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Physics
Evaluation Report - G.C.E.(A.L.) Examination - 2012

Financial Aid

Transforming the School Education System as the Foundation

of a Knowledge Hub Project (TSEP-WB)

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 INTRODUCTION
The General Certificate of Education (Advanced Level) Examination is the
final certification examination of the Senior Secondary Education in Sri Lanka.
Though certification of the students' achievement level at the end of Senior Secondary
Education is the major aim of this examination, it bears a momentous position as an
achievement test as well as a selection test because the eligible candidates for national
universities and other higher education and vocational training institutes and also for
the National Colleges of Education are selected on the results of this examination.
This has also been accepted as an examination that certifies entry qualifications for
the tertiary level employments. In the year 2012, 196954 school candidates and 10954
private candidates sat this examination.
Much pains are being taken by students to have a high achievement level at
this examination and teachers and parents to fulfil their expectations. This evaluation
report has been prepared by the Department of Examinations to assist the realization
of their goals. It is certain that the information provided by this evaluation report
is equally important for candidates, teachers, principals, in-service advisers, subject
directors, parents and researchers in education. So it is appropriate to tender this report
for wider reference.
This evaluation report comprises of three parts. I, II and III. Part I of this report
consists of information related to aims and achievement of the subject Physics in
G.C.E. (A.L) Examination. Presented under it are the statistical information on subject
achievement, that is number of candidates sat for the subject, how they have obtained
grades, how school candidates have obtained grades by district and distribution
of marks according to class intervals and a comprehensive analysis of the subject
achievement that reveals how candidates have selected questions in Papers I and II in
Physics and how they have scored marks for the questions in them and the sub parts
of each question. Part II of this report presents the questions in Paper I and Paper II of
Physics in the G.C.E. (A.L) Examination 2012 and information about the candidates'
responses to them. It encompasses expected answers for the questions of papers I and
II, the scheme of marking, observations on answers, conclusions and constructive
suggestions.
This evaluation report prepared by the Research and Development Branch of
the Department of Examinations is based on the information, observations, ideas and
suggestions provided by chief examiners, additional chief examiners and assistant
examiners involved in evaluating answer scripts and the information drawn through
the analysis of candidates' responses using the Classical Test Theory and the Item
Response Theory.
Part III of this report embodies the facts that should be taken into consideration
by the candidates when answering each question and opinions and suggestions with
regard to the learning teaching process. I think that this report is of immense value in
the organization of the learning teaching process to achieve respective competencies
and competency levels. You are kindly requested to direct your productive ideas and
suggestions to us to improve the quality of our future evaluation reports.
I wish to extend my sincere thanks to the chief examiners, additional chief
examiners and assistant examiners who provided information to prepare this report,
the committee members who fervently and actively contributed to the task, the officers
and the staff of the Department of Examinations who shouldered the responsibility,
State Printing Co-operation who printed this material and the TSEP-WB that provided
financial assistance for it.

W.M.N.J. Pushpakumara
Commissioner General of Examinations
1st December 2013
Research & Development Branch
National Evaluation & Testing Service
Department of Examinations.
Pelawatta, Battaramulla.
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Guidance ( W.M.N.J. Pushpakumara
Commissioner General of Examinations

Direction and Organization ( Gayathri Abeygunasekera

Commissioner of Examinations
(Research and Development)

Co-ordination ( J. A. J. R. Jayakody
Assistant Commissioner of Examinations

Editing ( Prof. S.R.D. Rosa

Department of Physics
University of Colombo

J. A. J. R. Jayakody
Assistant Commissioner of Examinations

Panel of Writers ( W.A. Malkanthi Fernando

Sri Lanka Teachers' Service
Wp/Ne/ St' Sebastian B.M.V.
Kadana

Pushpa Gunasinghe
Sri Lanka Teachers' Service
D.S. Senanayaka Vidyalaya
Colombo 07

T. Vidanapathirana
Sri Lanka Teachers' Service
Rathnawali Balika Vidyalaya
Gampaha

Translation ( E. Kulasekara
Deputy Commissioner of Examinations

Computer Type Setting ( K.P.D. Anusha Maduwanthi Dissanayaka

ICT Assistant

D.G. Buddhika Nipuna Senanayake

Data Entry Operator

M.W. Piumi Madhushani

Data Entry Operator

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 Contents
Page
Part I
1. Subject objectives and information on subject achievement
1.1 Subject objectives 1
1.2 Statistical information on subject achievement
1.2.1 Number of candidates sat for the subject 2
1.2.2 Grades obtained by candidates 2
1.2.3 Grades obtained by school candidates who sat the examination
for the first time - District wise 3
1.2.4 Distribution of final marks in class intervals 4
1.3 Analysis of subject achievement
1.3.1 Achievement in question paper I 5
1.3.2 Selection of questions in question paper II 6
1.3.3 Marks obtained for question Paper II 6
1.3.4 Achievement in question paper II 7

Part II

2. Information on questions and answers

2.1 Question paper I and information on answers to paper I

2.1.1 Structure of the question Paper I 10
2.1.2 Question paper I 11
2.1.3 Expected answers and the scheme of marking for question paper I 20
2.1.4 Observations on the responses to paper I (by subject unit) 21
2.1.5 Overall observations conclusions and suggestions regarding
the answers to question paper I 23

2.2 Information on answers to Paper II

2.2.1 Structure of the question paper II 24

2.2.2 Expected answers, scheme of marking, observations on the
responses, conclusions and suggestions related to question
paper II 25
2.2.3 Overall observations, conclusions and suggestions regarding
the answers to question paper II 62

Part III

3. Facts to be considered when answering questions, and Suggestions

3.1 Facts to be considered when answering questions 63
3.2 Comments and suggestions regarding the learning and teaching process 64

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 Part I

1. Subject objectives and information on subject achievement

1.1 Subject objectives

At the end of completion of the course, the student

1 acquires sufficient understanding and knowledge to become a confident

citizen in a technological world.

