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Answer and Solutions - JEE - Main 2023 - PH 1 - 30 01 2023 - Evening Shift 2 PDF

(1) The document is a sample test paper for the JEE (Main)-2023 Phase-1 exam containing instructions and questions in Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. (2) The test is 3 hours long and contains 90 total questions worth 300 marks. Each subject section (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) contains 30 questions split into two parts - Section A with 20 multiple choice questions worth 4 marks each and Section B with 5 out of 10 numerical value questions worth 4 marks each. (3) Sample questions provided include multiple choice questions on physics concepts like force, electric fields, as well as a truth table logic circuit problem. The questions cover various topics across the three subjects and provide explanations for the
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
209 views24 pages

Answer and Solutions - JEE - Main 2023 - PH 1 - 30 01 2023 - Evening Shift 2 PDF

(1) The document is a sample test paper for the JEE (Main)-2023 Phase-1 exam containing instructions and questions in Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. (2) The test is 3 hours long and contains 90 total questions worth 300 marks. Each subject section (Physics, Chemistry, Mathematics) contains 30 questions split into two parts - Section A with 20 multiple choice questions worth 4 marks each and Section B with 5 out of 10 numerical value questions worth 4 marks each. (3) Sample questions provided include multiple choice questions on physics concepts like force, electric fields, as well as a truth table logic circuit problem. The questions cover various topics across the three subjects and provide explanations for the
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 24

30/01/2023

Evening

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456

Answers & Solutions


Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2023 (Online) Phase-1


(Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.

(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out of
10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks for
correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be rounded off
to the nearest integer.

-1-
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening

PHYSICS
Sol. Equivalent circuit can be drawn as
SECTION - A
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

Choose the correct answer:


1. A force is applied to a steel wire ‘A’, rigidly clamped
at one end. As a result elongation in the wire is 0.2 1 7 1 2
mm. If same force is applied to another steel wire  = + +
RAB 12 4 3
‘B’ of double the length and a diameter 2.4 times
that of the wire ‘A’, the elongation in the wire ‘B’ will 2
RAB = 
be (wires having uniform circular cross-sections) 3
(1) 6.9 × 10–2 mm (2) 3.0 × 10–2 mm 3. As shown in the figure, a point charge Q is placed
(3) 6.06 × 10–2 mm (4) 2.77 × 10–2 mm at the centre of conducting spherical shell of inner
radius a and outer radius b. The electric field due to
Answer (1) charge Q in three different regions I, II and III is
F (4) given by:
Sol.  =
Y d 2 (I : r < a, II : a < r < b, III : r > a)

 d22
1
= 1

 2 d12 2

0.2 1
=  (2.4)2
 2 2

2  0.2
 2 =
(2.4)2 (1) E I  0,E II = 0,E III  0
= 6.9 × 10–2 mm (2) E I = 0,E II = 0,E III = 0
2. The equivalent resistance between A and B is (3) E I  0,E II = 0,E III = 0
(4) E I = 0,E II = 0,E III  0
Answer (1)

Sol.

2 1 EI  0 (inside region)
(1)  (2) 
3 2 EII = 0 (conducting region)

3 1 EIII  0
(3)  (4) 
2 3 KQ
= (r  b )
Answer (1) r2

-2-
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
4. Match List I with List II: Sol. Theoretical attenuation → (IV)
List I List II Transducer → (III)

A. Torque I. kg m–1 s–2 Demodulation → (II)


Repeater → (I)
B. Energy density II. kg ms–1
6. In the given circuit, rms value of current (I rms)
C. Pressure gradient III. kg m–2 s–2 through the resistor R is
D. Impulse IV. kg m2 s–2
Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
(2) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
(3) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
(4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
(1) 20 A
Answer (3)
(2) 2 2 A
Sol. Torque → kg m2 s–2 (IV)
Energy density → kg m–1 s–2 (I) (3) 2 A

Pressure gradient → kg m–2 s–2(III) 1


(4) A
2
Impulse → kg m s–1 (II)
Answer (3)
5. Match List I with List II:
Vrms 200 2
List I List II Sol. Irms = =
z 100 + ( 200 − 100 )
2 2
A. Attenuation I. Combination of
a receiver and 200 2
transmitter. =
100 2
B. Transducer II. Process of =2A
retrieval of 7. The output Y for the inputs A and B of circuit is given
information from by
the carrier wave
at receiver
C. Demodulation III. Converts one
form of energy
into another
D. Repeater IV. Loss of strength Truth table of the shown circuit is
of a signal while
A B Y A B Y
propagating
(1) 0 0 1 (2) 0 0 0
through a
medium 0 1 1 0 1 1
1 0 1 1 0 1
Choose the correct answer from the options given 1 1 0 1 1 0
below: A B Y A B Y
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II (3) 0 0 0 (4) 0 0 1
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I 0 1 1 0 1 0
1 0 1 1 0 0
(3) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
1 1 1 1 1 1
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Answer (2)
Answer (3)
-3-
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening

Total distance
Sol. Sol. Average speed =
Total time

8
=
4 4
+
3 5

( )( )
Y = A + AB B + AB = ( A + B ) A + B ( ) = 3.75 km/h
10. A current carrying rectangular loop PQRS is made
= AB + BA (XOR gate) of uniform wire. The length PR = QS = 5 cm and PQ
A B Y = RS = 100 cm. If ammeter current reading changes
from I to 2I, the ratio of magnetic forces per unit
0 0 0
length on the wire PQ due to wire RS in the two
( ) is
0 1 1 I 2I
1 0 1 cases respectively fPQ : fPQ
1 1 0

8. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as


Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
Assertion A: Efficiency of a reversible heat engine
will be highest at –273°C temperature of cold
reservoir. (1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 5
Reason R: The efficiency of Carnot’s engine
depends not only on temperature of cold reservoir Answer (2)
but it depends on the temperature of hot reservoir Sol. Force between two current carrying wire
 T  0I1I2
too and is given as  =  1 − 2  . = L
 T  2d
 1

In the light of the above statements, choose the Here I1 & I2 are equal
correct answer from the options given below 0I 2
F = L
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct 2d
explanation of A
F  I2
(2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct
FI I2 1
explanation of A = 2 =
F2I 4I 4
(3) A is false but R is true
11. For a simple harmonic motion in a mass spring
(4) A is true but R is false
system shown, the surface is frictionless. When the
Answer (1) mass of the block is 1 kg, the angular frequency is
Tcold 1. When the mass block is 2 kg, the angular
Sol.  = 1 − frequency is 2. The ratio 2/1 is
Thot

