Chap 1:

1. Communication skills
a. are not as important as technical skills for career success.

b. are not necessary in today's competitive job market.

c. are ranked by recruiters at the top of qualities they most desire in job seekers.

d. cannot be learned; they are innate.

2. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

a. Because today's workers are more geographically dispersed, the need for well-written messages has declined.

b. Employers rank oral and written communication skills as less valuable than hard skills such as mathematical
computation, computer literacy, and troubleshooting.

c. Communication skills are critical to your job placement, performance, career advancement, and
organizational success.

d. Business letters and interoffice memoranda remain the top forms of business correspondence.

3. On the job you are more likely to be taken seriously and promoted if you
a. look and sound professional.

b. frame your degree or certificate and hang it on your office or cubicle wall.

c. appear to be busy even when you're not really doing anything.

d. attend office parties.

4. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

a. Workers today communicate less than in previous years.

b. Technology has not affected how and why we communicate.

c. Businesses today generate a wide range of messages in a variety of media.

d. Writing is a skill set used only by managers and corporate executives.

5. Major trends in today's dynamic world of work include increased emphasis on self-directed work
groups and virtual teams, heightened global competition, innovative communication technologies, new work
environments, and focus on

1
a. creating an entirely online presence.

b. promoting from within.

c. restructuring and downsizing.

d. business ethics.

6. Which of the following statements about today's business environments is most accurate?
a. The number of telecommuting employees is expected to decline in the future.

b. All companies assign offices for employees.

c. Many employees today no longer need an office; they can work anytime and anywhere.

d. Workers today spend more time in offices than workers in the past.

7. Which of the following statements is correct?

a. Ethics is a priority for many businesses.

b. Because of economic concerns, American companies are relying on local markets.

c. Most companies encourage workers to work independently.

d. Today's businesses are expanding their hierarchies to meet the demands of their
workers and their competition.

8. Communication is defined as "the transmission of information and meaning from one individual or
group to another." The crucial element of this definition is
a. transmission.

b. information.

c. meaning.

d. individual.

9. Converting ideas into words or gestures to convey meaning is called

a. feedback.

b. decoding.

c. encoding.

d. nonverbal communication.

2
 10. The communication process begins when the sender
a. determines the appropriate communication channel.

b. has an idea.

c. encodes an idea into a message.

d. plans for feedback.

11. Translating the message from its symbol form into meaning involves
a. feedback.

b. decoding.

c. encoding.

d. nonverbal communication.

12. Which of the following statements about feedback is most accurate?

a. Feedback is the verbal response from the receiver.

b. Senders should provide as much information as they can to their receivers to show their
intellectual capabilities.

c. Paraphrasing a speaker's message is a waste of time.

d. Feedback can include both nonverbal and verbal responses.

13. The medium over which the message is transmitted is the

a. context of the message.

b. encoding process.

c. communication channel.

d. decoding process.

14. Communication noise

a. includes anything that disrupts the transmission of a message.

b. is also called feedback.

c. describes only externally produced sounds.

3
d. occurs only during the encoding process.

15. Many of us are poor listeners because

a. the brain can process information at least three times as fast as people talk.

b. we tend to "tune out" speakers whose ideas run counter to our own.

c. we would rather talk than listen.

d. All answer choices are correct.

16. According to research, what percentage of our work time is spent listening?
a. 50 percent

b. 90 percent

c. 10 percent

d. 25 percent

17. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

a. Very few management problems are related to listening.

b. The average person remembers nearly three quarters of what he or she hears following
a 10-minute presentation.

c. We misinterpret, misunderstand, or change very little of what we hear.

d. Most people are not very good listeners.

18. Approximately how many words per minute do most North Americans speak?
a. 375

b. 500

c. 250

d. 125

19. Peter must inform his employees that his company will need to let go of employees. Which word
would be best for Peter to use when conveying this idea to his employees?
a. Layoff

4
b. Streamlining

c. Downsizing

d. Rightsizing

20. You can improve your listening skills if you follow tips for active listening, including
a. keeping an open mind, establishing a receptive mind-set, and listening between the
lines.

b. establishing a receptive mind-set, concentrating on appearance and delivery, and sifting

information through biases.

c. capitalizing on lag time, concentrating on your next comment, and taking as many
notes as possible.

d. asking questions immediately, focusing on the speaker's face, and concentrating on the
details presented in the message.

21. Your boss is giving instructions for a new method of keeping expense accounts. However, you find it
difficult to concentrate because you think the change is unnecessary. What type of barrier to effective
listening are you experiencing?
a. Language problem barrier

b. Psychological barrier

c. Physical barrier

d. Nonverbal distraction barrier

22. A listener who nods her head and maintains eye contact with a speaker is probably
a. listening actively to what the speaker is saying.

b. not understanding what the speaker is saying.

c. faking attention while she listens to music on her MP3 player.

d. formulating her response to a point with which she disagrees.

23. Brian is attending a seminar on workplace efficiency and must make a presentation on this topic when
he returns to work. Brian can increase his comprehension by keeping an open mind, listening for main
points, taking selective notes, and
a. closing his eyes.

b. speaking up immediately when he has a question or does not agree with the speaker.

5
c. filling in the lag time by mentally reviewing other tasks he must do that day.

d. judging ideas, not appearances.

24. Amelia has made a conscious effort to become an active listener. Therefore, she shuts down her
computer, turns off her cell phone, and asks her assistant to hold all incoming calls when she conducts
interviews. What technique is she using to improve listening?
a. Keeping an open mind

b. Establishing a receptive mind-set

c. Capitalizing on lag time

d. Controlling her surroundings

25. Which of the following statements about nonverbal communication is most accurate?
a. Nonverbal communication comprises approximately 10 percent of a message.

b. When verbal and nonverbal messages contradict, receivers believe that the verbal
message is more accurate.

c. Meanings of nonverbal behaviors are often influenced by one's culture.

d. Nonverbal communication applies to only intended messages.

26. Which of the following is a form of nonverbal communication?

a. Facial expressions, such as frowning or raising the eyebrows

b. Eye contact, such as staring or avoiding looking someone in the eye

c. Time, such as showing up too late or too early

d. All of these choices are forms of nonverbal communication.

27. According to Edward T. Hall, in which spatial zone do most people converse with friends and family
members?
a. Intimate

b. Personal

c. Social

d. Public

6
 28. According to Edward T. Hall, which spatial zone is the largest?
a. Intimate

b. Personal

c. Social

d. Public

29. Which of the following tips should you follow to improve your nonverbal communication skills?
a. Focus only on the sender's words when you are engaged in conversation.

b. Proofread all correspondence you send.

c. Avoid individuals from other cultures so that you don't start using nonverbal behaviors
displayed in other cultures.

d. Avoid asking the speaker questions when his or her nonverbal and verbal messages
contradict.

30. Nonverbal communication includes

a. all unwritten and unspoken messages, intended or not.

b. only body language and gestures that accompany a spoken message.

c. only eye contact and facial expressions that support the meaning of the words.

d. only cues that reveal agreement with or contradiction of the verbal message.

31. Most people think that the best predictor of a speaker's true feelings is his or her
a. facial expressions.

b. posture.

c. gestures.

d. eyes.

32. Suzanne wants to make a good impression during a job interview. What should she do?
a. Avoid eye contact with her interviewer to show respect.

b. Slump down in her chair to show that she's relaxed.

c. Wear professional business attire.

7
d. Ask the interviewer to lunch.

33. The manager noticed that Stephen slammed his desk drawer right after he said that he was happy to
work late. The manager should
a. tell Stephen that he should behave more professionally.

b. respond to the verbal message only and thank him for working late.

c. politely seek additional information by saying, I'm not sure that you really want to stay
late. Do you have somewhere you need to be?

d. fire Stephen for insubordination.

34. Every country has a unique culture or common heritage that

a. teaches its members how to behave and conditions their reactions.

b. results from a common gene pool.

c. is created by a structured educational system.

d. comes from an orderly system of government and laws.

35. Communicators in ____ cultures (such as those in North America, Scandinavia, and Germany) depend
little on the context of a situation to convey their meaning. They tend to be logical, analytical, and action
oriented.
a. high-context

b. civilized

c. ancient

d. low-context

36. Which of the following countries represents a high-context culture?

a. United States

b. Germany

c. Norway

d. Japan

37. Which of the following is a common trait of a business communicator from a low-context culture?
8
a. Valuing relationships, harmony, status, and saving face

b. Relying on relationships and group decisions

c. Keeping business and social relationships separate

d. Assuming listeners require little background information

38. North Americans value straightforwardness and are suspicious of evasiveness. These traits identify
the cultural dimension of
a. individualism.

b. formality.

c. communication style.

d. time orientation.

39. Which of the following countries would likely view a business contract as a binding document?
a. Mexico

b. Greece

c. Japan

d. Germany

40. Learning about beliefs and practices different from our own and appreciating them means displaying
a. tolerance

b. individualism.

c. stereotyping.

d. gender norming.

41. An American businessperson who thinks that all Swiss are hardworking, efficient, and neat is
illustrating an example of
a. ethnocentrism.

b. tolerance.

c. stereotyping.

d. a cultural norm.

9
 42. Robert frequently comments that he likes working independently because that's the American
way⎯and the American way is the best way! Robert's belief in the superiority of his own culture is an
example of
a. stereotyping.

b. individualism.

c. ethnocentrism.

d. communication style.

43. Working with people from other cultures will require tolerance. One of the best ways to become more
tolerant is by
a. practicing empathy.

b. increasing your individualism.

c. encouraging ethnocentrism.

d. knowing your communication style.

44. While conducting business with a customer from Italy, Zoe was careful to speak slowly and clearly,
using short sentences and familiar words. However, she noticed that the customer had a glazed expression
and did not understand her. Zoe should
a. repeat what she has said in a louder voice.

b. graciously accept the blame for not making her meaning clear.

c. end the conversation until an interpreter can be found.

d. require the Italian businessperson to restate the message in simple words.

45. When speaking with someone for whom English is a second language, you should talk slowly,
enunciate clearly, check frequently for comprehension, observe eye messages, listen without interrupting,
and
a. follow up important messages in writing.

b. avoid smiling, which might make you appear to lack seriousness.

c. use words that will impress the listener.

d. assume that the listener understands if he or she nods and smiles in agreement.

10
 46. When writing for a multicultural audience, you are more likely to be understood if you use short
sentences and short paragraphs and if you include
a. slang, such as This product really rocks!

b. idioms, such as You can improve your bottom line by using this product.

c. acronyms, such as ASAP.

d. action-specific verbs, such as e-mail me if you have any questions rather than contact me if you have any
questions.

47. Max is preparing a contract between his company and one in Mexico. What should he do when citing
numbers in the contract?
a. Use the metric system.

b. Use American currency figures.

c. Write all months as figures rather than as words.

d. Avoid using any figures in the contract.

48. Which of the following is a benefit of a diverse work environment?

a. Better ability to create the products desired by consumers

b. Fewer discrimination lawsuits, fewer union clashes, and less government regulatory action

c. Improvement of employee relationships and increased productivity

d. All are benefits of a diverse work environment.

49. Megahertz Technology Solutions, Inc., recently suffered a discrimination lawsuit. Advice to improve
its workforce diversity is likely to include understanding the value of differences, providing diversity
training for employees, building on similarities, and
a. hiring a more homogenous work group.

b. making fewer assumptions.

c. requiring all employees to use jargon that conveys stereotypes.

d. making sure all employees conform to a standard company culture.

50. Workers who communicate successfully with diverse audiences must make few assumptions, learn
about their own and other cultures, and
a. seek common ground.

11
b. help others conform.

c. avoid noticing differences.

d. see professional advice.

51. In making hiring decisions, employers often rank communication skills among the most-requested
competencies.

52. Because of today's communication technology, writing skills are less important than in the past.

53. Operating a computer is an example of a "soft" skill.

54. As a frontline (dealt with customers) employee, you can expect to have more managers in the
workforce.

55. Despite their popularity among teens, social networking sites such as Facebook and Twitter are rarely
used in today's business world.

56. Theresa will be working with Alex on a virtual team to develop a new marketing plan. Because they
won't meet face to face, their work will be less dependent on good communication skills.

57. The central objective of communication is the transmission of meaning.

58. Anything that disrupts the transmission of a message in the communication process is called noise.

59. Words have the same basic meanings for everyone; therefore, messages communicated verbally are
always understood.

60. After explaining a new procedure to her employees, Amy asks, "Is there anything that wasn't clear?"
She is asking this question to encourage feedback.

12
 61. Successful communication takes place only when a receiver understands the intended meaning of a
message.

62. Skilled communicators should always use complex words to communicate their ideas and feelings.

63. Most people listen with 50 percent or higher efficiency.

64. Psychological barriers to listening include hearing disabilities, poor acoustics, and noisy surroundings.

65. Physical barriers to listening include only environmentally produced noises.

66. If you want to become a better listener, your first step is to stop talking.

67. Brooke is listening to a difficult presentation on nanotechnology development. As a good listener, she
should take complete notes of everything said.

68. One of the best strategies to become a better listener is to question a speaker while he or she is still
talking to ensure your comprehension.

69. When verbal and nonverbal messages conflict, listeners tend to believe the verbal message.

70. Most communication is nonverbal.

71. Understanding a message involves listening to only the spoken words.

72. Most Americans communicate with business associates at approximately 1½ feet.

73. Both your personal appearance and the physical appearance of your business documents transmit
immediate and important nonverbal messages.

13
 74. Zach's company does business globally. By associating with people from diverse cultures, Zach can
widen his knowledge of intercultural messages and can increase his tolerance of differences.

75. Greg will be the student speaker for graduation. To ensure that his nonverbal cues support his verbal
message, he should ask friends and family to monitor his conscious and unconscious body movements and
gestures.

76. Joseph will be traveling to South America to increase sales for his company. Because the meanings of
nonverbal gestures are similar in all cultures, Joseph can indicate that everything is OK with his South
American customers by using his thumb and forefinger to form a circle.

77. The more you know about culture in general and your own culture, the better able you will be to adopt
an intercultural perspective.

78. Laura values individualism and personal responsibility in herself and coworkers. These values are
typical of North American culture.

79. For Americans words are very important, especially in contracts and negotiations.

80. The United States is an example of a low-context culture.

81. Bijan and his family place great emphasis on tradition, ceremony, and social rules. Bijan is most
likely a member of a low-context culture.

82. North Americans consider time a precious commodity and correlate it with productivity, efficiency,
and money.

83. Cross-cultural communication can be improved by practicing tolerance and ethnocentrism.

84. Ethnocentrism can be found in all cultures.

14
 85. For international trade it is a good idea to learn and use the metric system.

86. Developing a diverse staff that can work together cooperatively is one of the biggest challenges facing
business organizations today.

87. Ryan has an upcoming business meeting with a person from Germany. Because Ryan has never met
this person, he is worried about traveling there to do business for his company. Ryan could reduce his worry
by assuming that his German associate is similar to him.

88. Businesses that want to capitalize on cultural diversity need to train workers to think and act alike to
reduce conflicts.

89. When communicating face-to-face with a person from another culture, you can always assume that
the other person is understanding your ideas if he or she smiles.

90. The diversity of the U.S. workforce is expected to remain relatively stable in the next decade.

91. ____________________ is defined as "the transmission of information and meaning from one
individual or group to another."

92. In the communication process, ____________________ means converting an idea into words or
gestures that will convey meaning.

93. When you decide the spoken or written means by which you will send a message, you have selected
the ____________________ of communication.

94. When the receiver translates the message from its symbol form into meaning, it is known as
____________________.

95. The verbal and nonverbal responses of the receiver create ____________________, a vital part of the
entire communication process that helps the sender know that the message was received and understood.

96. ____________________ cues include eye contact, facial expression, body movements, space, time,
territory, and appearance.

15
 97. According to a model developed by cultural anthropologist Edward T. Hall, ____________________
refers to the stimuli, environment, or ambience surrounding an event and is arranged on a continuum from
low to high.

98. The belief in the superiority of one's own culture is known as ______ethnoc______________. This
natural attitude is found in all cultures.

99. An oversimplified perception of a behavior pattern or characteristic applied to entire groups is a(n)
____________________.

100. ____________________ means learning about beliefs and practices different from our own and
appreciating them. One of the best ways to develop this trait is to practice empathy.

Chap 2:
1. Which of the following represents a goal for business writers?
a. You should concentrate on your feelings in business messages.

b. You should get your audience to believe and accept your ideas.

c. You should create messages that are lengthy to demonstrate your superior intellect and
language skills.

d. You should write business messages from your perspective.

2. When preparing a business message, you should make your writing audience oriented. Audience
oriented means you should
a. write to solve a problem or convey information.

b. attempt to get your audience to believe and accept your message.

c. present ideas clearly but concisely.

d. concentrate on looking at the problem from the receiver's perspective.

3. Business writing should be purposeful. In this context purposeful can best be defined as
a. presenting ideas clearly and concisely.

b. concentrating on the receiver's perspective instead of your own.

c. solving problems and conveying information.

d. getting your audience to believe and accept your message.

16
 4. Business writing should be economical. In this context economical can best be defined as
a. presenting ideas clearly and concisely.

b. concentrating on the receiver's perspective instead of your own.

c. solving problems and conveying information.

d. getting your audience to believe and accept your message.

5. Business writing should be persuasive. In this context persuasive can best be defined as
a. presenting ideas clearly and concisely.

b. concentrating on the receiver's perspective instead of your own.

c. solving problems and conveying information.

d. getting your audience to believe and accept your message.

6. The first phase of the writing process involves analyzing the audience and your purpose for writing,
anticipating your audience' reaction to your message, and
a. investigating background information.

b. composing your message.

c. adapting your message to the audience.

d. looking for previous company documents on the topic.

7. Adapting your message to the audience involves

a. thinking of the right words and tone to use in your message.

b. rewriting your message several times to ensure it is clear.

c. selecting the best research to incorporate within the message.

d. conducting a thorough audience analysis.

8. During the second phase of the writing process, you conduct research,
a. clarify the audience demographics, and edit word choices.

b. anticipate audience reaction, and adapt the message.

c. organize ideas, and compose the message.

17
d. evaluate message effectiveness, and revise as needed.

9. In the final phase of the writing process, check the message for clarity and readability, proofread for
errors, and
a. evaluate for effectiveness.

b. assess the cost in the selected delivery channel.

c. solve the problem.

d. forward the document to the publishing department.

10. Experts say that writers should spend the most time in the ____ stage of the writing process.
a. prewriting

b. writing

c. revising

d. transmission

11. According to writing experts, approximately what percentage of time should you spend on the
prewriting phase of a business message?
a. 90 percent

b. 50 percent

c. 25 percent

d. 5 percent

12. The primary purpose of business writing is typically to inform or persuade; a common secondary
purpose is to
a. promote goodwill.

b. comply with governmental regulations.

c. create written documentation.

d. avoid lawsuits.

13. Before Melissa organizes and composes her message, she should ask two questions: (1) Why am I
sending this message? and (2)
18
a. Why did my boss give this task to me?

b. What do I hope to achieve with this message?

c. How can I get this message written as quickly as possible?

d. Do I have enough time and financial resources to complete the work?

14. Travis must determine the appropriate channel for an important business message. In this context
channel refers to the
a. individuals who will receive the message.

b. degree of formality required.

c. medium through which the message is sent.

d. tone and approach needed to accomplish his purpose.

15. You are selecting a channel for sending your message. Which of the following is not a factor to
consider when making this decision?
a. Amount and speed of feedback and interactivity required

b. Cost of the channel

c. Confidentiality and sensitivity of the message

d. Your competitors' channel use

16. Which of the following communication channels is considered the richest medium?
a. Written proposal

b. E-mail message

c. Face-to-face conversation

d. Blog posting

17. Human Resources Manager Claire Siu must inform Anthony that company job changes will require
him to seek retraining or lose his position. The best channel for Ms. Siu to deliver this message is
a. an e-mail message.

b. face-to-face communication.

c. voice mail.

d. an instant message.
19
 18. Michael usually holds team meetings on Tuesday mornings, but he needs to reschedule next week's
meeting to Wednesday morning. To tell team members of the date change for the next meeting, Michael
should
a. send an e-mail.

b. meet in person with each team member.

c. call a team meeting.

d. write a short team report.

19. What communication channel would be most appropriate to deliver data to a customer?
a. Business letter

b. E-mail

c. Report or proposal

d. Memorandum

20. What communication channel would be most appropriate when you must share digital information
with other members of your work team?
a. Wiki

b. E-mail

c. Fax

d. Instant message

21. What communication channel would be most appropriate when a written record or formality is
required?
a. Report or proposal

b. Letter

c. E-mail

d. Blog

22. What is the preferred channel choice for today's corporate communicators?
a. Memos

20
b. Letters

c. E-mail

d. Instant messaging

23. Lindsay is writing a property description for a new real estate brochure. To make her brochure more
effective, Lindsay should anticipate her audience. This means she
a. identifies the property's outstanding traits and describes them clearly.

b. concentrates on the price and value of the property.

c. writes using familiaui r words and a friendly, informal tone.

d. considers what the readers are like and how they will react to the message.

24. Profiling the audience for a business message helps the writer
a. identify the appropriate tone, language, and channel.

b. guarantee that the audience will respond positively to the message.

c. select slang and jargon the audience will recognize and appreciate.

d. create a perfect first draft.

25. What question should you ask to visualize your audience?

a. What position does the person hold in the organization?

b. Do I need to include more background information?

c. Should I expect a neutral, positive, or negative response to my message?

d. All answer choices are questions you should ask to visualize your audience.

26. What is the primary way tone is conveyed through a business message?
a. Sentence structure

b. Language choice

c. Document design and layout

d. Sentence length

21
 27. One technique that improves business writing is the use of empathy. Empathy refers to
a. using inclusive language to eliminate bias.

b. putting yourself in the receiver's shoes to adapt the message to the receiver's needs.

c. appealing to the audience by using a sender focus.

d. formatting documents to meet business standards.

28. Which of the following sentences best focuses on the audience?

a. We are very pleased to have you as our newest customer.

b. You can help us by sending us your payment immediately.

c. Register now to lock in your preferred travel dates.

d. All sentences are focused on the audience rather than the sender.

29. Jorge must inform Samantha that she is not eligible to have an August vacation for which she recently
applied. Which of the following sentences best demonstrates the "you" view Jorge should use in denying
Samantha's application?
a. I have not approved your August vacation because you applied too late.

b. We didn't receive your application early enough for the August vacation schedule.

c. Although the August vacation schedule is full, you may qualify for a vacation in September if you apply now.

d. The August vacation schedule was posted in May. You should have consulted it earlier.

