98-365.

227q

Number: 98-365
Passing Score: 800
Time Limit: 120 min

98-365

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Windows Server Administration Fundamentals

Sections
1. Understanding server installation

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2. Understanding server roles
3. Understanding Active Directory
4. Understanding storage
5. Understanding server performance management
6. Understanding server maintenance
Exam A

QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements best describe the benefits of using the Sysprep tool in Windows Server 2016? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. (Choose three.)

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A. It configures Windows Server 2016 to boot to Audit mode.

B. It removes system-specific data from Windows Server 2016.
C. It resets Windows Server 2016 Product Activation.
D. It verifies that an unattended answer file actually produces the desired result.

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The benefits of using Sysprep in Windows Server 2016 are as follows:
It removes system-specific data from Windows Server 2016.
It configures Windows Server 2016 to boot to Audit mode.
It configures Windows Server 2016 to boot to Windows Welcome.
It resets Windows Server 2016 Product Activation.

Incorrect Answers:
D: By using Windows SIM, administrators can verify that an unattended answer file actually produces the desired result.

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QUESTION 2
You work as a System Administrator for company Inc. The task of setting up ten servers and twenty workstations per specification is assigned to you. If you set up
each individually, it will take approximately one week to accomplish the task. You do not want to waste so much time for this.

What will you do?

A. Use Windows PowerShell.

B. Use Server Manager.
C. Use Windows Deployment Services.
D. Use Computer Management console.

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to save your time and to successfully accomplish the assigned task, you should use Windows Deployment Services.
Windows DS is used to install operating systems to set up new computers through a network without having to be physically present at each computer and without
having to install directly from a CD or DVD. Windows DS is commonly used to deploy Windows operating systems in large to medium size business environment

computers.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Windows PowerShell is an extensible command-line tool and associated scripting language. It provides administrators comprehensive control and automation of
system administration tasks to increase their productivity. It integrates with the Microsoft .NET Framework and provides an environment to perform administrative
tasks by execution of commands. It includes many system administration utilities, consistent syntax and naming conventions, and improved navigation of common
management data such as the registry, certificate store, or Windows Management Instrumentation (WMI). Windows PowerShell also includes a scripting language
specifically designed for administrative purposes.

B: Server Manager is a primary tool available in Windows Server 2016. It manages and secures multiple server roles in an enterprise. The Server Manager
console allows an administrator to perform the following tasks:
Install Windows Server roles and features. View the Event Viewer logs.
Access performance monitoring tools, Device Manager, Task Scheduler, Windows Firewall with Advanced Security, Services, Local Users and Groups, Windows
Server Backup, and Disk management.

D: Computer Management is a collection of Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-ins, including the Device Manager, Disk Defragmenter, Internet
Information Services, Disk Management, Event Viewer, Local Users and Groups, Shared Folders, and other tools. Computer Management is the most prolific MCC
that appears in the Administrative Tools folder in the Control Panel. Computer Management can also be pointed at another Windows machine altogether, allowing
for monitoring and configuration of other computers on the local network that the user has access to.

QUESTION 3
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As part of the configuration process, Windows assigns a number of system resources to the device being installed to ensure that the device operates
simultaneously with the other expansion cards.

Which of these system resources do not involve the processor?

A. Input/output (I/O) port addresses

B. Direct memory access (DMA) channels
C. Memory address ranges
D. Interrupt request (IRQ) line numbers

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
As part of the configuration process, Windows assigns the following system resources to the device being installed to ensure that the device operates
simultaneously with the other expansion cards:
Interrupt request (IRQ) line numbers: It is a signal sent by a device for obtaining the attention of the processor when the device is ready to receive or send
information.
A unique IRQ number must be assigned to each device.
Direct memory access (DMA) channels: These are the memory access channels that do not involve the processor.
Input/output (I/O) port addresses: It is a channel through which transfer of data takes place between a device and the processor.
Memory address ranges: These are portions of computer memory that are allocated to a device and can be used by a program or the operating system. All
devices are generally allocated a range of memory addresses.

QUESTION 4
You work as Desktop Support Technician in company Inc. You are planning to deploy a Windows 10 Image to a computer. You want to deploy the image using
WDS.

On which of the following computers should you install WDS? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Windows Server 2012 R2

B. Windows Server 2016
C. Windows 10 Pro
D. Windows 10 Enterprise

Correct Answer: AB
Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You should install WDS on a server running Windows Server 2012 R2 or Windows Server 2016 to use it to distribute Windows 10 images.
WDS stands for Windows Deployment Services.
It allows an administrator to remotely install Windows operating system on client computers that have a PXE-capable network adapter installed. The WDS server
must be configured with Preboot Execution Environment (PXE) boot files, images to be installed on client computers, and an answer file.
QUESTION 5
Which of the following methods will you use to automate the deployment of Windows Server 2016 and NLB cluster hosts? Each correct answer represents a

complete solution. (Choose three.)

A. Windows SIM
B. Windows DS
C. Sysprep
D. Unattended installation

Correct Answer: BCD

Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to automate the deployment of Windows Server 2016 and NLB cluster hosts, you should use one of the following methods:

Windows DS
Unattended installation
Sysprep

Incorrect Answers:
A: This method cannot be used to automate the deployment of Windows Server 2016 and NLB cluster hosts.

QUESTION 6
You have created a cloned copy of Windows Server 2016 and applied this cloned copy to multiple computers.

Each cloned copy of Windows uses the same image with the same parameters, including the computer name and security identifier. For these computers to
operate properly without conflicting on a network, all parameters should be unique.

What will you do to overcome this problem?

A. Restart the computers.

B. Run msconfig.exe.

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C. Use the Sysprep tool.
D. Use Windows System Image Manager.

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To overcome the given problem, you should run Sysprep (system preparation tool). When you use the Sysprep tool, it removes security identifiers (SIDs) and all
other user-specific or computer- specific information from the computer before you run the disk cloning software to make the cloned disk image.

QUESTION 7
You work as a System Administrator for company Inc. You have to set up five servers and ten workstations per specification. Your organization uses Windows
Deployment Services whenever a new workstation or server is set up.

You want to automate the installations with as little human interaction as possible.

Which of the following will you use to accomplish the task?

A. ImageX
B. System Preparation Tool 3.14
C. Setup Manager
D. Windows System Image Manager

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to accomplish the task, you should use Windows System Image Manager. Windows System Image Manager (Windows SIM) is a Windows Server 2016
tool to create Windows Server 2016 answer files. It saves unattended answer files in XML format. By using Windows SIM, administrators can verify that an
unattended answer file actually produces the desired result.
Windows SIM is included with the Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK). The answer file automatically provides the answers to the setup question:
configures and installs necessary software during the installation process.

Incorrect Answers:
A: ImageX is a command-line tool that captures, modifies, and applies installation images for deployment in a large environment. ImageX uses the Microsoft
Windows Imaging Format (WIM) image format. ImageX captures a volume to a WIM file and applies a WIM file to a volume.

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B: System Preparation Tool 3.14 (SYSPREP) is used to capture an image of the reference computer so that it can be used on multiple client computers.
SYSPREP 3.14 allows administrators to duplicate a custom image of the Windows Sever 2008/Vista/Windows 10 installation from a master computer to the
destination computers. The SYSPREP tool can be found in the % SystemRoot%\System32\Syseprep folder of the Windows Vista or Windows Server 2016
installation.

C: The Setup Manager tool can be used to create an answer file and to configure a limited number of answer file settings. It is included in the DEPLOY.CAB file in
the Support folder on the Windows Server 2003 operating system CD. Setup Manager is used only with the Windows XP Professional or Windows Server 2003
operating systems to create answer files for unattended installations.

QUESTION 8
You work as a System Administrator for company Inc. You have deployed a workstation and roll it out to production, but you find some issues with the video
display.

The display worked in the beginning when you first set up the system. The video has degraded to standard VGA 640x800 and its performance is badly affected
after applying several system and driver updates.

What is the most likely cause of this issue?

A. The video adapter is not properly placed on the system board.

B. The video card is not enabled on the system.
C. You need to upgrade RAM according to the video driver.
D. You have installed an unsigned video driver.

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the given scenario, the video problem occurred because of the installation of an unsigned video driver. For better performance, you should always use a device
driver that is signed by Microsoft. Unsigned drivers are not compatible with all systems. They may be poorly written and may include viruses or malware.

Incorrect Answers:
A, B: If the video adapter is not properly placed on the system board or the video card is not enabled, you do not get the video clip in the beginning when you first
set up the system.
C: It is not required to upgrade RAM.

QUESTION 9
Which of the following provides a minimum server environment?

A. Virtualization
B. Windows PE
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C. BareMetal Server
D. Server Core

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 10
DRAG DROP

You work as a Network Administrator for Bluewell Inc. The company has decided to install a version of Windows Server 2016 Server Core onto a new machine.
Your manager has asked you for a list of the server roles that can be installed on a Server Core installation.

Choose the server roles from the column below that can be installed on the Server Core installation.

Select and Place:

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Correct Answer:

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Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Following is the list of server roles that can be installed on a machine with the help of Windows Server 2016 Server Core installation:
Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS): It allows administrators to perform routine maintenance tasks on domain controllers without affecting the required
services (for example, DHCP).
Active Directory Lightweight Directory Service (ADLDS): This is a Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) directory service. It provides the Active Directory
services to directory-enabled applications. It provides Active Directory Domain Services without requiring the deployment of domains or domain controllers. DHCP
Server: This server is used for running the DHCP services. DHCP is the server on the network that assigns TCP/IP information to your computer dynamically.
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DNS Server: DNS Server has the DNS services running on it. DNS is a named resolution service which turns hostname into TCP/IP address (process known as
Forward Looping). DNS also has the ability to turn a TCP/IP address into a name (known as reverse looping).
Hyper-V: Windows Server 2016 Hyper-V is a server virtualization technology. Hyper-V allows users to configure multiple server roles on a single computer as
virtual machines (VMs). Hyper-V enables users to run multiple, different operating systems such as Windows, Linux, etc., in parallel on a computer.
Web Server IIS: Microsoft Internet Information Server (IIS) is a Web and application server for the Internet and private intranets. IIS receives requests from users
on the network using the World Wide Web (WWW) service and transmits information using the Hypertext Transport Protocol (HTTP). IIS uses Microsoft
Transaction Server (MTS) to provide security, performance, and scalability with server side packages.

QUESTION 11
What program should you run if you decide to clone a hard drive of Windows Server 2016?

A. Sysinfo
B. Sysconf
C. Sysprep
D. Format

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If you create a cloned copy of Windows and apply it to multiple computers, each copy cloned to a target computer using the same image has the same parameters,
including computer name and security identifier (SID).
To overcome this problem, run the system preparation tool (sysprep), which removes the security identifiers and all other user-specific or computer-specific
information from the computer before you run the disk-cloning software to make the cloned disk image.

QUESTION 12
What type of installation requires little interaction?

A. unattended installation
B. pre-build installation
C. deployment installation
D. hands-off installation

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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An unattended installation requires little interaction to install. To perform an unattended installation of Windows, use an answer file, an XML file that stores the
answers for a series of graphical user interface (GUI) dialog boxes.

QUESTION 13
What technology allows you to perform network-based unattended installation of Windows operating systems, including Windows Server 2016?

A. WDS
B. RIS
C. SMB
D. HTTP

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Windows Deployment Services (WDS) is a Microsoft technology for network-based installation of Windows operating systems.
You can fully automate and customize the deployment of Windows through the use of unattended installation scripting files.

QUESTION 14
Which of the following image file formats can be deployed using Windows Server 2016? (Choose three.)

A. GHO
B. WIM
C. PXE
D. VHD
E. VHDX

Correct Answer: BDE

Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Windows Server 2016 WDS supports WIM, VHD and VHDX files.

QUESTION 15
What type of driver is tested and includes a digital certificate?

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A. published B.
certified
C. compliant
D. signed

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A signed device driver includes a digital signature, which is an electronic security mark that can indicate the software publisher and information that can show
whether a driver has been altered. When Microsoft signs it, the driver has been thoroughly tested to ensure that it will not cause problems with the system's
reliability or cause a security problem.

QUESTION 16
Which of the following is true about drivers and Windows Server 2016?

A. Drivers must be signed.

B. Drivers must be registered by the PnP Society.
C. Drivers must include 32-bit and 64-bit support.
D. Drivers must be multilingual.

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Drivers included on the Windows installation DVD or downloaded from Microsoft's update website are digitally signed. A driver that lacks a valid digital signature or
was altered after it was signed cannot be installed on 64-bit versions of Windows. If you have problems with a device driver, download only drivers that are from
Microsoft's update website or the manufacturer's website.

QUESTION 17
You install Microsoft SQL Server 2016 on a computer that is running Windows Server 2016 Standard.
Which type of application service does this provide?

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A. Email
B. Collaboration
C. Database
D. Network monitoring

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 18
What is one advantage of application virtualization?

A. reduced network traffic

B. hardware consolidation
C. improved collaboration
D. fewer operating system updates

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 19
You replace the power supply in a computer running Windows Server 2016. You power on the computer. The power supply passes the Power-On Self-Test.
Which step in next in the start-up process?
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A. System hardware is detected and configured.
B. The boot sector is accessed and executed.
C. The BIOS code is loaded.
D. The Master Boot Record (MBR) is accessed.

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server installation
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: http://www.c-
jump.com/CIS24/Slides/Booting/Booting.html

QUESTION 20
Which file extension indicates a Hyper-V virtual disk file?

A. . xml
B. . vhd
C. ,vud
D. . vsd

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 21
You need to centralize management of network printers. You also need to enable users to choose a printer based on location.

What should you do?

A. Create multiple print servers

B. Publish the printers in Active Directory
C. Set up Web printing
D. Create a printer pool

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles

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Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Publishing your shared printers in Active Directory can make locating printers across a network more efficient for your users.

QUESTION 22
What must you install in order to host a Web site on a Windows Server?

A. Active Directory Sites and Services

B. Windows Internet Naming Service (WINS)
C. Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)
D. Internet Information Server (IIS)

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 23
Which technology uses digital certificates for secure communications over the Internet?

A. Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN)

B. Internet Service Manager (ISM)
C. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
D. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
QUESTION 24
What is required for a computer to print to either a local or a network printer?

A. 500 GB of free hard disk space

B. Printer Device Drivers

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C. 1 GB of RAM
D. Administration tools

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 25
You need to manage a Windows Server 2016 server from a Windows client computer by using a Management Console.

What should you install on the client computer?

A. Remote Assistance
B. Remote Server Administration Tools
C. Windows Server Resource Kit
D. Microsoft Office SharePoint Server

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Example: Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows 8.1 enables IT administrators to manage roles and features that are installed on computers that are
running Windows Server 2012 or Windows Server 2012 R2 from a remote computer that is running Windows 8.1 Pro or Windows 8.1 Enterprise.

QUESTION 26
You enable Remote Desktop.

Which group will be granted access by default?

A. Domain users group
B. Remote access security group
C. Local administrators group
D. Local users group

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation
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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Configure Remote Desktop Access on Windows 10 Systems
Remote Desktop is not enabled by default. You must specifically enable it to allow remote access to the workstation. When it is enabled, any member of the [local]
Administrators group can connect to the workstation. Other users must be placed on a remote access list to gain access to the workstation.

QUESTION 27
Which technology provides both e-mail and database services?

A. Windows Server Enterprise Edition

B. Microsoft Office Communications Server
C. Windows Server Essentials
D. Microsoft Project Server

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Windows Server Essentials (formerly Windows Small Business Server or SBS) is an integrated server suite from Microsoft designed for running network
infrastructure (both intranet management and Internet access) of small and midsize businesses having no more than 25 users or 50 devices. Application server
technologies are tightly integrated to provide and offer management benefits such as integrated setup, enhanced monitoring, Remote Web Workplace, a unified
management console, and remote access.

QUESTION 28
Which technology is used to create and manage relational databases?

A. Microsoft Exchange Server

B. Microsoft Commerce Server
C. Microsoft Groove Server
D. Microsoft SQL Server

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

SQL Server databases are relational.

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QUESTION 29
You need to centralize administration of print servers and network printers.

What should you use?

A. Print Management
B. Printers and Faxes
C. Device Manager
D. Print queue

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are two primary tools that you can use to administer a Windows print server in Windows Server 2016: Server Manager and Print Management.

