Convert atomospheric nitrogen into soluble forms
(b) Convert ammonia to nitrate
(c) Ammonia to nitrogen
(d) Nitrate to nitrogen

101. Phytochrome is present in

(a) Vascular cryptogams (b) Prokaryotes
(c) Brain cell (d) Kidney cell

102. Nitrogenase enzyme is found in Nostoc in the cell of

(a) Vegetative (b) Heterocyst
(c) Both vegetative and heterocyst (d) None of these

103. Turgidity in guard cells is controlled by

(a) Chloride (b) Malic acid
(c) Potassium (d) Potassium, chloride and malic acid

104. Photoperiodism affects

(a) Vegetative growth (b) Internode elongation
(c) Seed germination (d) Reproductive growth

105. Magnesium is found in

(a) chlorophyll (b) Carotenoid (c) Pnycobilin (d) Cytochrome

106. Stomata are not found in

(a) Algae (b) Mosses (c) Ferns (d) Liverworts

107. Apical dominance is not affected by

(a) Indoleacetic acid (b) Gibberellins (c) Indoleacetaldehyde (d) Indolebutyric acid

108. In which of the following the rate of transpiration is high

(a) CAM plant (b) C3 plants (c) C3 and C4 plants (d) C4 plants

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109. Which of the following is a trace element?
(a) S (b) Mg (c) Cu (d) Fe

110. Cell sap is found in which cell organelle

(a) Nucleous (b) Chloroplast (c) Vacuole (d) Golgi apparatus

111. Which one of the following fixes nitrogen ?

(a) TMV (b) Yeast (c) Nostoc (d) Denitrifying bacteria

112. Active transport of ions by the cell requires

(a) High temperature (b) ATP (c) Alkaline pH (d) Salts

113. To initiate cell plasmolysis, the salt concentration must be

(a) Isotonic (b) Hypotonic (c) Hypertonic (d) Atonic

114. Which one of the following organisms may respire in the absence of oxygen ?
(a) Azotobacter (b) Clostridium (c) Rhizobium (d) Lactobacillus

115. The activity of -amylase in the endospore of barley germinating seed is induced by
(a) Ethylene (b) Cytokinin (c) I.A.A (d) Gibberellin

116. Which of the following is not a trace element ?

(a) Zn (b) Mn (c) Mg (d) Cu

117. Symbiotic microorganism is

(a) Clostridium (b) Azotobacter (c) Rhizobium (d) Chromatium

118. The basis of stomatal opening is

(a) Endosmosis (b) Plasmolysis of guard cells
(c) Decrease in cell sap concentration (d) Exosmosis

119. Essential mineral nutrients are the elements

(a) In the absence of which plants cannot complete their life cycle
(b) Which cannot be replaced by other element in its function
(c) The element which is directly associated with metabolism of the plant
(d) All of the above

120. Plants absorb carbon dioxide from

(a) Millets (b) Cereals
(c) Carbohydrates present in the soil (d) Atomosphere

121. Which of the following may be the substitute of photoperiodism ?

(a) Humidity (b) Temperature (c) Mineral nutrients (d) Soil moisture

122. Which of the following enzyme fixes nitrogen ?

(a) Nitrate reductase (b) Nitrogenase (c) PEP carboxylase (d) Rubisco

123. Transpiration will increase with the increase of

(a) Humidity (b) Temperature (c) Carbon dioxide (d) Sulphur dioxide

124. If is possible to drop a small particle through the stomata of leaf, what will you conclude ?
(a) It will fall on the earth surface (b) It will stop on lower epidermis
(c) It will stop on mesophyll cells (d) It will stop on vascular tissue

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125. The bacterium capable of anaerobic nitrogen fixation is
(a) Azatobacter (b) Rhizobium (c) Bacillus (d) Clostridium

126. In plant metabolism phosphorus play a major role to

(a) Evolve oxygen during photosynthesis (b) Create aerobic condition
(c) Generate metabolic energy (d) Evolve carbon dioxide during respiration

