Republic of the Philippines
DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION
Region I
Schools Division of Ilocos Sur
CAOAYAN NATIONAL HIGH SCHOOL
Pandan, Caoayan, Ilocos Sur
DIAGNOSTIC TEST in PHYSICAL SCIENCE
S.Y. 2022-2023, First Semester
Directions: Carefully read the questions and shade the letter of the best answer on the bubble sheet
provided.
STRICTLY NO ERASURES!!!
1. Which of the following is the most accepted theory about the formation of the universe that
explains why it continues to expand?
a. big bang theory c. steady state theory
b. divine creation theory d. oscillating theory
2. Which of the following is not considered as light elements?
a. helium b. lithium c. hydrogen d. iron
3. Which process is responsible for the formation of light elements such as Hydrogen and Helium?
a. big bang nucleosynthesis c. supernova nucleosynthesis
b. stellar nucleosynthesis d. terrestrial nucleosynthesis
4. Which element can be formed when three atoms of helium are fused?
a. carbon b. oxygen c. hydrogen d. silicon
5. Which of the following elements DOES NOT belong to the group?
a. beryllium b. iron c. silicon d. oxygen
6. Why do average stars have longer life span than massive star?
a. They have less fuel to burn c. They burn their fuel at faster rate
b. They have more fuel to burn d. They burn their fuel at slower rate
7. It is a device that is used to speed up the protons to overcome the repulsion between the protons
and the target atomic nuclei by using magnetic and electrical fields.
a. Spectroscopy c. Particle Accelerator
b. Particle Decelerator d. Microscope
8. He noticed that shooting electrons at elements caused them to release x-rays at unique
frequencies.
a. Mendeleev b. Moseley c. Millikan d. Serge
9. In this process, there’s a buildup of a VERY heavy isotope, then as beta-decays occur, you march
up in atomic number and produce heavy product.
a. S Process c. Nuclear Fission
b. R-Process d. Proton-Proton Reaction
For items 10-18;
a. The first statement is true and the second statement is false.
b. The second statement is true and the first statement is false
c. Both statements are true
d. Both statements are false.
10. 1st Statement: The first naturally occurring unstable element that was isolated is polonium.
2nd Statement: It was discovered by the Irish scientist Marie Curie.
11. 1st Statement: The S-process can produce elements up to #83 - Bismuth.
2nd Statement: The R-process is the Rapid addition of neutrons to existing nuclei.
12. 1st Statement: A molecule shape is a three-dimensional arrangement of atoms or bonding groups
around a central atom.
2nd Statement: The molecular shape is governed by the valence shell electron repulsion (VSEPR)
theory.
13. 1st Statement: Sulfur hexafluoride (SF6) has six bonded electrons and no lone pair in its central
atom.
2nd Statement: Hydrogen cyanide (HCN) exhibits a linear geometry.
14. 1st Statement: S and O are bonded by a polar covalent bond because its electronegativity
difference value is 1.0.
2nd Statement: Atoms with high electronegativity have a greater tendency to attract electrons
toward itself.
15. 1st Statement: Fat refers to solid triglyceride usually from animal sources such as meat, milk,
butter, margarine, eggs, and cheese.
2nd statement: They are made from carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen.
16. 1st Statement: The most common examples of nucleic acids are DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and
RNA (ribonucleic acid).
2nd Statement: Lipids play an essential role in the storage, transfer, and expression
of genetic information.
17. Which of the following statements is TRUE about polar bonds?
a. They are present in metals.
b. They are responsible for the formation of ionic compounds.
c. They always result to the formation of polar molecular compounds.
d. They may result to nonpolar covalent compounds depending on molecular geometry.
