Fisheries Question Bank

(For JRF/ SRF)

Fisheries Question Bank
(For JRF/ SRF)

by

Dr. V.P.Saini

Shubham Varshney

Tarang Kumar Shah

Udai Ram Gurjar

NARENDRA PUBLISHING HOUSE

Copyright © 2018, Narendra Publishing House, Delhi (INDIA)

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First Edition 2018

ISBN :

Published by :

NARENDRA PUBLISHING HOUSE

Publisher and Distributor

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This Book is Dedicated
To All
Fisheries Related Person
 Contents

About the Authors vii

Preface ix

1 Limnology 1

2 Microbiology 23

3 Aquaculture Engineering 34

4 Aquatic Pollution 43

5 Breeding of Finfishes 54

6 Shellfish Breeding 66

7 Cold Water Aquaculture 76

8 Fish Feed Technology 80

9 Genetics & Breeding 88

10 Ornamental 95

11 Biochemistry 143

12 Fish Economics 158

13 Information and Communication Technology 204

14 Statistics 208

15 Biology of Fishes 215

16 Canning And Packaging Technology 288

17 Craft Technology 298

18 Fish Freezing Technology 310

19 Fish Gear Technology 320

20 Navigation and Seamenship 335

21 Product Development and Quality Control 342

22 Fish Refigration 389

23 Miscellaneous 399
 About the Authors

Shubham Varshney grew up in Jodhpur, Rajasthan and did his B.F.Sc from Govind
Ballabh Pant University of Agriculture & Technology, Pantnagar in 2017 and
now pursuing his M.F.Sc (Fish Biotechnology) from Central Institute of Fisheries
Education, Mumbai.

Dr V.P. Saini (Professor) Aquaculture Research & Seed Unit, Directorate of

Research, Maharana Pratap University of Agriculture & Technology- Udaipur, had
his M.Sc. (1990) and Ph.D. (1994) in Limnology and Fisheries from Rajasthan
Agricultural University, Bikaner (Rajasthan). In 1998 he did certificate course - CES
(Certificate in Environmental Studies) from Indira Gandhi Open University, New
Delhi. Beginning his professional career in 1994, Dr. Saini has worked at RTADCF
Ltd, Udaipur as Hatchery Development Officer. In 1996, Dr Saini joined University
services as Assistant Professor. For the last over 20 years, he has been actively engaged
in research and teaching. Dr. Saini has published over 75 research papers in reputed
journals & nine books on different aspects of fisheries science. He has also developed
two water samplers and one field kit for microbiological analysis of water. Dr Saini
had been (in 2008) to Philippines (SEAFDC) for fish breeding training .In 2009; he
was awarded NAIP (ICAR) fellowship for international training in fish molecular
breeding techniques at Institute of Aquaculture, University of Stirling, Scotland, UK.
Presently he is attached with Non-Plan research (fisheries) & fish Seed production
unit. Dr Saini is Working/completed 11 projects on different aspects of aquaculture.
Tarang kumar Shah did his B.F.Sc & M.F.Sc (Aquaculture) from Maharana Pratap
University of Agriculture & Technology, Udaipur in 2014 & 2016 respectively and
now pursuing his Ph.D (Aquaculture) from Govind Ballabh Pant University of
Agriculture & Technology, Pantnagar.

Udai Ram Gurjar did his B.F.Sc from Maharana Pratap University of Agriculture &
Technology, Udaipur in 2014 and M.F.Sc (Fisheries Resource Management) from
College of Fisheries, Ratnagiri in 2016 and currently pursuing his Ph.D (Fisheries
Resource Management) from Central Institute of Fisheries Education, Mumbai
 Preface

It gives us immense pleasure in presenting this book “Fisheries Question Book” for
various competitive exams. In this book, we have tried to present the book in a very
simple and lucid manner keeping in mind the needs and requirements of students
aspiring for ICAR-PG and higher degree courses in the field of fisheries. Besides,
this book will also be helpful in various competitive examinations conducted by
ICAR & State Public Service Commissions.

It has been experienced that students are lacking their confidence to face
objective type questions. Therefore, leaving aside all the unnecessary things, only the
essential facts have been discussed in the form of objective type questions. Further,
this book has been written in such a way that it will help students in getting higher
scores in fisheries related competitive exams.

Every effort has been made to remove the mistakes and omissions in this
book. In spite of this some mistakes can be left in this book. Any error, mistake
or discrepancy noted may be brought to our notice which shall be taken care of in
our next edition

Authors
 1 Limnology

1. The word “plankton” is derived from the Greek word which means

a) Wanderers b) Floaters

c) Free swimmers d) Scavengers

2. Cell wall of the diatom is made up of

a) Cellulose b) Silica

c) Chitin d) Calcium

3. Diatom secrete an external rigid silicate skeleton known as

a) Epitheca b) Hypotheca

c) Frustule d) none

4. The reproduction in diatom is mostly by

a) Budding b) Binary fussion

c) Sexual d) Spores
2 Fisheries Question Bank

5. Fragillariaoceanica and Hemioliscushardmanianus indicate the abundance of

a) Sardinella longiceps b) Sardinellagibbosa

c) Sardinellasirum d) Sardinelladussumierii

6. The white water phenomenon is due to the abundance of

a) Dinoflagelates b) Cocolithophores

c) Protozoan d) Diatoms

7. The indicators of rock petroleum grounds

a) Dinoflagillates b) Diatom

c) Cocolithophores d) Protozoan

8. Diatoms belong to the class

a) Chrysophyceae b) Bacillariophyceae

c) Cyanophyceae d) Dinophyceae

9. Dinoflagellets belong to the class

a) Bacillariophyceae b) Cyanophyceae

c) Dinophyceae d) Chrysophyceae

10. Red tide phenomenon is caused due to the abundance of

a) Cocolithophores b) Protozoan

c) Dinoflagillates d) Diatoms

11. Blue green algae belong to the class

a) Bacillariophyceae b) Cyanophyceae

c) Dinophyceae d) Chrysophyceae
Limnology 3

12. Green algae belong to the class

a) Chlorophyceae b) Euglenophyceae

c) Dinophyceae d) Cyanophyceae

13. Diatoms are rich in vitamins

a) Vit A&D b) Vit C&K

c) Vit B6&B12 d) Vit B1& E

14. 1Scientific name of coontail is

a) Chara b) Ceratophyllum

c) Typha d) None

15. The term ecosystem was coined by

a) Hensen b) Tausley

c) J.S.Nelson d) Carpenter

16. The organisms living on the top of the air water interface are called as

a) Infrraneuston b) Supraneuston

c) Seastin d) Nekton

17. Father of modern limnology

a) Tansley b) Henson

c) F.A.Forael d) J.M.Mackfoarlane

18. Lakes which are permanently covered by ice are called as

a) Dimictic lake b) Amictic lake

c) Monomictic lake d) Holomictic lake

4 Fisheries Question Bank

19. Organisms found attached over the surface of vegetation are called as

a) Parasite b) Creepers

c) Periphyton d) Nekton

20. Plankton of pond water is known as

a) Heleoplankton b) Limnoplankton

c) Potamoplankton d) Euplankton

21. Plankton of lake water is known as

a) Heleoplankton b) Limnoplankton

c) Potamoplankton d) Rheoplankton

22. Plankton of running water is known as

a) Rheoplankton b) Potamoplankton

c) Both a&b d) Euplankton

23. Plankton of brackish water is known as

a) Haliplankton b) Hypalmyroplankton

c) Limnoplankton d) Rheoplankton

24. Plankton of salt water is known as

a) Limnoplankton b) Holoplankton

c) Haliplankton d) Meroplankton

25. Organism that spend part of their life as plankton is called as

a) Meroplankton b) Holoplankton

c) Euplankton d) Haliplankton
Limnology 5

26. Organisms that are growing or moving through sans are called

a) Eudobenthos b) Psammon

c) Periphyton d) Rhizobenthos

27. Organisms that are growing or moving through mud are called

a) Herpobenthos b) Rhizobenthos

c) Psammon d) Eudobenthos

28. Organisms that are rooted in the substratum of the salted aqueous phase
are called

a) Rhizobenthos b) Periphyton

c) Herpobenthos d) Psammon

29. The total living and non living matter of aquatic body is

a) Plankton b) Neuston

c) Sestan d) Nekton

30. The species colioch are unable to tolerate any pollution are known as

a) Saproxenous b) Sapropholious

c) Saprobioutic d) Saprophobious

31. Lemna sp is called as

a) Water hyacinth b) Duck weed

c) Eel grass d) Arrow weed

32. Warmer upper layer of the lake is called

a) Epilimnion b) Thermoclone

c) Hypolimnion d) Mixed layer

6 Fisheries Question Bank

33. Organisms which are drifted by water movement are called as

a) Nekton b) Plankton

c) Sestan d) Neuston

34. The height of wave in water body is calculated by

a) h= ⅓√F b) h=1/4√F

c) h= 1√F d) h=2√F

35. The lake in which surface temperature varies above and below 4ºC

a) Tropical lake b) Temperate lake

c) Polar lake d) Winter lake

36. Daphnia sp is otherwise known as

a) Sea monk b) Water hyacinth

c) Arrow warm d) Water flea

37. Salinity reduce the solubility

a) Carbon dioxide b) Oxygen

c) Ammonia d) Nitrogen

38. Horizontal currents are common in

a) Lake b) Pond

c) River d) Sea

39. Deepest lake in the world

a) Baikal b) Oxbow

c) Lake superior d) Pulicat

Limnology 7

40. The depth of Baikal lake is

a) 720m b) 1620m

c) 2740m d) 4000m

41. Pistia sp is otherwise known as

a) Water lily b) Water lettuce

c) Lotus d) Duck weed

42. Nymphaea sp is called as

a) Water lettuce b) Water flea

c) Water lily d) Eel grass

43. Abioseston is also known as

a) Neuston b) Pleuston

c) Tripton d) Nekton

44. Copper sulphatepentahydrate is commercially known as

a) Simacone b) Blue stone

c) Acrolin d) Gypsum

45. The safe limits of Cu in drinking water

a) 1 to 3 ppm b) 20 to 25 ppm

c) 2.3 to 12.0 ppm d) 0.65 to 0.1 ppm

46. Organisms inhabiting the open water

a) Littoral b) Limnetic

c) Benthos d) Nektons
8 Fisheries Question Bank

47. Organisms inhabiting the bottom

a) Littoral b) Limnetic

c) Benthos d) None

48. Stanely reservoir is also known as

a) Mettur b) Bhavanisagar

c) Sathanur d) Aliyar

49. Cyanobacteria fix this compound

a) Phosphorus b) Nitrogen

c) Carbon d) Silicon Sulphur

50. The limiting nutrient in many fresh water system

a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus

c) Carbon d) Potash

51. The size ranges of nano plankton

a) 5µm b) 70-100 µm

c) 5-70 µm d)>100 µm

52. Sulphur bottom is caused by

a) Cocareiscerticola b) Spirulina

c) Rhizosolennia d) Chaetoceras

53. Pasture of the sea

a) Dinofalgellates b) Diatoms

c) Phytoplankton d) Zooplankton
Limnology 9

54. In natural water, ammonia salts commonly occur in the form of

a) Ammonium sulphate b) Ammonium carbonate

c) Ammonium bicarbonate d) NH4+

55. The planktonic dinoflagellates belong to the class

a) Auorophyceae b) Pyrrophyceae

c) Cyanophyceae d) Euglenophyceae

56. Nitrogen is converted into nitrate by

a) Nitrifying bacteria b) Denitrifying bacteria

c) Sulphur bacteria d) Virus

57. Aquatic productivity of fish pond s influenced by

a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus

c) N&P d) None of these

58. After eutrophication a lake becomes

a) Oligotrophic b) Dystrophic

c) Bog d) Reservoir

59. An organophosphate pesticides

a) Aldine b) DDT

c) Malathion d) Bleaching powder

60. As per Hutchinson classification, haptobenthos is termed as

a) Rhizobenthos b) Nekton

c) Epiphytes d) Periphyton
10 Fisheries Question Bank

61. The carbon di-oxide in pond water will not allow pH to fall below

a) 3.0 b) 3.5

c) 4.0 d) 4.5

62. Which of following is toxic to fish?

a) Nitrate nitrogen b) Nitrite nitrogen

c) Ionized ammonia d) Unionized ammonia

63. The branch of science dealing with the study of running water is

a) Limnology b) Limnobiology

c) Rheology d) Oceanology

64. Mean breath can be calculated from

a) b =A/l b) A=l/b

c) 1=b/A d) None of these

65. Excess peat matter is found in

a) Bog lake b) Oligotrophic lake

c) Mesotrophic d) Dystrophic

66. Size of Mega plankton is-

a) > 1 cm b) 1 mm – 1 cm

c) 0.5 – 1 mm d) >60 micron

67. Size of Macro plankton is-

a) > 1 cm b) 1 mm – 1 cm

c) 0.5 – 1 mm d) >60 micron

Limnology 11

68. Size of Meso plankton is-

a) > 1 cm b) 1 mm – 1 cm

c) 0.5 – 1 mm d) >60 micron

69. Size of Micro plankton is-

a) > 1 cm b) 1 mm – 1 cm

c) 0.5 – 1 mm d) >60 micron

70. Size of Nanoplankton is

a) >60 micron b) >5 micron

c) < 5 micron d) None

71. Size of Ultraplankton is

a) >60 micron b) >5 micron

c) < 5 micron d) None

72. “Lake as Microcosm” was described by

a) F A Fore b) Forbes

c) Hutchinson d) F Ruttner

73. Book “Treatise of Limnology” was written by

a) F A Forel b) Forbes

c) Hutchinson d) F Ruttner

74. Which is the first & also the oldest known limnological instrument?

a) Plankton net b) Thermometer

c) Sechii disc d) Haemocytometer

12 Fisheries Question Bank

75. .………… covers the maximum part of the Surface water (Freshwater)?

a) Lakes b) Swamps

c) Rivers d) Oceans

76. What is the genesis of lotic waters?

a) Brooks – Rivulets – Channels – Rivers

b) Rivulets – Brooks – Channels – Rivers

c) Rivulets – Channels – Brooks – Rivers

d) Brooks – Rivulets – Rivers – Channels

77. What is the genesis of lentic waters?

a) Swamps – Ponds - Lakes

b) Lakes – Swamps - Ponds

c) Lake – Pond - Swamp

d) Swamp- Lake - Pond

78. In ………… ponds water exists only in the spring season.

a) Autumnal Ponds

b) Vernal Ponds

c) Aestival Ponds

d) Vernal Autumnal ponds

79. In ………… ponds water exists throughout the year but freezes during the
winter Season.

a) Autumnal Ponds

b) Vernal Ponds

c) Aestival Ponds

d) Vernal Autumnal ponds

Limnology 13

80. …………. lakes are few in number but are one of the largest & the oldest lakes?
a) Aeolian lakes b) Tectonically formed lakes

c) Glacial lakes d) Caldera

81. …………. lakes have round basin?

a) Aeolian lakes b) Tectonically formed lakes

c) Glacial lakes d) Caldera / Caldera

82. …………is also called as “Jewel of Kashmir”

a) Niki lake b) Wular lake

c) Dull lake d) Powailake

83. Which lake is popular for the presence of its “Floating Phumpids”.

a) Hebbal lake b) Powai Lake

c) Loktak Lake d) Dal Lake

84. ……….is the India’s largest coastal lagoon in India?

a) Hebbal lake b) Powai Lake

c) Chilka Lake d) Dal Lake

85. ………… lake is also known as “Gandipet”.

a) Gandhi Sagar lake b) Govindsagar lake

c) Osman sagar lake d) G.B Pant Sagar

86. ………….is the largest artificial lake of India?

a) Hebbal lake b) Powai Lake

c) Upper Lake d) Dal Lake

14 Fisheries Question Bank

87. …………..is the Largest Fresh water lake of India?

a) Chilka lake b) Superior lake

c) Dull lake d) Wularlake

88. …………..is the Largest Fresh water lake of World?

a) Chilka lake b) Superior lake

c) Dull lake d) Wularlake

89. …………..is the Largest Brackish water lake of India?

a) Chilka lake b) Superior lake

c) Dull lake d) Wularlake

90. …………..is the Largest Saline water lake of India?

a) Chilka lake b) Sambhar lake

c) Dull lake d) Wularlake

91. …………..is the Deepest Fresh water lake of World?

a) Superior lake b) Baikal lake

c) Titicaca lake d) Wularlake

92. ………..is a pear shaped lake?

a) Nainital Lake b) Chilka lake

c) Bhimtallake d) Vembanadlake

93. ………..is a crescent shaped lake?

a) Nainital Lake b) Chilka lake

c) Bhimtallake d) Vembanadlake
Limnology 15

94. Which lake has recently got certificate from Marine Stewardship Council
of India?

a) Vembanad lake b) Ashtamundi lake

c) Chilkalake d) Upper lake

95. Thermocline is also called as-

a) Epilimnion b) Metalimnion

c) Hypolimnion d) All

96. Mixing of lake from top to bottom is called as-

a) Holomictic b) Meromictic

c) Neuromictic d) Heteromictic

97. ………..is also called as False mixing.

a) Meromictic b) Holomictic

c) Neuromictic d) Heteromictic

98. Mixing of lake from top to bottom in one direction is known as

a) Holomictic b) Meromictic

c) Neuromictic d) Heteromictic

99. ………..is also called as the Grass of Aquatic ecosystem?

a) Aquatic grasses b) Benthos

c) Zooplankton d) Phytoplankton

100. ………..curve is obtained while plotting the distribution of Oxygen & carbon
di oxide in oligotrophic lakes?

a) Orthograde b) Clinograde

c) Analogous d) Hetrograde
16 Fisheries Question Bank

101. ………..curve is obtained while plotting the distribution of Oxygen & carbon
di oxide in eutrophic lakes?

a) Orthograde b) Clinograde

c) Analogous d) Hetrograde

102. Which of the following property constitute the optical properties of water?

a) Turbidity b) Transparency

c) Conductivity d) Both A & B

103. There are ……….. phases in the life of any reservoir?

a) 2 b) 3

c) 4 d) 5

104. Shore line Index of a reservoir should always be

a) >1 b) <1

c) 0 d) -ve

105. Which is the largest reservoir of India?

a) Hirakund b) Indirasagar

c) BhakraNagal d) Farraka Dam

106. Which is the first reservoir of independent India?

a) Hirakund b) Indirasagar

c) BhakraNagal d) Farraka Dam

107. Which is the first scientically designed reservoir of India?

a) Hirakund b) Indirasagar

c) Stanley d) Farraka Dam

Limnology 17

108. …… is the transition zone between terrestrial & aquatic ecosystem?

a) Swamps b) Bogs

c) Fens d) All

109. Mangrooves are?

a) Marshes b) Swamps

c) Bogs d) Fens

110. ………… is also called as false bottom.

a) Marshes b) Swamps

c) Bogs d) Fens

111. ………..is dominated by acidic mosses i.e. Sphagnum.

a) Marshes b) Swamps

c) Bogs d) Fens

112. …………is dominated by grasses i.e. Reeds & Sedges.

a) Marshes b) Swamps

c) Bogs d) Fens

113. …………..is characterized by presence of No trees / Shrubs?

a) Marshes b) Swamps

c) Bogs d) Fens

114. ………. estuary are not found in India?

a) Open estuary b) Fjord

c) Blind estuary d) Bar built estuaries

18 Fisheries Question Bank

115. ………. estuary are formed by the glacial activity?

a) Open estuary

b) Fjord

c) Blind estuary

d) Bar built estuaries

116. Father of limnology -

a) J. Lorenz b) V. Hansen

c) F. Simony d) F.A.Forel

117. The word plankton was coined by__________

a) Ernst hackle b) V. Hansen

c) F.A.Forel d) John Leslie

118. In estuaries _______is the most crucial factor

a) Salinity b) pH

c) Temperature d) Dissolved oxygen

119. NIO is located in ________

a) Dona Paula b) Delhi
c) Cochin d) Mumbai

120. Preliminary treatment of sewage ________

a) Screen larger objects
b) Removes only floating material
c) Kills pathogens

d) None
Limnology 19

121. Environmental protection act came into force in ___________

a) 1972 b) 1986
c) 2001 d) 1897

122. Animals having wide range of temperature tolerance______________

a) Stenothermic b) Eurythermic

c) Homeothermic d) Poikilothermic

123. The larval forms which are present temporarily as plankton are called
___________

a) Holoplankton b) Rheoplankton

c) Macro plankton d) Meroplankton

124. Red tide occurs when there is bloom of _____________

a) Diatoms b) Dinoflagellates

c) Coccolithopores d) None

125. The oceanic province which extends from 200-1000 meters in depth is
___________zone

a) Hadopelagic b) Abyss pelagic

c) Mesopelagic d) Bathypelagic

126. Water bodies containing low concentrations of nutrient are called __________

a) Oligotrophic b) Eutrophic

c) Geotrophic d) Dystrophic
20 Fisheries Question Bank

127. The process of oxidation of No2 to No3 by nitrifying bacteria is called as

____________

a) Carbonification b) Ammonification

c) Nitrification d) Denitrification

128. Blue book is a combination of ____________

a) Endangered species b) Animal species

c) Protected plants d) Insect species

129. Azolla fixes nitrogen with the help of _________

a) Chlorella b) Anabaena

c) Tetraselmis d) Spirulina

130. The assemblage of living and non living components floating in

water__________

a) Plankton b) Seston

c) Periphyton d) Saproplankton

131. The test used to assess the level of pollution is __________

a) BOD b) Alkalinity

c) Acidity d) Odor

132. The organisms, which live attached to foreign body are, known as_________

a) Benthos b) Nekton

c) Periphyton d) Seston

133. Oxbow lakes are formed due to ____________

a) River meandering b) Volcanic eruption

c) Flooding d) Cyclones
Limnology 21

134. Fresh water dolphin is found in ______________

a) Ganga river b) Mahanadi

c) Tapti river d) Godavari

135. Euphotic zone is characterized by _____________

a) High productivity b) Low productivity

c) Low temperature d) High turbidity

136. The endangered fresh water fish _____________

a) Tor putitoria b) Clariasbatrachus

c) Labeocalbasu d) Labeo beta

137. Minamita disease is due to ____________

a) Cadmium b) Mercury

c) Lead d) Cyanide

138. The effect of EL Nino occurred on which of the following fish?

a) Californian sardine b) Alaskan Pollock

c) Peruvian anchovy d) Blue greedier

139. The steep, torrential upper zone of the river is _________

a) Rhithron b) Potamon

c) Riffles d) Rapids

140. Potamoplankton is the plankton of _________

a) Ponds b) Household pot

c) Lotic waters d) Lakes

22 Fisheries Question Bank

141. C 14 technique was introduced by__________

a) Gardner and gram b) Ward and whippier

c) Steel man and nelson d) Kreps and verbenkia

 2 Microbiology

1. Tyndallization is used to sterilize the materials which are

a) Heat stable b) Heat sensitive

c) Soft substances d) None of the above

2. Blood plasma, being highly heat labile, is sterilized by

a) Moist Heat b) Dry heat

c) Filtration d) Fractional sterilization

3. The Kingdom ‘Protista’ as proposed by Haeckel includes

a) Bacteria b) Fungi and Bacteria

c) Virus d) Unicellular microorganisms

4. The resolution of a microscope gives

a) Distinction between closely occurring cells

b) Magnified observation of cell

c) Greater illumination of objects

d) None of the above

24 Fisheries Question Bank

5. Phase contrast microscopes can be very useful to observe the undistorted

morphological features of

a) Dead cells b) Live cells

c) Stained cells d) None of the above

6. An electron microscope uses

a) Monochromatic light b) U-V light

c) Electron beam d) All of the above

7. Occurrence of bacteria like a bunch of grapes is found in

a) Streptococci b) Diplococci

c) Tetrads d) Staphylococci

8. Which one of the following is odd to bacterial flagellum

a) S-ring b) P-ring

c) R-ring d) M-ring

9. Find out the odd component in concern with the cell wall of gram negative
bacteria

a)Peptidoglycan b)Teichoic acid

c) Lipopolysaccharides d) Porin protein

10. A protoplast can be possible in an environment which is

a) Hypotonic b) Hypertonic

c) Isotonic d) Osmotic

11. Absorbptive nutrition is shown by-

a) Bacteria b) Fungi

c) Protozoan d) All
Microbiology 25

12. “Microbiology” is a

a) Latin word b) French word

c) Greek word d) Dutch word

13. All cell membranes are made up of

a) Glycolipids b) Phospholipids

c) Sphingolipids d) phareolipids

14. “Pleomorphic” is

a) A bacteria which can vary its shape

b) A bacteria which can vary its size

c) Lacks a characteristic form

d) All

15. Which is not true for gram +ve bacteria?

a) Retains crystal violet stain

b) Thick layer of peptidoglycan

c) Single layer of peptidoglycan

d) Absence of Teichoic acid

16. Gram –ve bacteria retains

a)Crystal violet b) Methyl blue

c) Rose Bengal d) Safranin

17. Gram +ve bacteria retains

a) Crystal violet b) Methyl blue

c) Rose Bengal d) Safranin

26 Fisheries Question Bank

18. Cytosol is

a) Solid component of Cytoplasm

b) Liquid component of Cytoplasm

c) Gaseous component of Cytoplasm

d) All

19. Bacteria which lack Flagella is called as

a) Amphitrichous b) Atrichous

c) Monotrichous d) Lophotrichous

20. Bacteria which has only one Flagella is called as

a) Amphitrichous b) Atrichous

c) Monotrichous d) Lophotrichous

21. Bacteria which has each flagella at one end is called as

a) Amphitrichous b) Atrichous

c) Monotrichous d) Lophotrichous

22. Bacteria which has two or more flagella at one end is called as

a) Amphitrichous b) Atrichous

c) Monotrichous d) Lophotrichous

23. Which acid gives resistance to harsh environment to spores?

a) Phosphoric acid b) Phosphonic acid

c) Dipicolinic acid d) Nitrous acid

24. Filamentous bacteria comes under

a) Actinomycetes b) Spirochaetes

c) Cyanobacteria d) Ricketisiae
Microbiology 27

25. Potato blight is due to

a) Mycoplasma b) Bacteria

c) Fungi d) All

26. Enzyme containing Stroma are present in

a) Chloroplast b) Nucleus

c) Mitochondria d) Nucleolus

27. Histones are

a) Positively charged b) Negatively Charged

c) Neutral d) Depends on Cell organelle

28. Vegetative structure of Fungus is called as-

a) Hyphae b) Thallus

c) Stroma c) Spore

29. ……….is called as Sac Fungi

a) Zygomycota b) Ascomycota

c) Basidiomycota d) Deuteromycota

30. ……….is called as Club Fungi

a) Zygomycota b) Ascomycota

c) Basidiomycota d) Deuteromycota

31. ……….is called as Fungi Imperfecti

a) Zygomycota b) Ascomycota

c) Basidiomycota d) Deuteromycota
28 Fisheries Question Bank

32. Lichens is a …………… relationship of Algae & Fungi.

a) Commensalism b) Ammensalism

c) Symbiosis d) Prey - Predator

33. …………..is rich in Vitamin A&B.

a) Green algae b) Golden brown algae

c) Brown algae d) Dinoflagellates

34. …………..is rich in Vitamin A&E.

a) Green algae b) Golden brown algae

c) Brown algae d) Dinoflagellates

35. …………..is rich in Vitamin A&C.

a) Green algae b) Golden brown algae

c) Brown algae d) Red algae

36. …………..is rich in Vitamin A&D.

a) Green algae b) Golden brown algae

c) Brown algae d) Red algae

37. Phaeophyta is

a) Green algae b) Golden brown algae

c) Brown algae d) Red algae

38. Clorophyta is

a) Green algae b) Golden brown algae

c) Brown algae d) Dinoflagellates

Microbiology 29

39. Chrysophyta is

a) Green algae b) Golden brown algae

c) Brown algae d) Dinoflagellates

40. Rhodophyta is

a) Green algae b) Golden brown algae

c) Brown algae d) Red algae

41. Protein coat of Virus is called as

a) Virion b) Capsid

c) Capsomere d) Spikes

42. Unit of Virus is called as

a) Virion b) Capsid

c) Capsomere d) Spikes

43. Magnification power of Oil immersion lens is

a)10X b) 25X

c) 50X d) 100X

44. Acidic stains are

a) Positively charged b) Negatively charged

c) Neutral d) None

45. Basic stains are

a) Positively charged b) Negatively charged

c) Neutral d) None
30 Fisheries Question Bank

46. Among the following which is not a acidic stain

a) Eosin Red b) Acid fuschim

c) Rose Bengal d) Safranin

47. What is the optimum temperature for a Psychrophilic bacteria?

a) 15⁰ C b) 20⁰ C

c) 37⁰ C d) 60⁰ C

48. What is the optimum temperature for a Mesoophilic bacteria?

a) 15⁰ C b) 20⁰ C

c) 37⁰ C d) 60⁰ C

49. What is the optimum temperature for a Psychrotrophic bacteria?

a) 15⁰ C b) 20⁰ C

c) 37⁰ C d) 60⁰ C

50. What is the optimum temperature for a Thermohilic bacteria?

a) 15⁰ C b) 20⁰ C

c) 37⁰ C d) 60⁰ C

51. Bacteria that grows in sugar solution is

a) Osmophile b) Xerophile

c) Halophile d) Alkinophile

52. Bacteria that grows in low moisture is

a) Osmophile b) Xerophile

c) Halophile d) Alkinophile
Microbiology 31

53. Process of converting Ammonia to nitrite is called as

a) Nitrogen fixation b) Ammonifcation

c) Nitrosofication d) Nitritification

54. Process of converting Nitrite to nitriae is called as

a) Nitrogen fixation b) Ammonifcation

c) Nitrosofication d) Nitrification

55. Process of converting Nitrate to Nitrogen is called as

a) Nitrogen fixation b) Denitrification

c) Nitrosofication d) Nitritification

56. Process of converting Nitrogen to ammonia is called as

a) Nitrogen fixation b) Ammonifcation

c) Nitrosofication d) Nitritification

57. Nitrosomonas & Nitrococcus helps in

a) Nitrogen fixation b) Ammonifcation

c) Nitrosofication d) Nitritification

58. Nitrobacter helps in

a) Nitrogen fixation b) Ammonifcation

c) Nitrosofication d) Nitrification

59. Thiobacillus denitrificans helps in

a) Nitrogen fixation b) Denitrification

c) Nitrosofication d) Nitritification
32 Fisheries Question Bank

60. Desulfovibrio & Desulphuricans are

a) Sulphur oxidizer b) Sulphur reducer

c) Nitrogen oxidizer d) Nitrogen reducer

61. Thiobacillus denitrifican is a

a) Sulphur oxidizer b) Sulphur reducer

c) Nitrogen oxidizer d) Nitrogen reducer

62. Barotolerant bacteria tolerate pressure upto

a) 50 atm b) 100 atm

c) 200 atm d) 400 atm

63. Epitope is present at

a) Antigen b) Antibody

c) Both d) On killer cells

64. Paratope is present at

a)Antigen b) Antibody

c) Both d) On killer cells

65. Antibody is a

a) Immunoprotein b) Glycoprotein

c) Phosphoprotein d) Both A & B

66. Antibody has ……… peptide chains.

a) 2 b) 3

c) 4 d) 5
Microbiology 33

67. Antibody has …….heavy chain & ……… light chain.

a) 4&4 b) 2&2

c) 4&2 d) 2&4

68. There are ……… different types of Antibody.

a) 4 b) 5

c) 6 d) 8

69. Solidifying agent in Agar broath is

a) Agar b) Broath

c) Both d) G-Gel

70. Liquidifying agent in Agar broath is

a) Agar b) Broath

c) Both d) G-Gel

71. ……….. Used by gram negative bacteria for sexual reproduction & also for
movement.

a) Flagella b) Pilli

c) Fimbriae d) Foot

72. HACCP follows ………… number of principles.

a) 5 b) 6

c) 7 d) 8
 3 Aquaculture Engineering

1. In which type of Surveying Shape of the Earth is considered?

a) lane Surveying b) Geodetic Surveying

c) Both d) None

2. Geodetic Surveying is also known as the?

a) Plane Surveying

b) Trigonometric Surveying

c) Angular Surveying

d) All

3. Length of a link in a Chain?

a) is a distance between the centers of two consecutive middle rings

b) is a distance between two handles

c) is a distance between two ends of chain

d) is a distance between two closely placed chains

Aquaculture Engineering 35

4. Length of Gunter’s chain is?

a) 100 feet b) 50 feet

c) 56 feet d) 66 feet

5. Gunter’s chain consists of how many links?

a) 100 b) 50

c) 56 d)66

6. Gunter’s chain is also known as?

a) Engineers Chain b) Surveyors chain

c) Angular Chain d) Aquaculture Chain

7. Length of Engineer’s chain is?

a) 100 feet b) 50 feet

c) 56 feet d) 66 feet

8. Engineer’s chain consists of how many links?

a) 100 b) 50

c) 56 d) 66

9. Length of Revenue chain is?

a) 100 feet b) 50 feet

c) 56 feet d) 33 feet

10. Revenue chain consists of how many links?

a) 100 b) 50

c) 56 d) 16
36 Fisheries Question Bank

11. Among the following statement which statement is not true with regards
of aquaculture engineering?

a) Chains are more accurate than tapes

b) Pegs are used to mark the positions of the stations or terminal points of
survey lines

c) Ranging rods are used for the rough measurement of short length

d) Plum bobs is used to transfer the points to the ground

12. ……. Is the process of fixing or estabilishing intermediate points?

a) Ranging b) Chaining

c) Taping d) Peging

13. Among the following statement which statement is true with regards of
aquaculture engineering?

a) It is easier to measure uphill than the downhill

b) The more experienced person remains at zero end in chaining

c) The more experienced person remains at moving end in chaining

d) Smallest of the main survey lines is called as Base line

14. Among the following instrument is used in measuring angles?

a) Sextant b) Theodolite

c) Both d) Compass

15. It is the direction shown by the free floating and balanced magnetic needles?

a) True Meridian

b) Prime Meridian

c) Magnetic Meridian

d) Magnetic Poles
Aquaculture Engineering 37

16. It is the line, in which a plane passing through that point and N and S poles
intersects with surface of earth?

a) True Meridian

b) Prime Meridian

c) Compass Meridian

d) Magnetic Poles

17. Lines having Zero declination is known as the?

a) Isogonic lines

b) Zoogonic lines

c) Orbital lines

d) Agonic lines

18. Lines having same declination is known as the?

a) Isogonic lines

b) Zoogonic lines

c) Orbital lines

d) Agonic lines

19. Any Surface to which elevations are refered is known as?

a) Level line b) Bench Mark

c) Datum d) Station

20. Mean sea level is the average height of sea for all stages of tides, It is derived
by heights of …….years?

a) 7 b) 18

c) 19 d) 20
38 Fisheries Question Bank

21. It is the last reading taken on a rod held on a point of unknown elevations?

a) Back Sight b) Fore Sight

c) First Point d) Last point

22. Contour is a?

a) Difference in elevation between two points

b) Vertical distance with respect to horizontal line

c) A station point where the level rod is held

d) Imaginary line on the ground joining the points of two equal elevation.

23. Gravels are the example of?

a) Cohesive soils

b) Non cohesive soils

c) Waterproof soils

d) Aquaculture soils

24. ……. Ponds are created by constructing a dyke or embankment across the
water?

a) Excavated ponds

b) Embankment ponds

c) Both

d) None

25. ……. Ponds are created by excavating a pit across the source of water?

a) Excavated ponds

b) Embankment ponds

c) Both

d) None
Aquaculture Engineering 39

26. Size of the clay particles is ...............

a) <0.002mm b) 0.002 to 0.02 mm

c) 0.02 to 2 mm d) >2 mm

27. Size of the Silt particles is .................

a) <0.002mm b) 0.002 to 0.02 mm

c) 0.02 to 2 mm d) >2 mm

28. Size of the Sand particles is .............

a) <0.002mm b) 0.002 to 0.02 mm

c) 0.02 to 2 mm d) >2 mm

29. If the voids of soil is completely filled with water content such a sample
is called as?

a) Purely dried Sample

b) Purely Saturated Sample

c) Moist Smple

d) None

30. If the voids of soil is completely filled with air content such a sample is
called as?

a) Purely dried Sample

b) Purely Saturated Sample

c) Moist Smple

d) None

31. …..% of total area of fish farm is used in preparing a Nursery pond?

a) 5% b) 10%

c) 20% d) 75%
40 Fisheries Question Bank

32. …..% of total area of fish farm is used in preparing a Rearing pond?

a) 5% b) 10%

c) 20% d) 75%

33. …..% of total area of fish farm is used in preparing a Stocking pond?

a) 5% b) 10%

c) 20% d) 75%

34. What is the Ideal side slope of the pond having clayey soil?

a) 1:1 b) 1.5:1

c) 2:1 d) 2.5:1

35. What is the Ideal side slope of the pond having loamy soil?

a) 1:1 b) 1.5:1

c) 2:1 d) 2.5:1

36. What is the correct formulae of freeboard of aquaculture pond?

a) F =3√H b) H.F =0.3√H

c) H.F =√3H d) H.F =√0.3H

37. ……. Is the point where the dyke slope meets the pond bottom?

a) Toe b) Trench

c) Line of Spectrum d) Bottom width

38. Raceways are ……. based aquaculture systems?

a) ater b) Soil

c) Air d) Land
Aquaculture Engineering 41

39. Reciprocating and Rotary pumps are?

a) Positive displacement pumps

b) Negative displacement pumps

c) Variable displacement pumps

d) None

40. Centrifugal, Propeller, Jet and Air lift pumps are?

a) Positive displacement pumps

b) Negative displacement pumps

c) Variable displacement pumps

d) None

41. 1Hp is equal to

a) 746 Watts b) 744 Watts

c) 742 Watts d) 740 Watts

42. Drive efficiency of V Belt drive is?

a) 0-90% b) 90-95%

c) 95% d) 99%

43. t is the 1st reading taken on a rod held on a point of known elevations?

a) Back Sight b) Fore Sight

c) First Point d) Last point

44. What is the ideal side slope of the pond having sandy soil?

a) 1:1 b) 1.5:1

c) 2:1 d) 2.5:1
42 Fisheries Question Bank

45. What is the ratio of Sand, Silt and Clay in a soil which is proved to be
conductive for aquaculture purposes?

a) 3:1:2 b) 2:1:3

c) 1:2:2 d) 3:2:1
 4 Aquatic Pollution

1. Rivularia and oscillatoria gives……….. odour to water?

a) Strong grassy

b) Mild grassy

c) Muddy

d) Fishy

2. Anabaena gives……….. odour to water?

a) Strong grassy

b) Mild grassy

C) Muddy

d) Fishy

3. Dinobryon (Protozoan)……….. odour to water?

a) Strong grassy

b) Mild grassy

c) Muddy

d) Fishy
44 Fisheries Question Bank

4. Sewage contains ……% of water?

a) 1% b) 70%

c) 99% d) 30%

5. Sewage contains ……% of solid?

a) 1% b) 70%

c) 99% d) 30%

6. Sewage contains ……% of organic matter?

a) 1% b) 70%

c) 99% d) 30%

7. Sewage contains ……% of inorganic matter?

a) 1% b) 70%

c) 99% d) 30%

8. ……… is the rate of removal of oxygen by microorganism in the aerobic

degradation of organic matter in water?

a) Biological oxygen demand

b) Chemical oxygen demand

c) Biochemical oxygen demand

d) Both A and C

9. ………..is a measure of the Oxygen requirement of organic matter in the

sample that is susceptible to oxidation by strong chemical oxidants.

a) Biological oxygen demand

b) Chemical oxygen demand

c) Biochemical oxygen demand

d) Both A and C
Aquatic Pollution 45

10. According to Shannon and Weiner’s Diversity Index Clean water has Diversity
Index (H)

a) >1 b) >2

c) >3 d) >4

11. There are …. stages in Sewage Treatment plants?

a) 5 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

12. …………. stages is mainly focused on the removal of large solids?

a) Preliminary b) Primary

c) Secondary d) Tertiary

13. Trickling filters are used in ……….. stage of sewage treatment?

a) Preliminary b) Primary

c) Secondary d) Tertiary

14. Aeration ponds are used in ……….. stage of sewage treatment?

a) Preliminary b) Primary

c) Secondary d) Tertiary

15. Oxidation ponds are used in ……….. stage of sewage treatment?

a) Preliminary b) Primary

c) Secondary d) Tertiary

16. ………….. is the sewage free from the faecal matter?

a) Sewage b) Sulage

c) Sludge d) None
46 Fisheries Question Bank

17. …………… it is the part of sewage which is settled at the bottom?

a) Sewage b) Sulage

c) Sludge d) None

18. A commonly used oxidant in COD assay is ………………….. which is used in

combination with boiling……. To achieve the acidity.

a) Sulphuric acid & Pottasium di chromate

b) Nitrous acid &Pottasium di chromate

c) Pottasium di chromate& Nitrous acid

d) Potassium di chromate & Sulphuric acid

19. BOD of good water is between?

a) 0.1-0.2 mg/l b) 1-2 mg/l

c) 10-20 mg/l d) 100-200 mg/l

20. Which among the following is a “Rate limiting minimum nutrient”?

a) Nitrogen b) Phosphorus

c) Carbon d) Potassium

21. Glyphosate is a?

a) Herbicide b) Rodenticide

c) Molluscicide d) Bactericides

22. Warfarin is a?

a) Herbicide b) Rodenticide

c) Molluscicide d) Bactericides
Aquatic Pollution 47

23. Simazine is a?

a) Herbicide b) Rodenticide

c) Molluscicide d) Bactericides

24. Baluscide is a?

a) Herbicide b) Rodenticide

c) Molluscicide d) Bactericides

25. …….. is the most conspicuous pollutatnt for sea?

a) Plastics b) Bacteria

c) Oil d) DDT

26. …………… particles are present everywhere in the ocean?

a) Polyethylene b) Polypropylene

c) Polystyrene d) Phenolic

27. There are ……. POP’s (Persistent organic pollutants)?

a) 9 b) 10

c) 11 D) 12

28. Paul Hermann Muller got nobel prize for DDT in the year?

a) 1929 b) 1939

c) 1940 d) 1948

29. ……….. is present in the medicated shampoos?

a) Lindane b) PCBs

c) POPs d) Drins
48 Fisheries Question Bank

30. Paints and plastics are the example of?

a) Lindane b) PCBs

c) POPs d) Drins

31. .………. Is the increase in the level of pollutant across the food chain?

a) Bioaccumulation b) Biomagnification

c) Bioextraction d) Bioaugmentation

32. Heavy metals have specific gravity > ……?

a) 4 b) 5

c) 6 d) 7

33. ……….. is used in the production of Caustic Soda?

a) Lead b) Mercury

c) Cadmium d) Arsenic

34. Minamata toxicity is caused due to?

a) Lead b) Mercury

c) Cadmium d) Arsenic

35. Acrodynia (A Pink disease) is caused due to?

a) Lead b) Mercury

c) Cadmium d) Arsenic

36. Dancing Cat disease is caused due to?

a) Lead b) Mercury

c) Cadmium d) Arsenic
Aquatic Pollution 49

37. Itai itai / Auch auch is caused due to?

a) Lead b) Mercury

c) Cadmium d) Arsenic

38. Pica behaviour is caused due to?

a) Lead b) Mercury

c) Cadmium d) Arsenic

39. Black foot disease is caused due to?

a) Lead b) Mercury

c) Cadmium d) Arsenic

40. Plumbism is caused due to?

a) Lead b) Mercury

c) Cadmium d) Arsenic

41. ……… form is the most toxic form of Lead?

a) Tetraethyl lead b) Organic lead

c) Inorganic lead d) Merthy ethyl lead

42. Minamta disease was 1st observed in?

a)Phillipines b) China

c) Japan d) Malaysia

43. 1st incident of Minamta disease was observed in the year…… along minmata
bay, Japan?

a) 1945 b) 1956

c) 1965 d) 1951
50 Fisheries Question Bank

44. Sphaeretilus natans and Zoogloea are the example of?

a) Sewage bacteria

b) Sewage protozoan

c) Sewage Fungus

d) Sewage Plant

45. When microorganisms are incorporated to a contaminated site to enhance

the degradation then it is known as?

a) Bioaccumulation

b) Biomagnification

c) Bioextraction

d) Bioaugmentation

46. It is the process by which organic wastes are biologically degraded under
controlled condition?

a) Bioaccumulation

b) Biomagnification

c) Bioextraction

d) Bioremediation

47. It is the process used by plants to accumulate contaminants into the roots
and above ground shoots or leaves?

a) Phytoaccumulation

b) Phytotransformation

c) Phytostabilization

d) Phytodegradation
Aquatic Pollution 51

48. It is the process used by plants to uptake the organic contaminants from soil?

a) Phytoaccumulation

b) Phytotransformation

c) Phytostabilization

d) Phytodegradation

49. It is the technique used by plants to reduce the stability and migration of
contaminated soil?

a) Phytoaccumulation

b) Phytotransformation

c) Phytostabilization

d) Phytodegradation

50. It is the process used by plants to breakdown of contaminants?

a) Phytoaccumulation

b) Phytotransformation

c) Phytostabilization

d) Phytodegradation

51. Marine sediments has radioactivity of about?

a) 200-4000 Bq/Kg

b) 100-200 Bq/Kg

c) 700-1000 Bq/Kg

d) 0.1-1 Bq/Kg
52 Fisheries Question Bank

52. Marine sands has radioactivity of about?

a) 200-4000 Bq/Kg

b) 100-200 Bq/Kg

c) 700-1000 Bq/Kg

d) 0.1-1 Bq/Kg

53. Which seaweed accumulates heavy metals in itself?

a) Graciliaria b) Gelidium

c) Porphyra d) Fucus

54. Air act was passed in the year?

a) 1974 b) 1977

c) 1981 d) 1986

55. Water act was passed in the year?

a) 1974 b) 1977

c) 1981 d)1986

56. Water cess act was passed in the year?

a) 1974 b) 1977

c) 1981 d) 1986

57. Environment protection act was passed in the year?

a) 1974 b) 1977

c) 1981 d) 1986
Aquatic Pollution 53

58. CPCB (Central pollution control board) is at?

a) Hyderabad b) Bangalore

c) New Delhi d) Kochi

59. Ballast water is a?

a) Physical water b) Chemical water

c) Biological water d) All

60. Which mussel accumulates heavy metals in itself?

a) Perna indica b) Perna perna

c) Perna viridis d) Mytilus edulis

 5 Breeding of Finfishes

1. Carps contribute……...% of total aquaculture in our country?

a) 87 b) 77

c) 97 d) 67

2. Scientific name of Mud Carp?

a) Cirrhinus mrigala

b) Cirrhinus molitorella

c) Mylopharyngodon piceus

d) Cirrhinus cirrhosa

3. Which among the following is incorrect statement?

a) Pectoral fin of male has rough dorsal surface

b) Genital aperture in female is reddish and swollen

c) Body of male soft and swollen

d) IMC are heterosexual

Breeding of Finfishes 55

4. Age of professional brooders is?

a) 1 year b) 2-5 year

c) 5-7 year d) >7 years

5. Shooting net is a

a) Funnel shaped egg collection net

b) Funnel shaped spawn collection net

c) Dumble shaped Egg collection net

d) umble shaped Spawn collection net

6. Among the IMC which has the highest fecundity?

a) Catla b) Rohu

c) Mrigala d) All have same fecundity

7. Fry of IMC has ……….. number of undivided dorsal fin rays?

a) 11 b) <11

c) >11 d) Varies with species

8. 1st Dry bundh of India was located in

a) Madhya Pradesh (Nowgong district)

b) West Bengal

c) Andhra Pradesh

d) Rajasthan

9. Wet Bundhs are popular in the state of

a) Madhya Pradesh b) West Bengal

c) Andhra Pradesh d) Rajasthan

56 Fisheries Question Bank

10. % of Nitrogen in Urea?

a) 10% b) 20-22%

c) 33% d) 42-44%

11. % of Nitrogen in Liquid Nitrogen?

a) 10% b) 20-22%

c) 33% d) 42-44%

12. % of Nitrogen in Ammonium Nitrate?

a) 0% b) 20-22%

c) 33% d) 42-44%

13. % of Nitrogen in Ammonium Sulphate?