Tcold = OK   = 1 (max)
A is correct.
R is also correct and explains A.
9. A vehicle travels 4 km with speed of 3 km/ h and
another 4 km with speed of 5 km/h, then its average
1
speed is (1) (2) 2
2
(1) 4.00 km/h (2) 4.25 km/h
1
(3) 3.50 km/h (4) 3.75 km/h (3) 2 (4)
2
Answer (4) Answer (4)
-4-
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening

K 1 Sol.
Sol.  = 
m m

2 m1 1
= =
1 m2 2

12. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as


Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R
10
Assertion A: The nuclear density of nuclides 5 B , 0 i
Bnet = ( sin  + sin  )  3
6 56
3 Li , 26 Fe ,
20
10 Ne and
209
83 Bi can be arranged as 4r

Bi
N
 Fe
N
 NNe  BN  NLi 0  2  3 3
=  +   3
Reason R : The radius R of nucleus is related to its (
4  2  10 −2
)  2
 2 

( )
mass number A as R = R0 A1/3, where R0 is a
= 10−7  102 3 3
constant.
In the light of the above statements, choose the = 3 3  10 −5 T
correct answer from the options given below
14. An object is allowed to fall from a height R above
(1) Both A and R are true but R is Not the correct the earth, where R is the radius of earth. Its velocity
explanation of A when it strikes the earth's surface, ignoring air
(2) A is true but R is false resistance, will be
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct gR
(1)
explanation of A 2
(4) A is false but R is true (2) 2 gR
Answer (4)
(3) gR
1
Sol. R = R0 3
A , using this (4) 2gR

M AmP mP Answer (3)


= = =
4 3 4 3 4 3 GMm
R R A R Sol. UP = −
3 3 0 3 0 2R
 is independent of mass number. US = −
GMm
R
 A is false
 Energy conservation
13. As shown in the figure, a current of 2 A flowing in
1 GMm GMm
an equilateral triangle of side 4 3 cm. The mv 2 − =−
magnetic field at the centroid O of the triangle is 2 R 2R
GM
v2 =
R
GM
v= = gR
R
15. A flask contains hydrogen and oxygen in the ratio
of 2 : 1 by mass at temperature 27°C. The ratio of
(Neglect the effect of earth's magnetic field) average kinetic energy per molecule of hydrogen
(1) 3 3  10 –5 T (2) 3  10 –4 T and oxygen respectively is:
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
(3) 4 3  10 –5 T (4) 4 3  10 –4 T
(3) 4 : 1 (4) 1 : 4
Answer (1)
Answer (1)

-5-
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening

f  1 W 
Sol. K.E. per molecule =  KT  Intensity due to electric field =
2  40  m2 

average (K.E )hydrogen fhydrogen  W 


=
= =1 
average (K.E )oxygen foxygen  40 
18. An electron accelerated through a potential
16. A thin prism P1 with an angle 6° and made of glass
difference V1 has a de-Broglie wavelength of .
of refractive index 1.54 is combined with another
When the potential is changed to V2. Its de-Broglie
prism P2 made from glass of refractive index 1.72
to produce dispersion without average deviation. V 
wavelength increases by 50%. The value of  1 
The angle of prism P2 is  V2 
(1) 6° is equal to

(2) 1.3° 3
(1)
(3) 4.5° 2

(4) 7.8° 9
(2)
4
Answer (3)
(3) 4
Sol. (1 – 1)A1 = (2 – 1)A2
(4) 3
 (1.54 – 1)6 = (1.72 – 1)A2
Answer (2)
 0.54  18  9 
A2 =   6 = =   = 4.5
 0.72  4 2 Sol. P = 2 eVm
17. A point source of 100 W emits light with 5%
h
efficiency. At a distance of 5 m from the source, the =  …(i)
intensity produced by the electric field component  P1 
is: 3 h
= …(ii)
1 W 2 P2
(1)
40 m2
Dividing (i) by (ii)
1 W
(2) 2  P2  v2
2 m 2  = =
3  P1  v1
1 W
(3)
20 m2 4  v2 
 = 
9  v1 
1 W
(4)
10 m2 v1  9 
=
Answer (1) v 2  4 
Sol. 19. A machine gun of mass 10 kg fires 20 g bullets at
the rate of 180 bullets per minute with a speed of
100 m s–1 each. The recoil velocity of the gun is
(1) 0.6 m/s
(2) 0.02 m/s

5 W  (3) 1.5 m/s


Intensity at 5 m = 2  
4  5  m 2  (4) 2.5 m/s
1 W  Answer (1)
=
20  m2  Sol. Momentum of bullets per unit time

-6-
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
20 SECTION - B
180   100
= 1000 kg m/s2 Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
60
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
=6N questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
 Force on gun = 6 N NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
We cannot calculate recoil velocity with the given
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.
data.
06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
If we consider recoil velocity at t = 1 s, then mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
Vrecoil = u + at place designated to enter the answer.
6 21. A uniform disc of mass 0.5 kg and radius r is
=0+ 1
10 projected with velocity 18 m/s at t = 0 s on a rough
= 0.6 m/s horizontal surface. It starts off with a purely sliding
motion kinetic energy of the disc after 2 s will
20. A block of 3 kg is attached to a string whose other be_______ J (given, coefficient of friction is 0.3 and
end is attached to the wall. An unknown force F is g =10 m/s2).
applied so that the string makes an angle of 30°
with the wall. The tension T is:
(Given g = 10 ms–2)

Answer (54)

Sol. v = v0 – gt

 v = 18 – 0.3 × 10 × 2 = 12 m/s

1 1 mv 2
 Kinetic energy = mv 2 +
2 2 2

3 3
(1) 15 N = mv 2 =  0.5  144 J = 54 J
4 4
(2) 20 N
22. A radioactive nucleus decays by two different
(3) 10 N process. The half life of the first process is 5
(4) 25 N minutes and that of the second process is 30 s. The
effective half-life of the nucleus is calculated to be
Answer (2)
a
Sol. Drawing the FBD of the point where F is applied s. The value of a is __________.
11

Answer (300)

Sol.

