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Listening Practice Tests

The document discusses extra listening practice tests for IRS. It provides details about practice test 1, including two extracts that would be heard and questions to complete based on the extracts. Extract 1 involves a doctor speaking to a patient, and notes to complete about the patient's information, symptoms, medical history and further treatment. Extract 2 involves another patient consultation with similar notes to complete. The document explains that part B involves choosing the correct answer from options after hearing different healthcare discussions, and part C involves two extracts with true/false questions to complete while listening.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
63 views66 pages

Listening Practice Tests

The document discusses extra listening practice tests for IRS. It provides details about practice test 1, including two extracts that would be heard and questions to complete based on the extracts. Extract 1 involves a doctor speaking to a patient, and notes to complete about the patient's information, symptoms, medical history and further treatment. Extract 2 involves another patient consultation with similar notes to complete. The document explains that part B involves choosing the correct answer from options after hearing different healthcare discussions, and part C involves two extracts with true/false questions to complete while listening.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 66

IRS

Extra Listening Practice tests


1-7

1
2
Practice test 1
Extract 1: Questions 1 - 12

You hear a doctor talking to a patient called Dzhambul. For questions 1 to 12, complete the following
notes with a word or short phrase. You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.
Patient :  Mr. Gonsalves
Age :  59
Symptoms & disease :  tracheostomy tube removal
Description of symptoms :  patient with end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease had a tracheostomy tube placement 3 months
before while having treatment for acute exacerbation
:  now residing in an extended care facility

:  requires (1) __________________________________

:  there has been some tenderness with tracheostomy tube


 difficulty in swallowing
:  patient wants the tracheostomy tube to be removed

Past surgeries :  Tonsillectomy, (4) ________________________________ cholecystec


tomy, appendectomy, (5) ____________________ and tracheostomy.

Past medical history :  Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, (2) ____________________


coronary artery disease, myocardial infarction, and
(3) ________________________________

Family history of illness :  heart disease, coronary artery disease, hypertension,


diabetes mellitus, and (6) ________________________________

Medications :  Prevacid, folic acid, aspirin, (7) ________________________________


Pulmicort, Risperdal, Colace, clonazepam, Lotrisone,
Roxanol, Ambien,(8) _______________________________ simethicone,
Robitussin, and prednisone.

Allergies :  (9) ________________________________

Physical examination :  blood pressure is 110/78, pulse rate is 96, and tempera
ture is 98.6. There is a stable tracheostomy tube site
Impression :  end-stage chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with a
history of respiratory failure requiring
(10) _______________________ withtracheostomy tube placement.

difficulty in tolerating tracheostomy tubes secondary to


swallow discomfort and neck irritation history of coronary
artery disease, myocardial infarction and (11) ____________________

Further treatment : limited bronchoscopy and then (12) ___________________________

3
Extract 2: Questions 13-24

You hear a physician talking to a patient called Thomas Andrews. . For questions 13-24, complete the
notes with a word or short phrase.
You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient :  Mr. Edward Corey


Age :  60
Symptoms & disease :  persistent cough for the past two weeks and some
shortness of breath

Patient’s description of symptoms:  he is a patient with (13) __________________________________ with


prior stent-supported angioplasty has persistent cough for
the past two weeks and some shortness of breath

he was treated for (14) __________________________________


 doesn’t drink, but smokes regularly

Past medical history :  coronary artery disease since 2016 (15) ________________________
for over 10 years, COPD & Hypertension.

Past surgeries :  (16) ________________________________ about eight years ago, neck


fusion stent-supported (17) ________________________________ to
unknown vessel in the heart.

Medications :  Aspirin 81 mg daily, (18) ______________________________

Allopurinol 100 mg daily, Levothyroxine 100 mcg a day,


Lisinopril 10 mg
Diagnosis :  Cardiovasc.-normal upstroke, distal pulse symmetrical.
Heart regular with a normal S1 with normally split S2.
 There is an (19) ________________________________ Lungs with
decreased air entry.

:  Echocardiogram shows (20)________________________________


normal thickening of the left ventricle with mildly dilated
ventricle, EF of 40%, (21) ________________________________ and
diastolic dysfunction, grade 2.

:  Nuclear stress study shows (22) ________________________________


no reversible ischemia identified.

Impression : cardiomyopathy, (23) ________________________________


Further treatment : Electrophysiology study required for ventricular tachycardia.

(24) _____________________________ will be determined at a later stage.


To continue metoprolol with a little higher dose of 25 mg twice

4
Test Practice: Part B
In this part of the test, you’ll hear six different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear people talking in a different
healthcare setting.

For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. You’ll have
time to read each question before you listen. Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at question 25.

25. You hear a monologue by a physician explaining about Lupus disease.

Lupus disease;

A Causes the antibodies to act against antigens.


B Leads the immune system to act against antibodies.
C Causes antibodies to act against the healthy tissues

26. You hear a discussion between a doctor and a nurse on leukopenia disease.

The white blood cell that can mend the damaged tissue is;

A Lymphocytes
B Monocytes
C Basophils

27. You hear a discussion between a doctor and a nurse on different stages of gout.

In which of the following gout stages the joints are irritated by calcium phosphate crystals?

A Pseudogout
B Intercritical stage
C Chronic tophaceous stage

28. You hear a discussion between a doctor and a nurse on different types of gum graft surgery.

Which gum graft surgeries is performed for the individuals with inadequate gums?

A Pedicle grafts
B Gingival grafts
C Connective tissue grafts

5
29. You hear a discussion between a doctor and a nurse about medical conditions that cause
undigested food to appear in the stool.

In which of the following diseases the patient becomes incapable to digest gluten in grains?

A Celiac disease
B Crohn’s disease
C Pancreatic insufficiency

30. You hear a discussion between a doctor and a nurse about different procedures to detect
blood clots.

Which of the following procedures uses catheterization technique?

A Endocardiography
B Ventilation-perfusion
C Angiography

That is the end of Part B.

6
Part C

In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear health professionals
talking about aspects of their work.

For questions 31 to 42, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at extract one.

Extract 1: Questions 31 to 36

You hear the lecture given by a physician on the topic blood type classifications
You now have 90 seconds to read questions 1-6.

31. Which of the following statements is correct?

A Viruses and bacteria are antigens


B Red blood cell antigens are protein molecules
C Red blood cells produce antibodies

32. In which of the following blood groups the plasma does not contain anti-A antibodies?

A B group
B AB group
C A group

33. What is the criterion that makes the blood type for transfusing to the patient with any blood
group?

A Having none of A or B antibodies


B Having none of A or B antigens
C Having A antigen and and anti-B antibody

34. In the US 39 percent of the population are with;

A A positive blood
B RhD-positive blood
C O positive blood

7
35. Which of the following blood types is considered as ‘Universal Donor Type’

A O negative
B O positive
C AB positive

36. What is a sensitization during pregnancy?

A If the antibody from the mother attacks red blood cells of the fetus
B If the RhD from the fetus attacks the red blood cells of the mother
C If the RhD from the mother attacks the red blood cells of the fetus

8
Extract 2: Questions 37 to 42

You hear the monologue of a physician giving a lecture on Types of Eczema.

You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.

