ECC ACADEMY

RRB CLERK MAIN – 11

REASONING
Directions(1-5): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Eight boxes AX, BY, WO, GH, RM, CT, NP and QP contain different items i.e., Chocolate,
Burger, Books, Biscuits, Hajmola, Gems, Poppins and Toffee place one above another but
not necessarily in the same order.
GH does not contain books and toffee. The box contains biscuits is placed at even
numbered position but below CT. The box contains chocolate is placed immediate below the
box of burger and immediate above the box of books which is placed adjacent to the box
contains Poppins. RM contains Poppins and placed at even numbered position but not at
topmost position. NP is placed just above BY and both of them is placed neither adjacent to
AX nor at bottommost and topmost position. Number of boxes placed above AX is same as
the number of boxes placed below WO. There are only three boxes placed between AX and
the box contains hajmola which is placed either at topmost or bottommost position.
1. Which of the following box contains toffee?
1. WO
2. CT
3. NP
4. QP
5. None of these
2. The box QP contains which among the following items?
1. Hajmola
2. Chocolates
3. Burger
4. Books
5. None of these
3. How many boxes are placed below BY?
1. Four
2. Five
3. Three
4. One
5. More than five
4. Which among the following pair is correct?
1. WO-burger
2. GH-gems
3. CT-hajmola
4. NP-toffee
5. All are correct
5. Four among the following five are alike in certain way and hence form a
group, find the one that does not belong to that group?
1. 5-WO-burger
2. 7-CT-toffee
3. 4-QP-books
4. 1-GH-poppins
5. 3-AX-biscuits
Directions(6-10): Study the following information carefully and answer the
following questions:
In a certain code language
‘River Little Electron Check’ is written as ‘3#E 4%G 6#V 3#V’
‘Essential Empire Percent’ is written as ‘7#H 4%K 5#I’
‘Preparation Vacant Statue June’ is written as ‘9#V 4#X 4%Z 2%M’
6. What is the code for ‘Airport’?
1. 5#I
2. 6#I
3. 5%V
4. 6%I
5. None of these
7. What is the code for ‘Embedded Design’?
1. 4#Y 6#H
2. 6#Y 4#H
3. 4#Y 4#H
4. 6%Y 6#H
5. None of these
8. The code ‘6%V’ is coded for which of the following words?
1. Pressure
2. Balloon
3. Shakespeare
4. Entrance
5. None of these
9. What is the code for ‘festival’?
1. 8#L
2. 6#H
3. 6%H
4. 6#S
5. None of these
10. The code ‘9#E 5%R’ is coded for which of the following?
1. National Science
2. Notification Institute
3. Series Rocket
4. Environment Science
5. None of these
Directions(11-13): In each of the questions below are given some statements
followed by some conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true
even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read all the
conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows
from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
11. Statements:
Only a few Ludo are dice.
Only a few dice are blue.
No blue is six. All six are game.
Conclusions:
I. Some ludo are not six.
II. Some dice are not blue.
III. All game are blue.
1. Only conclusion II follows
2. Only conclusion III follows
3. Both conclusion I and II follows
4. None follows
5. None of these
12. Statements:
No CPU is UPS.
Only a few UPS is supply.
Only a few supply is power.
All power is system.
Conclusions:
I. Some power is not UPS.
II. Some supply is not CPU.
III. All UPS can be system.
1. Only I follows
2. Both II and III follows
3. Only II follows
4. Both I and II follows
5. All follow
13. Statements:
Only a few cotton is white.
Some white is plant.
Only a few silk is plant.
No tree
is plant.
Conclusions: I. Some tree are not silk.
II. Some cotton is not tree.
III. Some cotton can never be plant.
1. Only II follows
2. Both I and II follows
3. Both I and III follows
4. None follows
5. None of these
Directions(14-15): in the following questions, the symbols &, $, %, # and @ are
used with the following meaning as illustrated below:
‘A#B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equals to B’
‘A%B’ means ‘A is neither greater than B’
‘A$B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor greater than B’
‘A@B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equals to B’
‘A&B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than B’
Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which
of the three conclusions I, II and III given below them is/are definitely true and give your
answer accordingly.
14. Statements:
P # Q $ T % R @ V; Z @ L $ X % O # V
Conclusions:
I. Q@X
II. L&T
III. O%R
P # Q $ T % R @ V; Z @ L $ X % O # V
I. Q@X
II. L&T
III. O%R
1. All follows
2. Only III follows
3. Both I and II follows
4. Either I or II follows
5. None of these
15. Statements:
E & B @ C # D $ F & H & Z # M; F & G @ I % P
Conclusions:
I. H@C
II. D@I
III. B$G
E & B @ C # D $ F & H & Z # M; F & G @ I % P
I. H@C
II. D@I
III. B$G
1. Either I or III follows
2. Both I and II follow
3. Only II follows
4. Only III follows
5. None of these
Directions(16-20): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Ten people are sitting on two parallel rows. A, B, C, D and E sit in row 1 and face towards
north direction. L, M, N, O and P sit in row 2 and face south direction. They like different
colors viz, black, blue, brown, pink, red, grey, green, yellow, maroon and white. All the
information is not necessarily in the same order.
(Note- The persons named with adjacent alphabets do not sit together. Ex- A does not sit
near B and B does not sit near A and C.)
The one who likes green faces the one who likes white and sits third to the left of the one
who likes blue. Only one person sits between the one who likes black and E who faces O.
The one who likes pink and the one who likes yellow, both do not sit at exactly middle of
both the rows (row 1 and row 2). M and O do not like maroon and pink. The number of
persons sit to the left of left of N is same as the number of persons sits to the left of the one
who likes black. M faces the one who likes grey and C does not like grey. D does not like
black. N likes red and sits at any of the extreme end of the row.
16. Who among the following likes white?
1. M
2. L
3. C
4. A
5. None of these
17. How many persons sit between the one who likes yellow and the one who
faces D?
1. None
2. Three
3. One
4. Two
5. None of these
18. O likes which among the following color?
1. Green
2. Yellow
3. White
4. Brown
5. None of these
19. Four among the following five are alike in a certain way and hence they
form a group, find the one that does not belong to that group?
1. D-pink
2. L-maroon
(3) N-red
3. C-black
4. P-blue
5. None of these
20. If P and L interchanged their positions then, who among the following sits
second to the left of the one who faces the immediate neighbor of C?
1. L
2. The one who faces D
3. The one who likes brown
4. P
5. None of these
Directions(21-25): Study the following information carefully and answer the
given questions.
Eight Cricketers- A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circular table facing the
center in a dinner party but not necessarily in the same order. Each one of them is from a
different country.
F sits second to right of the cricketer who is from South Africa. B is not from West Indies.
Only one person sits between C and the cricketer who is from Sri Lanka. H sits third to left
of the cricketer who is from New Zealand. The cricketer who is from Australia sits second to
left of the cricketer who is from Zimbabwe. The cricketer who is from India is an immediate
neighbour of the cricketer who is from South Africa. Two cricketers sit between the
cricketer who is from India and B. C and E are immediate neighbours of each other. Neither
C nor E is an immediate neighbour of B and the cricketer who is from South Africa. The
cricketer who is from England sits second to right of D. D is neither the cricketer of South
Africa nor India. G and the cricketer who is from West Indies are immediate neighbours of
each other.
21. Who among the following sits second to the right of the cricketer who is
from West Indies?
1. B
2. H
3. The cricketer who is from India
4. E
5. None of these
22. Who among the following cricketer is from Zimbabwe?
1. C
2. F
3. B
4. G
5. None of these
23. Who among the following sits opposite to E?
1. A
2. H
3. G
4. B
5. None of these
24. Which of the following statement is true about A?
1. A is from Australia