127. Photosynthetic food material is transported in the form of

(a) Glucose (b) Sucrose (c) Starch (d) Fructose

128. During transpiration turgidity in guard cells is controlled by

(a) Potassium (b) Bromine (c) Sodium (d) Oxalic acid

129. Chlorosis is caused due to deficiency of

(a) Mg (b) Ca (c) B (d) Mn

130. Plant cell plasmolysed in a solution which is

(a) Hypotonic (b) Hypertonic (c) Isotonic (d) Concentration no means

131. Phytohormone commonly called stress hormone is

(a) Auxin (b) Abscissic acid (c) Gibberellin (d) Cytokinins

132. Fruit ripening can be hastened by treatment with

(a) IAA (b) Florigen (c) Ethylene (d) Cytokinin

133. Transport of water and salt is mediated by

(a) Xylem (b) Sieve tubes (c) Sclerenchyma (d) Phloem

134. In which of the following process, the light energy is converted into chemical energy ?
(a) Digestive action (b) Respiration (c) Photosynthesis (d) Fermentation

135. Which of the following order is correct about the rate of photosynthesis ?
(a) Blue > yellow > orange > red (b) Blue > red > yellow > orange
(c) Red > blue > yellow > orange (d) Yellow > orange > blue > red

136. During photosynthesis, oxygen is evolved form

(a) H2S (b) H2O (c) CO2 (d) HCO3

137. In chlorophyll molecule “Mg” is situated in

(a) Centre of porphyrin ring (b) Corner of porphyrin
(c) In phytol tail (d) In socyclic ring

138. Which of the following absorb light energy for photosynthesis ?

(a) Chlorophyll (b) Water molecule (c) O2 (d) RUBP

139. The enzyme that fixes atmospheric CO2 in C4 plants is

(a) PEP carboxylase (b) Hexoldnase (c) RUBP oxygenase (d) Hydrogenase

140. Bundle sheath chloroplast of C4 plant are

(a) Large and agranal (b) Large and granal (c) Small and agranal (d) Small and granal

141. Which of the following is used during discovery of calvin cycle ?

(a) Spirogyra (b) Volvox (c) Chlamydomonas (d) Chlorella

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142. Primary receptor of CO2 in photosynthesis is
(a) Phosphoric acid (b) Ribulose phosphate
(c) Glucose (d) Ribulose-1, 5-biphosphate

143. In photosynthesis energy from light reaction to dark reaction is transferred in the form of
(a) ADP (b) ATP (c) RUDP (d) Chlorophyll

144. In sugarcane plant 14CO2 is fixed in malic acid, in which the enzyme that fixes CO2 is
(a) Ribulose biphosphate carboxylase
(b) Phosphoenol pyruvic acid carboxylasa (PEP-case)
(c) Ribulose phosphate kinase
(d) Fructose phosphatase

145. Photorespiration in C3 plants starts from

(a) Phosphoglycerate (b) Glycerate (c) Glycine (d) Phosphoglycolate

146. Photorespiration is favoured by

(a) Low light intensity (b) Low O2 and high CO2
(c) Low temperature (d) High O2 and low CO2

147. The substrate of photorespiration is

(a) Glycolate (b) Glucose (c) Pyruvic acid (d) Acetyl CO-A

148. Tracer elements are

(a) Micro-elements (b) Macro-elements (c) Radio-isotopes (d) Vitamins

149. Choose the correct match :

Bladderwort, sundew, venus flytrap
(a) Nepenthese, Dionea, Drosera (b) Nepenthese, Utricularia, Vanda
(c) Utricularia, Drosera, Dionea (d) Dionea, Trapa, Vanda

150. Which one of the following is wrong in relation to photorespiration ?

(a) It occurs in chloroplasts (b) It occurs in daytime only
(c) It is a characteristic of C4 plants (d) It is a characteristic of C3 plants

151. Photosynthetically active radiation (PAR) represents the following range of wavelength
(a) 400-700 nm (b) 500-600 nm (c) 450-950 nm (d) 340-450 nm

152. In C3 plants, the first stable product of photosynthesis during the dark reaction is
(a) Phosphoglycereldehyde (b) Malic acid
(c) Oxaloacetic acid (d) 3-phosphoglyceric acid

153. Plants adapted to low light intensity have

(a) leaves modified to spines
(b) large photosynthetic unit size than the sun plants
(c) higher rate of CO2 fixation than the sun plants
(d) more extended root system