37. Which of the following types of eczema occurs due to inhalant allergies?

A Irritant dermatitis
B Allergic contact dermatitis
C Atopic dermatitis

38. What occurs due to poor blood blood circulations in the veins of the legs?

A Atopic dermatitis
B Stasis dermatitis
C Irritant dermatitis

39. Poison Ivy is;

A An irritant dermatitis
B Allergic contact dermatitis
C Scabies

40. Tiny blisters on the sides of the fingers or toes and palms or soles are the symptoms of

A Fungal infections
B Scabies
C Pompholyx

41. Eczema that produces thickened plaques on the shins and neck is;

A Lichen simplex chronicus


B Seborrheic dermatitis
C Dyshidrotic eczema

9
42. Oozy rash behind the ears is caused by

A Lichen simplex chronicus


B Seborrheic dermatitis
C Dyshidrotic eczema

10
Practice test 2
Extract 1: Questions 1 - 12

You hear a doctor talking to a patient called Tainatongo. For questions 1 to 12, complete the
following notes with a word or short phrase.You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.
Patient :  Tainatongo
Age :  36
Symptoms & disease :  Allergies

Patient’s description :  intolerance to grass allergies, (1) __________________________________


 no anaphylaxis or angioedema
Past medical history :  when the patient was under dialysis due to renal failure six
months back, acute event of (2) __________________________________
etiology uncertain.

 results: allergic reaction due to (3) _________________________________


for treating cellulitis dialysis shunt infection.
Family history of illness :  family members have severe heart disease, carcinoma,
and food allergies.

Medications :  taking (4) __________________________________ for controlling blood


pressure, (5) __________________________________ , Lovaza, & Dialyvite.

Previous treatments :  corticosteroid therapy, antihistamine therapy & monitoring.

Allergies :  Heparin causes (6) __________________________________

Physical examination :  blood pressure 128/78, pulse 70, temperature is 97.8,


weight is 207 pounds, and height is 5 feet 7 inches.

Impression :  (7) __________________________________

Further diagnosis :  (8) __________________________________ test, to investigate specific


(9) __________________________________ to determine the
substances a subject is allergic to.
Further treatment :  further treatment and medications upon the test results

:  stop further usage of (10) __________________________________

:  (11) __________________________________ in the event of


(12) __________________________________ or allergic reaction or
sensation of impending allergic reaction

11
Extract 2: Questions 13 - 24

You hear a physician talking to a patient called Ndamukong. For questions 13 to 24, complete the
following notes with a word or short phrase.
You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.
Patient :  Ndamukong
Age :  29
Symptoms &disease :  Toothache
Patient’s description of :  has multiple issues with teeth - severe dental disease.

symptoms  had many of his (13) __________________________________

 having severe tooth pain to both (14) ______________________________


for the past three days.

 doesn’t drink, but (15) __________________________________

Family history of illness :  none

Medications :  (16) __________________________________ and Vicodin for


(17) __________________________________

Previous treatments :  had removed many of his teeth

Allergies :  penicillin and (18) __________________________________

Physical examination :  Temperature 97.9, blood pressure (19) ___________________________


pulse is 74, respirations 16, (20) __________________________________
98% on room air and interpreted as normal tenderness to
(21) __________________________________ gums are normal

 no (22) __________________________________ or swelling


 no purulent or other discharge noted.
 floor of the mouth is normal without any abscess,
 no suggestion of Ludwig's syndrome.

Impression :  (23) _________________________________ and Multiple Dental Caries

Further treatment :  (24) __________________________________ intramuscular

:  Teeth Filling
Complications :  None

That is the end of Part A


Now look at Part B

12
Test Practice: Part B
In this part of the test, you’ll hear six different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear people talking in a different
healthcare setting.

For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. You’ll have
time to read each question before you listen. Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at question 25.

25. You hear a discussion between a nurse and a physician explaining about Nipah virus.

The genus of Nipah virus is;

A Paramyxoviridae
B Henipavirus
C Pteropus

26. You hear a monologue of a physician explaining about the use of Thimerosal in vaccines.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A Thimerosal contains methylmercury


B Ethylmercury causes severe side effects to humans
C Ethylmercury is the most widely used form of organic mercury

27. You hear a discussion between two doctors on adjuvants used in vaccines.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A Aluminum gels are used in Cervarix vaccine


B Monophosphoryl lipid A has been used as an ingredient in vaccine since 1930
C Cervarix doesn’t contain aluminum salts

13
28. You hear a monologue of a physician explaining about Typhus Fevers.

Sylvatic typhus is also known as;

A Scrub typhus
B Louse-borne typhus
C Murine typhus

29. You hear a discussion between two doctors about VX and its effects.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A Sarin is much more toxic by entry through the skin.


B Symptoms will start appearing within few seconds of exposure to the liquid form of VX.
C The least volatility makes the VX as short-term threat as well as long term threat.

30. You hear a monologue of a doctor briefing about Rubella disease.

The vaccine for Rubella is not meant for;

A Mumps
B Measles
C Shingles

That is the end of Part B.

14
Part C

In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear health professionals
talking about aspects of their work.

For questions 31 to 42, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at extract one.

Extract 1: Questions 31 to 36

You hear the lecture given by a physician on the topic Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis disease
You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31-36.

31. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is also known as Lou Gehrig's disease, after the
famous basketball player who was diagnosed with this condition.
B The lifespan of the patients with Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis is about 3 to 5 years
after the appearance of the symptoms.
C There is no cure to amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and treatment is aimed to relieve
symptoms.

32. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A About 20 percent of patients will live 5 years or more after diagnosis,


B About 50 percent of patients will live for 20 years.
C just 10 percent of the patients will live for 10 years or more,

33. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A About 90 to 95 percent of patients are with sporadic amyotrophic lateral sclerosis


B About 5 to 10 percent of patients are with inherited amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
C About 5 to 10 percent of patients are with sporadic amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

15
34. Higher levels of glutamate secretion occurs due to;

A Chemical imbalance
B Disorganized immune response
C Mishandling of proteins

35. Which of the following is not one of the early symptom of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

A Emotional lability
B Slurred speech
C Abnormal limb fatigue

36. Which of the following is an upper motor symptom?

A Muscle atrophy
B Twitching
C Stiffness

16
Extract 2: Questions 37 to 42

You hear a doctor giving a lecture on Tests used on specimens to diagnose cancer.

You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.

37. Which of following statements suits best with this extract

A Adenocarcinomas can produce mucus


B mucicarmine stain leaves a pink-red appearance to mucus
C Pink-read appearance of mucus is an indication of lung cancer

38. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A Histochemical stain tests can diagnose only different kinds of cancer tumors.
B Special stains are used to identify microorganisms.
C Some infections cause lumps similar to cancer tumor.