2. G is an immediate neighbor of A
3. A sits opposite to the one who sits second to the left of D
4. H does not sit immediate right of A
5. None is true
25. F is from which country?
1. India
2. England
3. South Africa
4. West Indies
5. None of these
Directions(26-27): Study the information carefully and answer the questions
given below.
There are eight members in three generation of the family. There are two couple and three
male members in the family. O is daughter in law of W. P is mother of M and N. W has only
one son. K is niece of N. X is not sister of Y. P has only two children. K is cousin of Y. X is
granddaughter of P. Y is not female. O is mother of X.
26. Who among the following is sister-in-law of O?
1. P
2. K
3. M
4. W
5. None of these
27. How is Y related to X?
1. Sister
2. Son
3. Cousin
4. Grandson
5. None of these
Directions(28-31): When a word and number arrangement machine is given
an input line of words and numbers, it arranges them following a particular
rule. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the
numbers are two-digit numbers.)
Input: adorable 49 36 super 75 immediate brain 16 luggage 47 under 56
Step I. under adorable 49 36 super 75 immediate brain luggage 47 56 16
Step II. Immediate under adorable 49 super 75 brain luggage 47 56 16 36
Step III. Adorable immediate under 49 super 75 brain luggage 47 16 36 56
Step IV. 47 adorable immediate under 49 75 brain luggage 16 36 56 super
Step V. 49 47 adorable immediate under 75 brain 16 36 56 super luggage
Step VI. 75 49 47 adorable immediate under 16 36 56 super luggage brain
And Step VI is the last step of the above arrangement as the intended arrangement is
obtained. As per the rules followed in the given steps, find out the appropriate steps for the
given input.
Input: 31 kiwi apricot 62 mango 61 58 orange watermelon 88 energy 17
28. Which of the following element come exactly between '17' and ‘62' in Step II
of the given input?
1. 31
2. apricot
3. kiwi
4. 58
5. none of these
29. Which of the following element is 3rd from the left end in step II?
1. 62
2. apricot
3. kiwi
4. 31
5. none of these
30. Which of the following step is the penultimate step?
1. Six
2. Seven
3. Eight
4. Nine
5. None of these
31. In which step are the elements ' orange kiwi 61 58’ found in the same
order?
1. Sixth
2. Third
3. Fourth
4. The given order of elements is not found in any step
5. Fifth
Directions(32-36): Study the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below:
Seven players are going to participate in a tournament in India in four different months-
March, June, September and November of the same year. All of them are belong to different
countries. At least one player but not more than two players are participating in same
month.
F does not belong to Bhutan. G belongs to US and participate in September. The one who
belongs to Bhutan does not participate in November. Neither C nor E belongs to Bhutan. F
and B are participating in June. E does not belong to Japan. Persons who belong Bhutan
and Russia are participating in the same month. A belongs to China and participating in
March. The one who belongs to Japan goes in September. Only one player participating in
March. Persons who belong to France and Brazil are participating in the same month. D
participating in November and does not belong to France.
32. Who among the following participating in June?
1. C
2. D
3. F
4. E
5. None of these
33. Which of the following statement is true about B?
1. C participating in the same month as B
2. B participating in the month which has odd number of days
3. B belongs to France
4. B participating in the month which has even number of days
5. None is true
34. C belongs to which country?
1. Japan
2. France
3. Brazil
4. Russia
5. None of these
35. E participating in tournament in which of the following month?
1. March
2. November
3. September
4. June
5. None of these
36. Who among the following is participating with B?
1. C
2. G
3. E
4. F
5. None of these
Directions(37-40): Study the following alphanumeric series carefully and
answer the questions given below:
G9*8M3D7%N6YA1&UV45H@F#2SB$O
STEP I- The numbers are immediately preceded and immediately followed by letter are
arranged between S and B in increasing order.
STEP II- All the vowels are replaced with its next letter in alphabetical series.
STEP III- The letters which are immediately preceded by the number and immediately
followed by the symbol are arranged at the end of the series in alphabetical order (after P)
(STEP II is applied after STEP I and STEP III is applied after STEP II)
37. Which of the following element is third to the right of the element which is
10th from the left end in step II?
1. B
2. &
3. 1
4. V
5. None of these
38. How many letters are repeated in step III?
1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four
5. None of these
39. What is the addition of the element which is 7th from the left in step I and
12th from the right in step III?
1. 8
2. 13
3. 9
4. 12
5. None of these
40. Which of the following element is 15th from the left of the element which is
5th from the right in step III?
1. B
2. Y
3. N
4. %
5. None of these
COMPUTER
41. Oracle is an example of __________ application software.
1. database
2. word processing
3. project management
4. presentation graphics
5. desktop
42. Which of the following options is used to display information such as title,
page number of the document?
1. Insert Table
2. Header and Footer
3. Thesaurus
4. Spelling and Grammar
5. Auto correct
43. Which key should you use to indent the first paragraph of your report?
1. tab key
2. return key
3. space bar
4. shift key
5. None of these
44. Which of the following terms is associated with Internet?
1. Plotter
2. Slide presentation
3. Bookmark
4. Pie Chart
5. Microsoft Excel
45. Which feature helps to search the text through reference material such as
dictionaries, encyclopedias and translation services?
1. Translation
2. Research
3. Find
4. Font
5. Table
46. Which of the following is not permitted in an e-mail address?
1. Period (.)
2. Underscore (_)
3. Lowercase alphabets (a-z)
4. Uppercase alphabets (A-Z)
5. Space ( )
47. What does VIRUS stands for?
1. Vital Information Resources under Siege
2. Viral Important Record User Searched
3. Very Interchanged Resources User Searched
4. Very Intelligent Resources under Search
5. None of the above
48. _______ are specially designed computer chips that reside other devices,
Such as your car or your electronic thermostat.
1. Severs
2. Embedded computers
3. Robotic Computers
4. Mainframe
5. None of these
49. Which of the following was used to program the first computer?
1. Assembly language
2. Machine language
3. Source code
4. Object code
5. ASCII code
50. What type of monitoring file is commonly used on and accepted from
Internet sites?
1. Smartware
2. Phishes
3. Cookies
4. Trojans
5. None of the above
51. To switch the slide orientation between portrait and landscape – Click
__________ and select Portrait or Landscape as your requirement.
1. Slide page
2. Slide Orientation
3. Slide theme
4. Slide number
5. None of these
52. what is the base of Hexadecimal number system?
1. 16
2. 17
3. 18
4. 19
5. 20
53. What type of technology allows you to use your finger, eye, or voice print to
secure your information resources?
1. Haptics
2. Caves
3. Biometrics
4. RFID
5. All of above
54. When a real-time telephone call between people is made over the Internet
using computers, it is called __________.
1. a chat session
2. an e-mail
3. an instant message
4. Internet telephony
5. None of these
55. Changing desktop wallpaper is a simple task which can be accessed
through ________ section of all control panel items.
1. Personalize
2. Image
3. Graphics
4. Windows
5. Browser
56. To deletes the selected item permanently, which of the following shortcut
key combination should be used?
1. Alt + Delete
2. Shift + D
3. Shift + Delete
4. Alt + D
5. None of these
57. A _________ typically connects personal computers within a very limited
geographical area, usually within a single building.
1. LAN
2. FAN
3. TAN
4. WAN
5. VPN
58. What is a hyperlink?
1. It is a text or image that you can click on to jump to a new document/page.
2. It is an input type for multimedia files.
3. It is a collection or directory of web pages.
4. It is the home page of a site.
5. None of the above
