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: 9687512
THUMP
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  Test (05-Feb) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Biology 1 - Section A 7 Which of the following statements regarding

Euglenoids is not true?
1 Chrysophytes, euglenoids, dinoflagellates and slime (1) Instead of a cell wall, they have a lipid rich pellicle
(2) They have two flagella, a short and a long one
moulds are included in the kingdom
(3) They are photosynthetic in the presence of sunlight
1. Protista
but behave like a heterotroph when deprived of sunlight
2. Fungi
(4) Pigments of Euglenoids are identical to those present
3. Animalia
in higher plants
4. Monera

2 Which of the following statements is wrong for 8 Mad cow disease in cattle and Cr Jacob disease in
humans are due to infection by__________________ .
viroids?
1. Bacterium
1. They are smaller than viruses
2. Virus
2. They causes infections
3. Viroid
3. Their RNA is of high molecular weight
4. Prion
4. They lack a protein coat

3 Methanogens belong to 9 Identify the incorrectly matched pair:

1. Diatoms: Chief producers in oceans
1.  eubacteria
2. Dinoflagellates: Red tides
2.  archaebacteria
3. Slime moulds: Spores dispersed by water
3.  dinoflagellates
4. Euglenoids: Protein rich pellicle
4.  slime moulds

4 Which of the following are correct for viroids? 10 Select the wrong statement.
1.  The walls of diatoms are easily destructible
(I) Discovered by Pasteur.
2.    Diatomaceous earth' is formed by the cell walls of
(II) Smaller than viruses.
diatoms
(III) Found to be free DNA.
3.  Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans
(IV) Cause potato spindle tuber disease.
4.  Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water
(V) Nucleic acid has high molecular weight.
1. I, III, IV
2. II, III, IV, V 11 Members of Kingdom Protista
3. II, IV 1. are primarily aquatic
4. II, IV, V 2. do not have membrance bound organelles
3. are all ciliated or flagellated
5 4. reproduce exclusively by asexual means
Which of the following organisms are known as chief
producers in the oceans ? 12 Which of the following is not the characteristic of
1. Dinoflagellates the class to which Mucor belongs?
2. Diatoms 1. Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic
3. Cyanobacteria 2. Zygospore is formed by fusion of two gametes
4. Euglenoids 3. Asexual reproduction takes place by zoospores or
aplanospores
6 Which one of the following is wrong for fungi? 4. Gametes are always dissimilar in morphology
1.  They are eukaryotic
2.  All fungi possess a purely cellulosic cell wall 13 The imperfect fungi which are decomposers of litter
3.  They are heterotrophic and help in mineral cycling belong to
4.  They both are unicellular and multicellular 1. Deuteromycetes
2. Basidiomycetes
3. Phycomycetes
4. Ascomycetes

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  Test (05-Feb) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

14 Viroids differ from viruses in having; 20 Domain Eukarya includes  how many kingdoms
1. DNA molecules without protein coat (with respect to six kingdom system)?
2. RNA molecules with protein coat 1. Two
3. RNA molecules without protein coat 2. Three
4. DNA molecules with protein coat  3. One
4. Four
15 Cells in some filamentous  cyanobacteria that are
specialized for nitrogen fixation are called: 21 Members of Kingdom Protista:
1. Phycobilisomes 1. are primarily aquatic 
2. Chromatophores 2. do not have membrane bound organelles
3. Grana 3. are all ciliated or flagellated
4. Heterocysts 4. reproduce exclusively by asexual means

16 Which one of the following statements is wrong? 22 All the following statements regarding
1. Golden algae are also called desmids Basidiomycetes are correct except:
2. Eubacteria are also called false bacteria. 1. The mycelium is branched and septate
3. Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi. 2. Asexual spores and vegetative reproduction generally
4. Cyanobacteria are also called blue-green algae. not found
3. Sex organs are absent
17 Which of the following are found in extreme saline 4. Basidiospores are exogenously produced on the
conditions? basidium
(1) Archaebacteria
(2) Eubacteria 23 Select the wrong statement:
(3) Cyanobacteria 1. Cell wall is present in members of Fungi and Plantae
(4) Mycobacteria 2. Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes
3. Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding structures in
B iology 1-S ection B Sporozoans
4. Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the cell in all
Which among the following is not a prokaryote? kingdoms except monera
18
1. Saccharomyces 24 After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are
2. Mycobacterium
produced exogenously in
3. Nostoc
1. Neurospora
4. Oscillatoria
2. Alternaria
3. Agaricus
19 Consider the following characters: 4. Saccharomyces
I. Heterotroph organisms
II. A dikaryon stage 25 Identify the incorrect statement regarding true
III. Cell wall made of chitin
bacteria?
IV. Undergo nuclear mitosis
(1) As a group, they exhibit maximum metabolic
Which of the above relate to fungi?
diversity
(1) I, II and III
(2) Chemosynthetic autotrophic bacteria play a great role
(2) I, III and IV
in recycling nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorous, iron
(3) II, III and IV
and sulphur.
(4) I, II, III and IV
(3) Heterotrophic bacteria are the most abundant in
nature.
(4) Bacteria reproduce mainly by fission but sometimes
under favourable conditions, they produce spores.