30. Business messages should be conversational, professional, positive, and

a. long.

b. Courteous. (lịch sự)

c. written from the sender's perspective.

d. filled with many common abbreviations.

31. Create a conversational but professional tone in letters, e-mail messages, instant messages, and
memos by
a. choosing a clear format and effective document layout.

b. using emoticons.

c. using familiar words, occasional contractions, and pronouns such as you and I.

22
d. using slang and abbreviations such as IMHO and BTW.

32. Marketing Director Kiprova will inform the board of directors that customers are not responding
positively to the company's Paris Hilton ads. Which of the following is the most appropriate announcement?
a. Our customers are ripping on our Paris Hilton ads, even though we know these ads rock.

b. Our customers are badmouthing this awesome new marketing campaign; they are obviously just out of it.

c. At the meeting you will receive reports on recent customer criticism of the new Paris Hilton ads.

d. It has come to my attention that our customers have denigrated our strategic implementation of Paris
Hilton's notoriety in our novel ad campaign.

33. Which of the following sentences demonstrates effective business writing?

a. Hey, Bob. Ur proposal is rad!

b. Your proposal demonstrates how our call center can better meet the needs of our customers.

c. FYI, i liked your proposal :).

d. Congrats on the proposal. You rock!

34. Which of the following sentences demonstrates effective business writing?

a. As per your request, enclosed is our latest catalog.

b. Enclosed is our latest catalog.

c. The latest catalog is contained under separate cover.

d. Pertaining to your request, our latest catalog is enclosed.

35. Which of the following sentences demonstrates conversational business writing?

a. Your return policy really ticks me off.

b. I am upset about your return policy.

c. Your return policy has provoked me to write this letter.

d. All answer choices reflect conversational business writing.

36. As employees use instant messaging to conduct more business, they should send messages that are
informal, conversational, and

23
a. professional.

b. streamlined (e.g., using abbreviations such as ur for you are).

c. casual, including low-level language.

d. filled with slang and jargon.

37. Which of the following represents the best business writing?

a. We regret that we are unable to accept you as a credit customer at this time.

b. You will never be sorry that you opened a checking account with our bank.

c. We cannot accept the returned merchandise because it is not resalable.

d. You can return all resalable merchandise for a store credit.

38. Business messages should use positive language rather than negative language. Positive language
a. has no effect on the tone of a message.

b. conveys less information than negative language.

c. grants the reader all requests or demands.

d. tells what is and what can be done.

39. Courteous business messages

a. avoid using words that sound demanding or preachy.

b. often turn demands into rhetorical questions.

c. avoid hostility or anger.

d. All answer choices are correct.

40. Which of the following demonstrates effective business writing?

a. I'm ticked! Credit my account now!

b. Will you please credit my account for $125 due to the computer error on May 1.

c. You should credit my account.

d. Please get it right and credit my account for $125.

24
 41. Which of the following demonstrates effective business writing?
a. All executives and their wives will attend the Reno conference.

b. A salesman must meet monthly sales quotas.

c. The female attorney graduated from Yale.

d. The office personnel will assist you with your forms.

42. Which of the following is most acceptable for business writing?

a. Every physician must carry his own malpractice insurance.

b. Every physician must carry their own malpractice insurance.

c. All physicians must carry their own malpractice insurance.

d. Every physician must carry his or her own malpractice insurance.

43. Which of the following demonstrates effective business writing?

a. An Asian CEO was the keynote speaker.

b. An African American man was the next customer.

c. A record number of Japanese investors are purchasing real estate in the United States.

d. Mr. Hernandez, a Mexican, is my boss.

44. Which of the following demonstrates effective business writing?

a. Julie Neibauer, 45, was promoted to our call center.

b. The little, old lady needed assistance with her purchases.

c. Daniel Simpson, a senior citizen, volunteered with Habitat for Humanity.

d. The new tax rule applied to individuals over 62.

45. Which of the following demonstrates effective business writing?

a. Victoria uses a wheelchair.

b. Victoria is confined to a wheelchair.

c. Crippled by multiple sclerosis, Victoria uses a wheelchair.

d. Victoria is suffering from multiple sclerosis.

25
 46. Business writers are encouraged to use plain English, which means
a. using active-voice verbs, personal pronouns, short sentences, and familiar words.

b. writing without weakening qualifiers.

c. avoiding all negative expressions.

d. including slang and low-level diction that everyone understands.

47. Francisco is writing an article for the company's intranet to encourage managers to use plain English.
Which of these sentences uses an appropriate business style to express Francisco's point?
a. If you obliterate the obfuscation in your e-mail messages, your department members
will respond more appropriately.

b. Employees will respond better if you write e-mail messages with familiar language and
a friendly, conversational style.

c. Before sending an e-mail message to your department, run it up the flagpole to see if
anyone salutes.

d. Per company directives, please cease and desist from sending incomprehensible e-mail
messages to department members.

48. Business writers who use words such as interrogate, remuneration, and terminate are using language
many readers would consider
a. slang.

b. conversational.

c. jargon.

d. unfamiliar.

49. Which of the following is most acceptable for business writing?

a. It is imperative that we ascertain whether you qualify for benefits.

b. Our company stipulates that you must submit your hours so that we can compensate
you properly.

c. Please check with your supervisor for information about salary increases.

d. Your remuneration will perpetuate for three weeks after your termination.

50. Which of the following is most acceptable for business writing?

26
a. Please think about the new insurance option.

b. Caltrek experienced a change in profits during the last fiscal year.

c. Retailers can expect to pay higher amounts for their goods and services.

d. Sheila will examine the job proposal carefully.

51. A business message should be long because quantity enhances quality.

52. The ability to prepare concise, audience-centered, persuasive, and purposeful messages comes
naturally.

53. When writing a business message, you should always write it from your perspective.

54. The goal of persuasive writing is to make your audience believe and accept your message.

55. Following a systematic plan when preparing any document or presentation will make your job easier.

56. An important aspect of the first phase of writing a business message is anticipating the audience's
reaction to the message.

57. Shannon is writing a proposal to the board of directors to upgrade the company's computer equipment.
After completing the prewriting phase, Shannon should immediately start composing the report.

58. The final task in the third phase of the writing process is evaluating your message to decide whether it
accomplishes your goal.

59. Proofreading and revising are the same.

60. To be effective, the three phases of the writing process must be performed in sequence, moving from
Phase 1 to Phase 2 to Phase 3 in order.

27
 61. You should plan to spend equal amounts of time on each phase of the writing process.

62. The most important phase of the writing process is the revising phase.

63. Most writers spend equal amounts of time on each of the three phases of the writing process:
prewriting, writing, and revising.

64. As you become a more skilled and experienced business writer, you will be more likely to alter,
compress, and rearrange the writing process steps to suit your needs.

65. The primary purposes of most business documents are to inform and to promote goodwill. A common
secondary purpose is sales growth.

66. One of the most important questions you can ask yourself as you begin to compose a message is What
do I hope to achieve?

67. Alonso needs to get feedback from sales representatives located across the US and Europe. Because
he needs to have the most interactivity and feedback possible, the best channel of communication for Alonso
is videoconferencing or teleconferencing.

68. Face-to-face conversation is a richer medium than a written report.

69. One factor affecting channel choice is the importance of the message.

70. Today's businesses increasingly use e-mail and instant messaging for conducting business, but hard-
copy memos are still written for messages that require persuasion, permanence, and formality.

71. Don't send a message unless you know exactly who your audience is.

72. You are more likely to achieve your communication goals if you profile your audience and shape the
message to that profile.

28
 73. Profiling your audience helps you tailor your words to your readers or listeners.

74. Although messages may have a primary and a secondary audience, the writer needs to profile only the
primary audience to determine the best presentation of the message.

75. Ben Franklin stated this opinion about business messages: To be good, it ought to have a tendency to
benefit the reader. His opinion reflects the importance of analyzing the purpose of the message.

76. Empathy, which increases the likelihood of a successful message, occurs when writers put themselves
in the audience's shoes when creating the message.

77. The following sentence represents an audience focus: Our product guarantee becomes effective after
we receive full payment.

78. To emphasize the "you" view in e-mail messages, you must avoid any phrases that include the "I/we"
view such as I'm happy or We're delighted.

79. Whether your goal is to inform, persuade, or promote goodwill, the catchiest words you can use in
your business writing are "you" and "your."

80. The active voice is generally preferred in business writing.

81. Monica is writing her first safety-inspection report. To sound businesslike and professional, Monica
should include expressions such as the affected party, the undersigned, and the writer.

82. Business messages are most effective if they convey an informal, conversational tone.

83. Positive language generally conveys more information than negative language does.

29
 84. The sentence You must submit your application by Friday is a more effective business message than
Please submit your application by Friday.

85. Every mechanic has ten minutes for his morning break is an effectively written sentence.

86. Never specify the age of a person in business messages.

87. Some business, legal, and government documents are written in an inflated and confusing style that
obscures meaning. This style of writing is often referred to as legalese or federalese.

88. Whenever possible in business writing, substitute longer, less familiar words for shorter, simpler
words.

89. A message that is shorter and more conversational is less likely to achieve its goal than a message that
is longer and more formal.

90. Business messages should contain strong verbs and concrete nouns.

91. During the ____________________ phase of the writing process, the writer analyzes the audience
and the purpose for writing.

92. Sam is collecting and organizing information for a marketing report he is writing. Sam is involved in
the second phase of the writing process, which is the ____________________ phase.

93. Catherine is proofreading her cover letter and résumé for accuracy before e-mailing them to a
prospective employer. She is in the third phase of the writing process, which is the ____________________
phase.

94. An interesting theory called ____________________ richness describes the extent to which a channel
or medium recreates or represents all the information available in the original message.

95. The channel of choice for corporate communicators today is clearly ____________________.

30
 96. ____________________ is the process of creating a message that suits your audience. One important
aspect of this process is tone. Conveyed largely by the words in a message, tone affects how a receiver feels
after reading or hearing a message.

97. Conveyed largely by the words in a message, ____________________ affects how a receiver feels
after reading or hearing a message.

98. Putting yourself in the receiver's shoes to better adapt your message to that person's needs is called
____________________.

99. Theresa has emphasized second-person pronouns (you, your) instead of first-person pronouns (I/we,
us, our) in a letter to a customer. She is using the ____________________ view.

100. ____________________ describes technical or specialized terms within a field.

Chap 3:
1. Matthew must develop a proposal for his supervisor that will describe the cost savings for an automated
call center. Where should he begin?
a. Writing the proposal

b. Locating other proposals that he can copy

c. Researching the proposal

d. Determining an appropriate layout

2. Before composing a business document, you should gather information that will answer which of these
questions?
a. Will I have enough time to complete thorough research?

b. What is the receiver to do?

c. What information will be the easiest to locate?

d. How will I use this information?

3. Formal research methods are generally required for what type(s) of business document(s)?
a. Routine e-mail messages

b. Routine memos

c. Long reports and complex business problems

31
d. All of these choices would require formal research.

4. Which of the following is a formal research method?

a. Talking with your boss

b. Organizing a focus group

c. Brainstorming

d. Looking in company files

5. Which formal research source is best to obtain firsthand information?

a. Internet Web sites and articles

b. Reference books

c. Electronic databases

d. Interviews

6. Stephanie is preparing a market analysis for her business plan. For firsthand information she should
a. search manually in her local library.

b. conduct interviews and surveys or organize a focus group.

c. search the Internet for related Web sites.

d. review scientific experiments conducted by experts.

7. Quality Building Materials Inc. has developed a new whole-house weather blanket and needs to
determine the price point at which builders would switch to this new product. The best research method for
this is a(n)
a. manual search of other companies' price lists.

b. interview with a local builder.

c. Internet search of insulation values for weather blankets.

d. scientific experiment that presents price choices with controlled variables.

8. As interns in human resource management, Brad and his team are administering a professionally
developed employee questionnaire to collect information on workplace violence. This type of research
produces data that is considered
32
a. firsthand information.

b. informal documentation.

c. supplementary, secondary information.

d. scientific experimentation.

9. Ahna is sending a persuasive memo to her staff asking them to participate in the new wellness program.
Which of the following sources of information would be most appropriate to help Ahna shape an effective
persuasive message for her staff?
a. Tightly controlled scientific experimentation

b. Library research rooms

c. Questionnaires and surveys of employees

d. Research in company files

10. Many routine writing tasks such as composing e-mail messages or informational reports require that
you collect information informally by
a. conducting extensive Web research.

b. conducting a scientific experiment.

c. looking in the files.

d. searching a variety of books, journals, or magazines.

11. When brainstorming to generate ideas, you should

a. critique each idea as it is suggested.

b. record ideas without judging them.

c. always work alone for greater efficiency.

d. allow no more than five ideas to be discussed.

12. You will create clear, readable messages if you

a. proceed free form from one idea to the next for maximum creative effect.

b. avoid emphasizing important ideas to allow readers to judge for themselves.

c. group similar items together and emphasize important ideas.

d. do not follow any pattern that restricts the free flow of your ideas.
33
 13. Organizing data includes two processes. These processes are
a. grouping and strategizing.

b. brainstorming and researching.

c. outlining and drafting.

d. drafting and editing.

14. According to communication experts, what is the greatest failing of business writers?
a. Poor spelling

b. Unclear sentence structure

c. Ambiguous wording

d. Poor organization

15. Organizing your ideas into an outline is especially important when you are
a. developing a complex project.

b. writing a routine memo.

c. replying quickly to an e-mail message.

d. beginning the research phase of the writing process.

16. The direct strategy would be most appropriate when

a. delivering bad news.

b. presenting ideas requiring persuasion.

c. expecting the audience to be pleased, mildly interested, or neutral.

d. revealing sensitive news.

17. Which of the following business messages would use the direct strategy?
a. A letter denying credit to a customer

b. A sales letter

c. A letter rejecting a customer's claim

34
d. An e-mail to your staff reminding them of the upcoming all-staff meeting

18. Which of the following is an advantage of the direct strategy?

a. Minimizes a negative reaction

b. Respects the feelings of the reader

c. Saves the reader time

d. Encourages a fair hearing

19. Which of the following message openings is the most direct opening for an e-mail message
announcing a new telecommuting plan?
a. A number of employees have asked about telecommuting options.

b. Many businesses have been implementing telecommuting programs, and we have

studied their programs extensively.

c. Rising gas prices have led many companies to allow telecommuting, and we think this
might be a good idea for our company.

d. Our new telecommuting program will begin on August 1.

20. Yosevin began his memo with background information and explanations before announcing a
reduction in health insurance coverage. The strategy Yosevin used is called
a. frontloading.

b. direct.

c. passive voice.

d. indirect.

21. Which of the following is an advantage of the indirect strategy?

a. Saves the reader's time

b. Respects the feelings of the audience

c. Prevents frustration

d. Sets a proper frame of mind

35
 22. When you expect a reader of your message to be uninterested, unwilling, displeased, or hostile, you
should
a. put the bad news first.

b. begin with the main idea.

c. explain all background information first.

d. send the message via e-mail, text message, or IM.

23. Which of the following kinds of business messages typically use the indirect strategy?
a. Non-sensitive memos

b. Routine requests

c. Informational reports

d. Sensitive messages

24. What kind of sentence contains only one independent clause?

a. Simple sentence

b. Compound sentence

c. Complex sentence

d. Compound-complex sentence

25. What kind of sentence contains two independent clauses?

a. Simple sentence

b. Compound sentence

c. Complex sentence

d. Compound-complex sentence

26. What kind of sentence contains an independent clause and a dependent clause?
a. Simple sentence

b. Compound sentence

c. Complex sentence

d. Compound-complex sentence

36
 27. What kind of sentence contains at least two independent clauses and a dependent clause?
a. Simple sentence

b. Compound sentence

c. Complex sentence

d. Compound-complex sentence

28. Which of the following is a simple sentence?

a. If health insurance costs continue to rise, employee copays may increase.

b. Having healthy employees decreases the cost of monthly premiums; therefore, we will
be implementing a wellness program.

c. HMO and PPO insurance plans offer additional cost savings.

d. Because we will be reducing employee health insurance benefits, some employees may
be unhappy; however, we must make sure that they understand the reason for the
change.

29. What is the recommended maximum number of words for a sentence?

a. 10

b. 20

c. 25

d. 30

30. What is a sentence fragment?

a. Two independent clauses connected without punctuation or a conjunction

b. Two independent clauses connected by a comma without a conjunction

c. A broken-off part of a complex sentence

d. The part of a sentence containing the verb

31. What is a comma splice?

a. Two independent clauses run together without punctuation or a conjunction

b. Two independent clauses joined by a comma without a conjunction

37
c. A broken-off part of a complex sentence

d. Two dependent clauses

32. What is a run-on sentence?

a. Two independent clauses run together without punctuation or a conjunction

b. Two independent clauses joined by a comma without a conjunction

c. A broken-off part of a complex sentence

d. An independent clause containing two dependent clauses

33. Which of the following contains no sentence faults?

a. Which is why we are considering new health insurance options.

b. HealthNet's coverage is extensive, and the rates are fair.

c. Review the list of benefits, then let me know what you think.

d. Having good health insurance is important to employees we need to keep that in mind.

34. How should the following be classified? ReliaCare increased insurance premiums by 28 percent for
our next fiscal year, that is why we are seeking new insurance bids.
a. Complete sentence

b. Fragment

c. Fused or run-on sentence

d. Comma splice

35. How should the following be classified? Liana called ReliaCare she also requested a new bid for
health insurance premiums.
a. Complete sentence

b. Fused or run-on sentence

c. Fragment

d. Comma splice

36. To emphasize an idea through mechanics, place it in

38
a. boldface.

b. a different font style.

c. capital letters.

d. Any of these techniques would emphasize the idea.

37. To emphasize an idea through style, place it

a. in a simple sentence.

b. in a dependent clause.

c. in the middle of a sentence.

d. Any of these techniques would emphasize the idea.

38. Which of the following sentences is most effective in de-emphasizing the bad news?
a. Although cash refunds are not offered, you can exchange resalable merchandise.

b. Although you can exchange returned merchandise, cash refunds are not available.

c. Since we only exchange merchandise, it is impossible for you to receive a cash refund.

d. Because of our exchange policy, you may not receive a cash refund.

39. Active-voice sentences

a. direct the action of the verb toward the subject.

b. place the subject of the sentence as the doer of the action.

c. generally use a to be helping verb.

d. should always be avoided.

40. Which of the following uses only active voice in a complete sentence?
a. The company's rigid return policy was criticized by a few unhappy customers.

b. Because a few unhappy customers criticized the company's rigid return policy.

c. Managers were told about the unhappy customers who criticized the company's rigid
return policy.

d. A few unhappy customers criticized the company's rigid return policy.

39
 41. When should passive voice be used in business writing?
a. When you want to de-emphasize the action or the recipient of the action

b. When you want to emphasize the doer of the action

c. When you want to de-emphasize negative news

d. Never

42. Which of the following uses parallel structure?

a. Our new paralegal must be smart, efficient, and have flexibility.

b. The accident shattered her pelvis, dislocated her foot, and her spinal column was
broken in three places.

c. Big business demands superior forecasting, reporting, and analyzing.

d. A good financial planner must be certified, competent, and must possess ethical
standards.

43. Which of the following sentences uses modifiers correctly?

a. Competent in computer graphics, our Web site was designed by Gloria.

b. To take advantage of the discounted pricing, place your order immediately.

c. To meet customers' orders, shipments must be increased.

d. Placing the proposal on the desk, the office was left by John.

44. Effective paragraphs

a. usually present the main idea in the first sentence.

b. are coherent.

c. include supporting sentences that expand and explain the main idea.

d. All answer choices are correct.

45. What do most writers use as the first sentence in a paragraph?

a. Supporting sentence

b. Transitional sentence

c. Topic sentence

40
d. Pivoting sentence

46. Paragraphs are coherent when

a. all sentences are written in the active voice.

b. each sentence includes dependent and independent clauses.

c. ideas are linked; that is, one idea leads logically to the next.

d. All answer choices are correct.

47. Transitional expressions such as next, first, and finally are useful to show
a. cause and effect.

b. illustration.

c. comparison and contrast.

d. time association.

48. Paragraphs should

a. focus on as many ideas as necessary.

b. avoid the repetition of key or similar words.

c. contain long, solid chunks of print.

d. contain eight or fewer printed lines.

49. Writer's block can best be defined as

a. a block of time set aside to compose documents and projects.

b. the organization of research and ideas into an outline or scratch list.

c. an inability to produce a first draft because of poor preparation.

d. a neighborhood in a city or town where writers live and work together.

50. Most writers can compose their business messages more effectively if they
a. have a quiet environment in which to concentrate.

b. turn on a TV, CD player, stereo, or other device to stimulate their thinking.

41
c. maintain a normal working environment, including accepting phone calls, text
messages, IMs, and occasional visitors.

d. hold off writing until the perfect wording forms the complete message in their minds.

51. You can expect to write more messages on the job than ever.

52. Being able to write effectively is critical to promotions.

53. Research is necessary only when composing formal documents.

54. When you fail to collect all needed research before beginning to organize and write your business
document, you may end up starting over and reorganizing.

55. One question you should ask yourself when you collect research is What does the receiver need to
know about this topic?

56. Jonathan is researching the financial impact of a job-sharing benefit for employees. Talking with his
boss about the possible effects of offering this benefit to employees is an effective method of formal
research.

57. Conducting scientific experiments is a method to gather formal research.

58. Most routine business writing tasks allow you to use informal research techniques to gather sufficient
information.

59. Looking in company files for information is a waste of time.

60. Brainstorming is an ineffective research technique.

61. Many communication experts regard poor organization as the greatest failing of business writers.

42
 62. Using a hierarchy such as an outline can help you to organize ideas and information.

63. When you expect the reader to be pleased, mildly interested, or neutral, use the indirect pattern of
organization.

64. Another name for the direct method is frontloading.

65. One advantage of the direct method is that it saves the reader time.

66. The indirect pattern works well with three kinds of messages: (a) bad news, (b) ideas that require
persuasion, and (c) sensitive news.

67. One advantage of the indirect method is that it respects the feelings of the audience.

68. The most compelling and effective messages contain one repeated sentence pattern rather than a
variety of sentences.

69. A compound-complex sentence contains two complete but related thoughts.

70. Because sentences of 20 or fewer words have the most impact, business writers must restrict all
sentences to fewer than 20 words.

