Examiners Report: 2020

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Table of Contents
Board of Examiners ................................................................................................................................. 3
The Statistics ........................................................................................................................................... 4
Report from the Chair of the Board of Examiners .................................................................................. 5
Examiners Reports .................................................................................................................................. 7
Master Brewer .................................................................................................................................... 7
Module 1: Materials and Wort Production ..................................................................................... 7
Module 2: Fermentation and Beer Processing ............................................................................. 10
Module 3: Packaging of Beer ........................................................................................................ 14
Module 4: Resource Management and Regulatory Compliance .................................................. 16
Master Distiller.................................................................................................................................. 21
Module 1 ....................................................................................................................................... 21
Module 2 ....................................................................................................................................... 23
Module 3 ....................................................................................................................................... 24
Module 4 ....................................................................................................................................... 25
Diploma in Brewing ........................................................................................................................... 26
Module 1: Raw Materials and Wort.............................................................................................. 26
Module 2: Yeast and Beer ............................................................................................................. 29
Module 3: Process and Packaging Technology ............................................................................. 32
Diploma in Distilling .......................................................................................................................... 36
Module 1: Materials, Wort and Fermentation ............................................................................. 36
Module 2: Distillation and Maturation ......................................................................................... 39
Module 3: Process and Packaging Technology ............................................................................. 42
Diploma in Packaging ........................................................................................................................ 46
Module 1: Packaging Operations I ................................................................................................ 46
Module 2: Packaging Operations II ............................................................................................... 51
Module 3: Process and Packaging Technology ............................................................................. 55
General Certificate Exams ................................................................................................................. 60
Foundation Exams ............................................................................................................................. 61

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Board of Examiners
Chair of the IBD Board of Examiners – Angus Steven
Diploma in Brewing Module 1 David Cook
Alistair Dickson
David Ginley
Jayne Hewitt
Aaron Golston
Module 2 Tobin Eppard
Dawn Maskell
Alastair Pringle
Aldo Lentini
Module 3 Andrew Barker
Tony Cook
Michael Hannigan
Gary Eddleston
Angus Steven
Diploma in Distilling Module 1 Douglas Murray
Matt Strickland
Shernell Layne
Graeme Walker
Module 2 Jeremy Stephens
Kirsty Black
Steve Wright
Module 3 Mike Partridge
George Blair
Diploma in Packaging Module 1 Graeme Hall
Gavin Duffy
Rob Zuccollo
Module 2 Ruth Bromley
Gavin Duffy
Robin Cooper
Module 3 Tom Shellhammer
Robin Cooper

Master Brewer Module 1 Bob Illingworth

Ian Smith
Module 2 Derek Orford
Shiona Kammermans
Module 3 Andrew Mieleniewski
Module 4 Robin Cooper
Deborah Kennedy
Module 5 Richard Westwood
Jens Voigt
Master Distiller Module 1 Jeremy Stephens
Matt Strickland
Module 2 Douglas Murray
Matt Strickland
Module 3 Alan Wolstenholme
Module 4 Alan Wolstenholme
Module 5 Douglas Murray

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The Statistics

Number of exam candidates for each qualification

Exam Module 2020 2019 2018

Diploma in Brewing Module 1 167 437 496
Module 2 133 338 361
Module 3 128 218 335
Diploma in Distilling Module 1 43 81 57
Module 2 36 52 43
Module 3 22 44 36
Diploma in Packaging Module 1 34 87 104
Module 2 27 60 31
Module 3 21 31 18
Master Brewer Module 1 20 15 19
Module 2 10 16 18
Module 3 6 8 13
Module 4 7 10 13
Module 5 4 12 10
Master Distiller Module 1 6 4 3
Module 2 5 3 6
Module 3 3 4 1
Module 4 4 2 2
Module 5 4 1 -

Percentage of exam candidates achieving a pass grade

Exam Module 2020 2019 2018

Diploma in Brewing Module 1 70% 66% 75%
Module 2 73% 66% 68%
Module 3 54% 63% 53%
Diploma in Distilling Module 1 77% 89% 73%
Module 2 83% 87% 83%
Module 3 36% 71% 75%
Diploma in Packaging Module 1 62% 52% 76%
Module 2 81% 66% 87%
Module 3 57% 66% 50%
Master Brewer Module 1 55% 53% 53%
Module 2 40% 38% 45%
Module 3 50% 75% 92%
Module 4 43% 60% 76%
Module 5 75% 83% -
Master Distiller Module 1 50% 100% -
Module 2 100% 100% -
Module 3 66% 100% -
Module 4 75% 100% -
Module 5 75% 100% -

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Report from the Chair of the Board of Examiners

2020 was certainly a very difficult year and for most of us it presented a number of challenges which
impacted our lives in many ways. The challenges faced by the IBD , examiners and candidates were
immense and we are currently still working to overcome many of these. The impact of COVID-19
resulted in many candidates not being able to reach an exam centre, not being able to study or being
put in a position where their employment was affected thus impacting on their personal
development and meant that many candidates decided to defer their exams or cancel altogether.
We were also faced with an unprecedented situation where our courier had a breach of security and
we lost a number of exam papers in transit.

To try and overcome some of this negative impact the IBD and Board of Examiners have carried out
a number of actions :-

• An examination was created in January for Diploma in Brewing 1 ( which was the most
impacted paper ) for candidates who had been forced to defer so that they would have a
chance to continue their personal development at the same rate.
• A second set of exams was created for all candidates who had lost papers so that they
received a fair assessment of their knowledge and this will be delivered in February.
• Diploma and Master Examinations for 2021 will move from the current paper based system
to an online digital platform to allow candidates to sit the exam without having to attend an
examination centre and remove the need to transport paper exams around the world. Of
course this has challenges and positives for both examiners and candidates but it will
provide a much more secure method of examining. We currently use this method for both
the Foundation and General Certificate exams.

There have also been a number of positives in the year and by the end of 2021 all General Certificate
and Diploma Exams will be supported by new learning materials which can be accessed as part of
the exam registration for candidates. There was also the launch of the General Certificate in Cider
Making and the first 5 candidates all successfully passed this exam.

The Examiner feedback which follows is intended to give candidates an insight into the type of
questions which will be asked in the 2021 exams and also some indication of the answers required.
For 2021 the Diploma and Master exams will follow exactly the same format as 2020 with only a
slight difference in that the question may be styled slightly differently to allow them to be asked on a
digital platform rather than written e.g. there will be no questions where a drawing is required but a
candidate may be asked to explain the items in a drawing. I would urge candidates to shape their
studies using the Examiners feedback in conjunction with the Syllabus, IBD Learning materials (
including Tutor Guided Learning) , Journals and personal experience to ensure the individual is fully
prepared to pass the examination.

The results shown above are broadly in line with expectations and previous years but also consider
that the cohort size in some cases is much reduced which sometimes gives a slightly false picture of
% pass rate e.g. DD3.

Information on those who have successfully passed an individual Module, completed all 3 Modules
of the Diploma Exam and 5 Modules of the Master Exam and Award Winners will be published when
the exam cycle is fully completed at the start of March.

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Finally as this is my last year as Chair of the Board of Examiners I would like to thank all the staff at
the IBD, particularly Jon Lewis for his massive contribution in ensuring the exam process runs
smoothly, the Learning and Development team under Simon Wade for producing all the learning
materials and Andrea Champion and her team for processing all the candidate information. I would
also really like to thank all the Examiners for the tremendous hard work and time they devote to
creating, marking, and evaluating exams. They are all a credit to the IBD.

My particular thanks also to Robin Cooper and Gavin Duffy who both retired as Diploma Examiners
this year and for their service and dedication over the years.

To all candidates thank you for continuing to support the IBD and good luck and best wishes in your
future studies and careers.

Angus Steven

Chair of the Board of Examiners

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Examiners Reports
Master Brewer
Module 1: Materials and Wort Production
Paper 1: Short Answer Questions

The short answer section of the paper was answered to a much higher standard than in previous
years. A total of 20 candidates sat this exam with 15/20 achieving a pass mark in this part of the
paper with an average score of 64/100 marks. The questions were split into sections as follows :-

Barley, malting and adjuncts: The majority of maltings built in the last twenty years use combined
germination-kilning vessels - a surprising number of answers gave an unsatisfactory description of
the operation of this type of plant. Knowledge of speciality malts proved to be absent in many
candidates. Degree of malt modification is one of the most important aspects of malt quality for a
brewer. Knowing which analyses indicate this measure is a key aspect of raw material evaluation.

Hops: Knowledge must be demonstrated on the correct storage of hops immediately after drying as
this is crucial to maintaining their quality through to the next harvest or suitability for further
processing. Knowledge of the manufacturing process of the two main types of pelleted hops and
their purpose is essential to their best use and methods of analysis used for quality control of hops is
part of all brewers’ skill set.

Water: The answers to this section of Paper 1 were very good with one exception. The source of
many breweries’ water is a borehole. Just what constitutes the geology for providing a suitable
aquifer is fundamental to ensuring the continuing suitability of this type of source.

Brewhouse Operations: There were not many correct answers to the question about the malt cost
of brewing 1,500 hl of wort. As in previous year’s many candidates did not consider the moisture
content of the malt. The question on calculating of the cost of boiling 500 hl of wort was not well
answered by most candidates.

Brewhouse Management: The number of correct answers to the calculation of the number of brews
possible to achieve in a particular time period was very low. There is a helpful description on how to
tackle this particular question in the Examiners’ Report of 2018 and I urge candidates to read this
report. Ensure also that you read the question correctly e.g. Despite the statement, ‘…assuming
there are no breakdowns or other interruptions’, some candidates included this in the calculation.
For climate change, there must be an understanding of all the ramifications that international
treaties impose on the brewing industry.

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Paper 2: Long Answer Questions

Several candidates failed to enter the question numbers they had answered in the boxes on the
front page of the answer scripts. This omission increases the difficulty of marking the scripts.
Furthermore, not all answers were numbered in the body of the scripts making it difficult to
separate one answer from another.

Question 1

a) Modification describes the changes that take place when barley is converted into malt.
Why have all attempts to devise a simple single measure of modification failed? (8)
b) Assess those analyses which do measure aspects of modification and explain how they are
useful in determining the suitability of a particular malt for brewing beer. (17)

A more holistic approach would have enabled candidates to undertake this question more
effectively. This exam is to give the candidate a chance to put all their knowledge and experience on
display. For example, when assessing an analysis as suitable for measuring a certain parameter it
helps to briefly describe how the analysis is carried out and thus how the analytical result relates to
the desired value.
Question 2

a) Explain the benefits of minimising water consumption in a brewhouse. (7)

b) Describe and justify a project to achieve this objective. (18)

If a question asks for a project to be described, it means setting up a team, gaining commitment and
resource, measuring all inputs and outputs, setting targets, and monitoring the results. Examples of
individual actions to be explored or taken can be used to embellish the answer, but not as its
primary exposition.

Question 3

a) Summarise recent trends in hop crops in New Zealand and how local issues have affected
the hop market there. (13)
b) Explore the implications of conflict any hop grower might experience between yield and
quality. (12)

This did not require local knowledge but was set to demonstrate that a Master Brewer is aware of
the markets and market trends as was demonstrated in the article on this topic in the International
Brewer & Distiller magazine, the June 2019 edition.

Question 4

Discuss the practical considerations of conditioning, milling, mashing-in and mash conversion of
barley malt. (25)

Do not focus narrowly on the processes mentioned but use your own local experience to illuminate
your knowledge of alternative systems. For example, mashing into a mash tun has different
variables from mashing into a conversion vessel, bring these differences to light e.g. There can be no
grist case for malt which has been milled with wet conditioning so the speed of this operation has to
match the mashing-in speed. This inevitably leads to a high electrical load. This aspect of milling was
not mentioned in any of the answers.

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Question 5

a) Design an audit to check on health and safety provisions for operators in a brewhouse and
illustrate your answer with relevant examples. (15)
b) Discuss how such an audit would ensure that hazard and risk are correctly identified and
how these must be evaluated in order to recommend changes which would improve
safety. (10)

This is a fairly straightforward question and should be based on your experience and include the
purpose of the audit as well as the approach to be taken e.g. When asked to do a process that might
be a little bit outside normal work it is best to sit back and consult, plan, and get a team together.
Don’t go straight into the audit firing off questions like, ‘Show me the Standard Operating
Procedures’ or, ‘Where are the records for this operation’ as was written by some candidates but
use a more developed approach.

Question 6

a) Create a plan to improve unsatisfactory extract yields between grist case and filling into
fermentation vessel. (14)
b) Evaluate the risks to product quality that implementing the plan may cause and indicate
how such risks might be mitigated. (11)

Again this must be based on your experience and start with defining objectives and scope, announce
the project to managers and operators, meet to discuss scope, operations, and procedures, describe
fieldwork with judicious examples, review results and repeat where necessary. Meet to discuss
results and issue a report. Show potential risks and solutions to reduce/eliminate them.

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Module 2: Fermentation and Beer Processing
Paper 1: Short Answer Questions

10 candidates submitted scripts for the two papers.

