09-10-2022

E
 Code-E_XI Studying_(Answers) All India Test for NEET-2024

All India Test for NEET-2024

(Code-E)
Test Date : 09/10/2022

ANSWERS
1. (1) 41. (3) 81. (1) 121. (3) 161. (1)
2. (3) 42. (2) 82. (2) 122. (2) 162. (3)
3. (2) 43. (4) 83. (3) 123. (1) 163. (4)
4. (1) 44. (3) 84. (4) 124. (3) 164. (3)
5. (4) 45. (4) 85. (2) 125. (4) 165. (3)
6. (3) 46. (2) 86. (2) 126. (2) 166. (1)
7. (2) 47. (4) 87. (3) 127. (4) 167. (1)
8. (4) 48. (3) 88. (1) 128. (1) 168. (4)
9. (2) 49. (4) 89. (1) 129. (2) 169. (2)
10. (3) 50. (1) 90. (1) 130. (3) 170. (3)
11. (4) 51. (2) 91. (4) 131. (4) 171. (4)
12. (1) 52. (3) 92. (2) 132. (1) 172. (1)
13. (1) 53. (3) 93. (2) 133. (2) 173. (3)
14. (3) 54. (1) 94. (3) 134. (3) 174. (3)
15. (2) 55. (2) 95. (1) 135. (1) 175. (4)
16. (2) 56. (2) 96. (1) 136. (2) 176. (1)
17. (4) 57. (4) 97. (4) 137. (1) 177. (3)
18. (4) 58. (1) 98. (4) 138. (2) 178. (2)
19. (1) 59. (3) 99. (4) 139. (1) 179. (4)
20. (2) 60. (2) 100. (2) 140. (2) 180. (1)
21. (1) 61. (4) 101. (1) 141. (4) 181. (4)
22. (3) 62. (3) 102. (2) 142. (3) 182. (1)
23. (4) 63. (2) 103. (1) 143. (3) 183. (2)
24. (2) 64. (2) 104. (4) 144. (2) 184. (3)
25. (2) 65. (2) 105. (3) 145. (2) 185. (3)
26. (2) 66. (2) 106. (1) 146. (3) 186. (2)
27. (3) 67. (4) 107. (2) 147. (2) 187. (4)
28. (1) 68. (3) 108. (4) 148. (4) 188. (1)
29. (4) 69. (3) 109. (4) 149. (3) 189. (1)
30. (1) 70. (3) 110. (2) 150. (1) 190. (1)
31. (1) 71. (4) 111. (4) 151. (3) 191. (2)
32. (3) 72. (3) 112. (4) 152. (4) 192. (4)
33. (4) 73. (2) 113. (2) 153. (2) 193. (4)
34. (2) 74. (3) 114. (3) 154. (4) 194. (3)
35. (1) 75. (4) 115. (4) 155. (4) 195. (1)
36. (4) 76. (3) 116. (2) 156. (4) 196. (2)
37. (2) 77. (1) 117. (3) 157. (3) 197. (3)
38. (2) 78. (2) 118. (2) 158. (4) 198. (3)
39. (4) 79. (3) 119. (3) 159. (2) 199. (3)
40. (1) 80. (4) 120. (1) 160. (3) 200. (3)

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 All India Test for NEET-2024 Code-E_XI Studying_(Answers & Solutions)

ANSWERS & SOLUTIONS

[PHYSICS]
SECTION - A 8. Answer (4)
1. Answer (1)  t 
a = a0  1 − =0
In multiplication and division final result should  T 
retain as many significant figures as are there in
t=T
original number with least significant figures.
dv
=
9.85
= 8.208 = 8.2 g cm−3 a=
dt
  dv =  adt
1.2
2. Answer (3) vx T  t 
First measurement is more close to true value so
0 dv =  a0  1 − 
0  T
more accurate, but has low resolution
 aT aT
0.1 cm, whereas in second, resolution is v x =  a0T − 0  = 0
 2  2
0.01 cm.
3. Answer (2) 9. Answer (2)

