ATP PREPARATION PAGEL ATP UPGRADE AVIATION QUESTIONS |, Whats the lowest safe altitude that one could descend to over Port Alifed in IMC? 2, While you are " UNDER RADAR CONTROL " ATC vectors you to Progress Airfield near Port Elizabeth and descends ‘You below the Minimum Safe Altitude published for that sector. How would you know that ATC had not made 2 imistake? Explain the difference between "UNDER RADAR CONTROL" and "RADAR IDENTIFIED"? Explain the difference between a VMC APPROACH and a VISUAL APPROACH? What i the minimum cloud base and visibility required to fle Bloemfontein (FABL) as an alternate if you are fying a category A aircraft? Under what conditions ifany could FAVG be filed as an alternate for FADN? 1s it permissible to file a flight plan to FAVG, routing via DU for an NDB approach onto Rwy 06 with a break off and a VER flight to FAVG ? 8. May a departure field be used as an alternate? 9%) Wha ste difference, ifany, between the weather required at an alternate for takeoff and an altemate for landing? 10. You are the pilot in command of a C210 on a charter earying passengers. The cloud base at the departure field (FALA) is 500M andthe visibility is 100m. FAJS has a cloud base of SOOR and a visibility of 200m. Can you legally takeoft from FALA on tip to FADN if you have established that VMC exists from about 10 nm. past FAIS on your planned route? 41, What i the minimum fuel required when fying IFR in a propeller driven airraft caying fare paying passengers? Is there any difference if cargo is carried for reward? 12. How does visibility differ from RVR? 13. What is the significance of the same temperature and dew point? 14, What is the significance of stratus cloud? 15, What is the significance of cumulonimbus cloud? '6, Explain what you would do if flying from FALA to FADN in IMC and shortly after getting aiborne your radios were to fail? 17. Explain the difference between an Expected Approach Time (EAT) and an Onward Clearance Time (OCT)? 18. Explain how you would indicate on your flight plan that you were flying a merey fight? 19. How far from an ILS transmitter may the localiser be used? 20. Within how many degrees of the localiser can one follow the glideslope. 21, Why is it so important to check the outer marker crossing altitude? 22. Once passed the outer marker what is the maximum allowable deflection of the ILS needles before a mandatory ‘go-around must be initiated? 23, Explain the difference between go-around, missed approach and overshoot? 24, When takeoff clearance is required what isthe correct phraseology? 25.1f you are approaching a holding beacon on the border between two different entry procedures, are you allowed to choose the entry and if'so how many degrees leeway are you allowed in deciding which entry to use? 26. If your ground speed is 120 Kt. what would your approximate rate of descent on a3 degrees approach be? 27. What is reference(point) zero? 28. What climb gradient has to be met after a bauiked landing ( FAR part 25, engine certified aircraft) 29. You are cleared forthe ILS approach R/W OSL at FAIS: ‘a. What isthe clearance limit? b. Are you cleared to land? c. Are you cleared to do Missed Approach? 444.1 the AIP and forthe AIC is a legal document? 45. You have been cleared to 3000' direct DNV, at ISnm DNV, under radar vectors, you loose radio contac. What procedure will you follow? 46, What position mist the marker HV/LOW switch be in? 47. ILS R/W O3L at INB indicates GS 6871 (1313). What does 6871 represent? 48, SAA wants you todo a charter from INB to a military airfield ae you legal to do it? 49. You have briefed fora descent. After the briefing, flaps won' extend. Name difference in changes to your briefing? 50. What is the difference between the CAA regulations (AIP) andthe criteria used by leppesen and Aerad with regard to MORA and GRID MORA? 51. Ifyou take off from Lanseria are you subject to JNB speed restrictions? 52. Apart from 250 kts at the SLP approaching FAJS, are there any other speed restriction? 53. Explain "B” time 54. When an EAT has been issued, how much leeway are you given in time? ‘SOUTH AFRICAN AIRWAYS FLIGHT TRAINING CENTREATP PREPARATION PAGE2 535. Define the different Wake Turbulence Categories and separation criteria to be applied? 56. Where would you find noise abatement procedures? 51. What is FAR part 23, 25,121 and 135? ‘58, What are the different Instrument Approach Segments? 59. What do the following “terms indicate. «= ina TAR oor Meta? FEW - scr- BKN- ove- 60, What are the maximum holding speeds? 