MCQ – PROJECT MANAGEMENT (302)

1. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), project management is defined as “the
application of knowledge, _____, _____, and techniques to project activities to meet the project
requirements”.

Select one:
a. skills, analysis
b. tools, analysis
c. analysis, theories
d. skills, tools
e. skills, theories

Answer: (D) skills, tools

2. As a project manager, Tyler is so happy that all expected project deliverable has been
accomplished by his project team. What is the next step for his project to proceed in order to verify
the project scope by his project client?

Select one:
a. Ask his client to pay for the completed project deliverables.
b. Award all of his project team members for such a great accomplishment.
c. Offer a party for his project team and client to celebrate the success of the project.
d. Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed project deliverables.
e. Invite a few experts to judge the quality of all the completed project deliverables.

Answer : (d) Ask his client to conduct an inspection on all of the completed project deliverables

3. What is the first step in project planning?

Select one:
a. Establish the objectives and scope.
b. Determine the budget.
c. Select the team organizational model.
d. Determine project constraints.
e. Inspect the deliverables.

Answer: (a) Establish the objectives and scope

4. While assessing your project processes, you have identified some uncontrolled process variations.
Which of the following would be the appropriate chart you may use for this purpose?

Select one:
a. Pareto diagram
b. PERT chart
c. Control chart
d. HR personnel chart
e. Critical path

Ans: - C. Control chart

5. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next phase
of the project life cycle?

Select one:
a. Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.
b. The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.
c. Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if
the project should be chosen.
d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
e. A risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis

Answer: – D. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.

6. Fill in the blank. Risk must be considered in the _____ phase and weighed against the potential
benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.

Select one:
a. completion
b. closeout
c. execution
d. planning
e. initiation

Answer is – (E) initiation

7. Due to the rapid expansion of your company, your boss decides to establish a project
management office (PMO) within the company and asks you to take the lead. According to the
PMBOK guide, to be the ideal PMO you can do which of the following?

Select one:
a. Speed up a specific ongoing project.
b. Find opportunities for collaborative project management.
c. Reassign the resources that have been assigned to ongoing projects.
d. Reduce the assigned resources to existing projects.
e. Reduce the number of project managers in the company.

Ans – B. Find opportunities for collaborative project management

8. Why does the creation of processes for developing teams, establishing priorities, and distributing
work and tasks require different sets of skills?

Select one:
a. Because resources on the project management team may view it as permanent
b. Because resources on the project management team may view it as temporary
c. Because resources on the project team are not aware of the technical aspects of the initiative
d. Because members of the project management team are not aware of the knowledge and skills of
the other people working on the project
e. Because project management teams do not look after the operational aspects of the project and
are concerned only with the strategy

Ans – b. Because resources on the project management team may view it as temporary
Question 9. According to Bruce Tuckman’s five stages of team development, project team members
compete for control at which stage?

Select one:
a. Forming
b. Storming
c. Norming
d. Performing
e. Adjourning

Answer- (b) Storming

10. The project management office (PMO) handles all of the following functions EXCEPT:

Select one:
a. maintaining the organization’s project management policies and procedures.
b. supervising the project managers.
c. assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring contract project managers.
d. monitoring project performance. e. providing functional support to projects like project
scheduling and project cost analysis

Ans – c. assigning project managers from other departments but not procuring contract project
managers.

11. Under which of the following conditions would teams be more effective than individuals?

Select one:
a. When speed is important
b. When the activities involved in solving the problem are very detailed
c. When the actual document needs to be written
d. When innovation is required
e. When a commitment to the solution is needed by small portions of the project tea

Ans – d. When innovation is required

12. Which of the following is the process of understanding the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed
to manage a task and then matching the team members with the right skills to do that work?

Select one:
a. Benchmarking
b. Expediting
c. Procurement
d. Delegation
e. Solicitation

Ans – d. Delegation

13. Which of the following defines what tasks the project resources are expected to accomplish and,
just as importantly, what is not part of the project team’s responsibilities?

Select one:
a. Punch list
b. Check sheet
c. Project logic diagram
d. Checklist
e. Scope document

Ans – e. Scope document

14. After Marta obtained her PMP certificate, her boss assigned her to be in charge of a long-term
project, which a recently resigned project manager, Todd, had been working on for three years.
When Marta looks at historical information that Todd achieved for this project, which of the
following is deemed most critical for Marta to manage her project team?