Angular diameter = 2000 t 2  3  10

vm = =
 = 2000 × 4.85 × 10–6 rad + (2 + 3)
Planet’s diameter (D) = 12 m/s
=  × d = 2000 × 4.85 × 1.6 × 10 × 10
–6 11
10. Answer (3)
D = 15520 × 105
1 ( )( )2
D = 1.55 × 109 m s1 = 10 3 = 45 m
2
4. Answer (1)
1 ( )( )
Aeroplane works on Bernoulli’s principle. s2 = 10  3 + 10 9
2
5. Answer (4)
= 30 + 45 = 75 m
Translation in time is equivalent to conservation of
energy. s2 – s1 = 75 – 45 = 30 m
6. Answer (3) 11. Answer (4)
If speed is constant then acceleration may exist x2 + 2x = t
due to change of direction.
 dx  dx
7. Answer (2) 2x   + 2 =1
 dt  dt
From the a-t plot
1
v=
2 ( x + 1)

dv 1
=−
2 ( x + 1)
2
dx

vdv 1
a= =−
4 ( x + 1)
3
dx
a(t = 0.5 s) = 2 m/s2
a(t = 2.5 s) = –2 m/s2 12. Answer (1)
v(t = 0.5 s) = 2(0.5) = 1 m/s Displacement
Average velocity =
v = 2 × 1 + (–2 × 1) = 0 time
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 Code-E_XI Studying_(Answers & Solutions) All India Test for NEET-2024

13. Answer (1) s

=
s s
 dx =  vdt = 1 ( 2t + 3t )dt +
2 2
2v1 2v 2
2
x = t 2 + t 3 1  v avg =
2v1v 2
v1 + v 2
= (4 + 8) – (1 + 1)
19. Answer (1)
= 10 m
14. Answer (3) v ( x ) =  x −m

At point C slope of x-t graph is negative i.e. dv ( x )

= − m x − m − 1
instantaneous velocity is negative. dx
15. Answer (2)  dv ( x ) 
a = v (x) = − 2m x −2m − 1
2.75 can be rounded off in two significant figures  dx 
as 2.8 because preceding digit (7) is odd.
20. Answer (2)
16. Answer (2)
Distance travelled by a freely falling body in 1st, 2nd,
s 3rd and 4th second of journey are in ratio 1 : 3 : 5 :
t1 = (u is velocity of Munna)
u 7.
s 21. Answer (1)
t2 = (v is velocity of escalator)
v u = 47 m/s, a = –10 m/s2
s Velocity will be zero at time
t=
u +v
u 47
t= = = 4.7 s
tt
s g 10
t= = 12
s s t1 + t2
+ 1 1
t1 t2 S
5th
= ( g ) ( 0.7 )2 + ( g ) ( 0.3 )2
2 2
17. Answer (4)
= 5(0.49 + 0.09)
Taking downward direction as positive
= 2.9 m
s=2m
22. Answer (3)
a = +10 m/s2
V R
t = 0.1 s  100 = 3  100
V R
u=?
 0.1 
From equation of motion = 3   100
 5 
1 2 = 6%
s = ut + at
2
23. Answer (4)
1
2 = u ( 0.1) + (10 )( 0.1)
2
2 −2
 m  L   T 
2 n2 = n1  1  1   1 
2 – 0.05 = u(0.1)  m2  L2   T2 
2
u = 19.5 m/s  1  1  −2
n2 = 6     (1)
18. Answer (4)  3  2 

Total distance 1
v avg = n2 =
Total time taken 2
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 All India Test for NEET-2024 Code-E_XI Studying_(Answers & Solutions)

24. Answer (2) 33. Answer (4)

 Stress  ML T   −1 −2 
The scientific principle involved in radio and TV −1 −2
broadcast is propagation of EM wave.  Strain  =  0 0 0  = ML T
MLT
25. Answer (2)
34. Answer (2)
Generally
FSN : FEM : FWN : Fg = 1 : 10–2 : 10–13 : 10–39 Pitch
Least count =
Number of divisions
26. Answer (2)
on circular scale
Preceding zeros are insignificant.
27. Answer (3) Pitch
0.01 =
barn is unit of area 100
shake is unit of time Pitch = 1 mm
nautical mile and parsec are units of length. 35. Answer (1)
28. Answer (1) 1 1 
1 = =  rad
 dy   E   −2 
60 60 180
 dx  =  x  = MLT = 2.91 × 10–4 rad
29. Answer (4) SECTION - B
3 3
[] = [t ] = [T ] 36. Answer (4)
  3
Reading = MSR + (CSR × L.C.) – Zero error
F  = T
v  = 0.5 cm + 35(0.001 cm) – (–0.002 cm)
 T3  = (0.5 + 0.035 + 0.002) cm
 =
MLT −2 LT −1 = 0.537 cm
= [M–1L–2T6] 37. Answer (2)
[] = [T3][M–1L–2T6] [G] = [M–1L3T–2]
= [M–1L–2T9] [c] = [LT–1]
30. Answer (1) [h] = [ML2T–1]