39. Immunohistochemical stains are significant to;

A Find out whether the antibodies have been attracted to the cells.
B Find out the origin of the cancer.
C Find out whether the tumor is cancer or or not

40. Cytometry is used to diagnose the cells from;

A Lungs
B Colon
C Bone Marrow

41. The cells are diploid if;

A The DNA amount is abnormal


B The DNA amount is normal,
C The cancer grow and spread aggressively

17
42. The S-phase fraction measurement in cytometry test will measure;

A Size of the cancer cell S-Phase


B Size of the cancer tumor in S-Phase
C Amount of cells in S-Phase

That is the end of Part C

18
Practice test 3
Extract 1: Questions 1 - 12

You hear a doctor talking to a patient called Sedef Dagli. For questions 1 to 12, complete the following
notes with a word or short phrase. You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.
Patient :  Sedef Dagli
Age :  48
Symptoms & disease :  palpitations
Description of symptoms :  nine year history of occasional palpitations.
 occurs up to four times a year. palpitations continues for
one hour or more yesterday was the last occurrence 
 feeling of a (1) ________________________________ before her
vision she didn’t lose consciousness a
(2)________________________________ when she was walking with
dogs and the second time while working on computer.

Allergies :  (3)________________________________

Family history of illness : none

Past medical history :  had (4)________________________________ complicated by


(5)________________________________ from a neoprene cast.

Physical Examination :  pupils are reactive. Sclerae anicteric. Mucous membranes


are moist. Neck veins not distended. No bruits. Lungs are
clear. Cardiac exam is regular without murmurs, gallops,
or rubs. Abdomen is soft without guarding, rebound
masses, or bruits. (6)________________________________
 No edema. Strong and symmetrical distal pulses.

Diagnosis :  (7)________________________________ CT scan showed no evidence


of pulmonary embolus. Twodimensional echocardiogram
shows no evidence of clinically significant
(8)________________________________

:  A (9)________________________________ shows sinus rhythm with


normal axis and intervals. no evidence of preexcitation. Lab
reports show No evidence of myocardial injury.

Impression :  episodic palpitations and (10)________________________________

Further treatment :  outpatient workup suggested. (11)________________________________


should be obtained. to visit again upon completion of study.

:  suppressive medication (12)________________________________

19
Extract 2: Questions 13 - 24

You hear a physician talking to a patient called Dora NkemAkunyili. . For questions 13 to 24, complete
the following notes with a word or short phrase. You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient :  Mrs. Dora NkemAkunyili

Age :  36

Symptoms & disease :  uncontrolled blood pressure post C-section delivery.

Patient’s description :  uncontrolled blood pressure recently she had a Cesarean


delivery no chest pain or shortness of breath having (13)________________________________

Medications :  (14)________________________________ were discontinued. Started


on (15)________________________________ thrice a day, and
(16)____________________________ twice a day,
(17)______________________________ and insulin supplementation.

Past medical history : (18)_______________________________ gestational diabetes mellitus

Physical Examination :  Pulse of 86, (19)_______________________ afebrile and respiratory


rate 16 per minute. (20)________________________________ are flat.

Diagnosis :  echocardiogram shows (21)________________________________


with (22)________________________________ BUN and creatinine
within normal limits.

Impression :  (23)________________________________ status post delivery with


Cesarean section with uncontrolled blood pressure.
Borderline gestational diabetes mellitus.

Further diagnosis :  echocardiogram for assessment of (24)_________________________

That is the end of Part A

20
Test Practice: Part B
In this part of the test, you’ll hear six different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear people talking in a different
healthcare setting.

For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. You’ll have
time to read each question before you listen. Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at question 25.

25. You hear a discussion between a doctor and nurse about the complications are expected at a
later stage following heart attack.

In which of the following complications the lining of the heart becomes inflamed?

A Angina
B Aneurysm
C Pericarditis

26. You hear a discussion between a doctor and nurse about uterine fibroids.

If a fibroid that formed within in the uterus with a stalk-like growth, it is called;

A An Intramural fibroid
B A Pedunculated submucosal fibroid
C A pedunculated subserosal fibroid

27. You hear a discussion between a doctor and nurse about acquired digital fibrokeratoma.

In which type of the acquired digital fibrokeratoma, the tumors appear tall?

A Type II
B Type I
C Type II

21
28. You hear a discussion between a doctor and nurse about pelvic organ prolapse.

Which of the following types of prolapse involves the descent of anterior vaginal wall and
urethra?

A Cystourethrocele
B Uterovaginal prolapse
C Urethrocele

29. You hear a discussion between a doctor and nurse about hematuria.

Which type of hematuria is caused due to hereditary nephritis?

A Infective hematuria
B Renal hematuria
C Iatrogenic hematuria

30. You hear a discussion between a doctor and nurse about types of collagen and associated
disorders.

Which of the following types of collagen is associated with vitreous humour development?

A Type II
B Type IV
C Type III

That is the end of Part B.

22
Part C

In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear health professionals
talking about aspects of their work.

For questions 31 to 42, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at extract one.

Extract 1: Questions 31 to 36

You hear the discussion between a senior doctor and junior doctors about Volvulus.
You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31-36.

31. In an organoaxial volvulus, the stomach rotates along

A The path between the pylorus and the cardia.


B Pathway between the lesser and greater curvatures of the stomach
C Along its short axis

32. Which of the following conditions causes Ischemia?

A Midgut volvulus
B Mesenteroaxial volvulus
C Organoaxial volvulus

33. A corkscrew sign can be seen in the imaging of;

A Organoaxial volvulus
B Midgut volvulus
C Mesenteroaxial volvulus

34. Division of the tissue that creates an attachment between cecum and abdominal wall may
be required in;

A Sigmoidal volvulus
B Cecal volvulus
C Midgut volvulus

23
35. A coffee bean sign can be seen in the imaging of;

A Sigmoidal volvulus
B Cecal volvulus
C Midgut volvulus

36. Distended abdomens can be seen in the patients with;

A Cecal volvulus
B Midgut volvulus
C Sigmoidal volvulus

24
Extract 2: Questions 37 to 42

You hear the discussion of a physician with junior doctors on refractive error.

You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.

37. Which of the following are the photoreceptors?

A Cornea
B Cone cells
C Maculae

38. Cornea may be bulged more than usual in;

A Presbyopia
B Hypermetropia
C Mylopia

39. Which of the following statements is correct?

A Hypermetropia occurs when the light rays are refracted too much
B The cornea of the patient with hypermetropia may be flatter than usual
C The eyeball of the patient with hypermetropia may be too long than usual

40. The rays converge to a spot in front of the retina in the patients with;

A Mylopia
B Hypermetropia
C Presbyopia

41. Focus beyond retina is caused in;

A Hypermetropia
B Astigmatism
C Presbyopia

25
42. Light rays are scattered and come to focus at different spots on the retina in the patients
with;

A Presbyopia
B Astigmatism
C Hypermetropia

That is the end of Part C

26
Practice test 4
Extract 1: Questions 1 - 12

You hear a doctor talking to a patient called Mrs James. For questions 1 to 12, complete the following
notes with a word or short phrase. You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient :  Mrs James

Age :  21

Sympoms & disease :  pain on right shoulder

Patient’s description of :  throbbing pain on the right shoulder for


symptoms (1)____________________________

 pain aggravates, as he plays baseball regularly also

 participating in (2) ____________________________

Medications :  (3) ____________________________ Drugs & muscle relaxant


medications

Family history of illness :  mother has (4) ____________________________

Physical examination :  blood pressure is 116/68, respiratory rate 16, heart rate 68

 weight 165 lbs

 right shoulder shows evidence of (5) ____________________________


(6) ____________________________ are 2/4, bilateral. Brachial pulses
are 2/4 bilateral

 range of motion of right shoulder shows


(7) ____________________________ decreased extension

 (8) ____________________________ decreased internal rotation and


decreased external rotation

 (9) ____________________________ is moderate

Diagnosis :  x-ray report reveals presence of (10) ____________________________

Further treatment :  (11) ____________________________ tablet once a day.

 injection to shoulder joint with (12) ____________________________


1.0 cc.l

27
Extract 2: Questions 13 - 24

You hear a doctor talking to a patient called Mrs. Gonsalves. For questions 13 to 24, complete the
following notes with a word or short phrase. You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient :  Mrs. Gonsalves

Age :  48

Symptoms &disease :  sudden dizziness and had some cold sweats, shortness
in breath & became unconscious

Medical history :  (13) ____________________________ diagnosed a year ago. had


an IVC filter placed due to massive (14) ______________________
and gastric ulcers (15) ____________________________ and no
anticoagulation due to history of (16) __________________________
 Coronary artery disease status was (17) ____________________
had to stay in the ICU for 3 weeks due to lower GI bleed
again.

