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9tut.com

CCNA Training » CCNAv3 – New

Questions 4
24-30 minutos

Note: These questions have not been classified into specific topics
so please learn them separately.

Premium Members: You can practice these questions first with our
quizzes at:

+ CCNAv3 – New Questions 4 Part 1 (from question 1 to 20)

+ CCNAv3 – New Questions 4 Part 2 (from question 21 to 52)

Question 1

What can you verify on a Cisco IOS ISR with the “show ip interface”
command? (Choose four)

A. The number of packets input and output on the interface

B. The IP address and subnet mask of the interface
C. The name or number of an ACL that is applied to the interface
D. Whether the router is a DHCP relay agent
E. The MAC address of the interface
F. The method used to assign the IP address to the interface
G. The status and protocol status of the interface

Answer: B C D G

Explanation

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An example of the “show ip interface” command which is captured

from the Cisco 1941 Integrated Services Router (ISR) is shown
below:

R1#show ip interface
GigabitEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up
(connected)
Internet address is 192.168.1.1/24
Broadcast address is 255.255.255.255
Address determined by setup command
MTU is 1500 bytes
Helper address is not set
Directed broadcast forwarding is disabled
Outgoing access list is not set
Inbound access list is edge_security
Proxy ARP is enabled
Security level is default
Split horizon is enabled
ICMP redirects are always sent
ICMP unreachables are always sent
ICMP mask replies are never sent
IP fast switching is disabled
IP fast switching on the same interface is
disabled
IP Flow switching is disabled
IP Fast switching turbo vector
IP multicast fast switching is disabled
IP multicast distributed fast switching is
disabled
Router Discovery is disabled

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IP output packet accounting is disabled

IP access violation accounting is disabled
TCP/IP header compression is disabled
RTP/IP header compression is disabled
Probe proxy name replies are disabled
Policy routing is disabled
Network address translation is disabled
BGP Policy Mapping is disabled
Input features: MCI Check
WCCP Redirect outbound is disabled
WCCP Redirect inbound is disabled
WCCP Redirect exclude is disabled

In fact the output of the “show ip interface” command is the same

between ISR and non-ISR so this question just wants to confuse
us. From the output we see these lines:
+ GigabitEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up (connected) ->
Layer 1 (physical) & Layer 2 (protocol) statuses of this interface
+ Internet address is 192.168.1.1/24 -> This is the IP address and
subnet mask of this interface
+ Helper address is not set -> If this router is a DHCP relay agent
or not. In this case it is not
+ Outgoing access list is not set / Inbound access list is
edge_security -> The ACLs applied to this interface (and their
directions)

Question 2

You want to disable the negotiation of trunking for all FastEthernet

ports. Which commands are required to do this? (Choose two)

A. interface range FastEthernet 0/1-24

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B. show vlan brief

C. switchport access vlan 2
D. switchport mode access

Answer: A D

Explanation

We can disable the negotiation of trunking of switch ports by setting

them to access mode.

Note: Answer C is not correct in the case of the ports have already
been configured in trunking mode. In this case the command
“switchport access vlan 2” will not change the trunking modes of
these ports.

Question 3

When electing a root port for a nonroot switch, which values are
used to break ties if required? (Choose two)

A. Upstream BID
B. MAC address
C. Port ID
D. Priority

Answer: A C

Explanation

Spanning Tree Root Port election process (notice that it is Root

Port election, not Root Bridge election process) in a Non-Root
Switch includes the following steps:

1. Lowest accumulated cost on interfaces towards Root Bridge

2. Lowest Sender Bridge ID (it is upstream BID)
3. Lowest Sender Port ID (Port Priority + Port Number)

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Note: Although answer “Priority” is not wrong but two above

answers are better choices.

Question 4

What are the valid encapsulation methods when forcing a device to

become a trunk port? (Choose three)

A. private-vlan
B. dot1q-tunnel
C. dot1q
D. negotiate
E. ISL

Answer: C D E

Question 5

What occurs when you enable the passive interface feature on a

router interface that is running RIPv2?

