CPP-03

ONE YEAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

Physics
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Current Electricity

1. The length, area of cross-section and density of a 4. In the given circuit r 1 and r 2 are the internal
metallic wire are respectively 1 m, 10 –6 m 2 and resistances of the cells A and B. For what value of
5×103 kg/m3. Assuming that each atom contributes R, the terminal potential difference of cell A is
one free electron, find the drift velocity of electrons zero ?
if a current of 16 A flows through it. Given that the
A B
atomic wt. of the metal is 60 g/mol. a b
r1=3 r2=1
(1) 2 m/s (2) 0.2 m/s 1.5V 2V
(3) 2×10–3 m/s (4) 2×10–2 m/s

2. A uniform wire of resistance R is stretched uniformly R

to n times its original length and then cut to form (1) 3  (2) 4 
five wires of equal length. These wires are arranged
as shown in figure. The effective resistance between (3) 2  (4) 1 
points A and B is 5. Four cells of emf 1V, 2V, 3V and 4V are connected
in parallel as shown. If their internal resistances are
respectively 1, 1, 1 and 2, then the current
through the external load resistance R is
A B

1V 1

nR R
(1) (2) 2V 1
5 5n
1 3V
n2R R
(3) (4)
5 5n2 2
4V
3. In the given figure, the potential difference ‘V’ has
R=2 
been plotted against current ‘I’ for a metallic
conductor at two different temperatures 25°C and 7
100°C respectively. The temperature co-efficient of (1) 2A (2) A
2
resistivity of the wire is
2 1
(3) A (4) A
7 4
V T2=100°C
6. In the circuit shown, determine the magnitude of
potential difference between A and D.
T1=25°C
2 A C
30°
60° 1
I
3 4 6
10 V
B 4V D
(1) 16  10 2 / C (2) 8  102 / C 20 V

2
(1) 5 V (2) 10 V
(3) 4  10 / C (4) 2  102 / C
(3) 20 V (4) 90 V
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Current Electricity Aakash Institute
7. An electric bulb is designed to operate with a power 11. A galvanometer has a resistance of 30 ohm and a
of 500 W at 100 V line. It is connected in series current of 2 mA is needed to give a full scale
with a resistor of resistance R. This combination is deflection. What is the resistance needed to convert
connected to 200 V supply as shown. The value of this galvanometer into an ammeter of 3 A range ?
R so that the bulb delivers 500 W is (1) 70  (2) 0.02 
(3) 0.7  (4) 20 
R 12. The current rating of a fuse wire and its radius are
related as
(1) I  r2 (2) I  r3
200V 3
(3) I  r (4) I  r 2
(1) 20  (2) 10  13. A wire has non-uniform cross-section as shown in
(3) 5  (4) 2.5  figure. A steady current flows through it. The drift
speed of electrons at points P and Q is Vp and VQ
8. If the current in a coil of resistance R decreases is:-
according to (i–t) graph shown in the figure, then
find the total heat produced in the coil, is VP VQ

0
(1) Vp = V Q (2) Vp < V Q
(3) Vp > V Q (4) Data insufficient
14. The length of the resistance wire is increased by
t
t0 30% by stretching it. What is the corresponding
change in resistance of wire?
i20 Rt 0 i20 Rt 0 (1) 30% (2) 55%
(1) (2)
5 4 (3) 44% (4) 69%
15. The magnitude and direction of the current in the
i20 Rt 0 2
i Rt 0 circuit shown will be
0
(3) (4) 10V c 4V
3 2 a 1 2 b
9. For what value of the resistance x the total power
developed in the external resistors is maximum ?
6
6
r=1.5
12v 7
(1) A from a to b through c
1
3
x
4 7
(2) A from b to a through c
3
(1) 0.5  (2) 0.7 
(3) 1 A from a to b through c
(3) 0.8  (4) 1.5  (4) 1 A from b to a through c

10. Find the effective resistance between points A and 16. In the network shown, the potential difference
B. between A and B is
(R = r1 = r2= r3 = 1, E1 = 3 V, E2= 2 V, E3 = 1V)

1 1 1 1 1 E1
r1
1 1 1 1 1 1
R r2 E2
1 A B 1 1 A r3 B
1
E3
(1) 3 1 (2) 3 1
(1) 1 V (2) 2 V

(3) 2 3  1 (4) 3 3  1 (3) 3 V (4) 4 V

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Aakash Institute Current Electricity
17. The figure below shows current in a part of electric 21. In the meter bridge shown in figure, the length AB
circuit. The current i is:- for null deflection in galvanometer is

R1=15 R2=10
1A
2A
1.3A
2A G

i A B C
E

(1) 1.7A (2) 3.7A

(1) 40 cm (2) 20 cm
(3) 1.3A (4) 1A (3) 80 cm (4) 60 cm
18. A prism is made of wire mesh with each side having 22. In the given circuit the heat developed across 6
equal resistance R. A battery of 6 V and zero resistor in 2s will be
internal resistance is connected across E and F as
shown in the figure. The current in the branch AD, 6
if R is equal to 5  is,
3
3 5
E
F
20V
6V
D 32 16
i A (1) J (2) J
3 3
B (3) 24J (4) 40J
C
23. If the radius of cross section of a conductor is
increased by 0.1% keeping the volume constant,
(1) 0.6 A (2) 0.4 A then percentage change in resistance of conductor
is
(3) 0.8 A (4) 2 A
(1) –0.2% (2) –0.1%
19. The resistance of the following carbon resistor will be (3) –0.3% (4) –0.4%
24. Four cells each of emf E and internal resistance r
Yellow Brown are connected in series to form a loop ABCD. Find
the potential difference across AB

Violet Gold A E B
r
(1) (27×10) ± 10% r E

(2) (24×10) ± 6% r

(3) (47×10) ± 5% E
E
(4) (22×15) ± 11% D r C
(1) 2E (2) E
20. In the given figure point B and C are earthed. Then
potential difference between point A and B is (3) Zero (4) 4E
25. The emf and internal resistance of single battery
10V which is the equivalent to the combination of three
batteries as shown in figure are
1
10V 2
B C 6V
A 4 10 5 D
1
4V 2
(1) 4V (2) –5V (1) 2V, 3 (2) 3V, 2
(3) 9V (4) 10V (3) 20V, 2 (4) 2V, 20

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Current Electricity Aakash Institute
26. In the given circuit shown in figure the potential 31. 3n identical cells each of emf ‘E’ and internal
difference between battery 2 will be resistance ‘r’ are connected in series to form a
closed circuit. If out of 3n cells, n cells are wrongly
E1=10V E2 =4V connected, then the terminal voltage across any
one cell which is connected wrongly is
r1=1 r2 =1
4E 2E
(1) (2)
3 3
R=2
3E 3E
(1) 5.5 volt (2) 8.5 volt (3) (4)
2 4
(3) 3 volt (4) 3.5 volt
32. The figure shows part of certain circuit. The
27. The maximum power developed across a variable magnitude of potential difference between points C
resistance R in the circuit shown in figure is and B is

10V 3A 2A
1 C 1 2 4 B
12V 3V
5 6
R 4A

10V 1 (1) 8V (2) 10V

(1) 50 W (2) 75 W (3) 12.5V (4) 15V

(3) 25 W (4) 100 W 33. A heater rated for 1000 W at 100 V is used in the
circuit having a 100 V supply. If the heater
28. A current of 8 A flows in a metallic conductor of operates with a power of 62.5W, then the value of
cross-section 1 cm 2 and length 10 km. Free R is
electron density of copper is 5×1028 /m 3. The time
taken by the electron to travel from one end of the
conductor to the other is HEATER
10
(1) 108 sec (2) 109 sec R

(3) 107 sec (4) 105 sec

100V
29. A wire is stretched by 10% of its original length by
applying a force. The percentage change in the
(1) 2.5 (2) 20
resistance of wire is

(1) 21% (2) 10% (3) 10 (4) 5

(3) 11% (4) 1% 34. If R1 of the given circuit is dipped in 1000 ml of

water at 30°C, then the time after which the water
30. Two resistors are connected in series. At 0°C, the starts boiling is. (take 1 cal = 4.2J)
values of first and second resistor are respectively
R and 2R. The temperature coefficient of
resistances of first and second resistors are  and
2 respectively. The equivalent temperature R2=6
coefficient of the resistor for the combination is R1=4 
R3=3

5 4 12V
(1) (2)
4 3
(1) 1148.4 sec (2) 18375 sec
4 5
(3) (4) (3) 183.75 sec (4) 11.48 sec
5 3
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Aakash Institute Current Electricity
35. For maximum power developed in the circuit, the 39. When a current ‘I’ flows through a wire, the drift
value of the internal resistance ‘r’ must be, if all the velocity of the electrons is ‘v’. When current 2I flows
cells are identical, each of emf E and the internal through another wire of the same material having
resistance ‘r’. double the length and double the area of cross
section and same temperature the drift velocity of
the electrons will be :

v v
(1) (2)
8 4

v
(3) (4) v
1 2
40. Ohm’s law is true for
R0
(1) Metallic conductors
(2) All conductors
3 3 (3) Electrolytes when current passes through
(1) r   (2) r  
7 7 them
(4) Diode when current flows
3 3 41. A current of 0.9A flows through 2 resistor and
(3) r   (4) r  
7 7 0.3A through 7 resistor when they are separately
conected across a cell. The internal resistance of
36. Eleven identical wire each of resistance R are the cell is
connected as shown in the figure. The equivalent
(1) 0.5 (2) 1.0
resistance between the points A and B is
(3) 1.2 (4) 2.0

A 42. What is the current through the 10V battery ?

4 6V

B 10V

7R 5R
(1) (2)
12 6
2 4V
7R 3R (1) 1A (2) 3A
(3) (4)
5 4 (3) 4A (4) 2A
43. In the following circuit, what is the resistance
37. A galvanometer can withstand safely a maximum across AB.
current of 5 mA. It is converted into voltmeter
reading upto 20 V by connecting in series an
r
external resistance of 3950 . The resistance of
galvanometer is
r r r r
(1) 48 (2) 44

(3) 36 (4) 50

A r r B
38. The current capacity of a fuse wire is 5 ampere. If
the radius of cross-section of wire is made 4 times, 8r 7r
then the new current capacity of the wire will be (1) (2)
7 8

(1) 10 A (2) 20 A 3r 2r
(3) (4)
2 3
(3) 40 A (4) 80 A

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Current Electricity Aakash Institute
44. Microscopic form of ohm’s law in usual notation is 49. In an electrostatic machine, a belt of width w, having
    a surface charge density , travels with velocity v. As
(1) J  E (2) J  E the belt passes a certain point, all the charge are
removed and is carried away as an electric current.