 Gh  M L T ML T 
T t −1 3 −2 2 −1
 =
T t  c5  = L T 
−
  5 5

T t
  100 =  100 = [T2]
T t
 Gh 
=
0.2
 100 = 1%  5  = [T]
20  c 
31. Answer (1) 38. Answer (2)
Gm1m2 Taking downward direction as positive,
F= 2
r Time to reach ground

 F   m   2 −2 0  2  490
2
2h
=
 G   r 2  = M L T
 T=
g
=
9.8
= 10 s

32. Answer (3) vx = 15 m s–1, vy = 0 + gT

8 kg + 0.821 kg = 8.821 kg vy = 0 + 9.8 × 10 = 98 m s–1
Now taking into account of the significant figures
the result is reported as 9 kg. v = v x2 + v y2 = (15)2 + (98)2 = 99 m s−1

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 Code-E_XI Studying_(Answers & Solutions) All India Test for NEET-2024

39. Answer (4) 15

Speed at 7th second = 15 −  2 = 9 m s−1
If direction not changes then magnitude of average 5
velocity will be Distance = area under v-t graph till 7 second
xt2 − xt1 1   15 + 9 
v avg = S =   5  15  +   2
t2 − t1 2   2 
40. Answer (1) 75
S= + 24 = 37.5 + 24.0 = 61.5 m
distance 2
v avg = 45. Answer (4)
time
Only time difference will be till level of projection.
 75 75 
150 −  +  Then both covers same height in same time.
=  4 4 
10
225
= = 11.25 m/s
20
41. Answer (3)
Slope of x-t graph gives velocity.
42. Answer (2)
In one process, drunkard will move 1 m in 11 s. In 2u 2  15
t = = = 3 second
sixth process he will fall. g 10
Hence t = 5 × 11 + 5 = 60 s 46. Answer (2)
43. Answer (4) v2 = u2 + 2as
x = 6t2 – t3  v2 = (98)2 + 2 (–9.8) × (196)

 v=
dx d
= (6t 2 − t 3 ) = 12t − 3t 2 v = 5763 = 75.92  76 m s −1
dt dt
47. Answer (4)
dv
acceleration is zero i.e. =0
dt
d
 (12t − 3t 2 ) = 0
dt
12 – 6t = 0 In 5 minutes the person will reach diametrical
t=2s opposite point, so displacement = 2R.

 x = 6(2)2 – (2)3 = 24 – 8 Displacement 2  150

v av = = = 1ms−1
time 5  60
x = 16 m
48. Answer (3)
44. Answer (3)
L
(A) has dimension of time, so L has not of
R
R dimensions.
(B) KE and torque has same dimensions
[ML2T–2]
(C) Planck’s constant and angular momentum has
same dimensions = [ML2T–1] but different from
momentum.
Area under v-t graph will give the distance travelled (D) Pressure and Bulk modulus have same
by the particle. dimensions [ML–1T–2]
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 All India Test for NEET-2024 Code-E_XI Studying_(Answers & Solutions)

49. Answer (4) 50. Answer (1)

 PV 2  x y
[a] =  2  Q=
 n  z2
Q x 1 y z
V   = + +2
[b] =   Q x 2 y z
n
 PV 2 
Q  x  1  y   z 
 100 =   100  +   100  + 2   100 
 2  Q  x  2 y   z 
a
  2  =  n2  = [P ]
b   V  1
 2  = 5% + (4%) + 2(1)% = 5% + 2% + 2% = 9%
 n  2

[CHEMISTRY]
SECTION - A 4
No. of atoms in He =  NA = NA
51. Answer (2) 4
Total number of nodes = (n – 1) = 3 – 1 = 2 20
No. of atoms in Ca =  NA = 0.5 NA
52. Answer (3) 40
57. Answer (4)
Spectral lines of Lyman series of hydrogen atoms
fall in ultraviolet region. NaCl forms crystalline lattice with infinite number of
lattice points (Na+ and Cl–)
53. Answer (3)
58. Answer (1)
Kinetic energy of electrons increases with the
12  6
increase of frequency of the light used. Mass percent of carbon in C6H12O6 =  100
180
54. Answer (1)
= 40%
Power of bulb = 66.2 watt = 66.2 Js–1 59. Answer (3)
Energy of photon (E) =
hc a. Molarity → (iii) mol L–1
 b. Mole fraction → (ii) unitless
−34 Molality → (iv) mol kg–1
6.62  10  3  10
8 c.
E=
300  10−9 d. Amount of substance → (i) mole
60. Answer (2)
E = 6.62 10 −19 Js–1