2 recognizes the usefulness and limitations of scientific method and to

appreciate its applicability in everyday life.

3 develops abilities and skills that are relevant to the study and practice of
Physics in day-to-day life.

4 develops attitudes relevant to Physics such as concern for accuracy and

precision, objectivity, enquiry, initiative and inventiveness.

5 stimulates interest and care for the environment.

6 acquires manipulative, observational and experimental skills together with

hands-on experience on the equipment used by physicists.

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1.2 Statistical information on subject achievement

1.2.1 Number of candidates sat for the subject

Medium School Private Total

Sinhala 41493 538 42031

Tamil 6404 154 6558

English 2929 159 3088

Total 50826 851 51677

Table 1

1.2.2 Grades obtained by the candidates

School Candidates Private Candidates

Grade Total Percentage
Number Percentage Number Percentage

A 2821 5.55 29 3.41 2850 5.51

B 4650 9.15 47 5.52 4697 9.09

C 12009 23.63 119 13.98 12128 23.47

S 16029 31.54 224 26.32 16253 31.45

F 15317 30.14 432 50.76 15749 30.48

Total 50826 100.00 851 100.00 51677 100.00

Table 2

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1.2.3 Grades obtained by school candidates who sat the examination for the first time -
District wise

Very Good Ordinary

Distinction Credit Pass Pass Weak Pass
Pass pass
(A) (C) ^A+B+C+S& (F)
(B) (S)
No.
District
Sat

Number

Number

Number

Number

Number

Number
] ] ] ] ] ]

1. Colombo 5354 436 8.14 544 10.16 1354 25.29 1536 28.69 3870 72.28 1484 27.72

2. Gampaha 2832 128 4.52 210 7.42 620 21.89 870 30.72 1828 64.55 1004 35.45

3. Kalutara 1805 66 3.66 120 6.65 342 18.95 615 34.07 1143 63.32 662 36.68

4. Kandy 2123 126 5.93 185 8.71 484 22.80 645 30.38 1440 67.83 683 32.17

5. Matale 479 18 3.76 28 5.85 108 22.55 152 31.73 306 63.88 173 36.12

6. Nuwara Eliya 631 13 2.06 34 5.39 109 17.27 205 32.49 361 57.21 270 42.79

7. Galle 1996 99 4.96 128 6.41 409 20.49 604 30.26 1240 62.12 756 37.88

8. Matara 1696 100 5.90 108 6.37 291 17.16 508 29.95 1007 59.38 689 40.63

9. Hambantota 1082 45 4.16 47 4.34 145 13.40 313 28.93 550 50.83 532 49.17

10. Jaffna 1147 67 5.84 98 8.54 227 19.79 322 28.07 714 62.25 433 37.75

11. Kilinochchi 84 3 3.57 7 8.33 11 13.10 27 32.14 48 57.14 36 42.86

12. Mannar 122 2 1.64 2 1.64 22 18.03 45 36.89 71 58.20 51 41.80

13. Vavuniya 171 9 5.26 16 9.36 41 23.98 44 25.73 110 64.33 61 35.67

14. Mullativu 89 3 3.37 1 1.12 14 15.73 25 28.09 43 48.31 46 51.69

15. Batticaloa 494 25 5.06 36 7.29 112 22.67 158 31.98 331 67.00 163 33.00

16. Ampara 865 27 3.12 44 5.09 175 20.23 320 36.99 566 65.43 299 34.57

17. Trincomalee 331 9 2.72 18 5.44 54 16.31 106 32.02 187 56.50 144 43.50

18. Kurunegala 2215 68 3.07 131 5.91 437 19.73 707 31.92 1343 60.63 872 39.37

19. Puttalam 730 19 2.60 66 9.04 158 21.64 218 29.86 461 63.15 269 36.85

20. Anuradhapura 971 22 2.27 45 4.63 155 15.96 296 30.48 518 53.35 453 46.65

21. Polonnaruwa 357 13 3.64 17 4.76 63 17.65 123 34.45 216 60.50 141 39.50

22. Badulla 990 38 3.84 68 6.87 208 21.01 346 34.95 660 66.67 330 33.33

23. Monaragala 376 6 1.60 12 3.19 65 17.29 129 34.31 212 56.38 164 43.62

24. Ratnapura 1408 51 3.62 83 5.89 269 19.11 456 32.39 859 61.01 549 38.99

25. Kegalle 1200 13 1.08 74 6.17 216 18.00 408 34.00 711 59.25 489 40.75

All Island 29548 1406 4.76 2122 7.18 6089 20.61 9178 31.06 18795 63.61 10753 36.39

Table 3

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1.2.4 Marks obtained according to class intervals

Cumulative
Frequency Cumulative
Class Interval Frequency Frequency
Percentage Frequency
Percentage
91 - 100 49 0.09 51677 100.00

81 - 90 1054 2.04 51628 99.91

71 - 80 3340 6.46 50574 97.87

61 - 70 5799 11.22 47234 91.40

51 - 60 8386 16.23 41435 80.18

41 - 50 10661 20.63 33049 63.95

31 - 40 10853 21.00 22388 43.32

21 - 30 8420 16.29 11535 22.32

11 - 20 3010 5.82 3115 6.03

01 - 10 104 0.20 105 0.20

00 - 00 1 0.00 1 0.00

Table 4

The following example illustrates how information can be retrieved from the above table:
Example : (Taking the class interval 31 - 40 for instance)
The number of candidates scoring from 31 to 40 is 10853. As a percentage it
is 21.00%. The number scoring 40 marks or less than that, is 22388 and as
a percentage it is 43.32%.