59. Which among the following is a software that uses a pattern-matching
technique to examine all files on a disk looking for harmful code?
1. Multimedia Player
2. Backup software
3. Utility programs
4. Driver imaging
5. Antivirus Software
60. Which of the following is a required to ‘boot’, the system?
1. Complier
2. Mouse
3. Operating system
4. Assembler
5. MS Office
61. Select the odd one out:
1. Bing
2. Firefox
3. Chrome
4. Google
5. Chromium
62. To allows someone else to schedule your meetings and appointments,
______ feature of Outlook is used.
1. Monthly calendar
2. Event manager
3. Messenger
4. Delegate Access
5. Event Calendar
63. Which among the following is closely related to the processor?
1. Main Memory
2. Secondary Memory
3. Disk Memory
4. Internal Memory
5. None of these
64. What does DRAM stands for?
1. Digital Random Access Memory
2. Dynamic Random Access Memory
3. Dividing Random Access Memory
4. Dynamic Recording Access Memory
5. None of these
65. Walkie-talkie is an example of which of the following?
1. simplex communication
2. half-duplex communication
3. full-duplex communication
4. semi-duplex communication
5. None of these
66. How many bits are equivalent to one nibble?
1. 4
2. 6
3. 8
4. 10
5. 2
67. ______ are special effects used to define a way in which the slides appear
during a slide show.
1. Transitions
2. Animation
3. Themes
4. Slide Master
5. Moves
68. Which Term referring to a person who uses his or her expertise to gain
access to other people’s computers to get information illegally or do damage?
1. hacker
2. analyst
3. instant messenger
4. programmer
5. spammer
69. What does the computer Motherboard contains that houses setting
configurations and is powered by the onboard battery?
1. CMOS
2. RAM
3. DRAM
4. CPU
5. None of these
70. Which of the following generations of computers used transistors for the
first time?
1. First generation
2. Second generation
3. Third generation
4. Fourth generation
5. Fifth generation
71. Which of the following is the largest space among given options?
1. Kilobyte
2. Petabyte
3. Terabyte
4. Gigabyte
5. Nibble
72. An input device that utilize a light-sensitive detector to select objects on a
display screen is known as _________.
1. Optical scanner
2. Touch screen
3. Light Pen
4. Mouse
5. Keyboard
73. A repair for a known software bug, usually available at no charge on the
internet, is called a(n)___________.
1. Version
2. Patch
3. Tutorial
4. FAQ
5. None of these
74. The barcode which is used on all types of items, is read by a scanning
device directly into the computer. What is the name of this scanning device?
1. Laser scanner
2. Wand
3. OCR
4. MICR
5. Dot Matrix
75. Commands at the top of a screen such as File-Edit, Format and Tools to
operate and change things are incorporated in __________________.
1. Menu bar
2. Tool bar
3. User friendly
4. Word processor
5. None of these
76. The operation of combining two cells into a single cell in Excel is referred
to as ________.
1. join cells
2. merge cells
3. merge table
4. join table
5. tuple
77. What is a bootstrap?
1. A memory device
2. A device to support the computer
3. An error correction technique
4. A small initialization program to start up a computer
5. None of the above
78. A device that not only provides surge protection, but also furnishes the
computer with battery backup power during a power outage is ______.
1. Battery strip
2. UPS
3. Surge strip
4. USB
5. Memory
79. When a logic bomb is activated by a time-related event, it is known as a
________.
1. Time-related bomb sequence
2. Virus
3. Time bomb
4. Trojan horse
5. All of the above
80. What does DBMS stand for?
1. Data Management System
2. Database Management System
3. Database Management Server
4. Database Maintenance Server
5. Data Management Server
G.K
81. Parle agro has appointed_____________ as its ambassador-
1. Anil Kapoor
2. Priyanka Chopra Jonas
3. Akshay Kumar
4. Alia Bhatt
5. Kriti Sanon
82. Where is the headquarters of United Nations Security Council?
1. Paris, France
2. Geneva, Switzerland
3. Malaysia, Kuala Lumpur
4. London, United Kingdom
5. New York, United States
83. FM Nirmala Sitharaman has announced how much amount of a formal
government guarantee for bad bank or National Asset Reconstruction
Company (NARCL)?
1. over Rs 10,500 crores
2. over Rs 20,000 crores
3. over Rs 30,600 crores
4. over Rs 40,800 crores
5. over Rs 50,200 crores
84. Which of the following city has been selected to host the 2032 summer
Olympics?
1. Gold Coast, Queensland
2. Melbourne, Australia
3. Sydney, Australia
4. Brisbane, Australia
5. Perth, Australia
85. Which Bank has signed an MoU with the Indian Navy for salary account?
1. State Bank of India
2. IndusInd Bank
3. Axis bank
4. Kotak Mahindra Bank
5. Standard Bank
86. Which organization has successfully flight tested indigenously developed
low weight Man-Portable Anti-Tank Guided Missile?
1. Defence Research and Development Organisation
2. Indian Space Research Organisation
3. Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
4. Defence Research and Development Laboratory
5. Bharat Electronics
87. Name the New Generation surface-to-air missile which has been
successfully flight-tested by Defence Research & Development Organisation
(DRDO).
1. Vikas
2. Ujjawal
3. Akash
4. Seema
5. None of these
88. Urmil Kumar Thapliyal passed away recently. He was a/an ____.
1. Director
2. Athlete
3. Singer
4. Theatre Personality
5. Dancer
89. Which bank has launched a co-branded credit card with Hindustan
Petroleum Corporation Limited (HPCL)?
1. Axis Bank
2. ICICI Bank
3. SBI
4. Kotak Mahindra Bank
5. None of these
90. Which country appointed Ariel Henry as its new prime minister after the
president’s assassination?
1. Andorra
2. Algeria
3. Haiti
4. Albania
5. Iceland
91. Indian Railways has launched the “Rail Kaushal Vikas Yojana (RKVY)”
under the aegis of Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)”. Pradhan
Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) was launched in which year?
1. 2011
2. 2014
3. 2015
4. 2016
5. 2018
92. Who among the following has been featured in Time Magazine's list of '100
most influential people of 2021'?
1. Narendra Modi
2. Mamata Banerjee
3. Adar Poonawalla
4. All of the above
5. Both a & c
93. Which state/UT has launched a new mission called ‘One Gram Panchayat-
One DIGI-Pay Sakhi’?
1. Daman & Diu
2. Manipur
3. Ladakh
4. Jammu & Kashmir
5. Arunachal Pradesh
94. Which of the following is not one of the basic functions of money?
1. A unit of account
2. A means of calculating real value
3. A medium of exchange
4. A store of value
5. None of these
95. Which of the following is the best example of commodity money?
1. Bonds
2. Coinage
3. Gold bullion
4. Paper money
5. None of these
96. What is the full form of CRISIL?
1. Credit Rating Investment Services of India Limited
2. Credit Rating Insight Services of India Limited
3. Credit Rating Information Services of India Limited
4. Credit Rating Indian Services for Investment and Liability
5. None of these
97. Which central bank has recently joined the Central Banks and Supervisors
Network for Greening the Financial System (NGFS) as a member?
1. European Central Bank
2. Swiss National Bank
3. Reserve Bank of India
4. Reserve Bank of Australia
5. U.S. Federal System
98. Which Bank has launched the Digital banking Platform ‘Merchant Stack’?
1. RBL Bank
2. ICICI Bank
3. HDFC Bank
4. State Bank of India
5. Axis Bank
99. Who has been named as the fourth Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank
of India (RBI)?
1. Subhash Kumar
2. Mukhmeet S Bhatia
3. Shabir Hussein
4. T Rabi Sankar
5. Chintan Vaishnav
100. A Unified Payments Interface is a real-time payment system that allows
transactions to be done through any Smartphone using VPA. VPA stands
for……….
1. Virtual Payment Admin
2. Virtual Process Address
3. Virtual Payment Address
4. Virtual Payment Activatio
5. None of these
101. According to the RBI's new ATM cash withdrawal rule, what is the new
charge on ATM withdrawal beyond free transaction limit, with effect from
January 1, 2022?
1. Rs 21
2. Rs 23
3. Rs 19
4. Rs 20
5. Rs 15
102. Who is the head of the advisory group set up by RBI to assist the
Regulatory Review Authority (RRA 2.0)?
1. M Rajeshwar Rao
2. S Janakiraman
3. N S Vishwanathan
4. Sudarshan Sen
5. Shyamala Gopinath