a) 10% b) 20-22%

c) 33% d) 42-44%

14. % of Phosphorus in SSP (Single Super Phosphate)?

a) 10% b) 16%

c) 33% d) 42-44%

15. Hypophysation was evolved in which country?

a) Brazil b) India

c) France d) China

16. 1st Successful Hypophysation in India was done on……….. by Chowdhary?

a) Nain b) Rohu

c) Esomus dendricus d) Catla

Breeding of Finfishes 57

17. Among the following which freshwater fish is preferred in the collection
of pituitary gland?

a) Rohu b) Nain

c) Silver Carp d) Common Carp

18. Among the following which marinewater fish is preferred in the collection
of pituitary gland?

a) Tachysurus b) Tuna

c) Sardine d) Mackerels

19. Injecting pituitary from one fish to another fish closely related to the donor
fish is known as?

a) Homoplastic b) Heteroplastic

c) Homobasic d) Heterobasic

20. Fish pituitary gland is located in a concave cavity known as?

a) Durameter b) Sellaturcica

c) Leptobasic d) Platybasic

21. Fish pituitary gland is enclosed by a thin membrane known as?

a) Durameter b) Sellaturcica

c) Leptobasic d) Platybasic

22. Fish pituitary gland is located at

a) Dorsal side of the brain

b) Ventral side of the brain

c) Outside the brain

d) Near Caudal peduncle

58 Fisheries Question Bank

23. Outer net of hatching hapa is made up of ………. and is ……… mm thick?

a) Mosquito net & 0.5mm

b) Bolting Cloth & 0.5 mm

c) Mosquito net & 2-2.5 mm

d) Bolting cloth & 2-2.5mm

24. Inner net of hatching hapa is made up of ………. and is ……… mm thick?

a) Mosquito net & 0.5mm

b) Bolting Cloth & 0.5 mm

c) Mosquito net & 2-2.5 mm

d) Bolting cloth & 2-2.5mm

25. Size of IMC Spawn is?

a) >6 b) <2.5mm

c) >8 mm d) >40mm

26. Size of IMC eggs is?

a) 4-8mm b) 3-5mm

c) >8 mm d) >40mm

27. Mahua oil cake contains ………. as a poison?

a) Rotenone b) Saponin

c) Mowrin d) Both B and C

28. Mahua oil cake contains ………. % saponin ?

a) 5% b) 4-6%

c) 8% d) 10%
Breeding of Finfishes 59

29. Derris root powder contains ………. As a poison?

a) Rotenone b) Saponin

c) Mowrin d) Both B and C

30. Derris root powder contains ………. % rotenone?

a) 5% b) 4-6%

c) 8% d) 10%

31. Most commonly used fish poison of plant origin?

a) Mahua oil cake

b) Derris root powder

c) Cube root powder

d) Endrin

32. Most poisonous chlorinated fish poison is?

a) Endrin b) Diendrin

c) Aldrin d) Malathion

33. …………. Is used in the removal of Aquatic Insects?

a) Raw Cow dung b) Mustard Oil cake

c) Mahua oil Cake d) Oil soap emulsion

34. Teepol B-300 is used in?

a) Removal of Aquatic weeds

b) Removal of Aquatic Insects

c) Removal of Predatory fishes

d) Removal of weed fishes

60 Fisheries Question Bank

35. Beetles belong to which family?

a) Hemiptera b) Coleoptera
c) donata d) Phononata

36. Dragon fly nymphs belong to which family?

a) Hemiptera b) Coleoptera

c) Odonata d) Phononata

37. Which of the following is used as a sedative for the fish seed transportation?

a) MS-222 b) Carbonic acid

c) Sodium amytal d) All

38. Scientific name of Bighead Carp?

a) Cirrhinus mrigala

b) Aristichthys nobilis

c) Mylopharyngodon piceus

d) Labeo rohita

39. Sumach is a ?

a) Purified HCG b) Crude HCG

c) Trade name d) Scientific name

40. Antiutrin is a?
a) Purified HCG b) Crude HCG
c) Trade name c) Scientific name

41. Ynahorin is the trade name of?

a) LH b) FSH

c.) GnRH d) HCG

Breeding of Finfishes 61

42. HCG is secreted during?

a) 9th to 12th week of Pregnanacy

b) 1st to 2nd week of Pregnanacy

c) 3rd to 4th week of Pregnanacy

d) 5th to 6th week of Pregnanacy

43. Ovaprim consists of

a) sGnRH + Domperidone

b) sGnRH + Primzoide

c) Mammalian GnRH + Analog

d) sGnRH+ Tomoxifen

44. Ovatide consists of

a) sGnRH + Domperidone

b) sGnRH + Primzoide

c) Mammalian GnRH + Analog

d) sGnRH+ Tomoxifen

45. Puberogen consists of

a) 63% LH+ 34% FSH

b) 63% FSH + 34% LH

c) 34% LH + 66% FSH

d) 66% FSH + 34% LH

46. Tilapia belongs to which family?

a) Serranidae b) Epinephalidae

c) Cichilidae d) Osphronemidae
62 Fisheries Question Bank

47. ……… is a substrate spawner?

a) Oreochromis sp. b) Sarotherodon sp.

c) Tilapia zilli d) None

48. Tilapia is a?

a) erbivore b) Omnivore

c) Planktivore d) Piscivore

49. “LEK” is what?

a) Breeding territory built by female tilapia

b) Breeding territory built by male tilapia

c) Feeding Nest built by male tilapia

d) Feeding Nest built by male tilapia

50. Triploid fishes are produced by?

a) Fusion of two diploid

b) Fusion Tetraploid and Diploid

c) Result of suppression of 2nd Cleavage

d) Result of suppression of 1st Cleavage

51. Grey mullets belongs to which family?

a) Serranidae b) Epinephalidae

c) Cichilidae d) Mugilidae

52. Milk fish belongs to which family?

a) Serranidae b) Epinephalidae

c) Cichilidae d) Chanidae
Breeding of Finfishes 63

53. Milk fish feeds on?

a) Lab lab b) Benthic algae

c) Surface algae d) Both A & B

54. Which fish is also known as the Bangur?

a) Mullets b) Tilapia

c) Milk fish d) Grouper

55. Scientific name of European Sea bass?

a) Lates calcarifer b) Dicentrachus labrax

c) Dicentrachus indica d) Cirrhinus cirrhosa

56. Which group of fishes exhibit lunar spawning rhythm?

a) Mullets b) Tilapia

c) Milk fish d) Grouper

57. Among the following which is a Protandrous Hermaphrodite?

a) Sea bass b) Trout

c) Grouper d) Tilapia

58. Among the following which is a Protogynous Hermaphrodite?

a) Sea bass b) Trout

c) Grouper d) Tilapia

59. Among the following which is banned in India?

a) Epinephalustauvina b) Epinephaluslanceolatus

c) Epinephalusikkar d) All
64 Fisheries Question Bank

60. Calculate the amount of broodstock required for the production of 50

million spawn, average fecundity of fish to be taken as 1 lakh / kg. Also
involve 30% as a risk factor?

a) 300 Kg b) 500 Kg

c) 1000 Kg d) 650 kg

61. ……… maternal mouth brooder?

a) Oreochromis sp. b) Sarotherodon sp.

c) Tilapia zilli d) None

62. ……… paternal / biparental mouth brooder?

a) Oreochromis sp.

b) Sarotherodon sp.

c) Tilapia zilli

d) None

63. Tetraploid fishes are produced by?

a) Fusion of two diploid

b) Fusion Tetraploid and Diploid

c) Result of suppression of 2nd Cleavage

d) Result of suppression of 1st Cleavage

64. Which is the India’s first transparent hatching device?

a) Hatching Hapa

b) Hatching incubator

c) Glass jar hatchery

d) LDPE Hatchery
Breeding of Finfishes 65

65. Credit of LDPE Hatchery goes to?

a) Chowdhary b) Khan H

c) S N Dwiwedi d) S Aayapan

66. Credit of Glass jar Hatchery goes to?

a) Chowdhary b) Khan H

c) Bhowmick d) S Aayapan

67. Kakabans are used in the breeding of?

a) Silver carp b) Grass carp

c) Common carp d) All

 6 Shellfish Breeding

1. Mating in shrimps is carried out by?

a) Hard shelled male and hard shelled female

b) Hard shelled male and soft shelled female

c) Only active male

d) Only active females

2. Mating depression in shrimp culture is carried out by?

a) Hard shelled male and hard shelled female

b) Hard shelled male and soft shelled female

c) Only active male

d) Only active females

3. Premating Embrace in shrimp culture is carried out by?

a) Hard shelled male and hard shelled female

b) Hard shelled male and soft shelled female

c) only active male

d) Only active females

Shellfish Breeding 67

4. Testes of male prawn consists of how many lobes?

a) lobes b) 4 lobes

c) 5 lobes d) 6 lobes

5. Size of spermatozoa in shrimps is about?

a) 3 micron b) 4 micron

c) 5 micron d) 6 micron

6. Saddle, which is present at the 1st abdominal segment in females is a?

a) Ovipositor

b) Feeding appendeges

c) Nourishment apparatus for feeding to young ones

d) None

7. Petasma is present in?

a) Male shrimps b) Female Shrimps

c) Both d) None

8. Appendix masculina is present in?

a) Male shrimps b) Female Shrimps

c) Both d) None

9. Appendix masculina is present at?

a) 1st Pleopod of male

b) 2nd Pleopod of male

c) 1st Pleopod of Female

d) 2nd Pleopod of Female

68 Fisheries Question Bank

10. Thelycum is present in?

a) Male shrimps b) Female Shrimps

c) Both d) None

11. Thelycumis present at?

a) 1st Paraepod of Female

b) 2nd Paraepod of Female

c) 4th and 5th Paraepod of Female

d) 3rd Pleopod of Female

12. Gonopore in female shrimps is present at?

a) at the base of 3rd Swimming legs

b) at the base of 5th Swimming legs

c) at the base of 5th Walking legs

d) at the base of 3rd Walking legs

13. Gonopore in male shrimps is present at?

a) at the base of 3rd Swimming legs

b) at the base of 5th Swimming legs

c) at the base of 5th Walking legs

d) at the base of 3rd Walking legs

14. Among the following which is not a characteristic of Fertilized eggs?

a) Regular Shape

b) Lighter in weight

c) Coloured

d) Proper cell divison

Shellfish Breeding 69

15. Swimming legs are also called as?

a) Pleopods b) Paraeopods

c) Uropods d) Maxillipeds

16. Walking legs are also called as?

a) Pleopods b) Paraeopods

c) Uropods d) Maxillipeds

17. Feeding legs are also called as?

a) Pleopods b) Paraeopods

c) Uropods d) Maxillipeds

18. Balancing legs are also called as?

a) Pleopods b) Paraeopods

c) Uropods d) Maxillipeds

19. What is the size of naupli of shrimp?

a) 0.14 mm b) 0.34 mm

c) 1.4 cm d) 3.4 cm

20. How many numbers of nauplius stages are present in shrimp?

a) 3 b) 4

c) 5 d) 6

21. How many numbers of protozoea stages are present in shrimp?

a) 3 b) 4

c) 5 d) 6
70 Fisheries Question Bank

22. How many numbers of mysis stages are present in shrimp?

a) 3 b) 4

c) 5 d) 6

23. How many pairs of appendeges are present in the naupli stage of shrimp?

a) 3 b) 7

c) 13 d) 19

24. How many pairs of appendeges are present in the mysis stage ofsShrimp?

a) 3 b) 7

c) 13 d) 19

25. How many pairs of appendeges are present in the post larval stage of shrimp?

a) 3 b) 7

c) 13 d) 19

26. Which stage of shrimp is attracted towards light?

a) Nauplius b) Protozoea

c) Mysis d) Both A & B

27. In which stage of shrimp it starts feeding on artificial feed?

a) Nauplius b) Protozoea

c) Mysis d) Post larvae

28. In which stage of shrimp feeding it with artemia nauplii is suggested?

a) Nauplius b) Protozoea

c) Mysis d) Post larvae

Shellfish Breeding 71

29. Which stage of shrimp is carnivore in nature?

a) Nauplius b) Protozoea

c) Mysis d) Post larvae

30. . …………. eyestalk abalation is preferred?

a) Bilateral b) Unilateral

c) Monomorphic d) Dimorphic

31. ………… is the interval between eyestalk abalation and spawning?

a) Spawning time b) Breeding time

c) Maturity time d) Latency Period

32. Eyestalk abalation is preferred during which stage?

a) Pre moulting Stage

b) Intermoulting Stage

c) Post Moulting Stage

d) During rigor

33. Appendix interna is present in?

a) Male shrimps b) Female Shrimps

c) Both d) None

34. Which is known as the scampi?

a) Macrobrachium malcomsonii

b) Macrobrachium rosenbergii

c) Penaeus indicus

d) Penaeus monodon
72 Fisheries Question Bank

35. Which is known as the Indian river prawn?

a) Macrobrachium malcomsonii

b) Macrobrachium rosenbergii

c) Penaeus indicus

d) Penaeus monodon

36. What is the size of zoea of prawn?

a) 0.14 mm b) 0.34 mm

c) 1.92 mm d) 1.92 cm

37. How many numbers of zoea stages are present in prawn?

a) 3 b) 6

c) 11 d) 12

38. What is the ideal salinity for prawn larval rearing?

a) 5 ppt b) 12 ppt

c)13 ppt d) 14 ppt

39. What is the ideal salinity for prawn egg incubation?

a) 5 ppt b) 12 ppt

c) 13 ppt d) 14 ppt

40. Egg incubation in prawn takes place during?

a) Early morning hours

b) Afternoon hours

c) Evening hours

d) Night hours
Shellfish Breeding 73

41. Which is the largest sp.?

a) Scylla serrata

b) Scylla tranquberica

c) Neptunus pelagicus

d) Neptunus sanguinolentus

42. Abdominal flap is broad and triangular/ semicircular in?

a) Male Lobster

b) Female Lobster

c) Male Crab

d) Female Crab

43. Among the following which is the larvae of crab?

a) Megalopa b) Zoea

c) Both d) Nauplius

44. How many numbers of zoea stages are present in crab?

a) 3 b) 4

c) 5 d) 6

45. Select the protanrous among the following?

a) Sea bass b) Oysters

c) Both A & B d) Grouper

46. Byssal threads secreted by byssal gland which helps in attachment to the
rocks is present in the?

a) Bacteria b) Abalones

c) Oysters d) Mussels
74 Fisheries Question Bank

47. Which larvae of pearl oyster looks like “D” shaped?

a) Trocophore b) Veliger

c) Umbo d) Eye spat

48. What is the scientific name of blue mussel?

a) Perna Viridis b) Perna indica

C) Perna perna d) Mytilus edulis

49. Edal organ which is used to search the suitable substratum to settle is
present in?

a) Pediveliger b) Veliger

c) Umbo d) Eye spat

50. What is the scientific name of blood clam?

a) Crassostrea madrasensis

b) lacuna placenta

c) Perna perna

d) Anadra granosa

51. Which is the worldwide most traded Sea slug?

a) Holothuria nobilis b) Holothuria scabra

c) Holothuria commercalis d) Holothuria virginica

52. Which is correct order of larval stages of sea cucumber?

a) Pentacula - Auricularia - Doliolaria

b) Doliolaria - Pentacula - Auricularia

c) Auricularia - Doliolaria - Pentacula

d) Pentacula - Doliolaria - Auricularia

Shellfish Breeding 75

53. What is the Scientific name of syndney rock oyster?

a) C. madrasensis b) C. angulata

c) C. commercalis d) C. glomerata

54. What is the choicest food of shrimp?

a) Zooplnkton b) Phytoplankton

c) Green algae d) Artemia nauplii

55. Petasma is present at?

a) 1st Pleopod of male b) 2nd Pleopod of male

c) 1st Pleopod of Female d) 2nd Pleopod of Female

56. How many pairs of appendeges are present in the protozoea stage of shrimp?

a) 3 b) 7

c) 13 d)19
 7 Cold Water Aquaculture

1. Scientific name of Pacific Salmon?

a) Salmo salar

b) Onchorhyncus mykiss

c) Onchorhyncus nerka

d) Salavlinus naymaycush

2. Mitchell introduced the Brown trout in………. from……

a) 1863, Scotland

b) 1900, Scotland

c)1912, England

d) 1800, England

3. Mitchell introduced the………….stage of Brown trout

a) Green eggs b) Eyed eggs

c) Brown eggs d) Unfertilized eggs

Cold Water Aquaculture 77

4. F.J Mitchell introduced the Rainbow trout in………. from……

a) 1863, Scotland

b) 1900, Scotland

c) 1912, England

d) 1800, England

5. Watery milt shows?

a) Poor quality b) Good quality

c) High Spermatozoa content d) High viability

6. Hooked lower jaw is a characteristic of?

a) Female Trout b) Male Trout

c) Female Tilapia d) Male Tilapia

7. Brighter colour in breeding season is a characteristic of?

a) Female Trout b) Male Trout

c) Female Tilapia d) Male Tilapia

8. Which method of egg fertilization is preferred?

a) Dry method

b) Wet method

c) Incomplete fertilization method

d) Complete fertilization method

9. Vibert system is used for?

a) Egg incubation b) Transportation

c) Egg Fertilisation d) All

78 Fisheries Question Bank

10. Pahari box is used for?

a) Egg incubation b) Transportation

c) Egg Fertilisation d) All

11. Size of vibert system?

a) 70×63×94 mm b)70×63×94 cm

c) 70×63×90 mm d) 70×63×90 cm

12. Capacity of vibert system which is used for egg incubation is?

a) 1200 trout & 800 salmon eggs

b) 1000 trout & 800 salmon eggs

c) 800 trout & 800 salmon eggs

d) 800 trout & 1200 salmon eggs

13. Capacity of Pahari box used for egg transportation is?

a) 42000 eggs b) 40000 eggs

c) 38000 eggs d) 36000 eggs

14. Size of Pahari box used for egg transportation is?

a) 51 ×25 ×41 cm

b) 51×25×41 mm

c) 51×25×51 cm

d) 51×25×51 mm

15. …… specie is dominant in the river Mahanadi?

a) Tor tor b) Tor khudree

c) Tor putitora d) Tor mosal

Cold Water Aquaculture 79

16. …… specie is dominant in river Narmada?

a) Tor tor

b) Tor khudree

c) Tor putitora

d) Tor mosal

17. 1st Mahseer hatchery was installed at?

a) Lonavala, Maharastra

b) Bhimtal, Uttrakhand

c) Champawat, Uttrakhand

d) Nainital, Uttrakhand

18. 1st Mahseer hatchery was installed in the year 1971 by?

a) B Wilson b) F.J Mitchell

c) C.V Kulkarni d) H.S Wilson

19. ………..is the World’s best game fish?

a) Trout b) Mahaseer

c) Tilapia d) Gold fish

20. Fecundity of trout and mahaseer is between?

a) 1500-2000 eggs/ Kg body weight

b) 3500-5000 eggs/ Kg body weight

c) 5000-10000 eggs/ Kg body weight

d) 10000-20000 eggs/ Kg body weight

 8 Fish Feed Technology

1. Fishes are mostly

a) Ammoniotelic b) Ureotelic

c) Uricotelic d) All

2. 1gm of lipid gives gross metabolic energy of…….. Kcal/gm?

a) 5.6 b) 9.4

c) 4.1 d) 2.8

3. 1gm of protein gives gross metabolic energy of…….. Kcal/gm?

a) 5.6 b) 9.4

c) 4.1 d) 2.8

4. 1gm of carbohydrate gives gross metabolic energy of…….. Kcal/gm?

a) 5.6 b) 9.4

c) 4.1 d) 2.8
Fish Feed Technology 81

5. ……… Energy:Protein is found satisfactory for carps?

a) 8-9:1 b) 2-3:1

c) 4-5:1 d) 13-15:1

6. Protein efficiency ratio (PER) of fish is?

a) 0.8-1 b) 1-1.8

c) 2.2-2.7 d) 5-6.1

7. Among the following protein which controls the osmotic pressure of blood
in fish?

a) Keratin b) Albumin

c) Histone d) Globulin

8. There are … essential and …. non essential amino acids in fish ?

a) 8 & 12 b) 12 & 8

c) 11 & 9 d) 9 & 11

9. Mailard reaction which is also known as the known enzymatic browning

of fish occurs due to which amino acid?

a) Lysine b) Methionine

c) Tryptophan d) Tyrosine

10. Among the following which is a non-essential amino acid?

a) Leucine b) Isoleucine

c) Tyrosine d) Valine

11. Fatty acids having >4 double bonds are known as ?

a) Mono unsaturated fatty acids b) PUFA

c) HUFA d) Saturated fatty acids

82 Fisheries Question Bank

12. Linoleic and Linolenic are?

a) Essential Saturated Fatty acids
b) Essential Unsaturated Fatty acids
c) Non Essential Saturated Fatty acids
d) Non Essential Saturated Fatty acids

13. Among the following which is an example of structural lipid in fish?

a) Glycolipid b) Glycerolipid

c) Glucolipid d) Phospholipid

14. Among the following which is an example of storage lipid in fish?

a) Glycolipid b) Glycerolipid

c) Triglycerides d) Phospholipid

15. ish contains >……..% of triglycerides as a storage lipid?

a) 70% b) 75%

c) 80% d) 85%

16. Lecithins and cephalins are the example of?

a) Glycolipid b) Glycerolipid

c) Glucolipid d) Phospholipid

17. Spermaceti which is obtained from Sperm whale is a…..…?

a) Fatty acids b) Waxes

c) Esters d) Ethers

18. What are the monomers of lactose?

a) Gucose + Galactose b) Glucose + Fructose
c) Glucose + Glucose d) Glucose + Mannose
Fish Feed Technology 83

19. What are the monomers of sucrose?

a) Gucose + Galactose

b) Glucose + Fructose

c) Glucose + Glucose

d) Glucose + Mannose

20. What are the monomers of maltose?

a) Gucose + Galactose

b) Glucose + Fructose

c) Glucose + Glucose

d) Glucose + Mannose

21. Starch and glycogen are the example of?

a) Homopolysaccharide

b) Heteropolysaccharide

c) Disaccharide

d) Trisaccharides

22. Hemicellulose is the example of?

a) Homopolysaccharide

b) Heteropolysaccharide

c) Disaccharide

d) Trisaccharides

23. …… costs about 60-70% of the total cost of an aquaculture production?

a) Seed b) Water quality Management

c) Aeration d) Feed
84 Fisheries Question Bank

24. ………. is the method of feed formulation aiming at minimizing the cost or
maximizing the profit?

a) K. Pearson Square method

b) Linear Programming method

c) Graphics Solution

d) All

25. ………. is the simplest and most common method of feed formulation?

a) K. Pearson Square method

b) Linear Programming method

c) Graphics Solution

d) All

26. ……… is the best single feed for carps?

a) GNOC b) MOC

c) Fish Meal d) Mahua oil cake

27. Among the following select the correct one?

a) Feed should have less density

b) Feed should have High bulk density

c) Both A & B

d) None

28. Among the following exclude the odd one?

a) BHA b) Benzoic acid

c) Octylgallate d) BHT
Fish Feed Technology 85

29. CMC (Carboxy methyl cellulose) is a?

a) Anti-microbial

b) Preservative

c) Feed colorant

d) Feed binder

30. Free amino acids are?

a) Anti-microbial

b) Preservative

c) Feed colorant

d) Chemoattractant

31. Feed manufacturing through extruded pelleting technology requires a

temperature of?

a) 125-150⁰C b) 200-250⁰C

c) 50-100⁰C d) 400-450⁰C

32. What is the amount of moisture content in dry feed?

a) 6-10% b) 18-40%

c) 45-70% d) 1-2%

33. What is the amount of moisture content in moist feed?

a) 6-10% b) 18-40%

c) 45-70% d) 1-2%

34. What is the amount of moisture content in wet feed?

a) 6-10% b) 18-40%

c) 45-70% d) 1-2%
86 Fisheries Question Bank

35. Microencapsulated feed in aquaculture is used for?

a) Growers

b) Larvae and Post larvae

c) Brooders

d) All

36. Bacterial activity occurs when moisture content of feed exceeds about?

a) 5% b) 10%

c) 25% d) 75%

37. Mouldsbecom active at above

a) 40% RH b) 60% RH

c) 50% RH d) 70% RH

38. Demand feeders are identical to?

a) Disc feeders

b) Drop feeders

c) Auger feeders

d) Pneumatic feeders

39. Automatic feeders are?

a) Mobile feeding equipment

b) Manual feeding method

c) Demand feeding method

d) Non demand feeding methods

Fish Feed Technology 87

40. Anti-nutritional factor present in oil seed cake is?

a) Phytic acid b) Gossypol

c) Tetrdonitoxins d) Dinogunelin

41. Anti-nutritional factor present in cotton seed cake is?

a) Phytic acid b) Gossypol

c) Tetrdonitoxins d) Dinogunelin

42. Average gossypol content in cotton seeds is?

a) 0.4-2.4% b) 0.01-0.03%

c) 5-10% d) 10-20%

43. Recommended level of gossypol in finished diet should be?

a) <0.1% b) <0.01%

c) <0.001% d) <0.0001%

44. Fish requires ….. water soluble vitamins and …. fat soluble vitamins?

a) 11 & 4 b) 10 & 5

c) 8 & 7 d) 6 & 9
 9 Genetics & Breeding

1. ……. deals with the transmission of genes?

a) Genetics b) Heredity

c) Variation d) Mutation

2. Term genetics was given by?

a) William Bateson b) Johansen

c) Thomas hunt morgan d) Khorana

3. Term gene was given by?

a) William Bateson b) Johansen

c) Thomas Hunt Morgan d) Khorana

4. Chromatin is?

a) DNA+ Protein

b) RNA+ Protein

c) DNA+ Carbohydrate

d) DNA+ Carbohydrate
Genetics & Breeding 89

5. ………..is a combination of Nucleotide + Phosphate + Sugar

a) Nucleoside b) Ncleoprotein

c) Nucleotide d) Purine/Pyrimidine

6. ………..is a combination of Nucleotide + Sugar

a) Nucleoside b) Ncleoprotein

c) Nucleotide d) Purine/Pyrimidine

7. Remove the odd one

a) Cytosine b) Uracil

c) Thymine d) Guanine

8. Which among the following is an exam of Purine bases?

a) Cytosine b) Uracil

c) Thymine d) Guanine

9. Width of DNA Helix is about?

a) 2nm b) 3.4 nm

c) 34 nm d) 20nm

10. DNA Helix takes turn at every?

a) 2nm b) 3.4 nm

c) 34 nm d) 20nm

11. Coding part of DNA is known as the?

a) Introns b) Exons

c) C value d) Genome
90 Fisheries Question Bank

12. Non Coding part of DNA is known as the?

a) Introns b) Exons

c) C value d) Gene

13. …….. is a unit of information which is held as a codein a discrete segment

of DNA?

a) Introns b) Exons

c) C value d) Gene

14. Sum total of genes in a population is known as?

a) C Value b) Genome

c) Gene pool d) Total genetic diversity

15. ……… is the total amount of DNA per haploid cell

a) C Value b) Genome

c) Gene pool d) Total genetic diversity

16. When F1 individuals are crossed with one of their parent, then the test is
known as?

a) Test cross b) Back cross

c) F2 Cross d) First Cross

17. When F1 individuals are crossed with their recessive parent, then the test
is known as?

a) Test cross b) Back cross

c) F2 Cross d) First Cross

18. Phenotypic ratio in both monohybrid and dihybrid test cross was about?

a) 1:1 & 1:1:1:1 b) 3:1 & 1:1:1:1

c) 1:1 & 9:3:3:1 d) 3:1 & 9:3:3:1

Genetics & Breeding 91

19. ………… allele expresses itself only in homozygous condition?

a) Dominant allele

b) Recessive allele

c) Monomorphic allele

d) Polymorphic allele

20. ………… allele expresses itself in both heterozygous and homozygous

condition?

a) Dominant allele

b) Recessive allele

c) Monomorphic allele

d) Polymorphic allele

21. Which is correct?

a) Phenotype = Genotype + environment

b) Genotype = Phenotype + environment

c) Both A & B

d) None

22. SS:nn, Ss:nn is the genotype of?

a) Scale Carp b) Mirror Carp

c) Leather Carp d) Linear Carp

23. ss:nn is the genotype of?

a) Scale Carp b) Mirror Carp

c) Leather Carp d) Linear Carp

92 Fisheries Question Bank

24. SS:Nn, Ss:Nn is the genotype of?

a) Scale Carp b) Mirror Carp

c) Leather Carp d) Linear Carp

25. ss:Nn is the genotype of?

a) Scale Carp b) Mirror Carp

c) Leather Carp d) Linear Carp

26. ………….is the multiple effect of a single gene?

a) Epistasis b) Pleiotropism

c) Dominance d) Incomplete dominance

27. When each allele is capable of some degree of expression when in

heterozygous form, the the condition is known as?

a) Epistasis b) Pleiotropism

c) Co Dominance d) Incomplete dominance

28. WXY (Multiple sex chromosomes) in present in ?

a) Common carp b) Rainbow trout

c) Prawns d) Platy fish

29. ZZ – ZW sex chromosomes in present in ?

a) Common carp b) Rainbow trout

c) Prawns d) Platy fish

30. Heterosis is scientifically also known as the?

a) Heterosistic excellence b) Hybrid Vigour

c) Hybrid excellence d) Superior Hybrid

Genetics & Breeding 93

31. Institutional name of Jyantirohu is?

a) CIFRI IR1 b) CIFRI IR2

c) CIFA IR1 d) CIFA IR2

32. …….% of higher growth is found in Jayntirohu after the 7TH generation?

a) 17 b) 19

c) 18 d) 16

33. NEU (Nitroso ethyl Urea) is a

a) Physical Mutant b) Chemical Mutant

c) Physical Mutagen d) Chemical Mutagen

34. Tendency of gene to remain together during the process of inheritance is

known as?

a) Crossing over b) Linkage

c) Mutation d) Hybridization

35. It is the physical exchange of parts of non-sister chromatids?

a) Crossing over b) Linkage

c) Mutation d) Hybridization

36. 1 CM (Centimorgan) is equals to?

a) 1% Crossing over b) 2% Crossing over

c) 3% Crossing over d) 4% Crossing over

37. GIFT is related to?

a) Brown Trout b) Rohu

c) Tilapia d) Rainbow trout

94 Fisheries Question Bank

38. GIFT Tilapia was developed in?

a) Malaysia b) Indonesia

c) Taiwan d) Phillipines

39. GIFT Tilapia shows…….. of higher growth than the normal bred tilapia?

a) 30% b) 40%

c) 50% d) 60%

40. GIFT Tilapia is a result of?

a) Selective breeding

b) Cross breeding

c) In breeding

d) Out breeding
 10 Ornamental

1. Culture of ornamental fishes is known as?

a) Aquascaping

b) Aquafarming

c) Aquariculture

d) Aquariumculture

2. The term “LIVING JEWELS” is used for

a) Pearls b) Gems

c) Ornamental fishes d) Pearl oyster

3. Which country leads in ornamental fish culture?

a) China b) Japan

c) England d) Singapore

4. Which among the following is not a live bearer?

a) Guppy b) Molly

c) Rasbora d) Platy
96 Fisheries Question Bank

5. Which is a indigenous ornamental fish?

a) Rohu b) Silver carp

c) Glass fish d) Platy

6. Which fish swims vertically?

a) Sea horse b) Guppy

c) Piranha d) Oscar

7. Setting of aquarium is known as?

a) Aquascaping

b) Aquafarming

c) Aquariculture

d) Aquariumculture

8. Zeolite removes……..from a aquarium?

a) Carbon di oxide

b) Suspended particles

c) Ammonia

d) Ammonia and Total hardness

9. Volumetric capacity of a tricking filter is?

a) 5L b) 10L

c) 15L d) 20L

10. Tubifex is………..?

a) Water fleas b) Mud worm

c) Sludge worm d) Blood worm

Ornamental 97

11. Glycera is………..?

a) Water fleas b) Mud worm

c) Sludge worm d) Blood worm

12. Rasbora is a?

a) Egg depositor b) Egg Scatterers

c) Egg burrier d) Mouth brooder

13. Killi fish is a?

a) Egg depositor b) Egg Scatterers

c) Egg burrier d) Mouth brooder

14. Breeding season of Gold fish in India is?

a) Summer b) Monsoon

c) Spring d) Winter

15. Black molly is

a) Viviovoparous b) Viviparous

c) Oviparous d) Ovoviviparous

16. ………. is the first feeding larvae of most of small sized ornamental fishes?

a) Tubifex b) Infusorians

c) Earthworms d) Sludge worms

17. Young ones of ……….. feed on the mucus of their parent?

a) Discus b) Guppy

c) Piranha d) Oscar
98 Fisheries Question Bank

18. Which of the following fish is banned in India?

a) Discus b) Guppy

c) Piranha d) Oscar

19. Breeding tank of …………. Should be darkened from inside?

a) Discus b) Guppy

c) Neon Tetra d) Oscar

20. Among the following which fish shows shoaling behavior?

a) Discus b) Guppy

c) Neon Tetra d) Oscar

21. Nuptial tubercles is a sexual dimorphic feature present in males of ……

a) Angel fish b) Gold fish

d) Gourami d) Guppy

22. ……. is an egg scatterer

a) Angel fish b) Pearl gourami

c) Sword tail d) Koi carp

23. ……….. is stocked to control malaria?

a) Tilapia b) Guppy

c) Molly d) Both Band C

24. Among the following which fish shows aggressive behavior?

a) Discus b) Guppy

c) Neon Tetra d) Oscar

Ornamental 99

25. Intestinal breeding occurs in the …………. family?

a) Serranidae b) Gobidae

c) Cotidae d) Cobitidae

26. Tilapia is a?

a) Egg depositor b) Egg Scatterers

c) Egg burrier d) Mouth brooder

27. Among the following which fish which is a nest builder?

a) Discus b) Guppy

c) Neon Tetra d) Betta

28. AluminoSilicate is?

a) Resin b) Charcoal

c) Zeolite d) Both A & B

29. Ornamental fish culture started in the year?

a) 1803 b) 1805

c) 1853 d) 1855

30. Ornamental fish culture started in?

a) China b) Japan

c) England d) Singapore

31. TaraporeVala Aquarium is in?

a) Hyderabad b) Kolkata

c) Cochin d) Mumbai
100 Fisheries Question Bank

32. Which is the most traded ornamental fish?

a) Gold fish b) Guppy

c) Neon Tetra d) Angel fish

33. Which is also known as the King of ornamental fish?

a)Gold fish b) Guppy

c) Neon Tetra d) Angel fish

34. India contribute …… in ornamental fish culture?

a) 1% b) 3%

c) 5% d) 10%

35. Parental care is highest in?

a) Egg depositor b) Egg Scatterers

c) Egg burrier d) Mouth brooder

36. Highest fecundity is found in?

a) Egg depositor b) Egg Scatterers

c) Egg burrier d) Mouth brooder

37. Scientific name of Angel fish?

a) Pterphyllumscalar b) Astronotusocellatus

c) Sympsodon discus d) Sclerpagesformosus

38. Lowest fecundity is found in?

a) Egg depositor b) Egg Scatterers

c) Egg burrier d) Mouth brooder

Ornamental 101

39. Scientific name of Discus fish?

a) Pterphyllumscalare b) Astronotusocellatus

c) Sympsodon discus d) Sclerpagesformosus

40. Scientific name of Arowana?

a) Pterphyllumscalare b) Stronotusocellatus

c) Sympsodon discus d) Sclerpagesformosus

41. ……………………. is commonly known as the silver lip pearl oyster.

a. Pinctada fucata

b. Pinctada maxima

c. Pinctada margaritifera

d. Pinctada sugillata

42. Prolonged water salinity below ……………………..parts per thousand in Gulf

of Manner found to cause mortality of pearl oyster species.

a. <30

b. <25

c. <20

d. <15

43. The nucleus manufactured in Japan for pearl culture are from thick shells
of freshwater mussel occur in ………………………….

a. Mississippi rivers of USA

b. Nile rive of Africa

c. Yang Sikyang river of China

d. Bewa lake of Japan

102 Fisheries Question Bank

44. The sequential development stages of oyster larvae are ……………………….

a. Umbo stage-Eyed stage-D shape stage-Pediveliger stage

b. D shape stage- Umbo stage-Eyed stage-Pediveliger

c. Eyed stage-D shape-Umbo stage- Pediveliger stage

d. D shape stage- Umbo stage-Pediveliger stag- Eyed stage

45. Bouchot culture is associated with culture of ……………………………………...

a. Pearl oyster b. Edible oyster

c. Marine mussel d. Sea weed

46. The terminology of spat in associated with ……………………………

a. Pearl oyster

b. Edible oyster

c. Marine mussel

d. All of the above

47. …………. is the most important clam species contributing major share of
India’s clam production.

a. Meretix meretrix

b. Katelysia opima

c. Meretmix casta

d. Villorita cyprinoides

48. Among bivalves ………………. are the most abundant and widely distributed
resources.

a, Edible oyster b. Mussels

c. Clams d. Abalone
Ornamental 103

49. Among the importance Lobster species……………… grows fast and most
suitable for culture in India.

a. Panulirus polyphagus

b. Panulirus homarus

c. Panulirus ornatus

d. Homarus gamarus

50. The optimum stocking density practiced in India for fattening of spiny
lobster is

a. 1 number/m2 b. 5 numbers/m2

c. 10 numbers/m2 d. 15 numbers/m2

51. The fattening period for grow-out mud crab Scylla serrata usually extends
for ………………

a. 20-30 days b. 50-60 days

c. 80-90 days d. 100-120 days

52. There are …………………….zoeal stages in mudcrab

a. One b. Three

c. Five d. Ten

53. In case of mud crab the larval period extends ………………………. days.

a. 8-10 days b. 15-18 days

c. 28-30 days d. 33-35 days

54. …………….. forms best live feed organisms during larval rearing of mud crab.

a. Chlorella b. Brachionus

c. Isochrysis d. Chaetoceros
104 Fisheries Question Bank

55. Seaweeds rich in iodine such as ……………… can be used for controlling goiter.

a. Gracilaria edulis

b. Asparagopsis taxiformis

c. Padina tetrastromatica

d. Enteromorpha compressa

56. Holothuria is distributed in ………………………………….

a. Only in marine environment

b. Both brackishwater and marine environment

c. Only in brackishwater environment

d. All type of water bodies

57. Auricularia is a larval stage of …………………………

a. Deep sea lobster

b. Sea cucumber

c. Clam

d. Octopus

58. In Macrobrachium rosenbergii incubation of fertilized eggs takes place for

a period of …………………….. days.

a. 1-3 days b. 14-18 days

c. 18-21 days d. 23-28 days

59. The III zoeal stage of M. rosenbergii is identified by presence of ………………

a. Stalked eye c. Uropod

b. Pleopod bud d. Two dorsal teeth

Ornamental 105

60. Presence of three or four dorsal rostral teeth in the identifying character
of ………… zoeal stage of Macrobrachium rosenbergii.

a. Stage V b. Stage VI

c. Stage IX d. Stage X

61. Larval growth and metamorphosis of freshwater prawn largely depend

on …….

a. Water temperature b. Water quality

c. Food d. All of the above

62. The average fecundity of giant freshwater prawn is about …………………..

eggs per gram body weight

a. 100 b. 500

c. 1000 d. 5000

63. Optimum soil pH for productive water body is……..

a. 5.5 – 6.5 b. 6.5 – 7.5

c. 7.5 – 8.5 d. 8.5 – 9.5

64. Alkalinity of water over …… ppm is considered to be favourable for fish

culture.

a. 50 b. 100

c. 150 d. 200

65. In India first success of induced breeding by pituitary hormone injection

was achieved in ………………….

a. Labeo rohita b. Cirrhinus mrigala

c. Esomus danricus d. Puntius conchonius

106 Fisheries Question Bank

66. During breeding season a male of Indian major carps can easily be
distinguished from female by the roughness of the ……………

a. The dorsal surface of the pectoral fin

b. Ventral surface of the pectoral fish

c. Dorsal surface of the pelvic fish

d. Ventral surface of the pelvic fish

67. Stocking rates of Indian major carps in broodstock ponds are kept at ……...
kg/ha.

a. 1000 – 2000

b. 2000 – 3000

c. 3000 – 4000

d. 4000 – 5000

68. Ovaprim contains ……….. of gonadotropin releasing hormone along with

10 mg of domperidone per ml.

a. 10 mg b. 20 mg

c. 10 µg d. 20 µg

69. In glass jar hatchery ………..number of eggs can be kept in a jar with capacity
of 6.35 litre.

a. 25,000 b. 50,000

c. 75,000 d. 1,00,000

70. In hatching tank incubation of eggs for Indian major carps are done at …….
lakh/cubic metre

a. 2 - 3 b. 4 - 5

c. 7 - 8 d. 10 - 11
Ornamental 107

71. Approximately ……number of spawn of Indian major carps are present

per ml.

a. 100 – 200 b. 300 – 400

c. 500 – 600 d. 700 – 800

72. MS – 222 is a ………………….

a. Pesticide b. Anaesthetic drug

c. Hormone d. Preservative

73. In Clarias batrachus larval hatching takes approximately within………….

hours at an ambient temperature of 26 – 29°C.

a. 12 – 14 hours. b. 24 – 26 hours.

c. 48 – 50 hours. d. 72 – 74 hours.

74. The dosages of pituitary given for induced breeding of magur is ……..mg/
kg body weight of fish.

a. 8 – 10 b. 20 – 25

c. 30 – 50 d. 100 – 150

75. Puntius pulchellus is a ………………..

a. Larvivorous fish

b. Aquatic macrophyte feeder

c. Carnivorous fish

d. Fish that primarily consume nanoplankton

76. ………………….. possesses three dorsal fins.

a. Channel catfish b. Yellow tail

c. Atlantic Cad d. Snapper

108 Fisheries Question Bank

77. Dosage of Bassia latifolia that would be necessary for predatory and weed
fish control in a water body of one ha with two metre water depth is ……………

a. 2500 kg b. 5000 kg

c. 400 kg d. 800 kg

78. Tamarind seed husk is used as one of the fish toxicant of plant origin with
its active ingredient as ………………….

a. Saponin

b. b. Rotenone

c. Nicotine

d. Mixture of soponin and rotenone

79. Bleaching powder with 15% chlorine may be applied at ……………kg/ha for
control of predatory and weed fishes.

a. 175 kg b. 350 kg

c. 700 kg d. 1400 kg

80. One million of carp spawn of 3 days old weigh approximately………….

a. 150 g b. 600 g

c. 1500 g d. 6000 g

81. Candidate species that gives maximum production through aquaculture in

the world is ……………….

a. Silver carp Common carp

b. Brg lead Grass carp

82. Macrobrachium choprai is indigenous to ……….

a. Cauvery river b. Bramhaputra river

c. Ganga river d. Godavari river

Ornamental 109

83. Energy requirements of Indian major carp is………...

a. 5.6 – 6.1 kcal/g b. 4.0 – 4.8 kcal/g

c. 3.4 – 3.8 kcal/g d. 2.6 – 2.8 kcal/g

84. Flood plain lakes called as ‘ Pats’ seen in………..

a. Manipur b. Bihar

c. Meghalya d. Eastern Uttar Pradesh

85. Freshly voided excreta of………..contains maximum amount of nitrogen.

a. Duck b. Pig

c. Cattle d. Poultry

86. Mode of action of mahua oil cake to clear the unwanted fishes during pond
preparation is

a. Haemolysis of blood

b. Arresting the nerves system

c. Anoxic condition of pond water

d. Trapping of chlorine inside the gills

87. Life cycle of Argulus complete in………

a. One week b. Three weeks

c. Four weeks d. Five weeks

88. Daphnia is distinguished from moina by the presence of

a. Caudal spine

b. Caudal pedancle

c. Sessile eye

d. Biramus antennae
110 Fisheries Question Bank

89. Which of the following nutrient is considered as limiting factor in freshwater

ponds in India.

a. Magnesium b. Cobalt

c. Nitrogen d. Phosphorous

90. In Indian plains grass carps mature in ………..

a. 5 yrs b. 4 yrs

c. 3 yrs d. 2 yrs

91. Carps contribute about ……………..of total aquaculture production in India.

a. 57% b. 67%

c. 77% d. 87%

92. Maximum achievable production rates in Sewage- fed fish culture is ………….

a. 1-2 t/ha/yr b. 2-3 t/ha/yr

c. 3-5 t/ha/yr d. 10-12 t/ha/yr

93. Induced breeding using pituitary gland is the world was first time successful
in

a. Brazil b. Rusia

c. India d. China

94. Breakthrough in induced breeding of carps in India was achieved in

a. 10th May, 1957

b. 10th June, 1957

c. 10th July, 1957

d. 10th August, 1957

Ornamental 111

95. Fertilized oval eggs of are seen in

a. Channa punctatus

b. C. striatus

c. C. marulius

d. Anabas testudineus

96. Diamond shape structure of the caudal region is the identification character
of………fry.

a. Cirrhinus mrigala

b. Labeo rohita

c. Catla catla

d. Common carp

97. Dry bundh for carp breeding was first noticed in …………..

a. 1882 in West Bengal

b. 1906 in West Bengal

c. 1926 in Madhya Pradesh

d. 1958 in Madhya Pradesh

98. Capacity of glass jars hathcery is…………

a. 2.35 lits b. 4.35 lits

c. 5.35 lits d. 6.35 lits

99. A major carp spawn of 5-6 mm length weights about…………

a. 0.0014 gms b. 0.014 gms

c. 0.14 gms d. 0.014 mg

112 Fisheries Question Bank

100. Important pearl producing mussels in Japan is…………..

a. Hyriopsis schhegelli

b. Cristeria plicata

c. Hyriopsis cumingii

d. Lamellidens marginalis

101. Who studied the fishes of Ganga river and published in 1822.

a. Dr. Buchannan Hamilton

b. Col. Alcock

c. Sir Francis Day

d. Sir Fredric Nicholson

102. Who made the 1st attempt to undertake a systematic study of Indian fish
fauna.

a. Russel

b. Sir Francis Day

c. Sir Fredrik Nicholsen

d. A. G. Jhingran

103. First All India Fisheries Conference was held at Delhi in the year……….

a. 1956 b. 1954

c. 1952 d. 1948

104. …………is considered as one of the most obnoxious aquatic weed in the
world.

a. Eichhornia b. Salvinia

c. Elosea d. Egevia
Ornamental 113

105. Which among the following is/are exotic weed.

a. Eichhornia b. Pistia

c. Salvinia d. All of the above

106. The terminology ‘Conchochelis’ is associated with….

a. Abalone b. Porphyra

c. Laminaria d. Trochus

107. In recent years China made tremendous progress in freshwater pearl

culture employing the mussel …………..

a. Parreysia corruguta

b. Cristaria plicata

c. Hyriopsis cumingii

d. All of the above

108. Petrichor is a term that is associated with

a. Courtship behaviour of fish during breeding

b. Multiple breeding of carps

c. Maturation process of fish

d. None

109. For fish culture the ratio between N:P would be

a. 1:2 b. 1:1

c. 2:1 d. 5:1

110. Pathogen Listeria sp. found in

a. gill of fish b. skin of fish

c. flesh of fish d. in between lumen of fish

114 Fisheries Question Bank

111. The developmental stage at which trout eggs can be transported is…….

a. Geen eggs b. Eyed eggs

c. Alvin d. Swim-up fry

112. Measurement of incubation period as degree days generally considered in

a. Trout b. Yellow tail

c. Milkfish d. Silver carp

113. Under any circumstances the water temperature for incubation of trout
eggs should not exceed …………………. °C.

a. 5-6°C b. 10-12°C

c. 15-18°C d. 20-22°C

114. Whirling disease in cold water fishes is caused due to deficiency of

a. Vit B1 b. Vit B6

c. Vit B12 d. Vit C

115. Pond dyke slope for sandy loam type soil should be

a. 1:1.5 b. 1:2.5

c. 1:3.5 d. 1:4.0

116. Seston is
a. Dead organisms floating on the water surface
b. Organisms hanging from the water film.
c. Suspended organic matter in water
d. Dead organisms in the bottom of water
Ornamental 115

117. Negative heterosis is developed in chromosomal manipulation by crossing

a. Grass carp x Silver carp

b. Catla x Common carp

c. Mirgal x Rohu

d. Catla x Rohu

118. Natural gynogenesis is seen in the family

a. Salmonidae

b. Poecillidae

c. Cichilidae

d. Cyprinodentidae

119. Sex differentiation in cichilidae starts after

a. 7 – 11th days

b. 20 – 30th days

c. 32 – 40th days

d. After 50th days

120. Antivitamin thiamine which cause whirling disease in trout is predominant

in:

a. fresh raw fish

b. stale marine fish

c. frozen marine fish

d. raw egg white

116 Fisheries Question Bank

121. Protective form of Vit C. is

a. Microencapsulated

b. Synthetic polymer coated

c. Ethyl cellulose coated

d. All of the above

122. Docosa hexanoic acid (DHA) is represented as

a. 20: 4 ω – 6

b. 20: 6 ω – 3

c. 22: 6 ω – 3

d. 18: 2 ω – 6

123. For one hectare pond area ……… nos of pigs are sufficient to fertilize the
pond water.

a. 140 – 150 b. 75 – 90

c. 60 – 70 d. 30 – 40

124. ………… is a typical surface feeder herbivorous fish.

a. Notopteus b. Oriyzas

c. Lebisteus d. Gambusia

125. Most suitable stocking ratio of Gambussia affinis to control mosquiito in

small water body is…………

a. 2 female & 1 male

b. 2 female & 2 male

c. 1 male & 2 female

d. 2 male & 4 female

Ornamental 117

126. Miquel’s medium is used for

a. Phytoplankton culture

b. Tubifex culture

c. Artemia culture

d. Tissue culture

127. Normally thickness of plastic bags used for carp fry transpiration is

a. 0.004 mm

b. 0.04 mm

c. 0.4 mm

d. 0.1 mm

128. …………. culture was most successfully standardised by CMFRI & CSMCRI.

a. Sea weed

b. Sea cucumber

c. Pearl oyster

d. Grouper

129. …………………… fish is protandrous hermaphrodite.

a. Mugil cephalus

b. Lates calcarifer

c. Epinephalus malbaricus

d. Acanthopargus berda

130. …………….. is considered as co-factor for enzyme carbonic anhydrase.

a. Copper b. Cobalt

c. Iron d. Zinc
118 Fisheries Question Bank

131. Natural intergeneric hybrid seen in Rihand reservoir of UP that feeds on

ceratium weed.

a. Catla x Rohu

b. Rohu x mirgal

c. Rohu x Catla

d. Grass carp x Common carp

132. In tide-fed brackishwater farm the neap tide range should be

a. > 0.5 mt b. > 1 mt

c. > 2 mt d. Not less than 3 mt

133. Which among the following is most viable and sterile hybrid.

a. Common carp x Rohu

b. Common carp x Mrigal

c. Catla x Rohu

d. Common carp x Grass carp

134. Number of megelopa stage in the lifecycle of mud crab is …………..

a. 1 b. 3

c. 6 d. 10

135. Scoliosis is due to the deficiency of amino acid……………

a. Lysin b. Histidine

c. Methionine d. Tryptophan

136. Trannenbaum’s disease is due to excess of …………. in the artificial feed.

a. Fat b. Carbohydrate

c. Protein d. Vitamin C
Ornamental 119

137. Auxospore is a spore of

a. Diatoms

b. Sargassum

c. Laminaria

d. Porphyra

138. Myxosoma cerebralis is mostly encountered in ………………. Culture.

a. Trout b. Eel

c. Sea bass d. Yellow tail

139. Optimum level of phosphorous in the soil for fish culture

a. < 1 mg/100 g soil

b. < 3 mg/100 g soil

c. > 5 mg/100 g soil

d. > 20 mg/100 g soil

140. ………………. is most successful hybrid in terms of growth and viability.

a. Catla x Rohu

b. Rohu x Catla

c. Common carp x Grass carp

d. Catla x Mrigal

141. Fairy shrimp (Streptocephalus spp.) is found in………………

a. Carp nursery pond

b. Tiger shrimp nursery

c. Trout nursery pond

d. Coastal waters
120 Fisheries Question Bank

142. Leadership pattern of hierarchy is seen in the rearing tank of ………………..

a. Channel catfish b. Trout

c. Murrels d. Brine shrimp

143. In facultative oxidations pond/waste stabilization pond the depth of

water ranges from………..

a. 0.1 – 0.3 mt

b. 0.9 – 1.5 mt

c. 3.5 – 5 mt

d. 5 – 8 mt

144. Prominent bacteria that present is raw sewage is……

a. Shigella

b. Streptococcus

c. Vibrio

d. Listeria monocytogens

145. A 50 mt3 water holding capacity eco-hatchery spawning pool can produce
…………. in a single operation.

a. 1 million eggs

b. 5 million eggs

c. 10 millions eggs

d. 25 million eggs

146. Desirable flow rate of water in circular spawning pool of eco-hatchery

is……..

a. 30 mts/minute b. 20 mts/minutes

c. 10 mts/minutes d. 6 mts/minutes
Ornamental 121

147. ……………. stage is the starting point of culture.

a. Elvers

b. Glass eels

c. Silver eels

d. Yellow eels

148. Most valid genera bacteria that is capable of oxidizing ammonia to nitrite
in a biofilter is…………….

a. Nitrosomonas europea

b. Nitrobacter agile

c. Nitrobacter winogradinki

d. Nitrococcus sp.