Medications :  Aspirin, Potassium, Lasix, (18) ____________________________


Lisinopril, Pacerone, Protonix, Toprol, Vitamin B, Zetia,
(19) ____________________________

Physical examination :  blood pressure is 155/57, pulse rate is 61, respirations


18 & (20) ____________________________ is 95% on room air. No
lymph nodes or masses. No lower extremity edema. No
redness or hotness.

Diagnosis :  laboratory reports show (21) ____________________________ and


hemoglobin 9.6. Your chest x-ray is clear.

Impression :  (22) ____________________________ to anticoagulation due to


recurrent gastrointestinal bleed, status post IVC filter.

 pulmonary hypertension suspected

 (23) ____________________________ disease, coronary artery


disease, and (24) ____________________________ disease per
Cardiology

That is the end of Part A

Now look at Part B

28
Test Practice: Part B
In this part of the test, you’ll hear six different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear people talking in a different
healthcare setting.

For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. You’ll have
time to read each question before you listen. Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at question 25.

25. You hear a discussion between a physician and nurse explaining about schistosomiasis

Which of the following is the infectious form of schistosomiasis?

A MSchistosoma mansoni
B Cercariae
C S. Haematobium

26. You hear a discussion between two doctors about the importance of measuring serum
amylase or serum lipase

Which of the following statements is correct?

A Measuring only serum amylase is adequate for diagnosing acute pancreatitis.


B The sensitivity and specificity of serum amylase is more than serum lipase.
C Serum lipase rises more quickly and remains elevated longer.

27. You hear a discussion between two doctors about the misdiagnosing of acute cardiorenal
syndrome as renal injury due to hypovolemia.

What is the suggested method to differentiate acute cardiorenal syndrome & renal injury due
to hypovolemia?

A Assessing the history of recent diuretic overuse


B Evaluating the urine electrolytes
C Diagnosing hypervolemia

29
28. You hear a physician explaining to his nurse about sepsis & infection.

Which of the following germs is also called staph?

A Escherichia Coli
B Streptococcus
C Staphylococcus aureus

29. You hear a discussion between two doctors about brain imaging prior to lumbar puncture in
the suspected cases of bacterial meningitis.

Which of the following statement is correct?

A Lumbar puncture should be delayed for patients with focal neurologic deficits.
B Can start the treatment even without a lumbar puncture with obtaining the blood
culture report.
C A brain imaging should be performed for all the patients with bacterial meningitis.

30. You hear a monologue by a physician about managing aneurysmal subarachnoid


hemorrhage.

Which of the following is a significant symptom of aneurysmal subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A Rebleeding
B Severe headache
C Cardiac and pulmonary abnormalities

That is the end of Part B.

30
Part C

In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear health professionals
talking about aspects of their work.

For questions 31 to 42, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at extract one.

Extract 1: Questions 31 to 36

You hear the doctor’s lecture on Acutecardiorenal syndrome.


You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31-36.

31. Which of the following statements is correct?

A If the primary problem of cardiorenal syndrome is in the heart it is called


renocardiac syndrome.
B Acute exacerbation of heart failure is called renocardiac syndrome.
C If the primary problem is not in the heart or kidneys then the condition is called
secondary cardiorenal syndrome.

32. Which of the following involves the end-stage kidney disease?

A RIFLE
B AKIN
C Acute cardiorenal syndrome

33. Cardiogenic shock is characterized by;

A Worsening pulmonary
B Hypoperfusion
C Hypervolemia

34. Which of the following statements is correct?

A Hypovolemic is the hallmark of acute heart failure.


B Worsening pulmonary is a condition in cardiogenic shock.
C Hypoperfusion can cause systemic organ damage.

31
35. Renal perfusion is reduced in acute heart failure due to

A Renal venous congestion


B Hypoperfusion
C Abrupt decrease of cardiac pump function

36. Which of the following effects is not caused by aggravation in sympathetic hyperactivity?

A Increased renal perfusion


B Constriction of efferent and afferent arterioles
C Increased tubular sodium and water reabsorption

32
Extract 2: Questions 37 to 42

You hear the doctor giving a lecture on anticoagulation therapy for patients with endocarditis.

You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.

37. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A Anticoagulation is inevitable in the patients with endocarditis


B Endocarditis alone is not an indication for anticoagulation
C Anticoagulation may be suggested if the endocarditis patient has vein thrombosis

38. According to the studies, anticoagulation therapy;

A Increased the cerebrovascular complications


B Prevented the growth and propagation of vegetation
C Increased the vegetation size

39. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A Ischemic stroke in patients who received anticoagulation was underestimated.


B The beneficial effects at least counterbalance the harmful effects of
anticoagulation.
C There was no increase in the rate of hemorrhagic lesions in the patients who
received anticoagulation therapy.

40. The studies show that anticoagulation was beneficial;

A Once antimicrobial therapy had begun


B When the patients received warfarin before diagnosis
C For the patients with non native valve

41. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A Patients suspected for stroke should continue with anticoagulation therapy


B Patients with pathogens such as Candida spp should suspend anticoagulation
therapy
C Anticoagulation therapy for the sole purpose of stroke prevention is not advised for
the patients with newly diagnosed endocarditis.

33
42. Low-molecular weight heparin can be given if;

A Surgery is considered
B Surgery is not anticipated
C In both the cases

That is the end of Part C

34
Practice test 5
Extract 1: Questions 1 - 12

You hear a doctor talking to a patient called Polina . For questions 1 to 12, complete the following notes
with a word or short phrase.
You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient :  Polina SemyonovnaZhemchuzhina

Age :  57

Symptoms &disease :  single episode of decreased eye vision

Patient’s description of :  have a history of (1) ______________________________ and had a


symptoms (2) ______________________________ since last one month she had
a sing episode of decreased eye vision The problem lasted
for about five minutes that occured four weeks ago when
while driving the car.
 During that time she felt (3) ______________________________
 Subsequent CT scan, (4) ______________________________
echocardiogram, and neurological evaluation, all were
unremarkable. she couldn’t have an MRI due to the
pacemaker placement. no lesions or any change in vision,
headaches, change in gait or other neurological issues.
 Drinks socially, doesn’t smoke.