71. Words such as although, as, because, and which often introduce dependent clauses.

72. A run-on-sentence results when a writer joins two independent clauses with a comma.

73. Mechanical techniques to emphasize important ideas include underlining, italics, boldface, font
changes, all caps, dashes, tabulation, columns, and headings.

43
 74. Although mechanical means are occasionally appropriate to create emphasis, more often a writer
achieves emphasis stylistically.

75. Careful writers avoid labeling main ideas because they know that readers prefer to identify main ideas
for themselves.

76. The following sentence effectively uses a stylistic device to de-emphasize the bad news: Although we
don't have any available positions at this time, we were pleased to receive your application and will keep it
on file for six months.

77. In the active voice, the subject is acted upon. In the passive voice, the subject is the doer of the action.

78. Active voice is more direct, clear, and concise. Therefore, passive voice should never be used in
business writing.

79. To achieve parallel construction, use similar structure to express ideas.

80. The following sentence demonstrates parallel structure: Eric demonstrated dedication, effective
communication skills, and he was always punctual.

81. Modifiers must be close to the words they describe or limit.

82. The following sentence contains a dangling or misplaced modifier: Working all night, the brief was
filed with the court on time.

83. Business writers generally place the topic sentence first in the paragraph.

84. All support sentences in a paragraph must relate to the topic sentence.

85. Pronouns can be used to promote paragraph coherence.

44
 86. Good writers should avoid repetition of words or key ideas because it shows lack of creativity.

87. Writers can use words and phrases such as on the other hand, as opposed to, and conversely to show
contrast in business messages.

88. Business writers should strive for paragraphs with eight or fewer printed lines.

89. Communicators who have not completed their preparatory work may suffer from writer's block as
they sit staring at their computer screens waiting for inspiration.

90. Experts recommend that business writers avoid free writing, which is similar to cramming for final
exams and likely to produce similarly poor results.

91. Nicola is collecting information for a business document she is writing. We call this collection
process ____________________.

92. Long reports and complex business problems generally require some use of ____________________
research methods.

93. Looking in the files and talking with your boss are methods of ____________________ research.

94. In the ____________________ pattern of organization, the main idea comes first, followed by details,
an explanation, or evidence.

95. Persuasive and bad-news messages should usually use the ____________________ pattern.

96. A(n) ____________________ sentence contains an independent clause (a complete thought) and a
dependent clause (a thought that cannot stand by itself).

97. The refund authorization was processed by our customer service representative is an example of a
sentence using the ____________________ voice.

98. A dangling ____________________ results when the word or phrase the modifier describes is
missing from its sentence.

45
 99. A(n) ____________________ is a group of sentences about one idea.

100. Before and meanwhile are examples of transitional expressions that show ____________________
association.

Chap 5:
1. Which of the following statements about communication in the workplace is most accurate?
a. Today's workplaces are nearly all paperless; employees conduct business with digital
media and communicate only with electronic messages.

b. Most employees exchange documents and complete projects on the Web, but only
management creates content, reviews products, or edits projects.

c. More data are stored on and accessed from PDAs and individual computers rather than
on the Internet or a network.

d. Although today's workplaces are still far from paperless, increasingly information is
exchanged electronically and on the go.

2. Business are storing and accessing ever more data along with software in remote network clusters. This
process of remote storage is called
a. community sourcing.

b. networking.

c. cloud computing.

d. data dumps.

3. Web 2.0
a. allows users to create content, review products, and edit and share information.

b. is a software editing package that finds and corrects all grammar and spelling errors in business documents.

c. has replaced the need for paper copies of business documents.

d. is a Web site that contains journals on a variety of topics usually written by one person.

4. How are businesses using VPNs (virtual private networks) today?

a. Businesses use VPNs to send confidential e-mails on their intranets.

b. Small businesses share VPNs instead of developing their own Web sites.
46
c. VPNs offer businesses secure access to company information from any worldwide
location that provides an Internet connection.

d. VPNs are the primary host site of corporate blogs used to promote new products.

5. The technological revolution of the last 25 years has resulted in

a. shortened workweeks for lucky i-workers (information workers).

b. amazing productivity gains.

c. fewer workers telecommuting than expected.

d. increasing worker freedom from workplace communications.

6. You must communicate up-to-date information immediately to customers who are digitally connected.
Which of these is the best communication channel to offer you this always-on connectedness for your
business message?
a. E-mail

b. Twitter

c. Podcast

d. Blog

7. You are delivering your salary and benefits proposals for employees in your department to your
supervisor. What is the best communication channel to deliver this confidential information?
a. E-mail

b. Podcast

c. Interoffice memo

d. All are appropriate channels to deliver confidential information.

8. Which of the following messages is appropriate to send via e-mail?

a. An announcement of a major benefit reduction for all employees

b. An announcement of a change in a meeting date

c. A quarterly performance appraisal of an employee

d. Notification of company layoff plans for the next quarter

47
 9. Jackson is sending an e-mail message about an important upcoming meeting. Which of the following
represents the most effective subject line?
a. Urgent!

b. Our next staff meeting will be held on the 15th of August.

c. Please Attend Staff Meeting August 15

d. Please Read NOW

10. Most e-mail messages and memos

a. have non-sensitive topics and begin directly.

b. require persuasion.

c. are indirect and begin with an explanation.

d. need not be carefully organized because they are informal.

11. Bennett is sending an e-mail message about a change in procedure for submitting work hours. Which
of the following represents the most direct opening?
a. Recently, the management staff discussed our process for submitting work hours.

b. A new procedure for submitting work hours will go into effect on April 1.

c. Are you in the mood to try something a little different?

d. We all hate when procedures change, but this change is needed.

12. Which of the following is the best advice for writing the body of an e-mail message?
a. To help the receiver act on the subject, discuss only one idea.

b. Because e-mail messages and memos are informal, do not use numbered or bulleted
lists.

c. Limit white space to place all information on a single screen if possible.

d. Do not waste space on headings and subheadings.

13. Your e-mail messages and memos should have high skim value, which meANSWER
a. you write the message quickly and efficiently.

b. information presented is easy to read and comprehend.

48
c. all sentences contain ten or fewer words.

d. all paragraphs contain five or fewer lines.

14. An e-mail message or memo usually ends with action information, needed dates, a summary of the
message, or a
a. witty quotation.

b. copyright notice or confidentiality statement.

c. closing thought.

d. reference line that includes the typist's initials.

15. Which of the following is the most appropriate closing for an e-mail message or memo?
a. Please submit your report by August 1 so that the information can be presented at the
seminar.

b. Please let me know if I may be of further assistance.

c. Thank you in advance for answering my questions.

d. It's been great talking with you.

16. Which of the following is not a guide word used in e-mail messages and memos?
a. TO:

b. FROM:

c. RESPONSE:

d. DATE:

17. What is the current advice on the use of a greeting on business e-mail?
a. Omit greetings because they make an e-mail appear too casual.

b. Add a greeting only when forwarding an e-mail with a lengthy header.

c. Don't waste precious digital space on the nonessential keystrokes of a greeting or

salutation.

d. Begin with a greeting to provide a visual cue and to show friendliness.

49
 18. If a coworker is using company computers to communicate with family members, what is the best
advice?
a. Send e-mail to family or friends if you wish because the employer can't monitor non-
business e-mail anyway.

b. Use company computers for e-mail and shopping, but don't visit any gambling sites.

c. Don't use company computers for personal matters.

d. Be certain to complete all personal communication during break time.

19. If you have to send a long message via e-mail, what is the best advice?
a. Place all information in the body of the e-mail message.

b. Attach a separate document to the e-mail message, leaving the body of the message
blank.

c. Attach a document to the e-mail message, including identifying information in the

body of the e-mail.

d. Send it another way because you should not send attachments via e-mail.

20. The final element of an e-mail message should be

a. your name.

b. a witty phrase and your name.

c. the name of the business or organization only.

d. the final paragraph of the message containing action information.

21. To correctly format a hard-copy interoffice memorandum, which of the following is not a guideline
you should follow?
a. Set 1-inch top and bottom margins and left and right margins of 1.25 inches.

b. Insert in bold the guide words: Date:, To:, From:, and Subject: at the left margin.

c. Provide a heading that includes the name of the company plus "Memo" or
"Memorandum."

d. Justify the right margin.

22. Business e-mail users must learn that e-mail can be dangerous because messages travel long distances,
are difficult to erase, and
a. can't be used to transmit official documents.

50
b. are informal, allowing a few spelling and punctuation mistakes.

c. may become evidence in court.

d. are challenging to type using only two fingers.

23. E-mail is the No. 1 communication channel in business today. To make your messages effective, you
should
a. consider the receiver.

b. compose quickly.

c. organize indirectly.

d. edit and revise as you draft.

24. Samantha must use e-mail frequently to communicate with others in her new job. What is the best
advice to give her?
a. Consider composing important messages offline.

b. Use general tags such as Hi! or Important as the subject line to catch the reader's
attention.

c. Add frequent emoticons such as happy faces to appear friendly and approachable in e-
mail messages.

d. Always press "Reply to All" when responding to e-mail messages.

25. Good advice for e-mail is to use the "top-of-screen" test, which meANSWER
a. beginning with a cute graphic or witty quotation to capture your reader's attention.

b. getting the e-mail address right.

c. composing offline.

d. conveying your purpose in the subject line and first paragraph.

26. Which of the following situations is most appropriate for sending an e-mail message?
a. Matthew is angry with one of his colleagues and wants to let her know exactly how he
feels.

b. Jane found a great political joke she wants to share with her colleagues.

c. Chris must send the monthly sales data to his department.

51
d. Maggie needs to vent her frustrations about working conditions to her shift supervisor.

27. Which of these is the best recommendation for business communicators using e-mail?
a. Use e-mail to deliver bad news or to resolve arguments to limit or avoid workplace
confrontation.

b. Add humor or tongue-in-cheek comments to lighten the tone of serious e-mail topics.

c. Use e-mail, not hard-copy memos, for messages that the business would not want to be
made public or for topics that should not be published.

d. Care about tone, correctness, and conciseness to create messages with the reader in
mind.

28. If business writers want to demonstrate good netiquette when using e-mail, they should
a. document every business decision and action in hard-copy memos or e-mail.

b. write important e-mail messages in all capital letters for emphasis and increased
professionalism.

c. ask permission before forwarding e-mail messages.

d. add a cc (carbon copy) to their supervisors on all business messages.

29. Which of the following is the best tip for replying to e-mail messages?
a. Reply to an e-mail message immediately because reading additional e-mail messages
before replying might confuse you.

b. If you can't reply immediately, acknowledge receipt of the message and tell the sender
when you'll be able to reply.

c. Include the sender's entire original message in the body of your reply to clarify the
meaning of your response.

d. Retain the original subject line to identify a conversation thread even if the topic shifts.

30. Which of the following is an advantage of instant messaging (IM)?

a. It includes "presence functionality," allowing coworkers to locate each other online,
which saves time tracking someone down who is out of the office.

b. It is delayed; a user has time to recall sent messages if he or she decides the message
should not have been delivered.

c. It prevents multitasking and encourages employees to focus on one job at a time.

52
d. It allows in-depth analysis of data, including charts and graphs, and lengthy
conversation of the chosen topics.

31. Why do some employers forbid employees to use instant messaging (IM)?
a. Instant messaging is more expensive to use than faxes or phone calls.

b. Employers consider IM yet another distraction in addition to the interruptions caused

by telephones and e-mails.

c. Delivery of instant messages takes longer than e-mail message delivery.

d. Many companies forbid instant messaging use for all these reasons.

32. Porter's company has decided to let employees use instant messaging (IM) as an internal
communication tool, and she wants to make sure that she's using it professionally. What should she do?
a. Make sure she's available via IM at all times so that her colleagues can always reach
her.

b. Include both professional and personal contacts on the same IM contact list for
efficiency.

c. Respect her receivers by using proper grammar, spelling, and proofreading in her
instant messages.

d. Create an imaginative IM name for herself such as "PrettySmart1."

33. Podcasts, blogs, and wikis are part of the new user-centered virtual environment called
a. the Total Network.

b. Web 2.0.

c. Cloud Computing.

d. VPN.

34. Because access to the Web is readily available, the dangers are obvious. Which of these represents a
common danger of the Web?
a. Fact checking is reducing productivity.

b. Buzz may become more important than truth.

c. It is difficult to establish or verify a reputation.

d. People can access information on the Web.

53
 35. News professionals, educators, and corporate trainers create digital audio or video files; and receivers
can download the files to a computer or a smartphone to view or hear the file contents. What are these digital
audio or video files called?
a. Blogs

b. Podcasts

c. Wikis

d. Web forums

36. Businesses have embraced podcasts for audio and video messages because podcasts
a. do not require a live presence, yet offer a friendly human face.

b. can't replace costlier live teleconferences but can replace most business travel.

c. provide up to 1,000 views per podcast, saving money over individual presentations.

d. broadcast interactive, non-repetitive information.

37. Which of the following is the best tip for preparing a podcast?
a. Purchase a high-end digital recorder, memorize your message, and record your
presentation.

b. Speak clearly, deliver off the cuff, and maintain eye contact.

c. Know the subject, know your audience, and know your goal.

d. Select a digital recorder, organize your message, and rehearse your delivery.

38. The biggest advantage of business blogs is that

a. they have the potential to reach a vast, far-flung audience.

b. they have become the primary method of business communication internally.

c. they provide anytime access to digital audio and video files containing corporate
training, marketing, and informational messages.

d. they provide digital security against hackers and rival companies.

39. Some companies now use Twitter and other social media to monitor what is being said about them, to
engage with customers, and
a. to serve as cover letters for longer documents.

54
b. to post job openings.

c. to market to other businesses.

d. to share files and collaborate on projects.

40. You are using the corporate blog to respond to an business emergency. Which of the following is the
best recommendation?
a. Use the blog as the sole provider of emergency information to avoid muddled
messages.

b. Make the blog part of your overall effort to communicate information regarding the
business's emergency.

c. Soothe emotional reactions by posting information on your corporate blog, replacing

all other communication channels.

d. Do not address rumors or misinformation on the blog; address factual content only.

41. Blogs have several internal communication purposes including

a. posting employee changes such as layoff s, promotions, and firings.

b. announcing employee illnesses, adoptions, and vacations.

c. providing information about benefits or featuring profiles on key employees.

d. posting administrative salaries, raises, and incentive packages.

42. You are crafting a message for your corporate blog. What advice should you follow?
a. Make your writing serious, reserved, and formal.

b. Offer a professional perspective on subjects you care about or a topic your company
needs to promote.

c. Get to know the blogosphere in your industry and avoid discussing topics from other
blogs.

d. Blog about topics that showcase your expertise and insights.

43. Experts advise that you use blogrolling to maximize effectiveness. What does blogrolling mean?
a. You provide links to other sites or blogs on the Web that you find valuable and that are
related to your business or industry.

b. You frequently update or "roll over" the information on your blog to keep it fresh.

55
c. Your company or organization maintains separate blogs for each department or
division and posts rolling messages daily.

d. You add links to other technologies, allowing viewers to access podcasts, Twitter
feeds, Facebook pages, and company files.

44. How do companies use wikis?

a. Companies share special deals and incentives in short messages of 140 characters or
less.

b. Corporate teams respond to internal and external customers in rapid-fire posts to

emergencies and other high-pressure situations.

c. Global companies share information between headquarters and satellite offices.

d. Companies post photos and biographies of their top-tier managers.

45. You must contribute to projects on your departmental wiki. Which of the following is not a guideline
you should follow?
a. Follow the conventions of polite society and commonsense rules and show respect.

b. Watch out for improper or ambiguous language.

c. Freely and severely criticize obvious errors by another contributor.

d. Verify your facts and give credit where credit is due.

46. Which of the following statements best describes use of social networks by businesses today?
a. All companies are comfortable with using social networking for brainstorming and
teamwork.

b. Companies struggle with finding the right balance between permitting access to the
Web and protecting security as well as ensuring productivity.

c. Companies must run their own social networks to capitalize effectively on the benefits
this medium offers.

d. Large companies (like McDonalds and British Telecom) create buzz and promote their
brands via social networking, but social networking offers no benefit to small
businesses.

47. Travis has asked you for some advice regarding the use of social networking in the workplace. What
advice will you share?
a. Do not share any sensitive information.

56
b. Refuse friend requests or "unfriend" people to avoid jeopardizing professional
relationships.

c. Establish boundaries, and don't share information online that you wouldn't share openly
in the office.

d. Assume the content posted on a social networking site is protected.

48. Which of the following represents a potential reward of using professional networking sites such as
LinkedIn?
a. Sites like LinkedIn are inexpensive, simple, and fast ways to connect recruiters and job
candidates.

b. Professional networking sites can replace face-to-face interviews.

c. Candidates do not need to craft their profiles with the same care as used for their
traditional résumés.

d. Networking sites are automatically updated, relieving the jobseeker of the obligation of
keeping documents current.

49. Why do busy employees choose to use RSS feeds?

a. Most employers demand that employees remain connected via RSS at all times.

b. Including RSS (Recent Senders Service) feeds allows employees to track customer
activity levels in their e-mail and other communication tools.

c. RSS feeds have identified computer viruses and malware, saving millions of dollars for
large corporations.

d. These feeds can be a time-saver, allowing users to monitor many news sources in one
convenient spot.

50. What is the purpose of social bookmarking?

a. It helps users search, organize, manage, and store bookmarks on the Web with the help
of metadata.

b. It connects single employees with other singles in the same company.

c. It allows businesses to identify emerging data needs, to select new digital

communication technologies, and to merge existing software.

d. It enables interdepartmental collaboration on long-term projects by managing multiple-

data packages.

57
 51. E-mail has replaced letters for many messages inside organizations and for some messages to external
audiences.

52. PDF documents guarantee that the reader receives a message that looks exactly as the writer intended.

53. Use e-mail for internal messages requiring a permanent record or formality; use hard-copy memos for
external messages requiring a permanent record or formality.

54. Informational e-mail and memos generally follow the same writing plan: informative subject line,
direct opening, explanatory body, and appropriate closing.

55. Including a subject line in your e-mail message or memo is optional because the message is usually
short.

56. Open most e-mails and memos indirectly to show respect for readers.

57. Effective e-mail messages and memos generally discuss only one topic.

58. Readers look for deadlines and action language in the body of an e-mail message or memo.

59. Please let me know if I may provide additional information or be of further assistance is an example
of an effective, professional closing for an e-mail message or memo.

60. You need not close messages to coworkers with goodwill statements such as those found in letters to
customers or clients.

61. Because the recipient's e-mail address is located in the e-mail heading, including a greeting in the
message body is not necessary.

62. The Accounting Department wants to document the information it presented at the weekly divisional
meeting. The best internal channel to create a permanent, formal record of this information is a hard-copy
memo.

58
 63. One of the risks in using e-mail is "self-destructing," which refers to accidentally sending an e-mail
message without first carefully editing it or verifying the recipients' names.

64. Typing your name at the bottom of an e-mail message is unnecessary.

65. In addition to the basic elements of Date, To, From, and Subject, large organizations may include
other identifying headings, such as File Number, Floor, Extension, Location, and Distribution on memos.

66. One risk of e-mail is that even though you erase an e-mail message, it can remain on multiple servers
that are backed up by companies or Internet service providers.

67. E-mail is an appropriate channel for communicating schedule changes, breaking bad news, and
resolving arguments.

68. E-mail messages have benefits and risks; some risks occur because e-mail messages travel,
intentionally or unintentionally, long distances.

69. Travis deleted an e-mail message, but now he needs that message. Unfortunately, once deleted, e-mail
can never be retrieved.

70. Because employers have the legal right to monitor e-mail use, assume that your employer monitors all
workplace e-mail.

71. When preparing your script for a podcast, include some redundancy: tell the listeners what you will
tell them, then tell them, and, finally, tell them what you have told them.

72. Although teenagers use instant messaging (IM) frequently, corporations do not use this
communication tool.

73. The major attraction of instant messaging (IM) in business is real-time communication with
colleagues anywhere in the world⎯so long as a cell phone signal or a Wi-Fi connection is available.

59
 74. Podcasting has experienced large growth and has spread among various user groups online.

75. RSS feeds are online journals used by companies to communicate internally with employees and
externally with customers.

76. Millie needs to research customer reactions. She should consider a blog because blogs can produce
unbiased consumer feedback more quickly and cheaply than familiar techniques like focus groups and
surveys.

77. Twitter is very popular for personal use with employees under age 35, but businesses have not yet
found positive business applications for this digital communication tool.

78. One of the prominent business uses of blogs is to provide up-to-date company information to the press
and the public.

79. Businesses now have appointed employees to scrutinize the blogosphere for buzz and positive or
negative postings about their organization and products.

80. Unlike more formal business messages, blog entries should address a general audience, have a casual
style, and use an informal tone; thus the blog message will be suitable for anyone.

81. When creating a blog, you are striving to attract repeat traffic by individual blog readers and to avoid
hits by search engines.

82. Lines between social and professional networking have been clear; and as a business communicator,
you must strive to keep those boundaries distinct.

83. Business applications for social networks continue to emerge as some organizations provide the
collaboration tools and watch what happens.

60
 84. You must be wary of the many risks in the cyber world, which include not only appearing in
inappropriate photographs but also making "friends" online.

85. Professional networking sites allow hiring managers to fully screen job applicants, select the best
candidate, and offer the job to the selected candidate, thus saving today's businesses time and money in the
hiring process.

86. As businesses try to control the risks related to Internet access, their younger employees, in particular,
are shocked to find employers have blocked access to Facebook, Gmail, and other popular Web destinations.

87. RSS is a fast and easy way to search and manage information in a data file format capable of
transmitting changing Web content.

88. About three quarters of U.S. companies view social media⎯mostly LinkedIn⎯as essential sources
for recruiting.

89. The terms social networking and social bookmarking both refer to an online service used to connect
users with related interests.

90. A majority of messages are being exchanged electronically.

91. ____________________ messages tend to carry more weight, are more formal, and are taken more
seriously in certain situations.

92. In the ____________________ of an e-mail message, you should cover just one topic.

93. Sending unsolicited advertisements, also called ____________________, either by fax or e-mail is
illegal in the United States.

94. A(n) ____________________ is a digital audio or video file that can be downloaded to a computer or
watched on a smartphone.

95. An e-mail message should include a descriptive ____________________ to help ensure that the
message will be read.

61
 96. To, From, Date, and Subject in an e-mail message or a memo are called ____________________
words.

97. Unless your company specifically allows it, never use your employer's computers for
____________________ messages or entertainment.

98. Although e-mail is still a relatively new business communication tool, a set of rules for polite online
interaction called ____________________ has emerged.