103. Which Small Finance Bank has launched ‘I choose my number’ feature?
1. Jana Small Finance Bank
2. Suryoday Small Finance Bank
3. Utkarsh Small Finance Bank
4. Equitas Small Finance Bank
5. ESAF Small Finance Bank
104. Which Bank has issued India’s first foreign portfolio investor (FPI)
licence to the GIFT IFSC alternative investment fund (AIF) of True Beacon
Global?
1. HDFC Bank
2. Kotak Mahindra Bank
3. Yes Bank
4. ICICI Bank
5. Axis Bank
105. Who has been appointed as the CEO of Reserve Bank Innovation Hub
(RBIH)?
1. Rajesh Bansal
2. Kris Gopalakrishnan
3. Jose J Kattoor
4. Vijay Goel
5. Ujjwala Singhania
106. In UPI, We can send money to any bank account through mobile without
entering………………….
1. Net banking password
2. Receiver’s account number
3. Debit card details
4. All of these
5. None of these
107. Which Bank has launched “FEDDY” AI-Powered virtual assistant for
customers?
1. ICICI Bank
2. RBL Bank
3. State Bank of India
4. Federal Bank
5. Axis Bank
108. RBI has increased loan limit of bank directors from Rs 25 lakh to
______________.
1. Rs 50 Lakhs
2. Rs 75 Lakhs
3. Rs 1 crore
4. Rs 2 crores
5. Rs 5 crores
109. Bagurumba is a folk dance of Which State?
1. Odisha
2. Jharkhand
3. Chattisgarh
4. Assam
5. Manipur
110. Who has bagged the Dada Saheb Phalke Award 2020 for a short
documentary “Chi Lupo“?
1. Sachin Awasthi
2. Gurbux Singh
3. K.K Shailaja
4. Kezang D Thongdok
5. Mohun Bagan Ratna
111. World Youth Skills Day was celebrated on-
1. 2nd June
2. 15th July
3. 14th May
4. 6th August
5. 19th September
112. “State Of The World’s Nursing Report-2020” has been released by which
organisation?
1. UNICEF
2. International Energy Agency
3. WHO
4. UNESCO
5. IMF
113. “Mukhyamantri Shahri Path Vyavsayi Utthan Yojana" has been started by
which state?
1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Maharashtra
3. Haryana
4. Uttrakhan
5. Kerala
114. World’s highest-paid athlete for 2020 is-
1. Lionel Messi
2. Roger Federer
3. Neymar
4. Cristiano Ronaldo
5. Kobe Bryant
115. Which Institute has developed a classroom-to-home teaching setup
‘Mobile Masterjee’?
1. Mylab Discovery solutions
2. Bharat Dynamics Limited
3. Defence Acquisition Council
4. IIT Gandhinagar
5. IIT Kanpur
116. The 1st World Solar Technology Summit was heldmvirtually. The summit
was inaugurated by-
1. Nirmala Sitharaman
2. Dharmendra Pradhan
3. Narendra Modi
4. Dr. Harsh Vardhan
5. Prakash Javdekar
117. Which edition of Global Ayurveda Summit was virtually inaugurated by
Vice-President MuppavarapuVenkaiah Naidu on the theme “Emerging
Opportunities for Ayurveda during Pandemic”?
1. 1st
2. 2nd
3. 3rd
4. 4th
5. 5th
118. DIAT stands for-
1. Defence Institution of Advanced Technology
2. Defence Institute of Advanced Technology
3. Defence Institute of Advancement Trait
4. Debt Interest of AdvanceTransaction
5. None of the Above
119. “RAW: A History of India”s Covert Operations” is Authored by-
1. Vijay Kumar Choudhary
2. Vasudev Jagannath Paranjpe
3. Neena Rai
4. Yatish Yadav
5. Anand Vasu
120. What are the essential details required for remitting funds through NEFT
system?
1. Beneficiary's Bank Name
2. Beneficiary's Account Type
3. Beneficiary's Account No.
4. Beneficiary's Branch IFSC
5. All of the above
ENGLISH
Directions(121-128): Read the given passage and answer the following
questions. Some words have been highlighted to help you locate them while
answering the questions.
The Indian economy has travelled through an eventful period through the last three
decades. In the post-independence economic history of our country, 1991 stands out as
a watershed year. This was the year in which the economy faced a severe balance of
payments crisis. In response, we launched a wide-ranging economic program, not just to
restore the balance of payments but to reform, restructure and modernise the economy.
Thus, the crisis was converted into an opportunity to bring about fundamental changes in
the approach and conduct of economic policy. A near tragedy was averted and a new path
was laid out before the country. The words of Charles Dickens in somewhat reverse order
seem appropriate: “It was the worst of times, It was the best of times, it was the winter of
despair, it was the spring of hope.”
It is important to recognize in what way the new regime was different from the earlier one.
The break with the past came in three important ways: in dismantling the vast network of
licences, controls and permits that dominated the economic system; in redesigning the role
of the state and allowing the private sector a larger space to operate within, and in
abandoning the inward looking foreign trade policy and getting integrated with the world
economy and trade. The last was particularly important because it was the opposite of what
we normally did when faced with a balance of payments crisis.
Dr. Manmohan Singh as Finance Minister spearheaded the new policy. He
_________________ the need for change and provided not only the broad framework
but also the details of the reforms. P.V. Narasimha Rao as Prime Minister gave the valuable
political support and shield which were very much needed. It must be noted that as Prime
Minister, P.V. Narasimha Rao also held the portfolio of Industry which was directly
responsible for initiating the changes that led to the dismantling of various types of controls
and licences related to the industrial sector. This was indeed a key element of the reform
program. There is a common thread running through the various measures introduced
since 1991. The objective has been to improve the productivity and efficiency of the system
by creating a more competitive environment. Thus, barriers to entry and growth were
removed. As the saying goes, the proof of the pudding is in the eating. It is therefore
appropriate to look at three broad parameters to judge the performance of the economy
after liberalisation — growth rate, current account deficit and poverty reduction.
Between 1992-93 and 2000-01, GDP at factor cost grew annually by 6.20%. Between 2001-
02 and 2010-11, it grew by 7.69% and the growth rate between 2011-12 and 2019-20, was
6.51%. The best performance was between 2005-06 and 2010-11 when the GDP grew by
8.7% showing clearly what the potential growth rate of India was. This is the highest growth
experienced by India over a sustained period of five to six years. This is despite the fact that
this period included the global crisis year of 2008-09. The recent decline in growth rate
which started even before the advent of COVID-19 should make policymakers reflect and
introspect.
121. How was the balance of payment crisis converted into an opportunity?
1. some old economic policies were applied to control the balance of payment crisis.
2. banks had taken some important measures to reform the economy.
3. an expansive economic program was launched to restore, reform, and restructure the
economy.
4. new insurance schemes were launched by the government to modernize the economy.
5. none of these.
122. Who held the portfolio of industry which was responsible for demolishing
of controls and licences related to the industrial sector?
1. Charles Dickens
2. P.V. Narasimha rao
3. Dr. Manmohan Singh
4. P. Chidambaram
5. none of these
123. What are the reasons that make new regime different from the earlier
one?
1. the new regime demolished the network of licenses, controls and permits that influenced
the economic system.
2. the new regime abandoned the inward-looking foreign trade policy and got integrated
with the world economy and trade.
3. it redesigned the responsibility of the state and allowing the private sector a larger space
to operate within.
4. all (a), (b), and (c)
5. only option (b) and (c)
124. Which of the following statement is/are true in context of the given
passage?
1. P.V. Narasimha Rao provided the valuable political support and shield for the economic
reform.
2. barriers to entry and growth were removed by creating a more competitive environment
to improve the productivity and efficiency of the system.
3. The best performance of the economy was between 2001-02 and 2010-11 when the GDP
grew by 8.7%.
4. to judge the performance of the economy, there are four parameters — growth rate,
current account deficit, poverty reduction and reverse repo rate.
5. only option (a) and (b)
125. Which of the following is similar in meaning to ‘ watershed’ as used in the passage?