   E The magnitude of this current is
(3) J  RE (4) J 
R w
(1) wv (2)
45. In the situation shown, what is the value of resistance v
connected between A and D in addition to 12  v 
resistance, so that galvanometer shows no deflection? (3) wv 2 (4)
w
C 50. The potential difference between A and B in the
50 following circuit is
 
10 4
I I
G 4 5
A B
12 A B
 
20
4
D
(1) 12  (2) 6 
1.2 V
(3) 4  (4) 5  (1) 1.4 V (2) 0.4 V
46. The equivalent resistance of the following infinite (3) 2.2 V (4) 1.2 V
network of resistances between A & B is 51. Two primary cells of EMF E 1 and E 2 (E 1 > E 2 )
connected in series with identical orientation are
A balanced in a potentiometer. The balancing point on
2 2 2 the potentiometer is obtained at 500 cm. W hen
2 2 2 polarity of 2nd cell is reversed, the balance point is
to  obtained at 100 cm. The ratio of EMF of two cells
B (E 1/E 2 ) is
2 2 2
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 5 : 1
(1) Less than 4  (3) 3 : 2 (4) 2 : 5
52. Two rods of electrical conductivities K1 and K2 are
(2) 4 
connected as shown in the figure. Find the
(3) 12  equivalent electrical conductivity of the system

(4) More than 4  but less than 12  K2

R K
47. The current in a conductor varies with time as I = 3t2, 1
where I is in ampere and t in second. Electric charge A 2R B
flowing through section between t = 0 and t = 3 second

(1) 10 C (2) 34 C K1  3K 2
(1) K1 + K 2 (2)
4
(3) 27 C (4) 9 C

48. Find the effective resistance across A and B in the K1  2K 2 4K 2  K1

(3) (4)
given circuit. 4 4
10   53. The maximum current that can flow through a
galvanometer is 5 mA. If the galvanometer has to
be converted into an ammeter of range (0 – 10)A,


A 20  which of the following would be preferred?




(Resistance of galvanometer = 10)
(1) 0.005 in parallel with galvanometer
20  
B (2) 0.005 in series with galvanometer
(1) 5  (2) 10  (3) 5000 in parallel with galvanometer
(4) 5000 in series with galvanometer
(3) 15  (4) 20 
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Aakash Institute Current Electricity
54. Two bulbs A and B are connected in series across 59. The mean free path of electrons in a metal is
a 250V supply. Identify the correct statement 4  108 m . The electric field which can give on an
220V, 100W 110V, 60W average 2eV energy to an electron in the metal will
be in (units of V/m).

A B (1) 5  1011 (2) 8  10

11

(3) 5  107 (4) 8  107

250V
60. Three equal resistors connected in series across a
(1) None of the bulb glows source of emf together dissipate 10 watt. If the
(2) Both the bulbs glow with same intensity same resistors are connected in parallel across the
same emf, the power dissipated will be
(3) The potential difference across both the bulbs
are equal (1) 10 watt (2) 30 watt
(4) The bulbs glows with different intensity (3) 10/3 watt (4) 90 watt
55. A current of 5 A is passing through a metallic wire
61. Charge on capacitor in steady state is
of cross-sectional area 4  106 m2 . If the density of
the charge carriers in the wire is 5  1026 / m3 , the C
R2
drift velocity of the electrons is

1 1 R1
(1) m/s (2) m/s
16 32
E r
1 1
(3) m/s (4) m/s
64 128
CER1 CEr
56. The emf of a cell is  and its internal resistance (1) (2) R  r
is r. Its terminals are connected to resistance R. R1  r 1

The potential difference between the terminal is 1.6V

CER1 CEr
for R  4 and 1.8V for R  9 . Then (3) (4)
r R1
(1)   1V , r  1
62. Find the average drift speed of free electrons in a
(2)   2V , r  1 copper wire of area of cross-section 10 –7 m 2
carrying current of 1.5 A and having free electron
(3)   2V , r  2 density 8.5×1028 m –3 .

(4)   2.5V , r  0.5 (1) 0.11 mm/s (2) 1.1 mm/s

57. A potentiometer is 100cm long and a constant (3) 11mm/sec (4) 0.13 mm/sec
potential difference is maintained across it. Two
cells are connected in series first to support one 63. A 30 V, 90W lamp is to be operated on a 120V
another and then in opposite direction. The balance D.C. For proper glow, a resistor of ‘____’ R ‘____’
points are obtained at 50cm and 10cm from  should be connected in series with the lamp,
positive end of the wire in the two cases. The ratio then ‘R’ is
of emf’s is
(1) 40 (2) 10
(1) 3 : 2 (2) 5 : 1
(3) 20 (4) 30
(3) 5 : 4 (4) 3 : 4
58. The n rows each containing m cells in series are 64. The potential difference between A and B in the
joined in parrallel. Maximum current is taken from following figure is
this combination across an external resistance of
6 9 5
3  . If the total number of cells used are 24 and A B
internal resistance of each cell is 0.5  then 2A 12V 4V

(1) m  8 , n  3 (2) m  6 , n  4 (1) 32V (2) 48V

(3) m  12 , n  2 (4) m  2 , n  12 (3) 24V (4) 14V

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Current Electricity Aakash Institute
65. The current flowing is the 10 resistance as shown 69. Two bulbs ‘A’ and ‘B’ are connected as shown.
in the figure is When switch ‘S’ is closed then which among them
will fuse?
P1 (100V~40W)

10 A B
(5V,2) (2V,1)
(100V~50W)

P2
S
200V
(1) 0.27 A, P2 to P1 (2) 0.03 A, P1 to P2
(1) Bulb A
(3) 0.03 A P2 to P1 (4) 0.27A P1 to P2
(2) Bulb B
66. n identical cells are joined correctly in series with
(3) Both A and B will fuse
another two cells ‘A’ and ‘B’ with reverse polarities.
Emf of each cell is E and internal resistance is r. (4) Neighter of them will fuse
Potential difference across cell A is : (n > 4)
70. When a 40 Vm –1 electric field is produced inside
2E 1 a conductor then 2×10 4 A/m 2 current density is

(1) (2) 2E 1   established in it. Resistivity of the conductor is
n  n
(1) 2×10–3 m (2) 4×10–3 m
4E  2  (3) 2×103 m (4) 4×103 m
(3) (4) 2E 1 
n  n  2 
71. Two electric bulbs rating P 1 watt- ‘V’ volt and P 2
67. A potentiometer wire of length 10 m and resistance watt-V volt are connected in parallel and V volt are
20  is conneted in series with 15V battery and an applied to it. The total power will be
external resistance 40. A secondary cell of emf E
P1P2
in the secondary circuit is balanced by 240 cm (1) watt (2) P1P2 watt
long potentiometer wire, the emf E of the cell is P1  P2

(1) 2.4 V (2) 1.2 V P1  P2

(3) (P 1 +P 2 )watt (4) watt
(3) 2.0 V (4) 3.0 V P1P2

68. Calculate the equivalent resistance between points 72. A galvanometer of 50 ohm resistance has 25
A and B in the following circuit. divisions. A current of 4×10 –4 ampere gives a
deflection of one division. To convert this
galvanometer into a voltmeter having a range of 25
A volts, it should be connected with a resistance of

(1) 2500 (2) 2450

1 (3) 2550 (4) 2400
B 73. The temperature coefficient of resistivity of a
2

2
material is 4×10 –4 /K. When the temperature of
2

2

material is increased by 50°C, its resistivity

2 increases by 2×10 –8 m. The initial resistivity of
material (in ohm-meter) is
1 1
(1) 50×10–8 (2) 90×10–8
2
(3) 100×10–8 (4) 200×10–8
74. In a meter bridge with standard resistance of 5 in
7 25 the left gap, the ratio of balancing length of meter
(1)  (2) 
5 6 bridge wire is 2 : 3. The unknown resistance is
(1) 1 (2) 15
5 6
(3)  (4) 
7 25 (3) 10 (4) 7.5
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Aakash Institute Current Electricity
75. A wire is made by the combination of thin and thick 81. In the circuit shown, if a current of 5 A is passing
wire connected in series. The current density from A to B then
(1) In thick wire is more C
(2) In thin wire is more 20  5
(3) Is same in both 5A
(4) Depends upon the voltage of battery A B
76. The effective resistance between A and B is
5  D 20 
R/2 (1) No heating and no current between C and D
A (2) C and D are at the same potential
R
(3) Current of 3 A flows from D to C
R R (4) Both (2) and (3)
82. A heater coil connected across a given potential
B
R/2 difference has power P. Now, the coil is cut into two
equal halves of its length and joined in parallel.
Across the same potential difference, this
R
(1) (2) R combination has power
2
(1) P (2) 4P
3R (3) P/4 (4) 2P
(3) (4) 2R
4 83. On increasing temperature, resistivity of material
77. Colour code in a resistor is given by bands of (1) Always increases
colours orange, yellow, brown. The value of
resistance is (2) Always decreases
(1) 34 × 10  ± 10% (2) 34 × 10  ± 20% (3) May increase or decrease
(3) 24 × 102  ± 10% (4) 24 × 104  ± 10% (4) Remains constant
78. The reading of the ideal ammeter shown in the 84. A galvanometer with a scale divided into 100 equal
network at steady state is divisions has a current sensitivity of 10 divisions per
5 10  mA and voltage sensitivity of 2 divisions per mV.
W hat adaptations are required to read
A 1 division per volt?
4 F 5 30 V (1) A resistance of 9995 in series
(2) A resistance of 10000 in series
(3) A resistance of 9990 in series
(1) 6 A (2) 4 A (4) A resistance of 1000 in series
(3) 2 A (4) 1 A
85. A wire AB of length 100 cm and resistance 4 is
79. A current i = t flows in a resistance R for time t connected in series to a battery of EMF
seconds. The amount of heat developed during this 5 V and internal resistance 1. Potential gradient
interval will be ( is a constant) along the wire is
(1) 2Rt (2) 2Rt3 (1) 0.4 V/cm (2) 4 V/cm
(3) 0.04 V/cm (4) 0.05 V/cm
2 Rt 3
(3) 2Rt2 (4) 86. If each of the resistances in the network shown in
3
figure is R, what is the resistance between
80. The current drawn by the battery in the situation terminals A and B?
shown in figure is
2 2 2 Q