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  Test (05-Feb) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Biology 2 - Section A 31 All the following are functions of lymph in the

human body except:
26 Select the correct statement from the following with 1. Helps in digestion of fats
respect to blood plasma. Returns proteins and excess interstitial fluid to the
2.
1. 6-8% of plasma is water and 90-92% is protein. bloodstream
2. Serum is plasma along with clotting factors. 3. Transports nutrients and hormones
3. Blood without plasma is lymph. 4. Helps in immunity against disease-causing agents
4. Plasma constitutes nearly 55% of blood.
32 During the cardiac cycle, the AV vales close during:
27 In ECG the ventricular contraction occurs 1. Early ventricular systole
1.  Just after P wave and before Q wave. 2. Late ventricular systole
2.  Just after Q wave but before T wave. 3. Early ventricular diastole
3.  In between S-T segment. 4. Late ventricular diastole
4.  After the end of T wave.
33 Choose the incorrect match.
28 Consider the following statements and select the 1. Atherosclerosis – Lumen of arteries become narrower
option that correctly states them as true(T) or false(F). 2. Heart attack – Congestive heart failure
a. The human heart normally beats 70-75 times in a 3. Angina pectoris – Acute chest pain
minute. 4. Heart failure – Heart is not pumping blood effectively
b. A healthy human breathes 12-16 times/minute, on an
average. 34 The second heart sound during the cardiac cycle is
c. On an average, 1000 mL - 1200 mL of blood is
produced by the:
filtered by each kidney per minute.
1. Simultaneous opening of the atrioventricular valves
d. About 30 percent of starch is hydrolysed into lactose
2. Simultaneous closure of the atrioventricular valves
by salivary amylase.
3. Simultaneous opening of the semilunar valves
   a   b  c  d
4. Simultaneous closure of the semilunar valves
1. T  T  T  T
2. T  T  F  F
3. F  F  T  T 35 Inadequate supply of oxygen to heart muscles leads
4. F  T  T  F to a symptom of acute chest pain. This disorder of the
circulatory system is identified as: 
29 Calculate the heart rate of a person if the cardiac 1. Angina pectoris 
2. Cardiac arrest 
output is 6 L, blood volume in the ventricle at the end of
3. Heart failure 
diastole is 150 mL and at the end of ventricular systole is
4. Coronary Heart Disease 
75 mL. Choose the correct option from the following 
1. 80 beats per minute 
2. 100 beats per minute  36 What feature on ECG represents the return of
3. 75 beats per minute  ventricles from excited to normal state?
4. 72 beats per minute  1.  P wave
2.  R wave
30 Which of the following values will not be normal 3.  S wave
4.  T wave
for a healthy person?
1. 10 gms of haemoglobin per 100 ml of blood
2. 5 million RBC per mm3
3. 7000 WBC per mm3
4. 200000 platelets per mm3

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  Test (05-Feb) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

