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Chemistry Basics for Students

This document provides a summary of key concepts from Chapter 1 of a chemistry textbook. It includes 20 multiple choice questions testing understanding of quantitative observations, significant figures, units and conversions in the International System of Units (SI), density calculations, and basic chemical principles such as the law of conservation of mass. It also provides 5 additional multiple choice questions from Chapter 2 on atomic structure and early atomic theorists such as Dalton, Thomson, Rutherford, and Avogadro.

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83 views83 pages

Chemistry Basics for Students

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Chapter 1: Chemical Foundations

1. Which of the following is an example of a quantitative observation?

① The piece of metal is longer than the piece of wood.
② Solution 1 is much darker than solution 2.
③ The liquid in beaker A is blue.
④ The temperature of the liquid is 60°C.
⑤ At least two of the above (①-④) are quantitative observations.

2. The statement “The total mass of materials is not affected by a chemical

change in those materials” is called a(n)
① observation ② measurement
③ theory ④ natural law
⑤ experiment

3. Which of the following metric relationships is incorrect?

① 1 microliter = 10–6 liters ② 1 gram = 103 kilograms
③ 103 milliliters = 1 liter ④ 1 gram = 102 centigrams
⑤ 10 decimeters = 1 meter

4. For which pair is the SI prefix not matched correctly with its meaning?
① mega = 106 ② kilo = 1000
③ deci = 10 ④ nano = 10–9
⑤ centi = 0.01

5. Convert 0.2974 m to mm.

① 297.4 mm ② 2.974 × 10–3 mm
③ 2.974 × 10–4 mm ④ 0.02974 mm
⑤ none of these

6. 3.2 seconds contain this many picoseconds.

① 3.2 × 1012 ② 3.2 × 10–12
③ 3.2 × 10–9 ④ 3.2 × 109
⑤ 3.2 × 1015

7. The degree of agreement among several measurements of the same quantity

is called __________. It reflects the reproducibility of a given type of
measurement.
① accuracy ② error
③ precision ④ significance
⑤ certainty
Use the following to answer questions 8-9:
Consider the following three archery targets:

I. II. III.

8. Which of the following figure(s) represent a result having high precision?

① Figure I only ② Figure II only
③ Figure III only ④ Figure I and Figure II
⑤ Figure II and Figure III

9. Which of the following statements concerning these figures is correct?

① Figure I represents systematic error and Figure II represents random
error.
② Figure I represents random error and Figure II represents systematic
error.
③ Figure I and Figure II represent random error.
④ Figure I and Figure II represent systematic error.
⑤ Figure III represents no errors.

10. The agreement of a particular value with the true value is called
① accuracy ② error
③ precision ④ significance
⑤ certainty

11. A scientist obtains the number 0.045006700 on a calculator. If this number

actually has four (4) significant figures, how should it be written?
① 0.4567 ② 0.4501
③ 0.0450 ④ 0.04500
⑤ 0.04501

12. Express the number 6.04 × 10–3 in common decimal form.

① 0.00604 ② 6.04
③ 6040 ④ 0.0604
⑤ 0.000604
13. Using the rules of significant figures, calculate the following:
6.167  81
5.10
① 17.1 ② 18
③ 17 ④ 98
⑤ 17.09

14. Using the rules of significant figures, calculate the following: 4.0021 - 0.247
① 3.755 ② 4
③ 3.7551 ④ 3.76
⑤ 3.8
3.478 g  1.164 g
15. What is the best answer to report for 2.00 mL – 0.349g/mL?
① 1.6710 g/mL ② 1.671 g/mL
③ 1.67 g/mL ④ 1.7 g/mL
⑤ 2 g/mL

16. In 1928, 44.9 g of a new element was isolated from 660 kg of the ore
molybdenite. The percent by mass of this element in the ore was:
① 68% ② 6.6%
③ 44.9% ④ 0.0068%
⑤ 29.6%

17. 424 Kelvin equals

① 151 °F ② 273 °F
③ 697 °F ④ 151 °C
⑤ 697 °C

18. The melting point of a certain element is 346°C. What is this on the
Fahrenheit scale? (T°F =T°C × (9°F/5°C) + 32°F)
① 465 °F ② 224 °F
③ 896 °F ④ 655 °F
⑤ 591 °F

19. The melting point of picolinic acid is 136.5°C. What is the melting point of
picolinic acid on the Fahrenheit scale? (T°F = T°C × (9°F/5°C) + 32°F)
① 107.8 °F ② 245.7 °F
③ 168.5 °F ④ 409.5 °F
⑤ 277.7 °F
20 A piece of antimony with a mass of 17.41 g is submerged in 46.3 cm3 of
water in a graduated cylinder. The water level increases to 48.9 cm3. The
correct value for the density of antimony from these data is:
① 6.697 g/cm3 ② 6.7 g/cm3
③ 0.15 g/cm3 ④ 0.356 g/cm3
⑤ 2.81 g/cm3

Use the following to answer questions 21-22:

The density of a liquid is determined by successively weighing 25, 50, 75,
100, and 125 mL of the liquid in a 250-mL beaker.

21. If volume of liquid is plotted along the horizontal axis, and total mass of
beaker plus liquid is plotted on the vertical axis:
① The x, or horizontal, intercept is the negative value of the weight of the
beaker.
② The y, or vertical, intercept is the weight of the empty beaker.
③ The slope of the line is 1.0.
④ The line will pass through the origin.
⑤ The slope of the line is independent of the identity of the liquid.

22 Considering the plot of total mass (y-axis) versus volume (x-axis), which of
the following is true?
① The plot should be rather linear because the slope measures the density
of a liquid.
② The plot should be curved upward because the slope measures the
density of a liquid.
③ The plot should be curved upward because the mass of the liquid is
higher in successive trials.
④ The plot should be linear because the mass of the beaker stays constant.
⑤ None of the above.

23. A method of separation that employs a system with two phases of matter, a
mobile phase and a stationary phase, is called
① filtration ② chromatography
③ distillation ④ vaporization
⑤ homogenization

24. A solution is also called a

① homogeneous mixture ② heterogeneous mixture
③ pure mixture ④ compound
⑤ distilled mixture
Chapter 2. Atoms, Molecules, and Ions

1. The first chemist to perform truly quantitative experiments was

① Paracelsus ② Boyle
③ Priestly ④ Bauer
⑤ Lavoisier

2. The scientist who discovered the law of conservation of mass and is also
called the father of modern chemistry is
① Proust ② Boyle
③ Priestly ④ Bauer
⑤ Lavoisier

3. According to the law of multiple proportions:

① If the same two elements form two different compounds, they do so in the
same ratio.
② It is not possible for the same two elements to form more than one
compound.
③ The ratio of the masses of the elements in a compound is always the
same.
④ The total mass after a chemical change is the same as before the change.
⑤ None of these.

3. Which of the following statements from Dalton's atomic theory is no longer

true, according to modern atomic theory?
① Elements are made up of tiny particles called atoms.
② Atoms are not created or destroyed in chemical reactions.
③ All atoms of a given element are identical.
④ Atoms are indivisible in chemical reactions.
⑤ All of these statements are true according to modern atomic theory.

4. Avogadro's hypothesis states that:

① Each atom of oxygen is 16 times more massive than an atom of
hydrogen.
② A given compound always contains exactly the same proportion of
elements by mass.
③ When two elements form a series of compounds, the ratios of masses that
combine with 1 gram of the first element can always be reduced to small
whole numbers.
④ At the same temperature and pressure, equal volumes of different gases
contain an equal number of particles.
⑤ Mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.

5. The first scientist to show that atoms emit any negative particles was
① J. J. Thomson ② Lord Kelvin
③ Ernest Rutherford ④ William Thomson
⑤ John Dalton

6. Many classic experiments have given us indirect evidence of the nature of the
atom. Which of the experiments listed below did not give the results
described?
① The Rutherford experiment proved the Thomson "plum-pudding" model of
the atom to be essentially correct.
② The Rutherford experiment was useful in determining the nuclear charge
on the atom.
③ Millikan's oil-drop experiment showed that the charge on any particle was
a simple multiple of the charge on the electron.
④ The electric discharge tube proved that electrons have a negative charge.
⑤ All of the above experiments gave the results described.

7. The scientist whose alpha-particle scattering experiment led him to conclude

that the nucleus of an atom contains a dense center of positive charge is
① J. J. Thomson ② Lord Kelvin
③ Ernest Rutherford ④ William Thomson
⑤ John Dalton

8. If the Thomson model of the atom had been correct, Rutherford would have
observed:
① Alpha particles going through the foil with little or no deflection.
② Alpha particles greatly deflected by the metal foil.
③ Alpha particles bouncing off the foil.
④ Positive particles formed in the foil.
⑤ None of the above observations is consistent with the Thomson model of
the atom.

9. Which statement is not correct?

① The mass of an alpha particle is 7300 times that of the electron.
② An alpha particle has a 2+ charge.
③ Three types of radioactive emission are gamma rays, beta rays, and alpha
particles.
④ A gamma ray is high-energy light.
⑤ There are only three types of radioactivity known to scientists today.