651. What does “Acclimatised Time” inthe Flight and Duty agreement mean? 62, Regarding Flight Crew Fatigue (Flight and duty) as published in the AIC: a. Isthis law? b. What ae the operators” responsibility? ©. What are the crew’s responsibility? 4. From what distance from a VOR may it be accepted as being reliable? 72. What is the terminology used by ATC to indicate that thunderstorm activity exists atthe field? 73, What terminology is used to indicate thatthe TS activity has ceased? 74, Above what FL are mandatory routings applicable inthe JNB and BEN FIR's? 75. Youare slightly high on the approach, what will the following show: a. PAPI'S? b. VASI’s? 76, You have radio failure in a C150, there are no visual cues, no smoke or dust. How will you determine which runway is 77. Which side of the runway would a single set of PAPIs be installed? 78. What time is used in the Sunrise and Sunset tables? 79. You are using R/W 26 PE, surface wind is 290/40, whats the eross-wind component? ‘80, What are the HOO. for Keetmanshoop? 81. How long is an ATP medical and an IF Rating valid? 82. How does the South African CAA and the Jeppesson definition of CAVOK differ? 83. AIP CT-1. What does the abbreviation ALSF mean? 84, What isan AVASI? 85. Explain the layout of a SALS. 86. What is the associated GP freq with an ILS frequency of 110.3? 87. Does FADN have Transmissometers? What is a tranmissometer? 88. Under what conditions may the pilot of an IFR flight request a visual approach? 89. When operating a South African registered airraft in a foreign country, which GRID MORA would you use? 90, FAUP after hours. Does the controlled airspace still exist? 91. What does the abbr. DER on a SID chart mean? 92, Where does a SID commence and terminate? 93. Where does a STAR commence and terminate? 94, Define “Aerodrome Elevation”. 95. Define “Altitude” 96, Explain OCA(H), MDA(H) and DA(H) and what are they referenced to? 97. What is the *M” on the Non Precision Approach Flight Path chart? 98. Referring to the Sunset Sunrise Tables, determine what time is first and last light at MALA MALA today ? 99. What are the horizontal limits of the GRID MORA? 100. Regarding MORA, why are there no figures between 61 - 702 101. Explain Vref in approach categories. 102. Define “Aerodrome Touch Down Zone”, 103. Why are there Green Taxiway Lights at FACT? 4104, Explain the differences between “AVASIT and VASI” 105. What does the asterisk (*PEV) mean at FAPE on the Hi/Low Chart? 106. What type of aeronautical information is contained in the AIP? 107. What nature of information is distributed by means of a NOTAM? 108. What type of aeronautical information is distributed by Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC)? 109. What elements does the “Integrated Aeronautical Information Package” (IAIP) consist of 110. What is the purpose of issuing the AIP Supplemental Service (AIP Sup)? 111, What is the purpose of a “Trigger” NOTAM? 124, What isthe significance of series 18 AIC’s? ‘SOUTH AFRICAN AIRWAYS FLIGHT TRAINING CENTREATP PREPARATION PAGES. 112, What are the units of measurement for wind direction? 113. Where may alist ofthe abbreviations used in the ATP be found? 114. What term describes the bearing strength of a runway? 115, What criteria are used to determine minimum flight altitudes? 116, What is “En route safe altitude"? 117. What is “Minimum Sector Safe Altitude”? 118. What are the Maximum speeds for a CAT C aircraft in a. CTRIATAIATZ2 b. Holding Pattern? ¢. Ina Terminal Control Area? 4. Outside Controlled Airspace below FL100 ©. Arrival route? £ Initial Approach Segment? 8 h i Intermediate Approach Segment? Final Approach Segment? Missed Approach Segment? After take-off and initial departure? 137, When is a flight plan required to be filed? 138. Unless otherwise authorised, how long before an intended flight in Controlled or Advisory Airspaces should a flight plan be filed? 139, Ifa Flight Pan is filed during flight while outside controlled or advisory airspace for a flight to be conducted in such airspace, how many minutes are required before the aircraft is estimated to reach the intended point of entry into the controlled or advisory airspace? 140. Ifa flight plan is not activated within an ATSU at the original estimated time of departure or amended ETD, after ‘what time period will the Flight Plan becancelled? 141. Who must stamp and approve flight plans for non-scheduled flights to Angola prior to submission to ATC? 142. Ifthe estimated time at the next applicable reporting point, FIR boundary or aerodrome of intended landing, whichever comes first, is found to be in excess of what time period as previously notified to ATC musta revised ETA be forwarded as soon as possible? 