 eff = 1 + 2
 T cos30 = 3 g ln2 ln2 ln2
 = +
 T = 2g = 20 N t1/2 (t1/2 )1 (t1/2 )2

-7-
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening

(t1/2 )1  (t1/2 )2 300  30 300


 t1/2 = = s= s
(t1/2 )1 + (t1/2 )2 300 + 30 11

  = 300
23. A faulty thermometer reads 5°C in melting ice and
95°C in stream. The correct temperature on
absolute scale will be ___________ K when the
faulty thermometer reads 41°C.
Answer (313)
Sol. let the correct temperature be X°C
Answer (2)
X –0 41– 5
 =  X = 40 Sol. The circuit is a wheat stone bridge, so
100 – 0 95 – 5
63
 Temperature is 273 + 40 K = 313 K 6 + 3 = 1+ 2
x 1 x
24. As shown in figure, a cuboid lies in a region with
x +1
N
electric field E = 2x 2 ˆi − 4yjˆ + 6kˆ . The magnitude
C 2( x + 1) 3
 =
of charge within the cuboid is n0C. The value of n x x
is ______ (if dimension of cuboid is 1 × 2 × 3 m3). 1
 x=
2
So n = 2
26. The velocity of a particle executing SHM varies with
displacement (x) as 4v2 = 50 – x2. The time period
x
of oscillation is s . The value of x is __________.
7
 22 
 Take  = 7 
 
Answer (12)
Answer (88)
Sol. Flux through planes parallel to y-z = 2(1)2 × Area
Sol. 4v2 = 50 – x2
= 2(1)2 × 2 × 3
1
= 12 Nm2/C or v = 50 − x 2
2
Flux through planes parallel to x-z = –4(2) × Area
Comparing the above equation with v =  A2 − x 2
= –4(2) × 1 × 3
1
= –24 Nm2/C = & A = 50
2
Flux through planes parallel to x-y = 0 2 1
so =
 Total = 12 – 24 = –12 T 2

qenc  T = 4 sec
 –12 =  qenc = 120
0 22
= 4 sec
7
 n = 12
88
25. If the potential difference between B and D is zero, T = sec
7
1
the value of x is  . The value of n is _________. so x = 88
n

-8-
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
27. In an ac generator, a rectangular coil of 100 turns 16
= Pm
each having area 14 × 10–2 m2 is rotated at 360 3
rev/min about an axis perpendicular to a uniform
magnetic field of magnitude 3.0 T. The maximum So  = 4
value of the emf produced will be ___________ V.
 22  29. In a Young’s double slit experiment, the intensities
 Take  = 7   
 
at two points, for the path differences and [
4 3
Answer (1584)
being the wavelength of light used) are I1 and I2
Sol.  = B.A respectively. If I0 denotes the intensity produced by
I +I
 = BNA cost each one of the individual slits, then 1 2 = _____.
I0
−d 
So Emf = = NBA sin t
dt Answer (03)

So maximum value of emf is


 k x 
Sol. I ' = I cos2  
Emax = NBA  2 

360  2  2  
= 100  3  14  10−2  so I1 = 4I0 cos2   
60
 2 4 
= 1584
I1 = 2I0
28. A body of mass 2 kg is initially at rest. It starts
moving unidirectionally under the influence of a  2  
source of constant power P. Its displacement in 4 s & I2 = 4I0 cos2   
 2 3 
1
is 2 P m . The value of  will be _________.
3 I2 = I0

Answer (04) I1 + I2
So =3
Sol. P = Fv I0

vdv
m =P 30. A stone tied to 180 cm long string at its end is
dt making 28 revolutions in horizontal circle in every
v t minute. The magnitude of acceleration of stone is
m  vdv =  Pdt 1936  22 
ms−2 . The value of x ______.  Take  =
0 0

x  7 
mv 2
= Pt
2 Answer (125)

2P 1/2
v= t v2
m Sol. Acceleration of stone a = = 2 R
r
s 2P t 1/ 2
 ds =
m 0
t dt
 28  2 22 
2

a=    1.8
0

 60 7 
2 2P 3/ 2
s= t
3 m 1936
=
125
2 2P
or s =  43/ 2
3 2 So x = 125

-9-
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening

CHEMISTRY

SECTION - A

Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 Sol. is the most stable carbocation because its
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4
choices (1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE resonance goes up to nitrogen atom.
is correct. 33. Which of the following reaction is correct?

Choose the correct answer : (1) 4LiNO3  → 2Li2 O + 2N2 O4 + O2

31. Match List I with List II: (2) 2LiNO3 


→ 2Li + 2NO2 + O2

List I List II (3) 2LiNO3  → 2NaNO2 + O2

(Complexes) (Hybridisation) ∆
(4) 4LiNO3  → 2Li2 O + 4NO2 + O2

A. [Ni(CO)4] I. sp3 Answer (4)


Heat
Sol. 4LiNO3  → 2Li2O + 4NO2 + O2
B. [Cu(NH3)4]2+ II. dsp2
LiNO3 on heating produces Li2O, NO2 and O2
C. [Fe(NH3)6]2+ III. sp3d2
34. The wave function (Ψ) of 2s is given by
D. [Fe(H2O)6]2+ IV. d2sp3 1/ 2
1  1  r  −r / 2a0
=Ψ 2s   2 − e
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III (2) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III 2 2π  a 0   a0 

(3) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV (4) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV At r = r0, radial node is formed. Thus, r0 in terms
of a0
Answer (2)
(1) r0 = 2a0 (2) r0 = 4a0
Sol. Ni ( CO )4 
→ sp3
a0
(3) r0 = a0 (4) r0 =
2+ 2
Cu (NH3 )4  → dsp 2
Answer (1)

Fe (NH3 )6 
2+
→ d 2sp3 Sol. For radial node Ψ2s = 0
∴ r = 2a0
2+
Fe (H2O )6  3
→ sp d 2
35. 1 L, 0.02 M solution of [Co(NH3)5SO4] Br is mixed
with 1 L, 0.02 M solution of [Co(NH3)5Br]SO4. The
32. The most stable carbocation for the following is:
resulting solution is divided into two equal parts
(X) and treated with excess of AgNO3 solution
and BaCI2 solution respectively as shown below:
1 L Solution (X) + AgNO3 solution (excess) → Y
1 L Solution (X) + BaCI2 solution (excess) → Z
The number of moles of Y and Z respectively are
(1) a (2) b
(1) 0.02, 0.02 (2) 0.01, 0.01
(3) d (4) c (3) 0.02, 0.01 (4) 0.01, 0.02
Answer (3) Answer (2)

