22/12/2019 Code-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 Time : 3 Hrs.

Topics Covered :

Physics : Motion of System of Particles and Rigid Body, Gravitation

Chemistry : Equilibrium & Redox

Botany : Plant Kingdom & Transport in Plants

Zoology : Locomotion and Movement, Neural Control and Co-ordinaon-I (CNS, PNS, ANS)

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing material on
Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

PHYSICS

Choose the correct answer :

1. A frame is formed by the two uniform identical rods the velocity of 6 kg block w.r.t. centre of mass at that
of mass m and length l as shown in figure. instant is
What will be the co-ordinates at centre of mass? (1) 4 m/s (+ve) x-direction
y (2) 6 m/s (+ve) x-direction
(3) 5 m/s (+ve) x-direction
(4) 4 m/s (–ve) x-direction
3. A rod of length l and mass m is released to rotate
about hinged point ‘A’ in vertical plane as shown.
x
What will be magnitude of angular acceleration of rod
about point A?
l l l l l
(1)  ,  (2)  ,  3l
4 4  2 2 4 A 4
 3l 3l   5l 5l 
(3)  ,  (4)  , 
4 4  12 12 
2. Two blocks of masses 4 kg and 6 kg are connected 12g 12g
(1) (2)
by massless spring and placed on smooth surface. l 7l
If impulse is given to 4 kg block and block starts 12g 4g
moving with velocity of 10 m/s (–ve) x-direction, then (3) (4)
5l l
(1)
Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 (Code-A) Two Year Medical - 2019
4. A force F is applied at top most position of hollow 8. A particle of mass ‘m’ is placed on the axis of a ring
sphere of mass m and radius R which is kept on a of radius R and mass M at a point P as shown in
smooth surface as shown in f igure. Angular figure. Gravitational force on the particle due to ring
acceleration of the sphere about its centre of mass will be
is M
F
R
m
P
3R

Smooth
3GMm GMm
F 5F (1) (2)
(1) (2) 8R 2
4R 2
Rm 2mR

3F F 3GMm GMm
(3) (4) (3) (4)
2mR 2mR 4R 2
2R 2

5. Angular speed  versus time t graph for a rod that 9. A rod of mass m and length l slides as shown in
rotates about an axis passing through its mid point f igure. If all the surf aces are smooth then
and perpendicular to its length. If torque on the rod instantaneous velocity of point B is
is 6 Nm about the given axis, then the moment of
B
inertia about the given axis is
 (rad/s) 

6
v
3 A
t (s) (1) vcos (2) vsin
6
(3) vcot (4) vtan
(1) 12 kg-m2 (2) 6 kg-m2
10. If an object is projected from surface of earth with
(3) 8 kg-m2 (4) 4 kg-m2
speed of k times of escape speed, then interstellar
6. A disc is rotating with an angular velocity 0. A speed of object will be (g = acceleration due to
constant retarding torque is applied on it to stop the gravity at surface of earth, R = radius of earth)
 
disc. The angular velocity becomes  0  after n (1) 2gR (2) 2gR(k 2  1)
 4 
rotations. How many more rotation will it make before
coming to rest? (3) 2k gR (4) 2 gR(k 2  1)

n n 11. A string wrapped on a pulley of moment of inertia ‘I’.

(1) (2)
5 15 Other end of the string is connected to block of
mass ‘m’ as shown. If ‘m’ is released from rest then
2n n kinetic energy of block when it descends by ‘h’, is
(3) (4)
15 2
7. What is the acceleration due to gravity at a distance
3r from the centre of the earth if the gravitational
potential at a distance r from the centre of the earth
is v ? [assume r > R, where R = radius of earth]
m
v v
(1) (2) (1) mgh (2) Greater than mgh
9r 3r
v v mgh
(3) (4) (3) Less than mgh (4)
4r 2r 2
(2)
Two Year Medical - 2019 Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 (Code-A)
12. A solid sphere of radius ‘R’ and mass ‘m’ rolls 17. A ring of mass ‘m’ (free to rotate about its centre c)
purely on smooth horizontal surface. If it strikes the is wrapped by a thread which does not slip on the
wall elastically then angular momentum of sphere ring. If the thread is pulled with an acceleration ‘a’,
just after strike about the point of contact with then the tension in the string is
horzontal is
m

c
v0 a

(1) ma (2) Zero

2 3
(1) mv 0 R (2) mv 0 R ma ma
5 5 (3) (4)
2 3

7 18. Two uniform rods of mass ‘m’ and length ‘l’ form a
(3) mv 0 R (4) mv0R
5 cross, moment of inertia of cross about an axis
parallel to CD passing through A is
1
13. Moment of inertia of a spinning object drops to
3 C
of its initial value. The ratio of new rotational kinetic
energy to initial rotational kinetic energy is (Assume
net external torque about the axis of rotation is zero) A B
(1) 1 : 3 (2) 3 : 1
(3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 3 D
14. Linear mass density of rod of length ‘l’ is directly
proportional to x3, where ‘x’ is distance from one end ml 2 7 ml 2
of rod. Centre of mass of rod lies at (1) (2)
3 12
4 5
(1) l (2) l ml 2 ml 2
5 4 (3) (4)
12 4
2 3 19. A particle of mass 2 kg is moving along line ‘AB’
(3) l (4) l
3 2 according to y = x – 4 with speed 4 m/s, then
angular momentum about ‘O’ is
15. Two balls of same mass are projected from a tall
building. One is vertically upward and other vertically y B
downward with same speeds under gravity. If
acceleration due to gravity is ‘g’ then acceleration of
O x
their centre of mass is
A
g
(1) (2) 2 g
2 (1) 16 2 kg m2 /s
(3) Zero (4) g
(2) 32 2 kg m2 /s
16. A solid sphere of radius ‘R’ is gently placed on a
rough horizontal ground with an initial angular speed (3) 32 kg m2/s
0 and no linear speed. Linear speed of sphere when (4) 16 kg m2/s
it starts pure rolling is 20. When earth revolves around the sun then

