[1]

SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION - A 8. A mass m is revolving in vertical circle at the end
1. A body moving in a straight line covers a distance of string of length 20 cm in critical condition. By
of 14 m in 5th second and 20 m in 8th second. What how much does the tension of the string at lowest
is the acceleration assuming uniform? position exceeds the tension at topmost point?
(1) 1 ms–2 (2) 2 ms–2 (1) 3 mg (2) 4 mg
(3) 5 ms–2 (4) 3 ms–2 (3) 5 mg (4) 6 mg

2. Which of the following has dimensions of 9. The kinetic energy of a body decreases by 19%.
[ML–1T–1]? What is the percentage decrease in momentum?
(1) Surface tension (1) 20%
(2) Coefficient of viscosity (2) 15%
(3) Bulk modulus (3) 10%
(4) Angular momentum (4) 38%

3. Which of the following pair of forces act on a 10. Three identical uniform rods, each of length l, are
particle at an angle  that can have any value. The joined to form a rigid equilateral triangle. Its radius
resultant of which pair can’t have a magnitude of 4 of gyration about an axis passing through a corner
N?
and perpendicular to plane is
(1) 2 N and 3 N (2) 3 N and 3 N
(3) 2 N and 6 N (4) 3 N and 8 N

4. A staircase consists of 3 steps, each 10 cm high and

20 cm wide. What should be minimum horizontal
velocity of a ball rolling off the uppermost step so
as to hit directly lowest plane? (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 4 m/s (2) 2 m/s
(3) 6 m/s (4) 1.2 m/s l 3
(1) (2) l
2 2
5. A ball is thrown in air with some initial speed at an l l
(3) (4)
angle to horizontal. It describes parabolic path. 2 3
Which of the following has same value at the time
of throw and time of return?
11. Which of the following quantity does not depend
(1) Linear momentum
on the orbital radius of the satellite? (T is time
(2) Velocity
(3) Vertical component of velocity period and R is orbital radius)
(4) Horizontal component of velocity T2 T2
(1) (2)
R2 R3
6. Pulling is easier than pushing because
T2 R
(1) When we pull a roller, the vertical component (3) (4)
of pulling acts along weight R T
(2) When we pull a roller, vertical component of
pulling acts opposite to weight direction 12. Two liquid drops coalesce to form a large drop,
(3) Force to friction becomes along direction of then
motion (1) Energy is liberated
(4) Coefficient of friction decreases on pulling (2) Energy is absorbed
roller (3) Some mass gets converted into energy
(4) Energy in neither liberated nor absorbed
7. A 30 kg block rests on rough horizontal surface. A
horizontal force of 200 N is applied on the body. 13. A vessel of volume V and thermal coefficient of
The block acquires a speed of 4 m/s, starting from linear expansion  is completely filled with a
rest, in 2s. What is the value of coefficient of liquid. The liquid does not overflow on heating.
friction? (g = 10 m/s2) The thermal coefficient of volume expansion of
liquid is
3
(1) 10 3 (2) V − V
10 (1) (2)
V V −
(3) 0.19 (4) 0.47
(3)  (4) 3

[2]
14. Of the following, which one has highest specific 20. A uniform potential gradient is established across
heat? a potentiometer wire. Two cells of emf E1 and E2
(1) Water (2) Copper are connected to support and oppose each other are
(3) Ice (4) Aluminium balanced over length l1 = 6 m and l2 = 2 m
E
15. A hydraulic automobile is designed to lift car with respectively in potentiometer, then 1 is
E2
a maximum mass of 3000 kg. The area of cross-
section of piston carrying load is 425 cm2. What (1) 6 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
maximum pressure would the smaller piston have (3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
to bear?
21. The statement, polarity of induced emf is such that it
(1) 6.92 × 105 Nm–2
tends to produce a current which opposes the change
(2) 3.68 × 105 Nm–2
in magnetic flux that produces it, is known as
(3) 5.7 × 105 Nm–2 (1) Coulomb’s law of magnetism
(4) 2.1 × 105 Nm–2 (2) Gauss’s law of electrostatics
(3) Faraday’s law
16. A spring of stiffness constant k and natural length l (4) Lenz’s law
3l l
is cut into two parts and respectively and an
4 4 22. The magnetic field due to a current carrying
arrangement is made as shown. If the mass is circular loop of radius 3 cm at a point on its axis at
slightly displaced and then released, what is the a distance 4 cm from centre is 54 mT. What is its
time period of oscillation? value at the centre of loop?
(1) 125 mT (2) 250 mT
(3) 175 mT (4) 100 mT