143. What is the minimum height above the highest obstacle within 5 nm of an aircraft may an IFR flight operate? 14. Loss of communication is experienced: a. IFATC clearance has been received, with a FL restriction below the flight plan FL, how long should that intermediate level be held for, terrain permitting? b, Which navigational aid should be used to hold over atthe filed destination? ¢. How many minutes after ETA, ifno EAT has been received and acknowledged, should descent be commenced? 4. Complete a normal instrument approach procedure in relation to which navigational aid? 146. What is understood by the term ‘Slot Time”? 147, When may noise abatement procedures be disregarded? 148. What noise abatement restrictions apply to jet aircraft take-offs between 2000 - 0400UCT? 149. Which flights are obliged to comply with the altimeter setting procedure? 150, What height should be used as a Transition Altitude at an aerodrome greater than 25 nm of an aerodrome with a ition Altitude during 152, What FL should be used as a Transition Level at an aerodrome greater than 25 nm of an aerodrome with a published Transition Level during: a. VMC b, IMC 153. What ae the maximum holding speeds in South Africa? 154, What classes of Airspace exist in South Africa? 155. Is separation provided between an aircraft cleared to execute a: 1. Visual approach and other aircraft? 'b. VMC approach and other aircraft? 156An aircraft that has been intercepted should endeavour to establish communication with the interceptor on which frequency? 157. What sections are contained in AIP Vol. 1? 158, What sections are contained in AIP Vol. 11? 159. Can the pilot in command of flights for which search and rescue action has been requested and who fails to comply with the search and rescue requirements be held responsible for costs incurred by the alerting service if negligence is proved? ‘SOUTH AFRICAN AIRWAYS FLIGHT TRAINING CENTREATP PREPARATION. PAGE 4 160, Ifradio guard cannot be maintained on more than one or two frequencies, which frequencies should preferably be guarded and for what time periods? 161, What are the 3 phases of search and rescue? 162, The 1:1 000 000 World Aeronautical Chart series produced in the RSA are constructed on what projection? 163, May Global Positioning System (GPS) be used for primary navigation? 164, What isthe definition of Cloud Ceiling? 165, What is the missed approach procedure during a circling approach? 166, When do ATC Low Visibility Procedures become effective? 167. What isthe significance of the localizer sensitive area (LSA)? 168. What isthe frequency for established general flying areas? 169, What isthe frequency for pilots to discuss general matters? 170. Who is automatically placed on the distribution list of AIP Sup? 171. When is a NOTAM originated and issued? 172. When is an AIC issued? 173, To be considered acclimatised to local time, what is required of the crew member? 174, What precautions should a crew member take if the journey time from home to the normal departure aerodrome is lengthy? 175, Ifa crew member has to travel from his home aerodrome to an aerodrome other than the one from which they normally operate, is that time considered as duty? 176, What should be regarded as the maximum extension of a flying duty period at the pilot-in-command!s discretion? 177. When the pilot-in-command uses his discretion to extend a flying duty period, what is he required to do? 178. What is the minimum altitude required over a park which falls under the supervision and control of the National Parks Board? 179. What isthe pilot-in-command required to be in possession of prior to flying displays and aerobatic flights? 180. In the case of instrument rating fight tests, how many days before the licence expires may the tests be conducted? 181, Regardless of weather conditions, may ATC’s temporarily upgrade the class of controlled airspace to A, thus temporarily precluding the operation of VER flights, 182, When is an ATC flight plan mandatory? 183. What minima (time) apply to aircraft landing behind a heavy aircraft during non-radar separation procedures? 184, What minima apply when a light or medium aircraft is departing behind a heavy aircraft? 185, When will search and rescue action be automatic? 186. With reference to the Global Positioning System , what is the World Geodetic System 1984 (WGS 84) Datum? 187. What is the basic take off minimum for a single engine aircraft? 