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CTFL-Foundation Dumps

Certified Tester Foundation Level

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NEW QUESTION 1
You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring & diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following
would you least expect to see addressed in the test plan? 1 credit

A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2
You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test
progress report? 1 credit

A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3
The introduction of reviews and inspections has often failed as a process improvement action. Identify the THREE most important measures that should be taken
to reduce the risk that this test process improvement will fail. 2 Credits (for 2 out correct 1 credit)

A. Process ownership and experienced moderators who drive the inspection process.
B. Management support
C. Training of those involved
D. The availability of stands and processes
E. Usage of a more traditional software development lifecycle
F. Alignment with software process improvement
G. Using a reference model, e.
H. TMMi

Answer: ABC

NEW QUESTION 4
What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2 credits

A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.

B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit

A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment

Answer: ACE

NEW QUESTION 6
Which of the following are valid reasons for adopting a different life cycle (from the V model), for increments after the first year? 2 credits

A. We do not have a clear understanding of the requirements from a customer perspective.i

B. We see the risk of delivering requested functionality late as being higher than the risk of delivering a lower quality product.ii
C. We do not have a budget for additional regression testing which is needed to ensure that existing functionality is not compromised by future iterations.i
D. The company test strategy does not fit well within the V life cycle model.
E. (i) and (ii)
F. (i) and (iv)
G. (ii) and (iii)
H. (ii) and (iv)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7

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Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step you might take as test manager? 1 credit

A. Testing for performance problems

B. Hiring a contractor after a test analyst leaves the company
C. Arranging a back-up test environment in case the existing one fails during testing
D. Performing a project retrospective meeting using the test results after each increment

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
In addition to risk, identify TWO other components of a testing strategy. 1 credit

A. The entry and exit criteria for each test phase

B. Test training needs for the project resources
C. The test design techniques to be used
D. Test performance indicators
E. The test schedule

Answer: AC

NEW QUESTION 9
What would be a test approach regarding the test design techniques to be applied that would fit an item with the highest risk? 2 credits

A. Component testing: decision testing; System testing: exploratory testing

B. Component testing: decision testing; System testing: decision table testing
C. Component testing: statement testing; System testing: equivalence partitioning
D. Component testing: statement testing; System testing: decision table partitioning

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
Based on the information given in the scenario, identify how the team could be improved most effectively? 2 credits

A. By providing training in the payroll domain

B. By providing a workshop on test design techniques
C. By providing specific training on the systems being tested
D. By providing training on reviewing requirements

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
Which of the following team roles would be most appropriate to enhance the team and why? 2 credits

A. A person with the ability to complete tasks

B. A quality assurance officer
C. A person with in-depth technical skills
D. A person who brings new ideas to the team

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 15
You are considering involving users during test execution. In general, what is the main reason for involving users during test execution? 1 credit

A. They are a cheap resource

B. They have good testing skills
C. This can serve as a way to build their confidence in the system
D. They have the ability to also focus on invalid test cases

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 20
Model characteristics:
Which THREE of the below mentioned characteristics relate to TMMi? 1 credit

A. 5 maturity levels
B. Focussed on higher level testing
C. 20 key areas
D. Highly related to CMMI
E. Continuous model
F. Staged model
G. Focussed on component and integration testing
H. Is build around 12 critical testing processes

Answer: ADF

NEW QUESTION 23

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Which of the following product risks would be most effectively addressed just by static testing? 3 credits

A. In the delivered application, one of the countries, as specified in the requirements, has not been correctly implemented.
B. The application takes too long to process a request for additional cover.
C. The test cases do not cover the key requirements.
D. The successful bidder may not deliver all the required functionality on tim

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 24
Which of the following is NOT a typical key challenge for testing in a RAD based development approach? 1 credit

A. Re-usable test scripts for (automated) regression testing

B. Project management and control
C. No complete requirements specification
D. Time-boxing

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 25
Security falls under..?

A. compliance testing
B. disaster testing
C. verifying compliance to rules
D. functional testing
E. ease of operations

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 26
Which of the following is a structure-based (white-box) technique?

A. Decision table testing

B. State transition testing
C. Statement testing
D. Boundary value analysis

Answer: C

Explanation:
All other options are specification-based (black-box) techniques, and the main distracter is answer (A) because decision table testing could be confused with
decision testing.

NEW QUESTION 28
Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution?