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 1.3

G.C.E.(A.L.) Examination - 2012

- Physics - Paper I
G.C.E.01(A.L) Examination - 2012
Percentage of candidates who have selected the correct option to each of the questions in paper I
Physics - Paper I
Facility Indices
1.0
100

0.9
90

3 & 4 are correct

3 and 4 are Correct
0.8
80
1.3.1 Achievement in Paper I

2,3,4 & 5 are correct

2, 3, 4 and 5 are Correct
0.7
70

0.6
60

Index
Analysis of Subject Achievement

0.5

Percentage
50

Facility

-5-
0.4
40

0.3
30

0.2
20

0.1
10

0.0
0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Question Number
Question Number
Graph 1 (Prepared using the information collected from the form RD/16/05/AL)
Retrieval of information from the above graph can be illustrated by the following example:
Eg : Highest number of candidates have correctly responded to question 1. Its percentage is 83%. Least number of candidates have
correctly responded to question 34. Its percentage is 9%.
 G.C.E.(A.L.) Examination - 2012
G.C.E.(A.L.) Examination - 2012
01 - Physics
Physics - Paper II (Part A)
Paper II (Part A)
Facility
Facility indices of Indices Parts
the partsofand and Sub
sub-parts of Parts
the questions
1.0
1.0

0.9
0.9

0.8
0.8

0.7
0.7
1.3.4 Achievement in Paper II

0.6
0.6

0.5
0.5

indexIndex
0.4

Facility
0.4

-7-
Facility
0.3
0.3

0.2
0.2

0.1
0.1

0.0
0.0
(i) (ii) (i) (ii) (i) (ii) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
I/ii/ (i) (ii) (i) (ii) (i) (ii) (iii) (i) (ii) (i) (ii) (i) (ii)
(ii)
a
(a) b
(b) c
(c) d
(d) (a) b
a (b) c
(c) d
(d) e
(e) (ff ) (g) a
g (a) b
(b) c
(c) d
(d) (e)e (ff ) a
(a) b
(b) c
(c) d
(d) e
(e)
11 22 33 44
Parts and Sub Parts
Question - Parts and sub parts

Graph 4.1 (Prepared using the information collected from the form RD/16/04/AL)
How information can be elicited from the above graph is illustrated by the following example:
Eg : The facility of part (c) ^i& of question 1 is 87% and the facility of part (b) ^ii& is 7%.
 G.C.E.(A.L.)
G.C.E.(A.L.)Examination 2012
Examination -- 2012
Paper
Physics -01 II (Part B)
- Physics
Paper II (Part
Facility Indices of Parts andB) Sub Parts
Facility indices of the parts and sub-parts of the questions
1.0
1.0

0.9
0.9

0.8
0.8

0.7
0.7

0.6
0.6

0.5
0.5

Facility Index
0.4

-8-
0.4

Facility index
0.3
0.3

0.2
0.2

0.1
0.1

0.0
0.0
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (i) (ii) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi) (i) (ii) (i) (ii) (i) (ii) (i) (ii) (iii) (i) (ii) (iii)

a
(a) b
(b) c
(c) a
(a) c
b (c)
(b) d
(d) e
(e) a
(a) (b)b c
(c) a
(a) b
(b)
55 66 77 88

Question - Parts
Parts andand
Subsub parts
Parts

Graph 4.2
 G.C.E.(A.L.) Examination - 2012
G.C.E.(A.L.)01 Examination
- Physics - 2012
Physics - Paper
Paper II (Part
II (Part B) B)
Facility
Facility of the parts
indicesIndices of Parts sub-parts
and and of the questions
Sub Parts
1.0
1.0

0.9
0.9

0.8
0.8

0.7
0.7

0.6
0.6

0.5
0.5

0.4
0.4

Facility Index
Facility index

-9-
0.3
0.3

0.2
0.2

0.1
0.1

0.0
0.0
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (i) (ii) (i) (ii) (i) (ii) (i) (ii) (iii) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (i) (ii) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (v) (vi)
a
(a) b
(b) a
(a) b
(b) c
(c) d
(d) e
(e) f
(f) g
(g) a
(a) b
(b) a
(a) b
(b)
A
(A) B
(B) A
(A) B
(B)
99 10
10
Question - Parts and sub parts
Parts and Sub Parts

Graph 4.3
 Part II

2. Information on questions and answers

2.1 Question paper I and information on answers to paper I

2.1.1 Structure of the question paper I

Ú Time : 02 hours.

Ú 50 multiple choice questions with 5 options.

Ú All questions should be answered.

Ú Each question carries 02 marks. Total marks : 100.

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2.1.2 Paper I

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- 12 -
- 13 -
- 14 -
- 15 -
- 16 -
- 17 -
- 18 -
- 19 -
2.1.3' Expected answers and the scheme of marking

Scheme of Marking for paper I

Question Answer Question Answer
No. No.