2 2

P
10 V

(1) 2.5 A (2) 5 A (1) R (2) 2R

(3) 7.5 A (4) 1 A
(3) 3R (4) 4R
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Current Electricity Aakash Institute
87. n identical bulbs, each designed to draw P power 93. A current is flowing through a cylindrical conductor
from a certain voltage supply are joined in series of radius R such that current density at any cross
and combination is connected across that supply.
r
The power consumed by one bulb will be section is given by J  J0 , where r is the radial
R
(1) nP (2) P distance from the axis of the cylinder. Calculate the
total current through the cross-section.
P P
(3) (4)
n n2 J0 R2 J0 R2
(1) (2)
88. A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of 2 3
non uniform cross-section. The quantity/quantities
that remain constant along the length of conductor 2 J0 R2
(3) J0 R2 (4)
is/are 3 6
(1) current, electric field and drift speed 94. Calculate the potential difference across AB as
(2) drift speed only shown in the figure
(3) current and drift speed
30
(4) current only
15
89. In the circuit shown, each resistance is 2 The 0
potential V1 as indicated in the circuit is equal to
A 3 B
30

(3V,5)

5V (1) 2V (2) 3V
12V
V1 (3) 1V (4) 1.5V
(1) 11V (2) –11V 95. If the potential difference across a circuit is
(3) 9V (4) –9V V= 10  0.1 volt and resistance is measured as
90. The resistance of an iron bar when temperature is R=  2  0.04   . Calculate the value of current
raised from 0°C to 100°C is (Initial resistance
flowing in the circuit
= 1.43  & temperature co-efficient of resistivity =
0.00501/°C) (1)  5  0.15  amp (2) (5 ± 0.1)amp
(1) 5.32 (2) 2.16
(3) (5 ± 0.3)amp (4) (5 ± 0.2)amp
(3) 8.2 (4) 15.2
96. The masses of three wires of copper are in ratio of
91. In the circuit shown in figure, the heat produced in 1 : 3 : 5 and their lengths are is the ratio
the 5 resistor due to the current flowing through 5 : 3 : 1. The ratio of their electrical resistances is:
it is 10 cal/s. (1) 1 : 3 : 5 (2) 15 : 3 : 1
4 6
(3) 1 : 15 : 125 (4) 125 : 15 : 1
97. The temperature (T) dependence of resistivity [] of
a semi-conductor is given by
5
The heat generated in 4 resistor is 

(1) 1cal/s (2) 2cal/s
(3) 3cal/s (4) 4cal/s (1) (2)
92. Two cells of emf E each and internal resistances r1 T T
and r2 (r1 > r2 ) are connected in series across a
load resistance ‘R’. If potential difference across the 

first cell (internal resistance = r1 ) is zero, then the
relation between R, r1, and r2 is
(1) R = r1 + r2 (2) R = r1r2 (3) (4)

(3) R  r12  r22 (4) R   r1  r2  T T

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Aakash Institute Current Electricity
98. The figure shows 3n cells connected in series to 101. Number of (60W–230V) lamps that may be safely
form a circuit r is the internal resistance of each run on a 230 volt circuit fitted with a 5 amp fuse
cell and e is the emf of each cell. If polarity of n
cells are reversed find the terminal voltage across (1) 2 (2) 19
A.
(3) 20 (4) 4
2n cells n-cells 102. Keeping the mass of the conductor constant, its
A radius of cross section is increased by 0.5%.
Calculate the percentage change in the resistance

(1) lncreases by 4% (2) lncreases by 2%

(3) decreases by 2% (4) decreases by 1%

e
(1) (2) Zero 103. If a battery of fixed emf e and internal resistance r
3 is connected to a variable external resistance R,
then the condition for which the power delivered by
3e 2e the battery to the load will be maximum, is
(3) (4)
2 5
R
99. Thirteen resistances each of resistance R ohm are (1) r  (2) r = R
2
connected is the circuit as shown in the adjoining
figure. The effective resistance between ‘A’ and ‘B’
is R
(3) r = 4R (4) r 
3

104. The arrangement that is correct regarding the

voltmeter and Ammeter connection in a circuit
A B

V
(1)
A
4R
(1) 2R (2) 
3

2R A
(3)  (4) R
3
(2)
V
100. Two batteries along with their internal resistance are
connected as shown. Find the reading of the
voltmeter.
V
V
(18V,2) (3)
A

(12V,1) A V

(1) 30 V (2) 18 V (4)

(3) 15 V (4) 14 V



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Current Electricity Aakash Institute

CPP-03
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

ANSWERS

1. (3) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (1)

8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (4)

15. (3) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (2) 19. (3) 20. (1) 21. (4)

22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (2)

29. (1) 30. (4) 31. (1) 32. (1) 33. (4) 34. (2) 35. (1)

36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (4) 40. (1) 41. (1) 42. (3)

43. (1) 44. (1) 45. (2) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (2) 49. (1)

50. (2) 51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (4) 55. (3) 56. (2)

57. (1) 58. (3) 59. (3) 60. (4) 61. (1) 62. (2) 63. (4)

64. (2) 65. (2) 66. (4) 67. (2) 68. (3) 69. (2) 70. (1)

71. (3) 72. (2) 73. (3) 74. (4) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (2)

78. (3) 79. (4) 80. (2) 81. (4) 82. (2) 83. (3) 84. (1)

85. (3) 86. (1) 87. (4) 88. (4) 89. (4) 90. (2) 91. (2)

92. (4) 93. (3) 94. (3) 95. (1) 96. (4) 97. (3) 98. (2)

99. (3) 100. (4) 101. (2) 102. (3) 103. (2) 104. (1)



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 CPP-03
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

Chemistry
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Electrochemistry

1. The resistance of 0.01 M solution of electrolyte was 7. Cr2O7 – – (aq, 1M) + 14 H+ (aq) + 6e–  2Cr3+ (aq,
found to be 210 ohm at 298 K using a conductivity 1M) + 7 H2O (l), E0 = + 1.33V, EMF at pH = 2 will
cell of cell constant 0.66 cm –1 . The molar be
conductance of solution is
(1) 1.824V (2) 1.982V
(1) 314.28 S cm2 mol–1
(3) 1.682V (4) 1.054V
(2) 3142.8 S cm2 mol–1
8. W hat is the potential of the cell containing two
(3) 3.1428 S cm2 mol–1 hydrogen electrodes as represented below?
(4) 31.428 S cm2 mol–1
1 1
2. The highest electrical conductivity among the Pt, H2(g) | H (108 M) || H (0.001M) | H2 g ,Pt
2 2
following aqueous solution (0.1M) is of
(1) HCl (2) LiCl (1) –0.295V (2) –0.0591V

(3) NaCl (4) KCl (3) 0.295V (4) 0.0591V

3. The molar conductance at infinite dilution of AgNO3, 9. Find molar conductance of NH 4 OH at infinite
NaCl and NaNO3 are 116.5, 110.3 and 105.2 mho dilution:
cm 2 mol–1 respectively. The molar conductance of
AgCl at infinite dilution will be Given :  Ba(OH)2  523 Sm2 mol1
(1) 121.6 S cm2 mol–1 (2) 111.4 S cm2 mol–1
 BaCl2  280 Sm2 mol1
(3) 130.6 S cm2 mol–1 (4) 150.2 S cm2 mol–1
4. It is impossible to measure absolute value of 2  NH4 Cl  130 Sm2 mol1
electrode potential of half cell because
(1) Only reduction does not take place by itself (1) 251.5 sm2 mol–1 (2) 350 sm2 mol–1

(2) Of resistance of wire (3) 280 sm2 mol–1 (4) 650 sm2 mol–1

(3) Only oxidation does not take place by itself 10. If ‘x Lt. of 0.2 (M) CuSO4 is reduced to Cu by a
current of 0.965A in 1 hour, then value of ‘x’ is :
(4) Neither oxidation nor reduction can occur by
itself (1) 0.01 (2) 0.09
5. The standard reduction potential for Fe2+|Fe and (3) 0.15 (4) 0.05
Sn 2+ |Sn electrodes are –0.44V and –0.14V
11. A cell formed by combination of Cu and Zn.
respectively. The standard EMF for Fe2+ + Sn  Fe
+ Sn2+ is 0 0
Given : E Cu2  /Cu  0.34 V, E Zn2 / Zn  0.76V
(1) +0.30V (2) –0.58 V
Find out incorrect statement :
(3) +0.58 V (4) –0.30V
(1) When CuSO4 is added to Cu2+ compartment
6. Which will increase the voltage of the cell? emf of the cell increases
Sn(s) + 2Ag+(aq)  Sn+2(aq) + 2Ag(s) (2) When Zn2+ is added to Zn2+ compartment emf
(1) Increase in size of the silver rod of the cell decreases

(2) Increase in the concentration of Sn2+ ions (3) When NH3 is added to Cu2+ compartment emf
of the cell increases
(3) Increase in the concentration of Ag+ ions
(4) If Zn2+ compartment is diluted emf of the cell
(4) Decrease in the concentration of Ag+ ions increases
(1)
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Electrochemistry Aakash Institute
12. Edison storage cell is represented as : Fe(s)/ calculate ksp of AgCl
FeO(s)/KOH(aq.)//Ni2O3 (s)/Ni(s)
(1) 5.4 × 10–4 (2) 10–8
Half cell reactions are : Ni2 O3(s) + H2O() + 2e 
(3) 2.916 × 10–7 (4) 5.4 × 10–8
2NiO(s) + 2OH– (E° = +0.4V)
18. The pKsp of AgI is 16.07. If the E° value for Ag+/Ag
FeO(s) + H 2 O(  ) + 2e  Fe(s) + 2OH – is 0.799V, find the E° for half cell reaction
(E° = – 0.87V)
Ag + e–  Ag + –
Maximum amount of work that can be obtained
from 1 mole of Ni2O3 at 298K will be : (1) –0.799V (2) + 0.149V