QUESTION 30
Which Hyper-V network type shares the host's physical network adapter?

A. External
B. Public
C. Private
D. Internal

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For Hyper-V host networking, the most common option is to create an external access virtual switch. This allows VMs on the host to access other systems on a
traditional VLAN or standard switched network.

QUESTION 31
The University Chess Club has a single Windows Server 2016 server. The server has 12 GB of RAM and 1TB of disk space on a RAID 5 array. Using this server,
you need to install two separate instances of Windows Server 2016: one to act as a web server and one to act as a database server.

Which Windows Server 2016 role or feature provides this capability?

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A. Windows Deployment Services
B. Hyper-V
C. Windows System Resource Manager
D. Windows Internal Database

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Hyper-V can create virtual machines on x86-64 systems.
Starting with Windows 8, Hyper-V supersedes Windows Virtual PC as the hardware virtualization component of the client editions of Windows NT. A server
computer running Hyper-V can be configured to expose individual virtual machines to one or more networks.

QUESTION 32
You are an IT intern for Tailspin Toys.

Your manager attends a conference out of town and wants you to perform routine maintenance directly on a Windows Server 2016 server console.

Because you have restricted access, you need your manager to enter credentials at a UAC prompt in your session.

What should you do?

A. Have your manager use Server Manager to connect to the server.

B. Have your manager use Remote Administration to connect to the server.
C. Send a Remote Assistance request to your manager.
D. Have your manager use Remote Desktop to connect to the server.

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With Remote Assistance the manager can take control of your computer and enter the password.

Note: Remote Assistance enables a trusted person (a friend, support person, or IT administrator) to remotely and activelyassistssomeone with a computer
problem. The helper (also called an expert) can view the screen of the user requesting assistance and offer advice. With the permission of the user, the helper can
take control of the user's computer and perform tasks remotely.

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References: Administering Remote Assistance https://technet.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/bb456978.aspx

QUESTION 33
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

The minimum permission needed to delete other users' documents from a print queue is "Print".

Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement
correct.

A. Manage Documents
B. Manage Printers
C. Deny
D. No change is needed

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Manage documents. If you have this permission, you can manage all jobs for a printer that are waiting in the print queue, including documents or files that are
being printed by other users.
Incorrect Answers:
D: With print permissions you can only delete your own documents.

References: http://windows.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-vista/what-are-printer-permissions

QUESTION 34
You use group policy to manage users and computers in your Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2016.

You need to see what effect the applied group policies are having on an individual computer.

What should you use?

A. Local Users and Groups

B. Resultant Set of Policy
C. Local Security Policy

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D. Effective Permissions

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If you would like to find out what group policy settings are applied to a user, you can use Resultant Set of Policy. You’ll find this tool in the Group Policy
Management Console. This tool evaluates all the group policies that apply to the user and lists the resultant settings that are applied from the group policies.

QUESTION 35
You need to grant a set of users permissions to a specific folder.

Where should you place the user accounts?

A. Domain root
B. Security group
C. Shared folder
D. Organizational Unit

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You can use security groups to group users who need the same permissions to a folder. Permissions applied to the security group are applied to all members of
the group.

QUESTION 36
You manage the servers for the School of Business at your university. The school has a Hyper-V server that runs three virtual machines (VMs). Each VM runs
Windows Server 2016.

You need to apply the latest Windows server updates to each of the VMs. You need to be able to revert the servers back to their original state before applying the
updates.

Which Microsoft Virtualization feature should you use?

A. Live Migration
B. Checkpoints

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C. VHD Virtual Hard Disks
D. Failover Cluster

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Checkpoints (formerly called snapshots) provide a fast and easy way to revert the virtual machine to a previous state.

QUESTION 37
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

"Microsoft App-V" can make applications available to end user computers without having to install the applications on those computers.

Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select 'No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement
correct.

A. Microsoft Hyper-V
B. DirectAccess
C. Windows Deployment Services
D. No change is needed.

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Microsoft Application Virtualization (MS App-V) platform allows applications to be deployed ("streamed") in real-time to any client from a virtual application server. It
removes the need for traditional local installation of the applications.

References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Microsoft_App-V

QUESTION 38
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

The default security permission assigned to Everyone when a new share is created is "change".

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Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement
correct.

A. Read
B. Full control
C. None
D. No change is needed.

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Read is the default permission.

QUESTION 39
HOTSPOT

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

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Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 40
You are an IT technician for a company that has an environment consisting entirely of computers running Windows Server 2016 or Windows 10. Your network is
configured as an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain.

You need to establish a secure method that allows employees to work remotely but still have access to the internal network resources.

What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Choose two.)

A. Offline Files
B. DirectAccess
C. Network Access Protection (NAP)
D. Virtual Private Network (VPN)
E. Distributed File System (DFS) Namespace
F. Remote Desktop

Correct Answer: BD
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
B: DirectAccess, also known as Unified Remote Access, is a VPN-like technology that provides intranet connectivity to client computers when they are connected
to the Internet.
D: The remote users can get secure remote access through VPN.
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References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DirectAccess

QUESTION 41
Which of the following are the levels of printer permissions provided by Windows Server 2016? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose
three.)

A. Manage documents
B. Print
C. Reload the printer
D. Manage this printer

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
There are three levels of printer permissions provided by Windows Server 2016: Print: It permits users to send documents to the printer.
Manage this printer: It permits users to modify printer settings and configurations. Manage documents: It gives the ability to cancel, pause, resume, or restart a
print lob.

Incorrect Answers:
C: There is no such level of printer permission in Windows Server 2016 as reload the printer.
QUESTION 42
Which of the following servers is used to store and forward e-mail messages using several protocols, including SMTP, POP3, and IMAP?

A. File server
B. Monitoring server
C. Database server
D. Mail server

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A mail server is a program used to store and forward e-mail messages using several protocols, including SMTP, POP3, and IMAP. A mail server is also recognized
by the names, such as a mail transfer agent or MTA, a mail transport agent, a mail router, and an Internet mailer. It works with other programs to build a
messaging system.
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Incorrect Answers:
A: A file server on a network is a computer configured to provide a central network location for users to store files and share them with other users on the network.

B: A monitoring server is used to monitor the network and servers for intruders or other security breaches.

C: A database server is a computer program that provides database services to other computer programs or computers, as defined by the client-server model. The
term may also refer to a computer dedicated to running such a program. Database management systems frequently provide database server functionality, and
some DBMSs (e.g., MySQL) rely exclusively on the client-server model for database access.

QUESTION 43
Adam works as a Software Tester for SecureEnet Inc. He is required to test the software on different operating systems. Adam installs Windows 10 on his laptop,
which enables him to create, mount, and boot from VHD files.

Which of the following statements are true about Virtual Hard Disk (VHD)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose three.)

A. VHD can be used to install a wide variety of operating systems.

B. VHD allows multiple operating systems to reside on a single host machine
C. VHDs are implemented as files that reside on the native host file system.
D. VHD is a file formatted to be structurally different to a physical Hard Disk Drive.

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A Virtual Hard Disk (VHD) is a file formatted to be structurally identical to a physical Hard Disk Drive. It is typically used in various virtualization packages, and can
be used to install a wide variety of operating systems.
A Virtual Hard Disk allows multiple operating systems to reside on a single host machine. This method enables developers to test software on different operating
systems.
VHDs are implemented as files that reside on the native host file system.
Native VHD Boot refers to the ability of a physical computer to mount and boot from an operating system contained within a VHD. Windows 10 supports this ability
using VHDX files, both with and without a host operating system to be present.

QUESTION 44
Which of the following statements regarding the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) security model are true? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
(Choose two.)

A. The server always authenticates the client.

B. The client can optionally authenticate the server.
C. The server can optionally authenticate the client.
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D. The client always authenticates the server.

Correct Answer: CD
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In the SSL model of security, the client always authenticates the server, and the server has the option to authenticate the client. In normal circumstances, Web
servers do not authenticate the client during the handshake process. The verification of the client can be done externally from the SSL session to reserve precious
processing resources for encrypted transactions.
The following image shows the steps SSL takes during the handshake process:

QUESTION 45
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a virtual server hosted on a Windows Server 2016 server with the Hyper-V role installed.

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You have upgraded an application on the virtual server. You experience that this upgrade causes problems. Now, you want to quickly revert back to the point
before the changes are made.

Which of the following will you use to accomplish the task?

A. Virtual Server Migration Toolkit

B. Checkpoints
C. Windows System Resource Manager
D. Logical unit number

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to accomplish the task, you should use checkpoints. Snapshots have been improved in Windows Server 2016 and are now called checkpoints.
Checkpoints are files that contain the configuration and data in a virtualized machine.
The Hyper-V Manager Console provides the facility to take a snapshot of a virtual machine running under Hyper-V. This snapshot can be used to quickly roll-back
the instance of an operating system when the snapshot was taken. In state of any disaster such as malfunctioning virtual machine, these snapshots are very
helpful to recover from such situations.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The Virtual Server Migration Toolkit (VSMT), a command-line-based tool provided by Windows Server 2016, is used to migrate existing servers in the network
environment to a virtualized partition of Windows Server 2016. VSMT has been specially designed for administrators to handle small number of servers that needs
to be virtualized.
It however, cannot be used to manage these servers. It uses XML files to store configuration data during the migration process. The tool is compatible with both
the Hyper-V and the Virtual Server 2005 R2.

C: Windows System Resource Manager (WSRM) is a tool for resource management and enables the allocation of resources, including processor and memory
resources, among multiple applications based on business priorities. With WSRM, a system administrator can set CPU and memory allocation policies on
applications, manage CPU utilization, and apply policies to users or groups on a Terminal Services application server. WSRM also applies limits to process
working set size and committed memory consumption.

D: The logical unit number or LUN is the identifier of a SCSI logical unit, and by extension of a Fibre Channel or iSCSI logical unit. A logical unit is a SCSI protocol
entity, which performs classic storage operations such as read and write. Each SCSI target provides one or more logical units. A logical unit typically corresponds
to a storage volume and is represented within a computer operating system as a device.

QUESTION 46
David and Vivian work as Network Administrators for company Inc. David installs a printer on his Windows 10 computer. The printer will be shared on the network
and will be used only by the members of the Developers local group.

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David wants to accomplish the following goals:
Prevent all other members, except those of the Developers local group, from using the printer.
Members of the Developers local group will only manage print jobs sent by them.
Only he and Vivian will manage the printer and all print jobs.

David takes the following steps:

Grant the Allow-Print permission to the Developers local group.
Grant the Allow-Manage Documents and Allow-Manage Printers permissions to Vivian's and his user accounts.

Which of the above stated goals will David accomplish?

A. Only the second goal will be accomplished.
B. Only the third goal will be accomplished.
C. Only the first and third goals will be accomplished.
D. Only the second and third goals will be accomplished.
E. All the three goals will be accomplished.
F. Only the first goal will be accomplished.
G. Only the first and second goals will be accomplished.

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Granting the Allow-Print permission to the Developers local group will allow members of the group to print. By default, the Everyone group has print permission.
This permission entry needs to be removed to meet the first goal.
When a printer is shared, all users by default can manage printing of their own documents. Therefore, the second goal is met.
David granted the Allow-Manage Documents and Allow-Manage Printers permissions to Vivian's and his user accounts to manage the documents printed by other
users. This meets the third goal.

QUESTION 47
Which of the following statements best describe the features of a fixed-size VHD? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)

A. It offers better performance by eliminating the fragmentation associated with the growing file.
B. It has a set amount of hard disk space and that amount does not change.
C. It uses the space that is being used currently by the VHD.
D. It provides a way to set up the VHD if hard drive space is limited on the server.

Correct Answer: AB

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Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Fixed-size VHDs have a set amount of hard disk space and that amount does not change. Fixed size means that each VHD is set to a specific hard drive storage
space and that space is taken by the system even if the VHD is less than what is set. As an example, if 16GB is designated to a fixed-size VHD, then all 16GB will
be taken by VHD on the hard disk immediately - regardless of how much the system is actually using.
The fixed-size VHD option offers better performance by eliminating the fragmentation associated with the growing file.
Incorrect Answers:
C, D: Dynamic VHDs only use the space that is being used currently by the VHD. So if a dynamic VHD is set to 20GB but the VHD is currently using only 10GB,
then 10 GB is all that is currently being used by the dynamic VHD. This is the way that a user wants to set up his VHD if hard drive space is limited on the server.

References:
MCTS Windows Server Virtualization Configuration Study Guide: Exam 70-652 By William Panek Page 69.

QUESTION 48
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 based network environment. There is a domain controller with
Windows Server 2016 installed on it.

You want to install the Hyper-V role for production server consolidation and business continuity management.

Which of the following are the prerequisites for installing the Hyper-V role? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose three.)

A. x32-based processor
B. GUI accelerator
C. Hardware-assisted virtualization
D. Hardware-enforced Data Execution Prevention
E. x64-based processor

Correct Answer: CDE

Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The prerequisites for installing the Hyper-V role are as follows:
An x64-based processor: Hyper-V is available in x64-based versions of Windows Server 2016 - specifically, the x64-based versions of Windows Server 2016
Enterprise, Windows Server 2016 Datacenter, and Windows Server 2016 Standard.
Hardware-enforced Data Execution Prevention (DEP): This should be both available and enabled. Specifically, a user should enable the Intel XD bit (execute
disable bit) or AMD NX bit (no execute bit).

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Hardware-assisted virtualization: It is available in processors that include a virtualization option - particularly, Intel Virtualization Technology (Intel VT) or AMD
Virtualization (AMD-V).

Incorrect Answers:
A, B: These are not prerequisites for installing Hyper-V.

QUESTION 49
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows 2016-based Active Directory network.
You are assigning NTFS permissions to the E:\Projects folder for the Marketing group. You want to ensure that the members of the Marketing group can list the
contents of the folder and read the data of files contained in the folder, but none of them can change or delete data from the folder.

Which of the following permissions will you apply?

A. Write
B. Full control
C. Read
D. Modify

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You should apply Read permission to the E:\Projects folder for the Marketing group. After applying this NTFS permission, the members of the Marketing group can
list the contents of the folder and read the data of files contained in the folder, but none of them can change or delete data from the folder.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Write permission allows users to write in files or folders.
B: Full Control permission allows users to make changes in files or folders.
D: Modify permission allows users to make changes in files and folders.

QUESTION 50
Which of the following statements best describe the features of a network printer? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)

A. Anyone in the network can use it to print only if the machine to which the printer is connected is switched on.
B. It is shared by more than one computer.
C. Print jobs can be sent only by the computer that is directly connected to the printer.
D. It is connected directly to a computer.

Correct Answer: AB
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Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A local printer is connected directly to a computer. On the local printer, print jobs can be sent only by the computer that is directly connected to the printer. A
network printer, on the other hand, is one that is shared by more than one computer. If the printer is shared, the printer becomes a network printer to those
machines connected on the network. However, users of other computers in the network will be able to print to that printer only if the machine to which printer is
connected is switched on.

QUESTION 51
You add Web Server support while installing the Application Server role on a computer running Windows Server 2016. Web Server support installs IIS (Internet
Information Services) on the server.

Which of the following benefits are provided by IIS? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose three.)

A. It is used to support ASP.NET applications accessed from a Web browser.

B. It is used to support Web services built with ASP.NET or WCF (Windows Communication Foundation).
C. It is used to disable Application Server to host external Websites with static or dynamic content.
D. It is used to enable Application Server to host internal Websites with static or dynamic content.

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The benefits of installing IIS in an application server are as follows:
It is used to enable Application Server to host internal or external Websites or services with static or dynamic content.
It is used to support ASP.NET applications accessed from a Web browser.
It is used to support Web services built with ASP.NET or WCF (Windows Communication Foundation).

QUESTION 52
Which of the following server roles offers various methods to provide users with local and remote network connectivity, to connect network segments, and to permit
network administrators to centrally manage network access and client health policies?

A. Active Directory Certificate Services

B. Network Policy and Access Services
C. Web Services
D. Terminal Services

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Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Network Policy and Access Services server role is a server role of Windows Server 2016. This server role offers various methods to provide users with local
and remote network connectivity, to connect network segments, and to permit network administrators to centrally manage network access and client health
policies.
These methods use VPN servers, dial-up servers, routers, and 802.11 protected WAP (wireless access point).

