Test - 32: Final Test Series (Online) For JEE (Main) - 2021
Test - 32: Final Test Series (Online) For JEE (Main) - 2021
C
CODE
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456
General Instructions:
1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.
2. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.
(i) Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each
question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) (ii) Section-II : This section contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five questions out of
10. There will be no negative marking for Section II. The answer to each of the questions is a
numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and there is no negative
marking for wrong answer.
PART – A : PHYSICS
SECTION - I 2. A gas undergoes the cyclic process as shown
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains
in figure. The cycle is repeated 25 times per
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY second. The power generated is
ONE is correct.
[1]
Test-32_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I
(1) Q
l
T1 – T22
aA 2
(2) Q
2l
T1 – T22
aA 2
aA 2r r
(3) Q T1 – T2 2 (1) R (2) R
2l 3 3
aA r
(4) Q T1 – T2 2 (3) R = 3r (4) R
l 2
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FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I Test-32_ (Code-C)
11. Two fixed charges –Q and Q are located at 15. An astronomical telescope has an eyepiece
the coordinates (–a, 0) and (a, 0) then locus of focal length 5cm. If the angular
of points (on a plane perpendicular to x axis),
magnification in normal adjustment is 5, then
where electric field is in negative x direction
and magnitude of electric field is not less than the distance between objective and eyepiece,
1 if it is adjusted to give maximum angular
th of field at origin
8 magnification. (Near point, D = 20 cm)
(1) y 2 z2 2a2 (2) x 2 z 2 2a 2 (1) 26.67 cm (2) 30 cm
(3) 29 cm (4) 25 cm
(3) x 2 y 2 a 2 (4) y 2 z2 3a2
16. An energy of 68 eV is required to excite a
12. In the given potentiometer circuit, length of
hydrogen like atom from its second Bohr orbit
wire AB is 1 m and its resistance is R 9 .
to the third Bohr orbit. If atomic number of
The length AC for no deflection in atom is Z and energy required to excite from
galvanometer is 1st Bohr orbit to 3rd Bohr orbit is K, then value
of K and Z respectively are
(1) 435.2 eV, 4 (2) 272 eV, 6
(3) 272 eV, 4 (4) 435.2 eV, 6
17. Two bodies A and B are joined through a
conducting rod of high thermal conductivity. A
and B are thermally insulated from
surrounding. Initial temperature of A and B is
100°C and 20°C respectively. After one hour,
temperature of A is 75°C and B is 35°C. After
another 1 hour, temperature of A will be
(1) 55°C (2) 60°C
(3) 65°C (4) 62.5°C
1 1 18. The speed of the liquid coming out of a small
(1) m (2) m
6 3
hole of a large vessel containing three liquids
of densities 3, 2 and as shown in figure,
1 2
(3) m (4) m is
2 3
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Test-32_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I
five questions out of 10. The answer to each photographic film from the objective lens (in
question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each cm) is _______.
question, enter the correct numerical value (in 25. An ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a
decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the process in which its internal energy U varies
second decimal place; e.g. 06.25, 07.00, 00.33, with its volume V according to relation
00.30, 30.27, 27.30) using the mouse and the U = KV3/2, where K is a positive constant. If
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place the molar specific heat of the gas for this
designated to enter the answer. NR
process is , then N is ________.
3
21. A small uniform solid ball of mass m = 100
R 26. Particle P moves with constant speed of 13 m/s
gm and radius r = rolls without slipping
5 always aiming at O. As P starts moving, O
along the track shown in figure. Radius of
circular part of the track is R. If the ball starts moves with constant velocity 5 ˆj m/s. Time
from rest at a height of 8R above the bottom,
the normal force on the ball at point P is taken (in sec) by particle P to catch O will be
________N. ____
(g = 9.80 m/s2)
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FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I Test-32_ (Code-C)
28. Two light springs of force constants 100 N/m moves in the xy-plane with velocity
and 150 N/m are connected as shown in (8iˆ kjˆ) m/s . If the potential difference
figure. A block of mass 6 kg is pulled slowly across A and C is zero, then speed (in m/s) of
by a distance of 10 cm, to right from conductor ABC is equal to ____
equilibrium position. Then maximum velocity
(in m/s) of point A indicated in diagram will be
Use 5 2.24
____ Use 10 3.16
PART – B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 (3)
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE
is correct.
31. (4)
(1)
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Test-32_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I
OH H
(1) (2)
HO HO
OH
(3) (4)
O
(1) II < I < III < IV
39. Hydrolysis of XeF4 produces Xe, XeO3, HF and
(2) I < IV < III < II O2 molar ratio of Xe to XeO3 produced will be
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2
(3) II < III < IV < I
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
(4) II < III < I < IV
40. Which of the following is incorrect for Castner
35. AgNO3 reacts with solutions of Na2S, NaCN,
Kellner process?