23. A dip circle is taken to geomagnetic equator. The

3m 3m needle is allowed to move in vertical plane
(1) 2 (2) 2 perpendicular to magnetic meridian. The needle
2k 16k
will stay
3m  m
(3) 2 (4) (1) In horizontal plane only
4k 2 3k (2) In vertical direction only
(3) In any direction except vertical
17. The change in potential energy when a body of (4) In any direction it is released
mass m is raised to a height n2R from earth’s
surface is: 24. The perpendicular component of external magnetic
(R = radius of the earth) field passing through a coil of 10 turns and radius
mgR 50 mm increases from 0 to 18 T is 3s. If the
(1) mgR (2)
n2 + 1 resistance of the coil is 2 what is magnitude of
induced current?
 n2  mgR
(3) mgR  2
 n + 1 
(4) (1) 0.62 A (2) 0.325 A
  n2 − 1 (3) 0.235 A (4) 0.162 A

18. In an ideal transformer, the number of turns of 25. If the speed of light in ice is 2.3 × 108 m/s. What is
primary and secondary coil is given as 100 and 400 critical angle of incidence for light going from ice
respectively. If power input is 600 W, the power to air?
output will be (1) sin–1(0.143) (2) sin–1(0.304)
–1
(1) 150 W (3) sin (0.67) (4) sin–1(0.77)
(2) 2400 W
(3) 600 W 26. From the graph between current I and voltage V
(4) 400 W shown below, identify the portion corresponding to
negative dynamic resistance.
19. A 10 F capacitor is charged to a potential of
50 V and is connected to another uncharged
capacitor in parallel. Now their common potential
becomes 20V. The capacitance of second capacitor
is
(1) 15 F (2) 20 F (1) OA (2) AB
(3) 25 F (4) 40 F (3) BD (4) CD

[3]
27. Two cells P and Q connected in series has each of 33. If the de Broglie wavelength of an electron is 1 Å,
emf of 1.5 V and internal resistance of 1  and what is its velocity?
0.5  respectively. What is the magnitude of (1) 5.1 × 106 m/s (2) 6.3 × 107 m/s
(3) 7.28 × 10 m/s (4) 5.1 × 105 m/s
6
potential drop across between points marked 1 and 2?
34. A ray of light passes normally through a slab of
7
refractive index and thickness ‘t’. If the speed
5
of light in vacuum is ‘C’ then time taken by the
light to go across the slab is
7t 5t
(1) (2)
5C 7C
(1) 0.75 V (2) 1.25 V t t
(3) (4)
(3) 1.5 V (4) 0.5 V C 5C

28. An electron is moving with velocity of 106 ms–1 35. At any instant, the ratio of amount of radioactive
through uniform magnetic field of 0.1 T which is substance is 2:1. If their half lives are respectively
12 and 16 hours, then after 2 days, what will be the
perpendicular to direction of the motion. What is
ratio of amount of substance left?
the force on the electron? (1) 1:1 (2) 2:1
(1) 1.6 × 10–12 N (2) 1.6 × 10–14 N (3) 1:4 (4) 1:2
(3) 5 × 10–9 N (4) 3.2 × 10–14 N
SECTION - B
29. A particle is projected at an angle of  from the 36. In a common emitter transistor amplifier  = 60,
horizontal with the kinetic energy T. What is the output resistance R0 = 5000 and input resistance
kinetic energy of the particle at the highest point? of transistor is 500. The voltage amplification of
(1) T sin2  amplifier will be
(2) T (1) 560 (2) 460
(3) 300 (4) 600
(3) T cos2 
(4) T tan2  37. Match list-1 with list-2.
List-1 List-2
30. If the potential of capacitor having capacity 6 F is
A. Franck P. Particle nature
increased from 10 V to 20 V, then increase in its
Hertz of light
energy will be
experiment
(1) 4 × 10–4 J (2) 4 × 10–2 J
–4
(3) 9 × 10 J (4) 7 × 10–4 J B. Davisson- Q. Discrete energy
Germer levels of atom
31. The following configuration of gate is equivalent experiment
to C. Photo R. Wave nature of
electric light
experiment
S. Wave nature of
electron
(1) NAND (2) NOR
(1) A-P, B-S, C-R (2) A-R, B-S, C-Q
(3) XOR (4) OR (3) A-Q, B-S, C-P (4) A-R, B-S, C-P
32. In Young’s interference experiment two slits are 38. A solid cylinder rolls down a plane of length L and
illuminated with orange light of wavelength 6000 inclined at angle , without slipping. Its velocity on
Å. The interference pattern is observed on screen reaching the bottom will be-
far from slit planes. If the central bright fringe is 5 4
numbered as zero, what must be path difference for (1) gL sin  (2) gL sin 
4 3
light from two slits at fourth bright fringe?
3
(1) 3 m (2) 1.6 m (3) gL sin  (4) 2 gL sin 
(3) 2.4 m (4) 3.9 m 2