- 10 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening

Sol. On misxing both Co (NH5 )5 SO4  Br Sol. Mixture Separation


technique
and Co (NH3 )5 Br  SO4 becomes 0.01 molar.
(A) CHCl3 + C6H5NH2 → Distillation
∴ moles of y and z formed will also be 0.01 both. (B) C6H4 + C5H12 → Fractional distillation
36. Bond dissociation energy of “E-H” bond of the
(C) C6H5NH2 + H2O → Steam distillation
“H2E” hydrides of group 16 elements (given
(D) Organic compound → Differential
below), follows order.
A. O B. S in H2O extraction

C. Se D. Te 39. Given below are two statements: One is labelled


as Assertion A and the other is labelled as
Choose the correct from the options given below:
Reason R.
(1) A > B > C > D (2) B > A > C > D
Assertion A: Antihistamines do not affect the
(3) A > B > D > C (4) D > C > B > A
secretion of acid in stomach.
Answer (1)
Reason R: Antiallergic and antacid drugs work
Sol. The correct order of bond strength is
on different receptors.
H2O > H2S > H2Se > H2Te
In the light of the above statements, Choose the
37. Chlorides of which metal are soluble in organic
correct answer from the options given below.
solvents?
(1) Be (2) Mg (1) A is false but R is true

(3) K (4) Ca (2) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A
Answer (1)
Sol. BeCl2 is a covalent molecule (3) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct
explanation of A
So, it is soluble in organic solvents, rest are ionic
compounds. (4) A is true but R is false

38. Match List I with List II. Answer (2)

List I (Mixture) List II Sol. Antihistamines not affect the secretion of acid in

(Separation stomach, the reason is that antiallergic and

Technique) antacid drugs work on different receptors.


40.
A. CHCI3 + C6H5NH2 I. Steam distillation

B. C6H14 + C5H12 II. Differential


extraction

C. C6H5NH2 + H2O III. Distillation


In the above conversion of compound (X) to
D. Organic IV. Fractional product (Y), the sequence of reagents to be used
compound in H2O distillation will be

(1) A - III, B - I, C - IV, D - II (1) (i) Fe, H+ (ii) Br2(aq) (iii) HNO2 (iv) CuBr
(2) A - IV, B - I, C - III, D - II (2) (i) Br2(aq) (ii) LiAIH4 (iii) H3O+
(3) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II (3) (i) Fe, H+ (ii) Br2(aq) (iii) HNO2 (iv) H3PO2
(4) A - II, B - I, C - III, D - IV (4) (i) Br2, Fe (ii) Fe, H+ (iii) LiAIH4
Answer (3) Answer (3)

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. Boric acid is solid because of strong hydrogen

Sol. bond in it.


43. Maximum number of electrons that can be
accommodated in shell with n = 4 are :
(1) 72 (2) 32
(3) 16 (4) 50
Answer (2)
41. Given below are two statements: One is labelled Sol. Maximum electrons accommodated in (n = 4) is
as Assertion A and the other is labelled as 2n2 = 32 electrons
Reason R. 44. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : During Electrolytic refining, the
Assertion A : can be easily reduced
pure metal is made to act as anode and its impure
metallic form is used as cathode.
using Zn-Hg/HCl to .
Statement II : During the Hall-Heroult electrolysis
process, purified Al2O3 is mixed with Na3AlF6 to
Reason R : Zn-Hg/HCl is used to reduce
lower the melting point of the mixture.
carbonyl group to –CH2 – group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
correct answer from the options given below :
below :
(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are
explanation of A incorrect
(2) A is true but R is false (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
(3) A is false but R is true (3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct correct
explanation of A (4) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
Answer (3) incorrect
Answer (3)
Sol.
Sol. During electrolytic refining, the pure metal is
Acid sensitive group also react in clemmensen made to act as cathode and impure metal used

reduction. as anode.

42. Boric acid is solid, whereas BF3 is gas at room 45. KMnO4 oxidises I– in acidic and neutral/faintly

temperature because of alkaline solution, respectively, to

(1) Strong hydrogen bond in Boric acid (1) I2 & I2 (2) I2 & IO3−

(2) Strong covalent bond in BF3 (3) IO3− & I2 (4) IO3− & IO3−
(3) Strong van der Waal's interaction in Boric
Answer (2)
acid
Sol. MnO4– + I– → I2 + Mn2+ (acidic medium)
(4) Strong ionic bond in Boric acid
Answer (1) MnO4– + I– → IO3– + MnO2 (faintly alkaline)

- 12 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
46. Decreasing order towards SN1 reaction for the
following compounds is
Sol.

All the Cl–Co–Cl bond angles are of 90°.


49. The water quality of a pond was analysed and its
(1) a > c > d > b (2) a > b > c > d BOD was found to be 4. The pond has

(3) d > b > c > a (4) b > d > c > a (1) Slightly polluted water
Answer (4) (2) Very clean water
Sol. Rate of SN1 ∝ stability of carbocation produced (3) Highly polluted water
(4) Water has high amount of fluoride
compounds
Answer (2)
Sol. A clean water would have BOD value less than
5 ppm.
47. The correct order of pKa values for the following
50. Formulae for Nessler’s reagent is
compounds is
(1) K2HgI4 (2) HgI2
(3) KHg2I2 (4) KHgI3
Answer (1)
Sol. Nessler’s reagent is K2HgI4
SECTION - B

(1) c > a > d > b (2) b > a > d > c Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
(3) a > b > c > d (4) b > d > a > c
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
Answer (4)
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
Sol. The correct acidic order is
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
e.g. 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30)
using the mouse andw the on-screen virtual numeric
keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.
51. An organic compound undergoes first order
∴ Order of pKa will be = b > d > a > c decomposition. If the time taken for the 60%

48. The Cl–Co–Cl bond angle values in a fac– decomposition is 540 s, then the time required for
[Co(NH3)3Cl3] complex is/are 90% decomposition will be is ________s.

(1) 180° (2) 90° & 180° (Nearest integer).