2 1 (1) Angular momentum is conserved about the sun

(1) r 0 (2) r 0
7 7 (2) Linear momentum is not conserved

5 1 (3) External torque is zero about the sun

(3) r 0 (4) r 0
7 3 (4) All of these

(3)
Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 (Code-A) Two Year Medical - 2019
21. When external force on the system is zero, then 27. Moment of inertia of a combination of ring and disc
(1) Velocity of centre of mass is constant of same mass M and same radius R kept in contact
about the tangent passing through point of contact
(2) Acceleration of centre of mass is zero and in plane of both ring and disc as shown is
(3) Linear momentum of system is conserved
(4) All of these Ring Disc
22. Height at which magnitude of ‘g’ will be equal to that
R
at a depth is (where R is radius of earth)
2
(1) R (2) 2R
5 11
(1) MR 2 (2) MR 2
(3)  
2 –1 R (4)  
2 1 R 4 4

23. For a satellite, if vorbit < v < vescape then the orbit will 15 9
(3) MR 2 (4) MR 2
be (where v is speed of satellite) 4 4
(1) Circular 28. A disc of mass m and radius r is placed on a rough
(2) Parabolic horizontal surface. A cue of mass m hits the disc at
a height h from the axis passing through centre and
(3) Elliptical
parallel to the surface. The cue stops and falls down
(4) Hyperbolic after impact. The disc starts pure rolling for
24. A particle of mass ‘m’ is projected towards the
centre of a ring of mass ‘M’ along its axis with r r
(1) h  (2) h 
velocity v0. Motion of particle will be 3 2

(1) Periodic r r
(2) Non-periodic (3) h  (4) h 
2 2
(3) Uniformly accelerated motion 29. Two bodies with masses M1 and M2 are initially at
(4) Both (2) & (3) rest and a distance R apart. Now they move towards
25. A uniform rod of mass m and length l is rest on each other due to mutual gravitation force. What is
smooth surface. Rod is given a sharp impulse P. ratio of the distance travelled by M1 to distance
Perpendicular to rod at distance l/4 from centre. Find travelled by M2 at any interval of time ?
angular velocity of rod
M1 M2
3P (1) M (2) M
(1) 2 1
ml
P 1
(2) (3) 1 (4)
ml 2
30. A rigid body has translational as well as rotational
P
(3) motion. If a couple is applied on the object then,
2ml
which of the following quantities remains unchanged
2P due to couple?
(4)
ml
(1) Rotational K.E.
26. A ring of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’ rolls down on a
rough inclined plane of inclination ‘’. Friction force on (2) Translation K.E.
the ring is (3) Total K.E.
mg sin  (4) Angular moment about CM
(1)
3 31 The centre of a wheel rolling on a plane surface
mg sin  moves with a speed v0. A particle on the rim of the
(2) wheel at top point will be moving at speed of
5
mg sin  (1) v0 (2) 2v0
(3)
2 v0
(3) (4) v 0 2
(4) mg sin 2
(4)
Two Year Medical - 2019 Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 (Code-A)
32. Minimum moment of inertia of a circular disc of
v 5v
mass m and radius R is about an axis, which (1) (2)
passes through 3 3

(1) Centre of mass of disc and perpendicular to its

7v v
plane (3) (4)
3 2
R
(2) At point f rom centre of mass and 36. A constant torque acting on a uniform circular wheel
2
changes its angular momentum from L0 to 4 L0 in
perpendicular to its plane
4 second. The magnitude of this torque is
(3) At distance R f rom centre of mass and
perpendicular to its plane 3
(1) L0 (2) L0
4
R
(4) At distance from centre of mass and (3) 4L0 (4) 12L0
3
perpendicular to its plane 37. From a uniform circular disc of radius R, a circular
33. Two identical uniform rod each of mass m and length R R
l joined perpendicular to each other. An axis passes disc of radius and having centre at distance
6 2
through junction and in the plane of rods. Then M.I.
from centre of the disc is removed. Center of mass
of system about the axis is
of remaining portion of disc is at

R R
45° (1) from disc centre (2) from disc centre
70 35
90°
R R
(3) from disc centre (4) from disc centre
30 40
1 2 1
(1) ml (2) ml 2
3 3 2 38. A body is projected at an angle 60° from surface of
earth with velocity 2gR . Final K.E. of object is
2
ml (symbols have usual meanings)
(3) ml 2 (4)
2
(1) Zero (2) mgR
34. If G is universal constant and g is acceleration due
mgR
G (3) (4) Infinite
2
to gravity, then unit of will be
g
39. Two small identical bodies at a separation equal to
radius of the earth (R) are situated in such a way
m2 that one of them is at the earth surface and other
(1) (2) kg m2
kg one above the earth’s surface. Their centre of gravity
is at a height
kg m
(3) (4) R R
2 kg (1) (2)
m 4 2
35. A disc is in the condition of pure rolling on the
horizontal surface. The velocity of centre of mass is R
(3) (4) R
v0. If radius of disc is R, then the speed of point P 5
40. A body starts from rest from a point distant 4R from
 R
is  OP   the centre of the earth. It reaches the surface of the
 3
earth whose radius is R. The speed acquired by the
body is

30° 3GM 3GM

O v0 (1) (2)
2R R
P
6GM 3GM
(3) (4)
R 4R
(5)
Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 (Code-A) Two Year Medical - 2019
41. A sphere is moving towards (+ve) x-axis with a 44 A ring of mass M and radius R sliding with a velocity
velocity vc and rotates anticlockwise with angular v0 on smooth surface, enters suddenly into rough
R surface where the coefficient of friction is ‘’.
speed ‘’ such that vc = . Speed of bottom
3 (1) As the ring enters the rough surface, the friction
point of sphere is
force acts on it
4 R R
(1) (2) (2) The direction of friction is opposite to the
3 3
direction of motion
2R
(3) R (4) (3) The friction force tries to accelerate the rotation
3
42. Theorem of perpendicular axis is applicable for of ring in clockwise sense about centre of mass