(1) 2.45 × 105 KJ (2) 2.45 KJ (3) – 0.149V (4) + 0.799V

(3) 2.45 × 105 J (3) 96.5 J 19. The position of some metals in the electro-chemical
series in decreasing electropositive character is
13. What will be the emf for the given cell ? given as Mg > Al > Zn > Cu > Ag. W hat will
happen if a copper spoon is used to stir a solution
Pt / H2 (g, P1 ) | H (aq.) || H2 (g, P2 ) | Pt of aluminium nitrate ?
(1) The spoon will get coated with aluminium
RT P RT  P1 
(1) log  1  (2) ln   (2) An alloy of aluminium and copper is formed
2F  P2  F  P2 
(3) The solution becomes blue
RT  P2  RT  P1  (4) There is no reaction
(3) ln   (4) ln  
2F  P1  2F  P2 
20. The resistance of 0.1N solution of formic acid is
14. The reaction 2H2(g) + (aq)  4H2O() +
4OH– 4e– 200. Cell constant is 2cm –1 . The equivalent
occurs in H2–O2 fuel cell. This reaction occurs at conductivity of the solution is
(1) Cathode (1) 10 (2) 50
(2) This is net reaction (3) 100 (4) 1000
(3) Reverse reaction actually occurs 21. If ionic conductivity of Ba2+ and Cl– at infinite dilution
are 127 and 73 ohm –1 cm 2 eqv –1 respectively,
(4) Anode
equivalent conductivity of BaCl2 at infinite dilution
15. Calculate the molar conductivity of a solution of is
MgCl2 at infinite dilution given that the molar ionic
conductivities of °(Mg2+) = 100 S cm 2 mol–1 and (1) 150 (2) 200
°(Cl–) = 75 S cm2 mol–1 is (3) 100 (4) 273
(1) 290 S cm2 mol–1 (2) 250 S cm2 mol–1 22. H2(P 1)|H+(C)||H+(C)|H2(P 2). The cell reaction will be
(3) 175 S cm2 mol–1 (4) 150 S cm2 mol–1 spontaneous if
16. In lead storage battery the anode reaction during (1) P1 > P2 (2) P2 > P 1
discharging is
P2
(3) P2 = P 1 (4)  1.5
(1) Pb2+ + 2e–  Pb P1
(2) PbO + H2SO4  PbSO4 + H2 O
23. Ni|Ni 2+ (1M)||Au 3+ (1M)|Au. If ENi2 /Ni and
(3) Pb + H2SO4  PbSO4 + 2H+ + 2e–
(4) 2PbO + Pb  2Pb + PbO2 EAu3 / Au respectively are –0.25V and 1.5V, EMF of
17. If conductivity of water used to make saturated the cell is
solution of AgCl is found to be 3.1 × 10–5 ohm –1
(1) 1V (2) 1.25V
cm –1 and conductivity of the solution of
AgCl = 4.5 × 10–5 ohm–1 cm–1. (3) 1.75V (4) –1.75V
 24. If acidified water is electrolysed by 2F charge, the
If m AgNO3 = 200 ohm–1 cm2 mole–1
total volume of gas produced at S.T.P is

m (1) 5.6 litre (2) 11.2 litre
NaNO3 = 310 ohm–1 cm2 mole–1
(3) 22.4 litre (4) 33.6 litre

m NaCl = 250 ohm–1 cm2 mole–1

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Aakash Institute Electrochemistry
25. Which of the following metals (out of Mg,Ni,Ti) at 32. A 0.05N solution of a salt occupying a volume
their +2 oxidation state will show negative between two platinum electrodes separated by a
distance of 1.72 cm and having an area of 4.5 cm 2
EM 2 /M value in aqueous solution? has a resistance of 250. Calculate equivalent
conductance of solution.
(1) Only Mg (2) Ni and Ti not Mg
(1) 25.86 –1 cm2 eq–1
(3) Only Ni (4) Mg, Ni and Ti
(2) 39.88 –1 cm2 eq–1
26. On increasing the dilution, the specific
(3) 65.97 –1 cm2 eq–1
conductance:
(4) 30.56 –1 cm2 eq–1
(1) Increases
33. Calculate ‘’ (degree of dissociation) of CH3 COOH if
(2) Decreases 
m for HCl, NaCl, CH 3 COONa are 426, 126, 91
(3) First increases then decreases Scm 2 mol–1 and  m =14.4 Scm 2 mol–1 at 0.015M
(4) Constant concentration
(1) 0.037 (2) 0.018
27. The reference electrode is made by using
(3) 0.37 (4) 0.18
(1) ZnCl2 (2) CuSO4
34. Cu2++2eCu; log [Cu2+]vs E graph is of the type as
(3) HgS (4) Calomel electrode shown in figure where OA=0.34V, then electrode
28. The standard reduction potential E o, for the half potential of the half-cell of Cu/Cu2+ (0.1M) will be
reaction are
Zn  Zn+2 + 2e–  Eo = –0.76 V Ered A

Cu  Cu+2 + 2e– Eo = 0.34

O log[Cu2+]
The e.m.f for the cell reaction
Zn(s) + Cu+2  Zn+2 + Cu(s) is 0.0591
(1) 0.34  V (2) 0.34+0.0591V
2
(1) 0.42 V (2) –0.42 V
(3) 0.34V (4) None
(3) –1.1 V (4) 1.1 V
35. Select the one that represent a concentration cell
29. Given,
Eo Cr+3|Cr = –0.72 V (1) Pt,H2 HCl HCl Pt,H2 (2) Pt H2 HCl Cl2 Pt
C 1C 2 C 1
Eo Fe+2|Fe = –0.42 V
(3) Zn|Zn2+||Cu2+|Cu (4) Fe|Fe2+||Cu2+|Cu
The potential for the cell Cr|Cr+3||Fe2+|Fe is
36. Calculate the mass of benzene that would be
0.1M 0.01M required to produce a current of one ampere for three
hours from following data
(1) –0.26V (2) 0.26V
15
(3) 0.339V (4) –0.339V C6 H6 + O 6CO2+3H2O
2 2
30. The reduction potential at pH = 14 for the Cu+2|Cu (1) 0.386g (2) 0.222g
couples is [Given E o Cu +2 |Cu = 0.34V (3) 0.291g (4) 0.333g
Ksp Cu(OH)2 = 1 × 10–19]
37. The ionic conductances of Ba2+ and Cl(–) are 127
(1) 0.34 V (2) –0.34 V ohm –1 cm 2 eq –1 and 76 ohm –1 cm 2 eq –1
respectively at infinite dilution. The equivalent
(3) 0.22 V (4) –0.22 V
conductance (in ohm –1 cm 2 eq –1 ) of BaCl2 at
31. Select from the following that is not correct infinite dilution will be
regarding electrolytic preparation of H2O2 (1) 139.5
(1) Lead is used as cathode (2) 203.0
(2) 50% H2 SO4 is used (3) 279.0
(3) Hydrogen is liberated at Anode (4) 101.5

(4) Sulphuric acid undergoes oxidation

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Electrochemistry Aakash Institute
38. Consider the following cell with hydrogen 45. For oxidation reaction A  An+ + ne–
electrodes at different pressure P1 and P2 .
Nernst equation is
Pt (H2) | H+ (aq) | Pt (H2)
0.059
P1 atm 1M P2 atm E  E0A/ An  log[A n ]
n
The emf of the cell is given by
curve is
RT P1 RT P1
(1) ln (2) ln
F P2 2F P2

RT P2 RT P2
(3) ln (4) ln EA/An+ >0
F P1 2F P1 E
(1) 0 < [An+]<1
39. Calculate the amperes of current required to liberate
5.6 L of Cl2 at STP in three hours during the
electrolysis of brine log [An+]
(1) 9.5 A (2) 5.8 A
(3) 1.5 A (4) 4.5 A
40. Fe2+ + 2e–  Fe; E0 = – 0.44 V
EA/An+ <0
E
Fe3+ + 3e–  Fe; E0 = – 0.036 V
(2) 0 < [An+]<1
Considering the above data, the standard electrode
potential (E0) for Fe3+ + e–  Fe2+ is n+
log [A ]
(1) –0.476 V (2) – 0.404 V
(3) 0.404 V (4) +0.771 V EA/An+ >0
41. The specific conductivity of standard BaSO 4 0 < [An+]<1
solution is 3.06 × 10 –6 ohm –1 cm –1 and that of E
water is 6.0 × 10–8 ohm –1 cm –1 . If 0 (BaSO4 ) is (3)
approximately 150.0 ohm –1 eq–1 cm 2, the K SP of
BaSO4 will be log [An+]
(1) 4.0 × 10–12 (2) 2.5 × 10–9
(3) 2.5 × 10–13 (4) 4.0 × 10–10 EA/An+ <0
42. The standard reduction potentials of three metals A, [An+]>1
B and C are 0.5 V, –3.0 V and – 1.2 V E
respectively. The reducing power of these metals (4)
are
(1) B > C >A (2) A >B >C log [An+]
(3) C > B >A (4) A >C >B 46. Calculate the emf of the following cell at 25°C
43. Select the cell that is not rechargeable Ag(s) | AgNO3 (0.02 m) || AgNO3 (0.10 m) | Ag(s)
(1) Hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell (1) –0.828 V (2) –0.414 V
(2) Lead storage battery (3) 0.414 V (4) 0.0414 V
(3) Leclanche’ cell 47. The standard reduction potential of Pb and Zn
(4) Solid-state lithium battery electrodes are –0.126 and – 0.763 volts
respectively. The emf of the cell
44. A solution of sodium sulphate in water is
electrolysed using inert electrodes. The products at Zn | Zn2+ (0.1 M) || Pb2+ (1 M) | Pb is
the cathode and anode are respectively (1) 0.637 V
(1) H2, O2 (2) O2, H2 (2) < 0.637 V
(3) O2, Na (4) O2, SO2 (3) > 0.637 V
(4) 0.889 V

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Aakash Institute Electrochemistry
48. Select incorrect statement 54. Cl2 (P = 0.9 atm|NaCl solution|Cl2 (P=0.1 atm).
Calculate the potential of the cell
(1) On increasing dilution specific conductance
increases (1) 0.0282V (2) –0.0282V
(2) On increasing dilution equivalent conductance (3) 0.056V (4) –0.056V
increases
55. Electrolysis of which of the following solutions will
(3) A standard hydrogen electrode has zero produce a solution of pH < 7 ?
electrode potential
(1) NaCl (2) NaOH
(4) Unit of molar conductance is ohm–1 cm 2 mol–1
(3) KCl (4) AgNO3
49. Ionic conductance in aqueous solution at infinite
56. The cost of electric required to deposit 1g of
dilution at 298K is maximum for
magnesium is Rs. 5.00. How much would it cost
(1) H+ (2) Na+ to deposit 10g of aluminium ? (Al = 27, Mg = 24)
(3) OH– (4) Li+ (1) Rs 10.00 (2) Rs. 27.00
50. Which of the following of is used in a reference (3) Rs. 44.44 (4) Rs 66.67
electrode other than standard hydrogen
57. Select incorrect statement
electrods ?
(1) The electrolyte in hydrogen - oxygen fuel cell is
(1) ZnCl2 (2) CuSO4
conc NaOH
(3) Hg2Cl2 (4) HgCl2
(2) Electrode in H2 – O2 fuel cell is made up of
pure carbon
51. Calculate E given that
MnO /MnO (3) H2 – O2 fuel cells are used in space craft to
4 2
supply electric power

