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PMP Merged

The document contains 15 multiple choice questions related to project management best practices. The questions cover topics such as stakeholder engagement, change control, risk management, resource management, and conflict resolution. The questions are designed to test a project manager's knowledge of processes and techniques for defining requirements, managing issues, and ensuring stakeholder satisfaction.

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Nelson Carvalho

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

616 views238 pages

PMP Merged

Uploaded by

Nelson Carvalho

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

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1. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager realizes that sponsor expectations are NOT being met, specifically regarding project
deliverables. To address this issue, which action should the Project Manager take?
answer choices

Update the risk register. Develop a stakeholder engagement plan.

Develop a communications management plan. Create a work breakdown structure (WBS).

2. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A customer is contemplating adding new features to the project deliverable. Before a project team
member starts working on these new features, what is a mandatory step?
answer choices

Gain approval from the Project Manager. Ensure the change control board (CCB) approves.

Gain approval from the project sponsor. Ensure key subject matter experts (SMEs) approve.

3. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project is at the planning stage of the project. The Project Manager realizes that producing a complex multi-
functional application is not feasible with the current number of resources and decides to hire more resources for
the production of the application. The Project Manager identifies and contracts temporary resources . Which risk response strategy does this scenario exemplify?
answer choices

Mitigate Transfer

Accept Avoid

4. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager has completed the following steps: -Finished a major IT deployment project. -
Confirmed with the release manager that all systems are working. -Confirmed that functionality has been
verified by the quality assurance team. -Informed the customer. What is the next step the Project
Manager should take?
answer choices

Add the lessons learned to the organization Update the risk register, stakeholders, and team
knowledge base. members.

Ensure that the procurement plan is closed out. Review, verify, and complete the release
documentation.
5. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. After realizing that there are insufficient resources on a project that has an increasingly high workload,
management outsources some major tasks to keep the project on schedule. What should the Project
Manager do in this scenario?
answer choices

Review the communications management plan. Revise the procurement management plan.

Escalate to the project sponsor. Prepare an organizational chart.

6. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project has the following need: 900 resource hours must be outsourced. Because of
internal policies, all providers must be given the same information about the requirements. Which
action should the Project Manager take to ensure this?
answer choices

Hold direct negotiations with each provider. Conduct a bidder conference with the providers.

Ensure the procurement management plan is sent Have each of the providers added to the
to each provider. stakeholder register.

7. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A company has a goal of increasing customer satisfaction within 4 months. A project is initiated to meet this goal.
 The Project Manager needs to identify best practices. What should the Project Manager
utilize to accomplish this?
answer choices

Benchmarking Interviews

Facilitation Affinity diagram

8. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A new product is released. When a customer identifies performance issues with this product, the
Project Manager realizes that cost of quality (COQ) should have been used to estimate this cost. Which
category of COQ should the Project Manager have used?
answer choices

Prevention costs. External failure costs.

Appraisal costs. Cost-benefit analysis.

9. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager is doing the following: -conducting a risk analysis based on a high-level scope,
and -using expert judgement to prepare a document. What is the Project Manager doing, based
on the description of the activity?
answer choices

Creating a project charter. Preparing a project scope statement.

Creating the project management plan. Preparing a risk management plan.

10. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project is started based on the approved scope. As the project design is being implemented, a team
member says that the product will not meet the requirements in certain situations. Correcting the issue will not
only cause an increase in scope and costs, but the project will also miss the deadline. The project
sponsors do not have additional funding to support the project. Considering this information, what
should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Conduct a risk analysis and update the project Enact the Perform Integrated Change Control
sponsor. process.

Resolve the issue to satisfy the customer. Contact the customer and negotiate for risk
acceptance.

11. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager realizes that stakeholder interests will conflict on a project and decides to utilize a stakeholder
engagement assessment matrix. The matrix pinpoints an influential stakeholder who is resistant to
the project. The Project Manager needs to align this stakeholder's expectations. What should the
Project Manager do to accomplish this goal?
answer choices

Produce a stakeholder engagement plan. Convey the stakeholder engagement plan.

Gain consensus on project objectives by meeting Ensure that the stakeholder register is complete
with all stakeholders. and updated.

12. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A medium-sized company is expanding into a new market. However, the company does not have previous
experience in that market. A Project Manager needs to collect requirements. Which two
tools or techniques should the Project Manager use?
answer choices

Prototypes. Expert judgment.

Product analysis. Create requirements traceability matrix.

13. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager has local and virtual team members for a project. To manage scheduling priority
conflicts among team members, the project manager schedules a video conference call. Which
statement is true about this scenario?
answer choices

It demonstrates the Smooth/Accommodate conflict It is an example of the Collaborate/Problem Solve

resolution technique. conflict resolution technique.

It demonstrates the Force/Direct conflict resolution It is an example of the Compromise/Reconcile

technique. conflict resolution technique.

14. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A high-level manager in an organization would like to use a critical project resource for a new project. Which action should the Project Manager take?
answer choices

Contact the program manager to resolve the issue. Request that the high-level manager provides a
replacement.

Use the Legitimate form of power to deny the Tell the team and reassign that resource's
request responsibilities to other team members.

15. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. What should the Project Manager do to gain a stakeholder's approval if the stakeholder believes a project's
deliverables were not achieved?
answer choices

Review the project scope while analyzing the Review the project charter thoroughly with this
stakeholder's needs and expectations. stakeholder on a conference call.

Ensure that the stakeholder understands the Perform a risk analysis after obtaining the
quality management plan. stakeholder's new requirements.

16. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A client's employee asks the Project Manager for an additional, new product feature during a status meeting. To what document should the Project Manager first refer to find out who has the authority to approve
this request?
answer choices

Change log. Change management plan.

Responsible, accountable, consult, and inform Change request document.

(RACI) matrix.
17. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Review the following steps. 1. A project has been successfully delivered. 2. The project manager
is executing formal closure. 3. ______________________________________. What is Step 3?
answer choices

The Project Manager should update the bid The Project Manager should obtain stakeholder
documents. acceptance.

The Project Manager should reassign the project The Project Manager should reallocate the unused
team. funds.

18. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Review the following project characteristics: -The project is in initiation. -Due to lack of funding,
the project gets terminated. -The Project Manager must close the project. What is the first action
the Project Manager should take?
answer choices

Rely on the communications management plan to Examine the organization's project closure
properly inform all stakeholders. guidelines.

Determine the potential impact of terminating the Close all project procurement processes.
project by performing a risk analysis.

19. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project has the following characteristics: -A functional manager is also a project stakeholder. -
The functional manager has time constraints and delegates project responsibilities to someone else on the
functional team. -The new stakeholder is not attending meetings. The Project Manager needs to
engage this new stakeholder. What should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Examine the project charter with the new Present the project schedule and the specific,
stakeholder and assess their level of engagement. assigned tasks to the new stakeholder.

Request that the functional manager briefs this new Ask the new stakeholder to pair with a more
stakeholder and ask that they send them to all experienced stakeholder to learn responsibilities.
relevant meetings.

20. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager is attending a periodic review with stakeholders. The project sponsor asks
the project manager how deliverables will be verified for accuracy and accepted. In which project
document is this information found?
answer choices

Scope management plan. Requirements management plan.

Quality management plan. Work performance reports.

21. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project is being planned in a remote area with limited access to vehicles and equipment. The Project Manager
proposes that the company deliver all heavy equipment themselves despite the significant expense. The Project
Manager will take full responsibility for this activity. What type of risk response is the Project Manager
demonstrating?
answer choices

Transfer Mitigate

Accept Avoid

22. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager begins to prepare the project management plan after receiving the project charter. There is currently no historical information in the project management office (PMO). What is the
next step the Project Manager should take in this scenario?
answer choices

Utilize analogous estimating. Seek advice from experts in the field.

Organize an initial kick-off call. Request that the project sponsor provides input.

23. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A marketing team is developing a new website and has agreed upon a target audience. Now the
marketing team needs to identify the target audience's style preferences. What is an appropriate tool
or technique to use for this situation?
answer choices

Focus groups Brainstorming

Product analysis Benchmarking

24. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A client brings a Project Manager into a project during the project's execution stage. The Project
Manager reviews the project scope for cost estimating purposes and notices that some deliverables were
missed in the work breakdown structure (WBS). Which step should the manager take next?
answer choices

Verify with the stakeholders to see if these missed Ask that the project management office (PMO)
deliverables should be added. approve additional funds for this work.

Include the work in the WBS, per the 100% rule, and Determine whether these deliverables are
recalculate the total project cost. necessary by verifying with experts in the field.
25. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager is working with three key stakeholders. Each stakeholder has a different vision regarding the
project and its goal. They each feel strongly about their opinion. The Project Manager needs to obtain
approval of the project charter. What should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Conduct a stakeholder analysis. Use facilitation and conflict management to ensure

the three stakeholders are in agreement.

Request that the project sponsor resolve the Use the project kick-off meeting to settle the project
conflict. goals.

26. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Review the following project characteristics: -A sponsor approves a project. -The Project Manager
invites selected team members, key stakeholders, and the sponsor to a meeting. -The primary purpose of
the meeting is to create a document that will guide the team in defining the main project deliverables. What will be the final output of this meeting?
answer choices

Milestone list. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary.

Scope management plan. Requirements management plan.

27. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project team collected sensitive client data early on in the project to help develop the project management plan.
The team is now working on deliverables for the project. The compliance manager raises an issue of
project non-compliance. What is the first document the Project Manager should review?
answer choices

Statement of work (SOW) Issue log

Business case Risk register

28. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project is underway and is 50% completed. An essential project team member requests 1.5 months
leave for personal matters. What should the Project Manager do first?
answer choices

Check with this team member to see if the leave Discuss the issue with the functional manager and
can be postponed. request a replacement.

Assess how the leave will impact the project. Refer to the resource management plan.
29. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager works for a company that is preparing to develop a new product. The new product will require
currently unavailable skills. To initiate this project, what should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Develop detailed project requirements. Focus on quality control.

Document the risk in the project charter. Develop a competitor analysis.

30. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager is uncertain about the project duration for a new product and consults several groups
of subject matter experts (SMEs). The first group advises that it can be finished in 25 days. The second
group identifies some risks that could make the duration up to 40 days. The third group proposes a new method
that can shorten the time to 10 days. Using the triangular estimating technique, what is the duration
for the new project?
answer choices

23 days 25 days

27 days 30 days

31. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A new product development project has the following characteristics: -There are three main tasks. -Task A must be delivered 4 weeks before task C starts. -Once task B is finished, task C will start. What is the relationship between tasks A and B?
answer choices

Finish-to-start (FS) Finish-to-finish (FF)

Start-to-start (SS) Start-to-finish (SF)

32. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A product deliverable is undergoing acceptance testing. A senior-level stakeholder raises concern that
an essential product feature for their department was not developed. The Project Manager wants to
avoid this issue in the future. What is one way to accomplish this goal?
answer choices

Properly manage stakeholder expectations. Prepare a change management plan.

Ensure a scope management plan gets approved. Hold a product demo with stakeholders.

33. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A skincare company reports that customers are increasingly complaining that a product is underweight. A Project Manager needs to determine if something needs to be changed in the production line. Which tool or technique can the Project Manager use for this task?
answer choices

Scatter diagram Affinity diagram

Control chart Histogram

34. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A product passes 96% percent of the functional requirements defined in the scope. A customer is unwilling to
accept the product since it did not pass 100%. A Project Manager is assessing what could have been
done differently to avoid this. What should the Project Manager have done?
answer choices

Assessed and evaluated the test management plan. Created the work breakdown structure (WBS).

Ensured that the quality metrics were defined. Reviewed the requirements documentation.

35. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager is working on a data center migration project and is developing the schedule management
plan. Per the project sponsor's request, the schedule must plan for all tasks as soon as possible.
Additionally, the Project Manager is presented with modified resource availability that should not violate schedule
constraints. The Project Manager needs to select the appropriate leads and lags relationship for this
situation. Which type should the Project Manager choose?
answer choices

Early start is smaller than the late start in all Early start equals the late start in some activities.
activities.

Early start equals the late start in all activities. Early start is smaller than the late start in some
activities.

36. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager is preparing the charter for a project. The project aims to automate 30 percent of
product testing. The project sponsor advises the Project Manager to assign senior test engineers to identify the
tests that can be automated. The test department manager, however, is uncooperative because they
believe that the project will lead to downsizing in their department. What should the Project Manager
do first?
answer choices

Have a meeting with the test department manager Request for the project sponsor to provide a
to review the statement of work (SOW). rationale for test automation.

Present data-driven, cost-benefit evidence of test Raise the risk that the senior testing engineers will
automation to the test department manager. be unavailable for the testing.
37. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A company is planning to utilize a new product that leverages innovative technologies and processes. The Project Manager has verified that the component work packages have been defined, and constraints for
each component have been identified. Which estimating technique should the Project Manager use to
obtain a precise cost estimate of the project?
answer choices

Analogous Three-point

Bottom-up Parametric

38. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project has the following characteristics: -Is in the process of completing the planning stage. -A
key stakeholder will be unavailable for 2.5 weeks during the project. The Project Manager must decide
what to do first, after learning about the key stakeholder's unavailability. What is the correct step to
take?
answer choices

Ensure that the issue log is updated and inform the Request that the finance department provide a
other stakeholders. replacement during the stakeholder's absence.

Organize a meeting with the sponsor to evaluate Continue with planning, and acknowledge the
the situation and identify alternatives. impact the change may have on the project
schedule.

39. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project has the following characteristics: -It is in the execution stage. -A regulatory law has
recently been approved that mandates immediate compliance. -This law will impact the project's scope,
schedule, and cost. The Project Manager needs to determine what to do first. What is the
correct step to take?
answer choices

Initiate mitigation of the risk. Ensure the project management plan is updated.

Escalate the issue to senior management. Begin the change request process.

40. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A deliverable on the project's critical path is lagging behind schedule. The cost performance index
(CPI) is 1.3. The Project Manager is able to put the project back on schedule. What is the most likely
outcome for the project?
answer choices
There will be activities performed in parallel. There will be a revised scope.

There will be an increase in costs and risks. There will be rework.

41. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project that should have been 90 percent complete by now is only 65 percent complete. The total project budget
is US$120,000 and the actual cost spent to date (AC) is US$80,000. What is the scheduled performance
index (SPI) and cost performance index (CPI) of this project?
answer choices

The SPI is 0.72, and the CPI is 0.98. The SPI is 1.38, and the CPI is 1.2.

The SPI is 0.94, and the CPI is 1.04. The SPI is 0.80, and the CPI is 0.91.

42. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An intricate project has key stakeholders located in the United States, France, and China. The Project
Manager discovers that a senior manager asked a team member for project information. Which step
is appropriate to take next?
answer choices

Rely on the information in the stakeholder register. Refer to the project management information
system (PMIS).

Ensure that the senior manager attends the next Read the communications management plan.
team meeting.

43. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager is working with a customer who repeatedly submits requests for new requirements for an
existing software product. The Project Manager has already provided the completed scope definition
for the product's next version release to stakeholders. Which step is appropriate for the Project
Manager to take next?
answer choices

Hold a meeting with the product manager to Define project boundaries immediately with the
request that the number of new requests be sponsor.
reduced.

Organize a meeting with the stakeholders to set Analyze the scope management plan to see how
expectations. changes in scope are handled.

44. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project is 7 months into execution. The Project Manager determines that the cost performance index (CPI) is .80.
 According to a trend analysis, the CPI has a downward trend. What is the next step that
the Project Manager should take?
answer choices

Issue a change request for cost re-baselining. Ask for additional resources.

Crash the project schedule. Utilize the management reserve.

45. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project is being implemented. The research and development department communicates to the
Project Manager that the product's requirements have changed. These changes were not anticipated, may
significantly influence potential sales numbers, and could impact project scope. What is the
appropriate action for the Project Manager to take?
answer choices

Update the risk register accordingly and identify risk Use forecasting methods.
responses.

Plan to use the contingency reserve and update the Utilize methods such as earned value management
risk mitigation plan. (EVM).

46. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project has the following characteristics: -US$3 million budget -Planned value of
US$630,000 -Actual cost of US$650,000 -Earned value of US$540,000 Which statement is
true about the current status of the project?
answer choices

The project is ahead of schedule and under budget. The project is behind schedule and over budget.

The project is ahead of schedule and over budget. The project is behind schedule and under budget.

47. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project is in the execution stage. Due to a demand to complete the project quickly, the Project
Manager needs to rapidly assign resources to build the team and meet project requirements. Which
action should the Project Manager take next?
answer choices

Build library services. Deliver workshops.

Acquire and train the new team. Host a webinar.

48. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager leaves the company and is replaced. The new Project Manager wants to start
guiding the team toward project success. What should the new Project Manager do first?
answer choices
answer choices

Look over the project charter to identify goals and Review the project diary and look for notes made by
deliverables. the former Project Manager.

Modify the project schedule, adding a new activity Revisit the project budget to determine if extra time
related to the knowledge transfer process. is required.

49. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager receives the following for a new project: -assumptions -restrictions -
preliminary scope After receiving this information, what should the Project Manager do first?
answer choices

Review and understand the business case and Put together the project team and assign project
project goals. tasks.

Build the project schedule and determine the Ensure project charter approval is obtained from
critical path. the sponsor.

50. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager joins a project that has the following features: -Globally distributed team -
Budget that is fixed -Very tight deadlines During planning, what should the Project Manager do to
avoid any scope creep and keep the team focused on delivering a product that meets requirements?
answer choices

Ask that all development team leads prepare Hold daily stand-ups with all development teams.
detailed requirements.

Put any changes to scope through the formal Disallow stakeholders from directly interacting with
approval process. the development team leads.

51. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project is delayed. To obtain the desired quality level of the deliverables, a change is required. First,
the Project Manager issues a formal change request and communicates the change to all stakeholders. Then, the
Project Manager learns that this communications approach did not meet stakeholders' expectations. What should the Project Manager do next?
answer choices

Refer to the communications management and Provide a change request to include stakeholders'
stakeholder engagement plans. expectations in the project management plan.

Organize a meeting with the project sponsor to Review the communications management plan,
better understand stakeholders' expectations. follow it, and issue a status report.

52. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project sponsor asks the Project Manager to change production materials because these materials could cause
health problems to consumers. What is an appropriate step for the Project Manager to take?
answer choices

Follow the perform integrated change control Immediately implement the change and submit a
process and thoroughly investigate the matter. change request for formal documentation.

End the current work and enact the change control Reject the change because the request is outside of
process. scope.

53. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A team was in the execution stage of the project management plan when three necessary changes were brought
to their attention. The team members all have differing opinions regarding how to implement the changes. What should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Hold a meeting with the board and project sponsor Confirm that all team members and stakeholders
to address the issue. understand and follow the change management
plan.

Organize a meeting with team members to review Ensure all requested changes are applied to the
the issues and request changes where needed. project and communicate directly with all team
members.

54. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. After a project ends, the Project Manager and project team members are still being asked to do the following: -Evaluate new requirements -Make minor modifications -Solve technical issues The
Project Manager wants to ensure the product or service developed by the project now has operational
support. What should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Complete the hand over of the project. Review the acceptance criteria and get acceptance.

Formally disband the project team and find a new Continue to fulfill the requests as the product is still
project. being developed.

55. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The initial draft of a project management plan is completed. The Project Manager plans to show the
draft to stakeholders who are located around the globe for approval. The Project Manager has limited time to gain
approval, and the project management plan is lengthy. The Project Manager needs to ensure that the
review of the plan is completed on time. Which action should the Project Manager take?
answer choices

Send the plan for the stakeholders to review, and Have each stakeholder review the plan individually,
then meet with the all of them to discuss it. adding their comments, and then update the
document accordingly.

Ask select stakeholders to review particular sections Organize individual meetings with only the key
of the plan based on their areas of expertise. stakeholders to walk them through the plan.

56. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager joins a project as a replacement on a project team. During initial meetings, the Project Manager
realized there are many differing opinions about how to address technical decisions. Team members did not
respect each other's ideas, and the environment was becoming counterproductive. However, now the team has
begun to communicate more effectively and develop some processes and procedures for working together. In what phase of development is the team now?
answer choices

Forming Storming

Norming Performing

57. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A planned task in a sprint does not get completed due to an issue that appeared three days ago but did not get
resolved. The Project Manager wants to prevent this type of situation in the future. What should the
Project Manager do?
answer choices

During the retrospective, examine the issue. In the demo, address the issue.

During the next iteration planning meeting, discuss In the next daily standup meeting, review the issue.
the issue.

58. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project sponsor is risk averse and is therefore concerned about negative impacts on the project. To help with
this concern, the project team identifies four project risks and then evaluates both the probability of occurrence
and the impact of the risk if it occurs. The team uses a 1-5 scale, 1 being the lowest and 5 being the highest. Risk Probability Impact A 1 5 B 4 4 C 2 5 D 2 2 Based on the table,
in what order should the project manager rank these risks for risk management purposes?
answer choices

B, A, D, C B, C, A, D

B, A, C, D C, D, A, B

C, D, A, B

59. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager needs to successfully lead a project that has diverse, globally-dispersed team members. 
 What should the Project Manager do to develop cultural sensitivity?
answer choices

Explore each team member's culture in-depth for Seek help from the human resource department to
several weeks to be sensitive to their needs. obtain formal training in this area.

Travel to each team member's geographic location Be aware of local customs, remain flexible when
to gain awareness of their culture and meet face-to- working with team members, and recognize that
face. culture is learned.

60. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. On a project, three critical risks with a high-impact are identified. The Project Manager must find a
solution to address these risks immediately. Three specific resources are required to address the risks;
however, they are already committed to another project with critical deliverables. Which action should
the Project Manager take?
answer choices

1. Check with the functional manager regarding the 1. Hire outside resources. 2. Assign these
resources' availability. 2. Negotiate task resources to handle the tasks.
crashing or rescheduling with the functional
manager.

1. Assume the risks. 2. Control these risks 1. Generate a contingency reserve to solve the
often to reduce potential impact. potential schedule delay. 2. Mitigate the
possible impact.

61. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Schedule performance issues are occurring on a project. After assessing the issue, the Project Manager
determines that the cause is the expertise levels of project resources. Specifically, a few of the senior-
level resources check irrelevant details, and some inexperienced resources take too much time to complete tasks.
 The Project Manager needs to enhance team performance. Which action is appropriate
to take?
answer choices

Implement training where necessary, and create a Request that the senior-level resources help the
checklist for all team members. inexperienced resources.

Advise the senior-level resources, and replace the Design and conduct training for the junior-level
junior-level resources. staff.

62. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Multiple new members are added to an ongoing project. Although all original team members received basic
training on the specifics of the business operation that the project supports, the new members do not have the
same basic understanding. This lack of understanding results in decreased productivity. How should
the Project Manager respond to this issue?
answer choices

Ask the original team members to provide support Assure all new team members that they should feel
and training, and schedule a second kick-off comfortable asking for help from both the long-
meeting for new team members. term members and Project Manager.

Revise the team, so that the newer resources are Recognize that this is a common occurrence when
moved to other projects and resources with teams experience change, and revise the schedule
relevant experience are added, then log lessons to allow for the slight decrease in productivity.
learned.

63. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project’s single sponsor has been replaced by a steering committee due to a significant increase in project size.
 How should the Project Manager approach this change?
answer choices

Tailor communications to the new steering Follow the initial project plan, recognizing that the
committee, recognizing that there has been a stakeholder group now includes the steering
change in stakeholder structure. committee members.

Schedule a low-key introductory meeting with the Ensure that the new steering committee members
new steering committee and the team, while receive the project’s current status report.
continuing to follow the initial project plan.

64. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Prior to preparing a monthly project status report, a Project Manager identifies three new risks. All of these risks
could impact critical key milestones. The Project Manager wants to reference additional information
before presenting this new risk information. To which sources should the Project Manager refer?
answer choices

Risk register and risk report. Risk register and organizational process assets.

Risk management plan and risk report. Lessons learned repository and risk report.

65. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A week prior to the project kick-off call, a Project Manager meets with a key project resource to gain a deeper
understanding of how complex the project deliverables are. The resource expresses concern and
worry regarding the deliverables. What should the Project Manager do to ensure that the deliverables
are realistic?
answer choices

Perform a feasibility study, and then assess the Discuss the resource's concerns with the sponsor,
results. and modify the project charter.
Note the concerns in the issue log to review at a Identify threats and preventive actions by
later date. conducting a risk assessment.

66. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. During user testing a client agreed to a final product. A few days later the client is reconsidering their agreement.
 What should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Refer to the project’s quality management plan. Review the project’s acceptance criteria.

Review the requirements documentation. Refer to the project's project charter.

67. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Although the sponsor and project team say that the new project has an adequate budget and realistic schedule,
the Project Manager worries that unplanned events could threaten the project’s success. What should
the Project Manager do first?
answer choices

Engage in identification of project risks, then assess Ask the project sponsor for additional funding to
those risks. cover project planning.

Schedule a meeting with the functional manager to Execute the project as planned, recognizing that
address the potential impact of unplanned risks. additional project funds must be requested at a
later point in the project.

68. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A large project includes functional groups in four countries. It is close to completion, so the Project Manager must
prepare the closeout documents. How should the Project Manager obtain appropriate signoff on the
acceptance of project deliverables?
answer choices

The project sponsor should be asked to sign off. The steering committee should be asked to sign off.

The functional managers from each group should The four managers from the four countries should
be asked to sign off. be asked to sign off.

69. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project has the following characteristics: -A quality management plan is in place. -The quality
management plan states that project deliverables must be reviewed, at a minimum, 1.5 weeks before the
deadline. -Four deliverables have missed this quality requirement. What is an appropriate step
for the Project Manager to take?
answer choices
Reach out to the project sponsor for their input. Modify the quality management plan to conform to
project practices.

Request that the project undergo an internal audit. Use a cause-and-effect diagram for root cause
analysis.

70. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A company wants to reduce costs by installing solar panels. Their local government provides subsidies for specific
energy-efficient projects. After project start, the Project Manager learns that solar panels may not
qualify for the energy-efficiency subsidy. How should the Project Manager address this issue?
answer choices

Log the issue in the Issue Log. Ensure the issue log is updated.

Make use of the contingency reserve. File a change request.

71. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Three parts of a single project are being completed by three project teams. The three parts are highly dependent
on each other. The team leader worries that this might create conflicts when the outputs from the three teams
are combined, and asks for advice. What advice should the Project Manager provide?
answer choices

Identify potential conflicts, and then arrange for a Decide which team’s work should be prioritized,
weekly joint meeting with the members of the three then delay the work from the other two teams to
teams to review each other’s work. ensure there are no conflicts.

Document conflicts as they occur, and take action Continue to let all three teams work simultaneously,
to remedy any problems that arise. recognizing that conflicts can be addressed at the
testing phase.

72. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. In response to slippage on some scheduled tasks, the Project Manager reprioritized a number of subsequent
tasks in order to fix the problem. The reprioritization did not put the project back on track, and now
the Project Manager needs to escalate the issue to project stakeholders. To escalate the issue, what
should the Project Manager do first?
answer choices

Refer to the change management plan. Review the stakeholder engagement plan.

Refer to the communications management plan. Review the risk management plan.

73. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project is in the execution stage. Based on the originally approved blueprint, 1,000 products were
developed. The project team randomly chooses 100 products to evaluate against the quality plan. What is the project team undertaking?
answer choices

Control procurement. Statistical sampling.

Process audit. Quality assurance.

74. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Because a deliverable does not meet the agreed-upon quality specifications, it is rejected by the customer. Team
members find that the deliverable does not meet expectations because there is a problem with vendor-provided
parts. The vendor says that they will not correct the problem. Before deciding on next
steps, what should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Check the service level agreement (SLA) established Review the procurement management plan and
with the vendor. contract agreements.

Check the internal quality assurance reports. Review the resource management plan and
document lessons learned.

75. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Several team members have been transferred to another project, so the Project Manager needs additional
resource support from a new supplier. The Project Manager is concerned about the cost risk of using a new
supplier at this stage of the project. Now, the Project Manager needs to work with the procurement
team to establish specifications and type of contract to be used. What should be done?
answer choices

Recommend a time and material (TM) contract. Recommend a fixed price incentive fee (FPIF)
contract.

Recommend a cost plus incentive fee (CPIF) Recommend a firm fixed price (FFP) contract.
contract.

76. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A previously-identified technical issue has been resolved and the project is moving forward. The Project Manager
has been warned that the same issue will probably arise on similar projects in the future. What should
be done first when responding to this warning?
answer choices

Ensure that the issue log is updated and update the Create a risk report, and keep the report current.
lessons learned register

Notify the project sponsor about the warning. Ensure that the lessons learned register is updated.
77. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The Project Manager learns that one team member needs to complete a critical task that is outside of the project,
resulting in a scheduling risk for the project. How can the Project Manager eliminate this risk?
answer choices

Meet with the team member’s manager, and Ask the team member to focus on the critical task,
negotiate for an alternative time to complete the and obtain an additional resource from another
other task. department.

Send a report to the project sponsor, documenting Tell the team member’s manger to release the team
noncompliance from the member’s manager. member from outside activities until the scheduled
project activity is complete.

78. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The Project Manager receives a progress report during a demo and review meeting. The report shows that the
agile project is not on track. Since all work was purposely selected and sequenced to meet higher-level objectives,
the Project Manager is surprised by the report. In the future, how can the Project Manager prevent
this type of miscommunication in an agile project?
answer choices

Support self-organization for the project team and Ensure that there is a contingency reserve to cover
help them provide buy-in for the project. these issues.

Ensure that the team is trained to use the agile Provide early training and ongoing mentoring about
process reporting system. the agile approach for the project team.

79. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. As part of effective leadership, Project Managers help team members grow and keep them motivated throughout
each project. What is one trait that supports this effective leadership?
answer choices

Stand up for the team’s beliefs and be assertive. Challenge the team by delegating project tasks.

Use daily discussion sessions to solicit and respond Provide a team reward for each successfully
to the team’s concerns. completed task

80. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The project is overseen by a senior Project Manager. A new Project Manager joins the project, and the sponsor
asks the new Project Manager to develop the quality management plan. How should the new Project
Manager proceed?
answer choices
Meet with the senior Project Manager to identify Schedule a meeting with the customer to collect
established plans and processes. Then, ask for requirements and obtain benchmarking samples.
assistance in selecting the appropriate standards.

Obtain the necessary benchmarking samples and Postpone the development of the quality
cost-benefit analyses from the sponsor. management plan until quality metrics and quality
checklists are created.

81. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A small group of users complain during a project’s user acceptance stage. The users say that their expectations
are not met. Which action could help avoid this issue on future projects?
answer choices

Create a professional relationship with users. Engage in risk assessments throughout the project.

Make use of conflict management techniques. Make use of stakeholder feedback during the
project.

82. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The project sponsor requires a project team composed of resources that live in four different time zones, working
in four different locations. The project sponsor did not consider the implications of this requirement, and believes
that the dispersion will provide an ideal project team that will save costs. Where should this be
documented in the project charter?
answer choices

As part of high-level requirements. In the key stakeholder list.

In the overall project risks. As part of the resource management plan.

83. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A governmental agency becomes a key stakeholder on a complex project due to regulatory changes. In light of the
change, the Project Manager needs to develop an understanding of this new stakeholder and identify any new
high-level risks that may result from the change. Which two options should the Project Manager use?
answer choices

Schedule meetings with the new stakeholders. Update the assumption log.

Revise the stakeholder engagement plan. Share the benefits management plan with the new
stakeholders.

84. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The project requires the development of a human resources information system (HRIS) to centrally manage
human resources and payroll. The project sponsor is a multinational company. The Project Manager
reviews historical data on the company’s human resources practices and considers the regulatory framework of
the project. Still, there are concerns about project risks. What should the Project Manager do in
response to these concerns?
answer choices

Log high-level project risks. Calculate and quantify project risks.

Formulate a risk mitigation plan. Engage in regular risk reviews.

85. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager needs stakeholder involvement in order to identify strategic and operational assumptions and
constraints. Unfortunately, the Project Manager is finding it hard to obtain consistent input due to lack of
participation. How can the Project Manager boost stakeholder input?
answer choices

Make use of political awareness techniques. Review risk management tools and techniques.

Engage in effective meeting management Use effective facilitation techniques.

techniques.

86. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The Project Manager reviews the issue log and sees that three tasks assigned to three team members are
significantly behind schedule. How should the Project Manager handle this issue?
answer choices

Meet with the relevant team members to review the Contact the project sponsor and escalate the issue
tasks and determine a strategy for resolving the in order to reduce delays.
issue.

Ask those who are responsible for the reason for Instruct the team to quickly bring the tasks up to
the delays and their plans for next steps. date, so that the project is not at risk.

87. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Project team members are spending a lot of time helping maintenance and operations staff with a recently
commissioned project component. The Project Manager needs to validate that the component was
signed off and ownership transferred. Which three documents should the Project Manager use for
this decision?
answer choices

Final report, organizational process assets updates, Procurement agreements, project document
and procurement agreements. updates, and organizational process assets
updates.

Procurement agreements, stakeholder engagement Final report, project document updates, and
plan, and organizational process assets updates. organizational process assets updates.
88. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A global organization sponsors a project that involves six different companies. When the project is partially
complete, the Project Manager learns that one stakeholder is ill and needs to decrease their level of involvement.
 What should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Update the stakeholder engagement plan. Revise the project charter.

Update the stakeholder register. Revise the project management plan.

89. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A new law is expected within the next four-to-five months that will affect the business’ type of products. The next
product launch is starting, and should be completed within three months. Unfortunately, the new product would
not meet the requirements of the proposed law. How should the Project Manager respond to this
potential problem?
answer choices

1. Schedule a meeting with the sponsor and key 1. Revise the risk management plan. 2. Move
stakeholders to discuss risks. 2. Using the ahead with planning the project.
results of the meeting, revise the assumption log
and project charter.

1. Move ahead with the project; following the plan. 1. Schedule a meeting with the sponsor and key
 2. Ensure on-time completion, so that the stakeholders to warn them about the law. 2.
product will not be affected by any possible rule Advise them to cancel the project until the
change. legislation is finalized.

90. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager implemented an approved change to manage a risk. Three months after the implemented
change, the Project Manager learns that the change did not produce the desired result, and there are adverse
consequences. What can the Project Manager do to avoid this problem on future projects?
answer choices

Update the probability and impact matrix after Revisit or change existing assumptions after
assessing any new risks. reviewing the assumption log.

Update the lessons learned register with the risk Follow up to verify that a risk response is
information. performing as expected.

91. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. During a conversation with a friend, a Project Manager hears that a possible union action will occur within the
next two weeks. The Project Manager knows that at this stage of the project, any project delays could cause
substantial harm to both budget and schedule, and any union action will affect the project team. Earlier, the probability of a union action was considered minimal. Thus, it was unanticipated. How
should the Project Manager respond to this issue?
answer choices

Get more information through informal Update the risk in the risk register with this new
discussions, and use what is found to decide on information and notify relevant stakeholders.
next steps.

Plan to reward those who do not participate and Schedule a meeting with the union’s leader in order
identify possible disciplinary actions for those who to resolve any outstanding conflicts.
do participate.

92. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project team has set up an unofficial online communications platform to enhance communication. The Project Manager was not aware that this platform existed until recently, after learning that it was being used
inappropriately. Which action should the Project Manager take?
answer choices

Have the project team stop using the platform, and Report the issue to the compliance office after
then review the communications management disciplining the individuals involved.
plan.

Since it is not part of the communications Delegate an administrator to monitor

management plan, terminate the platform. communications on this platform.

93. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project has the following characteristics: -To determine what product should be created, a feasibility
study was conducted. -A change request was approved to develop another product that contradicts the
original requirements. -Data analysis was conducted before the change request was approved. Which action should the Project Manager take?
answer choices

Execute the change request. Decline the change request.

Ask for a detailed report of the data analysis. Ask for a feasibility study of the new product.

94. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A technology development project has the following characteristics: -It requires a highly skilled
resource that is unavailable locally. -The Project Manager has identified a resource who can work on site, but
the resource lives in a different country and requires a work visa. -The work visa process is taking more time
than anticipated. What should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Assign the existing team overtime work. Have the project's scope reduced.

Delay the project by an equivalent duration. Request that the resource work remotely.
95. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A contractor is late with a critical project deliverable due to resource challenges. There is a 22% buffer
in the budget for cost overruns. What is the first thing a Project Manager should do to mitigate this
issue?
answer choices

Hold a discussion with the vendor regarding the Hire a new vendor to replace the current vendor;
legal implications of this slippage. ask the new vendor to send a contract.

Look into alternative vendors that can assist with Update the project schedule after first accepting
project deliverables despite resource constraints. the cost overrun.

96. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. There is an unresolved conflict between a member of a third-party vendor's team and a member of a project
team. The issue is escalated to the Project Manager. What is the first thing the Project
Manager should do?
answer choices

Meet with the vendor in person to discuss the Call the vendor on the phone to discuss the issue.
issue.

Draft and send a contractual letter to the vendor. Send an email to the vendor to discuss the issue.

97. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A customer's resources have not completed the required training. The Project Manager has to consider the risk it
poses to the timely completion of the project. Customer resource training is a required project deliverable. Which action should the Project Manager perform?
answer choices

Update the risk register to document the concerns Revise the risk register, and discuss it at the next
and then develop a plan to ensure the customers' project status meeting.
resources complete their training.

Dedicate additional post-implementation support Modify the project schedule to account for the
to mitigate the risk. training delay.

98. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Project team members are busier than usual. They indicate that they do not have the time to update the lessons
learned because of other project responsibilities. How should the Project Manager respond to this issue?
answer choices

Require submission of lessons learned Ensure there is an agenda item for discussion of
documentation after each project deliverable is lessons learned from project activities as part of all
accepted by the customer. project meetings.

File a change request to the project management Bring in a consultant to assist with collecting
office (PMO) to change how often lessons learned is lessons learned to help reduce the burden on
collected. project team.

99. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager is creating an agenda and presentation materials for a kick-off meeting that will involve
stakeholders across multiple geographic regions who will be working on a global project. How can the Project
Manager work to ensure that the stakeholders are engaged?
answer choices

Create slides for the kick-off meeting to address Survey stakeholders' preferred meeting dates and
stakeholder involvement. times to accommodate the teams in different time
zones.

Verify that all required participants or their Review the kick-off meeting agenda and materials
delegates will be available to attend. for overall clarity and concision.

100. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A retiring Project Manager hands over all materials to a new Project Manager. The project appears to be running
smoothly, until the new manager learns that a critical component has failed during testing. What is the
appropriate first step when responding to this issue?
answer choices

Review the risk management plan to identify Check with other local team Project Managers to
whether this risk and accompanying response see how they would respond to the issue.
strategies have been captured.

Revise the timeline to account for slippage due to Communicate with stakeholders, describing the
the additional time needed to implement issue, proposed costs, and potential changes to
mitigation. delivery dates related to the project.

101. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A team member has taken an unplanned leave during the execution of a project. In response, the project team
rescheduled some tasks. The result is that critical activities are now occurring at the same time. What
is the first thing that the Project Manager should do?
answer choices

Assess the newly introduced risks with the project Mitigate risks by reverting to the original schedule.
team.

Revise the risk register and then rank the project's Identify suitable responses for the newly introduced
risks. risks.

102. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. There are three deliverables in the Project Manager's IT transformation project: Deliverable 2
have strictly scheduled milestones, with no expected variation in the timeline. The Project Manager expects that
Deliverables 1 & 3 will see quickly changing requirements during development. Which lifecycle model
should be used to meet the project's requirements?
answer choices

Select a fully agile project model, with a common Select a waterfall project model for deliverables,
user story and three-week sprints. with firm milestones and change control
procedures.

Select a hybrid project model, where Deliverable 2 Select a hybrid project model, where Deliverable 2
is positioned as single agile sprint embedded in an is positioned as a single waterfall phase embedded
overall waterfall project. in an overall agile project.

103. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The Project Manager shifts to an agile approach for a project with an aggressive go-to-market timeline. The Project
Manager needs to revise the stakeholder engagement plan so that it follows agile principles. What
should the Project Manager do to meet this need (choose two)?
answer choices

Design a digital communication system that allows Remove unnecessary layers of management to
for virtual submission, logging, reviewing, and promote direct communication between the project
escalation of issues. team and stakeholders.

Modify templates to include product backlog Increase the number of formal training workshops
progression and the burndown rate, and encourage to cover all relevant issues for all stakeholders,
use of standups. including the project sponsor and client.

104. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Project team members are concerned that a new resource does not seem suitable for an assigned task. How should the Project Manager respond to this concern?
answer choices

Contact senior management to discuss the Schedule time to chat with the new resource to
possibility of reassigning the new resource to a assess their skills and understand their strength
different project. level.

Ask the team members to document task-related Contact the project sponsor to highlight these
deficiencies displayed by the resource. concerns and decide on an appropriate response.

105. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager develops a project management plan and schedule based on an agreed-upon project lifecycle
of 16 months. Later, due to changing business requirements, the Project Manager receives a request for
completion within 9 months. How should the Project Manager respond to this proposed change in
timeline?
answer choices

Work with key stakeholders and project team Immediately ask project team members to increase
members to discuss how aspects of the project can the pace of each task within the project.
be completed more quickly than planned and to
identify any requirements that could be reduced.

Modify the original project schedule so that revised Meet individually with project team members to
deadlines can be met. discuss how aspects of the project can be
completed more quickly than planned.

106. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. During an agile iteration, Task 1 cannot be completed on time due to unexpected challenges. Another team within
the project is depending on timely completion of Task 1 in order to fulfill their part of the project. How
should the Project Manager resolve this issue?
answer choices

Meet with both teams separately, and ask them to Meet with the product owner to reprioritize the
figure out a way to meet the required deadlines and iteration backlog, so that it does not impact other
complete the project on time. teams or obligations.

Increase the number of team members for the Let team members know you want them to do their
project team and increase the iteration length, best under difficult circumstances, and make sure
ensuring that the work will be completed according to note the iteration's challenges in lessons learned.
to schedule.

107. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The Project Manager schedules an iteration review and learns that a few key stakeholders do not approve of how
a feature has been developed. What should the Project Manager do first in order to address this
issue?
answer choices

Invite project team members to a brainstorming Address the issue only after evaluating why these
session to identify an appropriate response. stakeholders are concerned.

Determine the impact of the conflict by listing the Ask the project sponsor to act as a neutral party in
pros and cons of the situation. negotiation with those stakeholders who are
dissatisfied.

108. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A key team member is asked to move to another project during the middle of a technical project. The team
believes this is an unwise move and expresses concern. Which action will help to resolve the issue?
answer choices

Discuss the conflict with the project sponsor and Use coaching tools and techniques to motivate the
formulate a response. project team.

Replace the key team member with a new resource The PM should acknowledge the teams' concern
who has the same skills. and also analyze the impact to the project.

109. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. At a weekly project status meeting, a key team member expresses concerns about the overall approach
documented within the project management plan. The Project Manager is surprised because the team is in the
process of executing an important component of the project and the concern has not been raised before. What steps should the Project Manager take?
answer choices

Update the risk register to document the concerns, Recognize that the concern must be fully discussed
then continue with the meeting’s scheduled agenda and resolved prior to continuing with the meeting’s
items. agenda items.

Address the team with a generic reminder about Immediately acknowledge the team member’s
meeting etiquette, then ask if the team wants to concern, continue with the scheduled agenda, then
use the time to fully discuss the concerns raised privately meet with the team member to fully
during the meeting. understand the concerns expressed.

110. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. During a meeting, a Project Manager learns that a business result needs to be delivered in four weeks, although
the original plan was sixteen weeks. The Project Manager also hears that there is no available technical resource
who might be able to join the team. The Project Manager knows the technical resource manager because they
worked together on a previous project. What is the first thing the Project Manager should do?
answer choices

Notify the project sponsor about the lack of a Immediately escalate the issue to decision makers
technical resource. in the organization.

Check with the technical resource manager to see if Since time is short, hire an outside party to meet
there is an available technical resource. the need for a technical resource.

111. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A team decides that an agile approach fits the needs of the next phase in their project. Unfortunately, there are
team members who have not had the appropriate agile training. How should the Project Manager
respond to the lack of agile training?
answer choices
Include agile training for these team members Ensure the project’s contingency reserve can cover
without a change request. agile training for all team members.

Create virtual training sessions for key team Identify and implement the most cost-effective agile
members, covering the main agile topics. training for the team members.

112. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager believes that a delay in developing a prototype was due to a lack of knowledge in a specific skill
that was needed by the cross-functional team. How could the Project Manager prevent this situation
on future projects?
answer choices

Offer more specialized training to the team Identify required strengths, and organize the team
throughout the project. based on those strengths.

Meet with the project sponsor and team members Empower team members to problem solve in
to assign training for specific skills. situations where skills may be lacking.

113. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A new Project Manager joins the project’s daily standups, only to find that the project team spends too much time
discussing ways to deal with obstructions in the project. Because of these discussions, standups often last well
over two hours. What process should be used to deal with this issue?
answer choices

Ask team members to invite their managers to Explain to team members that long discussions
standup sessions, in order to find solutions more take time away from actual work on the project.
quickly.

Insert a new team member who will manage Tell the team members that they are required to
obstacles and schedule additional meetings to shorten the standup meetings and improve on
discuss possible solutions. finding solutions.

114. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A customer is not satisfied with the delivered product, saying that it was not what they expected. The Project
Manager is surprised, because the agile development team delivered the product several iterations early. What is one way that the Project Manager could have avoided this result?
answer choices

Required team sign off for each of the constant Set aside more resources for product testing after
changes to the requirements. changes are made.

Made sure that the customer was aware of the Ensured that the team fully participated in
value of demos. developing the project scope.
115. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager's team has been efficiently delivering expected results in an environment where schedule and
scope are fixed. Now, there is an increased demand for new skills due to changes in the market. What
can the Project Manager do to meet this new demand?
answer choices

Meet the new demand by adding new resources Hire a third-party vendor who can provide
with the required skills. resources with the needed skills.

Change the distribution of partially-dedicated Meet the new demand by upgrading the existing
resources with the needed skills. team members' skills.

116. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project's team is small and the team members have known each other for a long time. The team's project is in
the execution stage. Recently, a team member told the new Project Manager that another team member has been
complaining about how the project is being managed. How should this new Project Manager respond?
answer choices

Review the current stakeholder engagement plan Schedule a team meeting which will lead to the
for the way to resolve the difficulty. creation or updating of the team charter or ground
rules.

Notify team members that they should submit Send a survey to team members, requesting
anonymous recommendations for a new team suggestions for dealing with the dissatisfaction.
contract.

117. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. During a highly-regulated project, the project sponsor and a high-level executive have asked for changes that
appear to disregard legal requirements. What should be the first step in the Project Manager's
response?
answer choices

Immediately schedule a meeting with the Send the change control board (CCB) a change
stakeholders to review the situation. request.

Check with the organization's relevant legal Review the organization's lessons learned database
practitioner for guidance. for precedents and direction.

118. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager has multiple projects. One project has new team members and is in its early stages.
Unfortunately, the Project Manager will be very busy executing other projects over the next few weeks. How can the Project Manager develop the new project team over the next few weeks?
answer choices
answer choices

Help the team create a social contract that will Suggest that the team engage in multiple team-
encourage team cohesion. building events to normalize the team.

Keep the team informed by sending short daily Engage in face-to-face personal conversations with
project status updates. each team member to build relationships.

119. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager needs to ensure that the team delivers business value within the required timelines. The
Project Manager recently learned that key stakeholders are worried that the current release plan will not meet
urgent business needs. What can the Project Manager do to effectively respond to the stakeholder
concerns?
answer choices

Renegotiate scope with the project sponsor after In consultation with the stakeholders and team
examining the work breakdown structure (WBS). members, identify the minimum viable product
needed for launch.

Determine the schedule performance index (SPI), Monitor progress using a burndown chart after
then escalate the schedule risk to the project modifying the schedule baseline to meet
sponsor. stakeholder requirements.

120. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A key stakeholder voices a concern during the planning stage about whether the available resources are sufficient
to meet the objectives of the project. The Project Manager believes that the stakeholder is right. How
should the Project Manager handle this stakeholder's concern?
answer choices

Review the bounds of the negotiations for Determine the project's ultimate objectives after
agreement. carefully evaluating project priorities.

Engage in negotiations for better resources. Ensure that the impact of the unavailability of
required resources is fully documented.

121. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager notices that one team member seems increasingly unhappy during team meetings. The team
member is not making progress on a key work package, and this lack of progress is now impacting the critical
path. The team member feels that they are not in the correct role within the project team. What
should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Reassure the team member about their abilities by Meet with the team member to discuss where they
reminding them that they were chosen for a can contribute, based on their strengths.
reason.
Enroll the team member in targeted training to Schedule weekly touchpoints with the team
acquire the needed skills for their assigned role. member to discuss barriers that may impact their
work.

122. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project owner repeatedly complains, saying that a function developed by the development team does not seem
to align with the original design. What will help to solve this issue?
answer choices

Ask the product owner to sit in on the next iteration Ask the quality assurance team to identify any
review meeting to learn more about the mismatches in functionality compared to the initial
development status for the product. design.

Ask the development team to rewrite the function Invite the project owner to the next sprint/iteration
so that it matches with the project scope. review to discuss their concerns.

123. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A customer indicates that they would like to add functionality. Although this request is made during the execution
stage of the project, the Project Manager finds that the cost for the addition would be small. The additional
functionality, if successful, would increase the opportunity for profit. What should the Project
Manager do next?
answer choices

Agree that the functionality would offer a great The Project Manager should submit a change
opportunity, but the proposed addition is out of request and then evaluate the impact to the
scope. project.

Move forward, using the project's management Identify an already-developed feature that could be
reserve to add the requested functionality. combined with the new functionality, and use the
combination to meet the customer's request.

124. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A customer requests a change in the technical approach for a product currently in development. The Project
Manager learns about this request during a reoccurring project review. What should the Project
Manager do in response to the customer's request?
answer choices

Work with team members to immediately Have the team decide on the appropriate approach,
implement the new approach. giving them authority to implement and validate
their decision in talks with stakeholders.

Discuss the pros and cons of the proposed In order to obtain sponsor buy-in, have the team
approach with stakeholders, then select the benchmark the approach.
approach that is best for the team and notify team
members.
125. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager realizes during the third iteration of product development that the template used for the
project management plan is not showing updates. Which action should the Project Manager take?
answer choices

Assign one team member to update the project Rank the need to update the template according to
management plan template and document any risk. the business value for upcoming iterations.

Avoid adding to team distraction by fixing the issue Document the issue as a new project risk and
independently. propose a solution.

126. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. During a challenging shareholder meeting, the stakeholder indicates that they will reject an iteration's
deliverable. What should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Send a request to the project sponsor, asking them Meet with the project team to add new and
to update the project charter then reassign the improved features to replace the features that were
responsibilities and authorities. rejected.

Work with stakeholders to create a shared File a change request with the change control board
approach that will address the issues of concern. (CCB) in order to add budget to the baseline.

127. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. During work on a government project, stakeholders pressure the Project Manager to submit to their preferred
actions. While the Project Manager must coordinate and plan with multiple stakeholders, the Project Manager
must also deal with complex relations and frequently changing scenarios. What should the Project
Manager consider doing? (Choose two.)
answer choices

Use the Prioritization method of categorization. Use the Salience model of categorization.

Use the Transformation model of categorization. Use the Transaction model of categorization.

128. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager is working on a small project that is critical for a larger program milestone. A new resource has
been assigned to replace a key resource who had to leave the project. Unfortunately, an outside stakeholder
claims that the person who assigned the new resource sent their weakest team member. How should
the Project Manager approach this rumor?
answer choices

Assess the new resource’s ability to perform the Evaluate the skills of the new resource to see how
necessary work by testing their communication the resource can provide value to the project.
skills with the current project team.

File a request with the project management office Address the rumor with the new resource’s
(PMO) manager in order to obtain a better functional manager to mitigate any conflict within
resource. the project team.

129. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager needs to ensure that all data security requirements are covered during a data warehouse
development project’s execution stage. Each of the databases created during different project phases will have a
specific data security policy to comply with governmental data security laws. How should the Project
Manager plan to meet these requirements?
answer choices

Plan a database development specification, then Arrange for review of the data security status on a
regularly check to ensure the developer aligns with quarterly basis, and recommend remedial steps if
the specification. noncompliance is found.

Tell the database developer to submit Add a quality assurance specialist resource to the
documentation of data security items and the steps project team, who will be responsible for
they take to correct items that do not meet monitoring the data security quality of the project.
specifications.

130. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Several successor activities are behind schedule because a project team member has not been at work for the
past week. This impacts the critical path. How should the Project Manager respond to this problem?
answer choices

Obtain a new resource to complete the needed Discuss the situation with the team member, and
tasks, resulting in less impact on the critical path. work with them to identify a practical solution.

Remind the team member that they needed to Ask the functional manager for assistance
complete the work package in the agreed-upon communicating with the absent team member.
timeframe.

131. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A company is struggling to define the scope of a new project that has multiple phases with a high level of
dependency between the phases. How should the Project Manager approach this challenge?
answer choices

Contract with a third-party company that specializes Work with project stakeholders to recommend an
in helping businesses define scope of work on large iterative approach that will then help to define the
projects. project's scope.

Construct a project management plan that provides Suspend final delivery dates for the project in order
extra time within the schedule, then seek to revise to have time to revise the schedule once there is
the scope of work. clarity on the scope of work.

132. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. After six iterations, significant variations have occurred to project scope and schedule. These are due to the
customer's technology regulations and security policies, which are regularly reviewed. The Project Manager wants
to suggest a new approach to the next iteration to avoid possible delays. What should the Project
Manager do first?
answer choices

Rank the importance of each improvement item, Engage in a cost-benefit analysis that can help
then implement actions identified during the last predict the profits that could be realized through
retrospective. the use of new technology for the next phase.

Research new technology trends and management Use a backlog refinement meeting, and include the
tools that have been successful on similar projects. customer's change requests in the discussion.

133. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. All team members on a new project want to gain the customer's trust by delivering value as quickly as possible.
The Project Manager learns that one resource has worked with the sponsor on other projects. The resource
seems to be using personal influence, working with a project sponsor to increase the project's benefits
realization. At which stage in the project should the Project Manager address this concern to optimize
cost effectiveness?
answer choices

At the start of the team's performing stage. Immediately after the first benefit realization.

During the next retrospective ceremony. During the next resource performance review.

134. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project team learns that there is a new compliance requirement from an international entity that may impact
the baseline business case for the project. They learn this right after project charter is completed and the project
sponsor has signed. How should the Project Manager proceed?
answer choices

Research the requirement and possible Address the requirement through the creation of a
consequences, then give the sponsor a quality management plan.
recommendation.

Decline to address the issue, as the new Ensure that the requirement is documented in the
requirement is not part of the project's risk register, then ask for further guidance from all
documented scope. stakeholders.

135. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A team misunderstood one product functionality documented in an earlier stage of the project. During the current
iteration, the functionality has not yet been developed, but a business representative has mentioned the
deficiency. How should the Project Manager proceed?
answer choices

The functionality was formally approved, so initiate Schedule a meeting to discuss and brainstorm the
the change management process. functionality with the project team and business
representative.

Ensure that the issue is addressed by escalating it Continue with the current sprint, recognizing that
to the project sponsor, who should discuss it with the issue will be identified during the testing phase.
the representative.

136. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Some agile approaches have recently been added to an infrastructure company's predictive processes. The team
is not completing the planned story points, and the they are becoming passive. The Project Manager is concerned
and wants to improve productivity. What should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Provide team training, so the team can do a better Speed up the project by reducing the backlog.
job of estimating story points.

Gain the needed time for story point completion by Use burndown charts to evaluate team
adding more iterations to the project. performance.

137. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. During one daily standup meeting, team members indicate that they are having to engage in rework because
there seems to be too much up-front work. How should the Project Manager respond to this
concern?
answer choices

Try using a Kanban board for reviews. Request that team members explicitly implement
time boxing or spikes.

Request that the project owner maximizes the Engage in a process to manage a reduction in the
product value. product backlog.

138. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager from a traditional project management organization is assigned to an ongoing project.
Recently, the organization has started to use agile methodologies in its projects. The Project Manager hears that
some team members feel like key subject matter expertise is missing and there is insufficient collaboration within
the team. How should the Project Manager respond to these team members' concerns?
answer choices

Employ third-party specialists to fill the knowledge Add additional resources via a request to the
gap. sponsor.

Add cross-functional internal resources. Where possible, modify Gantt charts to Kanban
boards.

139. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A contractor has sent an email request for urgent payment of their last installment on a project that is going
through a long execution stage with multiple contractors. How should the Project Manager respond to
this contractor's request?
answer choices

Negotiate payment terms through a meeting with Authorize the payment by notifying accounts
procurement and the contractor. payable and follow up to ensure it was made.

Act according to the agreed upon commitments in Authorize payment only after reviewing forecast
the procurement management plan and the signed spend versus actual spend to see if the actual
agreement/contract. status allows it.

140. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager for a construction firm meets with stakeholders. All stakeholders agree on a 20 month lifecycle
for a project. After work has begun, the Project Manager learns that stakeholders would like project completion
within no more than 16 months. What should be the first step in the Project Manager’s response?
answer choices

Meet with key stakeholders to discuss ways to Add team members to work more quickly just this
reduce some project requirements. one time in order to satisfy stakeholder
requirements.

Refuse to modify the time line, explaining that Identify agreed-upon tasks in the original project
scope creep should be discouraged. and assign additional duties as needed to meet the
new, shorter timeline.

141. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. During an iteration, a project team encounters problems that may cause a delay in task completion. Another team
within the same project needs the task to be completed on time in order to meet their schedule. What
can the Project Manager do to resolve this problem?
answer choices

Insist that the project team work a bit harder to Work with the product owner to reprioritize the
complete on time, in order to avoid delaying the iteration backlog, so that it does not delay work by
work of other teams. other teams.

Increase the iteration length, and add additional Ask team members to perform to the best of their
resources to the project team, so that they can abilities during the iteration, and engage in a
meet the appropriate deadlines. retrospective after completion of the iteration.
142. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Certain key stakeholders are dissatisfied with how a key feature of a project has been developed. They express
their dissatisfaction during an iteration review meeting. What should the Project Manager do first to
resolve this issue?
answer choices

Gather the project team for a brainstorming Identify the reasons why there are issues with the
session and identify a solution. feature, then address the issue.

Create a list of the pros and cons of the situation to Add a neutral party, such as the project sponsor, to
define the impact of the conflict. function as a negotiator with stakeholders.

143. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. During a technical project, a well-liked project member is reassigned to a different project. The team has
expressed disapproval regarding the reassignment. What action can help mitigate the team's
disapproval?
answer choices

Notify the project sponsor regarding the team’s Employ leadership and emotional intelligence tools
disapproval, and brainstorm a response. and techniques to inspire the team to continue
working.

Add a resource with the same skills to replace the Notify the change control board (CCB) and discuss
key team member. possible ways to resolve the issue.

144. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. During the execution of a project, a key team member is concerned with the overall approach documented in the
project management plan. The member surprises the Project Manager with negative comments about the
approach during a weekly status meeting. How should the Project Manager address the team
member’s concerns?
answer choices

Continue with the meeting, and ensure that the Continue with the scheduled agenda items after
concerns are added to the risk register after the reminding the team member of expected meeting
meeting is finished. etiquette. Then, solicit feedback about the etiquette
expectations.

Remember that a project should not go forward Make a short comment to acknowledge the team
when key team members are in disagreement, and members' concerns, continue with the meeting,
use the meeting to discuss the members' concerns. and meet with the member in private to discuss
their concerns.
145. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager is faced with an updated schedule that requires delivering a business result under a far more
aggressive timeline. The project’s technical resource manager has worked with the Project Manager on previous
projects. Still, a team member indicates that the company does not have technical resources that could be added
to the project to meet the new timeline. What should be the Project Manager's next step?
answer choices

Let the project sponsor know that an issue with a Ensure that upper management is aware of the lack
technical resource may put the project at risk. of needed resources which may put the project at
risk.

Ask the technical resource manager about the Work with a third-party vendor to quickly acquire
availability of technical resources. the needed resource.

146. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager has been asked to conduct a risk analysis that is based on a high-level scope. As part of the this
analysis, the Project Manager must use expert judgment to prepare a document. Which document-
based action is being performed?
answer choices

Creating the project charter. Preparing the scope statement document.

Creating a project management plan. Documenting the risk management plan.

147. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An agile approach meets the needs of the next phase in a team’s project. As the team discusses the phase it
becomes clear that some team members have not received appropriate training in the agile model. How should the Project Manager respond to this issue?
answer choices

File a change request that includes the agile training Use available funds in the contingency reserve to
that members lack. guarantee training all team members.

Train team members on main agile topics by Identify and provide the most cost-effective agile
hosting training sessions. training for team members.

148. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager receives complaints from a project sponsor because of a delay in developing a prototype. The
Project Manager responds that the delay was due to a lack of knowledge in a specific skill that was needed by the
cross-functional project team. How could the Project Manager avoid this type of situation in the
future?
answer choices

Create training sessions at the start of the project, List required skills for the project, and organize the
so all necessary skills are learned. project team based on those skills.

Consult with the project sponsor to add training Empower team members to problem solve where
once the lack of a specific skill becomes apparent. skills may be lacking, using the skills they do have.

149. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A projects’ daily standups are long, often lasting more than two hours. The project team uses the standup
meetings for extended discussions about solutions to project obstacles. What should the Project
Manager do to improve the daily standup meetings?
answer choices

Invite department managers to participate in the Request shorter discussion time during each
team members’ discussions in order to identify standup, leaving more time for working.
solutions in a business-like manner.

Insert a new team member who will manage Coach team members that they have the
obstacles and meetings to discuss possible opportunity to shorten all standup meetings and
solutions. improve their method for identifying solutions.

150. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A new resource is assigned to fill in for a resource who is leaving. The new resource will be working on a small
project that is critical to a larger program milestone. Unfortunately, there is a rumor that the new resource may be
a problem, due to a lack of skills. How should the Project Manager respond to this rumor?
answer choices

Assess the new resource’s communication skills to Meet with the new resource to discuss their skills
evaluate their ability to perform acceptably as part and then determine how they can contribute to the
of the project team. project.

Privately ask the project management office (PMO) Meet with the functional manager of the new
to assign a different resource with better skills. resource to discuss the rumor and see if it is true.

151. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A team member has been absent for a week without providing notification and could not be reached by email or
phone. Due to the absence, several successor activities are behind schedule, impacting the project’s critical path.
 How should the Project Manager respond to this situation?
answer choices

Add a new resource who can complete the work Discuss the situation with the team member, and
package in a professional manner. work with them to identify a workable solution.

Require that the team member complete the work Ask the functional manager for additional support
package more quickly when they return. on the project, including assignment of a new
resource.
152. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager is uncertain about the duration of a project for a new product and consults several groups
of subject matter experts (SMEs). The first group advises that development can be finished in 40 days. The second
group identifies some risks that could make the duration up to 60 days. The third group proposes a new
development method that can shorten the time to 20 days. What is the estimated development
duration for the new product?
answer choices

20 Days 40 Days

60 Days 30 Days

153. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager is uncertain about the duration of a new project and consults several groups
of subject matter experts (SMEs). The first group advises that development can be finished in 29 days. The second
group identifies some risks that could make the duration up to 46 days. The third group proposes a new
development method that can shorten the time to 18 days. Using the Triangular estimation technique,
what is the estimated development duration for the new product?
answer choices

28 Days 31 Days

32 Days 36 Days

154. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager is uncertain about the duration of a new product development project and consults several
groups of subject matter experts (SMEs). The first group advises that development can be finished in 14 days. The
second group identifies some risks that could make the duration up to 32 days. The third group proposes a new
development method that can shorten the time to 8 days. What is the estimated development
duration for the new product using the Beta estimation technique?
answer choices

12 Days 16 Days

14 Days 20 Days

155. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A product passes 99% percent of the functional requirements defined in the scope. A customer is unwilling to
accept the product since it did not pass 100%. A Project Manager is assessing what could have been
done differently to avoid this. What should the Project Manager have done?
answer choices

Properly evaluated the test management plan. Produced the work breakdown structure (WBS).