149. White spot virus is characterized by…………….

a. Single stranded DNA

b. Double stranded DNA

c. RNA

d. Occluded virions

150. Number of moults required by zoea stage to reach mysis in Penaeus

indicus is….

a. 1 b. 2

c. 3 d. 6

151. Fecundity of Tor putitora is…………….

a. <30,000 b. <50,000

c. < 1,00,000 d. < 3,00,000

122 Fisheries Question Bank

152. Antifoaming agents are generally used during transpiration of ………….

a. Silver carp b. Milk fish

c. Grass carp d. Common carp

153. Tetraploidy can be produced by treating eggs with Colchiocine at the rate of

a. 0.001% b. 0.01 %

c. 0.1% d. 1%

154. In freshwater prawn hatchery live feed ‘moina’ can be supplemented

after ……. of larval rearing.

a. 2nd day b. 3rd day

c. 5th day d. 7th day

155. The exotic frogs that introduced in Cuttack in the year 1968 is

a. Rana tigrina

b. Rana crassa

c. Rana catesbiana

d. None of the above

156. The term ‘GIFT’ referred to

a. Channel catfish

b. Tilapia

c. Gangetic carp

d. African catfish

157. Energy loss from one trophic level to other is

a. 90% b. 80%

c. 50% d. 10%
Ornamental 123

158. Mean daily nitrogen fixing rates of a developed Azolla mat is in the range of

a. 0.1 – 0.5 kg/ha

b. 1 – 2.5 kg/ha

c. 3 – 5.5 kg/ha

d. 9 – 11.5 kg/ha

159. Zarrouk’s medium is used for indoor culture of

a. Azolla b. Daphnia

c. Chlorella d. Spirulina

160. The life cycle of Artemia pass though ………..instars to become adult………..

a. 10 b. 12

c. 13 d. 14

161. Artemia is

a. Bisexual b. Parthenogenic

c. Both A & B d. None

162. One gram of Artemia cysts gives about …………… million nauplii.

a. 0.1 b. 0.2

c. 0.4 d. 0.6

163. One pair of short maxillary barbles are present in

a. Labeo calbasu

b. Cirrhinus mrigala

c. Labeo gonius

d. Labeo rohita
124 Fisheries Question Bank

164. Phytoplankton used in edible oyster hatchery is ……

a. Isochrysis b. Tetraselmis

c. Skeletonema d. Chaetoceros

165. Black death disease is caused by deficiency of …..

a. Folic acid

b. Pantothenic acid

c. Ascorbic acid

d. Calcium

166. Floating paddle wheel aerator supply ……………..

a. 0.13 kg O2/hr/H.P

b. 2.13 kg O2/hr/H.P

c. 3.13 kg O2/hr/H.P

d. 4.13 kg O2/hr/H.P

167. B.O.D. level in most of the Indian city sewage generally varies between

a. 40 – 50 mg/lit

b. 140 – 150 mg/lit

c. 240 – 280 mg/lit

d. 500 – 560 mg/lit

168. Recombinant DNA techniques is used to prepare………

a. Vaccines

b. Immunostimulant

c. Probiotics

d. Food additives
Ornamental 125

169. Ratio of milt to extender in cryopreservation of milt is

a. 1:1 b. 1:2

c. 1:4 d. 1:10

170. Crossing of sex reversed female with normal male produce………….male

population.

a. 100% b. 90%

c. 130% d. 25%

171. The haemocytes in crustacean include

a. Hyline cells

b. Semigranular cells

c. Granular cells

d. All

172. …………… are simple tandem repeats consists of one to four nucleotides
with long repeat unit.

a. Satellite DNA

b. Minisatellite DNA

c. Microsatellite DNA

d. All

173. In construction of Genetic map of QTL (quantitative trait )……….. technique

enhances the marker density.

a. RFLP b. AFLP

c. RAPD d. None
126 Fisheries Question Bank

174. Crossing of heterogenic male with heterogenic female produce …………..

male

a. 25% male b. 50 % male

c. 75% male d. zero % male

175. Most preferred algae cell that is supplied from 2nd day of larval rearing
in pearl oyster hatchery is………..

a. Isochrysis galbana

b. Chaetoceros affinis

c. Chlorella

d. Skeletonema costatum

176. Which among the following is wrong in dietary interaction

a. Cu and Zn are antagonistic

b. Mg requirement depends an Calcium and Phosphorus contents of diet

c. Vitamin B6 and Folic acid are antagonist

d. Thiamine availability influenced by fat and protein content of diet

177. Lateral curvature of vertebral column due to nutritional deficiency is called

a. Scoliosis b. Lordosis

c. Calcinosis d. None

178. Clubbed gill filament in fish is due to deficiency of…………..

a. Choline

b. Ascorbic acid

c. Thiamine

d. Pantothenic acid
Ornamental 127

179. Methionine is spared by

a. Cystine b. Tyrosine

c. Tryptophan d. Lysine

180. Natural antioxidant

a. Ethoxyquin b. B.H.A

c. B.H.T d. Ascorbic acid

181. Mean digestive value of carbohydrate for fish is

a. 0.9 b. 0.85

c. 0.75 d. 0.40

182. Gross protein in feed is estimated by multiplication of nitrogen and

a. 6.25 b. 4.1

c. 9.0 d. .65

183. Antinutrient Aflatoxin value is estimated by

a. Gas chromatography

b. Spectrophotometry

c. HPLC

d. Thin layer chromatorgraphy

184. Ammonia causes toxicity to fish at

a. > 1 ppm

b. > 5 ppm

c. > 10 ppm

d. > 100 ppm

128 Fisheries Question Bank

185. In phytoplankton exponential phase duration normally varies from

a. 1 – 3 days b. 4 – 7 days

c. 10 – 15 days d. 15 – 25 days

186. ……… can be cultured in close probioreacter using acetic acid as a carbon
nacre

a. Spirulina b. Chlorella

c. Skeletonema d. All

187. Generally Chlorella is cultured in large tank with

a. Yashima medium b. Muquil’s medium

c. Zarrouk’s medium d. All

188. Protozoan Cryptocargo iritans infection is seen in

a. Seabass culture b. Mugil culture

c. Milkfish culture d. Eel culture

189. Most liking food of young Etroplus suratenis is

a. Insect b. Spirogyra

c. Chlorella d. Filamentous algae

190. Number of chromosomes in common carp is………

a. 100 b. 72

c. 50 d. 48

191. Vitamin E is given to infectious fishes along with

a. Selenium b. Molybdenum

c. Zinc d. Ascorbic acid

Ornamental 129

192. Morphoedaphic Index reflects morphometric characters as well as ….

a. Physical characters

b. Chemicals characters

c. Biological characters
d. All

193. Stock management based on culture-based capture fisheries is best

suitable for
a. Small reservoir
b. Medium reservoir
c. Large reservoir
d. Lotic water bodies

194. Multifocal diffuse opacity of straited muscle is the chemical feature seen
in freshwater prawn hatchery
a. Idiopathic muscle necrosis (IMN) disease
b. Exuvia entrapment disease
c. Mid cycle disease
d. Shell disease

195. Fishes that are most susceptible to EUS

a. Murrels b. Carps

c. Milkfish d. Prawn

196. Cellular & humoral immunity can be enhanced by

a. Ascorbic acid
b. a-tocopherol
c. Choline

d. Thaimine
130 Fisheries Question Bank

197. Symbiotic feeding relationship with zooxanthellae & dinoflagellate algae

in their mantle tissues is seen in

a. Paphia malabarica

b. Perna indica

c. Crassostrea madrasensis

d. Tridacna maxima

198. The spawning of one species of ……………. induce others to release their
eggs irrespective of their gonadal condition.

a. Sea urchin b. Sea cucumber

c. fish d. Angel fish

199. Traditional pit culture in the intertidal zone is common for …..

a. Lobster culture

b. Crab culture

c. Clam culture

d. Sea cucumber culture

200. As per the notification of Coastal Zone Regulation Act, 1996 ……… prohibits
the coastal aquaculture, particularly shrimp culture.

a. CRZ - I b. CRZ - II

c. CRZ - III d. CRZ – IV

201. Cage culture was first time introduced in India to rear ………..

a. Air breathing fishes

b. Milk fish

c. Carp

d. Tilapia
Ornamental 131

202. Specific immunity in fish includes

a. Lypopoly saccarides (LPS) and Peptidoglycans

b. Interferin

c. B- lymphocytes

d. All of the above

203. National Bank of Agriculture and Rural Development formed in July 1982
by merging Agriculture credit Department of RBI and …………..

a. AR DC b. NC DC

c. SFC d. IFCI

204. India contributes …………… to the global trade in ornamental fish industry.

a. 1% b. 5%

c. 10% d. 115

205. _______ is employed for rearing of earthworms

a. Bamboo tray b. Apiary

c. Vermibox d. Poultry farm

206. Cod liver oil is rich in

a. Vitamins A and D

b. Vitamins A and C

c. Vitamins A and B

d. Vitamins A and E

207. Crustacean fishery is connected with exploitation of

a. Oysters and Crabs b. Mussels and Squids

c. Shells and Cuttle fish d. Lobster and Prawn

132 Fisheries Question Bank

208. Cultivation of fishes in artificially prepared ponds or water bodies is

called

a. Aquaculture b. Pisciculture

c. Vermiculture d. Agriculture

209. Drying of fishes by lowering temperature is

a. Smoking b. Freeze drying

c. Salting d. Chilling

210. Earthworms which are seen on the surface are called

a. Epigeic (epigenic) b. Endogeic (endogenic)

c. Annecic d. Hygienic

211. Fish flour is rich in

a. Fat b. Protein

c. Vitamins d. Minerals

212. Fish introduced in India by foreigners is

a. Labeo rohita

b. Mystus singhala

c. Pomfret
d. Clarias batrachus

213. Fishes reared in culture fishery in India are

a. Salmon and Rohu

b. Salmon and Catla

c. Catla ad Magur

d. Rohu and Catla

Ornamental 133

214. Hypophysation is done in major carps

a. to increase size

b. to increase their growth

c. to increase breeding in fisheries

d. to increase their palatability

215. Most limiting major nutrient in an aquaculture pond:

a. Nitrogen b. Potassium

c. Calcium d. Phosphorous

216. Brackish water tidal wetlands in West Bengal where traditional rice-fish
culture is practiced:

a. Bheries b. Gazani

d. Khazans c. Khar lands

217. In EEC scheme of grading chilled fish to various stages of spoilage, which
among the following grades indicates that the product is unfit for human
consumption?

a. A b. B

c. C d. E

218. Polymer of N-acetyl glucosamine:

a. Lignin b. Starch

c. Chitin d. Pectin

219. Metabolic precursor of EPA and DHA:

a. Oleic acid b. Stearic acid

c. Linolic acid d. Linolenic acid

134 Fisheries Question Bank

220. Non feeding steps in the larval development of shrimp:

a. Nauplius b. Megalopa

c. Protozoa d. Mysis

221. The transition larval stage in the life cycle of pearl oyster:

a. Trochophore b. Veliges

c. Umbo d. Pediveliges

222. Name the chemical required for the culture of dinoflagellates

a. Sodium thiosulphate
b. Formaldehyde
c. Sodium hypochlorite
d. Sodium silicate

223. The neurohemal organ in the eyestalk of decapod crustaceans

a. Y-organ

b. Rimus gland

c. Mandibular organ

d. X-organ

224. Kelp is the rich source ……………..

a. Potassium b. Iodine

c. Chloride d. Sodium

225. Which weed among the following is also known as Duck weed?

a. Lemna b. Vallisneria

c. Ipomoea a. Pistia
Ornamental 135

226. Which weed among the following is also known as Water Spinach ?

a. Lemna b. Vallisneria

c. Ipomoea d. Pistia

227. Which weed among the following is also known as Eel grass?

a. Lemna b. Vallisneria

c. Ipomoea d. Pistia

228. Which insect among the following is also known as Giant water bug?

a. Nepa b. Belostoma

c. Ranatra d. Geris

229. Which insect among the following is also known as Giant Scorpion?

a. Nepa b. Belostoma

c. Ranatra d. Geris

230. Which insect among the following is also known as Wter Spider?

a. Nepa b. Belostoma

c. Ranatra d. Geris

231. Planktons of ……….. is known as Limnoplankton?

a. Lake b. Running Water

c. Marine Water d. Pond Water

232. Planktons of ……….. is known as Rheoplankton?

a. Lake b. Running Water

c. Marine Water d. Pond Water

136 Fisheries Question Bank

233. Planktons of ……….. is known as Halioplankton?

a. Lake b. Running Water

c. Marine Water d. Pond Water

234. Planktons of ……….. is known as Heleoplankton?

a. Lake b. Running Water

c. Marine Water d. Pond Water

235. NFDB is present at?

a. Hyderabad b. Kochi

c. Chennai d. Mumbai

236. Coastal aquaculture authority is present at?

a. Hyderabad b. Kochi

c. Chennai d. Mumbai

237. EEZ of India was declared in

a. 1966 b. 1976

c. 1986 d. 1991

238. Larvae of lobster is known as

a. Veligar b. Umbo

c. Phylosoma d. Spot

239. Seeds of edible oyster is called as

a. Spot b. Umbo

c. a&b d. none
Ornamental 137

240. Sexual differentiation of crab is based on

a. Petasma b. Thelycum

c. abdominal flab d. none

241. Pearl oyster producing states in India

a. T.N & AP

b. Gujarat & Maharastra

c. TN & Gujarat

d. AP& Maharastra

242. Holothurians live in these areas

a. Rocky b. Sandy

c. Muddy d. Clayey

243. No. of lobes present in the testis of penaeids

a. 1 b. 3

c. 4 d. 2

244. Induced spawning in oysters can be done by manipulation of

a. Salinity c. Temperature

c. Chemicals d. all the above

245. The shape of the testis of the panulurids with transverse connection to
form a shape of H

a. Parallel tubes

b. Longitudinal tubes

c. Perpendicular tubes

d. Circular tubes
138 Fisheries Question Bank

246. Moulting is encouraged by this hormone

a. GSH b. MSH

c. a & b d. None

247. Fertilization in fresh water prawn is

a. Internal b. External

c. a & b d. None

248. The shape of panulurids testis is

a. H b. L

c. C d. T

249. Steroid hormones of crustaceans contains

a. Peptides b. Lipids

c. a & b d. a or b

250. X- organ is located in

a. Antennary region

b. Eye stalk

c. Thoracioganglia

d. Maxillary region

251. Post commissural organs are located in

a. Cerebral commissure

b. Tricerebral commissure

c. Both a & b

d. Tritoferebral commissure
Ornamental 139

252. GSH is present in sinus gland of

a. Ray fish

b. Mexican Cray fish

c. Penaeids

d. Palemonids

253. Y- organ is located in

a. Eye stalk

b. Antennary region

c. Maxillary region

d. Both b & c

254. Secondary sexual character & spermatogenesis in male are controlled by

a. OIH

b. Methyl farnosoate

c. Androgenic hormone

d. X- organ

255. Stimulatory effect of Oogenesis can be caused by

a. FSH b. LH

c. Prostaglandin E2 d. All the above

256. Vitellogenic activity can be enhanced by

a. FSH b. LH

c. Prostaglandin E2 d. Prostaglandin E3
140 Fisheries Question Bank

257. Broodstock for shrimp hatcheries are obtained from

a. Hatchery b. Farm

c. Open ocean d. Estuary

258. Captive brood stock is not available for

a. P. monodon b. P. indicus

c. P. vannamei d. P. semisulcatus

259. Antibodies used to treat brood stocks

a. Oxytetracycline b. Erythromycin

c. Parefeuran d. All the above

260. Back of shell opposite to aperture is

a. Byssus b. Dorsom

c. Exuviae d. None

261. Reproduction in larval stages is by

a. Parthenogenesis b. Pardogenesis

c. Bisexual d. None

262. Spermatophore from male can be removed by this technique

a. Moulting b. Electoejaculation

c. Ablation d. None

263. Eyestack ablation is done by

a. Electrocauterisation b. Pinching

c. Incission d. All the above

Ornamental 141

264. The method of eyestalk ablation which ensures 100% survival

a. Pinching of eyestalk b. Incission of eyeball

c. Both a & b d. Electrocauterisation

265. No. of spawning in eyestalk ablated females is

a. 2-3 b. 5-8

c. 6-7 d. 3-6

266. Spawning interval in M. rosenbergii is

a. 20-52 days b. 1-9days

c. 4-20 days d. 7-8days

267. Spawning interval in P.monodon is

a. 4-20 days b. 20-52days

c. 7-8days d. 1-9days

268. Spawning interval in P.indicus is

a. 0-52days b. 7-8days

c. 1-9 days d. 4-20days

269. Age of aquaculture

a. 520yrs b. 1040yrs

c. 2240yrs d. 200yrs

270. Seed production was evidenced only after

a. 1900 b. 1964

c. 1984 d. 1950
142 Fisheries Question Bank

271. Feed for larvae was developed after

a. 1950 b. 1960

c. 1970 d. 1930

272. No. of spawning in eyestalk ablated females is

a. 2-3 b. 5-8

c. 6-7 d. 3-6

273. Number of chromosomes in common carp is………

a. 100 b. 72

c. 50 d. 48

274. Spawning interval in M. rosenbergii is

a. 20-52 days b. 1-9days

c. 4-20 days d. 7-8days

275. Vitamin E is given to infectious fishes along with

a. Selenium b. Molybdenum

c. Zinc d. Ascorbic acid

 11 Biochemistry

1. Membrane that divides

a) ‘I’ band b)‘H’ Zone

c) ‘Z’ line d) Actin

2. Proportion of myofibrillar protein in fish meat out of total protein

a) 50-55% b) 66-77%

c) 80-90% d)40-60%

Match the following

3. i) Sarcoplasmic protein - a) 3% of the total protein

ii) Myofobrillar protein - b) Collagen & Elastin

iii) Stroma protein - c) Low ionic strength (0.15M)

iv) Connective tissue - d) High ionic strength (<0.5M)

a) i-d ii-b iii-a iv-c

b) i-a ii-c iii-b iv-d

c) i-c ii-d iii-b iv-a

d) i-c ii-d iii-a iv-b

144 Fisheries Question Bank

4. Protein lost during the water washing and preprocessing of fish

a) Connective protein

b) Sarcoplasmic protein

c) Myofibrillar protein

d) Troponin

5. Thickness of myofibril

a) 3-4 mm b) 1-2µm

c) 2-3µm d) 1-2 cm

Match the following

6. i) ‘H’ Zone - a) Sarcomere

ii) ‘M’ line - b) ‘A’ band

iii) ‘Z’ line - c) ‘I’ band

iv) Myofibril - d) Centre of ‘H’ Zone

a) i-c ii-d iii-b iv-a

b) i-b ii-d iii-c iv-a

c) i-a ii-b iii-c iv-d

d) i-d ii-c iii-b iv-a

7. Myosin when digested by trypsin divide into two components

a) Actomyosin & Actin

b) ‘L’moro myosin&‘H’moromyosin

c) Tropomyosin & Troponin

d) Rabbit myosin & Skipjack myosin

Biochemistry 145

8. Muscle contraction is controlled by

a) Mg & ATPase b) Ca & ATPase

c) Mn & Trpsin d) Fa & Lipase

9. Quality deterioration caused during frozen storage of fish is mainly due to

a) Rancidity b) Dehydration

c) Denaturation d) Freezer burn

10. Agents used to prevent freeze denaturation

a) Sucrose b) Sorbitol

c) Oxlytol & Polyphosphate d) All the above

11. Cost of fish meat ultimately depends on the

a) Sarcoplasmic protein

b) Myofibrillar protein

c) Stroma protein

d) Antifreeze protein

12. The health of beneficial fatty acids present in the fish

a) EPA & DHA

b) Palmitic & Stearic acid

c) Palmitoleic & Oleic acid

d) Linoleic & Linolemic acid

13. Phospholipids present in the fish

a) Lecithin & Cephalin b) Phosphotidyl Serine

c) Phosphotidyl inositol d) Glycerophosphates

146 Fisheries Question Bank

Match the following

14. i) Saturated fatty acids - a) Linolenic acid

ii) Dienoic acid - b) EPA

iii) Trienoic acid - c) Palmitic acid

iv) Pentaenoic acid - d) Linoleic acid

a) i-c ii-d iii-b iv-a

b) i-a ii-b iii-d iv-c

c) i-a ii-d iii-b iv-c

d) i-c ii-d iii-a iv-b

15. Structural lipids are

a) Phospholipids b) Triglycerides

c) Spinyoline lipids d) Glycolipids

Match the following

16. i) Oleic acid - a) ω3 FA

ii) Linoleic acid - b) ω7 FA

iii) EPA & DHA - c) ω9 FA

iv) Palmitoleic acid - d) ω6 FA

a) i- d ii- b iii-c iv- a

b) i-c ii-d iii-a iv-b

c) i-d ii-a iii-c iv-b

d) i-a ii-d iii-b iv-c

17. Fish fats and oils are mainly

a) Triglycerides b) Waxes

c) Phospholipids d) Steroids
Biochemistry 147

18. Esters of fatty acids with monohydric alcohol is

a) Fat b) Triglyceride

c) Waxes d) Phospholipid

19. Esters of fatty acids with glycerol is

a) Fat b) Phospholipid

c) Steroid d) Waxes

20. General formula for saturated fatty acids is

a) CnH2n-1 b)CnH2n-3CooH

c) CnH2n-1 CooH d) CnH2nO2

21. Sex hormones are

a) Waxes b) Steroids

c) Fats d) Glycerols

22. Cholesterol is abundant in

a) Brain b) Nervous tissue

c) Skin d) All the above

23. “Castor oil” is rich in

a) Protein b) Wax esters

c) Triglyceride d) Cholesterol

24. “Squaline” is a

a) Protein b) Fatty acids

c) Hydrocarbon d) Wax
148 Fisheries Question Bank

25. Major causes of spoilage in fat is due to

a) Dehydration

b) Oxidation

c) Hydrolysis

d) Denaturation

26. The hydrolysis of glycogen to lactic acid is

a) Glyconeogenesis b) Glycolysis

c) Glycogenesis d) TCA cycle

27. The nucleotide degradation in fish muscle produces bitter tasting compound
in

a) AMP b) Inosine

c) Hypoxanthine d) IMP

28. Digestive enzymatic spoilage causes

a) Glycolysis

b) NucleotideDegradation

c) Belly bursting

d) Rancidity

29. The development of black spot in shrimp is due to the presence of an enzyme

a) Hexokinase

b) Polyphenol oxidase(ppo)

c) Phospho lipase

d) Phenolases
Biochemistry 149

Match the following

30. i) Black spot - a) Crab

ii) Yellow discoloration - b) Shrimp

iii) Blue-black coloration - c) Carbonyl-amine reaction

iv) Brown coloration - d) Salted shark, Jack mackeral

a) i-a ii-c iii-d iv-b
b) i-b ii-d iii-a iv-c
c) i-c ii-d iii-b iv-a
d) i-b ii-c iii-a iv-d

31. Components used to inhibit oxidation of fat

a) Tocopherol

b) Citric acid & Ascorbic acid

c) BHA & BHT

d) All the above

Match the following

32. i) Carnosine - a) whales

ii) Anserine - b) Squid & Scallop

iii) Balenine - c) White fleshed fish

iv) Octopine - d) Dark fleshed fish & shark

v) Guanidine - e) Eel muscle

a) i-e ii-d iii-a iv-b v-c

b) i-a ii-c iii-d iv-b v-e

c) i-d ii-e iii-b iv-c v-a

d) i-b ii-c iii-d iv-a v-e

150 Fisheries Question Bank

Match the following

33. i) Proteins - a) Methyl mercaptan (CH3SH)

ii) Carbohydrate - b) Carbonyll

iii) Tryptophan - c) Cadaverine

iv) Lipids - d) Indole

v) Methionine - e) Acetic acid

a) i-c ii-d iii-e iv-b v-a

b) i-c ii-e iii-d iv-b v-a

c) i-c ii-e iii-d iv-a v-b

d) i-b ii-c iii-d iv-a v-e

Match the following

34. i) Inosine - a) Ammonia

ii) Urea - b) Histamine

iii) Histidine - c) TMA

iv) Trimethyl amine oxide - d) Hypoxanthine

v) Leusine & Serine - e) Hexaenoic acids

a) i-e ii-b iii-a iv-c v-d

b) i-c ii-d iii-e iv-a v-b

c) i-d ii-a iii-b iv-c

v-e

d) i-e ii-b iii-c iv-a v-d

35. Acceptability limit of TVB-N in fish muscle is

a) 50-60mg% b) 30-45mg%

c) 20-30mg% d) 25-35mg%
Biochemistry 151

36. Acceptability limit of TMA-N in fish muscle is

a) 30-50mg% b) 10-15mg%

c) 20-30mg% d) 25-35mg%

37. Metabolite tryptophan present in mollusks

a) Indole b) Homarine

c) Histamine d) TMA

38. USFDA enfores this maximum level of histamine in fish tissue

a) 100mg% b) 50 mg%

c) 25mg% d) 75mg%

39. Shrimps/Prawns are organoleptically acceptable, if indole content is

a) <50µg b)<75µg

c) <25µg d) <100µg

40. Fish with hypoxanthine content is regarded as spoiled

a) <2.5µm b)3-5µm

c) 1-2µm d) >2.5µm

41. k value of very fresh fish is

a) 50-60% b) 30-50 %

c) 20-25% d) 100%

42. Peroxide value of fresh oil is

a)10 milli equivalent O2/kg fat
b) 1 milli equivalent O2/kg fat
c)10 milli equivalent O2/g fat
d) 1 milli equivalent O2/g fat
152 Fisheries Question Bank

43. Major storage form of carbohydrate in fish

a) Glycogen b) Starch

c) Fructose d) Glucose

44. The site of glycogeosis is

a) Muscle b) Liver

c) Mitochondria d) a & b

45. Process of synthesis of glycogen from glucose is

a) Glycogenesis b) Glucogenolysis

c) HMP d) Citric acid cycle

46. Glucose 6 PO4 is converted to glucose 1 PO4 in a reaction catalyzed by the

enzyme

a) Hexokinase

b) Phosphoglucomutase

c) Glycogen synthase

d) Uridyl transferase

47. Glucose residues are attached in the 1-4 position of glycogen primer in a
reaction catalyzed by the enzyme

a) Phosphosphorylase

b) Glycogen synthase

c) Glucokinase

d) Pyrophosphatase

48. Process of breakdown of glycogen into glucose

a) Glycogenesis b) Glucogenolysis

c) Glyconeogenesis d) Glucolysis
Biochemistry 153

49. Glucose released from Glucose-6-PO4 in a reaction is catalyzed by the enzyme

a) Phosphatase b) Phosphorylase

c) Hexokinase d) Transketolase

50. Embden Meyerhoff pathway is otherwise called as

a) Glucolysis b) Glucogenolysis

c) Glycogenesis d) HMP shunt

51. The site of glycolysis is

a) Cytoplasm b) Mitochondria

c) Liver d) Kidney

52. Glycoraldehyde-3-phoshate and DHAP are interconverted by the enzyme

a) Phospho glycerate mutase
b) Phospho trioso isomerase
c) Phosho glycerate kinase
d) Phospho fructo kinase

53. Glucose is converted into glucose-6- PO4 by the enzyme

a) Lipase b) Hexokinase

c) Pyruvate kinase d) Enolase

54. In aerobic glycolysis, glucose is converted into

a) Phosphoenol pyruvate b) Pyruvate

c) Lactate d) Alcohol

55. In anerobic glycolysis, glucose is converted into

a) Pyruvate b) Lactic acid

c) Ethanol d) b & c
154 Fisheries Question Bank

56. Fructose 1,6 biphosphate is split by aldolase into two triose phosphates

a) UTP & UDP

b) Glycoraldehyde 3 PO4& DHAP

c) Glycorate 3 PO4

d) 2 molecules of Glyceraldehyde 3 PO4

57. Phosphoenol pyruvate is converted into pyruvate in a reaction catalyzed

by the enzyme

a) Aldolase

b) Fumerase

c) Pyruvate kinase

d) Pyruvate decorboxylase

58. The number of ATP produced by the aerobic glycolysis is

a) 8 ATP b) 2 ATP

c) 10 ATP d) 38 ATP

59. Which one is catabolic reaction of the following

a) Glycogenesis) b) Glucolysis

c) Glucogenolysis d) Glyconeogenesis

60. The citric acid cycle is otherwise called as

a) Krebs Cycle b) HMP shunt

c) TCA cycle d) a & c

61. The site of krebs cycle is

a) Cytopllasm b) Mitochondria

c) Liver d) Muscle
Biochemistry 155

62. CoA contains the vitamin

a) Vit B12 b) Vit B6

c) Vit B5 (Panthothenic acid) d) Riboflavin Vit B2

63. Oxaloacetate is converted into citrate in a reaction catalyzed by the enzyme

a) Aconibase b) Citrate synthase

c) Aconitase d) Isocitrate dehdrogenase

64. The enzyme succinate dehydrogenase converts succinate into

a) Succinyl-co-A b) Fumerate

c) Malate d) Citrate

65. Citrate is converted into isocitrate in a reaction catalyzed by the enzyme

a) Fumerase b) Aconibase

c) Aconitase d) b & c

66. Succinyl-co-A is converted into succinate in a reaction catalyzed by the

enzyme

a) Succinate thikinase b) Succinate dehydrogenase

c) Malate dehydrogenase d) Fumerase

67. Production of ATP molecules in one TCA cycle (mitochondria)

a) 24 ATP b) 12 ATP

c) 38 ATP d) 8ATP

68. One glucose molecules produced--------ATP molecules

a) 24 ATP b) 8 ATP

c) 35 ATP d) 38 ATP
156 Fisheries Question Bank

69. HMP shunt is an alternate pathway for the production of

a) FADH2 b) NADH2 Ribose

c) NADH2 d) FAD+

70. Indicator of hydrolytic rancidity

a) Acid number b) Free fatty acid value

c) Peroxide value d) a &b

71. Peroxide value is the index of

a) Oxidative rancidity b) Hydrolytic rancidity

c) Denaturation d) Rigormortism

72. Energy in each ATP

a) 7000 Calories b) 500 Calories

c) 6000 Calories d) 5000 Calories

73. Pentose phosphate pathway takes place in

a) Cytosol b) Liver

c) Mitochondria d) Muscle

74. Synthesis of glucose from non carbohydrate molecules is called

a) Gluconeogenesis b)Glucolysis

c) TCA cycle d)HMP shunt

75. Synthesis of fatty acids is also called

a) Lipolysis b) Autolysis

c) Lipogenesis d) Glycolysis
Biochemistry 157

76. Acyl radicals are found in combination with a protein is called

a) Antifreeze protein

b) Acyl carrier protein

c) Stroma protein

d) Myofibrillar protein

77. End product of biosynthesis of fatty acid is

a) Acyl coA b) Palmitate

c) Malanyl coA d) NADPH+

78. The first stop of oxidation takes place in-------and the next four steps take
place in ----

a) Cytosol & Mitochondria

b) Mitochondria & Cytosol

c) Lysosome & Nucleus

d) Mitochondria & Lysosome

79. Simplest compound which is used for the synthesis of fatty acids

a) Malanyl coA b) Palmitate

c) Acyl coA d) FADH

80. KetoAcyl coA is split into Acyl coA and Acetyl co A by the enzyme

a) Enol coA hydratase

b) Carnitine acyl transferase

c) Thiolase

d) Acyl coA synthetase

 12 Fish Economics

1. The number of institutes other than universities under ICAR involved in

research and development of fisheries in India are

a) 7 b) 8

c) 9 d) 10

2. Global positioning system useful in marine fishing is supported worldwide

by how many numbers of satellites

a) 12 b) 24

c) 36 d)4 8

3. The last devastating tsunami that damaged many of the coastal fishing
villages of India occurred in the year

a) 2004 b) 2005

c) 2006 d) 2007

4. Which one of the following disaster prone events is very difficult to forewarn

a) Cyclone b) Tornados

c) Heavy rain d) Tsunami

Fish Economics 159

5. In the year 1969, for the first time in India, Agriculture Refinance Corporation
(earlier establishment of NABARD) sanctioned a marine fishing scheme
through a district level central Co-oerative bank in the state of

a) Karanataka b) Orissa

c) TamilNadu d) Kerala

6. NABARD was established in the year

a) 1982 b) 1972

c) 1992 d) 1962

7. The total number of commercial banks lending finance for the development
of fisheries in India are

a) 101 b) 123

c) 146 d) 157

8. Which of the following banks in India is providing refinance facility for the
development of fisheries sector in India

a) State Bank of India b) NABARD

c) RBI d) Cooperative bank

9. The concept of provision of microcredit for the development of

fishertiesstaterted through the formation of SHGs in the year

a) 1992 b) 1982

c) 1972 d) 1962

10. Before sanctioning loan assistance for a fishery project, a bank insists upon
primary and collateral security) The collateral security means
a) Borrower deposits security
b) Borrower deposits a bond
c) A third party deposits security for the borrower
d) All of the above
160 Fisheries Question Bank

11. The control and regulation of fishing and fisheries within territorial waters
of 12 nautical miles in India is under

a) the exclusive province of the state govt

b) the exclusive domain of the union Govt)

c) Under the joint province of state and union Govt)

d) None

12. Indian fisheries Act came into being in the year

a) 1897 b) 1877

c) 1887 d) 1867

13. The total number of maritime states and union territories in India are

a) 9 b) 10

c) 11 d) 12

14. The Maritime Zones of India (Regulation of fishing by foreign vessels) Act
was enacted in the year

a) 1981 b) 1982

c) 1983 d) 1984

15. Marine Products Export Development Authority Act was passed in the year

a) 1971 b) 1972

c) 1973 d) 1974

16. As per the marine fishing regulation acts of union govt) and different govt
of state/union territories, the distance from the seashore earmarked for
operation by artisanal (non-mechanised) fishing vessels is

a) 5-10 Km b) 20-25Km

c) 30-35Km d) 40-45Km
Fish Economics 161

17. The state, which is first, in enacting the Marine fisheries act in India is

a) Kerala b) Maharastra

c) Orissa d) Karnataka

18. The seasonal closure, as a means to regulate fishing along the east coast of
India is observed every year during

a) 16 April-31 May b) 16 May-31 June

c) 16 March-31 April d) All of the above)

19. Coastal Zone Regulation (CRZ) notification by the ministry of Environment

and Forest came in the year

a) 1991 b) 1981

c) 1999 d) 1989

20. Turtle Excluder Devices are used to reduce the mortality of turtles in the
fishing by

a) Trawl net b) Purse Seine

c) Gill Net d) Drag net

21. The headquarters of Fishery survey of India is located at

a) Mumbai b) Kolkata

c) Chennai d) Visakhapatnum

22. Code of conduct for responsible fisheries and aquaculture is formulated by

a) World fish Centre

b) Food and Agriculture Organisation

c) ICAR

d) None
162 Fisheries Question Bank

23. The state, which is first, in introducing Inland Fisheries Legislation is

a) Punjab

b) Himachal Pradesh

c) West Bengal

d) Andhra Pradesh

24. Coastal Aquaculture Authority act was established in the year

a) 1996 b)1997

c)2000 d) 2005

25. The list of banned antibiotics for shrimp culture in India includes about

a) 10 antibiotics b) 20 antibiotics

c) 30 antibiotics d) 40 antibiotics

26. Out of 12 articles in the code of conduct for responsible fisheries and
aquaculture, the article relating to the development of aquacultrue in
responsible manner is

a) 5th b)7th

c) 9th d)11th

27. The total brackish water area under shrimp culture in India is

a) 14 million ha b) 4 million ha

c) 4 million ha d) None

28. The percentage of shrimp farming population having farm area of 0-2 ha
in India is about

a) 91% b) 61%

c) 31% d) 11%
Fish Economics 163

29. The state, for the first time in India, which translated the code of conduct
for responsible fisheries and Aquaculture in local vernacular language to
create mass awareness, is

a) Gujrat b) Tamil Nadu

c) Orissa d) Andhra Pradesh

30. The first Fisheries College in the year 1969 was established in the state of

a) TamilNadu b) Karnataka

c) Uttaranchal d) Kerala

31. CIFE at Mumabi was established in the year

a) 1961 b)1971

c) 1979 d) 1989

32. Which of the following College of Fisheries in India is offering Post graduate
programme

a) College of Fisheries, Dholi

b) College of Fisheries, Raha

c) College of Fisheries, Veraval

d) College of Fisheries, Udaipur

33. For higher success in diffusion of innovations, method demonstration is

practiced which is a

a) Individual contact method

b) Group Contact Method

c) Mass Contact method

d) None
164 Fisheries Question Bank

34. First KrishiVigyan Kendra was established in the year 1974 at

a) Patna b) Bangalore

c) Pondicherry d) Bhubaneswar

35. Fish Farmers’ Development Agency operating in almost every district of

India was established in the year

a) 1954 b) 1964

c) 1974 d) 1984

36. The percentage of technological developments generated in different

fisheries research and development organisation of India, that have been
transferred to end users is only about

a) 25 % b) 50%

c) 75 % d) 95%

37. The Committee which recommended the formation of krishivigyan Kendra

for transfer and validation of technologies in agriculture and allied sciences is

a) Dr Mohan Singh MehtaCommittee

b) Dr Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

c) Dr M.S.Swaminathan Committee

d) Dr Bipin Chandra Pal Committee

38. First cooperative movement in the world started from?

a) England b) Germany

c) Canada d) America

39. First fishermen cooperative society in Maharashtra was established in

a) 1905 b) 1913

c) 1919 d) 1925
Fish Economics 165

40. Which of the following is not discounting technique of project worth?

a) B-C ratio b) Pay back period

c) IRR d) NPV

41. WTO was established in

a)1991 b)1995

c)1993 d)2001

42. Which of the following is not the method of measuring national income?

a) Income method b) Expenditure Method

c) Value addition d) Investment method

43. The demand is said to be perfectly elastic if demand curve is

a) Horizontal b) Vertical

c) very steep d) very flat

44. Magnitude of income elasticity of demand is positive and very high for

a) Normal goods b) Luxury goods

c) Inferior goods d) Substitute goods

45. Cross elasticity for complement

a) Positive b) Negative

c) Zero d) Infinite

46. Want satisfying power of commodity is called

a) Utility b) Scarcity

c) Needs d) Desire
166 Fisheries Question Bank

47. Which one of these statistics is not affected by outliers?

a) Mean b) Inter quartile range

c) Standard Deviation d) Range

48. When each member of the population has equally likely chance of being
selected, this is called

a) Non random sampling method

b) Quota sampling

c) An equal probability selection method

d) A snowball sample

49. A number calculated with complete population data and quantifies a

characteristics of population is called

a) A datum b) A statistics

c) A parameter d) A population

50. What is Median value of following set of scores?

18, 6, 10, 14, 12

a) 12 b) 10

c) 14 d) 18

51. How many dependent variables are used in multiple regression?

a) More than one b) two or more

c) two d) one

52. What is the standard deviation of a sampling distribution called?

a) Sampling error b) Sample error

c) Standard Error d) Simple error

Fish Economics 167

53. __________ results if you fail to reject null hypothesis when null hypothesis
is actually false

a) Type-I Error

b) Type-II Error

c) Type-III Error

d) Type-IV Error

54. As per constitutions’ Seventh schedule Entry 57 of List 1 Fishing and

Fisheries beyond Territorial Waters (12 Nautical Miles) is a-

a) State subject b) Union Subject

c) Coastal state subject d) None

55. Environmental (Protection) Act was passed in

a) 1972 b) 1974

c) 1986 d) 1993

56. MPEDA works under-

a) Ministry of Agriculture

b) Ministry of Food Processing and Industries

c) Ministry of Commerce

d) Ministry of HRD

57. Which act was passed to prohibit use of dynamite and poison in all territorial
waters-?

a) Environmental protection act

b) Wild life Act

c) Water Act

d) Indian Fisheries Act

168 Fisheries Question Bank

58. The word extension is derived from _____________

a) Latin b) Greek

c) German d) French

59. Extension education is ____________

a) Out of school education b) School education

c) College education d) Staff education

60. The extension teaching method is_____________

a) Vertical b) Horizontal

c) Straight d) None

61. ______________is the process by which a person becomes changed in his

behavior through self activity

a) Teaching b) Learning

c) Knowledge d) Seeing

62. The cone of experience was devised by ______________

a) Edgar dale b) Wilson

c) Paul leagans d) Gallup g

63. Farm and home visits are classified under______________

a) Individual contact method

b) Group contact method

c) Mass contact method

d) None
Fish Economics 169

64. The community development programme was launched in the year____________

a) 1952 b) 1965

c) 1978 d) 1960

65. The first KVK was established in _____________

a) Cochin b) Pondicherry

c) Mandapam d) Mangalore

66. Any idea or practice that is perceived as new by the farmers is

called______________

a) Adoption b) Innovation

c) Diffusion d) Rejection

67. The book extension education was written by ____________

a) Adivireddy b) G)ray

c) Edgar dale d) None

68. The process of providing situation in which learning takes place____________

a) Learning b) Teaching

c) Motivation c) Education

69. Feed back is maximum in ____________

a) Personal contact method

b) Group contact method

c) Mass contact method

d) Circulation of extension material

170 Fisheries Question Bank

70. The mass contact method is _____________

a) Public speaking b) Meetings

c) Door to door campaign d) Field trips

71. Method demonstration is used when ____________

a) Skills has to be taught in a better way

b) Results have to be shown

c) Participants are asked to discuss a topic

d) Experts need to find the problems of the clientele

72. Extension education is a___________ science

a) A pure science

b) A behavioral science

c) An applied science

d) An applied behavioral science

73. Lab to land programme is implemented through___________

a) Agricultural universities

b) The ICAR institutes

c) State department of agriculture

d) All the above

74. The concept of KVK was introduced by __________

a) Mohan Singh Mehta

b) Balawant Rai Mehta

c) Hemant Mehta

d) Prashant Mehta
Fish Economics 171

75. The non-formal education is _____________

a) Highly institutionalized

b) Life long process

c) Systematic and well organized

d) None

76. ____________ is the stage of putting an idea or practice into operation

a) Desire b) Conviction

c) Action d) Satisfaction

77. Environmental protection act came into force in ___________

a) 1972 b) 1986

c) 2001 d) 1897

78. _________are the first to adopt a new idea

a) Innovators

b) Early adaptors

c) Late majority people

d) Early majority people

79. __________ are the traditional and last people to adopt a new practice

a) Innovators b) Laggards

c) Late majority d) Early adopters

80. Which is the organization providing financial support for the fisheries sector?

a) FFDA b) BFDA

c) MPEDA d) NABARD
172 Fisheries Question Bank

81. For the conservation of endangered species which is the most effective
method of extension?

a) Mass awareness programme

b) Formal education

c) Informal education

d) Ranching programme

82. MPEDA comes under_________

a) Ministry of agriculture

b) Ministry of commerce

c) Ministry of animal husbandry

d) None

83. The Indian fisheries act was passed in 1897 by____________

a) President of India

b) Director of fisheries

c) The governor general of India

d) The chief minister of Tamilnadu

84. The first state to impose the fisheries act was ____________

a) Punjab b) Gujarat

c) Kerala d) Maharashtra

85. BFDA started in the year ___________

a) 1974 b) 1984

c) 1976 d) 1972
Fish Economics 173

86. The Chairman of managerial committee of BFDA ____________

a) Tashildar b) VAO

c) District collector d) BDO

87. Scalar process is called as____________

a) Hierarchy b) Span of control

c) Line unit d) Staffing

88. The department of fisheries was established in the year_________

a) 1908 b) 1907

c) 1910 d) 1911

89. The NFDB (National Fisheries Development Board) work towards__________

a) Blue revolution b) Red revolution

c) Green revolution d) White revolution

90. Binomial distribution is applied for trials having _______

a) One outcome b) Two outcomes

c) Three outcomes d) Four outcomes

91. For the estimation of experimental error following is required __________

a) Randomization b) Replication

c) Local control d) Confounding

92. F-test is used to test the significance of___________

a) Two means b) Three means only

c) Single means d) More than two means

174 Fisheries Question Bank

93. The major factor on which fisheries production function depends in

addition to capital is _______

a) Market b) Fish hold on vessels

c) Labour d) Fishing area

94. According to Giffenparadox , as price increases , demand________

a) Increases b) Decreases

c) Remain Constant d) None

95. GDP is product produced __________

a) Within the country b) Outside the country

c) By Indians d) By all

96. For complementary goods price elasticity of demand will be_________

a) Upward sloping b) Downward sloping

c) Parallel to X axis d) Parallel to Y axis

97. The most frequently occurring value is called as _____________

a) Median b) Mode

c) Mean d) Range

98. Father of economics

a) Alfred Marshall b) Adam Smith

c) Aristotle d) Robbins

99. Law of diminishing marginal utility was given by _____________

a) Alfred Marshall b) Adam smith

c) Aristotle d) Robbins
Fish Economics 175

100. NABARD was established in the year _____________

a) 1972 b) 1982

c) 1992 d) 1974

101. ICAR was established on?

a) 1935 b) 1929

c) 1927 d) 1928

102. World Trade Organization came into force in

a) 1985 b) 1995

c) 2005 d) None

103. Major proportion of advances by RRBs is to

a) Weaker section b) Rich section

c) Only to agriculture Labourers d) None

104. Agricultural Finance Corporation was established in

a) 1969 b) 1963

c) 1968 d) None

105. Agricultural Refinance and Development Corporation was established in

a) 1969 b) 1963

c) 1968 d) None

106. Credit makes capital

a) Productive b) Unproductive

c) None of the above d) None

176 Fisheries Question Bank

107. Reserve Bank of India was set up in

a) 1930 b) 1935

c) 1934 d) None

108. Rural Credit Survey Committee was set up in

a) 1951 b) 1954

c) 1955 d) None

109. SFDA and MFAL agencies were suggested by

a) Rural Credit Survey Committee

b) Rural Credit Review Committee

c) Debt and Investment Survey Committee

d) None

110. SFDA has covered only

a) All the districts

b) Selected districts

c) Randomly selected districts

d) None

111. Marginal farmer is a farmer having size of holding less than

a) One acre b) One hectare

c) One bigha d) None

112. Small farmer is a farmer having size of holding less than

a) Five acres b) Five hectares

c) Five gunthas d) None

Fish Economics 177

113. Returns, Repayment capacity, Risk bearing ability

a) Can be quantified

b) Can not be quantified

c) Can not be understood

d) None

114. Family expenditure is taken into consideration while estimating

a) Returns

b) Repayment capacity

c) Risk bearing ability

d) None

115. Equity can be a

a) Difference between total assets and total liabilities

b) Differences between saving and income

c) Difference between returns and repayment capacity

d) None

116. In even repayment plan installments are

a) Even b) Uneven

c) Unequal d) None

117. Co-operation originated in

a) Europe b) Asia

c) North America d) None

178 Fisheries Question Bank

118. Co-operation is a voluntary organization of people meant for satisfying

their economic interests”, defined by

a) A.A Rance b) C.R. Fay

c) Calvert d) None

119. Principles of co-operation approved by

a) United Nations b) ICA

c) USA d) None

120. International co-operative Alliance (ICA) appointed a commission in

1964 under the chairmanship of Prof. D.G. Karve of

a) Nepal b) UK

c) India d) None

121. State co-operative bank is called as

a) Commercial bank b) First bank

c) Apex bank d) None

122. State Co-operative Agricultural and Rural Development bank is at

a) State level b) District level

c) For a particular region d) None

123. In 2001-02 total number of central co-operative banks in India was

a) 5000 b) 3410

c) 369 d) None

124. In 2001-02 total number of apex banks in India was

a) 30 b) 22

c) 31 d) None
Fish Economics 179

125. District central co-operative bank is a connecting link between apex

bank and

a) PACS b) PCARDBs

c) SCARDBs d) None

126. Which is the instrument of planned economic action in democracy?

a) Communism b) Co-operation

c) Capitalism d) None

127. Which is the birth place of co-operative movement in world

a) U.S.A. b) England

c) Germany d) None

128. Co-operative movement was introduced in Denmark by

a) Robert Owen b) Calvert

c) H.C. Sonne d) None

129. Long-term credit in Agriculture is provided by

a) PCARDBs b) PACS

c) RBI d) None

130. The first co-operative societies act was passed in the year

a) 1919 b) 1912

c) 1904 d) None

131. Agricultural marketing is one of the important branch of

a) Economics b) Agriculture

c) Agricultural Economics d) None

180 Fisheries Question Bank

132. Market means a open place or a large building where actual

a) Buying and selling take place
b) Buying take place
c) Selling take place
d) None