Number of photons emitted by the bulb per second

66.2 The volumes of hydrogen and oxygen which
= −19
6.62  10 combine bear a simple ratio of 2 : 1.
61. Answer (4)
= 10 × 1019
Mass of HNO3 = 400  3 10 –3  63
= 1 × 1020
55. Answer (2) = 75.6 g
70 g of HNO3 is present in 100 g solution
Fe2O3 will have same empirical and molecular
formula. 100  75.6
75.6 g of HNO3 is present in = 108 g
56. Answer (2) 70

16 62. Answer (3)

No. of atoms in O3 =  3  NA = NA For second excited state, n = 3
48
 Total number of degenerate
2
No. of atoms in H2 =  2  NA = 2NA
2 orbitals = n2 = 32 = 9
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 Code-E_XI Studying_(Answers & Solutions) All India Test for NEET-2024

63. Answer (2) 71. Answer (4)

The species which contain same number of 720
No. of glucose molecules = =4
electrons are called isoelectronic species. N2 ,O22 + 180
No. of atoms = 4 × 24 = 96
an CN− contain 14 electrons each.
72. Answer (3)
64. Answer (2)
52.9  n2
100 L of air contains 20 L of O2 at STP rn =
Z
20
44.8 L of air contains  44.8 r3 = 52.9  32
100
Again; n  = 2rn
= 8.96 L at STP
2rn
Mole of O2 =
8.96
= 0.4 =
22.4 n

Number of oxygen atoms = 0.4 × 2 NA 2  52.9  32

=
3
= 0.8 NA
 = 317.4
65. Answer (2)
73. Answer (2)
Mass of ethanol = 5 × 2 × 46 = 460 g
 Z2 
460
= 511.1 En = – 2.18  10–18  2  J
Volume of ethanol = n 
0.9  
511 mL  22 
= – 2.18  10–18  2  J
2 
66. Answer (2)  
KE = h – ho = − 2.18 10 −18 J
= 6.8 – 4.8 74. Answer (3)
= 2.0 eV Wavelength of visible spectrum varies between
K.E = 2 × 1.6 × 10–19 J 400-750 nm.
K.E = 3.2 × 10–19 J 75. Answer (4)
Charge to mass ratio of canal rays is found to
67. Answer (4)
depend on the gas from which these originate.
More is the electropositive character of metal,
76. Answer (3)
lower is the value of work function.
CaCO3 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + H2 O + CO2
68. Answer (3)
100 mL of solution contains 15 g of urea Mole of HCl = 500  2 10 –3 = 1

Mole of Solute 1
Molarity =  1000 Mole of CaCO3 required = mol
Volume of solution ( mL ) 2
1
15  1000 Mass of CaCO3 required =  100 = 50 g
Molarity = = 2.5 M 2
60  100
77. Answer (1)
69. Answer (3)
n2
rn 
n = 4 and l = 2 corresponds to 4d subshell. Z
d-subshell contains five orbitals hence maximum
1
number of electrons will be 10. rH 1 =3
=
70. Answer (3)
r
Li2+ ( 2 )2 4
3
dxy and dyz will have electron density in between
the axes. rH : r =3:4
Li2+

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 All India Test for NEET-2024 Code-E_XI Studying_(Answers & Solutions)

78. Answer (2) 4 g of Sulphur is present in 100 g of compound

More is the effective nuclear charge lesser will the 100
32 g of Sulphur is present in  32 = 800 g
energy of 2s orbital. 4
79. Answer (3) Molecular mass of compound = 800 u

Ca(Z = 20) : 1s 2 2s 2 2 p 6 3s 2 3 p 6 4s 2 85. Answer (2)

N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3
Total number of electrons in
s - orbitals = 8 56
Mole of N2 = =2
28
80. Answer (4)
10