10. Which of the following atomic symbols is incorrect?

14 37
① 6 C ② 17 Cl
32 39
③ 15 P ④ 19 K
14
⑤ 8 N

11. The element rhenium (Re) exists as two stable isotopes and 18 unstable
isotopes. Rhenium-185 has in its nucleus
① 75 protons, 75 neutrons ② 75 protons, 130 neutrons
③ 130 protons, 75 neutrons ④ 75 protons, 110 neutrons
⑤ not enough information

40
12. 20 Ca 2+ has
① 20 protons, 20 neutrons, and 18 electrons
② 22 protons, 20 neutrons, and 20 electrons
③ 20 protons, 22 neutrons, and 18 electrons
④ 22 protons, 18 neutrons, and 18 electrons
⑤ 20 protons, 20 neutrons, and 22 electrons

13. Which of the following statements is (are) true?

18 19
① 8 O and 9 F have the same number of neutrons.
14 14
② 6 C and 7 N are isotopes of each other because their mass
numbers are the same.
18
③ 8 O2 has the same number of electrons as
20
10 Ne .
④ ① and ②
⑤ ① and ③

14. All of the following are characteristics of nonmetals except:

① poor conductors of electricity
② often bond to each other by forming covalent bonds
③ tend to form negative ions in chemical reactions with metals
④ appear in the upper left-hand corner of the periodic table
⑤ do not have a shiny (lustrous) appearance
15. All of the following are in aqueous solution. Which is incorrectly named?
① H2SO4, sulfuric acid ② H2CO3, carbonic acid
③ H3PO4, phosphoric acid ④ HCN, cyanic acid
⑤ HCl, hydrochloric acid
Chapter 3. Stoichiometry

1. Naturally occurring copper exists in two isotopic forms: Cu and

63
Cu. The
65

atomic mass of copper is 63.55 amu. What is the approximate natural

abundance of 63
Cu?
① 63% ② 90%
③ 70% ④ 50%
⑤ 30%

2. What is the mass of 4 atom(s) of copper in grams?

① 254.2 g ② 2.37 × 1021 g
③ 9.57 × 10–24 g ④ 6.022 × 1023 g
⑤ 4.22 × 10–22 g

3. You have a sample of zinc (Zn) and a sample of aluminum (Al). You have an
equal number of atoms in each sample. Which of the following statements
concerning the masses of the samples is true?
① The mass of the zinc sample is more than twice as great as the mass of
the aluminum sample.
② The mass of the zinc sample is more than the mass of the aluminum
sample, but it is not twice as great.
③ The mass of the aluminum sample is more than twice as great as the
mass of the zinc sample.
④ The mass of the aluminum sample is more than the mass of the zinc
sample, but it is not twice as great.
⑤ The masses of each sample are equal.

4. Calculate the molar mass of calcium perchlorate.

① 254.98 g/mol ② 222.98 g/mol
③ 279.06 g/mol ④ 179.61 g/mol
⑤ 238.98 g/mol

5. Phosphoric acid can be prepared by reaction of sulfuric acid with “phosphate

rock” according to the equation:
Ca3(PO4)2 + 3H2SO4 → 3CaSO4 + 2H3PO4
What is the molar mass of Ca3(PO4)2?
① 310.18 g/mol ② 87.05 g/mol
③ 278.18 g/mol ④ 215.21 g/mol
⑤ 166.02 g/mol
6. A substance contains 35.0 g nitrogen, 5.05 g hydrogen, and 60.0 g of oxygen.
How many grams of hydrogen are there in a 179-g sample of this
substance?
① 9.03 g ② 897 g
③ 18.1 g ④ 5.05 g
⑤ 35.4 g

7. An oxide of iron has the formula Fe3O4. What mass percent of iron does it
contain?
① 0.72% ② 28%
③ 30% ④ 70%
⑤ 72%

8. The molar mass of an insecticide, dibromoethane, is 187.9 g/mol. Its

molecular formula is C2H4Br2. What percent by mass of bromine does
dibromoethane contain?
① 42.52% ② 2.14%
③ 85.05% ④ 12.78%
⑤ 6.39%

9. You take an aspirin tablet (a compound consisting solely of carbon,

hydrogen, and oxygen) with a mass of 1.00 g, burn it in air, and collect 2.20
g of carbon dioxide and 0.400 g water. The molar mass of aspirin is between
170 and 190 g/mol. The molecular formula of aspirin is
① C6H8O5 ② C9H8O4
③ C8H10O5 ④ C10H6O4
⑤ none of these

10. Suppose you are given the percent by mass of the elements in a compound
and you wish to determine the empirical formula. Which of the following is
true?
① You must convert percent by mass to relative numbers of atoms.
② You must assume exactly 100.0 g of the compound.
③ You must divide all of the percent by mass numbers by the smallest
percent by mass.
④ You cannot solve for the empirical formula without the molar mass.
⑤ At least two of the above (①-④) are true.

11. A hydrocarbon (a compound consisting solely of carbon and hydrogen) is

found to be 85.6% carbon by mass. What is the empirical formula for this
compound?
① CH ② CH2
③ C2H ④ C3H
⑤ CH4

12. The empirical formula of styrene is CH; its molar mass is 104.1 g/mol. What
is the molecular formula of styrene?
① C2H4 ② C8H8
③ C10H12 ④ C6H6
⑤ none of these

13. Adipic acid contains 49.32% C, 43.84% O, and 6.85% H by mass. What is the
empirical formula?
① C3H5O2 ② C3H3O4
③ C2HO3 ④ C2H5O4
⑤ C3HO3

14. Vitamin C contains the elements C, H, and O. It is known to contain 40.9%

C and 4.58% H by mass. The molar mass of vitamin C has been found to be
about 180 g/mol. The molecular formula for vitamin C is:
① C2H3O2 ② C3H4O3
③ C4H6O4 ④ C6H8O6
⑤ C14H18

15 A 0.5242-g sample of a compound known to contain only carbon, hydrogen,

and oxygen was burned in oxygen to yield 0.9740 g of CO2 and 0.1994 g of
H2O. What is the empirical formula of the compound?
① CHO ② C2H2O
③ C3H3O2 ④ C6H3O2
⑤ C3H6O2

16. Which of the following equations is not balanced?

① 4Al + 3O2 → 2Al2O3
7
② C2H6 + 2 O2 → 2CO2 + 3H2O

③ 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3
2 O2
④ 4P4 + 5S8 → 4P4S10
⑤ P4 + 5O2 → P4O10
Use the following to answer questions 17-18:
Consider a specific chemical reaction represented by the equation aA + bB →
cC + dD. In this equation the letters A, B, C, and D represent chemicals,
and the letters a, b, c, and d represent coefficients in the balanced equation.

17. How many possible values are there for the quantity “c/d”?
① 1 ② 2
③ 3 ④ 4
⑤ infinite

18. How many possible values are there for the quantity “c”?
① 1 ② 2
③ 3 ④ 4
⑤ infinite

19. Determine the coefficient for O2 when the following equation is balanced in
standard form (smallest whole numbers).
C8H18(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g) + H2O(g)
① 8 ② 17
③ 18 ④ 25
⑤ 16

20. When the equation C4H10 + O2 → CO2 + H2O is balanced with the smallest set
of integers, the sum of the coefficients is
① 4 ② 33
③ 11 ④ 19
⑤ 24

21. Which of the following equations correctly describes the combustion of CH4
and O2 to produce water (H2O) and carbon dioxide (CO2)?
① CH4 + 1
2 O2 → CO2 + H2O
② CH4 + O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
③ CH4 + 2O2 → CO2 + 2H2O
④ CH4 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + H2O
⑤ 2CH4 + 3O2 → 2CO2 + 2H2O

22. When 189.4 g of ethylene (C2H4) burns in oxygen to give carbon dioxide and
water, how many grams of CO2 are formed?
① 594.3 g ② 297.1 g
③ 148.6 g ④ 6.75 g
⑤ 243.3 g
23. Reaction of methane with oxygen really proceeds in two steps:
CH 4 + 3 2 O 2  CO + 2H 2 O

CO + ? O 2  CO 2

A sample of CH4 is burned in an excess of O2 to give 4.4 moles of H2O. How

many moles of CH4 were in the original sample?
① 2.2 ② 2.9
③ 8.8 ④ 1.1
⑤ 4.4

24 The limiting reactant in a reaction

① has the lowest coefficient in a balanced equation
② is the reactant for which you have the fewest number of moles
③ has the lowest ratio of moles available/coefficient in the balanced
equation
④ has the lowest ratio of coefficient in the balanced equation/moles
available
⑤ none of these

25. Consider the fermentation reaction of glucose:

C6 H12 O6  2C 2 H 5 OH + 2CO 2

A 1.00-mole sample of C6H12O6 was placed in a vat with 100 g of yeast. If

51.1 grams of C2H5OH was obtained, what was the percent yield of C2H5OH?
① 55.5% ② 27.7%
③ 100% ④ 51.1%
⑤ none of these

26. The reaction of 11.9 g of CHCl3 with excess chlorine produced 10.6 g of
CCl4, carbon tetrachloride:
2CHCl3 + 2Cl 2  2CCl 4 + 2HCl

What is the percent yield?

① 100% ② 34.5%
③ 68.9% ④ 89%
⑤ 45.9%

27. When 20.0 g C2H6 and 60.0 g O2 react to form CO2 and H2O, how many
grams of water are formed?
① 14.5 g ② 18.0 g
③ 58.0 g ④ 20.0 g
⑤ none of these
28. Which of the following statements is always true concerning a reaction
represented by the following balanced chemical equation?
2C2H6(g) + 7O2(g) → 6H2O(l) + 4CO2(g)
① If we have equal masses of C2H6 and O2, there is no limiting reactant.
② If we have an equal number of moles of C2H6 and O2, there is no limiting
reactant.
③ If we have more mass of C2H6, then O2 must be limiting.
④ If we have more mass of O2, then C2H6 must be limiting.
⑤ None of these statements are true.
Chapter 4. Chemical Reactions and Solution
Stoichiometry

1. Consider two organic molecules, ethanol and benzene. One dissolves in water
and the other does not. Why?
① They have different molar masses.
② One is ionic, the other is not.
③ One is an electrolyte, the other is not.
④ Ethanol contains a polar O–H bond, and benzene does not.
⑤ Two of these are correct.