E = 1.51, EMnO /Mn = 1.23 V.. (4) Hydrocarbons can also be used as fuels in fuel
MnO /Mn 2
4 cell
Correct option is
58. Which of the following decreases with increase of
(1) 2.74 V (2) 1.28 V dilution ?
(3) 0.28 V (4) 1.69 V (1) Equivalent conductance
52. 2 + 2e–  2I– E° = 0.54 (2) Molar conductance
– –
Cl2 + 2e  2Cl E° = 1.36 (3) Specific conductance
+3 – ++
Mn + e  Mn E° = 1.5 (4) Conductance
Fe+++ + e–  Fe++ E° = 0.77 59. Calculate the EMF of a Daniel cell when the
+ –
O2 + 4H + 4e  2H2O (E° = 1.23) concentration of ZnSO4 and CuSO4 are 0.001M and
0.1M respectively. The standard potential of the cell
W hile Fe +++ is stable, Mn+3 is not stable in acid is 1.1V
solution because
(1) 1.1 V (2) 1.159 V
(1) O2 oxidises Mn++ to Mn+3
(3) – 1.459 V (4) 1.041 V
(2) O2 oxidises both Mn++ to Mn+3 and Fe++ to Fe+++
60. Pt|Cl2|(2 atm)|HCl|Cl2 (10 atm)|Pt
(3) Fe+++ oxidises H2 O to O2
(4) Mn+3 oxidises H2O to O2 E.M.F. of the cell at 25ºC approximately is –

53. Consider the following cell reaction (1) 0.021 V (2) 0.012 V

2Fe(s) + O2(g) + 4H+(aq)  2Fe++ (aq) + 2H2O() at (3) – 0.021 V (4) – 0.012 V
[Fe++] = 10–3 M, P(O2) = 0.1 atm and pH = 3, 61. The pKsp of AgI is 16. If the E° value for Ag+/Ag is
E° = 1.67V the cell potential at 25° C is 0.8 V, find the E° for the half cell reaction

(1) 1.47 V (2) 1.77 V Ag(s) + e–  Ag(s) + I– (eq.)

(3) 1.87 V (4) 1.57 V (1) +0.16 V (2) –0.16 V

(3) –0.47 V (4) –0.3 V

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Electrochemistry Aakash Institute
62. Resistance of a decimolar solution of KCl (aq) Zn2+ + 2e  Zn E0 = – 0.762 V
between two electrodes of 0.02 metre apart and
Mg2+ + 2e  Mg E0 = –2.37 V
0.0004 m 2 in area was found to be 50 ohm.
Specific Conductance (k) is When Zn is added to solution of MgCl2
(1) 0.1 S m–1 (2) 1 S m–1 (1) ZnCl2 is formed
(3) 10 S m–1 (4) 4 × 10–4 S m–1 (2) Mg is precipitated
63. The limiting equivalent conductivity of NaCl, KCl and (3) Zn dissolved in solution
KBr are 126.5, 150.0 and 151.5 Scm 2 eq – 1
(4) No reaction takes place
respectively. The equivalent conductance of Br – is
78.0 S cm 2 eq –1 . The limiting equivalent ionic 69. The standard electrode potential for the following
conductance for Na+ ions would be reaction is –0.57 V. What is potential at pH = 12.0?
(1) 128 (2) 125 TeO32–(aq 1M) + 3 H2O + 4e–  Te(s) + 6OH–(aq)
(3) 49 (4) 50 (1) –0.17V (2) +0.21 V
64. Equivalent conductivity of Fe2(SO4)3 is related to its (3) –0.39 V (4) +1.95 V
molar conductivity by the expression 70. Co|Co2+(C1)||Co2+(C2)|Co for this cell, G will be
negative if
m
(1)  eq   m (2)  eq  (1) C2 > C1 (2) C1 > C2
3
(3) C1 = C2 (4) Unpredictable

(3)  eq  3 m (4)  eq  m
6 0 RT
71. The Nernst equation E  E  logQ indicates
nF
65. E0 for Cl2(g) + 2e–  2Cl– (aq) is 1.36 V; E0 for Cl–
that Q will be equal to equilibrium constant K C ,
(aq)½Cl2(g) + e– is
when
(1) 1.36 V (2) –1.36 V
(3) –0.86 V (4) .68 V RT
(1) E = E0 (2) 1
nF
66. For a Galvanic cell the cell reaction
(3) E = Zero (4) E0 = 1
Mg(s) + Cu2+(aq)  Cu(s) + Mg2+(aq)
72. Equivalent conductances at infinite dilution of HCl,
E0Mg2 /Mg  2.37 , E0Cu2 /Cu  0.34 , Then E 0Cell is CH 3 COONa and NaCl are 425, 90 and
125 cm2 ohm–1 eq–1 respectively at 25°C. Calculate
(1) 2.03 V (2) –2.71 V equivalent conductance at infinite dilution for
CH3COOH
(3) 2.71 V (4) –2.03 V
(1) 400 cm2ohm–1eq–1 (2) 380 cm2ohm–1eq–1
67. For the reduction of NO 3 (–) ion in an aqueous
solution, E0 is +0.96V. Values of E0 for some metal (3) 390 cm2ohm–1eq–1 (4) 350 cm2ohm–1eq–1
ions are given below
73. 0.5F of electricity was passed in order to deposit
all the copper present in 500 ml of CuSO4 solution.
V2+ (aq) + 2 e  V E0 = –1.19V
The molarity of the solution will be :
Fe3+ (aq) + 3 e  Fe E0 = –0.04V (1) 1 (M) (2) 0.25 (M)

Au3+ (aq) + 3 e  Au E0 = +1.40V (3) 0.5 (M) (4) 2 (M)

74. An electro chemical cell is constructed by
Ag+ (aq) + e  Ag E0 = +0.80V immersing a piece of Cu wire in CuSO4 solution
The pair(s) of metals that can’t be oxidised by and Zn strip in ZnSO 4 solution. The emf of cell
NO3(–) in aqueous solution is increases when small amount of concentrated NH3
is added to :
(1) V and Ag (2) Ag and Fe
Given : E0   0.34V, E0Zn2   0.76V 
(3) Au only (4) Fe and V  Cu2
Cu Zn 
68. The standard potential at 25°C for the following half (1) CuSO4 Solution (2) ZnSO4 Solution
reaction is given
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Can’t be predicted

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Aakash Institute Electrochemistry
75. rG for the decomposition of Al2O3 at 500°C is 965 76. The standard emf of a cell having cell reaction Zn
kj/mol. + Cu2+  Cu + Zn2+ is 1.10V at 25°C. The emf for
the cell reaction when 0.1 (M) Cu2+ and 0.1 (M)
2 4
Al2O3  Al  O 2 Zn2+ solutions are used at the same temperature
3 3
will be :
The potential difference required for electrolytic
(1) –1.10V (2) +0.110V
reduction of Al2 O3 at 500°C should be at least :
(3) +1.10V (4) –0.110V
(1) 2.5 V (2) 4 V
(3) 5 V (4) 3 V

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Electrochemistry Aakash Institute

CPP-03
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

ANSWERS

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (1) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (4)

8. (3) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (4) 14. (4)

15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (3) 21. (2)

22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (4) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (4)

29. (2) 30. (4) 31. (3) 32. (4) 33. (1) 34. (1) 35. (1)

36. (3) 37. (2) 38. (2) 39. (4) 40. (4) 41. (4) 42. (1)

43. (3) 44. (1) 45. (1) 46. (4) 47. (3) 48. (1) 49. (1)

50. (3) 51. (4) 52. (4) 53. (4) 54. (2) 55. (4) 56. (4)

57. (2) 58. (3) 59. (2) 60. (1) 61. (2) 62. (2) 63. (4)

64. (4) 65. (2) 66. (3) 67. (3) 68. (4) 69. (3) 70. (1)

71. (3) 72. (3) 73. (3) 74. (2) 75. (1) 76. (3)

  

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 CPP-03
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

Botany
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Principles of Inheritance and Variation

1. Find the incorrect match w.r.t pea plant 7. W hich of the following related to genetics is
universally applicable ?
Character Trait(Dominant) Trait (recessive)
(1) Law of dominance
1 Stem height Tall Dwarf
(2) Law of segregation
2 Flower position Terminal Axial
3 Flower colour Purple White (3) Law of inependent assortment
4 Pod shape Inflated Constricted (4) Law of imcomplete dominance
2. In F2 Mendelian population of 100 pea plants, how 8. In ZW-ZZ type of sex determination
many are expected to be pure tall? (1) Female is homogametic
(1) 100 (2) 75 (2) Male is heterogametic
(3) 50 (4) 25 (3) Female is heterogametic
3. From the following postulation of Mendel, which one (4) Male is either homogametic or heterogametic
expresses the 2nd law of Mendel?
9. Seven different characters selected by Mendel was
(1) Each character is controlled by a discrete unit located on how many chromosome?
called factor
(1) 7 (2) 4
(2) Factors occur in pairs
(3) 2 (4) 1
(3) In a dissimilar pair, only dominant factor is
expressed 10. In which of the following organisms, father can not
transmit traits to his son?
(4) Two factors for a character are not mixed up. Both
are recovered in F2-population after segregation (1) Cock (2) Grass hopper
4. Which of the following is/are possible for a modified (3) Honey bee (4) Butterfly
allele?
11. ___(i)___ and ___(ii)___ are ___(iii)___ traits.
(i) Can produce no enzyme
Select the option which would be correct for blanks
(ii) Can produce a non functional enzyme (i), (ii) and (iii) respectively
(iii) Can produce an altered and functional product
(1) Beard, short index finger and sex limited
(1) Only (i) (2) Only (i) & (iii)
(2) Beard, deep male voice and sex limited
(3) Only (ii) (4) All (i), (ii) & (iii)
(3) Pattern of baldness, short index finger and
5. A purple flowered (CcPp) and a white flowered holandric
(CCpp) sweet pea plants (Lathyrus odoratus) are
crossed. Find the ratio of purple : white flowered (4) Beard, deep male voice and sex influenced
plants formed in F1 generation 12. Sickle cell anaemia is an example of
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 1 (1) Polygenic trait (2) Pleotropic trait
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 1 : 3 (3) Qualitative trait (4) Both (2) and (3)
6. Consider the following cross AaBb × AaBb. What
13. Which characters were not chosen by Mendel in
are the chance of occurance of a progeny with
his pea plant experiment?
Aabb genotype
(1) Height of plant and flower position
1 1
(1) (2) (2) Seed shape and seed colour
4 8
(3) Flower shape and cotyledon colour
1 1
(3) (4) (4) Pod shape and pod colour
16 32