133. Marketing is that part of economics which deals with the creation of

a) Time utility

b) Place utility

c) Time, place of possession utilities

d) None

134. Terminal markets are those in which the producer is either finally disposed
of direct to consumers or to processor or assembled for

a) Distribution

b) Shipment to foreign countries

c) Consumption

d) None

135. Assembling is a

a) Dispersing marketing function

b) Concentrating marketing function

c) Neither (a) nor (b)

d) None

136. What are the types of buying?

a) Buying for consumption b) Buying for resale

c) Both (a) and (b) d) None

Fish Economics 181

137. Open auction method of selling is followed in

a) Regulated market b) Unregulated market

c) Neither (a) nor (b) d) None

138. Channel of distribution can be controlled by

a) Retailer

b) Consumer

c) Producer or by their co-operatives

d) None

139. Co-operative marketing can

a) Reduce some of the marketing defects

b) Increase some of the marketing defects

c) Neither (a) nor (b)

d) None

140. Market committee consists more than

a) Fifty per cent middlemen

b) Fifty per cent cultivators

c) Fifty per cent government nominees

d) None

141. More the marketing cost

a) More the producer’s share is consumer’s rupee

b) Less the producer’s share in consumer’s rupee

c) Neither (a) nor (b)

d) None
182 Fisheries Question Bank

142. Marketing efficiency is of

a) Three kinds b) Two kinds

c) Four kinds d) None

143. When price will be more than equilibrium price then there will be

a) No pressure on price

b) Upward pressure on price

c) Downward pressure on price

d) None

144. Main role of Commission on Agricultural Costs and Prices is to

a) Purchasing of agriculture Commodities

b) Fixing prices

c) Advise government on fixing prices

d) None

145. “As the science which considers the organization and operation of the
farm from point of view of efficiency and continuous profit”, defined by

a) Warren

b) Karl Marx

c) Efferson

d) None

146. Principle of equimarginal return and opportunity cost principle leads to

a) Dissimilar decisions

b) Similar decisions

c) Different decisions

d) None
Fish Economics 183

147. At the end of the first stage of production average curve and marginal
cost curve

a) Originate b) Ends

c) Crosses each other d) None

148. Several Indian farmers follow

a) Cost concepts

b) Minimum loss principle

c) Production concept

d) None

149. Land is evaluated by

a) Income capitalization method

b) Straight line method

c) Contract method

d) None

150. Depreciation can be calculated by

a) Straight line method

b) Rent capitalization method

c) Contract method

d) None

151. Intensity of cropping is a

a) Land efficacy indicator

b) Labour efficiency indicator

c) Capital efficiency indicator

d) None
184 Fisheries Question Bank

152. Land efficiency indicators and production efficiency indicators are

a) Same b) Different

c) Neither (a) nor (b) d) None

153. Quadratic function comprises

a) Only one stage b) Four stages

c) Two stages of production d) None

154. Arithmetical accuracy is tested with the help of

a) Trial balance b) Ledger

c) Balance sheet d) None

155. Profit is known from

a) Diary b) Journal

c) Profit and loss account d) None

156. Politics and economics are

a) Distantly related b) Not related

c) Closely related d) None

157. In 2001-02, the contribution of agriculture towards national income is

about

a) 30% b) 24%

c) 80% d) None

158. The major source of financing to the farmers is

a) Private agencies b) Co-operative banks

c) Commercial banks d) None

Fish Economics 185

159. What is percentage of net shown area to geographical area in India?

a) 80 b) 43

c) 20 d) None

160. Small farmers are those whose holding are

a) Not more than 4 hectares

b) Not more than 2 hectares

c) Not more than 3 hectares

d) None

161. Marginal farmers are those whose holdings are

a) Not more than 1 hectare

b) Not more than 2.5 hectares

c) More than 1 hectare

d) None

162. What is the main function of NABARD?

a) Financing directly to the farmers

b) Providing refinance to the banks

c) Helping in recovery

d) None

163. Loan for crop production is

a) Medium-term

b) Short-term

c) Long-term

d) None
186 Fisheries Question Bank

164. Medium –term loans are repayable

a) Up to 5 Years b) Beyond 8 Years

c) Up to 9 Years d) None

165. In 2001-02 total number of SCARDBs (Central land development banks)

in India was

a) 22 b) 20

c) 31 d) None

166. In 2001-02 total number of PCARDBs (Primary land development banks)

in India was

a) 87200 b) 8720
c) 739 d) None

167. Which point is considered, while selecting a research problem

a) Cleverness of a research worker

b) Boldness of a research worker

c) Urgency of a problem

d) None

168. Researcher assume that government policies will

a) Change

b) Not change and should plan his research work

c) Likely to change

d) None

169. Field data is a

a) Secondary data b) Tertiary data

c) Primary data d) None

Fish Economics 187

170. Which is the most reliable data

a) Tertiary data

b) Primary data

c) Newspaper data

d) None

171. For research generally

a) Tertiary data should not be used

b) Primary data should not be used

c) Secondary data should not be used

d) None

172. Which is lengthy method?

a) Schedule b) Questionnaire

c) Tables d) None

173. Words used in schedule should be

a) Unknown b) Difficult

c) Easy to understand d) None

174. Initially general questions and then specific question, it is called as

a) Way of answering b) Plan of answering

c) Funnel approach d) None

175. Personal relation is developed, while filling the

a) Schedule b) Questionnaire

c) Tables d) None
188 Fisheries Question Bank

176. Interview of respondent is undertaken

a) While filling the schedule

b) While selecting the candidate

c) Only by employer

d) None

177. Case study refers to the intensive investigation of a particular

a) Field b) Unit

c) Person d) None

178. Seminar on a particular problem is called as

a) Oral reporting b) Written reporting

c) As a detail investigation d) None

179. Out line is prepared before starting the research work before

a) Starting the writing of a technical report

b) printing the report

c) Analysing of the problem

d) None

180. Popular reports are linked to

a) Laymen b) Scientist

c) Doctors d) None

181. Because of documentation, research report become more

a) Authoriative b) Easy

c) Difficult d) None
Fish Economics 189

182. AGMARK stands for

a) Agreement on Agriculture and marketing

b) Agricultural produce grading and marketing act

c) Agriculture product marketing

d) None

183. GATT stands for

a) General Agreement on Tariff and Trade

b) Gross Agricultural Trade and Technology

c) a& b

d) None

184. SFDA stands for

a) Special Farmers development agency

b) Self Farmers development agency

c) Small Farmers development agency

d) None

185. GNP stands for

a) General National Product b) Gross National Product

c) Gross Natural Produce d) None

186. NCDC stands for

a) National co-operative development corporation

b) National consumer development co-operative

c) National commission on child development

d) None
190 Fisheries Question Bank

187. On the basis of competition markets are classified in to

a) Perfect market b) Imperfect market

c) Duopoly market d) All

188. Market are classified on the basis of operation

a) Primary market b) Secondary market

c) Terminal market d) All

189. Market are classified on the basis of area

a) Local market b) National market

c) International market d) All

190. Market are classified on the basis of goods dealt in

a) Commodity market b) Capital market

c) Foreign exchange market d) All

191. Imperfect market include

a) Monopoly market b) Duopoly market

c) Oligo poly market d) All

192. Capital market include

a) Money market b) Stock exchange market

c) Foreign exchange market d) All

193. Commodity market include

a) Produce exchange
b) Manufactured and semi-manufactured goods market
c) Bullion market
d) All
Fish Economics 191

194. Factors affecting the choice of distribution channel is

a) Perishable nature, storage facilities

b) Financial position

c) Marketing cost

d) All

195. The actual expenses incurred for bringing goods and services from the
producer to the consumer is called

a) Marketing cost b) Production cost

c) Functional cost d) None

196. It is the study of the economics behavior of individual households and

firms and the determination of the market prices of individual goods
and services

a) Macro economics

b) Microeconomics

c) Socioeconomics

d) None

197. The term “micro” and “macro” in economics first used by

a) Adam smith b) Marshall

c) Ragnes Frisch (1933) d) None

198. Importance of microeconomics

a) To understand the working of economy

b) Helpful is the understanding the problem of taxation

c) To examine the condition of economic welfare

d) All
192 Fisheries Question Bank

199. It is the study of large scale economic phenomena, especially inflation,

Unemployment and economic growth

a) Macroeconomics

b) Socio economics

c) Ergo economics

d) None

200. It is the desire of the consumer backed up by his purchasing power

a) Elasticity demand

b) Effective demand

c) Derived demand

d) None

201. The demand for some commodities exist only because they are used in
producing other commodities which satisfy human wants

a) Derived demand

b)Effective demand

c) Elasticity demand

d) None

202. Indian fisheries Act, 1897 was passed by

a) The Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu

b) The Director of Fisheries

c) The Governor General of India

d) None
Fish Economics 193

203. The objective of this scheme is to provide financial assistance to fishermen

during the lean season

a) Community Hall Scheme

b) Free Insurance Scheme

c) Saving Cum Relief Scheme

d) None

204. The Department of Ocean Development (DOD) was established

a) 1991 b) 1971

c) 1981 d) None

205. Scalar process is called as

a) Hierarchy b) Span of control

c) Line unit d) None

206. CAL stands for

a) Computer Access learning

b) Computer Aided Learning

c) a & b

d) None

207. Father of modern computer is

a) Howard Aiken

b) John von Neuman

c) Charles Babbage

d) None
194 Fisheries Question Bank

208. A set of program is known as

a) Soft ware b) Hard ware

c) Instruction panel d) None

209. Example for hardware components is

a) Input unit b) Out put unit

c) External storage d) All

210. Memory unit, Arithmetic logic unit and control units together known as

a) Central programme unit

b) Central processing unit

c) Chief processing unit

d) None

211. In computer memory unit is also called as

a) Primary storage b) Internal storage

c) Main memory d) All

212. The overall plan and design of various components of a computer system
is referred as

a) Computer architecture b) Instruction cycle

c) Memory address register d) None

213. PROM stands for

a) Programmable read only memory

b) Project read only memory

c) Programmable memory

d) None
Fish Economics 195

214. Example for Input device

a) Key board b) Mouse

c) Optical character Reader d) All

215. ----------- device receive information from the CPU and present it to the
User in a desired form

a) Input b) Output

c) Bar code Reader d) None

216. Software may be broadly classified in to

a) System software b) Application software

c) a & b d) None

217. The software that manager the resources of a computer system & schedules
its operation is called

a) Operating system b) Bar code Reader

c) Optical character Reader d) None

218. Example for popular operating system

a) MS – DOS b) Windows 95

c) Window 2000 d) All

219. The most common high level languages are

a) Fortran b) C++

c) COBOT d) All

220. The language used in the communication of computer instruction is

known as

a) Process language b) Programming language

c) Procedure language d) None

196 Fisheries Question Bank

221. Example for oldest high level language is

a) C++ b) Java

c) Fortran d) None

222. A popular language for Internet programming

a) Java b) BASIC

c) COBOT d) None

223. LAN stands for

a) Local Area Network

b) Less Area Network

c) Local added Network

d) None

224. The internet Uses a Protocol known as

a) Internet protocol

b) Transmission control protocol

c) a & b

d) None

225. Benefits of work processing systems

a) Easy correction and Revision

b) Improved quality

c) More Output

d) All
Fish Economics 197

226. A computer is basically a device used for processing of numbers and

words known as

a) Data b) Information

c) Workstation d) None

227. Computer specially designed for the personal use of individuals

a) Super computer b) Personal computer

c) Parallel computer d) None

228. Based on the operating principles, computers can be classified in to

a) Digital computer b) Analog computers

c) Hybrid computer d) All

229. Communication of messages electronically over a long distance is known as

a) Tele communication b) Internet

c) Data communication d) None

230. The technology that combines computer technology and telecommunication

technology

a) Information technology b) Innovative technology

c) Telecommunication d) None

231. COBOL stands for

a) Common Business Oriented Learning

b) Common Basic operational language

c) Common Business Oriented Language

d) None
198 Fisheries Question Bank

232. CAM stands for

a) Common access management

b) Computer accessory management

c) Computer aided manufacturing

d) None

233. First mechanical calculating machine was

a) Blaire pascal b) Peter

c) Charles Babbage d) None

234. ALU stands for

a) Arithmetic local unit

b) Arithmetic and logic Unit

c) Long Access Unit

d) None

235. The brain of computer is

a) Modem b) Monitor

c) Central processing Unit d) None

236. Science is a

a) Knowledge

b) Knowledge not of things but of their relations

c) Power

d) None
Fish Economics 199

237. A computer output device to display a variety of information on screen

including text, Icons, Photographs, etc.

a) Monitor b) Modem

c) Keyboard d) CPU

238. Science is a process

a) Which build up the knowledge

b) Which degenerate the knowledge

c) Which increase sadness

d) None

239. Main function of science is to

a) Carry-out research b) Discover the truth

c) Discover the problem d) None

240. The degree of certainty of receiving expected benefits from the adoption
of an innovation is called

a) Observability b) Predictability

c) Trialability d) None

241. It is a statement of situation, objectives, problems and solutions

a) Extension programme b) Training programme

c) Workshop d) None

242. An outline of procedure and pertains only to some phase of extension

work is called

a) Proposal b) Project

c) a & b d) None
200 Fisheries Question Bank

243. A plan of work arranged chronologically is known as

a) Calendar of work b) Daily work

c) Work statement d) None

244. Expression of the ends towards which our efforts are directed are called

a) Objectives b) Projects

c) Results d) None

245. It is the distance in any given direction one expects to go during a given
period of time

a) Aim b) Motivation

c) Goal d) None

246. The needs of which farmers are aware are called as

a) Unfelt needs b) Felt needs

c) Knowledge needs d) None

247. Itis a process by which the employees of an organization are helped in a

continuous planned way to acquire capabilities required, develop general
capabilities and develop organizational culture

a) Health resources development

b) Human resource Development

c) Performance development

d) None

248. The systematic development of the knowledge, skills and attitudes required
by an individual to perform adequately a given task or job is known as

a) Training b) Teaching

c) Extension d) None
Fish Economics 201

249. The methodology suited to executives and senior officers in dealing with
a complex problem which requires the contributions from senior officers
to solve the same is called

a) Conference b) Symposium

c) Seminar d) None

250. The word symposiumoriginated from

a) Latin b) French

c) Greek d) None

251. The T-Group training is otherwise known as

a) Sensitivity training

b) Laboratory training

c) a & b

d) None

252. It is a field of study that investigates the impact individuals, groups

and structure have on behaviour within organization for the purpose
of applying such knowledge towards improving an organizational
effectiveness

a) Organization Development

b) Organizational Behaviour

c) Man power planning

d) None

253. The term management derived from French word ménage meaning

a) Organization b) Motivation & Rewards

c) Housekeeping d) None
202 Fisheries Question Bank

254. It is the process of designing and maintaining an environment in which

individuals, working together in groups, accomplish efficiently selected
aims

a) Management b) Extension

c) Training d) None

255. The power in position exercise discretion in making decisions in

organization is called

a) Management b) Authority

c) Man power d) None

256. The size to the number of subordinates a manager can effectively supervise
is called

a) Laggards b) Span of control

c) Man power planning d) None

257. Establishing harmonious relationship between the efforts of individuals

and groups for accomplishment of organizational objectives is known as

a) Co-ordination b) Socialism

c) a & b d) None

258. It is the process of selecting, maintaining and developing personnel in

position to fulfill the organizational objectives

a) Budgeting b) Directing

c) Staffing d) None

259. Communication in an organization generally flows

a) Downward b) Upward

c) Horizontally d) All
Fish Economics 203

260. It is a small group of persons to whom some matter is referred to mainly

for detailed examination and decision

a) Community b) Society

c) Committee d) None

261. Vesting of decision – making power in subordinate by a superior is called

a) Span of control b) Delegation of Authority

c) Man power planning d) None

262. ------------ is an organization for carrying out Integrated Rural Development

through Aquaculture extension programme

a) FDA b) FAO

c) FFDA d) None
 Information &
13 Communication Technology

1. What is the smallest unit of computer memory_____________

a) Byte b) Bits

c) Kilobyte d) Mega byte

2. Expansion of ALU

a) Arithmetic logic unit

b) Algorithmic logic unit

c) Algebraic logic unit

d) Arithmetic local unit

3. Which is the volatile memory_____________

a) RAM b) ROM

c) FDD d) HOD

4. Which one of the following is an input device?

a) Monitor b) Printer

c) Keyboard d) Plotter
Information and Communication Technology 205

5. First generation computers used______________

a) Valves b) Transistors

c) IC’s d) None

6. What was the period of second generation?

a) 1955-1964 b) 1965-1974

c) 1975-1982 d) 1946-1954

7. Floppy disc is ______________

a) Input device b) Output device

c) Input/output device d) None

8. Abbreviate URL

a) Unit resource locator

b) Unit resource level

c) Uniform revenue layout

d) Uniform resource locator

9. Collecting the data and converting it into information is called as-

a) Exporting b) Importing

c) Processing d) Compiling

10. All the deleted files go to

a) Task bar

b) Recycle Bin

c) ToolBar

d) My Computer
206 Fisheries Question Bank

11. In OCR, C stands for

a) Code b) Colour

c) Computer d) Character

12. The simultaneous processing of two or more programs by multiple

processors is

a) Multiprogramming b) Multitasking

c) Time-sharing d) Multiprocessing

13. When you turn on the computer, the boot routine will perform the test

a) RAM Test b) Disk drive test

c) Memory test d) Power on self

14. For creating a document, you use command at File Menu.

a) Open b) Close

c) New d) Save

15. These servers store & manages files for network users

a) Main b) Authentication

c) Web d) File

16. Ethernet uses

a) Bus topology b) Ring topology

c) Mesh topology d) All

17. You can keep/Store your personal files/Folders in

a) My Folder b) My documents

c) My Files d) My Text
Information and Communication Technology 207

18. The main circuit board of the system unit is the

a) Computer programme b) Control Unit

c) Motherboard d) RAM

19. Computer use the number system, to store data & perform calculations.

a) Binary b) Octal

c) Decimal d) Hexadecimal

20. Which of the following is called small single site network?

a) LAN b) DSL

c) RAM d) USB
 14 Statistics

1. Population size is denoted by which letter___________

a) N b) S

c) P d) N

2. Which sampling method do you suggest for heterogeneous population?

a) Simple random b) Systematic

c) Stratified d) Sequential

3. Which technique do you recommend for comparison of several means?

a) t-test b) F-test

c) ANOVA d) X2- test

4. Symbol for null hypothesis___________

a) H0 b) HA

c) HO d) NONE
Statistics 209

5. Symbol for alternate hypothesis__________

a) HO b) HA

c) HO d) NONE

6. Accepting the null hypothesis when it is actually false is called___________

a) Type I error b) Type II error

c) Standard error d) None

7. Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true is called __________

a) Type I error b) Type II error

c) Standard error d) None

8. Chi square is applied to which type of data?

a) Interval b) Attribute

c) Measurement d) Rank

9. The values of simple correlation lies between ___________

a) 0 and 1 b) -1 and + 1

c) -0.9and +0.9 d) None

10. When Z=3.5 & I =2.1 then M is ?

a) 1.4 b) 2.4

c) 5.6 d) 0.4

11. The graph of cumulative frequency is known as__________

a) Histograph b) Ogive

c) Frequency polygon d) Frequency curve

210 Fisheries Question Bank

12. If mean of binomial distribution is 6 and variance 2.4, probability of

success is _________

a) 0.4 b) 0.5

c) 0.6 d) 0.7

13. Equality of variance of two normal population based on independent sample

is tested using ________

a) Z test b) Chi square test

c) F test d) T test

14. Test of goodness of fit is known as__________

a) Z test b) Chi square test

c) F test d) T test

15. The appropriate form of production function in marine capture fisheries

is _________

a) Linear form b) Parabolic form

c) Quadratic for d) Exponential form

16. Data that has already been collected by some other investigator or agency
and used by an investigator for his purpose

a) Primary data b) Secondary data

c) Tertiary data d) None

17. It is a tentative statement that offers an answer or explanation for a problem,

and that has to be tested by further investigation

a) Level of significance

b) Correlation

c) Hypothesis

d) None
Statistics 211

18. It represents the difference between the observed value, and the true value

a) Random error b) Systematic error

c) Type I error d) None

19. Statistical data are presented in the form of maps

a) Pictogram b) Cartogram

c) Pie-diagram d) None

20. Representation of data in the form of pictures

a) Bar diagram b) Pie-diagram

c) Pictogram d) None

21. It is the graphical representation of continuous frequency distribution

a) Histogram b) Bar diagram

c) Pie-diagram d) None

22. Correlation between variables can be studied by the following methods

a) Scatter diagram

b) Correlation graph

c) Karl pearson’s co-effcient of correlation

d) All

23. It is the statistical and mathematical study of the size, composition and
spatial distribution of human population

a) Demography

b) Diagnostic error

c) Factorial design

d) None
212 Fisheries Question Bank

24. Diagrammatic representation of data in the form of bars either on horizontal

and vertical base

a) Pie-diagram b) Bar diagram

c) a & b d) None

25. Diagrammatic representation of data in the form of Circle

a) Pie-diagram b) Bar diagram

c) a & b d) None

26. A statistical device to estimate the value of one variable (x) from another
correlated variable (y)

a) Correlation b) Frequency polygon

c) Regression d) None

27. A group of individuals or unit that is chosen from a population is called

a) Unit b) Sample

c) Sampling frame d) Sub population

28. Degree of inequalities income distribution in a country or region is measured

by

a) Phillips curve b) demand curve

c) Lorenz curve d) None

29. Difference between maximum value and the minimum of data is called

a) mean b) Mode

c) Range d) None

30. Frequency distribution of normal distribution is

a) Bell shaped b) U shaped

c) Tail shaped d) None

Statistics 213

31. Measure of dispersion

a) Mean b) Mode

c) Variance d) None

32. Researcher can use concept as

a) Procedure of analysis b) A tool of analysis

c) A weapon d) None

33. Hypothesis is a

a) Tentative solution to the problem

b) Concept

c) Mechanism

d) None

34. Hypothesis must be specific and precise otherwise they are

a) Useful b) Much useful

c) Not much useful d) None

35. It is the scientific study of numerical data based on natural phenomenon

a) Statistics b) Biostatistics

c) Binomial variable d) None

36. It is defined as totality of individual observation

a) Infinite population b) Finite population

c) Population d) None
214 Fisheries Question Bank

37. A property with respect to which individuals in a population and a sample

from that population differ in some ascertainable away

a) Dispersion b) Precision

c) Variable d) None

38. Example for Quantitative variable

a) Length of fish b) Weight of fish

c) Number of seed d) All

39. Variables are those which cannot be measured but can be ordered or ranked
by their magnitude

a) Discrete variable b) Ranked variable

c) Quantitative variable d) None

40. The chief sources of collection of data in biology are

a) Direct observations b) Surveys

c) Records d) All
 15 Biology of Fishes

1. Egg with no yolk is termed as

a) Microlecithal b) Alecithal

c) Macrolecithal d) Mesolecithal

2. Uniform distribution of yolk is known as

a) Isolecithal b) Homolecithal

c) Both a & b d) Alecithal

3. Buoyant eggs laid in water surface

a) Aerophils b) Pelagophils

c) Psammophiles d) All the above

4. Eggs that are laid in damp soil outside the water

a) Pelagophils

b) Aerophils

c) Psammophiles

d) All the above

216 Fisheries Question Bank

5. Mouth brooder fish

a) Tilapia b) Cat fish

c) Sea horse d) Both a & b

6. Eggs that have wide perivitelline space

a) Upeneaus b) Hemiramphus

c) Sardinella d) Lethrinus

7. Stage of larvae that has yolk sac

a) Pro larva b) Post larva

c) Both a & b d) Fry

8. Short oval body fish larvae present in the family

a) Balistidae b) Coryphaenidae

c) Mullidae d) Mugilidae

9. Presence of synchronous hermaphroditism

a) Sapridae

b) Labridae

c) Centropomidae

d) Serranidae

10. Development of young ones without fertilization

a) Protandrous hermaphroditism

b) Synchronous hermaphroditism

c) Parthenogenesis

d) None
Biology of Fishes 217

11. Reproduction by laying eggs is

a) Ovoviviparous b) Viviparous

c) Oviparous d) All the above

12. Process during which yolk formation occurs

a) Previtellogenesis b) Spermatogenesis

c) Parthenogenesis d) Vitellogenesis

13. Complete cleavage of egg is known as

a) Meroblastic b) Mosaic cleavage

c) Both a & b d) Holoblastic

14. In Greek “Epiboly” means

a) Throwing in b) Thrust in

c) Throwing on d) Thrust out

15. Larvae of Stomatopod (Squilla)

a) Alima b) Velliger

c) Cypris d) Trochophore

16. Larvae of Lobster is

a) Mysis b) Nectochaeta

c) Glochidium d) Phyllosoma

17. Larvae of Salmon is

a) Alevin b) Glochidium

c) Umbo d) Megolopa
218 Fisheries Question Bank

18. Mesodermal organ include

a) Kidney b) Reproductive organs

c) Gills d) All the above

19. Ovipositor is present in

a) Oreochromis b) Rhodeus

c) Clarias d) Hemirampus

20. Anal fin acts as a penis in fishes belonging to the family

a) Cyprinidae b) Palaemonidae

c) Jenynsidae d) Centropomidae

21. The best method for gut content analysis

a) Index of Relative importance

b) Absolute importance Index

c) Comparative feeding Index

d) Index of preponderance

22. Migration with the water current is termed as

a) Denatant b) Vertical migration

c) Horizontal migration d) Contranatant

23. Presence of little or few organisms in the stomach is termed as

a) Empty stomach

b) Regurgited stomach

c) Trace stomach

d) Gorged stomach
Biology of Fishes 219

24. Placoid scales are found in

a) Elasmobranchs b) Clupeids

c) Lung fishes d) Herrings

25. The eggs of these groups of fishes lack of oil globule

a) Floating b) Pelagic

c) Demersal d) Semi- buoyant

26. Paedophagy means

a) Eating detritus

b) Eating scale

c) Eating larval or embryonic forms

d) Eating eggs

27. The transparent ribbon or leaf like larvae with large teeth and far back
anus in primitive Teleostomii is

a) Ammocoete b) Leptocephalus

c) Alevin d) Megalopa

28. Leydig’s gland is present in the excretory system of

a) Elasmobranchii b) Teleostomii

c) Crustaceans d) Molluscs

29. Parts of green glands of prawn are

a) End sac, Labyrinth and Bladder

b) End sac and Bladder alone

c) Labyrinth and End sac alone

d) Labyrinth and Bladder alone

220 Fisheries Question Bank

30. Main excretory organs of prawns are

a) Antennary gland b) Later ducts

c) Renal sac d) All the above

31. The type of tail fin symmetrical, both internally and externally is called

a) Homocercal b) Heterocercal

c) Proterocercal d) Diphycercal

32. Which is not true about pheromone?

a) Chemical secreted by organisms

b) Affects behavior of same species, rarely closely related species

c) Helps in avoiding predation

d) All the above

33. The correct von Bertalanffy growth equation is

a) Lt = L∞[1-e-K(t-t0)] b) L∞ = Lt [1-eK(t-t0)]

c) Lt = L∞[e-K(t-t0)] d) L∞ = Lt [e-K(t-t0)]

34. Which is true about Weberian ossicles?

a) Found in Cypriniformes b) Found in Siluriformes

c) Both a and b d) Found in all fishes

35. Four bones present in Weberian apparatus are

a) Lapillas, Sagitta, Astericus and Claustrum

b) Lapillas, Astericus, Scaphium and Claustrum

c) Astericus, Tripus, Scaphium and Claustrum

d) Claustrum, Scaphium, Tripus and Intercalarium

Biology of Fishes 221

36. Lactarius lactarius is an example for

a) Patronym b) Matronym

c) Tautonym d) Synonym

37. Sphyrna zygaena belongs to the family

a) Lamnidae b) Sphyrnidae

c) Sphyraenidae d) Carcharhinidae

38. Saw shark belongs to the order, ------------

a) Rajiformes b) Pristiophoriformes

c) Squatiniformes d) Squaliformes

39. Sting rays belong to the family

a) Rajidae b) Dasyatidae

c) Urolophidae d) Gymnuridae

40. Lobe-finned fishes belong to the class

a) Acanthodi b) Sarcopterygii

c) Actinopterygii d) Euselachi

41. The total reservoir area of India is about

a) About 30 million ha b) About 3 million ha

c) About 30 lakh ha d) About 3 lakh ha

42. Wular Lake is situated in the state,

a) Himachal Pradesh b) Jammu &kashmir

c) Uttar Pradesh d) Assam

222 Fisheries Question Bank

43. Mandovi-Zuari estuarine system is located in the state,

a) Orissa b) Gujarat

c) Goa d) West Bengal

44. The characteristics of the cold water lakes are

a) Low transparency, Low fertility and Low oxygen

b) High transparency, High fertility and Low oxygen

c) High transparency, Low fertility and High oxygen

d) Low transparency, High fertility and High oxygen

45. The optimum temperature for the coldwater fishes is

a) Less than 5° C b) 10 – 12° C

c) 10 –20° C d) 5 - 10° C

46. Srikakulam swamp is in

a) Tamilnadu b) Kerala

c) Andhra Pradesh d) Karnataka

47. The total area of brackish water resources of India is

a) 1.44 milllion ha b) 1.44 lakh ha

c) 0.14 million ha d) 0.14 lakh ha

48. The national average fish yield from reservoirs in India is

a) 20 kg/ha b) 200 kg/ha

c) 100 kg/ha d) 150 kg/ha

49. Area of small reservoirs

a) Less than 10000 ha b) Less than 5000 ha
c) Less than 1000 ha d) Less than 100 ha
Biology of Fishes 223

50. The present marine capture fisheries production in India is about

a) 4.7 million tones

b) 2.7 million tones

c) 3.2 million tones

c) 3.7 million tones

51. The ichthyotoxin, Rotenone is an active component present in

a) Mahua oil cake

b) Tea seed cake

c) Derri’s root powder

d) Sugar cane jaggery

52. Which is not common in southwest coast?

a) Mud bank fishery

b) Bombay duck fishery

c) Oil sardine fishery

d) Penaeid shrimp fishery

53. The first attempt to transplant trout in India was made at

a) Nilgiri b) Wular lake

c) Nainital d) Logtak lake

54. As per the recent estimate, fisheries potential of Indian EEZ is

a) 3.93 lakh tones

b) 3.93 million tones

b) 2.93 million tones

d) 2.93 lakh tones

224 Fisheries Question Bank

55. Non-penaeid prawns form a major fishery in the state,

a) Tamilnadu & Andhrapradesh

b) Tamilnadu & Kerala

c) Gujarat & Maharashtra

d) Karnataka & Kerala

56. Caudal fin is confluent with dorsal fin and anal fin in

a) Bothidae b) Cynoglossidae
c) Solidae d) Pleuronectidae

57. Lateral line is absent in the order

a) Perciformes b) Cypriniformes

c) Beloniformes d) Clupeiformes

58. Remove the odd one out

a) Sardines b) Ribbonfishes

b) Mackerels d) Perches

59. Which species / group forms the major portion of pelagic fish production
in India?

a) Mackerel b) Oil sardine

c) Lesser sardine d) Carangid

60. Remove the odd one out

a) Caranx sp

b) Carangoides sp

c) Decapterus sp

d) Scomberoides sp
Biology of Fishes 225

61. Which of the followings is in the increasing order of contribution to the

present total demersal fish production in India

a) Silverbellies, Croakers and Perches

b) Silverbellies, Perches and Croakers

c) Croakers, Perches and Silverbellies

d) Perches, Croakers and Silverbellies

62. Which seerfish species contributes maximum to the total seerfish production
in India

a) Scomberomorus lineolatus

b) Scomberomorus guttatus

c) Scomberomorus commerson

d) Acanthocybium solandri

63. Life span of oil sardine is

a) 3 and half years

b) 2 and half years

c) 4 years

d) 1 year

64. Which state contributes maximum to the total lesser sardine production
in India?

a) Tamilnadu b) Kerala

c) Gujarat d) Maharashtra

65. Species belonging to the genera, Stolephorus and Encrasicholina are called

a) Lesser sardine b) Whitbait

c) Whitefish d) Herrings
226 Fisheries Question Bank

66. Major perches belong to the families

a) Serranidae, Lutjanidae and Lethrinidae

b) Serranidae, Nemipteridae and Haemulidae

c) Lutjanidae, Haemulidae and Caesionidae

d) Lethrinidae, Nemipteridae and Serranidae

67. Swimbladder is large in the family,

a) Carangidae

b) Sciaenidae

c) Scombridae

d) Harpodontidae

68. Crab landing is more from the state

a) Kerala b) Andhrapradesh

c) Gujarat d) West Bengal

69. Which one of the followings shows the decreasing order of catch of lobster?

a) Southeast, Southwest and Northwest

b) Southeast, Northwest and Southwest

c) Northwest, Southeast and Southwest

d) Northwest, Southwest and Southeast

70. Neuromasts are

a) Sensory units of inner ear

b) Sensory units of nares

c) Sensory units of swim bladder

d) Sensory units of lateral line

Biology of Fishes 227

71. Harwan hatchery is situated in

a) Andhra Pradesh b) Kashmir

c) Himachal Pradesh d) Uttaranchal

72. Which of the following hatcheries belong to Uttaranchal

a) Harwan, Talwari, baitwali, Mahili

b) Kaldayani, Gangori, Harwan, Bhowali

c) Kaldayani, Dalwari, Baitwali, Mandi, gangori

d)Harwan, Mahili, Talwari, Gangori

73. Gandhisagar reservoir is situated in

a) Madhya Pradesh b) Karnataka

c) Himachal Pradesh d) Uttaranchal

74. Ventral scute is absent in,

a) Sardine b) Anchovy

c) Wolf-herring d) None of the above

75. Migratory fishing is adopted in

a) Killai backwater

b) Chilka lake

c) Pulicat lake

d) Hooghly-Matlah estuary

76. Fishing by rotation is associated with

a) Migratory fishing b) Padu system

c) Janos d) BANDAL type

228 Fisheries Question Bank

77. Which is not true about Hilsa?

a) Belongs to Clupeidae b) Plankton feeder

c) Catadromous d) All the above

78. Mugger-Mukh is a lagoon associated with

a) Narmada estuary b) Chilka lake

c) Godavari estuary d) Hooghly-Matlah estuary

79. Which is true about Pomadasys sp?

a) Have chin pores

b) Belongs to Haemulidae

c) Make grunting sound by grinding canine teeth

d) Only a and b

80. Smolt is the term associated with

a) Huso b) Acipenser

c) Huso d) Onchorhynchus

81. Which is not true about Tamilnadu?

a) Oil sardine fishery

b) Lesser sardine fishery

c) Shark fishery

d) Silverbelly fishery

82. Rampani net is widely used in

a) Kerala b) Karnataka

c) Andhra Pradesh d) West Bengal

Biology of Fishes 229

83. Labyrinthiform organ is an accessory respiratory organ in

a) Climbing Perch b) Knife fish

c) Mudskipper d) Eel

84. Respiratory pigment in crustacean is

a) Haemoglobin b) Haemocyanin

d) Haemoerythrin d) None

85. Radula is present in

a) Bivalve b) Cephalopod

c) Gastropod d) All

86. Crystalline style is present in

a) Bivalve b) Cephalopod

c) Gastropod d) All

87. Double circulation is found in

a) Teleost b) Elasmobranch
c) Lungfish d) Crusatacean

88. Partial septum is present in the heart of

a) Teleost b) Elasmobranch

c) Lungfish d) Crustacean

89. How many pairs of ostia are present in the heart of fresh water prawn?

a) 3 pairs b) 4 pairs

c) 5 pairs d) 6 pairs
230 Fisheries Question Bank

90. Which is not true about elasmobranch?

a) Rectal gland present

b) Spiral valve present

c) Bulbus arteriosus present

d) Both a and b

91. Gills of elasmobranch are

a) Filiform pectinate

b) Phyllobranch

c) Lamelliform

d) Pleurobranch

92. Reasons for the inefficient gas exchanging system of shark

a) 5 – 7 gill slits

b) Lamelliform gill

c) Parallel flow

d) All the above

93. Arthrobranchs of the freshwater prawn are attached to

a) I maxilliped

b) I maxilliped

c) III maxilliped

d) IV maxilliped

94. Axial skeleton includes

a) Skull b) Vertebral column

c) Pectoral girdle d) Both a and b

Biology of Fishes 231

95. Osphradium means

a) Unit of compound eye

b) Sensory organ of molluscs

c) Hydrostatic organ of teleost

d) None of the above

96. How many maturity stages are assigned for continuous spawners?

a) III b) IV

c) V d) VI

97. The number of nauplius stages in Penaeid shrimps is

a) 4 b) 3

c) 2 d) 6

98. In an isometrically growing fish ‘b’ value lies at

a) 3 b) 4

c) 2.5 d) 2.5 – 4

99. Bitterlings deposit their eggs in

a) Bivalve b) Gastropod

c) Crustaceans d) Cephalopod

100. Which type of vascular system is present in teleosts?

a) Single and closed b) Double and closed
c) Single and Open d) Double and Open

101. Chemoreception is mainly concerned with

a) Sense of smell b) Sense of hearing

c) Sense of touch d) None of the above

232 Fisheries Question Bank

102. The chief function of green gland is

a) Excretion of nitrogenous wastes

b) Ionic regulation

c) Moulting

d) None of the above

103. Statocyst is an organ for

a) Sense of hearing

b) Sense of balance

c) Sense of smell

d) Sense of taste

104. The unit of compound eye is

a) Retinulae b) Ommatidium

c) Osphradium c) Ctenidium

105. Outer layer of molluscan shell contains

a) Chitin b) Conchiolin

c) CaCO3 d) SiO2

106. Tegumentary gland is present in

a) Epidermis b) Dermis

c) Cuticle d) None of these

107. Remove odd one out

a) Supramaxilla b) Vomer
c) Mesethmoid d) Parasphenoid
Biology of Fishes 233

108. Which is true about lamprey?

a) Breed only once at the end of life cycle

b) Possess light sensitive cells in skin & eyes

c) Paired fins present

d) Both a and b

109. The most common specialized branchial glands in fish are

a) Mucous gland & Chloride cells

b) Chloride cells & Taste buds

c) Taste buds & Mucous gland

d) None of the above

110. Process of violent sweeping of water over the gill lamellae to make them
free from accumulated detritus is

a) Ram ventilatiuon b) Coughing

c) Counter current flow d) Oxygenation

111. The increased facility with which the blood unloads oxygen when its
carbon dioxide tension is increased

a) Bohr effect b) Root effect

c) Oxygen dissociation d) None

112. The bones which connect the gas bladder to the inner ear

a) Supramaxilla b) Vomer

c) Weberian ossicles d) Parasphenoid

113. Hagfish is a
a) Osmoregulator b) Osmoconfirmer
c) Both a and b d) None
234 Fisheries Question Bank

114. Animals who can maintain the internal osmolarity differences from the
medium in which they are.

a) Osmoregulator b) Osmoconfirmer

c) Both a and b d) None

115. Body fluids of freshwater fish is

a) Hyperosmotic to aqueous medium

b) Hypoosmotic to aqueous medium

c) Isoosmotic to aqueous medium

d) None

116. In fishes, osmoregulation is controlled by hormones secreted by

a) Thyroid gland & Suprarenal body

b) Adrenal gland & Pineal organ

c) Pituitary gland alone

d) Thyroid gland alone

117. Which is true about pronephric kidney?

a) Tubules of anterior region functional in early life

b) Tubules of posterior region functional throughout life

c) Most anterior tubules lost; middle tubules associated with testes &
concentration & multiplication of tubules posteriorly

d) None of these

118. Which is an aglomerular fish?

a) Seahorse & Pipefish b) Triggerfish & Pufferfish

c) Sardine & Herring d) Tuna & Seer

Biology of Fishes 235

119. Which is true about marine fish?

a) Hyposmotic to aqueous medium

b) Produces scanty urine

c) Don’t spend much energy for Osmoregulation

d) All the above

120. The transmission of the impulse from one neuron to the next in the chain

a) Impulse b) Synapse

c) Signal d) None

121. Prosencephalon includes

a) Telencephalon & Mesencephalon

b) Telencephalon & Diencephalon

c) Mesencephalon & Diencephalon

d) Mesencephalon & Metencephalon

122. The receptors of lateral line system are

a) Cnidoblast b) Nematocyst

c) Ampullae d) Neuromast

123. Fish pituitary hormone which directly regulates the specific enzymatic
reactions in the various body or tissues.

a) Tropins & Tropic hormones

b) Melanin & Melanophore stimulating hormone

c) Both a and b

d) None
236 Fisheries Question Bank

124. In fishes, oxytocin & vasopressin are secreted by

a) Neurohypophysis

b) Adenohypophysis

c) Both a and b

d) None

125. The release of sex hormones are under the control of

a) Neurohypophysis

b) Proadenohypophysis

c) Mesoadenohypophysis

d) Metaadenohypophysis

126. Number of cephalothoracic appendages in prawn is

a) 19 pairs b) 13 pairs

c) 6 pairs d) 9 pairs

127. Aretemia belongs to the class

a) Cladocera b) Anostraca

c) Ostracoda d) Copepoda

128. Which is a cirriped?

a) Argulus b) Krill

c) Waterflea d) Barnacle

129. Which is called Mantis shrimp?

a) Cladocera b) Stomatopoda

c) Ostracoda d) Copepoda
Biology of Fishes 237

130. Which is not true about Euphausids?

a) Carapace does not cover sides of body

b) Gills in a single series on thorax

c) Statocyst present
d) Larva is nauplius

131. In shrimps, Stylocerite is in

a) Antenna

b) Antennule

c) Pleopod

d) Pereopod

132. Lobster belongs to the infra-order

a) Macrura

b) Anomura

c) Palinura

d) Natantia

133. True crab belongs to the infra-order

a) Brachyura b) Anomura

c) Astacura d) Palinura

134. Which is true about brachiuran cran?

a) Abdomen greatly reduced

b) Small carapace

c) Rostrum present

d) Large no. of gills

238 Fisheries Question Bank

135. Which is the characteristic feature of genus, Portunus?

a) Anterolateral angle of basal antennal segment pronouncedly dilated

b) Anterolateral carapace cut into a teeth with last one enlarged as along
spine

c) Anterolateral angle of basal antennal segment not appreciably produced

d) None of these

136. Chiton belongs to the order

a) Aplacophora

b) Polyplacophora

c) Monoplacophora

d) None

137. Shell divided into eight overlapping transverse calcareous plates in

a) Chiton b) Chank

c) Cowries d) Top shell

138. Subclasses of Gastropoda

a) Prosobranchia b) Opisthobranchia

c) Pulmonata d) All

139. Cypraea belongs to the order

a) Archaegastropoda b) Mesogastropoda

c) Neogastropoda d) None

140. Family of sacred chank

a) Muricidae b) Olividae

c) Vasidae d) Aplysidae
Biology of Fishes 239

141. Which is heteromyous?

a) Veneridae b) Mytilidae

c) Pectinidae d) Pinnidae

142. Pearl oyster belongs to the family

a) Pteridae b) Pinnidae

c) Ostreidae d) Mytilidae

143. Elephant’s tusk shell is a

a) Gastropod b) Bivalve

c) Cephalopod d) Scaphopod

144. Gladius means

a) Cuttlebone b) Squid pen

c) Jaw d) radula

145. Squid belongs to the order

a) Teuthoidea b) Octopoda

c) Coleoidea d) Dibranchiata

146. Heterocotylized arm is in

a) Male cuttlefish b) Female cuttlefish

c) Male squid d)All

147. 147. Aymptotic length is denoted as

a) Lo b) Lt

c) L∞ d) Ln
240 Fisheries Question Bank

148. Methods of etimation of growth parameters are

a) Gulland & Holt plot & For-Walford method

b) Heinchke’s method & Jackson method

c) Cushing method & Robson & Chapman method

d) Paloheimo mthos

149. Exploitation ratio is estimated from

a) E = F/Z b) E = M/Z

c) E = Z/F d) E = F x Z

150. Marsupiam is a term relevant to

a) Fish migration b) Brood pouch

c) Accessory respiratory organ d) Parental care

151. Which of the following is true about the Superclass, Agnatha

a) No jaw; three semicircular canals; paired fins present

b) No jaw; one or two semicircular canals; no paired fins

c) No jaw; two or three semicircular canals; no paired fins

d) None of the above

152. Number of gill pouches in lamprey is:

a) 5 - 15 pairs b) 1 pair

c) 5 – 7 pairs d) 5 pairs

153. Heart of fishes is called as:

a) Pulmonary heart b) Systemic heart

c) Venous Heart d) Portal heart

Biology of Fishes 241

154. African lungfish belongs to the family

a) Protopteridae b) Ceratodontidae

c) Lepidosirenidae d) Polypteridae

155. Presence of cosmoid scale is the characteristic feature of

a) Acanthodii b) Crossopterygii

c) Actinopterygii d) Neopterygii

156. Organism that develops as female, later changing to male is called

a) Protoandrous hermaphrodite

b) Protogynous hermaphrodite

c) Metagonous hermaphrodite

d) Synchronous hermaphrodite

157. Which one supplies deoxygenated blood to the gills in fishes

a) Efferent branchial artery

b) Ductus cuvieri

c) Afferent branchial artery

d) Epibranchial artery

158. In which of the following catfish families, caudal fin is forked?

a) Plotosidae b) Heteropneustidae

c) Ariidae d) Siluridae

159. The second pair of cranial nerve in fishes is

a) Olfactory nerve b) Oculomotor nerve

c) Optic nerve d) Vagus nerve

242 Fisheries Question Bank

160. The number of fish which grow into the catchable size range in unit of
time is

a) Absolute growth rate

b) Absolute recruitment

c) Relative growth rate

d) Specific growth rate

161. A reproductive gulid where eggs of the fishes are hidden on a beach is

a) Psammophil b) Aeropsammophil

c) Phylolithphil d) Pelagophil

162. A fish species having the gas bladder closed with no connection to the gut is

a) Physoclist b) Phyostome

c) Cyclostome d) None of the above

163. The functions of gas bladder of fishes include

a) Hydrostatic organ

b) Sound production and reception

c) Respiratory organ

d) All the above

164. The characteristics of albino fish include

a) Lack of pigmentation & sensitive to strong light

b) Less hardy than normal fish

c) Physiological weakness

d) All the above

Biology of Fishes 243

165. Alizarin is

a) A pituitary gland preservative

b) A bone specific stain

c) A stain for observing zones of otolith

d) An egg preservative

166. Milkfish belongs to the order

a) Channiformes

b) Megalopiformes

c) Perciformes

d) Gonorhynchiformes

167. Chin pores are present in the finfish family

a) Mullidae and Sciaenidae

b) Sciaenidae and Haemulidae

c) Siluridae and Haemulidae

d) Siganidae and Sciaenidae

168. The scientific name of Arawana is

a) Amia calva

b) Elops machnata

c) Latimeria chalumnae

d) Osteoglossum bicirrhosum

169. Deniel is a term connected to

a) Air breathers b) Fish disease

c) Fish way d) Fish war

244 Fisheries Question Bank

170. Ammocoete is the larval stage of

a) Myxiniformes

b) Petromyzontiformes

c) Salmoniformes

d) Gaterosteiformes

171. Fishes which regularly migrate between the sea and freshwater (or
vice versa) at some stage in their life cycle but not for the purpose of
reproduction.