The short answer section of the paper showed there were no outstanding papers, a couple of
reasonable papers and quite a few disappointing papers. For a good paper, the examiners are
looking for own experiences, practical knowledge, and good practices. A total of 10 candidates sat
this exam with 6/10 achieving a pass mark in this part of the paper with an average score of 57/100
marks.

This paper covered the whole syllabus. The better candidates were able to answer questions across
the whole paper with a wide spread of knowledge and experience. However, the non-fermentation
and beer processing questions were, in general, poorly answered. At the Master Brewer level the
examiners are looking for a wide range of important knowledge like engineering subjects, finance,
and Total Quality Management.

The questions relating to planned maintenance and inspection schedules of an automated cleaning
in place and the German Weissbier fermentation process were very poorly answered. These topics
were covered, in recent articles, in the IBD Brewer and Distiller International magazines. There were
a few candidates who poorly answered the typical processes to improve filtration performance
particularly the means of control. Candidates did not read the question properly for the schematic
process of filtration using kieselguhr as a filter aid. It was good to see that the safety question was
again answered well by the majority of the candidates. Once again, in the question related to a large
part of making a beer brand reproducible it was noted that very few candidates mentioned the
importance of recipes, specifications, procedures and/or standards (standard operating procedures).

Summary of tips

• Read the question and answer appropriately.

• Use practical knowledge, good practices, and own experience in the answer.
• Do not forget the importance of recipes, specifications, procedures and and/or standards
(standard operating procedures) for reproducibility of processes..
• Keep up to date with fermentation and beer processing knowledge with the IBD Brewer and
Distiller International magazine.

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Paper 2: Long Answer Questions

Question 1

a) List three means of producing beer under 0.5% ABV, one of which must involve a form of
restricted fermentation. For each of the three, describe in detail the principle of operation
and the process steps between FV and BBT. [20]
b) Which one will produce beer with the best consumer appreciation, giving a full
justification? [5]

This was the least popular question, although the three candidates that attempted it all gave
satisfactory answers. For each of the three methods, more marks were gained where it was
demonstrated that the principle of operation was clearly understood in sufficient detail. In all cases
it was good to see consideration of the requirements for the incoming wort or beer to enable the
subsequent process to produce a good end product.

For the second part, the best answer focused on the consumer, as required, but went on to consider
operational aspects, such as cost.

Question 2

a) What are the possible triggers for a decision to contract brew a brand at another brewery
and what aspects would you consider in selecting such a brewery? [7]
b) In the fermentation and beer processing area, what systems would you put in place to
ensure your brand is protected and produced to specification? [18]

This was the most popular question. There was one excellent answer which demonstrated insights
from practical experience of contract brewing, and the various possible triggers to consider contract
brewing, including capacity, logistics, cost, specific process requirements, and quality were all
examined.

A successful contract brewing arrangement certainly requires control by the brand owner, in aspects
such as contracts, specifications, emulations, audits, testing and release procedures, but the best
ones benefit from a real partnership approach, with involvement of the respective production and
quality teams, sharing of supplier issues, and other learnings, for mutual benefit.

Question 3

Write an article suitable for a company/brewery newsletter entitled: “Sustainability: How to

Improve in Fermentation and Beer Processing” [25]

Seven candidates attempted this one. In writing the article, the best answer gave full consideration
to the audience for such a company/brewery newsletter. As the examiner read the article, he
imagined working at that brewery and certainly would have looked forward to assisting in the efforts
to improve.

The “how” of what could be done to improve was generally well covered. As well as the
technological aspects, marks were available for the organisational aspects required to put the many
good ideas into action.

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Question 4

Bottles of a 5% ABV ale are sold with a 12-month shelf life. Product specifications require the beer
to be bright (haze free), but customer complaints are being received for product less than 6
months old.

a) Define typical, best-practice specifications for beer clarity and describe how these can be
measured in the brewery. [9]
b) Draft a plan to investigate the cause of the problem in the fermentation and beer
processing area and propose actions to solve. [16]

This was the second most popular question. Marks were lost where candidates knew there were
haze meters in use but were not able to demonstrate how they worked or what they were actually
measuring. Specifications were generally well known, however.

It was required to “draft a plan” to investigate and solve the haze issue. This required more than just
a list of possible actions. Again, the better answers approached this part as if they were running a
department or brewery and they were laying the ground for fellow workers to investigate the
possible issues and then carry out actions to put them right.

Question 5

a) Write an ideal sampling plan for micro surveillance in FV, MV and BBT and all relevant
process steps, including media selection, specifications, and reporting. [10]
b) An anaerobic infection has been detected in BBT. List the possible causes and describe the
changes to the sampling plan that you would introduce to help investigate the problem.
[7]
c) What steps could be taken to eliminate the infection and prevent reoccurrence. [8]

This was a classic microbiological question, attempted by seven candidates. The better sampling
plans demonstrated a detailed understanding of where in the process micro samples are most
useful, which is important, of course, but also considered how reporting can best be delivered to
make most use of the results.

Changes to sampling plans are often made in response to an infection issue, always with increased
sampling. The resources needed to deliver this should not be underestimated (other sampling may
need to be reduced, or overtime incurred, for example). The better answers demonstrated a
practical understanding of how such an issue could be tackled, including visual inspection of plant
items where risk of infection may be higher.

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Question 6

a) Sketch a beer filtration system to produce bright beer, including all associated equipment,
instrumentation, and sample points [10]
b) Define the HACCP (Hazard Analysis and Critical Control Points) plan for the installation.
[10]
c) What is the biggest risk to food safety and how can this be minimised or eliminated
altogether? [5]

Most of the candidates struggled with this question. A sketch can be time consuming and it seems
that the time taken on the sketch may have been disproportionately high versus the marks available.

It was surprising to find that most answers did not demonstrate a clear understanding of what a
HACCP plan is. Concepts such as risk versus severity, the identification of Critical Control Points, the
required control measures, and the role of pre-requisites were not generally well described.

As a result some candidates found it difficult to justify their selection of the biggest food safety risk
in filtration (any well-justified risk would have gained good marks).

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Module 3: Packaging of Beer
Paper 1: Short Answer Questions

A total of 6 candidates sat this exam with 4/6 achieving a pass mark in this part of the paper with an
average score of 58/100 marks. Candidates are again urged to lay out any calculations in a
structured and logical fashion.

Paper 2: Long Answer Questions

Question 1

Next year’s provisional packaging production plan is as follows:

Quarter 1 Bottling 170,000hl Kegging 55,000hl
Quarter 2 Bottling 210,000hl Kegging 75,000hl
Quarter 3 Bottling 270,000hl Kegging 65,000hl
Quarter 4 Bottling 190,000hl Kegging 50,000hl.
This is a 20% increase on this year’s plan.

The bottling container split is approximately 50% 330ml returnable bottles and 50% 500ml
returnable bottles. The kegging container split is approximately 75% 30 litre kegs and 25% 50 litre
kegs.

The existing packaging lines are an old returnable bottle line nominally rated at 60,000
bottles/hour when filling 330ml containers and a new keg line nominally rated at 250 kegs/hour
when filling 30 litre containers. Multiple brands will be packaged in each format.

Stating any assumptions made, comment on the feasibility of the plan, including discussion on
advance planning, manning levels, shift patterns, equipment upgrades, and operational schedules
required to meet best practice quality and cost objectives. [25]

Sensible assumptions for dealing with seasonality, planned and unplanned time lost, line efficiencies,
the filling rates of different container sizes and manning levels, reflecting the candidates’ practical
knowledge is key to this answer.

Generally well answered.

Question 2

A brewery is striving to become a ‘net-zero’ carbon business by 2030. Focussing only on the
packaging and warehouse operations, describe and justify a programme to support this process in
a packaging centre which includes canning, bottling, and kegging lines. [25]

A very broad question with considerable scope in the answer for candidates to insert their own
experiences. A description and justification for a programme to support this process is requested
and should be the core of the answer. Less popular question but generally well answered.

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Question 3

Prepare a detailed proposal for the modification of an existing returnable bottle line to allow it to
process non-returnable bottles as well. Use a diagram to illustrate the recommended line
modifications and new equipment. Justify the recommendations and proposed changes to
procedures. [25]

The key to this question was not just recommending the introduction of a bottle rinser and some
secondary packaging machines – a more subtle understanding of the impact and requirements is
sought.

Justification of line modifications, new equipment and changes in procedures has been requested so
some details are expected.

Diagrams were often of poor quality but a clear annotated diagram is an efficient way of picking up
marks compared with writing pages of text.

Question 4

a) With the aid of diagrams, identify the key features of a retail outlet cellar and a cellar
dispense system serving keg beer to several bars at different levels within a building. [15]
b) Where relevant, indicate the required temperature and pressure ranges and explain the
impact on the product if these parameters are out of specification. [10]

Good, clear diagrams are the key to answering this question efficiently.

In addition to a basic understanding of cellaring and dispense equipment some consideration of the
subtleties of multi-level systems and satellite dispense areas (e.g. occasional roof top bars) is
expected.

Generally not answered so well, particularly the consideration of multiple bars in the same building.

Question 5

When considering the packaging of beers in glass explain how product risks to the consumer are
assessed and controlled. [25]

Good answers require a boarder consideration than just HACCP and CCPs.

Supply chain procedures relating to materials sourcing and verification, product traceability, quality
procedures, line hygiene, and engineering practices (materials of construction, maintenance,
lubricants, etc) should be considered.

Some good answers, particularly where the candidate demonstrates a wide understanding of all the
issues.

Question 6

For a greenfield packaging facility describe the state-of-the-art technology available for a new keg
filling facility. Discuss the choices and business decisions involved. [25]

Good answers require a consideration of the business decisions involved as well as a board
consideration of keg materials, sizes, keg handling/filling technologies, QA, automation/reporting,
and container tracking/security. Generally not answered so well.

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Module 4: Resource Management and Regulatory Compliance
Paper 1: Short Answer Questions

Scores ranged from 32 to 81.5 with an average of 57.

As ever, questions on the environment, health and safety, quality assurance and resource planning
were generally answered more strongly than finance and supply chain with a number of questions in
these areas not being answered at all by a few candidates. Some examples of these are :

Four sources of brewery liquid effluent and their typical strengths BOD or COD saw the sources
being identified satisfactorily but with some candidates failing to give any strengths at all or totally
unrealistic quantitative data. ‘Avoiding’, ‘reducing’, ‘transferring’ and ‘retaining’ are all safety
techniques for dealing with risk. Key factors in dealing with obsolete and damaged stock was
generally answered quite well although few covered broader aspects including duty and planning
implications. Key elements of a procurement policy and why) saw most candidates trying to answer
this question with details of a tendering process, missing what this policy should contain and why it
is important. Just two candidates answered correctly the three steps of SMED with “separate
external from internal activities, convert internal to external activities, streamline all activities”.

Paper 2: Long Answer Questions

Question 1

a) Explain the benefits of managing energy and utility consumption in real time.
b) Discuss how this can be achieved and explain the practical difficulties which may be
encountered.

All 7 candidates chose to answer this question, with marks ranging between 1 and an excellent 21,
virtually a model answer, with an average score of almost 13.

The better candidates developed up to five benefits:

• Being able to measure / monitor energy and utilities instantaneously (as it is consumed).
• Being able to empower personnel to take immediate (generally corrective) action to address
an abnormal consumption.
• To optimise energy and utility use.
• To benchmark more accurately.
• To allow departmental budgetary accountability (user pays principle).

The second point is one of the greatest benefits and is generally achieved by having control limits
with alarms (visual on computer screens / phones and / or audible) to prompt immediate corrective
action. This contrasts with the historic approach of investigating an abnormal use (often a spike on a
chart) at some time after the event and trying to prevent reoccurrence – the damage has already
been done at this point!

The fifth point is a particularly important development – historically, there was rarely sufficient
metering to provide user accountability. Attempts to do so by summation generally failed as the
information lacked credibility and could easily be challenged.

For the second part of the question the examiner was seeking a discussion around four key issues on
how real time management can be achieved:

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 • Requires installation of comprehensive metering and sub-metering for, as a minimum, the
largest consumers of electricity, thermal energy, water, and process gases.
• Need to set control and alarm levels for normal and abnormal conditions.
• Requires computer system to monitor consumptions and flag changing and alarm
conditions.
• Need to empower operators and technicians to modify or even stop processes to reduce
abnormal consumption.

Practicalities detailed by the best candidate included: High capital cost (although usually a good pay-
back) plus some disruption during installation; Ongoing revenue costs (maintenance and calibration
of instruments, training of operators and technicians); Prioritisation of metering (deciding between
various energies and utilities); Implications for production planning and customer service of slowing
or stopping processes; Handling very large quantities of data.

Question 2

a) What considerations need to be addressed when setting up a Health and Safety Risk
Assessment?
b) With the aid of a diagram, explain the construction and calibration of a risk grid and how a
risk grid is used as a management tool.

This question was attempted by 5 candidates with marks ranging from 7 to a good 18 with an
average of 13.