[4]
39. A uniform wire of length 2L is bent to form an
angle of 90° as shown. Find the distance of centre
of mass from the vertex O. (iii) (iv)

(1) (i), (iii)

(2) (ii), (iii)
(3) (iii), (iv)
(4) (i), (ii), (iii)
L L 3
(1) (2) 45. A gas, for which  is 4/3, is heated at constant
2 4
L pressure. The percentage of heat supplied used for
(3) (4) None external work is:-
2 2
(1) 25% (2) 15%
(3) 60% (4) 40%
40. Frequency(f) of a simple pendulum depends on its
length (l) and acceleration due to gravity according
46. The incorrect statement among the following is
1 g
to the following equation f = . Graph (1) Sunlight is not always required for a solar cell
2 l (2) Semiconductors with band gap close to 1.5 eV
between which of the following quantities is a
are ideal material for solar cell fabrication
parabolic?
(3) A solar cell works when it is reversed biased
(1) f on the ordinate and l on the abscissa
(4) I-V characteristics for solar cell is drawn in
(2) f on the ordinate and l on the abscissa
fourth quadrant
(3) f 2 on the ordinate and l on the abscissa
1 47. In hydrogen atom an electron makes a transition
(4) f on the ordinate and on the abscissa
l from n = 2 to n = 1. The magnetic field produced
by circulating electron at the nucleus
41. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ‘K’. If it (1) Decreases 16 times
is subjected to uniform pressure ‘P’, the fractional (2) Decreases 4 times
decrease in diameter is:- (3) Increases 32 times
K K (4) Increases 4 times
(1) (2)
P 3P
P P 48. An electric dipole will experience a net force when
(3) (4)
3K K it is placed in
(1) Uniform electric field
  (2) Uniform magnetic field
42. If x = a sin  t +  and x’ = a cos t, then what (3) A non-uniform electric field
 6 (4) Both (1) and (2)
is the phase difference between the two waves?
(1) /3 (2) /6 49. An electromagnetic wave of frequency 3.0 MHz
(3) /2 (4)  passes from vacuum into a dielectric medium with
relative permittivity r = 4.0 and  = 0. Then:-
43. A train moving towards a hill at a speed of 72 (1) Wavelength is double and frequency remain
km/hr sounds a whistle of frequency 500 Hz. A unchanged.
(2) Wavelength is double and frequency become
wind is blowing from the hill at a speed of 36
half.
km/hr. If the speed of sound in air is 340 m/s, the
(3) Wavelength is halved and frequency remains
frequency heard by a man on the hill is unchanged.
(1) 532.25 Hz. (2) 560.0 Hz. (4) Wavelength and frequency both remain
(3) 516.1 Hz. (4) None of the above unchanged.