2. All of the following are weak acids except

① HCNO ② HBr
③ HF ④ HNO2
⑤ HCN

3. Which of the following is not a strong base?

① Ca(OH)2 ② KOH
③ NH3 ④ LiOH
⑤ Sr(OH)2

4. A 17.0-g sample of HF is dissolved in water to give 2.0 × 102 mL of solution.

The concentration of the solution is:
① 0.85 M ② 0.17 M
③ 0.09 M ④ 4.2 M
⑤ 8.5 M

5. 1.00 mL of a 3.60 × 10–4 M solution of oleic acid is diluted with 9.00 mL of

petroleum ether, forming solution A. Then 2.00 mL of solution A is diluted
with 8.00 mL of petroleum ether, forming solution B. How many grams of
oleic acid are 5.00 mL of solution B? (Molar mass for oleic acid = 282 g/mol)
① 5.08 × 10–6 g ② 1.41 × 10–5 g
③ 2.03 × 10–2 g ④ 1.02 × 10–5 g
⑤ 5.08 × 10–4 g

6. How many grams of NaCl are contained in 350. mL of a 0.334 M solution of

sodium chloride?
① 19.5 g ② 6.83 g
③ 13.66 g ④ 116.9 g
⑤ none of these
7. How many grams of NaOH are contained in 5.0 × 102 mL of a 0.77 M sodium
hydroxide solution?
① 15 g ② 77 g
③ 0.39 g ④ 31 g
⑤ 385 g

8 You have two solutions of sodium chloride. One is a 2.00 M solution, the
other is a 4.00 M solution. You have much more of the 4.00 M solution and
you add the solutions together. Which of the following could be the
concentration of the final solution?
① 2.50 M ② 3.00 M
③ 3.70 M ④ 6.00 M
⑤ 7.50 M

9. A 230.0-mL sample of a 0.275 M solution is left on a hot plate overnight; the

following morning the solution is 1.50 M. What volume of solvent has
evaporated from the 0.275 M solution?
① 42.2 mL ② 63.3 mL
③ 187.8 mL ④ 230. mL
⑤ 272.2 mL

10. You have exposed electrodes of a light bulb in a solution of H2SO4 such that
the light bulb is on. You add a dilute solution and the bulb grows dim.
Which of the following could be in the solution?
① Ba(OH)2 ② NaNO3
③ K2SO4 ④ Cu(NO3)2
⑤ none of these

11. When NH3(aq) is added to Cu2+(aq), a precipitate initially forms. Its formula
is:
① Cu(NH)3 ② Cu(NO3)2
③ Cu(OH)2 ④ Cu(NH3)22+
⑤ CuO

12. In writing the complete ionic equation for the reaction (if any) that occurs
when aqueous solutions of KOH and Mg(NO3)2 are mixed, which of the
following would not be written as ionic species?
① KOH ② Mg(NO3)2
③ Mg(OH)2 ④ KNO3
⑤ All of the above would be written as ionic species.
13. The net ionic equation for the reaction of aluminum sulfate and sodium
hydroxide contains which of the following species?
① 3Al3+(aq) ② OH–(aq)
③ 3OH–(aq) ④ 2Al3+(aq)
⑤ 2Al(OH)3(s)

14. If all of the chloride in a 4.776-g sample of an unknown metal chloride is

precipitated as AgCl with 70.90 mL of 0.2010 M AgNO3, what is the
percentage of chloride in the sample?
① 50.52% ② 10.58%
③ 1.425% ④ 9.454%
⑤ none of the above

15. You have 75.0 mL of a 2.50 M solution of Na2CrO4(aq). You also have 125
mL of a 2.23 M solution of AgNO3(aq). Calculate the concentration of Ag+
after the two solutions are mixed together.
① 0.00 M ② 0.697 M
③ 1.39 M ④ 0.088 M
⑤ 0.279 M

16. You mix 55 mL of 1.00 M silver nitrate with 25 mL of 0.81 M sodium

chloride. What mass of silver chloride should you form?
① 2.9 g ② 5.8 g
③ 3.2 g ④ 6.4
⑤ none of these

17. When solutions of carbonic acid and sodium hydroxide react, which of the
following are NOT present in the net ionic equation?
I. hydrogen ion
II. carbonate ion
III. sodium ion
IV. hydroxide ion

① I and II ② I, II, and III

③ I and IV ④ I and III
⑤ II and III

18. In the balanced molecular equation for the neutralization of sodium

hydroxide with sulfuric acid, the products are:
① NaSO4 + H2O ② NaSO3 + 2H2O
③ 2NaSO4 + H2O ④ Na2S + 2H2O
⑤ Na2SO4 + 2H2O

19. A 0.307-g sample of an unknown triprotic acid is titrated to the third

equivalence point using 35.2 mL of 0.106 M NaOH. Calculate the molar mass
of the acid.
① 247 g/mol ② 171 g/mol
③ 165 g/mol ④ 151 g/mol
⑤ 82.7 g/mol

20. With what volume of 5.00 M HF will 3.95 g of calcium hydroxide react
completely, according to the following reaction?
2HF + Ca(OH)2  CaF2 + 2H 2 O

① 10.7 mL ② 107 mL
③ 533 mL ④ 21.3 mL
⑤ 46.9 mL

21. A student weighs out 0.681 g of KHP (molar mass = 204.22 g/mol) and
titrates to the equivalence point with 36.78 mL of a stock NaOH solution.
What is the concentration of the stock NaOH solution? KHP is an acid with
one acidic proton.
① 0.00333 M ② 0.123 M
③ 0.0185 M ④ 0.0907 M
⑤ none of these

22. The oxidation state of chlorine in ClO3– is:

① 0 ② +5
③ -5 ④ +7
⑤ -7

23. In the reaction N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g), N2 is

① oxidized ② reduced
③ the electron donor ④ the reducing agent
⑤ two of these

24. In the reaction C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g) carbon is__________.

① the reducing agent ② the electron acceptor
③ reduced ④ the oxidizing agent
⑤ more than one of these
25. In the reaction Zn + H2SO4 → ZnSO4 + H2, which, if any, element is
oxidized?
① zinc ② hydrogen
③ sulfur ④ oxygen
⑤ none of these

26. Given the reaction:

2MnO4– + 5H2O2 + 6H+ → 2Mn2+ + 8H2O + 5O2
determine the number of electrons involved in this reaction.
① 10 ② 8
③ 6 ④ 4
⑤ 2
Chapter 5. Gases

1. Gases generally have

① low density
② high density
③ closely packed particles
④ no increase in volume when temperature is increased
⑤ no decrease in volume when pressure is increased

2. Pressure is
① defined as the mass that an object exerts when at rest
② measured in Newtons
③ defined as the number of moles of substance divided by the mass of the
substance
④ defined as the force per unit area
⑤ measured in grams

3. The SI unit of pressure is the

① ampere ② kilojoule
③ newton ④ gram
⑤ pascal

4. A physics experiment is conducted at a pressure of 14.0 kPa. What is this

pressure in mmHg?
① 18.4 mmHg ② 1.87 mmHg
③ 1.40 × 10 mmHg
4
④ 105 mmHg
⑤ 1.84 × 10 –2
mmHg

5. The air pressure in the inner tube of a tire on a typical racing bike is held
at a pressure of about 117 psi. Convert this pressure to atm.
① 0.154 atm ② 7.96 atm
③ 0.117 atm ④ 0.126 atm
⑤ 117 atm
6. Boyle's law states that:
① Equal amounts of gases occupy the same volume at constant temperature
and pressure.
② The volume of a fixed amount of gas is inversely proportional to its
pressure at constant temperature.
③ The volume of a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its
temperature in Kelvin at constant pressure.
④ The total pressure of a mixture of gases is the simple sum of the partial
pressure of all of the gaseous compounds.
⑤ The rates of effusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square
roots of their molar masses.

7. Avogadro's law states that:

① Equal amounts of gases occupy the same volume at constant temperature
and pressure.
② The volume of a fixed amount of gas is inversely proportional to its
pressure at constant temperature.
③ The volume of a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its
temperature in Kelvin at constant pressure.
④ The total pressure of a mixture of gases is the simple sum of the partial
pressure of all of the gaseous compounds.
⑤ The rates of effusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square
roots of their molar masses.

8. Charles's law states that:

9. Consider a sample of helium gas in a container fitted with a piston, as

pictured below. The piston is frictionless, but has a mass of 10.0 kg. How
many of the following processes will cause the piston to move away from the
base and decrease the pressure of the gas? Assume ideal behavior.

10.0 kg
↓
base ↑
I. heating the helium
II. removing some of the helium from the
container
III. turning the container on its side
decreasing the pressure outside the
IV. container
① 0 ② 1
③ 2 ④ 3
⑤ 4

10. Gaseous chlorine is held in two separate containers at identical temperature

and pressure. The volume of container 1 is 1.30 L, and it contains 6.70 mol
of the gas. The volume of container 2 is 2.05 L. How many moles of the gas
are in container 2?
① 10.6 mol ② 17.9 mol
③ 0.398 mol ④ 4.25 mol
⑤ none of these

11. A balloon has a volume of 2.36 liters at 24.0°C. The balloon is heated to
48.0°C. Calculate the new volume of the balloon.
① 2.36 L ② 2.55 L
③ 2.18 L ④ 4.72 L
⑤ 1.18 L

12. You have a certain mass of helium gas (He) in a rigid steel container. You
add the same mass of neon gas (Ne) to this container. Which of the
following best describes what happens? Assume the temperature is constant.
① The pressure in the container doubles.
② The pressure in the container increases but does not double.
③ The pressure in the container more than doubles.
④ The volume of the container doubles.
⑤ The volume of the container more than doubles.