Na2CrO4 and Na3PO4 separately to give
(1) Hg acts as cathode
precipitates. The respective colours of the
precipitates are (2) Cl2 gas evolves at anode
(1) Yellow, black, red and white (3) Carbon acts as cathode as well as anode
(2) Black, white, red and yellow
(4) Caustic soda is prepared in this process
(3) Yellow, red, white and black
41. Number of waves in a Bohr’s orbit of H atom is
(4) White, yellow, red and black 2. Its potential energy would be
36. Carbene is formed as the reaction intermediate
(1) –10.2 eV (2) –6.8 eV
in
(3) –3.02 eV (4) –1.51 eV
(1) Kolbe’s reaction
42. From the following, select the correct
(2) Friedel-Crafts reaction
statement.
(3) Perkin reaction
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+ is a high spin complex
(4) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(2) [Ni(CO)4] has tetrahedral geometry and is
37. Preparation of ozone by the reaction paramagnetic
3O2 g
2O3 (g) shows the following (3) [Fe(CN)6]3– is diamagnetic
graph of % yield against pressure at different (4) [Co(C2O4)3]3– is inner orbital complex
temperature then
having d2sp3 hybridisation
43. Consider the following reactions involving
Williamson’s Ether Synthesis
Na CH 3CH 2Br
(i) OH ONa
O–CH 2 CH3
NaOH CH 3 – Br
(ii) OH ONa
O O
(1) NO2, N3 , ICl2 (2) N3 , I3 , NO2
C
b. Cl CH3 (ii) (CH3)2Cd (3) XeF2, C2H2, SO2 (4) CO2, BeCl2, SnCl2
Roasting
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Test-32_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I
52. The solubility product of BaSO4 is 1.5 × 10–9 at whereas highly polluted water could have a
25°C. The solubility of BaSO4 in 0.10 M BaCl2 BOD value of y ppm or more (x + y) is ___
solution is x × 10–7g/L. The value of x is [Atomic 59. How many pi electrons are present in repeating
mass : O = 16, S = 32, Ba = 137] part of Glyptal polymer?
PART – C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I 62. If cot –1( cos ) – tan –1( cos ) u , then
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains sinu is equal to
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY
(1) cot 2 (2) tan2
ONE is correct. 2 2
(3) sin2 (4) cos2
61. A matrix is chosen at random from the set of 2 2
all matrices of order 2 with elements 0, 1 or 2. 63. The number of value(s) of x satisfying the
The probability that the matrix chosen is equation
singular, is
log2 (log3 (log2 x )) x 8 8 x is
35 31
(1) (2)
81 81 (1) Zero
(2) 1
32 50
(3) (4) (3) 3
81 81
(4) 4
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FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I Test-31_ (Code-C)
e
1
e
1 1 7 35
(1) e 3 2 (2) e 3 (1) , (2) 3, 3
e 2 12
3 6e
e 7 35
1 e (3) , 3 (4) 3,
(3) e 3 (4) 2 e 2 12
e
72. Let F denotes the set of all onto functions
65. If f ( x ) ( x m )2 k ( x n )2 k 1, m n , then
from A = {a1, a2, a3, a4} to B = {x, y, z}.
(where k Z ) which of the following must be A function f is chosen at random from F. The
true for function f (x)? probability that f –1(x) exists
(1) x = m is point of maxima 2 1
(1) (2)
3 3
(2) x = n is point of maxima
(3) x = m is point of neither maxima nor 1
(3) (4) Zero
6
minima
e e a ln x e a ln a dx
x ln a
(4) x = n is point of neither maxima nor 73. The value of is
minima equal to (where a > 0, x > 0)
(1) 0 (2) 1 a x x a 1
(2) aa x c
(3) 2 (4) 3 ln a a 1
67. The area of the quadrilateral formed by (3) axlna + xalnx + axx + c
the tangents at the vertices of pair of conics ax
(4) x a ln x aa x c
x2y2 = 4, is ln a
(1) 4 sq. units (2) 8 sq. units 74. The angle between the two lines represented
(3) 16 sq. units (4) 32 sq. units by 2x2 + 5xy + 3y2 + 2y – 8 = 0 is tan–1m.
Then m is equal to
68. (p ~q) (~p q) is
1 7
(1) (2)
(1) A tautology 5 5
(2) A contradiction (3) 5 (4) 7
(3) Neither a tautology nor a contradiction 75. The set of values of for which exactly one
(4) Equivalent to p q root of the equation x2 – x + 1 = 0 lies
between 1 and 2, is
69. If 1, log9(31–x + 2), log3(4·3x – 1) are in A.P,
(1) (1, 2) (2) (–2, –1)
then x is equal to
5
(1) log34 (2) 1 – log34 (3) (–5, –2) (4) 2,
2
(3) 1 – log43 (4) log43 76. The number of complex numbers z, satisfying
the equations | z + 5 | + | z – 5 | = 10 and
n n
1 r
70. If an
r 0
n
Cr
, then
r 0
n
Cr
equals |z + 1| = 2, is
(1) Zero
(1) (n – 1)an (2) nan (2) 1
1 1 (3) 2
(3) nan (4) nan
2 4 (4) Infinite
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Test-32_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I
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