ANIMAL SCIENCE

Introduction, Animal Physiology, Terminologies

1. It is a science which deals with the form and structure of organisms.

a. physiology c. embryology
b. anatomy d. histology

2. Study of developmental anatomy from conception of birth.

a. physiology c. embryology
b. anatomy d. histology

3. Deals with the portion of cells and tissues viewed under electron microscope.
a. comparative anatomy c. histochemistry
b. embryology d. ultrastructural cytology

4. Study of the form in relation of structures of the body that can be seen with the unaided
eye.
a. gross macroscopic anatomy c. histochemistry
b. comparative anatomy d. histology

5. Study of muscles and their accessory structures.

a. anatomy c. myology
b. embryology d. histology

6. It is defined as the manipulation of biological differences between animals over time

using approaches in maximizing profitability.
a. artificial insemination c. animal breeding
b. line breeding d. genetics

7. Study of the processes involved in the conversion of food/feed elements into body
elements.
a. assimilation c. metabolism
b. nutrition d. transport

8. It is the scientific study of an animal’s behavior in response to its natural environment.

a. ethology c. mycology
b. histology d. physiology

9. Any deviation from normal health in which there are marked physiological, anatomical
or chemical changes in the animal’s body.
a. infection c. contamination
b. disease d. inflammation

10. Dolly, the first cloned mammal is born after researchers in UK cloned a ___ of an adult
sheep using nuclear transfer technology.
a. subcutaneous cell c. mammary gland cell
b. stem cell d. sperm cell

11. Before starting to construct any commercial animal project, secure first all required
permit such as:
a. BAI c. building
b. environmental d. b and c

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12. An act to promote animal welfare in the Phil., otherwise known as the animal welfare
act of 1998.
a. RA 9296 c. RA 9286
b. RA 8485 d. RA 8584

13. The meat inspection code of the Phil., provided for the strengthening of the meat
inspection system in the country, the national controlling authority on all matters
pertaining to meat and meat product inspection and meat hygiene.
a. RA 9296 c. RA 96 86
b. RA 8485 d. RA 4878

14. An abnormal condition in ruminants characterized by a distention of the rumen, usually

seen on an animal’s upper left side, owing to an accumulation of gases.
a. rumination c. regurgitation
b. bloat d. peristalsis

15. Which of the following is not included in the animal industry of the country?
a. cattle c. pig
b. chicken d. reindeer

16. The animal subsists mainly on grasses and is raised mainly by smallholder farmers in
the rural areas.
a. pig c. chicken
b. carabao d. duck

17. Among the following animals, this is the one that can perceive many colors of the light
spectrum
a. cattle c. goat
b. sheep d. pig

18. This animal has a very poor sense of taste

a. cattle c. chicken
b. horse d. pig

19. The production system of this livestock species is very intensive, commercially
oriented, and depends heavily on commercially mixed feeds
a. goat c. carabao
b. cattle d. layer chicken

20. Farrowing is a specific term for parturition, or act of giving birth in

a. mare c. sow
b. doe d. cow

21. Which among the following herbivores is not a ruminant?

a. cattle c. horse
b. carabao d. goat

22. A pig weighing approximately 60 kilograms

a. boar c. shote
b. piglet d. sow

23. A young male horse is called

a. foal c. filly
b. colt d. stud

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24. It controls the rapid activities of the body.
a. reproductive system c. digestive system
b. nervous system d. respiratory system

25. Transmit nerve impulses away from the brain or spiral cord.
a. interneurons c. central nervous system
b. efferent neuron

26. Its function is to relay messages from the effector organs to the nervous system or vice
versa.
a. central nervous system c. brain
b. neurons

27. The gap between neurons where nerve impulses are transmitted from one nerve cell to
another.
a. brain c. synapses
b. central nervous system

28. The cell bodies of the preganglionic neurons are contained in the gray matter of the
thoracic and lumbar regions of the spinal cord.
a. sympathetic b. parasympathetic

29. The cell bodies of the preganglionic neurons are situated within the mial brain, hind
brain and in the sacral region of the spinal cord.
a. parasympathetic c. sympathetic
b. somatic nervous system

30. Part of the nervous system that brings about quickly adjustment of muscles to changes
in the environment, e.g. finger is burnt
a. central nervous system c. somatic nervous system
b. autonomic nervous system

31. These are the threadlike extensions from the cell body called nerve fibers.
a. axon and dentrites c. brain and dentrites
b. synapse and axon

32. The nervous system is composed of

a. endocrine glands, heart c. brain, spinal cord, nerves
b. respiratory system, skeletal system

33. This consists of the various sense organs of the body, except
a. smell c. hearing e. voice
b. vision d. cutaneous

34. The form of energy that is converted by receptors for odor, taste, and O2 content of
blood.
a. thermal c. chemical
b. electromagnetic

35. It deals with the coordination of various body tissues by chemical mediators produced
by specialized glands and transported through the circulatory system to the organ in
which the act.
a. hormone c. hypophysis
b. homeostasis d. endocrinology

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36. A hormone that promotes growth of the long bones of young animals.
a. ACTH c. STH
b. LTH d. TSH

37. A hormone that stimulates milk-ejection in lactating females.

a. oxytocin c. estrogen
b. progesterone d. vasopressin

38. A hormone that stimulates the cells of Leydig or interstitial cells to produce
testosterone.
a. LH c. ACTH
b. FSH d. STH

39. Its function and effect on the Ca and P metabolism via skeleton and/or kidneys
a. estrogen c. prostaglandin e. epinephrine
b. relaxin d. thyroxine

40. It regulates water excretion by reabsorption of water

a. ACTH c. ADH e. testosterone
b. oxytocin d. prolactin

41. Lowers blood glucose by storage or utilization

a. insulin c. thyroxin
b. glucagon

42. Elevates blood glucose by favoring the liver glycogerolysis

a. insulin c. thyroxin
b. glucagon

43. Development, maintenance and cyclic changes of female tubular genital tract.
a. progesterone c. relaxin e. testosterone
b. estrogen d. oxytocin