99. ____________________ messaging enables you to use the Internet to communicate in real time in a
private chat room with one or more individuals. It is like live e-mail or a text telephone call.

100. Teams or departments use ____________________ to collect and disseminate information to large
audiences creating a database for knowledge management.

Chap 9:
1. Which of the following statements about reports is accurate?
a. Business professionals rarely write reports.

b. Writers develop reports for internal audiences only.

c. Informal reports of eight or fewer pages are the most common report in the workplace.

d. Business writers deliver reports only through hard copies.

2. Reports convey information, answer questions, and

a. present your opinions.

b. solve problems.

c. comply with government regulations.

d. demonstrate your proficiency as a technical writer.

3. Reports that present data without analysis or recommendations are

a. informational reports.

b. analytical reports.

c. cost-benefit analysis reports.

d. justification reports.

62
 4. Which of the following is most likely to be written as an informative report?
a. A recommendation from the Information Technology Department that your company
install a wireless network

b. A feasibility study addressing tuition reimbursement to all employees

c. A comparison of five handheld communication devices that your company might

purchase

d. A summary of information presented at a recent conference for technical writers

5. Reports that provide data or findings, analyses, and conclusions are

a. informational reports.

b. analytical reports.

c. summaries.

d. progress reports.

6. Which of the following reports is an example of an analytical report?

a. A report summarizing the details of a recent seminar you attended

b. A report recommending an antiterrorism security system for mass transit

c. A report outlining the new company procedure for reporting workplace injuries

d. A report showing state budget allocations for education

7. The direct pattern of organization is appropriate for a business report when readers
a. need to be educated.

b. must be persuaded.

c. are informed.

d. may be disappointed or hostile.

8. When you organize a report directly, what is the correct order of ideas to follow?
a. Introduction, facts, and summary

b. Introduction, summary, and facts

63
c. Summary, introduction, and facts

d. The direct pattern presents ideas in any order for maximum effectiveness.

9. The indirect pattern of organization is appropriate for a business report when readers
a. are supportive of the topic.

b. must be persuaded.

c. are familiar with the topic.

d. want to know the results immediately.

10. When you organize a report indirectly, in which order should you present your ideas?
a. Description of the problem, conclusions, facts, and recommendations

b. Conclusion, recommendations, description of the problem, and facts

c. Description of the problem, facts, conclusions, and recommendations

d. The indirect pattern does not follow a set order of ideas.

11. Which is the most accurate statement about business report organizational patterns?
a. The primary difference between direct and indirect organizational patterns is the
location of the findings.

b. Many business executives place most importance on the analysis of the problem in a
report.

c. When using the indirect organizational pattern, place the conclusions and
recommendations at the beginning of the report.

d. The indirect pattern seems more logical to many readers because it mirrors the way we
solve problems.

12. Connor has studied the effect of on-site daycare on employee work attendance. He must present his
findings to his supervisor, who is opposed to this service. How should Connor present his information?
a. Use persuasive strategies and an indirect organizational pattern.

b. Arrange the report using the direct organizational pattern.

c. Omit background data as this might bore his supervisor.

d. Give up; his boss will never go for this idea anyway.

64
 13. The format of a report depends primarily on
a. its topic, recommendations, and organizational pattern.

b. your knowledge of the writing process.

c. its length, topic, audience, and purpose.

d. your printer quality and paper type.

14. You are writing a short, informal report that will stay inside your organization. Which format would
be most appropriate?
a. Letter format

b. Memo or e-mail format

c. Manuscript format

d. Full-block format

15. You are writing a short, informal report that you will send to one of your customers. Which format
would be most appropriate?
a. Letter format

b. Memo or e-mail format

c. Manuscript format

d. Printed form

16. You work for a development firm and must explain to a customer the results of a year-long study of
potential sites for new stores. In what format should you develop this report?
a. Memo or e-mail format

b. Printed form

c. Letter format

d. Manuscript format

17. You are an inventory specialist for a retail store. Your boss has asked you to compile a year-end
report listing the merchandise sold each month through the company's Web site. In what format should you
present this data?
a. Memo or e-mail format

65
b. Preprinted form

c. Letter format

d. Manuscript format

18. Which statement regarding digital report formats and delivery is accurate?
a. Although digital media allows writers to produce and distribute reports electronically,
good writers follow up such electronic reports with hard copies.

b. Only certain kinds of reports can be attached to an e-mail.

c. New technology allows users to hyperlink multimedia content within a document or

with associated text or files.

d. When attaching a report to an e-mail message, you do not need to introduce the report
or reference the attachment in the e-mail message.

19. When you receive an assignment to write a report, you should begin the report-writing process by
a. analyzing your audience.

b. determining your purpose.

c. beginning your research.

d. looking for someone else to write the report.

20. Many business writers begin their report research by

a. conducting interviews.

b. observing others.

c. constructing questionnaires and inventories.

d. visiting company records.

21. What type of research source provides the richest and most accurate first-hand information?
a. Surveys

b. Interviews

c. Company records

d. Observations

66
 22. Typical sources for factual information in an informal report include
a. company records, observation, and electronic resources.

b. observation, personal opinion, and print sources.

c. printed materials, the writer's educated guesses, and electronic resources.

d. personal experience, personal observation, and personal opinion.

23. Which of the following statements is accurate?

a. Primary data result from reading what others have experienced or observed.

b. Secondary data come from firsthand experience and observation.

c. Secondary data are easier and cheaper to gather than primary data.

d. Secondary data are always gathered after the collection of primary data.

24. A report that monitors the headway of a nonroutine or unusual activity is called
a. the minutes of a meeting.

b. an information report.

c. a progress report.

d. a summary.

25. A report that attempts to solve problems by presenting data, drawing conclusions, and offering
solutions is called a(n)
a. justification/recommendation report.

b. information report.

c. progress report.

d. summary.

26. Reports that describe routine activities without analysis are called
a. justification/recommendation reports.

b. information reports.

c. progress reports.

67
d. summaries.

27. A record of the proceedings of a meeting is called

a. a progress report.

b. an information report.

c. a summary.

d. the minutes.

28. What kind of report condenses the primary ideas, conclusions, and recommendations of a longer
report or publication?
a. Progress report

b. Information report

c. Summary

d. Analytical report

29. As chairperson of a customer service task force, you must update management on your team's
progress. What kind of report will you write?
a. Justification/recommendation report

b. Information report

c. Progress report

d. Feasibility report

30. Your department needs a new copier, and your job is to research the options. Based on your research,
you have selected an all-in-one machine that you believe will be cost effective and will perform well. What
kind of report would you write to present your findings?
a. Summary report

b. Justification/recommendation report

c. Information report

d. Progress report

68
 31. As a human resources (HR) assistant, you must write a monthly report to the HR director
summarizing the number of job applicants, the number of interviews conducted, and the number of active
employees. What kind of report would you prepare?
a. Information report

b. Justification/recommendation report

c. Progress report

d. Feasibility report

32. Your current assignment is to condense a 200-page government policy report on oil drilling in Alaska
into a shorter report for Sierra Club members to read. What kind of report would you most likely write?
a. Information report

b. Summary report

c. Justification/recommendation report

d. Progress report

33. Your company currently processes its payroll internally but is considering the use of an external
accounting firm. You are in charge of determining whether your company should proceed with this plan.
What kind of report would you most likely write?
a. Feasibility report

b. Progress report

c. Information report

d. Summary report

34. Which of the following is most likely to be written as an informational report?

a. A report recommending the installation of retina scanner to improve security

b. A report telling management about the current status of a long-term project

c. A government regulatory report to be filed with the Securities and Exchange

Commission

d. A report comparing three locations and identifying the best for a new franchise outlet

35. You have organized the findings section of your information report by answering who, what, when,
where, why, and how. This pattern is called
a. chronological.

69
b. journalism style.

c. geographical.

d. alphabetical.

36. Which of the following situations might require a progress report?

a. The work of a committee preparing for an open house when a new wing of a hospital is
completed

b. The reporting of monthly sales figures for all divisions

c. A study of whether a company should provide on-site childcare

d. A one-page summary of a long article in The Wall Street Journal

37. In what order should you organize your ideas when you believe your audience will be agreeable to the
suggestions in your justification/recommendation report?
a. Announce the recommendation, explain the recommendation, identify the problem or
need, and provide necessary action.

b. Provide necessary action, identify the problem or need, announce the recommendation,
and explain the recommendation.

c. Identify the problem or need, announce the recommendation, explain the

recommendation, and provide necessary action.

d. Identify the problem or need, provide necessary action, announce the recommendation,
and explain the recommendation.

38. Which of the following is not needed in a feasibility report?

a. The background and problem necessitating the proposal

b. Problems that may result from implementation

c. Costs of implementing the proposal

d. Persuasive techniques

39. Thomas is in charge of taking formal minutes during an Institute of Internal Auditors chapter meeting.
Which of the following is the best advice?
a. Record only new business because old business will appear in previous minutes.

b. Avoid using the exact wording of motions because that would be too time consuming.

70
c. Record voting results and actions taken.

d. Omit his name and signature as the person recording the minutes because he is acting
on behalf of the organization.

40. Which of the following is the best advice to follow when writing a summary?
a. Include specific examples from the report, article, or book you are summarizing.

b. Copy passages word for word to ensure that you cover the main ideas.

c. Avoid headings or lists to prevent reader distraction.

d. Condense the original ideas.

41. An informal writing style includes

a. contractions (for example, wouldn't, don't, they're).

b. second-person pronouns (for example, you and your).

c. mainly passive-voice verbs.

d. longer sentences.

42. Which of the following constructions uses the best writing style for an informal report?
a. James, Deloitte, and Wilts, Inc., after extensive review of references and credentials of
contractors, has elected to contract with Peck Builders for the new office complex.

b. We're pleased to announce the selection of Peck Builders as general contractor for our
new office complex.

c. After conducting an exhaustive search of building design elements and cost-efficiency

data, the company has verified the qualifications of Peck Builders.

d. The findings demonstrate the imperative of selecting a fully qualified and bonded
contractor for the new building project of James, Deloitte, and Wilts, Inc.; that
contractor is Peck Builders.

43. Which of the following sentences demonstrates active-voice verbs?

a. Superior writing skills are required by many employers.

b. Employee use of e-mail was monitored by management.

c. Research indicates a correlation between strong writing skills and promotions.

d. The proposals were carefully reviewed by the screening committee.

71
 44. Irina wants to make sure that she sounds credible in her business report. What should she do to build
her credibility?
a. Discuss only the position that she favors so that her readers don't get confused.

b. Write her personal opinions so that they sound like facts.

c. Tell her readers the source of her information.

d. Irina should do all of these to build credibility.

45. Which of the following represents the best use of language?

a. Most people agree...

b. Some people agree...

c. Seventy-five percent of people agree...

d. All answer choices reflect appropriate language choice.

46. Headings that show the outline of a report are called

a. talking headings.

b. topic headings.

c. functional headings.

d. descriptive headings.

47. Headings that describe the content of a report section are called
a. talking headings.

b. topic headings.

c. functional headings.

d. descriptive headings.

48. Which of the following statements about functional headings is accurate?

a. Functional headings are useful for complex reports.

b. Functional headings provide more information than talking headings.

72
c. Functional headings are not appropriate for sensitive or controversial topics.

d. Background is an example of a functional heading.

49. Which of the following is a talking heading?

a. IT Outsourcing

b. Savings

c. Cost Savings

d. Projected Cost Savings for IT Outsourcing

50. Vanessa is writing a report that will include headings. What should she do to make sure that her
headings are effective?
a. Enclose the headings in quotation marks (dấu ngoặc kép) to make them stand out on
the page.

b. Vary same-level headings in terms of physical position and appearance to help the
reader maintain interest in the report.

c. Use headings as antecedents for pronouns to make her report more concise.

d. Include at least one heading per report page.

51. Business reports are always presented in writing or orally, but they are not presented digitally.

52. The most common type of report in the workplace is the formal report.

53. You will write reports for only one reason: to convey information.

54. Based on their function, business reports typically fall into one of two categories: instructional or
persuasive.

55. An informative report presents data without analysis and recommendations.

56. The direct organization strategy presents the purpose for writing near the beginning of a report.

73
 57. The direct strategy is appropriate when your readers are informed or supportive of your topic.

58. Use the indirect strategy for all analytic reports.

59. The format for an informal report relies solely on the intended audience.

60. Preprinted forms are useful for reporting repetitive data.

61. If you are preparing a report in manuscript format for an outside organization, print the report on your
company letterhead.

62. The memo or e-mail format is appropriate for short informal reports that stay within organizations.

63. All reports are printed on either paper or preprinted forms.

64. You can attach reports in any format to an e-mail message.

65. The first step in preparing a report is to sit down and begin writing immediately; this technique allows
you to capture your best ideas quickly.

66. Identifying your primary and secondary audiences can help you determine your writing style.

67. Primary data result from reading what others have experienced or observed and recorded.

68. Many report writers begin with an analysis of company records and files.

69. Surveys provide the richest, most accurate first-hand information.

74
 70. Business researchers often use such electronic resources such as mailing lists, discussion boards,
social networking sites, and blogs to conduct research for business reports.

71. Informal business reports generally fall into one of six categories. However, in many instances the
category boundaries overlap and distinctions are not always clear-cut.

72. Informational reports may be personalized or standardized.

73. You should organize all informational reports topically.

74. Progress reports are written for only internal readers.

75. Feasibility reports analyze a problem, discuss options, and present a recommendation, solution, or
action to be taken.

76. When your reader may oppose your recommendation, you should begin the report by announcing the
recommendation directly.

77. Feasibility reports answer such questions as Will this plan or proposal work?

78. Feasibility reports are typically written for internal audiences.

79. Formal meeting minutes provide a record of old business, new business, announcements, and reports,
as well as the precise wording of motions.

80. Informal minutes tend to be longer and less well organized than formal minutes, making the informal
minutes more difficult to read.

81. Summary reports are typical in academic settings but rarely used in business settings.

75
 82. The primary purpose of an executive summary is to concentrate on what management needs to know
from a longer report.

83. A formal writing style includes first-person pronouns, contractions, active-voice verbs, shorter
sentences, and familiar words.

84. The audience, purpose, and setting of a message usually determine the use of a formal or informal
writing style, but only a formal writing style will enhance the authority and credibility of a report.

85. Reports are convincing only when the facts are believable and the writer is credible.

86. Although citing sources in a formal report is essential, you do not need to cite sources in an informal
report.

87. Discussion of Findings is an example of a functional heading.

88. Functional headings should be used instead of talking headings in a report when the report discusses a
sensitive or controversial topic.

89. Headings are advantageous only to the reader of the report, not to the writer.

90. You should include at least one heading per report page.

91. Business ____________________ are systematic attempts to convey information, answer questions,
and solve problems.

92. In a report using the ____________________ organizational pattern, the problem, discussion, and
findings are presented before the conclusions and recommendations.

93. Use ____________________ format for short (usually eight or fewer pages) informal reports
addressed outside an organization.

76
 94. Use Empowered Team Decision-Making Without Losing Control is an example of a(n)
____________________ heading.

95. A distinct type of information report is the ____________________ report. In this type of report,
business travelers identify the event they attended or the company they visited; summarize three to five main
points objectively; and, if requested, itemize their expenses on a separate sheet.

96. The purpose of a(n)____________________ report is used to tell management whether a nonroutine
project is on schedule.

97. ____________________ or recommendation reports attempt to solve problems by evaluating options

and offering recommendations.

98. A(n) ____________________ condenses the primary ideas, conclusions, and recommendations of a
longer report or publication.

99. When a company must decide whether to proceed with a plan of action, it may require a(n)
____________________ report.

100. ____________________ are a record of the proceedings of a meeting.

Chap 10:
1. Which of the following statements is accurate?
a. Proposals are persuasive documents used to solve problems, provide services, or sell
equipment.

b. Proposals are always solicited.

c. Proposals are informative documents used to share problems, identify emerging issues,
and categorize available resources for resolution.

d. Proposals are developed for external audiences only.

2. A company might prepare a proposal for which of the following reasons?

a. To show its compliance with Homeland Security rules and regulations

b. To solicit competitive bids for a new building

c. To inform company shareholders of an attempted hostile takeover

d. To bid for a contract to retrofit a local bridge

77
 3. An RFP (request for proposal) can best be defined as
a. a document that solicits competitive bids on a project.

b. an offer to provide a service, sell equipment, or solve a problem.

c. an internal report justifying a request for additional staffing and equipment.

d. a persuasive sales presentation emphasizing benefits for the reader.

4. A business would be most likely to write a request for proposals

a. to advertise openings for two sales positions.

b. to attract new clients.

c. to renovate offices.

d. to begin expansion in global markets.

5. In addition to an introduction, the background information, and the proposal itself, informal or letter
proposals often contain
a. staffing requirements, a budget, and an authorization request.

b. service dates, applicable laws and statutes, and a signed contract.

c. a bill for services rendered and a signed contract.

d. free prizes and other gimmicks.

6. You can make the introduction of a proposal more persuasive if you

a. explain in great detail how much better you are than your competitors.

b. hint at the problem you will solve but avoid explaining the reasons for the proposal.

c. remain as vague as possible to keep the reader intrigued.

d. provide a "hook" such as mentioning a remarkable resource available exclusively to the

writer.

7. Which of the following is the best tip to fight writer's block when writing proposals?
a. Drink a lot of coffee to make your mind sharp.

b. Begin by making a bulleted list of customer wants and needs.

78
c. Make a list of personal benefits you will receive after receiving the contract.

d. Type anything because proposals must adhere to deadlines.

8. In which part of a solicited proposal would you most likely convince your reader that you understand
the problem completely?
a. Introduction

b. Background

c. Authorization

d. Budget

9. In which section of an informal proposal would you most likely include a timetable for a project to be
completed?
a. Staffing

b. Authorization

c. Budget

d. Proposal

10. What may be included in the staffing section of an informal proposal?

a. Credentials and expertise of project leaders

b. Size and qualifications of support staff

c. Resources such as computer facilities

d. All may be included in the staffing section.

11. The budget in a proposal should

a. reflect careful research because a proposal is a legal contract.

b. provide only rough estimates so that you can raise the price later if costs increase.

c. never itemize hours and costs, but offer only a total sum.

d. include a disclaimer to ensure that the budget is not legally binding.

79
 12. Jeremy has decided to include a deadline for acceptance in his proposal to install energy-efficient
workstations for a local manufacturer. In which section should Jeremy place the deadline?
a. Introduction

b. Background

c. Authorization request

d. Proposal

13. The main differences between informal and formal proposals are
a. the primary and secondary audiences.

b. the style and need for correctness.

c. identification of resources used and placement of documentation.

d. format and length.

14. Although formal reports are similar to formal proposals, a primary difference is that
a. formal reports represent the end product of thorough investigation and analysis.

b. formal reports use a more conversational tone.

c. reports are written for internal audiences only.

d. more formal reports are written than formal proposals.

15. What is the first step in preparing to write a formal report?

a. Analyze your audience.

b. Research primary and secondary data.

c. Define the project and limit its scope.

d. Determine the length of the report.

16. What is the best advice when writing a statement of purpose for a formal report?
a. Write a statement of purpose only for external formal reports.

b. Omit limitations to avoid a negative tone.

c. Use action verbs that tell what you intend to do.

d. Do all of these choices when writing statements of purpose.

80
 17. Primary research data can be defined as
a. information that comes from reading what others have experienced and observed.

b. information gained from firsthand experience and observation.

c. statistics collected during the first stage of research.

d. data you get from the Web.

18. Your boss asks you to write a formal report on the impact of smoking on employee healthcare costs.
Like nearly every writer of a research project, you should begin your research by
a. reviewing secondary data in the library or on the Internet.

b. interviewing your colleagues to solicit their input and feelings.

c. preparing a questionnaire to distribute to your colleagues.

d. conducting a field experiment.

19. Although researchers are increasingly using electronic data, you should learn to use print resources
because
a. electronic sources are never considered as reliable as books and magazines.

b. print sources provide primary data and electronic sources provide secondary data.

c. some data is available only in print.

d. audiences respect only writers who include data from print sources.

20. What type of print resource provides excellent historical data?

a. Periodicals

b. Bibliographic indexes

c. Brochures

d. Books

21. Many researchers today begin by looking in electronic databases because

a. they know that all data found in electronic databases is valid and reliable.

b. electronic databases are always a free resource if you have Internet access.

81
c. it is easy to cite sources found in an electronic database.

d. electronic databases are convenient to use.

22. Which statement about the World Wide Web is accurate?

a. The Web always provides accurate, credible information.

b. The Web is a collection of hypertext pages that offer information and links of trillions
of pages.

c. The number of Web sites is now decreasing after reaching its peak of 235 million sites.

d. Only certain individuals or organizations are permitted to post on the Web.

23. Searching the Web requires a(n)

a. e-mail address.

b. Web browser.

c. handheld wireless device.

d. master's degree.

24. Which statement about search tools is accurate?

a. A search tool is also called a Web browser.

b. A search tool is a service that indexes, organizes, and often rates and reviews Web
pages.

c. Bing is currently the most-used search tool.

d. A search tool helps to protect the user's computer against viruses and malware as the
user conducts Web searches.

25. What is the best advice for conducting an Internet search?

a. When connecting to a search tool for the first time, always read the FAQs (Frequently
Asked Questions), Help, and How to Search sections.

b. Use one search tool only so that you can master it.

c. Use all uppercase letters for your searches.

d. Include articles and prepositions in search phrases to make searches more specific.

82
 26. A blog is
a. an online diary or journal that allows visitors to leave public comments.

b. a computer virus that frequently appears from Web sites such as Facebook and
MySpace.

c. a collection of hypertext pages that offer information and links.

d. an electronic information storage base that users access via computer and search
digitally.

27. Which of the following is a primary data source?

a. Periodicals

b. Electronic databases

c. Blogs

d. Experimentation

28. Surveys, which are used to collect firsthand data, have many advantages. One advantage is that
a. those who respond to mailed or online surveys exactly represent the overall population.

b. respondents can be relied on to respond openly and truthfully to anonymous surveys.

c. data can be gathered economically and efficiently.

d. return rates for online and mailed surveys are typically over 90 percent.

29. Brittany is writing a business report about protecting workplace data and will be conducting an
interview with a data security expert. What is the best advice you can give her?
a. Call before the interview to confirm the arrangements, and then arrive on time.

b. Learn about the individual she is interviewing, and research the background and
terminology of the topic.

c. Use open-ended questions rather than yes-or-no questions to draw out the responses
from the expert.

d. Brittany should complete all these steps.

