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Test - 32: Final Test Series (Online) For JEE (Main) - 2021

1) The document is a test for the JEE (Main) exam containing questions in physics, chemistry, and mathematics. 2) It provides instructions for the test, indicating it is 3 hours long and contains 90 total questions worth 300 marks. 3) The test contains 3 parts (physics, chemistry, mathematics) with 30 questions each, split into two sections - multiple choice questions and numerical answer questions. Multiple choice questions are worth 4 marks for correct answers and -1 for wrong, while numerical questions are worth 4 marks each.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
223 views10 pages

Test - 32: Final Test Series (Online) For JEE (Main) - 2021

1) The document is a test for the JEE (Main) exam containing questions in physics, chemistry, and mathematics. 2) It provides instructions for the test, indicating it is 3 hours long and contains 90 total questions worth 300 marks. 3) The test contains 3 parts (physics, chemistry, mathematics) with 30 questions each, split into two sections - multiple choice questions and numerical answer questions. Multiple choice questions are worth 4 marks for correct answers and -1 for wrong, while numerical questions are worth 4 marks each.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 10

Test Date: 26/02/2021 Phase-I

C
CODE
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

Time : 3 hrs FINAL TEST SERIES (ONLINE) MM : 300

for JEE (Main) - 2021


Test – 32
Topics Covered :
Physics : Mock Test on Complete Syllabus
Chemistry : Mock Test on Complete Syllabus
Mathematics : Mock Test on Complete Syllabus

General Instructions:
1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.
2. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.
(i) Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each
question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) (ii) Section-II : This section contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five questions out of
10. There will be no negative marking for Section II. The answer to each of the questions is a
numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and there is no negative
marking for wrong answer.

PART – A : PHYSICS
SECTION - I 2. A gas undergoes the cyclic process as shown
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains
in figure. The cycle is repeated 25 times per
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY second. The power generated is
ONE is correct.

1. Two short electric dipoles having dipole


moment p are kept on two corners of a
rectangle as shown in figure. The direction of
electric field at the centre C of rectangle, is

(1) 600 W (2) 300 W

(3) 450 W (4) 750 W

3. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm is cut into


two equal parts, that are shifted as shown in
figure. An object is placed at 30 cm from point
C. The distance between the images formed
(1) Along –Y-axis (2) Along +Y-axis
(3) Along +X-axis (4) Along –X-axis by the two halves of the lens is

[1]
Test-32_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I

7. The equation of state for a gas is given by


PV = nRT + V, where n is the number of
mole and  is constant. Initial pressure and
temperature of 1 mole of the gas contained in
a cylinder is P0 and T0 respectively. The work
done by the gas when its temperature
(1) 6 cm (2) 12 cm doubles isobarically will be

(3) 8 cm (4) 9 cm (1) P0T 0 R (2) P0 T 0 R


P0 –  P0  
4. Let t1 be the time interval in which a particle
(3) P0T0R ln2 (4) P0T0 R ln 2
executing SHM moves from a position, P0  
mid-way between the mean and extreme
8. A ray travelling in air is incident on a spherical
position, to the extreme position. Let t2 be the
 
body   3 at an angle of incidence 60°.
time interval in which the particle executing The ray after passing through sphere gets
SHM moves from extreme position to a incident on the further surface of sphere and
position mid-way between extreme and mean gets reflected and refracted. Then choose the
t1 correct alternative.
position. Then 
t2 (1) Angle of refraction at first surface is 60°
(2) Angle of incidence at second surface is
(1) 1
60°
(2) 2
(3) Angle of deviation as ray comes out of
1 sphere is 180°
(3)
2 (4) Angle of deviation as ray comes out of
1 sphere is 240°
(4)
3 9. In a resonance column experiment, the first
and second resonance occur at water levels
5. When a charge q is kept at (–a, 0, 0), the
24.1 cm and 74.1 cm respectively below the
electric field vector at (0, b, 0) is aiˆ  bjˆ. Now, open end. Third resonance will occur when
another charge 2q is also kept at (a, 0, 0). water level is at depth of
The net electric field vector at (0, b, 0) is (1) 115.0 cm (2) 125.9 cm
(1) bjˆ (2) aiˆ  2bjˆ (3) 124.8 cm (4) 124.1 cm
10. The relation between R and r (internal
(3) aiˆ  3bjˆ (4) Zero resistance of battery) for which the power
6. A rod of length l and cross-sectional area A consumed in the external part (other than
has a variable thermal conductivity given by batteries) of the circuit is maximum
K = aT, where a is constant and T is
temperature in kelvin. Two ends of rod are
maintained at temperature T1 and T2.
(T1 > T2). Heat current (Q) flowing through rod
will be