Medications :  Plavix, baby aspirin 81 mg per day, (5) _______________________


daily and (6) ______________________________ daily.

Physical Examination :  blood pressure 134/80, heart rate 60, (7) ________________________
and weight is 244 pounds.

Diagnosis :  Cranial nerves (8) ______________________________ has normal bulk


and tone throughout. There is no cogwheeling. There is
some minimal weakness at the (9) ______________________________
4+ or 5 and possibly trace weakness at the quadriceps -5
or 5. has decreased sensation to (10) ___________________________
only, otherwise sensory is intact to light touch, and
temperature, pinprick, proprioception and vibration. There
is no dysmetria or tremor noted. Romberg is negative.

Impression :  (11) ______________________________ his brief episode of visual loss


is concerning for compromise of the posterior circulation.
Differential diagnoses include hypoperfusion, stenosis, and
dissection.
 Has (12) ______________________________ The symptoms are very
mild and consist mainly of some mild proximal upper
extremity weakness and very mild gait instability.

35
Extract 2: Questions 13 - 24

You hear a physician talking to a patient called Mrs. Emmeline Pethick. For questions 13 to 24,
complete the following notes with a word or short phrase. You now have thirty seconds to look at the
notes.
Patient :  Mrs. Emmeline Pethick
Age :  40
Symptoms & disease :  acute onset of headaches

Patient’s description of :  has (13) ____________________________ set at 90 m.m.H.2.O.


 Recently getting acute onset of headaches and is
worsening day by day. patient couldn’t sleep. pain is
constant worsens with (14) ____________________________ as
well as on standing up. she took Imitrex and
(15) ____________________________ but didn’t have much relief
pain quite intense in the (16) ____________________________ gets
a (17) ____________________________ experienced
(18) ____________________________ and dimming lights

Physical Examination :  blood pressure 153/86, pulse 63, and respiratory rate 16.
Cranial nerves Intact for (19) ____________________________ shut
site is clean, dry, and intact. There is a small 3 mm to 4
mm round scab (20) ____________________________ there is a
(21) ____________________________ there.

Impression :  worsening headaches are secondary to


(22) _________________________ (23) ____________________________

and migraine headaches

Further diagnosis :  to have another (24) ____________________________ to confirm the


shunt back program to 90 mmH2O.

36
Test Practice: Part B
In this part of the test, you’ll hear six different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear people talking in a different
healthcare setting.

For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. You’ll have
time to read each question before you listen. Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at question 25.

25. You hear a discussion between a doctor and nurse about different complications,following
heart attack.

What happens when a cardiogenic shock occurs following heart attack?

A Heart beats irregularly.


B Blood pressure drops suddenly.
C Oxygen levels in the blood become too low.

26. You hear the discussion between two doctors about the impacts of acute kidney injury.

Urine output of less than 0.5 milliliter per kilogram per hour for 14 hours indicates;

A Stage 1 of acute kidney injury


B Stage 3 of acute kidney injury
C Stage 2 of acute kidney injury

27. You hear a discussion between two doctors about acquired melanocytic nevi.

Pseudohorn cysts may be seen in;

A Dermal Nevi
B Junctional Nevi
C Compound Nevi

37
28. You hear a discussion between a doctor and nurse about amblyopia.

In which of the following conditions one eye has a refractive error?

A Anisometropic amblyopia
B Occlusion amblyopia
C Strabismic amblyopia

29. You hear a discussion between a doctor and nurse about miliaria.

The condition called sudamina occurs;

A When sweat moves from the ducts into the dermis.


B During sweat duct obstruction in the uppermost epidermis.
C During retention of sweat that moves into the middle layers of the epidermis and the
upper dermis.

30. You hear a discussion between a doctor and nurse about different types of stents.

Which of the following stents is used to keep blood vessels outside the coronary arteries
open?

A Stent grafts
B Coronary stent
C Peripheral vascular stent

38
Part C

In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear health professionals
talking about aspects of their work.

For questions 31 to 42, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at extract one.

Extract 1: Questions 31 to 36

You hear the discussion between a senior doctor and junior doctors on epidermal nevi.
You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31-36.

31. What is always localized?

A Nevus uniuslateris
B Ichthyosis hystrix
C Nevus verrucosus

32. Which of these follow the lines of Blaschko?

A Keratinocytic epidermal nevus


B Nevus sebaceous
C Nevus comedonicus

33. Which can form blackheads?

A Keratinocytic epidermal
B Nevus comedonicus
C Becker nevus

39
34. Which of these is androgen--dependent?

A Becker nevus
B Nevus comedonicus
C Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus

35. Which one of these is not associated with brain?

A Nevus comedonicus
B Angora hair nevus
C Becker nevus

36. The epidermal nevi that form plaques is;

A Porokeratotic eccrine nevus


B Inflammatory linear verrucous epidermal nevus
C Acantholytic epidermal nevus

40
Extract 2: Questions 37 to 42

You hear the discussion of a physician with junior doctors on different types of gangrene.

You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.

37. Which of the following conditions damages small arteries and blood vessels?

A Peripheral arterial disease


B Dyslipidemia
C Diabetes

38. Which of the following diseases develop fatty acid deposits?

A Peripheral arterial disease


B Diabetes
C High cholesterol

39. The disease caused by the bacteria called Clostridium is;

A Peripheral arterial disease


B Necrotising fasciitis
C Gas gangrene

40. Staphylococcus bacteria causes;

A Necrotising fasciitis
B Internal Gangrene
C Gas gangrene

41. Which of the following bacteria is also known as ‘flesh eating bacteria’

A Clostridium
B Necrotising fasciitis
C perfringens

41
42. Which of the following conditions can be caused by alcohol misuse?

A Cancrumoris
B Meleney's synergistic gangrene
C Fournier's gangrene

That is the end of Part C

42
Practice test 6
Extract 1: Questions 1 - 12

You hear a doctor talking to a patient called Dzhambul. For questions 1 to 12, complete the following
notes with a word or short phrase. You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient :  Dzhambul
Age :  45
Symptoms & disease :  swelling developed on left testicle.
Patient’s description of :  had marginal B-cell lymphoma and cured with
symptoms (1) ________________________________ two years ago.
 developed a diffuse large B-cell lymphoma last year and
was treated with CHOP/reduction.

 The disease was again (2) ________________________________

:  a swelling developed on left testicle last week. had fevers


and chills for the past few days and felt weak.
:  used to smoke and drink, but stopped from last year
Family history of illness :  mother had paralysis before her death at 70.

 father is deceased at age 84 of a (3) _______________________

 56-year-old brother with type-two (4) _______________________

secondary to diabetic retinopathy. 41-year-old younger


brother has hypertension. younger sister has
(5) ________________________________

Diagnosis :  laboratory data shows white (6) ___________________________

hemoglobin 14.3, (7) ________________________________ platelets


235,000. SMA-7 shows a (8) ________________________________

Glucose is 213.
Physical examination :  no conjunctival pallor or icterus. No adenopathy.
 No carotidbruits.
 Lungs are clear. No gallop or murmur in heart. Your right
testicle is (9) ________________________________ and tender.
 Endocrine shows (10) ________________________________

Impression :  left testicular swelling. It is tender. Etiology - possible


epididymitis or (11) ________________________________

Further diagnosis :  ultrasound tests for (12) __________________________ CT scan


of abdomen and pelvis upon seeing the ultrasound reports.
Further treatment : IV antibiotics.

