MICROBIOLOGY, PARASITOLOGY AND PUBLIC HEALTH (RED PACOP)

1. The internationally recommended strategy for the control of tuberculosis is DOTS, which
stands for:
A. Directly Observed Short-Term Strategy
B. Directly Observed Treatment Short Course
C. Directly Observed Therapy Short Course
D. Directly Observable Standard Treatment
E. Duration of Observed Treatment Short Course

2. The five components of DOTS are the following except:

A. Sustained financial and political commitment
B. Diagnosis by quality-ensured sputum smear microscopy
C. Standardized short course anti-TB drugs given to patients as supervised by treatment
partners
D. Regular uninterrupted supply of quality anti-TB drugs
E. Supervision by DOH

3. Classification of diphtheria toxin

A. Neurotoxin
B. Cytotoxin
C. Enterotoxin
D. Endotoxin
E. Oxytoxin

4. The following are the characteristics of inflammation except:

A. Stomach ache
B. Pain at the injured site
C. Redness
D. Increase in temperature
E. Swelling

5. A graft from twin brother to sister

A. Allograft
B. Xenograft
C. Isograft
D. Autograft
E. Transgraft

6. Which is true about major histocompatibility complex (MHC)?

A. Twins do not have the same MHCs
B. Only identical twins have the same MHCs
C. Tissues that produce self-antigens
D. Not present in humans
E. Rejects T cell

7. Viruses that infect E. Coli

 A. Lytic
B. Lysogenic
C. DNA phages
D. Coliphages
E. Coliforms

8. Which of the ff. statements about Pneumocystis carinii is true?

A. Antibodies are found only in infected immunocompromised hosts
B. It is a ricketssia
C. It can cause pulmonary tuberculosis
D. Pathogenic for patients with AIDS with CD4 counts of > 800 cells/ml
E. Diagnosis is through sputum smear microscopy

9. Aspergillosis is caused by
A. Aspergillus flavus
B. Aspergilloma dictus
C. Filobasidiella sp
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
E. Adenovirus

10. Which of the ff. diseases is a primary zoonotic disease that is associated with ingestion of
contaminated milk?
A. Anthrax
B. Leptospirosis
C. Diphtheria
D. Lyme disease
E. Brucellosis

11. A group of serum proteins that act in a cascade manner resulting in microbial cell lysis,
inflammation and opsonisation.
A. Complement system
B. Phagocytes
C. Lymphatic system
D. Interferons
E. Natural killer cells

12. Antibody that is produced first in response to a primary infection

A. IgG
B. IgA
C. IgM
D. IgD
E. IgE

13. Antibody present in breastmilk

A. IgG
B. IgA
 C. IgM
D. IgD
E. IgE

14. Type of immunity resulting from vaccination

A. Naturally acquired passive immunity
B. Naturally acquired active immunity
C. Artificially acquired passive immunity
D. Artificially acquired active immunity
E. Adaptive immunity

15. A confirmatory test for HIV infection

A. ELISA
B. Southern Blot Technique
C. Western Blot Technique
D. Immunophoresis
E. Immunofluorescence

16. Effective sterilization of a dental instrument used in a patient reported to be infected with
AIDS, requires which of the ff. conditions:
A. Open flame
B. 100 °C for 10 mins.
C. 70% alcohol solution
D. 3% H2O2 solution

17. Ionizing radiation inactivates vegetative bacteria by:

A. Driving away electrons & splitting the molecules into atoms or groups
B. Inducing thymine dimmers
C. Denaturing nucleoproteins
D. Cross-linking sugar groups
E. Inducing double-stranded breaks in DNA

18. An effective membrane pore size necessary to filter out most rigid bacteria is approximately
A. 25 µm
B. 10 µm
C. 1 µm
D. 0.02 µm
E. 0.20 µm

19. A laboratory method used to show induced mutation

A. Plate replication’
B. Ames test
C. Replica plating
D. Velvet disk replication
E. Plaque assay
20. Process of gene transfer responsible for antibiotic resistance
A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Transposon insertion
D. Frameshift mutation
E. Both A & C

21. Algicide used in swimming pools

A. Crystal violet
B. Gentian violet
C. Cupric sulfate
D. Methylene blue
E. Ferric oxide

22. Lysol has a phenol coefficient of 5.0 against Staphylococcus aureus. On the other hand,
Formalin has a 0.5 phenol coefficient. Which of the statements below is incorrect?
A. Lysol is half as effective as Formalin
B. Lysol is 4.5 times more effective than Formalin
C. Formalin is twice more effective than phenol
D. Formalin is half as effective as phenol
E. Formalin is 5x better than Lysol

23. A change in the DNA which results in an insertion or deletion of one or more bases
A. Frameshift mutation
B. Point mutation
C. Nonsense mutation
D. Spontaneous mutation
E. Induced mutation

24. A stop codon that signals the end of protein synthesis is

A. UUA
B. UAG
C. UGG
D. GAG
E. AUG

25. What will be the transcribed sequence for the ff. DNA sequence of a gene – GACCTGCAT?
A. CTGGACGTU
B. CUGGUGCUA
C. CTGGUCGTA
D. CUGGACGUA
E. CTGGUCGUA

26. Bacterial genes that may code for drug resistance:

A. R factors
B. F factors
 C. Plasmid-encoded toxins
D. Dissimilation plasmids
E. Bacteriocins

27. Which antibiotic acts on the 30S ribosomal subunit of bacteria and interferes with the binding
of tRNA to ribosomes?
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Streptomycin
C. Clindamycin
D. Erythromycin
E. Lincosamide

28. Any mutant microorganism with a nutritional requirement that is absent in the parent
microorganism is known as
A. Mesotroph
B. Phototroph
C. Auxotroph
D. Psychrotroph
E. Halotroph

29. The following is the bacterium used in the Ames test:

A. Salmonella typhi
B. Escherichia coli
C. Bacillus subtilis
D. Staphylococcus aureus
E. Auxotrophic Salmonella typhimurium

30. Small segments of DNA that can move from one region of a DNA molecule to another.
A. Plasmids
B. Genes
C. F factors
D. Transposons
E. R factors

31. The first chemotherapeutic agent effective against syphilis

A. Penicillin
B. Streptomycin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Sulfonamide
E. Salvarsan

32. The original source of penicillin discovered by Fleming was a mold known as
A. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
B. Penicillium notatum
C. Penicillium chrysogenum
D. Penicillium flavus
 E. Aspergillus flavus

33. A biotechnological technique used to treat disorders where a missing gene is inserted or a
defective one is replaced in human cells
A. Gene therapy
B. Proteomics
C. Gene transfer
D. Genomics
E. Monoclonal antibody

34. A process whereby an endospore returns to its vegetative state is known as

A. Sporulation
B. Germination
C. Sporogenesis
D. Lysis
E. Transformation

35. Net yield of ATP molecules in aerobic respiration of prokaryotes

A. 2 mols ATP/glucose mol
B. 24 mols ATP/glucose mol
C. 36 mols ATP/glucose mol
D. 38 mols ATP/glucose mol
E. 4 mols ATP/glucose mol

36. Net yield of ATP molecules arising from the complete oxidation of glucose in fungal cells
A. 2 mols ATP/ glucose mol
B. 24 mols ATP/ glucose mol
C. 36 mols ATP/ glucose mol
D. 38 mols ATP/ glucose mol
E. 4 mols ATP/ glucose mol

37. A small segment of DNA that carries genes for sex pili synthesis
A. R plasmids
B. F plasmids
C. S plasmids
D. L plasmids
E. RF plasmids