a) Diadromous b) Potamodromous

c) Amphidromous d) Catadromous

172. 172. Aqualung is a / an

a) Underwater breathing apparatus

b) Accessory respiratory organ

c) Lung of marine mammals

d) Breathing organ of lungfishes

173. A type of suspension where the upper jaw is connected directly to the
chondrocranium is

a) Amphistylic b) Hyostylic

c) Autostylic d) Craniostylic

174. The single specimen designated or indicated as “the type-specimen” of

a nominal species-group taxon by the author at the time of the original
publication is called

a) Paratype b) Holotype

c) Neotype d) Allotype
Biology of Fishes 245

175. The ability of the organisms to maintain body fluids at a rather constant
osmotic pressure despite changes in their environment is called

a) Poikilosmosis b) Reverse osmosis

c) Osmoregulation d) Homeostsis

176. Bombay duck forms an important fishery in

a) Gujarat b) Kerala

c) West Bengal d) Orissa

177. Indian state having highest penaeid shrimp catch

a) Tamil Nadu b) Kerala

c) Maharastra d) Karnataka

178. Costal length of India is

a) 1200km b) 1220km

c) 8129km d) 6350km

179. The EEZ for India

a) 372km b) 8118km

c) 200km d) 1000km

180. Valuable product obtained from shark

a) Liver oil b) Leather

c) Meat d) Fin rays

181. Indian white shrimp

a) P. indicus b) Metapenaeus dobsonii

c) P. monodon d) P. semisulcatus
246 Fisheries Question Bank

182. Pelagic fish are mainly caught by

a) Gill net b) Trawl net

c) Long line d) Purse seine

183. Shrimps are mainly caught by

a) Gill net b) Trawl net

c) Long line d) Purse seine

184. FAO fishing area of Western Indian Ocean

a) 57 b) 88

c) 77 d) 34

185. FAO fishing area of Eastern Indian Ocean

a) 31 b) 51

c) 71 d) 77

186. Major market for Indian lobster export

a) Japan b) Australia

c) Indonesia d) Peru

187. Donax sp is a

a) Giant clam b) Wedge clam

c) Black clam d) Pearl oyster

188. Villorita cyprinoids

a) Giant clam b) Wedge clam

c) Black clam d) Rock oyster

Biology of Fishes 247

189. Iridaena squamosa is the

a) Giant clam b) Wedge clam

c) Black clam d) Rock oyster

190. Upwelling increases the productivity of

a) Shrimps b) Fish

c) Plankton d) Bivalves

191. Carnivores are mainly caught by

a) Gill net b) Trawl net

c) Long line d) Purse seine

192. Crabs are caught by

a) Bottom set gill net b) Mid water gill net

c) Trawl net d) Purse seine

193. Traditional craft of Tamil Nadu

a) Trawler b) Vallam

c) Coracle d) Catamaran

194. Bombay duck is mainly caught by

a) Gill net b) Trawler

c) Dipnet d) Dol net

195. Closed season for fishing activity in Tamilnadu

a) April1st- May 15th

b) April15th - May 30th
c) May 1st – May 30th

d) May 15th – June 30th

248 Fisheries Question Bank

196. The first fishes from upper Cambrian (490 million years BC) period are
known as_________.

a) Placoderms

b) Ostracoderms

c) Acanthodians

d) Colacanth

197. Scientific name of lizard fish is __________

a) Harpodon nehereus

b) Synodus saurus

c) Atropus atropus

d) Silago sihama

198. The caudal fin is ___________ in the Bombay duck.

a) Trilobed b) Bilobed

c) Rounded d) Lunate

199. _________ is the world’s largest living arthropod.

a) American crayfish

b) Mantis shrimp

c) Japanese spider crab

d) Krill

200. Scientific name of Kuruma shrimp is

a) Penaeus semisulcatus

b) Penaeus indicus

c) Fennoropenaeus (Penaeus) merguiensis

d) Penaeus japonicus
Biology of Fishes 249

201. Sacculina is a root headed barnacle parasitic on

a) Mole crab b) Emerita

c) Prawn d) Lobster

202. A poisonous shelled mollusk

a) Terebra b) Conus

c) Xancus d) Babylonia

203. Guts of mullet fish carry a characteristic feature known as

a) Spiral valve b) Gastric mill

c) Gizzard d) Pyloric ceacae

204. Isometric growth

a) b=3 b) 3

c) b d) None of the above

205. Gonopodia are

a) Primary sex characters b) Secondary sex characters

c) Both of the above d) None of the above

206. Fish detect food by

a) Sight b) Lateral line system

c) Smell and taste d) All of the above

207. Index of preponderance is associated with

a) Gut content analysis
b) Reproductive analysis
c) Condition factor analysis
d) Percentage edibility analysis
250 Fisheries Question Bank

208. In Von Bertalanffy Growth Formula ‘K’ stands for

a) Condition factor b) Ponderal Index

c) Curvature parameter d) Growth factor

209. ________ scales are developed from the secretory activity of the both dermis
and epidermis.

a) Placoid b) Cycloid

c) Ctenoid d) Non-placoid

210. Aerobic metabolism in cells of body by using oxygen and removal of

carbon dioxide from the body is called_______.

a) Aspiration b) Respiration

c) Circulation d) Urination

211. Specific gravity of seawater fish is ______

a) 108% b) 106%

c) 109% d) 105%

212. _________ fish eyes have lid like nictitating membranes which helps in
cleaning the surface of the cornea.

a) Shark b) Whale

c) Sperm Whale d) Ray

213. Ecdysis means

a) Process of spawning

b) Enlargement of shell

c) Formation of new exoskeleton inplace of old exoskeleton

d) Fattening of shellfishes
Biology of Fishes 251

214. Stain used for marking shellfishes

a) Trypan b) Trypan pink

c) Methlylene blue d) Acriflavin

215. Gills are present on pleopod in_______.

a) Free living copepod b) Stromatopod

c) Crab d) Euphuciacea

216. Mark recovery method helps in

a) Species identification

b) Estimation of fecundity

c) Breeding season identification

d) Aging

217. ________ tag is mostly used for studying fish.

a) Atkin tag b) Internal suture tag

c) Spaghetti tag d) Dart tag

218. _________ in crustaceans is controlled by ‘juvenile hormone’ from the

X-gland/Sinus gland and ecdysone from the Y-gland.

a) Gonadal maturation

b) Reproduction

c) Moulting

d) Pituitary secretion

219. __________ are responsible for the sense of touch, hearing and position.

a) Electroreceptors b) Acoustics

c) Mechanoreceptors d) Radioreceptors
252 Fisheries Question Bank

220. Elasmobranchs possess low-density oil named ________.

a) Squalene b) Prolactin

c) Ambergris d) Triglicerides

221. Ammonia produced in the liver of the fish is converted into a non-toxic
form in the blood called _____

a) Glutamine b) Uric acid

c) Creatine d) Creatinine

222. Animals that maintain an osmotic difference between their body fluids
and the surrounding environment are considered as ________.

a) Osmoregulators b) Osmohydrants

c) Osmoconformers d) Osmogradients

223. _______ fish has high water content of about 95%.

a) Bombay duck b) Jelly fish

c) White fish d) Lizard fish

224. In edible oysters, the _______ larva changes into spat after 14-19 days.

a) Glochidium b) Trochophore

c) Veliger d) Pediveliger

225. Primitive larvae of Crustacea is ______.

a) Nauplius b) Zoea

c) Trochophore d) Mysis

226. The Indo-Norwegian project was started in the year

a) 1950 b) 1952

c) 1960 d) 1962
Biology of Fishes 253

227. Who is the ‘Father of Marine Fisheries Development’?

a) Sir M. Peterson b) Sir F. Nicholson

c) Sir J. Bose d) none of the above

228. Mark and recapture is _________ method of population enumeration.

a) a direct b) an indirect

c) a back calculation d) None of the above

229. ‘Lω’ stands for

a) Asymptotic length

b) Mean length at recruitment

c) Length of fish

d) Instantaneous rate of growth

230. Instantaneous rate of fishing mortality is denoted by a symbol

a) F b) M

c) Z d) G

231. ________ is an intraspecific group of randomly mating individuals with

temporal or spatial integrity.

a) Biomass b) Population

c) Standing crop d) Stock

232. Tenulosa Ilisha is an example of a fish showing.

a) Catadromous migration

b) Anadromous migration

c) Not to migrate anywhere

d) None of the above

254 Fisheries Question Bank

233. The Institute responsible to carry out research and developmental work
in Inland fisheries sector in India is.

a) CIFE b) CIFT

c) CMFRI d) CICFRI

234. By ‘recruitment overfishing’ we mean

a) Catching small fish before they recruit into the fishery

b) Reduction in parental stock to an extent where they are unable to

produce sufficient recruits

c) Both of the above

d) None of the above

235. By MSY we mean

a) Largest catch that is obtained for several years

b) Largest average catch that can be obtained again and again

c) The highest catch from a fishery

d) The highest average catch from a fishery

236. Length-weight relationship

a) Straight line

b) Curvilinear

c) Direct

d) No relationship

237. Sustainable yield is synonymous to

a) MEY b) Y

c) Equilibrium yield d) MSY

Biology of Fishes 255

238. Which of the following considers the stock as a homogenous biomass?

a) Logistics models

b) Analytical models

c) Exploratory surveys

d) Holistic models

239. Diurnal range of air temperature over sea is less than_____

a) 20C b) 50C

c) 10C d) 30C

240. The apparent force resulting from rotation of earth, which causes wind
deflection, is known as ________.

a) Coriolis acceleration b) Coriolis force

c) Coriolis parameter d) Wind force

241. __________ Satellite is launched to measure sea surface altimetry.

a) SEASAT-A b) TOPEX

c) INSAT-A d) INSAT-B

242. Hydrostatic pressure in the sea increases by _________ per meter depth.

a) 1bar b) 10mbar

c) 1decibar d) 10decibar

243. Hydrodynamics is studied under the division_________.

a) Marine Engineering

b) Chemical oceanography

c) Biological oceanography

d) Physical oceanography
256 Fisheries Question Bank

244. Red tide occurs when there is bloom of______.

a) Diatoms

b) Dinoflagellates

c) Cocolithophores

d) Ceratium

245. The ________zone is the productive zone of the sea and its extent varies
with the availability of light.

a) Dysphotic b) Euphotic

c) Aphotic d) Abyssal

246. Blue book is the compilation of

a) Endangered species b) Animal species

c) Protected plant species d) Insect species

247. IUCN is an abbreviated form of_________.

a) Indian Union of Coral Nature

b) International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources.

c) Integrated Union for Conservation of Nature

d) Indian Union for Conservation of Nature

248. The first Indian Marine park was set up at

a) Malvan b) Sunderbans

c) Jamnagar d) Tuticorin

249. Johansberg hosted an earth summit in______.

a) 2002 b) 1992

c) 2005 d) 1998
Biology of Fishes 257

250. Bacterial kidney disease is caused by _________

a) Renibacterium salmonarium

b) Flexibacter columnaris

c) Vibrio anguillarum

d) Aerinibsa saknibucuda

251. Causative agent for columnaris disease__________

a) Pseudomonas b) Flexibacter

c) Aeromonas d) Edwarsiella

252. Aphanomyces invadens is the causative agent for ___________

a) Taura syndrome b) EUS

c) Larval mycosis d) Velvet disease

253. Cotton shrimp disease is caused by ___________

a) Protozoans b) Wssv

c) Microsporidian d) Poor water quality

254. Luminous bacterial disease in shrimp is caused by ____________

a) Leucothrix minor
b) Vibrio anguillarum
c) Vibrio harveyi
d) Aeromonas salmonicida

255. Furunculosis is caused by _________________

a) Pseudomonas aeroginosa

b) Vibrio anguillarum

c) Vibrio cholera

d) Aeromonas salmonicida
258 Fisheries Question Bank

256. Enteric red mouth disease is caused by_________

a) Aeromonas hydrophila

b) Pseudomonas sp

c) Yersinia ruckeri

d) Mycobacterium sp

257. Black grub disease is caused by______________

a) Cestodes b) Nematodes

c) Digenetic trematodes d) Protozoan

258. The most pathogenic virus of shrimp____________

a) MBV b) BP

c) WSSV d) HPPV

259. Whirling disease in fish is caused by ____________

a) Myxosoma cerebralis

b) Pseudomonas fluorescens

c) Achyla hoferi

d) Leptolignia marina

260. Dropsy in fish is caused by _____________

a) Tricodina b) Myxosporidia

c) Aeromonas d) Vibrio sp

261. Gill rot in fishes is caused by _____________

a) Branchiomyces b) Bacteria

c) Saprolegnia d) None of these

Biology of Fishes 259

262. Ich disease is caused by ___________

a) Aeromonas b) Pseudomonas

c) Ichthyopthirius d) None of these

263. Fin rot and tail rot is caused by ___________

a) Pseudomonas b) Aeromonas

c) Ichtyopthrius d) Gyrodactylus

264. The infective larval stage of digenetic trematodes______________

a) Miracidium b) Nauplius

c) Metacercaria d) None of these

265. Scoliosis and lordosis in carps occur due to ______________

a) Vit C deficiency

b) Vit B deficiency

c) Vit A deficiency

d) Calcium deficiency

266. Gas bubble disease is associated with super saturation of _______

a) O2 b) Co2

c) So2 d) NH3

267. Argulus is commonly found in ponds with________

a) Low salinity

b) Low alkalinity

c) High turbidity

d) High organic matter

260 Fisheries Question Bank

268. The haemoflagellate protozoan parasite of fish ___________

a) Trypanasoma b) Tricodina

c) Microsporidian d) Amylodinium

269. Fish tape worm is known as___________

a) Bothriocephalus b) Diphyllopthrium

c) Ticodina d) Ligula

270. Protozoan gill disease of Penaeid shrimp is caused by _______

a) Zoothamnium b) Epistylis

c) Costia d) Vorticella

271. IHHNV contains_______________

a) DNA containing parvolike virus

b) RNA containing picorna like virus

c) DNA containing picorna like virus

d) RNAcontaining parvolike virus

272. Gram negative bacteria differs from gram positive bacteria in _________

a) Their response to gram stain

b) Their susceptibility to antibiotics

c) The makeup of their cell walls

d) All the above

273. External crustacean parasites on carps___________

a) Lernea b) Sacculina

c) Artemia d) Cypris
Biology of Fishes 261

274. Gammaxene is used to control __________

a) Lernea b) Argulus

c) Glochidia d) Costia

275. Formalin can be used for the treatment of _____________

a) Ectoparasite

b) Endoparasite

c) Viral diseases

d) Bacterial diseases

276. Abdominal dropsy in fishes is also known as ____________

a) Bacterial hemorrhagic septicemia

b) Enteric disease

c) Runt disease

d) Pseudo kidney disease

277. External or internal bleeding caused by rupture of blood vessels is

known as______

a) Haemolysis b) Hyperplasia

c) Histolysis d) Hemorrhage

278. _____________is a stress hormone

a) Arginine b) Urotensin

c) Cortisol d) Thyroxine

279. Increase in cell size is called as________

a) Hyperplasia b) Hypertrophy

c) Atrophy d) Neoplasia
262 Fisheries Question Bank

280. Increase in cell numbers is called as_________

a) Hyperplasia b) Hypertrophy

c) Atrophy d) Neoplasia

281. Viruses are classified based on their ____________

a) RNA

b) DNA

c) RNA & DNA

d) RNA & DNA , PROTEIN PROFILE

282. Find the odd one out:

a) ELISA b) Immunodot

c) Western blot d) PCR

283. What is cytopathetic effect?

a) Damage to cell by bacteria

b) Damage to cell by virus

c) Damage to cell by protozoans

d) Damage to cell by fungus

284. The first report of EUS outbreak in India was in the year_________

a) 1988 b) 1991

c) 1990 d) 1993

285. The first report of WSSV outbreak in India was in the year_________

a) 1984 b) 1992

c) 1994 d) 1996
Biology of Fishes 263

286. The function of opsonin is to __________

a) Enhance the rate of phagocytosis

b) Clear the cell debris

c) Prevent the viral entry

d) Precipitate the pathogens

287. Transferin starves bacteria by binding ___________in serum

a) Iron b) Magnesium

c) Calcium d) Sodium

288. Interferon is ____________

a) Antifungal protein

b) Antiviral protein

c) Antibacterial protein

d) Component of specific defense mechanism

289. ______________is regarded as the primary lymphoid organ

a) Kidney b) Heart

c) Liver d) Thymus

290. Antibodies are synthesized by __________

a) Plasma cells b) Memory cells

c) Follicular cells d) RBCs

291. _____________are the preparations of antigens derived from pathogenic

organisms rendered non-pathogenic by various means

a) Antibodies b) Vaccines

c) Probiotics d) None
264 Fisheries Question Bank

292. The most important character of specific immunity is/are__________

a) Specificity b) Memory

c) Specificity & memory d) Adaptive changes

293. _____________is used to control EUS

a) CIFAX b) KMnO4

c) OTC d) NONE

294. CIFAX designed by_____________

a) CIFE b) CIBA

c) CIFA d) CMFRI

295. Gaffikemia is the disease related to ___________

a) Lobsters b) Crab

c) Shrimp d) Fish

296. The teleost fish has the following class of immunoglobulin__________

a) IgE b) IgM

c) IgA d) IgG

297. PCR method of detection of Vibrio cholera was standardized by_________

a) CIFE b) CCMB

c) CIFT d) CMFRI

298. DNA polymerase is isolated from ___________

a) Thermos aquaticus b) Aeromonas

c) Pseudomona d) All the above

Biology of Fishes 265

299. Cotton wool disease in fish is caused by ____________

a) Saproegniasp b) Branchimyces sp

c) Achyla sp d) Exophila sp

300. Red tail disease in shrimp is caused by___________

a) MBV b) TSV

c) WSSV d) IHHNV

301. The concentration of KMno4 for treating argulus infection_______

a) 10 ppm b) 5 ppm

c) 20 ppm d) 2 ppm

302. The common medium employed for fish cell line is ________

a) TCBS b) MEM

c) TSA d) None

303. Blue disease in shrimp is caused due to ______________

a) Bacteria b) Virus

c) Fungi d) Nutritional deficiency

304. ELISA is basically___________

a) Hematological test b) Immunological test

c) Calorimetric test d) Electrophoresis

305. MBV is diagnosed by squash method using the stain___________

a) Malachite green b) Giemsa stain

c) Ziel-neilson stain d) Gram stain

266 Fisheries Question Bank

306. Chronic soft shell syndrome in shrimps is caused due to the deficiency
of _______

a) Ca & P b) Fe & Cu

c) Mg &Mn d) Ca & Fe

307. The nutritional disorder reported due to methionine deficiency________

a) Skin discoloration b) Fin erosion

c) Cataract d) Slime disease

308. Cytokines are produced by ________

a) Viral infected cells b) Lymphocytes

c) Cytotoxic cells d) T helper cells

309. Hybridoma is the cell formed by the fusion of__________

a) Melanin cell with B lymphocyte

b) Meninges cell with antibody producing cell

c) Myeloma cell with T lymphocyte

d) Myeloma cell with B lymphocyte

310. The most common fungus that attack the fry and fingerlings ________

a) Saprolegnia parasitica

b) Branchiomyces species

c) Aspergillus sp

d) Tricodina sp

311. Malathion dosage for argulosis disease_________

a) 0.25 ppm b) 25 ppm

c) 0.025 ppm d) 0.5 ppm

Biology of Fishes 267

312. Condensation of nuclei of cells ______________

a) Pyknosis b) Apoptosis

c) Karyorexi d) Karyolysis

313. L-15 medium is used for the isolation of ____________

a) Virus b) Bacteria

c) Fungus d) None

314. The rapid and advanced PCR is _________

a) Nested PCR b) RT PCR

c) Multiplex PCR d) Double time PCR

315. WSSV is also called as _______________

a) HHNBV b) RV-PJ

c) SEMBV d) All

316. PCR was discovered in the year __________

a) 1990 b) 1983

c) 1980 d) 1974

317. Methemoglobinemia is related to __________ toxicity

a) Ammonia b) Nitrate

c) Nitrite d) All

318. Fishes belong to the order Myxiniformes are commonly called as_____

a) Lungfishes b) Lampreys

c) Hagfishes d) Bony fishes

268 Fisheries Question Bank

319. The type of tail in which the upper and lower lobesare same in size is
known as___________

a) Homocercal b) Heterocercal

c) Emarginated d) Truncate

320. Adipose fin as second dorsal fin is present in __________

a) Salmon b) Catfish

c) Stingray d) Mackerel

321. Bottom feeding fish have _________mouth

a) Terminal b) Pointed

c) Subterminal d) Superior

322. Fishes having mixed diet is known as_________

a) Stenophagus b) Monophagus

c) Euryphagus d) Microphagus

323. Semel parity is a type of reproduction where___________

a) The adult spawn and die

b) The adult guard the eggs

c) The adult spawn and go away

d) The adult carry the eggs with them

324. Oxidised haemoglob in which cannot function as respiratory pigments

known as__________

a) Heme

b) Oxyhaemoglobin

c) Globin

d) Methemoglobin
Biology of Fishes 269

325. Skates belong to the family____________

a) Pristidae b) Rajidae

c) Torpedinidae d) Squalidae

326. Electric organs are present in ___________

a) Rajiformes b) Torpediniformes

c) Squaliformes d) Hexanchiformes

327. The dorsalfin is short and feather like in___________

a) Notopterus b) Sardine

c) Tuna d) Horsemackerel

328. Herring and anchovies belong to the order___________

a) Elopiformes b) Anguilliformes

c) Clupeiformes d) Perciformes

329. Gambusia affinis is also known as__________

a) Lanternfish b) Mosquito fish

c) Guppy d) Zebra fish

330. Catla has ____________type of mouth

a) Superior b) Inferior

c) Subterminal d) Terminal

331. ____________scale are found in cartilaginous fishes

a) Placoid b) Cycloid

c) Ctenoid d) Ganoid
270 Fisheries Question Bank

332. ___________ the world’s largest living arthropod

a) American Cray fish b) Mantis shrimp

c) Japanese spider crab d) Krill

333. Scientific name of kuruma shrimp___________

a) Penaeus semisulcatus b) Penaeus indicus

c) Penaeus merguiensis d) Penaeus japonicas

334. Among the crustaceans the most dominant representative group in the
Indian fishery_______

a) Crab b) Prawn

c) Lobster d) Bivalve

335. The brown mussel available in the Indian coast________

a) Pernaindica b) Pernaviridis

c) Modiolusspp. d) Pinusnigreum

336. Chalky type of internal shell of cuttle fish is called as__________

a) Cuttle stick b) Cuttlebone

c) Fanshell d) Cuttle pad

337. Fastest swimming invertebrate is__________

a) Sepia b) Loligo

c) Octopus d) Prawn

338. Common name of Metapenaeus affinis____________

a) Tigerprawn b) Bananaprawn

c) Brownprawn d) Flowerprawn
Biology of Fishes 271

339. Spermatozoa receiving organ in female penaeid prawn is________

a) Petasma b) Thelycum

c) Hardpoint d) Appendix musculina

340. Blood of crust aceans is blue due to_________

a) Haemoglobin b) Erythrocruorin

c) Haemocyanin d) Bloodlymph

341. Taxonomy which deals with the interspecific variations and their
revolutionary relationship

a) Alphataxonomy b) Betataxonomy

c) Gammataxonomy d) Classicaltaxonomy

342. A poisonous shelled mollusk________

a) Terebra b) Conus

c) Xancus d) Babylonia

343. Bivalve species known as ship worm_________

a) Mya spp. b) Bornea spp.

c) Teredo spp. d) Hiatella spp.

344. Poikilothermy in the true sense means_____________

a) Cold-blooded

b) Warm blooded

c) Cold blooded but with limitations on temperature tolerance

d) None of the above

272 Fisheries Question Bank

345. Most abundant form of natural food of fishes____________

a) Plankton b) Nekton

c) Benthos d) Detritus

346. Planktivores, filter the food particles from the water by adaptations
known as_________

a) Gillfilaments b) Gilllamellae

c) Gill rackers g) Gills

347. Gutsofmullet carry a characteristic feature known as____________

a) Spiralvalve b) Gizzard

c) Gastric mill d) Pyloricceacae

348. The largest digestive gland in fishes is__________

a) Theliver b) Thepancreas

c) Spleen d) Midgutgland

349. Haemopoetic tissue in fishes is concentrated in___________

a) Liver b) Bonemarrow

c) Spleen and kidneys d) None of the above

350. The part of the stomach adjacent to the intestine____________

a) Pyloricstomach b) Stomachproper

c) Cardiacstomach d) Gastric gland

351. The yearly ring formed on the scales of fishes is________

a) Circulus b) Radulus

c) Focus d) Annulus
Biology of Fishes 273

352. Isometric growth____________________

a) b =3 b) b>3

c) <3 d) none of the above

353. Spiral valves are the characteristic feature of _____________

a) Whales b) Barracudas

c) Tuna d) Sharks

354. Which of the following is not true of hermaphrodites_______

a) Simultaneous b) Protandrous

c) Protogynous d) Bisexual

355. Which of the following is not true of migration_______________

a) Alimental b) Gametic

c) Climatic d) Wandering

356. Quantity of egg depends upon____________

a) Size of the egg
b) Weight of the egg
c) Amount of the yolk present

d) All of the above

357. Fishes detect food by_______________

a) Sight

b) Lateral line system

c) Smell and taste

d) All the above

274 Fisheries Question Bank

358. Catadromous migration involves the movement from_____________

a) Sea water to freshwater

b) Freshwater to sea water

c) Within freshwater

d) Within sea water

359. In majority of teleosts fertilization is ___________

a) Internal b) External

c) Both of the above d) None of the above

360. Index of preponderance is associated with___________________________

a) Gutcontent analysis

b) Reproductive analysis

c) Condition factor analysis

d) None of the above

361. Which of the following is a part of volumetric method of food analysis_____

a) Eye estimation method

b) Points method

c) Displacement method

d) All of the above

362. Gonad-somatic index tracks the

a) Seasonal changes in the gonad weight

b) Seasonal changes in the gonad weight in relation to bodyweight

c) Changes in gonad volume

d) None of the above

Biology of Fishes 275

363. Fecundity and parental care shows__________

a) Direct relationship

b) Inverse relationship

c) No relationship

d) Positive relationship

364. In Von Bertalanffy Growth formula K ‘stands for___________

a) Condition factor

b) Pondrel index

c) Curvature parameter

d) Growth factor

365. In Von Bertalanffy Growth formula,t0stands for________________

a) Age at length zero

b) Length at age zero

c) Time of birth

d) None of the above

366. The_________layer of dermish as a loose network of collagenandreticul in

fibres

a) Stratum compactum b) Stratum spongiosum

c) Stratum corneum d) Stratum germinativum

367. Scales are developed from the secretory activity of the both dermis and
epidermis

a) Placiod b) Cycloid

c) Ctenoid d) Non-placoid
276 Fisheries Question Bank

368. __________scales are developed only from the dermis

a) Placoid b) Non-placoid

c) Cycloid Ctenoid

369. ____________in fishes serve as accessory feeding structure that carry

sensory organs

a) Flaps b) Teeth

c) Sting d) Barbels

370. ___________species has teeth on the tongue

a) Notopterus b) Wallago

c) Baracudda d) Clarias

371. The________ is the temporary storage organ for the secretion of liver

a) Gall bladder b) Liver

c) Spleen d) Gastric glands

372. The condition where air-bladder of fish is connected through a functional

pneumatic duct with the gut is called as_________________

a) Physostomus

b) Physoclistous

c) Physostatis

d) Physoglotous

373. The heart in fish is located in the _____________cavity

a) Pericardial b) Peretonium

c) Neurocranium d) Cardial
Biology of Fishes 277

374. The fore brain is the site of ___________sense

a) Olfactory b) Optic

c) Sight d) Humoral

375. _____________is the primary function of mid brain or mesencephalon

a) Smell b) Vision

c) Taste d) Sense

376. The color of ovaries in fish is ____________immature/ripe adults

a) White b) Green

c) Grey d) Golden yellow

377. The main blocks of which the muscles are made up of are known as_____

a) Axial muscles b) Skeletal muscles

c) Myomeres d) Smooth muscles

378. Science dealing with the form and structure of an organism is called as_____

a) Physiology b) Morphology

c) Anatomy d) Taxonomy

379. Which species of penaeid shrimp spend their whole life in the sea______

a) P.monodon

b) P.merguiensis

c) Parapenaeopsis stylifera

d) M.affinis
278 Fisheries Question Bank

380. Ecdysis means ___________

a) Process of spawning

b) Enlargement of shell

c) Formation of new exo skeleton in place of old exo skeleton

d) Fattening of shell fishes

381. M.rosenbergii larvae pass through_____stages before becoming postlarva

a) 10 b) 11

c) 09 d) 13

382. The optimum salinity for rearing larvae of M.rosenbergiiis ___________

a) 10 ppt b) 15 ppt

c) 13 ppt d) 20 ppt

383. Early larval stage of penaeid shrimps feed on_________

a) Phyto plankton b) Zoo plankton

c) Mixed plankton d) Artificialfeed

384. Glands which secrete Moult Inhibiting Hormone_______________________

a) GIH b) Antennal gland

c) Maxillary gland d) Hepato pancreas

385. Example for an open thelycum in shrimp_________________

a) P.monodon

b) P.semisulcatus

c) P.vannamei

d) P.indicus
Biology of Fishes 279

386. The oviparity matured stage recognized as ‘mature’ in penaeid

shrimp___________________

a) Stage I b) Stage II

c) Stage III d) Stage IV

387. Small solid mass of nervous tissue containing numerous cell bodies________

a) Nerve b) Ganglion

c) Commisure d) Nervecord

388. Circulatory system in crustacean is ________type

a) Closed b) Open

c) Partlyclosed d) Partlyopen

389. Fish have_________chambered heart and single circulation

a) 2 b) 3

c) 4 d) 1

390. ___________includes the perception of taste and smell

a) Mechano reception b) Chemo reception

c) Radio reception d) Electro reception

391. _____is the major nitrogenous waste product excreted by fish

a) Urea b) Ammonia

c) Uric acid d) Amino acids

392. __________fish has high water content of about 95%

a) Bombay duck b) Jelly fish

c) White fish d) Lizard fish

280 Fisheries Question Bank

393. The largest bivalve in the world________

a) Pernaviridis b) Crassostrea gryphoides

c) Tridacna gigas d) Paphiamalabarica

394. Crustacean shell is mainly composed of ___________

a) Ca b) CaCO3

c) CaSO4 d) All of the above

395. Internal shell of loligo is called as_________

a) Pen b) Cuttlebone

c) Conch d) All of the above

396. Name the chocolate mahaseer from the following

a) Amblypharyngodon

b) Ctenopharyngodon

c) Acrossocheilus hexagonalepis

d) Hypopthalmicthys

397. Medium size reservoirs have water spread area of __________________

a) >500ha b) 1000-5000ha

c) <500ha d) <1000ha

398. Oxbow lakes are formed by_________

a) Volcanic activity

b) River activity

c) Glacial activity

d) Tectonic activity
Biology of Fishes 281

399. In an aquatic ecosystem, adepth where respiration and photo synthesis

is balanced is_____

a) Euphoticzone b) Abyssal depth

c) Profundal depth d) Compensation depth

400. Farakka Barrage is on the river________

a) Brahmaputra b) Ganga

c) Narmada d) Hooghly

401. Euryhaline species are adopted to___________

a) Wide range of salinity variations

b) Narrow range of salinity variations

c) Inhabitants of sea

d) None of the above

402. Which of the following exotic fish is introduced in India from Italy______

a) Salmo trutta b) Puntius javonicus

c) Ctenopharyngodonidella d) Gambusiaaffinis

403. What is the total area of estuaries in India?

a) 2.8 millionha b) 2.7 millionha

c) 2.85 millionha d) 2.75 millionha

404. Globally as per FAO, major inland fishing zones of the world are
divided into_______

a) 19 zones b) 8 zones

c) 17 zones d) 27 zones
282 Fisheries Question Bank

405. The marshy delta area of Hooghly matlah estuary is known as__________

a) Hooghlyarea b) Sundarforest

c) Sundarban d) None of the above

406. Which estuary lies between Cuttack and Puri district of Orissa?

a) Godavari estuary b) Narmada

c) Cauvery d) Mahanadi

407. The largest brackish waterlake in India is__________

a) Pulicat lake b) Vembanad lake

c) Chilka lake d) Dal lake

408. The Brahmaputra river in Tibet is locally called as__________

a) Tsangpo b) Sangpo

c) Sanapo d) None of the above

409. Which state always leads in inland fish production__________

a) Maharashtra b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Bihar d) WestBengal

410. Hilsailisha is the predominant species available in the______of Ganga river

a) Upper stretch b) Lower stretch

c) Middle stretch d) Entire river stretch

411. In the year 1957 strains of the common carp were brought into the
country from_____

a) China b) Nepal

c) Japan d) Thailand
Biology of Fishes 283

412. Temperature range of cold water is __________

a) 0-20degree b) 5-20degree

c) 10-12degree 10-15degree

413. Cold waters are characterized by the presence of__________

a) High oxygen b) Low Co2

c) Low fertility d) All of the above

414. Which of the following country always leads in inland fish production__

a) India b) China

c) Japan d) Thailand

415. Mirror carp was first introduced in India in_________

a) Kodai kanal b) Ooty

c) Himalayan region d) Nilgris region

416. The most important work on Indian fishes was contributed by:____

a) Engel b) Holden

c) Hamilton d) Nicolson

417. Temperate fish stocks differs from tropical fish stocks with respect to

a) Less species diversity

b) Ease of aging

c) Single and short annual spawning durations

d) All of the above

418. Mortality in smaller fish when compared to larger fish is________

a) Higher b) Lower

c) Equal d) No particular trend

284 Fisheries Question Bank

419. Data that is indicative of stock abundance or of changes in the stock

abundance________

a) Total catch b) Amount of fishing

c) CPUE d) Length–weight data

420. Surplus production is denoted by__________

a) Y b) C

c) B d) Y’

421. Annual growth rate of fishes is denoted by__________

a) h b) H

c) G d) None

422. In population dynamics, recruitment means__________

a) Addition of new fish to the population

b) Addition of new weight to the population

c) Both A & B

d) Addition of new fish by growth from smaller size groups to vulnerable

population

423. Instantaneous rate of natural mortality_________

a) m b) N

c) M d) Z

424. The net used in mackerel fishing is known as___________

a) Kolivala b) Rampani

c) Castnet d) Ringnet
Biology of Fishes 285

425. The dolnet is popular for Bombay duck fishery off_______

a) Goa coast b) Gujarat coast

c) Karnataka coast d) Kerala coast

426. The wide starea of continental shelf belongs to__________

a) Maharashtra coast b) Andhra coast

c) Gujarat coast d) Tamilnadu coast

427. EEZ was established in the year_____________

a) 1970 b) 1967

c) 1977 d) 1957

428. First CMFRI station was established in the year 1947 at _________

a) Madras b) Cochin

c) Mandapam d) Karwar

429. The Indo-Norwegian project was started in the year _______

a) 1950 b) 1952

c) 1960 d) 1962

430. Mesopelagic zones of ocean refer to the depth of _________

a) 1000-1500m b) 1500-2000m

c) 200-1000m d) >2000m

431. The richest beds of pearloysters are at_________

a) Goa coast b) Andhra coast

c) Tuticorin coast d) Karnataka coast

286 Fisheries Question Bank

432. Floral components of mangrove ecosystem include__________

a) Epiphytes b) Seagrass

c) Phytoplankton d) All of the above

433. Sodium alginate is manufactured from_____________

a) Sea urchin b) Ulva

c) Red sea weed d) Brown sea weed

434. Which state ranks first in the total marine fish production among the
maritime states of India______

a) Gujarat b) Maharashtra

c) Kerala d) Tamilnadu

435. The most popular method of fishing in the Lakshadweep for skipjack
tuna is by________

a) Gill netting b) Pole and line fishing

c) Trawling d) Purse seining

436. These adjacent to the territorial sea and having together a width of
notmore than 24 miles is known as________

a) Continental shelf b) Territorial sea

c) Contiguous zone d) EEZ

437. Lλ stands for________

a) Asymptotic length

b) Mean length at recruitment

c) Length of fish

d) Instantaneous rate of growth

Biology of Fishes 287

438. The weight of the fish stock, or some of its defined portion is called as___

a) Equilibrium catch b) Catch ability

c) Biomass d) Absolute recruitment

439. ____is an intra specific group of random lymating individuals with

temporal or spatial integrity

a) Stock b) Biomass

c) Population d) Standing crop

440. Which one of the following is a famous fishery scientist?

a) Dr. A.D.Diwan b) Dr. N.K.Pannikar

c) Dr. K.L.Rao d) Dr. K.J.Bose

 Canning and Packaging
16 Technology

1. ………… is the principal spoilage cause in canned fish?

a) Microbial b) Enzymatic

c) Chemical d) Physical

2. During ………., 12000 Franks were won by Nicolas Appert for canning?

a) 1795 b) 1895

c) 1595 d) 1695

3. There should be a uniform headspace of about…….

a) 1-2 mm b) 2-3 mm

c) 6-9 mm d) 10-13 mm

4. Can washing is done at………….⁰C

a) 35 b) 40

c) 60 d) 80
Canning And Packaging Technology 289

5. Can is washed in

a) 0.1- 0.15 % Sodium polyphosphate

b) 1-1.5% Sodium polyphosphate

c) 1-1.5% Potassium polyphosphate

d) 0.1-0.15% Potassium polyphosphate

6. 1st Canning industry in India was established at?

a) Mahrastra b) Kerala

c) Andhra pradesh d) Karnataka

7. Can cooling is done in bacteriological safe water at………….⁰C

a) 35 b) 40

c) 60 d) 80

8. Can is stored ………. before the sell?

a) 10-15 days b) 15-30 days

c) 1-3 months d) 3-6 months

9. Packed Cans are stored at………….⁰C

a) 10 b) 20

c) 25 d) 30

10. Amount of , C & Cu required in making base plate of a can is?

a) 0.02, 0.08, 0.04

b) 0.02, 0.04, 0.08

c) 0.08, 0.02, 0.04

d) 0.08, 0.04, 0.02

290 Fisheries Question Bank

11. …………. is the best method of Tin Coating?

a) Hot reduction process b) Cold reduction process

c) Hot dipping process d) Electrolytic process

12. …………. is the best method of making the base plate of a Can?

a) Hot reduction process b) Cold reduction process

c) Hot dipping process d) Electrolytic process

13. What is the thickness of tin coating on the food contact side in
differential coating method?

a) 11.2 mm b) 5.6 mm

c) 11.2 GSM d) 5.6 GSM

14. What is the thickness of tin coating on the external surface side in
differential coating method?

a) 11.2 mm b) 5.6 mm

c) 11.2 GSM d) 5.6 GSM

15. Cans are lacquered at………….⁰C

a) 180 b) 280

c) 100 d) 80-85

16. ………… lacquers are used in fish product cans?

a) Alkali resistant b) Acid resistant

c) Sulphur resistant d) Corrosion resistant

17. ………… lacquers are used in fruit cans?

a) Alkali resistant b) Acid resistant

c) Sulphur resistant d) Corrosion resistant

Canning And Packaging Technology 291

18. DWI & DRD are the type of

a) 2 piece cans b) 3 piece cans

c) 4 piece cans d) Easy top open cans

19. Retort pouch is

a) 2 ply material b) 3 ply material

c) 4 ply material d) All

20. In 3 ply can outermost layer is of

a) PP b) Aluminum

c) PES d) PE

21. In 3 ply can middle layer is of

a) PP b) Aluminum

c) PES d) PE

22. In 3 ply can innermost layer is of

a) PP b) Aluminum

c) PES d) PE

23. Fish is a

a) High acid food b) Very high acid

c) Medium acid food d) Low acid food

24. Lactobacillus is a?

a) Acid tolerant bacteria b) Flat sour causing bacteria

c) Swell causing bacteria d) Acid fast bacteria

292 Fisheries Question Bank

25. Bacillus stearothermophilus is a?

a) Acid tolerant bacteria

b) Flat sour causing bacteria

c) Swell causing bacteria

d) Acid fast bacteria

26. Clostridium thermosaccharolyticum is a?

a) Acid tolerant bacteria

b) Flat sour causing bacteria

c) Swell causing bacteria

d) Acid fast bacteria

27. Z Value of Clostridium botulinum is

a) 10⁰ C

b) 2.52 min at 221.1⁰ C

c) 0.21 MIN

d) 2.52 min at 121.1⁰ C

28. TDT of Clostridium botulinum is

a) 10⁰ C

b) 2.52 min at 221.1⁰ C

c) 0.21 MIN

d) 2.52 min at 121.1⁰ C

29. D Value of Clostridium botulinum is

a) 10⁰ C b) 2.52 min at 221.1⁰ C

c) 0.21 min b) 2.52 min at 121.1⁰ C

Canning And Packaging Technology 293

30. Vitamin B2 & D are

a) Heat stable vitamins b) Heat sensitive vitamins

c) Essential vitamins d) Nonessential vitamins

31. It is an injury of can in which pressure inside the cans is equal to the
atmospheric pressure. When such cans are hit on the table, the can end
flips out and become convex.

a) Hard swell b) Soft swell

c) Flipper d) Springer

32. It is an injury of can in which one end of can remains permanently convex
and if the end is pressed down the other end flips out.

a) Hard swell b) Soft swell

c) Flipper d) Springer

33. It is nothing but salt soluble coagulated or precipitated proteinfound at the

top of canned salmon or mackerel?

a) Curd b) Adhesion

c) Honey Combing d) Both A & B

34. Honey combing occurs in

a) Canned Salmon b) Freezed Salmon

c) Canned Tuna d) Freezed Tuna

35. Struvite is

a) Sodium ammonium phosphate hexa hydrate

b) Sodium ammonium phosphate tetra hydrate

c) Mgnesium ammonium phosphate hexa hydrate

d) Magnesium ammonium phosphate tetra hydrate

294 Fisheries Question Bank

36. Blue discoloration occurs in

a) Canned Lobster b) Freezed Lobster

c) Canned Crab d) Freezed Crab

37. ………… is a small metal irregularities in the double seam in one more V shape.