Select one:
a. Project contract
b. Detailed activity lists and WBS dictionary
c. Legal documents
d. Project lessons
e. Learn who are the project investors

Ans – b. Detailed activity lists and WBS dictionary

15. Fill in the blank. There is _______ correlation between project complexity and project risk. Select
one:

a. an unknown
b. a positive
c. no
d. a negative
e. a general

Ans – b. a positive

16. As a new project manager, Karen was worried about a statement from her client: “your project
deliverable is in low quality with low grade”. According to PMBOK, how can you help Karen
distinguish the differences between “quality” and “grade”?

Select one:
a. Quality and grade represent the same thing.
b. Low quality can never be a problem, but low grade is.
c. Low quality represents a true problem, but low grade might not be the case.
d. Low quality with high grade is always desirable to your client. e. High quality always represents
high grade.

Answer – c. Low quality represents a true problem, but low grade might not be the case

17. Complete the following statement. As a project manager, Darrell is excited that he is assigned to
be in charge of the most important project this year. After being chartered for the project, he
analyses the information in the project charter and the stakeholder register to:
Select one:
a. decides how to draft a scope statement.
b. start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements.

 c. prepares for the template to monitor project progress.

d. estimates the entire project budget.
e. learns how to get project budget approved by stakeholders.

Answer – b. start to define and develop the stakeholder needs and requirements.

18. After Ling finished drafting a new project charter, she sent a copy of the charter to all key project
parties including the project sponsor, senior management and key stakeholders, and scheduled a
kick-off meeting with them. What will be the most important goal for Ling to complete the project
charter?

Select one:
a. Make a professional looking project charter to impress the key project parties.
b. Get confirmation from the key parties that they have read the charter.
c. Invite the key parties for a nice lunch to establish a friendly relationship.

d. Gather promises from the key project players.

e. Obtain officially signed project charters from the key parties.

Answer – e. Obtain officially signed project charters from the key parties.

19. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager focuses on developing
the project infrastructure needed to execute the project and developing clarity around the project
charter and scope.

Select one:
a. completion
b. start-up
c. execution
d. evaluation
e. selection

Answer – b. start-up

20. A project budget estimate that is developed with the least amount of knowledge is known as
which of the following?

Select one:
a. rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimates
b. Scope of work estimate
c. Conceptual estimate
d. Line estimate
e. Milestone schedule estimate

Answer – c. Conceptual estimate

21. What is the first step in developing a risk management plan?

Select one:
a. Analyse the risks.
b. Estimate the likelihood of the risks occurring.
c. Identify potential project risks.
d. Develop a risk mitigation plan.
e. Estimate the potential impact of risk on the project goals.

Answer – c. Identify potential project risks

22. According to the PMBOK guide, which of the following statements is right in terms of using
reserve analysis to determine a project budget?

Select one:
A. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project
costs, which are part of your project budget.
B. Reserves should not be included in the project budget.
C. If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you try to
determine your project budget.
D. Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.
E. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.

Answer – A. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and
project costs, which are part of your project budget.

23. Complete the following statement. As the project progresses into the execution phase:

Select one:
a. risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.
b. the total risk on the project typically increases.
c. risks are identified with each major group of activities.
d. a risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis.
e. the risk breakdown structure needs to be examined to be sure all the risk events have been
avoided.

Answer – a. risks need to be checked off on activities that have been performed.

24. Which of the following statements about achieving a common understanding of the project
purpose is true?

Select one:
a. A common understanding means building a consensus and disagreement regarding a project’s
purpose is often fatal to project execution.
b. Developing a common understanding involves defining project success, determining potential
barriers to success, establishing milestones, and identifying decision-makers.
c. The methods and processes employed to develop a common understanding depend on the
duration of the project.
d. Irrespective of the complexity of the project, developing a common understanding usually
involves informal discussions that last a few hours.
e. When developing a common understanding of the purpose of a project, participants are often
instructed to refrain from expressing scepticism.
Answer – b. Developing a common understanding involves defining project success, determining
potential barriers to success, establishing milestones, and identifying decision-makers.