A. Develop and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally, preparing test harness and writing automated test scripts.
B. Logging the outcome of test execution and recording the identities and versions of the software under test, test tools and test ware.
C. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
D. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctl

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 33
Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

A. Test Analysis and Design

B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 37
Which of the following is the odd one out..?

A. White box
B. Glass box
C. Structural
D. Functional

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 42

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According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?

A. To verify the success of corrective actions.

B. To prevent a task from being incorrectly considered completed.
C. To ensure that defects have not been introduced by a modification.
D. To motivate better unit testing by the programmer

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 47
Which of the following are valid justifications for developers testing their own code during unit testing?
(i) Their lack of independence is mitigated by independent testing during system and acceptance testing.
(ii) A person with a good understanding of the code can find more defects more quickly using white-box techniques.
(iii) Developers have a better understanding of the requirements than testers.
(iv) Testers write unnecessary incident reports because they find minor differences between the way in which the system behaves and the way in which it is
specified to work.

A. (i) and (ii)

B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)

Answer: A

Explanation:
It is unlikely that developers will have a better understanding of the requirements than testers, partly because testers work closely with the user community (and
may be drawn from it) and partly because developers seldom work with the complete set of requirements in a medium to large development.
Testers may raise incidents related to the difference between user expectations and the specification, but these are not unnecessary. Such issues are more likely
to arise at the later stages of testing.
Early testing (unit testing) is usually done most effectively by developers with a good understanding of the code and the development environment; they can be
more efficient and more effective at this level. Later independent stages of testing offset any disadvantage from the lack of independence at unit testing level.

NEW QUESTION 52
Which is not the testing objective?

A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 53
What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having theeffects of that change show up in some test..?

A. Introducing mutations
B. Performance testing
C. A mutation error
D. Debugging a program

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 58
A new system is about to be developed. Which of the following functions has the highest level of risk?

A. Likelihood of failure = 20%; impact value = £100,000

B. Likelihood of failure = 10%; impact value = £150,000
C. Likelihood of failure = 1%; impact value = £500,000
D. Likelihood of failure = 2%; impact value = £200,000

Answer: A

Explanation:
In (B) the product of probability × impact has the value £15,000; in (C) the value is £5,000 and in (D) it is £4,000. The value of £20,000 in (A) is therefore the
highest.

NEW QUESTION 60
Which of the following defects is most likely to be found by a test harness?

A. Variance from programming standards.

B. A defect in middleware.
C. Memory leaks.
D. Regression defects.

Answer: B

Explanation:

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Variance from programming standards defects (option (A)) are found during the review or static testing process.
Therefore a test harness is unlikely to find a defect in programming standards.
Memory leak defects (option (C)) could potentially be found by a test harness designed to run many test cases. Regression defects (option (D)) could be found
using many types of test tool.
Defects in middleware (option (B)) are generally more likely to be found by a test harness or a dynamic analysis tool than by any other type of tool.

NEW QUESTION 65
The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

A. Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
B. Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
C. Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
D. Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
E. Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 66
A washing machine has three temperature bands for different kinds of fabrics: fragile fabrics are washed at temperatures between 15 and 30 degrees Celsius;
normal fabrics are washed at temperatures between 31 and 60 degrees Celsius; heavily soiled and tough fabrics are washed at temperatures between 61 and 100
degrees Celsius.
Which of the following contains only values that are in different equivalence partitions? A. 15, 30, 60

A. 20, 35, 60
B. 25, 45, 75
C. 12, 35, 55

Answer: C

Explanation:
Answer (A) includes two values from the lower partition, answer (B) contains two values from the second partition, answer (D) contains one value that is invalid
(out of range).

NEW QUESTION 71
Tests are prioritized so that:

A. You shorten the time required for testing

B. You do the best testing in the time available
C. You do more effective testing
D. You find more faults

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 74
In the MASPAR case study..?

A. Security failures were the result of untested parts of code

B. The development team achieved complete statement and branch coverage but missed a serious bug in the MASPAR operating system
C. An error in the code was so obscure that you had to test the function with almost every input value to find its two special-case failures
D. All the above

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 77
What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing..?

A. Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
B. Use automation tool for testing
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 79
Consider the following pseudo code: 1 Begin
2 Read Time
3 If Time < 12 Then
4 Print(Time, "am")
5 Endif
6 If Time > 12 Then
7 Print(Time 12, "pm")
8 Endif
9 If Time = 12 Then 10 Print (Time, "noon") 11 Endif
12 End
If the test cases Time = 11 and Time = 15 were input, what level of decision coverage would be achieved?