(1) Q 
l
T1 – T22 
aA 2

(2) Q 
2l
T1 – T22 
aA 2

aA 2r r
(3) Q  T1 – T2 2 (1) R  (2) R 
2l 3 3
aA r
(4) Q  T1 – T2 2 (3) R = 3r (4) R 
l 2

[2]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I Test-32_ (Code-C)

11. Two fixed charges –Q and Q are located at 15. An astronomical telescope has an eyepiece
the coordinates (–a, 0) and (a, 0) then locus of focal length 5cm. If the angular
of points (on a plane perpendicular to x axis),
magnification in normal adjustment is 5, then
where electric field is in negative x direction
and magnitude of electric field is not less than the distance between objective and eyepiece,
1 if it is adjusted to give maximum angular
th of field at origin
8 magnification. (Near point, D = 20 cm)
(1) y 2  z2  2a2 (2) x 2  z 2  2a 2 (1) 26.67 cm (2) 30 cm
(3) 29 cm (4) 25 cm
(3) x 2  y 2  a 2 (4) y 2  z2  3a2
16. An energy of 68 eV is required to excite a
12. In the given potentiometer circuit, length of
hydrogen like atom from its second Bohr orbit
wire AB is 1 m and its resistance is R  9  .
to the third Bohr orbit. If atomic number of
The length AC for no deflection in atom is Z and energy required to excite from
galvanometer is 1st Bohr orbit to 3rd Bohr orbit is K, then value
of K and Z respectively are
(1) 435.2 eV, 4 (2) 272 eV, 6
(3) 272 eV, 4 (4) 435.2 eV, 6
17. Two bodies A and B are joined through a
conducting rod of high thermal conductivity. A
and B are thermally insulated from
surrounding. Initial temperature of A and B is
100°C and 20°C respectively. After one hour,
temperature of A is 75°C and B is 35°C. After
another 1 hour, temperature of A will be
(1) 55°C (2) 60°C
(3) 65°C (4) 62.5°C
1 1 18. The speed of the liquid coming out of a small
(1) m (2) m
6 3
hole of a large vessel containing three liquids
of densities 3, 2 and  as shown in figure,
1 2
(3) m (4) m is
2 3

13. The specific heat capacity of a monatomic


gas for the process T2Vn = constant is zero.
The value of n is
2 4
(1) (2)
3 3
1 5
(3) (4)
3 3
14. A linear object of length 5 cm lies along the
axis of a convex lens of a focal length 5 cm
such that near end is at a distance of 10 cm (1) 8gh
from lens. The length of image will be
(1) 10.0 cm (2) 3gh

(2) 7.5 cm (3) 2gh


(3) 5.0 cm
(4) 2 gh
(4) 2.5 cm

[3]
Test-32_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I

19. Two blocks A and B of mass m and 3m are


connected by a massless spring of force
constant k. Spring is stretched by an amount
x and released. What is the velocity of block
A when the spring comes to natural length?

22. In the modified YDSE arrangement shown in


D
x 3k x 3k the figure, y0 = , where  is wavelength
(1) (2) 3d
6 m 4 m of light used. The ratio of maximum to
minimum intensity observed on screen is n.
x 3k 3k The value of 5n is_______
(3) (4) x
2 m m
20. A uniform solid cylinder of mass m and radius
R is placed on a plank of mass 2m as shown
in figure. Plank is being pulled with a force of
10 N. If it is given that friction between plank
and cylinder is sufficient to prevent sliding of
cylinder, then tension in string will be (Pulley 23. A tuning fork produces 5 beats/s with another
is ideal) tuning fork of frequency 80 Hz. The first fork
is now loaded with a little wax and the beat
frequency is again found to be 5 beats/s. The
frequency of first tuning fork before waxing
was ______Hz.

