Answer and Solutions - JEE - Main 2023 - PH 1 - 30 01 2023 - Evening Shift 2 PDF
Answer and Solutions - JEE - Main 2023 - PH 1 - 30 01 2023 - Evening Shift 2 PDF
Evening
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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.
(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out of
10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for
correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be rounded off
to the nearest integer.
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
PHYSICS
Sol. Equivalent circuit can be drawn as
SECTION - A
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
d22
1
= 1
2 d12 2
0.2 1
= (2.4)2
2 2
2 0.2
2 =
(2.4)2 (1) E I 0,E II = 0,E III 0
= 6.9 × 10–2 mm (2) E I = 0,E II = 0,E III = 0
2. The equivalent resistance between A and B is (3) E I 0,E II = 0,E III = 0
(4) E I = 0,E II = 0,E III 0
Answer (1)
Sol.
2 1 EI 0 (inside region)
(1) (2)
3 2 EII = 0 (conducting region)
3 1 EIII 0
(3) (4)
2 3 KQ
= (r b )
Answer (1) r2
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
4. Match List I with List II: Sol. Theoretical attenuation → (IV)
List I List II Transducer → (III)
Total distance
Sol. Sol. Average speed =
Total time
8
=
4 4
+
3 5
( )( )
Y = A + AB B + AB = ( A + B ) A + B ( ) = 3.75 km/h
10. A current carrying rectangular loop PQRS is made
= AB + BA (XOR gate) of uniform wire. The length PR = QS = 5 cm and PQ
A B Y = RS = 100 cm. If ammeter current reading changes
from I to 2I, the ratio of magnetic forces per unit
0 0 0
length on the wire PQ due to wire RS in the two
( ) is
0 1 1 I 2I
1 0 1 cases respectively fPQ : fPQ
1 1 0
In the light of the above statements, choose the Here I1 & I2 are equal
correct answer from the options given below 0I 2
F = L
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 2d
explanation of A
F I2
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
FI I2 1
explanation of A = 2 =
F2I 4I 4
(3) A is false but R is true
11. For a simple harmonic motion in a mass spring
(4) A is true but R is false
system shown, the surface is frictionless. When the
Answer (1) mass of the block is 1 kg, the angular frequency is
Tcold 1. When the mass block is 2 kg, the angular
Sol. = 1 − frequency is 2. The ratio 2/1 is
Thot
Tcold = OK = 1 (max)
A is correct.
R is also correct and explains A.
9. A vehicle travels 4 km with speed of 3 km/ h and
another 4 km with speed of 5 km/h, then its average
1
speed is (1) (2) 2
2
(1) 4.00 km/h (2) 4.25 km/h
1
(3) 3.50 km/h (4) 3.75 km/h (3) 2 (4)
2
Answer (4) Answer (4)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
K 1 Sol.
Sol. =
m m
2 m1 1
= =
1 m2 2
Bi
N
Fe
N
NNe BN NLi 0 2 3 3
= + 3
Reason R : The radius R of nucleus is related to its (
4 2 10 −2
) 2
2
( )
mass number A as R = R0 A1/3, where R0 is a
= 10−7 102 3 3
constant.
In the light of the above statements, choose the = 3 3 10 −5 T
correct answer from the options given below
14. An object is allowed to fall from a height R above
(1) Both A and R are true but R is Not the correct the earth, where R is the radius of earth. Its velocity
explanation of A when it strikes the earth's surface, ignoring air
(2) A is true but R is false resistance, will be
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct gR
(1)
explanation of A 2
(4) A is false but R is true (2) 2 gR
Answer (4)
(3) gR
1
Sol. R = R0 3
A , using this (4) 2gR
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
f 1 W
Sol. K.E. per molecule = KT Intensity due to electric field =
2 40 m2
(2) 1.3° 3
(1)
(3) 4.5° 2
(4) 7.8° 9
(2)
4
Answer (3)
(3) 4
Sol. (1 – 1)A1 = (2 – 1)A2
(4) 3
(1.54 – 1)6 = (1.72 – 1)A2
Answer (2)
0.54 18 9
A2 = 6 = = = 4.5
0.72 4 2 Sol. P = 2 eVm
17. A point source of 100 W emits light with 5%
h
efficiency. At a distance of 5 m from the source, the = …(i)
intensity produced by the electric field component P1
is: 3 h
= …(ii)
1 W 2 P2
(1)
40 m2
Dividing (i) by (ii)
1 W
(2) 2 P2 v2
2 m 2 = =
3 P1 v1
1 W
(3)
20 m2 4 v2
=
9 v1
1 W
(4)
10 m2 v1 9
=
Answer (1) v 2 4
Sol. 19. A machine gun of mass 10 kg fires 20 g bullets at
the rate of 180 bullets per minute with a speed of
100 m s–1 each. The recoil velocity of the gun is
(1) 0.6 m/s
(2) 0.02 m/s
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
20 SECTION - B
180 100
= 1000 kg m/s2 Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
60
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
=6N questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
Force on gun = 6 N NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
We cannot calculate recoil velocity with the given
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.