a) Vee b) Panel

c) Seam d) Peak

38. Remove the odd one out

a) Hard swell b) Soft swell

c) Flipper d) Peaks

39. Fish pickle is a

a) High acid food b) Very high acid

c) Medium acid food d) Low acid food

40. What is the amount of Tin and steel in TFS Cans?

a) 98% Tin & 2% Steel b) 96% Tin & 4% Steel

c) 98% Steel & 2% Tin d) 96% Tin & 4% Steel

41. The double seam at the juncture with body seam will contain ….. ………. no.
of metal layers, if notching and edging are not done

a) 12 b) 14

c) 7 d) 11

42. A can dimension 401 means

a) 401 inch b) (40+ 1× 1/16) inch

c) (4+1×1/16) inch d) (401×1/16) inch

Canning And Packaging Technology 295

43. Paper based ‘Mango Frooti’ packs are example of

a) Pillow pouch b) Stand pouch

c) Tetra-Pack d) Retort pouch

44. The trade of poly amide is

a) Nylon b) Surlyn

c) PVC d) Terrycot

45. Double seam is a

a) Lock seam

b) Soldered structure

c) Welded structure

d) Mechanical structure

46. The seam measurement called …………… contains all the metallic layers of
double seam

a) Seam thickness b) Seam length

c) Countersink Depth d) Overlap

47. Thermoplastics are mostly derivatives of

a) Venyl alcohol b) Ethylene

c) Alcohol d) None of the above

48. Soldering is a problem in

a) Tin cans b) Two piece cans

c) TFS cans d) All of the above

296 Fisheries Question Bank

49. Example of multi-layered film is

a) LDPE b) LLDPE

c) Laminated film d) None of them

50. The bigger cans with high amount of head space may experience

a) Flipper b) Paneling

c) Bruising d) Rusting

51. No. of timber species suitable as body building material in India

a) 400 b) 500

c) 600 d)100

52. This impregnation of timber gives high resistance to rot

a) Alcohol b) Acids

c) Pressure d) Bases

53. Measure of tangential shrinkage gives the

a) Strength b) Force

c) Stability d) Power

54. Tangenitable shrinkage should be

a) < 4% b) 5-10%

c) 10-15% d) >15%

55. Weight of moderately heavy timber

a) 162-222 kg/m2 b) 262-422 kg/m2

c) 562-722 kg/m2 d) 762-922 kg/m2

Canning And Packaging Technology 297

56. Moisture content of moderately heavy timber

a) 10% b) 12%

c) 20% d) 24%

57. Wetting and drying is associated with

a) Decking b) Timber

c) Refrigeration d) Trawling

58. The timber suitable for boat construction

a) Heavy timber

b) Moderately heavy timber

c) Soft timber

d) Very soft timber

59. Wood used for ribs must be

a) Very thin b) Very tough

c) Heavy weight d) Light weight

60. This requires very strong and hard timber to resist decay and insect attack

a) Hull b) Deck

c) Knees d) All
 17 Craft Technology

1. Merchant Shipping act came in India in which year?

a) 1968 b) 1958

c) 1988 d) 1957

2. Catamarans (Boat) are found along the ……. of India?

a) Surf beaten East coast

b) Surf beaten West coast

c) Calm East Coast

d) Calm West Coast

3. Dugout (Boat) are found along the ……. of India?

a) Surf beaten East coast

b) Surf beaten West coast

c) Calm East Coast

d) Calm West Coast

Craft Technology 299

4. In which state of India Rampani Boat was evolved?

a) West Bengal b) Kerala

c) Orissa d) Karnataka

5. In which state of India Dugout Boat was evolved?

a) West Bengal b) Kerala

c) Orissa d) Karnataka

6. In which state of India Satpati boat is used in the fishing operation?

a) Maharastra b) Gujarat

c) Goa d) Kerala

7. ……..is the type of boat in which whole family lives in the boat at the time
of fishing?

a) Satpati b) Dhonies

c) Kolamaram d) Adhirampatnam

8. In which state of India Botali and Nava boat is used in the fishing operation?

a) West Bengal b) Andhra pradesh

c) Orissa d) Tamil Nadu

9. In which state of India Batchari and Chot boat is used in the fishing operation?

a) West Bengal b) Andhra pradesh

c) Orissa d) Tamil Nadu

10. Coracle (Fishing Crafts) is used in?

a) Swamps b) Reservoirs

c) Oceans and offshore waters d) Rivers

300 Fisheries Question Bank

11. In India mechanization of boat occurred in …… steps?

a) 4 b) 5

c) 6 d) 7

12. Length of the Pablo boat is?

a) 5.8m b) 7.5m

c) 6.8m d) 7.8m

13. Tectona grandis is the scientific name of?

a) Teak b) Shisham

c) Semul d) Aini

14. Artocarpus hirsute / Pterocarpus hirsuta is the scientific name of?

a) Teak b) Shisham

c) Semul d) Aini

15. Bombax ceiba is the scientific name of?

a) Teak

b) Shisham

c) Semul

d) Aini

16. Dalbergia sissoo is the scientific name of?

a) Teak b) Shisham

c) Semul d) Aini
Craft Technology 301

17. Among the following statements which is true in terms of general

consideration in the selection of Timbers for the boat building?

a) Preferred Seasoned stock

b) Prefer air dries than the kiln dried

c) Avoid Sapwood

d) All the statements are correct

18. Tangential shrinkage for the timber used in boat building should be?

a) >4% b) <4%

c) >5% d) <5%

19. For boat building moisture of the Timber should be between?

a) 18-20% b) 8-10%

c) 35-40% d) 25-30%

20. Kiln method of Seasoning is also used to remove ……&…… from the wood?

a) Bacteria & Protozoans

b) Nematodes & Flukes

c) Snakes & Reptiles

d) Insects & Fungi

21. Air seasoning of wood takes?

a) 1-2 months b) 2-3 months

c) 3-4 months d) 6-8 months

22. Kiln seasoning of wood takes?

a) 1-2 weeks b) 2-3 weeks

c) 3-4 weeks d) 6-8 weeks

302 Fisheries Question Bank

23. Temperature of ordinary kiln in the Kiln seasoning of wood is?

a) 10-20⁰ C b) 40-85⁰ C

c) 180-200⁰ C d) 100-150⁰ C

24. ……. type of preservative is used in the exterior application?

a) Coaltar Creosote

b) Tributyl tin oxide (TBTO)

c) Benzene hexa chloride (BHC)

d) Copper chrome Arsenic (CCA)

25. Timber has to be seasoned to …..% moisture for non pressure process and
to ….% moisture for pressure process?

a) 15% and 20%

b) 15% and 25 %

c) 20% and 25 %

d) 25% and 15 %

26. There are … types of methods of timber treatment?

a) 5 b) 4

c) 3 d) 2

27. Lowry and Rueping are which type of methods of timber treatment?

a) Presseure Process

b) Non pressure Process

c) Empty cell pressure Process

d) Full cell pressure Process

Craft Technology 303

28. When highest volumetric absorption of preservative is desired, then which

type of method is used?

a) Surface application

b) Soaking

c) Empty cell pressure Process

d) Full cell pressure Process

29. When maximum penetration of preservative is desired, then which type

of method is used?

a) Surface application

b) Soaking

c) Empty cell Non pressure Process

d) Full cell Non pressure Process

30. Specific gravity of wood is about?

a) 1.56 b) 7.84

c) 2.7 d) 2.4-2.6

31. 1st Material to replace wood in the boat building material is?

a) Iron b) Aluminum

c) FRP d) Steel

32. 1st Steel ship was built in the year?

a) 1878

b) 1857

c) 1858

d) 1879
304 Fisheries Question Bank

33. …. type of boat building materials is also known as the Marine alloys?

a) Ferrocement b) FRP

c) Aluminium d) Steel

34. The term ferrocemt was given by?

a) Dr. P L Nervi b) Paul B Zeiner

c) A Von Brandt d) Gurtner

35. Among the following which is the correct example of Marine Borers?

a) Toredo b) Martesia

c) Both A & B d) None of the above

36. There are …… common types of joints used in boat building?

a) 3 b) 2

c) 4 d) 5

37. A joint which overlaps the other is called as …

a) Scarf joint b) Knee joint

c) Lap joint d) Butt joint

38. Marine ply is usually made up of ……. venners?

a) Mahogany b) Oak

c) Teak d) Elm

39. A joint in which ends are labelled and the entire surface remains continuous
is called as …

a) Scarf joint b) Knee joint

c) Lap joint d) Butt joint

Craft Technology 305

40. A joint is commonly used in the Planking …

a) Scarf joint b) Knee joint

c) Lap joint d) Butt joint

41. ….. term is used for the forward end of ship?

a) Stem b) Stern

c) Port hand d) Starboard

42. Line drawn on vessel when it is empty is known as?

a) Load water line b) Empty water line

c) Water line d) Keel straight line

43. ……. Is also known as the backbox / Backbone of the ship?

a) Keel b) Trim

c) Sheer d) Camber

44. Width of the ship at the widest point is known as the?

a) Keel b) Trim

c) Beam d) Camber

45. Tendency of the deck to rise above the horizontal in profile?

a) Sheer b) Trim

c) Beam d) Camber

46. 1st FRP Boat in India was built in the year?

a) 1968 b) 1958

c) 1858 d)1878
306 Fisheries Question Bank

47. Is known as the?

a) Froude’s Number b) Speed length ratio

c) Both A & B d) None

48. The displacement hull Froude’s Number should be?

a) 1 b) 2.5-3.5

c) >1<2.5 d) None

49. For the planning hull Froude’s Number should be?

a) 1 b) 2.5-3.5

c) >1<2.5 d) None

50. For the semi displacement hull Froude’s Number should be?

a) 1 b) 2.5-3.5

c) >1<2.5 d) None

51. It is the capacity of ship to carry the cargo?

a) Freight Tonnage

b) Net Tonnage

c) Gross Tonnage

d) Deadweight Tonnage

52. Among the following which is the most widely used fish detection / fish
finding Instrument?

a) Sonar

b) Net Sonde

c) Radar

d) Echo Sounder
Craft Technology 307

53. Net Sonde is fixed on the?

a) Foot rope of Purse seine

b) Head rope of purse seine

c) Foot rope of Trawl net

d) Head rope of Trawl net

54. Among the following which is a type of echo sounder developed to find out
the precise position of a pelagic trawl?

a) Sonar

b) Net Sonde

c) Radar

b) Fishecho Sounder (FES)

55. Acoustic link Transducer and Cable link Transducer are two distinct forms
of which fish finding instrument?

a) Sonar

b) Net Sonde

c) Radar

d) Fishecho Sounder (FES)

56. …… Wood contains oxalic acid and produces vinegar like smell at the time
of cutting?

a) Teak b) Pine

c) Oak d) Iroko

57. A triangular piece of wood which connects the stem and keel is called as?

a) Stern knee b) Stem knee

c) Transom knee d) Transom Frame

308 Fisheries Question Bank

58. …. Boat are also called as Fishing luggers?

a) Masula b) Shoe Dhoni

c) Tuticorin d) Catamaran

59. FAO has classified vessels in total …. Different categories?

a) 15 b) 16

c) 20 d) 18

60. ….. boat popularly known as the Gal boat used along the coast of Maharastra
upto ratnagiri for gill net?

a) Versova boat b) Hodi

c) Satpati d) Ratnagiri machwas

61. Specific gravity of Steel is about?

a) 1.56 b) 7.84

c) 2.7 d) 2.4-2.6

62. Specific gravity of Aluminium is about?

a) 1.56 b) 7.84

c) 2.7 d) 2.4-2.6

63. Specific gravity of Ferrocement is about?

a) 1.56 b) 7.84

c) 2.7 d) 2.4-2.6

64. ….. term is used for the after end of ship?

a) Stem b) Stern

c) Port hand d) Starboard

Craft Technology 309

65. ….. term is used for the right side of ship?

a) Stem b) Stern

c) Port hand d) Starboard

66. ….. term is used for the left side of ship?

a) Stem b) Stern

c) Port hand d) Starboard

67. It is the capacity of ship to carry the cargo, stores, fuel, passengers etc.?

a) Freight Tonnage b) Net Tonnage

c) Gross Tonnage d) Deadweight Tonnage

68. Line drawn on vessel when the loaded ship floats is known as?

a) Load water line b) Empty water line

c) Water line d) Keel straight line

 18 Fish Freezing Technology

1. Ideal Stowage height of fish & ice should not be more than

a) 0.5m b) 1 m

c) 1.5 m d) 2.0 m

2. There should be atleast ……… space for the airspace between the bottom
board and the floor of the fish hold.

a) 5cm b) 10cm

c) 15cm d) 20cm

3. It is a process in which the temperature of a mass of fish and ice is lowered

to -2.2⁰F.

a) Freezing b) Cooling

c) Chilling d) Super chilling

4. Ideal Fish : Ice ratio is?

a) 1:1 b) 2:1

c) 1:2 d) 3:1
Fish Freezing Technology 311

5. IQF is suitable for?

a) Non uniform big sized prawns

b) Non uniform small sized prawns

c) Uniform big sized prawns

d) Uniform small sized prawns

6. Storage of fish in ice is called as?

a) Freezing b) Chilling

c) Cooling d) Stowage

7. Increasing temperature from 0⁰ to 5⁰C ………… spoilage rate?

a) Half

b) Double

c) Quadruples

d) Independent of temperature

8. Which refrigerant is coded as R-717?

a) Carbon di-oxide b) Ammonia

c) CFC d) HCFC

9. Which refrigerant is coded as R-12?

a) Carbon di oxide b) Ammonia

c) CFC d) HCFC

10. Which refrigerant is coded as R-22?

a) Carbon di oxide b) Ammonia

c) CFC d) HCFC
312 Fisheries Question Bank

11. Which refrigerant is coded as R-744?

a) Carbon di oxide b) Ammonia

c) CFC d) HCFC

12. Which refrigerant is coded as R-764?

a) Carbon di oxide b) Sulphur di oxide

c) CFC d) HCFC

13. Which among the following is a secondary refrigerant?

a) Brine b) Ammonia

c) CFC d) HCFC

14. What is the code for water as a refrigerant?

a) R717 b) R118

c) R760 d) R729

15. What is the code for air as a refrigerant?

a) R717 b) R118

c) R760 d) R729

16. Which is the most widely used refrigerant in fish processing plant?

a) Carbon di oxide b) Ammonia

c) CFC d) HCFC

17. Which is the most inflammable refrigerant used in fish processing plant?

a) Carbon di oxide b) Ammonia

c) CFC d) HCFC
Fish Freezing Technology 313

18. Which is the colourless and odourless refrigerant?

a) Carbon di oxide b) Freons

c) CFC d) HCFC

19. Freezing point of Seawater is about?

a) -1⁰C b) -1.98 ⁰C

c) -5⁰C d) 18⁰C

20. Freezing of 100% of Seawater is

a) Impossible b) Partially Possible

c) Possible d) All

21. Critical zone is freezing curve is also known as?

a) Freezing zone

b) Zone of maximum crystallization

c) Thermal arrest period

d) All

22. It is a condition attained by liquid where its temperature falls below its
freezing point without crystallization.

a) Freezing b) Cooling

c) Chilling d) Super cooling

23. Freezing point of free water is-

a) 0⁰C

b) -50⁰C

c) -5⁰C

d) -1.8⁰C
314 Fisheries Question Bank

24. Use of which maximizes the chance of contamination-

a) Flake ice b) Slush ice

c) Block ice d) Jelly / Liquid ice

25. Which of the following ice has the maximum cooling effect-

a) Flake ice b) Slush ice

c) Block ice d) Jelly / Liquid ice

26. Which of the following ice has the maximum surface area-

a) Flake ice b) Slush ice

c) Block ice d) Jelly / Liquid ice

27. Which of the following ice has the minimum surface area-

a) Flake ice b) Slush ice

c) Block ice d) Jelly / Liquid ice

28. Specific heat of fresh fish is-

a) 4.18KJ/gm b) 4.18 KJ/Kg

c) 4 KJ/gm d) 4 KJ/Kg

29. …………colour discolouration problem generally occurs in freezing of Shrimp.

a) Pink b) Yellow

c) Black d) Red

30. . …………colour discolouration problem generally occurs in freezing of Squid.

a) Pink b) Yellow

c) Black d) Red
Fish Freezing Technology 315

31. Prawns suitable for headless are

a) Non uniform big sized prawns

b) Non uniform small sized prawns

c) Uniform big sized prawns

d) Uniform small sized prawns

32. The highest temperature at which maximum solidification of the system

can be achieved is known as

a) Eutectic temperature

b) Cryohydric temperature

c) Super freezing

d) Both A &B

33. Specific heat of water is-

a) 4.18KJ/gm b) 4.18 KJ/Kg

c) 4 KJ/gm d) 4 KJ/Kg

34. Specific heat of ice is-

a) 4.18KJ/gm b) 2.0 KJ/Kg

c) 4 KJ/gm d) 4 KJ/Kg

35. What is the rate of air flow in slow freezing?

a) 1-2 mm/Hr b) 2-5 mm/Hr

c) 5-50 mm/Hr d) 50-100mm/Hr

36. What is the rate of air flow in quick freezing?

a) 1-2 mm/Hr b) 2-5 mm/Hr

c) 5-50 mm/Hr d) 50-100mm/Hr

316 Fisheries Question Bank

37. What is the rate of air flow in rapid freezing?

a) 1-2 mm/Hr b) 2-5 mm/Hr

c) 5-50 mm/Hr d) 50-100mm/Hr

38. What is the rate of air flow in ultra rapid freezing?

a) 1-2 mm/Hr b) 2-5 mm/Hr

c) 5-50 mm/Hr d) 100-1000mm/Hr

39. The time required to freeze the material in IQF is-

a) 10 min b) 20 min

c) 30 min d) 60 min

40. The time required to freeze the material in plate freezer is-

a) 10 min b) 20 min

c) 30 min d) 60 min

41. Material in cryogenic freezer passes through ……….. zones?

a) 2 b) 3

c) 4 d) 5

42. Stations are present in?

a) VPF b) HPF

c) Cryogenic freezers d) Air blast freezers

43. ………… freezers was developed for freezing the whole fish at sea on board
of the fishing vessel?

a) VPF b) HPF

c) Cryogenic freezers d) Air blast freezers

Fish Freezing Technology 317

44. ………..freezers are present at factory trawlers?

a) VPF b) HPF

c) Cryogenic freezers d) Air blast freezers

45. ………..freezers are the most economical method of fish freezing?

a) VPF b) HPF

c) Cryogenic freezers d) Air blast freezers

46. ………..freezers are the most advanced technology for the freezing of fish?

a) VPF b) HPF

c) Cryogenic freezers d) Air blast freezers

47. …………freezers are used in IQF materials?

a) Rotary freezer b) HPF

c) Continuous belt freezers d) Fluidized bed freezers

48. …………. Freezers are not suitable for fatty fishes?

a) Rotary freezer

b) HPF

c) Immersion / Spray freezers

d) Fluidized bed freezers

49. Dehydration loss is negligible in

a) Rotary freezer

b) HPF

c) Cryogenic freezers

d) Fluidized bed freezers

318 Fisheries Question Bank

50. Boiling point of liquid nitrogen is

a) 198 ⁰C b) -196 ⁰C

c) -78.5 ⁰C d) -33 ⁰C

51. Boiling point of liquid carbon di oxide is

a) -198 ⁰C b) -196 ⁰C

c) -78.5 ⁰C d) -33 ⁰C

52. .Boiling point of liquid ammonia is

a) -198 ⁰C b) -196 ⁰C

c) -78.5 ⁰C d) -33 ⁰C

53. Conversion of ice directly into vaour witout passing through liquid stage
is known as the?

a) Deliqification

b) Liquification

c) Evaporation

d) Sublimation

54. Which is the most commonly used salt in preparing the brine?

a) Potassium chloride

b) Sodium chloride

c) Calcium chloride

d) Sodium iodide

55. Which refrigerant is the ideal refigerant?

a) Ammonia b) Freon 12

c) CFC d) HCFC
Fish Freezing Technology 319

56. …………. are used in preparing the antibiotic ice?

a) Narrow spectrum antibiotic

b) Broad spectrum antibiotic

c) Both

d) None

57. Solid carbon di oxide is also known as

a) Dry Ice b) Micigan Ice

c) Dry cold d) All

58. Select the best method of chilling among the following?

a) Super chilling b) RSW

c) CSW d) Champagne CSW

59. …………. is known as the reverse of freezing?

a) Glazing b) Anti Freezing

c) Thawing d) Defrost

60. During Fish freezing cycle almost all the water is frozen at

a) 0⁰C b) -50⁰C

c) -20⁰C d) -1.8⁰C
 19 Fish Gear Technology

1. Which among the following is an example of seed fibre?

a) Cotton b) Ramie

c) Manila d) Coir

2. Which among the following is an example of bast fibre?

a) Cotton b) Ramie& Hemp

c) Manila & Manila d) Coir

3. Which among the following is an example of fruit fibre?

a) Cotton b) Ramie

c) Manila d) Coir

4. Which among the following is an example of leaf fibre?

a) Cotton

b) Ramie & Hemp

c) Manila & Sisal

d) Coir
Fish Gear Technology 321

5. Which among the following is also known as the China grass?

a) Cotton b) Ramie

c) Manila d) Coir

6. Which of the following is used in ropes?

a) Seed fibre b) Bast Fibre

c) Leaf Fibre d) Fruit Fibre

7. Fibre is a unit of matter of hair like dimensions whose length is atleast

…..times than its width?

a) 100 b) 200

c) 300 d) 400

8. ……… is a basic unit of construction of fishing gear?

a) Rope b) Fibre

c) Single yarn d) Folded yarn

9. PA & PES are the example of?

a) Poly condensation b) Polymeric

c) Mixed polymer d) Poly additive

10. Nylon, Amilan, Perlon, Kapron are the example of?

a) PA b) PES

c) PVC d) PVA

11. Terylene & Dacron are the example of?

a) PA b) PES

c) PVC d) PVA
322 Fisheries Question Bank

12. PVC & PVA are the examole of?

a) Poly condensation b) Polymeric

c) Mixed polymer d) Poly additive

13. PVD is an example of?

a) Poly condensation b) Polymeric

c) Mixed polymer d) Poly additive

14. PE & PP are the example of?

a) Poly condensation b) Polymeric

c) Mixed polymer d) Poly additive

15. Which synthetic fibre has the minimum density?

a) PP b) PE

c) PES d) PVA

16. ………..is the maximum force applied to a specimen causing it to the rupture
or break?

a) Tenacity b) Tensile Strength

c) Breaking strength d) Elasticity

17. ………..is the breaking strength per unit Denier.

a) Tenacity b) Tensile Strength

c) Breaking strength d) Elasticity

18. ………..is the Breaking strength per unit area.

a) Tenacity b) Tensile Strength

c) Breaking strength d) Elasticity

Fish Gear Technology 323

19. H. Staudinger has got the Nobel Prize for the development of synthetic
fibre in the year?

a) 1943 b) 1953

c) 1963 d) 1968

20. ……….. is the property of a material by virtue of which it tends to recover

its original length?

a) Tenacity b) Tensile Strength

c) Breaking strength d) Elasticity

21. Which test is used to distinguish PE &PP?

a) Solubility Test b) Melting Point Test

c) Burning Test d) Water Test

22. ………. is the reduction in the length of a material due to wetting.

a) Tenacity b) Tensile Strength

c) Breaking strength d) Shrinkage

23. . Shrinking speed is important in which gear?

a) Trawls b) Gill net

c) Purse seine d) Rampani net

24. PE is the example of?

a) Continuous filament b) Monofilament

c) Split filament d) Staple filament

25. PP is the example of?

a) Continuous filament b) Monofilament

c) Split filament d) Staple filament

324 Fisheries Question Bank

26. PA &PES are the example of?

a) Continuous filament b) Monofilament

c) Split filament d) Staple filament

27. ……… is a basic material for the construction of twisted netting?

a) Rope b) Fibre

c) Single yarn d) Folded yarn

28. Process of interlacing is known as?

a) Braiding b) Plaiting

c) Both d) Weaving

29. Soft and medium twisted ropes are used in?

a) Gill nets & Seines b) Trawls

c) Lines & Ropes d) None

30. Hard twisted ropes are used in?

a) Gill nets & Seines b) Trawls

c) Lines & Ropes d) None

31. Extra hard twisted ropes are used in?

a) Gill nets & Seines b) Trawls

c) Lines & Ropes d) None

32. Hawser / Plain laid rope is a …….. strand construction.

a) 2 b) 3

c) 4 d) 5
Fish Gear Technology 325

33. Shroud laid rope is a …….. strand construction.

a) 2 b) 3

c) 4 d) 5

34. Range of radio buoy which is used in Tuna long line extends upto?

a) 50 km b) 100 km

c) 150 km d) 200 km

35. Fibres having diameter >….mm are to be called as ropes?

a) 2 b) 4

c) 6 d) 8

36. Fibres having circumference >….mm are to be called as ropes?

a) 2 b) 25

c) 4 d) 12

37. Which among the following is an example of Direct System of Yarn

Numbering?

a) Denier b) Metric System

c) British System d) Runnage system

38. Which among the following is recommended by ISO as a Yarn Numbering

system?

a) TEX b) DENIER

c) British System d) Runnage system

39. Which among the following is most widely used Yarn Numbering system?

a) TEX b) DENIER

c) British System d) Runnage system

326 Fisheries Question Bank

40. TEX = ………….. DENIER?

a) 0.111 b) 0.222

c) 0.333 d) 0.444

41. Top most edge of webbing is known as?

a) Head b) Foot

c) Selvedeges d) Knot

42. Lowest edge of webbing is known as?

a) Head b) Foot

c) Selvedeges d) Knot

43. Sides of webbing is known as?

a) Head b) Foot

c) Selvedeges d) Knot

44. Remove the odd one out?

a) Baiting b) Creasing

c) Fly meshing d) Webbing

45. It is the type of shaping of webbing in which number of meshes to be

reduced?

a) Baiting b) Creasing

c) Fly meshing d) Webbing

46. It is the type of shaping of webbing in which number of meshes to be

increased?

a) Baiting b) Creasing

c) Fly meshing d) Webbing

Fish Gear Technology 327

47. It has 4 knots instead of usual 2 knots?

a) Baiting b) Creasing

c) Fly meshing b) None

48. . …………. is the 2 knots in vertical direction?

a) Point Cut b) Bar Cut

c) Mesh Cut d) None

49. It is the process oh hanging webbing to the main lines?

a) Tailoring b) Mounting

C) Reeving d) Setting

50. It is the method of spreading / spacing the meshes of the netting on the
head line?

a) Tailoring b) Mounting

c) Reeving d) Setting

51. It is the process of fitting necessary ropes and accessories on the hand line?

a) Tailoring b) Mounting

c) Reeving d) Rigging

52. . ……….. prevents chafting of the rope or cable?

a) Thimble b) Shackle

c) Swivel d) Kelley’s eye

53. ……..is used as a connecting link or the device for fastening parts together?

a) Thimble b) Shackle

c) Swivel d) Kelley’s eye

328 Fisheries Question Bank

54. . …… prevents twisting and secure normal gear operation?

a) Thimble b) Shackle

c) Swivel d) Kelley’s eye

55. It is the combination of two metal rings?

a) Thimble b) Shackle

c) Swivel d) Kelley’s eye

56. ……….. is used in retaining a ship at a particular position.

a) Thimble b) Shackle

c) Anchors d) Kelley’s eye

57. ………..are the sharp ends of anchors?

a) Bills / Points b) Flukes

c) Crown d) Stock

58. ………..are the triangular structure of anchors?

a) Bills / Points b) Flukes

c) Crown d) Stock

59. ………..are the connecting arms of anchors?

a) Bills / Points b) Flukes

c) Crown d) Stock

60. Which among the following is a stocked anchor?

a) Grapnel b) Patent

c) CQR d) Admirality
Fish Gear Technology 329

61. Which anchor is also called as Fishermen’s anchor?

a) Grapnel b) Patent

c) CQR d) Admirality

62. Which anchor is a 5 pronged anchor?

a) Grapnel b) Patent

c) CQR d) Admirality

63. Which anchor is also called as Plough anchor?

a) Grapnel b) Patent

c) CQR d) Admirality

64. ……..is used in a hook to prevent the escape of fishes?

a) Eye b) Head

c) Shank d) Barb

65. …………method of numbering of hooks is followed in India?

a) American b) Japanese

c) Portugese d) Norwegian

66. Testalin is?

a) Potassium bichromate b) Copper nepthnate

c) Copper Sulphate d) Cuprous oxide

67. Which hook has higher efficiency?

a) Larger hook b) Smaller hook

c) Wider hook d) All have same efficiency

330 Fisheries Question Bank

68. Number of groups in a Von Brandt classification of fishing gears?

a) 14 b) 15

c) 16 d) 18

69. Fish plummets are?

a) Spears b) Metal weights

c) Fish combs d) Clams

70. Which is the simplest form of Lines?

a) Set line b) Hand line

c) Drift line d) Troll line

71. Technique of catching fish with hand lines and ripping hooks?

a) Pilking b) Jigging

c) Lining d) Both A & B

72. Kerala backwaters are famous for?

a) Hand lift net b) echanized lift net

c) Blanket nets d) Fish wheels

73. Multiple layered gill net is called as?

a) Set gill net b) Drift gill net

c) Trammel nets d) Cast nets

74. Horizontal opening of trawl is insisted by

a) Floats b) Sinkers

c) Trawls d) Combination of all

Fish Gear Technology 331

75. Vertical opening of trawl is insisted by

a) Floats b) Sinkers

c) Trawls d) Both A & B

76. Which is the most widely used gears in the reservoir?

a) Trawls b) Purse seine

c) Gill net d) Lampara net

77. Gill net is a?

a) Active gear b) Passive gear

c) Falling gear d) Surrounding gear

78. Outer layer of gill net is called as?

a) Lint b) Fluke

c) Armors d) Fluke

79. Ghost fishing is a negative characteristics of?

a) Purse seine b) Trawls

c) Gillnets d) Drift nets

80. Which has the highest resistance to acids among the synthetic fibres ?

a) PA b) PES

c) PVC d) PVA

81. Cormorants are used in ………… to catch the fish?

a) China & Japan b) USA

c) Europe d) Norway
332 Fisheries Question Bank

82. Which is soluble in HCl (37%) at room temperature?

a) PA6.6 b) PES

c) PVC d) PVA

83. Breaking length (Km) = ………….. × Tenacity (gn/Denier)

a) 7 b) 8

c) 9 d) 10

84. Which anchor has 2 flukes?

a) Grapnel b) Patent

c) CQR d) Admirality

85. ………..Hooks are used in Tuna long line?

a) Barbed b) Barbless

c) Both d) None

86. Which anchor is mostly used by anchors in India?

a) Grapnel b) Patent

c) CQR d) Admirality

87. ……… are most widely used in combination ropes?

a) PP b) PE

c) PES d) PVA

88. ………….. are used in set gill nets?

a) Radio buoy b) Dahn buoy

c) Light buoy d) All

Fish Gear Technology 333

89. Landing net has ………… frame?

a) Triangular b) Round

c) Oval d) traight

90. Skimming net has ………… frame?

a) Triangular b) Round

c) Oval d) Straight

91. Halfer is a …….. clove hitch?

a) 1st b) 2nd

c) 3rd d) Last

92. Hanging coefficient of set gill net is?

a) 0.4-0.5 b) 0.6

c) 0.7 d) 0.8

93. Hanging coefficient of drift gill net is?

a) 0.4-0.5 b) 0.6

c) 0.7 d) 0.8

94. Which of the following is the simplest method of mounting?

a) Reeving b) Stapling

c) Norselling d) Rigging

95. What is the portion of Thimble where an eye or hook or shackle is fitted
on a block?

a) Neck b) Head

c) Crown d) Score
334 Fisheries Question Bank

96. The process of repairing the damaged fish nets?

a) Clean cuttig b) Trimming

c) Mending d) All

97. Tannin fixation is done by?

a) Copper Sulphate b) Sodium dichromate

c) Potassium dichromate d) All

98. Nylon is classified as?

a) 210/6/3 b) 20/0/3

c) 21/0/3 d) 210/20/3

99. Cotton is classified as?

a) 210/6/3 b) 20/0/3

c) 21/0/3 d) 210/20/3

100. Optimum concentration of Tannin is?

a) 0.4-06% b) 4-6%

c) 40-60% d) 12-20%
 Navigation and
20 Seamenship

1. The instrument which is used to measure the depth of the sea is

a) Log

b) Compass

c) Sextant

d) Echo sounder

2. Any vessel propelled by machinery is called as

a) Fishing vessel

b) Power driven vessel

c) Sailing vessel

d) Seaplanes

3. Gyro compass always shows

a) Compass north

b) Geographical north

c) True north

d) Magnetic north
336 Fisheries Question Bank

4. Half the are of great circles running from pole to role are called

a) None of these

b) Rhumblines

c) Latitudes

d) Meridians

5. Ground tackle means

a) Use of anchors

b) Use of ground dredging crafts

c) Use of tickler chair

d) Use of tugs

6. When a vessel is grounded intention then the vessel is said to be

a) Beached b) Stranded

c) Moored d) Anchored

7. Reference direction is

a) Compass north b) True north

c) Magnetic north d) None of these

8. Situation in which a vessels bottom is touching the seafloor is called as

a) None of these b) Afloat

c) Aground d) Aboard

9. Back side of a vessel is referred as

a) None of these b) Fore

c) Stern d) Aft
Navigation and Seamenship 337

10. A floating object moored to the bottom of mark a channel or dangers is

called as

a) None of these b) Light house

c) Whart d) Bouy

11. One nautical mile is equal to

a) 1.852 millimeters b) 1.852 centimeter

c) 1. 852 kilometers d) 1.852 meters

12. According to IMCO, which of the following vessel is not considered as vessel
engaged in fishing

a) Trolling b) Lining

c) Purse seining d) Trawling

13. The colour of the mast head light is

a) Yellow b) Red

c) Green d) None of these

14. Which of the following errors will be frimed when index mirror and horizon
glass are nor parallel to each other

a) Horizon error b) Index error

c) Collimation error d) side error

15. Vessel direction can be measured using

a) Sextant

b) Log

c) Echosounder

d) None of the above

338 Fisheries Question Bank

16. Deviation is the compass error caused due to

a) Steel and iron material on board

b) Earth’s magnetism

c) Depth of the navigable water

d) None of the above

17. Changes and corrections on the navigation charts will be communicated

to the users of the charts through

a) Radio and Television

b) Daily News papers

c) Notices to mariners

d) Nautical almanac

18. Three letter signals starting with the letter ‘M’ are concerned with

a) Medical help b) Material help

c) Mechanical help d) None of these

19. Which part of the echosounder is producing pulse of electrical of oscillations

a) Transducer b) Transmitter

c) Receiver d) None of the above

20. Good seamanship can be acquired by

a) Charts b) Practice

c) Nautical books d) None of these

21. One Nautical mile is equal to

a) Six feet b) Sixty feet

c) Six meters d) None of these

Navigation and Seamenship 339

22. Which of the following errors may occurs in sextant

a) Variation

b) Collimation error

c) Deviation

d) None of these

23. Which of the following equipment is used in radio navigation

a) SONAR

b) RADAR

c) Echosounder

d) None of the above

24. Which of the following is not a great circle.

a) Equator

b) Greenwich Meridian

c) 90E longitude

d) None of these

25. Which of the following is not in piloting

a) Depth sounding

b) Terrestrial objects

c) Navigational aids

d) All the above

26. Which of the following error occurs in gyrocompass

a) Side error b) Variation

c) Deviation d) None of these

340 Fisheries Question Bank

27. A position established at a specific time with high degree of accuracy is called

a) DR b) Fix

c) Running Fix d) None of these

28. Rule No 21 is pertaining to

a) Light’s definition b) Light’s application

c) General definition d) Steering rules

29. Visibility in sea voyage is affected by

a) Rain b) Mist

c) Fog d) All the above

30. The colour of the towing light is

a) Green b) White

c) Yellow d) Nome of these

31. EPIRB is a

a) Lighting device b) Steering unit

c) Fire fighting device d) Life saving device

32. The world ‘MAY DAY’ denotes

a) Safety b) Urgency

c) Distress d) None of the above

33. The chemical used for fire fighting is

a) Citric acid b) HCL

c) Dry Co2 powder d) None of the above

Navigation and Seamenship 341

34. The frequency range of ultrasonic sound is

a) 20 H2 - 20 OHZ b) 20 KHZ - 20 MHZ

c) 20 HZ - 20 KHZ d) 20 HZ – 2000HZ

35. Nautical Almanac is used in

a) Piloting b) DR

c) Radio Navigation d) Celestial Navigation

36. Net sonde is fixed on the ______ of travel net

a) Foot rope b) Cod end

c) Belly d) Head rope

37. Modern name for ASDIC is

a) Echo sounder b) RADAR

c) SONAR d) EPIRB

38. Magnavox satellite navigation M X 1102 is well suited for fishing vessels
as it provides constant and precise position data, is a

a) Satellite b) Echo sounder

c) Sonar d) Radar

39. RADAR was invented by Robert Watson Volt in the year

a) 1935 b) 1937

c) 1945 d) 1947

40. GPS is made up of …………parts

a) 3 b) 4

c) 5 d) 6
 Product Development &
21 Quality Control

1. A fish processing plant should be in………….. direction?

a) W-E b) N-S

c) S-N d) E-W

2. What is the ideal temperature of a fish processing plant?

a) 5⁰C b) 10⁰C

c) 15⁰C d) 20⁰C

3. ………….. is the measure of total amount of chemically unbound water in a

sample.

a) Moisture content b) RH

c) Evaporation rate d) All

4. In early stages of drying fish passes through.

a) Constant rate of drying

b) Falling rate of drying

c) Regular rate of drying

d) Irregular rate of drying

Product Development and Quality Control 343

5. In later stages of drying fish passes through.

a) Constant rate of drying

b) Falling rate of drying

c) Regular rate of drying

d) Irregular rate of drying

6. Factors affecting the falling rate of drying is…………?

a) Air speed

b) Air Temperature

c) Both A & B

d) Internal diffusion pressure

7. Factors affecting the constant rate of drying is…………?

a) Air speed

b) Air Temperature

c) Both A & B

d) Internal diffusion pressure

8. Phenomenon of case hardening occurs in ………

a) Constant rate of drying

b) Falling rate of drying

c) Regular rate of drying

d) Irregular rate of drying

9. …………. is used for measuring the water activity.

a) Torry meter b) Rheometer

c) Hygrometer d) Hydrometer
344 Fisheries Question Bank

10. Minimum water activity required by the bacteria is……….

a) 0.91 b) 0.85

c) 0.80 d) 0.75

11. Minimum water activity required by yeasts is……….

a) 0.91 b) 0.85

c) 0.80 d) 0.75

12. Minimum water activity required by the moulds is……….

a) 0.91 b) 0.85

c) 0.80 d) 0.75

13. Minimum water activity required by the halophilic bacteria is……….

a) 0.91 b) 0.85

c) 0.80 d) 0.75

14. Minimum water activity required by the osmophilic yeasts is……….

a) 0.60 b) 0.65

c) 0.80 d) 0.75

15. Solar driers was developed by-

a) CMFRI b) CIBA

c) CIFT d) CIFNET

16. “Tory Kiln” was developed in

a) Cambodia b) China

c) Japan d) Scotland
Product Development and Quality Control 345

17. Method of Salting recommended for fatty fishes is

a) Brine b) Dry Salt

c) Kench Curing d) Both B & C

18. Method of Salting recommended for lean fishes is

a) Brine b) Dry Salt

c) Kench Curing d) Both B & C

19. …………. bacteria can tolerate salt concentration above 15%

a) Halophilic b) Halophobic

c) Halotolerant d) None

20. …………. bacteria can not tolerate salt concentration above 5%

a) Halophilic b) Halophobic

c) Halotolerant d) None

21. …………. bacteria can tolerate salt concentration above 5% and below 15%.

a) Halophilic b) Halophobic

c) Halotolerant d) None

22. Ideal quantity of salt to be added during salting (Salt: Fish) is

a) 1:1 b) 3:1 – 4:1

c) 2:1 d) 1:3 - 1:4

23. …….. salts are the purest form of the salts.

a) Rock Salts b) Solar Salts

c) Sea Salts d) Columbo salt

346 Fisheries Question Bank

24. ………… salt is most widely used for fish curing.

a) Rock Salts b) Solar Salts

c) Sea Salts d) Both B & C

25. Columbo curing is done for-

a) Mackerel, Sardine &Lactarius

b) Mackerel, Sardine & Tuna

c) Mackerel, Sardine & Anchovies

d) Mackerel, Sardine & Salmon

26. Temperature of Cold kiln is

a) <30⁰ C b) <-30⁰ C

c) 50-80⁰ C d) -18⁰ C

27. Temperature of Hot kiln is

a) <30⁰ C b) <-30⁰ C

c) 50-80⁰ C d) -18⁰ C

28. “Masmin” is a …………

a) Smoked product of Tuna

b) Smoked product of Salmon

c) Fermented product of Salmon

d) Marinated product of Salmon

29. Carcinogenic property of smoke is given by-

a) Phenolic b) Benzopyredene

c) Xylenol d) Furans
Product Development and Quality Control 347

30. Bactericidal property of Smoke is given by-

a) Phenolic

b) Benzopyredene

c) Xylenol

d) Furans

31. Fish satay is a

a) Salted product

b) Smoked product

c) Fermented product

d) Marinated product

32. Fish pickles are made from

a) Low value fishes b) High value fishes

c) Both d) Trash fishes

33. ……….. is a cross linking & unfloding of actomyosin.

a) Squalene b) Surimi

c) Fish ensilage d) Fish Hydrolysate

34. In surimi cryoprotectants such as polyphosphate are added @

a) 0.1% b) 0.2%

c) 0.3% d) 0.4%

35. ………… is used to prepare Kamaboko products in Japan?

a) Squalene b) Surimi

c) Fish ensilage d) Fish Hydrolysate

348 Fisheries Question Bank

36. ……………. is an intermediate product made by mixing cryoprotectant in

the refined fish mince.

a) Squalene b) Surimi

c) Fish ensilage d) Fish Hydrolysate

37. …………is a highly saturated isoprenoid which is isolated from Shark liver oil.

a) Squalene b) Surimi

c) Fish ensilage d) Fish Hydrolysate

38. Squalene is rich in

a) Vitamin A & B b) Vitamin A & D

c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin B

39. Fish roe are rich in

a) Vitamin A & B b) Vitamin A & D

c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin B

40. Fish liver oil is rich in

a) Vitamin A & B b) Vitamin A & D

c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin B

41. Fish meal is rich in

a) Vitamin A & B b) Vitamin A & D

c) Vitamin A d) Vitamin B

42. ……… is a metabolic product obtained from the intestinal tract of Sperm
Whale.

a) Squalene b) Ambergris

c) Isinglass d) Pearl essence

Product Development and Quality Control 349

43. Ambergris is obtained from

a) Male Sperm Whale

b) Female Sperm Whale

c) Male Sperm Shark

d) Female Sperm Shark

44. ………….is used in perfumery.

a) Squalene b) Ambergris

c) Isinglass d) Pearl essence

45. …………fish has high oil and low vitamin potency?

a) Tuna b) Halibut

c) Cod d) Herring

46. …….. fish has low oil and high vitamin potency?

a) Cod b) Hake

c) Haddock d) Tuna

47. India’s first Surimi plant was established at?

a) Maharastra b) Karnataka

c) Kerala d) Tamil Nadu

48. …………….. is a stable product, suitable for the human consumption.

a) Fish protein Concentrate

b) Surimi

c) Fish ensilage

d) Fish Hydrolysate
350 Fisheries Question Bank

49. …….. has 0.75% Fat, 85% Protein with Tasteless, Colourless&Odourless
characteristics.

a) Type A FPC b) Type B FPC

c) Type C FPC d) Type D FPC

50. …….. has 3% Fat, 71% Protein with Fishy odour characteristics.

a) Type A FPC b) Type B FPC

c) Type C FPC d) Type D FPC

51. Who is known as the Father of Pearl farming?

a) T. Imai b) KoikichiMikimoto

c) Forbes d) Hardwelson

52. Who is known as the Father of Oyster & Mussel farming?

a) T. Imai b) KoikichiMikimoto

c) Forbes d) Hardwelson

53. ………. is a liquid product made by the action off enzymes, acids and bacterias.

a) Squalene b) Surimi

c) Fish ensilage d) Fish Hydrolysate

54. “Isinglass” is a

a) Greek word b) Latin word

c) Dutch Word d) French word

55. …………. is used in making of India ink?

a) Squalene b) Ambergris

c) Isinglass d) Pearl essence

Product Development and Quality Control 351

56. …………. is made from sturgeon bladder

a) Squalene b) Ambergris

c) Isinglass d) Pearl essence

57. Number of …………. layers are generally present in the Isinglass.

a) 2 b) 3

c) 5 d) 6-7

58. ……….. is the purest form of gelatin.

a) Squalene b) Ambergris

c) Isinglass d) Pearl essence

59. Which is the best suited fish for making the superior quality of isinglass.

a) Tuna b) Haddock

c) Cod d) Hake

60. The cleaned, desalted, air dried and hardened swimbladder is called as

a) Squalene b) Fish maws

c) Isinglass d) Pearl essence

61. …………is the purest form of gelatin.

a) Skin b) Bones

c) Swim bladder d) Pearl essence

62. Gelatin is an incomplete protein as it lacks………….

a) Methionine b) Leucine

c) Lysine d) Tryptophane
352 Fisheries Question Bank

63. ………….. is a lustrous substance found on the epidermal layer of the skin &
deposited over the scale.

a) Squalene b) Ambergris

c) Isinglass d) Pearl essence

64. The suspension of guanine in suitable solvent is called as …………..

a) Squalene b) Ambergris

c) Isinglass d) Pearl essence

65. Specific gravity of pearl essence is

a) 1.0 b) 1.5

c) 1.6 d) 2.0

66. ……. fish scales are the principal source of pearl essence.

a) Tuna b) Haddock

c) Cod d) Herrings

67. What is the maximum moisture level permitted in the export of shark fin
rays?

a) <10% b) <20%

c) <30% d) <40%

68. Which fin in the shark contribute to minimum number of fin rays?

a) Caudal b) Dorsal

c) Pectoral d) Pelvic

69. ………… is the deacetylated chitin.

a) Collagen b) Chitosan

c) GlucosmineHCl d) Chitin
Product Development and Quality Control 353

70. Number of polypeptides present in the insulin?

a) 2 b) 3

c) 4 d) 5

71. Which is the pioneering country in making the fish paste.

a) Japan b) China

c) India d) Cambodia

72. …………..fishes have <2-2.5% oil.

a) Lean fishes b) Fatty fishes

c) Highly fatty fishes d) None

73. …………..fishes have >2-2.5% oil.

a) Lean fishes b) Fatty fishes

c) Highly fatty fishes d) None

74. Which is widely used in making Beche-de-mer?

a) HolothuriaScabra b) Holothurianobilis

c) Holothuriaedulis d) All

75. …………shaped Beche-de-mer is most preferred in the market?

a) Round b) Circular

c) Conical d) Cylindrical

76. Tatami iwashi is a Japanese processed food product made from

a) Tuna b) Sardine

c) Baby Sardine d) All

354 Fisheries Question Bank

77. Nacre is also called as-

a) Queen of all pearl b) Superior pearl

c) Mother of pearl d) All

78. Caviar is the roe of-

a) Tuna b) Sturgeon

c) Salmon d) Catfishes

79. Fish ham is made from the

a) Blue fish b) Red fish

c) Green Chromide d) White fish

80. Shagreen is made from the

a) Skin of Whale b) Teeth of whale

c) Skin of Shark d) Teeth of Shark

81. NUOC MAM is a

a) Japanese product

b) Chinese product

c) Vietnamese product

d) Indian product

82. TMAO coverts into TMA

a) In the presence of Oxygen

b) In the absence of Oxygen

c) During Post Rigor

d) All
Product Development and Quality Control 355

83. Yield of fish meal from the trash fish is about?

a) 30% b) 40%

c) 50% d) 60%

84. Maximum loss of amino acids occurs during-

a) Frying b) Boiling

c) Cooking d) All

85. Bigest inland fish market of India is at

a) Mumbai b) Kolkata

c) Cochin d) Veraval

86. Heavier load of bacteria is reported when the fish is caught in the……………

a) Gill net b) Dredges

c) Trawl net d) Purse seine

87. Recommended level of chlorination of processed water in fish processing

plant is

a) 2 ppm b) 5 ppm

c) 10 ppm d) 20 ppm

88. Smaller algae found in sea is called as

a) Kelp b) Sea weeds

c) Gelora d) Kanten

89. Larger algae found in sea is called as

a) Kelp b) Sea weeds

c) Gelora d) Kanten
356 Fisheries Question Bank

90. Agar is also called as

a) Shizimuran chemical b) Kanten

c) Gelora d) All

91. When moisture level of agar is brought to 20% then it is called as

a) China grass b) Sea weeds

c) Gelora d) Kanten

92. Green algae is found in

a) Shallow waters b) Column Waters

c) Deeper waters d) All

93. Brown algae is found in

a) Shallow waters b) Column Waters

c) Deeper waters d) All

94. Red algae is found in

a) Shallow waters b) Column Waters

c) Deeper waters d) All

95. Which of the following algae is only found in cold waters?

a) Red algae b) Brown algae

c) Green algae d) Blue green algae

96. Green algae is rich in

a) Vitamin A & B b) Vitamin A & C

c) Vitamin A & D d) Vitamin A & E

Product Development and Quality Control 357

97. Brown algae is rich in

a) Vitamin A & B b) Vitamin A & C

c) Vitamin A & D d) Vitamin A & E

98. Green algae is rich in

a) Vitamin A & B b) Vitamin A & C

c) Vitamin A & D d) Vitamin A & E

99. Which algae is known as the Alginophytes?

a) Red algae b) Brown algae

c) Green algae d) Blue green algae

100. Which algae is known as the Agarophytes?

a) Red algae b) Brown algae

c) Green algae d) Blue green algae

101. Which algae is known as the Carrangenophytes?

a) Red algae b) Brown algae

c) Green algae d) Blue green algae

102. Gelidium is?

a) Red algae b) Brown algae

c) Green algae d) Blue green algae

103. Gracilaria is?

a) Red algae b) Brown algae

c) Green algae d) Blue green algae

358 Fisheries Question Bank

104. Rhodomenia is?

a) Red algae b) Brown algae

c) Green algae d) Blue green algae

105. Laminaria is?

a) Red algae b) Brown algae

c) Green algae d) Blue green algae

106. Macrocystis is?

a) Red algae b) Brown algae

c) Green algae d) Blue green algae

107. Sargassum is?

a) Red algae b) Brown algae

c) Green algae d) Blue green algae

108. Ascophyllum is?

a) Red algae b) Brown algae

c) Green algae d) Blue green algae

109. …………. is preferable and is better source of radiation for food purpose?