18. Which of the following is NOT true about stellar nucleosynthesis
a. This is the process by which elements are created within stars by combining the protons and
neutrons together from the nuclei of lighter elements.
b. Fusion inside stars transforms hydrogen into helium, heat, and radiation.
c. Lighter elements are created in different types of stars as they die or explode.
d. None of the above
19. What type of chemical bond holds the atoms of water molecule together?
a. Hydrogen bond b. Ionic bond
c. Polar covalent bond d. Nonpolar covalent bond
20. Which of the following molecule is nonpolar?
a. NaCl
b. HCl
c. CO2
d. NH3
21. Which of the following statements is TRUE about nonpolar molecules
a. Have high boiling point
b. Have high melting point
c. Have low surface tension
d. Have low vapor pressure
22. In which of the following solvents would molecular iodine (I2) be most soluble?
a. Vinegar
b. Water
c. Ethyl alcohol
d. Carbon tetrachloride
23. Supposedly a hypothetical molecule has an electronegativity difference of 0.5,
what is the type of chemical bond present?
a. Ionic
b. Hydrogen
c. Polar covalent
d. Nonpolar covalent
24. He created a classification of elements based on their atomic weight.
a. Rutherford b. Millikan c. Dalton d. Mendeleev
25. He noticed that shooting electrons at elements caused them to release x-rays at unique
frequencies.
a. Mendeleev b. Millikan c. Mosley d. Serge
26. He synthesized element with atomic number 43 using a linear particle accelerator.
a. Ernest Rutherford b. Ernest Lawrence c. John Dalton d. none
of these
27. The following molecules have polar covalent bonds EXCEPT?
a. NH3
b. CS2
c. BCl3
d. HBr
28. What do you call the relative ability of a bonded atom to attract shared electron pairs?
a. Electron affinity
b. Electronegativity
c. Ionization energy
d. Metallic property
29. True or False: Methyl alcohol, CH3OH, is a nonpolar molecule.
a. True b. False
30. The measure of the shift of electron density from one atom to the more electronegative atom in
molecule.
a. Polarity
b. Polarizability
c. Dipole moment
d. Forces of interaction
31. It is the primary source of energy in the human body.
a. Protein b. Carbohydrate c. Lipid d. Nucleic Acid
b.
32. Which is termed as the blueprint of life?
a. deoxyribonucleic acid
b. fatty acid
c. nucleic acid
d. ribonucleic acid
33. Who was the Italian physicist who played a major role in the scientific revolution, studied natural
forces and conducted theoretical and experimental work on motions of bodies?
a. Galileo Galilei b. Isaac Newton c. Johannes Kepler d. Tycho Brahe
34. Who claimed that heavy and light objects drop in the same way?
a. Aristotle b. Copernicus c. Galileo d. Ptolemy
35. Which of the following is true about the projectile of an arrow when shot?
a. It rises because its particles are mostly air.
b. It has continued applied force from the person who shot the arrow.
c. It has both uniform motion and uniformly accelerating motion.
d. It creates a vacuum that sucks air in, and the air pushes the arrow.
36. Jamir and Jake are flying their kites. While running fast, Jamir accidentally released his kite. He
watched it as it slowly rises in the air. According to Aristotle, which of the following statements
is true about the situation?
a. The kite experienced a free fall motion. b. The kite experienced a violent motion.
c. The kite experienced a projectile motion. d. The kite experienced a natural motion
37. What is true about Aristotle’s theory of motion?
a. Objects fall faster in air than water.
b. The fall of heavy object toward the center of the earth is a violent motion.
c. The increase in the rate of motion is inversely proportional to the weight of the object. d.
The object will continue to move even without an external force applied.
38. Based on Galileo’s experiments, when do you say that motion is uniformly
accelerated?
a. When speed is proportional to time of travel.
b. When speed is proportional to distance.
c. When speed is proportional to acceleration.
d. When speed is proportional to distance velocity.
39. What do you call a phenomenon by which the incident light falling on the surface is sent back
into the same medium?
a. Absorption b. Polarization c. Reflection d. Refraction
40. Which statement correctly describes the “Law of reflection”?
a. The angle of reflection is perpendicular to the normal.
b. The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection
c. The angle of reflection is parallel to the angle of incidence
d. Both the angle of incidence and reflection lie in different planes.