Incorrect Answers:
A: The Active Directory Certificate Services server role is a server role of Windows Server 2016. This server role offers services to create and manage public key
certificates that are used in software security systems. These software security systems use public key technologies to verify the identity of a person, device, or
service, which can be used by secure mail, secure wireless networks, VPNs, lPSec, EFS, smart card logon, and others.

C: The Web Services server role enables sharing of information on the Internet, an intranet, or an extranet through a unified Web platform. The unified Web
platform incorporates Internet Information Server (IIS) in order to provide Web pages, FTP services or newsgroups, ASP.NET, Windows Communication
Foundation, and Windows SharePoint Services.

D: The Terminal Services server role is a legacy role that allows a user to connect to a terminal server in order to remotely run programs, use network resources,
and access the Windows desktop on the server. Terminal Services is now called Remote Desktop Services.

QUESTION 53
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. You want all transactions to the storefront on the Web server to be encrypted.

Which of the following security protocols will you use to encrypt Web traffic?

A. L2TP
B. PPTPC. SSL
D. IPSec

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to encrypt Web traffic, you should use the SSL protocol. The Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a commonly-used protocol for managing the security of a
message transmission on the Internet. SSL has recently been succeeded by Transport Layer Security (TLS), which is based on SSL. SSL uses a program layer
located between the Internet's Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and Transport Control Protocol (TCP) layers. URLs that require an SSL connection start with
https: instead of http:.
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Incorrect Answers:
A: Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is a more secure version of Point-to- Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP). It provides tunneling, address assignment, and
authentication. It allows the transfer of Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) traffic between different networks. L2TP combines with IPSec to provide tunneling and
security for Internet Protocol (IP), Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX), and other protocol packets across IP networks.
B: Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) is a method for implementing virtual private networks. PPTP does not provide confidentiality or encryption. It relies on
the protocol being tunneled to provide privacy. It is used to provide secure, low-cost remote access to corporate networks through public networks such as the
Internet. Using PPTP, remote users can use PPP- enabled client computers to dial a local ISP and connect securely to the corporate network through the Internet.
PPTP has been made obsolete by Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) and IPSec.

D: Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) is a standard-based protocol that provides the highest level of VPN security. IPSec can encrypt virtually everything above the
networking layer. It is used for VPN connections that use the L2TP protocol. It secures both data and password. IPSec cannot be used with Point-to-Point
Tunneling Protocol (PPTP).

QUESTION 54
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows 2016-based Active Directory network. You are assigning effective permissions
to the Tasks folder.

Which of the following factors will you use to determine effective permissions? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose three.)

A. Local privileges
B. Anonymous logon
C. Global group membership
D. Local permissions
E. Enterprise domain controllers

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to determine effective permissions, you should use the following factors:

Local permissions
Local privileges
Global group membership
Local group membership
Universal group membership

Incorrect Answers:
B, E: These factors are not used to determine effective permissions.

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QUESTION 55
Which of the following services provide network access over the Internet using a virtual private network so that a user can access his internal network resources,
such as e-mails and data files?

A. Remote access services

B. Application services
C. Monitoring services
D. File services

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Remote access is a service that maintains several inbound requests while connecting servers or networks. It provides terminal services to log on to a server
remotely and access a desktop, the start menu, and a program easily from anywhere. Remote access also provides network access over the Internet using a
virtual private network so that a user can access his internal network resources, such as e-mails and data files.

Incorrect Answers:
B: Application services provide an integrated environment to deploy and run various applications.
D: File services define various settings for files stored in a computer system.
C: Monitoring services are used to troubleshoot various system related issues.

QUESTION 56
You work as a System Administrator in SunInfo Inc. The company uses System Center Data Protection Manager 2012 R2 for data protection.

You want to protect data that is part of a Distributed File System (DFS) namespace hierarchy.

How will you select file shares for effective protection in this scenario?

A. By their server-specific local paths.

B. Through DNS namespace.
C. Through DFS namespace paths.
D. By selecting multiple targets.

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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Explanation:
You can protect data in a Distributed File System (DFS) namespace hierarchy using DPM. However, you cannot select file shares for protection through their DFS
namespace paths. You can select shares for protection by their server-specific local paths.

Incorrect Answers:
B: The Domain Name System (DNS) is a hierarchical naming system for computers, services, or any resource connected to the Internet or a private network.
C: DPM does not provide protection of shares through DFS namespace paths.
D: For effectively protecting data, if your namespace includes links or roots that have multiple targets with the same data, you should protect only one target.

QUESTION 57
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows-based network environment with client computers running Windows 10 and a

Windows Server 2016 server.

The company uses an order-processing application that accesses customer records stored in a database. The application accesses customer information through
a set of WCF Web services.

Which of the following server roles will you configure on the server used in your organization?

A. Windows Server Virtualization

B. Network Policy and Access Services
C. Application Server
D. DHCP Server

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You should configure the Windows Server 2016 computer as an application server. Application Server is an expanded server role of Windows Server 2016 that
simplifies the process of deploying applications that respond to requests sent over the network from remote applications. Windows Server 2016 provides support
for applications by enhancing application availability and accessibility through the Application Server role. The Application Server role provides environment for
deploying and running line-of-business (LOB) applications that are built with the Microsoft .NET Framework version 3.0.
The features provided by Application Server role are provided in the table below:

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During the server role installation, administrators select services that support applications that are designed to use COM+, Message Queuing, Web services, and
distributed transactions. Microsoft recommends installing the Application Server role when a custom business application is deployed on the network and the
developer has indicated that specific role services are required.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The Windows Server Virtualization role offers services for creating and managing virtual machines and their resources.

B: Network Policy and Access Services (NPAS) is a server role in W indows Server 2008.
The role is a logical grouping of the following related network access technologies:

Network Policy Server (NPS)

Routing and Remote Access
Health Registration Authority (HRA)
Host Credential Authorization Protocol (HCAP)

These technologies are the role services of the NPAS server role. The NPAS server role allows administrators to deploy and operate a virtual private network
(VPN), dial-up networking, 802.1x protected wired and wireless access, and Cisco Network Admission Control (NAC)-based devices.

D: The DHCP Server role allows you to centrally manage IP addresses and related information. This also allows you to configure client network settings at a server
rather than configuring them on each client computer.

QUESTION 58
Which of the following is a web server application and set of feature extension modules created by Microsoft for use with Microsoft Windows?

A. Secure Sockets Layer

B. File Transfer Protocol
C. Internet Information Services
D. World Wide Web
Correct Answer: C

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Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Internet Information Services (IIS) is a web server application and set of feature extension modules created by Microsoft for use with Microsoft Windows. It is the
world's second most popular web server in terms of overall websites behind the industry leader Apache HTTP Server.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a commonly-used protocol for managing the security of a message transmission on the Internet. SSL has recently been
succeeded by Transport Layer Security (TLS), which is based on SSL. SSL uses a program layer located between the Internet's Hypertext Transfer Protocol
(HTTP) and Transport Control Protocol (TCP) layers. URLs that require an SSL connection start with https: instead of http:.

B: File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a standard network protocol used to copy a file from one host to another over a TCP/IP-based network, such as the Internet. FTP
is built on a client- server architecture and utilizes separate control and data connections between the client and server applications, which solves the problem of
different end host configurations (i.e., Operating System, file names). FTP is used with user-based password authentication or with anonymous user access.

D: The World Wide Web is abbreviated as WWW and commonly known as the Web. It is a system of interlinked hypertext documents that can be accessed
through the Internet. With WWW, anyone can view Web pages that contain text, images, videos, and other multimedia and navigate between them using
hyperlinks.

QUESTION 59
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has an Active Directory Domain Services (ADDS) domain. All servers of the company run
Windows Server 2016 and all client computers run Windows 10.

You want to facilitate authorized remote users to connect to resources on an internal network from any Internet-connected device that is used to run the Remote
Desktop Connection (RDC) client.

Which of the following will you deploy to accomplish the task?

A. RD Connection Broker
B. RD Licensing
C. RD Web Access
D. RD Gateway

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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In order to accomplish the task, you should deploy RD Gateway. Remote Desktop Gateway (RD Gateway), previously known as Terminal Services Gateway (TS
Gateway), is a role service in the Remote Desktop Services server role which is included with Windows Server 2016 Operating System. It is used to facilitate
authorized remote users to connect to resources on an internal or private network, from any Internet-connected device that is used to run the Remote Desktop
Connection (RDC) client.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Remote Desktop Connection Broker (RD Connection Broker is used to grant users access to RemoteApp and Desktop Connection. RemoteApp and Desktop
Connection are used to grant users an aggregated view of RemoteApp programs, session-based desktops, and virtual desktops to users at specific levels. RD
Connection Broker is also used to support load balancing and reconnection to Remote Desktop sessions, and RemoteApp programs that can also be accessed by
using RemoteApp and Desktop Connection.

B: Remote Desktop Licensing (RD Licensing) is a role service in the Remote Desktop Services server role included within Windows Server 2016. RD Licensing is
used to manage the Remote Desktop Services client access licenses (RDS CALs) that are required for particular device or client to connect to a Remote Desktop
Session Host (RD Session Host) server. The client uses Remote Desktop Licensing Manager (RD Licensing Manager) to install and track the actual availability of
RDS CALs on a Remote Desktop license server.

C: Remote Desktop Web Access (RD Web Access) is used to enable users to access RemoteApp and Desktop Connection via Start menu on a computer that is
either running Windows 10 or through a Web browser. RemoteApp and Desktop Connection are used to provide a customized view of RemoteApp programs and
virtual desktops to the users.

QUESTION 60
You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 network environment.

The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single domain network. You use Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) to
replicate SYSVOL.

Which of the following statements are true about Distributed File System Replication (DFSR)? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose
three.)

A. It makes use of a staging folder for staging the file before the file is send or received.
B. It can detect insertions, removals, and rearrangement of data in files.
C. It is considered a statebased, multimaster replication engine that is used in replication scheduling and bandwidth throttling.
D. It replicates the entire file when a file is changed.

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Distributed File System Replication (DFSR) is considered a state-based, multimaster replication engine that is used in replication scheduling and bandwidth
throttling. It can detect insertions, removals, and rearrangement of data in files. This permits DFSR to replicate the file blocks that are changed when files get
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updated. It detects changes on the volume using the Update Sequence Number journal, and then DFSR replicates changes only after the file is closed. It makes
use of a staging folder for staging the file before the file is sent or received. The RDC protocol supports in finding the blocks that have changed in the file.

Incorrect Answers:
D: DFSR does not replicate the entire file when a file is changed. It replicates only the changed blocks when the file is changed.

References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-
us/library/windows/desktop/bb540031(v=vs.85).aspx

QUESTION 61
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. While designing Windows Server 2016 for your organization, you need to define a server role that allows a

user to run more than one operating system simultaneously.

Which of the following server roles will you define?

A. Windows Deployment Services

B. Active Directory Rights Management Services
C. Active Directory Federation Services
D. Hyper-V

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to allow a user to run more than one operating system simultaneously, you should define the Hyper-V server role. The Hyper-V server role is a server role
of Windows Server 2016. This server role offers services for creating and managing virtual machines and their resources. A virtual machine is a computer system
that allows a user to run more than one operating system simultaneously.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The Windows Deployment Services server role allows installing and configuring Microsoft Windows operating systems remotely on computers with PXE boot
ROMs.
B: The Active Directory Rights Management Services server role enables applications to help safeguard digital information from unauthorized use by specifying
who can use the information and what they can do with it.
C: The Active Directory Federation Services server role offers Web SSO technologies for authenticating a user to access multiple Web applications using a single
user account.

QUESTION 62

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You work as a System Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows 2016 domain-based network. The network contains 200 Windows 10 client
computers and seven member servers running Windows Server 2016.

A file lies in the Project folder, which has Read NTFS permission. You move this file in the Task folder, which has Write NTFS permission. Both the Project and
Task folders are placed in the same volume.

Which of the following NTFS permissions does the file have after being copied?

A. Read
B. Modify
C. Write
D. Full Control

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When a file is moved from one folder to the other folder within the same volume, the file retains the same NTFS permissions as previously assigned to it. According
to the given scenario, the file has Read NTFS permission after being copied from the Project folder to the Task folder.

Incorrect Answers:
B, D: There are no Full Control and Modify permissions on any of the folder, hence these answer options have nothing to do with the scenario.
C: The file has Write permission if you move the file from one volume to another volume.

QUESTION 63
What program allows you to view and interact with a user’s sessions while a user is showing an error?

A. Remote Desktop
B. Remote Assistance
C. Control Panel
D. SysInfo

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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Remote Assistance is designed for support personnel to connect to an active logon session to assist or troubleshoot a problem. Unlike Remote Desktop, Remote
Assistance allows the user to interact with the current session, including seeing the same computer screen.

QUESTION 64
Which service needs to be running on a Windows server so that it can provide file sharing?

A. Workstation
B. Server
C. IIS
D. MMC

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Server service supports file, print, and named-piped sharing over the network. If the Server service is not started, you can't access shared folders, including
administrative shares such as C$ and IPC$.

QUESTION 65
Which resource record used in DNS translates host names to IP addresses?

A. SOA
B. A
C. PTR
D. MX

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A (host address) provides a hostname to an IPv4 address; AAA (host address) provides a hostname to an IPv6 address.

QUESTION 66
What permissions are directly assigned to a file or folder?
A. explicit permissions
B. inherited permissions

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C. assigned permissions
D. booted permissions

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Two types of permissions are used in NTFS. Explicit permissions are those granted directly to a file or folder.

QUESTION 67
What permission always wins out?

A. Explicit Allow Full Control

B. Explicit Deny Full Control
C. Inherited Allow Full Control
D. Inherited Deny Full Control

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Besides granting the Allow permissions, you can also grant the Deny permission. The Deny permission always overrides other permissions that have been
granted, including when a user or group has been given Full Control.

QUESTION 68
What happens to a file's permissions if you copy it from one volume to another?

A. The file will have the permissions as before.

B. The file will acquire the permissions of the target folder.
C. The file will acquire the permissions of the source folder.
D. The file will have no permissions.

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
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Explanation:
If a folder or file is copied, the new folder or file will automatically acquire the permissions of the drive or folder to which it is being copied.

QUESTION 69
What happens to the permissions of a file if you move the file to a folder within the same volume?

A. The file will have the permissions as before.

B. The file will acquire the permissions of the target folder.
C. The file will acquire the permissions of the source folder.
D. The file will have no permissions.

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
If a folder or file is moved within the same volume, the folder or file will retain the same permissions that were already assigned.

QUESTION 70
What technology is used to encrypt an individual file or folder?

A. DFS
B. EFS
C. CIFS
D. SMB

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Encrypting File System (EFS) is a core file encryption technology used to store encrypted files on NTFS file system volumes. Encrypted files cannot be used
unless a user has access to the keys required to decrypt the information. After a file is encrypted, you do not have to manually decrypt it before you can use it.
QUESTION 71
What is the minimum share permission needed to modify files and its attributes?

A. Full Control
B. Change

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C. Write
D. Write

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Change permission give users the Read permission and the additional capability to create files and subfolders, modify files, change attributes on files and
subfolders, and delete files and subfolders.

QUESTION 72
What shares are usually hidden and are used for administrative purposes?

https://vceplus.com/

A. denied view share

B. explicit share
C. magic share
D. administrative share

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An administrative share is a shared folder typically used for administrative purposes and usually hidden. To make any shared folder or drive hidden, the share
name must have a $ at the end of it.

QUESTION 73
By default, what port does a TCP/IP printer port use?
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A. 443
B. 8080
C. 3128
D. 9100

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A TCP/IP printer port is used to connect a printer directly to a network. It uses host port 9100 to communicate.

QUESTION 74
What is the minimum permission needed to print to a printer and to manage your own print jobs?

A. Print
B. Manage this Printer
C. Manage Documents
D. Full Control

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Print permission allows users to send documents to the printer. Users automatically have the permission to manage their print jobs.

QUESTION 75
What port does Internet Printing use?

A. 80
B. 9100
C. 443 D. 1801

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When you print using Internet Printing, you are printing using HTTP commands. Therefore, you are using port 80.

QUESTION 76
What do you call permissions that are actually granted to a user when a user logs on and accesses the particular file or folder?