Defined and communicated the quality metrics. Verified the requirements documentation.

156. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project is utilizing a third-party contractor. A member of the contractor's team raises an issue with a
member of the project team. The two individuals are not able to work out a solution. The Project
Manager is aware of the disagreement. Which type of communication should the Project Manager use
first when contacting the vendor about this issue?
answer choices

Face-to-face Phone

Contractual Letter Email

157. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A software vendor is behind on a key project deliverable. There is a 21% buffer in the budget for cost
overruns. The Project Manager needs to mitigate the issue. Which action should the
Project Manager take next?
answer choices

Evaluate alternative software vendors that can help Remove the current vendor and have the new
project deliverables despite resource constraints. vendor send a contract.

Ask the vendor to meet to discuss legal issues Accept the cost overrun and update the project
regarding the slippage. schedule.

158. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project needs a specialized resource. A resource that fits the needs of the project is identified, and can work
onsite, but lives in another country. The visa process was expected to take weeks but is now taking months. What should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Ask the existing team to work overtime. Place a limit on the project's scope.

Put the project on hold by an equivalent duration. Request that the resource work virtually.

159. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. To determine which product to create, a project feasibility study was conducted. However, a change request was
recently approved to develop another product that contradicts the original requirements. Data
specialists conducted an analysis before the change request was approved. What is an appropriate
action for the Project Manager to take?
answer choices

Perform the change request. Do not accept the change request.

Review a detailed report of the data analysis. Review a feasibility study of the new product.

160. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project that should have been 70 percent complete by now is only 55 percent complete. The total project budget
is US$210,000, and the actual cost spent to date is US$162,000. What is the scheduled performance
index (SPI) and cost performance index (CPI) of this project?
answer choices

The SPI is 0.79, and the CPI is 0.71. The SPI is 1.27, and the CPI is 0.98.

The SPI is 0.82, and the CPI is 1.05. The SPI is 0.99, and the CPI is 0.96.

161. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project that should have been 90 percent complete by now is only 84 percent complete. The total project budget
is US$110,000 and the actual cost to date is US$82,000. What is the schedule performance index (SPI)
and cost performance index (CPI) for this project?
answer choices

The SPI is 0.93, and the CPI is 1.13. The SPI is 1.07, and the CPI is 0.99.

The SPI is 1.15, and the CPI of 0.93. The SPI is 0.96, and the CPI is 1.18.

162. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project that should have been 95 percent complete by now is only 80 percent complete. The total project budget
is US$140,000 and the total spent to date is US$95,000. What is the schedule performance index (SPI)
and a cost performance index (CPI) of the project?
answer choices

The SPI is 0.86, and the CPI is 1.14. The SPI is 1.19, and the CPI is 0.96.

The SPI is 0.84, and the CPI is 1.18. The SPI is 0.94, and the CPI is 1.16.

163. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager is working on a software development project. Two customers are repeatedly
submitting new feature requests. The completed scope definition for the product's next version release has
already been provided to stakeholders. What should the Project Manager do next?
answer choices
Ask to meet with the product manager, and discuss Meet with the sponsor immediately to discuss
reducing the number of new requests. project boundaries.

Meet face-to-face with stakeholders to set Assess the scope management plan to see how
expectations. changes in scope are managed.

164. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project has the following budgetary features: -Total budget of US$3 million -Planned value of
US$630,000 -Actual cost of US$650,000 -Earned value of US$540,000 Which statement is
true about this project?
answer choices

It is under budget, and ahead of schedule. It is over budget and behind schedule.

It is over budget and ahead of schedule. It is under budget and behind schedule.

165. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager receives the following information for a new project: -assumptions -
preliminary scope -restrictions After receiving this information, what is the first step the Project
Manager should take?
answer choices

Discern the project goals as well as the business Determine the project team and provide the team
case. with tasks.

Decide on the project schedule and determine the Seek approval for the project charter from the
critical path. sponsor.

166. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager recently joined a new project. This project has the following characteristics: 
 -Deadlines that are tight -Global team that works virtually -Fixed budget The Project
Manager is in the planning stage, and wants to avoid scope creep and keep the team focused on delivering a
product that meets requirements. What should the Project Manager do to achieve this goal?
answer choices

Ensure that any changes to scope go through the Ensure that daily stand-ups occur, with all
formal approval process. development teams.

Ensure that the development team leads generate Ensure that stakeholders do not directly interact
detailed requirements. with the development team leads.

167. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. After a project delay, the Project Manager determines that a change is needed to the product deliverables in order
to ensure quality. The Project Manager takes the following steps: 1. A formal change request is issued.
 2. The Project Manager communicates the change to all stakeholders. 3. The Project Manager receives
feedback that the communications approach did not meet stakeholders' expectations. What should
the Project Manager do next?
answer choices

Refer to the communications management plan, Ensure stakeholders' expectations are included in
and issue a status report. the project management plan by issuing a change
request.

Hold a meeting with the project sponsor to better Review the communications management and
understand stakeholders' expectations. stakeholder engagement plans to see if the
processes were followed. An update to one or both
plans might be warranted.

168. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The project sponsor reports that an element of a product could lead to moderate health issues in customers. Therefore, the sponsor asks to modify production materials. Which action should the Project
Manager take?
answer choices

Promptly implement the change and submit a Refer to the Perform Integrated Change Control
change request for formal documentation. process to examine the issue further.

Halt current production and initiate the Perform Do not fulfill the request because it will lead to
Integrated Change Control process. scope creep.

169. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. There are necessary changes being requested to a project; however, team members are not in agreement
regarding how to implement the changes. The Project Manager needs to address this issue. Which action should the Project Manager take?
answer choices

Use the change management plan and ensure all Schedule an in-person meeting with the project
team members and stakeholders understand and sponsor and the board to address the issue.
follow it.

Hold a meeting with team members to assess the Ensure all requested changes are applied to the
issues and request changes where needed. project and communicate face-to-face with all team
members.

170. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager with limited experience managing globally-distributed team members receives a project that
has team members from five countries, spanning three continents. To successfully manage this
project, the Project Manager needs to develop cultural sensitivity. What should the Project Manager
do?
answer choices

Be flexible when working with team members, Seek guidance from the human resource
recognize that culture is learned, and be aware of department, and request to be certified in this
local customs. topic.

Request for another Project Manager to lead the Gather requisite learning material to better
project and follow behind this person to gain understand every detail of each team member's
necessary skills. culture to be sensitive to their needs.

171. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project sponsor is risk averse and is therefore concerned about negative impacts on the project. To help with
this concern, the project team identifies four project risks and then evaluates both the probability of occurrence
and the impact of the risk if it occurs. The team uses a 1-5 scale, 1 being the lowest and 5 being the highest. Risk Probability Impact A 3 5 B 4 2 C 3 3 D 2 2 Based on the
table, in what order should the Project Manager rank these risks for risk management purposes?
answer choices

A, C, B, D B, A, D, C

C, D, A, B D, A, C, B

172. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project is completed, but the Project Manager and project team members are being asked to do the following:
 -Troubleshoot and resolve technical issues -Evaluate new requirements -Make minor
adjustments The Project Manager needs to ensure that the product developed by the project now has
operational support. What should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Since the product is still under development, Procure project acceptance.

continue to fulfill the requests.

Contact the project team, dismiss them from the Execute the project hand off.
project, and find a new project.

173. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project has the following characteristics: -It's being executed by the project team. -500 products
have been developed based on the originally-approved blueprint. -The project team randomly selected 50
products to evaluate against the quality plan. What is occurring in this scenario?
answer choices
The project team is performing inspections. The project team is utilizing statistical sampling.

The project team is conducting audits. The project team is undertaking a manage quality
measure.

174. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager has the following situation: -A very long project management plan is drafted. -
Stakeholders on the project are spread across three continents. -The Project Manager needs the
stakeholders to approve the plan in as short of time as possible. What is an appropriate course of
action for the Project Manager to take?
answer choices

1. Divide the plan into sections. 2. Based on 1. Send the plan to each stakeholder individually.
their areas of expertise, ask select stakeholders to 2. Ask them to add their comments and
review particular portions. return it for updating.

1. Arrange a meeting with all stakeholders. 2. 1. Schedule individual meetings. 2. Invite only
Have the stakeholders review the plan before the the key stakeholders, and walk them through the
meeting. plan.

175. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager has identified the following: -Four critical risks with a high-impact. -Four
specific resources necessary for addressing the risks. -The resources are committed to another project with
critical deliverables. The Project Manager must find a solution to address these risks immediately. Which actions should the Project Manager take?
answer choices

1. Check to see if the resources will be available 1. Contract a third-party vendor. 2. Assign this
when the risks are scheduled to occur. 2. vendor to these tasks.
Work with the functional manager to see if other
resources are available to handle the risks if they
happen.

1. Accept the risks. 2. Monitor these risks 1. Create a contingency reserve to solve the
often to reduce potential impact. potential schedule delay. 2. Mitigate the
possible impact.

176. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project has a quality management plan in place. This plan states that project deliverables must be
reviewed for quality at least 5 business days before the deadline. Four deliverables have missed this quality
requirement. What should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Generate a cause-and-effect diagram for analysis. Re-write relevant portions of the quality
management plan.

Inquire regarding the feasibility of an internal audit Contact the project sponsor, and request advice.
of the project.

177. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Several team members frequently spend their time helping operations and maintenance staff with a project
feature that was just commissioned. The Project Manager needs to ensure that the feature was signed
off on and that ownership was transferred. Which documents should the Project Manager rely on for
this purpose?
answer choices

Procurement agreements, organizational process Procurement agreements, organizational process

assets updates, and final report. assets updates, and project document updates.

Stakeholder engagement plan, organizational Project document updates, organizational process

process assets updates, and procurement assets updates, and final report.
agreements.

178. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager joins a project as a replacement on a project team. During initial meetings, the Project Manager
realizes there are many differing opinions about how to address technical decisions. Team members do not
respect each other's ideas, and the environment is becoming counterproductive. However, the team developed
processes and procedures and is now working smoothly and productively on the project, without conflict or
interruption. In what phase of development is the team?
answer choices

Forming Storming

Norming Performing

179. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager is presented with the following situation: -An iteration just ended. -A team
member tells the Project Manager that a planned task is not complete due to an issue that appeared 4 days ago
that was not resolved. The Project Manager wants to prevent this scenario in the future. When is an appropriate time to discuss this issue?
answer choices

During the retrospective. In the demo.

During the next iteration planning meeting. In the next daily standup meeting.

180. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project has the following characteristics: -Schedule performance issues are occurring due to
expertise levels of project resources. -Highly-experienced resources are reviewing unnecessary details. -Junior-level resources are not completing tasks in a timely manner. The Project Manager needs to
enhance team performance. What should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Where necessary, have the senior-level resources Where necessary, implement training, and design a
help the inexperienced resources. checklist for all team members.

Where necessary, replace specific junior-level Where necessary, conduct training for the junior-
resources, and advise the senior-level resources. level staff members.

181. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An informal and unofficial blog was set up to enhance communication and morale among project team members.
 The Project Manager was not previously aware of the blog but has discovered that team members
are using it inappropriately. What should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Review the blog and assess the communications Reprimand all individuals involved, and report the
management plan. issue to the compliance office.

Close down the blog, as it is not part of the Identify an administrator who can monitor
communications management plan. communications on the blog.

182. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A key project resource is discussing the complexity of project deliverables with the Project Manager 1.5 weeks
before the kick-off call. The resource expresses nervousness and concern regarding the deliverables. The Project Manager wants to ensure that the deliverables are realistic. What is the appropriate
action to take?
answer choices

Implement a feasibility study, and then assess and Hold a meeting with the project sponsor to discuss
review the results. the resource's concerns, and revise the project
charter.

Ensure that the concerns are documented in the Start to identify threats and preventive actions by
issue log for later review. performing a risk assessment.

183. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Four new risks for a project are identified while the Project Manager is preparing the monthly project status
report. These four risks could affect vital key milestones. What should the Project
Manager do before presenting this new risk information?
answer choices

Review the risk report and lessons learned Review the organizational process assets and risk
repository. register.

Refer to the risk management plan and the risk Add risks to the risk register, analyze them for
report. impact to the project and identify response plans.

184. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project that is nearing completion has the following characteristics: -It is very large. -It contains
functional groups in five different countries. -Closeout documents are being prepared. The
Project Manager needs to gain acceptance of the project deliverables. What should the Project
Manager do?
answer choices

Seek the project sponsor's sign off. Contact the steering committee for sign off.

Seek sign off from the director of the Project Contact managers from the five countries involved
Manager's business unit. in the project for sign off.

185. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. During a kick-off, the Project Manager provided training for the entire team regarding the specifics of the company
operations that the project supports. A year later, project productivity is suffering because members
who were added later in the project do not have the same level of understanding. How should the
Project Manager respond to this challenge?
answer choices

Tell the newer team members to ask for help from Ask current team members to provide training and
the long-term members when they run into things support, and hold a second kick-off meeting for
they do not understand. new team members.

Add new members who have the relevant Recognize that this is a natural project progression,
experience, reassign the newer team members, and and revise the schedule to allow for the slight
log turnover issues in the lessons learned register. decrease in productivity.

186. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project has increased in size. As a result, the project's single sponsor is replaced by a steering committee. What should the Project Manager do to accommodate this new development?
answer choices

Ensure that the communications and stakeholder Ensure that the initial project plan is followed, since
engagement plans are revised to include the new the new stakeholders will focus on the project’s
steering committee members. progress to date.

Introduce the steering committee to the team and Make sure that the new steering committee
continue to follow the initial project plan in order to members are included when sending the current
meet project deadlines. status report for the project.
187. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. During user testing, a client agrees to the final product. One day later the client indicates that the final product
may not be acceptable. What should be the Project Manager’s first step for resolving this issue?
answer choices

Discuss concerns with the client and consult the Review the project's quality management plan.
project’s acceptance criteria.

Review the project’s requirements documentation. Refer to the project charter and lessons learned
register.

188. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Both the project sponsor and project team assure a Project Manager that the new project has a realistic schedule
and an adequate budget. The Project Manager worries that unplanned events could threaten the project’s
success. How should the Project Manager respond to this concern?
answer choices

Review the original project plan and focus on Ask for additional funding to cover project planning.
completing the plan on schedule.

Schedule a meeting with the functional manager to List and assess any project risks.
address the potential impact of unplanned risks.

189. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The Project Manager has a large project with functional groups in four countries. Now that the project is close to
completion, the Project Manager needs to obtain the correct signoff on the acceptance of project deliverables. What should be done to obtain the appropriate signoff on this project?
answer choices

Ask the project sponsor to sign off. Ask the steering committee to sign off.

Ask the director of the Project Manager's business Ask for signoff from the managers of the four
unit to sign off. countries involved in the project.

190. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. After the start of a project, the Project Manager learns that an expected governmental subsidy may not be
available. What should the Project Manager do to address this issue?
answer choices

Log the risk. Make sure that the information is added to the
issue log.

Make up any project deficit using the contingency Make a change request.
reserve.
191. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Three project teams are working on parts of a single project. The parts are highly dependent on each other. The
leader of the team indicates that this might create conflicts when the outputs from the three teams are combined.
 The Project Manager needs to provide guidance to the team lead. What guidance should
be offered?
answer choices

The team lead should identify potential conflicts, The team lead should decide which team’s work
and arrange for a weekly joint meeting with the should be prioritized, then delay the work from the
members of the three teams to monitor each other two teams to ensure there are no conflicts.
other’s work.

The team lead should document conflicts as they The team lead should tell all three teams to
occur, and take action to remedy any problems that continue to work simultaneously, recognizing that
arise. conflicts can be addressed at the testing phase.

192. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project was not meeting scheduled dates for some tasks, so the Project Manager reprioritized a number of
subsequent tasks to try to get the project back on track. The reprioritization did not fix the problem, and now the
Project Manager needs to escalate the issue to project stakeholders. To escalate the issue, to which
plan should the Project Manager refer?
answer choices

Communications management plan. Stakeholder engagement plan.

Change management plan. Baselines for scope plan.

193. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A deliverable does not meet the agreed-upon quality specifications and is rejected by the customer. After
investigation, the project team finds that there is a fault with the vendor-provided parts, and this fault caused the
issue. The vendor says that they cannot correct the situation. What should be reviewed
before deciding on next steps?
answer choices

The service level agreement (SLA) established with The procurement management plan and contract
the vendor. agreements.

The internal quality assurance reports. The resource management plan.

194. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. There are concerns about the cost risk of adding an external supplier at the mid-point of a project. Still, several
team members have been transferred to another project, and the Project Manager requires resource support
from an external supplier. The Project Manager needs to work with the procurement team to
establish specifications and type of contract to be used. What should be done?
answer choices

Suggest a fixed price incentive fee (FPIF) contract. Recommend a time and material (TM) contract.

Suggest a cost plus incentive fee (CPIF) contract. Recommend a firm fixed price (FFP) contract.

195. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Although a previously-identified technical issue has been resolved, the Project Manager is warned that the same
issue is likely to occur on similar projects in the future. Which document should be part of the first
step in responding to the warning?
answer choices

The issue log. A risk report.

A communication for the project sponsor. The lessons learned register.

196. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Replace the team member with a new resource Schedule a meeting with the team member’s
from another department. manager to negotiate for additional time to
complete the other task.

Notify the project sponsor, documenting the Notify the team member’s manager of project
conflict caused by the member’s manager. needs, and require the release of the member until
the project activity is completed.

197. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Successful project leaders nurture team members’ skills and knowledge, and keep members motivated
throughout the project. Which action helps to promote successful project leadership?
answer choices

Be assertive, and stand up for the team’s needs, Promote team challenges by delegating project
concerns, and beliefs. tasks.

Schedule daily sessions where team members can Create a team reward for each successfully-
voice concerns and receive a response. completed task.

198. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The project is overseen by a senior Project Manager. When a new Project Manager is added to the project, the
sponsor asks the new Project Manager to develop the quality management plan. How should the new
Project Manager proceed?
answer choices

Postpone the development of the quality Schedule a meeting with the customer to collect
management plan by submitting a change request. requirements and obtain benchmarking samples.
Only proceed when quality metrics and quality
checklists have been created.

Schedule a meeting with the sponsor to obtain Obtain established quality processes and plans
benchmarking samples and cost-benefit analyses. from the senior Project Manager. Then, ask them
for guidance in selecting the appropriate standards.

199. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Two users complain during the project’s user acceptance stage, saying that their expectations were not met. What could the Project Manager use to avoid this issue in the future?
answer choices

Stakeholder feedback. Risk assessments.

Conflict management techniques. A professional relationship with the users.

200. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A new project sponsor asks for a project team that includes resources working in three different time zones and
locations. The project sponsor did not consider the implications of this requirement, and believes that the request
will save costs while creating the ideal project team. Where should the Project Manager document this
request in the project charter?
answer choices

Key stakeholder list. Overall project risks.

High-level requirements. Resource management plan.

201. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. As a result of multiple regulatory changes, a governmental agency is added as a key stakeholder on a complex
project. The Project Manager wants to develop an understanding of this new stakeholder and identify any new
high-level risks that may result from the change. What should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Review the stakeholder engagement plan. Identify needed changes to the assumption log.

Meet with the new stakeholders. Check with the project sponsor regarding the
benefits management plan.

202. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager is having difficulty obtaining consistent input from stakeholders, and needs their input to
identify strategic and operational assumptions and constraints. How can the Project Manager improve
stakeholder input?
answer choices

Use political awareness techniques. Institute checklist policies.

Research effective meeting management Make use of effective facilitation techniques.

techniques.

203. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project involves six different companies, and the project sponsor is a global organization. At the midpoint of the
project, the Project Manager is informed that one stakeholder is experiencing difficulties and cannot provide their
former level of involvement. Which action should the Project Manager perform?
answer choices

Update the stakeholder engagement plan. Revise the project charter.

Update the stakeholder register. Revise the project management plan.

204. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A company’s products will be affected by a new law that might be passed in the next four months. A new product
launch is starting, and should be completed within three months. If the proposed law is passed, the new product
will not meet the new requirements. How should the Project Manager address this potential problem?
answer choices

1. Update the risk management plan. 2. Move 1. Discuss risks with the sponsor and key
ahead with project planning. stakeholders. 2. Using the results of the
discussion, update the assumption log and project
charter.

1. Move forward with the project and project 1. Warn the sponsor and key stakeholders about
planning. 2. Meet all deadlines, ensuring that the implications of the possible law. 2. Advise
the product will be complete prior to potential them to put the project on hold until the legislation
change in the law. is passed.

205. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An approved change was implemented to manage a risk. Three months later, the Project Manager finds that the
change did not yield the desired result. In fact, the change led to adverse consequences. What should
the Project Manager do to avoid this issue in the future?
answer choices

Update the risk information to the lessons learned Review the assumption log to revisit or change
register. current assumptions.
Confirm that an implemented risk response is Evaluate new risks, and update the probability and
effective. impact matrix.

206. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager overhears a conversation in the company's cafeteria. The speaker says that a possible union
action will occur within the next two weeks. The Project Manager knows that any union action will
affect the project team, and at this stage of the project, any project delays will cause substantial harm to both
budget and schedule. Earlier, the probability of a union action was considered minimal. Thus, it was
unanticipated. What should the Project Manager do?
answer choices

Inform relevant stakeholders and update the risk Ask stakeholders for additional information
register with the new risk. regarding the likelihood of the union action, then
act on what is heard.

Set up an information session for the project team, Meet with union members and the union leader to
letting them know of possible disciplinary sanctions resolve this conflict.
for those who participate in the union action.

207. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. While reviewing the issues log, the Project Manager notices that tasks assigned to two team members are quite a
bit behind schedule. What should be done?
answer choices

Notify the responsible team members of the need Document the issue, escalate to the project
to complete the overdue tasks quickly in order to sponsor, and ask for how they would like it
avoid introducing extra project risks. resolved.

Tell the team members who are behind schedule Work with the relevant team members to review
that they should explain why tasks were delayed the delayed tasks and decide on strategies for
and how they will get back on schedule. resolution.

208. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project sponsor is risk averse and is therefore concerned about negative impacts on the project. To help with
this concern, the project team identifies four project risks and then evaluates both the probability of occurrence
and the impact of the risk if it occurs. The team uses a 1-5 scale, 1 being the lowest and 5 being the highest. Risk Probability Impact A 4 4 B 2 5 C 2 3 D 3 4 Based on the
table, in what order should the Project Manager rank these risks for risk management purposes?
answer choices

B, A, D, C B, C, A, D

A, D, B, C C, D, A, B
209. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Project Manager has put together a project team. During initial meetings, the Project Manager observes that
team members are getting to know each other, feeling excited and positive about the project, and have not been
told the specific details of the project. In what phase of development is the team?
answer choices

Storming Norming

Forming Performing

210. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A smart phone manufacturer is re-assessing its product development methods in response to a sharp increase in
user complaints. Analysis of the complaints indicates that the users try to use some features in ways that
designers did not anticipate. Given these findings, which agile practice would most effectively prevent
the problem?
answer choices

Acceptance Test-Driven Development Smoke Testing

Behavior-Driven Development Red, green, refactor

211. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Six months into a strategic agile project, company exectives are closely monitoring its progress. The COO
expresses his frustration that the last weekly burn-down charts show the projected completion date significantly
moving back and forward several times. How can the project manager forecast the completion date
with more accuracy and stability?
answer choices

Ensure upcoming backlog items are elaborated in Educate the executive committee on the flexible
more detail with the team. nature of agile planning.

Plan for variable-size iterations according to story Reduce frequency of the progress reports sent to
complexity and load. senior stakeholders.

212. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project manager experienced in predictive methods is taking on an agile project for the first time. To help in
adjusting, the project manager makes a watchlist of situations that arise from inadequate action as a servant
leader. Which situations would result from a lack of servant leadership? (Choose THREE.)
answer choices

Team members avoid taking on challenging tasks Team members avoid direct communication with
other departments

Team members raise impediments they are unable High performers in the team move to more senior
to eliminate positions

Project stakeholders express skepticism of agile

methods

213. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A new team member, unaccustomed to agile practices, becomes nervous when an operations engineer who often
criticized his previous work appears at the morning standup meeting. What could justify the project
manager's invitation to the operations engineer?
answer choices

It is an agile practice used to prevent routine setting It is a way to boost the new member's performance
in to daily meetings and keep him on his toes

It is a standard practice in agile to proactively It is a way for the project manager to learn more
correct misalignments about the new member

214. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A trend of stories uncompleted at the end of iterations has become apparent. Multiple team members worked on
these stories and no blockers were identified . What can the agile team do to resolve the situation?
answer choices

Put the stories back into the product backlog and Use the next iteration for a team spike to determine
wait for a less intensive iteration to work on them feasibility of completing the stories

Put the stories in the blocked column and work with Work with the product owner to further break down
the product owner to remove impediments the stories in the backlog and update the Definition
of Ready

215. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The empowered agile team showed impressive progress in the first four iterations, but now the product owner
has noticed low output in the latest five iterations without any apparent reason. What could be the
cause of this situation?
answer choices

The team worked on low complexiity stories from Technical debt has set in and the team's output will
the backlog in the first four interations keep dropping until the cause is eliminated

The team was in the storming stage of the There is most likely a specific under-performing
development and now have moved to norming team member slowing the team down

216. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Several items remain in the kanban blocked column despite the team's efforts to address them. The retrospective
reveals that all the impediments can be traced back to a particular department head, one the project manager has
tried to educate previously but who still shows resistance. What should the project manager do next?
answer choices

Ask the department head for budgetary Use stakeholder analysis to identify an aligned
compensation proportional to the delays incurred senior stakeholder to influence the department
due to lack of cooperation head

Ask the team members to find other stakeholders Set up an information radiator ranking stakeholders
who can help work around the department head's according to their active support of the project
barriers goals

217. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Several items remain in the kanban blocked column despite the team's efforts to resolve the issues. The
retrospective reveals that all of the impediments relate to mandatory corporate business processes which
introduce wait times. What should the project manager do next?
answer choices

Act as a servant leader to resolve the pending Dedicate the next iteration to team training on the
business process issues while the team attend a business processes to help them work more
team building event autonomously

Work with process owners to streamline Work with the team to increase the story point
procedures, and secure the team coaching on the estimates in the backlog to account for the business
processes process delays

218. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The quarterly results show that competitors are driving prices down. The company is losing market share and
midway into a product development project, it appears the sponsoring unit is not likely to get return on their
investment. What should the project manager do adapt the project to these new conditions? (Select
TWO.)
answer choices

Incrementally replace local staff by outside expert Re-scope the project to deliver the same features as
staff who can work at half the hourly rate or less the competitors to match their pricing

Make a cost/benefit analysis of deliverables to Fast-track the remainder of the project to deliver
optimize delivery cost and speed the intended scope with less overhead costs.

Split out an agile track to incrementally maximize

value within a fixed budget

219. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A security-classified, agile software project requires outside expertise and delivery to add a module based on
machine learning. An approved supplier asks the project manager to join the daily meeting with the supplier's
agile team, but the project manager's schedule is too full with internal meetings. How could the two
teams synchronize interactively but somewhat less frequently?
answer choices

Set up fishbowl windows at each site Add and execute a Scrum of Scrum layer

Align iterations for common retrospectives Share a common electronic Kanban

220. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The marketing director is displeased that the agile innovation team is producing too many novelty products with
too little business value. What should the project manager do to correct the team's approach? (Select
TWO.)
answer choices

Work with the product owners to tighten value Ask the team to take a training course on direct
criteria in the definition of ready response marketing

Increase the story sizes to integrate more valuable Survey end users and integrate resulting value rank
features into the product backlog

Add a process so the marketing director can

approve each story

221. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An agile innovation team is highly productive. However, the Head of Operations informs the product owner the
company is not getting sustainable return on investment from the team's work. How should the
product owner address the problem?
answer choices

Define a Minimum Viable Product with the team Reduce the number of team members as necessary
and prioritize relevant backlog items to guarantee a positive return on investiment

Identify Minimum Marketable Features and Work with the project manager to run a
prioritize relevant backlog items retrospective and perform project cancellation

222. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An efficient, empowered agile innovation team do not understand why required approvals from the legal
department are allowed to delay their progess. Eventually, the team confronts the product owner in a heated
retrospective exchange. The product owner replies that the approvals are needed to check for existing patents
which would block the team's product from going to market. How should such conflicts be prevented?
 
answer choices

Require that supporting department stakeholders Ensure that the product owner can be easily
attend the daily meetings to report progress approached to respond to team questions and
concerns
Require the team to move a story to the kanban Ensure that the product owner presents the team
blocked column if they have concerns about the rationale behind the refinement work flow
progress

223. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A new agile innovation team will be set up with a mission to place product quality above all other considerations.
The initiative comes after a number of high-visibility complaints on social networks about the brand's drop in
quality. Which method would be most effective to achieve the team's goals?
answer choices

Raise the product price to fund use of better quality Benchmark features against competitor products
materials and track defects

Create an automated testing bench to eliminate Use Test-Driven Development based on continuous
human error user focus group input

224. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An agile development team finds a workaround to remove a significant blocker. Their output increases
dramatically over the next two iterations. At the third iteration retrospective, the product owner is horrified to
learn about the workaround and asks the team to redo the work based on a better solution. How can
the project manager prevent such situations?
answer choices

Set out all decision path conditions in the ground Request additional funding from the product owner
rules and correct any deviations as early as possible for re-work due to lack of collaboration with the
team

Ensure regular engagement with the product owner As serviant leader, help the team to focus by
and run catch-up meetings if necessary offloading all work on removing impediments

225. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The agile team is composed of highly skilled product design engineers. Their reputation for quality and speed has
earned them new duties in concept development for new products, but team output in this new role has dropped
steeply compared to their design work. Which measures are most effective to improve team
productivity in this case? (Select TWO.)
answer choices

Plan a creativity spike in the next iteration Seek creative thinkers to mentor the team

Prolong the iterations to adjust to new tasks Hire more T-shaped profiles into the team

Boost motivation with a team buidling event

226. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An innovative product fails to satisfy targeted consumers despite significant investments in quality control and
marketing campaigns. Which agile practice would best prevent future failures of this nature?
answer choices

Run continuous consumer usability testing on Align objectives between the product owner and
product releases marketing

Broaden the persona type definition of the target Add more features and tests to the Minimal Viable
consumer Product

227. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. At the end of an Agile project, all stories are completed on schedule and all tests passed, but the customer does
not consider the product a success. Which is the most effective way to prevent this outcome in future
projects?
answer choices

Ensure that the product vision is approved by the Agree with the customer on success criteria to be
customer before developing the backlog integrated to the Definition of Done

Collect customer feedback on incremental release Ensure that the test plan includes non-functional
demos and user tests requirements in the backlog

228. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An agile team is struggling to solve a blocking issue with packaging design. Eventually, they find a solution, but it
requires a different product format. What should the team do before further developing the solution?
answer choices

Create a prototype and demo it to the end Ask the product owner to approve the change
customer

Run a cost/benefit analysis to determine its value Check if the change is consistent with the product
vision

229. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A company is losing market share to disruptive competitors with new business models. A cross-functional agile
team has been formed to recommend ways to recover market share. How can the team increase their
chance of producing successful recommendations?
answer choices

Gain a deep understanding of why customers are Focus on enabling profitable delivery of unique,
disappointed by the company's products high-quality and innovative products

Understand how the competitors' business models Focus on understanding the value consumers seek
can reach more consumers at a lower cost and the value competitors offer
230. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Members of a virtual agile team are separated by seven timezones. Daily meetings are too long and the problem
is made worse by switching laptop cameras between the speaking members. Which measures should
the project manager take to achieve shorter, more efficient daily meetings? (Select TWO).
answer choices

Use the iteration reviews to discuss the kanban Require all members to stand during the full
board meeting

Place webcams to face the kanban boards and Ask the team members to raise blockers off-line
teams

Limit speakers to only members who have made

progress

231. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The IT department of a glassware manufacturer enthusiastically approved the agile team's mid-project demo of
quality checking software for assembly line workers. However, the final product was considered unusable because
the workers' gloves are too thick to press the software's small buttons. What should the project
manager do to avoid this kind of failure in the future?
answer choices

Contract directly with the customer department Ensure that all software releases include adjustable
that defines the product requirements accessibilty features

Create a realistic simulation of end-user conditions Plan for end users to test prototypes and
for developers testing the software incremental releases in their target environments

232. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The Project Management Office wants to offer constant reporting across the dozens of agile projects running
concurrently. They want to use information radiators to share progress status and key lessons learned. How can this best be achieved?
answer choices

Place monitors displaying combined feature burn- Use fishbowl windows to show all project teams'
up charts and a digest of retrospectives kanban boards and charts in real time

Place webcams to broadcast all kanban boards and Set up an internal wiki page which all agile teams
cycle the images sequentially on the radiator update in real time and users consult on demand

233. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Four of the five agile team members are away for a month, but the project needs to make progress. Three foreign
contractors are working remotely on the stories. In their first sprint, they misinterpreted certain usability
requirements, but completed five stories blocked due to algorithmic complexity. What should the
product owner do?
answer choices

Engage an interpretor to translate all the Assign all the usability stories to the local team
requirements member

Reprioritize the backlog to match the remote team's Find another remote team with better linguistic
skills skills.

234. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Scrum innovation team is funded at varying levels by six market units. Four niche market units complain they
are neglected because the team prioritizes mainstream unit goals. The CMO asks to devote a constant 40% of the
team effort to the four niche units in a balanced way. How can the product owner support this
request?
answer choices

Group stories by unit, select 40% of niche stories to Split stories into mainstream or niche groups, plan
work on at each sprint 40% of niche story points at each sprint

Group stories by unit, plan 10% of story points per Split stories into mainstream or niche groups, plan
niche unit at each sprint 10% of mainstream storiies at each sprint

235. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An agile team is subject to frequent rotation of staff from various departments to augment the team. How should the project manager compensate for the disruption to the non-rotating team members?
answer choices

Give them authority to assign tasks to the rotating Ask staff leaving the project to pick members who
members deserve recognition

Give them higher priority to choose which tasks Require staff leaving the project to run a knowledge
they work on sharing workshop

236. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The agile team sometimes has idle periods while awaiting a product director to inform the product owner on new
goals. The decisions depend on analysis of market research. Which measure could reconcile the needs
of the director and the agile team?
answer choices

Plan team training events to coincide with the After clearing the backlog, run market research
anticipated idle periods spikes to update the director

Eliminate slack by reducing the team size to smooth Run team brainstorming sessions on new goals to
the output curve suggest to the director
237. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A governmental anti-money laundering software project needs a solution to collaborate with a remote agile team
of four in another country. Spontaneous verbal communication between the teams must be supported. All the
remote team's workstations and kanban boards must be visible at all times. Which virtual team
collaboration solution is most appropriate?
answer choices

Information radiator monitors On-demand video conferencing

Workstation screen mirroring Always-on fishbowl windows

238. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A startup needs to quickly expand its product portfolio to meet market demand. Recently, staff might work on two
or three agile teams, each dedicated to a different product line. Output is dropping and defect rates are rising in
all teams. How can the project manager help the agile teams improve their work? (Select TWO.)
answer choices

Perform root-cause analysis in the next Influence the product owners to right-size their
retrospectives portfolios

Organize dedicated teams to reduce context Appoint dedicated test teams to offload the agile
switching teams

Train the agile teams to improve time and focus

management

239. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Over the past six months, the cost per story has risen by more than 250% due to a faulty platform which is no
longer supported. The agile project is projected to exceed the budget increment threshold at the next iteration. Who should decide if the project should be cancelled?
answer choices

The head of business control The product owner

The procurement manager The project manager

240. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project manager is visiting a software supplier's office. Some of the sights are surprising: two people per
workstation, estimations based on a deck of cards, developers forcing their tests to fail, and routines with names
such as "traffic_cop" and "ringleader". What could explain these practices?
answer choices

The servant leader has granted the team a bit too The supplier has adopted eXtreme Programming
much freedom methods
The supplier appears to be conducting gamified The project manager happened to visit during a
training sessions team buidling exercise

241. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project manager is using a suitability assessment tool to find the right project approach for a new project. The
tool ranks on the following criteria: - Change: rate of change to requirements - Criticality:
Criticality of product, processes and impact of defects - Buy-in: Executive support for adaptive methods - Team size: Number of members in project team - Team skill: Project team experience - Access:
Direct collaboration/feedback with clients/sponsors Which combination of these factors would be best
suited to a fully agile project approach?
answer choices

Change: medium Criticality: high Buy-in: Change: high Criticality: low Buy-in:
medium Team size: medium Team skill: high Team size: low Team skill: high Access: high />Access: medium

Change: low Criticality: medium Buy-in: Change: low Criticality: low Buy-in:
high Team size: low Team skill: high Team size: medium Team skill:
medium Access: high high Access: high

242. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Marketing wants to be first to market to launch a senior-friendly version of a smartphone shopping application,
and has asked the agile team to develop it. What should the project manager do to begin the
development process?
answer choices

Work with the product owners and SMEs to break Meet with product owner, team and SMEs to
the requirements down into stories identify risks and risk responses

Ask the team to estimate the effort and build the Meet with product owner, team and SMEs to define
business case accordingly the Minimal Viable Product

243. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The atmosphere is tense in the sprint planning review. The agile team are mumbling amongst themselves, one of
them kicks a chair, shouting at the product owner, "That just doesn't make sense!" What should the
project manager do in this situation? (Choose TWO.)
answer choices

Remind the team of the product owner's Calm all present by asking them to call on their
responsiblities and authority emotional intelligence

Intervene, giving one uninterrupted minute to all Reprimand the member who kicked the chair with a
present to state their case warning

Facilitate by asking the team to suggest ways to

resolve the points of dispute
244. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A client selected a software company to develop a smartphone application. The client's legal team required a
detailed source code register for all builds, and refused the company's counter-offer for walk-through meetings
and free developer support. 60% of the project effort was spent on documentation and 15% on implementing 38
feature changes. How many of the of the Four Values of the Agile Manifesto were upheld in this
project?
answer choices

zero one

three four

245. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. User testing on the last product release revealed low user interest in certain features that required significant
effort to develop. What can the agile team do to prevent this disparity in the future?
answer choices

Ask the product owner ensure all stories in the Ensure that user stories in the backlog are broken
backlog support the product vision down into the smallest possible form

Remove all stories from the backlog that are not Perform stakeholder analysis to find SMEs who can
selected for the Minimal Viable Product guide the backlog value ranking process

246. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The product owner's schedule is very tight and he wishes to delegate some of his tasks to the experienced agile
team. Which task is suitable to delegate to the agile team?
answer choices

Prioritize items to the backlog according to size Initiate and run backlog refinement sessions

Select prioritized items for the sprint backlog Add items to the backlog before prioritization

247. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The project manager is using the INVEST method to check the quality of three stories in the product backlog: 
 Story 1: As a user, I want to be able to bend the flex conduit up to 90° in any direction to orient lighting from
a fixed position. Story 2: As a user, I want to exert no more than 4 MPa to bend the flex conduit from an
unsupported standing postion. Story 3: As a assembler, I want to spray a conduit coating that will inhibit all
oxidation when exposed to 50 years of tropical rain conditions. What is the evaluation result for these
stories?
answer choices

Stories 1 and 2 fail on the V criterion and Story 3 All stories fail on the I criterion and Story 3 also fails
fails on the N criterion on the V criterion

Stories 1 and 2 pass all criteria and Story 3 fails on All stories fail on all except the S and T criteria
the T criterion

248. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An ongonig agile project is measured as follows: 2-week Stories Stories Planned Completed Sprint Planned Completed Value Value 1 15 10 450K 300K 2 20 18 600K 540K 3 20 25 800K
1000K 4 22 25 1100K 1250K What conclusions can be drawn from these figures? (Choose TWO.)
 
answer choices

The team worked less efficiently over time The backlog was priroritized for time to value

The team kept a steady rate of efficiency The backlog was not priroritized for time to value

The team worked more efficiently over time

249. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A cultural event project has distinct work packages of varying durations comprised of tasks which cannot be
predictably scheduled. What agile approach would be appropriate in this case?
answer choices

Flow-based Incremental

Predictive Extreme

250. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An efficient agile team in a large corporation generated ideas and added innovative features to the backlog. After
the additional features were tested and complete, the portfolio owner rejects all of them. What is tbe
most likely reason this situation happened?
answer choices

The team did not make use of the normal quality The portfolio owner does not want to pay for the
control processes team's unplanned work

The team would be entitled to intellectual property The product owner did not sufficiently align the
rights on the features ideas with the portfolio owner

251. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A travel company wants to create smartphone applications for their users. Competitors are racing to do the same.
The product owner's vision describes several versions of the app: Basic, Basic Ad-free, Pro, and Premium. Which project approach is best suited to the company's needs?
answer choices
answer choices

Flow-based Incremental

Predictive Iterative

252. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. User test results are back on the prototype release. The test users describe the kind of smoother experience they
want, the many missing features they desire, and the ways the product could be more visually appealing. What conclusions can be drawn from the user's input?
answer choices

The tests are irrelevant: the prototype design is not The tests were a failure: most of the features will
complete need to be re-designed

The tests were a success: the input will ensure a The test results are unusable: the users did not
more targeted backlog understand the goals

253. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. While monitoring progress of the agile team, the project manager notices that an expert member's output is
much lower compared to junior team members. This is a surprise, as the expert works diligently on the most
complex tasks and always produces defect-free results. Which is the most likely explanation for the
developer's low output?
answer choices

The expert works faster and reports fewer hours Younger team members are normally more
than the junior members productive

The story point estimates on the expert's work are The expert runs more tests and therefore
consistently too low completes fewer stories

254. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A financial software company serves stock markets worldwide. An experimental quality assurance project has
agile teams working in three company offices: Seattle, Tokyo and London. The teams work in two shifts in each
location's timezone: Shift 1: 8AM to 4PM Shift 2: 4PM to midnight Which collaboration
method would ensure fastest follow-the-sun problem resolution?
answer choices

Conduct Scrum-of-Scrum meetings daily in order: Run fishbowl windows during the overlap shifts: 1 Tokyo Shift 2 with London Shift 1 - London Shift 1 with Tokyo Shift 2 -
/>2 London Shift 2 with Seattle Shift 1 3 Seattle Shift 1 with London Shift 2 - Tokyo Shift
Seattle Shift 2 with Tokyo Shift 1 1 with Seattle Shift 2

Conduct Scrum-of-Scrum meetings daily in order: Run fishbowl windows during the overlap shifts: 1 Seattle Shift 2 with London Shift 1 - Tokyo Shift 2 with Seattle Shift 1 -
/>2 London Shift 2 -Tokyo Shift 1 3 Tokyo Shift London Shift 1 with Seattle Shift 2 - Tokyo
2 -Seattle Shift 1 Shift 1 with London Shift 2

255. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. As part of an organizational change program, an experienced agile project manager is hired to a company with a
strong predictive culture. What should the project manager do to start helping the company adopt
agile methodologies? (Choose TWO.)
answer choices

Ensure that the MoSCoW method is used to write Analyze all planned projects to pick the appropriate
all project requirements agile model

Show stakeholders how agile can increase quality Train project teams to be more self-reliant and
and decrease risk cross-functional

Identify opportunities for incremental business

value delivery

256. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. In an agile project, too many meetings have made the product owner's schedule unworkable. The product owner
wants to prioritize some meetings and decrease frequency of others. Which meetings should be
prioritized to better ensure successful product development? (Choose TWO.)
answer choices

Project performance reviews Sprint backlog planning

Daily stand-up meetings Team blocker brainstorming

End-user feedback sessions

257. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. In an agile project, too many meetings have made the product owner's schedule unworkable. The project
manager was asked to prioritize some meetings and decrease frequency of others. Which meetings
should the product owner attend less frequently? (Choose TWO.)
answer choices

Sprint retrospectives Product SME consultations

Daily stand-up meetings Team performance reviews

End-user feedback sessions

258. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Over the past six months, the development cost per story has risen by more than 250% due to a faulty platform
which is no longer supported. The product vision highlights that unique features of the platform are a pre-
requisite for the product. What should the project manager do to determine next steps?

answer choices
answer choices
Cancel the project due to exceeding the budget Ask the product owner to select an alternative
constraint platform

Cancel the project as the product vision cannot be Run what-if cost impact scenarios with the product
fulfilled owner

259. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The product owner needs a more precise view of actual time spent on tasks in order to apply more accurate
business value estimates in the product backlog. How should the project manager propose to address
the problem?
answer choices

Halve the iteration length to one week to increase Replan the remainder of the project to use flow-
precision of time usage calculations based agile and standard hourly scheduling

Explain that flexible estimating units enable agile to Train the team on using ideal hour units and work
accelerate delivery of business value with them to restimate the backlog

260. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An agile project is structured without timeboxing. Tasks are grouped by high-level goal, but cannot be predictably
scheduled. How can the work be distributed for efficient execution? (Choose THREE.)
answer choices

Track readiness status to help the team initiate Set deadlines to ensure that the team completes
tasks at the right time. the work in acceptable limits.

Use a task board to group tasks into rows and track Maintain a to do task pool to limit the number of
progress across columns. tasks in progress.

Pre-indentify blockers to determine the order of

execution.

261. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A new product development project is to be initiated in a difficult business context. Competition is driving prices
down and supply costs are rising. Why would an agile incremental project approach be the safest
choice in this context?
answer choices

it ensures that the project can be cancelled at any It accelerates delivery of business value and
time without loss minimizes risk of irrelevancy

It reduces the team size and eliminates It provides stringent methods to reduce cost of
communication bottlenecks quality and conformity

262. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An ongonig agile project is measured as follows: 2-week Stories Stories Planned Completed Sprint Planned Completed Value Value 1 15 10 450K 300K 2 20 18 600K 540K 3 20 25 800K
1000K 4 22 25 1100K 1250K __________________________________________ Totals 77 78 2950K
3090K What are the project's metrics at this point? (Choose TWO.) 
answer choices

SPI = 0.98 CPI = 1.05

CPI = 1.30 SPI = 1.01

CPI=0.95

263. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The company has hired a new Architectural Excellence board with a mission to promote new programming
paradigms. The agile team continues to work on new and existing software products. How should the
project manager deal with this new development?
answer choices

Inform the agile team that resulting changes will be Take a wait-and-see approach until the board gives
postponed as long as possible the team explicit instructions

Invite members of the new board to sprint planning Negotiate a quiet period with the board to prevent
and backlog refinement meetings disruption to the team's work

264. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A frustrated agile team member approaches the project manager to complain that a senior team member is
monopolizing all the "interesting" backlog items. How should the project manager address the
complaint?
answer choices

Encourage the complaining member to take Discuss the importance of fairness with the senior
assertiveness training team member

Define a new rule so members can select an item Ask the team to define new ground rules for work
on a rotating basis distribution

265. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An R&D executive occasionally visits the agile team's work area to give instructions about urgent feature work.
During sprint reviews, the product owner becomes upset that the team worked on the requested features. 
 How should the project manager address the problem?
answer choices

Escalate to ensure that the executive no longer Meet with the executive and product owner to
interferes with the team agree on a work flow

Require that the executive issues change requests Give the executive access to add new items to the
for new items backlog

266. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An agile team member solved a problem that had blocked the team for several weeks. After release of the
software, it appears that the solution caused a function to fail. The quality director demands an explanation. 
 How should the project manager react? (Choose TWO.)
answer choices

Ask the team member to present his rationale and Work with the team to identify gaps in the definition
lessons learned of done

Issue a warning to the team member about not Work with the team to identify gaps in the definition
taking risky initiatives of ready

Respond to the director that mistakes are inevitable

but will be remedied

267. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The last three agile iterations showed a trend of increasingly prolonged test work. Which activity
should the project manager plan to address the root cause?
answer choices

Adopt test automation tools Plan an iteration of testing only

Practice a paired testing policy Plan more backlog refinement

268. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. After three agile iterations showed a trend of increasingly prolonged test work, the team performed an intensive
backlog refinement. What metrics would show that the problem was effectively addressed?
answer choices

Increase in value per story Speed of impediment resolution

Stories completed per iteration Decrease in backlog item count

269. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project manager wants to know if there is a good combination of T-shaped skills in the agile team. What can the project manager measure to determine this?
answer choices

Decrease in detected defects Reduction in reassigned tasks

Less internal knowledge sharing More collaboration with SMEs

270. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The agile team will take over from another suppplier to maintain a client's website. The team notices that recent
browser changes imply that most of the website's existing content would now require users to install a plug-in. How should the agile team move forward?
answer choices

Inform the client and propose an impact analysis Update all pre-existing code to remove plug-in
dependencies

Inform the client about the previous supplier's Deliver the code updates as defined in the contract
negligence

271. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A client stakeholder shows signs of resistance when coordinating delivery work. The agile project manager
suspects that the automation in the delivered product might make the stakeholder's role obsolete. Which approach would be most effective to reduce resistance?
answer choices

Request the client to change the project Ask the stakeholder to express concerns and
counterpart to avoid project delays ensure full transparency

Express empathy directly to the stakeholder to gain Tell the stakeholder that their cooperation and
cooperation patience are appreciated

272. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The agile team excels at solving technical problems, but when the product owner requests creative or business-
related ideas, the team falls silent. Is this a problem?
answer choices

Yes, specialist teams are prone to higher error rates No, specialist teams are more effective than
generalists

Yes, lack of diversity will limit the team's adaptability No, the team performs better without useless
distractions

273. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The agile team surpassed the planned number of stories in the last three agile iterations. How can the
project manager be sure all the work performed is truly complete?
answer choices

Ask the product owner if results are satisfactory Check results against the definition of done

Ask the team to cross-check other members' work Check the results of all the tests performed
274. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The agile team is tasked with building a senior-friendly version of a smartphone shopping application. Marketing
has not been able to find any volunteer test users fitting the profile. Which option would be most
effective to ensure the best product value is delivered?
answer choices

Examine evaluations of similar competitor products Ask senior relatives what price point they want

Remove eye glasses when testing the user interface Ask the team to run friendly tests with senior
relatives

275. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A company is losing market share to disruptive competitors with new business models. The agile team is asked to
restrict the number of features and release them faster to the market. How will this request impact the
planning?
answer choices

The backlog will be prioritized to deliver basic The product vision will be updated to reflect a user-
functionality in small increments driven release roadmap

Reprioritize the sprint backlog to work on the The increments will be reduced to enable faster
smallest and simplest stories first product releases

276. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The legal team informs the product owner that another company owns a patent for an innovation used in the
agile team's product, now 75% complete. What should the product owner do to determine the
appropriate way forward? 
answer choices

Work with the legal department to find markets Perform marginal economics analyisis and identify
where the patent is not registered minimum releasable features

Terminate project immediately to prevent any Continue work on the product after removing the
further sunken costs patented component

277. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. During estimating, the team is discussing an item in the backlog. It becomes clear that the item can be done in
different ways but the best way is not obvious. What should the team do to progress on this item?
answer choices

Add ranked alternatives to the backlog Select the cheapest alternative to build

Add a new spike item to the backlog Select the fastest alternative to build
278. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Two startups have merged and now have more than 100 developers on eight agile teams working on a common
portfolio. Which agile practice can best ensure release coordination between the teams?
answer choices

Scrum of Scrums Mobbing

Scrumban Feature-Driven Development

279. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The startup has grown quickly and there are now four agile teams working on interrelated products. All teams
have begun to experience impediments and gaps relating to work in other teams. How should the
problem be addressed?
answer choices

Eliminate dependencies between teams Favor collaboration tools over meetings

Implement a Scrum of Scrum layer Merge into two large teams to reduce issues

280. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An agile team needs to decide who should represent them in the Scrum of Scrums. Which criteria
should be used to select the best-suited team member?
answer choices

How well the member knows the work in the other How well the member applies their depth of
teams expertise

How convincing the member is as a public speaker How long they have been working with Agile
methods

281. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An agile team needs to decide who should represent them in the Scrum of Scrums. Which criterion
should be used to select the best-suited team member?
answer choices

Scrum DevOps

eXtreme Programming CI/CD

282. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A recently formed agile team is exhausted after working 12 hour days to fullfil their sprint commitments. 
 Who has not properly performed their duties in this situation?
answer choices
Project Manager Team Members

Product Owner Scrum Master

283. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A consultant has advised an IT director to use a DevOps approach to a migration project. The IT director wants to
understand how the necessary speed can be achieved in a safe way. Which examples could
demonstrate how DevOps can reduce incidents and speed up deployment at the same time? {Choose TWO.)
answer choices

Virtualization of all systems and software Early collaboration between operations and
containers development

Machine Learning based development and Developers test at deployment sites before
deployment operations

Automation of operations and development

284. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. During sprint planning, some new backlog items are prioritized but not estimated. The product owner requires a
new set of tests to verify unique properties of the items. What should happen before adding it to the
sprint backlog?
answer choices

Use analogous estimating based on similar tests on The product owner defines a new epic to allow
similar stories testing in the next sprint

Add the relevant acceptance criteria in the The product owner should provide the initial
definition of ready, then estimate estimate to be refined by the team

285. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An emergency vaccine roll-out project should deploy vaccination centers as soon as pre-vetted locations are
booked. Fast-changing factors such as delayed batch shipments, safety protocols, and target age groups may
block the deployment at the last minute. However, the deployment process does not vary after passing the
tollgate to begin setup at a new location. Which project approach would best support the goal to
maximize the number of centers deployed?
answer choices

A fully predictive life cycle where each center A set of agile deployment iterations embedded in a
deployment is a phase subject to dependencies. predictive set of processes.

A set of predictive deployment sequences A fully agile life cycle where dependencies and
embedded in an agile set of processes. deployments are combined in each iteration.
286. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A company is constructing recycling plants in 15 countries around the world. The Head of Project Management
Office (PMO) wants more timely progress reporting and experience sharing between project managers in these
geographically distant projects. Which methods might the PMO borrow from agile to fulfill this need?
(Select TWO).
answer choices

Definition of Done review calls Electronic Kanban board

Backlog Refinement calls Virtual daily standup meetings

2-week Retrospective calls

287. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A project is planned out and the contract is ready for signature to start building an eco-resort complex. The client
now asks the prime contractor to suspend planned work on a parcel of land while a consumer study runs. The
study results will determine what kind of structures will be built on the parcel later in the project. What
should the prime contractor do to quickly close the deal given the new client requirements?
answer choices

Subtract the parcel work from the quoted price, and Add a risk premium to the agreed price of the full
plan the parcel as agile iterations paid based on works, and and add a clause to renegotiate the new
time and materials. scope when it is fully defined.

Raise a change request to examine impact on scope Exclude all work on the parcel from the project plan
and price, and close the deal when all information and pricing, and propose a separate contract when
is available. the scope becomes clear.

288. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A worldwide product launch will likely be delayed by the lengthy analysis needed to assess impact of new
European Union (EU) regulations. Perishable ingredients and factory bookings would be lost. The executive
committee decides to postpone the launch in the EU, but maintain launch dates in all non-EU countries. How should the project manager re-plan the project to support both launches?
answer choices

Use the contingency budget to cover sunken costs Re-plan the project as a fully agile set of iterations
for the EU launch and adjust plans for the non-EU and ensure that fixed milestones are documented
launch. on the burn-down chart.

Plan analysis activities and tollgates for the EU Embed a set of iterations to analyze and develop
launch and crash the schedule for the non-EU the EU product, while adjusting plans for the non-
launch. EU launch.

289. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The latest software build for a virtual reality headset release did not include urgent change requests already
implemented by the electronics workstream. The product owner informed the software team about the change
during a daily meeting but no one recorded it. What should the project manager to avoid this problem
in the future?
answer choices

Refine the product backlog with the team and Increase the frequency of backlog refinement
product owner before the next iteration. meetings and note the change in the retrospective.

Run an ad-hoc retrospective and add the agreed Privately remind the team lead that the role
urgent change processs to the team charter. requires fast and proactive problem solving.

290. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The pandemic has caused delays which will make it very difficult launch the new product on time. Television ads
for the launch date are already purchased, so the CEO has asked the project manager to find a way to launch the
product even if some minor features are not included. Which measure would be most effective step
toward a successful and timely product launch?
answer choices

Double the size of the test team to ensure that any Ask the team to remove product tests most likely to
defects will be detected and corrected as early as fail at first attempt and de-scope requirements
possible. relating to those tests.

Fast-track the schedule and establish new test and Plan a parallel iterative track to develop
readiness milestones as close as possible to the requirements for a Minimum Viable Product and
planned launch date. de-scope unnecessary predictive tasks.

291. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A merger of two companies results in combining an agile software project and a predictive electronics project into
a single hybrid project. Two months later, requirements have changed in both tracks but neither has a full picture
on status or importance of the requirements. How can the project manager best resolve the problem?
answer choices

Integrate the product backlog into the Create a requirements traceabilty matrix by
requirements specification and educate the combining the product backlog with the
software team on working with the new document. requirements specification and define both
documents as input.

Integrate the requirements specification into the Integrate the revised work packages and updated
product backlog and educate the electronics team product backlog items into a new master WBS for
on working with the new document. progress tracking

292. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A hybrid project combines IT integration and software development tasks. The predictive and agile teams seem to
be working in silos, resulting in misaligned deliverable scheduling. Which measures would most
effectively enable the teams to better synchronize their deliveries? (Select TWO.)
answer choices

Increase the story size to ensure more complete Use the IT predictive schedule to limit the features
integration to the IT build requirements. the software team starts to develop.

Create a common Kanban board to queue and Break down IT work packages into more granular
track progress of both teams' deliverables. tasks to align to the software releases.

Define common milestones and an overall

dependency network to be used by both teams.

293. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A new wildlife reserve project will have a staff of around 80 experts, builders, and logistics workers with exposure
to various safety risks. The project manager wants a scalable approach combining flexibility and team dynamics
with traditional safeguards. Which technique could be used to tailor a hybrid project of this nature?
answer choices

Crystal Methods eXtreme Programming (XP)

Behavior-Driven Development Monte Carlo Simulation

294. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The project sponsor is not convinced that an agile track should be used in a new R&D project due to the need for
certainty that specific features will be ready for mass production no later than a specific date. How can
agile methods ensure that the sponsor's needs can be fulfilled in a hybrid project approach? (Select THREE.)
answer choices

A product roadmap can provide a detailed Requirement priorities are confirmed at each
breakdown iteration

Incremental development reduces risk of quality Impact mapping can be used to group related
delays stories

Stories can be broken down into granular epics

295. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A medical equipment vendor is running a hybrid project which includes some custom software development by
an agile team. The team progess is good, but slow customer approval causes unnecessary delays. The customer
insists that approval can only be given after repeating all the test cases in the target environment. How
can the project manager accelerate the approvals and build customer trust at the same time?
answer choices

Invite the customer to send representatives to Work out an arrangement with the customer to
witness the team's testing to pre-approve the tests. defer as many tests as possible to the final release.
Propose new terms for team members to work Allow the team to progress at their pace while the
aside the customer testers to run tests in their customer continues to test and approve earlier
environment. builds.

296. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. The IT integration team has a major setback in a hybrid project. Testing has confirmed that the hardware does not
support the target operating system. The agile team's software releases must now run on a later operating system
version. What should the project manager do next?
answer choices

Meet with the scrum master to determine if the Interrupt the sprint to meet with the product owner
product vision is still valid. and team to update the product backlog.

Work with the agile team to run root cause analysis Inform the team at the daily meeting and update
on why the problem did not surface earlier. the Definition of Done and Definition of Ready.

297. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A Canadian startup announces to the press its imminent launch in the European Union (EU) and Latin America.
Soon afterward, the compliance team recommends delaying the launch by 6 months to avoid substantial
penalties relating to a new set of EU regulations. Which approach could the project manager take to
advance the launch project while preparing the compliance measures?
answer choices

Run a SWOT analysis to weigh priorities between Estimate impact of penalties on the project,
compliance and consumer needs, and resume increase the contingency reserve accordingly and
project if the result favors consumers. resume project as planned.

Re-plan the predictive project as a Large-Scale Split out work affected by the regulations into a
Scrum life cycle, and use story points to estimate agile track, and re-plan unaffected work in the
approval milestones. predictive schedule.

298. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Incrementally replace local staff by outside expert Re-scope the project to deliver the same features as
staff who can work at half the hourly rate or less the competitors to match their pricing

Make a cost/benefit analysis of deliverables to Fast-track the remainder of the project to deliver
optimize delivery cost and speed the intended scope with less overhead costs.