30. Plagiarism
a. involves using good data from reputable sources to increase your credibility and to
enhance the logic of your reasoning.

83
b. happens in only academic settings.

c. is the act of using others' ideas without proper documentation or by paraphrasing

poorly.

d. is restating an original passage in your own words.

31. Which of the following statements about documenting data is not accurate?
a. Documenting data can strengthen your argument.

b. Documenting data protects you from charges of plagiarism.

c. Documenting data is not necessary if you put the information in your own words.

d. Documenting data helps the reader pursue the topic further.

32. Which of the following statements would need to be documented in a report?

a. Tornadoes caused extensive loss of property and lives in Missouri.

b. You can get an idea of how dangerous a tornado is by its rating.

c. Damaging winds, common in strong tornadoes, caused problems for the residents of
Missouri.

d. The Fujita-Pearson tornado scale rates tornadoes with wind speeds of 261 to 318
miles per hour as F5 storms.

33. Paraphrasing is
a. restating an original passage in your own words.

b. repeating the grammatical structure of the original passage.

c. replacing original words with appropriate synonyms.

d. indicating the source of the original work.

34. Which of the following is not a purpose for a direct quotation?

a. To duplicate exact wording before criticizing an idea

b. To repeat identical phrasing because of its precise wording

c. To add length to a researched document

d. To provide objective background information

84
 35. Which of the following is the best advice about the use of direct quotations in a report?
a. Beware of overusing quotations because you may appear as if you have no ideas of
your own.

b. If you use a direct quotation, don't dilute its impact by summarizing it or introducing it
in your own words.

c. Place the direct quotation in quotation marks, but change a few words to show you
have your own ideas.

d. Direct quotations do not need to be placed in quotation marks if the audience is already
familiar with the quote such as "The buck stops here."

36. What is the correct order of ideas for a report using the indirect strategy?
a. Recommendations, findings, and conclusions

b. Conclusions, findings, and recommendations

c. Findings, conclusions, and recommendations

d. Recommendations, conclusions, and findings

37. Chronological organization arranges ideas by

a. time.

b. order of importance.

c. physical location.

d. simple to complex.

38. Tanika must prepare a formal report detailing the findings of a year-long study of her company's new
wellness program. In this report she must discuss employee absenteeism before and after the program's
implementation. What type of organizational pattern will she likely use?
a. Chronological

b. Spatial

c. Compare/Contrast

d. Importance

39. Tyler is writing a report that analyzes the GlobalCom, Inc., market share of cell phone subscriptions
worldwide by region. He will probably organize his report
85
a. chronologically by the date the cell phone subscriptions reached their maximums.

b. around extensive secondary data to assure the reader that he conducted adequate
research before he wrote the report.

c. using a functional arrangement to show types of subscriptions globally.

d. geographically with sections representing each region's market share.

40. Logan is creating an outline to help him write a report on e-waste generated by his company. What
advice should he follow?
a. Include the outline as part of the final report so that his audience can quickly see his
organizational pattern.

b. Create a balanced outline with exactly the same number of subpoints and details for
each main point.

c. Avoid placing only one subpoint under a main idea.

d. Avoid using the main points used on the outline as main headings in the written report.

41. Yolanda must include a long table in a report she is preparing on employee Internet use. What advice
should she follow when creating the table?
a. Avoid distracting her readers with shading.

b. Place the table as close as possible to its text discussion.

c. Leave missing data blank.

d. Because the emphasis is on the data, avoid the use of headings for each row.

42. The major advantage of line charts is that they

a. compare related items.

b. present large amounts of data.

c. show the proportion of parts to a whole.

d. demonstrate trends.

43. What type of graphic illustrates changes in data over time?

a. Line chart

b. Flowchart

86
c. Bar chart

d. Table

44. In her letter to policyholders, Min Yi needs a graphic depicting the procedure a policyholder follows
when filing a claim. Which of these would be most appropriate?
a. Organizational chart

b. Flowchart

c. Illustration

d. Table

45. Which statement about pie charts is accurate?

a. Pie charts are most useful for technical audiences.

b. Pie charts are most appropriate for showing percentages.

c. Pie charts are more flexible than bar or line charts.

d. Pie charts can be confusing to readers because of the use of multiple colors.

46. Which of the following is the best advice when using graphics in reports?
a. Don't overuse color because too much color can be distracting and confusing.

b. Don't introduce a graphic; a good graphic should communicate clearly itself.

c. Avoid summarizing the main point of the graphic.

d. Avoid the use of headings on a graphic.

47. What is the purpose of a letter or memo of transmittal?

a. To present an overview of the report

b. To provide a list of sources used within the report

c. To introduce the writer of the report

d. To designate the parts of the report

48. What advice should you follow when preparing a table of contents?

87
a. Avoid leaders (spaced or unspaced dots) on a table of contents to avoid confusing the
reader.

b. Include all headings for a long report on the table of contents.

c. Include a list of figures on the table of contents.

d. Wait until you have completed the report before writing the table of contents.

49. The discussion of findings in a report should do all of the following except
a. use graphics to illustrate key points and findings.

b. use first-person pronouns.

c. analyze and interpret the research findings or solution.

d. present evidence to justify your conclusions.

50. What information is included in the appendix in of a formal report?

a. Surveys

b. Sources mentioned in the report

c. Recommendations based on the report findings

d. Author's credentials

51. Proposals are informative documents used to educate readers.

52. Proposals may be internal or external, but most proposals are external.

53. External proposals may be solicited or unsolicited, but most proposals are unsolicited.

54. RFP stands for "Required Formal Procedures."

55. Informal proposals are often presented in short (two- to four-page) letters.

88
 56. Most proposals begin by explaining briefly the reasons for the proposal and by highlighting the
writer's qualifications.

57. To make the introduction of your proposal persuasive, include a "hook" that focuses on the audience's
specific needs and benefits.

58. In a solicited proposal, your goal is to convince the reader that a problem exists.

59. If you are responding to a request for proposal (RFP), avoid using the same language of the RFP as
doing so will show a lack of creativity.

60. Don't include a deadline for acceptance in the budget section of a proposal because doing so puts too
much pressure on the reader.

61. A proposal represents a legal contract.

62. Companies today prefer online proposals.

63. The main differences between formal and informal proposals are tone and language use.

64. Like proposals and informal reports, formal reports begin with a definition of the project.

65. The first step in preparing a report is to conduct research.

66. Secondary data come from reading what others have experienced and observed.

67. An advantage of secondary data over primary data is that secondary data are easier and cheaper to
develop.

68. Books provide historical, in-depth data; however, periodicals provide limited but current coverage.

89
 69. If you find information on the Web, you can be assured that it is reliable.

70. To efficiently locate information using the Internet, use two or three search tools and combine
keywords into phrases.

71. Businesses should avoid using social networking sites to generate research because these sites serve
entertainment and leisure purposes only.

72. Both observation and experimentation produce firsthand data to clarify cause and effect.

73. When you conduct an interview, prepare closed-ended questions to make the interviewee feel relaxed
and at ease.

74. The only reason to document sources in a report is to avoid charges of plagiarism.

75. Documenting data is necessary only when writing long reports and proposals.

76. If you paraphrase (put information in your own words), you did not need to credit the information
source.

77. Information that is common knowledge requires no documentation.

78. If you are worried about plagiarizing, you can avoid the problem if you use the grammatical structure
of the original and just replace words with synonyms.

79. Katrina has decided to organize her business report using the direct organizational pattern. Therefore,
she should begin the report with her conclusions and recommendations.

90
 80. A report discussing the correct procedure to process customer complaints should be organized using a
chronological order.

81. Most writers agree that the clearest way to show the organization of a report is by recording its
divisions in an outline.

82. Avoid the use of graphics in a report because graphics usually confuse readers.

83. Probably the most frequently used visual aid in reports is the table.

84. The major advantage of line charts is that they show changes over time, thus indicating trends.

85. Avoid referencing graphics in the text of your report; the visual should speak for itself.

86. The title page is a prefatory part of a business report.

87. If included with a report, a letter or memo of transmittal should be written using the indirect pattern.

88. The body of a formal report typically includes an introduction; the discussion of findings; and a
summary, conclusions, or recommendations.

89. The recommendations of a report may be placed in a separate section or incorporated with the
conclusions.

90. Regardless of the referencing format used, citations include the author, title, publication, date of
publication, page number, and other significant data for all sources used in the report.

91. Graphics should incorporate lots of color and decorations to provide visual impact for readers.

91
 92. Informal proposals are sometimes called ____________________ proposals.

93. In the ____________________ section, your aim is to discuss your plan for solving the problem.

94. The ____________________ section promotes the credentials and expertise of project leaders and
support staff.

95. The planning of every report begins with a statement of ____________________ that describes the
goal, significance, and limitations of a formal report.

96. A(n) ____________________ is a collection of information stored electronically so that it is

accessible by computer and digitally searchable.

97. A(n) ____________________ tool is a service such as Google that indexes, organizes, and often rates
and reviews Web pages.

98. An online diary or journal that allows visitors to leave public comments is called a weblog or
____________________.

99. ____________________ is giving credit to your information sources.

100. Business reports often rely on ____________________ data from firsthand experience such as
surveys, interviews, observations, and experimentations.

101. Using the ideas of someone else without giving credit is called ____________________ and is
unethical.

CHAP 11
1. Which statement about professionalism is accurate?
a. Professionalism refers to those behaviors exhibited only to customers.

b. Professionalism describes desirable workplace behavior.

c. Professionalism emphasizes hard skills or technical knowledge desired by employers.

d. Professionalism is important only in large companies.

2. A synonym for professionalism is

a. hard skills.

92
b. social acceptance.

c. business etiquette.

d. diversity.

3. Professional behavior is comprised of six dimensions, including courtesy and respect, appearance and
appeal, tolerance and tact, honesty and ethics, reliability and responsibility, and
a. soft and hard skills.

b. self-actualization and self-control.

c. diligence and collegiality.

d. education and training.

4. Which of the following statements about professionalism in the workplace is accurate?

a. Unprofessional behavior affects only the individual who displays it.

b. More organizations are establishing procedures or policies to encourage professionalism.

c. Employees need to exhibit professional behavior only when working at their desks.

d. You exhibit professional behavior only through nonverbal actions such as dressing appropriately
or maintaining eye contact with others.

5. Stephen is starting a new job and wants to demonstrate that he is a professional employee. What advice
should he follow?
a. Never apologize for errors or misunderstandings because doing so calls attention to them.

b. Show up a few minutes to late every so often to show that he isn't an overzealous employee.

c. Share confidential information with his closest coworkers.

d. Keep personal opinions of people private.

6. Richard wants to prove that he is diligent and collegial. What is the best advice you can give him?
a. Put all focus on his job and avoid volunteering his services to a worthy community or charity
group.

b. Turn in projects on time, even if he's not proud of the work he's done.

c. Show a willingness to share his expertise with others.

d. Richard should do all of these to come across as diligent and collegial.

93
7. How do recruiters and employers view the importance of professional behavior in the workplace?
a. Although recruiters are impressed with applicants who speak well, a candidate's technical
expertise is all that matters.

b. Employers will often promote or advance individuals who display appropriate communication
skills and professional polish.

c. Professionalism and soft skills are important only in service-oriented fields.

d. Team, communication, and people skills are low priorities for most hiring managers.

8. Jue understands that soft skills and professional polish will ensure her long-term success on the job. Which
of the following is not a soft skill?
a. A grasp of workplace etiquette

b. An eagerness to learn

c. The ability to work effectively as part of team

d. Proficiency in using a variety of computer software packages

9. Which of the following statements about face-to-face communication is accurate?

a. Face-to-face communication is less expressive and persuasive than written communication.

b. Face-to-face communication increases the likelihood of misunderstandings.

c. Face-to-face conversations reduce cooperation and limit problem solving during conflict.

d. Face-to-face interaction is the most effective of all communication channels.

10. Saying words correctly and clearly with the accepted sounds and syllables reflects
a. rate.

b. pitch.

c. vocal quality.

d. proper pronunciation.

11. Alec, hoping for a promotion, wants to improve his pronunciation skills so that he's able to say words
correctly and clearly with accepted sounds and accented syllables. Which of the following is the best advice for
Alec?

94
a. Hire a professional speech coach.

b. Listen carefully to educated people.

c. Practice sounding enthusiastic when speaking.

d. Relax. Mispronouncing a few words is common and will not affect the opportunity for
promotion.

12. Which of the following statements is accurate?

a. The quality of your voice sends only verbal messages.

b. You can learn to change your voice to make it more powerful.

c. Listeners do not judge people's voices.

d. Speakers should use a higher-pitched voice.

13. The best definition of uptalk is

a. a flat or monotonous delivery.

b. a rising inflection at the end of a sentence that makes statements sound like questions.

c. self-gratifying comments to make you appear better than others.

d. an unnaturally quick speaking pattern.

14. To use your voice effectively,

a. speak in a moderately low-pitched voice at about 125 words per minute.

b. overemphasize all words to guarantee audience understanding.

c. avoid listening to educated individuals to retain your speaking uniqueness.

d. keep the same volume and rate while speaking.

15. LaTarsha's coworker has told her that LaTarsha is more likely to be promoted if she speaks effectively in
conversations. Which of the following is a good tip for LaTarsha?
a. Learn and use first names for all coworkers, clients, and customers.

b. Prove that she is relaxed and confident by telling some political jokes that are sure to "raise an
eyebrow."

c. Show strength of conviction by openly discussing her complaints.

d. Give sincere and specific praise to managers, colleagues, and workers.

95
16. Which of the following is the best advice regarding small talk in the workplace?
a. Avoid small talk in the workplace because doing so is unprofessional.

b. Read newspapers and listen to the radio and TV so that you can discuss current events
intelligently.

c. Bring up controversial topics such as politics or religion as often as possible to show your
intelligence.

d. Be defensive if someone brings up a topic that upsets you.

17. A coworker has justly criticized you for poor performance at work. If you agree quickly with this on-target
criticism,
a. the coworker is likely to take the criticism to your supervisor.

b. others will view you as a coward who doesn't fight back when criticized.

c. the coworker is more likely to take advantage of your weakness.

d. others will more likely respect you.

18. You are in a meeting receiving your performance review and are surprised that your supervisor has offered
you many suggestions for improvement. How should you react to the criticism?
a. Interrupt your supervisor frequently to comment on his or her suggestions so that you don't miss
giving feedback on anything.

b. To avoid any type of confrontation with your supervisor, agree with all comments made.

c. Try to deflect blame for anything negative said to others in your department.

d. Ask for clarification of comments when necessary.

19. You recently chaired a team implementing new federal confidentiality requirements. After implementation,
you must evaluate each team member's performance. Which of the following suggestions about giving constructive
criticism is not accurate?
a. Use language that focuses on improvement instead of problems.

b. To show more compassion, be as vague as possible.

c. Ask the team members for feedback.

d. Discuss the behavior, not the person.

96
20. Which of the following statement best provides constructive criticism?
a. You seem to think that you can submit any kind of work and that it doesn't matter.

b. Your work is often shoddy.

c. Producing inferior work often causes this company to lose time and money.

d. You need to produce work that meets this company's standards.

21. Which of the following is the best advice when making business telephone calls?
a. Realize that the responsibility for ending a call lies with the person who receives the call, not
with the caller.

b. Before you make a call, ask yourself if it's necessary.

c. To sound natural and spontaneous, decide what you're going to say after the receiver answers.

d. Don't worry about smiling because the person can't see you.

22. Marsha has limited time and must call Charlie for answers to several questions. Which of the following is
the best example of a brisk and professional approach?
a. Charlie, I have only a few minutes, but I knew you were the one with answers to my questions.

b. Hey, Charlie, what's up, dude?

c. I can't waste any time chit chatting, so you need to get to the point pronto!

d. Look, Charlie, you always have the inside scoop at work; what's going on?

23. Which of the following demonstrates the best example when answering a telephone call?
a. This is Beth. May I help you?

b. Precision Integrations. What's on your mind?

c. Hello. What can I do for you?

d. Thanks for calling Precision Integrations. This is Beth Dittmer. How may I help you today?

24. Which of the following is the best advice to follow when receiving telephone calls for others?
a. Identify your colleague's whereabouts if you are answering his or her phone.

b. Provide only your name when answering a call.

c. Verify telephone numbers and spelling of names when taking messages.

d. Guarantee the caller that your colleague will return the call within a few hours.
97
25. Which of the following is the best example of a response when answering calls for others?
a. Annette is currently participating in an important budget meeting with our board of directors.

b. We're not really sure where Annette is right now, but she'll return your call immediately
whenever she gets back.

c. Annette has run down to the ladies' room for a few minutes, but she should be back soon.

d. Annette is away from her desk, but I will give her your message when she returns.

26. Melinda uses a cell phone for all her business communications. What advice should she follow?
a. Talk openly and freely on her cell phone in any location.

b. Converse in her normal speaking voice.

c. Answer her cell phone when it rings while she is driving to ensure she communicates with her
customers at all times.

d. Screen incoming calls.

27. Which of the following statements about using cell phones for business is most accurate?
a. Because cell phones can be annoying to others, don't use them for business purposes.

b. To make yourself look professional and important, leave your cell phone on at all times during
the workday.

c. Choose a unique and creative ring style such as your college fight song to distinguish calls to
your cell phone.

d. Be careful about using your cell phone to discuss private or confidential company information.

28. The benefits of voice mail include eliminating unnecessary chit chat, telephone tag, inaccurate messages,
and
a. time-zone barriers.

b. the need for written messages.

c. the necessity of a cordial, friendly greeting.

d. prompt responses.

29. Shawn needs to record his business voicemail outgoing message. Which of the following outgoing
messages is most professional?
98
a. Hi! I'm sorry I missed your call. Please leave a brief message after the tone.

b. This is Shawn. I'm not available right now. But if you leave a message, I promise to call you
back. Be sure to include your name, phone number, and the best time to return your call.

c. Your call is important to me. Please leave your name and number so that I can return your call
promptly.

d. Hi! You have reached the voice mail of Shawn Berg of Juarez Accounting. I am currently away
from my phone but will return by 2 p.m. Please call back then. Thank you for calling.

30. Leticia has called a client and gotten his voice mail. What is the best advice you can give Leticia for leaving
a message?
a. Hang up and call back later; her client won't want to be bothered with having to listen to a
message.

b. Speak as quickly as possible to make her message more concise.

c. Smile when leaving her message to add warmth to her voice.

d. Leave a complete message, including confidential details about the project Leticia is working
on, to make her message as useful as possible.

31. Which of the following statements about workplace teams is most accurate?
a. Teams tend to respond more slowly to competition or problem solving.

b. Because conflict often results, teams tend to have decreased productivity.

c. Team members who are involved in the decision-making process show less resistance to change.

d. Individuals tend to make better decisions than teams.

32. What term describes groups of people who work interdependently with a shared purpose across space, time,
and organization boundaries using technology?
a. Blogs

b. Virtual teams

c. Team players

d. Social networking

33. The most effective groups have members who

a. do not establish rules.

99
b. make excessive jokes to make everyone laugh.

c. ignore silent group members.

d. offer information and try out their ideas on the group to stimulate discussion.

34. The most successful workplace teams

a. have a small number of members.

b. are homogeneous.

c. avoid conflict.

d. work independently.

35. What is the optimum number of participants for most group projects?
a. Two

b. Four to five

c. Ten

d. There is no "optimum" number; more is always better.

36. Which of the following would probably best help a group achieve its goal?
a. Competition

b. Individual leadership

c. Emphasis on individualism

d. Active listening skills

37. Which of the following statements about meetings is most accurate?

a. Reliance on e-mail and wireless devices are causing face-to-face meetings to disappear.

b. Meetings consist of ten or more individuals who gather to achieve a goal, solve a problem, or
create a work plan.

c. As businesses become more team-oriented, people are attending more meetings than ever.

d. Most people enjoy attending meetings because they recognize that meetings present great
opportunities for professional growth and recognition.

100
38. What is your first task before holding a meeting?
a. Decide how and where to meet.

b. Prepare an agenda.

c. Invite participants.

d. Determine your purpose.

39. Which statement about group conflict is accurate?

a. Good groups acknowledge conflict and address the root of the problem openly.

b. Addressing group conflict wastes valuable time and reduces team commitment.

c. Groups should use majority voting to resolve group conflicts.

d. Groups that confront conflict should be person oriented, not task oriented.

40. Tao has just volunteered to participate in a work team that will explore the establishment of an employee
exercise facility. Which of the following behaviors should he practice?
a. Concentrate on his desire to stay fit rather than on other employees' goals.

b. Agree with all group members' contributions.

c. Remind group members of their task if they periodically get off track.

d. Hold back his knowledge of an employee exercise program from a previous employer.

41. When the purpose of your meeting is to solve a problem, what is the recommended number of meeting
participants?
a. Five or fewer

b. Ten or fewer

c. Thirty or fewer

d. An unlimited number of participants

42. A meeting agenda should include the date and place of the meeting, start and end times, a brief description
of each topic with its time allotment, and
a. a refreshment list.

b. an explanation of the leader's position on each of the topics.

101
c. the speaker order.

d. any premeeting preparation expected of participants.

43. Which of the following is the best practice for a group when it begins a meeting?
a. Wait until all participants arrive.

b. Give a quick recap to anyone who arrives late.

c. Establish ground rules.

d. Always avoid self-introductions.

44. Antonia is leading her first professional business meeting and wants to follow professional meeting
etiquette. Which of the following is the best tip for Antonia?
a. Avoid following an agenda because the meeting will appear too rigid.

b. End the meeting on time, even if the group hasn't discussed all agenda items.

c. Don't waste time on introductions because you may run out of time to complete your meeting
business.

d. Encourage friendly, informal side conversations.

45. Lucas will attend his first sales meeting and wants to follow proper meeting etiquette. Which of the
following should he do to make a good impression?
a. Keep his cell phone and pager on so that he doesn't miss an important call.

b. Leave the room only for breaks and emergencies.

c. Use body language to show if he's bored; the chair will appreciate his honesty.

d. Avoid direct eye contact with other group members.

46. How should a group leader keep a meeting progressing effectively?

a. Engage in most of the talking to ensure that the meeting ends on time.

b. Allow group members to digress on a topic because other topics may be beneficial to explore.

c. Discourage members who monopolize the discussion.

d. Summarize only at the end of the meeting.

102
47. Which of the following statements about meetings is not accurate?
a. Meetings should start on time unless someone important is late.

b. An agenda should be distributed at least two days before the meeting.

c. Meetings should not be held if the flow of information will be strictly one way.

d. The real expense of a meeting is the lost productivity of the attendees.