For part (a) the examiner was seeking considerations which should have included (but not confined
to):

• Are the individuals / group competent to assess the risk – do they have the right knowledge
and experience?
• Are the individuals who will be exposed to the risk represented?
• Is the risk assessment original or merely a copy of another which may not be identical?
• Is the assessment being rushed without all the correct information?
• Is the assessment being carried out in the area of the risk or remotely (are all the
implications being considered)?
• Do the individuals / group have authority to put mitigation measures in place or would there
be a delay in the process?
• What are the processes or procedures for ensuring that tasks are carried out safely,
considering the results and requirements of the risk assessment?
• Is the risk assessment being adequately documented?
• How frequently are risk assessments reviewed?

A list of hazards present in the brewing industry was not being sought by the examiner which was
the incorrect approach adopted by some candidates.

For part (b) of the question an explanation was required, not simply annotations to a diagram or
sketch. In general, this part was answered well with good explanations of the key features including
calibration of the grid in quantitative terms. As is found in working examples, there was some
variation in “likelihood of occurrence” from the use of terms such as “very unlikely, somewhat
unlikely, unlikely, etc” to numeric terms such as “1 in 1 year, 1 in 10 years, 1 in 100 years etc”.

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The final part of the question produced variable responses. The best answer listed the following (not
in any order of relative importance):

• Severity vs incidence can be evaluated.

• Relatively simple visual guide for overseeing multiple risks.
• Risks can be quantified relative to each other to allow identification of priorities.
• Use of risk grids is in line with regulatory authorities (same language).
• Allocation of resources – personnel and money.
• Guide for continuous improvement to reduce risks.
• Patterns of risk can be identified.

The third point is clearly one of the key benefits of using a risk grid.

Question 3

How would a commercial brand owner be assured about the integrity of their products which are
produced at multiple international locations including by some external third parties?

6 candidates attempted this question scoring from 4 to 14 with an average of 10.

For this question, the examiner was seeking demonstration of a broad understanding of the
importance of brands within an organisation including how technical, production and commercial
teams work effectively together across international boundaries to support brand equity and
integrity.

Most answers covered how to set up quality assurance approaches for this including appreciation of
labelling requirements as well as audit protocols. However there generally were insufficient details
highlighting what factors would be important to the commercial brand owner and how these would
be covered.

More marks were available for answers covering working internationally as well as containing
reporting, variance management and reporting. Marks were also available for details of effective
collaborative working including management of complaints procedures and product recalls.

Question 4

One of the brewery’s large customers would like to set up a collaborative planning forum between
both parties in order to improve shelf availability of beer products in their retail outlets. Describe
all factors that would need to be reviewed for the organisation to consider putting this in place
and explain their importance.

3 candidates attempted this question.

Most answers focused on planning aspects that were important to a production site and not on the
possible benefits across the whole supply chain including to the most important aspect, the
Customer ! Fuller answers would include preparation and evaluation of a business case.

Setting up of the forum including benefits resources, ways of working, alignment on metrics etc

Planning processes, forecasting, promotions, offers, new product development, time horizons, short
and long term planning, prioritisation of own products vs order, order fulfilment.

Inventory management and responsibilities/accountabilities

18
Financial impact of all of the above including articulation on where there may be impacts for all
parties.

Other factors and benefits including length of contract/partnership, points of contact including
commercial teams, immediate insights, and Relationship development.

Question 5

Discuss how a warehousing and logistics review should be set up and carried out. Also explain how
the following key outcomes might be achieved as a result of the review, a) An improved company
financial position and b) improved customer service.

Only one candidate attempted this question.

The examiner was looking for candidates to demonstrate application of their knowledge of three key
areas of the Master Brewer 4 Syllabus: financial management, project management and supply
chain.

Review of what is currently in place, key metrics, financial and operational performance,

Reference as to how to improve the two required metrics and demonstrating knowledge of which
levers would move each and what ‘good’ would look like.

Articulation of how the review would be set up with key decision points.

Articulation of how the review would then be managed and implemented as well as ongoing key
decision points and post project follow up.

Question 6

a) Explain the term “inherent reliability” (in-built reliability) in relation to plant performance.
b) How can inherent reliability be optimised?
c) Describe the implications for capital and revenue expenditure in seeking a high level of
inherent reliability.

6 candidates submitted answers to this question with marks ranging from a poor 2 to 14 with an
average of just 8.

For part (a) the examiner was seeking an explanation along these lines: The inherent reliability is a
measure of the overall “robustness” of a system or piece of equipment. It provides an upper limit to
the reliability and availability that can be achieved. In other words, no matter how much inspection
or maintenance is performed, the inherent reliability will never be exceeded.

Inherent reliability of plant or equipment can be optimized by careful consideration during the
design and build phases as well as operating phase. Reliability practices during the design phase
might include:

• Zero failure design for key items – critical failures are entirely eliminated by design.
• Fault tolerance – redundant elements switch over to a backup or alternative mode.
• De-rating – a component is used much below its capability rating.
• Durability – a component is designed to have a longer “useful” life or damage tolerance.
• Safety margins – the design allows for all applicable worst-case stresses and margins.
• Fail safety design – failure effects function but no injury or additional damage.
• Provision of early warnings of failure – through fault diagnosis

19
Strategies during the manufacturing, build and installation phases might include:

• Process failure mode, effects, and criticality analysis

• Statistical process control
• Environmental stress screening tests
• Production reliability acceptance tests – used to detect any degradation in the inherent
reliability of the plant over the course of production. Also used to assure that the plant
meets the customer’s reliability requirements and expectations.

During the operating phase, the inherent reliability of plant or equipment can be optimized by
operating, inspecting, and maintaining as well as possible. On the other hand, if there are gaps in
operating, inspection, or maintenance practices, only a lower level of the inherent reliability will be
achieved. One method of maintain high levels of reliability is to have a system of failure reporting,
analysis, and corrective action. Essentially this provides the data used to identify deficiencies for
correction to ensure that inherent reliability is not degraded.

The implications for capital and revenue expenditure in seeking a high level of inherent reliability
were not well described. In general, there will be a higher capital cost for the initial purchase of the
plant or equipment with, over time, lower revenue cost for operating and maintaining. The very best
answers explained the principles of life cycle costing which is highly relevant in this context.

20
Master Distiller
FOR MODULES 1/2/3/4 THERE WILL BE A SEPARATE PUBLICATION OF THE KEY ELEMENTS REQUIRED
FOR THE TYPICAL EXAM QUESTIONS ASKED BELOW.

Module 1
Paper 1: Short Answer Questions

A total of 6 candidates sat this exam with 3/6 achieving a pass mark in this part of the paper with an
average score of 53/100 marks.

Paper 2: Long Answer Questions

Question 1

a) Barley purchased is high in moisture, nitrogen, and split husks. Discuss the impact on your
malted barley production plant and identify operational changes needed to gain the
maximum benefit from this barley. [13]
b) Discuss the design and operation of different cooking equipment required to process corn
(maize). [12]

Question 2

Discuss the impact of a poor sugar cane harvest on molasses quality and its implications on
processing in a distillery. [25]

Question 3

A new distillery has the option to use water from a small reservoir (dam) or a borehole (well).
Discuss the impact of using both supply options on distillery operations. Discuss the equipment
required for each option. [25]

Question 4

a) As part of a distillery mashing system upgrade, control is being changed from manual to an
automatic (e.g. SCADA) system. Outline the key aspects of this control system and explain
the control points. Explain how these control points would be monitored and the impact
on operations if outside the control limits. [12]
b) As part of the same upgrade, the cold water with solid caustic flushing system is being
changed from a manual to an automated CIP system. State the advantages of this upgrade
and explain what type of CIP equipment and operational considerations are required. [13]

Question 5

The environmental protection agency have reviewed distillery liquid discharge allowance and are
proposing a reduction of 10˚C in the temperature and a 20% reduction of the chemical oxygen
demand (COD) load. Discuss the options available to achieve these new targets and the financial
implications of each option. [25]

21
Question 6

a) Discuss the key elements of a distillery budget, detailing what is included in standard,
budgeted, and actual costs. Identify direct and indirect costs, and outline what financial
controls and reporting systems should be employed to monitor performance against
budget. [13]
b) Design a trial to compare fermentation performance of a new yeast strain against the
existing strain. Discuss how the trial results would inform a decision on whether the new
yeast was more efficient. [12]

22
Module 2
Paper 1: Short Answer Questions

All candidates showed a good understanding over the range of the topics in the syllabus. It was
noted that there was a better level of understanding shown in the answers to the cereal questions
than the molasses and grape.

Candidates showed good judgement by providing answers with content fitting the allocated marks.

Paper 2: Long Answer Questions

Question 1

a) State five Quality parameters that are commonly included in a purchased yeast contract.
[5]
b) Demonstrate how knowledge of these parameters can influence process considerations.
[10]
c) For each parameter, explain how the impact of low and high levels can be mitigated. [10]

Question 2

The analysis of a fermented maize/malted barley mash indicates the presence of unusually high
levels of glucose, maltose and maltotriose, and very low levels of unfermentable dextrins. Discuss
the possible causes for the above and formulate a plan to return to normal low levels of sugars.
[25]

Question 3

a) For a two-pot batch distillation process, design a plant that allows two distinct products to
be produced using the same equipment. Legal constraints require the products to be
segregated. [12]
b) For the above, discuss the necessary cleaning requirements for the plant to ensure any
cross-contamination of the two products is mitigated. [13]

Question 4

a) The analysis of a feed stock to a two-column continuous still indicates the levels of
methanol, iso-amyl alcohol, and propanol are above the design specification. Describe the
equipment required to ensure the specified spirit quality can be achieved. [15]
b) Describe the design requirements of a plate arrangement in a continuous still and explain
how these requirements are met with reference to two different designs. [10]

Question 5

For a distillery, state the key utilities and explain how these are generated. Describe what
methods can be used to measure consumption and explain how the data obtained can be used to
improve operational efficiency. [25]

Question 6

For a distillery, describe the key components of a management system and explain how these can
be used to measure and optimise plant efficiency, utilisation, planning, stock management, and
regulatory control. [25]

23
Module 3
Paper 1: Short Answer Questions

A total of 3 candidates sat this exam with 2/3 achieving a pass mark in this part of the paper with an
average score of 67/100 marks.

Paper 2: Long Answer Questions

Question 1

For a bottling facility that receives bulk mature whisk(e)y and produces cased bottles, filled into
containers, describe and explain the main stages of processing and equipment that will be
required. Discuss in your answer options relating to manning. [25]

Question 2

A spirits bottling plant is striving to become a ‘net-zero’ carbon business by 2030. Focussing only
on the packaging and warehouse operations, describe and justify a programme to support this
process in a packaging centre which includes multiple spirits products and RTDs (ready to drink).
[25]

Question 3

Discuss the various factors and alternatives which will impact on the ultimate characteristics of a
spirit due to it undergoing maturation. [25]

Question 4

a) For cases (cartons) of twelve bottles, answer the question below for either:
i. 70cl bottles each of 40 %v/v or
ii. 75cl bottles each of 43 %v/v
Calculate the minimum number of casks required to complete an order of 10,000 cases of
a blended whisk(e)y with the following recipe. 70% Grain (light) whisk(e)y 30% Malt
(flavoured) whisk(e)y the grain whiskey is in American standard barrels. The strength after
maturation is 65%v/v half the Malt is unpeated 5YO in Hogsheads at 60%v/v. The
remainder of the Malt is peated 5YO in Butts also at 60%v/v. Assume 2% evaporation per
annum and stating reasonable estimates for the various cask volumes in use. [20]
b) Once the blend components had been brought together, several casks of one of the
components were found to be empty. State what steps would require to be taken. [5]

Question 5

When considering the packaging of spirits in glass explain how product risks to the consumer are
assessed and controlled. [25]

Question 6

For a greenfield cask filling and maturation warehousing facility, supplied by tanker from various
remote distilling locations, describe the various options which might be considered, drawing a
layout diagram. Discuss the choices and business decisions involved. [25]

24
Module 4
Paper 1: Short Answer Questions

A total of 4 candidates sat this exam with 3/4 achieving a pass mark in this part of the paper with an
average score of 64/100 marks.

Paper 2: Long Answer Questions

Question 1

a) Explain the benefits of managing energy and utility consumption in real time. [10]
b) Discuss how this can be achieved and explain the practical difficulties which may be
encountered. [15]

Question 2

a) What considerations need to be addressed when setting up a Health and Safety Risk
Assessment? [10]
b) With the aid of a diagram, explain the construction and calibration of a risk grid and how a
risk grid is used as a management tool at either a distillery or bottling plant. [15]

Question 3

How would a commercial brand owner be assured about the integrity of their products which are
produced at multiple international locations including by some external third parties? [25]

Question 4

One of a spirits company’s large customers would like to set up a collaborative planning forum
between both parties in order to improve shelf availability of spirits products in their retail
outlets. Describe all factors that would need to be reviewed for the organisation to consider
putting this in place and explain their importance. [25]

Question 5

a) Discuss how a finished goods warehousing and logistics review should be set up and
carried out. [10]
b) Explain how the following key outcomes might be achieved as a result of the review:
• an improved company financial position
• improved customer service [15]

Question 6

a) Explain the term “inherent reliability” (in-built reliability) in relation to plant performance.
[4]
b) How can inherent reliability be optimised? [16]
c) Describe the implications for capital and revenue expenditure in seeking a high level of
inherent reliability. [5]

25
Diploma in Brewing
Module 1: Raw Materials and Wort
Section A: Short Answer Questions

Overall most candidates performed well on this year's SAQs'. Calculations were mainly answered
well but some errors were noted especially Hop kg addition rate and many candidates did not
understand SMM decomposition. Hop breeding was not well answered as was an understanding of
the angle of repose - 1 fully correct answer in 44 papers. In many instances’ candidates could not
identify 3 process variables in kilning. What triggers a L/T deep cut showed up candidates who
probably have not worked with a L/T and had not studied the topic in depth. Many candidates could
not identify ions impacting water alkalinity.