MgCO3 ⎯⎯ → MgO + CO2 Mole of H2 = =5
2
4.4 3 moles of H2 requires 1 mole of N2 for complete
Mole of CO2 = = 0.1mol
44 reaction
Mass of MgCO3 required = 0.1  84 1
5 moles of H2 requires  5 mole of N2 for
3
= 8.4
complete reaction = 1.67 mole
8.4
Percentage purity of MgCO3 sample = 100 Hydrogen is limiting reagent
10
2 10
= 84% Mole of NH3 produced = 5=
3 3
81. Answer (1)
10
64  30 + 66  70 Mass of NH3 produced =  17 = 56.67 g
Average atomic mass of X = 3
100
56.7 g
1920 + 4620
= SECTION - B
100
86. Answer (2)
6540
= = 65.4 u 1
100 Mole of O2 28 7
= 32 = =
Mole of N2 1 32 8
82. Answer (2) 28

Orbital angular momentum = l ( l + 1) 87. Answer (3)

Mole of urea = 0.1
= 2 ( 2 + 1)
1000
Mole of water = = 55.55
= 6 18
0.1 1
83. Answer (3) Mole fraction of urea = =
0.1+ 55.55 556.5
Mole of sucrose = 200 × 0.5 × 10–3
88. Answer (1)
Number of sucrose molecules
7
= 200 × 0.5 × 10–3 × 6.02 × 1023 C2H6 + O2 → 3H2O + 2CO2
2
= 602 × 1020
7
22
2 moles of CO2 require moles of O2
= 6.02 × 10 2
84. Answer (4) 7 10
10 moles of CO2 require 
For minimum molecular mass, one molecule 2 2
should contain at least one atom of sulphur. = 17.5 moles

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 Code-E_XI Studying_(Answers & Solutions) All India Test for NEET-2024

89. Answer (1) 94. Answer (3)

1000 mL of solution contains 73 g HCl Maximum no. of emission
1
Mass of solution = 1000 g lines obtained =  n ( n − 1)
2
Mass of solvent = 1000 – 73 = 927
1
2  1000  6 ( 6 − 1)
Molality = = 2.16 m 2
927
= 15
90. Answer (1)
95. Answer (1)
Correct scientific notation = 1.23456 × 102 No. of protons = 6 = No. of electrons
91. Answer (4) No. of neutrons = 13 – 6 = 7
One mole CO contains 2 NA atoms 96. Answer (1)

2 mole of CO2 contains 4 mole of O atoms Visible region lies between UV rays and IR rays.

One mole of H2O2 contains 4 mole atoms 97. Answer (4)

h
One mole of C3O2 contains 5 mole atoms =
mv
92. Answer (2)
6.62  10−34
=
1  1 1 9.1  10−31  107
= RH  2 − 2 
  
 n1 n1 
 = 7.27 10 −11 m
1  1 1
= RH  2 − 2   = 7.3 10 −11 m
 2 3 
98. Answer (4)
1 5
v = = RH  Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle states that it is
 36
impossible to determine simultaneously, the exact
5 position and exact momentum of an electron.
v= RH
36 99. Answer (4)
93. Answer (2) For n = 3, l = 0, 1, 2
For n = 4, Total number of orbitals = n2 = 16 100. Answer (2)

1 For hydrogen atom, energy of orbitals is governed

No. of electrons with n = 4 and ms = + is 16 by principal quantum number only.
2

[BOTANY]
SECTION - A 103. Answer (1)
101. Answer (1) Svedberg’s Unit stands for the sedimentation
The central part of the proximal region of the coefficient. It indirectly is a measure of density and
centriole is proteinaceous and called the hub, size.
which is connected with tubules of the peripheral 104. Answer (4)
triplets by the radial spokes made of protein.
Sometimes, a few chromosomes have non-staining
102. Answer (2) secondary constrictions at a constant location. This
The material of nucleus is usually stained by basic gives appearance of a small fragment called the
dyes. satellite.
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 All India Test for NEET-2024 Code-E_XI Studying_(Answers & Solutions)

105. Answer (3) 114. Answer (3)

Ribosomes are the granular structures first Theodore Schwann, a British zoologist, studied
observed under microscope as dense particles by different types of animal cells and reported that
George Palade. They are composed of ribonucleic cells had a thin outer layer which is known today as
acid (RNA) and proteins. the ‘plasma membrane’.
106. Answer (1)
115. Answer (4)
A number of proteins are synthesised by
ribosomes on the endoplasmic reticulum and are Nucleolus is a non-membrane bound structure.
modified in the cisternae of the golgi apparatus Numerous nucleoli are present in cells actively
before they are released from its trans face. carrying out protein synthesis.

