Kendriya Vidyalaya
OCF, AVADI, CHENNAI
CLASS 12 - CHEMISTRY
Model practice test-II 2021-22
Time Allowed: 1 hour and 30 minutes Maximum Marks: 55
General Instructions:
You are given 26 Questions in section A. Answer 20.Questions only.
You have 24 Questions in section B. Answer 20 Questions only.
You are given 6 Questions in section C. Answer 5 Questions only.
Total 35.
Section A
1. The unit cell of a substance has cations A+ at the corners of the unit cell and the anions B- in [1]
the center. The simplest formula of the substance is
a) AB2 b) A2B
c) AB d) None of these
2. The correct order of the packing efficiency in different types of unit cells is: [1]
a) fcc < bcc > simple cubic b) fcc > bcc > simple cubic
c) bcc < fcc > simple cubic d) fcc < bcc < simple cubic
3. Iodine molecules are held in the crystals lattice by ________. [1]
a) coulombic forces b) london forces
c) covalent bonds d) dipole-dipole interactions
4. Which of the following is not true about the ionic solids? [1]
a) Smaller ions occupy either the b) Bigger ions form the close packed
tetrahedral or the octahedral voids structure.
depending upon their size.
c) Occupation of all the voids is not d) The fraction of octahedral or
necessary. tetrahedral voids occupied depends
upon the radii of the ions occupying
the voids.
5. Type of stoichiometric defect shown by ZnS is [1]
a) Interstitial b) Both Frenkel and Schottky
c) Frenkel d) Schottky
6. What is the coordination number in a square close-packed structure in two dimensions? [1]
a) 4 b) 2
1/9
All the best
c) 6 d) 3
7. Which of the following is a network solid? [1]
a) SO2 (Solid) b) I2
c) H2O (Ice) d) Diamond
8. The radius ratio of body centred cubic structure is [1]
a) 0.155 to 0.225 b) 0.225 to 0.414
c) 0.732 to 1.00 d) 0.414 to 0.732
9. Greater the value of KH, lower will be the [1]
a) Pressure b) Solubility
c) Concentration d) Temperature
10. The osmotic pressure of a solution containing 0.02 mole of solute at 300 K will be: [1]
0.02×300
a) 0.02 × 0.0821 × 300 atm b) 0.0821
atm
0.02×0.0821
c) 0.03 × 0.821 × 300 atm d) 300
atm
11. The depression in freezing point for 1M urea, 1 M glucose and 1 M NaCl are in the ratio of [1]
a) 1:1:2 b) 3:2:2
c) 1:1:1 d) 1:2:3
12. The use of pressure cooker reduces cooking time because it creates [1]
a) High pressure b) Low pressure
c) Low temperature d) High temperature
13. Which among the following is soluble in n-octane? [1]
a) Chloroform b) Ethylene glycol
c) Methanol d) Hexane
14. When blood cells are placed in pure water, blood cells [1]
a) Become white in colour b) Shrinks
c) Diffuses in water d) Swells up
15. Colligative properties depend on ________. [1]
a) the nature of the solute particles b) the nature of solvent particles.
dissolved in solution.
c) the number of solute particles in d) the physical properties of the solute
solution. particles dissolved in solution.
16. The maximum amount of a solid solute that can be dissolved in a specified amount of a given [1]
liquid solvent does not depend upon ________.
a) Nature of solute b) Temperature
c) Pressure d) Nature of solvent
17. Hot conc. H2SO4 acts as a moderately strong oxidising agent. It oxidizes both metals and [1]
2/9
All the best
nonmetals. Which of the following element is oxidized by conc. H2SO4 into two gaseous
products?
a) C b) Zn
c) S d) Cu
18. In solid state PCl5 is a ________. [1]
a) ionic solid with [PCl6]+ octahedral b) covalent solid
and [PCl4]- tetrahedra
c) ionic solid with [PCl ]+ tetrahedral d) octahedral structure
4
and [PCl6]- octahedral
19. The reagent used to distinguish between H2O2 and O3 is: [1]
a) PbS b) Bleaching powder
c) Starch and iodine d) KMnO4
20. When chlorine is passed through a concentrated hot solution of KOH, the compound formed [1]
is_____.