38. Gene transfer between bacteria by means of a virus

A. Transformation
B. Conjugation
C. Transposon insertion
D. Gene therapy
E. Transduction

39. These are self-replicating circular molecules of DNA carrying genes

 A. Plasmids
B. Genome
C. Nucleotides
D. Transposons
E. Bacteriocins

40. A technique where a small samples of DNA can be quickly amplified for analysis
A. Hybridoma
B. Recombinant DNA
C. Polymerase Chain Reaction
D. Cloning
E. Fluorescence

41. The relative amount of antibody in the serum is known as

A. Antigen
B. Antibody titer
C. Immunoglobulin level
D. Memory level
E. Antibody concentration

42. The following is a macrolide antibiotic

A. Azithromycin
B. Streptomycin
C. Kanamaycin
D. Gentamycin
E. Neomycin

43. The following is a streptogramin, a unique group of antibiotics

A. Streptomycin
B. Amikacin
C. Dalfopristin
D. Azithromycin
E. Clarithromycin

44. The Viridans streptococci group includes the following except:

A. Streptococcus mutans
B. Streptococcus mitis
C. Streptococcus pneumonia
D. Streptococcus salivarius
E. Streptococcus pyogenes

45. Cause of tuberculosis

A. Mycoplasma tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
C. Pseudomonas tuberculosis
D. Mycobacterium leprae
 E. Mycoplasma pneumonia

46. The enhancement of phagocytosis through coating with a complement

A. Lysis
B. Complement activation
C. Cytolysis
D. Opsonization
E. Inflammation

47. Recently discovered antimicrobial peptides produced by humans include the following
except:
A. Sideophores
B. Dermicidins
C. Defensins
D. Thrombocidins
E. Cathelicidins

48. A group of serum proteins involved in phagocytosis & lysis of bacteria

A. Neutrophils
B. Opsonins
C. Complement system
D. Immunoglobulins
E. Major histocompatibility complex

49. Fixed macrophages that protect and reside in the liver

A. Osteoclast
B. Alveolar macrophages
C. Kupffer cells
D. Histocytes
E. Sinusoids

50. The quick response of the immune system due to recall by memory cells is known as
A. Anamnestic response
B. Primary response
C. Memorable response
D. Immunologic response
E. Humoral response
‘
51. Term for programmed cell death
A. Perforin
B. Apoptosis
C. Cytolysis
D. Inflammation
E. Antigen presentation

52. Referred to as inactivated toxins that act as vaccines

 A. Exotoxins
B. Endotoxins
C. Toxoids
D. Subunit vaccines
E. Inactivated vaccines

53. Duration of immunity of rabies vaccine is

A. 2 years
B. 5 years
C. 10 years
D. 6 years
E. 20 years

54. A monoclonal antibody used to treat inflammatory conditions, such as, rheumatoid arthritis
and Crohn’s disease
A. Trastuzumab
B. Rituximab
C. Abciximab
D. Muromonab CD3
E. Infliximab

55. A complement fixation diagnostic rest for syphilis is

A. Wassermann test
B. Widal test
C. Schick test
D. Direct ELISA
E. Indirect ELISA

56. An amateur scientist who saw “animalcules” in his single-lens microscope

A. Robert Hooke
B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
C. Louis Pasteur
D. Robert Koch
E. Joseph Lister

57. His experiments on aseptic techniques disapproved the Theory of Spontaneous Generation
A. Robert Hooke
B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
C. Louis Pasteur
D. Robert Koch
E. Joseph Lister

58. Discovered the microbial causes of bacterial infections such as, anthrax and tuberculosis
A. Robert Hooke
B. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
C. Louis Pasteur
 D. Robert Koch
E. Joseph Lister

59. A sequence of experimental steps that help identify the specific microbe that caused a
specific disease.
A. Germ Theory of Disease
B. Koch’s postulates
C. Theory of Spontaneous Generation
D. Theory of Immunity
E. Transformation of Postulates

60. Coined the term “chemotherapy” and was among the first scientists who searched for the
“magic bullet”.
A. Paul Ehrlich
B. Alexander Fleming
C. Selman Waksman
D. George Domagk
E. Heide Schulz

61. The bacterium that can be used as an agricultural pest control

A. Escherichia coli
B. Balantidium coli
C. Penicillin notatum
D. Aspergillus flavus
E. Bacillus thuringiensis

62. Collective term for microbes on and inside human bodies

A. Microbial count
B. Too numerous to count
C. Normal microbiota
D. Microbiofilm
E. Biological flora

63. Term for new or changing diseases that are increasing or have the potential to increase in
incidence in the near future
A. Neglected Diseases
B. Emerging infectious diseases
C. Non-emerging infectious diseases
D. Rare diseases
E. Degenerative diseases

64. The cause of avian influenza A is

A. H5N1 virus
B. H1N1 virus
C. H1N3 virus
 D. H3N1 virus
E. HIV

65. Which of the following is n example of bioremediation?

A. Application of oil-degrading bacteria to an oil spill
B. Application of bacteria to a crop to prevent frost damage
C. Fixation of gaseous nitrogen into usable nitrogen
D. Production by bacteria of a human protein like interferon
E. All of the above.

66. The movement of eukaryotic cytoplasm from one part of the cell to another which helps
distribute nutrients is
A. Brownian movement
B. True motility
C. Pseudo motility
D. Cellular motility
E. Cytoplasmic streaming

67. Cause of Lyme disease

A. Borrelia burgdorferi
B. Candida albicans
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Limulus polyphemus
E. Treponema pallidum

68. A method used to identify bacteria in a sample without culturing the bacteria
A. Flow cytometry
B. Phage typing
C. Immunofluorescence
D. Fluorescent in situ Hybridization
E. ELISA

69. A reference for taxonomic classification scheme for prokaryotes

A. Laboratory Guide in Microbiology
B. Pharmaceutical Microbiology
C. Botanical taxonomy
D. Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology
E. Bergey’s Manual of Determinative Bacteriology

70. A reference for the identification of bacteria based on criteria, such as, morphology, cell wall
composition, oxygen requirements etc.
A. Laboratory Guide in Microbiology
B. Pharmaceutical Microbiology
C. Botanical Taxonomy
D. Bergey’s Manual of Systematic Bacteriology
E. Bergey’s Manual of Determinative Bacteriology
71. Founder of the five-kingdom system where the prokaryotes were placed in Kingdom
Prokaryotae and eucaryotes compromised the other four kingdoms,
A. Carolus Linnaeus
B. Robert Murray
C. Carl Woese
D. Robert Whittaker
E. Charles Darwin

72. The following are true about viruses except

A. Has a single type of nucleic acid, either DNA or RNA
B. Multiply only inside living host cells
C. Considered obligate intracellular parasites
D. Contains a protein coat that surrounds the nucleic acid
E. Can be infected by bacteria

73. Protein coat that protects the nucleic acid of a virus

A. Plasmid
B. Capsid
C. Capsomere
D. Envelope
E. Spike

74. The following are steps in the occurrence of inflammation except:

A. Tissue response
B. Production of interferon
C. Phagocyte migration
D. Tissue repair
E. Vasodilation

75. The following are involved in the increase in abnormally high body temperature or fever
except:
A. Endotoxins
B. Exotoxins
C. Lipopolysaccharides
D. Interleukin-1
E. TNF-α

76. The following are RNA viruses except

A. HIV
B. Flu virus
C. Rabies
D. Chicken pox virus
E. Ebola virus

77. The following are DNA viruses except

 A. HAV
B. Shingles virus
C. HBV
D. Herpes simplex type 2 virus
E. Herpes simplex type 1 virus

78. Type 1 hypersensitivity reactions that occur immediately upon re-exposure of a sensitized
individual to an antigen
A. Delayed hypersensitivity reactions
B. Cytotoxic reactions
C. Anaphylactic reactions
D. Immune complex reactions
E. Cell-mediated reactions

79. Hemolytic disease of the newborn will occur in this condition:

A. Second or higher pregnancy of sensitized Rh(-) Mother, Rh (+) baby with an Rh(+) father
B. Second or higher pregnancy of Rh(+) mother, Rh(+) baby with an Rh(-) father
C. Second or higher pregnancy of sensitized Rh(+) Mother, Rh (+) baby with an Rh(-) father
D. Second or higher pregnancy of Rh(-) mother, Rh(+) baby with an Rh(+) father
E. Second or higher pregnancy of Rh(-) mother, Rh(+) baby with an Rh(-) father

80. The following are true about immunosuppressants except:

A. Promotes immune response to protect the transplant
B. Suppress normal immune response against transplant
C. Include monoclonal antibodies
D. Include cyclosporine
E. Blocks secretion of interleukin 2 to disrupt cell-mediated immune response.