(1) 9 N (2) 4 N 24. A camera with an objective of 8 diopter


optical power (positioned just above the water
(3) 8 N (4) 6 N
surface in horizontal position) is used to take
SECTION - II photograph of an object on the bottom of a
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section pond of depth 1 m   w  4  . Distance of the
contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any  3

five questions out of 10. The answer to each photographic film from the objective lens (in
question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each cm) is _______.
question, enter the correct numerical value (in 25. An ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a
decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the process in which its internal energy U varies
second decimal place; e.g. 06.25, 07.00, 00.33, with its volume V according to relation
00.30, 30.27, 27.30) using the mouse and the U = KV3/2, where K is a positive constant. If
on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place the molar specific heat of the gas for this
designated to enter the answer. NR
process is , then N is ________.
3
21. A small uniform solid ball of mass m = 100
R 26. Particle P moves with constant speed of 13 m/s
gm and radius r = rolls without slipping
5 always aiming at O. As P starts moving, O
along the track shown in figure. Radius of
circular part of the track is R. If the ball starts moves with constant velocity 5 ˆj m/s. Time
from rest at a height of 8R above the bottom,
the normal force on the ball at point P is taken (in sec) by particle P to catch O will be
________N. ____
(g = 9.80 m/s2)

[4]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I Test-32_ (Code-C)

29. In a LR circuit, the AC source has voltage 220


V and potential difference across the resistor
is 176 V. The power factor of the circuit is ___

27. In a gravitational field, g  (8iˆ  6 jˆ)N/kg . 30. There is a uniform magnetic field B normal to
Work done (in J) by gravitation force in the XY plane. An L shaped conductor ABC
moving a particle of mass 1 kg from (0, 0) to has length AB = 4 m parallel to x-axis and
(3 m, –4 m) will be____ length BC = 2 m parallel to y-axis. ABC

28. Two light springs of force constants 100 N/m moves in the xy-plane with velocity

and 150 N/m are connected as shown in (8iˆ  kjˆ) m/s . If the potential difference
figure. A block of mass 6 kg is pulled slowly across A and C is zero, then speed (in m/s) of
by a distance of 10 cm, to right from conductor ABC is equal to ____
equilibrium position. Then maximum velocity
(in m/s) of point A indicated in diagram will be
Use 5  2.24 

____ Use 10  3.16 
PART – B : CHEMISTRY
SECTION - I
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 (3)
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE
is correct.

31. (4)

Product 32. Ionic hydride among following is


(1) BeH2 (2) NH3
The major product formed in this reaction is (3) CaH2 (4) CuH2
33. In the compound ZnS, the ions present in
following shaded plane are removed. Identify
the correct formula of the compound.

(1)

(1) Zn4S5 (2) Zn5S4


(2)
(3) Zn7S4 (4) Zn4S7

[5]
Test-32_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I

34. The increasing order of rate of hydrolysis of the O

following compounds by SN1 mechanism is OH


38. Reduction of with LiAlH4 gives
O
O

OH H
(1) (2)
HO HO

OH
(3) (4)
O
(1) II < I < III < IV
39. Hydrolysis of XeF4 produces Xe, XeO3, HF and
(2) I < IV < III < II O2 molar ratio of Xe to XeO3 produced will be
(1) 2 : 3 (2) 3 : 2
(3) II < III < IV < I
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
(4) II < III < I < IV
40. Which of the following is incorrect for Castner
35. AgNO3 reacts with solutions of Na2S, NaCN,
Kellner process?
Na2CrO4 and Na3PO4 separately to give
(1) Hg acts as cathode
precipitates. The respective colours of the
precipitates are (2) Cl2 gas evolves at anode