37 Arrange the following formed elements in the 40 A pregnant female is checked for Rh blood group to
decreasing order of their abundance in blood in humans : avoid erythroblastosis fetalis. This condition may occur,
(a) Platelets when 
(b) Neutrophils 1. mother is Rh+ and sensitized to Rh- and baby is Rh-.
(c) Erythrocytes
2. mother is Rh+  and sensitized to Rh-  and the baby is
(d) Eosinophils
(e) Monocytes Rh-.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options 3.  mother is Rh-  and sensitized to Rh+  and the baby is
given below : Rh+.
1. (c), (a), (b), (e), (d) 4. mother is Rh-  and sensitized to Rh+ and the baby is
2. (c), (b), (a), (e), (d)
3. (d), (e), (b), (a), (c) Rh-.
4. (a), (c), (b), (d), (e)
41 Read the given statements and select the correct
38 option 
A. Angina can occur in men and women of any age but it
Rh incompatibility related complication does
is more common among children 
not arise in first pregnancy even if an Rh
Assertion: B. Rh antigen is observed on the surface of RBCs of
negative mother is carrying an Rh positive
nearly 90% of humans 
foetus.
C. If repeated checks of blood pressure of an individual
Reason: Rh antigens are proteins. is 140/90 mm of Hg or higher, it shows hypertension 
  1. All statements A, B and C are correct 
Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is 2. Statements A and B are correct 
1.
the correct explanation of the assertion 3. Only statement C is correct 
Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is 4. Both statements B and C are correct 
2.
not the correct explanation of the assertion
3. Assertion is true but reason is false 42 Match List - I with List - II
4. Both assertion and reason are false  List - I (Biological  List - II (Biological
Molecules) functions)
39 (a) Glycogen (i) Hormone
The sino-atrial node is normally the (b) Globulin (ii) Biocatalyst
Assertion:
pacemaker of the human heart. (c) Steroids (iii) Antibody
It is the only autoexcitable part of the nodal (d) Thrombin (iv) Storage product
Reason:
tissue of the human heart. Choose the correct answer from the options given
  below:
Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is (a) (b) (c) (d)
1.
the correct explanation of the assertion 1. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is 2. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
2.
not the correct explanation of the assertion 3. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
3. Assertion is true but reason is false 4. (ii) (iv) (iii) (i)
4. Both assertion and reason are false

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  Test (05-Feb) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Biology 2 - Section B 48 Assertion (A): The walls of ventricles are much

thicker than that of the atria.
43 Which one of the following statements is correct? Reason (R): Ventricles pump blood to different organs
and the pressure with which the blood flows through
1. Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the
them is much more than the auricles.
semilunar valves.
In the light of above statements, choose the correct
2. The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action
option.
potential to stimulate atrial contraction.
1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
3. The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the
explanation of (A)
pressure exerted by the simultaneous contraction of the
2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
atria
explanation of (A)
4. Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle
3. (A) is true but (R) is false
during joint diastole
4. Both (A) and (R) are false
44 A person with AB blood group:
49 Purkinje fibers are:
1. Has A and B antigens in his plasma
1. Intrinsic neural fibers in the ventricles
2. Lacks any antibodies on RBC surface
2. Muscle fibers that interconnect the SA node and AV
3. Can receive  blood transfusion from a person of his
node
own group.
3. Muscle fibers that are distributed in the ventricular
4. Can donate blood to all other group recipients
musculature
4. Neural fibers that spread the impulse throughout the
45 A tricuspid valve will prevent blood flow from: ventricular muscle mass
1 Right atrium to the right ventricle
2. Right ventricle to the right atrium 50 Factors that can initiate coagulation of blood can be
3. Left atrium to the left ventricle
released by:
4. Left ventricle to left atrium
I. Platelets in the blood
II. Tissues at the site of injury
46 A normal blood pressure reading in a healthy adult III. Liver
human being would be: 1. I and II only
I. 116/76 mm Hg 2. I and III only
II. 150/80 mm Hg 3. II and III only
III. 120/ 94 mm Hg 4. I, II and III
1. Only I
2. Both I and II
3. Both I and III C hemistry -S ection A
4. I, II, and III
51 Which of the following statements is incorrect
47 Given below are two statements: regarding physisorption?
Statement I: The coagulum is formed of network of 1.  It occurs because of van der Waal’s forces
threads called thrombins 2.  More easily liquefiable gases are adsorbed readily
Statement II: Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes Under high pressure, it results in a multi-molecular
In the light of the above statements, choose the most 3. 
layer on the adsorbent surface
appropriate answer from the options given below: Enthalpy of adsorption (∆Hadsorption)  is low and
1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct 4. 
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct positive
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

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  Test (05-Feb) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

52 Kraft temperature is the temperature: 57

1.  Below which the formation of micelles takes place Statement The surface tension of H2O is more than
Below which the aqueous solution of detergents I: that of C2H5OH.
2.
starts freezing
Intermolecular forces present in H2O
Above which the aqueous solution of detergents
3. Statement molecules are stronger
starts boiling
II: than intermolecular forces present in
4. Above which the formation of micelles takes place C2H5OH molecules.
 