81. Human immunodeficiency virus targets which cell in the immune system?
A. CD4+ T helper cell
B. B cell
C. CD8+B helper cell
D. CD4+ T cytotoxic cell’
E. Natural killer cell

82. A condition where antibodies cause antigens to clump together .

A. Opsonisation
B. Phagocytosis
C. Complement fixation
D. Neutralization
E. Agglutination

83. Immune response that defends the body against fungi, parasites, cancer and transplants.
A. Cell-mediated
B. Humoral
C. Antibody-mediated
 D. B cell-mediated
E. Memory B-cell mediated

84. A nosocomial pathogen that normally inhabits the skin and commonly contaminates
prosthetic devices such as, catheters and heart valves, leading to symptomatic microbemia
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermis
C. Streptococcus aureus
D. Streptococcus pyogenes
E. Streptococcus mutans

85. What is included in the indicator system of a complement fixation test?

A. Specific antibody & complement
B. Red blood cells & hemolysin
C. Heat-inactivated patient’s serum
D. Guinea pig serum
E. Rat red blood cells

86. In malaria, the form of plasmodia that is transmitted from mosquito to human is the
A. Gametocyte
B. Merozoite
C. Oocyst
D. Trophozoite
E. Sporozoite

87. A biological vector

A. Anopheles mosquito
B. Cockroach
C. Housefly
D. Aedes aegypti
E. Termite

88. In the host-parasite relationship, the mosquito vector of Plasmodium sp acts as the
A. Definitive host
B. Intermediate host
C. Parasitic host
D. Insect host
E. Pathogen

89. The following statements about resistance to antimicrobial drugs are true except:
A. Resistance to chloramphenicol is due to enzyme that acetylates the drug
B. Resistance to penicillin is due to reduced affinity of transpeptidases
C. Resistance to penicillin is known to be due to cleavage of β-lactamase
D. Resistance to tetracycline is due to an enzyme that hydrolyzes the ester linkages
E. Resistance to anti-TB drugs is due to mutation of the bacteria
90. The mechanisms of antibiotic resistance include the following except:
A. Preventing the entry of the drug to the target site within the microbial cell
B. Alteration of the drug’s target site
C. Rapid entry of the antibiotic to the cell
D. Inactivation of the drug by microbial enzymes
E. Mutation of the bacteria due to antibiotic misuse

91. This pathogen is a commen cause of nosocomial infections

A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Bacillus subtilis
C. Salmonella cerevisiae
D. Clostridium tetani
E. Rabies virus

92. According to the Center for Disease Control and Prevention, the single most important
means of preventing the spread of nosocomial infection is
A. Education on microbial control
B. Disinfection of hospital instruments and devices
C. Use of hand gel
D. Handwashing
E. Placing face masks on al infected patients

93. The following are emerging infectious diseases starting year 2000 except:
A. H1N1 influenza
B. HIV-AIDS
C. Anthrax
D. Chagas disease
E. Whooping cough

94. Emerging infectious diseases can be due to

A. Climatic changes
B. Too many vaccines
C. Inefficient case reporting
D. Rational antibiotic use
E. Surveillance of DOH

95. A continuous source of the diseases organism is known as the

A. Carrier
B. Reservoir of infection
C. Deep wells
D. Hospital
E. Secondary use
96. The interval between initial infection and the first appearance of any signs or symptoms is
known as
A. Prodromal period
B. Infection period
 C. Incubation period
D. Period if illness
E. Period of convalescence

97. Time period that the person regains strength from infection and the body returns to its pre-
diseased state
A. Prodromal period
B. Infection period
C. Incubation period
D. Period of illness
E. Period of convalescence

98. A relatively short period of occurrence of disease characterized by early mild symptoms of
the disease, such as, body ache, headache and malaise.
A. Prodromal period
B. Infection period
C. Incubation period
D. Period of illness
E. Period of convalescence’

99. Rabies virus is transmitted to humans through

A. Direct contact transmission
B. Indirect contact transmission
C. Droplet transmission
D. Vehicle transmission
E. Mechanical ventilator transmission

100. Congenital infection, like rubella, occurs as a result of

A. Viral toxins crossing the placenta
B. Viral toxins impairing maternal nourishment of the fetus
C. Transplacental spread of virus and growth in the fetus
D. Autoimmune response of maternal cells against fetal tissue
E. Child naturally has the infection

101. An enzyme produced by virulent bacteria to promote the spread of the bacteria to the host
and otherwise known as the spreading factor
A. Collagenase
B. Streptokinase
C. Protease
D. Hyaluronidase
E. Hemolysin

102. Hemolysins can lyse red blood cells. Which of the following is not correct?
A. α- hemolysin produces greenish ring around bacterial colonies on blood agar plate
B. β- hemolysin produces clear ring around colonies on blood agar plate
C. γ- hemolysin produces no visible change around colonies on blood agar plate
 D. Streptococcus pyogenes has β- hemolysin
E. Staphylococcus aureus has γ- hemolysin

103. Exotoxins can lead to the following diseases except

A. Rabies
B. Tetanus
C. Diphtheria
D. Botulism
E. Cholera

104. Botulinum toxin is classified as a

A. Cytotoxin
B. Enterotoxin
C. Neurotoxin
D. Endotoxin
E. Phytotoxin

105. The endotoxin or the lipid portion of the lipopolysaccharide is called the
A. Lipid C
B. Lipid B
C. Lipid O
D. Lipid A
E. Oligosaccharide

106. A life-threatening decrease in blood pressure caused by bacteria is referred to as

A. Shock
B. Technical knock-out
C. Septic shock
D. Hypotension
E. Anemia

107. An endotoxin producing bacterium

A. Neisseria meningitidis
B. Escherichia coli
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Vibrio cholera
E. Clostridium tetani

108. Inclusion bodies produced by rabies virus

A. Syncytial bodies
B. Negri bodies
C. Black bodies
D. Interferons
E. Cytopathic areas

109. Term for the characteristic of the disease that can be observed by examining the patient
 A. Symptom
B. Syndrome
C. Observation
D. Sequelae
E. Sign

110. Term for the characteristic of the disease that can be observed or felt only by the patient
A. Symptom
B. Syndrome
C. Observation
D. Sequelae
E. Sign

111. Term for the combination of signs and symptoms that occur together and indicate a
particular disease
A. Symptom
B. Syndrome
C. Observation
D. Sequelae
E. Sign

112. An example of an acute infectious disease

A. Common cold
B. Leprosy
C. Tuberculosis
D. Diphtheria
E. Gingivitis

113. According to severity, TB may be classified as

A. Subacute and latent
B. Chronic and latent
C. Sporadic and latent
D. Chronic
E. Latent

114. A secondary infection that results from destruction of normal microflora and often follows
the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics
A. Mixed infection
B. Subclinical infection
C. Inapparent infection
D. Superinfection
E. Co-morbid infection
115. These are generally benign skin growths caused by viruses
A. Bullae
B. Warts
C. Boils
 D. Acne
E. Papules