154. In chloroplasts, chlorophyll is present in the

(a) Stroma (b) Outer membrane (c) Inner membrane (d) Thylakoids

155. Which one of the following categories of organisms do not evolve oxygen during photosynthesis?
(a) Red algae (b) Photosynthetic bacteria
(c) C4-plants with Kranz anatomy (d) Blue green algae

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156. Photosynthesis in C4 plants is relatively less limited by atmospheric CO2 levels because
(a) Four carbon acids are the primary initial CO2 fixation products
(b) The primary fixation of CO2 is mediated via PEP carboxylase
(c) Effective pumping of CO2 into bundlesheath cells
(d) Rubisco of C4 plants has higher affinity for CO2

157. Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in

(a) Grana (b) Pyrenoid (c) Stroma (d) Both grana and stroma

158. As compared to a C3-plant how many additional molecules of ATP are needed for net production of
one molecule of hexose sugar by C4-plants
(a) two (b) six (c) zero (d) twelve

159. Carbohydrates, the most abundant biomolecules on earth, are produced by

(a) all bacteria, fungi and algae (b) fungi, algae and green plant cells
(c) some bacteria, algae and green plants (d) viruses, fungi and bacteria

160. The deficiencies of micronutrients, not only affects growth of plants but also vital functions such as
photosynthetic and mitochondrial election flow. Among the list given below, which group of three
elements shell affect most, both photosynthetic and mitochondrial electron transport ?
(a) Cu, Mn, Fe (b) Co, Ni, Mo (c) Mn, Co, Ca (d) Ca, K, Na

161. In light reaction of photosynthesis oxygen is come form

(a) Water (b) CO2 (c) Soil (d) Atmosphere

162. Product of light reaction of photosynthesis is

(a) Carbohydrate (b) ATP (c) NADP and O2 (d) NADPH2. ATP and O2

163. In photosynstem-1, the first electron acceptor is

(a) Plastocyanin (b) An iron-sulphur protein
(c) Ferredoxin (d) Cytochrome

164. During photorespiration, the oxygen consuming reaction(s) occur in

(a) Grana of chloroplasts and peroxisomes (b) Stroma of chloroplasts
(c) Stroma of chloroplasts and mitochondria (d) Stroma of chloroplasts and peroxisomes

165. In the leaves of C4 plants, malic acid formation during CO2 fixation occurs in the cells of
(a) Epidermis (b) Mesophyll (c) Bundle sheath (d) Phloem

166. If the temperature is increased above 35oC

(a) Rate of decline of respiration will be earlier than decline of photosynthesis
(b) Rate of decline of photosynthesis will be earlier than decline of respiration
(c) Both decline simultaneously
(d) Both do not show any fixed pattern

167. Enzymes are made up of

(a) Edible proteins (b) Proteins with specific structure
(c) Nitrogen containing carbohydrates (d) Carbohydrates

168. Hydrolytic enzymes, which act on low pH are called as

(a) Protease (b) -Amylase (c) Hydrolases (d) Peroxidase

169. Cu is present in
(a) Plasmalemma (b) Plastoquinone (c) Palstocyanin (d) Ferridoxin

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170. Which of the following is a coconut milk factor ?
(a) Auxin (b) ABA (c) Morphactin (d) Cytokinin

171. Seed dormancy is due to the

(a) Ethylene (b) Abscisic acid (c) IAA (d) Starch

172. The coiling of tendril around some base in response to touch is called
(a) Hydrotaxis (b) Chemotaxis (c) Thigmotaxis (d) Geotaxis

173. Prunning of plants promotes branching, because the axillary buds get sensitized to
(a) Ethylene (b) Gibberellin (c) Cytokinin (d) IAA

174. Cell elongation in intermodal regions of the green plants takes place due to
(a) Ethylene (b) Indole acetic acid (c) Cytokinin (d) Gibberellins

175. One set of a plant was grown at 12 hrs, day and 12hrs night period cycles and it flowered. While in
the other set night phase was interrupted by flash of light and it did not flower. Under which one of
the following categories will you place this plant.
(a) Short day (b) Long day (c) Darkness neutral (d) Day neutral