44. Mammary and uterine gland development; develops uterus for implantation and
pregnancy maintenance.
a. estrogen c. relaxin
b. progesterone d. oxytocin

45. Development of accessory sex organs and secondary sex characters of the male animal.
a. ovogenesis c. testosterone
b. spermatogenesis d. progesterone

46. Lack of thyroxin secretion due to a deficiency of iodine in the diet.

a. dwarfism c. goiter
b. gigantism

47. It lowers the blood calcium level by preventing bone reabsorption through the
activation of the osteoblast cells which stimulate bone formation.
a. calcitonin c. osteoporosis
b. hypercalcemia d. osteomalacia

48. Deminbralization of the bones in young animals is called

a. rickets c. hypercalicuria
b. hypercalcemia d. osteoporosis

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49. Sexual receptivity which coincides with estrus in animal that exhibit estrous cycle is
due to a large amount of
a. relaxin c. estrogen
b. progesterone d. testosterone

50. Gigantism results from the hypersecretion of which hormone before the closure of the
epiphyseal-diaphyseal plate of the long bones.
a. prolactin c. Follicle stimulating hormone
b. Luteinizing hormone d. somatotrophic hormone

51. Destruction of the beta cells of the ___ will lead into a disease condition known as
diabetes mellitus.
a. adrenals c. pancreas
b. kidneys d. liver

52. ___ is defined as a substance or chemical mediator which is produced by an endocrine

gland and carried by the blood to some distant parts of the body where it exerts its
effects.
a. enzyme c. toxin
b. hormone d. vitamin

53. ___ is the hormone responsible for milk ejection in a lactating mammary gland.
a. calcitonin c. prolactin
b. epinephrine d. oxytocin

54. This hormone helps in reducing urine volume by increasing reabsorption of water in
the collecting ducts of the kidney.
a. adrenalin c. vasopressin
b. prolactin d. oxytocin

55. The hormone that increases the basal metabolic rate (BMR) of the body
a. thyroxine c. calcitonin
b. prolactin d. epinephrine

56. One of the following hormones is not secreted by the anterior pituitary gland
a. growth hormone c. oxytocin
b. prolactin d. leuteinizing hormone

57. The adrenal cortex has 3 types of cells making up the 3 zones of the cortex. The zone
that secretes aldosterone is called
a. zona reticularis c. zona glomerulosa
b. zona fasciculate d. none of the above

58. They carry blood away from the heart

a. capillaries c. veins and venules
b. arteries and arterioles d. lymphatics

59. They carry blood toward the heart

a. capillaries c. veins and venules
b. arteries and arterioles d. lymphatics

60. The compositions of red blood cells except

a. biconcave circular disc c. nucleated
b. contains hemoglobin d. non-nucleated

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61. The fluid portion of the blood
a. platelet c. corpuscles
b. plasma d. lymph

62. Location in taking the pulse rate of sheep and goats.

a. femoral artery c. pulmonary artery
b. external maxillary artery d. coccygeal artery

63. The liquid between the tissues and the blood vessels.
a. lymph c. plasma
b. platelets

64. It supplies arterial blood to the digestive tract.

a. hepatic circulation c. renal circulation
b. cerebral circulation d. splanchnic circulation

65. It supplies arterial blood to the liver.

a. hepatic circulation c. renal circulation
b. cerebral circulation d. splanchnic circulation

66. The artery at the middle of the lower jaw where pulse in the horse is usually
determined.
a. femoral artery c. coccygeal artery
b. saphenous artery d. external maxillary artery

67. The cellular element that liberates thromboplastin which is important in blood clotting
is called
a. plasma c. white blood cell
b. red blood cell d. platelet

68. The mineral which acts as a co-factor in the process of blood clotting
a. potassium c. calcium
b. magnesium d. phosphorus

69. The artery at the base of the tail of an animal where the pulse is detected is called
a. pulmonary artery c. saphenous artery
b. femoral artery d. coccygeal artery

70. In general, the smaller the body size of an animal species, the faster is the pulse rate.
The average pulse rate of chicken is
a. 45 beats/min c. 200 beats/min
b. 72 beats/min d. 600 beats/min

71. Ausculation method using stethoscope is the usual procedure employed in determining
the pulse rate of
a. cattle c. goat
b. horse d. pig

72. The normal pulse rate of goat/sheep

a. 54/min c. 100/min
b. 78/min d. 200/min

73. The framework of hard structures which support and protect the soft tissues of animals.
a. physiology c. skeleton
b. osteology d. myology

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74. It is the study of the bones which collectively make up the skeleton.
a. myology c. osteology
b. physiology d. endocrinology

75. These are bones that are elongated, cylindrical with enlarged extremities which
function as support and as lever.
a. flat bones c. long bones
b. short bones d. irregular bones

76. Bones that protects the organ they cover.

a. flat bones c. long bones
b. short bones d. irregular

77. The bones of the tail.

a. sacral c. cranial
b. caudal d. thoracic

78. The longest bone

a. metacarpus c. tibia e. scapula
b. metatarsus d. femur

79. Bones of the neck

a. caudal c. cervical
b. cranial d. thoracic

80. The muscles that covers a greater part of the body, controlled under conscious
condition.
a. voluntary striated b. smooth muscle
c. involuntary striated

81. Muscle of the heart; it requires no nerve stimulus.

a. smooth muscle c. involuntary striated
b. voluntary striated

82. Muscles that causes the body parts to bend.

a. abductor muscle c. extensor muscle
b. flexor muscle d. adductor muscle

83. Muscles that are attached to the skin.

a. cardiac muscle c. smooth muscle
b. cutaneous muscle d. skeletal muscle

84. The muscles in the visceral organs, urogenital and respiratory organs.
a. cardiac muscle c. smooth muscle
b. cutaneous muscle d. skeletal muscle