116. A severe complication of chickenpox, influenza, and other viral diseases which affects
children and is aggravated by the use of aspirin
A. Raynaud’s phenomenon
B. Q fever
C. Reye’s syndrome
D. Rocky mountain spotted fever
E. Gray baby syndrome

117. This is the only Bacillus species that is highly pathogenic for animals and humans and is
the causative agent for anthrax
A. B stearothermophilus
B. B cereus
C. B thuringiensis
D. B subtilis
E. B anthracis

118. Lesions of the oral cavity which manifest as tiny red patches with central white specks in
patients infected with Rubeola virus
A. Erythema infectiosum
B. Macular rash
C. Fever blisters
D. Koplik’s spots
E. Negri bodies

119. During the first 10 minutes or so after injection of phage DNA, no phage can be recovered
by disrupting the infected bacterium. This is termed as:
A. Eclipse period
B. Latent period
C. Rise period
D. Burst size
E. Replication cycle

120. All are major causes of bacterial meningitis except:

A. Haemophilus influenzae
B. Neisseria meningitidis
C. Hib
D. Listeria monocytogenes
E. Streptococcus pneumoniae

121. This gram negative bacteria produces a water-soluble blue pigment, pyocyanin, and a
water-soluble fluorescent pigment, pyoverdin
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Pseudomonas mallei
 C. Pseudomonas pseudomallei
D. Pseudomonas syringae
E. Pseudomonas fluorescens

122. These bacteria differ from most other enterobacteriaceae by being mainly associated with
plants
A. Proteus
B. Erwinia
C. Shigella
D. Serratia
E. Yersinia

123. Which of the following viruses is a DNA virus?

A. Bunyaviridae
B. Adenoviridae
C. Reoviridae
D. Togaviridae
E. Orthomyxoviridae

124. The following RNA viruses are helical in shape, except:

A. Rhabdoviridae
B. Arenaviridae
C. Bunyaviridae
D. Orthomyxoviridae
E. Picornaviridae

125. A patient with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea within 5 hours after eating most likely has:
A. Shigellosis
B. Cholera
C. E. coli gastroenteritis
D. Salmonellosis
E. Staphylococcus food poisoning

126. These are nucleic acid entities of relatively low molecular weight (1.1 to 1.3 x 10 5) and
unique structure that cause several important diseases of cultivated plants. These are also
the smallest known agents of infectious disease.
A. Virion
B. Bacteriophages
C. Paschen bodies
D. Viroids
E. Oncogenes

127. The most common causative agent of genital herpes

A. HSV-1
B. HSV-2
C. HSV-3
 D. HSV-4
E. HSV-6

128. Theses are common bread molds which cause much food spoilage and grow on bread,
vegetables, fruits and other food products.
A. Mucor
B. Saccharomyces
C. Rhizopus
D. Schizosaccharomyces
E. Agaricus

129. Streptomyces griseus is the source of this antibiotic.

A. Griseofulvin
B. Streptomycin
C. Erythromycin
D. Kanamycin
E. Chlorampenicol

130. These antimicrobial drugs differ from the antibiotics in that they do not occur naturally. The
prototype of these is furfural, an aldehyde derivative.
A. Interferons
B. Tetracyclines
C. Sulfonamides
D. Nitrofurans
E. Anthramycin

131. The following organisms are good recipients of R factor from E. coli donor, except:
A. Enterobacter
B. Proteus
C. Klebsiella
D. Salmonella
E. Shigella

132. This is the first known disease for which a chemotherapeutic agent was used.
A. Mucormycosis
B. Bubonic plague
C. Syphilis
D. HSV-1
E. Gonorrhea

133. It inhibits peptidoglycan synthesis by binding D-alanyl-D-alanine group on the peptide side
chain of one of the membrane-bound intermediates.
A. Vancomycin
B. Bacitracin
C. Methicillin
D. Chlortetracycline
 E. Cycloserine

134. Because it is a structural analog of pyridoxine, or Vitamin B6 and nicotinamide, it can block
pyridoxine and nicotinamide-catalyzed reactions which may account for its antimicrobial
activity.
A. Isonicotinic Acid Hydrazide
B. Nalidixic acid
C. Isoniazid
D. A and B
E. A and C

135. This is a low-molecular weight compound which is very effective against influenza A virus
but not against influenza B virus. The incidence of influenza A infections is greatly reduced
by the use of this drug.
A. Sibromycin
B. Anthramycin
C. Sulfaguanidine
D. Acycloguanosine
E. Amantadine

136. This drug is member of the allylamine class of antimycotics and inhibits the enzyme
squalene epoxidase in fungal ergosterol biosynthesis.
A. Clotrimazole
B. Terbinafine
C. Linezolid
D. Flucytosine
E. Nalidixic acid

137. This is the commonest cause of pneumonia and still responds well to penicillin despitea
global in isolates showing reduced susceptibility to this agent.
A. Legionella pneumophila
B. Mycoplasma pneumonia
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Haemophilus influenza
E. Streptococcus pyogenes

138. The following are fungal infections of the skin and nails, except:
A. Tinea pedis
B. Tinea capitis
C. Cryptococcus neoformans
D. Tinea corporis
E. Malassezia furfur
139. This drug is thought to block the assembly of arabinogalactan polysaccharide by inhibition
of an arabinotranferase enzyme.
A. Rifampin
B. Isoniazid
 C. Pyrazinamide
D. Ethambutol
E. Streptomycin

140. These are structural analogues of PABA that competitively inhibit the incorporation of PABA
into dihydropteroic acid.
A. Sulfonamides
B. Nalidixic acid
C. Cephalosporins
D. B and C
E. A and C

141. Which of the following is not matched?

A. Antihelminthic - inhibition of cell wall synthesis
B. Antibacterial – inhibition of nucleic acid synthesis
C. Antiviral – inhibition of DNA synthesis
D. Antifungal – inhibition of mitosis
E. Antifungal – injury to plasma membrane

142. Characteristics of the causative agent of tetanus, except:

A. Gram positive
B. Produces endospores
C. Obligate aerobe
D. Transmitted through contaminated soil
E. Produces a potent neurotoxin

143. Viral disease characterized by inflammation of the parotid glands, fever, and pain during
swallowing.
A. Tonsilitis
B. Gingivitis
C. Measles
D. Mumps
E. Typhoid fever

144. Strain of E. coli that can produce a Shigella-like dysentery.

A. Enterotoxigenic
B. Enteroinvasive
C. Enterohemmorhagic
D. Enterohemolytic
E. Enteropathogenic

145. Which of the following is not a tickborne disease?

A. Babesiosis
B. Ehrlichiosis
C. Lyme disease
 D. Relapsing fever
E. Tularemia

146. Causative agent for Undulant fever.

A. Bartonella henselae
B. Borrelia burgdorferi
C. Brucella melitensis
D. Bacillus anthracis
E. Bordetella pertussis

147. This refers to the uncontrolled proliferation of microbes in the blood.

A. Sepsis
B. Septicemia
C. Septic shock
D. Anaphylaxis
E. Bacteremia

148. This refers to inflammation of the urinary bladder.

A. Cystitis
B. Urethritis
C. Ureteritis
D. Pyelonephritis
E. Nephritis

149. Disease-causing microorganisms are called:

A. Vectors
B. Bacteria
C. Fomites
D. Pathogens
E. Toxins

150. Vector-borne diseases,except:

A. Trypanosomiasis
B. Lyme disease
C. Cryptosporidiosis
D. Yellow fever
E. Plague

151. This type of microscopy does not require fixing or staining of the specimen, and also gives
a detailed examination of internal structures in living microorganisms by using slight
variations in refractive index.
A. Phase-contrast microscopy
B. Compound light microscopy
C. Darkfield microscopy
D. Fluorescence microscopy
E. Both A and C
152. What is/are the staining method/s used to identify all bacteria in the genus Mycobacterium
and the disease producing strains of Nocardia.
A. Simple staining
B. Gram staining
C. Acid-fast bacilli
D. Negative staining
E. Both B and C