(1) Spherical bodies only (4) All of these

(2) Linear objects only 7
(3) Planar bodies only 45. If the gravitational force had varied as r 2 instead of
(4) Bodies of any shape r –2, the potential energy of a particle at a distance
r from centre of earth would be proportional to
43. An object is launched with a velocity less than
escape velocity. The sum of its kinetic energy and (1) r –1
potential energy is (Assume potential energy is zero
at infinity) 5
(2) 2
r
(1) Positive
(2) Negative 3
(3) r 2
(3) Zero
(4) May be positive or negative (4) r –2

CHEMISTRY
46. According to Ostwald dilution law, which of the (3) At very low concentration, weak electrolyte will
following is true almost 100% dissociate; due to which {pH of
10–6 MHCl = pH of 10–6 MCH3COOH 6}
(1)   c (c concentration of weak electrolyte)
(4) Both (1) & (2)
1 49. In which case pH will not change on dilution upto
(2)   (Applicable f or all type of weak
c 100 times?
electrolyte) (1) 0.01 M CH3COONa + 0.01 M CH3COOH
(3) Ostwald dilution law can be used for strong (2) 0.01 M CH3COONH4
electrolyte
(3) 0.01 M NH4CN
(4) OH– ion also present in hydrated form of like
(4) All of the above
H2O3 , H5O3 , H7O4 in aqueous solution
50. A solution of pH 2.0 is more acidic than the one of
47. For water which is are true pH 6.0 by a factor of
(1) In pure water, [H+] = [OH] = k w (at all temp) (1) 100
(2) With increase in temp, water become acidic (2) 1000
(3) With increase in temp, water become basic (3) 4000
(4) In water, if [H+] > k w , it will be acidic only at (4) 10000
25°C temperature 51. Which of the following is true for alkaline aqueous
solution?
48. Select incorrect among the following
(1) Leveling effect of water indicate, mineral acids Pkw
appear to be equally strong due to its complete (1) pH < (2) pH < POH
2
ionization.
(2) Order of acidic strength in CH3COOH solvent is: Pkw
HNO3 < HCl < H2SO4 > HBr < HClO4 (3) POH > (4) pH > POH
2
(6)
Two Year Medical - 2019 Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 (Code-A)
k1 56. pH of 1 M solution of NH4CN solution is x. If its
52. For a chemical reaction at equilibrium A  B k2
D.
concentration is increased to double then pH will be
The value of k1 = 5.1 × 10–3 sec–1, k2 = 15.3 × 10–2
x
sec–1 are given. The value of equilibrium constant will be (1) 2x (2)
2
1
(1) 30 (2) x
30 (3) x (4)
4
1
(3) 3 (4) 57. W hich of the following salt will not undergo
3 hydrolysis?
53. For the reaction 4A(s)  3B(g) 5C(l)  4D(g) . (1) HCOOK (2) CH3COONa
The value of (Kp/Kc) will be equal to [1.5 moles of B (3) NaCl (4) CH3COONH4
and 2 moles of D are present at equilibrium]
58. The pH of resulting solution, when equal volume of
1 3
(1) RT  2 (2) RT  2
two solutions having pH = 3 and pH = 5 are mixed
will be (log5.05 = 0.7)
4
(3) RT  3 (4) RT (1) 3.3 (2) 3.80
(3) 2.95 (4) 4.2
54. For a reaction at equilibrium A(g) B(g)  C(g) 59. Which of the following can act as buffer?
having total pressure 5 atm, if the percentage
(1) CH3COOH + CH3COONa (2) NaCl + HCl
dissociation is 40%, what was the initial pressure?
(1) 3.57 atm (2) 4.57 atm (3) NaOH + H2O (4) KOH + KCl
(3) 5.57 atm (4) 6.57 atm 60. If 0.2 moles of CH3COOH is mixed with 0.5 moles of
CH3COONa, then the pH of resulting mixture will be
55. Which graph for the reaction H2 (g)  I2 (g) 2HI(g) [Given pKa(CH3COOH) = 4.74, log2 = 0.301, log5 = 0.69]
is correct starting from the left hand side with H2 and (1) 3.13 (2) 4.13
I2 only?
(3) 5.13 (4) 6.13
61. Solubility of AgCl increases when it is mixed with the
(1) solution of
HI
conc. H2 (1) AlCl3 (2) AgNO3
I2 (3) NH4OH (4) CaCl2
62. If pH of the solution of Ga(OH)3 is 11, then its Ksp
time will be
(1) 3.3 × 10–13 (2) 1.1 × 10–11
(3) 5.6 × 10–6 (4) 8.9 × 10–9
(2) H2 63. Given the equilibrium constants of following reactions
conc. I2 A+B C; K1
HI
A + 3B D; K2
time The equilibrium constant of D 2B + C will be
K2
(1) K (2) K1 × (K2)2
H2 1
(3) I2
conc. K1
HI (3) K (4) (K1)2 × K2
2
64. For a reaction in equilibrium
time
A(g) + 2B(g) 3C(g) + D(g)
Initially 2 and 5 moles of A and B were taken what
HI will be the value of Kc, if the volume of the container
(4) is 2 L and equilibrium concentration of B : C = 1 : 1?
conc. H2
(1) 2.5 (2) 1.5
I2
(3) 2 (4) 4

time
(7)
Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 (Code-A) Two Year Medical - 2019
65. In which of the following, reaction moves backward (4) NH3 + H2O  NH4OH
on increasing the temperature?
75. Oxidising agent in the given reaction
(1) CO2 (g) + aq CO2 (aq)
(2) NaCl (s) + aq NaCl (aq) S 2 O32   2Br2  5H2 O 
 2SO42   4Br   10H

(3) Sugar (s) + aq Sugar (aq) (1) S 2 O32  (2) Br2

(4) PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
66. Which of the following is not Arrhenius acid? (3) SO24  (4) Br 
(1) H3PO2 (2) HNO3
76. xCr2 O72   ySO2(g)  3
 Cr(aq)  SO24
(3) BF3 (4) HCl
67. Strongest base out of the following the x, and y respectively in the above reaction
(1) Be(OH)2 (2) Ca(OH)2 (1) 1, 3 (2) 2, 3
(3) Mg(OH)2 (4) Ba(OH)2 (3) 3, 4 (4) 4, 5
68. In which of the following the solubility of H2S will be
minimum? 77. What is the oxidation state of chromium in CrO5?