13. You are holding two balloons, an orange balloon and a blue balloon. The
orange balloon is filled with neon (Ne) gas and the blue balloon is filled with
argon (Ar) gas. The orange balloon has twice the volume of the blue balloon.
Which of the following best represents the mass ratio of Ne : Ar in the
balloons?
① 1:1 ② 1:2
③ 2:1 ④ 1:3
⑤ 3:1
14. A gas sample is heated from -20.0°C to 57.0°C and the volume is increased
from 2.00 L to 4.50 L. If the initial pressure is 0.109 atm, what is the final
pressure?
① 0.0371 atm ② –0.138 atm
③ 0.320 atm ④ 0.188 atm
⑤ 0.0632 atm

15. A sample of oxygen gas has a volume of 3.52 L at 27°C and 800.0 torr. How
many oxygen molecules does it contain?
① 9.06 × 1022 ② 6.88 × 1025
③ 1.01 × 1024 ④ 4.00 × 1024
⑤ none of these

16. You fill a balloon with 2.50 moles of gas at 24°C at a pressure of 1.78 atm.
What is the volume of the balloon?
① 17.4 L ② 108 L
③ 34.2 L ④ 2.77 L
⑤ 22.4 L

17. Which conditions of P, T, and n, respectively, are most ideal?

① high P, high T, high n ② low P, low T, low n
③ high P, low T, high n ④ low P, high T, high n
⑤ low P, high T, low n

18. A 9.70-g piece of solid CO2 (dry ice) is allowed to sublime in a balloon. The
final volume of the balloon is 1.00 L at 298 K. What is the pressure of the
gas?
① 5.39 atm ② 2.37 × 102 atm
③ 2.52 atm ④ 0.186 atm
⑤ none of these

19. A sample of 35.1 g of methane gas has a volume of 4.45 L at a pressure of

2.70 atm. Calculate the temperature.
① 4.17 K ② 66.9 K
③ 340 K ④ 39.8 K
⑤ 50.1 K

20. The temperature of a specific amount of gas in a sealed container changes

from 20.0°C to 40.0°C. If the volume remains constant, the pressure will
change from 755 mmHg to
① 1510 mmHg ② 707 mmHg
③ 378 mmHg ④ 807 mmHg
⑤ 755 mmHg

Use the following to answer questions 21-26:

Four identical 1.0-L flasks contain the gases He, Cl2, CH4, and NH3, each at
0°C and 1 atmpressure.
21. Which gas has the highest density?
① He ② Cl2
③ CH4 ④ NH3
⑤ all gases the same

22. For which gas do the molecules have the highest average velocity?
① He ② Cl2
③ CH4 ④ NH3
⑤ all gases the same

23. Which gas sample has the greatest number of molecules?

① He ② Cl2
③ CH4 ④ NH3
⑤ all gases the same

24. For which gas are the molecules diatomic?

① He ② Cl2
③ CH4 ④ NH3
⑤ all gases the same

25. For which gas are the collisions elastic?

① He ② Cl2
③ CH4 ④ NH3
⑤ all gases the same

26. For which gas do the molecules have the smallest average kinetic energy?
① He ② Cl2
③ CH4 ④ NH3
⑤ all gases the same

27. It is found that 250. mL of a gas at STP has a mass of 0.677 g. What is the
molar mass?
① 60.7 g/mol ② 2.71 g/mol
③ 16.5 g/mol ④ 11.2 g/mol
⑤ 132 g/mol

28. When 0.72 g of a liquid is vaporized at 110°C and 0.967 atm, the gas
occupies a volume of 0.559 L. The empirical formula of the gas is
CH2.Whatisthemolecularformulaofthegas?
① CH2 ② C2H4
③ C3H6 ④ C4H8
⑤ none of these

29. Gaseous C2H4 reacts with O2 according to the following equation:

C 2 H 4 (g ) + 3O 2 (g )  2CO 2 (g ) + 2H 2 O(g )

What volume of oxygen gas at STP is needed to react with 5.06 mol of
C2H4?
① 15.2 L ② 37.8 L
③ 3.40 × 10 L 2
④ 1.13 × 102 L
⑤ Not enough information is given to solve the problem.

30. The purity of a sample containing zinc and weighing 0.286 g is determined
by measuring the amount of hydrogen formed when the sample reacts with
an excess of hydrochloric acid. The determination shows the sample to be
84.0% zinc. What amount of hydrogen (measured at STP) was obtained?
① 2.40 × 10–1 L ② 1.19 × 10–1 g
③ 4.37 × 10–3 mole ④ 2.21 × 1021 molecules
⑤ 2.21 × 1021 atoms

31. What volume of carbon dioxide measured at STP will be formed by the
reaction of 1.42 mol of oxygen with 0.900 mol of ethyl alcohol, CH3CH2OH?
① 40.3 mL ② 21.2 L
③ 31.8 L ④ 47.7 L
⑤ 0.947 L

32. What volume of H2O(g) measured at STP is produced by the combustion of

3.85 g of natural gas (CH4) according to the following equation?
CH 4 (g ) + 2O 2 (g )  CO 2 (g ) + 2H 2 O(g )

① 5.38 L ② 10.8 L
③ 2.69 L ④ 11.7 L
⑤ 1.93 L
33. A mixture of KCl and KClO3 weighing 1.63 grams washeated; thedry O2
generated occupied 143 mL at STP. What percent of the original mixture was
KClO3, which decomposes as follows:
2KClO3 (s )  2KCl(s ) + 3O 2 (g )

① 32.0% ② 48.0%
③ 72.0% ④ 8.77%
⑤ 19.5%

34. A vessel with a volume of 41.8 L contains 2.80 g of nitrogen gas, 0.403 g of
hydrogen gas, and 79.9 g of argon gas. At 25°C, what is the pressure in the
vessel?
① 48.6 atm ② 0.113 atm
③ 1.52 atm ④ 1.35 atm
⑤ 56.2 atm

35. A gaseous mixture containing 1.5 mol Ar and 3.5 mol CO2 has a total
pressure of 7.5 atm. What is the partial pressure of CO2?
① 2.3 atm ② 1.4 atm
③ 18 atm ④ 5.3 atm
⑤ 7.5 atm

36. The valve between the 2.00-L bulb, in which the gas pressure is 2.00 atm,
and the 3.00-L bulb, in which the gas pressure is 2.70 atm, is opened. What
is the final pressure in the two bulbs, the temperature remaining constant?

① 0.800 atm ② 2.28 atm

③ 2.42 atm ④ 1.62 atm
⑤ 2.35 atm

37. The partial pressures of CH4, N2, and O2 in a sample of gas were found to
be 143 mmHg, 469 mmHg, and 563 mmHg, respectively. Calculate the mole
fraction of oxygen.
① 20.1 ② 0.399
③ 0.479 ④ 0.741
⑤ 0.359
38. Dalton's law of partial pressures states that:
① Equal amounts of gases occupy the same volume at constant temperature
and pressure.
② The volume of a fixed amount of gas is inversely proportional to its
pressure at constant temperature.
③ The volume of a fixed amount of gas is directly proportional to its
temperature in Kelvin at constant pressure.
④ The total pressure of a mixture of gases is the sum of the partial
pressure of all of the gaseous compounds.
⑤ The rates of effusion of gases are inversely proportional to the square
roots of their molar masses.

39. Which of the following is not a postulate of the kinetic molecular theory?
① Gas particles have most of their mass concentrated in the nucleus of the
atom.
② The moving particles undergo perfectly elastic collisions with the walls of
the container.
③ The forces of attraction and repulsion between the particles are
insignificant.
④ The average kinetic energy of the particles is directly proportional to the
absolute temperature.
⑤ All of the above are postulates of the kinetic molecular theory.

40. Which of the following is not an assumption of the kinetic molecular theory
for a gas?
① Gases are made up of tiny particles in constant chaotic motion.
② Gas particles are very small compared to the average distance between
the particles.
③ Gas particles collide with the walls of their container in elastic collisions.
④ The average velocity of the gas particles is directly proportional to the
absolute temperature.
⑤ All of the above are assumptions of the kinetic molecular theory.

41. Calculate the root mean square velocity for the O2 molecules in a sample of
O2 gas at 32.3°C. (R = 8.3145 J/K×mol)
① 158.7 m/s ② 15.43 m/s
③ 487.8 m/s ④ 281.6 m/s
⑤ 9.290 × 10 26
m/s
42. According to the postulates of the kinetic theory of gases, the average speed
of the molecules of a given gas is proportional to the
① absolute temperature squared
② square root of the absolute temperature
③ absolute temperature
④ Celsius temperature squared
⑤ reciprocal of the absolute temperature

43. Graham's law states that:

44. Order the following in increasing rate of effusion:

F2, Cl2, NO, NO2, CH4 ① Cl2 < NO2 < F2 < NO < CH4
② Cl2 < F2 < NO2 < CH4 < NO ③ CH4 < NO2 < NO < F2 < Cl2
④ CH4 < NO < F2 < NO2 < Cl2
⑤ F2 < NO < Cl2 < NO2 < CH4

45. The van der Waals equation, nRT = [P + a(n/V)2](V – nb), incorporates
corrections to the ideal gas law in order to account for the properties of
real gases. One of the corrections accounts for
① the possibility of chemical reaction between molecules
② the finite volume of molecules
③ the quantum behavior of molecules
④ the fact that average kinetic energy is inversely proportional to
temperature
⑤ the possibility of phase changes when the temperature is decreased or
the pressure is increased

46. Real gases are those that

① only behave ideally at high pressures or low temperatures
② deviate from ideal behavior
③ are only available naturally in the earth's atmosphere
④ are called real gases because their behavior can easily be modeled
⑤ have an even number of protons

47. Which of the following pollutant gases is not produced directly in a

combustion engine?
① CO ② CO2
③ O3 ④ NO
⑤ NO2
Chapter 6. Thermochemistry

1. A gas absorbs 0.0 J of heat and then performs 15.2 J of work. The change in
internal energy of the gas is
① 30.4 J ② 15.2 J
③ –30.4 J ④ –15.2 J
⑤ none of these

2. What is the kinetic energy of a 1.50-kg object moving at 86.0 km/hr?

① 4.28 × 102 kJ ② 5.55 × 103 kJ
③ 4.28 × 10–4 kJ ④ 8.56 × 102 kJ
⑤ 1.79 × 101 kJ

3. Which of the following statements is correct?

① The internal energy of a system increases when more work is done by the
system than heat was flowing into the system.
② The internal energy of a system decreases when work is done on the
system and heat is flowing into the system.
③ The system does work on the surroundings when an ideal gas expands
against a constant external pressure.
④ All statements are true.
⑤ All statements are false.