85. It is the external covering of the body that protects sensitive tissues and adverse effects
of light.
a. skin c. hair
b. muscle d. skeleton

86. Layer of skin that consist blood vessels, nerves, brain follicles, muscle fibers and
glands.
a. cuticle or epidermis c. cutaneous
b. dermis or corium

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87. A gland that secretes only substances that lubricates hair and skin.
a. sweat c. sebaceous
b. cutaneous

88. Muscle sense which indicates the relative position of various parts of the body without
using the eyes.
a. visceral sensation c. propioception
b. myclination

89. Sensation of pain is a natural protective means of alerting the body to prevent further
damage to body tissues. The pain receptors are called
a. nociceptors c. gustus e. visus
b. olfactus d. auditus

90. Involves structures within the body cavities such as sensations of hunger, thirst,
bladder fullness.
a. visceral sensation c. propioception
b. myclination

91. Consists of the eyes and its accessory organs.

a. gustus c. visus
b. auditus d. olfactus

92. The amount of air that moves into the lungs with each inspiration is also the amount
that moves out with each expiration.
a. vital capacity c. expiratory reserve volume
b. inspiratory reserve volume d. tidal volume

93. The greatest amount of air that can be used when necessary.
a. vital capacity c. expiratory reserve volume
b. inspiratory reserve volume d. tidal volume

94. It separates the lungs from the abdominal cavity.

a. diaphragm c. thoracic cavity
b. pleural cavity d. chest

95. It is always open by the presence of rings of cartilage in its wall; water and food should
not enter to avoid possible infection.
a. nasal cavity c. trachea
b. pharynx d. esophagus

96. The instrument in measuring the volume of air entering the lungs.
a. respirator c. kymograph
b. respirometer

97. It controls the air that enters and leaves the lungs, e.g. talking
a. trachea c. pharynx
b. larynx d. bronchi

98. The major central nervous system area is respiratory control.

a. medulla oblongate c. chemical control
b. Hering-Breuer reflex d. nervous control

99. It is a quiet and unlabored breathing

a. dyspnea c. eupnea
b. apnea d. hyperpnea

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100. Volatile fatty acids include the following except
a. glutamic acid c. propionic acid
b. acetic acid d. butyric acid

101. It is the major source of energy by ruminants during digestion.

a. polysaccarides c. molasses
b. volatile fatty acids d. starch

102. The site of nutrient absorption

a. stomach c. ileum
b. jejenum d. duodenum

103. Fats are composed of units known as triglycerides.

a. fatty acids and oils c. glycerol and fatty acids
b. glycerol and aspartic acid d. glutamic acid and acetic acid

104. The essential amino acids are the following except

a. tryptophan c. lysine
b. leucine d. tyrosine

105. The non-essential amino acids are the following except

a. alanine c. cytosine
b. proline d. arginine

106. Transform low quality protein and nitrogenous compounds in feeds to amino acids
during rumen digestion.
a. bacteria and protozoa c. salivary glands
b. enzymes d. a & b

107. Removal of large volume of gas from the rumen during rumination.
a. regurgitation c. fermentation
b. eructation d. digestion

108. A structure that begins at the base of the young ruminant’s esophagus that directs
milk to the true stomach.
a. esophagus c. esophageal groove
b. stomach d. intestines

109. Fat digesting enzyme.

a. pepsin c. trypsin
b. lipase d. pancreatic amylase

110. The most important process by which animals lose heat to maintain a constant body
temperature through respiration and from the skin.
a. vaporization c. conduction
b. radiation d. convection

111. Animals whose body temperature is largely independent of that of the environment.
a. poikilotherms c. herbivores
b. homeotherms d. omnivores

112. Thermal energy is transferred from one molecule to the neighboring molecule. Heat
loss involves direct contact of animal with a part of its environment.
a. radiation c. convection
b. conduction d. vaporization

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113. It is the environmental temperature at which the heat loss is equal to the minimal heat
production of the body.
a. ambient temperature c. thermal neutrality
b. movement of humidity d. critical temperature

114. A capillary tuft from which the fluid leaves the circulatory system for filtration.
a. cortex c. glomerulus
b. medulla d. Bowman’s capsule e. renal pelvis

115. A funnel-like structure that collects filtrate from the glomerulus

a. cortex c. Bowman’s capsule
b. medulla d. renal pelvis

116. Urine is formed by specific secretory activity of kidney cells. Example, cells of
glomeruli capsule secrete water and salt; cells of renal tubule secrete urea and uric
acid.
a. Bowman-Heidenhain’s theory c. Cushny’s modern theory
b. Ludwig’s theory

117. Glomeruli act as simple filter and tubule forms urine by returning the water to the
blood
a. Bowman-Heidenhain’s theory c. Cushny’s modern theory
b. Ludwig’s theory

118. Urination is possible through the relaxation of

a. urinary bladder c. acute angle
b. sphincter muscle d. ureter

119. The shape of the kidneys of sheep and goat

a. lobulated c. heart-shaped
b. bean-shaped d. none of the above

120. A tubule that convey urine to urinary bladder, near its neck is called
a. ureter c. glomerulus
b. trigone d. urethra

121. It is absent in avian species

a. ureter c. urinary bladder
b. kidneys d. urine

122. It covers where the young bonds to their dam, the dam licks the fluid from the
newborn which leads to recognition (cattle and sheep).
a. intelligence c. imprinting
b. reasoning d. conditioning

123. Behaviors that include activities of fight and flight and those of aggressive and
passive behavior when an animal is in contact with another animal.
a. reasoning c. care-soliciting
b. agnostic d. care-giving

124. The female and her offspring may recognize each other’s vocal sound. When the
young is hungry and nurses, the dam smells the young and decide to accept or reject
it.
a. reasoning c. care-soliciting
b. agnostic d. care-giving

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125. Many farm animals learn to respond to the vocal calls or whistles of the caretaker
who wants the animals to come to feed. The animals soon learn that the stimulus of
the sound is related to being fed.
a. operant conditioning c. habitation
b. classical conditioning