188, What facilities are required for take off under the following RVR Conditions: a. RVR200M b. RVR3S0M €. RVRS0OM 205. What does it mean if an NDB station is underlined on a navigation chart? 206. What would cause Nelspruit’s TMA and CTR to reduce to an A'TZ? 207. With reference to Cape Town VOR DME RWY 01, Jepp Plate 13-I. What does the figure 7.2 refer to in the approach plan view? 208. Surveillance Radar element (SRE) - What does the E (Element) mean? 209. When is RVR required to be reported on a METAR or SPECI? 210. What documents are required to be carried onboard an aireraft for a: a. Domestic flight b. Intemational flight 214. How does one ascertain that Lanseria has CAT 5 fire fighting equipment? 215. Why does Lanseria have 2 NDB’s in its letdown? 216, Who is in control ofthe runway during IMC approaches? (Approach or Tower Controller) 217, What is the difference between a co-located, associated and non-associated VOR/DME? 218. What does the following symbols indicate on a Met document a. +and- b. Uand D 222, What isthe difference between fog and mist? 223. What isthe difference between radiation and advection fog? 224. How does ICAO’s and South A frica’s Communication Failure Procedure differ? 225. No delayiprocedure turn approach. What are the criteria which must be complied with? 226, What does the term “established” mean regarding LS, VOR and NDB Instrument Approach Procedures? 227. What criteria affects your decision regarding diverting or attempting a second letdown/approach? 228, What is reference zero? ‘SOUTH AFRICAN AIRWAYS FLIGHT TRAINING CENTRE,ATP PREPARATION PAGES: 229. LS101 document - What does it cover? 230. Describe airfield lighting in detail (Colour and distance apart)? a. Taxiway Lights (Edge and Centre Line) 'b. Runway Lights (Edge, Centre Line, Threshold, Runway End and Touchdown) ©. Approach Lights 232. What are Stop Bar Lights and when ean you cross them? 233. Convert 100M reported Vis to RVR given that this is at night, 234. What does Apt Elev: 188 hpa mean on the JNB Jeppesen Letdown Plates? 235. Why does the inbound course of an NDB ot VOR letdown not always correspond with the runway bearing? 236. What do you understand by the term AIRAC? 237. When is it recommended by the CAA that strobe lights should not be used? 238. What isthe height above the threshold on a 2.9 degree GIS at 2nm from threshold? 239, Describe the PAPI indications when: High Slightly high Correct Slightly low Low Which colour is closest to the runway? 241, What are the minimum hours/age/qualifications requirements for an ATP? 242, What are the minimum landings at night/day for currency? 243, What is screen height? 244, Are compulsory reporting points applicable to controlled or advisory airspace or both? 245, Is the runway take-off or landing restricted with a X on end of the runway.” 246. What isthe altimeter reading on SSR when flying at 20008 with a local QNH of 1033hp? 247, The ILS bearing (QDM) is 070. When established on localizer withthe ILS frequency tuned, move OBS to 260. What are the indications? 248, What are the requirements regarding formation flying? 249, Are the Absolute Take-off Mininta determined by CAA, Operator or Pilot In Command? 250. What isthe standard width of airway - Snim/lOnm/l0km? 251. Describe timing in detail during a procedure tum for a category A & B and C & D aircraft from overhead the IAF ‘until established inbound. 252. What isthe point of origin, radius and minimum terrain clearance on a Jeppesen MSA in South A\ftica? 253. When established on the ILS at George R/W 29 with a wind of 270/15 at an IAS of 120 kts, what rate of descent is required to maintain the glideslope? 254. What are the weather criteria required to declare an ATZ IMC? 255. Under what conditions if any is it acceptable to intercept the Glideslope prior ti intercepting the Localiser when flying an 1LS approach? 256, What are the different segments and minimum climb gradients after take-off as required by FAR Part 25 based on an engine failure at V1? 257. What procedure isto be complied with if an engine failure is experienced after take-off at an aerodrome which does not have a published SAA engine inoperative flight path? 258, What are the weather minima criteria for Category 1, 11 and 111 ILS? 259, Ifthe LCN of your aircraft is higher than your intended destination runway LCN, whose permission do you require to operate into that aerodrome? 260, When must a flight data recorder operate? 261, What is the definition of daylight? 