(1) Yellow, black, red and white (3) Carbon acts as cathode as well as anode
(2) Black, white, red and yellow
(4) Caustic soda is prepared in this process
(3) Yellow, red, white and black
41. Number of waves in a Bohr’s orbit of H atom is
(4) White, yellow, red and black 2. Its potential energy would be
36. Carbene is formed as the reaction intermediate
(1) –10.2 eV (2) –6.8 eV
in
(3) –3.02 eV (4) –1.51 eV
(1) Kolbe’s reaction
42. From the following, select the correct
(2) Friedel-Crafts reaction
statement.
(3) Perkin reaction
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+ is a high spin complex
(4) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(2) [Ni(CO)4] has tetrahedral geometry and is
37. Preparation of ozone by the reaction paramagnetic


3O2  g  
 2O3 (g) shows the following (3) [Fe(CN)6]3– is diamagnetic
graph of % yield against pressure at different (4) [Co(C2O4)3]3– is inner orbital complex
temperature then
having d2sp3 hybridisation
43. Consider the following reactions involving
Williamson’s Ether Synthesis
Na CH 3CH 2Br
(i) OH ONa

O–CH 2 CH3

NaOH CH 3 – Br
(ii) OH ONa

(1) T2 > T1 > T3 (2) T1 > T2 > T3 OCH 3


(3) T3 > T2 > T1 (4) T1 = T2 = T3
[6]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I Test-31_ (Code-C)
CH3 CH3 (1) (A), (i), (Q) (2) (B), (ii), (S)
Na
Br
(iii) H3C OH H3C ONa (3) (C), (iv), (P) (4) (D), (iii), (R)
CH3 CH3 46. In acidic medium 0.5 moles of K2Cr2O7 can
CH3 oxidise completely
H 3C O (1) 3.6 moles of FeSO4 to Fe2(SO4)3
CH3 (2) 1 mole of FeSO4 to Fe2(SO4)3
CH3
(3) 1.8 moles of Sn2+ to Sn4+
CH3 Br
(4) 0.5 moles of KMnO4
Na CH3
(iv) CH3OH CH3ONa 47. The values of van der Waal's constants 'a' and
CH3
'b' for three different gases are given below
CH3 – O CH3
CH3
Which of the above reactions constitute good
synthesis of ether?
(1) (i), (ii) & (iv) (2) (ii) & (iii) only
(3) (iii) & (iv) only (4) (i) & (ii) only The correct order of ease of liquefaction of
44. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the gases is
correct answer using the codes given below the (1) A2 > B2 > C2 (2) B2 > C2 > A2
lists
(3) C2 > B2 > A2 (4) A2 > C2 > B2
Column-I Column-II
O O 48. In which of the following groups all the
C C members have linear shape?
a. Cl H (i) DIBAL-H

O O
(1) NO2, N3 , ICl2 (2) N3 , I3 , NO2
C
b. Cl CH3 (ii) (CH3)2Cd (3) XeF2, C2H2, SO2 (4) CO2, BeCl2, SnCl2

O 49. Which one of the following complexes exhibits


C chirality?
c. CH3 (iii) N2H4 /OH
(1) [Cr(ox)3]3–
O
C NH2 (2) cis – [PtCl2 (en)]
d. NH2 (iv) LiAlH4

(3) cis – [RhCl2 (NH3)2]
(v) NaOH/Br2
(4) trans-[Co(NO3)4 Cl2]+
(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)
50. Correct reactivity order towards anhydrous
(2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv)
ZnCl2 + conc. HCl
(3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(v)
(4) a(ii), b(i), c(iii), d(v) (1)
45. Correct match between Column I, II and III
Column-I Column-II Column-III
(2)
(Metal) (Extraction (Ore)
Method)
(A) Cu (i) Electrolysis (P) Kaolinite (3)
(B) Zn (ii) Roasting (Q) Siderite
(C) Al (iii) Reduction in (R) Malachite
Blast furnace
(D) Fe (iv) Partial (S) Calamine (4)

Roasting
[7]
Test-32_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I

SECTION - II 54. Consider the reaction :