Split out an agile track to incrementally maximize

value within a fixed budget

299. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A hybrid virtual reality project is running an agile software track and a predictive electronics track. Halfway into the
project, delays are accumulating due to misaligned deliverable releases between the two tracks. Which
elements should the project manager combine to produce a common network diagram? (Select TWO.)
answer choices

Definition of ready with dependency milestones Epic breakdown with work breakdown structure

Product backlog with critical path task sequence Definition of done with exit criteria

Definition of ready with work breakdown structure

300. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A new regulation requires consumer warnings on labels, but a company's product package is too small to fit the
added information. The regulatory specification does not provide a solution, so the agile team decides to solve the
problem by displaying the information on a fold-out flap. The start of mass production of the new labels, the
project's next milestone, is scheduled to begin in five days. What should the agile team do next?
answer choices

Update the sprint backlog to reflect the additional Contact the compliance team to determine validity
product label requirement of the selected format

Request approval from the steering committee to Develop a prototype and submit it to the label
proceed with the change manufacturer for approval

301. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An organizational change program has met with internal resistance, a risk which was previously identifed. A
logistics manager is particularly affected due to reduction of the team size and the rate of change driven by an
agile planning of the predictive implementation. The manager's supervisor formally requests the change program
to delay implementation for the logistics team. What should the project manager do next in response
to this request?
answer choices

Work with the program sponsor to re-prioritize the Request the sponsor to escalate the strategic issue
program backlog sequence to the executive committee

Perform root-cause analysis on the key factors Review the risk register and implement the relevant
causing the manager's resistance risk response for the case

302. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A hybrid municipal waste management project combines many brief administrative tasks with small-scale public
works. An agile track makes good progress on key objectives, but small tasks are accumulating in the backlog.
Most tasks can be done in one day but are dependent on unpredictable triggering events. Which
approach would be most effective to clear out these minor tasks faster?
answer choices

Combine multiple minor tasks to make story sizes Reprioritize the backlog to favor the smallest stories
consistent with key objectives and re-assign them daily

Reprioritize the backlog on a daily basis so that Integrate the small tasks to either the Definition of
recent triggers boost story priority Done or acceptance criteria

303. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A flurry of unforeseen impediments suddenly appear on the kanban board in a hybrid project. Every member has
reported one or more different problems relating to a regulatory specification issued by the predictive track. 
 Which parameter is likely to be highest in the risk assessment?
answer choices

Managebility Dormancy

Connectivity Controllability

304. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. An energy infrastructure vendor is delivering a complex solution proof of concept to a new strategic customer.
The predictive project should complete in 10 weeks, but there is a long list of outstanding items, some dependent
on external events with uncertain scheduling. How should the project manager handle the outstanding
items?
answer choices

Transfer the outstanding items to the next project Plan five agile iterations to complete the tasks as
with the customer soon as conditions allow

Descope the outstanding tasks and remove them Add resources and crash the schedule to complete
from the invoice outstanding tasks

305. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. Two months into a 3-year mobile telecom roll-out, the project manager discovers that approximately 15% of the
equipment is prohibited to deliver due to embargo. The procurement contract does not cover the embargo case,
but severe penalities could be applied for incomplete delivery. What is the appropriate solution for the
situation?
answer choices

Add an agile track to explore and plan delivery of Formally challenge the embargo, but add penalty
alternative equipment costs for contingency

Compare the penalty costs of delivering or not Accept the client's penalties, close the project and
delivering, and choose the lowest cease business in the country
306. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A hybrid product design project encounters a 3D printer malfunction resulting in costly losses of titanium
supplies. When the production team tells the agile programming team about the problem, it becomes clear that
mistranslated data sheets created problems for both teams, but the agile team resolved their problems a month
before the malfunction. What could the agile team have done to prevent the malfunction?
answer choices

Deprioritized the stories impacted by information in Asked the project sponsor to halt the project
the data sheets pending translation corrections

Summarized their retrospective conclusions on Formally request a change of equipment supplier

information radiators for the project

307. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A smart grid project combines predictive and agile tracks. The agile team detected a major software defect after
its release, and began working on a correction. But the defective release was deployed by the predictive track and
caused a field test to fail. Which measure would be most effective to prevent similar problems in the
future?
answer choices

Run the same unit tests in the agile lab and in the Send project-wide issue log updates via instant
field sites messaging

Ensure that retrospectives are shared with the Re-plan the software track into the predictive
predictive team schedule

308. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A pharmaceutical project includes an agile team of doctors who analyze human tissue scans from drug trial
patients. The CEO wants to leverage Machine Learning (ML) technology, proven to be faster and more accurate
than doctors in scan analysis. How should the product owner proceed in response to the CEO's wish?
 
answer choices

Record the risk in the register and plan for Work with the team to plan how to use the ML
discussing a response in the retrospective resources and produce a business case

Inform the team tactfully and help them start Ask the team to produce a SWOT analysis
planning for outplacement or early retirement supporting human-based validation

309. Multiple-choice 1 minute

Q. A multi-year, hybrid pharmaceutical project adds new fixed-date activities for the team to run Machine Learning
(ML) processing of medical scans. The output from the ML analysis is used by an agile team of doctors to
determine next steps in a patient case. The project manager has updated the scope statement and
schedule; in which other documents should the project manager record this new process? (Select THREE.) 
answer choices

Stakeholder Register Sprint Backlog

Definition of Ready Risk Register

Resource Management Plan

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PMI
Exam Questions PMI-ACP
PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP)®

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NEW QUESTION 1
An organization adopts Agile practices and implements an incremental delivery strategy. If implemented correctly, the company should recognize improved:

A. procurement processes by requiring vendors to ship materials as needed.

B. project cost management by making incremental payments on contracts.
C. customer satisfaction by specifying project shipping dates in the contract.
D. project Return on Investment (ROI) by releasing individual features to market.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
Based on the following figure, during Iteration 5, there was an increase in story point value (shown on the graph); however, the team completed all of the work it
promised to deliver in the iteration and existing estimates were not changed. From this information, one can inferthat:

A. Work was removed from the Product Backlog.

B. Work was added to the Product Backlog.
C. The team's velocity increased.
D. The team's velocity decreased.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3
A company is starting to introduce Agile practices, and the project manager has been asked to identify how to introduce the new process. The project manager’s
initial plan should be to:

A. Institute daily standup meetings immediately.

B. Communicate the Agile Manifesto to the team.
C. Balance teaching principles with Agile practices.
D. Rate the team’s progress in learning new methods.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the seven principles of software development is best intended to solve the problem of inventories causing hidden errors in the process?

A. Fast-Flexible-Flow
B. Optimize the Whole
C. Deliver Early and Often
D. Eliminate Waste

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
The smallest amount of functionality that delivers customer value is best described as a:

A. Function point analysis.

B. Right sized story.
C. Minimum marketable feature.
D. Userstory map.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
Which are some of the most important benefits of an Agile team sitting together in a co- located, open environment?

A. Osmotic communication is reduced; space is used more efficiently; groups work together more effectively, and team dynamics are improved.

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B. Costs are reduced as the need for conference rooms decreases, and the team can keep track of where members are more accurately.
C. Team members can be held more accountable for their time and effort, and pair programming is easier as people have less distance to move to sit with their
partner.
D. Communication is improved; wait-time and rework are reduced; barriers between groups break down, and groups gain respect for each other professionally.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 7
A project team estimates that they should complete 30 story points in the current iteration. Partway through the iteration they realize that they will complete 50
story points at their current rate. The team should:

A. Shorten the iteration to meet the estimated velocity.

B. Continue to work with the estimated velocity.
C. Increase their estimated velocity.
D. Release members to meet the estimated velocity.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
What is the first thing that a team should do to estimate user stories for a project?

A. Sort the user stories according to priority.

B. Schedule a team meeting to understand them.
C. Define the story points measure.
D. Estimate through function point analysis.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
In an Agile approach, project values are most effectively implemented when they are determined by the:

A. sponsor
B. team
C. project manager
D. methodology

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
A story point is the:

A. Relative measure of the size of a user story.

B. Duration it takes to complete a user story.
C. Priority of the user story in the backlog.
D. Business value of the user story.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
What is the role in an eXtreme Programming (XP) project that ensures the right project
processes are applied?

A. Domain Expert
B. Product Owner
C. ScrumMaster
D. Coach

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13
In an Agile approach, at which meeting does a team examine the effectiveness of risk responses by conducting a risk audit?

A. Release planning
B. Sprint planning
C. Sprint Retrospective
D. Daily Scrum

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 15
Applying the Pareto rule when prioritizing the Product Backlog means that:

A. features that are lower priority are more likely to slip to the next iteration.
B. the value of a feature is not realized until the feature is complete.
C. more recent requests are usually more important to the business.

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D. a small percentage of the work will provide a large percentage of the value.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16
A full cycle of design-code-verifyrelease practiced by extreme Programming (XP) teams is called:

A. Story
B. Timebox
C. Iteration
D. Burndown

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 21
Which of the following drivers is the most important factor in determining the order in which stories will be developed?

A. Relative cost
B. Customer value
C. Development effort
D. Dependencies

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 25
On a project using eXtreme Programming (XP), a customer test is a:

A. Technique to determine if the software is easy for customer use.

B. Tool for a customer to verify the business requirements.
C. Technique to determine if a customer will use a software feature.
D. Test for determining if a customer will purchase the product.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 28
Which answer best describes Wide Band Delphi (e. g. Planning Poker) estimating?

A. Team members provide story estimates individually and discuss their reasoning until a consensus on the estimate is reached.
B. Team performance on prior projects is analyzed, and actual hours and durations are used to determine estimates for similar user stories.
C. Team members apply relative sizing to each task, and story points are triangulated based on the other stories in the Sprint Backlog.
D. Team members assign a realistic and a pessimistic estimate to each story, and points are assigned based on the calculated average.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 31
What is one of the main benefits that Lean portfolio management provides to a business?

A. Maximizing work-in-progress
B. Quality and thoughtfulness
C. Line of sight to business needs
D. Maximizing multitasking

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 32
When estimating initial velocity, the team should most likely:

A. Discuss among the team their expectations of how many story points they can address.
B. Use a Kanban workflow to identify steps and calculate velocity.
C. Use velocity of past iterations or make a calculated guess.
D. Discuss with the customer their expectation for the velocity of producing the product.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 37
After three iterations, the problems impeding an Agile team appear to be similar in nature to problems faced in earlier iterations. Inspection of the retrospectives for
past iterations reveals information organized into columns entitled “What worked for us” and “What did not work for us. ” Based on this information, one can infer
that the team did not capture:

A. user stories
B. milestones
C. action items
D. requirements

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 38
In eXtreme Programming (XP), analysis, design, coding, and testing phases are done:

A. At the beginning of the iteration.

B. Every day.
C. In sequence.
D. Without documentation.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 41
A project team is distributed across multiple countries, and they are having issues agreeing on what is being delivered and how it should be developed. Which of
the following should the project manager do to alleviate some of the tension between team members, break down cultural barriers, and improve communication?

A. Ask the team to communicate only through email to clearly document issues.
B. Discuss this issue with senior management and recommend that the team be co- located.
C. Monitor performance and discuss the issues in detail at the next retrospective.
D. Hold daily standup meetings with the two teams at a time that works best for everyone.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 46
Which of the following is a list of capabilities, features, and stories that the Product Owner has identified?

A. Burndown chart
B. Story card
C. Vision document
D. Backlog

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 49
A common reason that a story may not be estimable is that the:

A. team lacks domain knowledge.

B. business needs are prioritized over the system design.
C. developers do not understand the tasks related to the story.
D. team has no experience in estimating.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 51
Which management style does Agile advocate?

A. Task
B. Team
C. Product
D. Performance

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 56
In a Lean Software Development environment, the Project Leader strives to eliminate:

A. Work in Process (WIP) and bugs.

B. Delays and building what is not needed.
C. Defects and features with low value stream values.
D. Poor requirements and changing scope.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 58
Which of the following is most appropriate to always participate in Planning Poker?

A. Product Owner
B. Stakeholders
C. Team members
D. Project manager

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 59
Which term best describes an Agile project's approach to risk analysis?

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A. Regression
B. Pareto
C. Qualitative
D. Monte Carlo

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 63
On what should Agile estimates be based?

A. A Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) from each iteration aligned with the project management plan
B. A disciplined iteration schedule, which improves predictability, combined with reaction to changes
C. Ball park figures collected from past Agile projects with scopes similar to the current project
D. Initial resource breakdown based on the available person days in the full project duration

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 65
The process of reviewing, testing, and accepting implemented features is called:

A. Retrospective.
B. Stakeholder review.
C. Scope verification.
D. Iteration planning.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 66
Which of the following best describes a core belief of Agile?

A. The best customer feedback comes near the end of the project when there is workingsoftware to review.
B. Project status can be gauged by frequently reviewing completed milestones as reflected in the plan.
C. Working solutions are the most accurate way of seeing the progress of the effort.
D. Unique skill sets are harnessed when team members play different roles on a project.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 70
In reference to Scrum, each sprint should produce:

A. An increment of potentially shippable product functionality.

B. Aset of documented product requirements and specifications.
C. Arelease with testable and measurable functionality.
D. An increment of potentially testable product functionality.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 72
Agile project development processes typically:

A. Encapsulate analysis, design, code, and test within an iteration.

B. Document each business process individually and in detail.
C. Use a Gantt chart with well-defined activities, responsibilities, and time frames.
D. Map the iteration backlog to a Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 74
Which type of estimate refers to estimating a story based on its relationship to one or more other stories?

A. Algorithmic
B. Computational
C. Triangulating
D. Rules of Thumb

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 75
......

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NEW QUESTION 1
An organization adopts Agile practices and implements an incremental delivery strategy. If implemented correctly, the company should recognize improved:

A. procurement processes by requiring vendors to ship materials as needed.

Answer: D

A. Work was removed from the Product Backlog.

B. Work was added to the Product Backlog.
C. The team's velocity increased.
D. The team's velocity decreased.

Answer: B

A. Institute daily standup meetings immediately.

B. Communicate the Agile Manifesto to the team.
C. Balance teaching principles with Agile practices.
D. Rate the team’s progress in learning new methods.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the seven principles of software development is best intended to solve the problem of inventories causing hidden errors in the process?

A. Fast-Flexible-Flow
B. Optimize the Whole
C. Deliver Early and Often
D. Eliminate Waste

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
The smallest amount of functionality that delivers customer value is best described as a:

A. Function point analysis.

B. Right sized story.
C. Minimum marketable feature.
D. Userstory map.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
Which are some of the most important benefits of an Agile team sitting together in a co- located, open environment?

A. Osmotic communication is reduced; space is used more efficiently; groups work together more effectively, and team dynamics are improved.

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Answer: D

A. Shorten the iteration to meet the estimated velocity.

B. Continue to work with the estimated velocity.
C. Increase their estimated velocity.
D. Release members to meet the estimated velocity.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8
What is the first thing that a team should do to estimate user stories for a project?

A. Sort the user stories according to priority.

B. Schedule a team meeting to understand them.
C. Define the story points measure.
D. Estimate through function point analysis.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
In an Agile approach, project values are most effectively implemented when they are determined by the:

A. sponsor
B. team
C. project manager
D. methodology

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
A story point is the:

A. Relative measure of the size of a user story.

B. Duration it takes to complete a user story.
C. Priority of the user story in the backlog.
D. Business value of the user story.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
What is the role in an eXtreme Programming (XP) project that ensures the right project
processes are applied?

A. Domain Expert
B. Product Owner
C. ScrumMaster
D. Coach

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 13
In an Agile approach, at which meeting does a team examine the effectiveness of risk responses by conducting a risk audit?

A. Release planning
B. Sprint planning
C. Sprint Retrospective
D. Daily Scrum

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 15
Applying the Pareto rule when prioritizing the Product Backlog means that:

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D. a small percentage of the work will provide a large percentage of the value.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 16
A full cycle of design-code-verifyrelease practiced by extreme Programming (XP) teams is called:

A. Story
B. Timebox
C. Iteration
D. Burndown

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 21
Which of the following drivers is the most important factor in determining the order in which stories will be developed?

A. Relative cost
B. Customer value
C. Development effort
D. Dependencies

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 25
On a project using eXtreme Programming (XP), a customer test is a:

A. Technique to determine if the software is easy for customer use.

B. Tool for a customer to verify the business requirements.
C. Technique to determine if a customer will use a software feature.
D. Test for determining if a customer will purchase the product.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 28
Which answer best describes Wide Band Delphi (e. g. Planning Poker) estimating?

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 31
What is one of the main benefits that Lean portfolio management provides to a business?

A. Maximizing work-in-progress
B. Quality and thoughtfulness
C. Line of sight to business needs
D. Maximizing multitasking

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 32
When estimating initial velocity, the team should most likely:

Answer: C

A. user stories
B. milestones
C. action items
D. requirements

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 38
In eXtreme Programming (XP), analysis, design, coding, and testing phases are done:

A. At the beginning of the iteration.

B. Every day.
C. In sequence.
D. Without documentation.

Answer: B

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 46
Which of the following is a list of capabilities, features, and stories that the Product Owner has identified?

A. Burndown chart
B. Story card
C. Vision document
D. Backlog

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 49
A common reason that a story may not be estimable is that the:

A. team lacks domain knowledge.

B. business needs are prioritized over the system design.
C. developers do not understand the tasks related to the story.
D. team has no experience in estimating.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 51
Which management style does Agile advocate?

A. Task
B. Team
C. Product
D. Performance

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 56
In a Lean Software Development environment, the Project Leader strives to eliminate:

A. Work in Process (WIP) and bugs.

B. Delays and building what is not needed.
C. Defects and features with low value stream values.
D. Poor requirements and changing scope.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 58
Which of the following is most appropriate to always participate in Planning Poker?

A. Product Owner
B. Stakeholders
C. Team members
D. Project manager

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 59
Which term best describes an Agile project's approach to risk analysis?

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A. Regression
B. Pareto
C. Qualitative
D. Monte Carlo

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 63
On what should Agile estimates be based?

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 65
The process of reviewing, testing, and accepting implemented features is called:

A. Retrospective.
B. Stakeholder review.
C. Scope verification.
D. Iteration planning.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 66
Which of the following best describes a core belief of Agile?

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 70
In reference to Scrum, each sprint should produce:

A. An increment of potentially shippable product functionality.

B. Aset of documented product requirements and specifications.
C. Arelease with testable and measurable functionality.
D. An increment of potentially testable product functionality.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 72
Agile project development processes typically:

A. Encapsulate analysis, design, code, and test within an iteration.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 74
Which type of estimate refers to estimating a story based on its relationship to one or more other stories?

A. Algorithmic
B. Computational
C. Triangulating
D. Rules of Thumb

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 75
......

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Exam Questions PMI-ACP

PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP)®

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NEW QUESTION 1
Retrospectives provide an opportunity for the team to:

A. Reflect at the end of every iteration and identify improvements that will increase the quality of the product.
B. Participate in a mandatory meeting to share status updates across the team and to ensure that everyone is on track.
C. Understand from the management if the project is achieving the Scope, Quality, Cost, and Schedule goals.
D. Set goals at the beginning of the iteration and identify requirements that can be delivered in that iteration.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 2
When interacting with team members, the Agile project manager should:

A. Ask team members to do things by phrasing the statement as a request rather than as a demand.
B. Ignore team member input and emotions when important decisions have to be made.
C. Proceed cautiously when requesting team members to do something likely to make them unhappy.
D. Disagree with the team based on the merit of the issue without considering how the team is feeling.

Answer: A

A. Institute daily standup meetings immediately.

B. Communicate the Agile Manifesto to the team.
C. Balance teaching principles with Agile practices.
D. Rate the team’s progress in learning new methods.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the seven principles of software development is best intended to solve the problem of inventories causing hidden errors in the process?

A. Fast-Flexible-Flow
B. Optimize the Whole
C. Deliver Early and Often
D. Eliminate Waste

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5
Refactoring, as it applies to the practice of extreme Programming (XP), refers to:

A. Restructuring the estimate by applying a higher cost performance index during ¡°whatif¡± analysis.
B. Modifying the project due to scope changes, resource availability, and cost and schedule variances.
C. Modifying the cost baseline due to an increased estimate at completion and a negative cost variance.
D. Restructuring of code so as to improve the code without changing its external behavior.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 6
A development team has finished identifying the tasks they will be accountable for during the next sprint. Which of the following tools best provides transparency
into the progress throughout the sprint?

A. Burndown chart
B. Gantt chart
C. Hours expended chart
D. Management baseline chart

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
For the best results in an Agile project, customers should:

A. set priorities and identify product features.

B. interview new team members for fit.
C. approve development plans and tasks.
D. set sprint and release schedules.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 8

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What is the responsibility of an extreme Programming (XP) customer role?

A. Testing the daily increments of the software developed

B. Writing the stories and acceptance tests for each story
C. Planning and task allocation for the developer and tester
D. Interacting closely with users and representing the XP team

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 9
When is the ideal time to hold a retrospective?

A. Right after iteration planning

B. Just before iteration planning
C. At the start of the next release
D. During the iteration review/demo

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 10
Which of the following is critical for the success of distributed Agile teams?

A. Cost containment
B. High volume of communication
C. Shared knowledge
D. Culture of collaboration

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10
A project team estimates that they should complete 30 story points in the current iteration. Partway through the iteration they realize that they will complete 50
story points at their current rate. The team should:

A. Shorten the iteration to meet the estimated velocity.

B. Continue to work with the estimated velocity.
C. Increase their estimated velocity.
D. Release members to meet the estimated velocity.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12
When moving to Agile project management, a key factor for the project manager’s success will be:

A. shifting from a controlling mindset to a facilitating mindset

B. directing the work in a more incremental fashion
C. only assigning tasks for the nextiteration
D. giving up control and rotating management through the team

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 16
What is the first thing that a team should do to estimate user stories for a project?

A. Sort the user stories according to priority.

B. Schedule a team meeting to understand them.
C. Define the story points measure.
D. Estimate through function point analysis.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 19
In an Agile approach, project values are most effectively implemented when they are determined by the:

A. sponsor
B. team
C. project manager
D. methodology

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 24
A story point is the:

A. Relative measure of the size of a user story.

B. Duration it takes to complete a user story.

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C. Priority of the user story in the backlog.

D. Business value of the user story.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 25
The following chart lists stories for a release of an Agile project:

If the velocity of the team is 10, how many iterations will be needed to complete all of the stories?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 7

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 29
The three questions asked at every Daily Scrum should be: “What have you accomplished since the last Daily Scrum?”;”What are you planning to accomplish
between now and the next Daily Scrum?”; and:

A. What is preventing you from completing your work effectively?

B. What is yourcurrent performance velocity?
C. Are you on track to complete assigned story points?
D. How many story pointswill you complete this sprint?

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 30
The best description of the purpose of the daily standup in Agile projects is to:

A. Resolve the key issues and risks that are likely to hinder project progress.
B. Provide insight and reassurance to the Product Owner to strengthen that relationship.
C. Inform the project lead of project status for reporting to stakeholders.
D. Raise the visibility of each person’s work and to ensure the work is integrated.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 35
Information transmission is greatest amongst team members who are working on:

A. Individual tasks in the same work area.

B. The same task through pair programming.
C. The same group of tasks individually.
D. Different tasks on the same project.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 38
Which is the best option to improve project velocity?

A. Shield programmers from interruptions

B. Minimize customer involvement
C. Shorten the iteration length
D. Increase project team size

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 40
A value stream map is a tool used to identify the:

A. Waste across the entire process.

B. Highest value product features.
C. Most valuable team interactions.
D. Most likely flow of project risks.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 41
Applying the Pareto rule when prioritizing the Product Backlog means that:

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 46
Who is responsible for making sure that each user story is associated with at least one user role or persona?

A. User
B. Developer
C. Customer
D. Persona

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 48
Velocity is the:

A. total number of Product Backlog hours completed in an iteration divided by the number of developers.
B. measured rate at which teams turn Product Backlog items into running, tested features.
C. measured rate at which the project manager turns the Product Backlog into tested features.
D. total number of Product Backlog hours completed when developers work in pairs.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 49
Who is responsible for determining the business value of each feature?

A. Product Owner
B. Steering committee
C. ScrumMaster
D. Team

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 52
Which of the following drivers is the most important factor in determining the order in which stories will be developed?

A. Relative cost
B. Customer value
C. Development effort
D. Dependencies

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 56
Which of the following techniques best encourages osmotic communication?

A. Reviewing requirements frequently with the Product Owner

B. Having the Product Owner attend daily standups
C. Inviting the customer to attend every iteration demo
D. Seating the team members together in a work area

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 60
Team velocity is used to:

A. Measure the percentage of features completed.

B. Judge productivity within the iteration.

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C. Predict schedules for mature teams.

D. Give feedback on delivered value.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 63
Acceptance tests of user stories are specified by the:

A. Customer at the start of the iteration.

B. Customer as late as possible during the iteration.
C. Tester after the team has finished the coding.
D. Development team at the start of the iteration.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 66
A common estimation unit for Agile projects is:

A. Lines of code.
B. Function points
C. Story points.
D. Use-case points.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 70
Following chart lists stories for a release of an Agile project;

If the team completes Story A, Story B, and 50% of Story C for the first iteration, what is the team's velocity?

A. 9
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 72
What is the common communication bridge between the team and the Product Owner?

A. Burndown chart
B. Product Backlog
C. Scrum team meeting
D. Sprint release plan

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 73
Which answer best describes Wide Band Delphi (e. g. Planning Poker) estimating?

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 76

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In the Lean process, the focus is on:

A. Managing team efficiency.

B. Optimizing completed work across the process stream.
C. Using the optimal resources.
D. Cross training the team to eliminate bottlenecks.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 79
The best approach to estimate the work on a project when using story points is to have:

A. Team members assign estimates by averaging Planning Poker cards.

B. The most senior team member prepare the estimates.
C. Two or three senior team members estimate and take the average of their times.
D. The team work together to agree on estimates in a group setting.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 83
The primary purpose of a Sprint retrospective is for the team to:

A. Review stories planned for the next sprint and provide estimates,
B. Demonstrate completed user stories to the Product Owner.
C. Discuss what went well, what didn't, and ways to improve.
D. Individually provide status updates on user stories in progress.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 88
An Agile team expects a velocity of 8. During sprint planning, the stories were estimatedand prioritized in the following order:
Story A_4Story Points Story B_2Story Points Story C_3 Story Points Story D_2Story Points
Which stories should the team include in Sprint 1, without splitting the stories?

A. Stories A, C, and D
B. Stories A, B, and C
C. Stories A, B, and D
D. Stories B, C, and D

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 92
What is the best description of the relationship between Scrum and extremeProgramming(XP)?

A. XP is a component of Scrum.
B. The principles of each are often complementary.
C. Scrum is a component of XP.
D. The principles of each are often contradictory.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 96
Which of the following is part of the 12 practices defined in eXtreme Programming (XP)?

A. Risk management
B. Small releases
C. Project management
D. Project charter

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 98
When estimating initial velocity, the team should most likely:

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 101

Risk exposure is the:

A. Funds set aside to contain the risk.

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B. Probability a risk will occur.

C. Amount of money the risk will cost if it occurs.
D. Amount of damage to the project if the risk occurs.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 103

For a critical project, a new team has been formed from various departments. The project manager should start team building by:

A. Creating a project charter, documenting roles and responsibilities of each member, and sending it to the team members.
B. Taking the team offsite for icebreaker sessions and other activities to ensure team members get to know each other.
C. Assembling the team and discussing roles and responsibilities of each member on the team.
D. Assembling the team and asking the members to achieve a milestone in a small iteration.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 106

Which three criteria should be looked at when setting iteration length?

A. Time needed to complete a user story, time needed to build and test the stories, and product team acceptance of the stories
B. Timeframe in which the stories must be released, the cost to deliver the features to market, and product team acceptance of the stories
C. Delivering chunks of user-valued functionality, time needed to build and test the stories, and product team acceptance of the stories
D. Features that categorize the product, the time needed to complete the features, and the cost to deliver the features to market

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 107

The best reason for extreme character personas in writing user stories is to:

A. Identify errors in product design and testing.

B. Help identify user stories that would otherwise be missed.
C. Provide precision to support vague user concepts.
D. Provide value to the Sprint planning session.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 110

The most powerful capability of Scrum teams is that they:

A. Work in timeboxed sprints.

B. Are self-organized and empowered.
C. Work from a prioritized backlog.
D. Value individuals and interactions.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 111

Which of the following is a list of capabilities, features, and stories that the Product Owner has identified?

A. Burndown chart
B. Story card
C. Vision document
D. Backlog

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 112

According to the fundamental principles of Lean Management, errors result from:

A. Inadequate user requirements and documentation.

B. Misjudgment made by project teams and operations staff.
C. Flaws in development and production systems.
D. Insufficient management oversight of projects and operations.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 116

A common reason that a story may not be estimable is that the:

A. team lacks domain knowledge.

B. business needs are prioritized over the system design.
C. developers do not understand the tasks related to the story.
D. team has no experience in estimating.

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 119

The term ¡°last responsible moment¡± refers to the moment at which:

A. the iteration testing deadline arrives and code testing must stop.
B. failing to make a decision eliminates an important alternative.
C. release planning is complete and the first iteration planning starts.
D. the implementation date is set and sponsor approval has been received.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 120

Spike solutions are appropriate when:

A. the business requirements are vague or inadequate for an iteration.

B. a technology is understood well and has been used for a while, but needs a problem to be debugged.
C. there is insufficient time to refactor, but there is a need to resolve a specific problem.
D. a specific technicalQUESTION NO:needs to be answered, stopping work on the spike as soon as it answers that question.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 125

Team A is producing 61 points per iteration and Team B is producing 20 points per iteration. Team A has more senior engineers. A manager demands that Team
B match Team A’s points in the next iteration. Based on this information, it is reasonable to tell the manager that:

A. it is impossible to compare two separate teams on points alone.

B. Team B’s points will match Team A if Team B gets more senior engineers.
C. Team B must have help self-organizing so their points match Team A.
D. Team B’s points will increase if the Product Owner becomes more involved.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 126

Project managers use velocity to determine:

A. If the team is committing to an appropriate amount of work for the iteration.

B. How much work each team member is capable of completing during an iteration.
C. How much work teams that are similar in size are capable of completing during an iteration.
D. If the Product Owner is prioritizing work appropriately in preparation for iteration planning.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 129

In a Lean Software Development environment, the Project Leader strives to eliminate:

A. Work in Process (WIP) and bugs.

B. Delays and building what is not needed.
C. Defects and features with low value stream values.
D. Poor requirements and changing scope.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 131

Which of the following is most appropriate to always participate in Planning Poker?

A. Product Owner
B. Stakeholders
C. Team members
D. Project manager

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 133

In a Lean project environment, visual controls:

A. Can be used by management for communicating specific corrective direction.

B. Are easy to use, reflect the team's progress, and show the team what to do next.
C. Are helpful while the team is forming but are less important for more experienced teams.
D. Should be kept to a minimum to avoid distracting the team from high-value activities.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 136

Test-Driven Development (TDD) is a rapid cycle of:

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A. Requirements, coding, and testing.

B. Testing, coding, and refactoring.
C. Testing, refactoring, and validation.
D. Requirements, coding, and refactoring.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 138

Which type of story would be used when an estimate is not available due to lack of knowledge of the technology required to implement the story?

A. Defect
B. Slack
C. Spike
D. Nonfunctional

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 142

In Agile projects, how are planning outputs shared with stakeholders?

A. Using the most highly visible method possible

B. On a need-to-know basis depending on role
C. According to the project communications plan
D. Through a series of stakeholder meetings

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 145

eXtreme Programming (XP) teams strive to avoid:

A. Incremental design and architecture.

B. Pair programming.
C. Manual regression testing.
D. Test-Driven Development (TDD).

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 147

Agile project development processes typically:

A. Encapsulate analysis, design, code, and test within an iteration.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 150

What do project reports show during the Sprint review meeting?

A. Estimates compared to the baseline

B. Actual results to the plan
C. Return on investment (ROI)
D. Earned value measurement (EVM)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 152

For a "caves and commonroom arrangement, the most appropriate prerequisite is that the people in the room must be working on:

A. Whatever they choose.

B. Individual projects.
C. The same set of multiple projects,
D. The same project.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 157

When facilitated and managed well, the primary benefits of a project retrospective should be to:

A. Increase empowerment and enjoyment for the team.

B. Identify the most important issues for the sponsors.
C. Provide an open forum for team member complaints.
D. Allow the team to get ahead on release planning.

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Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 158

What key benefits might stakeholders realize from an Agile approach?

A. The ability to bypass the change-management process, inserting new requirements and changes directly into the team as they meet daily
B. The early and continuous delivery of valuable software, providing increased visibility and the opportunity for more frequent adjustments
C. Increased access to the project and less reliance on formal reports and status meetings to better understand the current work and the risks the team is
accepting
D. The team’s flexibility to make changes mid-iteration as business needs or priorities change, increasing the ability of the team to meet project commitments

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 162

The Kaizen philosophy is change:

A. For the better.

B. Driven by process improvement.
C. Driven by teams.
D. Forsmallgroups.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 165

Which type of estimate refers to estimating a story based on its relationship to one or more other stories?

A. Algorithmic
B. Computational
C. Triangulating
D. Rules of Thumb

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 166

Which of the following is an example of a visual aid used in Lean-Agile software development?

A. Business value delivered chart

B. Product technical specifications
C. Automated code coverage report
D. Scrum-of-Scrum report

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 171

......

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PMP
Exam Questions PMP
Project Management Professional

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NEW QUESTION 1
- (Topic 1)
In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

A. Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.

B. Ensure comprehensive identification and listing of new stakeholders.
C. Analyze the information needed to develop the project scope statement.
D. Decide the level of engagement of the stakeholders at each required stage.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
- (Topic 1)
What entity is assigned various responsibilities related to the centralized and coordinated management of those projects under its domain?

A. Project management office

B. Project team office
C. Executive sponsor office
D. Program management office

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a project constraint?

A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge.
C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.
D. The product is needed in 250 days.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4
- (Topic 1)
Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization?

A. WBS
B. CPI
C. OBS
D. BOM

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
- (Topic 1)
Which element does a project charter contain?

A. Management reserves
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Stakeholder list
D. Stakeholder register

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
- (Topic 1)
Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
- (Topic 1)
Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

A. Probability
B. Quantitative
C. Qualitative
D. Sensitivity

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Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
- (Topic 1)
Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?

A. Executing Process Group and Project Time Management

B. Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management
C. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management
D. Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
- (Topic 1)
In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Balanced

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?

A. Vendor risk assessment diagram

B. Risk register
C. Requirements traceability matrix
D. Area of responsibility summary

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 1)
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?