a) Cobalt b) Caesium

c) Carbon d) Fluorine

110. It is the process of killing of micro-organisms in food using electromagnetic

radiations without raising the temperature?

a) Irradiation b) Cold Sterilization

c) Pasteurization d) Appertization
Product Development and Quality Control 359

111. What is the ratio of maximum to minimum absorbed dose ideally used
in food irradiation?

a) 2:3 b) 3:2

c) 1:2 d) 2:1

112. Among the following which has the highest penetration power?

a) Alpha Rays b) Beta Rays

c) Gamma Rays d) UV Rays

113. Among the following which is used in food irradiation?

a) Alpha Rays b) Beta Rays

c) Gamma Rays d) UV Rays

114. Most effective wavelength of UV Rays is

a) 220 nm b) 240 nm

c) 260 nm d) 280 nm

115. The process of extending the shelf life through irradiation is known as?

a) Radurization b) Radicidation

c) Radappertization d) All

116. The process of reducing the number of viable non spore forming pathogenic
bacteria is known as?

a) Radurization b) Radicidation

c) Radappertization d) All

117. The process of total destruction of all bacteria is known as?

a) Radurization b) Radicidation

c) Radappertization d) All
360 Fisheries Question Bank

118. What is the minimum amount of protein required by a human per day is

a) 5 gm b) 10 gm

c) 20 gm d) 30 gm

119. Among the following which causes sweet taste of meat after the degradation
of nucleotides?

a) ATP b) ADP

c) AMP d) IMP

120. Among the following which causes bitter taste of meat after the degradation
of nucleotides?

a) ATP b) ADP

c) AMP d) Hx

121. K value of fresh fish is?

a) 0 b) 10-20

c) >25 d) >30

122. K value of moderate quality fish is?

a) 0 b) 10-20

c) >25 d) >30

123. K value of spoiled fish is?

a) 0 b) 10-20

c) >25 d) >20

124. The amount of bacterial load present on epidermis of fish is?

a) 103-105/cm2 b) 104-106/cm2

c) 105-108/ cm2 d) None

Product Development and Quality Control 361

125. The amount of bacterial load present on gills of fish is?

a) 103-105/ gm tissue b) 104-106/ gm Tissue

c) 105-108/ gm tissue d) None

126. The amount of bacterial load present in the gut of fish is?

a) 103-105/ gm of gut b) 104-106/ gm of gut

c) 105-108/ gm of gut d) None

127. Scombroid poisoning is caused due to-

a) TMAO b) TMA

c) Histamine d) Hstidine

128. Peroxide value of fresh fish is

a) < 10 b) < 5

c) 0 d) <15

129. Peroxide value of spoiled fish is

a) > 10 b) > 5

c) >15 d) >20

130. The most economical stowage method is?

a) Bulking b) Shelving

c) Boxing d) All

131. The best Fish : Ice ratio is?

a) 1:1 b) 1:2

c) 2:1 d) 3:1
362 Fisheries Question Bank

132. Thickness of flake ice is?

a) 1-2 mm b) 2-3 mm

c) 4-5 mm d) 6-9 mm

133. Soft ice is also known as?

a) Block Ice b) Slush Ice

c) Jelly Ice d) Both B & C

134. Silo storage is use for

a) Block Ice b) Flake Ice

c) Jelly Ice d) All

135. Bin storage is use for

a) Block Ice b) Flake Ice

c) Jelly Ice d) All

136. Cold storage temperature for lean fishes recommended by IIR is?

a) -18 ⁰ C b) -20 ⁰ C

c) -22 ⁰ C d) -24 ⁰ C

137. ________ is called masmin

a) Dried swim bladder b) Smoke cured tuna

c) Dry fish d) Dried bonito sticks

138. Katsuobushi is the Japanese term for _______

a) Dried swim bladder
b) Smoke cured tuna
c) Dry fish
d) Dried bonito sticks
Product Development and Quality Control 363

139. For larger varieties of fishes the ratio adopted for salting (salt : fish) is____

a) 3:1 b) 1:10

c) 1:3 d) 4:1

140. In ______ method, pieces of Garcinia gambogea is mixed along with fish
and salt during curing

a) dry curing b) Wet curing

c) Colombo curing d) Salt curing

141. ____________ is a small block of parellel lines of various widths, with

accompanying numbers and is found on most food labels

a) Bar code b) Trade mark

c) Brand name d) Product code

142. Seafood analogs are prepared from

a) Dried fish b) Smoked fish

c) Canned fish d) Surimi

143. The liquid expelled during fish meal production is called

a) press liquor b) fish soluble

c) fish fluid d) press cake

144. _______ method of fish meal production is more suitable for batch Operation

a) Wet rendering

b) Dry rendering

c) Par boiling

d) Spray drying
364 Fisheries Question Bank

145. ___________ is the first stage of product development

a) Introduction stage b) Idea stage

c) Development stage d) Initial stage

146. Flesh of the most fish constitutes _______% of its total weight

a) 20-30 b) 25-35

c) 50-55 d) 30-40

147. Salt derived from the evaporation of seawater and salt takes are
called _______

a) Solar salt

b) Brine evaporated salt

c) Rock salt

d) Seawater salt

148. Smoking done at temperatures below ____oC is cold smoking

a) 35-40oC b) 50oC

c) 60-80oC d) 70oC

149. Smoking done at higher temperature range of ______ is called hot smoking

a) 35-40oC b) 50oC

c) 60-80oC d) 70oC

150. ____________ compounds , present is smoke are responsible for the

bactericidal property of the smoke

a) PAH b) Phenolic

c) Organic d) Inorganic
Product Development and Quality Control 365

151. In electrical smoking, the material is exposed to ________

a) Corona discharge

b) Gamma radiation

c) Electrical discharge

d)Radiation

152. ________ is called masmin

a) Dried swim bladder

b) Smoke cured tuna

c) Dry fish

d) Dried bonito sticks

153. The bacteria used for biological fermentation of silage is

a) Shigella

b) Lactobacillus

c) Listeria

d) Escherichia

154. Chitosan is nothing but

a) Teichoic acid

b) Peptidoglycan

c) N-acetyl glucosamine

d) Lipopolysaccharide

155. _____________ is a symbol or work used by producer to identify his good

and distinguish them from those produced or sold by others

a) Patent b) Label

c) Trade mark d) Brand name

366 Fisheries Question Bank

156. Isinglass is prepared from

a) Air bladder b) Skin

c) Scales d) Muscle

157. The term ‘Bio-chemistry’ is coined by

a) WilhemKuhne b) B. Franklin

c) Neelson d) Carl Neuberg

158. Which seafood protein gives allergic reaction after consumption

a) Desmin b) Nevulene

c) Parvalbumin d) Paramyosin

159. Which protein has the largest single polypeptide chain

a) Nevulene b) Connectin

c) Alpha actinin d) Paramyosin

160. ............... is the no. of gram equivalent weight of the reagent containing
in 1.0 litre of solution

a) molarity b) molality

c) normality d) mole

161. ............... is the no. of gram molecular weight of the reagent containing in
1.0 litre of solution

a) molarity b) molality

c) normality d) mole

162. Which of the following is a covalent bond

a) H-bond b) vanderwal interaction

c) di-sulphide bond d) both a&b

Product Development and Quality Control 367

163. The ideal amount of agar media should be poured in a petridish is

a) 5-10 ml b) 10-15 ml

c) 20-25 ml d) 30-35 ml

164. The overall charge of bacteria is

a) Positive b) Negative

c) Neutral d) All of these

165. Fish body or flesh is softer comparative to mammals’ because of

a) Less sarcoplasmic protein

b) High myofibrillar protein

c) Low stroma protein

d) All of these

166. Parvalbumin is a

a) Sarcoplasmic protein b) Myofibrillar protein

c) Stroma protein d) None of these

167. Paramyosin protein is present in

a) dark muscle meat

b) muscle of sardine and mackerel

c) muscle of shrimp and crabs

d) muscle of bivalves

168. Titin is a

a) sarcoplasmic protein b) myofibrillar protein

c) stroma protein d) none of these

368 Fisheries Question Bank

169. In met-myoglobin, iron (Fe) remain in the.............. stage

a) oxidized b) reduced

c) neutral d) none of these

170. Met-myoglobin gives.............. colour of the meat

a) bright red b) light red

c) brown d) yellow

171. Formation of choliglobin gives ............. colour of myoglobin

a) yellow b) brown

c) green d) blue

172. Which one is a cyto-skeleton protein

a) Alphaactinin b) Beta actinin

c) Desmin d) Titin

173. The enzyme without it’s non-protein component is known as

a) holoenzyme b) zymogen

c) apo-enzyme d) none of these

174. Which protein is responsible for muscle contraction and gel formation

a) sarcoplasmic protein b) myofibrillar protein

c) stroma protein d) all of these

175. Protein which is soluble in 70% alcohol is

a) Prolamine b) Glutelin

c) Globulin d) Albumin
Product Development and Quality Control 369

176. Browning reaction is related to

a) Protein b) Carbohydrate

c) lipid d) none of these

177. TMAO is enzymetically break down into

a) TMA b) DMA

c) HCHO d) both b&c

178. Acceptable limit of histamine in seafood is

a) 20 mg/100mg b) 20mg/100gm

c) 50mg/100mg d) none

179. Gaping is more common in

a) mackerel fillet b) sardine fillet

c) tuna fillet d) herring fillet

180. Belly brusting is more commonly found in

a) tuna and herring

b) mackerel and sardine

c) sharks

d) smaller fishes

181. Which group of fatty acid is responsible for energy storage

a) triacylglycerol

b) phospholipid

c) both

d) None
370 Fisheries Question Bank

182. Eicosanoids are synthesized from

a) linolenic acid b) linoleic acid

c) arachidonic acid d) EPA &DHA

183. One example of eicosanoids are

a) EPA b) DHA

c) prostaglandin d) arachidonic acid

184. Antioxidants prevent oxidation of lipid by interfering with

a) hydroperoxide b) free radical

c) peroxide radical d) none

185. 20-carbon fatty acids are known as

a) EFA b) PUFA

c) both a&b d) eicosanoids

186. Secondary oxidative rancidity product is

a) measurement of peroxide

b) measurement of free fatty acid

c) measurement of malonaldehyde

d) measurement of glycerol

187. Minamata disease is caused by ............... form of mercury

a) Ethyl form

b) Propyl form

c) Methyl form

d) Sulphate form
Product Development and Quality Control 371

188. Minamata disease occur when Hg level reaches upto

a) 30 ppm b) 50 ppm

c) 70 ppm d) 100 ppm

189. Green sick oyster occur due to high level of ............. content

a) Zn b) Pb

c) Cu d) Cd

190. Metallothionin is a protein which is rich in

a) methionine b) histidine

c) cysteine d) leucine

191. Zwitter ion is the condition where the pH of an amino acid has ............ charge

a) positive b) negative

c) neutral d) none

192. Catheptic enzymes are activated at ............ level

a) high acidic level b) low acidic level

c) at higher pH d) neutral Ph

193. One example of isoprenoid is

a) astaxanthin b) leukotriene

c) squalene d) ambergris

194. Patulin is a

a) bacterial toxin b) viral toxin

c) protozoan toxin d) fungal toxin

372 Fisheries Question Bank

195. First canned fish is

a) sardine b) messel

c) oyster d) tuna

196. Katsuobushi is prepared from

a) ribbon fish b) eel fish

c) bonetto fish d) invertebrates

197. Katsuobushi is a ............. type product

a) boiled b) broiled

c) dried d) all of the above

198. The best suited species for fish meal production is

a) mackerel b) oil sardine

c) bonetto d) anchovies

199. Best suited tropical fish species for surimi production in India is

a) alaskapollock

b) thread fin bream

c) carps

d) eels

200. The full form of PAH is

a) polyaeronated hydrocarbon

b) poly aeromatic hydrocarbon

c) polycyclic aeronated hydrocarbon

d) polycyclic aeromatic hydrocarbon

Product Development and Quality Control 373

201. Which one is iodine containing essential amino acid

a) methionine

b) tryptophan

c) tyrosine

d) histidine

202. Fish meal is rich in

a) cysteine b) lysine

c) methionine d) all of these

203. Type-A FPC contains

a) 0.45% fat & 95% protein

b) 0.75% fat & 67% protein

c) 3% fat & 60% protein

d) 10% fat & 40% protein

204. Which EAA is lacking in fish gelatin

a) methionine b) tryptophan

c) tyrosine d) isoleucine

205. Which of the following byproduct is used as clarifying agent

a) FPC b) ambergris

c) isinglass d) pearl essence

206. Which fish is mostly used for production of pearl essence

a) anchovies b) sardine

c) bombay duck d) ribbon fish

374 Fisheries Question Bank

207. Chitosan is .................. form of chitin

a) deaminated b) deodorized

c) deacetylated d) dephosphorylated

208. Who is known as father of container

a) A.K.Shriever b) Nicholas Appert

c) P.Murray d) Peter Durand

209. Knobbing is mainly done in case of

a) tuna b) mackerel

c) sardine d) anchovies

210. Who is known as Father of double seaming

a) A.K.Shriever b) P.Murray

c) Mackscharles aims brothers d) none

211. Which component of retort pouch has heat sealable property

a) Polystyrene b) Aluminium foil

c) Cast poly propylene d) All

212. A Picnic can is a trade name of ..............shaped can

a) rectangular b) round

c) oval d) semi rectangular

213. A Hansa can is a trade name of ..............shaped can

a) rectangular b) round

c) oval d) semi rectangular

Product Development and Quality Control 375

214. A Dingly can is a trade name of.............. shaped can

a) rectangular b) round

c) oval d) semi rectangular

215. Clostridium botulinum is a.................. bacteria

a) thermophilic b) mesophilic

c) psychrotrophic d) psychrophilic

216. Which of the following method of heat transfer generally takes place in
case of canning

a) convection b) conduction

c) radiation d) all

217. Which of the following technique is applied in canning process

a) sterilization

b) microbial sterilization

c) commercial sterilization

d) statistical sterilization

218. Meat, soup come under................ group of food

a) low acid b) medium acid

c) acid group d) high acid

219. Which of the following bacteria is known for Flat sour spoilage in canned
food

a) Bacillus coagulans

b) B. Stearothermophilus

c) B. Polymyxa

d) B. Macerans
376 Fisheries Question Bank

220. Which of the following bacteria is known for producing both acid & gas
in canned foods

a) Bacillus coagulans

b) B. Stearothermophilus

c) B. Polymyxa

d) B. Subtilis

221. Which of the following bacteria is known for swelling in canned foods

a) Clostridium botulinum

b) Cl. nigrificans

c) Cl. thermosacharolyticum

d) B. Macerans

222. Which of the following bacteria is known as Sulfur stinker bacteria

a) Clostridium botulinum

b) Cl. nigrificans

c) Cl. thermosacharolyticum

d) B. Macerans

223. The time required to reduce the no. of spores by one logarithm cycle is
called

a) Z-value b) D-value

c) F-value d) none

224. If temp is high then D-value will be

a) high b) low

c) not affected d) affected

Product Development and Quality Control 377

225. Which value is put in the Y-axis of TDT-curve?

a) no of spores b) log no of spores

c) D-value d) log D value

226. The slope of TDT curve is called

a) Z-value b) D-value

c) F-value d) none

227. A can dimension 411 means

a) 41×1/16 inch b) 4+11/16 cm

c) 41+1/16 cm d) 4+11/16 inch

228. The time required to kill a particular bacteria at a particular temp is called

a) Z-value b) D-value

c) F-value d) none

229. As per 12D concept if the initial spore count is 1,then the final count after
sterilization will be

a) 1 b) 1012

c) -10 d) 10-12

230. D-value for Cl. Botulinum is

a) 0.19 b) 0.23

c) 0.28 d) 0.31

231. SHP in can is generally measured at ............... part from the bottom

a) ½ b) 1/3

c) 2/3 d) ¼
378 Fisheries Question Bank

232. As per FAO, IAEA, WHO the maximum recommended radiation limit in
food is

a) 5KGY b) 10KGY

c) 15KGY d) 20KGY

233. Pasteurization is a example of ............... type of irradiation

a) radurization b) radicidation

c) radappertization d) none

234. In India the recommended radiation limit in food is ......... KGY

a) 1.5 b) 2.5

c) 4.0 d) 5.5

235. Sanitization is a example of ............... type of irradiation

a) radurization b) radicidation

c) radappertization d) none

236. The radiation level in radicidation process is

a) 1-4 KGY b) 5-8 KGY

c) 10-14KGY d) 20-50KGY

237. If raw fish is canned without blanching the drained weight will be

a) increase b) reduce

c) remain same d) anything may happen

238. The recommended head space in canned food is

a) 2-3 mm b) 5-7 mm

c) 6-9 mm d)12-16mm
Product Development and Quality Control 379

239. More head space creates.............. problem in canned food

a) panelling b) bulging

c) corroding d) leakage

240. During can filling if the solid portion do not immerse properly in liquid
medium then ............... problem may arise

a) bulging b) stack burning

c) retort burn d) honey combing

241. A can with a minute leak which permit only air to move in or out but not
microbes to enter is called.................

a) clinch b) flipper

c) springer d) breather

242. A can with one end or both end bulge, while pressing one end by finger
leads to bulging in another end is called...............

a) flipper b) breather

c) springer d) soft swell

243. Which pathogenic bacteria has shown carrier stage in its life cycle for
spreading disease

a) staphylococcus b) vibrio

c) salmonella d) shigella

244. Which type of botulism toxin is associated with fish & fishery products

a) type C b) type D

c) type G d) type E
380 Fisheries Question Bank

245. The microbial species present during low temperature spoilage is____

a) Pseudomonas b) Micrococcus

c) Bacillus d) Aspergillus

246. Indicator organism in fish handling and processing ______________

a) E.coli b) Pseudomonas

c) Flavobacterium d) Aeromonas

247. Those organisms which grow at a temperature of 15-40 degree is_____

a) Psycrophiles b) Thermopiles

c) Mesophiles d) Psycrotrops

248. How many calories are absorbed when 1 kg of ice melt equivalent to
latent heat__________

a) 5 b) 144

c) 80 d) 318

249. The processing technique commonly used for Bombay duck is ___________

a) Canning b) freezing

c) smoking d) drying

250. Name the traditional method of fish processing and preservation ________

a) Drying b) canning

c) freezing d) irradiation

251. What is the name of processed dried fish air bladders___________

a) Isinglass b) pearl essence

c) chitin d) factice
Product Development and Quality Control 381

252. Chitin is a _____________

a) Polysaccharide b) polyphosphate

c) poly peptide d) cellophane paper

253. Isinglass is made from _____________

a) Shark fin b) fish maws

c) prawn shell d) fish scale

254. Shell life of salted fish depends on _____________

a) Moisture % b) Salt %

c) temperature d) water salinity

255. Masmin is prepared from ____________

a) Shark b) tuna

c) whale d) sea cucumber

256. The highest protein is found in ____________

a) Fish meal b) rice bran

c) tapioca flour d) GNOC

257. TMA is released from TMAO by ____________

a) Autolysis b) pseudomonas sp

c) photo bacterium d) alteronsp

258. Chitosan can be used as an absorbent for _______

a) Heavy metals b) sewage bacteria

c) oil pollutants d) suspended particles

382 Fisheries Question Bank

259. Freshness is nearly preserved by this method_________

a) Marinating b) drying

c) canning d) freezing

260. Protein is estimated by __________method

a) Kjeldhal b) Fiske

c) Winkler’s d) none

261. The highest annual marine fish production is from ___________

a) Kerala b) Gujarat

c) Maharashtra d) Andhra Pradesh

262. Major carbohydrate present in shrimp muscle is ____________

a) Starch b) glycogen

c) Triglycerides d) glycine

263. Percentage of protein in fish muscle____________

a) 16-20 b) 20-25

c) 10-15 d) 2-8

264. The degradation of histidine in fish produces ________--

a) Trimethylamine b) histamine

c) ammonia d) glucosamine

265. The chemical formula of dry ice ______________

a) Cl4 b) CO2

c) CH4 d) CH3COOH
Product Development and Quality Control 383

266. Traditional method of fish processing __________

a) Salt and drying b) freezing

c) IQF d) slow freezing

267. Brine solution is mainly made up of ___________

a) Potassium b) sodium chloride

c) permanganate d) cobalt

268. The chemical compound present only in marine fish ____________

a) TMAO b) free amino acid

c) nucleotide d) glucose

269. Biggest inland fish market in India is ___________

a) Bombay b) Chennai

c) Howrah d) Delhi

270. Sodium tripolyphosphate treatment of frozen prawns __________

a) Reduces thaw drip

b) prevents rancidity

c) kills bacteria

d) increases thaw drip

271. Teradotoxin is seen in ___________

a) Sea snakes

b) puffer fish

c) jelly fish

d) Bombay duck
384 Fisheries Question Bank

272. Casein is the protein derived from _________

a) Milk b) wheat

c) Fish d) fruits

273. Aflatoxins are __________

a) Bacterial origin b) fungal origin

c) viral origin d) algal origin

274. Surimi is ____________

a) Dried squid

b) Gelled fish meat

c) mincedmyofibrillar protein from fish

d) none

275. Bech-de-mer is __________

a) Dried squid b) Gelled fish meat

c) dried sea cucumber d) none

276. Pink discoloration in salted fish products is caused by ____________

a) Halophilic bacteria

b) Tyrosinases enzyme

c) Fat oxidation

d) None

277. The richest source of vitamin A _____--

a) Isinglass b) fish body oil

c) fish liver oil d) fish manure

Product Development and Quality Control 385

278. The rate of glycolysis is ___________

a) Faster in fresh water fish than marine fish

b) Faster in marine fish than fresh water fish

c) Equal in both cases

d) Not related with habitat

279. The quality and taste of the preserved fish will be high ____________

a) Prior to rigor mortis b) during rigor mortis

c) post rigor mortis d) none

280. Ambergris is a metabolic product of ______________

a) Shark

b) Sperm whale

c) Blue whale

d) cuttle fish

281. During rigor mortis the pH of fish may fall to ____________

a) 3.5 b) 4.5

c) 5.5 d) 6.5

282. The poisoning of histamine is known as ___________

a) Scombroid fish poisoning

b) Gadoid fish poisoning

c) Mackerel fish poisoning

d) Cod fish poisoning

386 Fisheries Question Bank

283. ATP synthesis takes place when electrons are transferred from ____

a) FAD to CoQ

b) Cyt c1 to Cyt c2

c) coenzyme and NAD

284. The non protein nitrogen matter involved in the bitter taste of fish____

a) TMAO b) Glycine

c) Hypoxanthine d) Creatinine

285. The major pigment present in shrimp_____________

a) Phenol b) Alanine

c) Astaxanthin c) Leucotriene

286. The major omega 3 fatty acid in fish lipid____________

a) EPA b) Lauric acid

c) Palmitic acid d) Stearic acid

287. Synthesis of protein takes place in _____________

a) Mitochondria b) Ribosomes

c) Cytoplasm d) Nucleus

288. Quality of shrimp can be assessed by the estimation of _____________

a) Indole b) Glucose

c) Vit C d) Arginine

289. N-acetyl glucosamine is the component of ___________

a) Starch b) Agar

c) Poly saccharide d) Chitin

Product Development and Quality Control 387

290. Quality of fish can be estimated by the ___________

a) Peroxide value b) Glucose

c) Vit C d) Arginine

291. The compound responsible for pleasant flavor_________

a) ATP b) GTP

c) IMP d) ADP

292. Limits of mercury in canned fishery products_________

a) 0.5 ppm b) 1.0 ppm

c) 5 ppm d) 10 ppm

293. The number of ATP molecules formed by the aerobic oxidation of 1

molecule of glucose is __________

a) 15 b) 12

c) 38 d) 2

294. The caloric value of fats is equal to ____________kcal

a) 9.5 b) 9.3

c) 9.1 d) 9.2

295. Triglycerols constitute about ____________% of total dietary lipids

a) 90 b) 75

c) 85 d) 95

296. ‘Irish moss ‘ is _____________

a) Pectin b) Carrageen

c) Chitin d) Gelatin
388 Fisheries Question Bank

297. Fish with Hx content more than ____________is regarded as spoiled

a) 3.5 micromoles /gram

b) 2.5 micromoles/g ram

c) 1.5 micromoles/gram

298. Trepang’ is ______________

a) Processed sea cucumber

b) Processed jelly fish

c) Processed sea anemone

 22 Fish Refigration

1. Discoloration and shrinkage are caused due to

a) Freezing b) Desiccation

c) Chilling d) Thawing

2. Removal of moisture from the product

a) Hydration b) Heating

c) Dehydration d) freezing

3. Frozen products are stored in

a) Cold store

b) Pre- processing hall

c) Processing hall

d) Freezers

4. The first civilization to harvest winter’s ice and store it in summer months

a) Indians b) Japanese

c) Chinese d) Americans
390 Fisheries Question Bank

5. Study of heat and its movement is called

a) Thermodynamics b) Hydrodynamics

c) Hydraulics d) None of the above

6. Rate if doing work

a) Power b) Energy

c) Kinetic energy d) Pressure

7. Capacity to work

a) Power b) Energy

c) Pressure d) Mechanical power

8. Latent heat of ice

a) 80 kcal/kg b) 45 kcal/kg

c) 100 kcal/kg d) 250 kcal/kg

9. Heat librated from the substances

a) Endothermic b) Exothermic

c) Hydrodynamic d) Thermodynamic

10. Refrigerants on classified based on their function

a) 2 b) 3

c) 4 d) 5

11. The important property of the refrigerant

a) Non flammable b) Non toxic

c) Non explosive d) All the above

Fish Refigration 391

12. Refrigerants F12 and NH4 are commonly used to obtain

a) Low temperature

b) Very low temperature

c) High temperature

d) Very high temperature

13. Ammonia is

a) Toxic b) Non toxic

c) Explosive d) Flammable

14. When NH3 is heated it will be

a) Burnt b) Colorful

c) Explode d) Inactive

15. NH3 leaks can be easily checked by

a) Color b) Pungentodor (tikha)

c) Explosion d) Flame

16. The refrigerant effect of NH3 is

a) High b) Low

c) Very high d) Very low

17. The gas So2 is

a) Flammable

b) Explosive

c) Odourless

d) Non-flammable & non explosive

392 Fisheries Question Bank

18. The refrigerant irritant to human body

a) NH3 b) SO2

c) CO2 d) Cl

19. The gas heavier than oil

a) SO2 b) NH3

c) H2 d) Cl

20. The refrigerant carbon dioxide

a) Toxic b) Explosive

c) Flammable d) All the above

21. The refrigerant carbon dioxide has

a) Color b) Odor

c) No color & odor d) Color but no odor

22. The refrigerant that has non corrosive effect on metals

a) N2 b) SO2

c) CO2 d) NH3

23. The refrigerant whose leakage can not be easily detected

a) NH4 b) NH3

c) CO2 d) SO2

24. Freon-11 refrigerant has

a) High boiling point
b) Low boiling point
c) Very high boiling point

d) none of the above

Fish Refigration 393

25. Trichloromonofluro methane (CH3F)

a) F22 b) F11

c) F21 d) F12

26. Dicholorodifluro methane ( CCl2 F2)

a) F22 b) F11

c) F21 d) F12

27. Monochlorotrifluro methane is ( CClF3)

a) F11 b) F12

c) F13 d) F21

28. Dichloromonofluro methane (CHCl2F) is

a) F11 b) F12

c) F22 d) F21

29. Monochlorodifluro methane ( CHClF2)

a) F21 b) F22

c) F13 d) F11

30. Total vacuum means

a) Absolute pressure zone

b) Air pressure zone

c) No vacuumzone

d) Zero pressurezone
394 Fisheries Question Bank

31. Mode of heat transfer between liquid and gases are known as

a) Conduction b) Convection

c) Radiation d) None

32. Freezing mixture constitutes

a) Ice + Water b) Ice + Salt

c) Salt + Water d) Ice, Salt and Water

33. No. of systems in the vapor system

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) 4

34. Standard refrigerant code for Freon11

a) R11 b) R12

c) R717 d) R718

35. Standard refrigerant code for Freon12

a) R11 b) R12

c) R717 d) R718

36. Component of refrigeration system regulates the flow of refrigerant

a) Expansion valve b) Receiver

c) Condenser d) None

37. Component of refrigeration system used to store the refrigerant

a)Receiver b) Expansion valve

c) condenser d) None
Fish Refigration 395

38. The nominal distance through which a piston moves from TDC to BDC or
vice versa is called

a) Stroke b) Pitch

c) a & b d) None

39. The ratio between the total volume and the clearance volume is called

a) Compression ratio b) Pitch ratio

c) a & b d) None

40. The power of the propeller depends on

a) Diameter of the propeller blade

b) Speed of rotation of the propeller

c) Length of the propeller

d) a & b

41. Equipment employed to maintain the system at a low temperature is

a) Refrigerating system b) Freezing system

c) Cold storage system d) None

42. The quantity of heat extracted from a cold body or space to be cooled in a
given time is called

a) Freezing effect b) Refrigerating effect

c) Chilling effect d) None

43. Primary refrigerants are used in

a) Indirect expansion system

b) Direct Expansion system

c) Secondary expansion system

d) None
396 Fisheries Question Bank

44. 1kg of liquid CO2 will produce

a) 0.56 m3g gas b) 0.55m3g gas

c) 0.58 m3g gas d) None

45. Conc. of foam extinguisher

a) 3 to 5% b)3 to 6%

c) 3 to 8% d) None

46. 1kg of liquid CO2 will produce

a) 0.56 m3g gas b) 0.55m3g gas

c) 0.58 m3g gas d) None

47. Conc. of foam extinguisher

a) 3 to 5% b) 3 to 6%

c) 3 to 8% d) None

48. Which one is the primary refrigerant

a) Calcium chloride b) Sodium chloride

c) Liquid ammonia d) None

49. Carburetor is present in

a) Diesel engine b) Petrol engine

c) Gasoline d) Kerosene engine

50. Exchange of both matter and energy takes place in

a) Open system b) Closed System

c) Isolated System d) All

Fish Refigration 397

51. Exchange of onlymattertakes place in

a) Open system b) Closed System

c) Isolated System d) All

52. There is no exchange of both matter and energy in

a) Open system b) Closed System

c) Isolated System d) All

53. Total energy of system is known as

a) Enthalpy b) Entropy

c) Gibb’s Energy d) Conductive energy

54. Energy available for useful work is

a) Enthalpy b) Entropy

c) Gibb’s Energy d) Conductive energy

55. Pyrrometer is used to measure

a) Density b) Radiation

c) Temperature d) Both B & C

56. The resistance of liquid to flow is known as the

a) Surface tension b) Viscosity

c) Liquidity d) None

57. ………..heat causes change in the temperature

a) Sensible Heat b) Latent Heat

c) Hidden Heat d) Both B & C

398 Fisheries Question Bank

58. ……. heat causes change in the temperature

a) Sensible Heat b) Latent Heat

c) Hidden Heat d) Both B & C

59. ……. is the transfer of energy across space.

a) Conduction b) Convection

c) Radiation d) All

60. …………is a reversed heat engine.

a) Refigeration b) Marine engines

c) Diesel engine d) Petrol engine

 23 Miscellaneous

1. In situ cyonservation is

a) On site conservation b) Off site conservation

c) Both d) None

2. Which of the following is an ex situ conservation?

a) Biosphere reserves b) National parks

c) Gene banks d) Botanical gardens

3. Antibodies are?

a) Lipoprotein b) Glycoprotein

c) Lipopolysaccharides d) Steroids

4. Epitope is present on the?

a) Antigen b) Antibody

c) Heavy chains d) Light chains

400 Fisheries Question Bank

5. Which among the following is a teleost antibody form?

a) Monomer b) Dimer

c) Tetramer d) Pentamer

6. Which antibody is present in Sharks & Skates?

a) Ig A b) Ig M

c) Ig G d) Ig W

7. Vaccines are,

a) Antibody b) Immunosuppressant

c) Antigen d) Hormone

8. The main greenhouse gas is?

a) Water vapour

b) Carbon di oxide

c) Methane

d) Nitrous oxide

9. Which among the following is not a consequence of global warming?

a) Rising of temperature

b) More temperature stratification over land than ocean

c) Decrease of sea level

d) Rise of sea level

10. Red book data is maintained by

a) IUCN b) UNICEP

c) WHO d) ICZEP
Miscellaneous 401

11. …………sp. is likely to become endangered?

a) Extinct in Wild b) Critically endangered

c) Extinct d) Vulnerable

12. Main protein of blood plasma is?

a) Globulin

b) Albulin

c) Primary conjugated protein

d) Secondary Conjugated protein

13. Haemocyannin contains?

a) Iron b) Copper

c) Chromium d) Aluminium

14. Blood platelets are found in the…………

a) Bony fishes b) Cartilaginous fishes

c) Only Mammals d) All

15. ICAR was established in the year.

a) 1929 b) 1919

c) 1939 d) 1963

16. Sulphur containing amino acid is?

a) Cysteine & Methionine

b) Methionine & Trptophan

c) Arginine & Lysine

d) Cysteine & Tyrosine

402 Fisheries Question Bank

17. Which among the following is an non essential amino acid?

a) Threonine b) Tryptophan

c) Cysteine d) Arginine

18. Which among the following is an unsaturated fatty acid?

a) Myristic acid b) Palmitic acid

c) Palmiotelic acid d) Lauric acid

19. Fish contains?

a) Linolenic acid b) Linoleic acid

c) EPA d) Oleic acid

20. Kupffer cells are present in

a) Lungs b) Liver

c) Kidney d) Stomach

21. Due to Coriolis force winds moves in ……………direction in Northern

hemisphere?

a) Right b) Left

c) Clockwise d) Any

22. On which day wetland day is celebrated?

a) 2 Feb b) 1 Feb

c) 3 Feb d) 2 Jan

23. The term antibody was given by

a) Karl Merker b) Paul Erlich

c) Peterson . K Joy d) Robert kooch

Miscellaneous 403

24. Which medium is used for the estimation of E.coli?

a) T-7 b) TTC

c) Mac Conky d) All

25. Which medium is used for the estimation of Staphylococcus?

a) T-7 b) TTC

c) Mac Conky d) BP

26. Which medium is used for the estimation of Vibrio?

a) TCBS b) KI

c) Mac Cnky d) Both A& B

27. Which medium is used for the estimation of Salmonella?

a) BSA b) HEA

c) SCB d) All

28. Which medium is used for the estimation of Steptococcus?

a) T-7 b) TTC

c) Mac Conky d) KF

29. Which medium is used for the estimation of Clostridium botulinum?

a) T-7 b) KI

c) Mac Conky d) TPGY

30. Which medium is used for the estimation of Listeria?

a) T-7 b) TTC

c) Mac Conky d) TSAYE

404 Fisheries Question Bank

31. Which institute has launched mKRISHI®, a mobile application?

a) CMFRI b) CIFA

c) CIFRI d) CIFT

32. Which institute has recently launched Mobile fish vendor trolley?

a) CIFA b) CMFRI

c) CIFRI d) CIFT

33. Which fisheries institute has recently achieved success in breeding and
hatchery management of milk fish?

a) CIFA b) CMFRI

c) CIBA d) CIFT

34. Which state ranks first in production/Coastline (2016)?

a) Kerala b) Gujarat

c) West Bengal d) Karnataka

35. What is the scientific name of Golden pearl oyster?

a) Pinctada fucata

b) Pincatada margaritifera

c) Pinctada maxima

d) None

36. What is the scientific name of Black lip pearl oyster?

a) Pinctada fucata

b) Pincatada margaritifera

c) Pinctada maxima

d) None
Miscellaneous 405

37. What is the scientific name of Silver pearl oyster?

a) Pinctada fucata

b) Pincatada margaritifera

c) Pinctada maxima

d) None

38. Sea weed resources in India are confined to?

a) Kerala& Goa

b) Gujarat & Tamil Nadu

c) West Bengal & Orissa

d) Karnataka& Maharastra

39. Which state is the largest producer of Shrimp (2016)?

a) Kerala b) Gujarat

c) Andhra pradesh d) Karnataka

40. Which state is the largest producer of Prawn (2016)?

a) Kerala b) Gujarat

c) Andhra pradesh d) Karnataka

41. Marginal farmers are farmers having land

a) 1-2 Ha b) <1 Ha

c) 2-5 Ha d) >5 Ha

42. Small farmers are farmers having land

a) 1-2 Ha b) <1 Ha

c) 2-5 Ha d) >5 Ha
406 Fisheries Question Bank

43. Medium farmers are farmers having land

a) 1-2 Ha b) <1 Ha

c) 2-5 Ha d) >5 Ha

44. Large farmers are farmers having land

a) 1-2 Ha b) <1 Ha

c) 2-5 Ha d) >5 Ha

45. Total Shrimp hatcheries in India are

a) 351 b) 251

c) 750 d) 700

46. There are ……… major rivers in India?

a) 5 b) 14

c) 44 d) Innumerable

47. There are ……… mediun rivers in India?

a) 5 b) 14

c) 44 d) Innumerable

48. There are ……… small rivers in India?

a) 5 b) 14

c) 44 d) Innumerable

49. Total seed production of India is

a) >20,000 million fry
b) >27,000 million fry
c) >37,000 million fry

d) >47,000 million fry

Miscellaneous 407

50. Among the following lake is a Ramsar site?

a) Osman sagar lake

b) Chilka lake

c) Ashtamundi lake

d) Vemabanad lake

51. There are………… National marine park &…………….. Marine Sanctuaries in

India?

a) 4 & 3 b) 3 & 4

c) 3 & 2 d) 2 & 3

52. Which is the First National marine park of India?

a) Gulf of Kutch National marine park

b) Gulf of Mannar National marine park

c) Wandoor Mahatama Gandhi National marine park

d) Rani Jhansi National marine park

53. Which is the First Marine Sanctuary of India?

a) Gulf of Kutch Sanctuary

b) Malvan marine sanctuary

c) Gahir mata marine Snctuary

d) Rani Jhansi Sanctuary

54. National Ganga river basin authority was formed in the year?

a) 1981 b) 1998

c) 1984 d) 2009
408 Fisheries Question Bank

55. Annual growth constant (K) of Sharks is

a) 0.1 b) 0.33-1.08

c) 3.51- 7.56 d) 1

56. …………..numbered hook is used in fishing for oceanic tunas?

a) 1 b) 2

c) 4 d) All

57. Number of hooks/line ranges between…………. In fishing for oceanic tuna?

a) 50-100 b) 100-200

c) 250-800 d) 1000-2000

58. Major rivers have drainage basin?

a) >20000 square km
b) >40000 square km
c) >60000 square km
d) >80000 square km

59. GAP-1 was formed in the year?

a) 1985 b) 1984

c) 1992 d) 1993

60. GAP-2 was formed in the year?

a) 1985 b) 1984

c) 1992 d) 1993

61. Chilka lake has ……… openings?

a) 1 b) 2

c) 4 d) 5
Miscellaneous 409

62. Stocking is Sine qua non for?

a) Ponds b) Oceans

c) Swamps d) Reservoirs

63. Pen culture on a regular basis has not been practiced anywhere in India
except the.

a) Gobind Sagar reservoir

b) Gandhi Sagar reservoir

c) Tungabhadra reservoir

d) All

64. Which among the following is not a Eurythermal fish species?

a) Snow trout

b) Common carp

c) Bola

d) Brown trout

65. There are total …………. Trout hatcheries in India

a) 25 b) 20

c) 15 d) 35

66. State fish of Manipur is

a) Golden mahseer b) Karimeen

c) Pengba d) Rohu

67. Volumetric capacity of Glass jar hatchery is

a) 5.35 L b) 6.35 L

c) 5.15 L d) 6.15 L
410 Fisheries Question Bank

68. For drawing the egg sample out Catheter is applied at...........

a) 30⁰ b) 45⁰

c) 60⁰ d) 90⁰

69. Breeding hapa is a…………… walled enclosure?

a) 2 b) 3

c) 5 d) 6

70. Cube root powder contains

a) 9% saponin

b) 6% saponin

c) 9% rotenone

d) 6% rotenone

71. ………………… causes maximum loss to carp spawn.

a) Nepa b) Beetle

c) Notonecta d) Ranatra

72. 1 million carp spawn weighs about

a) 1 Kg b) 1.5 Kg

c) 2 Kg d) 2.5 Kg

73. For the production of 1 million carp spawn we require

a) 57 cubic metre water

b) 67 cubic metre water

c) 77 cubic metre water

d) 87 cubic metre water

Miscellaneous 411

74. …………………aerators are proven to be ideal for water depth of about 1-1.5m.
a) Turbine aerator
b) Paddle wheel aerator
c) Aspirator aerator
d) Air diffuser

75. Who was the first director of CIFE?

a) Dr. D.V. Bal b) Dr. S L Hora

c) Dr. VRP Singh d) Dr. Jingharan

76. Who was the first director of CIFRI?

a) Dr. D.V. Bal b) Dr. S L Hora

c) Dr. VRP Singh d) Dr. Jingharan

77. Who was the first director of CIFA?

a) Dr. D.V. Bal b) Dr. S L Hora

c) Dr. VRP Singh d) Dr. Jingharan

78. Stanley reservoir is built on which river?

a) Kaveri b) Tapti

c) Krishna d) Godavari

79. Ukai reservoir is built on which river?

a) Kaveri b) Tapti

c) Krishna d) Godavari

80. Naga Arjun sagar reservoir is built on which river?

a) Kaveri b) Tapti

c) Krishna d) Godavari
412 Fisheries Question Bank

81. Hri Ram Sagar reservoir is built on which river?

a) Kaveri b) Tapti

c) Krishna d) Godavari

82. WSSV was first reported from

a) China b) Taiwan

c) Japan d) Malaysia

83. First outbreak of WSSV occurred during

a) 1994 b) 1995

c) 1996 d) 1993

84. There are …………. OIE listed fish diseases.

a) 8 b) 9

c) 10 d) 11

85. Gill rot is caused due to

a) Branchiomyces

b) Saprolegnia

c) Ichthyopthirius multifilis

d) Aeromonas

86. Ich is caused due to

a) Branchiomyces

b) Saprolegnia

c) Ichthyopthirius multifilis

d) Aeromonas
Miscellaneous 413

87. Furunculosis is caused due to

a) Branchiomyces

b) Saprolegnia

c) Ichthyopthirius multifilis

d) Aeromonas

88. Swinging disease is caused due to

a) Branchiomyces

b) Saprolegnia

c) Ichthyopthirius multifilis

d) Ichthyophonus hoferi

89. Cotton wool disease is caused due to

a) Branchiomyces

b) Saprolegnia

c) Ichthyopthirius multifilis

d) Aeromonas

90. C ÷ 2d is

a) Hanging coefficient

b) Hanging value

c) Hanging ratio

d) All

91. √1-E^2 is

a) Hanging coefficient b) Hanging value

c) Hanging ratio d) All

414 Fisheries Question Bank

92. Tail weight ratio or processing yield in shrimps is

a) 40% b) 50%

c) 60% d) 70%

93. Tail weight ratio or processing yield in prawns is

a) 40% b) 50%

c) 60% d) 70%

94. S shaped selection curve in obtained in

a) Gill net b) Purse seine

c) Trawl net d) Dredges

95. Bell shaped selection curve in obtained in

a) Gill net b) Purse seine

c) Trawl net d) Dredges

96. In which country polyculture originated?

a) China b) Rome

c) Egypt d) Combodia

97. In which country brackish water fish culture originated?

a) China b) Rome

c) Egypt d) Combodia

98. In which country mullet culture originated?

a) China b) Rome

c) Egypt d) Combodia
Miscellaneous 415

99. In which country fish culture originated?

a) China b) Rome

c) Egypt d) Combodia

100. In which country cage culture originated?

a) China b) Rome

c) Egypt d) Combodia

101. In which country modern cage culture originated?

a) Combodia b) Rome

c) Egypt d) Japan

102. In which country pen culture originated?

a) China b) Rome

c) Japan d) Combodia

103. In which country integrated culture originated?

a) China b) Rome

c) Egypt d) Combodia

104. 1 Kg earthworm prepare upto ………. compost in 60-70 days.

a) 5 Kg b) 10 Kg

c) 20 Kg d) 30 Kg

105. ……………is the most commonly traded family of marine fishes.