(3) 90° (4) 90° & 120° Given : ln 10 = 2.3; log 2 = 0.3
Answer (3) Answer (1350)

- 13 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. In 60% decomposition A0 = 1, At = 0.4 Given : E°X2 + |X = −2.36 V

1  A0  1  10 
=k ln 
=  ln E°Y2 + |Y = +0.36 V
t  A t  540  4 
2.303RT
∴ time t0 complete 90% reaction = 0.06 V
F
1 Answer (275.00)
t= ln(10)
k
0.06 x 2+
ln(10) Sol. E=
cell E°cell − log 2+
= × 540 n y
 10 
ln  
 4  0.06  1
Ecell = (2.36 + 0.36) − log  
2  10 
2.3
= × 540 = 2.36 + 0.36 + 0.03
2.3 × 0.4
 2.75 V
= 1350 s
x
52. A short peptide on complete hydrolysis produces 55. The graph of log vs log p for an adsorption
m
3 moles of glycine (G), two moles of leucine (L)
process is a straight line inclined at an angle of
and two moles of valine (V) per mole of peptide. 45° with intercept equal to 0.6020. The mass of
The number of peptide linkages in it are _______. gas adsorbed per unit mass of adsorbent at the

Answer (06.00) pressure of 0.4 atm is _______ × 10–1 (Nearest


integer).
Sol. The peptide has seven amino acid units therefore
Given : log 2 = 0.3010
it has six peptide bonds.
Answer (16.00)
53. 1 mole of ideal gas is allowed to expand
1
reversibly and adiabatically from a temperature of Sol.= tan(45°) ∴
= n 1
n
27°C. The work done is 3 kJ mol–1. The final
logk 0.602 =
= ∴k 4
temperature of the gas is _______K (Nearest
x
integer). Given CV = 20 J mol–1 K–1 = k.p1/n
m
Answer (150.00) = 4 × 0.4
Sol. T1 = 300 K w = 3 kJ/mole = 1.6 g

w = nCv∆T 56. Iron oxide FeO, crystallises in a cubic lattice with


a unit cell edge length of 5.0 Å. If density of the
3000 = 1 × 20 × (300 – T2)
FeO in the crystal is 4.0 g cm–3, then the number
300 – T2 = 150
of FeO units present per unit cell is
T2 = 150 K _____________. (Nearest integer)
54. The electrode potential of the following half cell at Given : Molar mass of Fe and O is 56 and
298 K 16 g mol–1 respectively.

X | X2+ (0.001 M) || Y2+ (0.01 M) | Y is ______ × NA = 6.0 × 1023 mol–1

10–2 V (Nearest integer). Answer (04.00)

- 14 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
z×m 59. The strength of 50 volume solution of hydrogen
Sol. d = 3
a peroxide is ___________ g/L (Nearest integer).

z × 72 Given :
4=
(5 × 10 )
3
23 –8
6 × 10
Molar mass of H2O2 is 34 g mol–1

z × 72 Molar volume of gas at STP = 22.7 L.


4=
6 × 125 × 10 –1
Answer (150.00)
=z≈4
1
57. Lead storage battery contains 38% by weight Sol. H2O2 → H2O + O2
2
solution of H2SO4. The van’t Hoff factor is 2.67 at
50
this concentration. The temperature in Kelvin at
22.7
which the solution in the battery will freeze is
50
_____________ (Nearest integer). ∴ Moles of H2O2 in solution = ×2
22.7
Given Kf = 1.8 K kg mol–1
50 × 2
× 34
Answer (243.00)
∴ Strength = 22.7
1
Sol. ∆Tf = Kf i m
= 149.78
38
= 1.8 × 2.67 × 98 ≈ 150
0.062
60. Consider the following equation:
= 30

∴ It freeze at 273 – 30 = 243 K 2SO2 (g) + O2 (g)  2SO3 (g), ∆H =–190 kJ

58. Number of compounds from the following which


The number of factors which will increase the
will not dissolve in cold NaHCO3 and NaOH
yield of SO3 at equilibrium from the following
solutions but will dissolve in hot NaOH solution is
is ___________
_________
A. Increasing temperature

B. Increasing pressure

C. Adding more SO2

D. Adding more O2

E. Addition of catalyst
Answer (03.00)
Answer (03.00)



Sol. 2SO2 + O2 
 2SO3 ∆H = –190 kJ
Sol.

It is an exothermic reaction

will dissolve in hot NaOH solution ∴ factor B, C, D will increase the amount of SO3.

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening

MATHEMATICS

SECTION - A Sol. f(x) = sgn(x)


Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 h(x) = 2[x] – sgn(x)
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices If x → 1+ then h(x – 1) = 2[x] – 2 – sgn (x – 1)
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
= 0 – 1 = –1
Choose the correct answer : & if x → 1– then h(x – 1) = 2[x] – 2 – sgn (x –1)
61. Let A be a point on the x-axis. Common tangents
= –2 + 1 = –1
are drawn from A to the curves x2 + y2 = 8 and
y2 = 16x. If one of these tangents touches the two sin ( h ( x + 1) + 1)
 lim g ( h ( x − 1) ) = lim =1
curves at Q and R, then (QR)2 is equal to
x →1 +
x →1+ h ( x − 1) + 1
(1) 76 (2) 72
sin ( h ( x − 1) ) + 1)
(3) 64 (4) 81 lim g ( h ( x − 1) ) = lim =1
Answer (2) x →1− x →1− h ( x − 1) + 1

4 63. Let S be the set of all values of a1 for which the


Sol. Let a tangent on y2 = 16x be y = mx +
m mean deviation about the mean of 100 consecutive
For common to x2 + y2 = 8 positive integers a1, a2, a3, ……,a100 is 25. Then S
is
4
m
(
= 2 2 1 + m2 ) (1) {9} (2) {99}
2 (3)  (4)
 = 1 + m2  m = 1
2
m Answer (4)
Taking one of the tangent y = x + 4
Sol. Let a1 = a  a2 = a + 1, ….. a100 = a + 90
Point of tangency with y2 = 4x
x2 + 8 + 16 = 4x  x = 4 & y = 8 100a + ( 99  100 )
2 99
 Q(4, 8) = =a+
100 2
and for x2 + y2 = 8
2
2x2 + 8x + 8 = 0  99 97 1
+ + ..... 
x2 + 4x + 4 = 8  x = –2, y = 2  R = (–2, 2)  a1 −   2 2 2 2500
M.D = = = = 25
(QR)2 = 62 + 62
100 100 100