Section B: Long Answer Questions

Question 1

a) Draw and label a simplified single stage plate heat exchanger utilizing an energy recovery
system, include any tanks and instruments/controls necessary. [8]
b) Describe the principles of the design and operation of this plate heat exchanger to cool
wort. Include typical values where appropriate. [8]
c) Explain the potential consequences of inadequate or excessive wort oxygenation. [4]

Part A was well answered by many candidates, but some candidates were missing
temperatures/return vessels and flow markings. Some labelling was poor and not clearly marked on
the diagram making it difficult to award marks which could have been gained by the candidate being
clear on labelling and not using company specific abbreviations. In part B there were some good
answers with appropriate operating values while other candidates could not provide any values. The
design features of a plate heat exchanger were mostly not well described with few candidates
mentioning the requirement for pressure testing and inspections, the typical materials of
construction and their importance to CIP and heat transfer. Most candidates were able to draw a
plan as asked, but many failed to label adequately so lost marks. Part C was again answered
reasonably well by some candidates although many candidates answered both inadequate and
excessive oxygenation when the question stated one or the other. Heat exchanger design comments
whilst giving the basic outline, clearly lacked knowledge of the topic.

Question 2

a) Briefly describe the hop harvesting process from field to storage and highlight key
considerations for ensuring hop quality. [6]
b) Draw and label a process flow diagram for the production of T90 hop pellets. Include key
quality considerations. [6]
c) Explain the advantages of using non-isomerised hop extract in the brewhouse over T90
pellets. State method of extraction. [8]

Lack of detailed knowledge of the harvesting and manufacturing of hop pellets was evident with few
candidates picking up full marks. Many showed a lack of understanding of the key quality controls to
avoid oxidation and prolong shelf life.

Part c) was answered better showing a good knowledge of the practical aspects of using hop
extracts.

26
Question 3

a) Name two physical and two chemical techniques to ensure product dilution water is sterile
at point of use. Describe one of each. [10]
b) Using a table, outline the advantages and disadvantages of reverse osmosis for the
production of brewing water. [6]
c) Other than reverse osmosis and ion exchange, outline two processes to remove iron from
brewing water. [4]

Many candidates failed to read the question and wasted time giving unwanted information in part
a). Reverse Osmosis was not accepted as an answer for part a) as it is unlikely to be used in a
brewery to produce sterile water 'at the point of use'. Chlorine was accepted provided it was
justified with the need for carbon filtration to prevent taints. Most candidates were able to give valid
advantages and disadvantages of RO in part b), but few candidates scored full marks when more in
depth knowledge of iron removal was discussed. For part c) there was a lack of knowledge evident
on the removal of iron processes and was only answered correctly by a few candidates.

Question 4

a) Using a table, list six endogenous mash enzymes with optimal activity found on the profile
shown. For each listed enzyme, include: - optimal temperature (A,B,C, or D) - substrate -
reaction product - an impact on the brewing process/finished beer. [12]

b) Briefly discuss the importance of controlling mash pH, any impacts it has on the sweet
wort produced and how mash pH can be adjusted? [8]

A good knowledge of mash enzymes was all that was required to score full marks in part a; many
candidates showed that and were rewarded although a number of candidates lacked detail on
impacts and relied on repeating impacts, benefits etc. . The importance of mash pH control is critical
information all brewers should be comfortable with. Many could only recall one or two reasons and
lost marks because of it. Adjustment of pH overall had a poor response from candidates.

27
Question 5

a) Briefly describe one manufacturing process for flaked adjuncts and how they are used in
wort production. [4]
b) Briefly describe the manufacturing process for sucrose syrup and where it is ideally added
in wort production. [6]
c) Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using solid or liquid adjuncts in the
brewhouse. [10]

Part a) & b) - of those who opted for this question, the majority did not answer this well, typically
only giving part answers or totally incorrect processes. Point of use / addition of syrup, was varied
with most only gaining the 1/2 mark. This was usually the last question answered with part a) and b)
being poorly marked with candidates not understanding the process. Part C - while some candidates
obviously knew the topic, several were lacking knowledge and wrote general, nonspecific responses
for both liquid and solid adjuncts which did not get the marks.

Question 6

a) With reference to Darcy’s law, explain the key design and operational differences between
three main types of wort separation equipment. [14]
b) Briefly explain the different milling requirements for the three wort separation devices to
ensure grain bed permeability. [6]

Where candidates had read and understood the question the examiners saw some excellent
answers. A description of the process and diagrams of the equipment were not required. This
question was testing candidates understanding of the aspects of Darcy's Law and how they applied
to 3 very different mash separation methods. For example, good answers were able to discuss
differences in bed depth and the impacts and how differential pressure can be controlled (or not).
Again part b) related specifically to bed permeability so answers describing the workings of a mill
were not required. Some candidates gave sensible grist fractions and explained the relevance of this
to mash separation across the 3 types of equipment. A lot of candidates wasted a lot of time by just
writing down what they knew of the wort separation process and not referencing Darcy's law as
required. In part B many candidates answered very vaguely on milling requirements and could not
provide appropriate grist ratios.

28
Module 2: Yeast and Beer
Section A: Short Answer Questions

A total of 133 candidates sat the exam. 110 out of 133 candidates passed the Short Answer Paper
with the average mark being 24/40.

Section B: Long Answer Questions

Question 1

a) Using a diagram, explain the design and function of an automated in-line yeast pitching
system, how pitching yeast quality can be assessed, and how the amount of yeast pitched
can be validated. [12]
b) Describe the operation of cropping yeast from a cylindroconical fermenter, noting the
critical parameters, and describe the parameters that should be considered before
repitching. [8]

The following key points were required in the answer : Description of system - pump, flow meter,
controller, and sensor, use of biomass meter based on capacitance, validate pitch from fermenter,
sample analysed for viable yeast or biomass, Crop yeast slowly from cone so beer is not pulled,
discard first yeast, then collect yeast: last yeast may also be discarded, Yeast should be diluted if
alcohol is high, check generation number, and viability.

Question 2

a) Explain the difference between depth filtration and surface filtration. Indicate where each
type of filter is used in a brewery. [9]
b) Using an equation discuss the parameters involved in beer filtration and how they affect
the length of a filter run. [11]

Key points were : The nature of the porous filter medium and the mechanism of particle removal,
The physical nature of a membrane filter with reference to pore size, Depth filtration is commonly
used in primary filtration: membrane filtration is used for secondary filtration or aseptic filtration, ∆P
= μV x L/β describes the effect of filtration parameters on differential pressure, The terms of the
equation and how bed depth, bed permeability and beer viscosity effect differential pressure and
filter life.

Question 3

a) List and describe the characteristics of Saccharomyces cerevisiae cells that allow them to
ferment brewer’s wort. [10]
b) Describe the physiological and metabolic differences between Saccharomyces cerevisiae
and Saccharomyces pastorianus and how these traits can be used for differentiation. [6]
c) Briefly describe what we currently know about the evolution of lager yeast. [4]

Key areas were : Particular stress tolerance features, Metabolic pathways used as well as the
consumption and production of biomolecules, needed to talk about differences between S.
cerevisiae and S. pastorianus, how are differences utilised to differentiate between yeast in the
laboratory, marks were distributed between providing a parameter and an explanation for a) and b)
and Putative parental strains, properties that this confers.

29
Part b was badly answered as the majority of candidates were providing answers based on
experiences in the brewery rather than on 'differentiation' which is a laboratory procedure Part c
tended to not be answered or answers were of a particularly poor quality.

Question 4

a) Describe, with the aid of diagrams, the process and principles of the propagation of
brewer’s yeast. [15]
b) Outline the advantages and disadvantages of using dried yeast compared to propagating
at the brewery. [5]

Candidates were expected to explain the principles of what is to be achieved through propagation,
Laboratory stages with conditions and explanations, brewery stages with conditions and
explanations, producing an annotated flow diagram was a good way to present the information,
needed to give some advantages and disadvantages to get all the marks for part b).

Most of the marks came from being able to describe the process, there was a lot of variability in the
answers, candidates need to remember that they should be answering with the 'ideal' systems and
processes rather than their experience of the brewery where they may be working - there may be
short cuts being taken which makes it more important that you understand all the steps that should
be there so that if there is a problem you have a greater chance of being able to solve it faster.

Question 5

a) Using diagrams and notes describe the biochemical formation and reduction of:
• Diacetyl
• Hydrogen Sulphide
b) Detail the inputs/process parameters used to control the final levels of these two flavours
in beer [10]

Answers to include a diagram of Diacetyl formation and removal by the yeast (from extract to 2,3
butanediol), a diagram of Hydrogen Sulphide formation as part of the Sulphur pathway from
Sulphate to Sulphur containing amino acids. Diacetyl: Impact of FAN, Wort Oxygen, Fermentation
Temperature Yeast Viability/Vitality, Micro contamination. Use of exogenous enzymes (alpha
acetolactate decarboxylase), warm maturation. Hydrogen sulphide: Impact of FAN, Wort Oxygen,
Fermentation temperature, Yeast viability/vitality, micro contamination. Initial level of Sulphate in
the wort, certain amino acids and vitamins, use of copper electrodes.

Most candidates were able to accurately describe as requested the formation of Diacetyl and its
subsequent breakdown with an appropriate diagram. The metabolic pathway of Hydrogen Sulphide
from Sulphate was not as well described.

While most candidates were able to identify specific wort components that could influence diacetyl
and hydrogen sulphide formation or control, the examples given were few. Some candidates were
able to list a number of properties that impact these beer’s off flavours.

Better answers were not only able to identify the wort parameters that impact on diacetyl and
hydrogen sulphide formation but also specifically if they had a positive or negative impact.
Candidates that were able to demonstrate these specific impacts and consequences were given the
highest marks.

Some students miss-interpreted the question, resulting in lengthy descriptions of the methods on
analysis, which was not asked for.

30
Question 6

Utilising a table, write brief notes on the following brewery microorganisms:

i. Lactobacillus
ii. Pediococcus
iii. Acetobacter
iv. Enterobacter [20]

The candidates were asked to present their answers in a table form. This would have allowed them
to better identify and present the requested answers to the listed questions. However, a number of
candidates decided to answer the questions in a free written form, resulting in not answering the
specific questions that were asked or losing focus on what was being presented.

The better answers were constructed logically with the aid of an organised table, listing the answers
to the specific questions asked. The better answers were associated with candidates who had read
further and understood this section of the learning material to list more than one answer to specific
questions when asked.

31
Module 3: Process and Packaging Technology
Section A: Short Answer Questions

The SAQ section of the paper covers the whole syllabus. 128 candidates sat the paper with 80
passing this section.

Section B: Long Answer Questions

Question 1

a) Describe the cost benefit hierarchy for achieving water savings. [8]
b) Explain how the cost benefit hierarchy can be used to provide a structured approach to a
water use efficiency strategy. [12]

Candidates that attempted this question on average scored 9 marks.

Examiners were looking for candidates to be able to identify different ways of water saving, such as
reductions of uncontrolled use, improved control, reuse, and recycling and be able to attribute
realistic savings to each method.

Part b) was looking for candidates to show an approach to improving water management and
reducing water consumption based on a mass balance. The best candidates were able to show a
detailed staged approach from production of the mass balance right through to implementation.

Question 2

a) Identify and define the types of mechanical energy that exist in a fluid within a tank or
pipe system. [3]
b) An enclosed hot water tank is filled to a height of 4 m with water at a temperature of 70°C.
The pressure in the head space is 0.2 bar g. The 50 mm diameter outlet from the bottom of
the tank is closed off by a butterfly valve. If this valve was suddenly opened to allow the
contents of the tank to discharge to the atmosphere, calculate stating all assumption, the
initial discharge velocity of water from the tank.

If the discharge outlet was increased to 100 mm what effect would that have on the initial
discharge velocity? Explain why and show your reasoning. [9]

Data
Density of water at 70°C = 978 kg m-3
Gravitational acceleration g = 9.81 m s-2
1 bar = 105 Pa
c) Hot liquor tanks can be susceptible to stress corrosion cracking. Describe this type of
corrosion, why it might occur in the tank presented above and how it can be prevented.
[8]

a) Pressure Energy required to introduce a fluid , Potential Energy associated with its position,
Kinetic Energy associated with velocity

b) Use of Bernoulli equation, simplify by using assumptions – Velocity in tank is negligible, Pressure
head is 1 bar gauge, Hydrostatic head is 4 m.