126. An animal’s behavior when they tend to do the same thing at the same time. They
tend to graze, rest, ruminate and drink water about the same time each day.
a. investigative c. ingestive
b. eliminative d. allelomimetic

127. These animals are specially perceptive in their sight, as they have 310-360° vision
which affects their behavior in many ways when they are approached from different
angles.
a. cattle c. goat
b. sheep d. poultry

Reproduction, Genetics, and Animal Breeding

128. A segment of the deoxycarbonucleic acid which determines the base sequence of
nucleotide the messenger ribonucleic acid that makes up the code for a certain
biological function.
a. gene c. amino acid
b. base

129. The coding system of the gene is based on the arrangement of the four bases except
a. guanine c. thymine e. purines
b. adenine d. cytosine

130. The transmission of genetic material from parent to offspring is made possible
through the reduction division of the germinal cells called______and subsequent
union of the gametes.
a. mitosis c. spermatogenesis
b. meiosis d. oogenesis

131. They are responsible for the synthesis of certain biochemical products during cell
metabolism.
a. regulator genes c. structural genes
b. allelic genes d. sex-linked genes

132. They serve to control the function of other genes in terms of quantity, and/or timing
of activity of certain genes.
a. regulator genes c. structural genes
b. allelic genes d. sex-linked genes

133. The genes occupy the same locus or position in the paired chromosome.
a. RNA c. DNA
b. mRNA d. alleles

134. The process of the union of the sperm and the egg to form a zygote.
a. mitosis c. multiplication of cells
b. meiosis d. fertilization

135. When the sperm successfully penetrate through the walls of the ovum, the zygote
then undergoes active cell multiplication called
a. mitosis c. fertilization
b. meiosis d. ovulation

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136. Spermatozoa remain within the female genital tract for a certain period to acquire the
ability to fertilize the mammalian egg cell.
a. sperm possess the flagellum c. proliferation
b. capacitation d. maturation

137. The introduction of genes from one organism into another by artificial means.
a. genetic manipulation c. gene mapping
b. genetic engineering d. a & c

138. Gametogenesis is the process of cell division that forms what cell?
a. somatic cells c. proteins
b. sex cells d. bacterial cells

139. This refers to the relative abundance or the relative rarity of a particular gene in a
population.
a. population genetics c. gametogenesis
b. gene frequency d. cloning

140. It is the sequence of metabolic and morphological change that result in the division of
the zygote forming the organism.
a. fertilization c. activation of development
b. protein synthesis d. none of the above

141. What gene function is responsible for the reproduction of proteins in the animal
body?
a. genetic make-up c. mRNA recombinant
b. protein synthesis d. gene mutations

142. It is a spontaneous change in the biochemical structure of the gene resulting in an

entirely different phenotypic effect.
a. variation c. inheritance
b. mutation d. selection

143. The law states that members of different pairs of alleles assort independently.
a. Principle of Segregation
b. Chromosome theory of Inheritance
c. Principles of independent assortment
d. principles of linkage

144. What factor is due to a change in the code sent by DNA molecule by means of
mRNA for the amino acids to be assembled as proteins?
a. genetic inheritance c. gene mutations
b. gene frequency d. gene action

145. A type of breeding system wherein a purebred males are mated to grade females of
low quality.
a. top crossing c. backcross
b. inbreeding d. grading

146. It is likely to transmit the same genes to all of their offspring

a. out breeding c. purebreds
b. inbreeding d. all of the above

147. The production of identical copies of DNA sequence by recombinant DNA

technology
a. artificial insemination c. gene mapping
b. cloning d. breed plan

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148. What is the term for the uterus to return to its normal state after parturition?
a. conception c. involution
b. ovulation d. dilatation

149. System in which the female is always used in breeding

a. terminal crossing c. upgrading
b. crisscrossing d. triple crossing

150. Selection of animals based on the reputation of relatives

a. pedigree c. selection index
b. progeny d. independent culling method

151. A function of a gene and environment; an outward manifestation of a genotype, traits,

characteristics, measurable, expressed at different stages in life.
a. recessive c. phenotype
b. dominant d. none of the above

152. Process where certain individuals are able to contribute more progeny in the next
generation than other individuals.
a. segregation c. mutation
b. selection d. evolution

153. The condition where the expression of the gene suppresses that of its alternative
allele.
a. environment c. phenotype
b. dominance d. heritability

154. The art of science of genetic improvement of farm animals

a. animal breeding c. evolution
b. epistasis d. selection

155. Process of replicating an individual out of its own body cells.

a. animal breeding c. cloning
b. fertilization d. outbreeding

156. It is found in the nucleus of cell, and forms the backbone of chromosome, spiral or
double helix composed of the nucleotides.
a. gene c. DNA
b. RNA d. mRNA

157. Traits that are distinct or discrete and can be counted, rather than measured.
a. qualitative traits c. repeatabilityd. heritability
b. quantitative traits

158. An English biologist who found in 1906 that mendelian inheritance applies to
animals.
a. Fisher, Ronald c. Batteson, William
b. Darwin, Charles d. Johannsen, W

159. Process where individual of one sex has an equal chance of mating with any other
individual in the opposite sex.
a. random mating c. inbreeding
b. A.I. d. selective breeding

160. The gestation period for caracow (days)

a. 282 c. 150
b. 336 d. 316

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161. Poultry will lay egg every
a. 22 hours c. 24 hours
b. 23 hours d. 25 hours

162. The incubation period for Bobwhite quail

a. 21 days c. 17-18 days
b. 23-24 days d. 35-37 days

163. Average age of parents when offspring are born

a. generation interval c. genotypic frequency
b. gene frequency

164. The chromosome number (2n) of goats

a. 60 c. 64
b. 62 d. 54

165. Barred plumage, white skin and broodiness in poultry are:

a. dominant traits b. recessive traits

166. The term means difficulty in giving birth of farm animals\

a. cryptorchid c. dystocia
b. dropsy d. hemophilia

167. Sheep aged approximately 6 to 12 months

a. ewe c. hogg (hogget)
b. ram d. hog

168. The process of mating animals that are closely related by descent.
a. outbreeding c. inbreeding
b.crossbreeding d. upgrading