A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12
- (Topic 1)
A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

A. change control tools

B. expert judgment
C. meetings
D. analytical techniques

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 16
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

A. Requirements traceability matrix

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary
C. Requirements management plan
D. Requirements documentation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 18
- (Topic 1)
Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

A. Salience
B. Influence/impact
C. Power/interest

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D. Power/influence

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 19
- (Topic 1)
An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

A. Manage Project Team

B. Acquire Project Team
C. Plan Human Resource Management
D. Develop Project Team

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 22
- (Topic 1)
Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:

A. Available organizational assets

B. Project staff assignments
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Enterprise environmental factors

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 26
- (Topic 1)
The product scope description is used to:

A. Gain stakeholders support for the project.

B. Document the characteristics of the product.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Formally authorize the project.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 29
- (Topic 1)
The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

A. Earned value management.

B. Forecasting.
C. Critical chain methodology.
D. Critical path methodology.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 34
- (Topic 1)
The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

A. stakeholder management strategy.

B. communications management plan,
C. stakeholder register,
D. performance report.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 38
- (Topic 1)
Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:

A. portfolio
B. program
C. selection
D. sub portfolio

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 40
- (Topic 1)
Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

A. risk taking and risk avoidance.

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B. known risk and unknown risk.

C. identified risk and analyzed risk.
D. varying degrees of risk.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 42
- (Topic 1)
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 43
- (Topic 1)
Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?

A. Marketplace conditions and commercial databases

B. Marketplace conditions and company structure
C. Commercial databases and company structure
D. Existing human resources and market place conditions

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 48
- (Topic 1)
Which is an enterprise environmental factor?

A. Marketplace conditions
B. Policies and procedures
C. Project files from previous projects
D. Lessons learned from previous projects

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 51
- (Topic 1)
Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

A. Identify Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 53
- (Topic 1)
Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B. Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics
C. General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge
D. Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 58
- (Topic 1)
What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

A. 0.45
B. 0.56
C. 0.70
D. 1.36

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 59
- (Topic 1)
What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

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A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Project breakdown structure (PBS)

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 64
- (Topic 1)
The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:

A. formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B. accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. formalizing approval of the scope statement.
D. accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 68
- (Topic 1)
Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

A. corrective action.
B. preventive action.
C. non-conformance report,
D. defect repair.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 70
- (Topic 1)
Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

A. Monitor and Control Risks

B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 72
- (Topic 1)
Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A. Recognized by every project manager

B. Constantly evolving
C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management
D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 75
- (Topic 1)
Risk exists the moment that a project is:

A. planned.
B. conceived.
C. chartered.
D. executed.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 80
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

A. Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B. Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept
C. Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept
D. Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 82
- (Topic 1)

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Activity resource requirements and resource breakdown structure are outputs from what Project Time Management process?

A. Schedule Control
B. Activity Definition
C. Schedule Development
D. Activity Resource Estimating

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 83
- (Topic 1)
In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the
sellers performance?

A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)
B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)
C. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 88
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

A. Project statement of work

B. Business case
C. Accepted deliverable
D. Work performance information

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 90
- (Topic 1)
Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?

A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requested changes
D. Project scope statement

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 92
- (Topic 1)
What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.

B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.
C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events.
D. Removal of project risk.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 93
- (Topic 1)
The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

A. Sequence Activities
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 95
- (Topic 1)
What process determines which risks might affect the project?

A. Qualitative risk analysis

B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Quantitative risk analysis

Answer: B

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NEW QUESTION 99
- (Topic 1)
Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of
requirements gathering?

A. The Delphi technique

B. Nominal group technique
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 101

- (Topic 1)
A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all
components of which document?

A. Work breakdown structure

B. Requirements document
C. Project charter
D. Project management plan

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 102

- (Topic 1)
The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:

A. Define Scope.
B. Develop Project Management Plan.
C. Plan Scope Management.
D. Plan Quality Management.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 107

- (Topic 1)
Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

A. External
B. Lead
C. Discretionary
D. Mandatory

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 109

- (Topic 1)
The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

A. organizational process assets

B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 114

- (Topic 1)
An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:

A. change requests
B. enterprise environmental factors
C. the stakeholder management plan
D. the change log

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 117

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

A. Work performance reports

B. Assumptions logs
C. Network diagrams
D. Academic studies

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Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 118

- (Topic 1)
Stakeholder management strategy is an output of:

A. Plan Communications.
B. Distribute Information.
C. Report Performance.
D. Identify Stakeholders.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 120

- (Topic 1)
For any given project, the project manager, in collaboration with the project team, is responsible for:

A. Applying knowledge, skills, and processes uniformly.

B. Informing the project sponsor about which processes are going to be used.
C. Tailoring the processes to fit the abilities of the organization.
D. Determining which particular processes are appropriate.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 122

- (Topic 1)
Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the
parties?

A. Teaming
B. Collective bargaining
C. Sharing
D. Working

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 125

- (Topic 1)
The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:

A. Plan Risk Management.

B. Plan Risk Responses.
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 127

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

A. Work performance information

B. Project management plan
C. Business case
D. Change requests

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 130

- (Topic 1)
Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

A. Requirements documentation
B. Requirements traceability matrix
C. Project management plan updates
D. Project documents updates

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 133

- (Topic 1)
A project lifecycle is defined as:

A. a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.

B. a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

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C. a recognized standard for the project management profession.

D. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 134

- (Topic 1)
Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

A. Product performance.
B. Budget process.
C. Collective capabilities.
D. Organizational strategy.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 136

- (Topic 1)
Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

A. Information management systems

B. Work performance reports
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Data gathering and representation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 139

- (Topic 1)
The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

A. Push
B. Pull
C. Interactive
D. Iterative

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 140

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Avoid

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 141

- (Topic 1)
The diagram below is an example of a:

A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B. Project team.
C. SWOT Analysis.
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS).

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 143

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

A. Networking
B. Training
C. Negotiation
D. Issue log

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 148

- (Topic 1)
Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance reporting
C. SWOT analysis
D. Expert judgment

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 150

- (Topic 1)
Which tool or technique is used to develop a project charter?

A. Project manager information systems

B. Expert judgment
C. Change control meetings
D. Brainstorming

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 155

- (Topic 1)
Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

A. Control Scope
B. Collect Requirements
C. Create WBS
D. Define Scope

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 156

- (Topic 1)
As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?

A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. WBS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 157

- (Topic 1)
Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?

A. Customers
B. Project sponsors
C. Project management team
D. Insurance claims department

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 158

- (Topic 1)
Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

A. Liabilities
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Equipment

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 163

- (Topic 1)
Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:

A. Benefit
B. Initiative
C. Objective
D. Process

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 166

- (Topic 1)
The product scope description is used to:

A. Gain stakeholders' support for the project.

B. Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 170

- (Topic 2)
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:

A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 175

- (Topic 2)
What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?

A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B. Ground rules for interaction
C. Enhanced resource availability
D. Functional managers becoming more involved

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 180

- (Topic 2)
A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which
type of organizational structure?

A. Projectized
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 181

- (Topic 2)
Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively,
what are these phases known as?

A. Complete project phase

B. Project life
C. The project life cycle
D. Project cycle

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 184

- (Topic 2)
Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

A. Define Activities
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Develop Project Management Plan
D. Develop Project Charter

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Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 185

- (Topic 2)
Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

A. Project management plan

B. Activity resource requirements
C. Resource calendar
D. Project staff assignments

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 190

- (Topic 2)
Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

A. Control
B. Bar
C. Flow
D. Pareto

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 191

- (Topic 2)
A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This
issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

A. risk management plan

B. human resource management plan
C. scope management plan
D. procurement management plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 193

- (Topic 2)
The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project
has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?

A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 197

- (Topic 2)
Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

A. Responsible organization
B. Change requests
C. Validated deliverables
D. Organizational process assets

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 200

- (Topic 2)
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 201

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following lists contain processes that are included within Project Procurement Management?

A. Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select sellers

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B. Plan purchases and acquisitions, request seller responses, select sellers, schedule control
C. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, request seller responses, select sellers
D. Plan purchases and acquisitions, acquire project team, contract approval, select sellers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 204

- (Topic 2)
Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:

A. Developing a detailed description of the project and product.

B. Determining how requirements will be analyzed, documented, and managed.
C. Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project.
D. Formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 205

- (Topic 2)
Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

A. Project life cycle

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Project initiation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 210

- (Topic 2)
The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

A. Define Activities
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Sequence Activities

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 215

- (Topic 2)
Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

A. Create WBS.
B. complete project work.
C. calculate costs.
D. Develop Project Management Plan.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 219

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A. Project scope statement

B. Project charter
C. Project plan
D. Project schedule

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 220

- (Topic 2)
In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:

A. Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.

B. Contain the standard activity list.
C. Document and support the project change requests.
D. Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 222

- (Topic 2)
Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?

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A. Checksheets
B. Histograms
C. Flowcharts
D. Control charts

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 223

- (Topic 2)
Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

A. Resource breakdown structure

B. Staffing management plan
C. Project organizational chart
D. Scope management plan

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 224

- (Topic 2)
Which items are components of a project management plan?

A. Change management plan, process improvement plan, and scope management plan
B. Agreements, procurement management plan, and work performance information
C. Schedule management plan, project schedule, and resource calendars
D. Scope baseline, project statement of work, and requirements traceability matrix

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 225

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

A. Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B. Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates
C. Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents
D. Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 227

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

A. Team performance assessment

B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Staffing management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 231

- (Topic 2)
The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:

A. provides guidance to identify time or schedule challenges within the project.

B. tightly links processes to create a seamless project schedule.
C. guides how the project schedule will be managed throughout the project.
D. creates an overview of all activities broken down into manageable subsections.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 234

- (Topic 2)
Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a
basis by which to measure performance?

A. Histogram
B. Quality audits
C. Benchmarking
D. Performance measurement analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 239

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- (Topic 2)
Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

A. Develop Schedule
B. Create VVBS
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Define Scope

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 242

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?

A. Critical path method

B. Rolling wave planning
C. Precedence diagramming method
D. Parametric estimating

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 247

- (Topic 2)
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

A. Expert judgment.
B. Analytical techniques.
C. Earned value management.
D. Group decision-making techniques.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 248

- (Topic 2)
Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

A. Stakeholder management strategy

B. Communication methods
C. Issue log
D. Change requests

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 251

- (Topic 2)
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 252

- (Topic 2)
Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

A. Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B. Identify quality project standards.
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.
D. Complete the quality control checklist.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 255

- (Topic 2)
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 259

- (Topic 2)
Which is an example of Administer Procurements?

A. Negotiating the contract

B. Authorizing contractor work
C. Developing the statement of work
D. Establishing evaluation criteria

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 264

- (Topic 2)
The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity H is how many days?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 10
D. 11

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 268

- (Topic 2)
Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

A. Matrix diagram
B. Histogram
C. Control chart
D. Flowchart

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 269

- (Topic 2)
You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is effective and current?

A. Perform periodic project performance reviews.

B. Identify quality project standards.
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.
D. Complete the quality control checklist.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 272

- (Topic 2)
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?

A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams
D. Checksheets

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 275

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?

A. It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes.

B. It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion.
C. It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants.
D. It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal.

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Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 276

- (Topic 2)
Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for
estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?

A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 278

- (Topic 2)
Create WBS is part of which of the following Knowledge Areas?

A. Project Integration Management

B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Time Management
D. Project Cost Management

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 282

- (Topic 2)
A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?

A. Strong
B. Weak
C. Managed
D. Balanced

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 286

- (Topic 2)
A tool and technique used during the Create WBS process is:

A. decomposition
B. expert judgment
C. inspection
D. variance analysis

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 288

- (Topic 2)
Portfolio Management is management of:

A. a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

B. a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling.
C. all projects undertaken by a company.
D. a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 291

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following are placed at selected points in the work breakdown structure (WBS) for performance measurement?

A. Control accounts
B. Milestones
C. Management points
D. Measurement points

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 292

- (Topic 2)
Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

A. Communication methods
B. Information technology

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C. Communication models
D. Information management systems

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 295

- (Topic 2)
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?

A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 297

- (Topic 2)
Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 298

- (Topic 2)
In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions,
and services meet
the procurement documents requirements?

A. Technical approach
B. Technical capability
C. Business size and type
D. Production capacity and interest

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 303

- (Topic 2)
Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 307

- (Topic 2)
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 311

- (Topic 2)
Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define
Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Closing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 316

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- (Topic 2)
The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

A. Define Activities.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Define Scope.
D. Control Schedule.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 318

- (Topic 2)
Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

A. Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.

B. Business requirements, the stakeholder register, and functional requirements.
C. Stakeholder impact, budget requirements, and communications requirements.
D. Business objectives, stakeholder impact, and functional requirements.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 320

- (Topic 2)
Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?

A. Decomposition
B. Inspection
C. Project analysis
D. Document analysis

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 323

- (Topic 2)
The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

A. Plan Communications.
B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations.
C. Stakeholder Analysis.
D. Identify Stakeholders.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 327

- (Topic 2)
Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

A. cost management plan.

B. risk management plan,
C. activity list,
D. risk register.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 330

- (Topic 2)
Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

A. Direct
B. Interactive
C. Pull
D. Push

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 335

- (Topic 2)
Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?

A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Requested changes
D. Project management plan

Answer: D

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NEW QUESTION 338

- (Topic 3)
A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?

A. Risk monitoring and controlling

B. Risk response planning
C. Qualitative risk analysis
D. Quantitative risk analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 343

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all processes needed to meet its requirements?

A. Perform Quality Control

B. Quality Policy
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Quality Planning

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 345

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary?

A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan
D. Scope baseline

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 347

- (Topic 3)
An imposed date for completion of the project by the customer is an example of a project:

A. deliverable
B. assumption
C. constraint
D. exclusion

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 350

- (Topic 3)
The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project
activities is:

A. Acquire Project Team.

B. Plan Human Resource Management.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 352

- (Topic 3)
Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires that different levels of the risk’s probabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what?

A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

B. Risk probability and impact
C. Qualitative risk analysis
D. Risk response planning

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 355

- (Topic 3)
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000

A. 1
B. 0.4
C. 0.5
D. 0.8

Answer:

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NEW QUESTION 359

- (Topic 3)
Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B. Network diagrams
C. Staffing management plan
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 362

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

A. Legal
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. Resource

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 365

- (Topic 3)
The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:

A. Determine Budget.
B. Baseline Budget.
C. Control Costs.
D. Estimate Costs.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 369

- (Topic 3)
A project manager needs to deliver the project 2 weeks before the planned date without changing the scope. Which of the following techniques may be applied to
reevaluate the schedule?

A. What-if scenario analysis

B. Critical chain method
C. Schedule crashing
D. Resource leveling

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 371

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is a component of three-point estimates?

A. Probabilistic
B. Most likely
C. Expected
D. Anticipated

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 375

- (Topic 3)
The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

A. 1.33
B. 2
C. 0.75
D. 0.5

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 377

- (Topic 3)
A process is defined as:

A. A set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a certain objective.

B. A set of guidelines that explains how to carry out a particular task.
C. The inputs for a task and the tools and techniques required to carry out the task.

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D. A collection of logically related project activities, usually culminating in the completion of a major deliverable.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 382

- (Topic 3)
Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

A. Project document updates

B. Activity list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project calendars

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 385

- (Topic 3)
A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:

A. project records
B. project reports
C. stakeholder notifications
D. stakeholder register

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 386

- (Topic 3)
Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

A. Schedule
B. Checklist
C. Assumption
D. Cost-Benefit

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 389

- (Topic 3)
What is a tool and technique used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

A. Project management information system (PMIS)

B. Project charter
C. Quality assurance
D. Expert judgment

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 390

- (Topic 3)
Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?

A. Business case
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requirements documentation
D. Risk register

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 392

- (Topic 3)
Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 393

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

A. Activity sequencing

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B. Resource leveling
C. Lead and lag adjusting
D. Crashing

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 394

- (Topic 3)
Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

A. Monitoring and Controlling

B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Initiating

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 399

- (Topic 3)
A project charter is an output of which Process Group?

A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Closing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 400

- (Topic 3)
When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:

A. divided among each of the phases or subprojects.

B. repeated for each of the phases or subprojects.
C. linked to specific phases or subprojects.
D. integrated for specific phases or subprojects.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 404

- (Topic 3)
Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

A. Monitor and Control Project Work

B. Perform Quality Control
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Risks

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 407

- (Topic 3)
Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Initiating

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reason: Control Stateholder Engagement is in the Monitoring and Control Process.

NEW QUESTION 408

- (Topic 3)
Who is responsible for reviewing change requests and approving or rejecting the change requests?

A. Change control board

B. Project manager
C. Project management office
D. Project sponsor

Answer: B

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NEW QUESTION 412

- (Topic 3)
Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

A. Contract plan
B. Procurement plan
C. Closure process
D. Procurement audits

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 413

- (Topic 3)
What is the lowest level in the Work Breakdown Structure called?

A. Work Packages
B. Activities
C. Schedules
D. Tasks

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 414

- (Topic 3)
Decomposition, rolling wave planning, and templates are all tools and techniques for which of the following?

A. Define Activities
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Develop Schedule
D. Sequence Activities

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 417

- (Topic 3)
The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original
budget at completion for the project?

A. $800
B. $1000
C. $1250
D. $1800

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 419

- (Topic 3)
In which of the following types of organizations is resource availability moderate to high?

A. Weak matrix
B. Balanced matrix
C. Strong matrix
D. Projectized

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 424

- (Topic 3)
The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

A. Close Procurements.
B. Control Procurements.
C. Plan Procurements.
D. Conduct Procurements.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 429

- (Topic 3)
A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence
Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?

A. Slack
B. Float
C. Lag
D. Lead

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Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 433

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is an input into the Develop Project Team process?

A. Enterprise environmental factors

B. Organizational process assets
C. Project staff assignments
D. Performance reports

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 434

- (Topic 3)
A Pareto chart is a specific type of:

A. control chart
B. histogram
C. cause-and-effect diagram
D. scatter diagram

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 437

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

A. Plan Communications
B. Performance reporting
C. Project status reports
D. Distribute Information

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 441

- (Topic 3)
Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Decomposition
D. Product analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 445

- (Topic 3)
Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

A. Procurement management plan

B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Procurement statement of work

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 450

- (Topic 3)
Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast
tracking?

A. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B. The critical path will have positive total float.
C. Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.
D. Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 451

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

A. Cost of changes
B. Stakeholder influences

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C. Risk
D. Uncertainty

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 456

- (Topic 3)
The Human Resource Management processes are:

A. Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.
B. Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 459

- (Topic 3)
The Process Group that involves coordinating people and resources, as well as integrating and performing the activities of the project in accordance with the
project management plan is known as:

A. Initiating.
B. Planning.
C. Executing.
D. Monitoring and Controlling.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 461

- (Topic 3)
Outputs from constituent processes might be used as:

A. Inputs to other processes.

B. Proof of process completion.
C. Identification of project tasks.
D. Indicators to eliminate project redundancies.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 464

- (Topic 3)
A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

A. state the guiding principles of the organization.

B. identify alternatives to generate different approaches.
C. state what is out of scope.
D. outline the results of the Delphi technique.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 467

- (Topic 3)
Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner. What is an output from information distribution?

A. Earned value analysis

B. Trend analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 471

- (Topic 3)
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 474

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following buffers protects the target finish date from slippage along the critical chain?

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A. Critical buffer
B. Project buffer
C. Duration buffer
D. Feeding buffer

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 475

- (Topic 3)
Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

A. Program
B. Functional
C. Project
D. Portfolio

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 478

- (Topic 3)
Which type of team can be defined as a group of people with a shared goal who fulfill their roles although spending little or no time meeting face to face?

A. Co-location team
B. Virtual team
C. Departmental team
D. Consultant team

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 479

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Variance analysis
C. Reserve analysis
D. Stakeholder analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 484

- (Topic 3)
Issue change requests and adapt approved changes into the project’s scope, plans, and environment is an activity included in which of the following project
management processes?

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution

B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Risks

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 486

- (Topic 3)
Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

A. Earned value management.

B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Work performance information.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 489

- (Topic 3)
Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

A. Develop Schedule
B. Sequence Activities
C. Create WBS
D. Applying leads and lags

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 490

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- (Topic 3)
Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?

A. Influencing
B. Motivation
C. Negotiation
D. Trust building

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 495

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

A. Change requests
B. Variance analysis
C. Accepted deliverables
D. Requirements documentation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 498

- (Topic 3)
What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?

A. Procurement documents
B. Expert judgment
C. Bidder conferences
D. Contract types

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 502

- (Topic 3)
Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?

A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
C. Project assignment chart
D. Personnel assignment matrix

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 503

- (Topic 3)
Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

A. Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B. Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence
C. Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together
D. Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 504

- (Topic 3)
An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:

A. defect repair
B. work repair
C. corrective action
D. preventive action

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 505

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following will provide the basis for estimating, scheduling, executing, and monitoring and controlling project work?

A. Activities
B. Milestone list
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Work packages

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 506

- (Topic 3)
To which process is work performance information an input?

A. Contract administration
B. Direction and management of project execution
C. Create WBS
D. Qualitative risk analysis

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 509

- (Topic 3)
The Plan Procurements process includes documenting project purchasing decisions and what other steps?

A. Specifying the approach and identifying potential sellers

B. Specifying the approach and selecting a seller
C. Identifying potential sellers and obtaining seller responses
D. Specifying the approach and managing procurement relationships

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 510

- (Topic 3)
Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (WBS) to give structure to the
decomposition of the scope?

A. Activity network diagrams

B. Affinity diagrams
C. Matrix diagrams
D. Interrelationship digraphs

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 511

- (Topic 3)
Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Checksheet
D. Pareto diagram

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 515

- (Topic 3)
The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

A. A risk urgency assessment.

B. The scope baseline.
C. Work performance information.
D. Procurement audits.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 517

- (Topic 3)
The project manager has requested all expert team members to complete an anonymous questionnaire to identify possible risks. This is an example of a technique
known as the:

A. interview technique
B. information gathering technique
C. Delphi technique
D. feedback technique

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 518

- (Topic 3)
Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

A. Control Schedule
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Estimate Activity Resources

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Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 523

- (Topic 3)
The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

A. Continuous improvement.
B. Predictive planning.
C. Progressive elaboration.
D. Quality assurance.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 526

- (Topic 3)
Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project
management process?

A. Plan Risk Responses

B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
C. Define Scope
D. Report Performance

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 531

- (Topic 4)
Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

A. Estimate Costs
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Control Costs
D. Determine Budget

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 535

- (Topic 4)
The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

A. Plan Quality.
B. Perform Quality Assurance.
C. Perform Quality Control.
D. Total Quality Management.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 540

- (Topic 4)
Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

A. Functional managers
B. Business partners
C. Customers or sponsors
D. Subject matter experts

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 541

- (Topic 4)
Projects are authorized by which of the following individuals?

A. Project managers
B. Stakeholders
C. Functional managers
D. Sponsors

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 544

- (Topic 4)
In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets

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C. Project schedule
D. Resource calendars

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 548

- (Topic 4)
An input to the Control Quality process is:

A. Activity attributes
B. Quality control measurements
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Deliverables

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 553

- (Topic 4)
What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

A. Cost aggregation
B. Trend analysis
C. Forecasting
D. Variance analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 555

- (Topic 4)
Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?

A. Update
B. Preventive action
C. Defect repair
D. Corrective action

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 560

- (Topic 4)
A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

A. plan
B. process
C. program
D. portfolio

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 561

- (Topic 4)
An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:

A. A process improvement plan,

B. Quality control measurements.
C. Work performance information,
D. The project management plan.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 564

- (Topic 4)
One of the fundamental tenets of modern quality management states that quality is:

A. planned, designed, and built in.

B. planned, designed, and inspected in.
C. built in, created, and reviewed.
D. built in, created, and standardized.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 565

- (Topic 4)
A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

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A. mitigate
B. accept
C. transfer
D. avoid

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 568

- (Topic 4)
On what is project baseline development established?

A. Approved product requirements

B. Estimated project cost and schedule
C. Actual project cost and schedule
D. Revised project cost and schedule

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 570

- (Topic 4)
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:

A. Performance measurement baseline.

B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 575

- (Topic 4)
Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be outside of the project's:

A. Level of control.
B. Communication channels.
C. Scope.
D. Strategic alignment.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 580

- (Topic 4)
The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?

A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 584

- (Topic 4)
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 585

- (Topic 4)
An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

A. smooth/accommodate.
B. force/direct,
C. collaborate/problem solve,
D. compromise/reconcile.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 589

- (Topic 4)

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Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

A. Cost baseline
B. Cost forecasting
C. Cost variance
D. Cost budgeting

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 594

- (Topic 4)
Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?

A. Activity cost estimates

B. Earned value management
C. Cost management plan
D. Cost baseline

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 598

- (Topic 4)
Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

A. Expert judgment
B. Project management software
C. Vendor bid analysis
D. Reserve analysis

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 602

- (Topic 4)
Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

A. Variance Analysis
B. Define Scope
C. Verify Scope
D. Control Scope

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 604

- (Topic 4)
Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?

A. Analogous Estimating
B. Expert Judgment
C. Optimistic Estimates
D. Reserve Analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 609

- (Topic 4)
Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Status review meetings

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 612

- (Topic 4)
An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

A. resource calendar.
B. activity list.
C. risk management plan.
D. organizational process assets.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 614

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- (Topic 4)
Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate
toward common goals?

A. Collaboration
B. Negotiation
C. Decision making
D. Influencing

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 617

- (Topic 4)
Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process?

A. Performance Measure
B. Baseline Schedule
C. Schedule Comparison
D. Variance Analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 618

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

A. Requested changes, forecasts, recommended corrective actions

B. Forecasts, resources plan, bottom up estimating
C. Recommended corrective actions, cost baseline, forecasts
D. Requested changes, recommended corrective actions, project constraints

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 620

- (Topic 4)
The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is
collected: Actual cost
= $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

A. 0.8
B. 0.89
C. 1.13
D. 1.25

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 621

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

A. A project is behind schedule and the project manager wants the baseline to reflect estimated actual completion.
B. A customer has approved a change request broadening the project scope and increasing the budget.
C. One of the risks identified in the risk management plan occurs, resulting in a schedule delay.
D. One of the key project team resources has left the team and no replacement is available.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 626

- (Topic 4)
Cost aggregation is typically performed by aggregating work packages in accordance with the:

A. Program evaluation and review technique (PERT).

B. Cost of quality (COQ).
C. Rough order of magnitude (ROM).
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS).

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 629

- (Topic 4)
An associate who calculates fees daily to support the department is doing which of the following?

A. Phase work
B. Project work
C. Lifecycle work
D. Operations work

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Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 632

- (Topic 4)
Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated
as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
C. Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)
D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 635

- (Topic 4)
The chart below is an example of a:

A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. RACI chart
D. Requirements traceability matrix

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 639

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

A. Change requests
B. Performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Project management plan

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 642

- (Topic 4)
Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Bottom-up
D. Top-down

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 646

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is
critical?

A. Applying calendars
B. Resource leveling
C. Resource planning
D. Resource conflict management

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 649

- (Topic 4)
Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which
a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?

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A. External
B. Internal
C. Mandatory
D. Discretionary

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 653

- (Topic 4)
What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

A. Quality metrics
B. Less rework
C. Quality control measurements
D. Benchmarking

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 656

- (Topic 4)
When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

A. event.
B. response,
C. perception.
D. impact.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 659

- (Topic 4)
Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

A. Cost risk simulation analysis

B. Expected monetary value analysis
C. Modeling and simulation
D. Sensitivity analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 660

- (Topic 4)
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?

A. Estimate Activity Resources

B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 661

- (Topic 4)
The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

A. Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.
C. Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.
D. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 666

- (Topic 4)
Which item is a cost of conformance?

A. Training
B. Liabilities
C. Lost business
D. Scrap

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 671

- (Topic 4)

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Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

A. Plan Risk Management

B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Identify Risks
D. Control Risks

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 672

- (Topic 4)
Ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation is a focus of which of the following?

A. Project management
B. Program management
C. Portfolio management
D. Relationship management

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 677

- (Topic 4)
Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

A. Inspection
B. Quality audits
C. Design of experiments
D. Root cause analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 680

- (Topic 4)
A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as
the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

A. budget at completion (BAC)

B. earned value management (EVM)
C. to-complete performance index
D. cost performance index

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 682

- (Topic 4)
The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

A. Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,

B. Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.
C. Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.
D. Complete the work defined in the project management plan.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 685

- (Topic 4)
Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 688

- (Topic 4)
Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?

A. Perform Quality Assurance

B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control

Answer: D

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NEW QUESTION 691

- (Topic 4)
When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

A. lead
B. lag
C. mandatory dependency
D. internal dependency

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 696

- (Topic 4)
What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Run chart
D. Pareto chart

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 697

- (Topic 4)
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 698

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into account?

A. Network reserve analysis

B. Critical chain method
C. Lead and lag adjustment
D. Critical path method

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 699

- (Topic 4)
Which type of control tool identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

A. Cause and effect diagram

B. Control Charts
C. Pareto Chart
D. Histogram

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 700

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following tools and techniques is used to estimate cost?

A. Budget forecast
B. Variance analysis
C. Activity cost estimate
D. Three-point estimate

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 703

- (Topic 4)
A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

A. risk data quality assessment.

B. variance and trend analysis.
C. data gathering and representation techniques.
D. risk audits.

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 707

- (Topic 4)
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?

A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 712

- (Topic 5)
Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

A. Force/direct
B. Withdraw/avoid
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Collaborate/problem solve

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 713

- (Topic 5)
Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Three-point estimate
C. Modeling and simulation
D. Expected monetary value analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 715

- (Topic 5)
Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?

A. Portfolio
B. Process
C. Project
D. Program

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 719

- (Topic 5)
Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

A. Purchase requisition
B. Purchase order
C. Verbal agreement
D. Request for quote

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 724

- (Topic 5)
Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:

A. Enterprise environmental factors

B. Work performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Context diagrams

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 725

- (Topic 5)
A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the
work completed to date?

A. US$S000
B. US$9500
C. US$10,000
D. US$12,500

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Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 727

- (Topic 5)
A reward can only be effective if it is:

A. Given immediately after the project is completed.

B. Something that is tangible.
C. Formally given during project performance appraisals.
D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 731

- (Topic 5)
Types of internal failure costs include:

A. inspections.
B. equipment and training.
C. lost business.
D. reworking and scrapping.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 735

- (Topic 5)
What is a technique used in the performance reporting process?

A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Status review meetings

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 736

- (Topic 5)
If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the
expected duration of the activity?

A. One
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 737

- (Topic 5)
What do composite organizations involve?

A. Functional and project managers

B. Functional managers only
C. Project managers only
D. Technical managers and project managers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 740

- (Topic 5)
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?

A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 743

- (Topic 5)
Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

A. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach

B. Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach

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C. Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach

D. As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 746

- (Topic 5)
Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the
scope of work changes?

A. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B. Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)
C. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)
D. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 747

- (Topic 5)
The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

A. always be applied uniformly.

B. be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.
C. be selected as appropriate by the project team.
D. be applied based on ISO guidelines.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 751

- (Topic 5)
Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure
for a current project?

A. Reserve analysis
B. Three-point estimating
C. Parametric estimating
D. Analogous estimating

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 754

- (Topic 5)
The person assigned by the performing organization to be responsible for achieving the project objectives is the:

A. functional manager
B. program manager
C. project manager
D. portfolio manager

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 756

- (Topic 5)
Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?

A. Develop preliminary project scope statement

B. Close Project or Phase
C. Develop project charter
D. Create WBS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 761

- (Topic 5)
Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general
techniques for managing conflict?

A. Smooth/accommodate
B. Withdraw/avoid
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Force/direct

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 763

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- (Topic 5)
Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?

A. Contract plan
B. Procurement plan
C. Closure process
D. Procurement audits

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 768

- (Topic 5)
When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

A. Fixed Fee
B. Free Float
C. Fixed Finish
D. Finish-to-Finish

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 770

- (Topic 5)
What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

A. Sole-sum
B. Win-lose
C. Lose-win
D. Partial-sum

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 773

- (Topic 5)
When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?

A. Reserve analysis
B. Regression analysis
C. Document analysis
D. Product analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 777

- (Topic 5)
The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

A. Control Schedule.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Define Activities.
D. Develop Schedule.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 781

......

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NEW QUESTION 1
- (Topic 1)
In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:

A. Provide information needed to plan appropriate ways to engage project stakeholders.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 2
- (Topic 1)
What entity is assigned various responsibilities related to the centralized and coordinated management of those projects under its domain?

A. Project management office

B. Project team office
C. Executive sponsor office
D. Program management office

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 3
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a project constraint?