01. 2
''''''''' 26. 3
'''''''''
02. 2
''''''''' 27. 2
'''''''''
03. 3
''''''''' 28. 1
'''''''''
04. 1
''''''''' 29. 3
'''''''''
05. 3
''''''''' 30. 2, 3, 4, 5
'''''''''
06. 5
''''''''' 31. 1
'''''''''
07. 2
''''''''' 32. 5
'''''''''
08. 4
''''''''' 33. 3
'''''''''
09. 4
''''''''' 34. 1
'''''''''
10. 3, 4
''''''''' 35. 4
'''''''''
11. 1
''''''''' 36. 2
'''''''''
12. 4
''''''''' 37. 4
'''''''''
13. 5
''''''''' 38. 5
'''''''''
14. 1
''''''''' 39. 5
'''''''''
15. 4
''''''''' 40. 1
'''''''''
16. 3
''''''''' 41. 2
'''''''''
17. 2
''''''''' 42. 5
'''''''''
18. 3
''''''''' 43. 4
'''''''''
19. 3
''''''''' 44. 1
'''''''''
20. 4 '' 45.
''''''' 5
'''''''''
21. 1
''''''''' 46. 1
'''''''''
22. 1
''''''''' 47. 4
'''''''''
23. 4
''''''''' 48. 1
'''''''''
24. 5
''''''''' 49. 2
'''''''''
25. 4 '' 50.
''''''' 2
'''''''''
Each correct answer carries 02 marks, amounting the total to 100.

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2.1.5 Overall observations, conclusions and suggestions regarding the answers to the
Question paper I.
More than 70% of the candidates had selected the correct choices (keys) of the questions
1, 2, 3, 6, 8, 12 and 27 of the question paper I.
Out of those, the questions 1, 2, 12 and 27 were set based on the fundamental principles.
Comprehension of those fundamental principles accurately by the students has been the cause for
increasing the students' achievement related to these questions.
The possibility of getting the correct answer by using diagrams or by simple calculations
using a formula has increased the students' achievement for the questions 3, 6 and 8. It is
necessary to pay much attention in the classroom to make students comprehend the fundamental
principles accurately.
Less than 30% of the candidates have been able to select the correct choices for the questions
24, 34, 38, 39, 43, 46, 48 and 50.
Only 9% of the students have carefully read the given statements and logically selected the
correct choice for the 34th question which had been set from ‘Thermometry’. The students have
shown the lowest performance for this question of the paper I. Achievement of the students can be
improved by practising them to answer the questions of this type, logically.
The percentage of students who have selected the correct choice for the 24th question related
to the ‘Conservation of Angular Momentum’ is 17%. High achievement could be obtained by
making the students practise to apply the learnt principle in practical applications.
The percentage of students who have selected the correct choice for the 43rd question related
to ‘Relative Velocity’ is 19%. The correct choice could have been obtained by working out the
calculation of velocity of the sand particle considering the total movement of the wheel and by
paying attention to the given choices.
The questions 38 and 39 belonging to the unit ‘Electronics’ have shown low achievement levels
that of 29% and 23% respectively. The low levels of students' understanding in practical applications
of electronics has caused for these failures. It is necessary to guide the students, to pay their attention
to practical activities in order to be successful in answering this type of questions successfully.
The percentage of students who have selected the correct option for the 50th question which
is related to ‘Current Electricity’ is 21%. In this question, it is expected to find the equivalent
resistance of a circuit including variable resistors and to identify the change of the current vs the
linear variation of the resistance.
The percentage of students who have correctly responded to the 46th question is 24%. In
this question, the conclusions must have been drawn through logical thinking. It is necessary to
understand that in the first instance, the constant temperature in the graph corresponds to the state
change of transforming water into ice, and in the second instance, the constant temperature in the
graph which is lower than the previous value, represents the state that the temperature of the whole
system exists at a constant value and then all the water in the system has been transformed into ice
and all the ice is at the same temperature.
The percentage of students who have correctly responded to the 48th question is 23%. This
question seems to be difficult because many students have not understood that the answer could have
been obtained easily by finding the equivalent capacity of two capacitors connected in parallel.
The percentage of students who have correctly responded to the 21st question is 35%. This
question is based on a number of theories. It has been difficult for the students to understand the
theories required to apply in each case. The students could be guided to understand the question
and apply the corresponding theories in each case appropriately.
The number of students who have correctly responded to the 16th question is 36%. This is a
simple question set on fundamental theories of the last unit of the syllabus. It is necessary for the
students to learn the last unit of the syllabus and try out the questions based on it.
The teachers' guidance is essential to direct students to read and understand each of the
questions in paper I completely and comprehend the information provided by diagrams, graphs
and statements accurately based on theories and concepts.

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2.2 Paper II and information on answers

2.2.1 Structure of the paper II

Allotted time is 03 hours.

This question paper consists of two parts, Structured Essay and Essay.

− Part A Four structured essay type questions. All questions should be

answered. Each question carries 10 marks. Altogether 40 marks.

Part B − Six essay type questions. Four questions should be answered.

Each question carries 15 marks. Altogether 60 marks.

Calculation of total marks for Paper II − Marks for part A = 40

Marks for part B = 60

Total marks for Paper II = 100

- 24 -
2.2.2 Expected answers, scheme of marking, observations on the responses, conclusions and
suggestions related to question paper II :

Ú Observations for answers to paper II are based on graphs 2, 3, 4.1, 4.2 and 4.3.