4. Which statement is true of a process in which one mole of a gas is expanded

from state A to state B?
① When the gas expands from state A to state B, the surroundings are
doing work on the system.
② The amount of work done in the process must be the same, regardless of
the path.
③ It is not possible to have more than one path for a change of state.
④ The final volume of the gas will depend on the path taken.
⑤ The amount of heat released in the process will depend on the path
taken.

5. Calculate the work associated with the expansion of a gas from 42.0 L to 79.0
L at a constant pressure of 19.0 atm.
① 703 L·atm ② –703 L·atm
③ –1.50 × 10 L·atm
3
④ 798 L·atm
⑤ 1.50 × 10 L·atm
3
6. Calculate the work associated with the compression of a gas from 121.0 L to
80.0 L at a constant pressure of 20.7 atm.
① –849 L atm ② 849 L atm
③ 1.98 L atm ④ –1.98 L atm
⑤ 101 L atm

7. According to the first law of thermodynamics, the energy of the universe is

constant. Does this mean that ∆E is always equal to zero?
① Yes, ∆E = 0 at all times, which is why q = -w.
② No, ∆E does not always equal zero, but this is only due to factors like
friction and heat.
③ No, ∆E does not always equal zero because it refers to the system's
internal energy, which is affected by heat and work.
④ No, ∆E never equals zero because work is always being done on the
system or by the system.
⑤ No, ∆E never equals zero because energy is always flowing between the
system and surroundings.

8. Which of the following properties is (are) intensive properties?

I. mass
II. temperature
III. volume
IV. concentration
V. energy
① I, III, and V ② II only
③ II and IV ④ III and IV
⑤ I and V

9. For the reaction H2O(l) → H2O(g) at 298 K and 1.0 atm, ∆H is more positive
than ∆E by 2.5 kJ/mol. This quantity of energy can be considered to be
① the heat flow required to maintain a constant temperature
② the work done in pushing back the atmosphere
③ the difference in the H–O bond energy in H2O(l) compared to H2O(g)
④ the value of ∆H itself
⑤ none of these

10. Which one of the following statements is false?

① The change in internal energy, ∆E, for a process is equal to the amount
of heat absorbed at constant volume, qv.
② The change in enthalpy, ∆H, for a process is equal to the amount of heat
absorbed at constant pressure, qp.
③ A bomb calorimeter measures ∆H directly.
④ If qp for a process is negative, the process is exothermic.
⑤ The freezing of water is an example of an exothermic reaction.

11. C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l), ∆H = –1.37 × 103 kJ

For the combustion of ethyl alcohol as described in the above equation,
which of the following is true?
I. The reaction is exothermic.
II. The enthalpy change would be different if gaseous water was produced.
III. The reaction is not an oxidation–reduction one.
IV. The products of the reaction occupy a larger volume than the reactants.
① I, II ② I, II, III
③ I, III, IV ④ III, IV
⑤ only I

12. Consider the reaction:

C2H5OH(l) + 3O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(l); ∆H = –1.37 × 103 kJ
Consider the following propositions:
I. The reaction is endothermic
II. The reaction is exothermic.
III. The enthalpy term would be different if the water formed was gaseous.
Which of these propositions is (are) true?
① I ② II
③ III ④ I, II
⑤ II, III

13. How much heat is required to raise the temperature of a 4.48-g sample of
iron (specific heat = 0.450 J/g°C) from 25.0°C to 79.8°C?
① 1.98 J ② 246 J
③ 546 J ④ 661 J
⑤ 110 J

14. 30.0 mL of pure water at 282 K is mixed with 50.0 mL of pure water at 328
K. What is the final temperature of the mixture?
① 305 K ② 311 K
③ 397 K ④ 610 K
⑤ 46 K
15. Consider the reaction
H2(g) + 1
2 O2(g) → H2O(l) ∆H° = –286 kJ
Which of the following is true?
① The reaction is exothermic.
② The reaction is endothermic.
③ The enthalpy of the products is less than that of the reactants.
④ Heat is absorbed by the system.
⑤ Both ① and ③ are true.

16. Exactly 143.0 J will raise the temperature of 10.0 g of a metal from 25.0°C to
60.0°C. What is the specific heat capacity of the metal?
① 2.45 J/g°C ② 0.409 J/g°C
③ 21.5 J/g°C ④ 34.2 J/g°C
⑤ none of these

17. What is the specific heat capacity of zinc if it requires 146 J to raise the
temperature of 15 grams of zinc by 25°C?
① 2.6 J/g°C ② 0.39 J/g°C
③ 0.23 J/g°C ④ 0.60 J/g°C
⑤ none of these

18. A bomb calorimeter has a heat capacity of 2.47 kJ/K. When a 0.111-g
sample of ethylene (C2H4) was burned in this calorimeter, the temperature
increased by 2.26 K. Calculate the energy of combustion for one mole of
ethylene.
① –5.29 kJ/mol ② –50.3 kJ/mol
③ –624 kJ/mol ④ –0.274 kJ/mol
⑤ –1.41 × 103 kJ/mol

19. Consider the reaction:

C 2 H 5 OH(l ) + 3O 2 (g )  2CO 2 (g ) + 3H 2 O(l ), H  1.37 ? 10 3 kJ

When a 24.8-g sample of ethyl alcohol (molar mass = 46.07 g/mol) is

burned, how much energy is released as heat?
① 0.538 kJ ② 0.737 kJ
③ 7.37 × 102 kJ ④ 3.40 × 104 kJ
⑤ 1.86 kJ

20. The total volume of hydrogen gas needed to fill the Hindenburg was 2.01 ×
108 L at 1.00 atm and 24.7°C. How much energy was evolved when it
burned?
H 2 (g ) + 1
2 O 2 (g )  H 2 O(l ), H  286 kJ

① 8.23 × 106 kJ ② 2.84 × 1010 kJ

③ 2.88 × 104 kJ ④ 2.35 × 109 kJ
⑤ 4.71 × 109 kJ

21. Consider the following specific heats of metals.

Metal Specific Heat
Copper 0.385 J/(g°C)
Magnesium 1.02 J/(g°C)
Tungsten 0.134 J/(g°C)
Silver 0.237 J/(g°C)
Bismuth 0.123 J/(g°C)
If the same amount of heat is added to 25.0 g of each of the metals, which
are all at the same initial temperature, which metal will have the highest
temperature?
① Copper ② Magnesium
③ Tungsten ④ Silver
⑤ Bismuth

22. The heat of combustion of benzene, C6H6, is –41.74 kJ/g. Combustion of 2.50
g of benzene causes a temperature rise of 3.63°C in a certain bomb
calorimeter. What is the heat capacity of this bomb calorimeter?
① 379 kJ/°C ② 28.7 kJ/°C
③ 0.217 kJ/°C ④ 4.79 kJ/°C
⑤ 104 kJ/°C

23. At 25°C, the following heats of reaction are known:

∆H (kJ/mol)
2ClF + O2 → Cl2O+F2O 167.4
2ClF3 +2O2 → Cl2O+3F2O 341.4
2F2 + O2 → 2F2O –43.4
At the same temperature, calculate DH for the reaction: ClF + F2 → ClF3
① –217.5 kJ/mol ② –130.2 kJ/mol
③ +217.5 kJ/mol ④ –108.7 kJ/mol
⑤ none of these
24. Calculate ∆H° for the reaction C4H4(g) + 2H2(g) → C4H8(g), using the following
data:
∆H°combustion for C4H4(g) = –2341 kJ/mol
∆H°combustion for H2(g) = –286 kJ/mol
∆H°combustion for C4H8(g) = –2755 kJ/mol
① –128 kJ ② –158 kJ
③ 128 kJ ④ 158 kJ
⑤ none of these

25. The heat of formation of Fe2O3(s) is -826.0 kJ/mol. Calculate the heat of the
reaction 4Fe(s ) + 3O 2 (g )  2Fe 2 O3 (s ) when a 27.42-g sample of iron is reacted.
① –101.4 kJ ② –202.8 kJ
③ –405.5 kJ ④ –811 kJ
⑤ –1.132 × 104 kJ

26. Which of the following does not have a standard enthalpy of formation equal
to zero at 25°C and 1.0 atm?
① F2(g) ② Al(s)
③ H2O(l) ④ H2(g)
⑤ They all have a standard enthalpy equal to zero.