44. The following are the P-V diagrams for cyclic 50. A capacitor is in series with a resistance of 30 and
processes for a gas. In which of these processes is is connected to 220 V ac line. The reactance of
heat absorbed by the gas? capacitor is 40 . What is power loss in circuit
nearly?
(1) 420 W
(i) (ii) (2) 520 W
(3) 480 W
(4) 580 W

[5]
 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION-A 58. What is the relationship between benzyl acetate and
51. In the given transformation, which of the following phenyl acetate?
is the most appropriate reagent? (1) Isomers
(2) Rotamers
(3) Metamers
(4) None of these
(1) Zn(Hg)-HCl (2) Na, liq. NH3
(3) NaBH4 (4) NH2NH2, OH–
59. Match List-I with List-II, and choose the correct
option.
52. How many benzene rings are present in indigo?
List I List II
(1) Zero (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three A. Valium i. Antifertility drug
B. Morphine ii. Pernicious
53. What is chemical name of the R-group present in anaemia
tryptophan? C. Norethindrone iii. Analgesic
(1) Hydrogen (2) Indole D. Vitamin B12 iv. Tranquiliser
(3) Phenyl (4) Methyl
(1) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
54. Which of the following contains secondary amino (2) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(3) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (iii), (d) - (i)
group?
(4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i), (d) - (ii)
(1) Leucine
(2) Glycine
60. Name the functional groups present in DMF and
(3) Proline THF.
(4) None of these (1) Amide and ester
(2) Ether and amide
55. Which of the following functional group is present (3) Amide and ether
in apple to give it a pleasant smell? (4) Ester and alcohol
(1) Alcohol
(2) Ether 61. How many pi electrons are present in pentacene?
(3) Ester (1) 20 (2) 22
(4) Aldehyde (3) 24 (4) 26

56. Which of the following is not considered 62. Assertion: In methane, ammonia and water, the
carboxylic oxidation level functional group? respective central atoms are sp3 hybridised.
Reason: All the three are having same bond angle.
(1) Nitrile
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
(2) Amide
is a correct explanation for assertion.
(3) Ketone
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
(4) Acyl chloride
is not a correct explanation for assertion
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
57. What is the trivial name given to the following
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct
fragment?
63. Many towns and streets are lit at night by X vapour
lamps, which emit an intense, pure yellow-orange
glow. Inside these lights is X metal. The same
colour as the light you get when you put a small
(1) Aryl amount of a X compound on a spatula and place it
(2) Benzyl in a Bunsen flame. Identify X
(3) Phenyl (1) Iron (2) Lithium
(4) Vinyl (3) Sodium (4) Calcium

[6]
64. Which of the following is incorrect? (3) Disproportionation reaction
(1) The allowed vibrations of an electron in 3D (4) Double displacement reaction
space is known as orbitals.
(2) All s-orbitals are spherical. 73. In case of neutralization reaction of weak acid and
weak base, the enthalpy of neutralization is low
(3) All p-orbitals have 2 nodes.
because
(4) All p-orbitals are directional.
(1) The reaction is slow
(2) The electrolytes are partially ionized
65. Which of the following is paramagnetic? (3) A part of energy evolved is utilized in the
(1) Cr(CO)6 (2) Fe(CO)5 dissociation of electrolytes.
(3) Ni(CO)4 (4) V(CO)6 (4) The ions are solvated and hence more energy
is required for solvation
66. The compound with zero dipole moment
(1) Cis-2-butene (2) Trans-2-butene 74. Cesium chloride on heating to 760 K changes into
(1) CsCI(g)
(3) But-1-ene (4) 2-methyl-1-propene
(2) NaCI structure
(3) Antifluorite structure
67. The bond dissociation energies (ΔH) of three alkyl (4) ZnS structure
halides is as follows:
CH3Cl ΔH = 84 kcal/mol 75. Consider the following statements. An increase in
CH2 = CHCl ΔH = 207 kcal/mol the rate of reaction for a rise in temperature is due to
C6H5CH2Cl ΔH = 166 kcal/mol I. The increase in the number of collisions
The cleavage of C–Cl bond in the halide with least II. The shortening of mean free path
ΔH produces III. The increase in the number of activated
molecules
(1) Two free radicals
IV. The increase in the pressure of the system
(2) Two cations
Choose the correct option regarding the correct
(3) Two anions statement.
(4) One cation and one anion (1) I and II (2) II and III
(3) I and III (4) I, III and IV
68. The electrophilic centre in the following molecule is
CH2 = CH – CO – CH3 76. Consider the following statements. The role of a
(1) C2 (2) C2 and C4 catalyst is to
(3) C3 (4) C1 I. Reduce the activation energy
II. Increase the activation energy
69. The boiling point of three isomeric pentanes A, B
III. Increase the rate of attainment of equilibrium
and C is 9.5°C, 28°C and 36°C respectively What
are A, B and C? IV. Decrease the rate of attainment of equilibrium
(1) n-pentane, isopentane, neopentane Which of the given statements are correct?
(2) Isopentane, neopentane, n-pentane (1) II and IV
(3) n-pentane, neopentane, isopentane (2) I and IV
(4) Neopentane, isopentane, n-pentane (3) I and III
(4) II and III
70. Which one on the following pairs of species will have
identical ground state electronic configuration?
77. In view of the signs of  r G o  0 for the following
(1) Li+ and He– (2) Cl– and Ar
(3) Na and K (4) F+ and Ne reactions:
PbO2 + Pb → 2PbO, r Go  0;
71. The number of sigma and pi bonds between two
carbon atoms in CaC2 is SnO2 + Sn → 2SnO, r Go  0
(1) 3 and 0 (2) 2 and 1 Which oxidation states are more characteristics for
(3) 2 and 1 (4) 1 and 1 lead and tin?
(1) For lead +2, for tin +2
72. Chlorine gas reacts with aqueous solution of KOH to (2) For lead +4, for tin +4
give certain products. The reaction is an example of (3) For lead +2. for tin +4
(1) Neutralization reaction (4) For lead +4, for tin +2
(2) Substitution reaction