1. exigency
2. spurious
3. milestone
4. befitting
5. none of these
126. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to ‘ avert’ as used in the passage?
1. ameliorate
2. assist
3. behoove
4. banter
5. none of these
127. Which of the following is similar in meaning to ‘ regime’ as used in the passage?
1. elusive
2. fugitive
3. perfidious
4. reign
5. none of these
128. Select appropriate filler for the blank given in the passage.
1. articulated
2. evanescent
3. baffle
4. subtle
5. none of these
Directions(129-133): In the following question, a paragraph is given with a
phrase/clause being omitted against each number. Choose the most suitable
alternative among the five to fill the blank, forming a grammatically correct
and contextually meaningful paragraph.
Ever since Independence, India’s fate has been closely tied to the rest of the world. In some
sense, it had no choice. A large, newly independent, impoverished, and impossibly diverse
country required active ____________(129)___________for its survival, security, and
development. But a constantly evolving international environment presented India not just
with _______(130)_____. Its frontiers were initially poorly demarcated and poorly
integrated. India came to have two nuclear-armed neighbours with which it competed for
territory. ______(131)_______ benefited from support from neighbour countries. And
India often found itself at odds with the great powers, ploughing a lonely furrow when it felt
its greater interests were threatened, as on intervention in Bangladesh, nuclear non-
proliferation, or trade. Today, the troubles may seem plenty leading with the raging COVID-
19 pandemic and its______(132)_______, especially when coupled with intensifying
competition with China and turmoil in Afghanistan. At the same time, India has greater
means to tackle them: it is by some measures the sixth largest economy in the world, boasts
a well-trained and professional military, and has a ______(133)_____ economic partners.
This brief overview suggests that India’s future, too, will remain intertwined with global
affairs.
129. 1. received the bulk of development and military
2. was only from the mid-1950s onwards
3. engagement with a variety of partners
4. that the Soviet Union extended support.
5. None of these.
130. 1. activist role in the decolonising world
2. extending diplomatic and (in some cases) security assistance to independence
3. shifted the dynamics of the rivalry with Pakistan
4. opportunities but numerous challenges
5. None of these.
131. 1. Treaty of Friendship and Cooperation and the Bangladesh
2. Several sources of domestic insecurity
3. The Indian economy remained relatively closed
4. Other Asian economies had begun to liberalise
5. None of these.
132. 1. adverse effects on economic growth prospects
2. period saw security challenges come closer to home
3. peaceful nuclear explosion, the annexation of Sikkim
4. stand-off with China, an intervention
5. None of these.
133. 1. domestic security challenges also assumed
2. some efforts at resetting relations with the United States,
3. growing network of international strategic and
4. balance of payments crisis and the liberalisation
5. None of these.
Directions(134-138): For each of the below questions, fill the blank with the
correct idiom/phrase, making the sentence grammatically and contextually
correct.
134. Some celebs even accidently _______________________ regarding
another's pregnancy status.
1. Fit as a fiddle
2. Under the weather
3. Fair and square
4. spill the beans
5. None of these.
135. The rupture usually occurs _____________________ playing
badminton or squash in a man in his forties.
1. way ahead of the curve
2. in the blues
3. out of the blue
4. beyond the pale
5. None of these
136. Nobody will want to be friends with you if you are considered
____________________________ in your social circle.
1. threw caution to wind
2. Beyond the Pale
3. carried the ball
4. a drop in the bucket
5. None of these
137. I do love the apartment, but that's __________________ because I
don't have enough money for a security deposit right now.
1. head over heels
2. on the dot
3. beside the mark
4. through thick and thin
5. None of these.
138. The concentration on vocabulary acquisition proved to
be______________________.
1. couch potato
2. cold sweat
3. blast off
4. a blind alley
5. None of these.
Directions(139-145): For each of the below questions, fill the blank with the
correct idiom/phrase, making the sentence grammatically and contextually
correct.
Read the given passage and answer the following questions. Some words have been
highlighted to help you locate them while answering the questions.
Plastics are integral part of society and have varied application. Plastics are composed of a
network of molecular monomers bound together to form macromolecules. There are
increasing concerns due to non degradability and generation of toxic gases on combustion
during incineration. Due to fabrication of desired shape, color and specification convenient
to customers there is increasing application in packaging, agriculture, automobiles and
biomedical. They are indispensable to the modern generation due to development in
information technology, intelligent and smart packaging system. Efforts are in progress for
development of efficient and precise conversion of renewable raw materials into innovative
polymeric product through recent technologies which are superior in terms of performance,
environmental and cost perspectives. In rivers and at coastal regions the marine pollution is
increasing at a faster rate due to indiscriminate disposal by the consumers. R&D studies are
now centered for investigating whether consumption of plastic debris by marine organism
transmits into toxic exposures for people who consume seafood with particular relevance to
plasticizers, stabilizers, heavy metals viz. phthalates, BPA, lead cadmium, methyl mercury.
Biological effects from pollution are linked with resulting economic effects and losses. A
cornerstone of sustainable development is the establishment of affordable, effective and
truly sustainable waste management practices in developing countries.
Government notifies Plastic Waste Management Amendment Rules, 2021. Plastic or PVC
banners less than 100 microns will be banned, the government said. Come July next year,
the manufacture of a range of plastic products will be banned. These include earbuds with
plastic sticks, plastic flags, ice-cream sticks, thermocol for decoration, plates, cups, cutlery
such as forks, spoons and knives, straws, trays, wrapping or packing films around sweet
boxes. The Environment Ministry on Friday notified the Plastic Waste Management
Amendment Rules, 2021, which prohibit specific single-use plastic items which have “low
utility and high littering potential” by 2022. Plastic packaging waste is not yet covered
under the phase-out of single-use plastic items. The Ministry informed the Rajya Sabha in
July its proposal to phase out some categories of single-use plastic by 2022.
They had been “requested” for setting up of a special task force for elimination of single-use
plastic and effective implementation of the Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016. A
national-level task force had also been constituted by the Ministry for taking coordinated
efforts to eliminate identified single-use plastic items and effective implementation of the
waste management rules, 2016.
Among all solid waste, 1–4% of waste is coming from plastic waste, out of which most
plastic generates from household use, industrial product, food packaging and water bottles.
Inappropriate dumping of such waste collected outside the villages and cities which creates
unhealthy and chaotic conditions which not only affect the health of the people staying
around it but also create landfill problems results in major environmental
___________________ contributing to pollution of ground water. To minimize the
consumption of plastic, efforts have to be taken considering the use of renewable raw
material to innovative products through recent development in technology. Also, daily use
of plastic should be avoided. A sustainable solution is to recycle the plastic waste towards
reducing environmental losses.
139. What measures are to be taken to minimize the plastic waste in order to