Br /H O
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section Trans-2-butene 
2 2
A (major product).
contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any five Number of chiral carbons in the product A are
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is
55. What volume (in ml) of 0.8 M HCl is required to
a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the react completely with 0.5 g of pure CaCO3?
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, 56. Compressibility factor for CO2 at 400 K and 5 atm
truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; is 0.9. Molar volume of CO2 under these
conditions is (approx)
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, 00.33, 00.30, 30.27, 27.30)
(Take R = 0.08 atm L K–1mol–1)
using the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer. 57. If sweetness value of artificial sweetener A and B
is x and y in comparison to cane sugar. Sweetener
51. The activation energy of a reaction is zero. At A does not provide calories and stable at cooking
temperature whereas sweetener B is unstable at
280 K rate constant is 1.66 × 10–6 s–1. The rate
x
cooking temperature. Then the value of is ___
constant at 300 K is x × 10–7s–1. The value of x y
is 58. BOD value of clean water is less than x ppm

52. The solubility product of BaSO4 is 1.5 × 10–9 at whereas highly polluted water could have a

25°C. The solubility of BaSO4 in 0.10 M BaCl2 BOD value of y ppm or more (x + y) is ___

solution is x × 10–7g/L. The value of x is [Atomic 59. How many pi electrons are present in repeating
mass : O = 16, S = 32, Ba = 137] part of Glyptal polymer?

60. Pb NO3 2 


 A  g   B  s   C  g
673 K
53. 100 ml solution of NaOH (containing 4 g NaOH
per litre) and 50 ml of HCl (containing 7.3 g HCl A  g   H2O  l   D  aq   E  g 
per litre) react as
E  g   C  g   A  g 
NaOH (aq) + HCl (aq) NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)
Sum of bond orders of A, C and E is (Consider
at an instant 0.5265 g of NaCl is formed. Thus
only one value of bond order for A)
unreacted HCl present in the solution is (in mg)
(Given atomic mass of Na = 23 u, O = 16 u, Cl =
35.5 u)

PART – C : MATHEMATICS
SECTION - I 62. If cot –1( cos  ) – tan –1( cos  )  u , then
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains sinu is equal to
20 multiple choice questions. Each question has 4
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY  
(1) cot 2 (2) tan2
ONE is correct. 2 2
 
(3) sin2 (4) cos2
61. A matrix is chosen at random from the set of 2 2
all matrices of order 2 with elements 0, 1 or 2. 63. The number of value(s) of x satisfying the
The probability that the matrix chosen is equation
singular, is
log2 (log3 (log2 x ))   x  8    8  x  is
35 31
(1) (2)
81 81 (1) Zero
(2) 1
32 50
(3) (4) (3) 3
81 81
(4) 4
[8]
FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I Test-31_ (Code-C)

e 2 x  5 ny   dy  71. The mean and standard deviation of 1, 2, 3,


64. xy  e , then   is
 dx  x  e 4, 5, 6 are respectively

e
 1
e
1 1  7 35
(1) e 3  2   (2) e 3   (1) , (2) 3, 3
e  2 12
  3 6e 
e 7 35
 1 e (3) , 3 (4) 3,
(3) e 3 (4)  2   e 2 12
 e
72. Let F denotes the set of all onto functions
65. If f ( x )  ( x  m )2 k ( x  n )2 k 1, m  n , then
from A = {a1, a2, a3, a4} to B = {x, y, z}.
(where k  Z  ) which of the following must be A function f is chosen at random from F. The
true for function f (x)? probability that f –1(x) exists
(1) x = m is point of maxima 2 1
(1) (2)
3 3
(2) x = n is point of maxima
(3) x = m is point of neither maxima nor 1
(3) (4) Zero
6
minima
 e  e a ln x  e a ln a  dx
x ln a
(4) x = n is point of neither maxima nor 73. The value of is
minima equal to (where a > 0, x > 0)