A. 100% or 6/6

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B. 50% or 3/6
C. 67% or 4/6
D. 83% or 5/6

Answer: D

Explanation:
Test case 1 exercises the decision outcomes True, False, False
Test case 2 exercises the decision outcomes False, True, False This leaves the True outcome of decision 3 not exercised. Of the 6 possible decision outcomes, 5
have been exercised, so the decision coverage is 5/6 (about 83%).

NEW QUESTION 82
A software component has the code shown below: Program BiggestA,
Biggest: Integer Begin
Read A Biggest = 10 While A > 0 Do
If A > Biggest Then Biggest = A Endif
Read A Enddo End
The component has exit criteria for component testing that include 100% statement coverage. Which of the following test cases will satisfy this criterion?

A. 10, 0
B. 10, 5, 0
C. 10, 11, 0

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 83
When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called..?

A. An error
B. A fault
C. A failure
D. A defect
E. A mistake

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 87
Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:

A. Statement Coverage
B. Pole Coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. Path Coverage

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 91
Which of the following is the task of a Tester?

A. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.i
B. Prepare and acquire Test Dataii
C. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.i
D. Create the Test Specifications
E. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
F. ii, iii, iv is true and i is false
G. i is true and ii, iii, iv are false
H. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are Incorrect

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 92
Which of these are objectives for software testing?

A. Determine the productivity of programmers

B. Eliminate the need for future program maintenance
C. Eliminate every error prior to release
D. Uncover software errors

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 96
Which of the following are static techniques?

A. Walkthrough.
B. State transition testing.
C. Decision table testing.
D. Statement testing.

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Answer: A

Explanation:
Options (B), (C) and (D) are all dynamic test techniques.

NEW QUESTION 97
Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key principles of software testing?

A. Automated tests are better than manual tests for avoiding the Exhaustive Testing.
B. Exhaustive testing is, with sufficient effort and tool support, feasible for all software.
C. It is normally impossible to test all input / output combinations for a software system.
D. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defect
E. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate the absence of defects.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 101

Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review..?

A. Project Manager
B. Test Engineer
C. Test Manager
D. None of the above

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 102

The purpose of exit criteria is:

A. Define when to stop testing

B. End of test level
C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
D. All of the above

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 107

How can test execution tools be of most benefit during exploratory testing?

A. They can record user actions so that defects are easier to recreate.
B. They can be used to perform the regression aspects of exploratory testing.
C. They can help to mitigate the risk of low test coverage.
D. They can use data-driven tests to increase the amount of exploratory testing performed.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Exploratory testing is used when it is unclear what the system is supposed to do. Therefore test execution tools are of little use because expected results cannot
be predicted.
However, the record feature of a test execution tool can be used to log the actions performed so that defects can be recreated (option (A)) and rectified more
easily.

NEW QUESTION 108

For which of the following would maintenance testing be used?

A. Correction of defects during the development phase.

B. Planned enhancements to an existing operational system.
C. Complaints about system quality during user acceptance testing.
D. Integrating functions during the development of a new syste

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 110

Which of the following is a non-functional requirement?

A. The system will enable users to buy books.

B. The system will allow users to return books.
C. The system will ensure security of the customer details.
D. The system will allow up to 100 users to log in at the same time.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The other options are functional requirements. Note that security is regarded as a functional requirement in this syllabus.

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NEW QUESTION 112

Consider the following statements about early test design:

A. Early test design can prevent fault multiplicationi

B. Faults found during early test design are more expensive to fixii
C. Early test design can find faultsi
D. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements
E. Early test design takes more effort
F. i, iii & iv are tru
G. ii & v are false
H. iii is true, i, ii, iv & v are false
I. iii & iv are tru
J. i, ii & v are false
K. i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
L. i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 115

What should be the MAIN objective during development testing?

A. To cause as many failures as possible so that defects in the software are identified and can be fixed
B. To confirm that the system works as expected and that requirements have been met
C. To assess the quality of the software with no intention of fixing defects
D. To give information to stakeholders of the risk of releasing the system at a given time

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 119

Which of the following is true of iterative development?

A. It uses fully defined specifications from the start.

B. It involves the users in the testing throughout.
C. Changes to the system do not need to be formally recorded.
D. It is not suitable for developing website

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 123

An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004. The boundary values for testing this field are:

A. 0,1900,2004,2005
B. 1900, 2004
C. 1899,1900,2004,2005
D. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 128

Which is not the fundamental test process?