25. Which of the following is typically a written document that defines what work will be
accomplished by the end of the project?

Select one:
a. Scope of work (SOW)
b. Project logic diagram
c. Milestone scheduled. Ballpark estimate
e. Work breakdown structure

Answer – a. Scope of work (SOW)

26. What is considered to be the most useful skill for a project manager who works in a matrix
environment in order to achieve project goals?

Select one:
a. Leadership skill
b. Influencing
c. Conflict management skill
d. Time management
e. Planning skill

Answer – b. Influencing

27. Marco is an investor, and Jon is a project team member. Both have intensive technical
background for the project that you are managing. However, recently they have disagreed on the
next step to take for the project. They both decide to defer to whoever has the authority to make
this decision. Who has the authority to decide which direction should be taken for the project?

Select one:
a. Project manager
b. Stakeholders
c. The project team
d. Investors
e. The board of trustees of this company

Answer – c. The project teams

28. As a project manager, while Kathy was trying to categorize all potential risks for her new
construction project M based on levels of probability and impact on the project, she identified a
potential risk, regarding a schedule conflict with another project to obtain critical equipment for a
short time period. Overall, because this risk is probable and might impact her project M, Kathy wants
to record this risk; however, she is confused about where she should document this type of risk.
According to the PMBOK guide, where should Kathy document this risk?

Select one:
a. Watch list
b. Risk management plan
c. Project management plan
d. WBS
e. Scope management plan

Answer – d. WBS

29. Which of the following is a quality management system that gives titles to specialists and
requires a cost-benefit analysis?

Select one:
a. Lean accounting
b. Business process re-engineering
c. Kaizen
d. Six Sigma
e. Total Quality Management

Answer – d. Six Sigma

30. Which one of the following is the last step of project closings?

Select one:
a. The client has accepted the product.
b. Archives are complete.
c. The client appreciates your product.
d. Lessons learned are documented.
e. Temporary staff is released.

Answer – b. Archives are complete.

31. As a project manager of Project Cool at the company, Samira is responsible for monitoring and
controlling two project management processes: process A and process B. She recently noticed a high
priority risk X has been imposed on her project process A in Project Cool. While she tried to control
the risk X, she also noticed that a new potential risk Y will be added to process B. Which of the
following best explains this situation?

Select one:
a. If risk Y happens, then it is all Samira’s fault, because she did not do a good job of carefully
monitoring the risks for Project Cool.
b. This is common in practice. Risk Y is a secondary risk caused by Risk X.
c. The potential risk might happen, but Samira can ignore risk Y, as risk X takes higher priority.
d. Samira is not experienced enough for handling risk management, so her boss will probably fire
her.
e. Risk Y is called a low priority risk, which is not considered to be a real concern, so Samira should
not worry about risk Y.

Answer – b. This is common in practice. Risk Y is a secondary risk caused by Risk X.

32. Roberto is in charge of a new project to help Company A upgrade its old HR system to a cutting-
edge, cross-platform system with the most recent mobile technologies. After his project team
assessed the available system documentations, the team found the existing documentations too
large and complicated to implement the system updates. Roberto advised his team to decompose
the major project deliverables into more executable components. In this project process, Robert
advised his team to do which of the following?

Select one:
a. Document requirements
b. Create WBS
c. Define project scope
d. Verify project scope
e. Plan project milestones

Answer – b. Create WBS

33. Complete the following statement. In a weak matrix environment, the project manager, Eric, has
to constantly make an effort to influence his project team and stakeholders to ensure project
success. This is because:

Select one:
a. Eric has a lot of authority.
b. Eric has no or little authority.
c. Eric is controlled by his functional managers.
d. there are no functional managers.
e. Eric has flexibility on authority.

Answer – b. Eric has no or little authority.

34. Jack is in charge of a project team. Due to an unexpected project change, some issues with the
project have come up. Two key team members, Samantha and Felix, are arguing their solutions to
the project problems. They cannot convince each other, and their conflict is creating a negative
impact on the project’s progress. As a PMP, which of the following would be the best advice for Jack
to manage this conflict?