A. Explicit Permissions
B. Effective Permissions
C. Inherited Permissions
D. Zone Permissions

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Because users can be members of several groups, they can possibly have several sets of explicit permissions for a particular folder or file. When this occurs, the
permissions are combined to form the effective permissions, which are the actual permissions when logging in and accessing a file or folder. These consist of
explicit permissions plus any inherited permissions.

QUESTION 77
What do you do with a folder that you do not have permissions to and you need to access immediately?

A. Take Ownership
B. Reset Permissions
C. Access Control List
D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An object's owner controls how permissions are set on the object and to whom permissions are granted. If for some reason you have been denied access to a
file or folder, you need to reset the permissions by taking ownership of the file or folder and modifying the permissions. All administrators automatically have the
Take Ownership permission of all NTFS objects.

QUESTION 78
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What is the recommended share permission and NTFS permission you should assign to a folder that you shared?

A. Full Control
B. Read
C. Write
D. List Folder & Execute

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
As with NTFS, you can allow or deny each share permission. To simplify managing share and NTFS permissions, Microsoft recommends giving Everyone Full
Control at the share level, and then controlling access via NTFS permissions.

QUESTION 79
What type of server serves HTML files to clients?

A. web server
B. FTP server
C. SMB server
D. application server

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The World Wide Web is a system of interlinked hypertext documents known as web pages that can be viewed with a web browser such as Internet Explorer. Those
pages are provided by a web server.

QUESTION 80
By default, what port does a web server use?

A. 80
B. 8080
C. 489
D. 21

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Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When you view web pages, you are connecting to the web server using TCP port 80.

QUESTION 81
By default, what port does a web server use when using SSL?

A. 80
B. 8080
C. 443
D. 21

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Because personal information such as credit-card numbers can be sent over the Internet, a supplemental protocol was developed called Secure Sockets Layer
(SSL). This protocol uses TCPport443, which uses a digital certificate to encrypt the packet so that it cannot be read by anyone else except the source and target.
When you use SSL, the browser URL starts with https (for example, https://www.acme.com).

QUESTION 82
What technology is used to link two computers or sites over the Internet while providing a secure connection?
A. FTP B.
SMTP
C. VPN
D. telnet

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Virtual private networks (VPNs) link two computers through a wide-area network such as the Internet. To keep the connection secure, the data sent between the
two computers is encapsulated and encrypted.
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QUESTION 83
What does L2TP use to encrypt data?

A. IPSec
B. PPTP
C. MPPE
D. SSTP

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 84
Which form of authentication sends username and password in clear text?

A. PAP
B. CHAP
C. MS-CHAP
D. EAP

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Password Authentication Protocol (PAP) uses plain text (unencrypted passwords). PAP is the least secure authentication and is not recommended.

QUESTION 85
What popular application is used to access a Windows server remotely?

A. remote assistance
B. remote desktop
C. TELNET
D. SSH

Correct Answer: B

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Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
With early networks, users utilized dumb terminals (systems consisting of a monitor and keyboard without a processor) to connect to a mainframe. Later,
computers could use TELNET to connect to a server and execute commands at a command prompt. Remote Desktop Services, formerly known as Terminal
Services, is one component of Microsoft Windows that allows users to access applications and data on remote computers over a network.

QUESTION 86
What is Microsoft's virtualization server called?

A. RRAS B.
VPN
C. Telnet
D. Hyper-V

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Virtualization has become quite popular during the last few years.
By using virtual machine technology, you can run multiple operating systems concurrently on a single machine, which allows separation of services while keeping
costs to a minimum.
It can also be used to create Windows test systems in a safe, self-contained environment. Microsoft Hyper-V is a hypervisor-based virtualization system for 64-bit
computers starting with Windows Server 2016.

QUESTION 87
What technology is used to consolidate multiple servers onto one large physical server?

A. Virtual Machine Technology

B. V-Farm Technology
C. Instance Technology
D. VHD

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By using virtual machine technology, you can run multiple operating systems concurrently on a single machine, which allows separation of services while keeping
costs minimal.
It can also be used to create Windows test systems in a safe, self-contained environment.

QUESTION 88
What two ports does FTP use?

A. 20 and 21
B. 21 and 22
C. 20 and 22
D. 21 and 25

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
FTP uses TCP ports 20 and 21. Port 20 is used for control, while port 21 is used for data transfer.

QUESTION 89
What port does Remote Desktop and Remote Assistance use?
A. 1471
B. 3389
C. 4043
D. 8080

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To access a computer running Remote Desktop Services, you use Remote Desktop Connections to access a computer's graphical user interface, including the
desktop, start menu, and programs, just as if you were sitting in front of the computer. Two technologies that allow you to remotely access a computer's desktop
are Remote Desktop and Remote Assistance over TCP port 3389.

QUESTION 90
A domain controller that is designated to perform a set of specialized domain controller tasks is commonly referred to as a/an:
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A. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS) server
B. Operations Master
C. Organizational Unit
D. Primary domain controller

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Operations Master Roles
The five operations master roles are assigned automatically when the first domain controller in a given domain is created.

QUESTION 91
What is the minimum Windows Server version on which Hyper-V can be installed?

A. 2016 64-bit
B. 2012 64-bit
C. 2008 32-bit
D. 2008 64-bit

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Hyper-V, formerly known as Windows Server Virtualization, is a native hypervisor that enables platform virtualization on x86-64 systems. A beta version of Hyper-V
was shipped with certain x86-64 editions of Windows Server 2008, and a finalized version (automatically updated through Windows Update) was released on June
26, 2008.

QUESTION 92
What is the default port for HTTPS?

A. 21
B. 80
C. 135
D. 443

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Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server roles
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
43, TCP, Hypertext Transfer Protocol over TLS/SSL (HTTPS)

QUESTION 93
Your network includes Windows Server 2012 R2 and Windows Server 2016 domain controllers. You need to ensure that group policy changes are applied
immediately.

Which tool should you use on the client computer?

A. Groupware
B. Windows update
C. GPUpdate
D. Policy Editor
Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
GPUpdate refreshes local and Active Directory-based Group Policy settings, including security settings.

QUESTION 94
Which of the following should you use to manage the working environments of users and computers in an Active Directory infrastructure?

A. Active Directory Domains and Trusts

B. Group Policy Objects
C. Builtin containers
D. Global security groups

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A Group Policy Object (GPO) is a collection of settings that define what a system will look like and how it will behave for a defined group of users or computers.
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QUESTION 95
You have an Active Directory infrastructure that contains one domain and seven domain controllers.

How many forests can you have without creating any trusts?

A. 0
B. 1
C. 7
D. 8

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 96
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

Settings from the "Local" Group Policy Object are processed last during logon.

Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select 'No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement
correct.

A. Site
B. Organizational Unit
C. Domain
D. No change is needed.

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Group Policy settings are processed in the following order:

References: Group Policy processing and precedence https://technet.microsoft.com/en-

us/library/cc785665%28v=ws.10%29.aspx

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QUESTION 97
HOTSPOT

Your network is configured as an Active Directory Domain Services domain. You have two domain controllers running Windows Server 2016.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Section: Understanding Active Directory

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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There are three different types of Active Directory domain groups (which does not include local groups): Universal, Global, Domain Local

QUESTION 98
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

Active Directory "Distribution groups" can only be assigned permissions to resources within the same domain but can have members from other domains.

Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select 'No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement
correct.
A. Global groups
B. Universal groups
C. Domain local groups
D. No change is needed

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Distributions groups are used as recipients of email messages.
Domain local groups can only be assigned permissions to resources within the same domain but can have members from other domains

References: Group scope https://technet.microsoft.com/en-

us/library/cc755692%28v=ws.10%29.aspx

QUESTION 99
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

Active Directory user account names are not case sensitive.

Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement
correct

A. Can be from 1 to 256 characters in length

B. Can contain numbers and letters but no special characters
C. Must be created with a first and last name
D. No change is needed.

Correct Answer: D

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Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Active directory user names are not case sensitive.
QUESTION 100
Settings from which group policy object are processed first during logon?

A. Domain
B. Organizational Unit
C. Local
D. Site

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Group Policy settings are processed in the following order:

References: Order of processing settings https://technet.microsoft.com/sv-

se/library/cc778890%28v=ws.10%29.aspx

QUESTION 101
What are two functions of the Group Policy loopback feature? (Choose two.)

A. Apply Group Policy Objects for only the current site.

B. Apply Group Policy Objects that depend only on the computer the user logs on to.
C. Apply only the local computer Group Policy Object.
D. Give higher precedence to computer policy over user policy.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Loopback processing of Group Policy has two different modes, Replace and Merge.
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References: http://kudratsapaev.blogspot.se/2009/07/loopback-processing-of-group-policy.html

QUESTION 102
After the promotion of a computer to a domain controller, a user can use various MMC snap-in consoles to manage Active Directory.

Which of these consoles is used for administering and publishing information in the directory, which includes managing users, groups, computers, domains,
domain controllers, and organizational units?

A. Active Directory Users and Computers

B. Active Directory Sites and Services
C. Active Directory Domains and Trusts
D. Active Directory Administrative Center

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Active Directory Administrative Center console is used for administering and publishing information in the directory, which includes managing users, groups,
computers, domains, domain controllers, and organizational units.
A: Active Directory Users and Computers console is used for managing users, groups, computers, and organizational units but not domains.
C: Active Directory Domains and Trusts console is used for administering domain trusts, domain and forest functional levels, and user principal name (UPN)
suffixes.
B: Active Directory Sites and Services console is used for administering replication of directory data among all sites in an Active Directory Domain Services forest.

QUESTION 103
You work as a System Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 domain-based network. The network has 120 Windows 10
computers and two Windows Server 2016 servers.

You want to ensure that when users log on to any client computer on the network, settings can be changed, but all settings are reset back to their default values
when they log on again.

What will you do to accomplish the task?

A. Create a Group Policy Object.

B. Create a local user profile.
C. Create a roaming user profile.
D. Create a mandatory user profile.

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Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to accomplish the task, you should create a mandatory user profile. A mandatory user profile is a preconfigured, read-only user profile that administrators
can use to specify settings for users in a Windows environment. With a mandatory user profile, a user can modify the desktop, but any changes made are not
saved when the user logs off. The next time the user logs on, the mandatory user profile set by the administrator is downloaded.

Incorrect Answers:
A: A Group Policy Object (GPO) is a collection of group policy settings. It affects the user and computer accounts located in sites, domains, and organizational
units (OUs).

B: A local user profile is stored locally on the hard drive of the computer on which the user logs on. If the user logs on to a different computer, he gets the default
settings for that computer.

C: A roaming user profile is stored in a centralized place and can be accessed from the network. When users log on to their computers, they receive the desktop
setting as it existed when they logged off.

QUESTION 104
You work as a System Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 domain-based network. The network contains one Windows
Server 2016 and twelve Windows 10 client computers.

You want to centralize management and configuration of operating systems, applications, and user settings.

What will you do?

A. Apply NTFS permission.

B. Implement an account policy.
C. Apply an audit policy.
D. Implement a group policy.

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to centralize management and configuration of operating systems, applications, and user settings in an Active Directory environment, you should
implement a group policy. A group policy that is created by an administrator affects all users on a computer or all users on a domain.
Group policies can be used for defining, customizing, and controlling the functioning of network resources, computers, and operating systems.
They can be set for a for users or computers in a domain. Administrators can configure group policy settings for users as well as for computers in many ways.
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Group policies can be used to allow or restrict the access of a particular program by a particular user. It can also be used to configure the desktop, the Start menu,
the taskbar, the Control Panel, and security settings among other things.

Incorrect Answers:
A: NTFS permission allows an administrator to control which users and groups can access files and folders on an NTFS volume.
B: An account policy controls the password expiration policy, the lockout policy, and other password features.
C: An audit policy determines whether security events are written to the security log in Event Viewer on the computer.

QUESTION 105
You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company plans to establish a Windows 2016 Active Directory-based network. The network will
be configured as a single forest and a multiple-domain network.

You are planning for the placement of operations master roles.

In this context, which of the following operations master roles are applied to the entire forest? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)

A. Domain naming master

B. Schema master
C. PDC emulator master
D. Relative ID (RID) master

Correct Answer: AB
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Schema master and domain naming master are operations master roles that are applied to the entire forest within an Active Directory network. The other
operations master roles are applied per domain.

QUESTION 106
Which of the following master roles is used for synchronizing cross-domain group membership changes?

A. Domain Naming Master role

B. Infrastructure Master role
C. Schema Master role
D. RID Master role

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Infrastructure Master role is used for synchronizing cross-domain group membership changes.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The Domain Naming Master role is used for controlling the addition and removal of domains from the forest if they are present in the root domain.
C: The Schema Master role is used for controlling and handling updates and modifications to the Active Directory schema.
D: The RID Master role is used for allocating pools of unique identifiers to domain controllers for use when creating objects.

QUESTION 107
What are the two different ways of creating Group Policy Object (GPO) with the help of Group Policy Management Console (GPMC)? Each correct answer
represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)

A. Open the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) and navigate to the Group Policy Objects node. Right-click the Group Policy Objects node, and click
Properties. Change the default name of the GPO to your desired name, and then click OK.
B. Open the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) and navigate to the container where you want to apply the GPO. Right-click the container, and click
Create A GPO In This Domain And Link It Here.
C. Open the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) and navigate to the Domain Controller where you want to apply the GPO. Right-click the controller, and
click Create A GPO In This Domain And Link It Here.
D. Open the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) and navigate to the Group Policy Objects node. Right-click the Group Policy Objects node, and click
New. Enter a descriptive name for the new GPO, and click OK.

Correct Answer: BD
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A new Group Policy Object can be created in the following two ways:
Open the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) and navigate to the container where you want to apply the GPO. Right-click the container, and click Create
A GPO In This Domain And Link It Here.
Open the Group Policy Management Console (GPMC) and navigate to the Group Policy Objects node. Right-click the Group Policy Objects node, and click New.
Enter a descriptive name for the new GPO, and click OK.

QUESTION 108
You work as a System Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 Active Directory-based single domain single forest network. The
functional level of the forest is Windows Server 2016.

You are planning to create a group that can be used only for non-security functions, such as distributing e-mail messages.
Which of the following groups will you create?

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A. Application group
B. User group
C. Distribution group
D. Security group

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You should create a distribution group. A distribution group is used for non-security related functions. Administrators use a distribution group when the only function
of the group is non- security related, such as sending e-mail messages to a group of users at the same time.
Distribution groups cannot be used to assign permissions.

Incorrect Answers:
A, B: There are no such group types as user and application in Windows Server 2016.
D: A security group is used to define permissions on resources and objects. It can be listed in discretionary access control lists (DACLs). Security groups can also
be used for non- security purposes. A security group has all capabilities of a distribution group.

QUESTION 109
Which of the following is an application protocol for querying and modifying data using directory services running over TCP/IP?

A. Kerberos
B. SNMP
C. UDP
D. LDAP

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) is a standard protocol, which provides access to the directory. It also provides a common language for LDAP
clients and servers to communicate with each other. The LDAP is commonly used as standard in the industry. By using a directory service such as LDAP,
information existing in multiple systems and formats can be brought at one place. LDAP is an application protocol for querying and modifying data using directory
services running over TCP/IP.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Kerberos is a secure protocol that supports ticketing authentication. A ticket is granted in response to a client computer authentication request by the Kerberos
authentication server, if the request contains valid user credentials and a valid Service Principal Name (SPN). The ticket is then used by the client computer to
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access network resources. To enable Kerberos authentication, the client and server computers must have a trusted connection to the domain Key Distribution
Center (KDC). The task of KDC is to distribute shared secret keys to enable encryption.

B: Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is a part of the TCP/IP protocol suite, which allows users to manage the network. SNMP is used to keep track of
what is being used on the network and how the object is behaving.

C: User Datagram Protocol (UDP) is often used for one-to-many communications, using broadcast or multicast IP datagrams. Microsoft networking uses UDP for
logon, browsing, and name resolution. UDP is a connectionless and unreliable communication protocol. It does not guarantee delivery or verify sequencing for any
datagram. UDP provides faster transportation of data between TCP/IP hosts than TCP.

QUESTION 110
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 Active Directory-based network. The company has three
departments named Sales, Purchase, and Marketing.

You are required to create organizational units (OU) structure for each department in the network.

Which of the following are the reasons for defining an OU? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. To delegate administration.
B. To administer domain controllers.
C. To hide objects.
D. To administer group policy.