A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge.
C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.
D. The product is needed in 250 days.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 4
- (Topic 1)
Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization?

A. WBS
B. CPI
C. OBS
D. BOM

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
- (Topic 1)
Which element does a project charter contain?

A. Management reserves
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Stakeholder list
D. Stakeholder register

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 6
- (Topic 1)
Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7
- (Topic 1)
Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?

A. Probability
B. Quantitative
C. Qualitative
D. Sensitivity

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Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8
- (Topic 1)
Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?

A. Executing Process Group and Project Time Management

B. Executing Process Group and Project Cost Management
C. Planning Process Group and Project Time Management
D. Planning Process Group and Project Cost Management

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 9
- (Topic 1)
In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

A. Functional
B. Projectized
C. Matrix
D. Balanced

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?

A. Vendor risk assessment diagram

B. Risk register
C. Requirements traceability matrix
D. Area of responsibility summary

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 1)
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?

A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12
- (Topic 1)
A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

A. change control tools

B. expert judgment
C. meetings
D. analytical techniques

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 16
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

A. Requirements traceability matrix

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary
C. Requirements management plan
D. Requirements documentation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 18
- (Topic 1)
Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

A. Salience
B. Influence/impact
C. Power/interest

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D. Power/influence

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 19
- (Topic 1)
An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?

A. Manage Project Team

B. Acquire Project Team
C. Plan Human Resource Management
D. Develop Project Team

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 22
- (Topic 1)
Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:

A. Available organizational assets

B. Project staff assignments
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Enterprise environmental factors

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 26
- (Topic 1)
The product scope description is used to:

A. Gain stakeholders support for the project.

B. Document the characteristics of the product.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Formally authorize the project.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 29
- (Topic 1)
The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

A. Earned value management.

B. Forecasting.
C. Critical chain methodology.
D. Critical path methodology.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 34
- (Topic 1)
The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:

A. stakeholder management strategy.

B. communications management plan,
C. stakeholder register,
D. performance report.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 38
- (Topic 1)
Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:

A. portfolio
B. program
C. selection
D. sub portfolio

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 40
- (Topic 1)
Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:

A. risk taking and risk avoidance.

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B. known risk and unknown risk.

C. identified risk and analyzed risk.
D. varying degrees of risk.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 42
- (Topic 1)
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 43
- (Topic 1)
Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?

A. Marketplace conditions and commercial databases

B. Marketplace conditions and company structure
C. Commercial databases and company structure
D. Existing human resources and market place conditions

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 48
- (Topic 1)
Which is an enterprise environmental factor?

A. Marketplace conditions
B. Policies and procedures
C. Project files from previous projects
D. Lessons learned from previous projects

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 51
- (Topic 1)
Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?

A. Identify Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 53
- (Topic 1)
Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 58
- (Topic 1)
What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

A. 0.45
B. 0.56
C. 0.70
D. 1.36

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 59
- (Topic 1)
What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

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A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Project breakdown structure (PBS)

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 64
- (Topic 1)
The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:

A. formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.

B. accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. formalizing approval of the scope statement.
D. accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 68
- (Topic 1)
Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

A. corrective action.
B. preventive action.
C. non-conformance report,
D. defect repair.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 70
- (Topic 1)
Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?

A. Monitor and Control Risks

B. Plan Risk Management
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 72
- (Topic 1)
Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A. Recognized by every project manager

B. Constantly evolving
C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management
D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 75
- (Topic 1)
Risk exists the moment that a project is:

A. planned.
B. conceived.
C. chartered.
D. executed.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 80
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

A. Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B. Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept
C. Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept
D. Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 82
- (Topic 1)

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Activity resource requirements and resource breakdown structure are outputs from what Project Time Management process?

A. Schedule Control
B. Activity Definition
C. Schedule Development
D. Activity Resource Estimating

Answer: D

A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)
B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)
C. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 88
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

A. Project statement of work

B. Business case
C. Accepted deliverable
D. Work performance information

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 90
- (Topic 1)
Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?

A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requested changes
D. Project scope statement

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 92
- (Topic 1)
What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.

B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.
C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events.
D. Removal of project risk.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 93
- (Topic 1)
The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

A. Sequence Activities
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 95
- (Topic 1)
What process determines which risks might affect the project?

A. Qualitative risk analysis

B. Identify Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Quantitative risk analysis

Answer: B

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A. The Delphi technique

B. Nominal group technique
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 101

- (Topic 1)
A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all
components of which document?

A. Work breakdown structure

B. Requirements document
C. Project charter
D. Project management plan

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 102

- (Topic 1)
The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:

A. Define Scope.
B. Develop Project Management Plan.
C. Plan Scope Management.
D. Plan Quality Management.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 107

- (Topic 1)
Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?

A. External
B. Lead
C. Discretionary
D. Mandatory

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 109

- (Topic 1)
The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

A. organizational process assets

B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 114

- (Topic 1)
An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:

A. change requests
B. enterprise environmental factors
C. the stakeholder management plan
D. the change log

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 117

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?

A. Work performance reports

B. Assumptions logs
C. Network diagrams
D. Academic studies

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Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 118

- (Topic 1)
Stakeholder management strategy is an output of:

A. Plan Communications.
B. Distribute Information.
C. Report Performance.
D. Identify Stakeholders.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 120

- (Topic 1)
For any given project, the project manager, in collaboration with the project team, is responsible for:

A. Applying knowledge, skills, and processes uniformly.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 122

- (Topic 1)
Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the
parties?

A. Teaming
B. Collective bargaining
C. Sharing
D. Working

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 125

- (Topic 1)
The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:

A. Plan Risk Management.

B. Plan Risk Responses.
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 127

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?

A. Work performance information

B. Project management plan
C. Business case
D. Change requests

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 130

- (Topic 1)
Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

A. Requirements documentation
B. Requirements traceability matrix
C. Project management plan updates
D. Project documents updates

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 133

- (Topic 1)
A project lifecycle is defined as:

A. a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.

B. a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.

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C. a recognized standard for the project management profession.

D. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 134

- (Topic 1)
Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

A. Product performance.
B. Budget process.
C. Collective capabilities.
D. Organizational strategy.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 136

- (Topic 1)
Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?

A. Information management systems

B. Work performance reports
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Data gathering and representation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 139

- (Topic 1)
The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

A. Push
B. Pull
C. Interactive
D. Iterative

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 140

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Avoid

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 141

- (Topic 1)
The diagram below is an example of a:

A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B. Project team.
C. SWOT Analysis.
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS).

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 143

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

A. Networking
B. Training
C. Negotiation
D. Issue log

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 148

- (Topic 1)
Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

A. Pareto diagram
B. Performance reporting
C. SWOT analysis
D. Expert judgment

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 150

- (Topic 1)
Which tool or technique is used to develop a project charter?

A. Project manager information systems

B. Expert judgment
C. Change control meetings
D. Brainstorming

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 155

- (Topic 1)
Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

A. Control Scope
B. Collect Requirements
C. Create WBS
D. Define Scope

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 156

- (Topic 1)
As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?

A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. WBS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 157

- (Topic 1)
Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?

A. Customers
B. Project sponsors
C. Project management team
D. Insurance claims department

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 158

- (Topic 1)
Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

A. Liabilities
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Equipment

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 163

- (Topic 1)
Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:

A. Benefit
B. Initiative
C. Objective
D. Process

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 166

- (Topic 1)
The product scope description is used to:

A. Gain stakeholders' support for the project.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 170

- (Topic 2)
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:

A. Cost estimates.
B. Resource calendars,
C. The project charter,
D. The risk register.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 175

- (Topic 2)
What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?

A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B. Ground rules for interaction
C. Enhanced resource availability
D. Functional managers becoming more involved

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 180

A. Projectized
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 181

- (Topic 2)
Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively,
what are these phases known as?

A. Complete project phase

B. Project life
C. The project life cycle
D. Project cycle

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 184

- (Topic 2)
Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

A. Define Activities
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Develop Project Management Plan
D. Develop Project Charter

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Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 185

- (Topic 2)
Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?

A. Project management plan

B. Activity resource requirements
C. Resource calendar
D. Project staff assignments

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 190

- (Topic 2)
Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?

A. Control
B. Bar
C. Flow
D. Pareto

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 191

A. risk management plan

B. human resource management plan
C. scope management plan
D. procurement management plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 193

A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Monitoring and Controlling

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 197

- (Topic 2)
Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

A. Responsible organization
B. Change requests
C. Validated deliverables
D. Organizational process assets

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 200

- (Topic 2)
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

A. Adaptive
B. Predictive
C. Incremental
D. Iterative

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 201

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following lists contain processes that are included within Project Procurement Management?

A. Plan purchases and acquisitions, plan contracting, request seller responses, select sellers

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Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 204

- (Topic 2)
Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:

A. Developing a detailed description of the project and product.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 205

- (Topic 2)
Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?

A. Project life cycle

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Project initiation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 210

- (Topic 2)
The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

A. Define Activities
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Sequence Activities

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 215

- (Topic 2)
Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

A. Create WBS.
B. complete project work.
C. calculate costs.
D. Develop Project Management Plan.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 219

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

A. Project scope statement

B. Project charter
C. Project plan
D. Project schedule

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 220

- (Topic 2)
In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:

A. Capture the lessons learned from other projects for comparison.

B. Contain the standard activity list.
C. Document and support the project change requests.
D. Prescribe the level of detail needed to manage the work.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 222

- (Topic 2)
Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?

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A. Checksheets
B. Histograms
C. Flowcharts
D. Control charts

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 223

- (Topic 2)
Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

A. Resource breakdown structure

B. Staffing management plan
C. Project organizational chart
D. Scope management plan

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 224

- (Topic 2)
Which items are components of a project management plan?

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 225

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

A. Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 227

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

A. Team performance assessment

B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Staffing management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 231

- (Topic 2)
The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:

A. provides guidance to identify time or schedule challenges within the project.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 234

A. Histogram
B. Quality audits
C. Benchmarking
D. Performance measurement analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 239

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- (Topic 2)
Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

A. Develop Schedule
B. Create VVBS
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Define Scope

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 242

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?

A. Critical path method

B. Rolling wave planning
C. Precedence diagramming method
D. Parametric estimating

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 247

- (Topic 2)
Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:

A. Expert judgment.
B. Analytical techniques.
C. Earned value management.
D. Group decision-making techniques.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 248

- (Topic 2)
Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

A. Stakeholder management strategy

B. Communication methods
C. Issue log
D. Change requests

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 251

- (Topic 2)
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 252

- (Topic 2)
Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

A. Conduct periodic project performance reviews.

B. Identify quality project standards.
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.
D. Complete the quality control checklist.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 255

- (Topic 2)
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?

A. Change request
B. Requirements documentation
C. Scope baseline
D. Risk urgency assessment

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 259

- (Topic 2)
Which is an example of Administer Procurements?

A. Negotiating the contract

B. Authorizing contractor work
C. Developing the statement of work
D. Establishing evaluation criteria

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 264

- (Topic 2)
The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity H is how many days?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 10
D. 11

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 268

- (Topic 2)
Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?

A. Matrix diagram
B. Histogram
C. Control chart
D. Flowchart

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 269

- (Topic 2)
You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is effective and current?

A. Perform periodic project performance reviews.

B. Identify quality project standards.
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.
D. Complete the quality control checklist.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 272

- (Topic 2)
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?

A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams
D. Checksheets

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 275

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?

A. It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes.

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Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 276

A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 278

- (Topic 2)
Create WBS is part of which of the following Knowledge Areas?

A. Project Integration Management

B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Time Management
D. Project Cost Management

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 282

- (Topic 2)
A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?

A. Strong
B. Weak
C. Managed
D. Balanced

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 286

- (Topic 2)
A tool and technique used during the Create WBS process is:

A. decomposition
B. expert judgment
C. inspection
D. variance analysis

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 288

- (Topic 2)
Portfolio Management is management of:

A. a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 291

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following are placed at selected points in the work breakdown structure (WBS) for performance measurement?

A. Control accounts
B. Milestones
C. Management points
D. Measurement points

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 292

- (Topic 2)
Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

A. Communication methods
B. Information technology

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C. Communication models
D. Information management systems

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 295

- (Topic 2)
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?

A. Control Risks
B. Plan Risk Management
C. Plan Risk Responses
D. Identify Risks

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 297

- (Topic 2)
Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 298

A. Technical approach
B. Technical capability
C. Business size and type
D. Production capacity and interest

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 303

- (Topic 2)
Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 307

- (Topic 2)
Which document defines how a project is executed, monitored and controlled, and closed?

A. Strategic plan
B. Project charter
C. Project management plan
D. Service level agreement

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 311

- (Topic 2)
Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define
Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Closing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 316

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- (Topic 2)
The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

A. Define Activities.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Define Scope.
D. Control Schedule.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 318

- (Topic 2)
Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:

A. Stakeholder requirements, staffing requirements, and transition requirements.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 320

- (Topic 2)
Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?

A. Decomposition
B. Inspection
C. Project analysis
D. Document analysis

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 323

- (Topic 2)
The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:

A. Plan Communications.
B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations.
C. Stakeholder Analysis.
D. Identify Stakeholders.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 327

- (Topic 2)
Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

A. cost management plan.

B. risk management plan,
C. activity list,
D. risk register.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 330

- (Topic 2)
Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

A. Direct
B. Interactive
C. Pull
D. Push

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 335

- (Topic 2)
Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?

A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. Requested changes
D. Project management plan

Answer: D

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NEW QUESTION 338

- (Topic 3)
A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?

A. Risk monitoring and controlling

B. Risk response planning
C. Qualitative risk analysis
D. Quantitative risk analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 343

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all processes needed to meet its requirements?

A. Perform Quality Control

B. Quality Policy
C. Perform Quality Assurance
D. Quality Planning

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 345

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary?

A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan
D. Scope baseline

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 347

- (Topic 3)
An imposed date for completion of the project by the customer is an example of a project:

A. deliverable
B. assumption
C. constraint
D. exclusion

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 350

- (Topic 3)
The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project
activities is:

A. Acquire Project Team.

B. Plan Human Resource Management.
C. Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 352

- (Topic 3)
Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires that different levels of the risk’s probabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what?

A. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)

B. Risk probability and impact
C. Qualitative risk analysis
D. Risk response planning

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 355

- (Topic 3)
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000

A. 1
B. 0.4
C. 0.5
D. 0.8

Answer:

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NEW QUESTION 359

- (Topic 3)
Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B. Network diagrams
C. Staffing management plan
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 362

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?

A. Legal
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. Resource

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 365

- (Topic 3)
The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:

A. Determine Budget.
B. Baseline Budget.
C. Control Costs.
D. Estimate Costs.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 369

- (Topic 3)
A project manager needs to deliver the project 2 weeks before the planned date without changing the scope. Which of the following techniques may be applied to
reevaluate the schedule?

A. What-if scenario analysis

B. Critical chain method
C. Schedule crashing
D. Resource leveling

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 371

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is a component of three-point estimates?

A. Probabilistic
B. Most likely
C. Expected
D. Anticipated

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 375

- (Topic 3)
The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

A. 1.33
B. 2
C. 0.75
D. 0.5

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 377

- (Topic 3)
A process is defined as:

A. A set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a certain objective.

B. A set of guidelines that explains how to carry out a particular task.
C. The inputs for a task and the tools and techniques required to carry out the task.

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D. A collection of logically related project activities, usually culminating in the completion of a major deliverable.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 382

- (Topic 3)
Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?

A. Project document updates

B. Activity list
C. Activity attributes
D. Project calendars

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 385

- (Topic 3)
A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:

A. project records
B. project reports
C. stakeholder notifications
D. stakeholder register

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 386

- (Topic 3)
Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?

A. Schedule
B. Checklist
C. Assumption
D. Cost-Benefit

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 389

- (Topic 3)
What is a tool and technique used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?

A. Project management information system (PMIS)

B. Project charter
C. Quality assurance
D. Expert judgment

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 390

- (Topic 3)
Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?

A. Business case
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requirements documentation
D. Risk register

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 392

- (Topic 3)
Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 393

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

A. Activity sequencing

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B. Resource leveling
C. Lead and lag adjusting
D. Crashing

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 394

- (Topic 3)
Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?

A. Monitoring and Controlling

B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Initiating

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 399

- (Topic 3)
A project charter is an output of which Process Group?

A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Closing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 400

- (Topic 3)
When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:

A. divided among each of the phases or subprojects.

B. repeated for each of the phases or subprojects.
C. linked to specific phases or subprojects.
D. integrated for specific phases or subprojects.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 404

- (Topic 3)
Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

A. Monitor and Control Project Work

B. Perform Quality Control
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Risks

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 407

- (Topic 3)
Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Initiating

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reason: Control Stateholder Engagement is in the Monitoring and Control Process.

NEW QUESTION 408

- (Topic 3)
Who is responsible for reviewing change requests and approving or rejecting the change requests?

A. Change control board

B. Project manager
C. Project management office
D. Project sponsor

Answer: B

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NEW QUESTION 412

- (Topic 3)
Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

A. Contract plan
B. Procurement plan
C. Closure process
D. Procurement audits

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 413

- (Topic 3)
What is the lowest level in the Work Breakdown Structure called?

A. Work Packages
B. Activities
C. Schedules
D. Tasks

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 414

- (Topic 3)
Decomposition, rolling wave planning, and templates are all tools and techniques for which of the following?

A. Define Activities
B. Estimate Activity Durations
C. Develop Schedule
D. Sequence Activities

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 417

A. $800
B. $1000
C. $1250
D. $1800

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 419

- (Topic 3)
In which of the following types of organizations is resource availability moderate to high?

A. Weak matrix
B. Balanced matrix
C. Strong matrix
D. Projectized

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 424

- (Topic 3)
The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

A. Close Procurements.
B. Control Procurements.
C. Plan Procurements.
D. Conduct Procurements.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 429

A. Slack
B. Float
C. Lag
D. Lead

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Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 433

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is an input into the Develop Project Team process?

A. Enterprise environmental factors

B. Organizational process assets
C. Project staff assignments
D. Performance reports

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 434

- (Topic 3)
A Pareto chart is a specific type of:

A. control chart
B. histogram
C. cause-and-effect diagram
D. scatter diagram

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 437

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

A. Plan Communications
B. Performance reporting
C. Project status reports
D. Distribute Information

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 441

- (Topic 3)
Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Decomposition
D. Product analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 445

- (Topic 3)
Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

A. Procurement management plan

B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Procurement statement of work

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 450

- (Topic 3)
Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast
tracking?

A. The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 451

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

A. Cost of changes
B. Stakeholder influences

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C. Risk
D. Uncertainty

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 456

- (Topic 3)
The Human Resource Management processes are:

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 459

A. Initiating.
B. Planning.
C. Executing.
D. Monitoring and Controlling.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 461

- (Topic 3)
Outputs from constituent processes might be used as:

A. Inputs to other processes.

B. Proof of process completion.
C. Identification of project tasks.
D. Indicators to eliminate project redundancies.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 464

- (Topic 3)
A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:

A. state the guiding principles of the organization.

B. identify alternatives to generate different approaches.
C. state what is out of scope.
D. outline the results of the Delphi technique.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 467

- (Topic 3)
Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner. What is an output from information distribution?

A. Earned value analysis

B. Trend analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 471

- (Topic 3)
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?

A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Planning

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 474

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following buffers protects the target finish date from slippage along the critical chain?

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A. Critical buffer
B. Project buffer
C. Duration buffer
D. Feeding buffer

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 475

- (Topic 3)
Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

A. Program
B. Functional
C. Project
D. Portfolio

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 478

- (Topic 3)
Which type of team can be defined as a group of people with a shared goal who fulfill their roles although spending little or no time meeting face to face?

A. Co-location team
B. Virtual team
C. Departmental team
D. Consultant team

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 479

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?

A. Cost-benefit analysis
B. Variance analysis
C. Reserve analysis
D. Stakeholder analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 484

- (Topic 3)
Issue change requests and adapt approved changes into the project’s scope, plans, and environment is an activity included in which of the following project
management processes?

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution

B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Risks

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 486

- (Topic 3)
Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:

A. Earned value management.

B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Work performance information.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 489

- (Topic 3)
Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?

A. Develop Schedule
B. Sequence Activities
C. Create WBS
D. Applying leads and lags

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 490

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- (Topic 3)
Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?

A. Influencing
B. Motivation
C. Negotiation
D. Trust building

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 495

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

A. Change requests
B. Variance analysis
C. Accepted deliverables
D. Requirements documentation

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 498

- (Topic 3)
What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?

A. Procurement documents
B. Expert judgment
C. Bidder conferences
D. Contract types

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 502

- (Topic 3)
Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?

A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
C. Project assignment chart
D. Personnel assignment matrix

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 503

- (Topic 3)
Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

A. Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 504

- (Topic 3)
An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:

A. defect repair
B. work repair
C. corrective action
D. preventive action

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 505

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following will provide the basis for estimating, scheduling, executing, and monitoring and controlling project work?

A. Activities
B. Milestone list
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Work packages

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 506

- (Topic 3)
To which process is work performance information an input?

A. Contract administration
B. Direction and management of project execution
C. Create WBS
D. Qualitative risk analysis

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 509

- (Topic 3)
The Plan Procurements process includes documenting project purchasing decisions and what other steps?

A. Specifying the approach and identifying potential sellers

B. Specifying the approach and selecting a seller
C. Identifying potential sellers and obtaining seller responses
D. Specifying the approach and managing procurement relationships

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 510

- (Topic 3)
Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (WBS) to give structure to the
decomposition of the scope?

A. Activity network diagrams

B. Affinity diagrams
C. Matrix diagrams
D. Interrelationship digraphs

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 511

- (Topic 3)
Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?

A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Checksheet
D. Pareto diagram

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 515

- (Topic 3)
The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:

A. A risk urgency assessment.

B. The scope baseline.
C. Work performance information.
D. Procurement audits.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 517

- (Topic 3)
The project manager has requested all expert team members to complete an anonymous questionnaire to identify possible risks. This is an example of a technique
known as the:

A. interview technique
B. information gathering technique
C. Delphi technique
D. feedback technique

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 518

- (Topic 3)
Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

A. Control Schedule
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Estimate Activity Resources

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Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 523

- (Topic 3)
The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

A. Continuous improvement.
B. Predictive planning.
C. Progressive elaboration.
D. Quality assurance.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 526

- (Topic 3)
Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project
management process?

A. Plan Risk Responses

B. Manage Stakeholder Expectations
C. Define Scope
D. Report Performance

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 531

- (Topic 4)
Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

A. Estimate Costs
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Control Costs
D. Determine Budget

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 535

- (Topic 4)
The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

A. Plan Quality.
B. Perform Quality Assurance.
C. Perform Quality Control.
D. Total Quality Management.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 540

- (Topic 4)
Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

A. Functional managers
B. Business partners
C. Customers or sponsors
D. Subject matter experts

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 541

- (Topic 4)
Projects are authorized by which of the following individuals?

A. Project managers
B. Stakeholders
C. Functional managers
D. Sponsors

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 544

- (Topic 4)
In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?

A. Scope baseline
B. Organizational process assets

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C. Project schedule
D. Resource calendars

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 548

- (Topic 4)
An input to the Control Quality process is:

A. Activity attributes
B. Quality control measurements
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Deliverables

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 553

- (Topic 4)
What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

A. Cost aggregation
B. Trend analysis
C. Forecasting
D. Variance analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 555

- (Topic 4)
Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?

A. Update
B. Preventive action
C. Defect repair
D. Corrective action

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 560

- (Topic 4)
A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

A. plan
B. process
C. program
D. portfolio

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 561

- (Topic 4)
An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:

A. A process improvement plan,

B. Quality control measurements.
C. Work performance information,
D. The project management plan.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 564

- (Topic 4)
One of the fundamental tenets of modern quality management states that quality is:

A. planned, designed, and built in.

B. planned, designed, and inspected in.
C. built in, created, and reviewed.
D. built in, created, and standardized.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 565

- (Topic 4)
A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:

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A. mitigate
B. accept
C. transfer
D. avoid

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 568

- (Topic 4)
On what is project baseline development established?

A. Approved product requirements

B. Estimated project cost and schedule
C. Actual project cost and schedule
D. Revised project cost and schedule

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 570

- (Topic 4)
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:

A. Performance measurement baseline.

B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 575

- (Topic 4)
Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be outside of the project's:

A. Level of control.
B. Communication channels.
C. Scope.
D. Strategic alignment.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 580

- (Topic 4)
The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?

A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 584

- (Topic 4)
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 585

- (Topic 4)
An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

A. smooth/accommodate.
B. force/direct,
C. collaborate/problem solve,
D. compromise/reconcile.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 589

- (Topic 4)

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Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

A. Cost baseline
B. Cost forecasting
C. Cost variance
D. Cost budgeting

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 594

- (Topic 4)
Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?

A. Activity cost estimates

B. Earned value management
C. Cost management plan
D. Cost baseline

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 598

- (Topic 4)
Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

A. Expert judgment
B. Project management software
C. Vendor bid analysis
D. Reserve analysis

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 602

- (Topic 4)
Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?

A. Variance Analysis
B. Define Scope
C. Verify Scope
D. Control Scope

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 604

- (Topic 4)
Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?

A. Analogous Estimating
B. Expert Judgment
C. Optimistic Estimates
D. Reserve Analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 609

- (Topic 4)
Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?

A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Status review meetings

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 612

- (Topic 4)
An input of the Control Schedule process is the:

A. resource calendar.
B. activity list.
C. risk management plan.
D. organizational process assets.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 614

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- (Topic 4)
Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate
toward common goals?

A. Collaboration
B. Negotiation
C. Decision making
D. Influencing

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 617

- (Topic 4)
Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process?

A. Performance Measure
B. Baseline Schedule
C. Schedule Comparison
D. Variance Analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 618

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

A. Requested changes, forecasts, recommended corrective actions

B. Forecasts, resources plan, bottom up estimating
C. Recommended corrective actions, cost baseline, forecasts
D. Requested changes, recommended corrective actions, project constraints

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 620

A. 0.8
B. 0.89
C. 1.13
D. 1.25

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 621

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 626

- (Topic 4)
Cost aggregation is typically performed by aggregating work packages in accordance with the:

A. Program evaluation and review technique (PERT).

B. Cost of quality (COQ).
C. Rough order of magnitude (ROM).
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS).

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 629

- (Topic 4)
An associate who calculates fees daily to support the department is doing which of the following?

A. Phase work
B. Project work
C. Lifecycle work
D. Operations work

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Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 632

A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)

B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
C. Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)
D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 635

- (Topic 4)
The chart below is an example of a:

A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

B. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
C. RACI chart
D. Requirements traceability matrix

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 639

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

A. Change requests
B. Performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Project management plan

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 642

- (Topic 4)
Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Bottom-up
D. Top-down

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 646

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is
critical?

A. Applying calendars
B. Resource leveling
C. Resource planning
D. Resource conflict management

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 649

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A. External
B. Internal
C. Mandatory
D. Discretionary

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 653

- (Topic 4)
What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?

A. Quality metrics
B. Less rework
C. Quality control measurements
D. Benchmarking

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 656

- (Topic 4)
When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

A. event.
B. response,
C. perception.
D. impact.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 659

- (Topic 4)
Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

A. Cost risk simulation analysis

B. Expected monetary value analysis
C. Modeling and simulation
D. Sensitivity analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 660

- (Topic 4)
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?

A. Estimate Activity Resources

B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 661

- (Topic 4)
The three processes of Project Cost Management are:

A. Estimate Costs, Control Schedule, and Control Costs.

B. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Estimate Activity Resources.
C. Determine Budget, Control Schedule, and Estimate Activity Resources.
D. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 666

- (Topic 4)
Which item is a cost of conformance?

A. Training
B. Liabilities
C. Lost business
D. Scrap

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 671

- (Topic 4)

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Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

A. Plan Risk Management

B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Identify Risks
D. Control Risks

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 672

- (Topic 4)
Ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation is a focus of which of the following?

A. Project management
B. Program management
C. Portfolio management
D. Relationship management

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 677

- (Topic 4)
Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

A. Inspection
B. Quality audits
C. Design of experiments
D. Root cause analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 680

A. budget at completion (BAC)

B. earned value management (EVM)
C. to-complete performance index
D. cost performance index

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 682

- (Topic 4)
The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:

A. Establish the scope, objectives, and course of action of a project,

B. Define a new project or a new phase of an existing project.
C. Track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of a project.
D. Complete the work defined in the project management plan.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 685

- (Topic 4)
Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?

A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 688

- (Topic 4)
Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?

A. Perform Quality Assurance

B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control

Answer: D

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NEW QUESTION 691

- (Topic 4)
When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:

A. lead
B. lag
C. mandatory dependency
D. internal dependency

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 696

- (Topic 4)
What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?

A. Control chart
B. Flowchart
C. Run chart
D. Pareto chart

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 697

- (Topic 4)
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?

A. 0.50
B. 0.67
C. 1.50
D. 2.00

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 698

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into account?

A. Network reserve analysis

B. Critical chain method
C. Lead and lag adjustment
D. Critical path method

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 699

- (Topic 4)
Which type of control tool identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?

A. Cause and effect diagram

B. Control Charts
C. Pareto Chart
D. Histogram

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 700

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following tools and techniques is used to estimate cost?

A. Budget forecast
B. Variance analysis
C. Activity cost estimate
D. Three-point estimate

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 703

- (Topic 4)
A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

A. risk data quality assessment.

B. variance and trend analysis.
C. data gathering and representation techniques.
D. risk audits.

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 707

- (Topic 4)
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?

A. Issue log
B. Change log
C. Expert judgment
D. Change requests

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 712

- (Topic 5)
Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

A. Force/direct
B. Withdraw/avoid
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Collaborate/problem solve

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 713

- (Topic 5)
Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Three-point estimate
C. Modeling and simulation
D. Expected monetary value analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 715

- (Topic 5)
Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?

A. Portfolio
B. Process
C. Project
D. Program

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 719

- (Topic 5)
Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

A. Purchase requisition
B. Purchase order
C. Verbal agreement
D. Request for quote

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 724

- (Topic 5)
Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:

A. Enterprise environmental factors

B. Work performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Context diagrams

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 725

- (Topic 5)
A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the
work completed to date?

A. US$S000
B. US$9500
C. US$10,000
D. US$12,500

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Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 727

- (Topic 5)
A reward can only be effective if it is:

A. Given immediately after the project is completed.

B. Something that is tangible.
C. Formally given during project performance appraisals.
D. Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 731

- (Topic 5)
Types of internal failure costs include:

A. inspections.
B. equipment and training.
C. lost business.
D. reworking and scrapping.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 735

- (Topic 5)
What is a technique used in the performance reporting process?

A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Stakeholder analysis
D. Status review meetings

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 736

A. One
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 737

- (Topic 5)
What do composite organizations involve?

A. Functional and project managers

B. Functional managers only
C. Project managers only
D. Technical managers and project managers

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 740

- (Topic 5)
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?

A. Mandatory
B. Discretionary
C. Internal
D. External

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 743

- (Topic 5)
Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

A. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach

B. Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach

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C. Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach

D. As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 746

- (Topic 5)
Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the
scope of work changes?

A. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)

B. Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)
C. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)
D. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 747

- (Topic 5)
The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

A. always be applied uniformly.

B. be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.
C. be selected as appropriate by the project team.
D. be applied based on ISO guidelines.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 751

- (Topic 5)
Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure
for a current project?

A. Reserve analysis
B. Three-point estimating
C. Parametric estimating
D. Analogous estimating

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 754

- (Topic 5)
The person assigned by the performing organization to be responsible for achieving the project objectives is the:

A. functional manager
B. program manager
C. project manager
D. portfolio manager

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 756

- (Topic 5)
Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?

A. Develop preliminary project scope statement

B. Close Project or Phase
C. Develop project charter
D. Create WBS

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 761

A. Smooth/accommodate
B. Withdraw/avoid
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Force/direct

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 763

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- (Topic 5)
Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?

A. Contract plan
B. Procurement plan
C. Closure process
D. Procurement audits

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 768

- (Topic 5)
When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

A. Fixed Fee
B. Free Float
C. Fixed Finish
D. Finish-to-Finish

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 770

- (Topic 5)
What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?

A. Sole-sum
B. Win-lose
C. Lose-win
D. Partial-sum

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 773

- (Topic 5)
When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?