A. Planning and control

B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design
D. None

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 133

One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is:

A. Lack of technical documentation

B. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
C. Lack of training
D. Lack of Objectivity

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 137

Which of the following, if observed in reviews and tests, would lead to problems (or conflict) within teams?

A. Testers and reviewers are not curious enough to find defects.

B. Testers and reviewers are not qualified enough to find failures and faults.
C. Testers and reviewers communicate defects as criticism against persons and not against the software product.
D. Testers and reviewers expect that defects in the software product have already been found and fixed by the developer

Answer:

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NEW QUESTION 141

What do static analysis tools analyze?

A. Design
B. Test cases
C. Requirements
D. Program code

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 144

Which of the following statements are correct for walkthroughs?
(i) Often led by the author.
(ii) Documented and defined results.
(iii) All participants have defined roles.
(iv) Used to aid learning.
(v) Main purpose is to find defects.

A. (i) and (v) are correct.

B. (ii) and (iii) are correct.
C. (i) and (iv) are correct.
D. (iii) and (iv) are correc

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 146

To test a function, the programmer has to write a , which calls the function to be tested and passes it test data:

A. Stub
B. Driver
C. Proxy
D. None of the above

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 148

Which of the following would typically be identified using static analysis by tools? [K1]

A. Spelling mistake on an error message

B. A potential infinite loop
C. Memory leakage
D. A variable set to the wrong value

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 150

Which of the following is a valid reason for writing test cases based on experience and intuition? [K1]

A. Use of formal techniques requires expensive training

B. Only experience can ensure all functionality is covered
C. Tests based on experience and intuition can supplement formal techniques
D. Formal techniques require the use of expensive tools

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 155

An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website. The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by
including both failed attempts, and also those where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem was
located in the ‘purchase identification’ module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase.
Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened? [K2]

A. The application failed because of a defect in the purchase identification module caused by a programmer mistake or an error in the specification.
B. An error by the programmer led to a mistake in the purchase identification module and this caused a defect in the application
C. A defect in the purchase identification module caused by a mistake in the module specification led to a defect in the overall application
D. A bug in the purchase identification module caused a fault in the application

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 156

Which of the following test case design techniques is white box (structure-based)? [K1]

A. Use case testing

B. State transition testing
C. Decision testing

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D. Equivalence partitioning

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 161

What is static analysis?

A. The decision between using white or black box test techniques.

B. Executing software to validate the most common path through the code.
C. A technique to find defects in software source code and software models, performed without executing code.
D. It is a testing technique used during system testin

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 164

What content would be in an incident report if that incident report was based on the IEEE 829 Standard for SoftwareTest Documentation?
(i)Identification of configuration items of the software or system. (ii)Software or system lifecycle process in which the incident was observed. (iii)Description of the
anomaly to enable reproduction of the incident. (iv)Number of occurrences of the incident.
(v)Classification of the cause of the incident for metrics and for reporting purposes. Number of correct answers: 1

A. i, ii, iii
B. ii, iii
C. i, iii, iv
D. i, ii, iii, v

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 168

The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

A. Unit, integration, system and maintenance.

B. Functional, glass box, incremental and maintenance.
C. Component, integration, system and acceptance.
D. Unit, component, functional and alpha/bet

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 169

Which of the following test design techniques is not a black box technique?

A. Equivalence partitioning
B. State transition testing
C. Boundary value analysis
D. Statement coverage

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 173

Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level? [K2]

A. Test basis includes software and system design, test objects include interfaces, and tests concentrate on the interactions between different parts of a system
B. Test basis includes component requirements, test objects include database modules, and tests concentrate on the behaviour of the system as a whole.
C. Test basis includes business processes, test objects include system configuration and configuration data, and tests concentrate on establishing confidence in
the system
D. Test basis includes use cases, test objects include user procedures and tests concentrate on a high level model of system behaviour

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 174

Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:

A. Determine differences between files or databases.

B. Monitor and report on how a system behaves under a variety of conditions.
C. Find defects, such as memory leaks, while software is executing.
D. Measure the percentage of specific types of code structure that have been exercise

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 179

Which of the following is a valid objective of testing? [K1]

A. Correcting defects
B. Locating defects in the code
C. Preventing defects
D. Ensuring no defects are present

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Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 180

Test objectives for systems testing of a safety critical system include completion of all outstanding defect correction. Regression testing is required following defect
correction at all test levels. Which TWO of the following metrics would be MOST suitable for determining whether the test objective has been met? [K2]

A. Regression tests run and passed in systems testing

B. Incidents closed in systems testing
C. Planned tests run and passed in system testing
D. Planned tests run and passed at all levels of testing
E. Incidents raised and closed at all levels of testing
F. a and e
G. b and c
H. d and e
I. a and b

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 182

Which of the following statements is most true about test conditions?