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Organizational units (OUs) are defined to delegate administration, to administer group policy, or to hide objects. Delegating administration is the prime reason for
defining OUs.

QUESTION 111
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Active Directory-based single domain single forest network. The functional
level of the forest is Windows Server 2016.

You are planning to create groups for assigning permissions.

Which of the following characteristics does the universal group have? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)

A. It consists of global groups from multiple domains.

B. Members can only come from the local domain.
C. It has its memberships listed in the global catalog database.
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D. Its members can access resources only from the local domain.

Correct Answer: AC
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The universal group consists of global groups from multiple domains. It includes global groups, other universal groups, and user accounts. The universal group has
its memberships listed in the global catalog database. Global catalogs replicate universal group membership; therefore, an administrator must limit the
membership to global groups.

Incorrect Answers:
B: In the universal group, members can come from any domain.
D: Members of the universal group can access resources from any domain.

QUESTION 112
What service replicates information of every object in a tree and forest so that you can quickly find those objects?

A. LDAP server
B. global catalog
C. Infrastructure Master
D. PDC Emulator

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A global catalog replicates the information of every object in a tree and forest. However, rather than store the entire object, it stores just those attributes that are
most frequently used in search operations, such as a user's first and last name, computer name, and so forth. By default, a global catalog is created automatically
on the first domain controller in the forest, but any domain controller can be made into a global catalog.
QUESTION 113
What do you use to organize your users, computers, and other network resources within a domain?

A. groups
B. forest
C. organizational units
D. group policy

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Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To help organize objects within a domain and minimize the number of domains required, you can use organizational units (OUs). OUs can be used to hold users,
groups, computers, and other organizational units.

QUESTION 114
What is the best way to give managers a way to change passwords for the users they manage?

A. Make the manager a domain administrator.

B. Make the manager an account administrator.
C. Make the manager a local administrator.
D. Use the Delegation of Authority wizard.

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
By delegating administration, you can assign a range of administrative tasks to the appropriate users and groups. For instance, you can assign basic administrative
tasks to regular users or groups and leave domain-wide and forest-wide administration to members of the Domain Admins and Enterprise Admins groups.

QUESTION 115
To which type of group would you assign rights and permissions?

A. security group
B. distribution group
C. scoped group
D. Global Domain group

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Windows Active Directory has two types of groups: security and distribution.
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A security group is used to assign rights and permissions and gain access to network resources. It can also be used as a distribution group.

QUESTION 116
Which type of group can contain any user or group in any domain and can be assigned to any resource in any domain?

A. domain local group

B. global group
C. universal group
D. distribution group

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Universal group scope is designed to contain global groups from multiple domains. Universal groups can contain global groups, other universal groups, and user
accounts.
Because global catalogs replicate universal group membership, you should limit the membership to global groups.

QUESTION 117
What authorizes a user to perform a certain action on a computer?

A. user rights
B. permissions
C. assignments
D. certificates

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A right authorizes a user to perform certain actions on a computer, such as logging on to a system interactively or backing up files and directories on a system.
User rights are assigned through local policies or Active Directory Group Policy.

QUESTION 118
What do you call one or more trees with disjointed namespaces?

A. Forest
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B. Wood
C. Root
D. PAN

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A forest is made of one or more trees (although most people think of a forest as two or more trees). A forest varies from a tree because it uses disjointed
namespaces between the trees.

QUESTION 119
What do you call one or more IP subnets that are connected by a high-speed link?

A. Site
B. Map
C. PAN
D. Intranet

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A site is one or more IP subnets that are connected by a high-speed link, typically defined by a geographical location. Suppose that you have a four-story office
building. Although the building includes several subnets, all computers within the building use layer-2 and layer-3 switches to communicate with each other.

QUESTION 120
What technology is used to standardize the Windows environment on all client computers?

A. Group Policy
B. Registry
C. Bindery
D. DMZ

Correct Answer: A

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Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
One of Active Directory's most powerful features is Group Policy, which controls the working environment for user accounts and computer accounts. Group Policy
provides centralized management and configuration of operating systems, applications, and user settings in an Active Directory environment.

QUESTION 121
By default, group policies are first applied to networked computers when the:

A. Computer is backed up.

B. Computer starts up.
C. User accesses a shared drive.
D. User runs gpresult.exe.

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 122
You manage a company's Active Directory. You need to delegate the control of a branch office to a set of administrators.

Where would you place the users and computers that belong to the branch office?
A. In a distribution group
B. In an Organizational Unit
C. In the root of the domain
D. In the Built-in container

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 123
You need to assign permissions to access resources.
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Which type of group should you use?

A. Workgroup
B. Security group
C. Organizational group
D. Distribution group

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Security groups control access to the Workgroup server's functionality.

QUESTION 124
You manage a Workgroup. You need to create a group for print administrators.

Which type of group should you create?

A. Domain Local group

B. Local group
C. Global group
D. Universal group
Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Many organizations deploy Windows servers and workstations in workgroup configurations and for these organizations, local group policies can play a vital role in
simplifying Windows system administration.

References: http://tech.sportstoday.us/windows_server/windows-server-2008-r2---planning-workgroup-and-standalone-local-group-
policyconfiguration.aspx#iV1QJMxpiO0FVQyk.99

QUESTION 125
DRAG DROP

In which order are group policies applied?

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(To answer, move the appropriate scopes from the list of scopes to the answer area and arrange them from first applied to last applied)

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

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Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: Order of processing settings https://technet.microsoft.com/sv-
se/library/cc778890%28v=ws.10%29.aspx

QUESTION 126
You need to create a group that includes users from different domains in a single forest. You also need to enable the group to access resources in any domain in
the forest.

Which type of group should you create?

A. Workgroup
B. Local group
C. Universal group
D. Global group
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E. Domain Local group

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Universal Group:
Group can include as members…
Accounts from any domain within the forest in which this Universal Group resides
Global groups from any domain within the forest in which this Universal Group resides
Universal groups from any domain within the forest in which this Universal Group resides

Group can be assigned permissions in…

Any domain or forest

QUESTION 127
You need to access resources located in another forest.
Which should you create?

A. Child domain
B. Distribution group
C. Trust
D. Organizational unit

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 128
What is the default location for a new user account in Active Directory?

A. The Users Organizational Unit

B. The Accounts container
C. The Accounts Organizational Unit
D. The Users container

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Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In a default installation of an Active Directory domain, user accounts, computer accounts, and groups are put in CN=objectclass containers instead of being put in a
more desirable organizational unit class container. Similarly, user accounts, computer accounts, and groups that were created by using earlier-version APIs are put
in the CN=Users and CN=computers containers.

QUESTION 129
Which provides centralized management of users and computers?

A. Active Directory
B. Windows Internet Name Service (WINS)
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
D. Remote Access

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Active Directory (AD) is a directory service implemented by Microsoft for Windows domain networks. It is included in most Windows Server operating systems. An
AD domain controller authenticates and authorizes all users and computers in a Windows domain type network—assigning and enforcing security policies for all
computers and installing or updating software.

QUESTION 130
You need to apply a Windows Server 2016 group policy. You also need to prevent policies that are applied at lower levels from affecting this new policy.

What should you do?

A. Set the policy to Loopback

B. Set the permission to Full Control
C. Select the Enforced policy link setting
D. Select the Enabled policy link setting

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation
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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Setting a Group Policy to enforced ensures that the settings in the policy cannot be overwritten by policies that are applied at lower levels. It also ensures that the
group policy cannot be blocked by applying the Block Inheritance setting at a lower level.

QUESTION 131
You create a new domain.

Which two Active Directory objects will be available by default? (Choose two.)

A. Computer
B. Employee
C. User
D. Device
E. Server

Correct Answer: AC
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

An Active Directory structure is an arrangement of information about objects. The objects fall into two broad categories: resources (e.g., printers) and security
principals (user or computer accounts and groups). Security principals are assigned unique security identifiers (SIDs).

Note:
Install-ADDSDomain installs a new Active Directory domain configuration.

QUESTION 132
You want to centrally specify managed configurations for domain user and member computers in your Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain
infrastructure.
What should you use?

A. Active Directory Sites and Services

B. Group Policy
C. Active Directory Federation Services
D. Domain security groups

Correct Answer: B

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Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/networking/branchcache/deploy/use-group-policy-to-configure-domain-member-client-computers

QUESTION 133
Your network is set up as an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) domain. You have a single domain controller that runs a Server Core installation of
Windows Server 2016.

You need to back up the Active Directory.

Which command should you use?

A. Mqbkup
B. Wbadmin
C. Ntbackup
D. Ntdsutil

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding Active Directory
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/administration/windows-
commands/mqbkup

QUESTION 134
What is the minimum number of disks required for RAID 5?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You would need two disks for data and one for parity.
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QUESTION 135
The manager at the coffee house where you work asks for advice on adding storage to the store's server to perform backups.

The additional storage must meet the following requirements:

Hold at least 600 GB

Be reasonably priced
Be reasonably fast

Which solution should you recommend?

A. USB hard drive

B. USB flash drive
C. SCSI tape backup system
D. External SCSI hard drive

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
USB hard drives have higher capacity than USB flash drives.
USB hard drives are faster and cheaper than a SCSI tape backup system.
USB hard drives are cheaper than external SCSI hard drives.

QUESTION 136
You have installed iSCSI Initiator to enable block-based storage area networks in the network infrastructure of your organization. For security reasons, you need to
configure authentication protocols in the network.

Which of the following protocols will you use with iSCSI Initiator? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. (Choose two.)

A. CHAP
B. IPSec
C. PAP
D. MS-CHAP

Correct Answer: AB
Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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iSCSI Initiator supports the Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP) and Internet Protocol security (IPSec) protocols.
So, you can configure only these two protocols with iSCSI Initiator in network infrastructure.

QUESTION 137
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 based network environment. There are thirty client computers
running Windows 10 and three servers running Windows Server 2016.

You need to implement a system in the network that provides data access to heterogeneous network clients using SMB/CIFS.

Which of the following will you use?

A. Storage area network

B. Failover clustering
C. Datafile striping
D. Network-attached storage

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You should use Network-attached storage (NAS).
Network-attached storage (NAS) is file-level computer data storage connected to a computer network providing data access to heterogeneous network clients.
NAS systems contain one or more hard disks, often arranged into logical, redundant storage containers or RAID arrays.
It removes the responsibility of file serving from other servers on the network. NAS uses file-based protocols, such as NFS, SMB/CIFS, or AFP.
NAS units rarely limit clients to a single protocol.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Storage Area Networks are a specialized RAID array that can be accessed by multiple servers over a specialized network connection. A host bus adapter is
required on servers that use the Storage Area Networks. The Storage Area Networks administrator partitions the available storage into logical unit numbers and
assigns them to the servers. The disk volume shown in Disk manager is logical unit numbers. SAN use block-level protocols such as iSCSI or Fiber Channel.
They do not use SMB or CIFS.

B: Failover clustering is a technique used in the Windows Server 2016 environment to provide high availability of applications.

C: Datafile striping, also referred to as striping, is a technique used to enhance the I/O of datafiles. In this technique, a large datafile is split into smaller datafiles
and the latter are then stored on separate disks. Hence, striping allows quicker I/Os by reading or writing through multiple read-write heads of the disks (which
store the datafiles that have been split) operating in parallel. This technique is of great help in parallel processing where throughput is of prime concern.

QUESTION 138
You are using self-healing NTFS in Microsoft Windows Server 2016.

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Which of the following are functions of self-healing NTFS? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. It decreases failed file system mounting requests that occur due to inconsistencies during restart or for an online volume.
B. It identifies and recovers an NTFS volume.
C. It provides continuous data availability.
D. It allows an authorized user to administer and monitor repair operations.

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The various functions of self-healing NTFS are as follows:

It provides continuous data availability.

It saves data.
It decreases failed file system mounting requests that occur due to inconsistencies during restart or for an online volume.
It offers better reporting.
It allows an authorized user to administer and monitor repair operations.
It recovers a volume if the boot sector is readable, but it does not identify an NTFS volume.
It authenticates and maintains data within critical system files.
References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc771388(v=ws.10).aspx

QUESTION 139
Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2016 domain-based network. The network has a file server that uses a
RAID-5 volume. The RAID-5 volume is configured with five hard disk drives. Over the weekend, a drive in the RAID-5 volume fails.

What will Mark do to restore the RAID-5 volume?

A. Replace the failed drive with a new one, use FDISK, select a new area of free space, and then regenerate the volume.
B. Replace the failed drive with a new one, use Disk Management, select a new area of free space, and then regenerate the volume.
C. Use Disk Management, select the failed drive, and then regenerate the volume.
D. Use FDISK to delete the RAID-5 volume, and then restore data from the tape backup.

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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In order to restore the RAID-5 volume, Mark will have to replace the failed drive with a new one, use Disk Management, select a new area of free space, and then
regenerate the volume. When a member of a mirrored volume or a RAID-5 volume fails, it becomes an orphan. Data for the orphaned member can be regenerated
from the remaining members. A new area of free space that is of the same size or larger than the other members of the RAID-5 volume should be selected in Disk
Management and then the data should be regenerated. The fault-tolerance driver reads the information from the stripes on the other member disks, and then
recreates the data of the missing member and writes it to the new member on restarting the computer. The volume must be locked by the operating system to
regenerate a RAID-5 volume. All network connections to the volume will be lost when a volume is regenerated.

QUESTION 140
The network-attached storage (NAS) device is a file server running on a dedicated device connected to the network.

Which of the following are the advantages of the NAS device? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. It enables the Windows, UNIX/Linux, and MacOS to use the same storage and to access the shared data.
B. It is easy to install, configure, and manage by using a web browser.
C. It is used when computer systems are retired and disk drives are required to be zeroed out.
D. It permits the addition of more hard disk storage space to a network without shutting them down for maintenance and upgrades. Correct Answer: ABD

Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The network-attached storage (NAS) device is a server used for file sharing. It is a file server running on a dedicated device connected to the network. These types
of devices are based on Linux or UNIX derivatives.
Various advantages of the NAS device are as follows:
It is easy to install, configure, and manage by using a web browser.
It enables the Windows, UNIX/Linux, and MacOS to use the same storage and to access the shared data.
It does not require to be located within the server but can be placed anywhere in LAN.
It permits the addition of more hard disk storage space to a network without shutting them down for maintenance and upgrades.

Incorrect Answers:
C: Hard drive wiping is a degaussing process that applies a strong magnetic field for the purpose of initializing the media. It is used to remove data from the hard
drive permanently. It is used when computer systems are retired and disk drives are required to be zeroed out.

QUESTION 141
You work as a System Administrator for company Inc. The Microsoft iSCSI initiator service is deployed in the organization in order to allow Windows Server 2016
to connect to SCSI devices that are attached to a network.

You want to remove all persistently bound volumes and devices for the iSCSI service.

Which of the following iSCSICLI commands will you use to accomplish the task?

A. iSCSICLI AddPersistentDevices
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B. iSCSICLI AddTarget
C. iSCSICLI ClearPersistentDevices
D. iSCSICLI RemovePersistentDevices

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to accomplish the task, you should use the iSCSICLI ClearPersistentDevices command. When you use this command on the command-line interface, it
removes all persistently bound volumes and devices for the iSCSI service.

References:
https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/san/2008/07/27/iscsi-initiator-command-line-reference-and-server-core-configuration/
QUESTION 142
Which of the following file systems centralizes data and can be used to replicate shared folders to other servers?

A. ADFS
B. FAT32
C. DFS
D. NTFS

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
DFS (Distributed File System) centralizes data and can be used to replicate shared folders to other servers. Distributed File System (DFS) allows users to access
files located on another remote host as though working on the actual host computer. This makes it possible for multiple users on multiple machines to share files
and storage resources. The client nodes do not have direct access to the underlying block storage but interact over the network using a protocol.
Distributed file systems may include facilities for transparent replication and fault tolerance. That is, when a limited number of nodes in a file system go offline, the
system continues to work without any data loss.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Active Directory Federation Services (ADFS) is used to extend the ability to use single sign-on functionality to Internet-facing applications. With the help of single
sign-on and ADFS, a user can give their customers, partners, and suppliers easy access to Web based applications in the organization, such as Outlook Web App.

