Kacmarek: Egan's Fundamentals of Respiratory Care, 10th
Edition Chapter 29: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. Which of the following would not be considered a common pulmonary consequence of
neuromuscular disease?
a. sleep apnea
b. aspiration
c. cor pulmonale
d. pneumothorax
2. Hypoventilation that occurs with progressive neuromuscular disease may be a protective
mechanism that avoids acute respiratory muscle fatigue
a. True
b. False
3. Respiratory muscle weakness is associated with all of the following abnormalities except:
a. pulmonary embolism
b. ventilatory insufficiency
c. hypoxemia
d. atelectasis
4. Patients with respiratory muscle weakness due to neuromuscular disease may initially report
with the following symptoms except:
a. exertional dyspnea
b. fatigue
c. oliguria
d. orthopnea
5. All of the following are examples of clinical conditions that can precipitate respiratory failure
rapidly in patients with significant neuromuscular weakness except:
a. pulmonary edema
b. pneumonia
c. mucous plugging
d. increased sigh breath
6. Patients with poor inspiratory muscle function might show significant orthopnea and prefer to
sleep in a prone position.
a. True
b. False
7. Expiratory muscle weakness is accompanied by a poor cough and secretion clearance.
a. True
b. False
8. Pulmonary function testing in patients with neuromuscular weakness would show normal
values for which of the following?
a. diffusing capacity of the lungs (DLCO)
b. vital capacity
c. forced expiratory volume in 1 second
d. total lung capacity
9. A decrease in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and vital capacity (VC) of greater
than 20% when a patient moves from the seated to the supine position is suggestive of which
of the following?
a. diaphragmatic muscle weakness
b. scalene muscle weakness
c. brainstem injury
d. internal intercostal weakness
10. All of the following clinical conditions precipitate respiratory failure rapidly in patients with
significant neuromuscular weakness except:
a. pulmonary edema
b. pneumonia
c. mucus plugging
d. pulmonary fibrosis
11. What finding is associated with Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy?
a. lordosis
b. drooping eyelids
c. pedal edema
d. hepatomegaly
12. By what age do most patients with Duchenne’s muscular dystrophy die?
a. 10 years
b. 20 years
c. 35 years
d. 50 years
13. What respiratory dysfunction is commonly seen in myotonic dystrophy?
a. sleep-related disorders
b. pulmonary fibrosis
c. obstructive pulmonary disease
d. pulmonary edema
14. Disorders of the neuromuscular junction include all of the following except:
a. Lambert-Eaton syndrome
b. myasthenia gravis
c. dermatomyositis
d. tetanus, botulism
15. In what group of patients is myasthenia gravis most common?
a. older males
b. younger males
c. younger females
d. older females
16. In myasthenia gravis, which two pulmonary function values are the most sensitive in detecting
respiratory muscle weakness?
1. TLC and VC
2. PImax and
PEmax
3. VC and expired volume per unit time (VE)
4. VC and tidal volume (VT)
a. 1 ONLY
b. 1 and 2
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 3
17. Lambert-Eaton syndrome is characterized by which of the following?
a. It affects mainly the limbs and eyes.
b. Patients have a mean age of 40 years.
c. Large-cell carcinoma is most common.
d. It is commonly associated with small-cell lung cancer.
18. Nerve conduction studies are most helpful in the clinical diagnosis of which of the following?
a. myasthenia gravis
b. Lambert-Eaton syndrome
c. myotonic dystrophy
d. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
19. Peripheral nerve disorders that cause respiratory muscle dysfunction can be caused by all of
the following except:
a. inflammatory processes
b. vascular disorders
c. metabolic imbalances
d. fluid imbalances
20. What is the most common peripheral neuropathy causing respiratory insufficiency?
a. Lambert-Eaton syndrome
b. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
c. Guillain-Barré syndrome
d. myasthenia gravis
21. What is the mortality rate for Guillain-Barré syndrome?
a. 0%
b. low, less than 10%
c. moderate, 40% to 60 %
d. high, greater than 80%
22. Which of the following is often preceded by a history of upper respiratory or flu-like
symptoms?
a. myotonic dystrophy
b. polymyositis
c. Guillain-Barré syndrome
d. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
23. What treatment strategies have improved the outcome in Guillain-Barré syndrome?
a. plasmapheresis
b. corticosteroids
c. radiation therapy
d. antibiotics
24. What percentage of patients with Guillain-Barré syndrome has respiratory muscle
compromise?
a. 10%
b. 33%
c. 60%
d. 100%
25. All of the following criteria for weaning a patient with Guillain-Barré syndrome from
mechanical ventilation have shown to be predictive of weaning success except: a. VC
greater than 18 ml/kg
b. transdiaphragmatic pressures greater than 31 cm H2O
c. PImax greater
than 30 cm H2O
d. cardiac output above 2.0 L/min
26. How is diaphragmatic paralysis most often diagnosed?
a. chest radiography
b. pulmonary function testing
c. arterial blood gases
d. physical examination
27. What percentage of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis patients die within 5 years of diagnosis?
a. 10%
b. 25%
c. 50%
d. 80%
28. At what level do the nerves that innervate the diaphragm exit the spine?
a. C1-3
b. C3-5
c. C6-7
d. T1-3
29. What is the hallmark finding of diaphragm paralysis?
a. rapid and shallow breathing
b. weak cough
c. abdominal paradox
d. retractions
30. What alteration in respiration is typically associated with stroke involving the cerebral cortex?
a. severe hypoxemia
b. respiratory acidosis
c. mild hyperventilation
d. sleep apnea
31. Cobb angles are used to measure the severity in which disorder of the thoracic cage?
a. ankylosing spondylitis
b. flail chest
c. scoliosis
d. pectus excavatum
32. Which of the following is NOT a pulmonary complication frequently associated with flail
chest?
a. pneumothorax
b. hemothorax
c. pulmonary contusion
d. aspiration pneumonia
33. To effectively document and assess the need for endotracheal intubation in a patient with
neuromuscular disease, which of the following would be most appropriate? a. spirometry
every 4 to 6 hours
b. chest x-ray every shift
c. polysomnograpy testing
d. monitoring SpO2 with pulse oximeter