(1) 1 M HCN (2) 1 M HCl (1) +10 (2) 0

(3) 1 M H2SO4 (4) 1 M H3PO4 (3) +6 (4) +5
69. Mg(OH)2 is dissolved in water to make its saturated 78. In alkaline medium, permanganate ion oxidises
solution. If its Ksp = 3.2 × 10–5 what will be its pH? iodide ion to
(1) 1.4 (2) 12.6
(1) Iodine (2) Iodate ion
(3) 10.4 (4) 5.2
(3) Triiodide ion (4) I2O5
70. 0.1 mole of HCl is added to 1 L buffer solution having
pH = 4.5 and it becomes buffer having pH = 4. The 79. If M is the molar mass of P4, then its equivalent
buffer capacity will be mass in the reaction is
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.5
P4 + OH–  PH3 + H2PO–2
(3) 0.4 (4) 0.2
71. 5 moles of CH3COONa are mixed with 2 moles of M M
HCl in an aqueous solution. The pH of the resulting (1) (2)
12 4
solution will be [Given pKa (CH3COOH) = 4.74]
(1) 5.12 (2) 4.10 M
(3) (4) M
(3) 4.9 (4) 4.45 3
72. The equilibrium pressure of the reaction 80. In the reaction
A (s) 2B(g)  C(g) is 9 atm. The value of KP
OH–
will be Cl2  ClO3–  Cl–
(1) 9 (2) 108
Total moles of chloride ions produced by 6 moles of
(3) 81 (4) 27 molecular chlorine are
73. In which of the following pH will be minimum?
(1) 5 (2) 10
(1) Mg(OH)2 Ksp = 4 × 10–19
(3) 1 (4) 3
(2) Ca(OH)2 Ksp = 4 × 10–12
81. In the reduction of permanganate ion in strongly
(3) Ba(OH)2 Ksp = 3.2 × 10–8
alkaline medium, the oxidation number of Mn
(4) Al(OH)3 Ksp = 2.7 × 10–11 changes from
74. Which of the given reaction is a redox reaction.
(1) +7 to +2 (2) +7 to +4
(1) Na2O2 + dil. H2SO4  Na2SO4 + H2O2
(3) +7 to +6 (4) +7 to +5
(2) NaCl(aq) + AgNO3  AgCl(3) + NaNO3
(3) F2 + H2O  HF + HOF

(8)
Two Year Medical - 2019 Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 (Code-A)
82. The oxidation number of sulphur in Marshall's acid 86. Ferrous oxalate when oxidised by appropriate
(H2S2O8) is method the change in oxidation number of the
compound will be
(1) +5 (2) +6
(1) 2 per molecule (2) 1 per molecule
(3) +7 (4) +8 (3) 3 per molecule (4) 4 per molecule
83. The average oxidation number of carbon in carbon 87. The number of mole of electron(s) exchanged when
suboxide is one mole of Mohr’s salt is oxidised in acidic KMnO4
solution is
3 (1) 1 (2) 2
(1) +2 (2) 
2 (3) 3 (4) 4
88. Oxidation number of oxygen in O2F2 is
4
(3)  (4) –2 (1) +2 (2) –2
3
(3) +1 (4) –1
84. In the reaction
89. The number of mole electrons exchanged when one
MnO2 + 4HCl  MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O mole of Mohr’s salt is oxidised in acidic KMnO 4
The valency factor (nf) of HCl is solution is
(1) 1 (2) 2
(1) 1 (2) 4
(3) 3 (4) 4
(3) 0.5 (4) 2.5
90. Oxidation number of oxygen in O2F2 is
85. Br2 + OH–  BrO– + Br– + H2O represents best
(1) Oxidation reaction only (1) +2 (2) –2
(2) Reduction reaction only (3) +1 (4) –1
(3) Non-redox reaction
(4) Disproportionation reaction

BOTANY

91. Earliest system of classification involved (1) Beta taxonomy

(1) Usage of few vegetative morphological characters (2) Karyotaxonomy
only (3) Chemotaxonomy
(2) Internal as well as external features (4) Cytotaxonomy
(3) Linnaeus sexual system of classification
94. Life cycle pattern in which sporophytic stage is not
(4) Natural affinities multicellular, found in
92. Classification system which does not include (1) Algae (2) Bryophytes
evolutionary relationships between the various
organisms is (3) Pteridophytes (4) Angiosperms

(1) Phylogenetic system of classification 95. Characteristic of Red Algae are all, except
(2) Natural system of classification (1) Have reserve food similar to amylopectin and
glycogen
(3) Artificial system of classification
(4) More than one option is correct (2) Also found in great depths in oceans

93. Classification of organisms on the basis of DNA (3) Produce motile spores
base sequencing is concerned with (4) Sexual reproduction is highly advanced and

(9)
Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 (Code-A) Two Year Medical - 2019
oogamous only (C) Pteridophytes are first group in plantae with
independent sporophyte
96. How many of the given terms are related to algae
which contains stored food as mannitol? Find the correct option.
(1) All statements are correct
Pyrenoids, Zoospores with Heterokont, Flagellation,
Gelatinous coating, Agar, Non-motile gametes, (2) (A) and (C) are correct
Algin, Holdfast, Fucoxanthin (3) (B) and (C) are incorrect

(1) Five (2) Four (4) (A) is incorrect only

(3) Eight (4) Two 102. Find the incorrect match.