B: The FAT32 file system is an enhancement of the FAT file system. It is more advanced and reliable than all the earlier versions of the FAT file system. It
manages storage space on large hard disks more efficiently than the FAT16 file system. It uses a smaller cluster size than the FAT16 file system on the hard disk,
thereby reducing the amount of space on the hard disk when users save small files. The FAT32 file system supports hard disk drives larger than 2GB and up to
2TB.

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D: NTFS is a high-performance file system proprietary to Microsoft. NTFS supports file-level security, compression, and auditing. It also supports large volumes
and powerful storage solution such as RAID. The latest feature of NTFS is its ability to encrypt files and folders to protect sensitive data.

QUESTION 143
You are configuring a RAID 5 solution on a server running Windows Server 2016. You are using five 750GB hard drives in the RAID array.

How much free space will you get after configuring the RAID 5 solution?

A. 2,250
B. 1,500
C. 3,000
D. 3,750

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
After configuring the RAID 5 solution, you get 3,000GB free space.
You can calculate free space for a RAID 5 solution using the following formula:
Available free space for RAID 5 = Total drive space - 1/n (Total drive space) where, n is the number of hard drives
According to the question: = 5 x 750 = 3,750GB
Free space for the RAID 5 solution = 3,750 - 1/5 (3,750) = 3,750 – 750 = 3,000GB

QUESTION 144
Which of the following protocols do iSCSI fabrics use to provide discoverability and partitioning of resources?

A. SCSI
B. SSL
C. TLS
D. iSNS

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding storage
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Internet Storage Name Service (iSNS) is a protocol that allows automated discovery, management, and configuration of iSCSI and Fibre Channel devices (using
iFCP gateways) on a TCP/IP network. iSNS provides management services similar to those found in Fibre Channel networks, allowing a standard IP network to

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operate in much the same way that a Fibre Channel storage area network does. Because iSNS is able to emulate Fibre Channel fabric services and manage
both iSCSI and Fibre Channel devices, an iSNS server can be used as a consolidated configuration point for an entire storage network.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) is the second most popular drive interface in use today after the Integrated Drive Electronics (IDE) interface. SCSI is
faster than IDE and supports more devices. SCSI devices, such as hard disk drive and CD-ROM drive, are better suited in a network environment in which many
users access shared drives simultaneously. SCSI has three standards: SCSI-1, SCSI-2, and SCSI-3.
B: The Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) is a commonly-used protocol for managing the security of a message transmission on the Internet. SSL has recently been
succeeded by Transport Layer Security (TLS), which is based on SSL. SSL uses a program layer located between the Internet's Hypertext Transfer Protocol
(HTTP) and Transport Control Protocol (TCP) layers. URLs that require an SSL connection start with https: instead of http:.

C: Transport Layer Security is a standard protocol used to secure Web communications on the Internet or intranets by means of encryption. With the help of TLS,
clients can authenticate servers or servers can authenticate clients. TLS is the latest version of the Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) protocol.

QUESTION 145
Which of the following technologies is considered a network attached storage protocol?

A. NFS
B. FCoE
C. Fiber Channel
D. iSCSI

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
NFS (Network File System) is considered a network attached storage protocol. It is used to enable communication between an NFS client and an NFS server. The
NFS client that is built into ESX supports in accessing the NFS server and in using NFS volumes for storage.

Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: These are all considered block storage protocols.

QUESTION 146
HOTSPOT

You work as a System Administrator for company Inc. You are configuring the iSCSI Initiator program in order to connect a host computer running Windows Server
2016 to an external iSCSI-based storage array.

Mark the tab or button that specifies the location of the SAN and Internet Storage Name Service (iSNS) servers when you open the iSCSI Initiator program.

Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:

Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
When you open the iSCSI Initiator program, the Discovery tab specifies the location of the SAN and Internet Storage Name Service (iSNS) servers.

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QUESTION 147
Which form of RAID is not fault tolerant?

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A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0+1

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding storage
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RAID 0 stripes data across all drives. Because RAID 0 has no parity control or fault tolerance, it is not a true form of RAID. Here, if one drive fails, you lose all data
on the array.

QUESTION 148
Which form of RAID is known as striping?

A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0+1

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

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RAID 0 stripes data across all drives. With striping, all available hard drives are combined into a single large virtual file system, with the file system's blocks arrayed
so that they are spread evenly across all the drives.

QUESTION 149
Which type of RAID is known as disk mirroring?

A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0+1

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RAID 1 is another common form of RAID used in networked PCs and servers. RAID 1 is sometimes known as disk mirroring, which copies a disk or partition onto a
second hard drive. Specifically, as information is written, it is written to both hard drives simultaneously.

QUESTION 150
Which type of RAID is striping with parity?

A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 5
D. RAID 0+1

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
RAID 5 is similar to striping, except the space equivalent to one of the hard drives is used for parity (error correction) to provide fault tolerance. To increase
performance, the error- correction function is spread across all hard drives in the array to avoid having one drive doing all the work in calculating the parity bits.

QUESTION 151
What file-level data storage device is accessed for a network and often uses SMB/CIFS?
A. NAS
B. SAN
C. VOL

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D. Dynamic Drive

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Network attached storage (NAS) is a file-level data storage device connected to a computer network to provide shared drives or folders, usually using SMB/CIFS.
NAS devices usually contain multiple drives in a form of RAID for fault tolerance and are managed usually using a web interface.

QUESTION 152
What device contains many hard drives and is used by multiple servers as a central storage area?

A. NAS
B. SAN
C. VOL
D. Dynamic Drive

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding storage
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A storage area network (SAN) is an architecture used for disk arrays, tape libraries, and optical jukeboxes to appear as locally attached drives on a server. A SAN
always uses some form of RAID and other technology to make the system redundant against drive failure and to offer high performance.

QUESTION 153
Which disk types can be used for internal storage?

A. SAN/iSCSI
B. NFS/Distributed File System (DFS)
C. PATA/SATA/SCSI
D. NAS/Fiber-channel
Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 154
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This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

"Hardware-based RAID" uses system processing resources.

Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement
correct.

A. Windows-based RAID
B. RAID 10
C. RAID 6
D. No change is needed.

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 155
You plan to repurpose an existing computer to run a clean installation of Windows Server 2016 Standard edition.

Which type of hard drive interface should you use for the boot drive?

A. PATA
B. ATA
C. SATA
D. IDE

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding storage
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References:
https://www.ifixit.com/Wiki/Hard_Drive_Interfaces

QUESTION 156
You are deploying a virtual machine (VM) on a computer running Windows Server 2016 that is configured as a Hyper-V host. The VM will be used to test a new
application. You will be testing various configurations.

You need to provide storage that can expand in size automatically to provide more storage as necessary, but without making changes to the initial VHD.

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Which type of VHD should you use?

A. differencing
B. linked
C. fixed
D. dynamic

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 157
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

You install three 600GB hard disks in a computer running Windows Server 2016 Standard edition. You need to configure at least 1TB of fault-tolerant storage from
the hard disks.

You configure that hard disks as a RAID 5 configuration.

Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed”. If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the
statement correct.

A. RAID 0
B. RAID 1
C. RAID 10
D. No change is needed

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding storage
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
References:
https://www.prepressure.com/library/technology/raid

QUESTION 158
After installing a new device driver for a SCSI device adapter, you can no longer access an external SCSI hard disk. The computer is running Windows Server
2016.

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You need to access the data as quickly as possible.

What should you do first?

A. roll back the device driver

B. replace the SCSI adapter
C. restart the computer
D. uninstall the device driver

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding storage Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 159
What should be the maximum consistent processor utilization?

A. 40%
B. 50%
C. 60%
D. 80%

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server performance management
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Processor Time measures how busy the processor is. Although the processor may jump to 100% processor usage, the processor should not be above 80% most
of the time. If it isn't, you should upgrade the processor (using a faster processor or additional processors) or move some of the services to other systems.

QUESTION 160
You notice frequent writes to the page file.

Which should you monitor to determine the cause?

A. CPU
B. RAM
C. Network
D. Hard disk
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Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server performance management
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When the RAM is full the page file is used as virtual RAM.

QUESTION 161
You want to receive a notification when your server's processor exceeds 80 percent utilization. You should create a:

A. Performance Alert.
B. Scheduled task.
C. Performance Log.
D. Performance counter.
E. System Event.

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server performance management
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 162
You need to monitor the performance of a server.

What should you create first?

A. Baseline
B. Counters
C. Page File
D. Alerts

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server performance management
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Later compare the performance to the baseline.

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QUESTION 163
Which is an advantage of 64-bit operating systems over 32-bit operating systems?

A. Larger amounts of accessible RAM

B. More device drivers
C. More compatible applications
D. Cheaper hardware

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server performance management
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Can access a larger address space.

QUESTION 164
A record of specific aspects of system performance over time is referred to as a/an:
A. Threshold
B. Log
C. Event
D. Alert

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server performance management
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Working with Performance Logs
Applies To: Windows 10, Windows Server 2016, Windows Server 2012, Windows Vista
You can view log files or log data provided by a database in Performance Monitor to see a visual representation of performance data collected by Data Collector
Sets.

QUESTION 165
Which tool should you use to track real-time system resource utilization?

A. System Information
B. Component Services
C. Device Manager

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D. Perfmon

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server performance management
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

Example:
How to use Perfmon to collect Microsoft Windows performance counters

Open the WinX menu in Windows 8 and select Run. Type perfmon.exe and hit Enter to open the Performance Monitor. In the left pane, select the User Defined
node, right-click on it and select New > Data Collector Set.

QUESTION 166
You want to compare the performance reports that you have created during the initial deployment of servers.
Which of the following applications will you need to launch in order to create a comparison report?

A. Task manager
B. Performance Monitor
C. Resource Monitor
D. Server Manager

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server performance management
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to create a comparison report, you are required to launch Performance Monitor. Performance Monitor is a powerful virtualization tool that adds an extra
layer of performance monitoring needs.
It helps in viewing performance data, both in real time and from log files. The performance data can be examined in a graph, histogram, or report.
It properly diagnoses and troubleshoots SharePoint performance problems.
It also helps organizations to decide when to upgrade the hardware and whether upgrades are improving the performance of servers or not.

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Incorrect Answers:
A: A task manager is a program used to provide information about the processes and programs running on a computer, as well as the general status of the
computer. It can also be used to terminate processes and programs, as well as change the processes priority. The task manager is most commonly accessed by
pressing the buttons Control-Alt-Delete. Task manager also displays all the services that are currently running as well as those that were stopped. All information's
about the services such as Process ID and their group if they are applicable.

C: Resource Monitor is a suite of administration tools designed to provide a quick overview of a single user interface. It acts as a mediator between the Cluster
service and the resource dynamic link library. It can be launched from the start menu or from the Task Manager using the Performance tab. Resource Monitor can
be accessed by searching in the Reliability and Performance monitor.

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D: Server Manager is a primary tool available in Windows Server 2016. It manages and secures multiple server roles in an enterprise. The Server Manager
console allows an administrator to perform the following tasks:
Install Windows Server roles and features.
View the Event Viewer logs. Access performance monitoring tools, Device Manager, Task Scheduler, Windows Firewall with Advanced Security, Services, Local
Users and Groups, Windows Server Backup, and Disk management.

QUESTION 167
You are using Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor to monitor and assess system performance and reliability of Windows Server 2016.

Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor combines the functionality of which of the following stand-alone tools? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Performance Logs and Alerts

B. System Monitor
C. Server Performance Advisor
D. Network Monitor

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: Understanding server performance management
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor is a server management tool available in Windows Server 2016. It is used to monitor and assess system
performance and reliability.
Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor is an MMC (Microsoft Management Console) snap- in that combines the functionality of the following stand-alone
tools:

Performance Logs and Alerts

Server Performance Advisor
System Monitor

Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor provides a GUI interface to customize Data Collector Sets and Event Trace sessions. It also includes Reliability
Monitor that tracks changes to the system and compares these changes to the changes made in system stability and provides a graphical view of their
relationship.

Incorrect Answers:
D: Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor does not combine the functionality of Network Monitor.

References:
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc755081(v=ws.10).aspx

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QUESTION 168
You are the Microsoft Project Server administrator for your company. You have recently upgraded the hardware of your Microsoft Project Server farm.

You and the project managers in your company believe that it will be much faster. You have now created performance logs to measure the throughput of the new
server configuration to compare to past performance.

What is this process called?

A. Performance baseline creation

B. Step funding
C. Before and after snapshot
D. Performance measurement

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server performance management
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Whenever a Server is installed or upgraded, you should create a performance measurement baseline to see the before and after effect of the updated hardware.
This allows you to plan for scalability, track trends over time, and know when performance is lagging and adjustments are needed.

Incorrect Answers:
B: Step funding describes the incremental funding of a project based on the performance of the project to date. It is called step-funding because the funds follow
the S-curve of project performance towards project completion. Along the S-curve of the project, the funds are provided stepwise to reach the next target
milestone. C: This is not a valid term or description of the process that is happening in this scenario.
D: This is not just performance measurement, but the creation of a performance baseline for your Microsoft Project Server.

QUESTION 169
Which storage technology supports speeds up to 16 Gbps?

A. Network File System (NFS)

B. Fibre Channel (FC)
C. Serial Advanced Technology Attachment (SATA)
D. Small Computer System Interface (SCSI)

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server performance management
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

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References:
https://searchstorage.techtarget.com/feature/Figuring-out-when-16-Gbps-Fibre-Channel-storage-networking-makes-sense

QUESTION 170
Which tool should you use to track real-time system resource utilization?

A. Event Viewer
B. Component Services
C. System Information
D. Performance Monitor

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server performance management
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 171
You often stop by Fourth Coffee before class. The owner knows you are studying computer networking. One morning, the owner asks for your help with a file
server because it is running slower than usual. The file server runs Windows Server 2016.

You suspect that background activities are using an excessive amount of system resources. You need to determine if this is the problem.

Which two tools should you use? (Choose two.)

A. Task Manager
B. Resource Monitor
C. Device Manager
D. System Information
E. SQL Profiler

Correct Answer: AB
Section: Understanding server performance management
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
References: https://answers.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/forum/windows_8-performance/how-to-know-and-stop-unnecessary-background/e7dad520-d811-44f6-
a6c65bee53fd9704

QUESTION 172
You are monitoring a server running Windows Server 2016.
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What should you use to view detailed current performance information and server resources used?

A. Task Manager
B. Performance Monitor
C. Server ManagerD. Event Viewer

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server performance management
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 173
You want to view summary information about server performance and resource use.

Which tool should you use?

A. Event Viewer
B. Resource Monitor
C. System Configuration
D. System Information

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server performance management
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
QUESTION 174
What should you use to prevent power spikes from harming a server?

A. Power supply unit

B. Hot-swappable power supply
C. Dedicated surge protector
D. Line conditioner

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
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Explanation:
Dedicated surge protectors protect specific items, such as servers, from surges.

A surge occurs when too much electricity (technically too much voltage) flows through to the item.

References: http://romitti.com/2015/02/dedicated-surge-protectors/

QUESTION 175
Power On Self Test (POST) runs when a computer first boots.

Which component software issues this test?

A. Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor

B. Northbridge On Board Chip
C. Basic Input/Output System
D. Southbridge On Board Chip

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Basic Input/Output System, the BIOS (pronounced bye-oss) is a ROM chip found on motherboards that allows you to access and set up your computer system at
the most basic level.
The BIOS includes instructions on how to load basic computer hardware and includes a test referred to as a POST (Power On Self Test) that helps verify the
computer meets requirements to boot up properly. If the computer does not pass the POST, you will receive a combination of beeps indicating what is
malfunctioning within the computer.

References: http://www.computerhope.com/jargon/b/bios.htm

QUESTION 176
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

You install a new Windows Server 2016 server for your school athletic department. The installation completes without errors. However, the new server is unable to
communicate with the network. After checking cable connections and network configuration, you find that no network connections are listed in the Control Panel/
Network Connections applet.

You should use "Device Manager" to investigate a potential problem with the network adapter driver.

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Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No change is needed'' if the underlined text makes the statement
correct

A. Network and Sharing Center

B. Control Panel/Network Connections
C. Server Manager/WMI Control
D. No change is needed

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Device Manager is a Control Panel applet in Microsoft Windows operating systems. It allows users to view and control the hardware attached to the
computer. When a piece of hardware is not working, the offending hardware is highlighted for the user to deal with. References:
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Device_Manager

QUESTION 177
The owner of Fourth Coffee wants to add a new computer to the company network. The owner configures the Host IP Address for the computer but still cannot
connect to the network.