A. Reserve analysis
B. Regression analysis
C. Document analysis
D. Product analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 777

- (Topic 5)
The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:

A. Control Schedule.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Define Activities.
D. Develop Schedule.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 781

......

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PMP
Exam Questions PMP
Project Management Professional

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NEW QUESTION 1
- (Topic 1)
Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:

A. Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.

B. Conduct risk management activities for a project.
C. Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project.
D. Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 2
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a project constraint?

A. Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.

B. The technology to be used is cutting-edge.
C. Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.
D. The product is needed in 250 days.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 3
- (Topic 1)
A project can be defined as a:

A. Temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result

B. Temporary endeavor that produces repetitive outputs
C. Permanent endeavor undertaken to create a unique product, service, or result
D. Permanent endeavor that produces repetitive outputs

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4
- (Topic 1)
The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?

A. Alternatives identification
B. Scope decomposition
C. Expert judgment
D. Product analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 5
- (Topic 1)
A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

A. facilitated workshops.
B. observations.
C. questionnaires and surveys.
D. group creativity techniques.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Develop Project Team process?

A. Acquisitions
B. Organizational theories
C. Team-building activities
D. Virtual teams

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7
- (Topic 1)
What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
C. Shewhart-Deming
D. Delphi

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Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8
- (Topic 1)
The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit
the project is known as:

A. recognition and rewards

B. compliance
C. staff acquisition
D. training needs

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 9
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?

A. Vendor risk assessment diagram

B. Risk register
C. Requirements traceability matrix
D. Area of responsibility summary

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 1)
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?

A. Feedback analysis
B. Stakeholder analysis
C. Communication management plan
D. Stakeholder management plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 10
- (Topic 1)
A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

A. change control tools

B. expert judgment
C. meetings
D. analytical techniques

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 14
- (Topic 1)
Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?

A. It provides the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment.
B. It provides for alternative dispute resolution procedures in event of contract default.
C. It offers one of several alternative scenarios which assist in performing qualitative risk analysis.
D. It is used to help a project manager understand the scope of commercial advantages.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 17
- (Topic 1)
In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?

A. Acquire Project Team

B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Manage Project Execution
D. Develop Project Charter

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 21
- (Topic 1)
The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:

A. Define Activities.
B. Create WBS.

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C. Define Scope.
D. Develop Schedule.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 25
- (Topic 1)
Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:

A. project staff assignments

B. project tea m acquisition
C. managing conflicting interests
D. communication methods

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 30
- (Topic 1)
Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?

A. Project Risk Management

B. Project Human Resource Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Stakeholder Management

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 34
- (Topic 1)
Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:

A. Available organizational assets

B. Project staff assignments
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Enterprise environmental factors

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 35
- (Topic 1)
Organizations perceive risks as:

A. events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.

B. the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.
C. events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.
D. the negative impact of undesired events on their project and organizational objectives.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 36
- (Topic 1)
The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:

A. negotiation
B. organizational theory
C. meeting
D. networking

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 40
- (Topic 1)
A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?

A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages
B. Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment
C. Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives
D. Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 41
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?

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A. Organizational standard processes

B. Marketplace conditions
C. Historical information
D. Templates

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 44
- (Topic 1)
Soft logic is also known as what type of dependency?

A. External
B. Discretionary
C. Mandatory
D. Internal

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 46
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?

A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Exploit
D. Avoid

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 48
- (Topic 1)
Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?

A. Ishikawa
B. Milestone
C. Influence
D. Decision tree

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 52
- (Topic 1)
Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 55
- (Topic 1)
What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

A. 0.45
B. 0.56
C. 0.70
D. 1.36

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 60
- (Topic 1)
In project management, a temporary project can be:

A. Completed without planning

B. A routine business process
C. Long in duration
D. Ongoing to produce goods

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 61
- (Topic 1)

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An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:

A. Business case.
B. Activity list.
C. Project management plan.
D. Cost forecast.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 66
- (Topic 1)
Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?

A. Scope baseline
B. Scope management plan
C. Change management plan
D. Cost baseline

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 67
- (Topic 1)
A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:

A. Historical information and the lessons-learned database.

B. Historical information and the stakeholder register.
C. Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database.
D. Project documents and historical information.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 71
- (Topic 1)
A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?

A. Plan Stakeholder Management

B. Identify Stakeholders
C. Manage Stakeholder Engagement
D. Control Stakeholder Engagement

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 74
- (Topic 1)
Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:

A. corrective action.
B. preventive action.
C. non-conformance report,
D. defect repair.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 79
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Expert judgment
D. Decomposition

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 82
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?

A. Share, Accept, Transfer, or Mitigate

B. Exploit, Enhance, Share, or Accept
C. Mitigate, Share, Avoid, or Accept
D. Avoid, Mitigate, Transfer, or Accept

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 83

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- (Topic 1)
Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?

A. Brainstorming
B. Strategies for opportunities
C. Decision tree analysis
D. Risk data quality assessment

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 84
- (Topic 1)
Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

A. Templates, forms, and standards

B. Change requests
C. Product analysis
D. Project assumptions

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 87
- (Topic 1)
Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?

A. Performance report
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requested changes
D. Project scope statement

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 89
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.

B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.
C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.
D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 93
- (Topic 1)
Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?

A. Project charter
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Stakeholder register
D. Organizational process assets

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 95
- (Topic 1)
The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

A. Sequence Activities
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Develop Schedule
D. Control Schedule

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 97
- (Topic 1)
Which of the following Process Groups covers all Project Management Knowledge Areas?

A. Executing
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Initiating

Answer: C

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A. The Delphi technique

B. Nominal group technique
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 100

- (Topic 1)
The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

A. objectives
B. schedule
C. product
D. approach

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 101

- (Topic 1)
The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:

A. tracking
B. scoping
C. timing
D. defining

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 102

- (Topic 1)
A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?

A. Plan contracting
B. Requesting seller responses
C. Selecting seller's
D. Planning purchase and acquisition

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 105

- (Topic 1)
Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A. Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS

B. Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule
C. Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs
D. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 107

- (Topic 1)
Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?

A. Cost Plus Award Fee Contract (CPAF)

B. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)
C. Time and Material Contract (T&M)
D. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 109

- (Topic 1)
What characteristic do project and operational work share in common?

A. Performed by systems
B. Constrained by limited resources
C. Repetitiveness
D. Uniqueness

Answer:

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NEW QUESTION 110

- (Topic 1)
The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:

A. Plan Risk Management.

B. Plan Risk Responses.
C. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis.
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 115

- (Topic 1)
Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?

A. Organizational process assets

B. Resource availability
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Team performance assessment

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 119

- (Topic 1)
Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?

A. Requirements documentation
B. Requirements traceability matrix
C. Project management plan updates
D. Project documents updates

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 120

- (Topic 1)
Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

A. Product performance.
B. Budget process.
C. Collective capabilities.
D. Organizational strategy.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 123

- (Topic 1)
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

A. Risk identification
B. Qualitative risk analysis
C. Risk management planning
D. Quantitative risk analysis

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 124

- (Topic 1)
Which tool or technique is used to develop a project charter?

A. Project manager information systems

B. Expert judgment
C. Change control meetings
D. Brainstorming

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 126

- (Topic 1)
The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:

A. appetite
B. tolerance
C. threshold
D. management

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Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 131

- (Topic 1)
Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?

A. Budget estimates
B. Risk matrix
C. Requirements documentation
D. Procurement documents

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 133

- (Topic 1)
Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?

A. Project Time Management

B. Project Cost Management
C. Project Scope Management
D. Project Human Resource Management

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 135

- (Topic 1)
Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?

A. Customers
B. Project sponsors
C. Project management team
D. Insurance claims department

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 138

- (Topic 1)
Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

A. Liabilities
B. Inspections
C. Training
D. Equipment

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 142

- (Topic 1)
The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:

A. exploit
B. avoid
C. mitigate
D. share

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 145

- (Topic 2)
An input to the Identify Risks process is the:

A. Risk register.
B. Risk probability and impact assessment.
C. Communications management plan.
D. Risk management plan.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 150

- (Topic 2)
Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team?

A. Negotiation
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Recognition and rewards

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D. Prizing and promoting

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 152

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?

A. Parametric estimating
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Bottom-up estimating

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 155

- (Topic 2)
The specific technique for identifying a problem, discovering the causes that lead to it, and developing preventive actions is:

A. Inspection
B. Use of quality checklists
C. Root cause analysis
D. Use of matrix diagrams

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 156

A. Projectized
B. Weak matrix
C. Functional
D. Balanced matrix

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 157

- (Topic 2)
Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively,
what are these phases known as?

A. Complete project phase

B. Project life
C. The project life cycle
D. Project cycle

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 161

- (Topic 2)
Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

A. Define Activities
B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Develop Project Management Plan
D. Develop Project Charter

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 163

- (Topic 2)
The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:

A. Planning.
B. Executing,
C. Monitoring and Controlling.
D. Closing.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 164

- (Topic 2)
The following is a network diagram for a project.

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The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?

A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 17

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 169

- (Topic 2)
In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times
and locations?

A. Schedule
B. Quality
C. Communications
D. Cost

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 171

- (Topic 2)
Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?

A. Responsible organization
B. Change requests
C. Validated deliverables
D. Organizational process assets

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 174

- (Topic 2)
The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (WBS) is called a/an:

A. work package
B. deliverable
C. milestone
D. activity

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 177

- (Topic 2)
Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?

A. Plan Procurement Management

B. Control Procurements
C. Collect Requirements
D. Plan Cost Management

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 181

- (Topic 2)
An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:

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A. Nominal group technique.

B. Majority.
C. Affinity diagram.
D. Multi-criteria decision analysis.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 183

- (Topic 2)
When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?

A. Before the Define Activities process

B. During the Define Activities process
C. Before the Sequence Activities process
D. During the Sequence Activities process

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 186

- (Topic 2)
The following is a network diagram for a project.

The total float for the project is how many days?

A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 189

- (Topic 2)
The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:

A. provides guidance to identify time or schedule challenges within the project.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 192

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

A. Project schedule
B. Organizational process assets updates
C. Project document updates
D. Work performance information

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 197

- (Topic 2)
The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:

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A. organizational process assets

B. a requirements traceability matrix
C. the project charter
D. the project management plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 198

A. Histogram
B. Quality audits
C. Benchmarking
D. Performance measurement analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 199

- (Topic 2)
Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

A. Develop Schedule
B. Create VVBS
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Define Scope

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 200

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?

A. Critical path method

B. Rolling wave planning
C. Precedence diagramming method
D. Parametric estimating

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 202

- (Topic 2)
Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?

A. Cost of quality
B. Historical relationships
C. Project management software
D. Forecasting

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 204

- (Topic 2)
A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?

A. Identify Risks
B. Control Risks
C. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 207

- (Topic 2)
Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

A. Manage Project Team

B. Acquire Project Team
C. Develop Project Team
D. Plan Human Resource Management

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 209

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- (Topic 2)
Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in
the:

A. Cost management plan.

B. Work performance information.
C. Quality management plan.
D. Work breakdown structure.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 214

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

A. Brainstorming
B. Focus groups
C. Affinity diagram
D. Plurality

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 216

- (Topic 2)
The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

A. dictionary.
B. chart.
C. report.
D. register.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 219

- (Topic 2)
A required input for Create WBS is a project:

A. quality plan.
B. schedule network.
C. management document update.
D. scope statement.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 220

- (Topic 2)
The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity H is how many days?

A. 4
B. 5
C. 10
D. 11

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 225

- (Topic 2)
Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

A. enterprise environmental factors

B. organizational process assets
C. the project management plan
D. the stakeholder register

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Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 230

- (Topic 2)
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?

A. Control charts
B. Pareto diagrams
C. Ishikavva diagrams
D. Checksheets

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 233

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?

A. It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 237

- (Topic 2)
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:

A. Communication models.
B. Enterprise environmental factors.
C. Organizational communications,
D. Organizational cultures and styles.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 241

- (Topic 2)
Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?

A. Product
B. Cost benefit
C. Stakeholder
D. Research

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 243

- (Topic 2)
Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

A. Project charter
B. Project scope statement
C. Scope management plan
D. Project document updates

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 245

- (Topic 2)
A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?

A. Strong
B. Weak
C. Managed
D. Balanced

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 246

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?

A. Human resources plan changes and project staff assignment updates

B. Project management plan updates and enterprise environmental factor updates
C. Resource calendars and project management plan updates

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D. Team performance assessments and enterprise environmental factor updates

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 251

A. Technical approach
B. Technical capability
C. Business size and type
D. Production capacity and interest

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 255

- (Topic 2)
Organizations manage portfolios based on which of the following types of plans?

A. Strategic
B. Project
C. Program
D. Operational

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 257

- (Topic 2)
Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

A. updates.
B. defect repairs.
C. preventive actions.
D. corrective actions.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 262

- (Topic 2)
Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

A. Enhance
B. Share
C. Exploit
D. Accept

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 266

- (Topic 2)
Which of the following inputs is required for the WBS creation?

A. Project Quality Plan

B. Project Schedule Network
C. Project Management Software
D. Project Scope Management Plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 269

- (Topic 2)
Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?

A. Decomposition
B. Inspection
C. Project analysis
D. Document analysis

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 272

- (Topic 2)
Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?

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A. Direct
B. Interactive
C. Pull
D. Push

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 276

- (Topic 2)
What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?

A. Project boundaries
B. Project constraints
C. Project assumptions
D. Project objectives

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 277

- (Topic 3)
An output of the Manage Project Team process is:

A. project management plan updates

B. project staff assignments updates
C. team performance assessments
D. resource calendar updates

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 282

- (Topic 3)
Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

A. Scope audits
B. Scope reviews
C. Quality audits
D. Control chart

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 287

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary?

A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan
D. Scope baseline

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 291

- (Topic 3)
Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution

B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Close Project or Phase

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 295

- (Topic 3)
What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

A. Build v
B. buy
C. Expert judgment
D. Alternatives identification
E. Product analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 300

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- (Topic 3)
Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B. Network diagrams
C. Staffing management plan
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 303

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following correctly lists the configuration management activities included in the
Integrated Change Control process?

A. Configuration definition, configuration status accounting, configuration monitoring and control

B. Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, configuration verification and audit
C. Configuration identification, configuration status reporting, configuration verification and audit
D. Configuration definition, configuration status reporting, configuration monitoring and Control

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 307

- (Topic 3)
The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?

A. 1.33
B. 2
C. 0.75
D. 0.5

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 309

- (Topic 3)
In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Risk Control
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Plan Risk Responses

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 314

- (Topic 3)
Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

A. Project
B. Functional
C. Program
D. Portfolio

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 319

- (Topic 3)
Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?

A. Cyclic
B. Progressive
C. Repetitive
D. Iterative

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 324

- (Topic 3)
Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 327

- (Topic 3)
A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?

A. Cost-reimbursable
B. Time and material
C. Fixed price or lump-sum
D. Cost-plus-fixed-fee

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 332

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is an output of the Plan Quality process?

A. Project document update

B. Control chart
C. Cost performance baseline
D. Organizational process asset update

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 337

- (Topic 3)
What is a tool to improve team performance?

A. Staffing plan
B. External feedback
C. Performance reports
D. Co-location

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 339

- (Topic 3)
What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

A. Cost right at the estimated value

B. Cost under the estimated value
C. Cost right at the actual value
D. Cost over the estimated value

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 343

- (Topic 3)
Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?

A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Three-point
D. What-if scenario analysis

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 347

- (Topic 3)
Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?

A. Monitor and Control Project Work

B. Perform Quality Control
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Risks

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 349

- (Topic 3)
An input to Conduct Procurements is:

A. Independent estimates.
B. Selected sellers.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Resource calendars.

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 353

- (Topic 3)
Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?

A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Initiating

Answer: A

Explanation:
Reason: Control Stateholder Engagement is in the Monitoring and Control Process.

NEW QUESTION 356

- (Topic 3)
Who is responsible for reviewing change requests and approving or rejecting the change requests?

A. Change control board

B. Project manager
C. Project management office
D. Project sponsor

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 359

- (Topic 3)
An output of the Create WBS process is:

A. Scope baseline.
B. Change requests.
C. Accepted deliverables.
D. Variance analysis.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 362

- (Topic 3)
Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?

A. Contract plan
B. Procurement plan
C. Closure process
D. Procurement audits

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 363

- (Topic 3)
Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:

A. Budget plan
B. Resource plan
C. Scope plan
D. Strategic plan

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 365

- (Topic 3)
Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?

A. Performed by systems
B. Constrained by limited resources
C. Repetitiveness
D. Uniqueness

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 370

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

A. Performance reports
B. Project charter

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C. Outputs from planning processes

D. Enterprise environmental factors

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 373

- (Topic 3)
The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:

A. Close Procurements.
B. Control Procurements.
C. Plan Procurements.
D. Conduct Procurements.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 376

- (Topic 3)
Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?

A. Only once, at the beginning

B. At the beginning and the end
C. Once during each phase
D. Repeatedly

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 377

- (Topic 3)
What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

A. Role dependencies chart

B. Reporting flow diagram
C. Project organization chart
D. Project team structure diagram

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 382

- (Topic 3)
Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?

A. Inspection
B. Variance analysis
C. Decomposition
D. Product analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 385

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is an input to the Plan Risk Responses process?

A. Risk urgency assessment

B. Organizational process assets
C. Risk register
D. Schedule management plan

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 386

- (Topic 3)
A weighting system is a tool for which area of procurement?

A. Plan contracting
B. Request seller responses
C. Select sellers
D. Plan purchase and acquisition

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 389

- (Topic 3)
The Process Group in which the internal and external stakeholders interact and influence the overall outcome of the project is the:

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A. Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.

B. Initiating Process Group.
C. Planning Process Group.
D. Executing Process Group.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 390

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

A. Project statement of work

B. Selected sellers
C. Risk register updates
D. Teaming agreements

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 393

- (Topic 3)
In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?

A. Performing
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Forming

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 398

- (Topic 3)
Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

A. Critical path method

B. Variance analysis
C. Schedule compression
D. Schedule comparison bar charts

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 399

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following procurement processes results in the awarding of a procurement contract?

A. Administer Procurements
B. Close Procurements
C. Conduct Procurements
D. Plan Procurements

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 403

- (Topic 3)
Which risk response strategy is common for both positive and negative risks?

A. Share
B. Accept
C. Mitigate
D. Transfer

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 404

- (Topic 3)
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:

A. Work performance reports.

B. Change requests.
C. Activity resource requirements.
D. Enterprise environmental factors.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 408

- (Topic 3)

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Information distribution involves making needed information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner. What is an output from information distribution?

A. Earned value analysis

B. Trend analysis
C. Project records
D. Performance reviews

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 409

- (Topic 3)
Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?

A. Negotiation
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Recognition and rewards
D. Prizing and promoting

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 414

- (Topic 3)
The three types of estimates that PERT uses to define an approximate range for an activity’s cost are:

A. Parametric, most likely, and analogous.

B. Least likely, analogous, and realistic.
C. Parametric, optimistic, and pessimistic.
D. Most likely, optimistic, and pessimistic.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 419

- (Topic 3)
Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

A. Program
B. Functional
C. Project
D. Portfolio

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 424

- (Topic 3)
The traditional organization chart structure that can be used to show positions and relationships in a graphic top-down format is called a:

A. Responsible, accountable, consult, and inform (RACI) chart.

B. Matrix-based chart.
C. Human resource chart.
D. Hierarchical-type chart.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 425

- (Topic 3)
An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:

A. The project management plan.

B. The stakeholder register.
C. Procurement documents.
D. Stakeholder analysis.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 429

- (Topic 3)
Issue change requests and adapt approved changes into the project’s scope, plans, and environment is an activity included in which of the following project
management processes?

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution

B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Monitor and Control Risks

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 434

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?

A. Customer requests and/or issue resolution

B. Stakeholder expectations and/or strategic opportunity (business need)
C. Technological advancement and/or senior executive request
D. Market demand and/or legal requirements

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 435

- (Topic 3)
Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?

A. Vendor bid analysis

B. Three-point estimates
C. Parametric estimating
D. Reserve analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 440

- (Topic 3)
What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?

A. Procurement documents
B. Expert judgment
C. Bidder conferences
D. Contract types

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 442

- (Topic 3)
Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?

A. Teaming agreements
B. Expert judgment
C. Bidder conferences
D. Contract types

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 443

- (Topic 3)
Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:

A. project documents updates.

B. project management plan updates.
C. change requests.
D. work performance information.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 447

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

A. Approved change requests

B. Approved contract documentation
C. Work performance information
D. Rejected change requests

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 452

- (Topic 3)
The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Project Management

Answer: C

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NEW QUESTION 457

- (Topic 3)
Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Control Risks
D. Plan Risk Responses

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 458

- (Topic 3)
The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X.
The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work
force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?

A. Resource leveling and fast tracking

B. Fast tracking and crashing
C. Crashing and applying leads and lags
D. Scheduling tools and applying leads and lags

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 459

- (Topic 3)
Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related
contract?

A. Product scope description

B. Procurement statement of work
C. Project schedule
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 464

- (Topic 3)
The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:

A. minus planned value [EV - PV].

B. minus actual cost [EV - AC].
C. divided by planned value [EV/PV],
D. divided by actual cost [EV/AC].

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 466

- (Topic 3)
A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is relying on:

A. Communication models.
B. Stakeholder participation.
C. Expert judgment
D. Enterprise environmental factors.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 467

- (Topic 4)
Which technique is commonly used for the Quantitative Risk Analysis activity?

A. Brainstorming
B. Strategies for Opportunities
C. Decision Tree Analysis
D. Risk Data Quality Assessment

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 471

- (Topic 4)
Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

A. Human resource planning

B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain method

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D. Rolling wave planning

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 473

- (Topic 4)
Projects are authorized by which of the following individuals?

A. Project managers
B. Stakeholders
C. Functional managers
D. Sponsors

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 474

- (Topic 4)
Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:

A. Reviewing, approving, and managing all change requests

B. Facilitating change management, manuals, or automation tools
C. Comparing actual results with planned results in order to expand or change a project
D. Documenting changes according to the change control system by the change control board

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 478

- (Topic 4)
Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

A. Acquisition
B. Earned value management
C. Vendor bid analysis
D. Forecasting

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 482

- (Topic 4)
Success is measured by benefits realization for a:

A. strategic plan
B. project
C. portfolio
D. program

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 483

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following outputs from the Schedule Control process aids in the communication of SV, SPI or any performance status to stakeholders?

A. Performance organizations
B. Schedule baselines
C. Performance measurements
D. Change requests

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 488

- (Topic 4)
One of the fundamental tenets of modern quality management states that quality is:

A. planned, designed, and built in.

B. planned, designed, and inspected in.
C. built in, created, and reviewed.
D. built in, created, and standardized.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 491

- (Topic 4)
Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A. Decomposition

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B. Modeling techniques
C. Resource optimization
D. Meetings

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 492

- (Topic 4)
Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

A. Control Costs
B. Determine Budget
C. Estimate Costs
D. Control Budget

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 494

- (Topic 4)
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:

A. Performance measurement baseline.

B. Analysis of project forecasts,
C. Summary of changes approved in a period,
D. Analysis of past performance.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 498

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?

A. Technical performance measurement

B. Cost performance baseline
C. Benchmarking
D. Cost of quality

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 503

- (Topic 4)
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?

A. Schedule data
B. Activity list
C. Risk register
D. Scope baseline

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 507

- (Topic 4)
The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain
performance objectives is called a:

A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF).

B. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF).
C. Fixed Price Incentive Fee Contract (FPIF).
D. Time and Material Contract (T&M).

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 511

- (Topic 4)
In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial
information inputs are part of the:

A. enterprise environmental factors.

B. organizational process assets.
C. project management plan,
D. project funding requirements.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 513

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- (Topic 4)
An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

A. smooth/accommodate.
B. force/direct,
C. collaborate/problem solve,
D. compromise/reconcile.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 516

- (Topic 4)
The Administer Procurements process is in which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

A. Planning
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Initiating
D. Executing

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 521

- (Topic 4)
The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:

A. Validate Scope.
B. Plan Scope Management.
C. Control Scope.
D. Define Scope.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 525

- (Topic 4)
The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?

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A. -2,000
B. 1,000
C. 2,000

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 528

- (Topic 4)
What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?

A. Scope
B. Quality
C. Specification
D. Grade

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 529

- (Topic 4)
Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?

A. Activity cost estimates

B. Earned value management
C. Cost management plan
D. Cost baseline

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 530

- (Topic 4)
Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and
communicating decisions?

A. Project team
B. Focus group
C. Change control board
D. Project stakeholders

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 535

- (Topic 4)
An output of the Validate Scope process is:

A. A requirements traceability matrix.

B. The scope management plan.
C. Work performance reports.
D. Change requests.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 536

- (Topic 4)
What is the critical chain method?

A. A technique to calculate the theoretical early start and finish dates and late start and finish dates
B. A schedule network analysis technique that modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources
C. A schedule compression technique that analyzes cost and schedule trade-offs to determine how to obtain the greatest amount of compression for the least
incremental cost
D. A technique to estimate project duration when there is a limited amount of detailed information about the project

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 540

- (Topic 4)
Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?

A. Analogous Estimating
B. Expert Judgment
C. Optimistic Estimates
D. Reserve Analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 545

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- (Topic 4)
Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?

A. Change control tools

B. Expert judgment
C. Delphi technique
D. Change log

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 548

- (Topic 4)
What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

A. Scope changes
B. Resource limitations
C. Risk analysis
D. Quality audits

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 552

- (Topic 4)
Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?

A. Work performance data

B. Project documents
C. Scope baseline
D. Requirements documentation

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 554

- (Topic 4)
Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

A. Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

B. Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)
C. Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)
D. Time and Material (T&M)

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 558

- (Topic 4)
The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:

A. quality.
B. value.
C. technical performance.
D. status.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 562

- (Topic 4)
When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?

A. At project initiation
B. During work performance analysis
C. Throughout the life of the project
D. At project milestones

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 567

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?

A. Requested changes, forecasts, recommended corrective actions

B. Forecasts, resources plan, bottom up estimating
C. Recommended corrective actions, cost baseline, forecasts
D. Requested changes, recommended corrective actions, project constraints

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 570

- (Topic 4)
Forecasts, requested changes, recommended corrective actions, and organizational process asset updates are all outputs of which process?

A. Risk response planning

B. Risk monitoring and control
C. Performance reporting
D. Manage stakeholders

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 572

- (Topic 4)
Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

A. Bottom-up
B. Three-point
C. Parametric
D. Analogous

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 573

- (Topic 4)
Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?

A. Control Quality
B. Control Scope
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 576

- (Topic 4)
Plan-do-check-act is also known as:

A. prevention over inspection.

B. statistical sampling.
C. management responsibility,
D. continuous improvement.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 580

- (Topic 4)
Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?

A. Internal failure costs

B. Prevention costs
C. Appraisal costs
D. External failure costs

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 581

- (Topic 4)
Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?

A. Estimate Activity Resources

B. Estimate Costs
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 584

- (Topic 4)
The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:

A. Methodology
B. Risk category
C. Risk attitude
D. Assumption analysis

Answer: A

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NEW QUESTION 585

- (Topic 4)
Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?

A. Cost risk simulation analysis

B. Expected monetary value analysis
C. Modeling and simulation
D. Sensitivity analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 587

- (Topic 4)
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?

A. Estimate Activity Resources

B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 590

- (Topic 4)
A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

A. The best use of communication methods.

B. An efficient and effective communication flow.
C. Project costs to be reduced.
D. The best use of communication technology.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 595

- (Topic 4)
The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500. What is the actual cost of the project?

A. US$158,700
B. US$172,500
C. US$187,500
D. US$245,600

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 598

- (Topic 4)
Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?

A. Resource calendar
B. Scope baseline
C. Trend analysis
D. Cost baseline

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 601

- (Topic 4)
Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

A. Plan Risk Management

B. Plan Risk Responses
C. Identify Risks
D. Control Risks

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 603

- (Topic 4)
Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?

A. Perform Quality Control

B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Plan Quality
D. Report Performance

Answer:

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NEW QUESTION 607

- (Topic 4)
Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?

A. Perform Quality Assurance

B. Direct and Manage Project Work
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Perform Integrated Change Control

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 609

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into account?

A. Network reserve analysis

B. Critical chain method
C. Lead and lag adjustment
D. Critical path method

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 614

- (Topic 4)
Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?

A. Market conditions and published commercial information

B. Company structure and market conditions
C. Commercial information and company structure
D. Existing human resources and market conditions

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 619

- (Topic 4)
A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an
adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:

A. Quality assurance.
B. A stakeholder management plan.
C. Project team building.
D. Integrated change control.

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 621

- (Topic 4)
Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any
performance status to stakeholders?

A. Performance organizations
B. Schedule baselines
C. Work performance measurements
D. Change requests

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 625

- (Topic 4)
A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:

A. risk data quality assessment.

B. variance and trend analysis.
C. data gathering and representation techniques.
D. risk audits.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 629

- (Topic 4)
A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:

A. Start-to-start (SS).
B. Start-to-finish (SF).

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C. Finish-to-start (FS).
D. Finish-to-finish (FF).

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 631

- (Topic 5)
Which of the following tools and techniques are utilized in the Close Project or Phase process?

A. Project management information system

B. Product analysis
C. Expert judgment
D. Inspection

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 633

- (Topic 5)
An input to Close Project or Phase is:

A. Accepted deliverables,
B. Final products or services,
C. Document updates,
D. Work performance information.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 638

- (Topic 5)
Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?

A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Three-point estimate
C. Modeling and simulation
D. Expected monetary value analysis

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 640

- (Topic 5)
Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

A. Decision tree diagram.

B. Tornado diagram.
C. Pareto diagram.
D. Ishikawa diagram.

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 643

- (Topic 5)
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

A. Monitor and Control Project Work

B. Perform Quality Assurance
C. Close Project or Phase
D. Control Scope

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 644

- (Topic 5)
Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which
process?

A. Close Project or Phase

B. Conduct Procurements
C. Control Procurements
D. Close Procurements

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 649

- (Topic 5)
Procurement audits, negotiated settlements, and a records management system are tools and techniques used in which Procurement Management process?

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A. Close Procurements
B. Administer Procurements
C. Plan Procurements
D. Conduct Procurements

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 653

- (Topic 5)
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?

A. Interactive communication
B. Claims administration
C. Conflict management
D. Performance reporting

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 658

- (Topic 5)
Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close
Project or Phase process?

A. Organizational process assets

B. A work breakdown structure
C. The project management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 660

- (Topic 5)
At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

A. Positive
B. Zero
C. Negative
D. Greater than one

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 661

- (Topic 5)
Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

A. quality audits
B. process analysis
C. statistical sampling
D. benchmarking

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 662

- (Topic 5)
Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

A. Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget
B. Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager's role
C. Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time project manager's role
D. High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 667

- (Topic 5)
In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

A. part-time
B. full-time
C. occasional
D. unlimited

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 671

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- (Topic 5)
A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?

A. Listening
B. Facilitation
C. Meeting management
D. Presentation

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 676

- (Topic 5)
Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure
for a current project?

A. Reserve analysis
B. Three-point estimating
C. Parametric estimating
D. Analogous estimating

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 678

- (Topic 5)
Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

A. prototypes
B. requirements
C. analyses
D. benchmarks

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 680

- (Topic 5)
The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:

A. Plan Procurements.
B. Control Procurements.
C. Close Procurements.
D. Conduct Procurements.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 684

- (Topic 5)
Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?

A. Coaching
B. Avoidance
C. Consensus
D. Influencing

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 686

- (Topic 5)
Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?

A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Closing
D. Initiating

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 689

- (Topic 5)
Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

A. Develop Project Management Plan

B. Develop Project Charter
C. Direct and Manage Project Execution
D. Collect Requirements

Answer: B

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NEW QUESTION 690

- (Topic 5)
Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?

A. Ce = (C0 + 6Cm + Cp)/4

B. Ce = (6C0 + Cm + Cp)/4
C. Ce = (C0 + 4Cm + Cp)/6
D. Ce = (C0 + C„, + 4Cp) / 6

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 694

A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:

A. Resource calenda
B. Project organization chart.
C. Resource breakdown structure (RBS).
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM).

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 699

......

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