27. Given the following two reactions at 298 K and 1 atm, which of the
statements is true?

1. N2(g) + O2(g) → 2NO(g) ∆H1

2. NO(g) + 1
2 O2(g) → NO2(g) ∆H2

① ∆Hf° for NO2(g) = ∆H2 ② ∆Hf° for NO(g) = ∆H1

③ ∆Hf° = ∆H2 ④ ∆Hf° for NO2(g) = ∆H2 + 1
2 ∆H1
⑤ none of these

28. Given:

Cu2O(s) + 1
2 O2(g) → 2CuO(s) ∆H° = –144 kJ
Cu2O(s) → Cu(s) + CuO(s) ∆H° = +11 kJ
Calculate the standard enthalpy of formation of CuO(s).
① –166 kJ ② –299 kJ
③ +299 kJ ④ +155 kJ
⑤ –155 kJ
29. Using the following data, calculate the standard heat of formation of the
compound ICl in kJ/mol:
∆H° (kJ/mol)
Cl2(g) → 2Cl(g) 242.3
I2(g) → 2I(g) 151.0
ICl(g) → I(g) + Cl(g) 211.3
I2(s) → I2(g) 62.8
① –211 kJ/mol ② –14.6 kJ/mol
③ 16.8 kJ/mol ④ 245 kJ/mol
⑤ 439 kJ/mol

30. The heat combustion of acetylene, C2H2(g), at 25°C is –1299 kJ/mol. At this
temperature, ∆Hf° values for CO2(g) and H2O(l) are –393 and –286 kJ/mol,
respectively. Calculate ∆Hf° for acetylene.
① 2376 kJ/mol ② 625 kJ/mol
③ 227 kJ/mol ④ –625 kJ/mol
⑤ –227 kJ/mol

31. Choose the correct equation for the standard enthalpy of formation of CO(g),
where ∆Hf° for CO = –110.5 kJ/mol (gr indicates graphite).
① 2C(gr) + O2(g) → 2CO(g), ∆H° = –110.5 kJ
② C(gr) + O(g) → CO(g), ∆H° = –110.5 kJ
③ C(gr) + 1
2 O2(g) → CO(g), ∆H° = –110.5 kJ
④ C(gr) + CO2(g) → 2CO(g), ∆H° = –110.5 kJ
⑤ CO(g) → C(gr) + O(g), ∆H° = –110.5 kJ

32. The following statements concerning petroleum are all true except:
① It is a thick, dark liquid composed mostly of hydrocarbons.
② It must be separated into fractions (by boiling) in order to be used
efficiently.
③ Some of the commercial uses of petroleum fractions include gasoline and
kerosene.
④ It was probably formed from the remains of ancient marine organisms.
⑤ All of its hydrocarbon chains contain the same number of carbon atoms.

33. Which of the following is both a greenhouse gas and a fuel?

① carbon dioxide ② coal
③ freon ④ methane
⑤ nitrogen
34. Acetylene (C2H2) and butane (C4H10) are gaseous fuels. Determine the ratio of
energy available from the combustion of a given volume of acetylene to
butane at the same temperature and pressure using the following data:
The change in enthalpy of combustion for C2H2(g) = –49.9 kJ/g.
The change in enthalpy of combustion for C4H10(g) = –49.5 kJ/g.
Chapter 7. Atomic Structure and Periodicity

1. Which of the following frequencies corresponds to light with the longest

wavelength?
① 3.00 × 1013 s–1 ② 4.12 × 105 s–1
③ 8.50 × 1020 s–1 ④ 9.12 × 1012 s–1
⑤ 3.20 × 109 s–1

2. A line in the spectrum of atomic mercury has a wavelength of 258 nm. When
mercury emits a photon of light at this wavelength, the frequency of this light
is
① 8.61 × 10–16 s–1 ② 7.70 × 10–19 s–1
③ 1.16 × 1015 s–1 ④ 77.3 s–1
⑤ none of these

3. What is the wavelength of a photon of red light (in nm) whose frequency is
4.64 × 1014 Hz?
① 646 nm ② 1.55 × 106 nm
③ 155 nm ④ 464 nm
⑤ none of these

4. Green light can have a wavelength of 512 nm. The energy of a photon of this
light is
① 1.02 × 10–31 J ② 5.12 × 10–7 J
③ 3.88 × 10–19 J ④ 5.86 × 1014 J
⑤ 2.58 × 1018 J

5. What is the energy of a photon of violet light that has a wavelength of 425
nm?
① 4.25 × 10–7 J ② 4.67 × 10–19 J
③ 7.05 × 1014 J ④ 8.44 × 10–32 J
⑤ 2.14 × 1018 J

6. How many of the following is/are incorrect?

i. The importance of the equation E = mc2 is that energy has mass.
ii. Electromagnetic radiation can be thought of as a stream of particles
called photons.
iii. Electromagnetic radiation exhibits wave properties.
iv. Energy can only occur in discrete units called quanta.
① 0 ② 1
③ 2 ④ 3
⑤ 4

7. The four lines observed in the visible emission spectrum of hydrogen tell us
that:
① The hydrogen molecules they came from have the formula H4.
② We could observe more lines if we had a stronger prism.
③ There are four electrons in an excited hydrogen atom.
④ Only certain energies are allowed for the electron in a hydrogen atom.
⑤ The spectrum is continuous.

Use the following to answer questions 8-9:

Consider the following portion of the energy-level diagram for hydrogen:
n = 4 –0.1361 × 10–18 J
n = 3 –0.2420 × 10–18 J
n = 2 –0.5445 × 10–18 J
n = 1 –2.178 × 10–18 J

8. For which of the following transitions does the light emitted have the longest
wavelength?
① n = 4 to n = 3 ② n = 4 to n = 2
③ n = 4 to n = 1 ④ n = 3 to n = 2
⑤ n = 2 to n = 1

9. In the hydrogen spectrum, what is the wavelength of light associated with the
n = 4 to n = 1 electron transition?
① 5.96 × 10–25 nm ② 1.46 × 103 nm
③ 1.03 × 107 cm ④ 2.04 × 10–18 m
⑤ 9.73 × 10–8 m

10. What is the wavelength of light that is emitted when an excited electron in
the hydrogen atom falls from
n = 5 to n = 1?
① 1.05 × 107 m ② 9.50 × 10–8 m
③ 2.09 × 10–18 m ④ 9.12 × 10–8 m
⑤ none of these
11. Which of the following is a reasonable criticism of the Bohr model of the
atom?
① It makes no attempt to explain why the negative electron does not
eventually fall into the positive nucleus.
② It does not adequately predict the line spectrum of hydrogen.
③ It does not adequately predict the ionization energy of the valence
electron(s) for elements other than hydrogen.
④ It does not adequately predict the ionization energy of the first energy
level electrons for one-electron species for elements other than
hydrogen.
⑤ It shows the electrons to exist outside of the nucleus.

12. In Bohr's atomic theory, when an electron moves from one energy level to
another energy level more distant from the nucleus:
① Energy is emitted. ② Energy is absorbed.
③ No change in energy occurs. ④ Light is emitted.
⑤ None of these.

13. Which of the following is incorrect?

① The emission spectrum of hydrogen contains a continuum of colors.
② Diffraction produces both constructive and destructive interference.
③ All matter displays both particle and wavelike characteristics.
④ Niels Bohr developed a quantum model for the hydrogen atom.
⑤ The lowest possible energy state of a molecule or atom is called its
ground state.

14. Which of the following statements is (are) true?

An excited atom can return to its ground state by absorbing
I. electromagnetic
radiation.
The energy of an atom is increased when electromagnetic
II. radiation is emitted
fromit.
III. The energy of electromagnetic radiation increases as its
frequency increases.
An electron in the n = 4 state in the hydrogen atom can go to
IV. the n = 2 state by
emittingelectromagneticradiationattheappropriatefrequency.
The frequency and wavelength of electromagnetic radiation are
V. inversely
proportionaltoeachother.
① II, III, IV ② III, V
③ I, II, III ④ III, IV, V
⑤ I, II, IV
15. Which of the following statements best describes the Heisenberg uncertainty
principle?
① The exact position of an electron is always uncertain.
② The velocity of a particle can only be estimated.
③ It is impossible to accurately know both the exact location and momentum
of a particle.
④ The location and momentum of a macroscopic object are not known with
certainty.
⑤ The location and momentum of a particle can be determined accurately,
but not the identity of the particle.

16. Which of the following best describes an orbital?

① space where electrons are unlikely to be found in an atom
② space which may contain electrons, protons, and/or neutrons
③ the space in an atom where an electron is most likely to be found
④ small, walled spheres that contain electrons
⑤ a single space within an atom that contains all electrons of that atom

17. Which of the following is not determined by the principal quantum number,
n, of the electron in a hydrogen atom?
① The energy of the electron.
② the minimum wavelength of the light needed to remove the electron from
the atom.
③ The size of the corresponding atomic orbital(s).
④ The shape of the corresponding atomic orbital(s).
⑤ All of the above are determined by n.

18. Consider the following representation of a 2p-orbital:

Which of the following statements best describes the movement of electrons

in a p-orbital?
① The electrons move along the outer surface of the p-orbital, similar to a
“figure 8” type of movement.
② The electrons move within the two lobes of the p-orbital, but never
beyond the outside surface of the orbital.
③ The electrons are concentrated at the center (node) of the two lobes.
④ The electrons are only moving in one lobe at any given time.
⑤ The electron movement cannot be exactly determined.
19. Which of the following combinations of quantum numbers is not allowed?
① n = 1, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = 1
2 ② n = 3, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = - 1
2

③ n = 2, l = 1, ml = -1, ms = 1
2 ④ n = 4, l = 3, ml = -2, ms = - 1
2

⑤ n = 4, l = 2, ml = 0, ms = 1
2

20. The small, but important, energy differences between 3s, 3p, and 3d orbitals
are due mainly to
① the number of electrons they can hold
② their principal quantum number
③ the Heisenberg uncertainty principle
④ the penetration effect
⑤ Hund's rule

21. Mendeleev is given the most credit for the concept of a periodic table of the
elements because:
① He had the longest history of research in elemental properties.
② He emphasized its usefulness in predicting the existence and properties of
unknown elements.
③ His representation of the table was the most understandable.
④ His periodic table was arranged in octaves.
⑤ He grouped elements into triads of similar properties.