53
1. Both statement I and statement II are correct.
Lyophilic sols are more stable than
Statement I: 2. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
lyophobic sols.
3. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect.
Statement
Lyophilic sols are extensively solvated. 4. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct.
II:
 
1. Both statement I and statement II are correct 58 3.12 g of oxygen is adsorbed on 1.2 g of platinum
2. Both statement I and statement II are incorrect metal. The volume of oxygen adsorbed per gram of the
adsorbent at 1 atm and 300 K in L is:
3. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
[R = 0.0821 L atm K–1 mol–1]
4. Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
1. 4 L
2. 3 L
54 The van der Waal equation for 3 moles of a gas is: 3. 1 L
1. (P +
a
) (V −
b
) = 3RT
4. 2 L
2
9V 3

2. (P +
a
) (4V − b) = RT
59 Select the incorrect statement(s) among the
2
4V
following is/are: 
3. (P +
9a

2
) (V − 3b) = 3RT  
V

Emulsions can be broken into constituent liquids by

4. (P +
a V −b RT a.
4V
)(
2
) =
2 2
heating, freezing, centrifuging, etc.
Vanishing cream is an example of oil dispersed in
b.
55 Which of the following mixtures of gases at room water. 
temperature does not follow Dalton's law of partial c. Emulsion does not show the Brownian movement
pressure? and Tyndall effect.
1. H2, N2
2. H2, O2 1. a only 
2. c only 
3. NH3, HCl 3. a and b only 
4. SO3, O2 4. a, b, and c 

56 Dipole-dipole interaction is present in: 60 Real gases show nearly ideal behaviour at:
1. He and H2 1. Low pressure and low temperature. 
2. CCl4 and CH3OH 2. High pressure and low temperature. 
3. High pressure and high temperature. 
3. NH3 and H2O
4. Low pressure and high temperature.
4. H2O and O2

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  Test (05-Feb) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

61 If the pressure of 3L of  H2  is tripled and the 67 The dispersal of a precipitated material into a
temperature is raised from 300 K to 400 K, then the final colloidal solution by the action of an electrolyte in the
volume of gas will be: solution is called: 
1. 0.67 L  1. Coagulation 
2. 1.33 L  2. Dialysis 
3. 2.5 L  3. Peptization 
4. 3.0 L  4. Ultrafiltration 

62 Consider a fixed volume and amount of an ideal gas Chemistry - Section B

at 10º C. What temperature would it have to be changed
in order for the pressure to be doubled? 68 At 1.003 atm, pressure value of ( x
) will be:
1. 20 ºC m

2. 566 ºC     
3. 293 ºC
4. 278 ºC

63 The unit of van der Waals' constant 'b' is :

1. cm3 mol-1
2. litre mol-1
3. m3 mol-1
4. All of these 

64 The incorrect statement regarding enzymes is:

Enzymes are very specific for a particle reaction
1. Report your answer to the nearest integer.
and substrate.
1. 6 
2. Enzymes are biocatalysts.
2. 3 
Like chemical catalysts, enzymes reduce the 3. 4
3.
activation energy of bio processes. 4. 5
4. Enzymes are polysaccharides.
69 The nature of a charge on resulting colloidal
65 The temperature at which a real gas obeys the ideal particles when FeCl3 is added to an excess of hot water
gas law over an appreciable range of pressure is called: is:
1. Absolute temperature  1.  Positive
2. Boyle temperature 
2. Sometimes positive and sometimes negative
3. Critical temperature 
4. Kelvin temperature  3. Neutral
4. Negative
66 Equal weights of methane and oxygen are mixed in
an empty container at  25°C. the fraction of the total 70 The method that is not used for the coagulation of
pressure exerted by oxygen is lyophobic sols is:
1. 1/2 1. Bredig's Arc method
2. 2/3 2. Electrophoresis
3. (1/3)×(273/298) 3. Addition of flocculating ion 
4. 1/3 4. Persistent dialysis 

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  Test (05-Feb) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

71 Litmus solution, when shaken with charcoal, 75

becomes colorless. Incorrect statement about adsorption On increasing the temperature, the
from the solution phase is:  Assertion (A):  height of the peak of the Maxwell
  distribution curve decreases.
Extent of adsorption depends on the concentration of The fraction of molecules is very less at
1.  Reason (R):
the solute in the solution.  higher velocities.
Extent of adsorption increases with the increase of  
2.
the surface area of the adsorbent.  Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
Extent of adsorption decreases with the decrease in explanation of (A).
3.
temperature.  Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
Extent of adsorption depends on the nature of the explanation of (A).
4.
adsorbent and the adsorbate. 3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.