Select one:
a. Confront the problem early, and invite both Samantha and Felix to private meetings.
b. Force Felix to give up and to support Samantha.
c. Suggest that Samantha concede to Felix.
d. Let Felix and Samantha exercise their concerns through conflict resolution.
e. Delay this issue for now until it becomes a significant conflict.

Answer – a. Confront the problem early, and invite both Samantha and Felix to private meetings.

35. Ahmed is actively initiating a project, so he plans to invite all relevant internal and external
stakeholders including sponsors, customers, project teams, etc. for a kick-off meeting. To ensure all
of them are covered in the stakeholder register, which document is the most helpful for Ahmed to
look at?

Select one:
a. Project team activities
b. Scope statement
c. Project charter
d. Work packages
e. Project funding agents

Answer – c. Project charter

36. Which of the following is a personal characteristic that reflects the truthfulness of an individual
that can be checked against observable facts?

Select one:
a. Objective credibility
b. Attribution of benevolence
c. non-manipulative trust
d. High cost of lying
e. Acknowledgment of munificence

Answer – a. Objective credibility

37. When a project manager starts to plan a new project budget, the cost of which project
management process group is expected to be lowest?

Select one:
a. Initiating
b. Executing
c. Monitoring and controlling
d. Closing
e. Planning

Answer – d. Closing

38. CV = $70,000; AC = 90,000; Budget = $200,000. What percent of the project is complete?

Select one: a. 80% b. 53% c. 45% d. 35% e. 75%

Answer – a. 80%

39. As a project manager, John was finally relieved because a major project led by him was just
announced a success. According to the PMBOK, which of the following has likely happened in order
to consider John’s project a success?

Select one:
a. John’s project has met all of the stakeholders’ expectations.
b. The phase completion of John’s project has been approved.
c. John’s client has paid off the project.
d. John’s boss is happy.
e. John and his team are promoted and get salary increases.

Answer – c. John’s client has paid off the project.

40. As a project manager, Neel has a team member, Kate, who has not been performing well. Due to
many repeated mistakes, she has significantly delayed the whole project progress. Neel tried to offer
relevant trainings for Kate to improve her performance, and he was not able to see any progress in
two months. However, Kate is a single mom with three kids, and she needs this job to support her
family. Based on what you know about conflict management, in this situation, how should Neel
proceed?

Select one:
a. Neel should fire Kate and look for a more qualified team member.
b. Neel should help Kate find another job in the firm.
c. Neel should assign Kate more challenging tasks.
d. Neel should let Kate stay on the job and pick up her slack.
e. Neel should reduce Kate’s salary to reflect her performance.

Answer – a. Neel should fire Kate and look for a more qualified team member

PERT and CPM MCQs

Question 1

What is PERT analysis based on?

A. Optimistic time

B. Pessimistic time

C. Most likely time

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Question 2

Which of the options is not a notable challenge while scheduling a project?

A. Deadlines exist

B. Independent activities

C. Too many workers may be required

D. Costly delay

Answer: B

Question 3

What is the particular task performance in CPM known as?

A. Dummy

B. Event

C. Activity

D. Contract

Answer: C

Question 4

What is the earliest start time rule?

A. It compares the activity’s starting time for an activity successor.

B. It compares the activity’s end time for an activity predecessor.

C. It directs when a project can start.

D. It regulates when a project must begin.

Answer: B

Question 5

What is a critical path?

A. It is a path that operates from the starting node to the end node.

B. It is a mixture of all the paths

C. It is the longest path

D. It is the shortest path

Answer: C

Question 6

What is the completion of a CPM network diagram activity commonly known as?

A. Connector

B. Event

C. Node

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Question 7

Activities A, B, and C are the immediate predecessors for Y activity. If the earliest finishing time for
the three activities are 12, 15, and 10, then what will be the earliest starting time for Y?

A. 10

B. 15

C. 12

D. Cannot be determined

Answer: B

Question 8

Activities P, Q, and R instantly follow activity M, and their current starting times are 12, 19, and 10.
So, what is the latest finishing time for activity M?

A. 11

B. 10
C. 18

D. Cannot be determined

Answer: A

Question 9

Activity in a network diagram is represented by?