169. The sex that carries identical sex chromosomes

a. heterogametic sex b. homogametic sex

170. Movement of a population sample from one location to another, new genes are
introduced in the population.
a. selection c. evolution
b. migration d. segregation

Swine Production

171. What is the conception rate of sows per breeding period?

a. 50% c. 70%
b. 60% d. 80%

172. The acceptable farrowing index per year in swine is

a. 1.8 c. 2.5-2.65
b. 2.0-2.5 d. 2.7-2.8

173. The rearing period of litter pigs is

a. 7-10 days c. 30-42 days
b. 20-30 days d. 50-60 days

174. The CP content of starter ration for pigs is

a. 18% c. 22%
b. 20% d. 24%

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175. The normal duration of heat/estrus in sows
a. 1 day c. 1-2 days e. 2-5 days
b. 10 days d. 2-3 days

176. The acceptable day’s interval between two consecutive farrowings in swine.
a. 100 days c. 150 days
b. 130 days d. 166 days

177. A 230 feed consumed by 90 kg liveweight with an initial weight of 15 kg. What is
the FCR?
a. 2.5 c. 3
b. 2.8 d. 3.5

178. Gilts for breeding are selected at the age of

a. 6 months c. 9 months
b. 8 months d. one year

179. Castration of healthy piglets is recommended at the age of

a. 1 week before weaning c. 14-21 days
b. 1-10 days d. 30 days

180. The quarantine period of newly acquired pigs.

a. one week c. three weeks
b. one month d. 60 days

181. What is the litter index of sow number 25 given an information date born on August
10, 2009, production life-5.2 years, total number of litters-12, total number of piglets
born- 175
a. 1.8 c. 2.3
b. 14.58 d. 33.6

182. The average weight of 10 piglets is 1.5 k at birth. At weaning (30 days) the total
weight of weaners is 100 kilos. What is the average daily gain per weaner?
a. 283 g c. 250g
b. 300g d. 275g

183. A white-colored meat type pig with medium, erect ears, curved back and body
inclining forward.
a. Hampshire c. Large White
b. Landrace d. Berkshire

184. A very meaty type of pig with spotted black and white color
a. Hampshire c. Berkshire
b. Duroc d. Pietrain

185. Over-fatness as a result of overfeeding of sows after breeding

a. wasteful feeding
b. reduce embryo survival or number of pigs farrowed
c. sows are prone to suffer from farrowing complications
d. poor milk producer and susceptible to mastitis agalactia
e. all of the above

186. A pregnant gilt or sow should be fed with a brood sow ration containing 3,300 of
digestible energy (DE) and crude protein content of
a. 14% c. 18%
b. 16% d. 20%

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187. The ideal net increase in weight of a pregnant sow
a. 10 kgs c. 20 kgs
b. 15 kgs d. 40 kgs

188. The average pregnancy period of sows

a. 114 days c. 125 days
b. 120 days d. 126 days

189. Lactating sows require a ration containing 2,300 kcal of DE, 0.6% Ca, 0.4% P and
CP content of:
a. 14% c. 17%
b. 15% d. 18%

190. A creep ration containing 22% CP, 3,500 kcal of DE, Ca and P, fortified with
vitamins and minerals is provided to what group of swine?
a. weaners c. one week old pigs
b. two months old d. one month old

191. A concrete floor that is constructed 50 to 70 cm from the floor, recommended for
weanling (pigs)
a. the pig pen c. litter type
b. the flat deck d. gestating stall

192. The birth weight of piglets is a vital element in piglet survival, they should weigh
a. 900 g to 1 kg c. 1.3-1.5 kg
b. 1-1.2 kg d. none of the above

193. The average feed consumption/day of ad libitum fed fatteners

a. 1.9-2.1 kg c. 1.5-1.7 kg
b. 1.7-2.0 kg d. none of the above

194. The average consumption/day for restricted fed fatteners

a. 1.9-2.1 kg c. 1.5-1.7 kg
b. 1.7-2.0 kg d. none of the above

195. A type of flooring that allows animal wastes to drop or to be forced through the slats
a. concrete flooring c. flat deck
b. slatted floors d. all of the above

196. Brooder temperature is essential to create a microclimate to enhance piglet survival.

a. 24-26 °C c. 30-32 °C
b. 27-28 °C d. 33-35 °C

197. Management method wherein a group of fattening pigs enters the unit at the same
time and leaves together at a certain period once they reached the market or slaughter
weight.
a. all-in-all-out c. multiple
b. individual d. two stage

198. A decrease in the amount of milk secreted by the sow is a condition called
a. metritis c. agalactia
b. mastitis d. hypogalactia

199. Areas regularly visited by outsiders should be situated near the gate.
a. feed store c. fatteners pen/house
b. office d. all of the above

74
Ruminant Production

200. These are commonly used floors for cattle and buffaloes/carabaos except
a. slatted c. concrete floors
b. solid floors d. clay floors

201. Type of milking parlor where cows stand side by side in a stall having a gate at the
front and a chain at the rear.
a. Herringbone c. abreast
b. chute d. side opening or gate type

202. Cows are connected in a head-to-tail manner and enter each side of the parlor as a
group.
a. Herringbone c. abreast
b. chute d. side opening or gate type

203. A helpful equipment in restraining animals while being treated, immunized or

groomed.
a. cart c. pasteurizer
b. foot bath d. holding chute

204. It is used in holding cattle for dehorning, branding, castration or other cattle working
operations.
a. corral c. squeeze chute
b. loading chute d. none of the above