A. It suppresses the sending and receiving of routing updates on

the interface
B. It temporarily disables RIPv2 on the interface
C. It suppresses the sending of routing updates out the interface
D. It suppresses the sending of Hello packets out the interface
E. It suppresses the sending and receiving of Hello packets on the
interface

Answer: C

Explanation

A passive-interface with RIP prevents that interface from sending

RIP advertisements but it is still receiving RIP updates from other
RIP neighbors. This behavior is different from EIGRP and OSPF

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where the passive-interface statement stops forming neighbor

adjacencies over that link.

Question 6

Which command is used to determine the licenses that are

activated on your ISR?

A. show license
B. show running-config license
C. show version
D. show running-config
E. show platform
F. show udi license

Answer: A

Explanation

Note: The “show license” command can be used to check the

“License State” (which show if it is “Active” or “Not in Use”) of the
device.

Note:

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The “show version” only shows the license information but does not
tell if it has been activated or not.

The “show license udi” command shows the Serial Number and the
unique device identifier (UDI) of the device. The UDI has two
components: the product ID (PID) and the serial number of the
router.

Question 7

What is the difference between a CSU/DSU and a modem?

A. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a leased

line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a leased
line.
B. A CSU/DSU converts analog signals from a router to a phone
line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a leased line.
C. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a phone
line; a modem converts analog signals from a router to a phone

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line.
D. A CSU/DSU converts digital signals from a router to a leased
line; a modem converts digital signals from a router to a phone line.

Answer: D

Explanation

A modem modulates outgoing digital signals from a computer or

other digital device to analog signals for a conventional copper
twisted pair telephone line and demodulates the incoming analog
signal and converts it to a digital signal for the digital device.

A CSU/DSU is used between two digital lines.

Question 8

Which command and mode will successfully configure a hostname

of R1 on a Cisco IOS router?

A. Router(config)#name R1
B. Router# hostname R1
C. Router(config)#hostname R1

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D. Router#name R1
E. Router>hostname R1
F. Router>name R1

Answer: C

Question 9

You are configuring your edge routers interface with a public IP

address for Internet connectivity. The router needs to obtain the IP
address from the service provider dynamically. Which command is
needed on interface FastEthernet 0/0 to accomplish this?

A. ip default-gateway
B. ip route
C. ip default-network
D. ip address dhcp
E. ip address dynamic

Answer: D

Question 10

By default, which port is the following telnet command going to?

C:\Windows\system32> telnet 2001:DB8:172:16::100

A. 23
B. 21
C. 80
D. 43

Answer: A

Explanation

By default, telnet uses port 23 to connect to the remote device

unless we specify another port. For example if we want to telnet to

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port 8111 we can type “telnet 1.1.1.1 8111”.

Question 11

Which command is used to verify your OSPFv3 neighbor

adjacencies?

A. show ospf neighbor

B. show ipv6 brief
C. show ipv6 ospf
D. show ipv6 ospf neighbor

Answer: D

Explanation

An example of the “show ipv6 ospf neighbor” is shown below:

R1#show ipv6 ospf neighbor

Neighbor ID Pri State Dead Time Address
Interface
3.3.3.3 0 FULL/- 00:00:38 10.1.1.9
Serial0/0/0

Question 12

What is the destination MAC address of a broadcast frame?

A. 00:00:0c:07:ac:01
B. ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff
C. 43:2e:08:00:00:0c
D. 00:00:0c:43:2e:08
E. 00:00:0crfHfrff

Answer: B

Question 13

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Which of the following protocols are used to auto negotiate trunk

formation between two switches?

A. CDP
B. VTP
C. DTP
D. STP

Answer: C

Explanation

The Dynamic Trunking Protocol (DTP) is a proprietary networking

protocol developed by Cisco for the purpose of negotiating trunking
on a link between two VLAN-aware switches, and for negotiating
the type of trunking encapsulation to be used. It is a Layer 2
protocol and it is enabled by default on Cisco switches (so the
interfaces of your switches will be in “dynamic auto” or “dynamic
desirable” mode). If you want to turn it off, use the “switchport
nonegotiate” under interface mode.