For the final part use the continuity equation. Correct use of orifice ID’s, squaring diameters and
taking their ratio to achieve the correct answer of a ¼ reduction in fluid velocity.

32
 d) Stress corrosion cracking is caused by Heat, Corrosion, Stress

Reasons- Use of 304 which has low resistance, Chlorides in the water, Use of PVC insulation which
contains chlorines, Stress when tank cycles between hot and cold or stress from welding.

Prevention – deionised water, use 304L or 316 grade SS, use glass wool insulation instead of PVC,
direct injection of steam.

An even distribution of marks were awarded across parts a, b, and c. Most candidates remembered
at least 2 types of energy and provided a definition. Typically candidates who provided the full
Bernoulli equation went on to achieve good marks. Candidates are reminded to show equations and
working out to achieve maximum marks.

Whilst candidates could identify the causes of Stress corrosion they did not always explain the
reasons why and how to prevent it.

Question 3

a) State Henry’s law as it applies to carbon dioxide (CO2) in beer, explain the relationship it
describes, and discuss what factors affect this relationship. [9]
b) One common approach to quantifying the CO2 concentration in packaged beer is to
measure the temperature and pressure of the gas in the headspace of the package. Explain
how this headspace measurement can be used to estimate by inference the concentration
of CO2 within the beer. [5]
c) Discuss the primary problem associated with measuring the CO2 concentration in
packaged beer when the beer holds a gas mixture containing both nitrogen and carbon
dioxide and explain how this problem is overcome or accounted for. [6]

Henry’s Law: Pco2 = H xco2. Pco2 = partial pressure of CO2 in the gas phase (headspace) H = Henry’s
coefficient, xco2 = molar fraction of CO2 in the liquid phase

Henry’s law describes the relationship between CO2 concentrations in the gas and liquid phases.
Temperature, Gas Type and Beer Composition are some of the factors that affect this relationship.

Henry’s Law is employed when measuring the headspace CO2 concentration in packaged beer.

With headspace temperature and pressure, we can use Henry’s Law to estimate the liquid-side CO2
concentration.

When beer contains CO2 and Nitrogen, headspace concentration (partial pressure) of each must be
known before CO2 and Nitrogen concentrations can be calculated.

A common approach with a Zahm device is to run the headspace gasses through a buret filled with
concentrated sodium hydroxide. Alternatively, use an Anton Paar Cbox QC or CarboQC, the
measurement includes pressure and temperature of gas in the beer following multiple controlled
volume expansions.

The majority of Candidates attained good marks by stating Henry’s law and providing a description
of each element of the equation. Most candidates remembered that temperature affected the
relationship but few stated Beer composition and gas type. The methodologies needed when beer
contains CO2 and Nitrogen were less well known. For maximum marks, a description of the
instrument and working principles were required.

33
Question 4

a) Cold water at 15°C is heated to 85°C in a hot water tank by means of a steam coil
immersed in the water at the bottom of the tank. The combined (empty) tank and steam
coil weigh 1000 kg and are made of 304 stainless steel with a specific heat of 1.8 kJ kg-1 K-1 .
Using the table below for water and steam properties data, calculate the amount of
energy required to heat 200 hL of water from 15°C to 85°C assuming the tank is well
insulated and there are negligible thermal losses to the environment. [10]
Specific Specific Specific
Saturation Density Specific Heat Enthalpy Enthalpy of Enthalpy
Pressure
Temperature of Water of Water (cp) of Water Evaporation of Steam
(hf) (hfg) (hg)
kPa
°C (kN m-²) kg m-3 kJ kg-1 K-1 kJ kg-1 kJ kg-1 kJ kg-1
absolute
15 1.7 999 4.18 63 2466 2529
85 58 968 4.20 356 2296 2652
100 101 958 4.25 419 2257 2676
120 199 943 4.27 504 2202 2706

b) If the steam feeding the heating tube is at 1 bar gauge pressure and has a dryness fraction
of 90%, estimate the amount of steam required to perform this heating task. [6]
c) Without adding more heat transfer media to the hot liquor tank, how can the rate of
heating the water be increased? Explain the rationale behind this approach. [4]

Candidates on average scored 10.5 marks and was answered by less than half of candidates sitting
this exam.

Part a and b were generally answered well with candidates demonstrating their ability to calculate
enthalpic gain of the tank using Q = m Cp ΔT.

Part c was asking candidates for methods of increasing the heating rate without increasing heat
transfer area, such as mixing during heating or increasing steam pressure.

Question 5

a) Explain the following terms for a feedback process control loop. [7]
i. Set point
ii. Error
iii. Response time
iv. Rise time
v. Overshoot
b) [13]
i. For a heat exchanger used to heat water from 20°C to 80°C using steam, draw
feedback and feedforward control diagrams. Describe the control philosophy and
provide the advantages and disadvantages of each system.
ii. What type of control could be employed to reduce the impact of variations in
steam pressure on the temperature of the water leaving the heat exchanger?
Describe with the aid of a diagram how the recommended control operates.

This question was popular amongst candidates with the majority choosing to answer and an average
score of 11 marks. Part a being answered well before part b asking for diagrams and then showing

34
an understanding of the systems specified. Examiners were looking for cascade control for b) ii) and
understanding why this would be appropriate for the situation.

Question 6

For a small pack line of your choice, describe the processes which need to be put in place to ensure
product quality and legal conformity of the primary package. [20]

Question 6 was also popular with candidates and scored well at an average of 10 marks.

Examiners were looking for candidates to show an understanding of processes that should be in
place to maintain both:

Product quality – Such as CO2 control, TPO control, microbiology

Legal conformity – Such as traceability, date codes, fill levels.

The best candidates were able to articulate how these are achieved.

35
Diploma in Distilling
Module 1: Materials, Wort and Fermentation
Section A: Short Answer Questions

Candidates generally performed well and seemed to have a more well-rounded understanding of the
material. Candidates are still focusing most of their attention on malt whisky related topics and must
also focus on other spirits. Questions relating to maize/corn proved difficult and calculation
questions were not well handled.

Some more specific areas of feedback are: better understanding of how a malting barley breeding
program can increase alcohol yield, essential properties of a good distilling yeast, effect of
temperature reduction on molasses clarification and microbial control in distillery water.

Section B: Long Answer Questions

Question 1

a) For a barley malt or Sugar Cane molasses identify 6 key analytical parameters , giving
typical values and ranges [6]
b) Discuss the impact on distillery processing when these analytical parameters are outside
the desired range. [14]

Generally the question was answered well but marks were lost by not completing ranges and
missing units. In addition time was wasted by giving information on general efficiency that was not
related to the analytical parameters selected. At this level candidates should know to provide
rationale along with observation. For a) the range for each parameter must be included and for b)
the strong answers provided additional information on downstream impact and not just immediate
effect. Also discussed effect on handling, storage, and transfer.

Question 2

a) State four water sources that may be used in a distillery [2]

b) For each source, discuss its suitability for use in mashing, CIP, steam generation and
finished product dilution. Include in your answer any required pre-treatment and impact
of the source on process efficiency and product quality. [18]

This was a popular question and was answered very well. Some candidates used a table to make the
explanations simpler to discuss. The best answers included detail on pre-treatment for each use not
a general description of water purification techniques. There was some confusion about what a
water source is and process usage categories. Logical reasons why each source was suitable and
technical quality reasons were required. This was then used to indicate why and which types of pre-
treatment was required. The impact on process efficiency and product quality with some chemical
information on why there was an impact was seen in the better answers.

Question 3

Discuss the operations of a lauter tun and a mash tun filter for producing an all malted barley
wort. Include in your answer the advantages and disadvantages of each method of wort
production. [20]

This was another popular question however some candidates gave a good diagram of both a lauter
and filter but failed to give sufficient information on how they were operated. Strong answers
included some detail on the impact on efficiency and conversion of starch when discussing the

36
operation. Most candidates showed a greater knowledge of a lauter mash than a mash filter.
Discussion on how both mashing regimes operate and include in the discussion the impact and
action behind each step. Give detail on timings, temperatures , flow rates and discuss the
advantages / disadvantages including ease of cleaning, running costs, capital cost and impact on
spirit quality.

Candidates need to be careful they are answering the specific question and not just writing down all
they know on the subject. In addition when asked to compare two things then both need to feature
in the answer. In general candidates gave enough to show knowledge of the subject, mainly from
the teaching notes but to gain higher marks at this level you also need to show the interrelationship
between different parts of the syllabus.

Question 4

Name the main carbohydrates in unfermented malted barley wort and discuss their utilisation by
yeast during fermentation. (20)

The question was answered quite poorly with only 50% of candidates achieving pass marks.
Candidates needed to list glucose, maltose, maltotriose and maltodextrins. A description of how
these carbohydrates are translocated into the yeast cell followed by glycolysis (names of
intermediate metabolites) and fermentation (names of terminal step enzymes) together with roles
of NAD and ATP would constitute a very good answer. If the candidate additionally mentions that
yeast also converts these carbohydrates to other metabolites/flavour-active compounds, plus
further yeast growth by budding would constitute an excellent answer.

Question 5

Discuss the operational advantages and disadvantages of using the following yeast formats for
distillery fermentations: (20)

a) Cream yeast
b) Cake (pressed) yeast
c) Dried yeast
d) Distillery cultured yeast

This was a popular question and was answered very well with 70% of candidates achieving pass
grades. Candidates needed to provide a detailed description of the different yeast formats (e.g.
moisture content) followed by a discussion of advantages and disadvantages in terms of handling
(re-hydration), storage (conditions), pitching (procedures). If candidates describe distillery culturing
practices that would be a bonus. Potentially 5 marks awarded for each of the listed formats.

37
Question 6

a) Explain the impact if a distillery fermentation is found to be contaminated by the following

microorganisms: [6]
i) Lactobacillus
ii) Acetobacter
iii) Zymomonas
b) Discuss measures to be undertaken to control microbial contamination in a distillery
fermenter. [14]

Generally, part a was not answered particularly well with many candidates failing to name the
metabolites produced by these microbes or outlining their impact. Candidates should Candidates
indicate the problem metabolites produced in each case (i.e. lactic acid from Lactobacillus; acetic
acid from Acetobacter; sulphur compounds from Zymomonas), and provide a detailed explanation of
the resultant problems for fermentation, off-flavours etc.

Candidates answered part b) quite poorly (40% achieving pass grades) with many focusing primarily
on monitoring, rather than controlling, microbial contamination in a fermenter. Also, many
candidates merely mentioned CIP, without providing any details on procedures of cleaning and
sanitising vessels. Candidates must describe hygienic practices (names of cleaning/sanitising agents),
substrate pasteurisation (molasses) and CIP of vessels with further discussion that may also include
microbiological surveillance measures (e.g. bacteria in yeast supply).

38
Module 2: Distillation and Maturation
Section A: Short Answer Questions

This paper contains 30 short answer questions which cover the whole syllabus.

Section B: Long Answer Questions

Question 1

a) Explain, with the aid of a diagram, the equipment required to produce neutral spirit with
an ethanol content of > 96% v/v and a methanol content of less than 5g/100 litres from
fermented potato ‘wash’ [13].
b) Outline the steps that may be taken to further process this neutral spirit into non-
flavoured vodka [7].

Generally the answers were adequate consisting of generic lists of distillation equipment but the
need for adaptations for specific raw materials and regulatory / legal requirements were limited. The
majority of students understand the option of carbon treatment and that there were multiple
methods available but few explained the equipment needed or how carbon treatment actually
works. Explain neutral spirit still types - what each does, how it does it and why it is necessary and
demonstrate an understanding of different feedstocks and how this can impact the equipment
required. Show an understanding of legal specifications of neutral spirit and, again, how this can
influence the equipment selected. Outline options for carbon treatment and the equipment required
for each. Give an understanding of post distillation modifications relating to mouthfeel, authenticity,
and flavourings.

Question 2

a) Explain the term ‘reflux ratio’. [2]

b) Describe how reflux ratio can be controlled and its effect on spirit quality. [12]
c) Discuss the impact of copper on spirit quality in a distillation system. [6]

Reflux ratio was generally well-understood.

Controlling reflux was the most polarising part of the question with the quality of answers varying
widely. Many candidates missed out on marks by describing reflux control in pot still systems only
with higher scorers including continuous systems.

Some candidates omitted to explain the effect of reflux on spirit quality. However, the majority
offered some good answers, including sensory 'weight', alcohol content, copper interaction, and
entrainment.

The impact of copper on spirit quality was generally well-understood. The best answers included
sacrificially removing sulphur compounds, catalytically enabling production of esters, removing ethyl
carbamate and other harmful compounds, reactivating copper, where in the system copper is most
active, and rates of reaction with liquid and vapour.

39
Question 3

a) With the aid of diagrams, identify the key features of a pot (batch) still. [8]
b) Describe a triple pot (batch) distillation system and its operation. [6]
c) Identify the differences between a spirit produced on the above system and a spirit
produced on a double distilled system. [6]

Most candidates identified the main features of a pot still, although the quality of diagrams varied
widely. The best answers included safety and monitoring equipment and gave more detail.