153. Which of the following dyes cannot be used in negative staining?

A. Eosin
B. Nigrosin
C. India ink
D. Safranin
E. Both A and D

154. These are organisms responsible for low temperature food spoilage.
A. Psychrotrophs
B. Psychrophiles
C. Thermophiles
D. Mesophiles
E. Both A and C

155. Which of the following elements is/are NOT needed by microbes for the synthesis of cellular
materials?
A. Nitrogen
B. Carbon
C. Sulfur
D. Phosphorus
E. None of the above

156. Which of the following enzymes neutralize/s various toxic forms of oxygen?
A. Superoxide dismuthase
B. Catalase
C. Peroxidase
D. A, B and C
E. None of the above

157. Which of the following is an obligate anaerobe?

A. Micrococcus luteus
B. Staphylococcus aureus
C. Escherichia coli
D. Clostridium perfringens
E. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

158. A type of medium with known chemical composition used for microbiological assays.
 A. Selective media
B. Differential media
C. Complex media
D. Anaerobic Media
E. Chemically defined media

159. This type of media suppresses growth of unwanted microbes and encourage growth of
desired microbes.
A. Enrichment media
B. Differential media
C. Selective media
D. Reducing media
E. Chemically defined media

160. Which of the following is an indirect method of estimating bacterial number?

A. Turbidity method
B. Serial dilution
C. Most probable number
D. Filtration
E. Direct microscopic count

161. Process of destroying vegetative pathogens but not necessarily endospores or viruses,
usually or inanimate objects.
A. Sterilization
B. Antisepsis
C. Sanitization
D. Degerming
E. Disinfection

162. Removal of transient microbes from the skin by mechanical cleansing or by the use of an
antiseptic.
A. Sterilization
B. Antisepsis
C. Sanitization
D. Degerming
E. Disinfection

163. Which of the following is/are an effective method of sterilization?

A. Refrigeration
B. Pasteurization
C. Direct flaming
D. Autoclaving
E. Both C and D

164. Chemical used for microbial control by Joseph Lister.

A. Iodine
 B. Phenol
C. Carbolic acid
D. Chlorinated Lime
E. Both B and C

165. Which of the following metals has the strongest oligodynamic action?
A. Silver
B. Mercury
C. Iron
D. Copper
E. Zinc

166. Which of the following is used as a gaseous chemosterilizer?

A. Phenol
B. Ethylene oxide
C. Ethanol
D. Ammonia
E. Benzalkonium chloride

167. Which of the following is not a spirochete?

A. Treponema
B. Leptospira
C. Vibrio
D. Borrelia
E. None of the above

168. Which of the following bacteria are spore formers?

A. Bacillus
B. Clostridium
C. Salmonella
D. Both A and B
E. Both A and C

169. Which of the following is not a gram negative facultatively anaerobic rod-shaped bacteria?
A. Escherichia
B. Salmonella
C. Shigella
D. Enterobacter
E. NOTA

170. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the genus Neisseria?

A. Diplococcic
B. Obligate anaerobe
C. Some members cause meningitis
D. Some members causes gonorrhea
E. NOTA
171. Which of the following is transmitted via the fecal-oral route?
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV
E. Both A and B

172. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Fungi?

A. Chemoheterotroph
B. Unicellular
C. Multicellular
D. Photoautotroph
E. Both B and D

173. Which of the following types of asexual spore is formed within a sac at the end of an aerial
hypha?
A. Blastospore
B. Chlamydospore
C. Endospore
D. Conidiospore
E. Arthrospore

174. Which of the following is typically observed as microscopic grapelike clusters and yellow-
pigmented colonies?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumonia
C. Clostridium botulinum
D. Neisseria gonorrhea
E. Both A and B

175. Which of the following is/are true about moist heat sterilization?
A. An autoclave can be used
B. Kills vegetative cells, spores and viruses
C. Works by coagulation of proteins
D. A and C only
E. A, B and C

176. Which of the following is true?

A. Pasteurization is a form of sterilization
B. Dry heat destroys cells by oxidation
C. Filtration cannot be used for sterilization
D. Lyophilization involves desiccation in high temperature
E. NOTA
177. Which of the following is the preferred method of sterilizing liquids containing toxins,
vaccines and enzymes?
A. Pasteurization
B. Autoclaving
C. Filtration
D. Refrigeration
E. NOTA

178. Which type of media is used to grow obligate anaerobes?

A. Complex media
B. Enrichment media
C. Differential media
D. Selective media
E. Reducing media

179. Aerobes contain this enzyme which converts superoxide to oxygen and hydrogen peroxide.
A. Catalase
B. Superoxide dismutase
C. Peroxidase
D. Both B and C
E. NOTA

180. This group of anaerobes can grow in the presence of oxygen and are not usually harmed
by its presence in the environment.
A. Strict anaerobes
B. Obligate anaerobes
C. Aerotolerant anaerobes
D. Facultative aerobes
E. Both A and B

181. These microorganisms have an optimal growth between -5°C and 20°C and which can be
found in the supercooled waters of the arctic and Antarctic.
A. Psychrophiles
B. Mesophiles
C. Thermophiles
D. Hyperthermophiles
E. NOTA

182. This is the time required to kill a suspension of cells or spores at a given temperature.
A. Thermal death point
B. Thermal death time
C. Burst size
D. Incubation period
E. Triple death point

183. This is also known as Mixed-Acid Fermentation.

 A. Voges-Proskauer test
B. Citrate test
C. Methyl red test
D. 2,3 – Butanediol Fermentation test
E. Both A and D

184. The bacteria that are mixed-acid fermenters generally produce gas because they elaborate
this enzyme which splits formic acid to produce CO2 and H2O.
A. Formic hydrogenylase
B. Nitrate reductase
C. Formicase
D. Catalase
E. NOTA

185. This is a multiple test medium that will detect the fermentation of glucose and lactose and
the production of hydrogen sulphide resulting from the breakdown of the amino acid
cysteine.
A. SIM medium
B. Litmus Milk
C. Hydrogen sulfide
D. Kligler’s Iron Agar
E. NOTA

186. In Reductase Test using milk, the time it takes for methylene blue to become colorless is
the:
A. Methylene blue oxidation time
B. Methylene blue reaction time
C. Methylene blue catalysis time
D. Methylene blue reduction time
E. Methylene blue disappearance time

187. These are indicator bacteria which are found in the intestines of humans and warm-blooded
animals, ferment lactose to produce acid and gas, and its presence in water suggests the
potential for disease. Examples of such organisms are E. coli and Enterobacter aerogenes.
A. Enterics
B. Coliforms
C. Colony forming units
D. Enterococcus
E. NOTA

188. Also known as Ziehl-Neelsen Method:

A. Gram staining
B. Simple staining
C. Acid-fast staining
D. Negative staining
E. Capsular staining
189. Which of the following organisms can be identified using the answer in number 188?
A. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
B. Mycobacterium leprae
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Both A and C
E. Both B and C

190. Property of an ideal antimicrobial agent

A. Production of drug resistance
B. Selective toxicity
C. Toxic to the host cell
D. Broad spectrum of activity
E. Produces hypersensitivity

191. Drugs that inhibit the 50s portion of the bacterial ribosome, except:
A. Streptomycin
B. Erythromycin
C. Chloramphenicol
D. Quinupristin
E. Clindamycin

192. Microbial source of tetracycline:

A. Streptomyces erythreus
B. Streptomyces griseus
C. Streptomyces aureofaciens
D. Streptomyces nodosus
E. Streptomyces roseosporus