[7]
78. Assertion: Sols are positively or negatively 85. The correct order of following 3d metal oxides,
charged according to their oxidation number is:
Reason: It is due to preferential adsorption of (a) CrO3 (b) Fe2O3
certain ion around the sol particle. (c) MnO2 (d) V2O5
(e) Cu2O
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason
(1) (a) > (d) > (c) > (b) > (e)
is a correct explanation for assertion. (2) (d) > (a) > (b) > (c) > (e)
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason (3) (a) > (c) > (d) > (b) > (e)
is not a correct explanation for assertion (4) (c) > (a) > (d) > (e) > (d)
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct SECTION B
86. Which of the following graph represents the correct
79. A piston filled with 0.04 mol of an ideal gas Boyle’s law:
expands reversibly from 50.0 mL to 375 mL at a
constant temperature of 37.0°C. As it does so, it
absorbs 208 J of heat. The values of q and w for the
process will be:
(R = 8.314 J/mol K) (In 7.5 = 2.01)
(1) q = +208 J. w = – 208 J
(2) q = –208 J. w = – 208 J
(3) q = –208 J, w = + 208 J
(4) q = +208 J, w = + 208 J

80. pOH of H2O is 7 at 298 K. If water is heated to 350

K, which of the following statement should be true? (1) (i), (ii) and (iii) (2) (i) and (iv)
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(1) pOH will decrease
(2) pH will increase
87. Cu(OH)2 has Ksp = 1.6  10–19. What is the
(3) pOH will remain 7. maximum [Cu2+] concentration possible in a
(4) Both (1) and (2). neutral solution (pH = 7)?
(1) 3.2  10–5 M (2) 4.8  10–6 M
81. In the process of corrosion, at cathode, one mole of (3) 0.8  10–6 M (4) 1.6  10–5 M
oxygen absorbs how many electrons
(1) 2 (2) 4 88. Azeotropes are binary mixtures having
(3) 6 (4) 8 ______composition in _______ and _________
phase and boil at constant temperature.
82. If 1.5 moles of oxygen combine with Al to form (1) Same, liquid, vapour
Al2O3, the weight of Al used in the reaction is: (2) Same, liquid, solid
(1) 27 g (2) 40.5 g (3) Different, liquid, vapour
(3) 54 g (4) 81 g (4) Different, liquid, solid