72 When NaCl solution is added to a solution of

AgNO3, the AgCl sol produced is:
Physics - Section A
 
76 A particle moves on a straight line with a uniform
Negatively charged due to the adsorption of NO3- velocity. Its angular momentum:
1. 
ions. a. is always zero.
2. Negatively charged due to the adsorption of Cl- ions. b. is zero about a point on the straight line.
3. Positively charged due to the adsorption of H+ ions. c. is not zero about a point away from the straight line.
4. Positively charged due to the adsorption of Ag+ ions. d. about any given point remains constant.
Choose the correct option:
1. (a), (b) and (c)
73 The compressibility factor of a gas is less than unity 2. (a), (b) and (d)
at STP. Therefore 3. (b), (c) and (d)
1. Vm > 22.4 litres  4. none of these
2. Vm < 22.4 litres
3. Vm = 22.4 litres  77 An automobile moves on a road with a speed of 54
4. Vm = 44.8 litres kmh-1. The radius of its wheels is 0.45 m and the
moment of inertia of the wheel about its axis of rotation
2
74 According to van der Waal, some force of attraction is 3 kg-m . If the vehicle is brought to rest in 15 s, the
is present between the molecules of a gas. It concluded magnitude of average torque transmitted by its brakes to
that:  the wheel is:
Pressure of real gas is less than the pressure of ideal 1. 6.66 kg-m2s-2
1.  2. 8.58 kg-m2s-2
gas. 
Pressure of real gas is more than the pressure of ideal 3. 10.86 kg-m2s-2
2.
gas.  4. 2.86 kg-m2s-2
Pressure of real gas is equal to the pressure of ideal
3.
gas.
Volume of a real gas is more than the volume of an
4.
ideal gas. 

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  Test (05-Feb) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

78 Two blocks of mass m and 2m are connected with a 81 Given below are two statements: 
string which is passing over a pulley (disc) of mass m  
and radius R as shown in the figure. If the system is When we change the unit of
will be: Assertion (A): measurement of a quantity, its numerical
T1
released from rest, then what will be value of T2
value changes.
      
Smaller the unit of measurement,
Reason (R):
smaller is its numerical value.
  
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.

82 Two blocks are joined by a light spring of spring

constant, k = 1000 N/m, and are placed at rest on a
1.
10
horizontal frictionless table. A horizontal force of 6 N
9
acts on the 2 kg block. The acceleration of the centre-of-
2. 5

7 mass of the system is:

3.
9

5
                
4.
7

79 A homogenous disc with a radius of 0.2 m and mass

of 5 kg rotates around an axis passing through its centre.
The angular velocity of the rotation of the disc as a 1. 3 m/s2
function of time is given by the formula  ω = 2 + 6t.
 The tangential force applied to the rim of the disc is: 2. 2 m/s2
1. 1 N 3. 1.5 m/s2
2. 2 N 4. 4.5 m/s2
3. 3 N
4. 4 N 83 A 500 kg boat is 9 m long and is floating without
motion on still water. A man of mass 100 kg is at one
80 A physical quantity P is related to four observables end and if he runs to the other end of the boat and stops,
a, b, c, and d as follows;   P =
3
a b
2

.
the displacement of the boat is:
√cd
 
The percentage errors of measurement in a,  b,  c, and d 1. 1.5 m in the direction of displacement of the man.
are 1%, 3%, 4% and 2%, respectively. Then the
percentage error in the quantity P is: 2. 0.75 m in the direction of displacement of the man.
1. 12% 1.5 m in the direction opposite to the displacement of
3.
2. 13% the man.
3. 14% 0.75 m in the direction opposite to the displacement
4.
4. 15% of the man.

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  Test (05-Feb) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

84 The mass of a box measured by the grocer’s balance 88 If F→ is the force acting on a particle having position
is 2.300kg. Two gold pieces of masses 20.15 g and vector  r→ and  τ→ be the torque of this force about the
20.17 g are added to the box. The total mass of the box origin, then:
and the difference in the masses of the gold piece should 1. r→ ⋅ τ→ ≠ 0 and F→ ⋅ τ→ = 0
be recorded  to correct significant figures will be
respectively: 2. r→ ⋅ τ→ > 0 and F→ ⋅ τ→ < 0
  3. r→ ⋅ τ→ = 0 and F→ ⋅ τ→ = 0
1. 2340.32 g, 0.02 g
4. r→ ⋅ τ→ = 0 and F→ ⋅ τ→ ≠ 0
2. 2.340 kg, 0.02 g