Question 14

Which command is used to enable LLDP globally on a Cisco IOS

ISR?

A. lldp run
B. lldp enable
C. lldp transmit
D. cdp run
E. cdp enable

Answer: A

Explanation

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Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a industry standard

protocol that allows devices to advertise, and discover connected
devices, and there capabilities (same as CDP of Cisco). To enable
it on Cisco devices, we have to use this command under global
configuration mode:

Sw(config)# lldp run

Question 15

You have the Class B network 172.16.0.0/16 and want to create 16

subnets. What will the new subnet mask be for the 16 subnets?

A. /18
B. /19
C. /21
D. /17
E. /22
F. /20

Answer: F

Explanation

Suppose n is the number of bits we borrow:

The number of newly created subnets = 2n

Here we want to create 16 subnets so n should be 4 (24= 16)

therefore the new subnet mask should be 16 + 4 = 20. This means
we have to borrow 4 bits of the default subnet mask of class B
which is /16.

Question 16

What does a 2900 ISR do if the POST is successful during start up,
but there is no configuration file to load?

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A. It shuts down
B. It creates a configuration file with default settings and loads user
EXEC mode
C. It initiates the system configuration dialog
D. It reboots
E. It enters ROMMON mode

Answer: C

Explanation

The following details the router boot process:

1. The router is powered on.
2. The router first runs Power-On Self Test (POST)
3. The bootstrap checks the Configuration Register value to specify
where to load the IOS. By default (the default value of Configuration
Register is 2102, in hexadecimal), the router first looks for “boot
system” commands in startup-config file. If it finds these
commands, it will run boot system commands in order they appear
in startup-config to locate the IOS. If not, the IOS image is loaded
from Flash . If the IOS is not found in Flash, the bootstrap can try to
load the IOS from TFTP server or from ROM (mini-IOS).
4. After the IOS is found, it is loaded into RAM.
5. The IOS attempts to load the configuration file (startup-config)
from NVRAM to RAM. If the startup-config is not found in NVRAM,
the IOS attempts to load a configuration file from TFTP. If no TFTP
server responds, the router enters Setup Mode (Initial
Configuration Mode).

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Question 17

You are configuring PAT on your Cisco IOS router? Which keyword
in the “ip nat inside source” command is used to enable PAT?

A. Interface
B. Overload
C. List
D. PAT
E. Pool

Answer: B

Explanation

By adding the keyword “overload” at the end of a NAT statement,

NAT becomes PAT (Port Address Translation). This is also a kind of
dynamic NAT that maps multiple private IP addresses to a single
public IP address (many-to-one) by using different ports. Static NAT
and Dynamic NAT both require a one-to-one mapping from the

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inside local to the inside global address. By using PAT, you can
have thousands of users connect to the Internet using only one real
global IP address. PAT is the technology that helps us not run out of
public IP address on the Internet. This is the most popular type of
NAT.

An example of using “overload” keyword is shown below:

R1(config)# ip nat inside source list 1 interface ethernet1 overload

Question 18

Cisco Catalyst switches CAT1 and CAT2 have a connection

between them using ports Fa0/13. An 802.1Q trunk is configured
between the two switches. On CAT1, VLAN 10 is chosen as native,
but on CAT2 the native VLAN is not specified. What will happen in
this scenario?

A. 802.1Q giants frames could saturate the link.

B. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send untagged
frames.
C. A native VLAN mismatch error message will appear.
D. VLAN 10 on CAT1 and VLAN 1 on CAT2 will send tagged
frames.

Answer: C

Explanation

The native VLAN must match on both sides of the trunk link for
802.1Q; otherwise the link will not work. If there is a native VLAN
mismatch, Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) places the port in a port
VLAN ID (PVID) inconsistent state and will not forward on the link.