= 72  a→z
62. Let f, g and h be the real valued functions defined 64. If a plane passes through the points (–1, k, 0),
of as (2, k, –1), (1, 1, 2) and is parallel to the line
x  sin ( x + 1) x − 1 2y + 1 z + 1
 , x0  , x  –1 = = , then the value of
f (x) x , g ( x )  ( x + 1) 1 2 –1
1, x = 0 
 1, x = –1 k2 + 1
is
and h(x) = 2[x] – f(x), where [x] is the greatest ( k − 1)( k − 2)
integer  x.
13 17
(1) (2)
Then the value of lim g ( h ( x − 1) ) is 6 5
x →1

(1) 1 (2) –1 5 6
(3) (4)
(3) sin(1) (4) 0 17 13

Answer (1) Answer (1)

- 16 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. Let P  (–1, k, 0), Q  (2, k, –1) & R(1, 1, 2) (
Sol. b  c = b  2a  b − 3b  b )
PR = 2iˆ + (1 − k ) jˆ + 2kˆ
2
= 0−3 b
& QR = −iˆ + (1 − k ) jˆ + 3kˆ
= −48
 Normal to plane will be
67. Let   R, a = iˆ + 2 jˆ − 3kˆ, b = iˆ − jˆ + 2kˆ
iˆ jˆ kˆ
2
−1
(1 − k )
(1 − k )
2 = iˆ (1 − k ) − jˆ ( 8 ) + 3kˆ (1 − k )
3
If ((a + b )  (a  b ))  (a − b ) = 8iˆ − 40 ˆj − 24kˆ
( ) ( )
2
If line is parallel to this we have then  a + b  a − b is equal to
1(1 – k) + 1(–8) + (–3)(1 – k) = 0
(1) 132
 2(1 – k) = –8
(2) 136
 1 – k = –4  k = 5
(3) 140
k2 + 1 26 13
 = = (4) 144
( k − 1)( k − 2) 4.3 6
Answer (3)

3 
( ( )) (
2
) ( )
2 2
 1  2  1  Sol. a  a  b + b  a  b  a − b
65. lim 4 +  2 +  +  2 +  + ... +  3 −   is
n → n 
  n  n  n 
equal to (( )
= a a  b − b (a  a ) + a b  b − b a  b  a − b ( ) ( )) ( )
19
(1)
3 ( )(
= a  b a  a − a  b − (a  a ) b  a − b  b ) ( )
(2) 12
(3) 19 ( )(
+ b b aa −ab − a b b a − bb ) ( )( )
(4) 0
Answer (3)
( )(
= a  b b  a − (a  a ) b  a ) ( )
n −1
3 r
2 ( )(
+ b b b a − a b b a ) ( )( )
Sol. lim
n →
 n  2 + n 
1
r =0
( )(
= b a b b − a a )
0 3 ( 2 + x ) dx
2
=

1
( )(
= 5b  a 5 +  2 − 13 −  2 )
(2 + x ) 3
= 3·
3
= 8 ab ( )
0

= 33 – 23 = 19 iˆ ˆj kˆ
ab =  2 −3
66. Let a and b be two vectors, Let a = 1 , b = 4 and
1 − 2
( )
a. b = 2 . If c = 2a  b − 3b , then the value of b. c
is
= iˆ ( 4 − 3 ) − jˆ ( 2 + 3 ) + kˆ − 2 − 2 ( )
(1) –84   =1
(2) –48
( ) ( )
2
(3) –24 a a −b +b a −b

(4) –60
( )
2
= 2 ab = 4.35 = 140
Answer (2)
- 17 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening

x3 ax 2 70. The parabolas : ax 2 + 2bx + cy = 0 and


68. If the functions f (x) = + 2bx + and
3 2 dx 2 + 2ex + fy = 0 intersect on the line y = 1 .
x3
g( x ) =+ ax + bx 2 , a  2b have a common If a, b, c, d, e, f are positive real numbers and a, b,
3 c are in G.P., then
extreme point, then a + 2b + 7 is equal to d e f
(1) , , are in A.P. (2) d, e, f are in G.P.
(1) 3 (2) 4 a b c
3 d e f
(3) 6 (4) (3) d, e, f are in A.P. (4) , , are in G.P.
2 a b c
Answer (3) Answer (1)
Sol. f  ( x ) = x + 2b + ax
2
Sol. Let point of intersection be (, 1)

g  ( x ) = x 2 + a + 2bx x 2 + 2b + c = 0 …(i)


2
 x = 1 is common root and d  + 2e + f = 0 …(ii)
a + 2b + 1 = 0  a 2 + 2 ac  + c = 0 ( b2 = ac)
69. The solution of the differential equation
( )
2
dy  x 2 + 3y 2  a + c =0
= −  , y (1) = 0
dx  3x 2 + y 2 
  c
=−
xy a
(1) loge x + y − =0
( x + y )2 Put the value  in (ii),
2xy c c
(2) loge x + y + =0 d − 2e +f = 0
( x + y )2 a a
d 2e f
xy − + =0
(3) loge x + y + =0 a ac c
( x + y )2
d f e
2xy + =2
(4) loge x + y − =0 a c b
( x + y )2
d e f
Answer (2) , , are in A.P.
a b c
Sol. y = x 71. Consider the following statements:
d  1 + 32  P : I have fever
+x = − 
dx  3 + 2  Q : I will not take medicine
 
R : I will take rest
d  1 + 32 
x = − +  The statement “If I have fever, then I will take
 2 
dx  3+  medicine and I will take rest”

d  (1 +  )3  (1) (P   Q )  (P  R )
= − 
dx  3 + 2


 (2) ((  P )   Q )  ((  P )   R )
3 + 2 −dx (3) ((  P )   Q )  ((  P )  R )
 =
(1 +  )3 x
(4) (P  Q )  ((  P )  R )
2 Answer (3)
 ln  + 1 + = C − ln x
(  + 1) 2
Sol. The given expression is
x = 1,  = 0  C = 0 P →~ Q  R

2xy  (~ P )  ( ~ Q  R )
 ln x + y − ln x + = − ln x
( x + y )2  (~ P  ~ Q )  ( ~ P  R )