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Principles of Inheritance and Variation Aakash Institute
14. How many pea plants will be dwarf in a mendelian (2) Blending of traits occur in pea
dihybrid cross for height and flower colour in F2 (3) Large number of seeds are obtained in one
population? season
(1) 100% (2) 75% (4) Pea plant is self pollinated and is true breeding
(3) 50% (4) 25% 23. Which is incorrect about Mendel’s success?
15. In a cross of two pink flowered plants of (1) He applied biostatistics to get quick result
Snapdragon, what would be the probability of red
flowered plants in F1 generation? (2) He was a good record keeper
(3) He got the same result in hawk weed as in pea
4 3
(1) (2) (4) He studied a large sample size of pea plants
4 4
2 1 24. In a Mendelian dihybrid cross for seed shape and
(3) (4) seed colour, F 2 population has 256 plants. How
4 4
many plants are heterozygotes for both the traits?
16. Genes for are linked which two characters selected
(1) 128 (2) 64
by Mendel in garden pea?
(3) 32 (4) 16
(1) Height of plant and seed colour
(2) Flower colour and pod shape 25. Read the statements carefully and choose the
correct option
(3) Height of plant and pod shape
(A) In recessive epistasis the ratio is 12 : 3 : 1
(4) Height of plant and seed shape genes
(B) In this case the epistatic gene is dominant allele
17. Find the odd one out with respect to sex limited
traits (1) Both are correct and B is correct explanation of A

(1) Antlers in male deer (2) Both are correct

(2) Brilliant plumage of peacock (3) Only A is correct

(3) Short index finger in male (4) Both are incorrect

(4) Beard in man 26. Calculate the total number of genotypes and
phenotypes produced in F 2 generation of a
18. In which of the following cases all daughters will be polygenic inheritance involving 3 pairs of alleles
carrier but sons normal ?
(1) 44 (2) 34
(1) Colourblind mother × Colourblind father
(3) 24 (4) 14
(2) Colourblind mother × Normal father
27. One of the reasons for which Drosophila was
(3) Carrier mother × Normal father selected by T.H. Morgan for his experiment is that?
(4) Normal mother × Colourblind father (1) Single mating produces few offsprings
19. Find the odd one out with respect to Mendelian (2) Many X-linked characters are found in Drosophila
disorders in human being.
(3) Male and females cannot be distinguished by
(1) Sickle cell anaemia (2) Phenylketonuria morphology
(3) Turner’s syndrome (4) Thalassemia (4) It has many hereditary variations which cannot
20. The condon in antisense strand of DNA responsible be seen through a low power microscope.
for -chain of hemoglobin, that results in the 28. What is the skin colour of a human being with the
synthesis of Hbs peptide is genotype AAbbCc?
(1) GAG (2) CTC
(1) Fairly dark (2) Mulatto
(3) GTG (4) CAC
(3) Darly (4) Very light
21. Which one is not a recessive human trait?
29. Female heterogamety is seen in
(1) Myotonic dystrophy (2) Cystic fibrosis
(1) Grasshopper
(3) Phenylketonuria (4) Thalassemia
(2) Drosophila
22. Mendel selected pea plant for his experiment for the
following features, except: (3) Birds

(1) Pea plant has many contrasting characters (4) Human

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Aakash Institute Principles of Inheritance and Variation
30. Find the order of genes A, B, C and D on E.coli 38. Sickle cell anaemia is due to
genophore if the distance between A and D is 33
(1) Insertion repeats
map units, C and D is 13 map unit A and B is 42
map units, B and D is 9 map unit and A and C is (2) Transversion substitution mutation
20 map units
(3) Transition substitution mutation
(1) A — B — C — D (2) A — C — B — D
(4) Chromosomal shift translocation
(3) A — C — D — B (4) A — D — B — C
39. Read the following statements and choose correct
31. In the Mendelian dihybrid cross for the solour and option
shape of seed, what is the probability of plants
having homozygotic round seed character ? (A) A gamete carries only one factor of a character
(B) Starch synthesis in wrinkled seeded pea plants
3 9
(1) (2) is most efficient
4 16
(C) Modified allele is always the recessive allele
3 1
(3) (4) (1) All are incorrect except A
8 4
32. In which of the following cases maximum types of (2) All are correct except B
gametes are possible? (3) All are incorrect
(1) AABB (2) AABb
(4) All are correct
(3) aaBb (4) AaBb
40. Who prepared first genetic map for Drosophila?
33. Find the odd one out from the given list with respect
(1) Sturtevant (2) Bateson
to human traits.
(3) Bridge (4) Muller
(1) Fused ear lobe
41. Initial experiments about genetic/chromosomal
(2) Sickle cell anaemia mechanism of sex determination were carried out in
(3) Widow’s peak (1) Insects (2) Pea
(4) Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (3) Bonnelia (4) E. coli
34. Number of Barr body present in an individual having 42. Select odd one with respect to Mendelian disorder
Turner’s syndrome is
(1) Down’s syndrome (2) Haemophilia
(1) 0 (2) 1
(3) Colour blindness (4) Sickle-cell anaemia
(3) 2 (4) 3
43. How many types of gametes will be produced from
35. A condition where an individual heterozygous for AaBBCcdd ?
two pairs of linked genes (TtRr) possesses the two
dominant genes on one homologous chromosome (1) 6 (2) 8
pair and two recessive on the other, it is said to (3) 4 (4) 9
be–
44. A normal man married a normal woman, both of
(1) Cis – arrangement whom have colour-blind father. What percentage of
(2) Trans - arrangement their daughter would be colour-blind?

(3) Partially cis partially trans (1) 0% (2) 25%

(4) More than one option is correct (3) 50% (4) 75%

36. W hat is the recombination percentage between 45. Consider the following cross
gene w (white eye) and m (miniature wing) in O
Drosophila in the experiment conducted by morgan? O AABbCcDDEe × AaBbCCDdee +
(1) 1.3% (2) 98.7% What will be the proportion of offsprings having geno-
type AAbbCCDDEe ?
(3) 62.8% (4) 37.2%
1 1
37. Human male has ______ linkage group more than (1) (2)
128 32
human female
1 1
(1) 24 (2) 23 (3) (4)
64 16
(3) 1 (4) 0

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Principles of Inheritance and Variation Aakash Institute
46. Inheritance of skin colour in humans is an example 54. According to genic balance theory by C.B. Bridges,
of X
in Drosophila, the ratio being 1.5 in the
(1) Genomatic mutation A
organism, the organism will be a
(2) Polygenic inheritance
(1) Normal female (2) Normal Male
(3) Co-dominance
(3) Superfemale (4) Intersex
(4) Complementary genes
55. Fill in the blanks and choose correct option.
47. Lack of independent assortment of two genes A
and B in fruit fly Drosophila is due to I. In _[A]____ inheritance, the dominant alleles of
the genes show cumulative effect.
(1) Repulsion (2) Recombination
II. First linkage map was developed in __[B]_____.
(3) Linkage (4) Crossing over
III. Chromosome ___[C]______ is called
48. In pedigree analysis, symbol given for sex Philadelphia chromosome.
unspecified is
(1) A – Polygenic, B – Neurospora, C – 9
(1) (2) (2) A – Qualitative, B – Pisum, C – 5
(3) A – Quantitative, B – Drosophila, C – 22
(3) (4) (4) A – Monogenic, B – Lathyrus, C – 21
49. Presence of more than two alleles for a gene in a 56. Find the correct match
population is called (1) Porcupine skin – Sex influenced trait
(1) Polygene (2) Pleiotropy (2) Beard in man – Holandric trait
(3) Multiple allele (4) Co-dominance (3) Deep male voice – Sex limited trait
50. Calculate the total number of genotypes in F 2 (4) Sickle cell anaemia – X linked
generation if a character is controlled by 2 pairs of
57. Genomatic mutation is
polygenes.
(1) Change in number of chromosomes
(1) 4 (2) 6
(2) Change in morphology of chromosomes
(3) 8 (4) 9
(3) Replacement of one base by another
51. In an F2 population of 96 plants produced from a
Mendelian cross of RRYY and rryy (wrinkled-green) (4) Removal of one or more bases from nucleotide
how many plants will be homozygous for round- chain
green seeds ? 58. Which combination in Drosophila develops into Inter
(1) 24 (2) 8 sex ?
(3) 6 (4) 16 (1) AA + XXX (2) AAA + XXY
52. In a cross between yellow body, white eyed female (3) AAA + XY (4) AA + XX
and the wild type brown body, red eyed male,
Morgan obtained 59. W hat are the chances of occurrence of three
consecutive male child to a couple ?
(1) 1.3% parental type and 98.7% recombinant type
in F2 generation 1 1
(1) (2)
8 2
(2) 98.7% parental type and 1.3% recombinant type
in F2 generation 3 1
(3) (4)
(3) 62.8% parental type and 37.2% recombinant type 8 3
in F2 generation 60. A : Loosely linked genes show high recombination
than completely linked.
(4) 37.2% parental type and 62.8% recombinant type
in F2 generation B : Test cross is the tool for knowing genotype of
test organism.
53. Phenylketonuria is caused a/an due to
(1) Both the statements are true
(1) Autosomal recessive gene
(2) Both the statements are false
(2) Autosomal dominant gene
(3) Only statement A is true
(3) X linked recessive gene
(4) Only statement B is true
(4) Holandric gene