43
Extract 2: Questions 13-24

You hear a physician talking to a patient called Thomas Andrews. . For questions 13-24, complete the
notes with a word or short phrase.
You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.

Patient :  Otgonbayar
Age :  47
Symptoms & disease :  sinus, getting postnasal drainage, facial pain, headaches,
sore throat and congestion
Patient’s description :  has sinus problem with postnasal drainage, facial pain,
of symptoms headaches, sore throat and congestion for the past two
weeks. getting snoring, (13) ________________________________

condition worsens in morning and evening


: doesn’t drink, but smokes 1 pack of cigarettes per day for
the past 15 years
Past medical history : surgeries to (14) ________________________________

Family history of illness : (15) ________________________________

Medications : Claritin, (16) ________________________________

Diagnosis : auricles/external auditory canals reveal no significant abnor


malities bilaterally. TMs intact with no middle ear effusion
and are mobile to insufflation. (17) ______________________________
reveals moderate congestion and purulent mucus.
(18) ________________________________ shows teeth/alveolar ridges
reveals missing molar.
(19)________________________________ shows a prominent uvula
and purulent postnasal drainage.
The (20) ________________________________ The palpation of
anterior neck reveals no tenderness. Examination of the
posterior neck shows mild tenderness to (21) ___________________
Facial examination shows there is (22) __________________________
tenderness to palpation. Water's view x-ray reveals bilateral
maxillary mucosal thickening.
Impression : (23) ________________________________ Snoring (786.09).
Further treatment : Augmentin. 875 mg twice a day and (24) _________________________
for three weeks.
Further diagnosis : mini sinus CT if the condition doesn’t improve in three weeks

44
Test Practice: Part B
In this part of the test, you’ll hear six different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear people talking in a different
healthcare setting.

For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. You’ll have
time to read each question before you listen. Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at question 25.

25. You hear a discussion between a doctor and nurse about hypoxia and its causes.

Which of the following conditions arises due to decreased blood flow to the tissues?

A Hypoxic hypoxia
B Histotoxic hypoxia
C Stagnant hypoxia

26. You hear a discussion between a doctor and nurse about the disease called botulism.

Which of these may occur due to a cosmetic surgery?

A Adult intestinal toxemia botulism


B Iatrogenic botulism
C Wound botulism

27. You hear a discussion between a doctor and nurse about gastroesophageal reflux disease.

Esophageal hiatus occurs in which of the following conditions?

A Esophageal Irritation
B Hiatal hernia
C Motility disorder

28. You hear a discussion between a doctor and nurse about congenital myopathy and its types.

Which of the following diseases is associated with espiratory muscle weakness?

A Nemaline myopathy
B Metabolic myopathy
C Mitochondrial myopathy

45
29. You hear a discussion between a doctor and nurse about primary brain tumors.

Which of the following primary brain tumors cannot be grade I?

A Oligodendroglioma
B Astrocytoma
C Meningiom

30. You hear a discussion between a doctor and nurse about different types of aspergillosis.

Which of the following types of aspergillosis is caused through a break in the skin?

A Cutaneous aspergillosis
B Aspergilloma
C Invasive aspergillosis

That is the end of Part B.

46
Part C

In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear health professionals
talking about aspects of their work.

For questions 31 to 42, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at extract one.

Extract 1: Questions 31 to 36

You hear the lecture given by a physician on different categories of strokes and their location.
You now have 90 seconds to read questions 1-6.

31. The stroke caused by embolus is;

A Watershed stroke
B Ischemic stroke
C Hemorrhagic stroke

32. Brain aneurysm is caused in

A Ischemic stroke
B Watershed stroke
C Hemorrhagic stroke

33. Low blood supply to susceptible regions of the brain causes

A Hemorrhagic stroke
B Watershed stroke
C Ischemic stroke

34. A condition called paranoia is caused in the patients who had a;

A Cortical stroke
B Hemorrhagic stroke
C Frontal lobe stroke

47
35. Trouble understanding the spoken or written language is caused due to;

A Frontal cortex stroke


B Temporal cortex stroke
C Occipital cortex stroke

36. Which of the following strokes does not affect the speech?

A Frontal cortex stroke


B Brainstem stroke
C Parietal cortex stroke

48
Extract 2: Questions 37 to 42

You hear the monologue of a physician giving a lecture on Hemolytic Anemia.

You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.

37. The hemolytic anemia caused due to inadequate hemoglobin is;

A Sickle Cell Anemia


B Thalassemia
C Inherited Hemolytic Anemia

38. Inherited Hemolytic Anemia is caused due to;

A Faulty genes
B Abnormal hemoglobin
C Abnormal red blood cells

39. Which of the following is not caused by a defective surface membrane of the red blood cells?

A Thalassemi
B Hereditary Elliptocytosis
C Hereditary Spherocytosis

40. Which of the following diseases may be caused by naphthalene?

A Pyruvate Kinase Deficiency


B Immune Hemolytic Anemia
C Glucose-6-Phosphate Dehydrogenase Deficiency

41. The disease caused in pregnant women due to a difference in the blood group of the fetus;

A Alloimmune hemolytic anemia


B Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
C Pyruvate kinase deficiency

49
42. Preeclampsia is;

A A malignant hypertension or a rare blood disorder


B A condition that causes high blood pressure during pregnancy
C A condition that causes seizures in pregnant women

50
Practice test 7
Extract 1: Questions 1 - 12

You hear a doctor talking to a patient called Hiromichi. For questions 1 to 12, complete the
following notes with a word or short phrase.You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.
Patient : Hiromichi
Age : 54
Symptoms &disease : suffocating feeling and shortness of breath
Patient’s description of : having a suffocating feeling whenever lying flat on back.

symptoms now sleeping in an (1) ________________________________

: gets (2) ________________________________ and shortness of breath.

: no chest pain, no bleeding disorder

Past medical history : (3) ________________________________ hypertension, asthma, and


(4) ________________________________

Family history of illness : brothers had prostate cancer; father had


(5) ________________________________ . brothers

and sister have diabetes.

Medications : glipizide 5 mg twice a day, (6) ________________________________


Atacand 16 mg daily, metoprolol 25 mg twice a day, Lipitor
10 mg daily, (7) ________________________________

(8) ________________________________ Detrol 4 mg daily, Zyrtec 10


mg daily, (9) ________________________________ one puff twice a day,
and fluticasone spray 50 mcg two sprays daily.
Allergies : none

Diagnosis : Cat scan shows a (10) ________________________________ and there


is a small pancreatic lesion on left adrenal node pancreas
shows pancreatic lesion towards the
(11) ________________________________ of the pancreas, approximately
1 cm, most likely of cystic nature
: Neoplasm cannot be ruled out
: earlier colonoscopy last year shows 3 adenomatous polyps.
Impression : left adrenal and pancreatic lesions.

Further treatment : (12) ________________________________ with Radiology and probably


at some point there may be a need of operative intervention.