protect the environment?
(i) appropriate dumping of plastic waste should be avoided.
(ii) renewable raw material should be used to make plastic products.
(iii) single use plastic products should be avoided.
(iv) maximum plastic waste should be recycled.
1. both option (i) and (ii)
2. only option (iii)
3. both option (ii) and (iii)
4. only option (ii),(iii) and (iv)
5. all of these
140. Why are the plastic products indispensible to the modern generation?
1. plastic is non degradable and it produces toxic smoke on combustion.
2. plastic products can take shape, color and specifications which are convenient to
customers.
3. plastic has various applications in packaging, automobile and biomedical.
4. plastic products are very cheap.
5. only option (b) and (c)
141. What is the function of plastic waste management amendment rules, 2021
notified by the environment ministry?
1. renewable raw materials will be used for innovative polymeric product through recent
technologies which are superior in terms of performance, environmental and cost
perspectives.
2. this rule will ban Plastic or PVC banners less than 100 microns.
3. both option (B) and (D)
4. this rule will prohibit single-use plastic items which have low utility and high littering
potential by 2022.
5. none of these
142. Which of the following statement is/are false in context of the given
passage?
1. In rivers and at coastal regions the marine pollution is increasing at a faster rate due to
inappropriate disposal of plastic waste by the consumers.
2. A national-level task force has been constituted by the Ministry for effective
implementation of the waste management rules.
3. 4-5% of total plastic waste is coming from industrial sector which pollutes our rivers.
4. environmental issues can be reduced by recycling the plastic waste.
5. none of these
143. Which of the following is similar in meaning to ‘ incineration’ as used in
the passage?
1. extinguish
2. blaze
3. pivotal
4. malady
5. none of these
144. Which of the following is opposite in meaning to ‘ chaotic’ as used in the
passage?
1. tumultuous
2. anarchic
3. deranged
4. calm
5. none of these
145. Select appropriate filler for the blank given in the passage.
1. implications
2. abhorrent
3. horrid
4. obnoxious
5. atrocity
Directions(146-150): For each of the below questions, fill the blank with the
correct idiom/phrase, making the sentence grammatically and contextually
correct.
In the questions given below few sentences are given which are grammatically correct and
meaningful. Connect them by the word given above the statements in the best possible way
without changing the intended meaning. Choose your answer accordingly from the options
to form a correct and coherent sentence.
146. ALTHOUGH
(A) She had always wanted children
(B) I try very hard not to force issues
(C) she had intended to start a family.
(D) I find it very difficult to avoid them.
1. B-C
2. A-B
3. A-C
4. B-D
5. None of these
147. PROVIDED THAT
(A) We will grant you a special discount of 20%
(B) the simplest way for a chemist to think about
(C) you guarantee placing regular orders.
(D) radio-activity was to think of it as an atomic property.
1. B-C
2. A-B
3. A-C
4. B-D
5. None of these
148. HOWEVER
(A) the most intelligent of the five of us
(B) I'm not excited about going
(C) understood our success depended on strong leadership.
(D) I'll go to support you
1. B-C
2. B-D
3. A-C
4. A-B
5. None of these
149. AS LONG AS
(A) the natural world of species and essences is not eternal, but only endures
(B) The expenditure of the government has several times been regulated
(C) you are free to write what you want
(D) there are individual substances.
1. B-C
2. A-B
3. A-D
4. B-D
5. None of these
150. NEVERTHELESS
(A) Ram’s father, though ill-equipped for the project
(B) The trend of research points to the recognition of the fact
(C) Under such conditions of the soil, the land,
(D) had tried his best.
1. B-C
2. A-D
3. A-B
4. B-D
5. None of these
Directions(151-155): In the following questions a sentence is given, some words
are given in bold which may have grammatical or spelling error or they may be
contextually incorrect. Two columns (I) and (II) are given, column (I) consists
of bold words of the sentence and column (II) consists of the appropriate
replacement for the bold words. Match the correct replacements. If the
sentence is correct then mark no error as your answer.
151. There was quite a change from the anti-English purge during the Cultural Revolution
four years ago when all vestiges of English — and things foreign — were removed, even to
the extant of street signs.
COLUMN I
(A) purge
(B) vestiges
(C) extant
COLUMN II
(D) purges
(E) prestige
(F) extent
1. Both (B-F) and (C-E)
2. (B-E)
3. (A-D)
4. (C-F)
5. No error
152. The Atal Bihari Vajpayee government built further upon developments, compiling a
series of tests in 1998, negotiating a return to normal relations with most major powers
within two years, and concluding an important set of agreement with China in 2003.
COLUMN I
(A) compiling
(B) negotiating
(C) agreement
COLUMN II
(D) conducting
(E) demanding
(F) agreements
1. Both (B-F) and (C-E)
2. (B-E)
3. (A-D) and (C-F)
4. (A-F)
5. No error
153. The global financial crisis in 2008-09 elicits a slight change in approach, whereby
India sought to partner with China and other rising powers on institutional reform,
financial lending, climate change, and sovereignty.
COLUMN I
(A) elicit
(B) sought
(C) sovereignty
COLUMN II
(D) presage
(E) cease
(F) fraternity
1. Both (B-E) and (C-F)
2. (A-D)
3. (C-D)
4. (A-F)
5. No error
154. The number of people missing their second dose of the COVID-19 vaccine remains a
cause for concern in Tamil Nadu, with the latest data showing that at least 3.94 lakh
missed their second dose of Covaxin within the Indian Council of Medical Research-
advised window of a maximum of six weaks.
COLUMN I
(A) concern
(B) window
(C) weaks
COLUMN II
(D) anxiety
(E) ponder
(F) weeks
1. Both (B-F) and (C-E)
2. (B-E)
3. (A-D)
4. (C-F)
5. No error
155. The government in the Supreme Court on Monday
dismissed obligations of snooping using Pegasus spyware as mere “conjectures and
surmises” based on “unsubstantiated media reports or incomplete
or collaborated material”.
COLUMN I
(A) obligation
(B) snooping
(C) collaborated
COLUMN II
(D) allegation
(E) spying
(F) uncorroborated
1. Both (A-D) and (C-F)
2. (B-E)
3. (C-D)
4. (A-F)
5. No error
Directions(156-160): In each of the questions given below a sentence is given
with one blank. Below each sentence FOUR words are given out of which two
can fit the sentence. Five options are given with various combinations of these
words. You must choose the combination with the correct set of words which
can fit in the given sentence.
156. Chief Minister informed the Assembly on Monday that irregularities to
the tune of several crores of rupees had been reported in the schemes for
_____________farm and gold loan.
(A) controlling
(B) waiving
(C) remitting
(D) implementing
1. A-B
2. B-C
3. A-D
4. A-C
5. B-D
157. The State government has denied having __________________
Sivachariyars and Bhattachariyars who took to priesthood after traditional
training under gurukuls, from the zone of consideration while appointing
priests to various temples.
(A) eliminated
(B) inclined
(C) excluded
(D) condemned
1. A-B
2. B-C
3. B-D
4. A-C
5. C-D
158. Union Health Minister on Monday asked the Kerala government to take
all necessary precautions to__________ that the upcoming Onam festivities
do not lead to another surge in COVID-19 cases and worsen the current
situation.
(A) ensure
(B) censure
(C) certify
(D) repudiate
1. A-C
2. B-C
3. A-D
4. D-C
5. B-D
159. With Afghanistan under the total control of the Taliban, the future
looks______________________.
(A) congenial
(B) bleak
(C) appealing
(D) austere
1. A-B
2. B-C
3. A-D
4. A-C
5. B-D
160. Equitable cumulative emission targets and not net zero is the key to
achieving the Paris Agreement’s temperature__________________.
(A) vogue
(B) goal
(C) objective
(D) nebulous
1. A-B
2. B-C
3. A-D
4. A-C
5. B-D
MATHS
Directions(161-165): Read the following line graph and table carefully and
answer the questions given below.
The line graph shows total number of employees who work in five different company in
three (H.R., Finance & Sales) different departments.