a) KClO2 b) KClO
c) KClO4 d) KClO3
21. Elements of group-15 form compounds in +5 oxidation state. However, bismuth forms only [1]
one well-characterised compound in +5 oxidation state. The compound is
a) Bi2O5 b) BiCl5
c) Bi2S5 d) BiF5
22. Affinity for hydrogen decreases in the group from fluorine to iodine. Which of the halogen [1]
acids should have highest bond dissociation enthalpy?
a) HI b) HCl
c) HBr d) HF
23. Which of the following is isoelectronic pair? [1]
a) b) ClO2, BrF
− +
BrO , BrF
2 2
c) ICl2, ClO2 d) CN-, O
3
24. When sugar is treated with conc. Sulphuric acid, the sugar is charred. In this process, sugar [1]
is_____.
a) Oxidised b) Reduced
c) Dehydrated d) Sulphonated
25. HgO is treated with chlorine to form ______. [1]
a) ClO2 b) Cl2O7
3/9
All the best
c) Cl2O6 d) Cl2O
26. In the given question, arrange the compounds in increasing order of rate of reaction towards [1]
nucleophilic substitution.
a) (iii) < (ii) < (i) b) (i) < (iii) < (ii)
c) (i) < (ii) < (iii) d) (ii) < (i) < (iii)
27. The position of –Br in the compound in CH3CH=CHC(Br)(CH3)2 can be classified as ________. [1]
a) Aryl b) Secondary
c) Vinyl d) Allyl
28. Methyl bromide is converted into ethane by heating it in ether medium with ________. [1]
a) Na b) Al
c) Cu d) Zn
29. Which of the following is a Wurtz-Fitting reaction? [1]
a) b)
c) d)
30. Which one is the correct increasing order of boiling points of the following compounds? [1]
1-Bromoethane, 1-Bromopropane, 1-Bromobutane, Bromobenzene
a) 1-Bromoethane < 1-Bromopropane < b) Bromobenzene < 1-Bromobutane < 1-
1-Bromobutane < Bromobenzene Bromopropane < 1-Bromoethane
c) Bromobenzene < 1-Bromoethane < 1- d) 1-Bromopropane < 1-Bromobutane <
Bromopropane < 1-Bromobutane 1-Bromoethane < Bromobenzene
31. Isomers of the compound C4H9Br are: [1]
a) 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane and 2- b) 1 – Bromobutane and 2 –
Bromo-2-methylbutane Bromobutane
c) 1 – Bromobutane, 2 – Bromobutane, d) 1 – Bromo - 2 – methylpropane and 2
1 – bromo- 2 – methylpropane, and 2 – Bromo - 2 – methylpropane
– bromo-2 – methylpropane
32. Hydrocarbons having double the number of carbon atoms than present in the original alkyl [1]
halide are produced by using:
a) Sandmeyer’ reaction b) Williamson’s synthesis
c) Fittig reaction d) Wurtz reaction
4/9
All the best
33. Which of the following structures is enantiomeric with the molecule (A) given below? [1]
a) b)
c) d)
34. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of their boiling points. [1]
a.
b. CH3CH2CH2CH2Br
C H3
c. H3 C − C − C H3
|
Br
a) (c) < (a) < (b) b) (c) < (b) < (a)
c) (a) < (b) < (c) d) (b) < (a) < (c)
35. Which of the following reactions will yield phenol? [1]
i.
ii.
iii.
iv.
a) i, iii, iv b) ii, iii, iv
c) i, ii, iii d) i, ii, iv
36. An organic compound X is oxidized by using acidified K2Cr2O7. The product obtained reacts [1]
with Phenyl hydrazine but does not answer the silver mirror test. The possible structure of X
is:
a) (CH3)2CHOH b) None of these
5/9
All the best
c) CH3CHO d) CH3CH2OH
37. Mark the correct increasing order of reactivity of the following compounds with HBr/HCl. [1]
a.