data.
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
If we consider recoil velocity at t = 1 s, then mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
Vrecoil = u + at place designated to enter the answer.
6 21. A uniform disc of mass 0.5 kg and radius r is
=0+ 1
10 projected with velocity 18 m/s at t = 0 s on a rough
= 0.6 m/s horizontal surface. It starts off with a purely sliding
motion kinetic energy of the disc after 2 s will
20. A block of 3 kg is attached to a string whose other be_______ J (given, coefficient of friction is 0.3 and
end is attached to the wall. An unknown force F is g =10 m/s2).
applied so that the string makes an angle of 30°
with the wall. The tension T is:
(Given g = 10 ms–2)
Answer (54)
Sol. v = v0 – gt
v = 18 – 0.3 × 10 × 2 = 12 m/s
1 1 mv 2
Kinetic energy = mv 2 +
2 2 2
3 3
(1) 15 N = mv 2 = 0.5 144 J = 54 J
4 4
(2) 20 N
22. A radioactive nucleus decays by two different
(3) 10 N process. The half life of the first process is 5
(4) 25 N minutes and that of the second process is 30 s. The
effective half-life of the nucleus is calculated to be
Answer (2)
a
Sol. Drawing the FBD of the point where F is applied s. The value of a is __________.
11
Answer (300)
Sol.
eff = 1 + 2
T cos30 = 3 g ln2 ln2 ln2
= +
T = 2g = 20 N t1/2 (t1/2 )1 (t1/2 )2
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
= 300
23. A faulty thermometer reads 5°C in melting ice and
95°C in stream. The correct temperature on
absolute scale will be ___________ K when the
faulty thermometer reads 41°C.
Answer (313)
Sol. let the correct temperature be X°C
Answer (2)
X –0 41– 5
= X = 40 Sol. The circuit is a wheat stone bridge, so
100 – 0 95 – 5
63
Temperature is 273 + 40 K = 313 K 6 + 3 = 1+ 2
x 1 x
24. As shown in figure, a cuboid lies in a region with
x +1
N
electric field E = 2x 2 ˆi − 4yjˆ + 6kˆ . The magnitude
C 2( x + 1) 3
=
of charge within the cuboid is n0C. The value of n x x
is ______ (if dimension of cuboid is 1 × 2 × 3 m3). 1
x=
2
So n = 2
26. The velocity of a particle executing SHM varies with
displacement (x) as 4v2 = 50 – x2. The time period
x
of oscillation is s . The value of x is __________.
7
22
Take = 7
Answer (12)
Answer (88)
Sol. Flux through planes parallel to y-z = 2(1)2 × Area
Sol. 4v2 = 50 – x2
= 2(1)2 × 2 × 3
1
= 12 Nm2/C or v = 50 − x 2
2
Flux through planes parallel to x-z = –4(2) × Area
Comparing the above equation with v = A2 − x 2
= –4(2) × 1 × 3
1
= –24 Nm2/C = & A = 50
2
Flux through planes parallel to x-y = 0 2 1
so =
Total = 12 – 24 = –12 T 2
qenc T = 4 sec
–12 = qenc = 120
0 22
= 4 sec
7
n = 12
88
25. If the potential difference between B and D is zero, T = sec
7
1
the value of x is . The value of n is _________. so x = 88
n
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
27. In an ac generator, a rectangular coil of 100 turns 16
= Pm
each having area 14 × 10–2 m2 is rotated at 360 3
rev/min about an axis perpendicular to a uniform
magnetic field of magnitude 3.0 T. The maximum So = 4
value of the emf produced will be ___________ V.