- 18 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
72. Let a1 = 1, a2, a3, a4,…. be consecutive natural 1 –1 1
numbers. Then
Sol.  = 2 2  = 0
 1  −1  1 
tan−1   + tan   + .... 3 –1 4
 1 + a1a2   1 + a2a3 
 =4
 1 
+ tan−1   is equal to 3 = 0
 1 + a2021a2022 
  1 –1 5
(1) tan−1 ( 2022 ) − (2) cot −1 ( 2022 ) −
4 4 = 2 2 8 =0
  3 –1 
(3) − cot −1 ( 2022 ) (4) − tan−1 ( 2022 )
4 4   = 14
Answer (1)(3)*
 x2 – 18x + 56 = 0
–1 –1 –1 –1
Sol. tan (a2 ) – tan (a1) + tan (a3 ) – tan (a2 )
75. The number of ways of selecting two numbers a
–1 –1
+... + tan a2022 – tan a2021 and b, a  2,4,6,.....,100 and b  (1,3,5,....,99 )

= tan–1(a2022 ) – tan–1(a1) such that 2 is the remainder when a + b is divided


by 23 is

= tan–1(2022) – (1) 108
4

( ) ( )
13 9 (2) 186
73. Let x = 8 3 + 13 and y = 7 2 + 9 . If [t]
(3) 54
denotes the greatest integer  t, then
(4) 268
(1) [x] is odd but [y] is even
(2) [x] + [y] is even Answer (1)
(3) [x] and [y] are both odd Sol. a + b = 23 + 2
(4) [x] is even but [y] is odd
 = 0, 1, 2, …, but  cannot be even as a + b is odd
Answer (2)
 =1 (a, b) → 12 pairs
Sol. If I1 + f = (8 3 + 13)13 , f  = ( 8 3 – 13 )
13
=3 (a, b) → 35 pairs
I1 + f – f  = Even
=5 (a, b) → 42 pairs
I1 = Even
=7 (a, b) → 19 pairs
I2 + f – f  = ( 7 2 + 9 ) + ( 7 2 – 9 )
9 9
=9 (a, b) → 0 pairs
= Even
I2 = Even
Total = 12 + 35 + 42 + 19 = 108
74. For ,   , suppose the system of linear
76. If P is a 3 × 3 real matrix such that PT = aP + (a – 1)
equations I, where a > 1, then
x–y+z=5
1
2x + 2y + z = 8 (1) Adj P =
2
3x – y + 4z = 
(2) Adj P  1
Has infinitely many solutions. Then  and  are the
roots of (3) P is a singular matrix
(1) x2 + 14x + 24 = 0 (2) x2 – 18x + 56 = 0
(4) Adj P = 1
(3) x2 – 10x + 16 = 0 (4) x2 + 18x + 56 = 0
Answer (2) Answer (4)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
 a1

Sol. Let P = a2
b1
b2
c1 
c2 
( 2 −a ) 21 + (−1− b) 1
2
+ (1 − c )
1
2
=0

a3 b3 c3 
a b c 1
 + + =
Given : PT = aP + (a − 1) I 2 2 2 2

a1 a2 a3  aa1 + a − 1 ab1 ac1   a + 2b + c = 1


b b  
b3  =  aa2 ab2 + a − 1 
 1 2 ac2   Option (2) is correct.
c1 c2 c3   aa3 ab3 ac3 + a − 1
78. Let a, b, c > 1 a3, b3 and c3 be in A.P., and loga b,
 a1 = aa1 + a − 1  a1(1 − a ) = a − 1  a1 = −1 logc a and logb c be in G.P. If the sum of first 20
Similarly, a1 = b2 = c3 = −1 a + 4b + c
terms of an A.P., whose first term is and
3
Now, a2 = ab1  2
 → a2 = a a2  a2 = 0  b1 = 0 a − 8b + c
b1 = aa2  the common difference is is –444, then
10
c1 = aa3
abc is equal to:
Similarly all other elements will also be 0
343
a2 = a3 = b1 = b3 = c1 = c2 = 0 (1)
8
 –1 0 0  125
P =  0 –1 0 
(2)
 8
 0 0 –1 (3) 343
|P| = –1 (4) 216
Adj(P ) nn = | A |( n −1) Answer (4)

 Adj(P ) = (–1)2 = 1 Sol. 2b3 = a3 + c 3


2
77. A vector v in the first octant is inclined to the x- axis  log a   log b  log c 
  =  
at 60°, to the y-axis at 45° and to the z-axis at an  log c   log a  log b 
acute angle. If a plane passing through the points
 (log a )3 = (log c )3
( )
2, −1,1 and (a, b, c) is normal to v , then
 log a = log c
(1) 2a + b + c = 1 (2) a + 2b + c = 1
 a=c
(3) 2a − b + c = 1 (4) a + b + 2c = 1
 a=b=c
Answer (2)
3a
1 1 T1 = 2a, d = −
Sol. l = , m = , n = cos  5
2 2
S20 = − 444
l 2 + m2 + n2 = 1
20   3a  

1 1
+ + n2 = 1  n2 =
1
n=
1   2(2a) + (19)  −   = − 444
2   5 
4 2 4 2
1 (20a − 57a )
 is acute  n =  10 = − 444
2 5

1 1 ˆ 1 ˆ  37a = 222
 v = k  iˆ + j + k , k  R
 2 2 2   a=6

v ·(a – b ) = 0  abc = (6)3 = 216

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
79. The range of the function f ( x ) = 3 − x + 2 + x is: SECTION - B
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
(1)  5, 10  (2)  2, 7 
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
(3)  5, 13  (4) 2 2, 11 questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
Answer (1)
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
Sol. f ( x ) = 3 − x + x + 2 truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; e.g.
−1 1 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using the
y = + =0
2 3−x 2 x+2 mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in the
place designated to enter the answer.
 x +2= 3 −x
1 81. If  sec 2 x – 1 dx =  loge
 x=
2
 1 
cos 2x +  + cos 2x  1 + cos x  + constant,
 1 5 5   
y  = + = 10
2 2 2
then  –  is equal to _______.
ymin at x = –2 or x = 3, i.e., 5
Answer (01)
 f ( x )   5, 10 
 
1 − cos 2 x
80. Let q be the maximum integral value of p in [0, 10] Sol. I =  sec 2x − 1dx 
cos 2x
dx
5
for which the roots of the equation x2 – px + p = 0
4 2sin2 x
are rational. Then the area of the region = dx
2cos2 x − 1
( x, y ) : 0  y  ( x − q ) ,0  x  q is
2
Let 2cosx = t
125
(1) (2) 164 − 2 sin x dx = dt
3
(3) 243 (4) 25 dt
I = − = − ln t + t 2 − a2 + c
Answer (3) 2
t −1
Sol. Given equation : 4 x 2 − 4 px + 5 p = 0
= − ln 2 cos x + 2cos2 x − 1 + c