51
Extract 2: Questions 13 - 24

You hear a physician talking to a patient called Mackenzie. For questions 13 to 24, complete the following
notes with a word or short phrase.
You now have thirty seconds to look at the notes.
Patient : Mackenzie
Age : 45
Symptoms &disease : persistent pain symptoms down back the right leg to knee
Patient’s description of : Has a three years of history of lung cancer metastasized in

symptoms both femurs, lower (13) ________________________________

: had numerous chemotherapy and radiation treatments and


just completed a series of 10 radiation treatments for pain
relief.
has persistent pain symptoms mostly in low back on the right
side, radiating down the back of right leg to knee.

has some (14) ________________________________

some throbbing pain in the left foot at times.


pain worsens while prolonged sitting in the car, walking or
standing
: smokes one pack a day for last 30 years; drinks beer twice a
day

Past surgeries : (15) ________________________________

Medications : Duragesic patch 250 mcg total, (16) _____________________________


iron 240 mg twice daily, Paxil 20 mg daily,
(17) ________________________________ daily, and Percocet.
(18) ________________________________ to keep my chest port
patent.
Allergies : none
Diagnosis : neurological examinations show that reflexes are 2+ in both
knees and absent at both ankles. Sensations are decreased
distally in the left foot, otherwise intact to pinprick.
: Examination of lumbar spine shows normal
(19) ________________________________ with fairly functional range
of movement. There is a significant tenderness at
(20) ________________________________ and sacroiliac joints that
seems to reproduce a lot of your low back and right leg
complaints.
: multiple scan reports reveal that abnormal uptake involving

52
the femurs bilaterally.

Has increased uptake in the (21) ________________________________

MRI of the lower hip joints shows (22) ________________________________


in both proximal femurs. Pelvis
CT shows a trabecular pattern with healed metastases.
CT of the orbits reveal a small amount of fluid in mastoid air
cells on the right.
Impression : small cell lung cancer with metastasis at the lower lumbar
spine, pelvis, and both femurs. Symptomatic facet and sac
roiliac joint syndrome on the right and chronic pain syndrome.

(23) ________________________________ is probably secondary to the


chemotherapy and radiation treatments
Further diagnosis : injection of right sacroiliac and facet joints under fluoroscopy
Further treatment : If the pain is persistent even after injection, can take an extra
50 mcg patch and take a couple of extra Percocet if needed.
stop taking Paxil and to start (24) ________________________________
instead.
That is the end of Part A
Now look at Part B

53
Test Practice: Part B
In this part of the test, you’ll hear six different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear people talking in a different
healthcare setting.

For questions 25-30, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear. You’ll have
time to read each question before you listen. Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at question 25.

25. You hear a discussion between a nurse and a physician explaining about different types of
breath sounds.

The abnormal breath sound of a person with a blocked upper airway is;

A Wheezing
B Stridor
C Squawk

26. You hear a monologue by a physician explaining about Heberden's nodes.

Which of the following statements suits best with this extract?

A Abnormal growth of bones on finger joints is called interphalangeal joints.


B Cartilage layer causes the bones to damage gradually over time.
C Osteoarthritis is not the only cause for Heberden’s nodes.

27. You hear a discussion between a nurse and a physician explaining about surgical treatments
for patients with a desiccated disc.

The extra bone that has moved out of place is removed in;

A Fusion method
B Correction method
C Decompression method

54
28. You hear a discussion between a nurse and a physician explaining about outcomes of TB skin
test.

Which of the following statements is correct?

A Patients vaccinated using the bacillus Calmette-Guérin show a positive result for TB
B Patients exposed measles show a false negative result to TB
C If the bump is larger than 5 mm then the test result is considered negative for TB

29. You hear a discussion between a nurse and a physician explaining about atelectasis.

Which of the following statements suits best with this extract?

A Alveoli in the lower lobes of the lungs deflate during bibasilar atelectasis.
B Bibasilar atelectasis is a partial collapse of lungs
C Deflation of alveoli in the lower lobes of the lungs is called atelectasis.

30. You hear a discussion between a nurse and a physician explaining about liver flukes.

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A It is difficult to diagnose liver flukes as the symptoms are similar to other conditions.
B Liver flukes is the disease caused by fascioliasis.
C Pain in abdomen is caused when liver flukes burrow through the lining of the liver.

That is the end of Part B.

55
Part C

In this part of the test, you’ll hear two different extracts. In each extract, you’ll hear health professionals
talking about aspects of their work.

For questions 31 to 42, choose the answer (A, B or C) which fits best according to what you hear.
Complete your answers as you listen.

Now look at extract one.

Extract 1: Questions 31 to 36

You hear the lecture given by a physician on the topic Cystic hygromas
You now have 90 seconds to read questions 31-36.

31. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A Cystic hygroma in embryo can result in miscarriage


B Cystic hygroma that are present at the time of birth are malignant
C Blockage in the lymphatic system causes cystic hygroma

32. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A Adult onset cystic hygroma is very rare


B 50 percent of the cases of cystic hygroma are due to viral infections to a fetus
C Drug and alcohol consumption during pregnancy can also cause cystic hygroma

33. Additional set of chromosomes to the fetus are developed when;

A The woman misses X chromosome completely or partially


B There is a Noonan syndrome
C There is a condition of Trisomy 13, 18 or 21

34. Unusual facial feature is formed when;

A There is a Noonan syndrome


B The woman misses X chromosome completely or partially
C There is a condition of Trisomy 13, 18 or 21

56
35. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A Low levels of alpha-fetoproteins is an indication of cystic hygroma


B Usually cystic hygroma is diagnosed during pregnancy.
C Blood tests at 15 to 20 weeks of pregnancy can detect cystic hygroma formation

36. Chromosomal abnormalities can be detected through

A Transvaginal probe
B Amniocentesis
C Fast spin magnetic resonance

57
Extract 2: Questions 37 to 42

You hear the monologue of a physician giving a lecture on delusions of grandeur and its treatments.

You now have 90 seconds to read questions 37-42.

37. A manic episode occurs in patients with

A Narcissistic personality disorder


B Bipolar disorder
C Dementia

38. In which of the following conditions, a person may tend to spend too much of money?

A Manic episode
B Narcissistic personality disorder
C Dementia patients with delusion of grandeur

39. In which of the following disorders, patients lack empathy?

A Bipolar disorder
B Narcissistic personality disorder
C Dementia patients with delusion of grandeur

40. In which of the following conditions, hallucinations does not occur?

A Schizophrenia
B Brain damage or injury
C Dementia patients with delusion of grandeur

41. Drugs such as lithium is given to the patients with;

A Bipolar disorder
B Schizophrenia
C Narcissistic personality disorder

58
42. A comprehensive, ongoing therapy to offset the effects of delusions is needed to patients
with;