22 29. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the intensities
Take = 7
at two points, for the path differences and [
4 3
Answer (1584)
being the wavelength of light used) are I1 and I2
Sol. = B.A respectively. If I0 denotes the intensity produced by
I +I
= BNA cost each one of the individual slits, then 1 2 = _____.
I0
−d
So Emf = = NBA sin t
dt Answer (03)
360 2 2
= 100 3 14 10−2 so I1 = 4I0 cos2
60
2 4
= 1584
I1 = 2I0
28. A body of mass 2 kg is initially at rest. It starts
moving unidirectionally under the influence of a 2
source of constant power P. Its displacement in 4 s & I2 = 4I0 cos2
2 3
1
is 2 P m . The value of will be _________.
3 I2 = I0
Answer (04) I1 + I2
So =3
Sol. P = Fv I0
vdv
m =P 30. A stone tied to 180 cm long string at its end is
dt making 28 revolutions in horizontal circle in every
v t minute. The magnitude of acceleration of stone is
m vdv = Pdt 1936 22
ms−2 . The value of x ______. Take =
0 0
x 7
mv 2
= Pt
2 Answer (125)
2P 1/2
v= t v2
m Sol. Acceleration of stone a = = 2 R
r
s 2P t 1/ 2
ds =
m 0
t dt
28 2 22
2
a= 1.8
0
60 7
2 2P 3/ 2
s= t
3 m 1936
=
125
2 2P
or s = 43/ 2
3 2 So x = 125
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 Sol. is the most stable carbocation because its
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE resonance goes up to nitrogen atom.
is correct. 33. Which of the following reaction is correct?
∆
Choose the correct answer : (1) 4LiNO3 → 2Li2 O + 2N2 O4 + O2
(Complexes) (Hybridisation) ∆
(4) 4LiNO3 → 2Li2 O + 4NO2 + O2
(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV At r = r0, radial node is formed. Thus, r0 in terms
of a0
Answer (2)
(1) r0 = 2a0 (2) r0 = 4a0
Sol. Ni ( CO )4
→ sp3
a0
(3) r0 = a0 (4) r0 =
2+ 2
Cu (NH3 )4 → dsp 2
Answer (1)
Fe (NH3 )6
2+
→ d 2sp3 Sol. For radial node Ψ2s = 0
∴ r = 2a0
2+
Fe (H2O )6 3
→ sp d 2
35. 1 L, 0.02 M solution of [Co(NH3)5SO4] Br is mixed
with 1 L, 0.02 M solution of [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4. The
32. The most stable carbocation for the following is:
resulting solution is divided into two equal parts
(X) and treated with excess of AgNO3 solution
and BaCI2 solution respectively as shown below:
1 L Solution (X) + AgNO3 solution (excess) → Y
1 L Solution (X) + BaCI2 solution (excess) → Z
The number of moles of Y and Z respectively are
(1) a (2) b
(1) 0.02, 0.02 (2) 0.01, 0.01
(3) d (4) c (3) 0.02, 0.01 (4) 0.01, 0.02
Answer (3) Answer (2)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
(3) K (4) Ca (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
Answer (1)
Sol. BeCl2 is a covalent molecule (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
So, it is soluble in organic solvents, rest are ionic
compounds. (4) A is true but R is false
List I (Mixture) List II Sol. Antihistamines not affect the secretion of acid in
(1) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II (1) (i) Fe, H+ (ii) Br2(aq) (iii) HNO2 (iv) CuBr
(2) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II (2) (i) Br2(aq) (ii) LiAIH4 (iii) H3O+
(3) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II (3) (i) Fe, H+ (ii) Br2(aq) (iii) HNO2 (iv) H3PO2
(4) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV (4) (i) Br2, Fe (ii) Fe, H+ (iii) LiAIH4
Answer (3) Answer (3)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. Boric acid is solid because of strong hydrogen
reduction. as anode.
42. Boric acid is solid, whereas BF3 is gas at room 45. KMnO4 oxidises I– in acidic and neutral/faintly
(1) Strong hydrogen bond in Boric acid (1) I2 & I2 (2) I2 & IO3−
(2) Strong covalent bond in BF3 (3) IO3− & I2 (4) IO3− & IO3−
(3) Strong van der Waal's interaction in Boric
Answer (2)
acid
Sol. MnO4– + I– → I2 + Mn2+ (acidic medium)
(4) Strong ionic bond in Boric acid
Answer (1) MnO4– + I– → IO3– + MnO2 (faintly alkaline)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
46. Decreasing order towards SN1 reaction for the
following compounds is
Sol.