176. The maximum growth rate occurs in

(a) Exponential phase (b) Stationary phase (c) Senescent phase (d) Lag phase

177. The ability of the Venus flytrap to capture insects is due to

(a) Chemical stimulation by the prey
(b) A passive process requiring no special ability on the part of the plant
(c) Specialized “muscle-like” cells
(d) Rapid turgor pressure changes

178. Why is vivipary an undesirable character for annual crop plants ?

(a) It reduces vigour of the plant
(b) The seeds cannot be stored under normal conditions for the next season
(c) The seeds cannot exhibit long dormancy
(d) It adversely affects the fertility of the plant

179. Gibberellins can promote seed germination because of their influence on

(a) Rate of cell division (b) Production of hydrolyzing enzymes
(c) Synthesis of abscisic acid (d) Absorption of water through hard seed coal.

180. I.A.A mainly inhibits growth of

(a) Root (b) Leaf (c) Shoot (d) Generally whole plant

181. How does pruning help in making the hedge dense

(a) The apical shoot grows faster after pruning
(b) It releases wound hormones
(c) It induces the differentiation of new shoots from the rootstock
(d) It frees axillary buds from apical dominance

182. Parthenocarpic tomato fruits can be produced by

(a) raising the plants from vernalized seeds
(b) treating the plants with phynylmercuric acetate
(c) removing androecium of flowers before pollen grains are released
(d) Treating the plants with low concentrations of gibberellic acid and auxins

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183. Which one of the following pairs, is not correctly matched ?
(a) IAA- Cell wall elongation (b) Abscisic acid- stomatal closure
(c) Gibberellic acid – Leaf fall (d) Cylokinin- Cell division

184. “Foolish seeding” disease of rice led to the discovery of

(a) IAA (b) GA (c) ABA (d) 2, 4-D

185. Senescence as an active developmental cellular process in the growth and functioning of a flowering
plant, is indicated in
(a) Annual plants (b) Floral parts
(c) Vessels and tracheid differentiation (d) Leaf abscission

186. The physical process involved in the release of molecular oxygen from leaves is
(a) Diffusion (b) Transpiration (c) Osmosis (d) Capillarity

187. One molar solution of which substance will have maximum O.P
(a) NaCl (b) Glucose (c) Fructose (d) Starch

188. Pieces of beetroot do not lose their colour in cold water, but do so in boiling water because
(a) The cell wall is killed in boiling water
(b) Hot water can enter the cells readily
(c) The plasma membrane gets killed in boiling water and becomes permeable
(d) The pigment is not soluble in cold water

189. The movement of molecules from their higher concentration to lower concentration is called
(a) Osmosis (b) Diffusion (c) DPD (d) DPG

190. Osmosis is the diffusion of a solution of a weaker concentration when both are separated by semi-
permeable membrane. What is error in the statement ?
(a) The movement of solvent molecule is not specified
(b) There is no mention of DPD
(c) Behavior of semipermeable membrane is not specified
(d) The exact concentration of solutions are not indicated

191. What statement can be cited for 10% sodium chloride solution and 10% sugar solution present ?
(a) Both have equal OP
(b) The concentration of sodium chloride solution will be less than concentration of sugar solution
(c) The OP of sugar solution will be higher than OP of sodium chloride solution
(d) DPD of sodium chloride solution will be higher than DPD of sugar solution

192. If a plant cell is immersed in water, the water continues to enter the cell until the
(a) concentration of the salts is the same inside the cell as outside
(b) cell bursts
(c) concentration of water is the same inside the cell as outside
(d) diffusion pressure deficit is the same inside the cell as outside

193. If a cell swells, after being placed in solution the solution is

(a) Neutral (b) Hypotonic (c) Hypertonic (d) Isotonic

194. Osmosis means

(a) Solute from low concentration to higher
(b) Solute from higher concentration to low
(c) Solvent from low concentration of solution to higher conc. of solution
(d) Solvent from higher concentration solution to low concentration solution

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195. If a cell is reduced in size (shrinks) of placing in a solution of sugar, the solution is
(a) Hypertonic (b) Hypotonic (c) Isotonic (d) None of the above