97. Choose the correct option for given diagram. (1) Psilotum – Psilopsida
(2) Lycopodium – Lycopsida
(3) Selaginella – Sphenopsida
(4) Adiantum – Pteropsida
103. Choose the odd one out w.r.t Equisetum.
(1) Strobili (2) Macrophylls
A
(3) Homosporous (4) Prothallus
104. Botanical snakes are
(1) Non-embryophytes
B
C (2) Non-vascular archegoniates
(1) A - consist of chlorophyll a and c (3) Vascular cryptogams
(2) Do not have flagella in their life cycle (4) Phanerogams without ovary
(3) Great concentration found in the warmer area 105. Cycas and Pinus are similar in which one of the
(4) B - vascularised stalk following features?
98. Non-vascular amphibians of plant kingdom show/have (1) Fungal association with roots
(1) Free living non-vascular sporophytes (2) Gametophytes, which do not hav e an
(2) Seed habit and resurrection plant body independent free living existence

(3) Protonema as secondary stage of their life cycle (3) Male or female cone are borne on the same tree
(4) Flask shape archegonium as jacketed female (4) Leaves simple or compound
sex organ 106. Pollination in Gymnosperms is
99. Liverworts (1) Indirect anemophily (2) Direct anemophily
(1) Form gemmae as sexual bud (3) Indirect hydrophily (4) Direct hydrophily
(2) Do not have leafy members 107. Gymnosperms are
(3) Hav e an elaborate mechanism of spore (1) Heterosporous
dispersal
(2) Homosporous
(4) Do not form protonema after germination of
spores (3) Mostly homosporous and few heterosporous
100. Ecological importance of Sphagnum is (4) Mostly heterosporous and some are
homosporous
(1) To provide suitable habitat for the growth of
higher plants 108. Match the column
(2) To provide peat as fuel source Column-A Column-B
(3) For trans-shipment of living material a. Cedar wood oil (i) Cycas revoluta
(4) More than one option is correct b. Edible seed (ii) Pinus gerardiana
101. (A) Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants that c. Sago (iii) Juniperus virginiana
possess vascular tissue. (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
(B) The development of the zygotes into young (3) a(iii), b(ii), c(i) (4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii)
embryo takes place within the f emale
gametophyte in few of the pteridophytes.

(10)
Two Year Medical - 2019 Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 (Code-A)
109. Angiosperms are characterised by all, except 117. Which of the following is not correct w.r.t. mass flow
(1) Xylem vessels hypothesis?
(2) Double fertilisation (1) Water comes into phloem from adjacent xylem
(3) Endosperm as female gametophyte
(2) Mov ement of sucrose into sieve tube via
(4) Ovary companion cells
110. Highly reduced female gametophyte is found in
(3) At sink osmotic pressure must be increased
(1) Angiosperms (2) Gymnosperms
(3) Pteridophytes (4) Bryophytes (4) Movement of sugars in the phloem begins at the
source
111. Find the incorrect statement w.r.t. haplontic life
cycle. 118. Which is not a characteristic of imbibition?
(1) Sporophytic generation is represented only by (1) It does not depend upon the affinity between
one-celled stage
imbibant and imbibate
(2) All algae and most bryophytes represent this
pattern (2) Involves both capillary and adsorption
(3) Zygotic meiosis (3) It is reversible phenomenon
(4) There are no free living sporophytes
(4) Heat is generated
112. Find odd one out w.r.t. haplo-diplontic life cycle.
(1) Ectocarpus (2) Polysiphonia 119. Which value will go on increasing if a flaccid cell is
placed in hypotonic solution?
(3) Kelps (4) Fucus
113. In stomata, the cellulosic microfibrils of the cell wall (1) Osmotic pressure
of guard cell are oriented
(2) Solute potential
(1) Radially as well as longitudinally
(3) Osmotic potential
(2) Radially
(4) Pressure potential
(3) In all possible directions
120. Which of the following feature is common in all types
(4) Longitudinally
of plastids?
114. Phloem sap mainly contains
(1) Presence of grana
(1) Organic acids
(2) Storage nature
(2) Nitrogenous compounds
(3) Presence of green pigments
(3) Water and non-reducing sugars
(4) Double membrane
(4) Water and amino acid
121. Find out the correct direction for the flow of water in
115. What will be the value of w for a flaccid cell if its
the given system.
osmotic pressure is 25 bars?

(1) Zero s = –12

A w = –12 B
(2) –25 bars p = 9

(3) 30 bars OP = 12 C
TP = 7
(4) 25 bars

116. Which of the following is/are the sinks for the mineral A B A B
elements? (1) (2)
C C
(1) Apical meristem A B A B
(3) (4)
(2) Young leaves C C
(3) Developing flowers
(4) More than one option is correct
(11)
Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 (Code-A) Two Year Medical - 2019
122. The transpiration driven ascent of xylem sap 128. Select the incorrect statement.
depends mainly on the three physical properties of (1) Transport over longer distances takes place
water. These properties result in through xylem and phloem