205. A storage structure in which green and moist forage is ensiled.

a. feed troughs or bunks c. feed rack
b. self-feeders d. silos

206. Fresh forage/grass, cut and fed to the animals in the barn or stable.
a. silage c. straw
b. soilage d. hay

207. Dried plant by-products from which the flowers or fruits have been removed.
a. silage c. fodder
b. soilage d. straw/stover

208. A system of feeding ruminants by allowing them to graze in a large tract of land,
hilly or rolling, a good fencing is necessary to keep the animals.
a. range c. cut and carry
b. tethering d. all of the above

209. It is the largest dairy breed developed in Northern Netherlands, black and white, and
noted for its high milk production.
a. Jersey c. Holstein Friesian
b. Brown Swiss d. Ayrshire

210. The Philippine carabao has a chromosome number (2n)=48, light gray and under
what type?
a. swamp c. grades
b. river d. buffalo

211. A dairy breed of goat

a. Boer c. Saanen
b. Phil. Native d. Jumnapari

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212. A meat type goat
a. Boer c. Saanen
b. Alpine d. Anglo-nubian

213. Goats with long and pendulous ears with Roman nose, weighing about 100-140 kgs
a.La Mancha c. Toggenburg
b. Anglo-nubian d. Alpine

214. Heifers weighing 220 to 250 kilograms are best to breed at the age of
a. 18-20 months c. 2 ½ years
b. 2 years d. 3 years

215. On the average mature cattle consume___ gallons of water/head/day.

a. 12 c. 15
b. 8 d. 20

216. The Philippine dairy farming sector produces ___ of the country’s milk supply.
a. 10 % c. 100%
b. 0.10% d. <1%

217. It is the most popular type of cattle raising in the Phil., the growers are raised by
grazing or cut and carry feeding and then confined until market.
a. breeder farm operation c. growing-fattening operation
b. cow-calf operation

218. A system of feeding ruminants to avoid infective stage of internal parasites

particularly, liverfluke.
a. tethering c. range
b. rotational grazing d. all of the above

219. Which of the following should be observed in the vaccination of animals?

a. do not vaccinate pregnant animals
b. vaccinate sick animals
c. vaccinate during hot or wet weather
d. do not burn containers and unused portion of vaccines

220. The other name for sore mouth in goats, which is characterized by scabby lesions in
the lips, muzzle and eyelids, etc.
a. contagious ophthalma c. infectious arthritis
b. contagious ecthyma

221. The voluntary release of milk from the udders of lactating females.
a. washing and wiping the mammary gland
b. milk-let-down
c. closing of the thumb and first finger

222. A burdizzo is an instrument used for ___ animals.

a. dehorning c. castrating
b. branding d. identifying

223. What is the moisture content of an air-dried feed?

a. 3% c. 10%
b. 5% d. 14%

224. A male sheep castrated while young (usually at 1-3 weeks old)
a. ram d. wether
b. shearling d. stag

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225. The breed of cattle consisting of 5/8 Shorthorn + 3/8 Brahman, developed in King
Ranch, Texas.
a. Sta. Gertrudis c. Angus
b. Hereford d. Charolais

226. The breed of cattle consisting of ¼ Shorthorn, ½ Brahman and ¼ Hereford blood.
a. Sta. Gertrudis c. Simbrah
b. Beefmaster d. Angus

227. The type of foot and mouth disease virus identified in the Philippines.
a. A,B,and C c. none of the above
b. A,O, and C

228. It is the smallest of the dairy cattle breeds; its milk contains the highest milk fat.
a. Brown Swiss c. Jersey
b. Guernsey d. Holstein Freisian

229. The causative agent of foot and mouth disease

a. Aphthovirus c. Pasteurella multocida
b. Clostridium tetani

Animal Nutrition

230. It is the sum of the chemical changes occurring in an organism during the breakdown
of food and the synthesis of cellular material
a. nutrition c. absorption
b. digestion d. metabolism

231. It is the movement of the end-products of digestion from the gastro-intestinal tract
into the blood through diffusion
a. absorption c. utilization
b. metabolism d. nutrition

232. What is the nutrient represented using the Weende analysis, example, nitrogen free
extract as proximate component in feeds.
a. soluble carbohydrates c. minerals
b. insoluble carbohydrates d. protein

233. It is the apparatus used in extracting fat.

a. Weende analysis c. Soxhlet extractor
b. Kjeldahl analysis d. Atomic absorption spectrophotometry

234. It is a proximate component of feed which include those materials that are of low
digestibility like cellulose, hemicellulose and some lignin.
a. crude protein c. ash e. crude fiber
b. ether extract d. nitrogen free extract

235. It is a feed required to adequately support an animal that is not developing a fetus or
yielding a product.
a. maintenance ration c. lactating ration
b. fattening ration d. breeder ration

236. Over and above those for other physiological phases of production, the major
requirements of animals are: protein, energy, Ca and P, Vitamin A and D, salt, and
other minerals and vitamins.
a. wool production c. milk production
b. fattening d. work

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237. These are feedstuffs having over 18% crude fiber of 22% acid detergent fiber (ADF)
and a TDN value of less than 70%.
a. concentrates c. vitamin supplements
b. roughages d. mineral supplements

238. These are animal fat or tissue from beef cattle, carabao and sheep containing not less
than 90% total fatty acids. It must be heated prior to mixing with other feedstuff.
a. offal c. tallow
b. meat and bone meal d. hydrolyzed feather meal

239. A kind of agglomerated feed which is formed by compacting and forcing through
openings by a mechanical process.
a. middling c. crumble
b. mash d. pellet

240. It is a green or cured plant containing ears or seed heads grown primarily for forage.
For example, corn.
a. stover c. hay
b. fodder d. straw

241. It is a uniform mixture of one or more micro-ingredients with diluents or carrier used
to facilitate uniform dispersion of the micro-ingredients in a large mix.
a. trace minerals c. antioxidants
b. premix d. acidulants

242. It is the total amount of feed provided to the animal over a 24-hour period.
a. supplement c. nutrient
b. forage d. ration