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Aakash Institute Principles of Inheritance and Variation
61. The linkage group(s) of a human sperm and egg is (1) 14 (2) 2
(1) 23 each (3) 7 (4) 34
(2) 24 and 23 respectively 70. In case of recessive epistasis, the phenotype ratio
in F2 generation is
(3) 23 and 24 respectively
(1) 9:3:3:1 (2) 9:3:4
(4) 22 and 23 respectively
(3) 9:6:1 (4) 9:7
62. A diploid organism is heterozygous for five loci and
71. Morgan conducted a cross between white eye,
homozygous for two loci, how many types of ga- miniature winged female with the wild type red eye
metes are possible ? and normal winged male and obtained which of the
(1) 14 (2) 16 following result in F2 generation ?
(1) 62.8% parental type and 37.2% recombinant type
(3) 32 (4) 64
(2) 37.2% parental type and 62.8% recombinant type
63. How many types of gametes will be produced by a
male Drosophila having following arrangement of (3) 98.7% parental type and 1.3% recombinant type
two genes (y+ and w+) on X-chromosome? (4) 1.3% parental type and 98.7% recombinant type
72. Which of the following can express themselves in
+ both F 1 and F 2 generations if, for the given
y
characters, male and female parents are
homozygous dominant and recessive respectively
w+ and F1 is self crossed ?
(1) Terminal flowers (2) Green seeds
X Y (3) Violet flowers (4) Wrinkled seeds
(1) Two (2) Four
73. In Snapdragon, a pink flowered plant is test
(3) One (4) Eight crossed. What is the phenotypical probability in the
progeny ?
64. Person suffering from christmas disease lack
(1) 1 Red : 2 Pink : 1 White
(1) Plasma thromboplastin
(2) 1 Red : 2 Pink
(2) Antihemophilic globulin
(3) 1 Pink : 1 White
(3) Phenylalanine hydroxylase
(4) 3 Red : 1 Pink
(4) Tyrosinase
74. A man with blood group A (heterozygous) marries
65. Which one of the following Mendelian traits can be
a woman with blood group A whose father had
expressed in the presence of its identical allele
blood group O. Their first child had blood group O.
only?
What would be the probability of different possible
(1) Green pod (2) Axial flower blood groups in the next child ?
(3) Constricted pod (4) Round seed
1 1
66. A couple heterozygous for sickle cell anaemia (1) for blood group A and for blood group O
2 2
expects a baby. W hat are the chances of their
having a completely normal baby ? 1 1
(2) for blood group A and for blood group O
(1) 75% (2) 50% 4 4
(3) 65% (4) 25%
3 1
67. Autosomal trisomy can be seen in (3) for blood group A and for blood group O
4 4
(1) Down’s syndrome (2) Turner’s syndrome
(3) Patau syndrome (4) Both (1) and (3) 1 1
(4) for blood group AB and for blood group A
4 2
68. Which of the following is a sex limited trait ?
(1) Antlers in male deer (2) Pattern baldnes 75. A sweet pea plant with heterozygous genotype
AaBb is test crossed. If the two genes interact in
(3) Porcupine skin (4) Hypertrichosis complementary manner, what would be the
69. The total number of pure lines prepared by Mendel phenotype segregation w.r.t flower colour ?
for his hybridization experiment in Pisum sativum (1) 3 Purple : 1 White (2) 1 Purple : 3 White
was
(3) 1 Purple : 1 White (4) 9 Purple : 7 White
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Principles of Inheritance and Variation Aakash Institute
76. Male heterogamety is observed in (b) Chromosomal aberrations are commonly
observed in cancer cells
(1) Bird (2) Grasshopper
(c) Deletions and insertions of base pairs of DNA
(3) Butterfly (4) Both (1) and (3) causes frame-shift mutations
77. In maize plant coloured grain is dominant over (d) Chronic myelogenous leukemia occurs due to
colourless and full grain is dominant over shrunken duplication of genes on a chromosome
grain. A heterozygote for coloured and full grain was
test crossed and following results were obtained (1) (a) and (c) are incorrect
(A) Coloured and Full = 205 (2) All except (d) are correct
(B) Coloured and Shrunken = 16 (3) (b) and (c) are correct
(C) Colourless and Full = 14 (4) All except (b) are incorrect
(D) Colourless and Shrunken = 200 82. The F 2 generation offspring in a plant showing
If the two genes responsible for colour and shape incomplete dominance exhibit
are linked then, determine the distance between (1) Always a phenotypic ratio of 3 : 1
these linked genes
(2) Always a genotypic ratio of 1 : 1
(1) 12.6 cM (2) 16.9 cM
(3) Variable genotypic and phenotypic ratios
(3) 6.9 cM (4) 7.4 cM
(4) Same genotypic and phenotypic ratios
78. Porcupine skin in Human is a/an
83. Consider the cross Aa Bb Cc Dd Ee × aa Bb cc
(1) X linked recessive trait
DD ee.
(2) X linked dominant trait
What proportion of the progenies will genotypically
(3) Y linked trait resemble the first parent ?
(4) Autosomal recessive trait 1 1
(1) (2)
79. What does the given pedigree chart show ? 64 32
1 1
I (3) (4)
16 4
84. Fill up the blanks and choose the correct option
II (i) Skin colour inheritance in man is an example of
___[A]____ inheritance.
III (ii) A cross used to ascertain whether a dominant
phenotype is homozygous or heterozygous is
termed ___[B]____.
(1) X-linked recessive trait
(iii) In ___[C]____ inheritance, maternal influence is
(2) X-linked dominant trait more among the offsprings.
(3) Autosomal dominant trait (1) A – Quantitative (2) A – Monogenic
(4) Y-linked trait B – Reciprocal cross B – Out Cross
80. Find the correct match.
C – Autosomal C – Extranuclear
(1) Co-dominance – Flower colour in snapdragon
(3) A – Polygenic (4) A – Qualitative
(2) Pleiotropy – Phenylketonuria B – Test Cross B – Monohybrid Cross
(3) Incomplete – ABO blood grouping in
C – Cytoplasmic C – Sex linked
dominance humans
85. A colour blind daughter is born when her
(4) Dominant – Flower colour in sweet pea
(1) Mother is colour blind and father is normal
epistasis
(2) Mother is carrier and father is colour blind
81. Read the following statements and choose the
correct option (3) Mother does not carry any gene for colour
blindness but father is colour blind
(a) Klinefelter’s Syndrome occurs due to euploidy
(4) Mother is carrier and father is normal

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Aakash Institute Principles of Inheritance and Variation
86. The number of linkage groups in human egg is 92. How many of the following are chromosomal
disorders and Mendelian disorders respectively ?
(1) 24 (2) 23
Colour blindness, Sickle cell anaemia, Down's syndrome,
(3) 22 (4) 46
Thalassemia, Turner ' s Syndrome, Haemophilia, Phenylketonuria
87. All of the following are true for sickle cell anemia,
except (1) 3 and 4 (2) 4 and 3

(1) Autosomal recessive (3) 2 and 5 (4) 1 and 6

(2) Diseased individual die before attaining maturity 93. Match the following columns
(3) Multiple allelism Columns - I Columns - II
(4) Transversion mutation (i) Chromosomal map (a) Bateson and Punnet
88. Chromosomal theory of inheritance (ii) X-body (b) A.H. Sturtevant
(i) W as proposed independently by Sutton and (iii) Complementary genes (c) Sutton and Boveri
Boveri
(iv) Chromosomal theory (d) Henking
(ii) Shows parallelism between behaviour of
chromosomes and behaviour of genes of inheritance
(iii) Was experimentally verified by T.H. Morgan (1) (i) – (c), (ii) – (d), (iii) – (a), (iv) – (b)
(2) (i) – (b), (ii) – (d), (iii) – (a), (iv) – (c)
The correct ones are
(3) (i) – (b), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (d), (iv) – (c)
(1) (i) & (ii) only (2) (i) & (iii) only
(4) (i) – (c), (ii) – (a), (iii) – (d), (iv) – (b)
(3) (ii) & (iii) only (4) All (i), (ii) & (iii)
94. In Co-dominance
89. Select the odd one with respect to inter allelic or
intragenic interaction (A) F1 generation resembles both parents

(1) Epistasis (B) Genotypic and phenotypic ratios are always

different
(2) Co-dominance
(C) There is no mixing of the effect of both the alleles
(3) Pleiotropy
(1) Only (A) is correct
(4) Incomplete dominance
90. In the following pedigree chart, the trait is (2) Only (C) is correct
(3) Both (A) and (C) are correct
(4) All are correct
95. In pea plant, a heterozygote for axial flower was
outcrossed. In what ratio genotype would
segregate ?
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(1) Haemophilia (2) Porcupine skin
(3) 100% parental trait (4) 1 : 2
(3) Colourblindness (4) Myotonic dystrophy
96. Pair of alleles segregate because
91. Read the following statements and select whether
True (T) or False (F) (1) Bivalents separate during anaphase I
(A) In grasshopper, male individual is heterogametic (2) Genes recombine during pachytene
(B) Short index finger in male is a holandric trait (3) DNA replicates during S-phase
(C) Mutation is the only phenomenon that leads to
(4) Chromatids separate during mitotic anaphase
variation in offsprings
97. If a cross is made between two individuals with
A B C genotype Aabb × aaBb. W hat would be the
probability of individuals with genotype AaBb ?
(1) T T F
1 1
(2) T F F (1) (2)
2 4
(3) T F T
1 3
(3) (4)
(4) F T T 8 4

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Principles of Inheritance and Variation Aakash Institute
98. If two linked genes are 50 map unit apart, what 103. W hich of the following is a recombinant type of
does it reveal w.r.t. frequency of gene progeny obtained by Morgan while carrying out
recombination ? dihybrid cross?
(1) it is equal to 50% (2) it is less than 50% y w+ y+ w+
(1) (2)
(3) it is above 50% (4) both (1) and (3)
99. Which type of gametic fusion would give rise to y w
y+ w+
Klinefelter’s syndrome ? (3) (4)
y w y w
(1) (A+XX) × (A+Y) (2) (A+X) × (A+Y)
104. Read the given statements and choose correct
option
(3) (A+XY) × (A+X) (4) (A+X) × (A+XX)
(A) Turner’s syndrome is caused due to the absence
100. W hich mutagen was used by Muller to induce of one of the X-chromosome in human female
point mutation in Drosophila ? i.e 44+XO
(1) X-rays (2) Mustard gas (B) Down’s syndrome is caused due to the trisomic
(3) HNO2 (4) UV radiation of one of the X-chromosome in human male

101. Find out the types of gametes that can be formed (C) Hypertrichosis is sex-limited trait
from the genotype AaBBCcDD? (D) Haemophilia show lethality in human female
(1) 4 (2) 8 (1) All are correct except (B)
(3) 12 (4) 16 (2) Only (A) and (D) are correct
102. The given pedigree does not represent inheritance (3) All are correct except (C)
of ____________ disease
(4) All are correct
105. Substitution of thymine with guanine is called
___________
(1) Translocation (2) Transition
(3) Transversion (4) Inversion
106. Which of the following statement for butterflies is
incorrect ?
(1) Male individual is heterogametic
(2) Egg decides sex of progenies
(1) Colour blindness (2) Thalassemia
(3) Similar number of autosomes are found in male
(3) Hypertrichosis (4) Haemophilia and female individuals both
(4) Female individual is heterogametic

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Aakash Institute Principles of Inheritance and Variation

CPP-03
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

ANSWERS

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (4) 5. (2) 6. (2) 7. (2)

8. (3) 9. (2) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (4)

15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (3) 20. (4) 21. (1)

22. (2) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (2) 28. (2)

29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (4) 32. (4) 33. (3) 34. (1) 35. (1)

36. (4) 37. (3) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (1) 41. (1) 42. (1)

43. (3) 44. (1) 45. (3) 46. (2) 47. (3) 48. (2) 49. (3)

50. (4) 51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (1) 54. (3) 55. (3) 56. (3)

57. (1) 58. (2) 59. (1) 60. (2) 61. (1) 62. (3) 63. (1)

64. (1) 65. (3) 66. (4) 67. (4) 68. (1) 69. (1) 70. (2)