The table shows the percentage of the employees who work in H.R. department and ratio of
the no. of employees who work in Finance and Sales department. Few values are missing in
the table. A candidate is expected to calculate the missing value, if it is required to answer
the given question on the basis of the given data.

161. Find the ratio of no. of employees Sales department of company B to no. of
employees in Finance department of company A. if no. of employees in sales
department company of B is  more than that of Finance department in
same company.
1. 55 :105
2. 64 :105
3. 84 :115
4. 69 :109
5. 61 :102
162. No. of employees in Sales department of company E is what % no. of
employees who work in H.R. department of company D. if ratio of no. of
employees who work in H.R department to that of Finance department of
company E is 9:4 and no of employees work in H.R. department in company

D  more than the no of employees who work in H.R. department of

company A.
1. 18.75%
2. 22.50%
3. 28.25%
4. 14.50%
5. None of these
163. Total no. of employees of company B is how much % more or less than
total no. of employees of company C.
1. 10%
2. 15%
3. 25%
4. 20%
5. 5%
164. Find the difference between no. of employees in Finance department of
company D and no. of employees in H.R. department of company C. If there
are 45% employees in H.R. department of company D and no. of employees in
Sales department of company C is 70.
1. 28
2. 25
3. 11
4. 14
5. 19
165. Find the average no. of employees work in H.R. department in company A,
B & E together.
1. 
2. 

3. 

4. 
5. 
Directions(166-170): Read the following information carefully and answer the
questions given below.
The given information shows Z number of farmers producing three types of grain i.e., Corn,
Rice & Wheat. Some farmers producing more than one grains.
Ratio of no. of farmers producing Corn and Wheat is 15:19. No. of farmers producing all the
three types of grains equal to no. of farmers producing only Rice and Corn. No. of farmers
producing Rice 60% more than that of Corn. No. of farmers producing only Corn and wheat
is 15. No. of farmers producing Rice is 8 times no. of farmers producing only Corn and
Wheat. No. of farmers producing only Rice and Wheat is double to that of only Corn and
Rice. no. of farmers producing only wheat is 50 and no. of farmers producing only Rice is
2/3rd of no. of farmers producing Rice. Ratio of no. of farmers producing only Corn to that
of only Rice is 1:2. No. of farmers producing only Corn is 4 times to that of only Corn and
Rice.
166. Find the value of Z.
1. 124
2. 290
3. 267
4. 420
5. 180
167. Find the ratio between no. of farmers producing only Wheat to that of
only Corn.
1. 5:4
2. 7:4
3. 5:7
4. 9:11
5. 6:7
168. No. of farmers producing only Wheat and Rice is what % no. of farmers
producing only Wheat and Corn?
1. 
2. 

3. 
4. 
5. 
169. Find the average no. of farmers producing all the three types of grains and
no. of farmers producing only Corn.
1. 25
2. 36
3. 10
4. 40
5. 8
170. Find the difference between no. of farmers producing only Corn and
wheat and that of only Rice and Corn.
1. 22
2. 5
3. 16
4. 12
5. 10
Directions(171-175):  Read the following table carefully and answer the
questions given below.
Following the table shows total number of students who participated in 3 different subject
quizzes from five different schools. Percentage distribution number of students who
participated in Maths quiz and ratio of number of students who participate in Science quiz
and G.K. quiz.