A. Rectangles

B. Arrows

C. Squares

D. Circles

Answer: B

Question 10

What happens when a project is scheduled by CPM?

A. A project is divided into various activities

B. Required time for each activity is established

C. A sequence of various activities is made according to their importance

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Risk analysis and management - MCQs

1. Every risk has 100% likelihood. True or false.

a) True
b) False

2. Risk management is responsibility of the

a) Customer
b) Investor
c) Developer
d) Project team
e) Production team
ANSWER: d) Project team

Comment: Risk management is responsibility of a whole project team. They should identify the risks
as early as possible and come up with the ways to deal with them.

3. Risk is expressed in terms of probability and impact.

a) True
b) False

ANSWER: a) True

Comment: A factor that could result in future negative consequences; usually expressed in terms of
impact and likelihood.

4. .RE represents what

a) Risk expense
b) Related expense
c) Risk exposure
d) Risk evaluation

ANSWER: c) Risk exposure

Comment: Risk Exposure=probability* impact.

In an organization risk exposure is statistically measurable value where impact and probability are
assigned on scale of 1-5 or 1-10. Risk Exposure is also called as a Risk Priority Number (RPN).

5. As a tester which of the following will come under product risk if you are testing an e-commerce
website?

a) Shortage of testers
b) Many changes in SRS that caused changes in test cases
c) Delay in fixing defects by development team
d) Failure to transfer a user to secure gateway while paying
e) All of the above

ANSWER: d) Failure to transfer a user to secure gateway while paying

Comment: A risk directly related to the test objects are product risks.

6. Which of the following technique will ensure that impact of risk will be less?

a) Risk avoidance technique

b) Risk Mitigation technique
c) Risk contingency technique
d) All of the above

ANSWER: c) Risk contingency technique

Comment: Mitigation and avoidance is same that is reducing likelihood.

7. What is associated with product risk?

a) Control of test item

b) Negative consequences
c) non-availability of test environment
d) Test object

ANSWER: d) Test object

Comment: A risk directly related to the test objects are product risks.

8. Risk management is important part of a project management. True or false.

a) True
b) False
ANSWER: a) True

9. After deployment of a system, a software is incorrectly performing one of its major functionalities.
Who is going to determine how badly it will hamper the organization?

a) QA personnel
b) Developer
c) Technical people
d) Business analyst

ANSWER: d) Business analyst

Comment: Business people will determine the impact while technical people will determine
probability of risk occurrence while assessing the risk

10. Which is/are ways to deal with risk?

a) Mitigate
b) Contingency
c) Transfer
d) Ignore
e) All of the above

ANSWER: e) All of the above

Comment: Mitigate: avoid likelihood

Contingency: Reduce impact
Transfer: Outsource expertise
Ignore: Done if likelihood and impact are low

11. What is risk?

a) Negative consequence that could occur

b) Negative consequence that will occur
c) Negative consequence that must occur
d) Negative consequence that shall occur

ANSWER: a) Negative consequence that could occur

1. According to the Project Management Institute (PMI), the scope statement should address all of
the following issues EXCEPT:

Select one:
a. project constraints.
b. project assumptions’
c. project exclusions.
d. code of conduct for the team members working on the project.
e. project deliverables.

Ans – d. code of conduct for the team members working on the project

2. Fill in the blank. The _____ is the difference between the additional money spent on prevention
and the corresponding reduction in the cost of failure.

Select one:
a. cost-benefit analysis
b. implicit cost
c. cost of quality
d. variable cost
e. cost-utility analysis

Ans- c. cost of quality

3. Which of the following project baselines provides the basis for measurement of the expected cash
flow against requirements over time and is often displayed as an S curve?

Select one:
a. Schedule baseline
b. Cost performance baseline
c. Scope baseline
d. Plan baseline
e. Initiation baseline

Ans – b. Cost performance baseline

4. The conceptual estimate is developed with the least amount of knowledge. When more
information is known, the project team can develop a:

Select one:
a. work breakdown structure
b. critical estimate
c. rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimates
d. scope of work
e. ballpark estimate

Ans – c. rough order of magnitude (ROM) estimate

5. Petri is working for Nokia in Finland. He has completed 10 months of his 12-month project,
budgeted at $800,000. His earned value analysis shows that variance at completion is $75,000. What
is the estimate at completion value for this project?