(3) d > b > c > a (4) b > d > c > a (1) Slightly polluted water
Answer (4) (2) Very clean water
Sol. Rate of SN1 ∝ stability of carbocation produced (3) Highly polluted water
(4) Water has high amount of fluoride
compounds
Answer (2)
Sol. A clean water would have BOD value less than
5 ppm.
47. The correct order of pKa values for the following
50. Formulae for Nessler’s reagent is
compounds is
(1) K2HgI4 (2) HgI2
(3) KHg2I2 (4) KHgI3
Answer (1)
Sol. Nessler’s reagent is K2HgI4
SECTION - B
(1) c > a > d > b (2) b > a > d > c Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
(3) a > b > c > d (4) b > d > a > c
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
Answer (4)
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
Sol. The correct acidic order is
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30)
using the mouse andw the on-screen virtual numeric
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
51. An organic compound undergoes first order
∴ Order of pKa will be = b > d > a > c decomposition. If the time taken for the 60%
48. The Cl–Co–Cl bond angle values in a fac– decomposition is 540 s, then the time required for
[Co(NH3)3Cl3] complex is/are 90% decomposition will be is ________s.
(3) 90° (4) 90° & 120° Given : ln 10 = 2.3; log 2 = 0.3
Answer (3) Answer (1350)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. In 60% decomposition A0 = 1, At = 0.4 Given : E°X2 + |X = −2.36 V
1 A0 1 10
=k ln
= ln E°Y2 + |Y = +0.36 V
t A t 540 4
2.303RT
∴ time t0 complete 90% reaction = 0.06 V
F
1 Answer (275.00)
t= ln(10)
k
0.06 x 2+
ln(10) Sol. E=
cell E°cell − log 2+
= × 540 n y
10
ln
4 0.06 1
Ecell = (2.36 + 0.36) − log
2 10
2.3
= × 540 = 2.36 + 0.36 + 0.03
2.3 × 0.4
2.75 V
= 1350 s
x
52. A short peptide on complete hydrolysis produces 55. The graph of log vs log p for an adsorption
m
3 moles of glycine (G), two moles of leucine (L)
process is a straight line inclined at an angle of
and two moles of valine (V) per mole of peptide. 45° with intercept equal to 0.6020. The mass of
The number of peptide linkages in it are _______. gas adsorbed per unit mass of adsorbent at the
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
z×m 59. The strength of 50 volume solution of hydrogen
Sol. d = 3
a peroxide is ___________ g/L (Nearest integer).
z × 72 Given :
4=
(5 × 10 )
3
23 –8
6 × 10
Molar mass of H2O2 is 34 g mol–1
B. Increasing pressure
D. Adding more O2
E. Addition of catalyst
Answer (03.00)
Answer (03.00)
Sol. 2SO2 + O2
2SO3 ∆H = –190 kJ
Sol.
It is an exothermic reaction
will dissolve in hot NaOH solution ∴ factor B, C, D will increase the amount of SO3.
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
MATHEMATICS
= 72 a→z
62. Let f, g and h be the real valued functions defined 64. If a plane passes through the points (–1, k, 0),
of as (2, k, –1), (1, 1, 2) and is parallel to the line
x sin ( x + 1) x − 1 2y + 1 z + 1
, x0 , x –1 = = , then the value of
f (x) x , g ( x ) ( x + 1) 1 2 –1
1, x = 0
1, x = –1 k2 + 1
is
and h(x) = 2[x] – f(x), where [x] is the greatest ( k − 1)( k − 2)
integer x.