(1) Low tensile strength but high capillarity (2) In rooted plants transport in xylem is essentially
bidirectional
(2) Low tensile strength as well as low capillarity (3) Diff usion is the only means f or gaseous
movement within plant body
(3) High tensile strength as well as high capillarity
(4) Short distance transport occurs by diffusion and
(4) High tensile strength but low capillarity cytoplasmic streaming
123. The elements most readily mobilised from older 129. Consider the following properties :
dying leaves before leaf fall to younger leaves are (a) Highly selective in nature
(1) Phosphorous and calcium (b) Transport saturates
(2) Sulphur and calcium (c) Uphill transport
(3) Phosphorus, nitrogen and potassium (d) Movement of transport proteins
(4) Potassium, nitrogen and calcium (e) Requires ATP energy
124. Select the correct statement (f) Need of special membrane proteins
(1) Organic and mineral nutrients undergo In how many of the features, active transport is
multidirectional transport different from facilitated diffusion?
(2) Only short distance transport proceeds through (1) Three (2) Four
vascular system (3) Two (4) Five
(3) Diffusion rates are not affected by gradient of 130. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t osmosis.
concentration
(1) Refers specifically to diffusion of water across a
(4) Cytoplasmic streaming helps in long distance differentially permeable membrane
transport only
(2) Occurs spontaneously in response to a driving
125. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. stomatal force
opening
(3) Net direction and rate depends on both pressure
(1) Immediate cause is change in turgidity of the gradient and concentration gradient
guard cells (4) Water moves from its region of lower chemical
(2) Radial orientation of the cellulosic microfibrils in potential to its region of higher chemical
the cell walls of guard cells make the process potential
easier 131. Find the correct match
(3) It is completely a passive process (1) Impermeable membrane – Cellulosic cell wall
(4) Explained by potassium pump theory (2) Permeable membrane – Tonoplast
126. Select the mismatched pair. (3) Semi-permeable – Egg membrane
(1) Guttation – Root pressure (4) Selectively permeable – Parchment paper
(2) Transpiration – Evaporative loss of water 132. The symplastic system is
(3) Imbibition – Endothermic (1) The system of adjacent cell walls only
(4) Plasmolysis – Due to exosmosis (2) Not the system of inter-connected protoplasts
127. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t mineral uptake (3) The movement aided by cytoplasmic streaming
(1) Most minerals enter root by active absorption (4) Not connected through plasmodesmata
(2) Active uptake of ions is partly responsible for 133. Which of the following plant factors affect the rate of
water potential gradients in roots transpiration?
(3) Some ions move into epidermal cells passively (1) Canopy structure and waxy coating

(4) Like water, all minerals are passively absorbed (2) Plant water and soil water
by roots (3) Phenyl mercuric acetate and ABA
(4) Vapour pressure gradient and root-shoot ratio

(12)
Two Year Medical - 2019 Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 (Code-A)
134. Deplasmolysis occurs due to 135. Select the incorrect statement.
(1) Endosmosis of water (1) The more the solute molecules, the lower is the
solute potential
(2) Exosmosis of water
(3) Hypertonic solution (2) All solutions have a lower water potential than
pure water
(4) Isotonic solution
(3) When water flows into the cell and out of the cell
and are in equilibrium, the cells are said to be
turgid
(4) A cell swells in hypotonic solutions

ZOOLOGY
136. Which of the following cranial bone has a saddle 141. Consider the following statements with certain
shaped depression called sella tursica in which blanks. Find out the option which correctly fills up
pituitary gland is present? these blanks.
(1) Temporal (2) Sphenoid (i)
(A) is a long slender bone also called the
(3) Ethmoid (4) Occipital beauty bone.
137. Select the correct match w.r.t. human bone and its (ii)
feature (B) is longest bone in human body..

(1) Hyoid – L–shaped bone (C) The number of cervical vertebrae are (iii) in
(2) Ribs – Bicephalic almost all mammals including human beings.
(3) Coxal bone – Acromion process (D) A cup-shaped bone called (iv) cover the
(4) Sternum – Neural canal knee ventrally.
138. For the formation of ball and socket joint, the head (1) (A) (i) Rib (2) (A) (i) Ulna
of femur articulates with which cavity of innominate (B) (ii) Humerus (B) (ii) Femur
bone?
(C) (iii) Seven (C) (iii) Eight
(1) Glenoid cavity (2) Obturator foramen (D) (iv) Patella (D) (iv) Tibia
(3) Acetabulum (4) Foramen magnum (3) (A) (i) Clavicle (4) (A) (i) Clavicle
139. The 8th, 9th and 10th pair of ribs are called false ribs (B) (ii) Femur (B) (ii) Tibia
because
(C) (iii) Seven (C) (iii) Seven
(1) These are attached directly to sternum with the
(D) (iv) Patella (D) (iv) Femur
help of hyaline cartilage
142. Which of the following is an correct match?
(2) These are attached to 7th rib with the help of
hyaline cartilage (1) Vertebrochondral ribs — 7th pair of ribs

(3) These are attached to sternum with the help of (2) Coxal bone (Pelvic girdle) — Scapula
fibrous cartilage (3) Flat bones — Ribs
(4) These are not attached to thoracic vertebrae (4) Cranial bones — Zygomatic
140. Which of the following option is correct w.r.t. type of 143. During muscle contraction
synovial joint and its example? (1) Chemical energy is changed into mechanical
Gliding joint Hinge joint Pivot joint energy
(1) Between the Ankle joint Between humerus (2) Mechanical energy is changed into chemical
tarsals and pectoral girdle
energy
(2) Between femur Elbow joint Between atlas
and acetabulum and axis (3) Temperature of muscle decreases
(3) Between occipital Between carpal and Between the
condyle and atlas metacarpal of thumbs carpals
(4) Hydrolysis of ATP does not occur
(4) Between the Knee joint Between atlas
carpals and axis