243. It represents the outside covering of the dehulled coconut which is trimmed off in the
preparation of shredded coconut.
a. coco bran c. copra meal
b. paring meal d. copra oil meal

244. It favors the growth of molds, fungi and insect development in stored feeds.
a. 15-20 MC c. 70-90% RH
b. below 15% MC d. a and c

245. As recommended by the Animal Feed Control Advisory Committee, the moisture
content of commercial mixed feeds for livestock and poultry is not more than (NMT)
___%.
a. 13 c. 15
b. 14 d. 16

246. The crude fat content of commercial mixed feeds should be not less than (NLT) ___
%.
a. 3 c. 5
b. 4 d. 6

247. It is a commercial feeds for poultry that contains 28% CP.

a. broiler starter c. hog prestarter
b. duck starter d. turkey starter

248. Hog lactating mash, crumble or pellet contains___ % CP.

a. 18 c. 14
b. 16 d. 15

78
249. Vitamins are not analyzed in the proximate analysis. The composition in feeds is
expressed:
a. in percent (%) c. milligrams per kilogram (mg/kg)
b. in parts per million (ppm) d. all of the above

250. These compounds are added to the feeds to prevent harmful moulds from growing in
the feed or digestive tract of poultry, for example, propionic acid, sodium propionate,
gentian violet and nystatin.
a. antifungal c. antibodies
b. antibacterial d. worming compounds

251. A group of goats with an average liveweight of 30 kilograms will require ___ kg of
dry matter (DM) per animal per day.
a.1.05 c. 3.5
b. 2.0 d. 4

252. A 250 kg steer consumes about 7.5 kg of DM/day. What is the allowed amount of
urea as supplement?
a. 50 g c. 75 g
b. 60 g d. 100g

253. It makes up 65-85% of the animal body weight at birth, 45-60% weight at maturity
and has an inverse relationship with body fat.
a. protein c. fat e. water
b. carbohydrates d. minerals

254. When the feed is burned, the developed heat can be measured in a bomb calorimeter,
and this indicates the Gross Energy in the feed, 1 g carbohydrate is equivalent to ___
Kcal.
a. 4 c. 9
b. 5 d. none of the above

Poultry Production

255. The breed belonging to this class is characterized by their comparably small size,
they lay white shelled eggs, very active and nervous in temperament and non-sitters.
a. meat class c. general purpose class
b. egg class d. fighting class

256. This class belongs to the breeds that are large, slow in movement, quiet and gentle in
disposition.
a. General purpose class c. meat class
b. egg class d. fancy class

257. The breeds under this class may be characterized as possessing desired beauty of
plumage or form of having a rare unusual appearance, they are raised as ornamental
or pets.
a. general purpose c. meat class
b. egg class d. fancy class

258. This method involves the synchronous raising of several age group of chicken for the
purpose of achieving a sustained turnover of products.
a. all-in-all-out c. multiple-stocking
b. two-stage stocking

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259. The most popular breed of chicken for egg production.
a. Leghorn c. Rhode Island Red
b. New Hampshire d. Cornish

260. A male turkey, tom is also called

a. cock c. rooster
b. gobbler d. drake

261. What is the recommended floor space requirement for a nine week old to laying age
(chicken)?
a. 15 sq inch c. 50-60 sq cm
b. 30 sq inch

262. Chickens are transferred to the laying house at the age of

a. 6-8 weeks c. 26-28 weeks
b. 16-18 weeks

263. Chicken will start laying eggs when they are ___ weeks old.
a. 20-22 weeks c. 30 weeks
b. 24-28 wks

264. The maximum egg production of chicken is reached between the age of ___.
a. 30-36 wks (7.5-9 mo.) c. 1.5 yrs and above
b. 1-1.5 yrs

265. The main method of controlling sexual maturity in pullets.

a. light c. drug inclusion in feed such as coccidiostats
b. feed intake

266. The allowable mortality rate in raising broilers is ___ %.

a. 10 c. 5
b. 8 d. 4

267. The daily water requirement of 100 birds in moderate temperature.

a. 3-4 gal c. 7-9 gal
b. 5-7 gal

268. It is a virus infection characterized by the formation of yellowish membranous

plaques on the mucous membrane of the oral and pharyngeal cavity.
a. infectious coryza c. Avian pest
b. Marek’s disease d. fowl pox

269. It is characterized by swelling of face and wattles and discharge from nostrils, which
is watery and becomes sticky and with foul odor as the disease progresses.
a. avian pest c. infectious coryza
b. fowl pox d. avian influenza

270. In breeding meat type breeds of chicken, the ratio of male to female is
a. 1:8-10 c. 1:15-20
b. 1:10-15

271. It is the mating of two or more males with a group of females in the same pen.
a. stud mating c. pen mating
b. mass or flock mating d. A.I.

80
272. A term used when domestic birds lay eggs on successive days.
a. oviposition c. clutches
b. ovulation d. double ovulation

273. Hatching eggs can be kept longer if they are stored in a room with a humidity of 75-
80% and a temperature of ___°C.
a. 12.8-15.5 c. 20-25
b. 18-20

274. To minimize the effect of stress on birds during deworming, transferring,

vaccination, debeaking, etc., an anti-stress formula should be given:
a. 3-5 days before the onset of stress c. a and b
b. 3-5 days after the onset of stress

275. The annual egg production of native chicken

a. 50-60 c. 200-240
b. 100-150 d. 260-280

276. A problem in which the funnel of the oviduct fails to pick up or catches the yolk or
ova.
a. soft-shelled eggs c. double yolked eggs
b. yolkless eggs d. internal layers

277. The removal of the comb and wattles of male to make the head smooth
a. clipping c. debeaking
b. dubbing d. candling

278. It is a collective term for a group of ostrich.

a. flock c. cub
b. game d. harem

279. A collective term for the other bird species like emu, rhea, cassowary, kiwi.
a. domestic c. ratites
b. exotic d. game