83. The density of a solution prepared by dissolving 89. Which of the following is an ideal solution?
120 g of urea (mol. mass = 60 u) in 1000 g of water (1) n-hexane and n-heptane
is 1.15 g/mL. The molarity of this solution is: (2) Bromoethane and chloroethane
(1) 0.50M (3) Benzene and toluene
(2) 1.78 M (4) All of the above
(3) 1.02 M
(4) 2.05 M
90. For the reaction given, 2NO2(g)⇄2NO(g) + O2(g),
84. The limiting molar conductivities of potassium ion KC = 1.8  10–6 at 184º C and R = 0.08311 kJ mol–
1 –1
is more than that of sodium ion. This is due to K . When KP and KC are compared at 184ºC, it
(1) Bigger size of potassium is found that:
(2) Smaller size of potassium (1) Whether KP is greater than, less than or equal
(3) Less hydration of potassium ion as it is bigger to KC depends upon the total gas pressure
in size (2) KP = KC
(4) More hydration of potassium ion as it is bigger (3) KP is less than KC
in size
(4) KP is greater than KC

[8]
91. Assertion: In the addition of Grignard reagent to 96. Band theory predicts that magnesium is an
the carbonyl compound, the R group of RMgX insulator. However, in practice it acts as a
attacks the carbonyl carbon. conductor due to
Reason: The C-Mg bond of the Grignard reagent is (1) Presence of filled 3s orbital
highly polar, carbon being highly negative in (2) Overlap of filled 2p and filled 3s orbital
comparison to magnesium. (3) Overlap of filled 3s and empty 3p orbital
(1) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason (4) Presence of unfilled 3p orbital
is a correct explanation for assertion.
(2) Assertion is correct, reason is correct; reason 97. An alkali metal hydride (NaH) reacts with diborane
is not a correct explanation for assertion in ‘A’ to give a tetrahedral compound ‘B’ which is
(3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect extensively used as reducing agent in organic
(4) Assertion is incorrect, reason is correct synthesis. The compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ respectively
are:
92. Match the following Column: (1) CH3COCH3 and B3N3H6
Column I Column II (2) (C2H5)2O and NaBH4
A. Oppenauer 1. Peracids (3) C2H6 and C2H5Na
oxidation (4) C6H6 and NaBH4
B. Baeyer-Villiger 2. Chromyl
98. Among the following, the isoelectronic and
oxidation chloride
isostructural pair is
C. Etard reaction 3. Red P + Bromine
(1) CO2 and SO2 (2) SO3 and SeO3
D. HVZ reaction 4. Zn/Hg, HCl
(3) NO2 and TeO2 (4) SiO44– and PO43–
+
5. Acetone/Al-
isopropoxide
99. Match Column-I with Column-II and select the
A B C D
correct answer with respect to hybridisation using
(1) 5 1 2 3
the codes given below:
(2) 2 3 4 1
(3) 5 3 2 1 Column I Column II
(4) 2 1 4 3 (Complex) (Hybridisation)
–
(I) [AuF4] (p) dsp2
93. The de-Broglie wavelength for a He atom hybridisation
travelling at 1000 m/s at room temperature is (II) [Cu(CN)4]3– (q) sp3
(1) 99.7 × 10–12 m hybridisation
(2) 199.4 × 10–12 m
(III) [Co(C2O4)3]3– (r) Sp3d2
(3) 199.4 × 10–18 m
hybridisation
(4) 99 × 10–6 m
(IV) [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ (s) d2sp3
94. During the day at 27°C a cylinder with a sliding top hybridisation
contains 20.0 L of air. At night it only holds 19 L. Codes :
What is the temperature at night in °C? (I) (II) (III) (IV)
(1) 285 (2) 21 (A) q p r s
(3) 12 (4) 288 (B) p q s r
(C) p q r s
95. In a crystalline solid, having formula AB2O4, oxide
(D) q p s r
ions are arranged in cubic close packed lattice
while cations X are present in tetrahedral voids and
100. The reaction of solid XeF2 with AsF5 in 1 : 1 ratio
cations Y are present in octahedral voids. The
affords
percentage of tetrahedral voids occupied by X is:
(1) XeF4 and AsF3
(1) 50%
(2) XeF6 and AsF3
(2) 12.5%
(3) [XeF]+ and [AsF6]–
(3) 58%
(4) [Xe2F3]+ and [AsF6]
(4) 75%