A. An item or event of a component or system that can be verified by one or more test cases.
B. The grouping of a composite set of test cases which, when tested as a whole, reveal a positive or negative result.
C. A testable component derived from business requirements.
D. Applies to software testing onl

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 187

Component testing may include:

A. Sociability testing.
B. User acceptance testing.
C. Beta testing.
D. The use of stubs and driver

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 188

Which of the main activities of the fundamental test process does the task ‘verify the test environment set up is correct’ relate to? [K1]

A. Planning and control

B. Analysis and design
C. Implementation and execution
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 189

Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers
and others?
a) Communicate factual information in a constructive way.
b) Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do. c)Always outsource testing activities. d)Never record information that could be
used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

A. a and b
B. a, b and c
C. a, b and d
D. a and c

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 192

When an organization considers the use of testing tools, they should:

A. Use a tool in order to help define a good test process because the tool will force process repeatability and therefore enforce good test process.
B. Always start by bringing in automated test execution tools as these tools have the greatest return on investment and therefore should be introduced first.
C. Perform analysis of the test process and then assess whether it can be supported through the introduction of tool support.
D. Allow the developers to select the testing tools because tools are technical and developers have the appropriate skills to advise on test tool selection and
configuration.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 193

Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release of a new software product aimed at a general market and

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built using Agile methods? [K2]

A. To identify as many defects as possible

B. To maximise code coverage
C. To ensure the product works as expected
D. To assess the overall quality of the product
E. To determine the reliability of the product
F. b and c
G. a and d
H. b and e
I. c and d

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 197

Which of the following are valid test objectives? (i)Finding defects.
(ii)Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information. (iii)Preventing defects. (iv)Debugging the code.

A. i, ii and iii
B. i, ii and iv
C. ii and iii
D. i and iv

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 200

Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

A. Independent testers within the development teams

B. Independent testers from the user community
C. Independent test specialists for specific test types, such as usability, performance or certification test specialists
D. Code tested by another developer from the development team

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 201

Which option BEST describes how the level of risk is determined?

A. The likelihood of an adverse event happening multiplied by the cost of preventing it

B. The consequences of a potential problem multiplied by the cost of possible legal action
C. The impact of an adverse event multiplied by the likelihood of that event occurring
D. The likelihood and the probability of a hazard occurring

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 204

A new testing tool has been selected for an organisation and a pilot project has successfully completed. The next step is to deploy the tool within the organization.
What is a key success factor in tool deployment?

A. Estimate a cost-benefit ratio based on a firm business case

B. Determine whether benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost
C. Provide support for the test team using the tool
D. Assessment of organisational maturity, strengths and weaknesses

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 206

Why is measurement of code coverage Important?

A. Because 100% code coverage implies 100% coverage of requirements

B. Because 100% code coverage guarantees that there are no coding errors
C. Because code coverage can be used to ensure that all code is exercised by tests
D. Because code coverage can ensure that all decisions are correctly implemented in the code

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 211

Which of the following options BEST explain the pesticide paradox principle of testing?

A. If we do not regularly review and revise our tests, we'll stop finding defects
B. Repeatedly running a set of tests will ensure that a system is defect free
C. Defects are, paradoxically, often contained in a small number of modules
D. Testing, like spraying pesticide, is an effective bug / defect removal activity

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 216

When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT typically be performed by a tester?

A. Prepare and acquire the test data

B. Set up and check the test environment
C. Write test summary reports
D. Review tests developed by others

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 220

Which of the following would you NOT expect to see on an incident report from test execution?

A. The version(s) of the software under test

B. The test execution schedule
C. Expected results and actual results
D. Precise steps to reproduce the problem

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 225

Which of the following would NOT be a common metric used for monitoring test preparation and execution?

A. Number of Test cases passed and failed

B. Percentage of planned test cases designed
C. Number of test plan review comments
D. Percentage of tasks complete in test environment preparation

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 228

......

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