Which component should the owner use to connect to the network?

A. DNS Server
B. DHCP address
C. Subnet mask
D. Domain name

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

The second item the subnet mask is missing here. It is required for TCP/IP to work.

References: Understanding TCP/IP addressing and subnetting basics https://support.microsoft.com/en-

us/kb/164015

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QUESTION 178
Which two files are executed so that a Windows Server 2016 server boots into the operating system? (Choose two.)

A. winload.exe
B. ntldr.exe
C. bootmgr.exe
D. boot.ini

Correct Answer: AC
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A: The Windows Boot Manager invokes winload.exe—the operating system boot loader—to load the operating system kernel executive (ntoskrnl.exe) and core
device drivers. In that respect, winload.exe is functionally equivalent to the operating system loader function of NTLDR in prior versions of Windows NT.

C: Windows Vista and later operating systems replaced the NTLDR with the Windows Boot Manager (BOOTMGR). The BOOTMGR file is located in the 100 MB
system partition automatically created during the Window 10 and Server 2016 installation.

Incorrect Answers:
B, D: In legacy operating systems the boot sector (boot strap loader) loads the NTLDR that would then look for the BOOT.INI.
References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Windows_Vista_startup_process

QUESTION 179
You maintain backup schedules for a Windows Server 2016 server. Some users store vital information on their local hard drives.

You need to include the users’ data when you perform nightly backups of the server.

Which built-in process should you use?

A. Agent backup
B. Folder redirection
C. Local backup schedules
D. System state data backup

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Use folder redirection to store the vital information on a network share instead. Then it will be easy to backup this data.

Note: Folder Redirection lets administrators redirect the path of a folder to a new location. The location can be a folder on the local computer or a directory on a
network file share. Users can work with documents on a server as if the documents were based on a local drive.

References: Folder Redirection Overview https://technet.microsoft.com/en-

us/library/cc732275.aspx

QUESTION 180
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

You need to troubleshoot network environment problems. First, you define the issues that are most likely causing the symptoms. Then you eliminate each issue
until the symptoms disappear.

This approach is referred to as "performance" troubleshooting.

Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement
correct.
A. Systematic
B. Specific
C. Trial and error
D. No change is needed

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The ability to troubleshoot effectively reduces downtime and increases safety.

A Systematic approach brings efficiencies to the process of troubleshooting.

Preparation
Step 1: Observe Behavior
Step 2: Define Problem Area
Step 3: Identify Possible causes
Step 4: Determine Most Probable cause
Step 5: Test and Repair
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Follow-up

References: http://www.troubleshootingskills.com/how-it-works/systematic-approach/

QUESTION 181
This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct.

"Windows Deployment Services (WDS)" allows you to automate the installation of Windows Server 2016 on several servers.

Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select "No change is needed" if the underlined text makes the statement
correct.

A. Microsoft Software Installer (MSI)

B. Unattendinstall.exe
C. Windows Installer Service
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Windows Deployment Services (WDS) enables you to deploy Windows operating systems over the network, which means that you do not have to install each
operating system directly from a CD or DVD.

Benefits of Windows Deployment Services include:

References: Windows Deployment Services Overview https://technet.microsoft.com/en-

us/library/hh831764.aspx

QUESTION 182
You need to restart the print spooler on a Windows Server 2016 server. Which tool should you use?

A. Devices and Printers

B. The Device Manager
C. Printer Properties
D. The Services console

Correct Answer: D

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Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You can restart a service from the Services applet (available in Administrative Tools).

QUESTION 183
A disaster recovery plan should contain data, hardware, and software that are critical for a business.

Which of the following are disaster recovery planning steps? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Prioritize business processes

B. Monitor the plan
C. Identify alternate sites
D. Identify and assess the risks
Correct Answer: ACD
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A disaster recovery plan should contain data, hardware, and software that are critical for a business. It should also include plans for a sudden loss, such as a hard
disc crash. When putting together a disaster recovery plan, an organization should follow these steps:

1. Identify and assess the risks.

2. Prioritize business processes.
3. Prioritize technology services.
4. Define recovery strategies.
5. Secure facilities.
6. Identify alternate sites.
7. Use redundancy and failover.
8. Document the plan.
9. Test the plan.
10.Update the recovery plan.

QUESTION 184
You are working on a Windows 2016 environment.

You find that some applications are not responding while creating a project. You want to terminate these applications anyhow and start a new session.

What will you do to accomplish the task?

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A. Use Device Manager. B.
Use Network Monitor.
C. Use System Monitor.
D. Use Task Manager.

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to accomplish the task, you should use Task Manager. A task manager is a program used to provide information about the processes and programs
running on a computer, as well as the general status of the computer. It can also be used to terminate processes and programs, as well as change the processes
priority. The task manager is most commonly accessed by pressing the buttons Control-Alt-Delete. Task manager also displays all the services that are currently
running as well as those that were stopped. All information's about the services such as Process ID and their group if they are applicable.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Device Manager is a tool that can be used to manage devices on a computer. Using Device Manager, users can view and change device properties, update
device drivers, configure device settings, and uninstall devices. Device Manager is organized in a tree format with the top branches representing device categories.
Users can use Device Manager to identify port resource conflicts. Device Manager can also be used to enable or disable a device.

B: Network Monitor is a tool used to monitor data sent and received by the local computer.
Network Monitor can perform the following functions:
Capturing or tracing data and filtering it based on different attributes.
Monitoring throughput based on bytes or frames.
Monitoring bandwidth based on percentage of the network used.
Monitoring errors, which can be a possible consequence of an overloaded network.

C: System Monitor is a Windows utility that enables users to monitor server activity and performance using predefined objects and counters or user-defined
counters. It tracks items such as, I/O, memory usage, user connections, and locks. Although it can monitor the number of locks held, it cannot be used to capture
information on particular locks and activities.

QUESTION 185
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has its main branch in London and two sub-branches in Tokyo and Paris. The company has
1,500 clients and a number of servers that run Windows Server 2016.

You need to distribute workload across the cluster nodes for supporting a larger number of simultaneous clients.

What will you do to accomplish the task?

A. Deploy Windows AIK.

B. Use Network Load Balancing.
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C. Implement NIC teaming.D. Create a failover cluster.

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to accomplish the task, you should use Network Load Balancing. Network Load Balancing (NLB) is a clustering technology offered by Microsoft.
In order to scale performance, it uses a distributed algorithm to load balance network traffic across multiple hosts. It also ensures high availability by detecting host
failures and automatically redistributes traffic to operational hosts.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK) is a set of tools and documentation provided with Windows operating system.
It supports the configuration and deployment of Windows operating systems.
Administrators can use Windows AIK for automating Windows installations, capturing Windows images with ImageX, configuring and modifying images, creating
Windows PE images, and migrating user profiles and data. Windows AIK includes various Windows tools such as Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT),
Users State Migration Tools (USMT), etc.

C: NIC teaming is used to group two or more physical NICs into a single logical NIC. It is used to make a network fault tolerant.
Incorrect Answers:

D: Failover clusters are a group of two or more severs that share a common set of resources. This ensures data integrity and high availability.
It has two types of nodes: the active node and the passive node. The active node provides service to incoming connections. The passive node provides service
when an active node moves offline.

QUESTION 186
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 network environment. The network is configured as a Windows
Active Directory-based single forest single domain network. A single domain controller is configured on the network.

Some employees reported that they failed to log on to the domain controller. You want to know IP addresses and other details of the accounts of the employees.

Which of the following utilities will you use to accomplish the task?

A. Server Manager
B. Resource Monitor
C. Event Viewer
D. Performance Monitor

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

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Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to accomplish the task, you should use Event Viewer.
By using Event Viewer, you can check for the failed logon attempts on the domain controller. It provides IP addresses and other details for the employees who are
failed to log on to the domain controller.

QUESTION 187
Which of the following tasks can you perform without requiring administrative permissions or rights when you log in as a standard user in Windows Server 2016?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Change Windows settings.
B. Connect Bluetooth devices to the computer.
C. Install updates from Windows Update.
D. Reset the network adapter and perform network diagnostic and repair tasks.

Correct Answer: BCD

Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A user can perform the following tasks without requiring administrative permissions or rights when he logs in as a standard user in Windows Server 2016:

Install updates from Windows Update.

Install drivers from Windows Update.
View Windows settings.
Connect Bluetooth devices to the computer.
Reset the network adapter and perform network diagnostic and repair tasks.

Incorrect Answers:
A: You cannot change Windows settings when you log in as a standard user. To make changes in Windows settings, you have to log in as an administrator.

QUESTION 188
Disaster recovery is the process of resuming normal business operations as quickly as possible after the disaster is over. What does the disaster recovery process
include? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Testing all hardware and software before resuming operations

B. Restoring data
C. Encrypting data
D. Executing a written disaster recovery plan
E. Replacing any damaged hardware

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Correct Answer: ABDE
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Disaster recovery can be defined as the process of restoring systems and data if there is partial or complete failure of computers due to technical or other causes.
Disaster recovery is the process of resuming normal business operations as quickly as possible, after the disaster is over. The disaster recovery process includes
the following:

To execute a written disaster recovery plan.

To replace any damaged hardware.
To restore data.
To test all hardware and software before resuming operations.

Incorrect Answers:
C: The disaster recovery process does not include encryption of data.

QUESTION 189
You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. A server in the network is unable to load the network operating system.

You find that a POST error has occurred. You want to use a POST diagnostic hardware adapter to diagnose the error.

How will you use it?

A. Insert the card into an open bus slot. Boot the computer. The error codes will display on the adapter.
B. Connect the card to a serial port. Boot the computer. The error codes will be stored in a memory buffer created by the card.
C. Insert the card into an open bus slot. Boot the computer. The error codes will print.
D. Insert the card into an open bus slot. Boot the computer using the floppy disk provided by the card manufacturer. The error codes will be stored on a floppy
disk.

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
POST diagnostic hardware cards display error codes on the adapters.

Incorrect Answers:
B, C, D: Post does not store error codes on a floppy disk or on memory. It also does not print error codes.

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QUESTION 190
You are troubleshooting a system working on Windows Server 2016.

You need to create the ntbtlog.txt file in order to list all the drivers that are installed during startup.

Which of the following booting options will you choose to accomplish the task?
A. Safe Mode
B. Repair Your Computer
C. Directory Services Restore Mode
D. Enable Boot Logging

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to accomplish the task, you should choose the Enable Boot Logging option.
It is used to create the ntbtlog.txt file in order to list all the drivers that are installed during startup.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Safe Mode is used to start Windows with a minimal set of drivers and services.
B: The Repair Your Computer option is used to display a list of system recovery tools that can be used to repair startup problems, run diagnostics, and restore the
system.
C: Directory Services Restore Mode is used to start Windows domain controller running Active Directory so that the directory service can be restored.

QUESTION 191
Which of the following will you use to diagnose and recover from serious errors that may prevent Windows Server 2016 operating systems from booting
successfully?

A. Windows RE
B. Windows DS
C. Windows AIK
D. Windows SIM

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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Windows Recovery Environment (WinRE) is a recovery environment that can repair common causes of unbootable operating systems. WinRE is based on
Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE), and can be customized with additional drivers, languages, Windows PE Optional Components, and other
troubleshooting and diagnostic tools. By default, WinRE is preloaded into the Windows 10 for desktop editions (Home, Pro, Enterprise, and Education) and
Windows Server 2016 installations.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Windows Deployment Services (Windows DS) is a new and redesigned Windows Server version of Remote Installation Services (RIS). Windows DS is used to
install operating systems to set up new computers through a network without having to be physically present at each computer and without having to install directly
from a CD or DVD. Windows DS is commonly used to deploy Windows operating systems in large to medium size business environment computers.

C: The Windows Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK) is a set of tools and documentation provided with Windows operating system. It supports the
configuration and deployment of Windows operating systems. Administrators can use Windows AIK for automating Windows installations, capturing Windows
images with ImageX, configuring and modifying images, creating Windows PE images, and migrating user profiles and data. Windows AIK includes various
Windows tools such as Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT), Users State Migration Tools (USMT), etc.

D: Windows System Image Manager (Windows SIM) is a Windows tool that is used to create answer files (unattended.xml) and network shares. It is also used to
modify files available in a configuration set. This answer file is then transferred to the master computer, which is used for creating the installation image.

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-hardware/manufacture/desktop/windows-recovery-environment--windows-re--technical-reference

QUESTION 192
Which of the following is described in the following statement:

"It is a 512 bytes long boot sector that is the first sector of a default boot drive. It is also known as Volume Boot Sector, if the boot drive is un-partitioned."

A. POST
B. BIOS
C. SBR
D. MBR

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Master Boot Sector (MBR) is a 512-byte long boot sector that is the first sector of a default boot drive.
It is also known as Volume Boot Sector, if the boot drive is un-partitioned.
When the MBR is found, the program is tested and loaded to ensure that the last two bytes are h55AA.
The actual program is only 444 bytes long. The structure of the MBR is as follows:

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Incorrect Answers:
A: Power On Self Test (POST) is a small program stored in a Read Only Memory (ROM) Basic Input Output System (BIOS) of a computer system starting at
address hf000.
This program tests the basic motherboard functions such as power supply, memory, buses, interfaces, etc. and reports any error with audio beep codes. It also
sends diagnostic code to internal port h80 if an error occurs.

B: Basic Input/Output System (BIOS) is software that manages hardware and enables the operating system to communicate with the computer's hardware
components.
The BIOS software is built-in on a ROM chip, known as Complementary Metal Oxide Semiconductor (CMOS) chip, on the motherboard.

C: This is not a valid option.

QUESTION 193
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows-based network environment.

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You need to make a balance between accessibility, security, and cost while planning for backup.

Which of the following management methods will allow you to switch to the backup site while repairing the primary site?

A. Near-line
B. Backup site
C. Off-lineD. On-line

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
You should use the backup site management method.
This method allows you to switch to the backup site while repairing the primary site. It is a very expensive solution and it is difficult to implement this solution
properly.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The near-line method is less accessible and less expensive than the on- line method. It is used to include a tape library with restore times ranging from seconds
to a few minutes.
C: The off-line method requires some direct human action to manually load tapes into a tape library or drive. Access time can vary from minutes to hours or days.
D: The on-line method is the most accessible type of data storage in which hard disks or disk arrays are used. In this method, restore begins in milliseconds.

QUESTION 194
Which of the following hardware devices will you connect to the server in order to resist power outages or power fluctuations?

A. Hard disk
B. UPS
C. VHD
D. RAM

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to resist power outages or power fluctuations, you should connect UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) to the server.
UPS (Uninterruptible Power Supply) devices employ a large battery to provide power to a system in the event of a power outage. The amount of time it can
continue to supply power to the system depends upon the size of the battery, and the power consumption. UPS is built into the system between the reader and the

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external power source. The reader is susceptible to power spikes (caused due to lightning strikes or generator variations). UPS keeps the readers running in case
of a power failure and also protects them against unexpected power spikes. The UPS helps in keeping data, which may be in the random access memory (RAM)
and not yet pushed up to the application, from being lost and the configuration is not wiped out.

Incorrect Answers:
A: A hard disk drive is a non-volatile storage device that stores digitally encoded data on rapidly rotating rigid platters with magnetic surfaces.

C: Virtual Hard Disk (VHD) is a file with a .vhd extension. This file acts as a separate hard disk. In the Windows 10 or Windows Server 2016 operating system,
Virtual hard disks can be created and used on computers that are not virtual machines.

D: Random Access Memory (RAM) is a chip that comes embedded within a computer. It is loaded by an operating system while starting the computer and it also
copies an application to be run on the computer, such as a word processor or database program. Whenever a new program is created by a user, the program is
temporarily held by RAM and copied to the disk to save the data permanently.

QUESTION 195
You are working on Windows Server 2016. You want to specify the default entry that the boot manager selects when the timeout expires.

Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?

A. /bootsequence
B. /default
C. /copy
D. /displayorder

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to accomplish the task, you should use the BCDEdit/default command.
This command specifies the default entry that the boot manager selects when the timeout expires.

QUESTION 196
Which of the following root keys consists of subkeys corresponding to the HKEY_CURRENT_USER keys for each user profile actively loaded on the machine?

A. HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG
B. HKEY_USERS
C. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE
D. HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT

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Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The various root keys in Windows Server 2016 are as follows:
HKEY_CLASSES_ROOT: It stores information about registered applications.
HKEY_CURRENT_USER: It stores settings that are specific to the currently logged-in user. HKEY_CURRENT_USER is saved to HKEY_USERS when a user
logs off.
HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE. It stores settings that are specific to the local computer.
HKEY_USERS: It consists of subkeys corresponding to the HKEY_CURRENT_USER keys for each user profile actively loaded on the machine.
HKEY_CURRENT_CONFIG: It includes information gathered at run time. This information is not permanently stored on the disk. It is regenerated at the boot
time.

QUESTION 197
You work as a Server Administrator for company Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 Active Directory-based single forest network. The functional level
of the forest is Windows Server 2016. All client computers in the network run Windows 10.

You want to create a failover cluster in Windows Server 2016 in order to provide seamless easy-to-deploy high availability for important databases, messaging
servers, file and print services, and virtualized workloads.

Which of the following steps will you take to accomplish the task? Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.

A. Validate the hardware configuration.

B. Create a cluster using Failover Cluster Manager.
C. Assign a unique set of IP addresses to each node.
D. Install the Failover Cluster feature.

Correct Answer: ABD

Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to create a failover cluster in Windows Server 2016, you should take the following steps:
1. Install the Failover Cluster feature.
2. Validate the hardware configuration.
3. Create a cluster using Failover Cluster Manager.

Incorrect Answers:

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C: You need to assign a unique set of IP addresses to each node when you are working with Network Load Balancing (NLB).

QUESTION 198
You work as a Network Administrator for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows Server 2016 network environment. The network is configured as a
Windows Active Directory-based single forest single domain network. All client computers run Windows 10 Pro.

Martha, a Sales Manager, needs your help. She has installed a Windows update recently. After installing the update, she finds that the performance of her laptop
has deteriorated. She has rebooted her laptop twice, but the performance issue is still there.

Which of the following steps will you take to remove that update from her computer?

A. Restart her computer by using the Last Known Good Configuration option.
B. Remove the update from the Control Panel > Add or Remove Program.
C. Use the Device Manager utility to remove the update.
D. Uninstall the update from the Installed Updates list.

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to remove any update, you should uninstall the update from the Installed Updates list. Take the following steps to accomplish the task:
Click the View Installed Updates option from the Tasks panel.

Click the View Installed Updates option from the Tasks panel.

Select the update that you want to remove, and then click the Remove option.

QUESTION 199
Which of the following alerts gets generated when any server or client computer in the network has low disk space, which is less than 10% available across all
volumes?

A. Network Services Alerts

B. Server Event Log Alerts C. User Performance Alerts
D. Performance Counter Alerts

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
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Explanation:
Performance Counter Alerts is generated by default when any server or client computer in the network has low disk space, which is less than 10% available across
all volumes.

Incorrect Answers:
A: Network Services Alerts is generated by default when Windows monitors network services that are set to start automatically, and then it generates an alert if the
service stops. These services are critical to the functioning of the network.
B: Server Event Log Alerts gets generated when Windows monitors a specific set of events across the event logs. If any of the events are detected, an alert is
generated and displayed in the Other Alerts section of the reports.
C: There is no such alert as User Performance alerts in Windows.

QUESTION 200
John works as a Consumer Support Technician for Web Tech Inc. The company provides troubleshooting support to users.

A user named Peter is working with Windows 10. He reports that when he installs a new application on his computer, Windows Task Manager displays that the
CPU use is constantly at 100 percent. However, when he checks the desktop and Task Manager, he finds that no program is currently open.

Which of the following tabs will John use to identify the program which uses most of the CPU time?

A. Performance tab
B. Services tab
C. Users tab
D. Processes tab

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
In order to accomplish the task, John will use the Processes tab of Task Manager. The Processes tab shows a list of all the tasks that are running on the system.
It provides the Image Name, User Name, CPU time, Memory, and Description of the processes.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The Performance tab of Task Manager displays only overall statistics such as CPU usage, PF usage, etc. It does not provide information about any individual
process. The following image displays the output of the Performance tab:

B: The Services tab lists the services running on the system. It does not identify the program which uses most of the CPU time.

C: The Users tab lists the users who are currently logged in to the system. It does not identify the program which uses most of the CPU time.

QUESTION 201

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Which of the options in Windows Server 2016 can a user select to show a list of system recovery options?

A. Safe mode
B. Directory services restore mode
C. Safe mode with networking
D. Repair your computer

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
For accessing the Advanced Boot Options screen, a user needs to turn his computer on and press F8 prior to the Windows logo appears.
If the user has Windows Server 2016, then the user can select one of the following F8 options:
Repair Your Computer: It shows a list of system recovery tools.
Safe Mode: It is used to start Windows with a minimal set of drivers and services.
Safe Mode with Networking: It is used to start Windows in safe mode and include the network drivers and services needed to access the Internet or other
computers on the network.
Safe Mode with Command Prompt: It is used to start Windows in safe mode with a command prompt window instead of the usual Windows interface.
Enable Boot Logging: It is used to create a file, ntbtlog.txt, that lists all the drivers that are installed during startup and that might be useful for advanced
troubleshooting.
Enable low-resolution video (640 X 480): It is used to start Windows using the current video driver and low resolution and refresh rate settings.
Last known good configuration (advanced): It is used to start Windows with the last registry and driver configuration that worked successfully, usually marked as
the last successful login.
Directory Services Restore Mode: It is used to start Windows domain controller running Active Directory so that the directory service can be restored.
Debugging Mode: It is used to start Windows in an advanced troubleshooting mode intended for IT professionals and system administrators.
Disable automatic restart on system failure: It prevents Windows from automatically restarting if an error causes Windows to fail.
Disable Driver Signature Enforcement: It allows drivers containing improper signatures to be loaded. Start Windows Normally: It is used to start Windows in its
normal mode.
QUESTION 202
Which of the following tools will you use to view information about the use of hardware and software resources of a particular system in real time?

A. Event Viewer
B. Performance Monitor
C. Server Manager
D. Resource Monitor

Correct Answer: B

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Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Performance Monitor is a Windows tool that monitors system and network resources. It is used to get statistical data about the hardware and software components
of a server.

Incorrect Answers:
A: The Event Viewer allows checking of the log of multiple servers. Diagnostic logging helps in figuring out problems on several servers (with the databases on
those servers), and for the diagnostic logging, the user can view event logs with the Event Viewer in Windows or the Web Event Viewer in SharePoint Central
Administration.

C: Server Manager is a primary tool available in Windows Server 2016. It manages and secures multiple server roles in an enterprise. The Server Manager
console allows an administrator to perform the following tasks:
Install Windows Server roles and features. View the Event Viewer logs.
Access performance monitoring tools, Device Manager, Task Scheduler, Windows Firewall with Advanced Security, Services, Local Users and Groups, Windows
Server Backup, and Disk management.

D: Resource Monitor is a suite of administration tools designed to provide a quick overview of a single user interface. It can be launched from the start menu or
from the Task Manager using the Performance tab. Resource monitor displays real-time information about hardware resources but not software resources.

QUESTION 203
Which of the following represents the primary function of a server?

A. To provide the server role in the organization's network.

B. To provide client access to the organization's network.
C. To provide services to client computers on the organization's network.
D. To prevent unauthorized access to the organization's network.
Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

QUESTION 204
The primary program to configure the Windows environment is:

A. Computer Management Console

B. Control Panel

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C. Server ManagerD. Registry Editor

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
As with previous versions of Windows, the main graphical utility to configure the Windows environment and hardware devices is the Control Panel.

QUESTION 205
What program or component helps prevent unauthorized changes to Windows?

A. SysConf
B. SysInfo
C. UAC
D. Security Monitor

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
User Account Control (UAC)--a feature that started with Windows Vista and is included with Windows Server 2016--helps prevent unauthorized changes to your
computer. If you are logged in as an administrator, UAC asks you for permission, and if you are logged in as a standard user, UAC asks for an administrator
password before performing actions that can potentially affect your computer's operation or that change settings that affect other users.

QUESTION 206
Which Control Panel applet allows you to change the name of a computer or add the computer to a domain?

A. System
B. Reset
C. Domain
D. Computer

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
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Explanation:
Some of the most important configuration settings for a server administrator are the system settings within the Control Panel. These include gathering generation
information about your system, changing the computer name, adding the computer to a domain, accessing the device manager, configuring remote settings,
configuring startup and recovery options, and configuring overall performance settings.

QUESTION 207
What program would you use to install printers in Windows Server 2016?

A. Device Manager
B. Computer Management console
C. Devices and Printers
D. Print Manager

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Devices and Printers folder gives you a quick view of devices connected to your computer that you can connect to or disconnect from your computer through a
port or network connection. It also allows you to add printers.

QUESTION 208
You are viewing the Device Manager on a computer running Windows Server 2016. What does a down black arrow indicate?
A. The device is having down and having problems.
B. The device is disabled.
C. The device is a generic driver.
D. The device is not connected.

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A down black arrow indicates a disabled device. A disabled device is physically present in the computer and is consuming resources, but it does not have a driver
loaded.

QUESTION 209
You are viewing the Device Manager on a computer running Windows Server 2016. What does a black exclamation point on a yellow field indicate?

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A. The device is having down and having problems.
B. The device is disabled.
C. The device is a generic driver.
D. The device is not connected.

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A black exclamation point (!) on a yellow field indicates the device is in a problem state.

QUESTION 210
What command would you use to restart Windows on a computer running Windows Server 2016 Server Core?

A. shutdown /r /t 0
B. shutdown /r
C. shutdown /q /x
D. shutdown /q /t 0

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
To restart the computer, you use the following command:

Shutdown/r /t 0orshutdown /r
The /r specifies reboot, and /t 0 (short for 0 seconds) indicates a reboot immediately.

QUESTION 211
What command would you use to configure a static IP address and default gateway for a computer running Windows Server 2016 Server Core?

A. netsh interface ipv4 set address name="<ID>" source=static address=<StaticIP> mask=<SubnetMask> gateway=<DefaultGateway>
B. netsh interface ipv4 set address name="<ID>" source=dynamic address=<DHCPIP> mask=<SubnetMask> gateway=<DefaultGateway>
C. netsh interface ipv4 set address name="<ID>" source=static address=<StaticIP> mask=<SubnetMask> gateway=<AlternateGateway>
D. netsh interface ipv4 set address name="<ID>" source=static address=<StaticIP> subnet=<SubnetMask> gateway=<DefaultGateway>

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Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When you view the output of the netsh command, you need to note the number shownintheIdx column for your network adapter.
To set a static IP address and default gateway, use the following command:

netsh interface ipv4 set address name="<ID>" source=static address=<StaticIP>mask=<SubnetMask> gateway=<DefaultGateway>

QUESTION 212
What stores the boot-time configuration data for Windows 10 and Windows Server 2016?

A. NTOSKRNL.EXE
B. ntdetect.com
C. boot.ini
D. BCD

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Boot Configuration Data (BCD) is a firmware-independent database for boot- time configuration data used by Microsoft's Windows Boot Manager found with
Windows Vista, Windows 10, and Windows Server2008. To edit the Boot Configuration, you typically use Bcdedit.exe.

QUESTION 213
What boot option starts Windows with a minimal set of drivers and services?

A. Safe mode
B. Last Known Good Configuration
C. Directory Services Restore Mode
D. Debugging Mode

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
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Safe mode starts Windows with a minimal set of drivers and services. If you make a change to the system and Windows no longer boots, you can try safe mode.

QUESTION 214
What mode starts Windows with the last registry and driver configuration that worked successfully?

A. Safe mode
B. Last Known Good Configuration
C. Directory Services Restore Mode
D. Debugging Mode

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Last known good configuration starts Windows with the last registry and driver configuration that worked successfully, usually marked as the last successful logon.

QUESTION 215
The best method to data recovery is:

https://vceplus.com/

A. backup
B. DFS
C. RAID
D. spare drives

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
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Explanation:
A backup, or the process of backing up, refers to making copies of data so that these copies can be used to restore the original after a data-loss event. They can
be used to restore entire systems following a disaster or to restore small file sets that were accidentally deleted or corrupted.

QUESTION 216
Which task is executed during the Power-On Self Test (POST)?

A. The amount of system RAM is detected.

B. The Master Boot Record is created.
C. The operating system is initialized.
D. Disk file systems are detected.

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 217
You configure Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS) to save previous versions of a shared folder. By default, the copies of shared folders are stored in:
A. A Network Attached Storage (NAS) device.
B. A Distributed File System (DFS) share.
C. A failover cluster.
D. A local volume.

Correct Answer: D
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Shadow Copy technology requires the file system to be NTFS to be able to create and store shadow copies. Shadow Copies can be created on local and external
(removable or network) volumes by any Windows component that uses this technology, such as when creating a scheduled Windows Backup or automatic System
Restore point.

QUESTION 218
Which two components are required to configure a TCP/IP connection? (Choose two.)

A. Subnet mask
B. DHCP address
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C. Host address
D. Domain name

Correct Answer: AC
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
An IP address and a subnet mask. The IP address is the host address.

QUESTION 219
You need to make a share hidden. Which symbol should you append to the share name?

A. _
B. !
C. @
D. #
E. $

Correct Answer: E
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The "$" appended to the end of the share name means that it is a hidden share. Windows will not list such shares among those it defines in typical queries by
remote clients to obtain the list of shares. One needs to know the name of an administrative share in order to access it. Not every hidden share is administrative
share; in other words, ordinary hidden shares may be created at user's discretion.

QUESTION 220
What is required to create a volume mount point?

A. A dynamic disk
B. RAID 1 implementation
C. An NTFS file system volume or partition
D. Extended volumes

Correct Answer: C

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Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
A volume mount point can be placed in any empty folder of the host NTFS volume.

QUESTION 221
The purpose of the Information Technology Infrastructure Library is to provide a:

A. Set of standards for networking protocols.

B. Set of best practices for managing IT services.
C. Downloadable library of hardware drivers.
D. Technical library of Windows infrastructure services.

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL) is a set of practices for IT service management (ITSM) that focuses on aligning IT services with the needs
of business.

QUESTION 222
To change the boot device order of a computer, you should use:

A. Device Manager.
B. Disk Management.
C. BIOS settings.
D. Computer Policy.

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Example: Change the Boot Order in BIOS
Turn on or restart your computer and watch for a message during the POST about a particular key, usually Del or F2, that you'll need to press to ...enter SETUP.
Press this key as soon as you see the message.

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QUESTION 223
You need to control which Microsoft Office updates are automatically deployed to client computers.

Which tool should you use?

A. Microsoft Office SharePoint Services (MOSS)

B. Windows Server Update Services (WSUS)
C. Windows Update
D. Microsoft Office Update

Correct Answer: B
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) enables information technology administrators to deploy the latest Microsoft product updates to computers that are
running the Windows operating system. By using WSUS, administrators can fully manage the distribution of updates that are released through Microsoft Update to
computers in their network.

QUESTION 224
Which two are Windows Server Cluster types? (Choose two.)

A. Shared storage
B. Failover
C. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
D. Shared services

Correct Answer: BC
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The difference between NLB and Windows Failover Cluster.
An NLB array allows load to be spread NLB and Windows Failover Cluster.
A failover cluster provides high availability and redundancy, but doesn’t spread the load. Only one server is live at any time, but the clustered application(s) can
be moved to the other server very quickly.

QUESTION 225
You need to ensure that Active Directory can be recovered in case of a server failure. Your backup must include the:
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A. Shared drives
B. Page File
C. System State
D. Computer name

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The System State data includes Active Directory and all other system components and services on which Active Directory is dependent.

QUESTION 226

You need to find a list of specific events.

What should you do?

A. Export the events to a .doc file.

B. Clear the log by saving it.
C. Filter by creating a custom view.
D. Use the Search menu option.

Correct Answer: C
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Quickly Filter Event Logs in Windows Server 2016

The Event Viewer automatically creates several filtered views of the event logs. Filtered views are listed under the Custom Views node.

QUESTION 227
You need to secure a server that you have been working on without disrupting the work of other employees in your company.

What should you do?

A. Log off the server

B. Hibernate the server

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C. Restart the server
D. Shut down the server

Correct Answer: A
Section: Understanding server maintenance
Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

https://vceplus.com/

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