48. Which of the following statements about managing workplace conflict is most accurate?
a. Conflict in the workplace can be desirable.

b. Because conflict makes people feel awkward and uneasy, it inhibits creativity.

c. Since conflict is always negative, you should always avoid it in the workplace.

d. Unresolved conflict indicates leadership failure.

49. Team leaders can handle difficult group members during a meeting by
a. announcing the rules for expected behavior as soon as a participant digresses.

b. seating the difficult group member as far from the leader as possible.

c. making direct eye contact with everyone when asking questions.

d. assigning a task to the disruptive person.

50. Which of the following should occur at the end of a meeting?

a. A meeting should end only when participants have discussed all agenda items.

b. The leader should provide a summary of accomplishments and a review of action items.

c. The leader should remind participants that they are responsible for taking their own minutes.

d. Participants should pass their assigned tasks on to someone who did not attend.

51. Many businesses have established protocol procedures or policies to encourage civility.

52. Hard skills refer to a whole cluster of personal qualities, habits, attitudes (for example, optimism and
friendliness), communication skills, and social graces.

53. Technical fields such as accounting and finance don't emphasize soft skills.
103
54. Because today's technologies provide many alternate communication channels, face-to-face communication
is no longer important in business and professional transactions.

55. You are unable to change your voice.

56. Your vocal quality sends only verbal messages.

57. Speakers should avoid "uptalk" in the workplace because it makes them appear weak and tentative.

58. Rate refers to the pace of your speech.

59. When conversing with others, always address them by their first names.

60. Attending work-related social functions can harm your career if you dress inappropriately or choose
controversial conversation topics; therefore, it is best to avoid these functions.

61. If you receive constructive criticism on the job, you should focus on your feelings as much as possible.

62. If another person has criticized you unfairly, you should disagree respectfully and constructively.

63. When you deliver constructive criticism, you should use the word "we" instead of "you" to avoid sounding
accusatory.

64. You should deliver most constructive criticism in writing rather than in person.

65. E-mail has made telephone use obsolete in the corporate world.

104
66. When placing a business telephone call, immediately name the person you are calling, identify yourself and
your affiliation, and give a brief explanation of your reason for calling.

67. You should identify the extension when transferring a call.

68. Some places are inappropriate or even dangerous for cell phone use.

69. To make your outgoing voice mail message more professional, use the computer-generated voice that
comes with most systems.

70. Because of the increased focus on individualism, teams have become less important in today's business
environment.

71. Decisions made by teams promote greater "buy-in" from group members.

72. Many organizations are using virtual teams to exchange ideas and make decisions.

73. The most effective groups have members who are willing to establish rules and abide by those rules.

74. Withdrawing from a group is viewed as an effective technique to deal with group differences.

75. Groups with diverse members often produce the best decisions.

76. When confronting group conflict, focus on the person to make him or her feel important and heard.

77. Effective teams often have no formal leader.

78. Today's workers attend more meetings than ever.

105
79. No meeting should be called unless the topic is important, can't wait, and requires an exchange of ideas.

80. Emotional topics should be placed near the beginning of an agenda.

81. When preparing the location for business meetings, you can maximize collaboration by arranging the tables
or chairs in straight rows.

82. Etiquette guidelines for business meetings indicate that both participants and leaders are responsible for
sticking to the agenda and avoiding tangents.

83. Ground rules for a business meeting should be discussed only when a participant's behavior is harming the
progress of the agenda.

84. It is appropriate for a meeting leader to move the meeting along by saying, "Thanks, Ivan, for your
viewpoint, but please hold your next comment until we can hear what Shung Chai thinks of your idea."

85. When a conflict develops between two members, allow each to make a complete case before the group.

86. One way to handle dysfunctional group members during a meeting is to seat them next to the leader.

87. A meeting should be adjourned when the group has reached an impasse.

88. No one should leave a meeting without a full understanding of what was accomplished.

89. Meeting minutes should be distributed within two weeks after the meeting or at least two days before the
next meeting, whichever comes first.

90. It is the leader's responsibility to see that what was decided at the meeting is accomplished.

106
91. ____________________, also known as business etiquette, civility, social intelligence, or soft skills, refers
to a whole range of desirable workplace behaviors.

92. ____________________ intelligence is defined as "the ability to get along well with others and to get them
to cooperate with you."

93. The ____________________ of your voice is the degree of loudness or the intensity of sound.

94. ____________________ criticism involves planning what you will say, focusing on improvement, offering
to help, being specific, and avoiding anger.

95. ____________________ enable you to conduct business from virtually anywhere at any time and have
become an essential part of communication in today's workplace.

96. ____________________ mail links a telephone system to a computer that digitizes and stores incoming
messages.

97. To connect with distant team members across borders and time zones, many organizations are creating
____________________ teams. These teams work interdependently with a shared purpose across space, time, and
organization boundaries using technology.

98. ____________________ consist of three or more people who gather to pool information, solicit feedback,
clarify policy, seek consensus, and solve problems.

99. The list of topics to be discussed at a meeting is called a(n) ____________________.

100. The ____________________ are a record of points of discussion, decisions made, and tasks assigned at a
meeting.

Chap 12:
1. Choose the most accurate statement about business presentations.
a. At some point nearly half of businesspeople have to inform others or sell an idea.

b. Good speakers are born, not made.

c. If you are like most people, you may be apprehensive about making informational or
persuasive oral presentations.

d. Information and persuasion are seldom conveyed in person because e-mail, memos,
and letters are more effective.
107
 2. Which of the following statements about business presentations and speaking skills is most accurate?
a. Speaking skills are useful only for individuals in upper-level positions.

b. Effective speaking skills and career success go hand in hand.

c. For many positions only technical skills, not communication skills, are needed.

d. Oral presentations in the workplace are necessary only when you must motivate action.

3. According to a major study on public speaking,

a. the No. 1 predictor of success and upward mobility is how much you enjoy public
speaking and how effective you are at it.

b. everyone fears public speaking, and overcoming that fear is impossible; instead you
must learn to focus your fears.

c. presentation skills measure the success and pay of middle and upper management but
have little correlation to entry-level employment.

d. job seekers who highlight public-speaking skills in their application materials are more
than twice as likely to receive an interview.

4. Which of the following statements about preparing for an oral presentation is not accurate?
a. Many people feel a great deal of anxiety when getting ready for an oral presentation.

b. You can lay the foundation for a professional performance by focusing on preparation,
organization, audience rapport, visual aids, and delivery.

c. The key element in successful preparation for an oral presentation is assessing your
knowledge and related technical skills.

d. For many people fear of speaking before a group is even greater than fear of dying.

5. Anxiety about a presentation is normal. You can reduce your anxiety and set the groundwork for a
professional performance by focusing on five areas:
a. audience clothing, your clothing, seating arrangement or pattern, sight lines, and
lighting.

b. volume, pace, pitch, tone, and pattern.

c. adequate rest, driving time (or commuting time), parking arrangements, building
identification, and name tags.

d. preparation, organization, audience rapport, visual aids, and delivery.

108
 6. The most important part of preparing for an oral presentation is
a. analyzing the audience.

b. determining the purpose.

c. gathering research.

d. creating a professional appearance.

7. Choose the best example of a statement of purpose for an oral presentation.

a. To persuade the management team to offer flexible work schedules to all executive-
level employees.

b. To persuade my listeners in a brief, interesting, and effective speech.

c. This effective presentation will be both entertaining and informative for my audience
about my chosen subject.

d. We made fiscal mistakes that we can't afford to repeat that caused the economic
downturn and created widespread business closures and the collapse of the housing
market in several major metropolitan areas.

8. After determining your purpose for the presentation, what is your next important step?
a. Conducting research

b. Examining the room where the presentation will be made

c. Preparing your PowerPoint slides

d. Analyzing the audience

9. Your task in audience analysis is to

a. select a presentation topic and a purpose best suited to your audience.

b. anticipate the audience's reactions and adjust to its needs, if necessary.

c. determine your needs and develop your visual aids.

d. begin information research and organization.

10. Audience analysis issues you should consider when preparing your presentation include size, age,
gender, and which of the following?
a. Height and weight

109
b. Race, religion, and culture

c. Stereotypes, biases, and prejudices

d. Experience, attitude, and expectations

11. Presentations are given to many types of audiences. According to your text, what are the four
categories of audiences?
a. Informed, uninformed, intelligent, and stupid

b. Hostile, friendly, neutral, and uninterested

c. Workplace, education or school-related, community, and political

d. Manuscript, extemporaneous, impromptu, and memorized

12. Your audience analysis reveals that audience members will be friendly and interested in your topic.
You should be
a. warm, pleasant, and open; and you should use a lot of eye contact and smiles.

b. be calm and controlled, and you should speak evenly and slowly.

c. controlled and do nothing showy; you should use confident, small gestures.

d. dynamic and entertaining; you should also use large gestures and move around.

13. If you have agreed to speak to an audience with which you are unfamiliar, you should
a. obtain the names of several audience members, and contact them to ask questions about
their backgrounds, attitudes, and expectations.

b. imagine for yourself what an average audience in this part of the country might be like.

c. use a search engine to collect as much information about the region and its people as
possible and then base your audience analysis on this.

d. ask the person sponsoring the event to complete your audience analysis worksheet for
you.

14. Irina will make her presentation to a large audience of members whose negative attitudes range from
displeased to outraged. What advice should Irina follow in preparing her presentation for this audience?
a. Include plenty of personal stories, several anecdotes, and lots of jokes or humor.

b. Use facts, statistics, and expert opinions along with an energizing, upbeat delivery
style.

110
c. Be humorous, add colorful visuals and startling statistics, and keep the presentation
brief.

d. Present objective data and expert opinion in a calm, controlled delivery style.

15. After you determine your purpose and analyze your audience, your next step is to
a. practice your delivery.

b. collect information.

c. organize the ideas.

d. choose your topic.

16. Two of the most effective techniques to improve your audience's ability to understand and remember
your speech are
a. good organization and intentional repetition.

b. eliminating repetition and removing obvious signposting.

c. startling statistics and colorful visuals.

d. striking quotations and well-placed gestures.

17. Some repetition in oral presentations

a. is necessary because speaking speed is much greater than listening speed.

b. is helpful because it increases audience comprehension and retention.

c. bores listeners and should be avoided.

d. encourages daydreaming and makes the speaker sound unprepared.

18. You should do all of the following in the introduction of a presentation except
a. preview the main points of your presentation.

b. capture your listeners' attention and get them involved.

c. develop the main points with adequate explanation and details.

d. introduce yourself and establish your credibility.

19. The best techniques to establish your credibility in a business presentation include
111
a. describing your knowledge, position, or experience.

b. telling the audience your salary, age, and hometown.

c. revealing your ethnicity, cultural heritage, and religious background.

d. discussing your love for public speaking.

20. Jessica tells her audience about her five years' experience as a social networking professional helping
over 100 local businesses learn to use social networking as an effective marketing tool. Jessica is attempting
to
a. capture her listeners' attention and get them involved.

b. preview the main points of her presentation.

c. present the main goals of her presentation.

d. identify herself and establish credibility.

21. Connor opened his presentation to an audience of business owners with this statement: If you want to
reduce employee benefit costs by at least 15 percent without hurting employee morale or impacting your
work environment, please stand up right now. By asking them to stand, Connor is
a. identifying himself and establishing credibility.

b. previewing the main points of his presentation.

c. capturing listeners' attention and getting them involved.

d. misleading his audience.

22. What is the biggest problem with most oral presentations?

a. Failure to focus on a few principal ideas

b. Use of too many visuals

c. Poor eye contact

d. Unprofessional attire

23. The body of a short, 20-minute presentation should focus on

a. at least five to eight main points.

b. up to ten main points.

c. approximately two to four main points.

112
d. as many points as necessary to convey your message.

24. Paul is explaining to upper-level management how converting to a four-day workweek can solve their
budget woes by decreasing expenses. How will he most likely organize his presentation?
a. Geography/space

b. Chronological

c. Problem/solution

d. Value/size

25. When preparing your speech, you should

a. aim for 20 percent past the time limit when rehearsing because most speakers speed up
during actual delivery

b. eliminate one third of the body to prevent speed talking, a common hazard among
novice public speakers.

c. remove about 10 percent of your content because most speakers exceed their time
limits.

d. prepare a little more material than you think you will actually need.

26. In an effective presentation conclusion, you will strive to accomplish three goals:
a. state your recommendation, prove your persuasion, and reinforce the purpose.

b. remind the audience of your credibility, review the attention getter, and restate the
purpose.

c. summarize the main themes, give the audience a memorable take-away, and include a
statement that allows for a graceful exit.

d. promote your primary claim, advance your supporting claims, and elevate the most
viable evidence.

27. In the conclusion of your speech, you say, I recommend developing and posting high-quality video
podcasts on our Web site to recruit new employees. You are using the conclusion to
a. introduce one additional main point of interest to the audience.

b. review the main themes of the presentation.

c. include a statement that allows you to depart gracefully.

d. provide a final action-oriented focus.

113
 28. Your speech will be more effective if you have audience rapport. Rapport can be defined as
a. a bond connecting the speaker with the audience.

b. the awareness of topic importance.

c. an understanding of key points.

d. the ability to hear clearly.

29. Speakers build audience rapport by

a. researching thoroughly and organizing the speech effectively.

b. establishing credibility and demonstrating authority.

c. forming a bond with the audience by entertaining as well as informing.

d. speaking loudly, clearly, and rapidly.

30. Tyrone has just told his audience that engineering a hostile business takeover is similar to conducting
guerilla warfare. He is using what technique?
a. Personal anecdote

b. Metaphor

c. Personalized statistic

d. Analogy

31. To help his listeners keep track of where he is in the presentation, Dominic has just said, Next I will
discuss three plans for reducing waste. What verbal signpost is Dominic using?
a. Summarizing

b. Previewing

c. Switching directions

d. Enumeration

32. In her presentation on improving employee morale, Jillian makes this statement: So far, you've heard
only about the problems we have with morale; let's move to some solutions. Jillian has employed the verbal
signpost called
a. summarizing.

114
b. previewing.

c. switching directions.

d. revealing.

33. Like it or not, speakers are judged on their appearance. Which of these is the best advice on choosing
your attire for a business presentation?
a. Dress only as well as the best-dressed person in your audience, even if that means
shorts and a t-shirt.

b. For everything but small, in-house presentations, dress professionally.

c. Wear formal business attire for all presentations, both internal and external.

d. Clothing makes the man but not the woman; therefore, men must wear a suit and tie for
all presentations, but experts indicate women may dress casually for most
presentations.

34. Effective speakers must be aware of their nonverbal messages. Nonverbal means
a. content delivered by visual aids.

b. information included on the outline, but not in the speech.

c. appearance, movements, and vocal qualities.

d. body language only.

35. All of these are good advice for nonverbal messages during a presentation except
a. avoid being planted behind the podium.

b. use a variety of gestures planned and rehearsed in advance.

c. punctuate your words by varying your tone, volume, pitch, and pace.

d. maintain appropriate eye contact to show you are confident and prepared.

36. When selecting and preparing your visual aids, keep in mind your goals as a speaker:
a. to make listeners understand, remember, and act on your ideas.

b. to observe your audience, adjust your delivery, and continue your presentation.

c. to inform, to entertain, and to persuade.

d. to plan and collect information, organize and rehearse, and deliver your presentation.

115
 37. During a business presentation, an effective visual aid will
a. emphasize and clarify main points.

b. increase audience interest.

c. help to jog the memory of a speaker.

d. do all of these.

38. Which of these tips regarding the use of handouts as a visual aid is most accurate?
a. Handouts should be discussed during the presentation, but you should delay
distribution of the handouts until your presentation is finished.

b. Savvy speakers no longer distribute handouts because audiences view the lowly
handout as outdated and environmentally unfriendly.

c. If you choose to use a handout, the most appropriate information for a handout is the
speaker's biography only.

d. Handouts should be included in the registration packet, along with name tags, lunch
tickets, and other event materials distributed prior to the presentation.

39. Because the presenter can create dynamic, colorful presentations that incorporate Web links, music,
and video, one of the most popular visual aids is
a. overhead transparencies.

b. flipcharts.

c. multimedia slides.

d. handouts.

40. Julio is designing a PowerPoint slide show that he will present in a darkened conference room. What
should Julio do?
a. Place the greatest focus on the visual component of his slides because this will be his
audience's focus.

b. Use as many special effects (animation, sound effects, and so on) as possible to
maintain his audience's interest.

c. Use light text on a dark background.

d. Use at least five different font colors to provide visual impact.

116
 41. For effective presentation slides, you should apply the 6-x-6 rule to most slides. The 6-x-6 rule means
that
a. the entire presentation has no more than six slides.

b. each slide has no more than six words per line and no more than six lines.

c. each main idea has no more than six bullet points.

d. each slide is discussed for six minutes.

42. What is the best advice for composing a PowerPoint slideshow?

a. Always design your own template to show your creativity and uniqueness.

b. Occasionally convert bullet points to diagrams, charts, and other images to make your
slideshow more interesting.

c. When including numbers, use lists rather than charts or graphs.

d. Make sure that every point has at least one bullet point and one visual.

43. Malinda wants to be certain that her audience remains engaged during her PowerPoint presentation at
today's business meeting. What should she do?
a. Keep a careful eye on the computer monitor or screen to make sure she doesn't miss
anything.

b. Read the bullet points word for word to make sure her audience understands the
information.

c. Use a laser pointer to highlight slide items to discuss.

d. Make the room as dark as she can to make her slides more visible.

44. Which of the following is the best recommendation for delivering an effective oral presentation?
a. Memorize the entire oral presentation so that you don't have to use notes.

b. Read the entire oral presentation to the audience so that nothing important will be
overlooked.

c. Use the notes method, using note cards or an outline containing key sentences and
major ideas.

d. Wing it!

45. Niccolo is nervous about his upcoming presentation. Which of these techniques will overcome his
case of nerves and allow Niccolo to deliver a good presentation?
117
a. Hold his breath as long as he can to clear his head.

b. Tell the audience that he's nervous to get them to empathize with him.

c. Ignore any stumbles and keep going.

d. Have a stiff drink right before presenting

46. Nearly every speaker must overcome stage fright; one of the most effective techniques to decrease
stage fright is
a. wearing comfortable, relaxed clothing to enhance self-confidence.

b. knowing the subject thoroughly.

c. displaying a fully animated PowerPoint presentation.

d. picturing the audience naked.

47. Which of these is the most accurate description regarding the use of pauses and silence in a
presentation?
a. Don't pause when you first approach the audience because you will appear unsure.

b. Fill awkward silences with short phrases such as "you know" or "basically."

c. Words always carry more impact than a silent pause.

d. Silence is preferable to meaningless fillers.

48. For a smooth start to your presentation, you should prepare thoroughly, rehearse repeatedly, dress
professionally, and
a. practice stress reduction.

b. avoid personal contact with audience members before the presentation.

c. remove barriers (lecterns, podiums, tables, etc.) between you and the audience.

d. pump yourself up to build some tension, pressure, power, and enthusiasm.

49. Follow all of these guidelines to deliver your presentation effectively except
a. present your first sentence from memory.

b. begin speaking immediately; that is, speak as soon as you are behind the lectern.

c. control your voice and your vocabulary.

d. show enthusiasm.
118
 50. If you will take questions at the end of your presentation, which of these is the best advice?
a. Announce the question-and-answer period in the conclusion of your presentation.

b. If you don't know the answer to a question, you should offer your best guess or make
up an answer.

c. Begin each answer with a repetition of the question.

d. Direct your answer just to the person who asked the question.

51. Effective speaking skills and career success go hand in hand at every stage of a career.

52. Business studies indicate that the best predictor of career success is not only whether employees were
effective at public speaking but also if they enjoyed public speaking.

53. For any presentation you can reduce your fears and lay the foundation for a professional performance
by focusing on five items: your knowledge, your background/experience, your self-confidence, your
breathing, and your inner peace or Zen.

54. The most important part of preparation for an oral presentation is deciding the purpose.

55. To effectively adapt a presentation for an unfamiliar audience, you should contact five or six audience
members to interview before the presentation to determine typical audience attributes. You should then thank
these people in the opening of your presentation.

56. No matter what kind of audience you will have, you must plan your presentation to focus it on
audience benefits.

57. Good organization and conscious repetition are the two most powerful keys to audience
comprehension and retention.

58. It may be appropriate to begin a speech with a promise, a question, an anecdote, and even a joke.

119
 59. Prepare extra material for your speech because most speakers go about 25 percent under the allotted
time as opposed to their practice runs at home.

60. You can avoid one of the biggest problems with most oral presentations if you focus your speech on a
few key ideas.

61. Natalia is presenting statistics about the diversity of college students in different parts of the country.
She will most likely organize by chronology.

62. A professional way to end a presentation is to warn the audience of the conclusion and wrap up the
speech with an expression like That's it.

63. Reserve the use of anecdotes and quotations to grab attention in introductions in business
presentations because using these devices in the conclusion will weaken their impact.

64. One of the goals of an effective conclusion in a presentation is to allow the speaker to leave the
podium gracefully.

65. Once you have announced your conclusion, you should proceed to the conclusion immediately.

66. Build the best connection with your audience members by providing them the hard, dry facts and by
avoiding personalized statistics or personal anecdotes that make you appear amateurish and unpolished.

67. To enliven your presentation and enhance comprehension, try using some exaggeration or distortion
in your imagery.

68. You have just made the statement This financial bailout is a missed field goal as the clock runs out.
This is an example of a metaphor.

69. Next, therefore, on the contrary, moreover, and in conclusion are examples of transitional
expressions.

120
 70. You can create a stronger organization in your presentation through the use of verbal signposts that
will help your audience recognize your previews, summaries, or changes of direction.

71. If your audience will be dressed casually, experts recommend that you dress casually for your
presentation.

72. Lindsay plans to give her audience a handout with images of her PowerPoint slides. Lindsay should
distribute this handout after her presentation to maintain audience control.

73. Creating speaker's notes from your PowerPoint slides is helpful because these notes allow you to read
your presentation word for word.

74. Although Microsoft PowerPoint is the business standard for presenting, defending, and selling ideas,
overused and abused multimedia presentations have become a common complaint in business.

75. The most effective multimedia presentations rely heavily on text, use frequent bullet- pointed lists,
and employ few graphics or images.

76. Poorly designed PowerPoint presentations are the fault of the creator and not the software itself.

77. By preparing a visually appealing multimedia presentation and ensuring that each slide is great
looking, you can compensate for thin content.