If you have a native VLAN mismatch, you will see CDP error
messages on the console output like this:

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Dec 9 14:10:21: %CDP-4-NATIVE_VLAN_MISMATCH: Native

VLAN mismatch discovered on FastEthernet0/1 (1), with
FastEthernet0/2 (301)

Question 19

Which statements define the term block size? (Choose two)

A. It is determined exclusively based on the subnet mask

B. It is always a value of 8
C. It is the total number of IPv4 addresses within a subnet
D. It is the progression between subnets within a specific octet
E. It is determined based on the IPv4 address and subnet mask
F. It is always a value of 2

Answer: A D

Explanation

Block size is usually used in Variable Length Subnet Mask (VLSM).

For example, if you need 12 hosts, you’ll use a block size of 16. A
/26 equates to a 255.255.255.192 mask which has a block size of
64. A /27 equates to a 255.255.255.224 mask which has a block
size of 32… A block size is determined based on the subnet mask
only.

The values of a block size can be 4, 8, 16, 32, 64, 128.

Question 20

What will occur when you issue the “copy running-config startup-
config” command on your IOS device?

A. The configuration in FLASH will replace the configuration in RAM

B. The configuration in NVRAM will replace the configuration in
RAM

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C. The configuration in FLASH will merge with the configuration in

RAM
D. The configuration in NVRAM will merge with the configuration in
RAM
E. The configuration in RAM will merge with the configuration in
NVRAM
F. The configuration in RAM will replace the configuration in
NVRAM

Answer: F

Explanation

The “copy running-config startup-config” command will copy

running config (stored in RAM) to the startup config (located in
NVRAM). The short form of this command is “write memory” (we
can type “wr”).

Question 21

What are the two types of encapsulation methods on a serial link?

(Choose two)

A. ARPA
B. 802.1q
C. 803.1
D. PPP
E. HDLC

Answer: D E

Question 22

Which of the following options allows for routing and multicast traffic
over VPNs?

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A. DMVPN
B. GRE over IPsec
C. TLSVPN
D. IPsec

Answer: B

Question 23

How does 802.1Q identify the VLAN that the frame belongs to while
it crosses the trunk link?

A. It encapsulates the entire frame with a 30 byte header and FCS

B. It encapsulates the entire frame with a 30 bits header and FCS
C. It places a 4 byte tag after the source MAC address in the frame
D. It places a 4 bit tag after the source MAC address in the frame

Answer: C

Explanation

802.1Q frame includes a 4 byte tag after the source MAC address
to identify the VLAN that the frame belongs to.

Question 24

What is the number one design consideration for WANs?

A. Number of people
B. Number of sites connected
C. Number of computers
D. Number of resources

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Answer: B

Question 25

Which address and wildcard mask combination can be represented

with the keyword “any”?

A. 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0
B. 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255
C. 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
D. 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255
E. 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.0

Answer: D

Explanation

The “any” keyword can be used to substitute the IPv4 address

0.0.0.0 with a wildcard mask of 255.255.255.255. For example, we
can replace this statement:

R1(config)# access-list 1 permit 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255

with keyword “any”:

R1(config)# access-list 1 permit any

Question 26

Which RFC defines the private IPv4 address ranges?

A. 2784
B. 4443
C. 1985
D. 7868
E. 1918
F. 2328
G. 792

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Answer: E

Explanation

The RFC 1918 is Address Allocation for Private Internets, which

reserves IP addresses for private and internal use. These
addresses can be used for networks that do not need to connect to
the Internet.

Question 27

Which of the following command would you use to enable EIGRP

only on those interfaces with an IP address from 10.1.1.0 through
10.1.1.63?

A. network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.63

B. network 10.1.1.0/63
C. router eigrp 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.63
D. network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255

Answer: A

Explanation

From 10.1.1.0 to 10.1.1.63 we need a block size of 64 (= 26)

therefore we need a subnet mask which consists of 6 bits “0” at the
fourth octet (1100 0000) which is equivalent to the wildcard mask of
0011 1111 (= 63 in decimal).