193. Co-trimoxazole is a combination of:

A. Sulfamethoxazole and clavulanic acid
B. Sulfathiazole and trimethoprim
C. Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim
D. Sulfathiazole and clavulanic acid
E. None of the above

194. Fluoroquinolones exert their antimicrobial action by inhibiting:

A. Topoisomerase I
B. Topoisomerase II
C. Topoisomerase IV
D. A &B
E. B &C

195. Trimethoprim is an inhibitor of which enzyme:

A. Dihydropteroate synthase
B. Dihydrofolate synthase
 C. Dihydropteroate reductase
D. Dihydrofolate reductase
E. None of the above

196. A synthetic antifungal agent which inhibits squalene epoxidase:

A. Griseofulvin
B. Amphotericin B
C. Terbinafine
D. Fluconazole
E. Caspofungin

197. Which of the following drugs is most resistant to the action of penicillinase?
A. Methicillin
B. Amoxicillin
C. Benzathine penicillin
D. Ticarcillin
E. Mezlocillin

198. The role of cilastatin sodium when combined with imipenem is:
A. It protects against the action of beta-lactamase
B. It prevents degradation of imipenem in the kidneys
C. It exerts antimicrobial action to broaden the spectrum of activity
D. It potentiates the antimicrobial action imipenem
E. It facilitates the absorption of imipenem

199. The following aminoglycosides are derived from Streptomyces, except:

A. Streptomycin
B. Tobramycin
C. Gentamicin
D. Neomycin
E. Spectinomycin

200. This specie of Plasmodium causes the most dangerous form of malaria.
A. P. falciparum
B. P. ovale
C. P. vivax
D. P. malariae
E. None of the above

201. Refers to a continuum of learning which enables people, as individuals and as members of
social structures, to voluntarily make decisions, modify behaviors and change social
conditions in ways which are health financing.
A. Health promotion
B. Health education
C. Health perception
D. Health behavior
 E. Health beliefs

202. Refers to the aggregate of all purposeful activities designed to improve personal and public
health through a combination of strategies.
A. Health promotion
B. Health education
C. Health perception
D. Health behavior
E. Health beliefs

203. The health behavior model that explains that health behavior affects and is affected by
multiple levels of influence of individual, interpersonal, institutional, community and public
policy factors, and that health behavior shapes and is shaped by the social environment.
A. Health belief model
B. Social cognitive theory
C. Transtheoretical model
D. Theory of reasoned action
E. Ecologic model

204. A health behavior model that examines perceptions of the benefits of avoiding the health
threat and factors influencing the decision to act on it.
A. Health belief model
B. Social cognitive theory
C. Transtheoretical model
D. Theory of reasoned action
E. Ecologic model

205. A health behavior model that tackles individual’s movement from one stage of behavior
change to another as their cifidence in their ability to make this change increases.
A. Health belief model
B. Social cognitive theory
C. Transtheoretical model
D. Theory of reasoned action
E. Ecologic model

206. In the Health Belief Model, these are the messages or triggers that will activate the
individual to take action.
A. Perceived susceptibility
B. Cues action
C. Perceived barriers
D. Self-efficacy
E. Contemplation

207. In the Health Belief Model, this refers to individual’s level of confidence that he/she can
successfully carry out a particular behavior.
A. Perceived susceptibility
 B. Cues action
C. Perceived barriers
D. Self-efficacy
E. Contemplation

208. A health behavior model that suggests that people make changes in their behaviors on the
basis of their belief that the intended outcome of a behavior change is positive or negative.
A. Health belief model
B. Social cognitive theory
C. Transtheoretical model
D. Theory of reasoned action
E. Ecologic model

209. In theory of planned behavior, this refers to individual’s evaluation of a behavior.

A. Subjective norm
B. Behavioral control
C. Attitude
D. Action
E. Contemplation

210. In theory of planned behavior, this refers to the individual’s perception that he/she is likely
to perform the behavior.
A. Public policy
B. Behavioral intention
C. Precontemplation
D. Perceived benefits
E. Preparation

211. In the Ottawa Charter, it is an action area for health promotion that combines diverse but
complementary approaches including legislation, fiscal measures, taxation, and
organizational change.
A. Create supportive environments
B. Strengthen community actions
C. Develop personal skills
D. Build healthy public policy
E. Reorient health services

212. In the Ottawa Charter, it is an action area which explains that health promotion should
generate living and working conditions that are safe, stimulating, satisfying and enjoyable.
A. Create supportive environments
B. Strengthen community actions
C. Develop personal skills
D. Build healthy public policy
E. Reorient health services
213. In the Ottawa Charter, it is an action area which explains that community development
draws an existing human and material resources in the community to enhance self-help and
social support, and to develop flexible systems for strengthening public participation in and
direction of health matters.
A. Create supportive environments
B. Strengthen community actions
C. Develop personal skills
D. Build healthy public policy
E. Reorient health services

214. In the Ottawa Charter, it is an action area which explains that health promotion should
support personal and social development through providing information, education for health,
and enhancing life skills.
A. Create supportive environments
B. Strengthen community actions
C. Develop personal skills
D. Build healthy public policy
E. Reorient health services

215. In the Ottawa charter, it is an action area that must lead to a change of attitude and
organization of health services which refocuses on the total needs of the individual as a
whole person.
A. Create supportive environment
B. Strengthen community actions
C. Develop personal skills
D. Build healthy public policy
E. Reorient health services

216. Defined as “ what we as a society do to assure the conditions in which people can be
healthy”.
A. Sustainability
B. Social marketing
C. Intersectoral participation
D. Public health
E. Community involvement

217. Which of the following is NOT a macro-level public health activity?

A. Community diagnosis
B. Patient-directed services
C. Policy development
D. Health planning
E. Partnership establishment

218. A spectrum of diseases arising from a diet that is poor in protein and calories, especially in
children under five.
A. Iodine deficiency disorders
 B. Marasmus
C. Protein energy malnutrition
D. Kwashiorkor
E. Xerophthalmia

219. This stems from an inadequate calorie intake due to insufficient diet, improper feeding
habits, metabolic abnormalities or congenital malformations that result to gain weight,
followed by loss of weight until emaciation occurs.
A. Iodine deficiency disorders
B. Marasmus
C. Protein energy malnutrition
D. Kwashiorkor
E. Xerophthalmia

220. Malnutrition type which is due to deprivation of sufficient quality protein foods, impaired
absorption of protein, or abnormal losses of protein from the body, which also later results to
fatty liver.
A. Iodine deficiency disorders
B. Marasmus
C. Protein energy malnutrition
D. Kwashiorkor
E. Xerophthalmia

221. The term that describes all the eye signs of Vitamin A deficiency if it reaches a critically low
level.
A. Iodine deficiency disorders
B. Marasmus
C. Protein energy malnutrition
D. Kwashiorkor
E. Xerophthalmia

222. Thyroid enlargement due to iodine deficiency.

A. Goiter
B. Anemia
C. Cretinism
D. Parasitism
E. Xerophthalmia

223. A common preventable lifelong mental and physical retardation in the fetus and infant
brought about by iodine deficiency.
A. Goiter
B. Anemia
C. Cretinism
D. Parasitism
E. Xerophthalmia
224. Causative agent for genital herpes, or the anogenital vesicular lesions and ulcerations
A. Human papilloma virus
B. Molluscum contagiosum virus
C. Phthirus pubis
D. Herpes simplex virus
E. Trichomonas vaginalis

225. Causative agent for the public lice infestation, which are commonly called “crabs”.
A. Human papilloma virus
B. Molluscum contagiosum virus
C. Phthirus pubis
D. Herpes simplex virus
E. Trichomonas vaginalis