1
= − ln 2cos2 x + cos2 x + 2 2 cos2 x.cos2 x + c
2

1
= − ln 2cos 2 x + 1 + 2 cos 2 x(1 + cos 2 x ) + c
for rational roots, D must be perfect square 2

D = 16 p 2 − 4  4  5 p = 16 p( p − 5) 1 1
= − ln cos 2 x + + cos 2 x(1 + cos 2 x ) + c
So, max. Integral value of p = 9 for making 2 2
D is perfect square −1 1
 = , =
 q=9 2 2
Area of shared region
 –=1
9
=  ( x − 9)2 dx 82. Let A be the area of the region
0
9
( x, y ) : y  x 2, y  (1– x ) 2

, y  2x (1– x ) . Then
3 3
( x − 9) 9 540 A is equal to _______.
= = = 243 sq. units
3 3
0 Answer (25)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. 123  –3 (Mod 25)
129  –2 (Mod 25)
1210  –1 (Mod 25)
1250  –1 (Mod 25) …(i)
Now
18  7 (Mod 25)
182  –1 (Mod 25)
1850  –1 (Mod 25) …(ii)
 1250 + 1850  –2 (Mod 25)
y = x2 and y = 2x(1 – x)  23 (Mod 25)
 x2 = 2x – 2x2  Answer = 23
2
 x = 0, x = 84. The number of seven digits odd numbers, that can
3
be formed using all the seven digits 1, 2, 2, 2, 3, 3,
Now, 5 is _______.
y = (1 – x)2 and y = 2x(1 – X) Answer (240)
 1 + x2 – 2x = 2x – 2x2 6!
Sol. 1 → = 60
 3x2 – 4x + 1 = 0 2!3!
6!
x = 1, x =
1 3 → = 120
3 3!
6!
2 1 2  5 → = 60
3  2 3  3!2!
 A =  (2 x − 2 x 2 ) dx −   (1 − x )2 dx +  x 2dx 
Total = 240
1 1 1 
3  3 2  85. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 5, 8, 9}. Then the number of
possible functions f : A → A such that f(mn) = f(m)
2  1 2
  ( x − 1)3 f(n) for every m, n  A with mn  A is equal to
2x 3  3 2
x 33
=  x2 −


3  1
− +3 1
_______.
  3 1
3  3 2
Answer (432)
Sol. f(1.n) = f(1).f(n)  f(1) = 1.
5
= f(3.3) = (f(3))2
108
Hence the possibilities for (t(3), t(9)) are (1, 1) and
 540A = 25
(3, 9).
83. 50th root of a number x is 12 and 50th root of another
Other three i.e. f(2), f(5), f(8)
number y is 18. Then the remainder obtained on
Can be chosen in 63 ways.
dividing (x + y) by 25 is _______.
Hence total number of functions
Answer (23)
= 63 × 2
1
Sol. Given x 50 = 12  x = 1250 = 432

1
86. Let a line L pass through the point P(2, 3, 1) and be
y 50 = 18  y = 18 50 parallel to the line x + 3y – 2z – 2 = 0 = x – y + 2z.
If the distance of L from the point (5, 3, 8) is , then
12  13 (Mod 25) 32 is equal to _________.
122  19 (Mod 25) Answer (158)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
x − 2 y − 3 z −1 88. The 8th common term of the series
Sol. L : = = =
1 −1 −1
S1 = 3 + 7 + 11 + 15 + 19 + …,
Any point on L can be taken as
S2 = 1 + 6 + 11 + 16 + 21 + …,
B( + 2, – + 3, – + 1)
is ________.
Let A(5, 3, 8)
Answer (151)
(
So, AB · iˆ − jˆ − kˆ = 0 )
Sol. First common term is 11
[( − 3) iˆ − jˆ − ( + 7)kˆ ] · [iˆ − jˆ − kˆ ] = 0
Common difference of series of common terms is
–3+++7=0 LCM (4, 5) = 20

−4 a8 = a + 7d
 =
3
= 11 + 7 × 20 = 151
13 ˆ 4 ˆ 17 ˆ
AB = i+ i− k
3 3 3 89. A bag contains six balls of different colours. Two
balls are drawn in succession with replacement.
169 16 289
| AB | = + + The probability that both the balls are of the same
9 9 9
colour is p. Next four balls are drawn in succession
474 with replacement and the probability that exactly
= =
3 three balls are of the same colour is q. If p : q = m :
n, where m and n are coprime, then m + n is equal
474
32 =  3 = 158 to ________.
9

87. If the value of real number  > 0 for which x2 – 5x Answer (14)
+ 1 = 0 and x2 – x – 5 = 0 have a common real root
6 1
3 Sol. p = =
is then  is equal to _________. 36 6
2
6 4!
Answer (13) C1  5C1 
3! 120 5
q= = =
4 1296 54
Sol. x2 – 5x + 1 = 0 …(1) 6

x2 –x – 5 = 0 …(2) 1
p 6 54 9 m
have a common root. = = = =
q 5 65 5 n
6 54
Subtracting (1) with (2) we’ll get x = .
4
m + n = 14
Substituting in (1)
90. Let P(a1, b1) and Q(a2, b2) be two distinct points on

16 2
36

30
4
+1= 0 a circle with center C ( )
2, 3 . Let O be the origin

and OC be perpendicular to both CP and CQ. If the


9
 2 = 35
26 area of the triangle OCP is , then
2
3
= a12 + a22 + b12 + b22 is equal to ________.
2  13

  = 13 Answer (24)

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-1 (30-01-2023)-Evening
Sol. OC ⊥ CP and OC ⊥ CQ
( 2) + ( 3)
2 2
OC = = 5
 PCQ is a straight line
Let CP = CQ = l

1 35
[OCP ] =  OC  l =
2 2

l= 7

OP = OQ = (OC )2 + l 2 = 5 + 7 = 12

( ) (
a12 + a22 + b12 + b22 = a12 + b22 + a22 + b22 )
OP 2 + OQ 2 = 12 + 12 = 24

❑ ❑ ❑

- 24 -

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