3. 2.3 kg, 0 g
89 Identify the pair whose dimensions are equal:
4. 2.334032 kg, 0.02 g
1. stress and energy
2. force and work
85 Match List-I with List-II: 3. torque and work
List-I List-II 4. velocity gradient and time
(a) h (Planck's constant) (i) [M LT ] −1

Which of the following measurement is most

90
(b) E (kinetic energy) (ii) 2
[M L T
−1
]
precise?
(c) V (electric potential) (iii) 2
[M L T
−2
] 1. 5.00 mm
(d) p (linear momentum) (iv) [M L A T ]
2 −1 −3 2. 5.00 cm
3. 5.00 m
 
4. 5.00 km
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
91 The thickness of a pencil measured by using a
1. (a) → (iii), (b) → (iv), (c) → (ii), (d) → (i)
screw gauge (least count 0.001 cm) comes out to be
2. (a) → (ii), (b) → (iii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i) 0.802 cm. The percentage error in the measurement is:
3. (a) → (i), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (iii) 1. 0.125%
4. (a) → (iii), (b) → (ii), (c) → (iv), (d) → (i) 2. 2.43%
3. 4.12%
86 Consider the following statements. 4. 2.14%
   
A body is in translational equilibrium if the net force
a.
on it is zero.
A body is in rotational equilibrium if the net torque
b.
about any point is zero.
Choose the correct statements:
 
1. (a) only
2. (b) only
3. both (a) and (b)
4. neither (a) nor (b)

87 A wheel is at rest. Its angular velocity increases

uniformly and becomes 80 rad/s after 5 s. The total
angular displacement is:
1. 800 rad
2. 400 rad
3. 200 rad
4. 100 rad

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  Test (05-Feb) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

92 A massless equilateral triangle EFG of side a (as 95 The least count of vernier callipers is 0.1 mm. The
shown in the figure) has three particles of mass m main scale reading before the zero of the vernier scale is
situated at its vertices. The moment of inertia of the 10 and the zeroth division of the vernier scale coincides
system about the line EX perpendicular to EG in the with any main scale division. If the value of one main
plane of EFG is  ma .  The value of N is:
N 2
scale division is 1 mm, the measured value should be
20

(Where N is an integer.) expressed as:

1. 0.010 cm
2. 0.001 cm
3. 0.1 cm
4. 1.00 cm

96 The radius of a circle is stated as 2.12 cm. Its area

should be written as:
1. 14 cm2
2. 14.1 cm2
3. 14.11 cm2
1. 15 4. 14.1124 cm2
2. 20
3. 25 97 From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9M , a
4. 30 small disc of mass M and radius R/3 is removed
concentrically. The moment of inertia of the remaining
P hysics -S ection B disc about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the disc
and passing through its centre is:
93 A closed cylindrical tube containing some water 1. M R
2

2. 4M R 2

(not filling the entire tube) lies in a horizontal plane. If

3.  M R
4 2

the tube is rotated about a perpendicular bisector, the 9

moment of inertia of water about the axis: 4.  M R

40

9
2

1. increases
2. decreases 98 A person sitting firmly over a rotating stool has his
3. remains constant arms stretched. If he folds his arms, his angular
increases if the rotation is clockwise and decreases if momentum about the axis of rotation:
4. 1. increases
it is anticlockwise
2. decreases
94 When the circular scale of a screw gauge completes 3. remains unchanged
4. doubles
2 rotations, it covers 1 mm over the pitch scale. The total
number of circular scale divisions is 50. The least count
of the screw gauge in metres is:
1. 10-4
2. 10-5
3. 10-2
4. 10-3

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  Test (05-Feb) Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

99 Given below are two statements: 

 
For a body under translatory as well as
Assertion (A): rotational equilibrium, net torque about
any axis is zero.
Together 
→ → →
Reason (R): ΣF = 0 and Σ (r × F ) = 0 implies
i i i

that Σ (r→ − r ) × F→ = 0.
→
i 0

  
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is true but (R) is false.
4. Both (A) and (R) are false.

100 n particles of equal masses m gram are placed on

the same line at distances l, 2l, 3l, . . . . . nl  cm from a
fixed point. The distance of the center of mass of the
particles from the fixed point (in centimeters) is:
(2n+1)l
1.  3

2.  l

n+1

(n+1)l

3.  2

4.  2l

2
n(n +1)

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