226. Causative agent genital warts.

A. Human papilloma virus
B. Molluscum contagiosum virus
C. Phthirus pubis
D. Herpes simplex virus
E. Trichomonas vaginalis
‘
227. Causative agent of chancroid, or the painful genital ulcers which are accompanied by
inguinal swelling or “bubo”.
A. Molluscum contagiosum virus
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Haemophilus ducreyi
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
E. Klebsiella granulomatis

228. Causative agent of Granuloma inguinale, or Donovanosis.

A. Molluscum contagiosum virus
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
C. Haemophilus ducreyi
D. Trichomonas vaginalis
E. Klebsiella granulomatis

229. Refers to the death of a woman while pregnant or within 42 days of termination of
pregnancy, irrespective of the duration or site of the pregnancy, from any cause related to or
aggravated by the pregnancy or its management, but not from accidental causes.
A. Morbidity rate
B. Infant mortality
C. Maternal death
D. Mortality rate
E. Population pyramid

230. Which is not part of the Full Package in Reproductive Health?

 A. Family planning
B. Diagnosis and treatment of breast cancer
C. Antenatal care
D. Support for exclusive breastfeeding
E. None of the above

231. Which of the following is not part of the services of the Basic Emergency Obstetric and
Newborn Care (BEMONC) facility?
A. Performance of assisted deliveries in imminent breech
B. Newborn resuscitation
C. Manual removal of retained placenta
D. Administration of parenteral oxytocic drugs
E. Provision of surgical delivery (caesarian section)

232. Which of the following is not an emergency neonatal care given in a Comprehensive
Emergency Obstetric and Newborn Care (CEMONC) facility?
A. Newborn resuscitation
B. Oxygen support
C. Antenatal administration of (maternal) steroids for threatened premature delivery
D. Treatment of neonatal sepsis infection
E. None of the above

233. What is the Millennium Development Goal #5?

A. Promote gender equality
B. Improve maternal heath
C. Achieve universal primary education
D. Eradicate extreme poverty
E. Reduce child mortality

234. What is the Millennium Development Goal #4?

A. Promote gender equality
B. Improve maternal health
C. Achieve universal primary education
D. Eradicate extreme poverty
E. Reduce child mortality

235. Refers to both macronutrient deficiency and micronutrient deficiency.

A. Epidemiologic transition
B. Iceberg phenomenon
C. Wasting
D. Global malnutrition
E. Double burden

236. Refers to the observed trend that the majority of children have mild malnutrition, far fewer
have moderate malnutrition and only few have severe malnutrition.
A. Epidemiologic transition
 B. Iceberg phenomenon
C. Wasting
D. Global malnutrition
E. Double burden

237. Results from inappropriate height-for-age.

A. Wasting
B. Edema
C. Emaciation
D. Stunting
E. None of the above

238. Results from inappropriate weight-for-height

A. Wasting
B. Edema
C. Emaciation
D. Stunting
E. None of the above

239. It is the country’s first blueprint for achieving nutritional adequacy for all Filipinos which is
coordinated by the National Nutrition Council.
A. Medium-Term Philippine Plan of Action for Nutrition (MTPPAN)
B. Sangkap Pinoy Seal
C. Philippine Plan of Action for Nutrition (PPAN)
D. Early Childhood Development project
E. Safe Motherhood

240. Refers to the addition of a nutrient to a food vehicle commonly consumed by the population
to prevent or correct micronutrient deficiencies.
A. Home, School and Community Food Production
B. Food Fortification
C. Nutrition Information, Communication and Education
D. Micronutrient Supplementation
E. Food assistance

241. A national project that involves the voluntary fortification of processed foods.
A. Medium-Term Philippine Plan of Action for Nutrition (MTPPAN)
B. Sangkap Pinoy Seal
C. Maternal and Child Health
D. Early Childhood Development project
E. Safe Motherhood

242. Involves center-based complementary feeding for wasted and stunted pregnant women
with record of delivering low birthweight infants, and for young children aged 6-72 months
old.
A. Home, School and Community Food Production
 B. Food Fortification
C. Nutrition Information, Communication and Education
D. Micronutrient Supplementation
E. Food assistance

243. Refers to the promotion and maintenance of the highest degree of physical, mental and
social well-being of workers in all occupations by preventing departures from health,
controlling risks and the adaptation of work to people, and people for their jobs.
A. Ergonomics
B. Occupational health
C. Occupational hazards
D. Safety
E. Occupations

244. Refers to anything that has the potential to cause harm.

A. Accident
B. Risk
C. Danger
D. Hazard
E. Safety

245. Refers to likelihood that a particular hazard will occur.

A. Accident
B. Risk
C. Danger
D. Hazard
E. Safety

246. Results from mismanagement or misuse of chemicals resulting in an unacceptable risk to

human health.
A. Chemical hazards
B. Ergonomic hazards
C. Biologic hazards
D. Physical hazards
E. Sociologic hazards

247. Refers to those that result from living in a society where one experiences noise, lack of
privacy and overcrowding.
A. Chemical hazards
B. Ergonomic hazards
C. Biologic hazards
D. Physical hazards
E. Sociologic hazards

248. Include airborne particles, humidity, equipment design and radiation.

A. Chemical hazards
 B. Ergonomic hazards
C. Biologic hazards
D. Physical hazards
E. Sociologic hazards

249. Refers to those arising from microbial decomposition of various substrates associated with
particular occupations.
A. Chemical hazards
B. Ergonomic hazards
C. Biologic hazards
D. Physical hazards
E. Sociologic hazards

250. Refers to the science of fitting the job to the worker.

A. Ergonomics
B. Occupational health
C. Occupational hazards
D. Safety
E. Occupations

251. Which of the following drugs cannot be used to treat cases of multidrug-resistant (MDR)
tuberculosis?
A. Isoniazid and Pyrazinamide
B. Rifampicin and Ethambutol
C. Isoniazid and Rifampicin
D. Ethambutol and Pyrazinamide
E. Rifampicin and Pyrazinamide

252. Extensively drug-resistant (XDR) tuberculosis is defined as:

A. Resistance to both the first line drugs
B. Resistance to both first line drugs and at least one of the six main classes of second-line
drugs
C. Resistance to both the first line drugs and at least three of the six main classes of
second-line drugs
D. Resistance to both first line drugs and at least four of the six main classes of second-line
drugs
E. Resistance to both the first line and all of the six main classes of second-line drugs

253. Which of the following is an intracellular parasite?

A. Rickettsia
B. Mycobacterium
C. Bacillus
D. Staphylococcus
E. Streptococcus

254. This refers to ringworm infection of the scalp.

 A. Tinea capitis
B. Tinea cruris
C. Tinea pedis
D. Tinea unguium
E. Tinea versicolor

255. This type of ringworm infection is also referred to as onychomycosis.

A. Tinea capitis
B. Tinea cruris
C. Tinea pedis
D. Tinea unguium
E. Tinea versicolor

256. This disease is caused by the virus human parvovirus B19 and results in symptoms similar
to a mild case of influenza and a “slapped cheek” facial rash.
A. Exanthema subitum
B. Roseola infantum
C. Erythema multiforme
D. Erythema infectiosum
E. Shingles

257. This is an example of a subcutaneous mycosis.

A. Tinea infection
B. Rubella
C. Sporotrichosis
D. Cryptococcosis
E. Candidiasis

258. The causative agent of plague, which was known in the middle ages as the Black Death.
A. Sarcoptes scabiei
B. Yersinia pestis
C. Francisella tularensis
D. Trypanosoma cruzi
E. Bacillus anthracis

259. Malaria infection is initiated by the bite of a mosquito, which injects this form of the
protozoan into the bloodstream.
A. Sporozoite
B. Merozoite
C. Trophozoite
D. Gametocyte
E. Promastigote
260. Hepatitis C virus belongs to this family
A. Picornaviridae
B. Hepadnaviridae
C. Flaviviridae
 D. Deltaviridae
E. Caliciviridae