a) Gobidae b) Pomacentridae

c) Siganidae d) Synganthidae
416 Fisheries Question Bank

106. Which statement is correct for MayBay pearls?

a) They are value added pearls

b) They are dome shaped

c) They are image shaped

d) All

107. TDS system was started in

a) India b) Pakistan

c) China d) Bangladesh

108. Indus river originates from

a) Tibet, China

b) Rohtang pass (HP)

c) Himachal pradesh

d) Kangra of HP

109. Beas river originates from

a) Tibet, China

b) Rohtang pass (HP)

c) Himachal pradesh

d) Kangra of HP

110. Sutlej river originates from

a) Tibet, China

b) Rohtang pass (HP)

c) Himachal pradesh

d) Kangra of HP
Miscellaneous 417

111. Ravi river originates from

a) Tibet, China

b) Rohtang pass (HP)

c) Himachal pradesh

d) Kangra of HP

112. Jhelum river originates from

a) Anantnag, J&K
b) Rohtang pass (HP)
c) Himachal pradesh

d) Kangra of HP

113. Brahmaputra river originates from

a) Tibet, China

b) Rohtang pass (HP)

c) Himachal pradesh

d) Kangra of HP

114. Ganga river originates from

a) Tibet, China

b) Rohtang pass (HP)

c) Gangotri (UK)

d) Kangra of HP

115. Godavari river originates from

a) Brahmagiri hills, Nasik b) Mahabaleshwar

c) Talakaveri, Karnataka d) Dhamtari, Chattisgarh

418 Fisheries Question Bank

116. Krishna river originates from

a) Brahmagiri hills, Nasik

b) Mahabaleshwar

c) Talakaveri, Karnataka

d) Dhamtari, Chattisgarh

117. Kaveri river originates from

a) Brahmagiri hills, Nasik

b) Mahabaleshwar

c) Talakaveri, Karnataka

d) Dhamtari, Chattisgarh

118. Mahanadi river originates from

a) Brahmagiri hills, Nasik

b) Mahabaleshwar

c) Talakaveri, Karnataka

d) Dhamtari, Chattisgarh

119. Tapti river originates from

a) Brahmagiri hills, Nasik

b) Mahabaleshwar

c) Satpura range

d) Amarkantak hills

120. Narmada river originates from

a) Brahmagiri hills, Nasik b) Mahabaleshwar

c) Satpura range d) Amarkantak hills

Miscellaneous 419

121. Maximum wetland area in India is present at

a) Kerala b) Assam

c) West Bengal d) Karnataka

122. Maximum mangroove area in India is present at

a) Kerala b) Assam

c) West Bengal d) Karnataka

123. Maximum oxbow lake area in India is present at

a) Kerala b) Assam

c) West Bengal d) Karnataka

124. Which state has maximum number of women engaged as fish vendors.

a) Kerala b) Maharastra

c) West Bengal d) Karnataka

125. Tilapia was brought from………….to India as a exotic fish?

a) Sri lanka b) China

c) Bangkok d) Italy

126. Common carp was brought from………….to India as a exotic fish?

a) Sri lanka b) China

c) Bangkok d) Italy

127. Grass carp was brought from………….to India as a exotic fish?

a) Hong kong b) China

c) Bangkok d) Italy
420 Fisheries Question Bank

128. Silver carp was brought from………….to India as a exotic fish?

a) Japan b) China

c) Bangkok d) Italy

129. Gambusia was brought from………….to India as a exotic fish?

a) Sri lanka b) China

c) Bangkok d) Italy

130. Gonadotropin I helps in

a) Vitellogenesis b) Oocyte maturation

c) Ovulation d) Both B & C

131. Gonadotropin II helps in

a) Vitellogenesis b) Oocyte maturation

c) Ovulation d) Both B & C

132. Who is known as the Father of Ichhyology?

a) Balfour b) Peter Atridi Tary

c) Chamberian d) S L Hora

133. “Freshwater origin of vertebrates” is given by

a) Balfour b) Peter Atridi Tary

c) Chamberian d) S L Hora

134. “Priapium” is a

a) Respiratory organ b) Copulatory organ

c) Excretory organ d) All

Miscellaneous 421

135. Liver in fishes is

a) Bilobed b) Trilobed

c) Both d) None

136. Scientific name of Saw shark is

a) Pristis b) Pristophorus

c) Siganus rivulatus d) Sepia

137. Scientific name of Saw fish is

a) Pristis b) Pristophorus

c) Siganus rivulatus d) Sepia

138. Bulbus arteriosus is present in

a) Teleost b) Agnathans

c) Elasmobranch d) Both A & B

139. Bulbus conus is present in

a) Teleost b) Dipnoi

c) Elasmobranch d) Both C & B

140. Westerlies occurs at

a) 30-60⁰N & 30-60⁰S b) 0-30⁰N & 0-30⁰S

c) 60-90⁰N & 60-90⁰S d) All

141. Easterlies occurs at

a) 30-60⁰N & 30-60⁰S
b) 0-30⁰N & 0-30⁰S
c) 60-90⁰N & 60-90⁰S

d) All
422 Fisheries Question Bank

142. Trade winds occurs at

a) 30-60⁰N & 30-60⁰S
b) 0-30⁰N & 0-30⁰S
c) 60-90⁰N & 60-90⁰S
d) All

143. SOFAR exists at the depth of

a) 500m b) 1000m

c) 1500m d) 2000m

144. Thyrotroph is secreted by

a) PPD b) RPD

c) PI d) None

145. Gonadotroph is secreted by

a) PPD b) RPD

c) PI d) None

146. Somatotroph is secreted by

a) PPD b) RPD

c) PI d) None

147. Lactotropins is secreted by

a) PPD b) RPD

c) PI d) None

148. Coricotropin is secreted by

a) PPD b) RPD

c) PI d) None
Miscellaneous 423

149. MSH is secreted by

a) PPD b) RPD

c) PI d) None

150. MCH is secreted by

a) PPD b) RPD

c) PI d) None

151. 1gm of Artemia cyst gives

a) 0.1 million nauplii

b) 0.2 million nauplii

c) 0.3 million nauplii

d) 0.4 million nauplii

152. State fish of Goa is

a) Mullet b) Mackerel

c) Karimeen d) Rohu

153. Main food of Mackerel is

a) Lab lab

b) Phytoplankton

c) Zooplankton

d) Benthos

154. There are ………..principles in CCRF.

a) 12 b) 10

c) 9 d) 8
424 Fisheries Question Bank

155. Microcredit in fisheries was launched in

a) 1990 b) 1991

c) 1992 d) 1993

156. Dumble shaped air bladder is present in

a) Mangur b) Singhi

c) Rohu d) Nain

157. T test is used when

a) n<30 b) n>30

c) n=30 d) All

158. What is the age at maturity of milkfish?

a) 2years b) 3 years

c) 5 years d) 6 years

159. Which chemical is known as “Chile salt peter”

a) Copper sulphate

b) Sodium nitrate

c) Cuprous oxide

d) Calcium carbonate

160. Which chemical is known as “Blue Stone”

a) Copper sulphate
b) Sodium nitrate
c) Cuprous oxide
d) Calcium carbonate
Miscellaneous 425

161. Which is the fastest swimming fish?

a) Saw fish b) Sail fish

c) Sword fish d) Sperm whale

162. Scoliosis & Lordosis is caused due to deficiency of

a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B5

c) Vitamin B1 d) Choline

163. Clubbed gill disease is caused due to deficiency of

a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B5

c) Vitamin B1 d) Choline

164. Exopthelmia is caused due to deficiency of

a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B5

c) Vitamin B1 d) Choline

165. Black death disease in Shrimps is caused due to deficiency of

a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B5

c) Vitamin B1 d) Choline

166. Fatty liver disease is caused due to deficiency of

a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B5

c) Vitamin B1 d) Choline

167. Whirling disease is caused due to deficiency of

a) Vitamin C b) Vitamin B5

c) Vitamin B1 d) Choline
426 Fisheries Question Bank

168. IND-20, a beach craft launched by BOBP in the states of

a) Tamil Nadu b) Orissa

c) Andhra Pradesh d) All

169. Indus river system has ……………major rivers.

a) 3 b) 4

c) 5 d) 6

170. Which river of Indus river system flows only in India?

a) Beas b) Ravi

c) Chenab d) Sutlej

171. The extension methods are classified according to

a) Use b) Form

c) Person d) A & B

172. Tin canister is developed by?

a) Andrew schriver b) Peter durand

c) Max Ames d) Ball

173. Pressure retort is developed by?

a) Andrew schriver b) Peter durand

c) Max Ames d) Ball

174. Inside coated cans is developed by?

a) Andrew schriver b) Peter durand

c) Max Ames d) Ball

Miscellaneous 427

175. Aseptic canning is developed by?

a) Andrew schriver b) Peter durand

c) Max Ames d) Ball

176. Double Seaming is developed by?

a) Andrew schriver b) Peter durand

c) Max Ames d) Ball

177. Gill Maggot is caused due to

a) Ergasilus b) Saprolegnia

c) Ichthyopthirius multifilis d) Aeromonas

178. MPPTC is present at

a) Cochin b) Mangalore

c) Veraval d) Goa

179. Calipee is a byproduct of

a) Sturgeon b) Turtle

c) Shark d) Squid

180. FAO has classified Major fishing zones into ……………….zones

a) 18 b) 9

c) 27 d) 12

181. FAO has classified Major Marine fishing zones into ……………….zones

a) 18 b) 9

c) 27 d) 12
428 Fisheries Question Bank

182. FAO has classified Major Inland fishing zones into ……………….zones

a) 18 b) 9

c) 27 d) 12

183. Letality of Neurotoxin is

a) 1 ng/Kg b) 1

c) 1pg / Kg d) Both A & B

184. First transgenic fish was produced in the year.

a) 1981 b) 1983

c) 1985 d) 1990

185. ………………….is the feeding behavior of eating of scales of other fishes.

a) Cryptophagy b) Cryophagy

c) Lepidophagy d) Carcinophagy

186. “Pisces” is a

a) Super class b) Class

c) Sub class d) Sub division

187. “Chondricthyes” is a

a) Super class b) Class

c) Sub class d) Sub division

188. “Actinopterygii” is a
a) Super class b) Class
c) Sub class d) Sub division
Miscellaneous 429

189. “Teleostei” is a

a) Super class b) Class

c) Sub class d) Sub division

190. “Elopomorpha” is a

a) Super order b) Class

c) Sub class d) Sub division

191. Gill apertures present in Order Cyclostomata

a) 1-14 b) 7

c) 10-14 d) All

192. Gill apertures present in Hag fishes

a) 1-14 b) 7

c) 10-14 d) All

193. Gill apertures present in Petromyzon

a) 1-14 b) 7

c) 10-14 d) All

194. Two dorsal fins are present in.

a) Lion head gold fish b) Tetras

c) Yellow tail d) Bombay duck

195. Fish having no dorsal fin is .

a) Lion head gold fish b) Tetras

c) Yellow tail d) Bombay duck

430 Fisheries Question Bank

196. Three dorsal fins are present in.

a) Lion head gold fish b) Tetras

c) Yellow tail d) Bombay duck

197. Fishes which hide their eggs in the shells of living bivalves.

a) Aerophils b) Psamnophils

c) Hydrophils d) Ostracophils

198. Fishes which hide their eggs in the soil outside the water.

a) Aerophils b) Psamnophils

c) Hydrophils d) Ostracophils

199. Fishes which hide their eggs in the soil inside the water.

a) Aerophils b) Psamnophils

c) Hydrophils d) Ostracophils

200. Alevin is the larval stage of………………..

a) Salmon b) Trout

c) Star fish d) Petromyzon

201. Smolt & Parr is the larval stage of………………..

a) Salmon b) Trout

c) Star fish d) Petromyzon

202. Bipinnaria is the larval stage of………………..

a) Salmon b) Trout

c) Star fish d) Petromyzon

Miscellaneous 431

203. Amoecoete is the larval stage of………………..

a) Salmon b) Trout

c) Star fish d) Petromyzon

204. Leptocephalous is the larval stage of………………..

a) Salmon b) Trout

c) Eel d) Petromyzon

205. Megalopa is the larval stage of………………..

a) Star fish b) Lobster

c) Crab d) Petromyzon

206. Echinopleuretues is the larval stage of………………..

a) Salmon b) Sea urchin

c) Star fish d) Petromyzon

207. Peurelii is the larval stage of………………..

a) Sand lobster b) Spiny lobster

c) Cray fish d) Crab

208. Nisto is the larval stage of………………..

a) Sand lobster b) Spiny lobster

c) Cray fish d) Crab

209. Tornaria is the larval stage of………………..

a) Brittle star b) Balanoglossus

c) Sea lily d) Sea cucumber

432 Fisheries Question Bank

210. Ophioletus is the larval stage of………………..

a) Brittle star b) Balanoglossus

c) Sea lily d) Sea cucumber

211. Dololaria is the larval stage of………………..

a) Brittle star b) Balanoglossus

c) Sea lily d) Sea cucumber

212. Ephyra is the larval stage of………………..

a) Sromatopods b) Balanoglossus

c) Jelly fish d) Diphyllobothrium

213. Alima is the larval stage of………………..

a) Sromatopods b) Balanoglossus

c) Jelly fish d) Diphyllobothrium

214. Procercoids is the larval stage of………………..

a) Sromatopods b) Balanoglossus

c) Jelly fish d) Diphyllobothrium

215. Frequency of Channel 16 is

a) 156.8 Mhz b) 156.8 Khz

c) 156.8 Ghz d) 156.8 mhz

216. Coastline of Gujarat is about

a) 800 Km b) 1600 km

c) 2600 km d) 1900 km
Miscellaneous 433

217. Coastline of A&N island is about

a) 800 Km b) 1600 km

c) 2600 km d) 1900 km

218. Coastal zone is about

a) 200 m from HTL b) 200 m from LTL

c) 500 m from HTL d) 500 m from LTL

219. Coastline of India is

a) 7118 Km b) 7129 Km

c) 8129 km d) 1900 km

220. EEZ of India extends upto…………..

a) 200 nm b) 220 nm

c) 370 Km d) Both A & C

221. EEZ of East coast is about………….

a) 1.22 b) 0.56

c) 0.86 d) 0.60

222. EEZ of West coast is about………….

a) 1.22 b) 0.56

c) 0.86 d) 0.60

223. EEZ of A&N island is about………….

a) 1.22 b) 0.56

c) 0.86 d) 0.60
434 Fisheries Question Bank

224. Continental shelf area of India is about

a) 1.24 m Ha b) 0.50 m Ha

c) 3.93 m Ha d) 0.60 m Ha

225. Brackish water area of India is about

a) 1.24 m Ha b) 0.50 m Ha

c) 3.93 m Ha d) 0.60 m Ha

226. Total area of backwater & lagoons in India is about

a) 0.9 m Ha b) 0.2 m Ha

c) 0.72 m Ha d) 0.5 m Ha

227. Total area of floodplain wetlands in India is about

a) 0.9 m Ha b) 0.2 m Ha

c) 0.72 m Ha d) 0.5 m Ha

228. Total area of upland waters in India is about

a) 0.9 m Ha b) 0.2 m Ha

c) 0.72 m Ha d) 0.5 m Ha

229. Total area of estuaries in India is about

a) 0.9 m Ha b) 0.2 m Ha

c) 0.72 m Ha d) 0.5 m Ha

230. Total number of pig required for integrated fish culture having a pond
of 2 ha

a) 10-20 b) 30-40

c) 60-80 d) 120-160
Miscellaneous 435

231. There are ……………….. BFDA in our cointry.

a) 29 b) 39

c) 429 d) 439

232. There are ……………….. FFDA in our country.

a) 29 b) 39

c) 429 d) 439

233. There are ……………..registered fish processing plants in our country.

a) 435 b) 465

c) 479 d) 489

234. There are ……………..registered fish freezing plants in our country.

a) 435 b) 465

c) 479 d) 489

235. Which statement is not correct for exocetus?

a) They have ventral sided dorsal fin
b) They are found only in corromandal coast
c) They have enlarged pectoral fin
d) All statements are correct

236. Teleosts have …….. pairs of gills.

a) 4 b) 5

c) 8 d) 6

237. Elasmobranch have …….. pairs of gills.

a) 4 b) 5

c) 8 d) 6
436 Fisheries Question Bank

238. Prawns have …….. pairs of gills.

a) 4 b) 5

c) 8 d) 6

239. Flatfishes are

a) Sinistral b) Dextral

c) Both d) None

240. 1 Nautical mile is equal to

a) 1.852 m b) 1.852 mile

c) 1.852 km d) 1.852 yards

241. 1 Marine league is equal to

a) 1 Nautical mile

b) 2 Nautical mile

c) 3 Nautical mile

d) 4 Nautical mile

242. Which is the largest inner planet of our solar system?

a) Earth b) Jupiter

c) Neptune d) Venus

243. Anemometer is used for measuring

a) Wind direction

b) Wind velocity

c) Wind humidity

d) Wind temperature
Miscellaneous 437

244. Wind vane is used for measuring

a) Wind direction b) Wind velocity

c) Wind humidity d) Wind temperature

245. Indian fisheries act was implemented in which year?

a) 1897 b) 1899

c) 1914 d) 1913

246. Indian marine fisheries regulation act was implemented in which year?

a) 2002 b) 2003

c) 2004 d) 2005

247. Enviroment protection act was implemented in which year?

a) 1976 b) 1975

c) 1986 d) 1974

248. EIA act was implemented in which year?

a) 1994 b) 1981

c) 1991 d) 2004

249. Charter policy was implemented in which year?

a) 1994 b) 1981

c) 1991 d) 2004

250. Deep sea fishing policy was implemented in which year?

a) 1994 b) 1981

c) 1991 d) 2004
438 Fisheries Question Bank

251. Comprehensive marine fisheries act was implemented in which year?

a) 1994 b) 1981

c) 1991 d) 2004

252. Coastal aquaculture authority act was implemented in which year?

a) 2003 b) 2005

c) 2006 d) 2004

253. Biological diversity act was implemented in which year?

a) 2003 b) 2002

c) 2006 d) 2004

254. Wildlife protection act was implemented in which year?

a) 1982 b) 1972

c) 1976 d) 1986

255. _______ is employed for rearing of earthworms

a) Bamboo tray

b) Apiary

c) Vermibox

d) Poultry farm

256. Cod liver oil is rich in

a) Vitamins A and D

b) Vitamins A and C

c) Vitamins A and B

d) Vitamins A and E
Miscellaneous 439

257. Crustacean fishery is connected with exploitation of

a) Oysters and Crabs

b) Mussels and Squids

c) Shells and Cuttle fish

d) Lobster and Prawns

258. Cultivation of fishes in artificially prepared ponds or water bodies is called

a) Aquaculture b) Pisciculture

c) Vermiculture d) Agriculture

259. Drying of fishes by lowering temperature is

a) Smoking b) Freeze drying

c) Salting d) Chilling

260. Earthworms which are seen on the surface are called

a) Epigeic (epigenic) b) Endogeic (endogenic)

c) Annecic d) Hygienic

261. Fish flour is rich in

a) Fat b) Protein

c) Vitamins d) Minerals

262. Fish introduced in India by foreigners is

a) Labeo rohita

b) Mystus singhala

c) Pomfret

d) Clarias batrachus
440 Fisheries Question Bank

263. Fishes reared in culture fishery in India are

a) Salmon and Rohu

b) Salmon and Catla

c) Catla ad Magur

d) Rohu and Catla

264. Hypophysation is done in major carps

a) to increase size

b) to increase their growth

c) to increase breeding in fisheries

d) to increase their palatability

265. Most limiting major nutrient in an aquaculture pond:

a) Nitrogen b) Potassium

c) Calcium d) Phosphorous

266. Brackish water tidal wetlands in West Bengal where traditional rice-fish
culture is practiced:

a) Bheries b) Gazani

c) Khazans d) Khar lands

267. Polymer of N-acetyl glucosamine:

a) Lignin b) Starch

c) Chitin d) Pectin

268. Metabolic precursor of EPA and DHA:

a) Oleic acid b) Stearic acid

c) Linolic acid d) Linolenic acid

Miscellaneous 441

269. Protected form of vitamin E used in practical fish diets:

a) α Tocopherol acetate

b) α Tocopherol propionate

c) β Tocopherol acetate

d) β Tocopherol propionate

270. Nuptial tubercles is a sexual dimorphic feature present in males of

______________

a) Angel fish b) Gold fish

c) Pearl gourami d) Guppy

271. ______________ is an egg scatterer

a) Angel fish b) Pearl gourami

c) Sword tail d) None of these

272. White spot or Ich is a ______________ disease

a) metazoan b) bacterial

c) protozoan d) viral

273. Non feeding steps in the larval development of shrimp:

a) Nauplius b) Megalopa

c) Protozoa d) Mysis

274. The transition larval stage in the life cycle of pearl oyster:

a) Trochophore

b) Veliges

c) Umbo

d) Pediveliges
442 Fisheries Question Bank

275. Name the chemical required for the culture of dinoflagellates

a) Sodium thiosulphate

b) Formaldehyde

c) Sodium hypochlorite

d) Sodium silicate

276. The neurohemal organ in the eyestalk of decapod crustaceans

a) Y-organ

b) Rimus gland

c) Mandibular organ

d) X-organ

277. Renibacterium salmoninarum is known to be the causative agent of

a) Proliferative kidney disease

b) Bacterial kidney disease

c) Furunculosis

d) Haemorrhagic septicemia

278. Luminous vibriosis is associated with ________________

a) Shrimps b) Carps

c) Crabs d) Cat fishes

279. Dactylogyrus is commonly known as

a) Blood fluke b) Skin fluke

c) Gill fluke d) Eye fluke

Miscellaneous 443

280. In EEC scheme of grading chilled fish to various stages of spoilage, which
among the following grades indicates that the product is unfit for human
consumption?

a) A b) B

c) C d) E

281. The presence of toxin produced by microorganisms on food products is

coming under

a) Chemical hazard

b) Physical hazard

c) Biological hazard

d) None of these

282. Which among the following freezing methods makes undesirable quality
changes in fish?

a) Fluilized bed freezing

b) Quick freezing

c) Cryogenic freezing

d) Double freezing

283. The “zone of maximum crystallization” in freezing of fish is in the

temperature range

a) -1 to -5 ⁰C b) -5 to -10 ⁰C

c) -10 to -15 ⁰C d) -15 to -30 ⁰C

284. Filleting of fish will be ideal

a) In rigor b) In pre rigor

c) In post rigor d) Any time

444 Fisheries Question Bank

285. Which among the following is a cryoprotectant?

a) Liquid nitrogen b) Formaldehyde

c) Ammonia d) Sorbitol

286. Indicator of temperature sensitivity of a microorganism:

a) D-value b) TDT

c) z-value d) TDP

287. Cobb Test is used for testing the following parameter of a packaging
material:

a) Tear resistance

b) Water absorbtiveness

c) Bursting strength

d) Puncture resistance

288. The packaging material with the highest cushioning property amongst
the following:

a) Paperboard

b) Biaxially oriented polypropylene

c) Corrugated fibreboard

d) Vinyl chloride-vinylidine chloride copolymer

289. Lethal rate curve with respect to an organism subjected to thermal

processing is constructed by plotting lethal rate against

a) heating-cooling time

b) thermal death time

c) retort temperature

d) cold spot temperature

Miscellaneous 445

290. Heterosis is found in fishes that are

a) Hormone treated

b) Hybridized

c) Haploid chromosome injected

d) None

291. Quality of milt is evaluated by

a) Volume of milt

b) Spermatocrit value, and sperm cell count

c) Sperm motility

d) All the above

292. Chromosome are observed during

a) Anaphase b) Telophase

c) Metaphase d) Interphase

293. Metaphase of cell division is arrested by

a) Trisodium citrate b) Glycerol

c) Colchicine d) Glycosteroid

294. MBV is diagnosed by the squash method using the stain

a) Malachite green b) Giemsa stain

c) Ziel Nielston stain d) Gram stain

295. Giemsa stain is a

a) Specific stain b) Differential stains

c) Simple stain d) None

446 Fisheries Question Bank

296. The greatest O2 consuming organelle of the cell is

a) Lysosome b) Golgi apparatus

c) Mitochondria d) Ribasomes

297. The close association of 2 or more genes on a single chromosome usually

inherited is called

a) Linkage b) Crossing over

c) Pleotropism d) Epitasis

298. The cell membrane of gram positive bacteria contain

a) Only peptidoglycan layer

b) Only lipopolysaccharide layer

c) Peptidoglycan and an outer membrane

d) Peptidoglycan layer and lipopolysaccharide layer

299. Tripeptides contain ------- number of peptide bonds

a) 1 b) 2

c) 3 d) Zero

300. The complete active enzyme is termed as

a) Apoenzyme b) Prosthetic group

c) Cofactor d) Holo enzyme

301. Fatty acids are represented by the formula R-COOH, where R stands for

a) Alkaloid group

b) Aldehyde group

c) Alkyl group

d) None
Miscellaneous 447

302. Sea grass is a _____________

a) Gymnosperm plant

b) Angiosperm non flowering plant

c) Angiosperm flowering plant

d) Strictly Aerial pollinating plant

303. Gynogenesis (all female population) is reported in ________________

a) Poecilia formosa

b) P.reticulata

c) P.latipina

d) P.mexicana

304. Sea bass is a___________________

a) Protandrous hermaphrodite

b) Protogynous hermaphrodite

c) Synchronous hermaphrodite

d) Gonochoristic fish

305. _________________ fish lay eggs in the mantle cavity of F/W mussel

a) Oryziaslatipes

b) Puntius gonionotus

c) Rhodeussericeus

d) Loricariaparva

306. Ovipositor found in_____________

a) Salmon b) Trout

c) 3 spine stickle back d) Bitterlings

448 Fisheries Question Bank

307. Which is the largest riverine system in India?

a) Indus b) Ganges

c) Brahmaputra d) Mahanadhi

308. Chilka lake is ______________

a) Lagoon b) Bhery

c) Backwater d) Mud bank

309. Famous traditional fishery in West Bengal______________

a) Bashabanda b) Bheels

c) Jheels d) Pokkali

310. Largest estuarine system in India.................

a) Godavari estuary b) Narmada estuary

c) Mondovi Zuari estuary d) Hooghly matlah

311. Which one is suitable for bogy area fisheries?

a) Carp b) Mullet

c) catfish d) milkfish

312. Which is the odd?

a) Hilsa b) Eel

c) Salmon d) Rohu

313. Unio is a fresh water _____________

a) Oyster b) Mussel

c) Snail d) Clam
Miscellaneous 449

314. Otter board used in trawl net for___________

a) Vertical opening
b) Horizontal opening
c) Both a & b
d) Restrict the opening of the net

315. Which is the indigenous fish?

a) Tilapia b) Brown trout

c) Snow trout d) Common carp

316. Dol net for___________ fishery

a) Pomfret b) Mackerel

c) Bombay duck d) Croacker

317. Which is demersal fish?

a) Silver bellies b) Bombay duck

c) Anchovy d) Mackerel

318. 0xygen depletion will occurs in ponds due to high density of_____________

a) Organic pollution b) Air breathing fishes

c) Bacteria d) Macrophytes

319. Which is true fish?

a) Star fish b) Jelly fish

c) Sea horse d) Cuttle fish

320. Largest murrel is__________

a) Channastriatus b) C.marulius

c) C.punctatus d) C.gachua
450 Fisheries Question Bank

321. Exclusively marine family?

a) Cyprinidae b) Anguilidae

c) Claridae d) Sygnathidae

322. Scientific name of cobia_____________

a) Rastrelligerkanangurta b) Rachycentroncanadum

c) Dicentrachuslabrax d) Latescalcarifer

323. Fish that can be used for biological control of mosquito_____________

a) Singhi b) Molly

c) Gambusia d) Loach

324. Glochidium larval stage appears in_____________

a) Unio sp b) Pila sp

c) Pinctadasp d) ostreasp

325. Maritime state with largest coast line is_______________

a) Tamil nadu b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Maharashtra d) Gujarat

326. Member of Clupeiformes?

a) Ribbon fish b) Knife fish

c) Butter fish d) Castor-oil fish

327. Transparent juvenile of eel assembles from the river known as_________

a) Elver b) Glass eel

c) Leptocephalus d) Silver eel

Miscellaneous 451

328. The graph of cumulative frequency distribution is_______________

a) Histogram b) Frequency polygon

c) Ogive d) Frequency curve

329. Hormone responsible for moulting in insects is _____________

a) Somatostatin b) Ecdysone

c) Prolactin d) Progesterone

330. For conservation of endangered species which is most effective extension

method?

a) Mass awareness programme

b) Informal education

c) Formal education

d) Ranching programme

331. In India Deemed fisheries university is established during,__________

a) 1956 b) 1961

c) 1976 d) 1971

332. Fish oil is rich in_________________

a) Vitamin A b) Vitamin D

c) Both a & b d) Vitamin C

333. Aquatic insects of fresh water nursery is controlled by the application

of_______________

a) Mahua oil cake b) Mustered oil cake

c) Cow dung d) Soap oil emulsion

452 Fisheries Question Bank

334. Which is eco friendly farming?

a) Super intensive b) Semi intensive

c) Intensive d) Modified extensive

335. Which farming practice is suitable for rural areas?

a) Intensive system

b) Cage culture

c) Integrated farming

d) Pen culture

336. Which is suitable for seaweed culture?

a) Pond culture

b) Rack culture

c) Floating raft culture

d) Cage culture

337. Most common mud crab in India

a) Portunuspelagicus

b) Scylla tranquberica

c) Portunussanguinolentus

d) Ucaannulipus

338. Which one is not an air breathing cat fish?

a) Ompakpabda

b) lariasbatrachus

c) Mystusseengahala

d) Heteropneustesfossilis
Miscellaneous 453

339. WSSV is a_____________

a) Double stranded DNA virus

b) RNA virus

c) Single stranded DNA virus

d) Bacteriophage

340. Which is crustacean parasite?

a) Dactylogyrus

b) Gyrodactylus

c) Argulus

d) Costia

341. In carps gill disease is caused by______________

a) Gyrodactylus b) Dactylogyrus

c) Lernae d) Costia

342. Which one is blue green alga?

a) Navicula b) Nitzchia

c) Chlorella d) Microcystis

343. Respiratory pigment found in fish

a) Haemoglobin b) Haemocyanin

c) Haemoerythrin d) Carboxyglobin

344. Which act as a scavenger?

a) Silver carp b) Catla

c) Rohu d) Magur
454 Fisheries Question Bank

345. Trammel net is____________

a) Single layer gill net

b) Multiple layer gill net

c) Bottom set gill net

d) Drift gill net

346. Which is the popular gear in reservoir fishery?

a) Drag net b) Cast net

c) Gill net d) Bag net

347. Neurotoxin in canned fish is produced by___________

a) Vibrio cholera

b) Clostridium sporogenus

c) Clostridium botulinium

d) Clostridium tetani

348. Founder of DNA finger printing_________________

a) Leuwen Hock b) Paul Berg

c) Alec Jefforey d) Watson

349. Which is energy currency of cell?

a) DNA b) Mitochondria

c) ADP d) ATP

350. Gelatin is prepared from____________

a) Fish muscle b) Fish swimbladder

c) Fish scales and skin d) Both a and b

Miscellaneous 455

351. Gram positive bacteria__________

a) E.coli

b) Vibrio cholera

c) Listeria monocytogenus

d) Pseudomonas spp.

352. By which process chitosan is prepared from chitin____________

a) Demethylation b) Deacetylation

c) Demineralisation d) Dechlorinatin

353. Beche-de-mer is a product of____________

a) Dried squid b) Sea cucumber

c) Dried anemone d) Dried fish

354. Mucus is secreted from the parents of _____fish as a source of immune

feed for young ones.

a) Flower horn b) Oscar

c) Scat d) Discus

355. Which instrument is used to find out the freshness of the fish?

a) Spectrophotometer

b) Freshiometer

c) Torrymeter

d) None of these

356. Inland fish production is highest in_________________

a) Orissa b) Andhra Pradesh

c) W. Bengal d) Karnataka
456 Fisheries Question Bank

357. Which yarn is commonly used in fish nets/

a) Twisted

b) Braided

c) Knotless

d) Braided-cum-twisted

358. Bhimtal lake is located in__________

a) Uttar Pradesh

b) Uttaranchal

c) Himachal Pradesh

d) Hariyana

359. Antifouling paint contains the chemical compound___________

a) Tri butyl toluene

b) Trichloro acetic acid

c) Thiobarbutyric acid

d) Tri hydroxyl toluene

360. Eye drop prepared from shark bone is called_______

a) Heparin b) Terepenoid

c) Chondroitin d) Cumarin

361. Banana shrimp is ____________

a) Marsupenaeusjaponicus

b) Feneropenaeusmerguensis

c) Penaeussemisulcatus

d) Penaeusmonodon
Miscellaneous 457

362. Best feed for milk fish__________

a) Detritus b) Periphyton

c) Lab lab d) Nanoplankton

363. Common carp eggs are__________

a) Adhesive b) Demersal

c) Pelagic d) Buoyant eggs

364. Measure of dispersion____________

a) Mean b) Median

c) Variance d) Mode

365. Commonly used inorganic fertilizer in carp farming___________

a) Ammonia b) Superphosphate

c) Potassium d) Nitro sulphate

366. Anchor worm is __________

a) Argulus

b) Sagittarius

c) Trichodina

d) Lernaea

367. Chilka lake is situated in___________

a) Tamil Nadu

b) Between Tamil Nadu and Orissa

c) Orissa

d) None of the above

458 Fisheries Question Bank

368. Sundarban is located in _______________

a) India

b) West Bengal

c) Bangladesh

d) Between West Bengal and Bangladesh

369. Ambergris is a metabolic product of ___________

a) Killer whale

b) Sperm whale

c) Blue whale

d) Seine whale

370. Direct method of yarn numbering system widely used is ____________

a) Tex

b) Denier

c) Metric

d) None of the above

371. Floats and sinkers are used for __________

a) Horizontal opening

b) Only for stabilize the net

c) Vertical opening

d) Both B & C

372. Which is an active gear?

a) Gill net b) Trawl net

c) Traps d) Cast net

Miscellaneous 459

373. Ratio of best icing to be followed in fish icing is_________

a) 1:1 b) 1:2

c) 1:3 d) 1:4

374. Which of the following chemical is used to control drip loss?

a) BHA b) BHT

c) Vitamin d d) Polyphosphate

375. One kilo byte is =

a) 1074 bytes b) 1024 bytes

c) 8 bites d) 1024 MB

376. Sodium alginate is prepared from____________

a) Red sea weeds b) Green seaweeds

c) Brown sea weeds d) Blue green weeds

377. Which river has its source near the lake Mansarovar in Tibet?

a) The Brahamaputra b) The Sutlej

c) The Indus d) All the above

378. “Green house effect” is due to

a) CO2 b) SO2

c) O2 d) N2O

379. “Biosphere reserve project” is aimed at

a) Protecting flora and fauna
b) Protecting human beings from pollution
c) Protecting environment
d) Protecting cattle population
460 Fisheries Question Bank

380. Aquaculture refers to

a) Culture of salmon b) Culture of shrimp

c) Cage culture d) Culture of water –living form

381. Dry ice is

a) CO2 b) Solidified CO2

c) Liquid Nitrogen d) Dew drops

382. Thelycum in female penaeid shrimps is located between the

a) Fifth pair of walking leg

b) First pair of walking leg

c) Third pair of walking leg

d) Second pair of swimming leg

383. Wet Bundh Breeding of fishes is famous in which of the following states

a) Uttar Pradesh b) Madhya Pradesh

c) Punjab d) West Bengal

384. Petasma in male panaeid shrimps is located between the

a) Third pair of swimming leg

b) First pair of swimming leg

c) Second pair of walking leg

d) Fifth pair of swimming leg

385. Which state among these ranks first in shrimp landings

a) Kerala b) Maharashtra

c) Gujarat d) Tamil nadu

Miscellaneous 461

386. When was the pearl fishery stopped in the Gulf of Mannar?

a) 1945 b) 1967

c) 1956 d) 1961

387. World fisheries Day is observed on

a) July 10 b) September 7

c) November 1 d) November 21

388. At what temperature will the Fahrenheit and Celsius scales give the
same reading?

a) –20 0 b) 17.80

c) 00 d) - 40 0

389. The tides in Oceans are due to

a) Gravitational attraction of the Moon and Sun

b) Gravitational attraction of the Moon and earth

c) Rotation of The Earth

d) Corialis force

390. Movement of organisms in relation to water current is called

a) Thigmotaxis b) Rheotaxis

c) Kinesis d) Tropism

391. The total organic matter present in an ecosystem is referred to as

a) Biomass

b) Biosphere

c) Biome

d) Biocoenosis
462 Fisheries Question Bank

392. CMFRI and CIFRI were estabilished in the year

a) 1950 and 1952 b) 1947 and 1950

c) 1958 d) 1947

393. In which year Government of India had declared its EEZ?

a) 1976 b) 1974

c) 1960 d) 1962

394. Which of the following is otherwise called as monsoon river prawn?

a) Macrobrachiumrosenbergii b) M. malcolmsonii

c) M.rebae d) M.sibagaye

395. “Bouchet culture” is commonly followed for edible oyster farming in

a) Thailand b) Italy

c) Philippines d) France

396. Which bacteria convert toxic nitrite into nitrates?

a) Nitrosomonas b) Nitrobactor

c) Anabena d) Chemosynthetic bacteria

397. Male Copulatory Organ in Guppy is

a) Gonadotrophin b) Gonopodium

c) Clasper d) Mixopterigia

398. The nitrogen fixing symbiotic blue green alga present in aquatic fern

a) Azollapinnata b) Nitrosomonas

c) Anabaenaazollae d) Nostac
Miscellaneous 463

399. In controlled condition carp eggs hatch out within ________

a) 9 hrs b) 10-12 hrs

c) 16-18 hrs d) 24-28 hrs

400. If price elasticity or supply becomes zero, then

a) Supply is variable b) Supply is fixed

c) Supply is increasing d) Supply is decreasing

401. Green revolution in India was achieved by using

a) High yielding varieties

b) High intensity fertilizers

c) Disease resistant varieties

d) All of the above

402. NACA head quarters situated in

a) India b) China

a) Bangkok b) USA

403. What is the source of nitrogen fixation is aquatic ecosystem

a) Red-algae b) Blue green algae

c) Benthos d) None of the above

404. Which of the following fish has air-breathing organs?

a) Mystus seenghala

b) Anabas testudineus

c) Wallago attu

d) Ctenopharyngodon idella
464 Fisheries Question Bank

405. Which of the following is not a cat fish?

a) Clarias batrachus

b) Ictaturus punctatus

c) Mystus seenghala

d) Lates calcarifer

406. Ipomea is

a) Submerged weed

b) Marginal weed

c) Emergent weed

d) Floating weed

407. Lab lab is used as food for

a) Etroplus suratensis

b) Liza tade

c) Chanos chanos

d) Rhinomugil corsula

408. The Chinese carp which mainly feeds on phytoplankton is

a) Bighead carp

b) Grass carp

c) Silver carp

d) Common carp

409. The larva of crab is

a) Megalopa larva b) Mysis

c) Trochophose larva d) Nauplius

Miscellaneous 465

410. Bhasbhada fisheries is famous in

a) Andhra Pradesh b) West Bengal

c) Kerala d) Uttar Pradesh

411. Mud banks are formed along the coast of

a) Kerala b) Orissa

c) Tamil Nadu d) Karnataka

412. To achieve high production, carp grow-out ponds are to be stocked with

a) Spawn b) Fry

c) Fingerling d) Yearling

413. Common crustacean parasite on carp is

a) Karatella b) Argulus

c) Navicula d) Paranopsis

414. One of the following is a bio-fertilizer

a) Hydrilla b) Ipomea

c) Azolla d) Lemna

415. GnRH is secreted in the

a) Pituitary b) Hypothalamus

c) Pineal gland d) Gonads

416. The first treatise on fish culture was written by

a) Aristotle b) Fan Li

c) Mikimoto d) Li Fang
466 Fisheries Question Bank

417. Which steroid is used for monosex production

a) Estrogen
b) 17 methyl testosterone
c) Corticosteroids
d) Prostoglandin

418. The key metabolic nutrient in aquaculture is

a) Nitrogen b) Potassium

c) Phosphorus d) Sulphur

419. Eutrophication is caused by

a) Deficiency of nutrients

b) Over richness of nutrients

c) Low pH

d) Hardness of water

420. Acidic waters are dominated by

a) Calcium ions b) Magnesium ions

c) Sodium ions d) Aluminium ions

421. Solubility of gases in water is inversely proportional to

a) Temperature b) pH

c) Salinity d) Hardness

422. Upper limit of NH4-+-N in aquaculture practice is

a) 0.1 mg/l b) 1.0 mg/l

c) 2.5 mg/l d) 5 mg/l

Miscellaneous 467

423. Hardness in aquaculture ponds should be

a) >5mgL-1 b) >10mgL-1

c) >20mgL-1 d) >30mgL-1

424. The algaecide used in ponds to reduce excessive phytoplankton

production is
a) Barium sulphate b) copper sulphate

c) potassium sulphate d) calcium sulphate

425. Lime requirement of Bottom soil is based on

a) pH and texture b) Colour and texture

c) Organic matter d) C : N ratio

426. Rainbow trout got established in India during

a) 1905-06 b) 1904

c) 1909-10 d) None of the above

427. Mahseer was first artificially bread in India at

a) Bhimtal b) Achebal

c) Lonavla d) Avalanche

428. The best method to get maximum fertilization for trout is by stripping

a) Wet method b) Dry stripping

c) Using saline water d) None of the above

429. Scientific name of brown trout is

a) Salmo trutta fario Salmo salar

b) Salvelinus alpinus Salvelinus namayenth

468 Fisheries Question Bank

430. Loktak lake is located in the state of

a) Jammu & Kashmir b) Himachal Pradesh

c) Sikkim d) Manipur

431. Area wise the biggest reservoir in India is

a) Gobindsagar b) Indrasagar

c) Ukai d) Hirakud

432. The nest of trout is known as

a) Duck b) Redd

c) Paar d) None above

433. Which one is a prolific breeder?

a) Mahseer b) Silver carp

c) Chanos d) Tilapia

434. The per kg body weight fecundity of grass carp is

a) 0.80-0.30 b) 1.5-2.0 lakh

c) 5-10 thousand d) More than 3.0 lakh

435. In inland fish production India’s position is

a) Ist b) IInd

c) 7th d) 10th

436. Largest growing lobster is

a) Panulirus homarus b) Panulirus polyphagus

c) Panulirus ornatus d) Panulirus pencillatus

Miscellaneous 469

437. Which one is an exotic fish

a) Chanos chanos

b) Lates calcarifer

c) Mahseer

d) Rainbow trout

438. Oil emulsion should be carried out in nursery ponds

a) When there is light drizzle

b) When there is hot wind

c) When there is mild breeze

d) When atmosphere is calm

439. Mahua oil cake is mainly used for

a) As a feed

b) As a fertilizer

c) As a fish toxicant

d) None of the above

440. Macrobrachium rosenbergii matures at the age of

a) 5-6 months b) 10-12 months

c) 2-3 months d) 1-2 years

441. Best live food for the M. rosenbergii larvae

a) Moina b) Dophnia

c) Artemia nauplii d) Cyclops

470 Fisheries Question Bank

442. Delicate larval stage in the life cycle of Penaeus monodon is

a) Nauplius b) Protozoea

c) Mysis d) Post-larva

443. Sea bass Lates calcarifer was successfully bred in India at

a) CIFA b) CIBA

c) CMFRI d) NBFGR

444. Surface feeder in the pond ecosystem in composite fish culture is

a) Rohu b) Catla

c) Mrigal d) Common carp

445. Best starter live feed for carp spawn is

a) Moina b) Cyclops

c) Infusoria d) Rotifers

446. Modern method used for treatment of water in aqua-hatcheries

a) Chlorination b) U.V.radiation

c) Ozonation d) None of the above

447. Most dangerous insect in the carp nurseries is

a) Notonecta b) Nepa

c) Ranatra d) Dragonfly Nymph

448. Endangered fish in India

a) Mahseer b) Catla

c) Rohu d) Puntius
Miscellaneous 471

449. The biological optimal catch is called as

a) MEY b) MSY

c) fmsy d) Yield

450. As per the basic concept of logistic model, is the effort goes on increasing
the CPUE goes on

a) Decreasing b) Increasing

c) Adding d) Remaining same

451. For a virgin fish stock, the relationship of mortalities is, Z =

a) F+M b) M

c) F-M d) M2

452. Theoretically the perfect value of b in the length-weight relationship

formula is

a) 2 b) 2.5

c) 3 d) 4

453. UNCLOS-I was held at Geneva in

a) 1950 b) 1952

c) 1958 d) 1960

454. The Indian Environment Protection act came into existence in

a) 1986 b) 1990

c) 1985 d) 1980

455. The C.R.Z. notification was issued by the GOI in

a) 1989 b) 1991

c) 1992 d) 1985
472 Fisheries Question Bank

456. The code of conduct for Responsible Fisheries was adopted by the FAO
Conference in

a) 1990 b) 1994

c) 1995 d) 1998

457. ICAR/GOI is celebrating a fish farmer’s day on

a) 11th May b) 23rd September

c) 10th July d) 10th August

458. The World Fisheries Day is observed on

a) 20th January

b) 21st November

c) 15th March

d) 10th January

459. Superior mouth in Catla catla is the adaptation for

a) Feeding in top column of water

b) Swimming

c) Feeding at bottom

d) Breeding

460. Very large intestine in carps is

a) Adaptation for omnivours activity

b) Adaptation for harbivours activity

c) Adaptation for carnivours activity

d) For digestion of animal matter

Miscellaneous 473

461. Fishing craft of Gujarat is

a) Satpati b) Wahan

c) Chot d) Shoe dhoni

462. Fire risk is more in vessels constructed of

a) Steel b) Ferrocement

c) Wood d) Aluminium

463. Part of a purse seine where fishes get accumulated

a) Cod end b) Bunt

c) Belly d) Square

464. Coracle is used in the reservoirs of

a) Karnataka b) Madhya Pradesh

c) Uttar Pradesh d) None of the above

465. Shoaling fishes are caught by

a) Lines fishing b) Purse seine

c) Trawl nets d) None of the above

466. Ropes that connect the wings to other board in a trawl net are

a) Sweep lines b) Quarter ropes

c) Bull ropes d) Head ropes

467. Twine which attaches webbing to head rope in a gill net is

a) Joining twine b) Mounting twine

c) Lacing twine d) None of the above

474 Fisheries Question Bank

468. Parastromateus niger belongs to family

a) Stromateidae b) Clupeidae

c) Trichiuridae d) Carangidae

469. Black death disease of penaeid prawns is caused by the deficiency of –

a) Carotin b) Astaxanthin

c) Folic acid d) Ascorbic acid

470. Hyperplasia in fishes is caused by –

a) Chemical pollution in water

b) Hormonal stimuli

c) Heinz bodies

d) None of the above.

471. Yellow fin tuna belong to the genus

a) Auxis b) Katsowanis

c) Thennus d) Euthynus

472. Presence of Scutes on the lateral line is the characteristic of family

a) Caranyidae b) Sciaenidae

c) Polynemidae d) Scombridae

473. Triploids are genetically

a) Fertile

b) Sterile

c) Normal

d) None of the above

Miscellaneous 475

474. When inbreeding is practised, variance within the population

a) Decreases

b) Remains constant

c) Increases

d) None of the above

475. The term inbreeding was coined by

a) Tave b) Fisher

c) Wright d) Mendel

476. The phenotypic effect of inbreeding is formed

a) Heterosis b) Epistasis

c) Inbreeding depression d) Dominance

477. Which organization in India is responsible for agricultural research

and education in India

a) ICMR b) CSIR

c) ICAR d) ACIAR

478. Technology diffusion is the process

a) Through which a decision is made to adopt or reject

b) By which a technology is communicated through certain channels

c) Through which an idea is implemented

d) None of the above

479. Communication is the exchange of

a) Knowledge b) Skill

c) Attitudes d) All of the above

476 Fisheries Question Bank

480. Classification of ‘Extension Teaching Methods’ can be done as per

a) Form b) Function

c) Adopter’s categories d) All the above

481. Isinglass is made from

a) Shark fin b) Fish maws

c) Prawn shell d) Fish scale

482. Masmin is prepared from

a) Shark b) Tuna

c) Whale d) Sea cucumber

483. Fish store energy in the form of

a) Lactose b) Glucose

c) Galactose d) Glycogen

484. During rigor mortis, the glycogen in fish is converted to

a) Lactic acid b) Citric acid

c) Phosphoric acid d) Uric acid

485. According to BIS specification, minimum protein content of A grade fish

meal should be

a) 60% b) 55%

c) 50% d) 45%

486. The organism known as faecal indicator is

a) Salmonella b) Shigella

c) E. coli d) Clostridium
Miscellaneous 477

487. Insulin is

a) An enzyme b) A growth promoter

c) A prostagland d) A hormone

488. Beach-de-mer is

a) Dried squid b) Dried cuttle fish

c) Dried sea-cucumber d) Dried tuna

489. The water in fish begins to freeze at about

a) -5oC b) –2oC

c) –1⁰C d) 0oC

490. The tropical fish can be preserved in ice for

a) 20-24 hrs b) 2-3 days

c) 10-20 days d) 2-3 months

491. Cutting a strip of flesh from the fish parallel to the line of the backbone
is called

a) Filleting b) Gibbing

c) Nobbing d) Steaking

492. Casein is a protein derived from

a) Fish b) Milk

c) Beef d) Prawn

493. For a binomial variable with parameters n and p, the mean is

a) npq b) np

c) npq d) None of the above

478 Fisheries Question Bank

494. The correlation coefficient between two variable always lies between

a) -1 & +1 b) -1 x 0

c) 0 & +1 d) None

495. For testing the equality of two samples variances, the test used is

a) t-test b) F-test

c) Z-test d) 2 – test

496. For testing the significance of the correlation coefficient from abivariate
data of size 12 the degrees of freedom is

a) 11 b) 10

c) 13 d) None of the above

497. The increase in demand on account of increase in real income is known as

a) Substitution effect b) Income effect

c) Price effect d) Ratchet effect

498. The mathematical relationship that shows the transformation of input

to output is known as
a) Production function b) Cost function
c) Market function d) Technological function

499. Combinations of goods which yield the same level of satisfaction to the
consumer is
a) Indifference curves b) Isoquants
c) Isocost line d) Expansion path

500. CAC was established by

a) AO b) WHO

c) USFDA d) Joint venturesome of FAO & WHO

Miscellaneous 479

501. ISO was established in the year.

a) 945 b) 1947

c) 1972 d) 1981

502. Headquarters of FAO is present at-

a) Geneva, Switzerland

b) Rome, Italy

c) land, Switzerland

d) Bangkok, Malaysia

503. Headquarters of IUCN is present at-

a) Geneva, Switzerland

b) Rome, Italy

c) Gland, Switzerland

d) Bangkok, Malaysia

504. Headquarters of ISO is present at-

a) Geneva, Switzerland

b) Rome, Italy

c) Gland, Switzerland

d) Bangkok, Malaysia

505. Headquarters of NACA is present at-

a) Geneva, Switzerland

b) Rome, Italy

c) Gland, Switzerland

d) Bangkok, Malaysia
480 Fisheries Question Bank

506. ISO has how many series?

a) 3 b) 4

c) 5 d) 6

507. ISO……….. series is used in fishery products.

a) ISO-9001 b) ISO-9002

c) ISO-9003 d) ISO-9004