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 SECTION-III (BOTANY)
SECTION-A (2) Splicing
101. Food chain consists of (3) Transformation
(1) producers, consumers and decomposers (4) Heterosis
(2) producers, carnivores and decomposers
(3) producers & primary consumers 109. Some blue green algae can be used as biofertilizer
(4) producers, herbivores, and carnivores because.
(1) They have ability to fix nitrogen
102. Pyramid of energy is always (2) They can perform photosynthesis
(3) They grow every where
(1) Inverted
(4) None of these
(2) Upright
(3) Spindle shaped 110. Objective of plant breeding is
(4) None of these (1) Disease/stress resistance
(2) Better yield
(3) Better quality
103. Today concentration of green house gases is high
(4) All the above
because of
(1) Use of refrigerators
111. When two plants with genotypes Rr Tt and rrtt are
(2) Increased combustion of oil and coal crossed the phenotypic ratio of the offspring will be
(3) Deforestation (1) 1 : 1 (2) 3 : 1
(4) All the above (3) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1

104. Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a 112. Which among the following was not proposed by
(1) Biological process Mendel?
(2) Physical process (1) Dominance
(3) Mechanical process (2) Segregation
(4) Chemical process (3) Independent assortment
(4) Incomplete dominance
105. Wild life is important because
(1) It is the source of gene bank for breeding 113. A: Cross of F1 individual with recessive
programme in agriculture. homozygous parent is test cross
(2) It balances population. R: The ratio of heterozygous and recessive
(3) It maintains food chains and natural cycles. individuals is 2 : 1 in monohybrid test cross.
(4) All the above (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
106. Which of the following is an example of ex-situ (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
conservation?
Assertion.
(1) Seed bank
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(2) Sacred groves
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
(3) National park
(4) Wild life sanctuary 114. Mendel crossed a pure white flowered recessive pea
plant with dominant pure red flowered plant. The first
107. When a population is undergoing exponential growth generation of hybrids from the cross should show.
if: (1) 50% white flowered & 50% red flowered plants.
(1) Remains the same size each year (2) All red flowered plants
(2) Decreases by the same amount each year (3) 75% red coloured and 25% white flowered
(3) increase by large amount each year. plants.
(4) None of the above (4) All white flowered plants.

108. When two unrelated individuals or lines are crossed 115. The possible blood groups of the offsprings of
the performance of F1 hybrid is often superior to both parents universal donor and universal recipient.
its parents. This phenomenon is called. (1) A, B and AB (2) O, A, B and AB
(1) Metamorphosis (3) O and AB (4) A & B

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116. Match the CI with CII and choose the correct option. 122. A: A typical microsporangium of angiosperms is
CI CII generally surrounded by four wall layers
R: The outer three wall layers perform the
A Monohybrid cross P T and t
function of protection and help in dehiscence
B Test cross Q TT of anther to release pollen grains.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
C Alleles R Tt X Tt
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
S tt (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
D Homozygous tall T Tt X tt Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(1) A-R, B-T, C-S, D-Q (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(2) A-T, B-R, C-Q, D-S (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
(3) A-R, B-T, C-P, D-Q
(4) A-R, B-P, C-T, D-Q 123. Which among the following statement about
sporopollenin is false?
117. Turner’s syndrome is due to (1) Sporopollenin is resistant to most type of
(1) Monosomic chromosome enzymes.
(2) Trisomic chromosome (2) Sporopollenin can withstand high temperature
and strong acids.
(3) Polysomic chromosome
(3) Exine has apertures called germ pores where
(4) Bisomic chromosome
sporopollenin is located.
(4) Exine is made up of sporopollenin.
118. Which among the following is not a heritable
Mutation? 124. What happens in double fertilization?
(1) Somatic mutation (1) Fertilization of the egg and the central cell by
(2) Point mutation two sperms brought by the same pollen tube.
(3) Gene mutation (2) Fertilization of the egg and central cell by two
(4) Chromosomal mutation sperms brought by different pollen tubes.
(3) Fertilization of two eggs in some embryo sac by
119. There are 64 codons in genetics because two sperms brought by one pollen tube.
(1) Genetic code is triplet (4) Fertilization of the egg by two male gametes.
(2) There are 64 amino acids to be coded
125. In Bryophyllum vegetative propagation is by
(3) There are 44 meaningless and 20 codons code
(1) Leaves (2) Stem
for amino acids.
(3) Roots (4) Rhizomes
(4) There are 64 type of t-RNAs found in all cells.
126. A wooden peg inserted in a rock causes its breaking
120. Filiform apparatus is a characteristic feature of during rainy season. It is due to development of
(1) Zygote (2) Synergids (1) Osmotic pressure
(3) Antipodals (4) Secondary nucleus (2) Turgor pressure
(3) Imbibition pressure
121. A: Chasmogamous flowers require pollinating (4) Plasmolysis
agents for pollination.
R: Cleistogamous flowers do not expose their sex 127. The transport of water and salts takes place through
organs. (1) Phloem (2) Xylem
(3) Sieve tubes (4) Sclerenchyma
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
128. Process of transpiration in plants will be the lowest in
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
(1) When there is high humidity in atmosphere
Reason is not the correct explanation of (2) High wind velocity
Assertion. (3) There is excess of water in the cell
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (4) Environmental conditions are very dry
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