Marks were awarded for any workable triple-distillation system. Good answers described the
recycling of condensates with appropriate alcohol strengths, cut points, and volumes.

Most candidates understood that further rectification generally gives a lighter spirit with a higher
strength, and the best answers included increased copper contact, specific compounds, and storage
conditions in receivers.

Question 4

Discuss the differences amongst species of oak used in the production of casks and the impact of
each oak species on spirit character during maturation. [20]

Detail different oak sources available and how both species and geographic origin impacts oak
structure. Demonstrate a knowledge of varying chemical compositions and the impact on spirit
character. Explain why oak is suited for cask production and include the need for availability and cost
considerations.

All candidates demonstrated a knowledge of the most common species of oak (American versus
European) and how source impacts oak structure, composition, and difference in the maturing spirit.
Specifics on chemical composition variations, extraction and flavour impact on the spirit were
limited, however.

Very few references were made to other, less common oak options.

Question 5

a) Explain how lyne arm design impacts spirit character [6].

b) Describe in detail an appropriate sensory programme to identify whether a change in lyne
arm design significantly impacts spirit character. [14]

Explain how lyne arm angle impacts spirit character with reference to amount of reflux and copper
contact. Demonstrate an understanding of sensory tests including when to apply each type
(difference vs descriptive) and explain the considerations that need to be made in setting up a
sensory suite and study including panellists, equipment, and environment.

The majority of candidates understood how the angle of lyne arm influences reflux and, in turn,
spirit character. Few candidates explained the specifics however on how increased reflux correlates
with an increase in more volatile constituents in the final spirit.

Although most candidates successfully identified the type of test best suited to this scenario the
level of detail with regards to the setup of sensory programme varied greatly.

40
Question 6

a) Explain why a Quality System is important in a distillery and describe the key components.
[10]
b) Define the term Critical Control Point and explain why it is important. [2]
c) Give two examples of CCPs found in a distillery, why they were identified, and describe
how these can be effectively managed. [8]

There were some very good answers to part 'a'. Most candidates understood the benefits of a
Quality Management System and the described key components well.

While most candidates knew what a CCP is and why it is important, others failed to identify it as the
final step at which a hazard can be reduced or removed.

This, and incorrectly identifying quality control points as critical control points led to a less well-
answered part 'c', and few marks were awarded to candidates who referenced raw materials as a
CCP, as they should be picked up in the pre-requisite programme.

41
Module 3: Process and Packaging Technology
Section A: Short Answer Questions

Better candidates covered the breadth of the paper displaying a good overall knowledge of the
syllabus. Many less successful candidates avoided all calculations and failed to answer several
questions. At this stage of development in order to display competency it is expected that
candidates are familiar with general physical laws and technical wording. By avoiding several
questions, candidates fail to demonstrate this and this lack of depth of knowledge is demonstrated
in their Long Answer Question performance.

Section B: Long Answer Questions

Question 1

a) Describe the cost benefit hierarchy for achieving water savings. [8]
b) Explain how the cost benefit hierarchy can be used to provide a structured approach to a
water use efficiency strategy. [12]

A good answer would display knowledge of technical organisational management and focus on
water control through reduction policies, reuse and recycling combined with good design or well
proven alterations to existing designs. The ability to describe the concept of a mass balance and
subsequent modelling of methods to reduce waste and improve water management was displayed
in the better answers to the second section of this question.

Question 2

a) Identify and define the types of mechanical energy that exist in a fluid within a tank or
pipe system. [3]
b) An enclosed hot water tank is filled to a height of 4 m with water at a temperature of 70°C.
The pressure in the head space is 0.2 bar g. The 50 mm diameter outlet from the bottom of
the tank is closed off by a butterfly valve. If this valve was suddenly opened to allow the
contents of the tank to discharge to the atmosphere, calculate stating all assumption, the
initial discharge velocity of water from the tank. If the discharge outlet was increased to
100 mm what effect would that have on the initial discharge velocity? Explain why and
show your reasoning.

DATA Density of water at 70°C = 978 kg m-3

Gravitational acceleration g = 9.81 m s-2 1 bar = 105 Pa [9]
c) Hot liquor tanks can be susceptible to stress corrosion cracking. Describe this type of
corrosion, why it might occur in the tank presented above and how it can be prevented.
[8]

Question attempted by 16 candidates. Only 2 candidates received full marks for Section a) as the
definition of the types of mechanical energy were not fully given. 3 types of mechanical energy,
pressure, kinetic & potential; with definitions were required.

Only 2 candidates achieved a pass mark in Section b). The Bernoulli equation was not always stated
in the required form and the main assumptions i.e. that the fluid velocity in the tank and the effect
of friction are both negligible, were not given. Increasing pipe diameter by a factor of 2, reduces
velocity by a factor 4.

42
Generally Section c) was answered quite well. The main factors around the presence of chlorides,
PVC insulation and residual welding stress were frequently mentioned. SCC in SS is caused by heat,
presence of chlorides and internal stress. Use more resistant SS and glass wool insulation.

Question 3

a) The diagram shows a centrifugal pump connected to the discharge from an atmospheric
tank containing water at 80°C. The height or static head between the low-level alarm
position and the pump suction is 2m. [8].

Three pumps are being considered; all have identical capacities which meet the design for
the overall head required. The only difference is the NPSH required values obtained from
the pump curves, which are 12m, 9m and 5m. Considering the following data, which pump
should be selected and explain why this is the correct choice.
• Atmospheric head 10m
• Suction side friction loss 1m
• Static suction head 2m
• Water vapour pressure at 80°C 4.8m
b) Discuss the pumping characteristic differences between a positive displacement pump and
a centrifugal pump, use graphs to complement your answers. Provide examples of typical
distillery applications for each type with reasons given for a particular pump type’s
suitability. [6]
c) The pumping rate for a centrifugal pump is below design specifications, the pump has
been checked with no faults found, the suction pipework has no restrictions and it
conforms to good engineering practice. Consider the discharge pipework up to a receiving
vessel and prepare a troubleshooting checklist, including inspections, if necessary, to
improve the pumping performance. [6]

Question attempted by 11 candidates. 3 candidates achieved a pass mark for Section a), often the
benefit from atmospheric pressure in the tank was omitted as NPSH uses absolute pressure,
although some candidates did mention the adverse impact on NPSH of hot fluid being pumped. 7
candidates achieved a pass mark for Section b) and 5 candidates achieved a pass mark for Section c)
Both these sections presented an opportunity to apply operational experience regarding pump
selection and how apparent poor pump performance can be investigated. Hence qualitative answers
were given.

43
a) The calculation required is : Atmospheric head – Suction side friction loss + Static suction head –
Vapour pressure = NPSH available. The calculation gives a value of 6.2m for NPSH available. To avoid
cavitation NPSH available must be greater than NPSH required. This means that the pump selected
is the one with the NPSH required value of 5m. A brief reason for avoiding cavitation i.e. pump
damage / reliability / noise, would be required for a complete answer.

b) A positive displacement pump only pumps at a required capacity dependent on its’ speed and not
the discharge head. For a centrifugal pump higher discharge heads will reduce flow. Positive
displacement pumps can be used for viscous fluids such as pot ale syrup, but they require over-
pressure protection, relief re-circulating valve or pressure switch to stop pump. Centrifugal pumps
can pump against a closed valve, but after a period will overheat, this is hazardous if spirit is being
pumped.

c) The answer to this should involve more than listing possible obstructions, e.g. closed valves, non-
return valves, etc. It should also explore pipe diameter, material of construction, pipe length and
potential high pressure issues within the receiving vessel. Type and number of bends and potential
for air-locking.

Question 4

a) Cold water at 15°C is heated to 85°C in a hot water tank by means of a steam coil
immersed in the water at the bottom of the tank. The combined (empty) tank and steam
coil weigh 1000 kg and are made of 304 stainless steel with a specific heat of 1.8 kJ kg-1 K-1 .
Using the table below for water and steam properties data, calculate the amount of
energy required to heat 200 hL of water from 15°C to 85°C assuming the tank is well
insulated and there are negligible thermal losses to the environment. [10]
Specific Specific Specific
Saturation Density Specific Heat Enthalpy Enthalpy of Enthalpy
Pressure
Temperature of Water of Water (cp) of Water Evaporation of Steam
(hf) (hfg) (hg)
kPa
°C (kN m-²) kg m-3 kJ kg-1 K-1 kJ kg-1 kJ kg-1 kJ kg-1
absolute
15 1.7 999 4.18 63 2466 2529
85 58 968 4.20 356 2296 2652
100 101 958 4.25 419 2257 2676
120 199 943 4.27 504 2202 2706

b) If the steam feeding the heating tube is at 1 bar gauge pressure and has a dryness fraction
of 90%, estimate the amount of steam required to perform this heating task. [6]
c) Without adding more heat transfer media to the hot liquor tank, how can the rate of
heating the water be increased? Explain the rationale behind this approach. [4]

Question attempted by 11 candidates. Full marks for Section a) were gained by 4 candidates out of
the total of 7 candidates that passed. Some candidates did not calculate the mass of water correctly
or properly presented the equation to calculate Q. 5 candidates passed Section b), the proper use of
the dryness fraction in determining the steam's specific enthalpy was a common error. In Section c),
tank mixing was frequently given as one improvement to improve heat transfer.

44
Question 5

a) Explain the following terms for a feedback process control loop. [7]
i. Set point
ii. Error
iii. Response time
iv. Rise time
v. Overshoot
b) [13]
i. For a heat exchanger used to heat water from 20°C to 80°C using steam, draw
feedback and feedforward control diagrams. Describe the control philosophy and
provide the advantages and disadvantages of each system.
ii. What type of control could be employed to reduce the impact of variations in
steam pressure on the temperature of the water leaving the heat exchanger?
Describe with the aid of a diagram how the recommended control operates.

Control systems are a regular subject and the better answers provided good clear diagrams regards
the main types of instrument control. There is no reason to squeeze such diagrams into a limited
space which many candidates did. The better answers used specific terminology such as response
time , set point and overshoot. and clearly stated the circumstances that caused such conditions in
the different control types, backed up with good practical examples pertinent to a distillery set up.

Question 6

Describe the operation of a high-speed bottle rinser/filler/capper and the processes which need to
be in place to ensure product quality and minimal product losses prior to secondary packaging.
[20]

This question was focused on the controls and management of a rinser , filler capper. Many
candidates focused on the overall controls of a complete bottling line, demonstrating the
importance of taking time to read and understand the question fully. The key to this question was an
understanding of the controls and quality requirements of such equipment in respect to services,
product, materials. Product feed and returns via decant , glass breakage procedures, CCP points,
filter management and fill level controls were described only in the better answered papers.

45
Diploma in Packaging
Module 1: Packaging Operations I
Section A: Short Answer Questions

34 Candidates responded to the short answer questions for this unit. Of the 248 questions marked,
20 questions were not answered (8.06%). Some areas covered and responses were : Materials
Requirement Planning – weaker responses did not table the correct objective of MRP. Generally
good response to the principal performance measures for an individual machine performance test
on a pack line. Consider strategic line design factors when designing bottle conveyor systems and
candidates must understand forward and backward scheduling.

Section B: Long Answer Questions

Question 1

a) Using a table, explain the function and basic properties of primary, secondary, and tertiary
materials and give two examples of each type. [9]
b) Describe six technical functions of packaging materials. [6]
c) Describe five marketing functions of packaging materials. [5]

a) Primary function - the pack cannot be sold without these, contains the liquid, and preserves
product integrity and meets legislation e.g. Can / end / bottle / label / keg / cask / tut / shive /
closure.

Secondary function - Collation of primary pack into a saleable format - provides easy / strong unit for
consumer to transport e.g. Tray / hi-cone / multi-packs / cases / film / crate / green-grip.

Tertiary function - Protect finished product and support transportation & storage. Can include UV
protection if stated - provides secure transport format & theft minimisation e.g. Pallet / stretch-wrap
/ locator board / tray & shrink is covering secondary packaging.

b) Technical - Containment, protection, preservation, measurement, dispensing, storage, legal

compliance, lowest cost, dating / coding information . Need to add in items with descriptions.

c) Marketing - Communication, display, information, promotion, selling, branding / brand

identification. Need to add in items with descriptions.

Question 2

a) Draw a single graph with fully labelled axes which shows each of the following: [6]
i. The temperature change across the zones of a tunnel pasteuriser
ii. The internal temperature of the can at the cold spot
iii. The accumulation of PU's as the can progresses through the pasteuriser.
b) Explain what is happening in each of the zones of the pasteuriser during normal operation.
[8]
c) Explain the impact if the normal pasteurisation process described in part (b) is not
followed. [6]

A total of 27 candidates answered this question of which 9 failed to achieve a score of 50% or
greater. The range was between 5 and 18.5 marks out of 20.

46
Section a): Candidates in general had a reasonable idea of what a PU graph should look like.
Common issues were the “cold spot” temperature being colder than the compartment temperature
on the cooling side, tank temperatures not stepped and axis naming.