262. What are the unseen MORA’s? 263, What are TORA and TODA? 264, What is HAT? 265. When cleared for a visual approach do you need to cancel the IFR Flight Plan? 266. When may you legally descend below MSA? 267. What speed restrictions apply within the JHB TMA? 268. What isthe height ofthe highest ground and what level may you descend to in an area where the GRID MORA is 55 in South Africa? 269. Define VMCA. 270. How is the bank angle required to execute arate I tun determined (Knots and MPH)? 271. What i the altitude above which oxygen compulsory? 272. What does the leter ‘8 in the light plan mean? 273. Who is responsible for air traffic separation during a visual approach? ‘SOUTH AFRICAN AIRWAYS FLIGHT TRAINING CENTREATP PREPARATION PAGES 274, What are the requirements in respect of loadsheets? 275, What does it mean if SAR/NIL is entered in field I8 of the flight plan? 276, What does SAR/Normal entered in field 18 of the light plan indicate and may this term be used when proceeding to an unmanned airfield? 277. What isthe recommended setting time for AVGAS after refuelling before checking for contamination? 278, How can you check that your aitcraft’s ELT is not transmitting during your pre-flight inspection? 279, Should you accept being placed under radar control before being radar identified? 280. When should a pilot call “Clearance Delivery"? 281. How long is the takeoff run available (TORA) at Cape Town on runway 192 282. Does George have a transmissometer? 283. Could one use Radio Broadcasting Stations for navigation? 284, What does the ground/air emergency “V” signal mean? 285. If airspace is classified as ‘F’, what type of airspace is i? 286. What is the minimum visibility fora circling approach at Vereeniging? 287. What isthe category of an aeroplane with a Vso of 70 KCAS? 288. When must one select an Alternate Airfield for Take-off? 289. How much fuel reserves must be carried on an IFR flight to a destination in Botswana without an Alternate for landing? 290, What isthe minimum DH for a Cat 1 ILS? 291. What isthe minimum MDH for a Non Precision Approach? 292. While under RADAR control, may one accept an altitude of 2000 feet to PEV for the ILS Rwy 08 at Port Elizabeth ‘when approaching on the 150 radial PEV? 293, May an Alternate for Takeoff be your departure aerodrome? 204, At Lanseria, may you descend on time from the LA beacon to the LL beacon position if the LL. is inoperative and still use the same MDA? 295, How long does one hold at HBY for the FALA ILS and VOR/DME lost communication procedures? 296, Where is the Final Approach Fix (FAF) on a precision approach? 297, Whereis the Missed Approach Point (MAP) on a precision approach? 298, Where can the takeoff minima for FAJS be found? 299, What does the letter A in a green or blue circle before a navigation facility signify? 300. To satisfy airspace and visibility requirements associated with Instrument Approach Procedures, aircraft are categorised according to approach speeds, based on 3 times the stall speed in landing configuration at maximum certificated mass. State the speed range for category B aircraft. 301, What isthe maximum speed when conducting a circling approach for a category B aircraft? 302, What is the minimum Runway Visual Range required for takeoff on a runway with no markers but with runway edges clearly visible? 303, What does the abbreviation TDZE stand for? 304, What isthe ATC transponder mode and code to be used in the event of radio communication failure? 305, What isthe meaning of the words “PANS OPS” on the bottom left hand corner of an approach chart? 306, What does “cleared for the approach” mean when conducting an Instrument Approach Procedure and to what point is this clearance valid? 307, What isthe standard outbound leg time in an en route hold when flying above flight evel 40? 308, What isthe distance ofthe Johannesburg Control Area Boundary from JSV and what isthe specified upper limit? 309. How is Vref determined? 310. With reference to the ICAO Doc 8168 define critical height. 311, What colours are the marker beacon lights and what codings are associated with them 312, How many transmissometers are at FAJS? 313. Can one take-off with an RVR of 250 meters at JNB? 314, What RVR is required with one Transmissometer inoperative at FAJS? 315. What is DVOR? 316, Describe the TIBA procedure? 317. What are the privileges of an ATP pilot? 318. The airfield elevation is 5537” and the temperature is 33 degrees Celsius. What isthe density altitude and how ‘would that affect engine and aircraft performance? 319. The pilot in command of an aircraft engaged in “flipping” and is due to commence operations at 0800, At what time must operations cease to remain within the flight and duty limitations. 