196. The process of osmosis involves

(a) Movement of solute through a semipermeable membrane
(b) Movement of solvent through a semipermeable membrane
(c) Movement of solution through semipermeable membrane
(d) None of these

197. A cell increases volume if the external medium is

(a) Hypotonic
(b) Slightly hypertonic
(c) Isotonic
(d) Much more concentrated than the protoplasm of the cell

198. Osmosis involves diffusion of

(a) Suspended particles from higher to lower concentration
(b) Suspended particles from lower to higher concentration
(c) Water from more to less concentrated solution
(d) Water from less to more concentrated solution

199. A cell placed in a strong salt solution will shrink because

(a) The cytoplasm will be decomposed (b) Mineral salts will break the cell wall
(c) Salt will enter the cell (d) Water will move out the cell by exosmosis

200. Grapes placed in salt solution shrink due to

(a) Imbibition (b) Endosmosis (c) Exosmosis (d) Osmosis

201. Process of selective transmission o a liquid through semi permeable membrane is called
(a) Diffusion (b) Osmosis (c) Plasmolysis (d) Transmission

202. Water enters into the root hair from the soil in its normal condition because the osmotic pressure of
the soil solution
(a) Remains lesser than that of root hair sap (b) Remains equal to that of root hair sap
(c) Remains higher than that of root hair sap (d) And that of root hair sap remains zero

203. Which helps in maintaining form and structure of cells and soft parts of plants ?
(a) Osmotic pressure (b) Turgor pressure
(c) Atmospheric pressure (d) DPD

204. In terms of permeability, the cell wall and plasmalemma are

(a) Permeable and differentially permeable respectively
(b) Both semipermeable
(c) Semipermeable and permeable
(d) Both differentially permeable

205. Plasma membrane controls

(a) Passage of water only
(b) Passage of water and solutes in and out of the cell
(c) Passage of water and solutes into the cell
(d) Movement of cell contents out the cell

206. Which process occurs against a concentration gradient of solute ?

(a) Diffusion (b) Osmosis (c) Transpiration (d) Translocation

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207. When a plant cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, which of the following will not apply ?
(a) Wall pressure is decreased
(b) The cell become turgid
(c) Suction pressure of the cell sap will decrease
(d) Water potential of the cell sap will increase

208. When beetroot slices are washed and then placed in cold water, anthocyanin does not come out,
because plasma membrane is
(a) Differentially permeable to anthocyanin (b) Dead strycture
(c) Impermeable to anthcyanin (d) permeable to anthocyanin

209. Osmotic pressure is highest in

(a) Xerophytes (b) Lithophytes (c) Halophytes (d) Mesophytes

210. The osmotic pressure of distilled water will be

(a) Minimum (b) Maximum
(c) Higher than any solution (d) Variable

211. Tonoplast is
(a) permeable membrane (b) Semi permeable membrane
(c) Impermeable membrame (d) Selective permeable membrane

212. Osmosis is the phenomenon expressed by

(a) Solutes present in the solution (b) Solution
(c) Semi-permeable membrane (d) O2

213. The osmotic pressure of the cell is measured by

(a) Plasmolysis method (b) Osmometer
(c) Molar concentration of the cell sap (d) Deplasmolysis

214. When grapes are placed in water, then which process occurs ?
(a) Plasmolysis (b) Exosmosis (c) Endosmosis (d) None of these

215. Maximum osmotic pressure is found in

(a) Root hair (b) Cortex cell of the root
(c) Passage cell of the root (d) Mesophyll cell

216. The osmotic pressure is due to

(a) Solute (b) Semi permeable membrane
(c) Hypertonic solution (d) Water

PREVIOUSLY ASKED QUESTIONS

217. Green leaf is place in a dark room is illuminated by red light. The leaf will appear to be
(a) Green (b) Red (c) Yellow (d) Black

218. What is/are the advantage(s) of using an electron microscope ?

I. Very high resolution
II. Very high magnification
III. The possibility of examining living material
(a) I only (b) I and II only (c) II and III only (d) I, II and III

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219. Of the following products, which is produced by both anaerobic respiration an aerobic respiration in
humans ?
I. Pyruvate
II. ATP
III. Laciate
(a) I only (b) I and II only (c) I, II and III (d) II and III