13 17
(1) (2)
Then the value of lim g ( h ( x − 1) ) is 6 5
x →1
(1) 1 (2) –1 5 6
(3) (4)
(3) sin(1) (4) 0 17 13
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. Let P (–1, k, 0), Q (2, k, –1) & R(1, 1, 2) (
Sol. b c = b 2a b − 3b b )
PR = 2iˆ + (1 − k ) jˆ + 2kˆ
2
= 0−3 b
& QR = −iˆ + (1 − k ) jˆ + 3kˆ
= −48
Normal to plane will be
67. Let R, a = iˆ + 2 jˆ − 3kˆ, b = iˆ − jˆ + 2kˆ
iˆ jˆ kˆ
2
−1
(1 − k )
(1 − k )
2 = iˆ (1 − k ) − jˆ ( 8 ) + 3kˆ (1 − k )
3
If ((a + b ) (a b )) (a − b ) = 8iˆ − 40 ˆj − 24kˆ
( ) ( )
2
If line is parallel to this we have then a + b a − b is equal to
1(1 – k) + 1(–8) + (–3)(1 – k) = 0
(1) 132
2(1 – k) = –8
(2) 136
1 – k = –4 k = 5
(3) 140
k2 + 1 26 13
= = (4) 144
( k − 1)( k − 2) 4.3 6
Answer (3)
3
( ( )) (
2
) ( )
2 2
1 2 1 Sol. a a b + b a b a − b
65. lim 4 + 2 + + 2 + + ... + 3 − is
n → n
n n n
equal to (( )
= a a b − b (a a ) + a b b − b a b a − b ( ) ( )) ( )
19
(1)
3 ( )(
= a b a a − a b − (a a ) b a − b b ) ( )
(2) 12
(3) 19 ( )(
+ b b aa −ab − a b b a − bb ) ( )( )
(4) 0
Answer (3)
( )(
= a b b a − (a a ) b a ) ( )
n −1
3 r
2 ( )(
+ b b b a − a b b a ) ( )( )
Sol. lim
n →
n 2 + n
1
r =0
( )(
= b a b b − a a )
0 3 ( 2 + x ) dx
2
=
1
( )(
= 5b a 5 + 2 − 13 − 2 )
(2 + x ) 3
= 3·
3
= 8 ab ( )
0
= 33 – 23 = 19 iˆ ˆj kˆ
ab = 2 −3
66. Let a and b be two vectors, Let a = 1 , b = 4 and
1 − 2
( )
a. b = 2 . If c = 2a b − 3b , then the value of b. c
is
= iˆ ( 4 − 3 ) − jˆ ( 2 + 3 ) + kˆ − 2 − 2 ( )
(1) –84 =1
(2) –48
( ) ( )
2
(3) –24 a a −b +b a −b
(4) –60
( )
2
= 2 ab = 4.35 = 140
Answer (2)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
d (1 + )3 (1) (P Q ) (P R )
= −
dx 3 + 2
(2) (( P ) Q ) (( P ) R )
3 + 2 −dx (3) (( P ) Q ) (( P ) R )
=
(1 + )3 x
(4) (P Q ) (( P ) R )
2 Answer (3)
ln + 1 + = C − ln x
( + 1) 2
Sol. The given expression is
x = 1, = 0 C = 0 P →~ Q R
2xy (~ P ) ( ~ Q R )
ln x + y − ln x + = − ln x
( x + y )2 (~ P ~ Q ) ( ~ P R )
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
72. Let a1 = 1, a2, a3, a4,…. be consecutive natural 1 –1 1
numbers. Then
Sol. = 2 2 = 0
1 −1 1
tan−1 + tan + .... 3 –1 4
1 + a1a2 1 + a2a3
=4
1
+ tan−1 is equal to 3 = 0
1 + a2021a2022
1 –1 5
(1) tan−1 ( 2022 ) − (2) cot −1 ( 2022 ) −
4 4 = 2 2 8 =0
3 –1
(3) − cot −1 ( 2022 ) (4) − tan−1 ( 2022 )
4 4 = 14
Answer (1)(3)*
x2 – 18x + 56 = 0
–1 –1 –1 –1
Sol. tan (a2 ) – tan (a1) + tan (a3 ) – tan (a2 )
75. The number of ways of selecting two numbers a
–1 –1
+... + tan a2022 – tan a2021 and b, a 2,4,6,.....,100 and b (1,3,5,....,99 )
( ) ( )
13 9 (2) 186
73. Let x = 8 3 + 13 and y = 7 2 + 9 . If [t]
(3) 54
denotes the greatest integer t, then
(4) 268
(1) [x] is odd but [y] is even
(2) [x] + [y] is even Answer (1)
(3) [x] and [y] are both odd Sol. a + b = 23 + 2
(4) [x] is even but [y] is odd
= 0, 1, 2, …, but cannot be even as a + b is odd
Answer (2)
=1 (a, b) → 12 pairs
Sol. If I1 + f = (8 3 + 13)13 , f = ( 8 3 – 13 )
13
=3 (a, b) → 35 pairs
I1 + f – f = Even
=5 (a, b) → 42 pairs
I1 = Even
=7 (a, b) → 19 pairs
I2 + f – f = ( 7 2 + 9 ) + ( 7 2 – 9 )
9 9
=9 (a, b) → 0 pairs