171. Find the difference between no. of students who participated in G.K. quiz
from school R and no. of students who participated in Science quiz from
school T.
1. 200
2. 174
3. 146
4. 122
5. 180
172. No. of students who participated in Maths quiz from school Q is what %
no. of students who participated in Science quiz from school P.
1. 225%
2. 70%
3. 125%
4. 175%
5. 95%
173. Find the average no. of students who participated in Maths quiz from
school S and no. of students who participated G.K. quiz from school Q
together.
1. 2140
2. 1990
3. 1420
4. 1675
5. 1875
174. Ratio of boys to girls who participated in the Science quiz from school Q is
2:3 and no. of boys who participates Maths quiz from school R is 1550. find the
total no. girls who participated science quiz from school Q and who
participated Maths quiz from school R.
1. 2195
2. 2901
3. 2550
4. 2244
5. 2079
175. No. of students who participated in G.K. quiz from school Q is what
percent more/less than no. of students who participated Science quiz from
school T?
1. 
2. 
3. 
4. 
5. 
176. The marked price of a watch is Rs.120x and shopkeeper offers a discount
of 12.5%, 10% and 20% on the marked price of a watch while makes profit of
20% and difference between discounted price and marked up price is Rs.189.
Find the cost price of a watch.
1. Rs.917
2. Rs.945
3. Rs.922
4. Rs.975
5. Rs.990
177. A boat travelled 120 km against with stream and returning covered only
80 km along with stream. If total time taken by boat is 4 hours and 22.5 mins.
Ratio of speed of boat in still water to speed of current is 5:3. Find the time
taken by boat to travelled 1216 km along with stream.
1. 9.5 hours
2. 8.8 hours
3. 5.2 hours
4. 6.8 hours
5. 11.5 hours
178. Monika present age is 20% more than the present age of Sonia. After 8
years Sonia age is 20% less than Preeti’s age that time. If difference between
age of Preeti and Monika is 3.5 years. Find the age of Monika after 4 years.
1. 30 years
2. 45 years
3. 50 years
4. 40 years
5. 55 years
179. Vessel P contains x liters mixture of wine and water in the ratio of 7:3 and
vessel Q contains 70 liters mixture of wine and water in the ratio of 4:3. If
vessel P and vessel Q mixed, then the ratio of wine and water become 5:3. Find
the initial quantity of wine in vessel P.
1. 25 lit.
2. 55 lit.
3. 40 lit.
4. 15 lit.
5. 35 lit.
180. Diagonal of the rectangle is (6√13 ) cm and length is 18 cm. if breadth of
the rectangle is equal to side of square. Find the perimeter of square.
1. 42 cm
2. 48 cm
3. 35 cm
4. 28 cm
5. 55 cm
181. M, N and Q stared a business with investment of Rs.25000, Rs.16000 &
Rs. X respectively. After 4 months N invested Rs. 4000. After another 4
months M withdrew Rs.5000. at the end of year Q received Rs.30000 as a
profit and total profit is Rs. 110000. Find the value of 3/8 of X.
1. 5906.25
2. 4242.5
3. 4552.5
4. 5502.5
5. 6890.5
182. A bag contains 12 balls (Red & blue). Two balls are taken out randomly
from the bag and probability of one ball being red and one ball being blue is
35/66. If ‘n’ blue balls added in bag and then two balls are taken out randomly
from bag, then minimum probability of remaining blue balls in bag is 9/14 ,
find ‘n’? (Blue balls are more than red balls in the bag initially).
1. 4
2. 11
3. 17
4. 19
5. 7
183. A, B & C invested their respective savings in a scheme, which offers CI at
20% p.a. for two years and received total interest of Rs. 1694. If A & C invested
double of their respective saving in another scheme, which offers SI at 10% p.a.
for two years and received total interest of Rs. 1100, then find difference
between saving of A & C together & saving of B?
1. Rs.1120
2. Rs.1650
3. Rs.1440
4. Rs.1710
5. Rs.1220
184. Two inlet taps P and Q can fill a tank in 36 minutes and 60 minutes
respectively. Find the time taken by both the taps together to fill 1/6 th of the
tank?
1. 

2. 

3. 

4. 

5. 
185. A train running at the speed of 72 kmph crosses a pole in 30 seconds. Find
the time taken by the same train to cross the pole with the speed of 54 kmph
(in sec)?
1. 55 sec.
2. 24 sec.
3. 60 sec.
4. 40 sec.
5. 18 sec.
186. M alone can do a work in 40 days. The ratio of time taken by M and S to do
the same work is 5: 3. Then, find in how many days both will complete the
work together?
1. 15 days
2. 7 days
3. 19 days
4. 22 days
5. 11 days
187. In year 2019, ratio of boys to girls in a school is 36:19. And in year 2020,
number of boys is increased by 1440 and number of girls is increased by 15%.
If in 2020, there were total increase in the number of students is 1725, then
find the number of boys in the school in year 2020.
1. 4550
2. 5040
3. 5400
4. 2580
5. 6220
Directions(I88-192): Given bar graph shows the data of difference between
marked price & cost price and difference between selling price & marked price
of 4 different items sold by a dealer.

188. On how many articles loss is incurred?

1. 1
2. 2
3. Cannot be determined
4. 3
5. 4
189. If CP of article C is equal to SP of article A, then find difference between
marked price of A & C?
1. 30
2. 26
3. 4
4. 8
5. 6
190. On article B, 12.5% profit is earned. If profit percentage on article B is
equal to discount (%) given on article A, then marked price of A is what
percent more/less than that of B?
1. 73%
2. 90%
3. 58.33%
4. 140%
5. 175%
191. Ratio of cost price of D to marked price of C is 3 : 2 and on C, 60% discount
is offered. Then what is the difference between selling price of C & D?
1. Rs 90
2. Rs 74
3. Rs 120
4. Rs 46
5. Rs 84
192. Cost price of D is 100% more than that of C and on D 2.5% profit is earned.
If he sells ‘X’ article of C and ‘3X – 8’ articles of D then total loss incurred in
this transaction is equal to cost price of 1 unit of article C. how many total units
of C & D were sold by the shopkeeper?
1. 62
2. 72
3. 52
4. 32
5. 42
Directions(193-197): Each question is followed by a number series in which
one term is wrong as per the pattern of the series. You have to find that term
and using that term as first term of another series on same pattern, find 4th
term of new series. This 4th term of new series will be your answer.
193. 144, 84, 216, 54, 270, 45
1. 62
2. 21
3. 63
4. 31.5
5. 157.5
194. 361, 192, 323, 264, 289, 280
1. 226
2. 265
3. 261
4. 213
5. 242
195. 68, 71, 79, 94, 118, 155
1. 188
2. 194
3. 167
4. 172
5. 179
196. 4, 10, 28, 60, 124, 252
1. 54
2. 66
3. 98
4. 68
5. 82
197. 6, 15, 35, 77, 143, 323
1. 799
2. 667
3. 899
4. 437
5. 1147
Directions(198-200): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are
given. Solve the equations and mark the correct option:

198.
1. if x>y
2. if x≥y
3. if x<y
4. if x ≤y
5. if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

199.
1. if x>y
2. if x≥y
3. if x<y
4. if x ≤y
5. if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.

200.
1. if x>y
2. if x≥y
3. if x<y
4. if x ≤y
5. if x = y or no relation can be established between x and y.