22. The electron configuration for the carbon atom is:

① 1s22s22p2 ② [He]2s4
③ [Ne]2s22p2 ④ 1s22p4
⑤ none of these

23. Which of the following statements about quantum theory is incorrect?

① The energy and position of an electron cannot be determined
simultaneously.
② Lower energy orbitals are filled with electrons before higher energy
orbitals.
③ When filling orbitals of equal energy, two electrons will occupy the same
orbital before filling a new orbital.
④ No two electrons can have the same four quantum numbers.
⑤ All of these are correct.
24. Which of the following statements is true?
① The exact location of an electron can be determined if we know its
energy.
② An electron in a 2s orbital can have the same n, l, and ml quantum
numbers as an electron in a 3s orbital.
③ Ni has two unpaired electrons in its 3d orbitals.
④ In the buildup of atoms, electrons occupy the 4f orbitals before the 6s
orbitals.
⑤ Only three quantum numbers are needed to uniquely describe an electron.

25. Which of the following statements is false?

① An orbital can accommodate at most two electrons.
② The electron density at a point is proportional to ψ2 at that point.
③ The spin quantum number of an electron must be either + 1
2 or –
1
2 .
④ A 2p orbital is more penetrating than a 2s; i.e., it has a higher electron
density near the nucleus and inside the charge cloud of a 1s orbital.
⑤ In the usual order of filling, the 6s orbital is filled before the 4f orbital.

26. The statement that "the lowest energy configuration for an atom is the one
having the maximum number of unpaired electrons allowed by the Pauli
principle in a particular set of degenerate orbitals" is known as
① the aufbau principle ② Hund's rule
③ Heisenberg uncertainty principle ④ the Pauli exclusion principle
⑤ the quantum model

27. Which of the following electron configurations is correct?

① Ga: [Kr]4s23d104p1 ② Mo: [Kr]5s24d5
③ Ca: [Ar]4s13d10 ④ Br: [Kr]4s23d104p7
⑤ Bi: [Xe]6s24f145d106p3

28. 1s22s22p63s23p64s23d3 is the correct electron configuration for which of the

following atoms?
① Ga ② V
③ As ④ Nb
⑤ none of these

29. How many of the following electron configurations for the species in their
ground state are correct?
I. Ca: 1s22s22p63s23p64s2
II. Mg: 1s22s22p63s1
III. V: [Ar]3s23d3
IV. As: [Ar]4s23d104p3
V. P: 1s22s22p63p5
① 1 ② 2
③ 3 ④ 4
⑤ 5

30. Order the elements S, Cl, and F in terms of increasing atomic radii.
① S, Cl, F ② Cl, F, S
③ F, S, Cl ④ F, Cl, S
⑤ S, F, Cl

31. The first ionization energy of Mg is 735 kJ/mol. The second ionization
energy is
① 735 kJ/mol
② less than 735 kJ/mol
③ greater than 735 kJ/mol
④ More information is needed to answer this question.
⑤ None of these.

32. Choose the element with the highest ionization energy.

① Na ② Mg
③ Al ④ P
⑤ S

33. Which of the following concerning second ionization energies is true?

① That of Al is higher than that of Mg because Mg wants to lose the
second electron, so it is easier to take the second electron away.
② That of Al is higher than that of Mg because the electrons are taken
from the same energy level, but the Al atom has one more proton.
③ That of Al is lower than that of Mg because Mg wants to lose the second
electron, thus the energy change is greater.
④ That of Al is lower than that of Mg because the second electron taken
from Al is in a p orbital, thus it is easier to take.
⑤ The second ionization energies are equal for Al and Mg.
34. Consider the following orderings.
+ 2+ 3+ 4+
I. Na < Mg < Al < Si
II. Be < Mg < Ca < Sr
III. I < Br < Cl < F
IV. Al < Si < P < Cl
Which of these give(s) a correct trend in ionization energy?
① III ② II, IV
③ I, IV ④ I, III, IV
⑤ none of them

35. List the following atoms in order of increasing ionization energy: Li, Na, C,
O, F.
① Li < Na < C < O < F ② Na < Li < C < O < F
③ F < O < C < Li < Na ④ Na < Li < F < O < C
⑤ Na < Li < C < F < O

36. Which of the following statements is true?

① The first ionization potential of H is greater than that of He.
② The ionic radius of Fe+ is larger than that of Fe3+.
③ The ionization energy of S2– is greater than that of Cl–.
④ The atomic radius of Li is larger than that of Cs.
⑤ All are false.

37. Which of the following statements is false?

① A sodium atom has a smaller radius than a potassium atom.
② A neon atom has a smaller radius than an oxygen atom.
③ A fluorine atom has a smaller first ionization energy than an oxygen
atom.
④ A cesium atom has a smaller first ionization energy than a lithium atom.
⑤ All are true.

38. The statement that the first ionization energy for an oxygen atom is lower
than the first ionization energy for a nitrogen atom is
① consistent with the general trend relating changes in ionization energy
across a period from left to right, because it is easier to take an
electron from an oxygen atom than from a nitrogen atom
② consistent with the general trend relating changes in ionization energy
across a period from left to right, because it is harder to take an
electron from an oxygen atom than from a nitrogen atom
③ inconsistent with the general trend relating changes in ionization energy
across a period from left to right, due to the fact that the oxygen atom
has two doubly-occupied 2p orbitals and nitrogen has only one
④ inconsistent with the general trend relating changes in ionization energy
across a period from left to right, due to the fact that oxygen has one
doubly-occupied 2p orbital and nitrogen does not
⑤ incorrect

39. Which of the following statements is true?

① The krypton 1s orbital is smaller than the helium 1s orbital because
krypton's nuclear charge draws the electrons closer.
② The krypton 1s orbital is larger than the helium 1s orbital because
krypton contains more electrons.
③ The krypton 1s orbital is smaller than the helium 1s orbital because
krypton's p and d orbitals crowd the s orbitals.
④ The krypton 1s orbital and helium 1s orbital are the same size because
both s orbitals can only have two electrons.
⑤ The krypton 1s orbital is larger than the helium 1s orbital because
krypton's ionization energy is lower, so it's easier to remove electrons.

40. How many electrons in an atom can have the following quantum numbers?
① n = 3 ② n = 2, l = 0
③ n = 2, l = 2, ml =0 ④ n = 2, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = 1/2
Chapter 8. Bonding: General Concepts

1. The force between two bodies having identical electric charges

① is a force of repulsion
② is a force of repulsion if the charges are negative, and one of attraction if
they are positive
③ increases as the bodies are moved further apart
④ is independent of the distance between them
⑤ is directly proportional to the distance between them

2. In which pair do both compounds exhibit predominantly ionic bonding?

① SCl6 and HF ② Na2SO3 and CH4
③ KI and O3 ④ BaF2 and H2O
⑤ LiBr and BaO

3. Atoms having equal or nearly equal electronegativities are expected to form

① no bonds ② polar covalent bonds
③ nonpolar covalent bonds ④ ionic bonds
⑤ covalent bonds

4. Choose the compound with the most ionic bond.

① LiCl ② KF
③ NaCl ④ LiF
⑤ KCl

5. Which of the following bonds is least polar?

① C—O ② H—C
③ S—Cl ④ Br—Br
⑤ They are all nonpolar.

6. For the elements Cs, F, and P, the order of increasing electronegativity is:
① Cs < F < P ② Cs < P < F
③ P < F < Cs ④ F < Cs < P
⑤ none of these

7. For the elements Cs, F, and Cl, the order of increasing electronegativity is:
① F < Cl < Cs ② Cs < Cl < F
③ Cl < Cs < F ④ F < Cs < Cl
⑤ none of these
8. The electron pair in a C-F bond could be considered
① closer to C because carbon has a larger radius and thus exerts greater
control over the shared electron pair
② closer to F because fluorine has a higher electronegativity than carbon
③ closer to C because carbon has a lower electronegativity than fluorine
④ an inadequate model since the bond is ionic
⑤ centrally located directly between the C and F

9. What is the correct order of the following bonds in terms of decreasing

polarity?
① N-Cl, P-Cl, As-Cl ② P-Cl, N-Cl, As-Cl
③ As-Cl, N-Cl, P-Cl ④ P-Cl, As-Cl, N-Cl
⑤ As-Cl, P-Cl, N-Cl

10. In which of the following compounds does the bond between the central
atom and bromine have the greatest ionic character?
① LiBr ② KBr
③ SeBr2 ④ AsBr3
⑤ CaBr2

11. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

① Ionic bonding results from the transfer of electrons from one atom to
another.
② Dipole moments result from the unequal distribution of electrons in a
molecule.
③ The electrons in a polar bond are found nearer to the more
electronegative element.
④ A molecule with very polar bonds can be nonpolar.
⑤ Linear molecules cannot have a net dipole moment.