78. Roberto is preparing a PowerPoint multimedia presentation for a multicultural audience. He must
choose his background colors carefully.

79. It is acceptable for a speaker to break the 6 x 6 rule for multimedia slides when the users will be
reviewing the presentation on their own with no speaker assistance.

80. Rely on the spell check feature in PowerPoint to catch all spelling and grammar errors appearing on
your slides.

121
 81. Create a slide in your multimedia presentation only if that slide will create interest, help the audience
follow your ideas, highlight points you want your audience to remember, introduce or review key points,
provide a transition from one idea to the next, or illustrate and simplify complex ideas.

82. To create a solid multimedia presentation, begin with the text, and then move on to the graphics,
animation, and other enhancements.

83. A blueprint slide is a drawing or visual depiction of an oral presentation that you reveal in the
introduction.

84. The simplest option for moving your multimedia presentation to the Web involves a Web conference
or broadcast.

85. Your best plan to create a convincing presentation is to read your entire presentation from a
manuscript so that your audience is confident you have not omitted anything.

86. It is normal to experience some degree of stage fright when speaking before a group.

87. The speakers who suffer the worst butterflies and who make the worst presentations are those who try
to memorize their speeches.

88. You should present your first sentence from memory to establish rapport with the audience through
eye contact.

89. If you make an error during your presentation, you will recover more rapidly and reconnect most
effectively with your audience if you immediately issue a sincere apology.

90. When answering audience questions, you should debate the questioner to show that you're right.

91. ____________________ analysis issues include size, age, gender, experience, and professional
background.

122
 92. You should capture listeners' attention, introduce yourself, establish your credibility, and preview
your topic in the ____________________ of your presentation.

93. Develop each of your main points in the ____________________ of your presentation.

94. In the ____________________ of your presentation, you should summarize your main themes and
leave the audience with something memorable.
onclusion

95. A comparison of similar traits between dissimilar items, such as Turning the course of this economic
downturn has been like stopping an avalanche; it's possible, but very, very difficult, is a(n)
____________________.

96. Help your audience recognize the organization and main points in an oral message with
____________________ signposts that keep listeners on track.

97. ____________________ points in a PowerPoint presentation consist of concise and parallel key
phrases.

98. To ensure professional results for your multimedia presentation, choose a professionally designed
____________________ that will combine harmonious colors, borders, bullet styles, and fonts for pleasing
visual effects.

99. After delivering their presentations, businesspeople often post their multimedia shows online because
attendees appreciate these ____________________ handouts.

100. ____________________ delivery means speaking freely, generally without notes, after preparation
and rehearsing. This delivery method allows you to freely discuss the ideas you have prepared and rehearsed
several times.

Chap 13:
1. Begin the job search by studying the job market and
a. identifying your interests, goals, and qualifications.

b. specifying your target job, ideal supervisor, and perfect working conditions.

c. developing a short-range career plan to present at interviews.

d. searching Web sites for job openings.

2. Your first step in finding a satisfying career should be

123
a. researching salary, benefits, and job stability in a chosen field.

b. developing an effective résumé to send to prospective employers.

c. locating job openings at desirable companies.

d. learning about yourself, the job market, and the employment process.

3. Which of the following is an effective question you should ask to determine your best career path?
a. Do I speak, write, or understand another language?

b. Do I want to retrain frequently, and will my employer pay for this retraining?

c. How well will I stand out from other candidates applying for jobs in this career field,
and how likely will I be to get an interview and land a job?

d. Would I like to work for someone else or be my own boss?

4. Which of the following statements about the changing nature of jobs in today's workplace is most
accurate?
a. In many companies teams complete special projects and then disband.

b. The primary employers in today's economy are large businesses.

c. Employers prefer hiring people for jobs with narrow descriptions.

d. Jobs are becoming less flexible and more permanent.

5. As you prepare for a successful job search, you must understand the role of the Web in the process.
Which of the following is most accurate?
a. The Web has made the process both easier and more challenging.

b. The Web has made it easy for job candidates to get noticed; standing out among
candidates is now simple.

c. The Web should be the only research tool in the job-search arsenal for savvy hunters
and recruiters.

d. The Web now provides one-stop employment services for job seekers and for
employers seeking employees.

6. Given the changing nature of the job market today, which of these is the best advice for job seekers?
a. Seek a lifelong career with a single company.

b. Upgrade your skills regularly and plan to retrain yourself frequently.

124
c. Start with a career that relies on existing technology skills to remain secure over the
long haul.

d. Remember that you will still have pay raises, promotions, and, finally, a comfortable
retirement over the course of your career, despite the changing job market.

7. The best advice for college students who need to learn about careers and establish a professional
network is to
a. enroll in classes in many programs to sample every career path.

b. write your own blog to attract potential employers.

c. volunteer with a nonprofit organization.

d. purchase a good interview suit.

8. Which of the following statements is most accurate?

a. You can expect to have two or three employers over the course of your career.

b. Because you are likely to change jobs often, do not train now for a specific career.

c. You make better career decisions if you match your interests to specific career
requirements.

d. The Web provides all the career data you need to gather.

9. Kendra is searching for a job and wants to use electronic sources. Which of the following will probably
be her best source of online job listings?
a. Big job boards such as Monster.com and Yahoo HotJobs

b. Specific company Web sites

c. Her college Web site job board

d. Social networking sites such as MySpace and Facebook

10. Experts report a new online information source for successful job seekers. What is this recently
emerged online job source?
a. Big online job boards

b. Online newspapers

c. Public service Web sites

d. Social media sites

125
 11. Which of the following is a traditional job-search technique?
a. Developing a network

b. Searching CareerBuilder and HotJobs

c. Visiting a company Web site to search for job openings

d. Checking LinkedIn or Facebook

12. Which of the following tips will best help you conduct a safe, effective Web job search?
a. Respond only to "blind" job postings.

b. Renew your résumé posting about every 45 days.

c. Post your résumé only at reputable sites that charge a fee for this service.

d. Consider omitting your home address and home phone number.

13. The most successful job seekers are those who

a. avoid career fairs and other "cattle calls" where the job seeker can become lost in a
crowd of applicants.

b. launch aggressive, proactive campaigns, which includes sending unsolicited application

letters with résumés to target companies.

c. focus their job searches on nontraditional methods such as Twitter and Facebook and
use traditional methods only as a last resort.

d. study the job market and companies in college and don't worry about their grades
because employers no longer place importance on GPAs.

14. Because job competition is stiff, you must have a customized résumé. Having a customized résumé
means that you
a. prepare a special résumé for every position you want.

b. create résumés for each of the job categories to which you plan to apply.

c. hire a professional résumé preparation company to review and refine your basic résumé
and then "dress it up."

d. include your photo, add color, or place other graphics on the résumé.

15. The primary way to make a résumé persuasive is to

126
a. limit it to one page.

b. customize it to fit each company and position.

c. use a good laser printer to print it on high-quality bond paper.

d. put a copy of it on the Web.

16. Because it quickly reveals a candidate's education and experience record, most recruiters favor a(n)
a. scannable résumé.

b. functional résumé.

c. chronological résumé.

d. online résumé.

17. You are just graduating from college and have little employment experience, yet you want to put
together a persuasive résumé. What would be the best résumé style to use?
a. Chronological résumé

b. Scannable résumé

c. Functional résumé

d. Online résumé

18. Which of the following is the best advice about résumé length?
a. Because recruiters are busy, keep it to one page.

b. Because recruiters and hiring managers want to know your skills, make it as long as
needed to sell yourself.

c. Because recruiters interview applicants with two-page résumés, make it two pages.

d. Because experts are divided between one- or two-page résumé length, make your
résumé a page and a half.

19. Which of these is the best tip for arranging the parts of a persuasive résumé?
a. Always include a Career Objective to show your commitment.

b. Use as many headings as needed to cover your background essentials.

c. List Education before Work Experience.

d. Always begin your résumé with your name and contact information.
127
 20. Opinions on the use of a Career Objective on the résumé are mixed. Which of the following the best
reason for candidates to add a Career Objective to their résumés?
a. An Objective shows flexibility and indicates that a candidate is adaptable and willing to
change to suit the employer's needs.

b. The primary goal of an Objective is to make the recruiter's life easier by quickly
classifying the résumé, which means the applicant is more likely to be hired.

c. An Objective can rapidly disqualify a candidate if the stated Objective does not match
a company's job description.

d. An Objective can tell the prospective employer that this candidate is sure about what he
or she wants to do.

21. Which of the following is the best Career Objective for a résumé?
a. An entry-level position in the marketing area with a possibility of promotion

b. A challenging job at an organization that raises the bar in data security

c. Serving as a team player in a company where independent thinking is Job #1

d. An accounting position in which 10 years' experience and a license as a CPA will

allow me to assist the company with payroll, employee benefits, and governmental tax
and records reporting

22. What statement best describes the Summary of Qualifications portion of a résumé?
a. Recruiters and hiring managers dislike the Summary of Qualifications section because
it adds reading time.

b. The Summary of Qualifications usually appears at the end of a résumé to provide a

strong closing.

c. Smart job seekers add a summary of their most impressive qualifications to their
résumés to save the time of recruiters and hiring managers.

d. The Summary of Qualifications section is typically one or two concise paragraphs.

23. In the Education section of your résumé, you should

a. list all college courses you have taken to give the employer a complete picture.

b. include relevant seminars attended and workshops completed.

c. list only colleges where you have completed a degree or certificate program.

d. specify your high school and college GPAs.

128
 24. Which of the following statements describing employment achievements would be most effective on a
résumé?
a. Directed work flow and scheduling for emergency room personnel

b. Performed preventative maintenance on production equipment

c. Achieved 125 percent of production goal for three consecutive quarters

d. Knowledgeable in a variety of production processes and Just-in-Time theories

25. Which of the following statements uses an action verb to highlight an aptitude?
a. Competent in creation of multimedia presentations

b. Mastered QuickBooks Pro accounting software in 20 hours with minimal instruction

c. Ability to develop innovative and interactive Web pages

d. Able to adapt quickly to changing work environments

26. Which of these résumé tips is most accurate?

a. Don't list awards and honors on a résumé; if you list them, you will appear to be
bragging.

b. Omit school and community activities from your résumé because they are unrelated to
your work experience.

c. Include your personal information (height, weight, and marital status) to give a
potential employer a complete picture.

d. Improve the visual impact of your résumé by placing your employment achievements
and relevant job duties in an easy-to-read bulleted list.

27. Which statement represents the best advice on the use of references?
a. Include a list of references directly on the résumé.

b. Do not include personal or character references.

c. Remember that companies generally check references before a job interview to learn
about a candidate in advance.

d. Be sure to add the statement References furnished upon request at the bottom of your
résumé.

129
 28. Experts argue about the best length for a résumé, but they agree that you shouldn't waste space on
unnecessary information. Which of the following should you omit on your résumé?
a. Awards, honors, and certificates

b. Description of internship experiences as part of your college education

c. Complete listing of all courses taken during schooling

d. Skills and responsibilities learned at part-time jobs while in college

29. Employers today will probably ask you to submit your résumé in any of following formats except as a
a. PDF document.

b. professionally typeset document.

c. Word document.

d. plain-text document.

30. Employers often use scanners to sort and evaluate résumés. Which of these steps will maximize the
"hits" your résumé receives from scanners?
a. Describe your experience, education, and qualifications in general terms.

b. Spell out all abbreviations and acronyms, especially those related to your field.

c. Eliminate descriptions of interpersonal skills or aptitudes.

d. Use accurate, specific names of schools, degrees, products, job titles, and companies.

31. What is the most accurate statement about plain-text résumés?

a. Plain-text résumés are in high demand for electronic applications because recruiters
and employers no longer ask candidates to send application materials by postal mail.

b. A plain-text format is widely used for posting to online job boards and for applying by
e-mail.

c. Plain-text résumés will look exactly like the original and cannot be altered without
Adobe Acrobat and other conversion software.

d. A plain-text résumé enables employers to plug your data into their formats for rapid
searching.

32. Another name for a print-based résumé is

a. presentation résumé.

130
b. plain-text résumé.

c. employability résumé.

d. e-portfolio résumé.

33. An e-portfolio is
a. an electronic copy of your résumé recorded on a CD or flash drive.

b. the addition of work samples and personal information as an attachment to your

embedded résumé.

c. a collection of digitized materials that give a snapshot of the candidate's qualifications.

d. the name given to résumés posted on job-search Web sites such as Monster.com.

34. Generally, job seekers offer their e-portfolios on Web sites where potential employers can access the
information round the clock, but e-portfolios are also
a. burned onto CDs and DVDs to be mailed to prospective employers.

b. shared via YouTube and Tweets.

c. printed into hard-copy and arranged into three-ring binders.

d. posted on the big job boards.

35. Omar has asked you for a tip to improve his résumé. Which of these is your best advice?
a. Switch your incomplete college education from a total number of credits to a
completed degree because a small inflation is normal.

b. For the employers who didn't assign actual job titles to your positions, create more
impressive job titles, for instance, replacing data entry technician with information
technology administrator.

c. Study model résumés to get ideas to improve your own; and if your skills don't
measure up, begin working now to improve them.

d. Improve your employment record by claiming a couple group projects as a solo effort
that you completed.

36. Which of the following statements about résumés is inaccurate?

a. A résumé is expected to showcase your strengths and minimize your weaknesses.

b. An ethical résumé may include half-truths but not outright lies.

131
c. Even after you have been hired, a misrepresentation on the résumé can be cause for
firing.

d. Although they can't verify everything, most recruiters will verify your previous
employment and education before hiring.

37. Which of the following is considered unethical on a résumé?

a. Misrepresenting a job title to make it sound more important

b. Extending employment dates to avoid showing periods of unemployment

c. Making your job duties sound more impressive and responsible than they really were

d. All of these choices are unethical.

38. Because your résumé is probably the most important document you will ever write, you should
a. enhance your job titles to make your résumé more impressive.

b. include ample use of the personal pronoun I to make it more personal.

c. consider having a knowledgeable friend or relative proofread it.

d. use a professional résumé service to prepare your résumé.

39. When writing your job application letter, avoid the biggest error most applicants make, which is
a. misspelling the receiver's name or the company's name.

b. forgetting to enclose their résumé.

c. making the letter too generic.

d. not asking for the interview.

40. The purposes of a cover letter include all of the following except
a. securing a job offer.

b. introducing the résumé.

c. relating the sender's strengths to reader benefits.

d. gaining an interview.

132
 41. A job opening has been announced. Which of these answer choices will be the best opening sentence
in an application letter?
a. You seek a master Web engineer, and I need a job; we are perfect for each other!

b. Dr. Matthew Skalski, IT director at Northwestern University, told me that you have an
opening for a Web engineer with experience in networking, data management, and
innovations.

c. Please consider this letter my application for your opening in the IT Department.

d. Do you need a Web engineer with over three years of experience?

42. Openings in a cover letter for a solicited job should refer to

a. the source of the information, the job title, and qualifications for the position.

b. the reader's business, position, and name.

c. the applicant's education, the target position, and the desired hire date.

d. the desired position, the applicant's qualifications, and the desire for an interview.

43. Which of the following statements is inaccurate regarding the opening in a cover letter for an
unsolicited job?
a. If you are unsure whether a position exists, use a more persuasive opening.

b. Demonstrate knowledge of the reader's business that may convince the person to
continue reading.

c. Show how your special talents will benefit the company and convince the reader that
your skill is exactly what this position demands.

d. Be vague about the type of position you're seeking so that you might be considered for
a variety of jobs.

44. Which of these statements about the body of a cover letter is most accurate?
a. Discuss the company's qualifications as your potential employer in the body.

b. Explain what courses you took in college and what duties you performed in previous
jobs to give hiring officers a complete picture of your background.

c. Stress writer benefits because hiring officers want to know what appeals to you about
this particular company.

d. Share your experiences demonstrating your initiative and ability to learn easily because
employers seek employees with these qualities.

133
 45. Which of these is the best statement to present a job candidate's information in the body of a cover
letter?
a. I am a qualified and fully licensed pediatric nurse.

b. Your posting description closely matches my experiences assisting dysfunctional

families in crisis, and recently I've taken seminars in family dynamics to develop the
additional skills that your ad indicates are essential.

c. You need a licensed, registered nurse, and I meet those qualifications.

d. Having graduated summa cum laude from Southwest College, I am well-prepared and
eager to apply my knowledge in nursing.

46. Choose the best closing sentence for a cover letter.

a. You should schedule my interview on Tuesday, September 7, at 10 a.m.

b. Please feel free to call me at your earliest convenience.

c. I hope you contact me soon to set up an interview for the systems analyst position.

d. To add to your team an experienced systems analyst with proven analytical and
troubleshooting skills, call me at (555) 555-4321 to arrange an interview.

47. Which of the following is the best advice for a cover letter to accompany a résumé sent by e-mail or
fax?
a. Take the time to prepare a professional cover letter to accompany your résumé sent
electronically.

b. Send your cover letter separately from a faxed or e-mailed résumé.

c. Shorten your e-mail or fax cover letter to a brief statement such as Please consider the
attached résumé for your opening.

d. Skip the cover letter; you don't need to introduce yourself because the fax or e-mail
includes your name.

48. Which of the following is the best tip for creating a successful cover letter?
a. Use different paper colors and paper types for your résumé and cover letter to create a
strong visual impact.

b. Make activities and outcomes, not yourself, the subject of sentences to reduce overuse
of "I."

c. Use a creative letter style to surprise the reader and make a big impact.

d. Keep the focus on your skills and traits through frequent use of "I" statements.

134
 49. To ensure your cover letter will look professional and suggest high quality, you should
a. revise it yourself and then pay a professional to read it for content and mechanics.

b. format the document traditionally using a business memorandum heading.

c. create a quality, professional look by (1) printing your letter on a brightly colored
paper; (2) choosing a fun, appealing font; and (3) signing your letter in a
complementary ink color.

d. polish the letter repeatedly because just like your résumé, your cover letter must be
perfect.

50. Choose the best sentence to present an applicant's skills in an application letter.
a. I took classes in business at the local college, and I learned the skills needed to
perform well in any business setting.

b. I really enjoy and excel at teamwork, but I work well independently too.

c. Helping customers has been a pleasure in previous jobs, and serving your customers
would be equally rewarding.

d. If I didn't know better, I would swear this job had been written precisely for me
because the description exactly matches my skills and experiences.

51. The employment process begins long before you are ready to prepare your résumé because you must
invest time and effort in self-evaluation.

52. You can analyze your qualifications by asking such questions as Do I enjoy working with people,
data, or things? and Would I rather work for a large company or a small company?

53. People who learn quickly and adapt to change will always be in demand in today's new workplace.

54. Because you will probably be frequently changing jobs throughout your career, you should not train
for a specific career now.

55. You can decide what qualifications you possess and how you can prove them by asking yourself What
evidence can I offer that I am a self-starter or a leader?

135
 56. Students who are serious about the job search should include an internship in their education because
polls indicate that nearly 90 percent of employers offer full-time positions to their interns.

57. Smart job hunters know they need to search only the job boards because nearly one half of external
hires come from responses to online postings.

58. Many job seekers today use social networking sites like Facebook and LinkedIn to network and to
find positions.

59. Landing a job today depends largely on your technical expertise and ability to navigate the big job
boards.

60. To conduct a safe job search online, you should post your information privately and limit your
personal information by omitting your home address and phone number.

61. The most successful job seekers launch smart, reactive campaigns.

62. Your primary purpose in preparing a persuasive résumé is to obtain an interview.

63. The résumé format most popular with recruiters and hiring managers is the functional résumé because
it focuses on the job applicant's skills and abilities related to the position sought.

64. Résumés usually fall into four categories: chronological, functional, customizable, and popular.

65. Recruiters may say they prefer one-page résumés, but many choose to interview those with longer
résumés.

66. The parts of résumés should be arranged in the order expected by hiring managers, and that places the
education section before the employment history.

67. To clearly label the purpose of your résumé for potential employers, always place the word Résumé
above the main heading.

136
 68. The Summary of Qualifications section will replace the Education and Experience sections.

69. The purpose of a Summary of Qualifications is to present your most impressive qualifications and to
motivate the recruiter to read further.

70. Including a Career Objective on your résumé is appropriate for a specific, targeted position, but it may
limit a broader job search.

71. It is unethical to present your grade point average (GPA) as a calculation based on the grades in your
major courses only.

72. In the Education section of your résumé, list your degrees and your GPA (grade point average), but do
not list all the courses you have taken.

73. Experts recommend not listing foreign languages skills on your résumé because recruiters often
assume your nationality or ethnicity based on your language skills.

74. You can include your hobbies or interests on your résumé because these may grab the recruiter's
attention or serve as conversation starters.

75. In the Work Experience section of your résumé, you should include only those jobs that you think will
help you win the targeted position.

76. Your résumé should include school, community, volunteer, and professional activities to demonstrate
leadership and interpersonal skills in descriptions like Secretary for Lions Club.

77. The closing section of a résumé should include personal data (birth date, health, height and weight,
and sometimes a photograph) to help the recruiter finalize his or her decision.

78. The first reader of your résumé may be a computer.

137
 79. Because résumés are increasingly becoming part of a searchable database, most job seekers now
create only one résumé format: the scannable résumé.

80. You can maximize recognition of your résumé by a scanner if you use targeted keywords and
incorporate words from the advertisement or job description.

81. Many applicants prepare a plain-text résumé because it can be pasted directly into the body of an e-
mail message.

82. The most important reason to prepare an e-portfolio is that it shows off your talents and qualifications
more thoroughly than a print résumé.

83. To fool scanning programs into ranking your résumé higher, you should insert hidden keywords into
your scannable résumé.

84. Because they expect you to showcase your strengths and hide your weaknesses, employers say it is
acceptable to self-promote and distort facts on your résumé.

85. A cover letter doesn't always need to accompany your résumé; for instance, if you send your résumé
by fax or e-mail, a cover letter is not necessary.

86. The maximum length for a cover letter is always one page.

87. The biggest mistake job seekers make when writing cover letters is making them sound too generic.

88. You can make your application letter more appealing by addressing it specifically to the Human
Resources Department or Hiring Manager.

89. If an employment position has been announced and applicants are being solicited, you can write your
cover letter using a direct approach.

138
 90. Although a résumé must be perfect, a few errors or typos in a cover letter are acceptable.

91. ____________________ accounts for most of the jobs found by candidates.

92. A résumé that focuses on a candidate's skills rather than on past employment has been prepared using
the ____________________ style.