Part A - Structured Essay

(1) Length [Say (x1)]

(2) Breadth/Width [Say (x2)]
(3) Depth OR Height [Say (x3)]
(01 mark)
(Measurements can be stated in any order) (All three are correct)

Depth OR Height OR x3 or any other appropriate variable

The zero mark of the foot ruler does not coincide with its edge OR there is a gap
between the zero mark and the edge of the foot ruler OR fractional error/ error of the
height measurement is large (01 mark)

(Identification of the measurement correctly)

V0 = x1 x2 x3 − V (01 mark)

Volume of water occupied above the brim level is less,

OR Error or Fractional error (or uncertainty) in V measurement,
OR in V0 , is low
(01 mark)

- 25 -
 Mass of the stone OR weight (say p) (01 mark)

p p
d0 = OR d0 = (01 mark)
x1 x2 x3 − V V0
(No marks if weight is given as the answer under (c) (i), however the mark will be
awarded if p is divided by 10 or g)

(1) Construct a rectangular structure (OR frame OR a box) enclosing the rock
(a structure drawn on the above figure can be accepted)
(2) Measure its dimensions (OR volume)
(3) Fill in the remaining volume with (a measured amount of) sand
[(4) Volume of the rock = Volume enclosed by the structure - Volume of sand]

[For steps (1), (2), and (3)] (01 mark)

Construct a (small wooden) box with a known volume (01 mark)

Density of the rock (material) (01 mark)

Take a small sample/piece or part of the rock material and do the experiment described
above (or any other acceptable method) to find the density of the rock material
(01 mark)

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 Thermometer
Chemical balance OR Electronic balance OR Three-beam balance OR Four beam balance
(Both correct) (01 mark)
(Blotting papers, Stirrer with a mesh)
(No marks for ‘Balance’ OR ‘Spring balance’)

Start the experiment with water having a temperature higher than the room temperature
by a few degrees, (OR 5 degrees) and add ice until the temperature drops below the room
temperature by the same number of degrees (01 mark)
(Lag the Calorimeter)

(i) initial temperature of water

}
: 34.5 °C

(ii) minimum temperature of water : 25.5 °C
OR
34 °C
26°C
} (01 mark)
(Both correct)
OR any initial temperature ≥ 34 °C and < 35 °C
any minimum temperature > 25 °C and ≤ 26 °C
Give reasons,
Under this condition heat absorbed form surroundings (or room)
is equal to (or compensated with) (01 mark)
the heat given out to surroundings OR
no net absorption of heat from the surroundings OR (Any one reason)
to avoid the formation of dew

(d) List all the experimental measurements that you would take before adding ice.

Mass of the empty calorimeter plus stirrer

Mass of the calorimeter with stirrer plus water
Initial temperature of water
(Any order ; All correct) (01 mark)

Preparing : Break the ice cube into small pieces and mop (OR wipe/dry) them with a
blotting (filter) paper (01 mark)
Adding : Add and dissolve one piece at a time
(Without splashing water) (01 mark)
Mixing : Mix with a stirrer having a mesh OR keep the piece of ice under water all
the time (01 mark)

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Minimum temperature of water / mixture / system
Mass of the calorimeter and its contents
(Both correct) (01 mark)

Since the latent heat of ice is large, the amount of ice needed will be small (i.e mass of ice,
M = M2 − M1 is small), and therefore error (fractional error) associated with the mass
measurement of ice is large (01 mark)

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 E

At least any two of the rays as drawn above

(No need to draw the image, but the two rays should be extended until they meet each
other; An arrow should be marked at least on one of the rays) (01 mark)

Screen placed to the left of P1 as shown (01 mark)

To obtain a clear view OR To avoid obstructions from other objects (for a clear view) OR
To view the image of P1 clearly OR To view only P2 and the image of P1
[This mark is awarded even if part (b) (i) is incorrect or not answered] (01 mark)

Position of the eye marked (E) / the symbol of eye drawn on the principal axis and to
the right of the image of P1 OR to right of the position where the two rays intersect
(01 mark)

(When the eye is moved) there should not be any relative movement between (tips of)
P2 and the image of P1 OR P2 and the image of P1 move together (01 mark)

- 31 -
 F F

P3 P1 / P2

Placing P1 (or P2) and P3 (taller pin) as shown

(P1 or P2 should be placed between F and the optical center; P3 should be placed to the left
of P1 or P2 ; the exact location of P3 is not needed; Disregard the actual position of the tip
of P1 $ P2) (01 mark)

1
V

1
U

The straight line graph as shown; labeling the axes correctly.

(For both parts of the answer) (01 mark)

1 (01 mark)

1
intercept (01 mark)
(No mark for writing the intercept)

Yes
(For real images) U and V values can be interchanged with each other OR When a certain
V value becomes U, the corresponding U value will become V OR Due to the principle of
reversibility of light (01 mark)

- 32 -
 Item 4 (01 mark)

Item 1 (01 mark)

(If the connections of the appropriate items to the circuit have been drawn, they are
considered as correct.)

(i) Balance length with S open

OR balance length when current is not flowing from cell E (01 mark)
(ii) Balance length with S closed
OR balance length when current is flowing from cell E (01 mark)

E = k l1 OR E ∝ l1 or 90 (01 mark)
ER ER or
= k l2 OR ∝ l2 80 (01 mark)
R+r R+r
E 90
[ OR ER / (R + r) = 02 mark]
80

(l1 − l2)
r = R
l2
= 5 (90 − 80)
80

= 0.625 Ω (01 mark)

- 34 -
The balance length with S open
This is the larger balance length
(For both correct) (01 mark)

R1 (01 mark)

A less accurate value,

Because the error (or fractional error) in the (l1 − l2) measurement is large
OR the measurements of l1 and l2 will be almost the same
OR the measurement of l1 will be approximately equal to that of l2
OR the difference between the measurements of l1 and l2 will be small.
(For any reason) (01 mark)