Select one:
a. 725,000
b. -725,000
c. -$875,000
d. $875,000
e. $800,000

Ans – d. $875,000

6. Which of the following statements about flowcharts is true?

Select one:
a. Most flowcharts use one width of column to represent a category, while the vertical axis
represents the frequency of occurrence.
b. If a particular method is a standard of quality, you can compare your organization’s quality plan to
it by flowcharting.
c. A flowchart shows the ratio of cost of increasing quality to the resulting benefit.
d. If some of the functions of a project are repetitive, flowcharting can be used to identify trends.
e. Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.

Ans – e. Flowcharting is useful for communicating responsibility for work processes.

7. During the project meeting, the project manager had to leave earlier due to a family emergency.
Afterwards, a few team members started to argue, so the project meeting took very long without
producing outcomes. What is the possible reason that resulted in the inefficient project meeting in
this scenario?

Select one:
a. No project team ground rules were set up.
b. The current communications plan was very poorly designed.
c. The absence of project manager resulted in inefficiency.
d. There was no incentive mechanism set up to encourage team members to take over more
responsibilities.
e. The project team was not very cooperative.

Ans – a. No project team ground rules were set up.

8. Fill in the blank. Work breakdown structure (WBS) is a ______________ of the work with
increasing detail in each layer.

Select one:
a. layered description
b. step change
c. ballpark estimate
d. project execution plan
e. project logic diagram

Ans – a. layered description

9. According to the PMBOK guide which of the following statements is right in terms of using reserve
analysis to determine a project budget?

Select one:
a. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and project
costs, which are part of your project budget.
b. Reserves should not be included in the project budget.
c. If you only have limited resources, you may completely ignore reserve analysis when you try to
determine your project budget.
d. Planning contingency reserves for a project is not practical.
e. Contingency reserves have never been a concern when planning a project budget.

Ans – a. Reserve analysis always plans contingency reserves for unexpected project scope and
project costs, which are part of your project budget.

10. Fill in the blanks. It is during the ______________ phase that the decision should be made
regarding whether the project should continue. During this phase, ____________ must be
considered and weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success.

Select one:
a. completion, cost
b. closeout, resources
c. execution, performance
d. planning, timing
e. initiation, risk

Ans – e. initiation, risk

11 TO 20 MCQ FOR PROJECT MANAGEMENT

11. What is the most critical aspect in developing a project plan that meets project specifications
within the timeframe and at the lowest costs?

Select one:
a. Assessing risk management
b. Providing documents that specifically comply with the quality standards in use
c. Emphasizing error prevention and customer satisfaction
d. Requiring commitment to quality by all the employees and business partners
e. Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the project
Ans – e. Developing a project execution plan that matches the complexity level of the project

12. Fill in the blank. Risk represents the likelihood that an event will happen during the life of the
project that will negatively affect the ________________ of project goals.

Select one:
a. scope creep
b. achievement
c. float
d. rough order of magnitude
e. slack

Ans – b. achievement

13. What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all the work in the project is
included?

Select one:
a. Create a contingency plan.
b. Create a risk management plan.
c. Create a WBS.
d. Create a statement of work.
e. Create a scope statement.

Ans – c. Create a WBS

14. Fill in the blank. During the _________ of a project, the project manager focuses on developing
the project infrastructure needed to execute the project and developing clarity around the project
charter and scope.

Select one:
a. completion
b. start-up
c. execution
d. evaluation
e. selection

Ans – b. start-up

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15. After the celebration of the successful milestone completion, a project manager will often do
which of the following?

Select one:
a. Continue to increase the intensity of the project to achieve the next milestone.
b. Continue to follow the exact same project plan that helped the team achieve the milestone.
c. Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the project work.
d. Select an upcoming key event and designate it as the next milestone.
e. Stretch the goals of the project team, making them more tough and rigorous.
Ans – c. Allow the team to reflect on finding new ways of approaching the project work.

16. Once the project is approved and moves into the planning stage, what happens in the next phase
of the project life cycle?