Section b): Most candidates simply described the process that the product went through, the
machine process was not that well-articulated and generic words like “zone regeneration” were
often used. When it came to the superheat and pasteurising zones very little was discussed from a
machine perspective.

Section c): Most of the answers dealt with the quality implications of the product and the candidates
that scored higher dealt with the machine and material aspects related to the question.

Candidates that achieved a high mark were able to detail the workings of the pasteuriser in more
detail than simply describing the flow of the product through the machine.

Candidates referred to bottles where the question asked was for cans which suggests a lack of
concentration when answering the question.

Question 3

a) With the aid of a diagram(s) label the components of a stainless steel keg and describe the
materials used in the manufacturing process. [11]
b) Explain the advantages that stainless steel kegs have over aluminium ones. [5]
c) Give four advantages and four disadvantages of steel kegs compared to one trip plastic
kegs. [4]

a) Drawing to include Chimes, neck, spear, coupling, handle, dimple, brewers' name, Legal
declarations (pressures etc). A keg consists of 2 deep drawn half pressings circles made of AISI 304
(Chrome - nickel 18/8) Stainless steel material gauge 1.5 mm. 2 halves welded with Tungsten Inert
Gas (TIG) welds which ensures no undesired contamination. Chimes made from flat sheet steel that
are Metal Inert Gas (MIG) welded to the vessel for rigidity. The press clamps the disc between 2
plates Pressure plate & blank holder and the forming tool (punch). The punch draws the steel
through the die and in so doing stretches the steel to improve it strength. Dimple is formed to give
strength. Chimes made of 1.7-2.0 mm steel and are rolled, stamped, and welded. Keg is
pickled/passivated. Pressure tested to 90 psi 6.3 bar.

b) The key points were : Strength / cast aluminium can crack, Lining required in Aluminium kegs not
in SS kegs, Lining deteriorates in Ali kegs, Aluminium thickness ~ 3.6 mm compared to 1.5 mm for SS,
Stainless cheaper, Theft-Aluminium can be smelted down, SS kegs can be sheathed in polyurethane
to reduce noise, SS can be used for soft drinks at higher sterilisation temps and pressures, SS kegs
are more puncture resistant, Al can produce sulphury flavours when in direct contact with beer, SS
kegs have a longer lifespan.

c) Strong and Robust / can puncture, Environmental as multi use / not easily recycled, Expensive to
apply marketing / plastic cheaper, some specialist spears required on plastic, Cheaper, Lighter,
Cheaper marketing opportunities, Quieter to move around, Visibility of level.

47
Question 4

A well designed glass packaging line is required to deliver sustained levels of high performance.
Briefly discuss the key aspects of plant design and operation that should be considered to achieve
these high levels in the areas of:

• Soft container handling

• Reduced waste and breakage
• Low noise levels and staff safety
• Improved line efficiency and productivity [20]

21 Candidates answered this question, average scores were 7.7 marks out of 20 marks, with the
highest score of 13 marks, and lowest score of 1 mark. The majority of candidates did not respond
well to this question, and, in some instances they appeared to run out of time where this question
had been answered last.

The relatively higher scoring candidates (only three) provided brief summaries by area/Design
Criteria, but not much detail in terms of targets, measures and strategic design aspects by respective
area.

The question is aimed at determining the Candidates understanding of how the application of the
key design criteria and considerations should achieve optimum performance.

• Pressure less/ Soft container handling – container design, container protection, container handling
including both on and off-line – warehousing, transport/distribution, secondary and tertiary packing.
Line and equipment design considerations/aspects for soft container handling – controls and
automation, profiles – line and machines, conveyors, combiners, and accumulation.

• Reduced waste and breakage – key waste forms, typical measures and targets, key container,
equipment and line design factors and criteria for waste prevention – R.R.+R concepts.
Beverage/beer container population management, raw materials constituents , container
manufacturing standards and specifications, and related environmental requirements /standards.

• Low noise levels and staff safety – typical targets and parameters, risk analysis and evaluation,
measures and focus areas, protection and prevention, safety procedures, lockout systems, staff
training, building and plant designs for noise reduction (acoustics), demarcation and identification of
hazards and safety risk areas.

• Improved efficiency and productivity – speed losses, defect losses, waste reduction, key
operational performance targets, measures, and indicators. Organisation design - Manning, training,
and skilling. Performance monitoring/ tracking and performance improvement - key problem solving
processes including equipment, and, line design reviews, and plant performance evaluation. Plant
maintenance strategies and effectiveness -measures, maintenance systems and procedures.

48
Question 5

Consider a non-returnable high speed packaging line producing printed shrinkfilm 6 packs into
trays and cartons. For the three machines listed below, discuss the following aspects:-

• The input material(s) to be used in the process, their properties and financial benefits.
• The key principles of the machine operation
• The key quality measures which must be in place to ensure a robust pack to the consumer.
a) Shrinkwrapper [7]
b) Carton/Tray Former [7]
c) Rotary Stretch Wrapper [6]

A total of 11 candidates answered this question of which 4 failed to achieve a score of 50% or
greater.

The range was between 5 and 15.5 marks.

MATERIALS - Candidates in general did not detail the financial aspects of the materials well. Some
students described how the substrates were made and not their properties. Examples for a
carton/tray former would be : Carton or tray printed using litho or flexo printing but flexo most
common. Hot resin to be used at +-180 deg C for bonding. Hot resin open time to be as short as
possible to ensure proper bonding and fibre tear accruing on board. Board glue flaps not to be
varnish for proper adhesion. No Varnish on underside of carton for slip when palletised. Board inner,
outer, and fluting to be virgin or recycled paper decision to be based on transport/humidity
conditions and pack stability. Fluting type (B,C,E,etc.) to be based on quality of artwork, and strength
required of pack. Board print and number of colours contribute to additional costs. Tray/carton
material type and surface finish. Clay coated board visas plain board affects costs and slip of pack.

OPERATION - Candidates generally faired best in this section with the stretchwrapper being the one
that was the least well answered. Examples for a shrinkwrapper operation would be : Heat seal –
two rolls of film, no/minimal print allowed, slow speed line. Lap seal – single roll, indexed therefore
registered print, high speed line. Pack transferred through a tunnel at high temperature, the weld is
caused by the heat of the belt and the weight of the containers on the film. Chain lube quantity on
infeed to be sufficiently low to ensure minimal transfer to the pack. (or a dry lube)

QUALITY - Candidates that described the checks performed specific to the materials used by the
machine. Examples for a stretchwrapper would be : Check visually stretchfilm stretch for tightness of
pack. Check visually percentage overlap. Check visually start and end points of wrapping. Weigh
stretch used. Settings.

49
Question 6

a) List the six major operational loss categories found on a packaging line. Identify what
these are, and how they are categorised. [6]
b) Briefly outline how the categories listed in Part (a) are monitored, reported, and acted
upon to determine respective poor performance levels by loss factor. [4]
c) Specific to the wet glue labelling process, tabulate the respective key indicators/standards
applied in each of the six loss categories for a glass bottle. These need to cover how the
process is measured, monitored, and managed to achieve optimum labelled bottle quality.
[10]

24 Candidates answered this question, average scores were 9.9 marks out of 20, with the highest
score of 18 marks, and lowest score of 2.5 marks. For part a) A generally good response to this part
of the question, where most candidates were able to list the six major operational loss categories
found on a packaging line. However, a mixed response to how these are categorised and applied. For
part b) Mixed response to this part of the question, with the higher scoring responses clear
mentioning key performance measurement and monitoring aspects and how these were measured
and managed. The weaker candidates mainly listed one or two action items without explanation or
validation. For part c) the majority of candidates did not provide adequate responses. Some
candidates appeared to have run out of time and did not answer Parts b) or/and c)of the question.
While those that did respond did not demonstrate a good understanding of the measures, indicators
and standards used to monitor and manage labelling performance at the labelling station. Very few
provided plausible examples of indicators used such as - labelled and filled bottle performance
measures and indicators in the areas of label application, container dating, crowning/seal ability
performance [Taptone], and glue and label usage.

50
Module 2: Packaging Operations II
Section A: Short Answer Questions

Overall the majority of the questions on kegging, warehousing and dispense were well answered,
with three notable exceptions:- One question tested the candidate’s knowledge on the reasoning
behind torque testing the spear on a keg, and this was not well understood. Here the examiner was
looking for both the personnel safety and product integrity to be clearly explained in the answer.
Candidates were also asked to briefly describe the filling process of a stainless steel returnable keg.
Here many candidates did not provide enough details of the filling process e.g. slow & fast fill, and a
number instead responded on the cleaning process. The final challenge for candidates appeared to
be on describing the reasons for the use of light guards on automated palletisers. Here the
examiners were again looking for both personnel safety and also the ability to have continuous
forklift truck interaction with the line.

Section B: Long Answer Questions

Question 1

a) Provide five examples of controlled documents for a pack line/operation, and briefly
explain their respective purpose and use. [10]
b) Using the five examples discussed above, provide a brief explanation of how document
control, format and amendments/changes are administered, managed, and audited. [10]

Operations and Quality Management procedures, Performance measurement procedures,

Waste/loss and efficiency calculations, Training/skills development and change management
procedures, Set-up/change over procedures, Plant performance review and acceptance procedure,
Capital investment policies and procedures, Plant maintenance procedures etc.

Look for evidence of Candidates’ understanding of purpose, use and application of examples tabled.
For example: Maintenance procedure for setting up a can seamer post a major overhaul –
adjustment and setting of seaming rolls, tolerances and performance measures,- how set, measured
and tested.

Check for candidate’s understanding of document control procedures and how these are managed,
tracked, and monitored -Administration Processes: document revisions, numbering, issue of
new/revised and replacement of old/obsolete documents, circulation and document
holders/manuals updated, controlled distribution list and respective responsibilities to authorise and
manage (line management accountabilities versus Q.A./independent function audits/assurance.)

Candidate to demonstrate understanding of processes and procedures for documentation control

and management. Documentation Management processes: Quality Policy covering Documentation
management. Accountabilities - management teams/committees, defined strategic focus aspects,
progress review and monitoring procedures and frequencies . Independent reviews, audits, and
compliance processes.

51
Question 2

a) An ISO standard 9001:2008 (updated in 2015) sets out the criteria for a Quality
Management System and is based on a set of eight Quality Management Principles. List
these eight principles. [4]
b) Briefly explain how each of these are applied and used in packaging. (Provide actual
examples by principle.) [16]

Customer focus, leadership, involvement of people, process approach, systemic approach to

management, continual improvement, factual approach to decision making, mutually beneficial
supplier relationships.

Looking for evidence of candidate’s understanding of each of the principles, how applied in his/her
working environment, with specific examples of actual application and/or key
deliverables/outcomes.

Question 3

a) Discuss the six major influences which determine overall plant performance. [12]
b) Explain eight measures of overall plant performance. [8]

Materials: Supply chain management including w/house ops; tight product specs; QA throughout;
Value Eng.

Planning: Forecasting; monthly, weekly, daily planning; line changeovers; maintenance slots .

Plant performance: O.E.E. (all elements); operating costs (including maintenance)

Inherent plant reliability: Life cycle costing; line design; plant selection; HACCP; technology risk
assessment; project management; technical support

Maintenance (including cleaning): Strategy; organisation; ways of working; legislative compliance;

CMMS systems; measuring maintenance effectiveness.

Skills and motivation of operators and technicians: Skills needs analysis; training (technical,
operational); organisation; team working.

Part b was looking for candidates to show their depth of understanding around measures of overall
plant performance.

Question 4

a) With the aid of a table, demonstrate how individual areas of cost and their contributing
elements are built into an annual fixed cost budget (no actual cost figures are required -
merely headings). [14]
b) How is monthly and year-to-date fixed cost performance monitored and reported? [6]

Looking for candidates to be able to identify, explain and provide examples of costs built into an
annual fixed cost budget. Such as payroll costs, controllable costs, operational costs, etc.

52
Question 5

a) Briefly define the following four terms and state what units they are measured in: [4]
a. Filling rate
b. Line efficiency
c. Manned time
d. Planned downtime
b) Clearly stating your assumptions and rationale for the four terms defined in part (a), draw
the V-graph for a lane based keg filler which produces a total of 1mhl across three
different products using 50 litre kegs and running on a 3 shift 5 day operation. Show all
calculations used. [12]
c) If a 10% uplift in volume was required, and additional production shifts were not possible,
list four areas you could focus on and explain how each of these could help deliver the
extra production. [4]

For the first part these standard definitions should be routine for candidates and the units of
measurement should also be commonplace. This was meant to help guide candidates into the
structure for part (b) of the question.

For the second part of the question the candidates needed to start by defining the assumptions for
the keg line operation in order to allow them to start the calculations requested. The candidate had
freedom to define sensible assumptions for elements such as: maintenance, CIP, changeover
routine, annual overhauls, holiday management etc. As long as these were logical assumptions then
the candidate could proceed into the calculations.

Within this section most candidates managed the definitions, and generally made the calculations
work - however there were also common mistakes where candidates forgot to divide the production
volume to accommodate the 50 litre keg size. Key to the calculations is also to sense check whether
the number of kegs per hour looks & feels right - in some cases this simple sense check would have
given the candidate the opportunity to sense check their calculations.