107. Answer (2) 116. Answer (2)

Gas vacuoles are found in BGA. Cell membrane is mainly composed of proteins and
Cell wall determines the shape of cell and provides lipids.
strong structural support to prevent bacteria from 117. Answer (3)
collapsing.
Cilia, nuclear membrane and membrane bound
108. Answer (4)
organelles are present in eukaryotic cells.
Mesosomes help in cell wall formation, DNA
replication and distribution to daughter cells. 118. Answer (2)

Chromatophores are membranous extensions into Carotenoids are fat soluble pigments.
the cytoplasm which contain pigments. Elaioplast store fats
109. Answer (4) Chloroplast trap most of the light energy.
Inclusion bodies are found in prokaryotes and are
Chromoplasts contains carotenes and
not bound by any membrane system and lie free in
xanthophylls.
cytoplasm. Sap vacuoles are found in eukaryotic
cells and are surrounded by tonoplast. 119. Answer (3)
110. Answer (2) The mitochondria divide by fission.
The fimbriae are small bristle like fibres sprouting 120. Answer (1)
out of the cell. In some bacteria, they are known to
The stage between the two meiotic divisions is
help attach the bacteria to rocks in streams and
also to the host tissues. called interkinesis and is generally short lived.

111. Answer (4) 121. Answer (3)

Many bacteria have small circular DNA outside the Mitosis is restricted to the diploid cells. In some
genomic DNA called plasmid. Plasmid DNA lower plants and in some social insects, haploid
confers unique phenotypic characters to bacteria cells also divide by mitosis.
and also monitors bacterial transformation with
122. Answer (2)
foreign DNA.
The homologous chromosomes separate while
112. Answer (4)
sister chromatids remain associated at their
If bacterial cells are motile, they have thin
centromeres during anaphase I.
filamentous extensions from their cell wall called
flagella. Centromeres split and sister chromatids separate
during anaphase II.
113. Answer (2)
The number of chloroplasts varies from 1 per cell of 123. Answer (1)
the Chlamydomonas (green alga) to 20-40 per cell Diakinesis is marked by terminalisation of
in the mesophyll. chiasmata.
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124. Answer (3) 132. Answer (1)

Meiosis is the mechanism by which conservation of At the beginning of the final stage of karyokinesis
specific chromosome number of each species is i.e. telophase, the chromosomes decondense and
achieved across generations in sexually lose their individuality.
reproducing organisms, even though the process, 133. Answer (2)
per se, paradoxically, results in reduction of
The beginning of prophase is marked by the
chromosome number by half.
initiation of condensation of chromosomal material.
125. Answer (4) The complete disintegration of the nuclear
Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of nuclear envelope marks the start of metaphase.
and cell division called meiosis I and meiosis II but 134. Answer (3)
only a single cycle of DNA replication.
Cells at the end of prophase, when viewed under
126. Answer (2) the microscope do not show golgi complexes,
Some cells that do not divide further, exit G1 phase endoplasmic reticulum, nucleolus and nuclear
to enter an inactive stage called quiescent stage envelope.
(G0) of cell cycle. Cells in this stage remain 135. Answer (1)
metabolically active but no longer proliferate unless
Increase in cytoplasm and synthesis of proteins
called on to do so.
and RNA occur during post mitotic phase i.e. G1
127. Answer (4)
phase.
The beginning of diplotene is recognised by the
Duplication of DNA and centriole occurs during
dissolution of the synaptonemal complex and the
S-phase of interphase.
tendency of the recombined homologous
SECTION - B
chromosomes of bivalents to separate from each
other. 136. Answer (2)
128. Answer (1) 70S ribosomes are found in mitochondria of animal
Crossing over is the exchange of genetic material cells and is composed of 50S and 30S subunits.
between two homologous chromosomes. It 137. Answer (1)
involves an enzyme recombinase. This process Cristae are the infoldings in mitochondria.
occurs during pachytene stage of prophase I of
138. Answer (2)
meiosis I.
The white blood cells are amoeboid.
129. Answer (2)
139. Answer (1)
Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a
result of which multinucleate condition arises The ribosomes of polysomes translate the mRNA
leading to formation of syncytium eg. Liquid into proteins.
endosperm in coconut. 140. Answer (2)
130. Answer (3) Cellular energy in the form of ATP is produced by
Plant cells are enclosed by a relatively inextensible mitochondria. Mitochondria is not a part of
cell wall, therefore they undergo cytokinesis by endomembrane system. Endomembrane system
formation of cell plate. includes ER, golgi complex, lysosome and vacuole.