Select one:
a. Agreements for risk sharing need to be concluded.
b. The total risk on the project typically reduces as activities are performed without loss.
c. Risks must be weighed against the potential benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if
the project should be chosen.
d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities.
e. A risk response plan can be used to identify increasing levels of detailed risk analysis

Ans – d. Risks are identified with each major group of activities

17. What is the first step in project planning?

Select one:
a. Establish the objectives and scope.
b. Determine the budget.
c. Select the team organizational model.
d. Determine project constraints.
e. Inspect the deliverables.

Ans – a. Establish the objectives and scope.

18. Fill in the blank. Risk must be considered in the _____ phase and weighed against the potential
benefit of the project’s success in order to decide if the project should be chosen.

Select one:
a. completion
b. closeout
c. execution
d. planning
e. initiation

Ans – e. initiation

19. According to PMBOK, project management process groups are iterative, which was originally
defined by Walter Shewhart and later modified by Edward Deming. Generally, one outcome from a
previous process can serve as input for the next process. Which of the following best identifies with
the description of this concept?

Select one:
a. Project life cycle
b. Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle
c. Project phases
d. PM processes
e. HR process cycle
Ans – b. Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle

20. Determining the policies that are needed for the smooth execution of a project relates to which
of the following agenda items of alignment sessions?

Select one:
a. Developing a common understanding of the project purpose
b. Establishing trust among team members
c. Engaging stakeholders in dialogue
d. Developing role clarification on projects
e. Agreeing on the means and methods for accomplishing the purpose

Ans – d. Developing role clarification on projects

21 TO 30 MCQ FOR PROJECT MANAGEMENT

21. Which of the following is true about management meetings?

Select one:
a. They are short meetings to develop a common understanding of what the short-term priorities are
for the project.
b. They focus on short-term activities, usually less than a week in duration.
c. They are purely fact-based meetings with a left-brain type focus.
d. They have very little dialogue except to ask clarification questions.
e. They are oriented toward developing plans, tracking progress of existing plans, and making
adjustments to plans in response to new information.

Ans – e. They are oriented toward developing plans, tracking progress of existing plans, and making
adjustments to plans in response to new information.

22. Do it because I said to” is the mantra for project managers who use _____ as the default
approach to resolve conflict.

Select one:
a. collaborating
b. compromising
c. accommodating
d. forcing
e. avoiding

Ans – d. forcing

23. A(n) _ is a review of the quality plan, procedures, data collection, and analysis by an outside
group. Select one:

a. scope document
b. project appraisal
c. cost performance index
d. analogous estimate
e. quality audit
Ans – e. quality audit

24. Which of the following is an advantage of including the project manager in the project evaluation
process?

Select one:
a. It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can be used
when making decisions about the project during later phases.
b. It may indicate a need for project manager skills and experiences that are different from the
project manager who is involved in the evaluation.
c. It allows the parent organization to select a project manager whose abilities match the complexity
profile of the project.
d. It improves the project manager’s level of understanding about the project and ensures that the
chosen project manager is the most suitable individual for executing the project.
e. It helps achieve greater buy-in from the top management of the parent organization.

Ans – a. It enables the project manager to have an understanding of the selection criteria that can be
used when making decisions about the project during later phases.

25. Which of the following statements is true regarding contracts?

Select one:
a. They are the filters through which project members screen information that is shared.
b. They do not lend themselves to create an environment of trust.
c. The success of larger, more complex projects is more dependent on contracts than on
relationships of trust.
d. Without contracts, projects that are highly dependent on an information-rich environment will
suffer.
e. Contracts promote the growth of a trusting project culture.

Ans – b. They do not lend themselves to create an environment of trust.

26. Role clarification facilitates the development of all of the following, EXCEPT:

Select one:
a. communication planning.
b. key milestones.
c. work flow organization.
d. approval processes.
e. role boundary spanning processes.

Ans – b. key milestones.

27. During a new project planning process to sequence activities, the project manager, Nate, decides
to use the precedence diagramming method to show the identified activity dependencies. Which of
the following logical relationships is Nate’s least favourite choice?

Select one:
a. Finish-to-start
b. Start-to-finish
c. Finish-to-finish
d. Start-to-start
e. All of these answers

Ans – b. Start-to-finish

28. In today’s global society, many projects become global. To effectively work together, global
virtual teams have been used in practice. As a project manager for a global project, Jim was told by a
local team member, Shan, that women are not allowed to hold positions of authority because of the
culture of his home country, since Jim hired a female local assistant project manager. How would
you respond to this situation as a PMP?