To produce the V-graph, candidates needed to then use their calculations to then detail their
assumptions for uprating the machines either side of the keg filler. A sensible approach to either a
5% or 10% uplift on the machines was acceptable.

Also within the V-graph the candidates should have included the axes for the graph - with either
keg/hr or hl/hr as the main units.

For the final part of the question the areas which could be considered for increasing volume allowed
for a flexible approach. This could include increasing the machine efficiency, changing the
maintenance, planning or CIP regime - but each element should have included a brief calculation to
help verify the additional volume could be delivered.

Overall the majority of candidates had a good approach to the question, although many appeared
rushed - as the V-graphs provided were often rushed and badly drawn. Similarly, the final section of
the question was not well answered in general with a significant number of candidates not providing
any back up rationale for the elements suggested.

53
Question 6

a) Describe the different machine checks that must be made at the restart of production of a
keg filling line after it has been on an annual maintenance break, which included a full
switch off of the electricity supply. Include in the answer details of any other related
documentation which should form part of the handover process. [10]
b) Describe the different process, quality and overall line operational checks that must be
made once the above machine checks have been completed. [10]

The first part of this question was designed to test the candidate's understanding of how to restart a
production line after a major overhaul and power outage.

These key checks should be focused on safety, temperatures, and basic operations across each of
the machines. The simplest option was for the candidate to describe the checks around the line to
ensure machines are correctly de-isolated, safety equipment is operating correctly and that all
elements of the line have been brought up to the correct temperature e.g. external washer, CIP set,
pasteuriser etc.

The final checks which needed to be explained here is to ensure that all off the overhaul
documentation had been correctly completed e.g. permits fully signed off, certification in place
(where needed) and that line monitoring documentation has been set up for the start-up shift, as
well as preparing the first materials for the production preparations.

The second part of the question was designed to be much more operationally focused and should
have allowed the candidates to demonstrate their knowledge of all of the start-up checks to be
performed.

From an operational perspective a good answer would have included a walk through the line to
check how each machine was operating, including checking on speeds, temperatures, operating
pressures, gauge checks etc. This should allow the candidate to have the confidence to know that
the production was starting up safely and in a controlled manner.

In addition to the line walk around, the candidates should also have been able to describe the
different analytical and micro checks required on start up to validate beer quality, pasteurisation,
and final package specifications.

Overall this question was not well answered by the majority of candidates. Answers were often not
split into the pre-start and post-start checks and as such many candidates appeared to get
themselves lost in the descriptions required. Some answers provided were far too general for the
marks on offer, and some focused only on a single aspect of the process e.g. beer quality. A few,
better, candidates were able to show where they had clearly spent time out on the production plant
and had been involved in the re-start activities at a hands on level.

54
Module 3: Process and Packaging Technology
Section A: Short Answer Questions

The paper consists of 30 questions worth 40 marks which cover the whole of the syllabus.

Section B: Long Answer Questions

Question 1

a) Describe the cost benefit hierarchy for achieving water savings. [8]
b) Explain how the cost benefit hierarchy can be used to provide a structured approach to a
water use efficiency strategy.

A good answer would display knowledge of technical organisational management and focus on
water control through reduction policies, reuse and recycling combined with good design or well
proven alterations to existing designs. The ability to describe the concept of a mass balance and
subsequent modelling of methods to reduce waste and improve water management was displayed
in the better answers to the second section of this question.

Question 2

a) Identify and define the types of mechanical energy that exist in a fluid within a tank or
pipe system.
b) An enclosed hot water tank is filled to a height of 4 m with water at a temperature of 70°C.
The pressure in the head space is 0.2 bar g. The 50 mm diameter outlet from the bottom of
the tank is closed off by a butterfly valve. If this valve was suddenly opened to allow the
contents of the tank to discharge to the atmosphere, calculate stating all assumption, the
initial discharge velocity of water from the tank.

If the discharge outlet was increased to 100 mm what effect would that have on the initial
discharge velocity? Explain why and show your reasoning.

DATA
Density of water at 70°C = 978 kg m-3
Gravitational acceleration g = 9.81 m s-2
1 bar = 105 Pa
c) Hot liquor tanks can be susceptible to stress corrosion cracking. Describe this type of
corrosion, why it might occur in the tank presented above and how it can be prevented.

a) Pressure Energy required to introduce a fluid , Potential Energy associated with its position,
Kinetic Energy associated with velocity

b) Use of Bernoulli equation , simplify by using assumptions - Velocity in tank is negligible, Pressure
head is 1 bar gauge, Hydrostatic head is 4 m.

For the final part use the continuity equation. Correct use of orifice ID’s, squaring diameters and
taking their ratio to achieve the correct answer of a ¼ reduction in fluid velocity.

c) Stress corrosion cracking is caused by Heat, Corrosion, Stress

Reasons- Use of 304 which has low resistance, Chlorides in the water, Use of PVC insulation which
contains chlorines, Stress when tank cycles between hot and cold or stress from welding.

55
Prevention - deionised water, use 304L or 316 grade SS, use glass wool insulation instead of PVC,
direct injection of steam.

An even distribution of marks were awarded across parts a, b, and c. Most candidates remembered
at least 2 types of energy and provided a definition. Typically candidates who provided the full
Bernoulli equation went on to achieve good marks. Candidates are reminded to show equations and
working out to achieve maximum marks.

Whilst candidates could identify the causes of Stress corrosion they did not always explain the
reasons why and how to prevent it.

Question 3

a) State Henry’s law as it applies to carbon dioxide (CO2) in beer, explain the relationship it
describes, and discuss what factors affect this relationship.
b) One common approach to quantifying the CO2 concentration in packaged beer is to
measure the temperature and pressure of the gas in the headspace of the package. Explain
how this headspace measurement can be used to estimate by inference the concentration
of CO2 within the beer.
c) Discuss the primary problem associated with measuring the CO2 concentration in
packaged beer when the beer holds a gas mixture containing both nitrogen and carbon
dioxide and explain how this problem is overcome or accounted for.

Henry’s Law: Pco2 = H xco2. Pco2 = partial pressure of CO2 in the gas phase (headspace) H = Henry’s
coefficient, xco2 = molar fraction of CO2 in the liquid phase

Henry’s law describes the relationship between CO2 concentrations in the gas and liquid phases.
Temperature, Gas Type and Beer Composition are some of the factors that affect this relationship.

Henry’s Law is employed when measuring the headspace CO2 concentration in packaged beer.

With headspace temperature and pressure, we can use Henry’s Law to estimate the liquid-side CO2
concentration.

When beer contains CO2 and Nitrogen, headspace concentration (partial pressure) of each must be
known before CO2 and Nitrogen concentrations can be calculated.

A common approach with a Zahm device is to run the headspace gasses through a buret filled with
concentrated sodium hydroxide. Alternatively, use an Anton Paar Cbox QC or CarboQC, the
measurement includes pressure and temperature of gas in the beer following multiple controlled
volume expansions.

The majority of Candidates attained good marks by stating Henry's law and providing a description
of each element of the equation. Most candidates remembered that temperature affected the
relationship but few stated Beer composition and gas type. The methodologies needed when beer
contains CO2 and Nitrogen were less well known. For maximum marks, a description of the
instrument and working principles were required.

56
Question 4

a) Define hygienic design. [3]

b) What are the main objectives of hygienic design? [5]
c) Discuss the design considerations to ensure the beer storage vessel, delivery pipework and
valves in a bright beer delivery system are cleanable.

a) Hygienic design is the design, construction, and installation of equipment in such a way that it
does not adversely affect food safety or quality.

b) To ensure: Ease of equipment cleanability, Prevention of microorganisms and pests, Prevention of

contamination from foreign particles such as dirt, broken off pieces of equipment, metal filings or
anything else which may be lurking in your facility, Prevention from chemical contamination either
from residual cleaning chemicals not adequately flushed from equipment or leaked into product
lines, Compatibility with other requirements (such as safety standards or laws).

c) Vessel: The vessel needs to drain completely thus should have a bottom outlet , all pipelines into
the tank must be designed to be cleanable as either part of the tank or part of the line, any sight
glasses should be cleaned with the tank, Manholes should be raised.

Pipework: Hygienic material is used, Internal smoothness, Pipe diameter - the larger the diameter of
a pipe, the higher the flow rate of cleaning fluid that will be required to maintain the correct
turbulence, Drainability - pipes should be sloped to allow for draining, adequate drainage options
have to be built in, pipe runs should be well supported to prevent sagging, equipment such as
gauges and instruments should be close coupled (close coupled means that the length of the pipe
used to mount the equipment should be shorter than one pipe diameter), Piping setup has to be
free of misalignment or ovality (meaning the pipes must be round), Welded joints should be butt-
welded (meaning face to face and not overlapping) and carried out to the appropriate standard

Valves: No cavities or voids inside the valve, Smooth flow path without obstructions, Connections
flush with piping, Ability to clean without removing, Hygienic metal, seal, and gasket materials.

57
Question 5

a) Cold water at 15°C is heated to 85°C in a hot water tank by means of a steam coil
immersed in the water at the bottom of the tank. The combined (empty) tank and steam
coil weigh 1000 kg and are made of 304 stainless steel with a specific heat of 1.8 kJ kg-1 K-1 .
Using the table below for water and steam properties data, calculate the amount of
energy required to heat 200 hL of water from 15°C to 85°C assuming the tank is well
insulated and there are negligible thermal losses to the environment. [10]
Specific Specific Specific
Saturation Density Specific Heat Enthalpy Enthalpy of Enthalpy
Pressure
Temperature of Water of Water (cp) of Water Evaporation of Steam
(hf) (hfg) (hg)
kPa
°C (kN m-²) kg m-3 kJ kg-1 K-1 kJ kg-1 kJ kg-1 kJ kg-1
absolute
15 1.7 999 4.18 63 2466 2529
85 58 968 4.20 356 2296 2652
100 101 958 4.25 419 2257 2676
120 199 943 4.27 504 2202 2706

b) If the steam feeding the heating tube is at 1 bar gauge pressure and has a dryness fraction
of 90%, estimate the amount of steam required to perform this heating task. [6]
c) Without adding more heat transfer media to the hot liquor tank, how can the rate of
heating the water be increased? Explain the rationale behind this approach. [4]

Less than half of the candidates chose to answer this question but, with an average score of 12.5,
the majority of those that did choose to answer scored well on it.

Part a and b were generally answered well with candidates demonstrating their ability to calculate
enthalpic gain of the tank using Q = m Cp ΔT.

Part c was asking candidates for methods of increasing the heating rate without increasing heat
transfer area, such as mixing during heating or increasing steam pressure.

58
Question 6

a) Explain the following terms for a feedback process control loop. [7]
i. Set point
ii. Error
iii. Response time
iv. Rise time
v. Overshoot
b) [13]
i. For a heat exchanger used to heat water from 20°C to 80°C using steam, draw
feedback and feedforward control diagrams. Describe the control philosophy and
provide the advantages and disadvantages of each system.
ii. What type of control could be employed to reduce the impact of variations in
steam pressure on the temperature of the water leaving the heat exchanger?
Describe with the aid of a diagram how the recommended control operates.

This question was popular amongst candidates with the majority choosing to answer and an average
score of 14 marks. Part a being answered well before part b asking for diagrams and then showing
an understanding of the systems specified. Examiners were looking for cascade control for b) ii) and
understanding why this would be appropriate for the situation.

59
General Certificate Exams
General Certificate in Brewing 819 General Certificate in
Distinction 14 Packaging Can (Eng.) 40
Credit 142 Credit 4
Pass 332 Pass 14
Fail 331 Fail 22

General Certificate in Brewing General Certificate in

Mainstream (Jap) 8 Packaging Keg (Eng.) 4
Pass 1 Pass 2
Fail 7 Fail 2

General Certificate in Brewing General Certificate in

Mainstream (Spa) 18 Packaging NRB (Eng.) 14
Pass 7 Credit 1
Fail 11 Pass 8
Fail 5

General Certificate in Cider

Making 5 General Certificate in
Credit 4 Packaging RB (Eng.) 34
Pass 1 Credit 2
Pass 10
Fail 22
General Certificate in
Distilling 437
Distinction 5 General Certificate in
Credit 52 Packaging Can (Jap) 3
Pass 204 Fail 3
Fail 176

General Certificate in
General Certificate in Malting Packaging Keg (Jap) 1
(Eng.) 30 Fail 1
Credit 6
Pass 12
Fail 12 General Certificate in
Packaging RB (Jap) 2
Pass 1
General Certificate in Fail 1
Packaging All Options (Eng.) 41
Credit 4
Pass 16 General Certificate in
Fail 21 Packaging Spirits (Eng.) 29
Credit 3
Pass 15
Fail 11

60
Foundation Exams
Foundation in Brewing and
Packaging - Cask Beer 10
Distinction 1
Credit 2
Pass 4
Fail 3

Foundation in Brewing and

Packaging - Chilled and Filtered
Beer 98
Distinction 36
Credit 39
Pass 20
Fail 3

Foundation in Distilling 49
Distinction 3
Credit 13
Pass 18
Fail 15

61