- 35 -
 PART B − Eassy

5. (a) (i) Acceleration =

0.1
2

= 0.05 m s−2 (01 mark)
(ii) Using F = ma, (01 mark)
F − 0.1 × 10 = 0.1 × 0.05 (01 mark)
F = 1.005 N (01 mark)

(iii) Acceleration = − 0.05 m s−2

F − 0.1 × 10 = − 0.1 × 0.05
F = 0.995 N (01 mark)
Direction is upward. (OR an arrow pointing upwards) (01 mark)

- 37 -
 (iv) Using F = ma,
1.2 − 0.1 × 10 = 0.1 a (01 mark)
a = 2 m s−2

Using s = 1 a t 2,
2

s = 1 × 2 × (0.5) 2
2

= 0.25 m (01 mark)

(b) (i) Angular acceleration =

0.5 (01 mark)
4

= 0.125 rad s−2
Torque = 0.01 × 0.125
= 0.00125 N m (01 mark)

(ii) Angle of rotation = 1 × 0.5 × 8 (OR 2 × 1 × 0.125 × 42)

2 2

= 2 rad (01 mark)

(iii) Angular acceleration under maximum torque =

0.002
0.01

= 0.2 rad s−2
To perform the required operation at a minimum time, arm B would have to be rotated
at an angular acceleration of 0.2 rad s−2 during the first half of the time, and at a
deceleration of 0.2 rad s−2 during the second half.
(Identification of this as the minimum time) (01 mark)

∆ θ = 2× 1 a t
2 2
( ) 2

4∆θ
t =
√ a
4 × 3.2 2 × 1.6
t = OR t1 = (where t1 = t / 2)
√ 0.2 √ 0.2
(01 mark)
t = 8 s (01 mark)

(c) The arm will rotate anti-clock wise. This is due to conservation of angular momentum.
(For direction and reason both) (01 mark)

- 38 -
- 40 -
6. (a) (i) Velocity of sound (relative to air)
Velocity of the source (relative to air)
Velocity of the observer (relative to air) (01 mark)
(All correct)
(ii) Air is (considered to be) stationary relative to ground (01 mark)
(b) Light does not need a medium to travel OR Light travels even in vacuum
(01 mark)
(c) f = f0 (1 − b)
c c
= (1 − b) [ For applying c = f l ] (01 mark)
l l0

( )
l0 v
l = = l0 ( 1 + b) = l0 1 +
1−b c
l − l0 = l0 v
c
(01 mark)
∆l
v = c
l0
(d) (i) 500 nm and 502 nm (for both) (01 mark)

(ii) Peak with l = 500 nm OR Left peak OR peak with smaller wavelength
(01 mark)
(iii) l0 = 501 nm (01 mark)

(iv) ∆ l = 1 nm (01 mark)

(v) v =
1 × 3 × 108 = 5.988 × 105
501
v = 6 × 105 m s−1 (5.988 − 6.0) × 105 m s−1 (01 mark)
(598800 − 600000) m s−1

[501 (not 500) should be substituted for l0]
6 × 105
(vi) b =
3 × 108
b = 2 × 10−3 (0.001996 − 0.002) (01 mark)
b << 1 is justified.

(e) (i) Let m be the mass of gas.

mv2 = GmM (01 mark)

r r2
(No mark if the mass of the gas is omitted in the above equation.)
M = v r
2

G
r = 100 × 3 × 108 × 365 × 24 × 3600 (01 mark)
(For converting light years to m)
(6 × 10 ) × 100 × 3 × 10 × 365 × 24 × 3600
5 2 8
M =
6.0 × 10−11
M = 5.68 × 10 kg
39
(01 mark)
(5.65 − 5.70) × 10 kg
39

(ii) Super massive black hole (01 mark)

- 41 -
7. (a) A - Proportional limit (01 mark)
B - Elastic limit (01 mark)
C - Breaking point (01 mark)

(i) Volume of the soil = 6 × 150 × 20 (01 mark)
Mass of the soil = 6 × 150 × 20 × 3 × 103 (01 mark)
(For multiplying the volume by 3 × 103)
Weight of the soil = 5.4 × 108 N (01 mark)
(ii) Let n be the number of columns needed, then
5.4 × 108
the stress on a single column = (01 mark)
n × 30 × 30 × 10−4
(For dividing the weight by n × 30 × 30 × 10 4)
−

5.4 × 108
= 2 × 108 (01 mark)
n × 30 × 30 × 10−4

(For equating the L.H.S. to 2 × 10 )

8

5.4 × 108
n = 9 × 10−2 × 2 × 108

n = 30 (01 mark)

- 43 -
(b) (i) Young's modulus = gradient of the stress vs. strain curve (01 mark)
(For the idea)
= 2 × 1011 N m−2 (01 mark)

(ii) The corresponding strain for a stress of 2 × 108 N m 2 is 0.001 (from the graph)
−

Let L be the uncompressed height of the column, then

L − 4.995
L
= 0.001 OR [ 2 × 108
−
(L 4.995)
× L = 2 × 1011 ] (01 mark)

0.999 L = 4.995
L = 5 m (01 mark)

(c) Area of cross section of the circular column = p (15)2 ≈ 707 cm2
This area is less than 900 cm2

OR
Area of cross section of a circular column is less than that of a square column OR Area of
cross section of a square column is more than that of a circular column.
OR
For a diagram drawn as shown

(01 mark)

∴ Need more columns. (01 mark)

- 44 -
8. (a) (i) Kinetic energy gained = q V (01 mark)

1
^No mark for mv2&
2
(ii) q V =
1 mv 2 (01 mark)
2
2q V
∴ v 2 = (01 mark)
√ m

(iii) Applying S =
1 at2
2

qV
Where a = m d (01 mark)
0

qV
d0 = 1
2
( )
m d0 t
2

t = d0 2m (01 mark)
√ qV

- 46 -
 qV
(b) (i) d1 =
1
2
( )
m d0 t1
2
(01 mark)

2 m d1 d0
∴ t1 = (01 mark)
√ qV
2 m d2 d0
Similarly t2 = (01 mark)
√ qV
(Since d1 > d2, from the above expressions), t2 < t1 (01 mark)
Ion 2 reaches the mesh first.