12. Which of the following molecules has no dipole moment?

① CO2 ② NH3
③ H2O ④ all
⑤ none

13. Which of the following has the smallest radius?

① Br– ② S2–
③ Xe ④ Ca2+
⑤ Kr
14. Which of the following pairs is isoelectronic?
① Li+ and K+ ② Na+ and Ne
③ I– and Cl– ④ S2– and Ne
⑤ Al3+ and B3+

15. Which of the following arrangements is in order of increasing size?

① Ga3+ > Ca2+ > K+ > Cl– > S2– ② S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+ > Ga3+
③ Ga3+ > S2– > Ca2+ > Cl– > K+ ④ Ga3+ > Ca2+ > S2– > Cl– > K+
⑤ Ga3+ > Ca2+ > S2– > K+ > Cl–

16. Which of the following ionic compounds has the smallest lattice energy (i.e.,
the lattice energy least favorable to a stable lattice?
① LiF ② CsI
③ NaCl ④ BaO
⑤ MgO

17. Calculate the lattice energy for LiF(s) given the following:
sublimation energy for Li(s) +166 kJ/mol
∆Hf for F(g) +77 kJ/mol
first ionization energy of Li(g) +520. kJ/mol
electron affinity of F(g) –328 kJ/mol
enthalpy of formation of LiF(s) –612 kJ/mol
① –177 kJ/mol ② 192 kJ/mol
③ –804 kJ/mol ④ –1047 kJ/mol
⑤ none of these

18. Which of the following statements are true concerning ionic bonding?
① Ionic bonding occurs between a metal, which has a high affinity for
electrons, and a nonmetal, which loses electrons relatively easy.
② CaCl2 forms because Ca2+ is always a more stable species than the
calcium atom alone.
③ Compounds with ionic bonds tend to have low melting points.
④ The electronegativity difference between the bonding atoms of ionic
compounds is small since the electrons are not shared but rather held
together by electrostatic forces.
⑤ All of the above statements are false.

19. When electrons in a molecule are not found between a pair of atoms but
move throughout the molecule, this is called
① ionic bonding ② covalent bonding
③ polar covalent bonding ④ delocalization of the electrons
⑤ a dipole moment

20. Which of the following statements is false?

① Models are human interpretations, not the same as reality.
② Models are often wrong.
③ Models usually start out simple and become more complex over time.
④ We often learn more when a model is wrong than when it is right.
⑤ A model should be discarded when any exception to it is found.

21. Choose the molecule with the strongest bond.

① F2 ② Cl2
③ Br2 ④ I2
⑤ All are equal.

22. Choose the molecule with the strongest bond.

① HF ② HCl
③ HBr ④ HI
⑤ All are equal.

23. Using the following bond energies:

Bond Bond Energy (kJ/mol)
C≡ C 839
C– H 413
O=O 495
C=O 799
O–H 467
estimate the heat of combustion for one mole of acetylene:
C2H2(g)+ 5
2 O2(g) → 2CO2(g) + H2O(g)
① 1228 kJ ② –1228 kJ
③ –447 kJ ④ +447 kJ
⑤ +365 kJ

24. As indicated by Lewis structures, which of the following would probably not
exist as a stable molecule?
① CH3OH ② CH2O
③ CH3O ④ C2H2
⑤ C3H4
25. Given the following bond energies:
C– C 347 kJ/mol
C=C 614 kJ/mol
C– O 358 kJ/mol
C=O 799 kJ/mol
C– H 413 kJ/mol
O–H 463 kJ/mol
O–O 146 kJ/mol
estimate ∆H for the reaction H2O2 + CH3OH → H2CO + 2H2O.
① –345 kJ ② –199 kJ
③ –105 kJ ④ +199 kJ
⑤ +345 kJ

26. Which of the following molecules contains a double bond?

① CO2 ② NH3
③ H2O ④ all
⑤ none

27. Which of the following compounds contains only one unshared pair of
valence electrons?
① NH3 ② H2O
③ CH4 ④ NaCl
⑤ BF3

28. Which of the following Lewis structures best describes BF3?

① ②
F F
F B F B
F F
③ ④
F F
F B F B
F F
⑤
F
F B
F
Use the following to answer questions 29-31:
Consider the following molecules.
I. BF3
II. CHBr3(C is the central atom)
III. Br2
IV. XeCl2
V. CO
VI. SF4
Select the molecule(s) that fit the given statement.

29. These molecules violate the octet rule.

① I, II, IV ② I, III, IV, VI
③ III, V, VI ④ I, IV, VI
⑤ I, II, IV, VI

30. These molecules have a zero net dipole moment.

① III, V ② I, III, IV
③ III, IV, V ④ I, III, IV, VI
⑤ none of them

31. These molecules have a trigonal bipyramidal electron pair arrangement.

① II, IV, VI ② I, IV
③ IV, VI ④ VI only
⑤ none of them

32. Which of the following exhibits resonance?

① NH3 ② SCl6
③ H2O ④ SO2
⑤ At least two of the molecules (①-④) exhibit resonance.

33. Which has the greater N–O bond length, NO2– or NO3–?
① NO2– ② NO3–
③ The bond lengths are the same. ④ More information is needed.
⑤ None of these (①-④).

34. How many resonance structures can be drawn for the molecule O3?
① 1 ② 2
③ 3 ④ 4
⑤ 5
35. Which of the following is not a valid resonance structure for N3–?
① ②
- -
N N N N N N

③ ④
- -
N N N N N N

⑤ all are correct

36. How many of the following molecules possess dipole moments?

BH3, CH4, PCl5, H2O, HF, H2
① 1 ② 2
③ 3 ④ 4
⑤ 5

37. Which of the following molecules has a dipole moment?

① CH4 ② CCl4
③ CO2 ④ SO2
⑤ none of these

38. Which of the following molecules has a dipole moment?

① BF3 ② SiCl4
③ PF3 ④ O2
⑤ none of these

39. Which of the following has a zero dipole moment?

① NH3 ② NO2
③ PF5 ④ SO2
⑤ HCN

40. Which of the following types of molecules always has a dipole moment?
① Linear molecules with two identical bonds.
② Tetrahedral molecules (four identical bonds equally spaced).
③ Trigonal pyramid molecules (three identical bonds).
④ Trigonal planar molecules (three identical bonds equally spaced).
⑤ None has a dipole moment.
41. Consider the following drawings:

Which of the following statements are true?

The electrons in each molecule tend to orient themselves around
I. the most electronegativeelement.
II. Each molecular drawing follows the localized electron model.
III. Both HF and CO2arelinearmoleculesandthereforepolar.
The bond angles of NH3 are slightly less than 109.5° because the
IV. lone pair compresses the angles between the bonding pairs.

① I, III, IV ② I, II, IV
③ I, II, III ④ II, IV
⑤ All of the above statements are correct.

42. According to the VSEPR model, the arrangement of electron pairs around
NH3 and CH4 is
① different, because in each case there are a different number of atoms
around the central atom
② different, because in each case there are a different number of electron
pairs around the central atom
③ the same, because both nitrogen and carbon are both in the second
period
④ the same, because in each case there are the same number of electron
pairs around the central atom
⑤ different or the same, depending on the conditions leading to maximum
repulsion

43. Which of the following molecules is non-polar overall?

① SF4 ② SF2
③ CCl4 ④ H2S
⑤ OCl2

44. Which of the following is the correct order for molecules from most to least
polar?
① CH4 > CF2Cl2 > CF2H2 > CCl4 > CCl2H2
② CH4 > CF2H2 > CF2Cl2 > CCl4 > CCl2H2
③ CF2Cl2 > CF2H2 > CCl2H2 > CH4 = CCl4
④ CF2H2 > CCl2H2 > CF2Cl2 > CH4 = CCl4
⑤ CF2Cl2 > CF2H2 > CCl4 > CCl2H2 > CH4
45. How many of the following molecules or ions are linear?
NH3 OF2 HCN CO2 NO2
① 0 ② 1
③ 2 ④ 3
⑤ 4

46. The molecular structure of OF2 is

① pyramidal ② none of these
③ octahedral ④ trigonal planar
⑤ bent

47. The molecular structure of NCl3 is

① pyramidal ② none of these
③ octahedral ④ trigonal planar
⑤ bent

48. The molecular structure of BeF3– is

① pyramidal ② none of these
③ octahedral ④ trigonal planar
⑤ bent

49. The molecular structure of XeF5+ is

① trigonal bipyramidal ② square pyramidal
③ distorted tetrahedral ④ octahedral
⑤ none of these

50. The bond angles about the carbon atom in the formaldehyde molecule,
H2C=O, are about:
① 120° ② 60°
③ 109° ④ 180°
⑤ 90°

51. Which of the following species has a trigonal bipyramid structure?

① NH3 ② IF5
③ I3– ④ PCl5
⑤ none of these

52. The bond angle in H2Se is about:

① 120° ② 60°
③ 180° ④ 109°
⑤ 90°

53. Which ion is planar?

① NH4+ ② CO32–
③ SO32– ④ ClO3–
⑤ all are planar

54. In the molecule XeF2, how many pairs of electrons surround Xe and what is
the molecular geometry?
① 4, bent ② 4, pyramidal
③ 5, linear ④ 5, bent
⑤ 6, linear

55. According to VSEPR theory, which of the following species has a square
planar molecular structure?
① TeBr4 ② BrF3
③ IF5 ④ XeF4
⑤ SCl2

56. How many of the following molecules have all of their atoms in the same
plane?
H2C=CH2 OF2 H2CO NH3 CO2 BeCl2
① 3 ② 4
③ 5 ④ 6
⑤ 7
Chapter 9. Covalent Bonding: Orbitals

1. The hybridization of the nitrogen atom in the cation NH2+ is:

① sp2 ② sp3
③ dsp ④ sp
⑤ none of these

2. In the molecule C2H4 the valence orbitals of the carbon atoms are assumed to
be
① not hybridized ② sp hybridized
③ sp hybridized
2
④ sp3 hybridized
⑤ dsp hybridized