41. What type of reflection is produced by rough surfaces?
a. Diffuse reflection
b. Dispersion
c. Specular reflection
d. Total internal reflection
42. Which of the following best describes a Normal line?
a. The path is taken by the rays of light as it approaches the surface
b. Line parallel to the incident and reflected ray
c. The total distance traveled by light upon reflecting
d. An imaginary line is drawn perpendicular to the reflecting surface
43. An incoming ray of light strikes the mirror at an angle of 30˚ relative to the normal. What is the
angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray?
a. 15 ˚ b. 30 ˚ c. 60 ˚ d. 90 ˚
44. A ray of light strikes a polished surface at an angle of 37˚. What is the angle of reflection and
location of the reflected ray?
a. 37.0˚ on the same side with the incident ray
b. 37.0˚ on the other side of the normal line
c. 53.0˚ on the same side with the incident ray
d. 53.0˚ on the other side of the normal line
45. Which of the following supports the wave nature of electrons?
a. dispersion of white light in a prism b. double-slit experiment
c. image formation in a mirror d. diffraction grating
46. What scenario will result in the formation of interference patterns?
a. Blue light is used in a double-slit experiment.
b. X-rays are used in crystallization.
c. Water is heated to 1000C in a pot.
d. An electron enters a parallel plate capacitor which deflects the electrons downward
47. What is seen on the screen detector in the electron double-slit experiment?
a. white bands b. dark bands c. monochromatic light
48. Why do GPS clocks need to be corrected using the General Theory of Relativity?
a. because they are far away from Earth
b. because they are stationary
c. because they are orbiting the Earth
d. because they are affected by the Earth’s warping of space-time
49. Which of the following is an accelerating frame of reference?
a. a moving car at constant speed c. free falling object
b. a building d. a stationary bus
50. What force is explained by general relativity?
a. Weak nuclear force c. Electromagnetic force
b. Strong nuclear force d. Gravitational force
51. What is the minimum velocity needed for a spacecraft to leave the Earth?
a. less than Earth’s escape velocity
b. greater than Earth’s escape velocity
c. equivalent to Earth’s escape velocity
d. equivalent to the speed of light
52. At the age of 20, Donna joined a space exploration at the speed of .8c and completed it in 20
years. Identify her age upon his return to Earth.
a. 32 b. 45 c. 51 d. 56
53. Determine the perceived length of a 5m ship travelling at .637c.
a. 1.25m b. 2.95m c. 3.55m d. 4.35m
54. Determine the energy equivalent of an object with a mass of 27kg.
a. 2.11 x1018J b. 2.23x1016J c. 2.43x1018J d. 2.53x1019J
55. At the age of 23, Danny joined a space expedition at the speed of .6c and completed it in 25
years. Identify his age upon his return to Earth.
a. 33 b.35 c. 40 d. 43
56. Determine the energy equivalent of an object with a mass of 1230 kg.
a. 1.11x1020J b.1.36x1018J c. 2.25x1025J d. 2.45x1037J
57. What is a light-year?
a. The distance travelled by light in one year (365 ¼ days)
b. The distance travelled by light in a leap year (366 years)
c. The time required for light to cover 1 AU of distance travelled
d. The time required for light to make a round trip from a nearby star
58. What is the approximate age of the universe?
a. 14 million years c. 4.5 million years
b. 14 billion years d. 4.5 billion years
59. Which is TRUE about the movement of galaxies observed from earth?
a. Far galaxies tend to move faster towards observers on earth.
b. Far galaxies tend to move slower towards observers on earth.
c. Far galaxies tend to move faster away from observers on earth.
d. Far galaxies tend to move slower away from observers on earth.
60. What is an Astronomical Unit (AU)?
a. It is the average spacing of the planets.
b. It is the average distance of the earth from the Sun.
c. It is the average distance of the earth from the moon.
d. It is the average distance of the Sun from the nearest Star.
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