220. What is needed in photosynthesis to convert carbon dioxide into organic molecules ?
(a) Light and hydrogen from the splitting of water
(b) Light and oxygen from the splitting of water
(c) ATP and hydrogen from the splitting of water
(d) ATP and oxygen from the splitting of water

221. During aerobic respiration, energy is released in stepwise manner and ATP formation takes place
with the help of this energy. What will happen if this energy is released at a single step instead of in
parts ?
(a) Incomplete oxidation of glucose takes place
(b) Al the amount of energy can be utilized by the cell as more ATP molecules are produced
(c) Maximum amount of this released energy is wasted in form of heat and cell may die
(d) Cell will follow anaerobic pathway of respiration

222. The relationship between respiration and photosynthesis is truly intricate. What will be the effect on
the number of mitochondria and chloroplasts in a plant species occurring in higher altitude as
compared to the same plant species in lower altitude?
(a) Number of mitochondria and number of chloroplasts will remain unchanged
(b) Number of mitochondria in high variety will be more
(c) Number of chloroplasts in high altitude variety will be more
(d) Both number of mitochondria and number of chloroplasts will be less in high altitude variety

223. Which of the following does not happen during the Calvin cycle ?
(a) Regeneration of the CO2 acceptor (b) Oxidation of NADPH
(c) Release of oxygen (d) Consumption of ATP

224. When one glucose molecule under goes one turn of aerobic respiration, 38 ATP molecules are
produced. Cellular respiration takes party in cytoplasm and party in mitochondria. During the
process, some ATP molecules are produced in the cytoplasm, some in the mitochondrial matrix and
some in the oxysome on cristae. Maximum number of these ATP molecules is produced in
(a) cytoplasm (b) mitochondrial matrix
(c) cytoplasm and mitochondrial together (d) oxysomes on cristae

225. Which of the following statement/is/are true for Maize (Zea mays) ?
(i) CO2 is fixed only once in the process of photosynthesis
(ii) CO2 is fixed twice in the process f photosynthesis
(iii) It undergoes the process of photorespiration
(iv) CO2 can be fixed even in very low concentration during photosynthesis

(a) (i) and (iii) (b) (ii) only (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii) and (iv)

226. Glucose, a carbohydrate, is used by cells as primary source of energy and metabolic intermediate, If
100 g of glucose is oxidized, it releases 1560 kJ of energy. Manish is given 100 g of glucose. Manish
utilizes 50% of the gained energy in the event. Rest of the energy is used up in the process of
sweating (evaporation). How much quantity of water Manish has to drink to compensate for this
sweating. Consider enthalpy of evaporation of water to be 44 kJ/mole.
(a) 319 ml (b) 345 ml (c) 2300 ml (d) 3300 ml

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227. Respiratory quotient (R.Q) is defined as the ratio of volume of CO2 evolved to the volume of O2
taken in during the respiration process. Value of R.Q. depends on the nature of respiratory substrate
and to the extent to which this substance is broken down into simpler products. Which of the
following situation will give us the R.Q. value as infinity ?
(a) Fats used as substrate under aerobic conditions
(b) Organic acid is used as a substrate under aeroble conditions
(c) Any-type of substrate used under anaerobic conditions
(d) Any type of substrate used under aerobic conditions

228. Hydrilla spp. An aquatic plant is immersed in water in a beaker. A funnel is kept inverted on it. A
test tube filled with water is inverted on the nozzle of the funnel. Four such sets are prepared and
each of them is exposed to different wavelengths of light, which were as follows-
Set I : Yellow light
Set II : Blue light
Set III : Red light
Set IV : Green light

The experiment is continued for 5 hours and the amount of oxygen evolved by the plant (measured in
terms of number of bubbles) in each set is measure. The following graph is obtained from the data
which details different quantities of oxygen evolved when exposed to different quality of light A, B,
C and D.
Which of the following combinations match correctly with the data represented in the graph?
(a) A-Red, B-Green, C-Blue and D-Yellow
(b) A-Green, B-Yellow, C-Red and D-Blue
(c) A-Blue, B-Red, C-Yellow and D-Green
(d) A-Yellow, B-Red, C-Blue and D-Green