Question 28

What are the considerations when determining the best

administrative distance of route sources? (Choose two)

A. Routers choose the routing source with the lowest administrative

distance
B. Multiple routing protocols and static routes cannot be used at the

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same time
C. Multiple routing protocols and static routes can be used at the
same time
D. Routers choose the routing source with the highest
administrative distance

Answer: A C

Question 29

What is the Layer 2 encapsulation for Ethernet?

A. 802.1Q
B. ARPA
C. SSL
D. RTP

Answer: B

Explanation

On Ethernet you have four encapsulation formats:

+ Ethernet version II
+ Novell-specific framing
+ Ethernet 802.3/802.2 without SNAP
+ Ethernet 802.3/802.2 with SNAP

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-
switching/fiber-distributed-copper-distributed-data-interface-fddi-
cddi/10690-22.html

The standard Advanced Research Projects Agency (ARPA)

Ethernet Version 2.0 encapsulation, which uses a 16-bit protocol
type code (the default encapsulation method).

Question 30

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Which commands will you use to verify the IPv6 EIGRP interfaces
that are participating in the routing process? (Choose two)

A. show ipv6 eigrp interface

B. show ipv6 protocols
C. show ipv6
D. show ipv6 routing protocol

Answer: A B

Question 31

Which code represents a route inside an area in which it belongs?

A. IS – ISIS Interarea
B. OI – OSPF Inter
C. DCE – Destination
D. O – OSPF Intra

Answer: D

Question 32

What protocol is used to synchronize time between various Cisco

IOS devices in your network?

A. LACP
B. NTP
C. DTP
D. VTP
E. CDP
F. STP
G. PAgP

Answer: B

Question 33

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For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical
addresses? (Choose two)

A. to uniquely identify devices at Layer 2

B. to allow communication with devices on a different network
C. to differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
D. to establish a priority system to determine which device gets to
transmit first
E. to allow communication between different devices on the same
network
F. to allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is
unknown

Answer: A E

Question 34

Which command is used to verify the DHCP relay agent address

that has been set up on your Cisco IOS router?

A. show ip interface brief

B. show ip dhcp bindings
C. show ip route
D. show ip interface
E. show interface
F. show ip dhcp pool

Answer: D

Explanation

An example of the “show ip interface” command is shown below:

R1#show ip interface
GigabitEthernet0/0 is up, line protocol is up
(connected)

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Internet address is 192.168.1.1/24

Broadcast address is 255.255.255.255
Address determined by setup command
MTU is 1500 bytes
Helper address is 10.1.21.129
...

From the line “Helper address is 10.1.21.129” we learn that this

router is a DHCP relay agent which will forward the DHCP
messages between the DHCP Client & DHCP Server (located at
10.1.21.129).

Question 35

Which of the commands will successfully create a named ACL

called WEB_ACCESS that you can add permit and deny entries to
for controlling access to web resources?

A. access-list standard WEB_ACCESS

B. ip access-list extended WEB_ACCESS
C. ip access-list standard WEB_ACCESS
D. access-list extended WEB ACCESS

Answer: B

Question 36

Which of the following dynamic routing protocols are Distance

Vector routing protocols? (Choose two)

A. IS-IS
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. BGP
E. RIP

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Answer: B E

Question 37

Why should you implement port security on a switch interface?

A. To control which devices are allowed to access the network

B. To prevent Layer 2 loops from occurring
C. To prevent a unidirectional link
D. To prevent MAC address flooding attacks
E. To control which devices are allowed to manage the switch

Answer: A

Question 38

Which of the following should be considered when implementing

VLANs? (Choose three)

A. VLAN 1 is the default VLAN

B. The Native VLAN should also be VLAN 1
C. The maximum number of VLANs is switch dependent
D. Management traffic must always be in VLAN 1
E. The default VLAN needs to be identified during initial VLAN
deployment
F. The maximum number of VLANs on all switches if 4094
G. The Native VLAN should be changed

Answer: A C G

Question 39

You have two paths for the 10.10.10.0 network – one that has a
feasible distance of 3072 and the other of 6144. What do you need
to do to load balance your EIGRP routes? (Choose two)

A. Change the maximum paths to 2

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B. Change the configuration so they both have the same feasible

distance
C. Change the variance for the path that has a feasible distance of
3072 to 2
D. Change the IP addresses so both paths have the same source
IP address

Answer: B C

Question 40

What is the election of a designated port for a segment based on?