b.
c.
a) b < a < c b) c < b < a
c) b < c < a d) a < b < c
38. How many alcohols with molecular formula C4H10O are chiral in nature? [1]
a) 1 b) 4
c) 3 d) 2
39. Williamson's synthesis is used for the preparation of [1]
a) aldehydes b) ethers
c) alkyl halides d) alcohols
40. Phenol on distillation with zinc dust gives [1]
a) benzaldehyde b) benzophenone
c) benzene d) benzonic acid
41. One of the following alcohols do not undergo oxidation reaction: [1]
a) None of these b) Tertiary alcohol
c) Secondary alcohol d) Primary alcohol
42. Lucas test is associated with ________. [1]
a) Alcohols b) Aldehydes
c) Phenols d) Carboxylic acid
43. The reaction C2H5ONa + C2H5I → C2H5OC2H5 + NaI is known as: [1]
a) Williamson's synthesis b) Grignard's synthesis
c) Wurtz's synthesis d) Kolbe's synthesis
44. Which of the following pair represents anomers? [1]
a) b)
6/9
All the best
c) d)
45. The sugar constituent of DNA is [1]
a) D – ribose b) D – 2 – deoxy ribose
c) D – glucose d) D – lactose
46. Assertion (A): Total number of octahedral voids present in the unit cell of cubic close packing [1]
including the one that is present at the body centre, is four.
Reason (R): Besides the body centre there is one octahedral void present at the centre of each
of the six faces of the unit cell and each of which is shared between two adjacent unit cells.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
47. Assertion (A): The addition of ethylene glycol (non–volatile) to water lowers the freezing [1]
point of water hence used as antifreeze.
Reason (R): Heat must be removed from the water to make it freeze.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
48. Assertion (A): Ozone reacts with BaO2 to give BaO. [1]
Reason (R): Ozone acts as an oxidising agent in this reaction.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
49. Assertion (A): p-Dichlorobenzene is less soluble in organic solvents than the corresponding o- [1]
isomer.
Reason (R): o-Dichlorobenzene is polar while p-dichlorobenzene is not.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
50. Assertion (A): O-nitrophenol is a weaker acid than p-nitrophenol. [1]
7/9
All the best
Reason (R): Intramolecular hydrogen bonding makes ortho isomer weaker than para isomer.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
correct explanation of A. correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.
Section B
Question No. 51 to 55 are based on the given text. Read the text carefully and answer the
questions:
Pentose and hexose undergo intramolecular hemiacetal or hemiketal formation due to
combination of the -OH group with the carbonyl group. The actual structure is either of five or six
membered ring containing an oxygen atom. In the free state all pentoses and hexoses exist in
pyranose form (resembling pyran). However, in the combined state some of them exist as five
membered cyclic structures, called fiiranose (resembling furan).
The cyclic structure of glucose is represented by Haworth structure:
[5]
α and β -D-glucose have different configurations at anomeric (C-1) carbon atom, hence are called
anomers and the C-1 carbon atom is called anomeric carbon (glycosidic carbon).
The six-membered cyclic structure of glucose is called the pyranose structure.
51. The term anomers of glucose refers to
a) isomers of glucose that differ in b) enantiomers of glucose
configurations at carbons one and
four (C-1 and C-4)
c) isomers of glucose that differ in d) a mixture of (D)-glucose and (L)-
configuration at carbon one (C-1) glucose
52. What percentage of β -D-(+) glucopyranose is found at equilibrium in the aqueous solution?
a) 50% b) 64%
c) ≈ 100% d) 36%
53. The following carbohydrate is
8/9
All the best
a) an α-furanose b) an aldohexose
c) a ketohexose d) an α-pyranose
54. In the following structure, anomeric carbon is
a) C-2 b) C-1
c) C-4 d) C-3
55. α -D(+)-glucose and β -D(+)glucose are
a) anomers b) epimers
c) enantiomers d) conformers
9/9
All the best