= Even
I2 = Even
Total = 12 + 35 + 42 + 19 = 108
74. For , , suppose the system of linear
76. If P is a 3 × 3 real matrix such that PT = aP + (a – 1)
equations I, where a > 1, then
x–y+z=5
1
2x + 2y + z = 8 (1) Adj P =
2
3x – y + 4z =
(2) Adj P 1
Has infinitely many solutions. Then and are the
roots of (3) P is a singular matrix
(1) x2 + 14x + 24 = 0 (2) x2 – 18x + 56 = 0
(4) Adj P = 1
(3) x2 – 10x + 16 = 0 (4) x2 + 18x + 56 = 0
Answer (2) Answer (4)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
a1
Sol. Let P = a2
b1
b2
c1
c2
( 2 −a ) 21 + (−1− b) 1
2
+ (1 − c )
1
2
=0
a3 b3 c3
a b c 1
+ + =
Given : PT = aP + (a − 1) I 2 2 2 2
1 1 ˆ 1 ˆ 37a = 222
v = k iˆ + j + k , k R
2 2 2 a=6
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
79. The range of the function f ( x ) = 3 − x + 2 + x is: SECTION - B
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
(1) 5, 10 (2) 2, 7
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
(3) 5, 13 (4) 2 2, 11 questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
Answer (1)
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
Sol. f ( x ) = 3 − x + x + 2 truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.
−1 1 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
y = + =0
2 3−x 2 x+2 mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
place designated to enter the answer.
x +2= 3 −x
1 81. If sec 2 x – 1 dx = loge
x=
2
1
cos 2x + + cos 2x 1 + cos x + constant,
1 5 5
y = + = 10
2 2 2
then – is equal to _______.
ymin at x = –2 or x = 3, i.e., 5
Answer (01)
f ( x ) 5, 10
1 − cos 2 x
80. Let q be the maximum integral value of p in [0, 10] Sol. I = sec 2x − 1dx
cos 2x
dx
5
for which the roots of the equation x2 – px + p = 0
4 2sin2 x
are rational. Then the area of the region = dx
2cos2 x − 1
( x, y ) : 0 y ( x − q ) ,0 x q is
2
Let 2cosx = t
125
(1) (2) 164 − 2 sin x dx = dt
3
(3) 243 (4) 25 dt
I = − = − ln t + t 2 − a2 + c
Answer (3) 2
t −1
Sol. Given equation : 4 x 2 − 4 px + 5 p = 0
= − ln 2 cos x + 2cos2 x − 1 + c
1
= − ln 2cos2 x + cos2 x + 2 2 cos2 x.cos2 x + c
2
1
= − ln 2cos 2 x + 1 + 2 cos 2 x(1 + cos 2 x ) + c
for rational roots, D must be perfect square 2
D = 16 p 2 − 4 4 5 p = 16 p( p − 5) 1 1
= − ln cos 2 x + + cos 2 x(1 + cos 2 x ) + c
So, max. Integral value of p = 9 for making 2 2
D is perfect square −1 1
= , =
q=9 2 2
Area of shared region
–=1
9
= ( x − 9)2 dx 82. Let A be the area of the region
0
9
( x, y ) : y x 2, y (1– x ) 2
, y 2x (1– x ) . Then
3 3
( x − 9) 9 540 A is equal to _______.
= = = 243 sq. units
3 3
0 Answer (25)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. 123 –3 (Mod 25)
129 –2 (Mod 25)
1210 –1 (Mod 25)
1250 –1 (Mod 25) …(i)
Now
18 7 (Mod 25)
182 –1 (Mod 25)
1850 –1 (Mod 25) …(ii)
1250 + 1850 –2 (Mod 25)
y = x2 and y = 2x(1 – x) 23 (Mod 25)
x2 = 2x – 2x2 Answer = 23
2
x = 0, x = 84. The number of seven digits odd numbers, that can
3
be formed using all the seven digits 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3,
Now, 5 is _______.
y = (1 – x)2 and y = 2x(1 – X) Answer (240)
1 + x2 – 2x = 2x – 2x2 6!