A. The lowest BID

B. The lowest root path cost
C. The lowest MAC address
D. The lowest priority

Answer: B

Question 41

What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three)

A. A higher level of network security can be reached by separating

sensitive data traffic from other network traffic.
B. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing
many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure.
C. A more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing
many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure.
D. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of
broadcast domains, thus reducing their size.
E. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of
broadcast domains, thus increasing their size.
F. VLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups,

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because the VLANs all belong to the same broadcast domain.

G. Port-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to
802.1 Q trunks.

Answer: A C D

Question 42

Which statement correctly defines an anycast IPv6 address?

A. Used in one-to-all communication

B. Used in one-to-one communication
C. Used in one-to-a-group communication
D. Used in one-to-nearest communication

Answer: D

Question 43

Which calculation is used to determine whether or not EIGRP for

IPv6 feasible successors can be use for load-balancing?

A. Variance * feasible distance of the successor

B. Variance / reported distance
C. Variance * reported distance
D. Variance / feasible distance of the successor

Answer: A

Question 44

Which command can we use to verify your directly connected

network tunnel?

A. show ip route
B. show gre tunnel
C. show route
D. show gre route

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Answer: A

Question 45

When configuring an EtherChannel bundle, which mode enables

LACP only if a LACP device is detected?

A. Passive
B. Desirable
C. On
D. Auto
E. Active

Answer: A

Question 46

Which IEEE standard protocol is initiated as a result of successful

DTP completion in a switch over Fast Ethernet?

A. 802.3ad
B. 802.1w
C. 802.1D
D. 802.1Q

Answer: D

Question 47

Which of the following is the static default route for IPv6?

A. 0/::
B. FF::/1
C. ::/1
D. ::/0

Answer: D

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Question 48

What type of banner should you configure when you want the
message to be displayed anytime a user is required to enter
usernames and passwords for management sessions?

A. incoming
B. motd
C. login
D. EXEC

Answer: C

Question 49

Which of the following are benefits of VLANs? (Choose three)

A. They increase the size of collision domains.

B. They allow logical grouping of users by function.
C. They can enhance network security.
D. They increase the size of broadcast domains while decreasing
the number of collision domains.
E. They increase the number of broadcast domains while
decreasing the size of the broadcast domains.
F. They simplify switch administration.

Answer: B C E

Question 50

Which prefix correctly identifies an IPv6 link-local address?

A. FD00:78
B. FC00:77
C. FE80::/10
D. 2000:73

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E. F8E0::/10

Answer: C

Explanation

Link-local addresses only used for communications within the local

subnetwork (automatic address configuration, neighbor discovery,
router discovery, and by many routing protocols). It is only valid on
the current subnet. It is usually created dynamically using a link-
local prefix of FE80::/10 and a 64-bit interface identifier (based on
48-bit MAC address).

Question 51

Which of the following technologies allows you to combine multiple

PPP sessions together?

A. ARPA
B. Multi-link PPP
C. SSL
D. TLS

Answer: B

Question 52

Refer to the exhibit. Which port security violation mode is

configured on interface Fa0/1?

%PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/1,

putting Fa0/1 in err-disable state
%PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation
occurred, caused by MAC address 00AA.1AB9.D22F on port
FastEthernet0/1
%LINKPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface

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FastEthernet0/1, changed state to down

%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to
down

A. protect
B. shutdown VLAN
C. shutdown
D. restrict

Answer: C

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