280. The popularity of chicken raising could be attributed to the fact that among the
different poultry species they are
a. fast multipliers c. efficient feed converters
b. quick growers d. all of the above

281. Avian influenza virus is H5 N 1 , what is the specific name of the virus?
a. flu virus c. contagious ecthyma virus
b. orthomyxovirus d. pasteurella

282. Old hens that had past their usefulness for commercial egg production.
a. spent hens c. cull
b. capon d. a and c

283. The act of laying eggs in poultry is called

a. ovulation c. deposition
b. oviposition d. collection

284. The color of the eggshell is due to ___.

a. breed c. bloom
b. ooporphyrin d. cuticle

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Animal Products Processing

285. Cooling meat which results in crystallization of water in the tissues.

a. chilling c. slow freezing
b. quick freezing d. freezing

286. It takes 3 to 72 hours to harden meat in the cool storage.

a. chilling c. slow freezing
b. quick freezing d. freezing

287. Treating meat to a temperature of 100 °C or higher and then sealed in containers to
prolong its storage life.
a. drying c. ionization radiation
b. smoking d. canning

288. An ingredient that enhances flavor of the product

a. nitrate/nitrites c. sugar
b. salt d. monosodium glutamate

289. The most important quality factor that changes with age is ___.
a. aroma c. tenderness
b. flavor d. taste

290. It is the examination of live animals whether they have defects, presence of diseases
or unhealthy, etc. before slaughtering
a. diagnosis c. post mortem
b. ante mortem d. physical exam

291. The wholesale and retail cuts are identified and named after the ___ present in the
cut.
a. connective tissue c. bones
b. muscles d. cartilage

292. ___ makes the animal unconscious without killing it

a. sticking c. flaying
b. stunning d. evisceration

293. ___ refers to the removal of the hides.

a. sticking c. flaying
b. stunning d. plucking

294. It is the dressing percentage of goat

a. 43% c. 69%
b. 70% d. 45%

295. The richest source of iron among the animal products.

a. meat c. eggs
b. milk d. all of the above

296. Tender meat can be obtained from

a. thoracic and lumbar region c. sacral region
b. cervical region d. shoulder, shanks and belly

297. It refers to the cutting of carcass into standard wholesale and retail cuts.
a. fabrication c. shrouding
b. slicing d. slaughtering

82
298. The meat has passed and branded by an inspector as safe, wholesome, no disease or
contamination or decomposition
a. condemned c. fit for human consumption
b. post mortem d. none of the above

299. Slaughtering an animal dead of some causes prior to slaughter.

a. hot meat c. fresh meat
b. cold slaughter d. chilled meat

300. Milk powder plus water

a. evaporated milk c. condensed milk
b. reconstituted milk d. skimmed milk

83
 ANSWER KEY

Introduction, Animal Physiology, Terminologies

1. B 33. E 65. A 97. B
2. C 34. C 66. D 98. A
3. D 35. D 67. D 99. C
4. A 36. C 68. C 100. A
5. C 37. A 69. D 101. B
6. C 38. A 70. C 102. C
7. B 39. B 71. D 103. C
8. A 40. C 72. B 104. D
9. B 41. A 73. C 105. D
10. C 42. B 74. C 106. D
11. D 43. B 75. C 107. B
12. B 44. B 76. A 108. C
13. A 45. C 77. B 109. B
14. C 46. C 78. C 110. A
15. B 47. A 79. C 111. B
16. D 48. A 80. A 112. B
17. C 49. C 81. C 113. C
18. C 50. D 82. B 114. A
19. D 51. C 83. B 115. D
20. C 52. B 84. C 116. A
21. C 53. C 85. A 117. B
22. C 54. C 86. B 118. B
23. B 55. A 87. C 119. B
24. B 56. C 88. C 120. B
25. B 57. C 89. A 121. C
26. B 58. B 90. A 122. C
27. A 59. C 91. C 123. B
28. A 60. C 92. A 124. C
29. C 61. B 93. D 125. A
30. A 62. A 94. A 126. D
31. A 63. A 95. C 127. A
32. C 64. D 96. B
Reproduction, Genetics, and Animal Breeding
128. A 139. B 150. A 161. B
129. E 140. A 151. C 162. B
130. B 141. B 152. B 163. A
131. C 142. B 153. B 164. A
132. A 143. C 154. A 165. A
133. D 144. C 155. C 166. C
134. D 145. D 156. C 167. C
135. A 146. C 157. A 168. C
136. B 147. B 158. C 169. B
137. B 148. C 159. A 170. B
138. B 149. A 160. D

84
Swine Production

85
171. D 179. B 186. A 193. A
172. B 180. B 187. C 194. B

173. B 181. C 188. A 195. B

174. A 182. A 189. B 196. C
175. E 183. C 190. C 197. A
176. D 184. D 191. B 198. D
177. C 185. E 192. C 199. D
178. A
Ruminant Production
200. A 208. A 216. D 223. D
201. C 209. C 217. C 224. D
202. B 210. A 218. B 225. A
203. D 211. C 219. A 226. B
204. C 212. A 220. B 227. B
205. D 213. B 221. B 228. C
206. B 214. A 222. C 229. A
207. D 215. A
Animal Nutrition
230. D 237. B 244. D 250. A
231. A 238. C 245. A 251. A
232. A 239. D 246. B 252. E
233. C 240. B 247. D 253. A
234. E 241. B 248. D 254. B
235. A 242. D 249. D
236. C 243. B
Poultry Production
255. D 263. A 271. B 278. D
256. C 264. A 272. C 279. C
257. D 265. B 273. A 280. D
258. C 266. D 274. C 281. B
259. A 267. B 275. B 282. D
260. B 268. C 276. B 283. B
261. C 269. C 277. B 284. B
262. B 270. A
Animal Products
285. D 289. C 293. C 297. A
286. C 290. B 294. A 298. B
287. D 291. C 295. C 299. B
288. B 292. B 296. A 300. B

86