(ii) Applying q V' =

1 mv 2
2
d1 1 mv 2
qV = (For LHS) (01 mark)
d0 2 1

qV
{Alternative Method ( Applying v 2 = u 2 + 2 a s ; v12 = 2 (01)}

md0 d1

2 q V d1
∴ v1 = (01 mark)
√ d0 m
Similarly

2 q V d2
v2 = (01 mark)
√ d0 m
(Since d1 > d2, from the above expressions,) v1 > v2 (01 mark)
Ion 1 has the higher velocity.

(iii) The detector will detect both ions simultaneously if,

t1 + s = t2 + s
(01 mark)
v1 v2

S ( v1 − v1 )
2 1
= t1 − t2

v1v2
∴ S = (t1 − t2) (01 mark)
v1 − v2

- 47 -
9. (A) (a) (i) 12 − 3 = 0.1 × R1 (01 mark)
R1 = 90 Ω (01 mark)

(ii) 12 = i × (10 + 6)
i = 0.75 A (01 mark)
Power dissipation = (0.75)2 × 10

= 5.625 W (01 mark)
Voltage across C = 0.75 × 6

= 4.5 V (01 mark)

(iii) 12 = 0.5 × (R2 + 6)

R2 = 18 Ω (01 mark)

(iv) Maximum total current = 4.85 A. Therefore, the 5 A fuse is suitable

(01 mark)
(For determining the total current and the selection of the fuse)

- 49 -
 ρl
(b) (i) Using R = , (01 mark)
A
(For the use of this equation)
1.8 × 10 × 10 × 10
−8 −3
Resistance = (01 mark)
0.3 × 10−3 × 1 × 10−3
= 6 × 10−4 Ω (01 mark)

(ii) Voltage across the strip = 6 × 10−4 × 0.1

= 6 × 10−5 V (01 mark)
Power dissipation = 6 × 10−6 W (01 mark)

(iii) Dissipated power = ms∆q

6 × 10−6 = 10 × 10−3 × 0.3 × 10−3 × 1 × 10−3 × 9 × 103 × 400 × ∆ q

(For correct substitution) (01 mark)
∆q = 5.5 × 10−4 °C (OR K) (01 mark)

(iv) (1) Larger width reduces resistance (and therefore reduces power dissipation)
(2) Larger width increases heat transfer to the environment OR Larger width
increases area exposed to air (01 mark)
(both correct)

- 50 -
 (i)

- 52 -
9. (B) (a)
A B F
0 0 0
0 1 0
1 0 0
(01 mark)
1 1 1

A B F0
(b) (i) A
0 0 1 F0
B
0 1 0
1 0 0 (01 mark)
1
1 1 (For the truth table)

(ii) Truth table shows that F0 = 1 only when A = 0 and B = 0, and it is zero under all
other combinations (01 mark)

(c) (i) A
B F0 (01 mark)
E

(ii) A A B E F0
A B E F0
B F0
E 0 0 1 1 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 0 0 1 0 0
1 0 1 0 1 0 0 0
1 1 1 0 1 1 0 0
Truth table 1 Truth table 2
For correctly drawing the truth table 1 (01 mark)
For correctly drawing the truth table 2 (01 mark)

Above tables show that the truth table 1 is identical to the truth table given under
b (i) when E = 1

A (d)

B F1
(01 mark)
E

A (e) (i)

B F2

E (01 mark)

(ii) A
B F3
(01 mark)
E

- 53 -
 (f)
F0

(02 mark)
F1
(01 mark is awarded for correct
interconnections even when the
sub circuits are wrong)
F2

F1
F3

A B E The connections shown above are

also accepted as correct.

F0
(g) (i) A Fan
F1
Kettle
B F2
Motor
E F3

}
Heater (01 mark)

Input conditions to operate the fan ( A = 0, B = 0, E = 1

Input conditions to operate the Kettle ( A = 0, B = 1, E = 1 (02 mark)
Input conditions to operate the Motor ( A = 1, B = 0, E = 1 (All 4 correct - 02,
Input conditions to operate the Heater ( A = 1, B = 1, E = 1 any 3 correct - 01)

(Devices can be connected to block diagram in any order, but the appropriate input
conditions should be given in order to earn the marks)

(ii) Keep E = 0 (01 mark)

- 54 -
10.(A) (a) (i) ∆ Q = m s ∆ q OR Q = m s q (01 mark)

40 × 4200 × ∆ q = 1000 × 7 × 60 × 4
1000 × 7 × 60 × 4 (01 mark)
∆ q =
40 × 4200
= 10 °C (01 mark)

- 56 -
 (ii) Vq = V0 (1 + g q) (01 mark)
m m m
Using r = = (1 + g q)
V rq r0
r0
rq = (01 mark)
1+gq

(iii) Since rq < r0 " water will rise (01 mark)