Select one:
a. Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this global
project.
b. Replace a local female assistant PM with a male candidate.
c. Do nothing.
d. Ask all project team members to attend a training session on treating different gender members
for this global project equally.
e. Fire the local team member because of his discrimination behaviour.

Ans – a. Inform your local team member that a non-discrimination policy has to be adopted for this
global project.

29. Which of the following is true about a project manager?

Select one:
a. Project managers analyse work processes and explore opportunities to make improvements.
b. Project managers are focused on the long-term health of the organization.
c. Project managers are process focused.
d. Project managers are goal oriented.
e. Project managers standardize the work processes.

Ans – d. Project managers are goal oriented.

30. Shauna has recently been appointed as a project manager for Project Sky North, which is
regarded as an important project in her organization. During the project planning meeting, Shauna is
capable of allocating key resources and personnel that she needs for this project. Which
organizational structure is best for Shauna’s company?

Select one:
a. Balanced matrix organization
b. Matrix organization
c. Functional organization
d. Projectized organization
e. Hierarchical organization

Ans – d. Projectized organization

MCQ 31 TO 40
31. Complete the following statement. The method of incorporating change into project planning
and execution processes is called the:

Select one:
a. project logic diagram.
b. change management process.
c. milestone scheduled. critical path
e. rough order of magnitude

Ans – b. change management process

32. BCR>1 indicates which of the following?

Select one:
a. Benefits are greater than the costs.
b. Costs are greater than the benefits.
c. Costs and benefits are well balanced.
d. Benefits are less than the costs
e. Costs are less than the benefits.

Ans – a. Benefits are greater than the costs.

33. Which of the following establishes key dates throughout the life of a project that must be met
for the project to finish on time?

Select one:
a. Critical path
b. Ballpark estimate
c. Pert diagram
d. Slack chart
e. Milestone schedule

Ans – e. Milestone schedule

34. Which of the following statements about risk is true?

Select one:
a. Project risk focuses on identifying, assessing, and eliminating the risks on the project.
b. Risk management is all about eliminating risk.
c. Project risk is an uncertain event that, even if it occurs, has no effect on project objectives.
d. There are no risk-free projects.
e. Risk management involves identification, evaluation, and elevation of risk

Ans – d. There are no risk-free projects.

35. Why are changes to the project scope necessary?

Select one:
a. To understand reports
b. To reflect new information
c. To begin planning the project
d. To teach team members what they need to know about their jobs
e. To establish a trusting project culture

Ans – b. To reflect new information

36. Fill in the blank. Crashing refers to when the task durations are __ along the critical path to meet
the project completion date.

Select one:
a. scope creep
b. floated
c. slack
d. compressed
e. expedited

Ans – d. compressed

37. An Expected Monetary Value (EMV) of $100000 on a potential project event in the project
means which of the following?

Select one:
a. A number that can be ignored
b. An opportunity that must be explored
c. Actual losses on the event
d. Actual investment returns on the event
e. A threat that must be considered to minimize the project risk

Ans – b. An opportunity that must be explored

38. Which of the following is a form of trust that is built on the examination of the person’s motives
and the conclusion that he or she is not hostile?

Select one:
a. Objective credibility
b. Attribution of benevolence
c. non-manipulative trust
d. Unequivocal liberality
e. High cost of lying

Ans – b. Attribution of benevolence

39. When calculating EVM, Peter noticed that the cumulative planned value is 150% of the
cumulative earned value. What does this mean?

Select one:
a. SPI<1, so the project is behind schedule.
b. SPI>1, so the project is OK to complete on time.
c. SPI<1, so the project is ahead of time.
d. SPI>1, so the project is behind schedule.
e. SPI>1, so the project is on schedule.

Ans – a. SPI<1, so the project is behind schedule.

40. Fill in the blank. A __ represents the sequence of the activities needed to complete the project.

Select one:
a. work breaks down structure
b. scope of work
c. project logic diagram
d. run chart
e. step change

Ans – c. project logic diagram