261. This type of hepatitis virus contains a single strand of RNA, which is not capable of causing
an infection. It becomes infectious when an external envelope of HBsAG covers the protein
core of the virus.
A. HAV
B. HBV
C. HCV
D. HDV
E. HEV

262. The following are vertically-transmitted infections,except:

A. Toxoplasmosis
B. Hepatitis B
C. Herpes simplex
D. Rubeola
E. Cytomegalovirus

263. This is a measure of the biologically degradable organic matter in water

A. BOD
B. BER
C. BID
D. GIR
E. GOD

264. This is a protein product separated from the whey by the action of rennin enzyme in certain
bacteria.
A. Cheese
B. Curd
C. Butter
D. Cream
E. Casein

265. This is made by churning cream until the fatty globules separate.
A. Cheese
B. Curd
C. Butter
D. Cream
E. Whey

266. Cell membrane damage causes death because.

A. The cell undergoes osmotic lysis
B. Cell contents leak out
C. The cell plasmolyzes
D. The cell lacks a wall
 E. None of the above

267. Chlorampenicol binds to the 50s portion of a ribosome, which will interfere with:
A. Transcription in prokaryotic cells
B. Transcription in eukaryotic cells
C. Translation in prokaryotic cells
D. Translation in eukaryotic cells
E. DNA synthesis

268. Which of the following factors does not contribute to antibiotic resistance?
A. Destruction of the plasma membrane
B. Enzymatic destruction or inactivation
C. Prevention of penetration to the target site
D. Alteration of the target site
E. Rapid efflux of the antibiotic

269. This is probably the only bacterium that grows in the peripheral nervous system.
A. Clostridium tetani
B. Clostridium botulinum
C. Mycobacterium leprae
D. Listeria monocytogenes
E. Neisseria meningitidis

270. Strongyloides stercoralis is an example of:

A. Intestinal nematode
B. Extra intestinal nematode
C. Trematode
D. Anthropods
E. NOTA

271. The following Plasmodium spp. cause/s benign tertian malaria.

A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Plasmodium ovale
D. Plasmodium malariae
E. Both B and C

272. The following Plasmodium spp. cause/s malignant tertian malaria.

A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Plasmodium ovale
D. Plasmodium malariae
E. Both B and C

273. Treatment of choice for American trypanosomiasis or Chaga’s disease:

A. Nifurtimox and Benzidazole
 B. Pyrimethamine and Sulfadiazine
C. Trimethoprim and Sulfamethoxazole
D. Metronidazole
E. Iodoquinol

274. Vector of Paragonimiasis.

A. Mosquito
B. Fly
C. Rat
D. Crab
E. Snail

275. The drug of choice for Bancroftian filariasis.

A. Pyrimethamine
B. Diethycarbamazine citrate
C. Mebendazole
D. Ivermectin
E. Praziquantel

276. The smallest tapeworm infecting humans.

A. Taenia saginata
B. Diphyllobothrium latum
C. Hymenolepsis nana
D. Hymenolepsis diminuta
E. Dipylidium caninum

277. Fasciola hepatica and F. gigantica are what type of flukes?

A. Lung flukes
B. Liver flukes
C. Blood flukes
D. Heterophyid flukes
E. Intestinal flukes

278. Vector of Hymenolepiasis.

A. Chigger mite
B. Tick
C. Flea
D. Fly
E. Crab

279. A symbiotic relationship where one organism lives in or on another, depending on the latter
for its survival and usually at the expense of the host.
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Parasitism
D. Symbiosis
 E. NOTA

280. A type of host wherein the parasite attains sexual maturity.

A. Definitive host
B. Intermediate host
C. Final host
D. Paratenic host
E. Both A and C

281. A type of host in which the parasite does not develop further to later stages. However, the
parasite remains alive and is able to infect another susceptible host.
A. Definitive host
B. Intermediate host
C. Final host
D. Paratenic host
E. Both A and C

282. A type of host which harbors the asexual or larval stage of the parasite.
A. Definitive host
B. Intermediate host
C. Final host
D. Paratenic host
E. Both A and C

283. This is defined as a permanent reduction to zero of the worldwide incidence of infection
caused by a specific agent, as a result of deliberate efforts.
A. Disease elimination
B. Disease eradication
C. Disease prevention
D. Disease reduction
E. NOTA

284. This refers to the number (usually expressed as percentage) of individuals in a population
estimated to be infected with a particular parasite species at a given time.
A. Prevalence
B. Incidence
C. Cumulative prevalence
D. Morbidity
E. NOTA

285. The drug of choice for the treatment of trichuriasis.

A. Albendazole
B. Praziquantel
C. Mebendazole
D. Metronidazole
E. Both A and B
286. Human may serve as both a definitive host and an intermediate host of this type of cestode,
therefore both intestinal and tissue infections occur in man.
A. Taenia saginata
B. Taenia solium
C. Dipylidium caninum
D. Hymenolepsis nana
E. Hymenolepsis diminuta

287. This parasite is the only human tapeworm, which can complete its entire life cycle in a
single host, indicating that it does not require an obligatory intermediate host.
A. Taenia saginata
B. Taenia solium
C. Dipylidium caninum
D. Hymenolepsis nana
E. Hymenolepsis diminuta

288. Also known as Oriental blood fluke.

A. Paragonimus westermanii
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. Clonorchis sinensis
E. Fasciolopsis buski

289. The causative agent of lung fluke disease or pulmonary distomiasism or endemic
hemoptysis or parasitic hemoptysis.
A. Paragonimus westrmani
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. Clonorchis sinensis
E. Fasciolopsis buski

290. This infection requires Oncomelania snails as intermediate hosts.

A. Paragonimus westrmani
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. Clonorchis sinensis
E. Fasciolopsis buski

291. This is an example of a parasite of the bile duct and the gallbladder of humans and fish-
eating mammals.
A. Paragonimus westrmani
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Schistosoma japonicum
D. Clonorchis sinensis
E. Fasciolopsis buski
292. The following are parasites isolated in the placenta, except:
A. Toxoplasma
B. Trypanosoma
C. Malaria
D. Trichinella
E. NOTA

293. A diagnostic technique used to recover eggs of Enterobius vermicularis and Taenia spp.
A. Scotch tape method
B. Kato katz method
C. Perianal swab
D. Direct fecal smear
E. Kato tick method

294. A routine method of stool examination primarily useful in the detection of motile protozoan
trophozoites using 0.85% NSS.
A. Scotch tape method
B. Kato katz method
C. Perianal swab
D. Direct fecal smear
E. Kato tick method

295. Technique used in detecting eggs with tick shells such as Ascaris and Trichuris, using a
mixture of glycerine and malachite green solution.
A. Scotch tape method
B. Kato katz method
C. Perianal swab
D. Direct fecal smear
E. Kato tick method

296. Common term for Enterobius vermicularis.

A. Threadworm
B. Fluke
C. Pinworm
D. Flatworm
E. Hookworm

297. Which of the following is also known as the cat hookworm?

A. Ancylostoma ceylanicum
B. Ancylostoma braziliense
C. Ancylostoma caninum
D. Ancylostoma duodenale
E. Necator americanus

298. Etiologic agent of Chaga’s disease.

 A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Trypanosoma brucei gambiense
C. Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
E. Brugia malayi

299. Which of the following is also known as the Old world hookworm?
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Ancylostoma duodenale
C. Necator americanus
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
E. Brugia malayi

300. Which of the following is also known as the New world hookworm?
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
B. Ancylostoma duodenale
C. Necator americanus
D. Wuchereria bancrofti
E. Brugia malayi