66. The number of point(s) of intersection of the x a 1


(1) a x ln a   aa x  c
curves y = cosec–1 x and y = x is a 1

(1) 0 (2) 1 a x x a 1
(2)   aa x  c
(3) 2 (4) 3 ln a a  1

67. The area of the quadrilateral formed by (3) axlna + xalnx + axx + c
the tangents at the vertices of pair of conics ax
(4)  x a ln x  aa  x  c
x2y2 = 4, is ln a
(1) 4 sq. units (2) 8 sq. units 74. The angle between the two lines represented
(3) 16 sq. units (4) 32 sq. units by 2x2 + 5xy + 3y2 + 2y – 8 = 0 is tan–1m.
Then m is equal to
68. (p  ~q)  (~p  q) is
1 7
(1) (2)
(1) A tautology 5 5
(2) A contradiction (3) 5 (4) 7
(3) Neither a tautology nor a contradiction 75. The set of values of  for which exactly one
(4) Equivalent to p  q root of the equation x2 – x + 1 = 0 lies
between 1 and 2, is
69. If 1, log9(31–x + 2), log3(4·3x – 1) are in A.P,
(1) (1, 2) (2) (–2, –1)
then x is equal to
 5
(1) log34 (2) 1 – log34 (3) (–5, –2) (4)  2, 
 2
(3) 1 – log43 (4) log43 76. The number of complex numbers z, satisfying
the equations | z + 5 | + | z – 5 | = 10 and
n n
1 r
70. If an  
r 0
n
Cr
, then 
r 0
n
Cr
equals |z + 1| = 2, is
(1) Zero
(1) (n – 1)an (2) nan (2) 1

1 1 (3) 2
(3) nan (4) nan
2 4 (4) Infinite

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Test-32_ (Code-C) FINAL TEST SERIES for JEE (Main)-2021_PHASE-I

77. If 00.30, 30.27, 27.30) using the mouse and the


  
a  i  2 j  3 k , b  – i  2 j  k, c  j  2k, on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the place
      designated to enter the answer.
aa ab ac
      81. The value of c2 for which the lines joining the
then b  a b  b b  c equals
      origin to the points of intersection of the line
c a c b c c
y = 3x  c and the circle x2 + y2 = 2 are
(1) 2 (2) 4 perpendicular to each other, is _________.
2
(3) 8 (4) 16 {3 x }
82. The value of 
0
4
dx , where {.} denotes the
78. Equation of a plane passing through the
fractional part function, is_________.
points
1  cos(7( x  ))
(2, 1, –1) and (1, 1, –2) and perpendicular to 83. lim is equal to _______.
x  ( x  )
the plane x + 2y + 3z = 4, is
84. The number of solution(s) of the system of
(1) x + 2y + z – 3 = 0 equations x + 4y – z = 0, 3x – 4y – z = 0 and
x – 3y + z = 0 is_______
(2) x + y – z – 4 = 0
85. The area of the region bounded by the curves
(3) 2x + y + z – 4 = 0 1 – y2 = |x| and |x| + |y| = 1 is A, then 12A
equals ________.
(4) 2x + y – z – 5 = 0
 14   2 15  
86. For x  14, if sin1    sin1  
79. The integrating factor of the differential
 x  x  2
 
dy
equation sin2x  + y = cot x, is then x is equal to
dx
87. A natural number a is selected from the first
(1) ex (2) e 100 natural numbers. The probability that
 a  a   a 
(3) ecotx (4) e–cotx a         , where [.] represents
2 3  5 
80. Total number of arrangements of the letters of
m
greatest integer junction is where m, n
the word 'IITKANPUR' taking all at a time so n
that all vowels come together is are coprime then (m + n) is equal to
4/3
(1) 8640 (2) 4320 2x 2  x  1 m
88. If I  3 2
dx  ln
n
, where m
3/ 4 x  x  x  1
(3) 17280 (4) 8760
and n are coprime then (m + n) is equal to
89. If the straight line y = mx + c is both a tangent
SECTION - II and a normal to the curve x = 3t2, y = 2t3,
then the value of m4 + c2 is equal to
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
90. The number of triangles whose angular points
contains 10 questions. In Section II, attempt any
are at the angular point of a given polygon of
five questions out of 10. The answer to each
8 sides, but none of whose sides are the
question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
sides of the polygon, is
question, enter the correct numerical value (in
decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the
second decimal place; e.g. 06.25, 07.00, 00.33,

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