(13)
Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 (Code-A) Two Year Medical - 2019
144. Find out the correct sequence of events taking 148. The part of conducting system present in ventricular
place during muscle contraction. wall of human heart is
(a) Binding of calcium with subunit of troponin. (1) Sinoatrial node (2) Atrioventricular node
(b) Release of neurotransmitter at neuromuscular (3) Purkinje fibres (4) Internodal pathways
junction.
149. A is age related disorder characterised by
(c) Release of calcium ions in sarcoplasm.
decreased bone mass and increased chances of
(d) Hydrolysis of ATP. fractures. Choose the option which correctly fills up
(e) Generation of action potential in the sarcolemma. the given blank.
(f) Formation of cross bridge. (1) Osteoarthritis (2) Osteoporosis
(1) (e), (b), (c), (a), (d), (f) (3) Ankylosis (4) Rheumatoid arthritis
(2) (c), (b), (e), (a), (f), (d) 150. Multinucleated, striated and unbranched muscle are
(3) (b), (e), (c), (a), (d), (f) (1) Skeletal muscle (2) Smooth muscle
(4) (a), (b), (e), (c), (f), (d) (3) Cardiac muscle (4) Both (1) & (2)
145. Find out the incorrect match. 151. Amoeboid movement is shown by all except
(1) Rigor mortis – Rigidity in the muscle (1) Kupffer’s cell (2) Macrophages
fibres after death due (3) Human sperm (4) Entamoeba
to complete depletion
152. Acetabulum is a cavity to which femur articulates
of ATP and phospho-
and forming hip joint. This cavity is bounded by
creatine
(1) Scapula, clavicle
(2) Oxygen debt – The extra amount of
oxygen consumed (2) Pubis, acromion process
during recovery after (3) Pubis, ilium and ischium
strenuous exercise to
(4) Ileum, pubis and ischium
oxidise the accumu-
lated lactic acid 153. Arrange the events which occur during muscle
contraction
(3) Tetany – Sustained state of
muscle contraction (a) Action potential causes the release of Ca2+ ions
due to high Ca 2+ in into the sarcoplasm
blood (b) Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis, the
(4) Single muscle twitch – A single action myosin head binds to the exposed active sites
potential developed in of actin to from cross bridge
a muscle fibre causes (c) A neural signal at neuromuscular junction causes
a brief contraction the release of ACh which generates action
followed by relaxation. potential
146. The type of vertebrae found in mammals is (d) Increase in Ca2+ levels leading to the binding of
(1) Procoelous (2) Amphicoelous calcium with T PC on actin filaments thereby
remove masking of active sites of actin
(3) Opisthocoelous (4) Amphiplatyan
Choose the correct option
147. Match the following
(1) a  c  b  d (2) a  c  d  b
Column I Column II
(3) c  a  d  b (4) c  d  a  b
a. Cribriform plate (i) Patella
154. Mark the odd one out w.r.t. the type of joint between
b. Sesamoid bone (ii) Capitate
the following articulating bones
c. Carpal of thumb (iii) Ethmoid
(1) The joint between vertebrae of vertebral column
d. Heel bone (iv) Trapezium
(2) Joint between glenoid cavity of scapula and head
(v) Calcaneum
of humerus
(1) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(v) (2) a(ii), b(i), c(ii), d(v)
(3) Joint between first rib and sternum
(3) a(iii), b(i), c(iv), d(v) (4) a(v), b(ii), c(iv), d(i)
(4) Pubic symphysis

(14)
Two Year Medical - 2019 Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 (Code-A)
155. Select the incorrect match. 162. Corpus striatum is related with
(1) Osteoporosis – Commonly caused due to (1) Short term memory
decreased lev els of (2) Execution of stereotyped movement
oestrogen in female
(3) Outer surface of cerebrum
(2) Muscle fatigue – Accumulation of lactic
acid in the muscle (4) Cerebellum

(3) Muscle hypertrophy– Increase in muscle mass 163. Third and fourth ventricle of brain is connected
through
and size of fibres
(1) Foramen of Monro
(4) Single muscle – Sustained contraction of a
twitch muscle fibre (2) Duct of Sylvius
156. Consider the following (3) Foramen ovale
(a) H-zone disappears (b) A-band shorten (4) Ligamentum arteriosum
(c) O-band increases (d) Z-lines move apart 154. Speed of propagation of an action potential can be
determined by which of the following factors?
Which of the following options includes changes in
muscle fibre during muscle contraction? (1) Diameter of axon
(1) (a), (b) & (c) (2) (a) & (c) only (2) Presence or absence of myelin sheath
(3) (a), (b) & (d) (4) (a), (c) and (d) (3) Length of the axon

157. W hich of the following relays impulse to the (4) Both (1) & (2)
muscles? 165. Which part of brain is responsible for the forcible
expulsion of the contents of the gastrointestinal tract
(1) Parasympathetic nervous system
through the mouth?
(2) Sympathetic nervous system (1) Hypothalamus (2) Medulla oblongata
(3) Somatic neural system (3) Cerebrum (4) Pons
(4) All of these 166. Autonomic neural system relays impulses to
158. A pseudounipolar neuron (1) Skeletal muscle (2) Glands
(1) Does not have soma or body (3) Involuntary muscles (4) Both (2) & (3)

(2) Possesses a dendrite and an axon 167. Following changes will be observed when a stimulus
of threshold value is applied on ‘A’ site of excitable
(3) Does not have dendrites neuron
(4) Does not have axon Stimulus A
159. Absolute refractory period corresponds to period + + + + + + + + +
– – – – – – – – –
(1) From the time the firing level is reached until, – – – – – – – – –
initial phase of repolarisation + + + + + + + + +
(2) Of depolarisation of neuron only (1) Influx of Na+ through voltage gated channels
(3) Of hyperpolarisation of neuron (2) Efflux of K+ through voltage gated channels only
(4) Of repolarisation of neuron only (3) Efflux of Na+ through voltage gated channel
160. Outermost protective layer of human brain is (4) Influx of K+ through voltage gated channels
(1) Arachnoid (2) Piamater 168. Match the following cerebral lobes with their
respective function.
(3) Duramater (4) Pia-arachnoid
Column I Column II
161. Which lobe of cerebral hemisphere controls the
function of smell? a. Frontal lobe (i) Language comprehension