320. When is it recommended to turn strobe lights off? 321. What code should be set to the transponder of an aircraft when operating in airspace that does not provide SSR radar service? 322. You ate a qualified ATP pilot with a multi engine class rating and you are offered the opportunity to act as a co- ‘SOUTH AFRICAN AIRWAYS FLIGHT TRAINING CENTREATP PREPARATION PAGE pilot on a DC3 Dakota for a ferry flight with no passengers. May you accept the offer? 323, What type of airspace is class G airspace? 324, What isthe lower limit of class A airspace in South Attica? 325. You have been requested to fly a charter fom FAPE to FAGG and will be required to land there at night. The aircraft is a Cessna 210 which you have not flown for 3 1/2 months. What are your obligations as far as currency is concemed and considerations regarding the flight? 326. Is apilot allowed to commence a CAT | approach when LVP's are in force at an airpor!? 327. What isthe background colour of the CAT 11 holding point sign’ 328, Under what conditions may you descend below MSA when flying in IMC? 329, What is the minimum visibility required for you to depart at FAPE? 330. What altitude should one use asa transition altitude when departing from an unmanned airfield in IMC? 331. Describe the minimum visual reference that a pilot could expect to see at DH on a CAT I ILS approach 332. What is the DH and required RVR for the ILS at FAPE Rwy 08? Why does this differ from that of Rwy 26? 333. What would be the implications of having the PE NDB failing once established on the ILS for runway 08? 334, What isthe lowest altitude that one can maintain when tracking inbound on a beating (QDM Jof 165 to PE NDB while in IMC? 335, Where would the correct visual aiming point be for landing on RWY 26 at FAPE? 336, What isthe ICAO Approach category forthe largest aircraft that you fly? 337. Referring to Approach Lighting Systems, what does ASLF11 mean? 338. Why are there only one set of PAPI’s on R/W 19 at FACT? 339. What does PAPI(L) mean? 340. What isthe difference between “Parking” and “Docking”? 341. In the SAA context, when must a new loadsheet be produced? 342, When must an aircraft be disinsected and what conditions apply when conducting this procedure? 343, What criteria must be met in order to have no altemate aerodrome for landing? 344, What criterion necessitates nominating two alternate aerodromes for landing? 345, What speed restrictions apply at all SA destinations and where is this information found? 346, What isthe absolute minimum fuel endurance with which an aireraft may land? 347, Which CAA document details obstacles within 5 nm of an aerodrome? 348, What isthe minimum time period before commencement of flight duty may alcohol be consumed? 349, May a non-precision approach be continued beyond the FAF / 1000 feet if the visibility falls below the required ‘minima? 350, When should APPROACH MODE be selected? (25.8) 351, How are Airways, Advisory and Information routes denoted on enroute charts? 352, Name the 3 Search and Rescue phases? 353. When are the Search and Rescue phases instituted? 354, When does a flight become IMC? 355, What is Special VFR? 356, Detail pilot and ATC responsibilities regarding visual approaches. 357, When i filing on of an ATC Flight Plan required? 358, What time period prior to conducting a flight in Controlled / Advisory airspace should a Flight Plan be filed? 359, What does Transponder mode $ mean? 360, Is wind direction on a TAF or METAR true or magnetic? 361, What is a SPECI? 362, Name and explain the 7 factors that limit the MTOW? 363. The absolute ceiling of light aircraft has been reached, ‘The power required and power available isthe same. Why if tum is now initiated does the aircraft climb? 364, What type of insurance is required when carrying passengers during training flights? 365. What affects the stability of a swept wing? 366, How does the centre of pressure move? 367. What is bootstrapping? 368. What is Mach tuck? 369. With the aid ofa formulae explain the difference between cruising for range and endurance (Both jet and piston) 370, With the aid of formulae, explain the difference between a maximum rate and a minimum radius turns. 371. What is MACH CRIT? 372. What is tortionalflectual flutter? 373. Does manoeuvring speed of an aircraft increase or decrease proportionally with weight and if so why? 374. Ifyou were to race an aircraft, would you prefer a forward or an afte of 2? Motivate your answer. ‘SOUTHT AFRICAN AIRWAYS FLIGHT TRAINING CENTRE