131. Answer (4) 141. Answer (4)

Mitotic divisions in the meristematic tissue i.e. Prokaryotic cells lack nuclear membrane while
apical meristem and lateral cambium result in the eukaryotic cell has well developed nucleus bound
continuous growth of plants throughout their life. by a double nuclear membrane.

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 All India Test for NEET-2024 Code-E_XI Studying_(Answers & Solutions)

142. Answer (3) 146. Answer (3)

During zygotene, chromosomes start pairing M-phase of a cell ends with the cytokinesis i.e.
together and this process is called synapsis. division of cytoplasm.
Synapsis is accompanied by the formation of
147. Answer (2)
complex structure called synaptonemal complex.
Two asters together with the spindle fibres form
143. Answer (3)
mitotic apparatus.
The stage interkinesis is short lived and is followed
148. Answer (4)
by prophase II.
Interphase occupies more than 95% of the duration
144. Answer (2)
of cell cycle. So, duration of M-phase would be less
After meiosis I, each cell gives rise to two daughter than 5% of cell cycle.
cells. So if 10 male gamete mother cells enter
149. Answer (3)
meiosis I, 20 daughter cells will be seen during
metaphase II stage. In male honey bee, haploid cells divide by mitosis.

145. Answer (2) 150. Answer (1)

During cell division in plants, the formation of new The duration of cell cycle of yeast is 90 minutes
cell wall begins with the formation of a simple and interphase occupy more than 95% of the
precursor called cell plate. duration of cell cycle.

[ZOOLOGY]
SECTION - A 155. Answer (4)
151. Answer (3) Neurons are the unit of neural system and are
Glycolysis is a metabolic pathway in which glucose excitable cells.
becomes pyruvic acid through ten different enzyme Neuroglial cells protect and support the neurons.
catalysed metabolic reactions. Neuroglia make up more than one-half the volume
152. Answer (4) of neural tissue in our body.
156. Answer (4)
Compound epithelium is made of more than one
layer of cells and thus has a limited role in Lipids are the esters of fatty acids and glycerol.
secretion and absorption. 157. Answer (3)

153. Answer (2) Holoenzyme is made up of two parts, the

apoenzyme and the co-factor.
Mast cells are non-phagocytic. They release
158. Answer (4)
histamine, heparin and serotonin.
Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehydes,
154. Answer (4)
ketones or their derivatives, which means they
have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups.
Glutamic acid – Acidic
159. Answer (2)
Lysine – Basic Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, i.e., it is a nucleic
acid that behaves like an enzyme.
Valine – Neutral
160. Answer (3)
Tyrosine, phenylalanine, – Aromatic amino
Adenylic acid, thymidylic acid, guanylic acid and
tryptophan acids
cytidylic acid are the nucleotides found in DNA.

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 Code-E_XI Studying_(Answers & Solutions) All India Test for NEET-2024

161. Answer (1) 168. Answer (4)

Areolar tissue – Beneath the skin Concanavalin A – Lectin

Cuboidal – PCT Diterpenes – Terpenoides

epithelium
Lemon grass oil – Essential oil
Transitional – Ureters
Abrin – Toxin
epithelium
169. Answer (2)
Smooth muscle – Wall of blood vessels
DNA is made up of two strands of polynucleotides.
162. Answer (3) The adjacent nucleotides of a single strand are
joined by phosphodiester bonds, while the
Adenine pairs with thymine and guanine pairs with
complementary nucleotides of opposite strands are
cytosine through two and three hydrogen bonds
joined by hydrogen bonds.
respectively.
170. Answer (3)
163. Answer (4)
Ciliated epithelium is mainly present in the inner
Foetal haemoglobin has 2 and 2 subunits. surface of hollow organs like bronchioles and
164. Answer (3) fallopian tubes.

Tendons are an example of dense regular

RuBisCO is a protein. The amino acids in a protein
connective tissue.
are linked by peptide bonds.
171. Answer (4)
165. Answer (3)
Communication junctions (intercalated discs) at
Transferases – Enzymes catalysing some fusion points allow the cardiac muscle cells
transfer of a group to contract as a unit.