93. A résumé that lists work history job by job, starting with the most recent position, has been prepared
using the ____________________ style.

94. Seeking a position in criminalistics in a professional crime laboratory where my skills in operating
lab and field equipment, knowledge of the procedures to protect evidence, and six years' experience
analyzing physical evidence will help the organization prevent crime and convict criminals is an example of
a career ____________________.

95. A(n) ____________________ of qualifications, which presents three to eight bulleted statements
identifying your most impressive accomplishments to prove you are the ideal candidate for the position,
appears near the top of your résumé.

96. A(n) ____________________ résumé should be sent to companies that use automated applicant-
tracking software to screen incoming résumés.

97. An e-____________________ offers links to examples of a job candidate's performance, talents, and
accomplishments in digitized form.

98. When an employer has advertised a job opening, you will write a(n) ____________________
application letter.

99. In the ____________________ of your application letter, you should promote your qualifications for
the position.

100. Motivate action by requesting an interview in the ____________________ of your application letter.

Chap 14:
1. During your interview you will
a. convince the employer of your potential.

b. research the company.

139
c. create success stories and match them to common interview questions.

d. organize yourself and your materials into a persuasive package.

2. The job interview provides the opportunity for you to

a. expand on information in your résumé.

b. find out more about the job and whether it suits your career goals.

c. learn more about the company to decide whether you would fit into the company
culture.

d. do all of these.

3. Which of the following statements about hiring/placement interviews is most accurate?

a. During sequential interviews sell your qualifications to each interviewer.

b. A hiring manager in the department with the job opening will probably ask more
general questions than will a human resources representative.

c. Panel interviews occur when a company interviews several candidates for the same
position at the same time.

d. The most common type of interview is the stress interview.

4. Panel interviews are typically conducted by people who will be your supervisors and colleagues. An
important advantage of the panel interview is
a. allowing the company to measure the candidate's leadership and communication skills.

b. saving company money on repeated interviews and related costs.

c. determining the best candidate through multiple interviews.

d. testing the reactions of a candidate during nerve-racking situations.

5. One common form of hiring interview is the sequential interview. Which of the following statements
most accurately describes a sequential interview?
a. In a sequential interview, you should outshine your competition at Sequence 1 when all
candidates are screened in the group interview.

b. You can assume that later interviewers know what was said in a previous interview
because sequential interviews are designed to save time.

c. As sequential interviews progress, interviews become more in-depth, which

meANSWER that you need to know even more about the company.

140
d. You must be totally committed to the job and the company to participate in a sequential
interview, which often takes weeks or even months to complete.

6. Global Connections Inc. is interviewing several candidates for a leadership position requiring strong
communication skills. What form of interview will most likely be used for this interview?
a. A one-on-one interview conducted by the human resources director

b. A stress interview conducted by the head of the programming division

c. A computer screening interview to test applicants' programming skills

d. A group interview of several candidates at one time

7. When interviewing for high-pressure positions, companies may use stress interview techniques, which
include being
a. greeted immediately by the interviewer.

b. asked rapid-fire questions by members of a team.

c. given a test with no time limit.

d. offered challenging food, beverages, or tobacco products.

8. Alejandro is an active job seeker now that he has submitted several job applications. Which of the
following is the best advice for Alejandro?
a. If you put your cell phone number on your application, answer the cell phone only if
your location is appropriate.

b. Tell your children or roommates that they must answer the phone promptly to avoid
missing any job calls.

c. Stop using voice mail to screen calls because employers are likely to find voice mail
unprofessional.

d. If you use voice mail, have someone with a clear, professional speaking voice record
your outgoing message.

9. Which of the following is the best advice to make a positive first impression in a phone conversation
with an employer?
a. Don't refer to your résumé or references during the first phone call because these are
appropriate only in the placement interview.

b. Take notes about the conversation immediately after hanging up to avoid forgetting
details.

141
c. In the first phone call, be polite and enthusiastic; but don't be pushy by discussing your
qualifications.

d. If caught off guard by the call, ask whether you can call back in a few minutes.

10. Which of the following is recommended for job seekers to complete as "homework" when preparing
for an interview?
a. Google the interviewer.

b. Allow a "cooling-off period"; stop thinking about the interview for 12 hours.

c. Select an interesting and appealing fragrance (aftershave or perfume).

d. Develop a thick skin because rejections are likely.

11. Rebecca has an interview with a large company in a nearby city. What information should she learn
about the company before her interview?
a. The company's mission and goals

b. The company's customers and competitors

c. The management structure and names of leaders

d. Rebecca should find out all this information about the prospective employer.

12. The best source of inside information about a company would probably result from
a. investigating its record at the Better Business Bureau.

b. calling the local Chamber of Commerce.

c. searching Wikipedia.

d. talking with company employees.

13. Effective interview-preparation techniques include practicing answers to possible questions, preparing
to explain problem areas on your résumé, deciding on professional attire, and
a. informing your current employer of your plans.

b. preparing success stories.

c. writing a resignation letter.

d. purchasing a gift for the interviewer.

142
 14. Experts recommend you prepare success stories for your interview, but what should you emphasize in
these stories?
a. Highlight something humorous from your past to make the interviewer laugh.

b. Discuss a prior success of the company and the ways your skills will make the
company even better.

c. Share a story that showcases a strategic skill or key accomplishment.

d. Identify a weakness and share how you have turned it into a strength.

15. Braden is preparing several success stories prior to his job interview for a sales representative
position. Which of the following scenarios would result in the best success story for this position?
a. A story about a lemonade stand that Braden ran when he was a child

b. A story about working as part of a team in college to prepare a classroom presentation

about a company's history

c. A story about volunteering for a local food bank over the holidays

d. A story about developing a new sales technique that increased his customer sales by 30
percent over a six-month period

16. You are trying to decide what to wear to a job interview. Which of these provides the best tip for you
to follow?
a. Buy the most expensive suit you can afford to make a good impression.

b. Call the company to find out how its employees dress and dress the same to match the
look of the company culture.

c. Dress professionally, regardless of how company employees dress.

d. Don't worry about what you wear; it's what you say during the interview that counts.

17. Social networking has impacted the job hunt for more than posting and searching jobs. Which of the
following best describes another important impact of social networking on the job hunt?
a. Cleaning up digital dirt is essential because 70 percent of recruiters report eliminating
candidates based on information found on social networking sites.

b. Employers in large employment markets are most likely to eliminate candidates based
on information found online.

c. Social networking is so common that employers expect to find a few party pictures or
off-color comments; a little digital dirt is no longer harmful.

d. You can't control what others post about you online; thus employers no longer check
social networking sites.
143
 18. Which of the following is the best advice when traveling to and arriving at your interview?
a. Limit grooming time because the more time you have, the more nervous you will get.

b. If something unexpected happens causing you to be late, immediately call the

interviewer to explain what is happening.

c. If you smoke on the way to the interview, brush your teeth or chew some gum when
you arrive and liberally apply perfume or cologne.

d. Arrive at the interview 15 to 20 minutes early, and greet the receptionist promptly on
arrival.

19. Which of the following statements about fear related to interviewing is most accurate?
a. Expect to be nervous before the interview and then to feel calm once the interview
begins; that is the natural fear cycle.

b. Other than public speaking, employment interviews are the most dreaded events in
people's lives.

c. One of the best ways to overcome fear is to be surprised by the structure of the
interview; anticipation is the biggest generator of fear.

d. Most job applicants cut their fear in half simply be dressing casually; professional dress
heightens stress, and stress increases interview fears.

20. Which of the following will not help you reduce your fears during an interview?
a. Let the interviewer have complete charge of the entire interview.

b. Practice interviewing as much as you can, especially with real companies.

c. Practice how you will answer the most frequently asked interview questions.

d. Take deep breaths while waiting for the interview to begin.

21. When you enter the office for an interview,

a. greet the interviewer confidently, and wait for him or her to initiate a handshake.

b. avoid small talk and obvious flattery such as "You have beautiful facilities here."

c. introduce yourself to the receptionist, and wait to be invited to sit.

d. immediately open your briefcase to sort through your contents to locate copies of your
résumé and references.

144
 22. You can send positive nonverbal messages during your interview by dressing professionally,
controlling your body movements, making eye contact, and
a. arriving on time.

b. using gender-neutral language.

c. presenting success stories to respond to behavioral questions.

d. preparing thoroughly.

23. Which of the following statements about nonverbal messages during an interview is most accurate?
a. Sit erect, leaning forward slightly to show interest and confidence.

b. Change positions often and gesture as frequently as possible to convey high energy.

c. Lean forward, resting your arms on the desk or table before you, to indicate control.

d. Relax back into your chair, slouching slightly, to demonstrate self-assurance.

24. Which of the following is the best advice when answering interview questions?
a. Focus your answers on your strengths, but reveal a weakness or two to show your
humanity and humble nature.

b. Use the interviewer's name and title each time you answer a question to show respect.

c. To be concise, answer questions with a simple yes or no whenever possible.

d. Aim answers at the key characteristics needed, such as expertise, motivation, and a
pleasant personality.

25. To find people who will fit into their organizations, some interviewers use the airport test, which is
a. an informal personality measure asking what it would be like to spend 12 hours stuck
in an airport with this person.

b. an ethics questionnaire administered originally by the U.S. government to airline

employees.

c. a personality examination used to identify phobias related to heights.

d. a test containing ten questions asked of the candidate during the interview.

26. Although you can't expect to be perfect in an employment interview, you can do your best by
a. showing some passion by bringing up a controversial topic and taking a clear stand.

145
b. speaking forcefully but using some slang such as "like" and "ya know" to sound
relaxed and friendly.

c. elaborating on your answers and criticizing the person or object causing the problems
at a previous job.

d. occasionally refocusing and clarifying vague questions by asking "Do you mean...?"

27. Employment interviews are all about questions. Which of the following statements about interview
questions is accurate?
a. Your interviewer may use questions to become acquainted with you.

b. Some interview questions are meant to showcase the business to the candidate.

c. None of the questions you will be asked are new.

d. You can anticipate and prepare for every question.

28. If an interviewer says Tell me about yourself, what is the best way to respond?
a. Present your brief biography as a chronology, beginning with when and where you
were born.

b. Briefly discuss educational, professional, or business-related strengths.

c. To start the interview positively, provide a few humorous personal anecdotes.

d. Tell several success stories, making sure to fill at least ten minutes of interview time.

29. If an interviewer says Why do you want to work for us?, you should
a. briefly summarize problems at your current job that require you to change employers.

b. show what you know about the interviewer's company and how your goals match the
company and its culture.

c. explain that as a recent graduate you want to work for any company needing a person
with your skills and background.

d. tell the truth about your reasons for seeking this job; for example, you are unemployed,
you need more pay or better benefits, or you just graduated.

30. When the interviewer asks you questions about the future, you should provide answers that
a. show ambition and interest in succeeding with this company.

b. enable you to work in your practiced success stories.

146
c. demonstrate you have the skills required for the target position.

d. illustrate your interest in their organization and in the open position.

31. How should you respond if an interviewer asks, Why should we hire you when other applicants have
better credentials?
a. Admit that you are less qualified, but stress you can be paid less than more experienced
applicants.

b. Describe how you are correcting one of your most significant weaknesses to display
your strong work ethic and determination.

c. Confidently explain your strengths such as your openness to new ideas and knowledge
of the latest methods and equipment.

d. Since it is clear that you will not get this job offer, do not answer this question.

32. Which of these responses is the best answer to the question, Where do you see yourself in your career
five years from now?
a. I see myself in your job.

b. I see myself as the president of this company.

c. I hope to be running my own business.

d. As a member of your team, I will have grown and learned enough to advance to a
position in management.

33. Which of these is the most effective response to the question, What do you think is your greatest
weakness?
a. Some people complain that I'm a workaholic with nearly too much passion for this
field.

b. To tell the truth, I become frustrated with lazy coworkers who don't pull their own
weight.

c. My typing speed isn't as fast as I would like, but this position doesn't require me to use
the computer.

d. I've worked hard to eliminate every weakness, and I am confident you will find me the
perfect employee for this position.

34. When an interviewer asks you a challenging question about a weakness, what is the best way to
respond?
a. To prove you have only strengths, reply that you have no weaknesses at all.
147
b. To be completely honest with the interviewer, talk about the employment weakness
that concerns you most.

c. Mention a previous weakness and the way you have corrected it.

d. Demonstrate your honesty by bringing up every weakness you can identify.

35. Which of the following is an example of a situational question?

a. If you were aware that a coworker submitted false data, what would you do?

b. What is your ideal work environment?

c. What do you predict for the future of our industry?

d. Tell me about a time when you dealt with confidential information.

36. Which of the following is an example of a behavioral interview question?

a. Who in your life has most inspired you and why?

b. An irate customer is demanding her money back. How would you handle the situation?

c. Tell me about a time when you solved a difficult problem.

d. What is your greatest strength?

37. When the interviewer says Describe a time when you worked successfully as a member of a team,
your best response will be to
a. reply that you have been a member of so many successful teams that no particular
instance stands out.

b. say that you not only enjoy teamwork, especially problem-solving groups, but also
work well independently.

c. tell a success story about a specific group project, your contributions, and the results.

d. list the names of all work teams on which you participated and stress that all were
successful.

38. If the interviewer begins a question with Tell me about a time when..., you should
a. recognize that this is a trick question and tactfully refuse to answer.

b. politely explain that you have never experienced such a situation.

c. make up any answer and wish that you had been better prepared.

148
d. describe a situation or task, tell what action you took, and emphasize a positive result.

39. What is the most effective way to handle an illegal or inappropriate question during an interview?
a. If you find the question harmless and you want the job, go ahead and answer it.

b. Confront the interviewer about the illegal nature of the question.

c. Storm out of the room in anger; after all, you wouldn't work for a company with such
low ethics.

d. Refuse to answer the question because it is your legal right to do so.

40. If an interviewer asks if you have any questions at the end of an interview, which of the following is
an inappropriate response?
a. May I have a tour of the facilities?

b. When do you expect to make a decision?

c. No, I have no questions right now; you have shared all the information I need.

d. What are the major challenges for a person in this position?

41. How should you close an interview?

a. Briefly review your strengths, thank the interviewer, and ask what action will follow.

b. Be confident and say, "This job sounds great! When do I start work?"

c. Ask about salary and benefits.

d. Invite the interviewer to lunch.

42. What should you do after the interview?

a. Write a thank-you letter immediately.

b. Wait a few days to see if you hear from the employer; if not, write a thank-you letter.

c. Call the interviewer to thank him or her.

d. Send the interviewer(s) flowers.

43. After writing a follow-up letter to thank your interviewer, your next step should be
a. alerting your references that they may be contacted by the employer.

149
b. sending a small gift to the receptionist to show your sincere appreciation.

c. calling the organization's human resources department to learn more about your
competitors for the open position.

d. waiting at least one month for a call of acceptance or rejection.

44. The purposes of sending a follow-up e-mail or letter to the employer include jogging the memory of
the hiring officer, showing your serious interest in the position, and
a. emphasizing your qualifications or adding new information.

b. sending a personal note to the receptionist, who often helps make the final decision.

c. sharing your photograph to match your qualifications to your face.

d. setting a deadline for the employer to offer you the position.

45. Kalinda made a follow-up call to her interviewer five days after the interview. Several weeks later,
Kalinda has still not heard from the employer. What action should Kalinda take now?
a. Assume that no decision has been made and that a call could come soon.

b. Send the interviewer a rejection follow-up letter.

c. Show her frustration and determination by calling the employer at least once or twice a
day for the next two weeks.

d. Assume that she didn't get the job and continue her job search.

46. Recommended guidelines for completing application forms include which of the following?
a. Disregard questions that do not apply to you by leaving them blank.

b. Read the entire form before beginning to complete it.

c. Ignore misspellings because you are not expected to carry a dictionary.

d. Leave any questions about salary blank since they might limit what you will be paid.

47. When you apply for a position but are rejected, employment experts recommend that you
a. send a rejection letter saying you believe the employer has made a hiring decision error
in not choosing you.

b. phone the employer's personnel office and have your application materials placed in the
inactive file in case the person hired "doesn't work out."

c. send a rejection e-message indicating you are disappointed but will contact the

150
 company again in a month in case a job opens up.

d. do not apply at that company again for at least 12 months.

48. When writing a resignation letter to your employer, you should

a. allow more than the standard two-week notice if you have a high or responsible
position within the company.

b. offer thanks and end with a forward-looking statement.

c. remind the employer of your contributions.

d. All answer choices are correct.

49. In a job acceptance letter, your tasks are

a. accepting the position, asking for clarification as needed, and expressing appreciation.

b. thanking the interviewer for the interview and job offer and accepting the position.

c. confirming your acceptance, reviewing salary and benefits, and affirming the start date.

d. noting the job offer date, specifying the job acceptance date, and agreeing to the job
start date.

50. If you must turn down a job offer, employment experts suggest you should send the employer a letter
a. declining the offer, providing a thorough explanation of the reasons for declining, and
expanding on your qualifications for a new position.

b. thanking the employer for the offer and briefly declining the position.

c. specifying personal reasons for your decision.

d. declining the position and offering assistance finding your replacement.

51. Many screening interviews occur on the telephone.

52. The most common format for hiring/placement interviews is the sequential interview.

53. If the company is conducting a panel interview, a candidate should direct an answer only to the person
who asked the question.

54. In sequential interviewing follow-up interviews tend to be more relaxed than earlier interviews.

151
 55. You will feel more comfortable and better prepared in any type of interview if you know what to do
before, during, and after the interview.

56. Companies today use technologies like Skype to conduct online interviews that are informal and
allow candidates to take a less serious, more relaxed approach to the entire interview process.

57. Once you have sent out one résumé or completed one job application form, you must consider
yourself an active job seeker.

58. Most employers contact job applicants by e-mail to set up interviews.

59. During your job search, you should treat any call from an employer just like an interview.

60. Because employee blogs are inaccurate and biased sources of information about a company, job
seekers should ignore employee blogs.

61. Don't worry about what information is available about you online because this information is
irrelevant to the job search.

62. To prevent future problems with online material or digital dirt, you should use a nickname or
pseudonym when starting a new profile on a social network.

63. Before your interview you should study the job opening, identify key needs, and then develop
matching success stories emphasizing your most strategic skills, areas of knowledge, strongest personality
traits, and key accomplishments.

64. If something unexpected forces you to be late to your interview, call the interviewer right away to
explain what is happening.

65. When greeting the interviewer, you should smile, maintain direct eye contact, and wait for the
interviewer to initiate a handshake.

66. Remember that you will be judged not only by the interview but also by the receptionist and anyone
else who sees you before and after the interview.

67. One of the best ways to overcome fear is to know what happens in a typical interview.

152
 68. If uncertain what to wear for your interview, call the company and ask about the dress code.

69. When answering interview questions, interject many verbal pauses to give yourself time to formulate
appropriate answers.

70. After opening introductions, recruiters generally try to start the interview with a series of stress-
inducing questions to see immediately how the job applicant will hold up under fire.

71. Even if you have less experience and fewer accomplishments than other candidates, you may be hired
if you can demonstrate the skills required.

72. When explaining how you would handle a negative hypothetical situation described in a situational
question, you should respond positively even though the situation sounds negative.

73. To respond effectively to behavioral questions, use the storytelling technique to relate a success story
about a recent educational or work situation or task.

74. A job applicant should never answer an illegal or inappropriate interview question.

75. If you don't hear from the interviewer within five days, the best follow up is a phone call to the
interviewer to inquire about the decision and to indicate your extreme desire for the job.

76. Sending a follow-up message or thank-you note after an interview is a social nicety that distinguishes
you from other candidates, but thank-you messages carry little weight in the hiring process.

77. If you've been interviewed by more than one person, send one thank-you note to the person who
appeared to be in charge.

78. Always ask permission before submitting someone's name as a reference.

79. When asking a previous supervisor to write a letter of recommendation, you would be smart to
provide the supervisor with a detailed description of your target job, the recommendation deadline, and
copies of your résumé and college transcript.

80. After an interview you should always wait for the interviewer to contact you first.

153
 81. Fill out a job application form using a No. 2 pencil to allow easy erasure of mistakes, clear
handwriting, and dark lettering.

82. If you have submitted a résumé and cover letter, you will not be required to fill out a job application
form.

83. If your résumé or application generates no response within a reasonable time, you should send a short
follow-up e-mail or letter to emphasize your qualifications or to add new information.

84. When you are rejected for a job that you considered perfect, you should give up on this company and
move rapidly to identify similar positions in other organizations.

85. It would be appropriate to include a sentence such as the following in your job acceptance letter: As
we agreed, my compensation package includes a salary of $44,000, a benefits package including health and
life insurance, a retirement plan, and two weeks of vacation per year.

86. Even though you will likely receive and accept your job offer via telephone, you should send the
employer a letter or e-mail to document your acceptance of the job.

87. Writing a follow-up letter after being turned down for a job is unprofessional and unnecessary.

88. Although your job application form or letter and hiring materials will be placed in your personnel file,
you need not worry about the quality of a resignation letter because these are never placed in a personnel file.

89. Once you have resigned in a meeting with your supervisor, you do not need to document your
resignation in a letter or e-mail.

90. A resignation letter typically includes a two-week notice. However, if your position is higher and your
responsibility is greater, you should provide your employer a longer notice.

91. Many companies now use ____________________ interviews to save time and money by eliminating
less-qualified candidates before scheduling face-to-face interviews.

92. A(n) ____________________ interview is meant to test a candidate's reactions during nerve-racking
situations.

93. ____________________ interviews are typically conducted by a group of people who will be your
supervisors and colleagues. Usually seated around a table, interviewers may take turns asking questions.

154
 94. To feel confident and to sell your qualifications, you should prepare and practice
____________________ stories that provide specific examples of your educational and work-related
experience to showcase your qualifications and achievements.

95. Examples of positive ____________________ messages for the interview process include arriving on
time, dressing professionally, controlling your body movements, exhibiting good posture, using appropriate
eye contact, smiling appropriately, and listening attentively.

96. To test your thought processes and ability to think logically, interviewers describe a hypothetical
scenario and ask you how you would handle it using ____________________ questions.

97. Your interviewer says to you Describe a time when... or Tell me about a time when... These phrases
are openings for a(n) ____________________ question.

98. To provide the best possible recommendation of you to a potential employer, your
____________________ need information about the company and position.

99. Some job candidates who are declining a job offer choose to write a(n) ____________________ letter
to thank the employer for the job offer and to formally refuse the position.

100. You should write a formal ____________________ letter to confirm the exact date you will terminate
your employment when it is a position you have held for an extended period.

155