71. (1) 72. (3) 73. (3) 74. (3) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (3)

78. (3) 79. (1) 80. (2) 81. (3) 82. (4) 83. (2) 84. (3)

85. (2) 86. (2) 87. (3) 88. (4) 89. (1) 90. (4) 91. (2)

92. (3) 93. (2) 94. (3) 95. (2) 96. (1) 97. (2) 98. (1)

99. (1) 100. (1) 101. (1) 102. (3) 103. (1) 104. (2) 105. (3)

106. (1)

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 CPP-03
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

Zoology
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Reproductive Health

1. In case of syphilis, chancre appears during (2) These contain non-steroidal preparation and are
effective for 3 years
(1) Primary stage (2) Latent phase
(3) These are one of the devices having levonorgestrel
(3) Secondary stage (4) Tertiary stage
and are effective for 5 years
2. How many of the following methods listed below can
be included in in vitro fertilization ? (4) Chemical contraceptives which kill the sperms
by distrupting their membrane in vagina
[GIFT, AI, ZIFT, IUT, ICSI]
7. GIFT is recommended for those female
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four (1) Who cannot retain the foetus inside uterus
3. In a normal female, lack of menstruation other than (2) W hose cervical canal is too narrow to allow
conception can be due to passage for the sperms
(a) Absence of pregnancy (3) Who cannot provide suitable environment for
fertilization
(b) Excessive stress
(c) Poor health (4) Who cannot produce an ovum but can provide
suitable environment for development
(1) a only (2) Both b and c
8. What is true for IUDs ?
(3) Both a and b (4) a,b and c
4. Which of the following STDs are not completely (I) They are self inserted
curable ? (II) They are inserted by expert doctors and nurses
(1) Chlmydiasis, gonorrhoea, trichomoniasis (III) They may be non-medicated IUDs, Cu releasing
(2) Chancroid, syphilis, genital wart IUDs or hormone releasing IUDs
(3) AIDS, syphilis, hepatitis-B (IV) They are one of the most widely accepted
(4) AIDS, Genital herpes, hepatitis-B contraceptives in India

5. W hich of the following represents the correct (1) All (2) II, III and IV
match of a sexually transmitted disease with it’s
(3) I, II, and III (4) I, III, IV
pathogen ?
(1) Syphilis – Chlamydia 9. Oral contraceptive pills do not
(2) Gonorrhoea – Entamoeba histolytica (1) Inhibit ovulation and implantation
(3) Chancroid – HSV – 2 (2) Alter the quality of cervical mucus and retards
(4) Genital warts – Human Papilloma Virus (HPV) the sperm entry
6. Choose the correct statement for given figure (3) Have progesterone - estrogen combination or
progesterone only
(4) Prevent the entry of sperm into female tract
10. Amniocentesis and chorionic villi sampling can be
done respectively during
(1) 15th and 18th week of pregnancy
(2) 8th and 8th week of pregnancy
(3) 10th and 17th week of pregnancy
(1) Hormone containing device inserted in uterus for (4) 7th and 4th week of pregnancy
providing long term contraception
(1)
Reproductive Health Aakash Institute
11. Amniocentesis helps in 17. Read the following statements(A -D):
(1) Increasing DNA number A - Failure rate of coitus interruptus is high
(2) Early diagnosis of diseases like heart failure B - The inert IUD is Lippes loop
(3) Early diagnosis of genetic disorders C - Amniocentesis should be done in 15th week of
pregnancy
(4) Both (1) & (2)
12. Inability to conceive or produce children even after 2 D - Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted
years of unprotected sexual cohabitation is called infection which can be cured by an antibiotics
(1) MTP (2) ST How many of these statements are true?
(3) Infertility (4) PD (1) 1 (2) 2
13. Study the following statements & select the
(3) 3 (4) 4
correct option
(a) Cyclofem & Mesigna are combined contraceptive 18. Which of the following statements is correct
pills (1) Replacement level is 2.7 for developed countries
(b) Failure rate is least in implanted contraceptives (2) Lactation amenorrhoea is caused by increased
(c) Fem shield & Vault cap can also protect from levels of progesterone
STIs
(3) Lippe’s loop mainly prevents fertilisation
(d) LNG- 20 is hormone releasing IUD
(4) MTP can be done upto 20 weeks
How many statements are wrong ?
19. Which is correct w.r.t. contraceptives?
(1) 4 (2) 3
(3) 2 (4) 1 (1) IUDs are used in sterilisation method

14. W hich of the following is not correctly matched (2) Hormone releasing IUDs make the uterus
with its category? unsuitable for coitus

(1) Saheli - Non-steroidal (3) Emergency IUDs are effectively used within 24
days of coitus
(2) lmplanon - Contains 3–ketodesogestrel
(4) Multiload -375 increases phagocytosis of sperms
(3) RU486 - Promotes the function of and supresses the sperm motility
Progesterone
(4) Sponge today - Contains nonoxynol- 9 20. ZIFT : In Vitro fertilisation : GIFT : __________

15. Identify the statements as true(T) or false(F) (1) In Vivo fertilisation

A - Embryo with upto 8 blastomeres can be transfered (2) In Vitro fertilisation
to uterus
B - Gossypol inhibits spermatogenesis. (3) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection

C - Orchitis may cause male sterility. (4) Artificial insemination

D - Low fructose content and high and prostaglandins 21. Which of the following is a Cu releasing IUD with its
lead to male infertility.
correct function?

A B C D (1) Multiload 375 — Suppress sperm motility

(1) T T F F and fertilising capacity of
(2) F F F T sperms
(3) F F T T (2) Progestasert — Makes uterus unsuitable for
(4) F T T T implantation and cervix
hostile
16. MTPs are considered relatively safe during
trimester of pregnancy. Choose the option that fills (3) Lippes loop — Increase phagocytosis of
the blanks correctly. sperms
(1) First (4) LNG- 20 — Inhibits ovulation and
(2) Second implantation as well as
alter the quality of cervical
(3) Third mucus to prevent/retard
(4) Both second and third entry of sperms

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Aakash Institute Reproductive Health
22. Which of the following STDs cannot be treated with 27. W hich of the following STs is caused due to a
antibiotics? protozoa ?
(1) Chlamydiasis (2) Syphilis (1) Trichomoniasis (2) Chancroid
(3) Genital herpes (4) Trichomoniasis (3) Chlamydia (4) Genital warts
23. Identify the statements as true (T) and false (F):
28. Choose the correct statement with respect to
I. Decidua basalis is present between embryo and amniocentesis
lumen of uterus.
(1) Can be used to detect cardiac disorders of unborn
II. Epiblast is the source of all the germ layers in child
the embryo.
(2) Chromosome based study from embryo’s cells
III. Multiload IUD is hormone releasing device. in amniotic fluid
IV. MTP is safe if it is performed upto 20 weeks of (3) Best results between 4-6 weeks
pregnancy.
(4) Foetal sex cannot be determined from this test
I II III IV
(1) T T F F
29. Select the incorrect pair with respect to
contraceptive method
(2) F T T F
(3) F T F F (1) Coitus interruptus : Maximum failure rates
(4) F T T T (2) Diaphragm : Single use ; protects user against
STIs
24. W hich of the following is not a cause of rapid
population growth ? (3) Minipills : Progesterone only pills

(1) Increase in Natality rate (4) Inert IUD : Lippes loop

(2) Increase in Emigration 30. Which of the following ART procedures involves In-
Vivo fertilisation ?
(3) Increase in Fertility rate
(1) ICSI (2) ZIFT
(4) Decrease in Mortality rate
(3) IUT (4) GIFT
25. Match the following and choose the correct option
Column I Column II 31. Match the following columns and choose the
correct option
(i) Saheli A. Mala - D
(ii) Oral contraceptive B. Natural method of Column A Column B
contraception A. HIV (i) Protozoan STI
(iii) Implanted C. LNG - 20 B. Chancroid (ii) Cryosurgery
contraceptive
C. Genital warts (iii) Placental transmission
(iv) Lactational D. Norplant
Amenorrhoea D. Trichomoniasis (iv) Painful ulcer on genitals

(v) IUD E. Non-steroidal (1) A – i, B – ii, C – iv, D – iii

contraceptive
(2) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i
F. Fem-shield
(3) A – iii, B – iv, C – ii, D – i
(1) i – A; ii – E; iii – D; iv – F; v – B (4) A – ii, B – iv, C – iii, D – i
(2) i – E; ii – A; iii – F; iv – B; v – D
32. Choose the correct option
(3) i – E; ii – A; iii – C; iv – F; v – D Statement A : Copper IUDs have local antifertility
(4) i – E; ii – A; iii – D; iv – B; v – C effect as they decreases fertiliging
capacity of sperm.
26. Which of the following statement is not true ?
Statement B : Copper IUDs decreases sperm
(1) Syphilis is diagnosed by VDRL method motility
(2) Saheli is twice a week pill
(1) Only statement A is correct
(3) When ovum of a donor female transferred to
another female then it is called GIFT (2) Only statement B is correct

(4) In ZIFT, fertilisation is performed in laboratory (In (3) Both statements A and B are correct
vitro) (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
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Reproductive Health Aakash Institute
33. Read the following statements (A–F) II. MTP is considered safe upto the second trimester
A. Combined oral contraception pills include Minipills III. MTP has resulted in large scale foeticide
B. Oral pills are to be taken for 21 days after the 5th IV. MTP’s should be meant for removing
day of the menstrual cycle unsustainable pregnancies due to congenital
malformations
C. Hormonal pills alter the endometrium to make it
unsuitable for implantation I II III IV

D. Saheli is a non-steroidal preparation which (1) F F T T

selectively blocks estrogen function (2) T T T T
E. Mala D is a combined pill (3) T F T T
F. Mifepristone induces abortion by blocking (4) T F F T
progesterone activity
35. Choose the incorrect pair with respect to
How many of the above statements are correct ? contraception
(1) 4 (2) 5
(1) Mala D : combined OCP
(3) 3 (4) 2
(2) Saheli : steroidal pill
34. Identify the statements as True(T) or False(F) and
choose the correct option (3) Lippes Loop : non-medicated IUD

I. MTP can legally be done with some restrictions (4) Condom : also protects against STI
upto 24 weeks of foetal development according
to MTP (Amendment) Act, 2017

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Aakash Institute Reproductive Health

CPP-03
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL-2021-22

ANSWERS

1. (1) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (4)

8. (2) 9. (4) 10. (1) 11. (3) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (3)

15. (4) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (1) 21. (1)

22. (3) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (4) 26. (2) 27. (1) 28. (2)

29. (2) 30. (4) 31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (1) 34. (3) 35. (2)

  

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