(1) Frontal (2) Parietal b. Parietal lobe (ii) Feelings like hot, cold
are registered
(3) Temporal (4) Occipital
c. Temporal lobe (iii) Creative ideas
d. Occipital lobe (iv) Decoding of visual
information
(15)
Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 (Code-A) Two Year Medical - 2019
(1) a(iii), b(ii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) 174. Select the set of the ions which are mainly
responsible for polarised state of nerve membrane
(3) a(iii), b(ii), c(iv), d(i) (4) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii)
(1) Na+, Ca2+ (2) Na+, K+
169. Mark the key communication link between the
senses and the cortex that receives majority of (3) Ca2+, Mg2+ (4) Ca2+, K+
incoming signals, evaluate their importance before 175. Part of human brain associated with decoding the
passing them to the cerebrum? visual information lies in
(1) Hypothalamus (2) Thalamus (1) Temporal lobe (2) Frontal lobe
(3) Epithalamus (4) Basal ganglia (3) Occipital lobe (4) Parietal lobe
170. Which part of brain plays important role in emotional 176. Parasympathetic stimulation leads to
behaviour such as aggression and remembering (1) Decreased salivary secretion
fear?
(2) Decreased peristaltic rate
(1) Pons (2) Amygdala
(3) Dilation of pupil
(3) Corpus striatum (4) Cerebrum
(4) Increased bronchoconstriction
171. Find the incorrect statement
177. Which of the following feature is not common to both
(1) ANS is self governed system without conscious cells of nerve and muscle tissues?
control of CNS (1) Excitability (2) Extensibility
(2) CSF protects the delicate brain and spinal cord (3) Conductivity (4) Repair
by providing shock absorbing medium
178. Find the incorrect match :
(3) Lateral ventricles are located in the hemisphere
(1) Midbrain – Corpora quadrigemina
of the cerebrum
(2) Hindbrain – Thalamus
(4) Dorsal root ganglia contains the motor neurons
(3) Forebrain – Diencephalon
172. In parasympathetic nerv ous system, which
neurotransmitter is released at the terminal synapse (4) Brain stem – Medulla
179. Select the incorrect statement
(1) Adrenaline (2) Noradrenaline
(1) Certain nerve fibres are enclosed by a medullary
(3) Acetylcholine (4) Dopamine sheath as it enables better conduction and
173. The great advantage of chemical synapse as insulation
compared with electrical synapse are (2) Synaptic cleft is always present at an electric
(1) Nature of messenger neurotransmitter can be synapse
different in different synapse, permitting different (3) Impulse transmission across chemical synapse
kinds of response is slower than at electrical synapse
(2) Speed of conduction is fast in chemical synapse (4) Neurotransmitters are released from axonal ends
(3) Chemical synapse can work at farthest end of 180. In human brain, both vomiting and respiratory centres
the body and shows bidirectional impulse flow are located in
(4) Speed of conduction is slow in chemical (1) Cerebrum (2) Cerebellum
synapse (3) Medulla (4) Pons



(16)
Two Year Medical - 2019 Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 (Code-A)

22/12/2019 Code-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005; Ph.: 011-47623456

MM : 720 Practice Test-01 for AIATS-04 Time : 3 Hrs.

ANSWERS
1. (1) 37. (1) 73. (1) 110. (1) 146. (4)
2. (1) 38. (1) 74. (3) 111. (2) 147. (3)
3. (2) 39. (3) 75. (2) 112. (4) 148. (3)
4. (3) 40. (1) 76. (1) 113. (2) 149. (2)
5. (1) 41. (1) 77. (3) 114. (3) 150. (1)
6. (2) 42. (3) 78. (2) 115. (2) 151. (3)
7. (1) 43. (2) 79. (3) 116. (4) 152. (3)
8. (1) 44. (4) 80. (2) 117. (3) 153. (3)
9. (4) 45. (2) 81. (3) 118. (1) 154. (2)
10. (2) 46. (4) 82. (2) 119. (4) 155. (4)
11. (3) 47. (1) 83. (3) 120. (4) 156. (2)
12. (2) 48. (2) 84. (3) 121. (2) 157. (4)
13. (2) 49. (4) 85. (4) 122. (3) 158. (2)
14. (1) 50. (4) 86. (3) 123. (3) 159. (1)
87. (1) 124. (1)
15. (4) 51. (4) 160. (3)
88. (3) 125. (3)
16. (1) 52. (2) 161. (3)
89. (1)
17. (3) 53. (4) 126. (3) 162. (2)
90. (3)
18. (2) 54. (1) 127. (4) 163. (2)
91. (3)
19. (1) 55. (2) 128. (2) 164. (4)
92. (4)
20. (4) 56. (3) 129. (1) 165. (2)
93. (3)
21. (4) 57. (3) 94. (1) 130. (4) 166. (4)
22. (3) 58. (1) 95. (3) 131. (3) 167. (1)
23. (3) 59. (1) 96. (1) 132. (3) 168. (1)
24. (1) 60. (3) 97. (1) 133. (1) 169. (2)
25. (1) 61. (3) 98. (4) 134. (1) 170. (2)
26. (3) 62. (1) 99. (4) 135. (3) 171. (4)
27. (2) 63. (3) 100. (4) 136. (2) 172. (3)
28. (2) 64. (2) 101. (1) 137. (2) 173. (1)
29. (2) 65. (1) 102. (3) 138. (3) 174. (2)
30. (2) 66. (3) 103. (2) 139. (2) 175. (3)
31. (2) 67. (4) 104. (3) 140. (4) 176. (4)
32. (1) 68. (3) 105. (2) 141. (3) 177. (2)
69. (2) 106. (2) 142. (3) 178. (2)
33. (1)
107. (1) 143. (1)
34. (1) 70. (4) 179. (2)
108. (3) 144. (3)
35. (3) 71. (3) 180. (3)
109. (3)
36. (1) 72. (2) 145. (3)

(17)