172. Answer (1)

Lyases – Enzymes catalysing
removal of groups Neuroglia are the supportive cells of the nervous
tissue.
Dehydrogenases – Enzymes catalysing 173. Answer (3)
oxidoreduction
Lipids like lecithin are phospholipids. Lecithin is
Ligases – Enzymes catalysing found in cell membrane.
the linking together of 174. Answer (3)
two compounds
Exoskeleton of arthropods have a complex
polysaccharide called chitin.
166. Answer (1)
Chitin is a homopolymer.
Tight junctions help to stop substances from
leaking across a tissue. 175. Answer (4)
167. Answer (1) Enzymes isolated from organisms who normally
live under extremely high temperatures are stable
Glycerol is a simple lipid.
and retain their catalytic power even at high
Glycerol is trihydroxy propane. temperatures (up to 80° – 90°C).
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 All India Test for NEET-2024 Code-E_XI Studying_(Answers & Solutions)

176. Answer (1) 183. Answer (2)

Nitrogen bases like adenine, guanine, cytosine, The intercellular material of cartilage is solid and
uracil and thymine when found attached to a sugar pliable and resists compression. Cells of this tissue
are called nucleosides. (chondrocytes) are enclosed in small cavities within
the matrix secreted by them.
177. Answer (3)
184. Answer (3)
Primary metabolites have identifiable functions and
Cellulose is a polysaccharide consisting of only
play known roles in normal physiological
one type of monosaccharide, i.e., glucose.
processes, while we do not at the moment
understand the role or functions of all the Cellulose does not contain complex helices and
hence cannot hold I2.
secondary metabolites in host organisms.
185. Answer (3)
Morphine and codeine are alkaloids.
Anabolism is the formation of a complex substance
178. Answer (2)
from a simple substance, while catabolism is
Dense connective tissues are of two types on the breakdown of a complex substance to form a
basis of orientation of fibres. simple substance.

Dense irregular connective tissue has fibroblasts SECTION - B

and many fibres that are oriented differently. This 186. Answer (2)
tissue is present in the skin. Rate of a physical or chemical process refers to the
179. Answer (4) amount of product formed per unit time.

Salivary glands are multicellular glands with ducts. 187. Answer (4)
Living process is a constant effort to prevent falling
Endocrine glands are ductless glands.
into equilibrium.
180. Answer (1)
188. Answer (1)
Oils like gingelly oil have a lower melting point
The rise per base pair in B-DNA is 3.4 Å.
compared to fats, hence they remain as oils in
winters. 189. Answer (1)

181. Answer (4) The sequence of amino acids i.e., the positional
information in a protein, which is the first amino
Trypsin – Enzyme acid, which is second, and so on, is called the
primary structure of a protein.
Collagen – Intercellular ground substance
190. Answer (1)

Glut-4 – Enables glucose transport into Per cent weight of oxygen in earth’s crust is 46.6,
cells whereas in human body it is 65.0.

191. Answer (2)

Antibody – Fights infectious agents
Smooth muscle fibres are elongated and fusiform.
182. Answer (1) 192. Answer (4)
Zinc is a co-factor for the proteolytic enzyme The four basic tissues are organised in specific
carboxypeptidase. Co-factors are required to make proportion and pattern to form an organ like
certain enzymes catalytically active. stomach, lung, heart and kidney.

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 Code-E_XI Studying_(Answers & Solutions) All India Test for NEET-2024

193. Answer (4) 196. Answer (2)

Without carbonic anhydrase 200 molecules of
H2CO3 are formed in an hour, whereas after adding
carbonic anhydrase 600,000 molecules of H2CO3
are formed every second.
194. Answer (3)

Component % of the total

cellular mass 197. Answer (3)
In solutions of different pH, the structure of amino
Water 70-90
acids changes.
Proteins 10-15 198. Answer (3)
Carbohydrates 3 Adenosine is a nucleoside.

Lipids 2 199. Answer (3)

Carbon and hydrogen is more abundant in living
Nucleic acids 5-7
organisms than in earth’s crust.
Ions 1
200. Answer (3)
195. Answer (1) The lining of stomach and intestine is made up of
Skeletal muscles do not have gap junctions. columnar epithelium.

❑ ❑ ❑

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