Sol. 1 → = 60
3x2 – 4x + 1 = 0 2!3!
6!
x = 1, x =
1 3 → = 120
3 3!
6!
2 1 2 5 → = 60
3 2 3 3!2!
A = (2 x − 2 x 2 ) dx − (1 − x )2 dx + x 2dx
Total = 240
1 1 1
3 3 2 85. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 9}. Then the number of
possible functions f : A → A such that f(mn) = f(m)
2 1 2
( x − 1)3 f(n) for every m, n A with mn A is equal to
2x 3 3 2
x 33
= x2 −
3 1
− +3 1
_______.
3 1
3 3 2
Answer (432)
Sol. f(1.n) = f(1).f(n) f(1) = 1.
5
= f(3.3) = (f(3))2
108
Hence the possibilities for (t(3), t(9)) are (1, 1) and
540A = 25
(3, 9).
83. 50th root of a number x is 12 and 50th root of another
Other three i.e. f(2), f(5), f(8)
number y is 18. Then the remainder obtained on
Can be chosen in 63 ways.
dividing (x + y) by 25 is _______.
Hence total number of functions
Answer (23)
= 63 × 2
1
Sol. Given x 50 = 12 x = 1250 = 432
1
86. Let a line L pass through the point P(2, 3, 1) and be
y 50 = 18 y = 18 50 parallel to the line x + 3y – 2z – 2 = 0 = x – y + 2z.
If the distance of L from the point (5, 3, 8) is , then
12 13 (Mod 25) 32 is equal to _________.
122 19 (Mod 25) Answer (158)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
x − 2 y − 3 z −1 88. The 8th common term of the series
Sol. L : = = =
1 −1 −1
S1 = 3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + 19 + …,
Any point on L can be taken as
S2 = 1 + 6 + 11 + 16 + 21 + …,
B( + 2, – + 3, – + 1)
is ________.
Let A(5, 3, 8)
Answer (151)
(
So, AB · iˆ − jˆ − kˆ = 0 )
Sol. First common term is 11
[( − 3) iˆ − jˆ − ( + 7)kˆ ] · [iˆ − jˆ − kˆ ] = 0
Common difference of series of common terms is
–3+++7=0 LCM (4, 5) = 20
−4 a8 = a + 7d
=
3
= 11 + 7 × 20 = 151
13 ˆ 4 ˆ 17 ˆ
AB = i+ i− k
3 3 3 89. A bag contains six balls of different colours. Two
balls are drawn in succession with replacement.
169 16 289
| AB | = + + The probability that both the balls are of the same
9 9 9
colour is p. Next four balls are drawn in succession
474 with replacement and the probability that exactly
= =
3 three balls are of the same colour is q. If p : q = m :
n, where m and n are coprime, then m + n is equal
474
32 = 3 = 158 to ________.
9
87. If the value of real number > 0 for which x2 – 5x Answer (14)
+ 1 = 0 and x2 – x – 5 = 0 have a common real root
6 1
3 Sol. p = =
is then is equal to _________. 36 6
2
6 4!
Answer (13) C1 5C1
3! 120 5
q= = =
4 1296 54
Sol. x2 – 5x + 1 = 0 …(1) 6
x2 –x – 5 = 0 …(2) 1
p 6 54 9 m
have a common root. = = = =
q 5 65 5 n
6 54
Subtracting (1) with (2) we’ll get x = .
4
m + n = 14
Substituting in (1)
90. Let P(a1, b1) and Q(a2, b2) be two distinct points on
16 2
36
−
30
4
+1= 0 a circle with center C ( )
2, 3 . Let O be the origin
= 13 Answer (24)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. OC ⊥ CP and OC ⊥ CQ
( 2) + ( 3)
2 2
OC = = 5
PCQ is a straight line
Let CP = CQ = l
1 35
[OCP ] = OC l =
2 2
l= 7
OP = OQ = (OC )2 + l 2 = 5 + 7 = 12
( ) (
a12 + a22 + b12 + b22 = a12 + b22 + a22 + b22 )
OP 2 + OQ 2 = 12 + 12 = 24
❑ ❑ ❑
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