229. Students were studying cellular processes such as osmosis and plasmolysis. To make them
understand the concept better, the teacher asked them to study the effect of a given solution on a
specific plant cell. They placed the plant material in a given solution and studied the pattern of
movement of water for about two hours duration. It was observed that there was no net movement of
water during this period from the cell into the solution or vice a versa. Which of the following
condition must be true in the given situation?
(a) Turgor pressure is more than the wall pressure
(b) Turgor pressure is equal than the wall pressure
(c) Turgor pressure is less than the wall pressure
(d) Turgor pressure is zero and wall pressure has a negative value

230. Which of the following adaptations can help a plan to overcome water stress?
(a) Increase in the surface area (b) Opening of the stomata
(c) Increased rate of growth (d) Decrease in shoot to root ratio

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Answer Key :

1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (d) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (b) 12. (a) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (c) 16. (c) 17. (b) 18. (b) 19. (b) 20. (d)

21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (a) 27. (d) 28. (d) 29. (a) 30. (c)

31. (d) 32. (b) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a) 36. (a) 37. (a) 38. (d) 39. (d) 40. (d)

41. (d) 42. (a) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (a) 46. (a) 47. (d) 48. (b) 49. (b) 50. (b)

51. (b) 52. (c) 53. (a) 54. (a) 55. (b) 56. (a) 57. (d) 58. (c) 59. (c) 60. (a)

61. (b) 62. (d) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (a) 67. (c) 68. (b) 69. (c) 70. (c)

71. (d) 72. (c) 73. (c) 74. (b) 75. (c) 76. (b) 77. (a) 78. (a) 79. (b) 80. (a)
81. (c) 82. (b) 83. (c) 84. (c) 85. (d) 86. (a) 87. (c) 88. (c) 89. (c) 90. (c)
91. (a) 92. (a) 93. (d) 94. (a) 95. (b) 96. (b) 97. (c) 98. (a) 99. (a) 100. (b)
101. (a) 102. (b) 103. (d) 104. (d) 105. (a) 106. (a) 107. (b) 108. (b) 109. (c) 110. (c)
111. (c) 112. (b) 113. (c) 114. (b) 115. (d) 116. (c) 117. (c) 118. (a) 119. (d) 120. (d)
121. (b) 122. (b) 123. (b) 124. (c) 125. (d) 126. (c) 127. (b) 128. (a) 129. (a) 130. (b)
131. (b) 132. (c) 133. (a) 134. (c) 135. (c) 136. (b) 137. (a) 138. (a) 139. (a) 140. (d)
141. (d) 142. (d) 143. (b) 144. (b) 145. (d) 146. (a) 147. (a) 148. (a) 149. (c) 150. (a)
151. (a) 152. (d) 153. (d) 154. (d) 155. (d) 156. (a) 157. (a) 158. (c) 159. (c) 160. (a)
161. (a) 162. (d) 163. (d) 164. (b) 165. (c) 166. (c) 167. (b) 168. (c) 169. (c) 170. (c)
171. (a) 172. (c) 173. (c) 174. (c) 175. (c) 176. (c) 177. (d) 178. (b) 179. (b) 180. (a)
181. (a) 182. (d) 183. (c) 184. (b) 185. (d) 186. (a) 187. (a) 188. (c) 189. (b) 190. (d)
191. (d) 192. (d) 193. (b) 194. (c) 195. (a) 196. (b) 197. (a) 198. (d) 199. (d) 200. (c)
201. (b) 202. (a) 203. (b) 204. (a) 205. (b) 206. (b) 207. (a) 208. (c) 209. (c) 210. (a)
211. (d) 212. (c) 213. (a) 214. (b) 215. (d) 216. (a) 217. (a) 218. (b) 219. (b) 220. (a)
221. (c) 222. (b) 223. (c) 224. (d) 225. (d) 226. (a) 227. (c) 228. (d) 229. (c) 230. (d)

PACE IIT & MEDICAL: Mumbai / Delhi & NCR / Goa / Akola / Kolkata / Nashik / Pune / Bokaro / Dubai 205