A Bipolar disorder
B Narcissistic personality disorder
C Brain damage

That is the end of Part C

59
Listening test answer key
Test 1
1. Persistent Oxygen Administration
2. (4) Adenoidectomy
3. (5) Hernia Repair
4. (2) Hypercarbic Hypoxemia
5. (3) Liver Cirrhosis Secondary To Alcohol Use
6. Cerebrovascular Accident
7. Morphine Sulfate
8. Zolpidem Tartrate
9. Nitroglycerin
10. Mechanical Ventilatory Support
11. Cirrhosis Of Liver
12. Fiberoptic Laryngoscopy
13. Coronary Disease And Peripheral Vascular Disease
14. Pneumonia
15. Peripheral Vascular Disease
16. Right Fem-popliteal Bypass
17. Angioplasty
18. Clopidogrel 75 Mg Daily
19. S4 At The Apex
20. Mild Biatrial Enlargement
21. Mild Mitral Regurgitation
22. Fixed Inferolateral Defects
23. Ischemic With Exacerbation Of Symptoms
24. Defibrillator
25. A
26. B
27. A
28. B
29. A
30. C
31. A
32. C
33. B
34. C
35. A
36. A
37. C
38. B
39. B
40. C
41. A
42. B

60
Test 2
1. Inhalant And Environmental Allergies
2. Perioral Swelling
3. Keflex Dosage
4. Atenolol
5. Sodium Bicarbonate
6. Thrombocytopenia
7. Acute Anaphylaxis
8. Radioallergosorbent
9. Ige Antibodies
10. Cephalosporin Antibiotics
11. Epipen
12. Acute Angioedema
13. Teeth Removed
14. Lower And Upper Teeth On Left Side
15. Smokes Regularly
16. Oxycontin
17. Knee Pain
18. Codeine
19. 146/83
20. Oxygen Saturation
21. Tooth 12 As Well As Tooth 21
22. Erythema
23. Odontalgia
24. Dilaudid Of 4 Mg
25. B
26. C
27. C
28. B
29. B
30. C
31. A
32. B
33. C
34. A
35. A
36. C
37. C
38. A
39. B
40. C
41. B
42. C
61
Test 3
1. Darkness Descending As A Shade
2. 2. Modest Palpitation Occurred
3. 3. Neoprene
4. 4. Anterior Cruciate Ligament Reconstruction
5. 5. Contact Urticaria
6. 6. Extremities Well Perfused
7. 7. D-dimer Was Mildly Elevated To 5
8. 8. Structural Or Functional Heart Disease
9. 9. 12-lead Electrocardiogram
10. 10. Presyncope
11. 11. Event Recorder
12. 12. Beta-blocker Or Cardizem
13. 13. Fatigue And Tiredness
14. 14. Cardizem And Metoprolol
15. 15. Hydralazine 50 Mg
16. 16. Labetalol 200 Mg
17. 17. Hydrochlorothiazide
18. 18. Hypertension
19. 19. Blood Pressure 175/86
20. 20. Neck Veins
21. 21. Sinus Tachycardia
22. 22. Nonspecific St-t Changes
23. 23. Preeclampsia
24. 24. Left Ventricular Function
25. 25. C
26. 26. B
27. 27. A
28. 28. C
29. 29. B
30. 30. A
31. 31. A
32. 32. C
33. 33. B
34. 34. C
35. 35. A
36. 36. A
37. 37. B
38. 38. C
39. 39. B
40. 40. A
41. 41. A
42. 42. B

62
Test 4
1. The Past Five Months
2. Basketball
3. Non-steroidal Anti-inflammatory
4. Arthritis
5. Swelling And Tenderness
6. Radial Pulses
7. Decreased Flexion
8. Decreased Adduction Rotation
9. Rotator Cuff Impingement
10. Cuff Arthropathy
11. Vioxx 25 Mg
12. CelestoneSoluspan
13. Pulmonary Embolism
14. Gastrointestinal Bleeding Diverticulosis
15. Paroxysmal Atrial Fibrillation
16. Gastrointestinal Bleed
17. Post Bypass Graft Surgery
18. Levothyroxine
19. Zyrtec
20. Oxygen Saturation
21. Creatinine 2.1
22. Pulmonary Embolism With Contraindication
23. Mitral Valve
24. Peripheral Vascular
25. B
26. C
27. A
28. C
29. B
30. B
31. C
32. A
33. B
34. C
35. A
36. A
37. C
38. B
39. A
40. B
41. A
42. A

63
Test 5

1. First-degree Atrioventricular Block


2. Pacemaker Placement
3. Nauseated And Light Headed
4. Carotid Dopplers
5. Proscar 5 Mg
6. Synthroid 0.2 Mg
7. Respiratory Rate 16
8. Ii Through Xii Are Intact
9. Iliopsoas Bilaterally
10. Vibration And Proprioception To The Middle Of Feet
11. Transient Ischemic Attack.
12. Lumbar Stenosis
13. Codman-hakim Shunt
14. Coughing, Straining, And Sneezing
15. Motrin 800 Mg Twice A Day
16. Frontal Region Of Head
17. Feeling Of Ringing In The Ears
18. Intermittent Blurry Vision
19. Extraocular Movements
20. Farther Down From The Shunt Reservoir
21. Little Bit Of Dry Blood
22. Shunt Adjustment Back After An Mri
23. PseudotumorCerebri Without Papilledema
24. Skull X-ray
25. B
26. C
27. A
28. A
29. B
30. C
31. C
32. A
33. B
34. A
35. C
36. B
37. C
38. A
39. C
40. A
41. B
42. C

64
Test 6
1. Splenectomy
2. Went Into Complete Remission
3. Head And Neck Cancer
4. Diabetes And Blindness
5. Thyroid Disease
6. Blood Count Is 13.8
7. Hematocrit 42.4
8. Potassium Of 3.9
9. Markedly Erythematous And Swollen
10. Symptoms Of Type Ii Diabetes Mellitus
11. Possible Torsion Of The Testis
12. Scrotum And Abdomen
13. Teeth Pain And Nasal Burning
14. Gallbladder And Hernia
15. Allergies And Hypertension
16. Dilantin And Rhinocort Nasal Spray
17. Intranasal Exam
18. Oropharynx Examination
19. Posterior Pharynx
20. Palatine Tonsils Are 2+ And Cryptic
21. Palpation Of The Suboccipital Muscles
22. Bilateral Maxillary Sinus
23. Acute Maxillary Sinusitis (461.0)
24. Muco Fen 800 Mg Twice A Day
25. C
26. B
27. B
28. A
29. A
30. A
31. B
32. C
33. B
34. C
35. B
36. A
37. B
38. A
39. A
40. C
41. A
42. B
65
Test 7
1. Upright Position
2. Frequent Urination
3. Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
4. High Cholesterol
5. Brain Cancer
6. Metformin 500mg Twice A Day
7. Pantoprazole 40 Mg Daily
8. Flomax 0.4 Mg Daily
9. Advair Diskus 100/50 Mcg
10. Pneumonitis
11. Mid Body Tail Aspect
12. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy
13. Lumbar Spine And Pelvis
14. Numbness In The Bottom Of Foot
15. Chest Port Placement
16. Celebrex 200 Mg Once Daily
17. Neurontin 300 Mg Three Times
18. Warfarin 1mg Daily
19. Lumbar Lordosis
20. Lower Lumbar Facet
21. Sacroiliac Joint Regions Bilaterally
22. Heterogeneous Bone Marrow Signal
23. Peripheral Neuropathy Of Left Foot
24. Cymbalta
25. B
26. A
27. C
28. B
29. A
30. B
31. B
32. B
33. C
34. A
35. A
36. B
37. A
38. A
39. B
40. C
41. A
42. B
66

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