Q
(b) (i) m s q = ×t
t
6000 × 4200 × (90 − 30) (01 mark)
t =
1000 × 4
= 378000 s OR 6300 min. OR 105 h (01 mark)

(ii) rq = 1544 (01 mark)

1 + 4 × 10−4 × 90

= 1500 kg m−3 (01 mark)

(iii) This density is greater than the density of pure water at 30 °C.
Therefore, water will not rise to the top layer (01 mark)
[If a wrong value is obtained for rq, no mark is awarded for part (b)(iii)]

(iv) 1. Amount of heat stored = 6000 × 4200 × (90 − 30)

= 1.512 × 109 J (01 mark)

2. (i) To produce hot water by circulating (cold) water through (copper) tubes
(which are laid in the bottom layer) OR
(ii) To generate electricity (by operating thermoelectric devices) using the
temperature difference between bottom and the top layers
(01 mark)
(Any one of the methods)
Q kA∆q (01 mark)
(v) Using =
t l
Rate of heat loss per unit area
−
= 0.01 × (90 40)
0.1
= 5 W m−2 (01 mark)
(With the correct unit)

- 57 -
 h (01 mark)
10.(B) (a) (i) l =
p
p2 (01 mark)
(ii) E =
2m
(or E =
1 mv 2 and p = mv)
2

l =
h (01 mark)
√2mE

(b) (i) E =
3 k T (01 mark)
2

(ii) l =
h (01 mark)
√3mkT
6.6 × 10−34
(iii) l = (01 mark)
√3 × 6 × 10−27
× 1.4 × 10 −23
× 300 (For correct substitution)

l = 6.6 × 10−34
√9 × 8.4 × 10−48

l =
9 [
6.6 × 10−34 × 1024 6.6 × 10−10
9
] (01 mark)

l = 7.3 × 10−11 (7.3 × 10−11 to 7.6 × 10−11) m (01 mark)

- 59 -
 (iv) Applying
P V = N k T (01 mark)
105 Na3 = N k T (01 mark)
1.4 × 10−23 × 300
a3 =
105
3
a = √ 42 × 10−9 (01 mark)
a = 3.5 × 10−9 m

(v) Yes, (can be treated as particles) (01 mark)

l < a [ (Mean) de Broglie wavelength is less than the (mean) distance between
the atoms ] (01 mark)

[ ]
1
(vi)
h = kT' 3
(01 mark)

[ ]
√3mkT' 105
5 5 5
5 3 3 6
h × 10 h × 10
T' = OR T' =
6
OR
5 5
6 6
√3m × k √3m × k

[ ]
1
h6 × 1010 5
T' = (01 mark)
27m3 k5

- 60 -
 Part III
3. Facts to be considered when answering questions and suggestions :
3.1. Facts to be considered when answering :

General instructions :

* Basic Instructions given in the question paper must be carefully read and understood
before starting to answer. The facts such as how many questions have to be answered,
which questions are compulsory, the period of time allocated and the amount of marks
allotted must be taken into account and before selecting the questions, these things should
be clearly read and understood.

* For each of the questions in paper I, only one most appropriate answer must be selected
and only one cross must be marked clearly on the answer sheet.

* The answers for each major question of paper II must be started at the top of a new
page.

* Answers must be in clear hand writing.

* Index Number of the candidate must be written at the relevant place of each page.

* The Number of Question, its parts and the sub-part must be indicated accurately.

* Extensive answers must not be given where precise answers are expected and also short
answers are not sufficient where descriptive answers are expected.

* The facts must be submitted logically and analytically according to the form of the question.
* In answering the paper II, all the parts and subparts of the major question must be well
read and only the targeted answer for each sub-part must be written down.

* It is necessary to be accountable to manage the allotted time for each of the questions.

* Red colour pens or Green colour pens should not be used to write the answers. Only
Black or Blue pens are allowed.

Special instructions :

* The numerical values given in the questions must be used to make the simplifications
of the calculations easy.

* Diagrams must be very clearly drawn and labelled where ever necessary.

* The steps of calculations must be clearly given in the sequential order.

* The units where ever necessary must be used accurately.

* When ray-diagrams (in optics) are drawn, the directions must be indicated using arrow-heads.
* In graphs , the axes x and y must be labelled accurately and the units also must be given
where ever necessary.

- 63 -
3'2' Comments and Suggestions regarding the Learning and Teaching Process :

To improve the results through Learning, Teaching and Evaluation process :

• The teacher must initiate the teaching process having a clear understanding about
the theories and principles in physics and related phenomena which are applied in
day-to-day life.

• When the style of answering the question papers in G. C. E. (Advanced Level)

Examination is taken into account, it can be concluded that students' understanding
of the subject Physics is insufficient. Since the principles and concepts have not been
correctly formed, the weakness of inability to understand the questions accurately
is to be seen. If the scientific method is appropriately used in the teaching learning
process in the classroom, students can gain a lot of competencies.

• The students must conduct all the experiments which are recommended to be
performed in the physics laboratory individually or in groups and collect experiences
themselves. As the alternative instruments apparatus can be supplied for most of the
experiments easily, the students must be provided with opportunities to perform
experiments in the laboratories using those alternative equipment.

• Students can be easily motivated to reach the expected targets by getting them
involved in laboratory tests in the learning teaching process.

• It is more appropriate to use the modern technological resources such as computer

software, internet related web sites and instruments such as multi-media projectors
to establish the subject knowledge.

• Students must be guided to collect additional knowledge by using supplementary

books and resources related to the syllabus.

• The skills of answering questions must be developed in students by making them

engaged in working out tutorials.

- 64 -