[11]
129. NADP is converted into NADPH2 in 137. Chlorenchyma consist of
(1) Photosystem II (1) Collenchymatous tissue
(2) Photosystem I (2) Sclerenchymatous tissue
(3) Calvin cycle (3) Parenchymatous tissue
(4) Non-cyclic photophosphorylation (4) Fibres

130. The end products of fermentation is 138. In which of following season cambium is most active
(1) C2H5OH and CO2 (1) Spring
(2) H2O and CO2 (2) Autumn
(3) CO2 (3) Winter
(4) Pyruvic acid and H2O (4) None

131. The reactions of kreb’s cycle take place. 139. In monecious plants
(1) Male and female flowers and neutral flowers are
(1) In endoplasmic reticulum
borne on the same plant.
(2) In the cytoplasm
(2) Male and female parts are borne on different
(3) On the surface of mitochondrion
plants.
(4) In matrixofmitochondrion (3) Male and female flowers parts are borne on
same plant but not on same flower.
132. According to cell theory. (4) Male and female parts on same flower.
(1) Cell can Reproduce
(2) Cell are living 140. In Amorphophallus vegetative reproduction is carried
(3) Cell are fundamental units out through.
(4) Cell have nuclei (1) Corm (2) Rhizome
(3) Bulbils (4) Offsets
133. Lignin is the main constituent in:
141. Roots are described as adventitious depending upon
(1) Woody tissues
their
(2) Phloem
(1) Function
(3) Growing tissue (2) Anatomy
(4) Cortex (3) Place of origin
(4) Position, aerial (or) underground
134. Fluid mosaic model is to explain the structure of
plasma membrane was proposed by 142. Perianth is?
(1) Danielli and Davson (1) when only calyx is present
(2) Singer and Nicolson (2) outer part of flower in which calyx and corolla
(3) Robertson are not always distinguishable
(4) Robert brown (3) when stamens and androecium are not
distinguishable
(4) None of the above
135. Carbohydrate molecule attached to lipid and protein
molecule form glycocalyx. These carbohydrates are 143. Which among the following is not a stem
usually. modification
(1) Monosaccharides (1) Corm of Colocasia
(2) Starch (2) Rhizome of ginger
(3) Oligosaccharides (3) pitcher of Nepenthes
(4) polysaccharides (4) Tuber of potato

SECTION - B 144. ICBN means

(1) International classification of biological
136. Mitosis is significant because it
nomenclature
(1) Is completed very rapidly.
(2) International class of biological nomenclature
(2) Can take place underground.
(3) International code of biological naming
(3) Produces identical cells or genetic compliment (4) International code of botanical nomenclature
(4) Can occur in all parts of plant body.

[12]
145. A: Archaebacteria are able to survive in harsh 148. Lichens are well-known combination of an algae
habitats and a fungus, where fungus has.
B: Archaebacteria survive in extreme conditions (1) A symbiotic relationship with the algae
due to presence of peptidoglycan in their cell (2) A parasitic relationship with algae
wall (3) An epiphytic relationship with algae
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and (4) A saprophytic relationship with algae
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion. 149. Virus envelope is known as
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but (1) capsid
Reason is not the correct explanation of (2) Nucleoprotein
Assertion.
(3) core
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) prions
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
150. A: Red algae contributes in producing coral reef.
146. Identify the correct sequence of taxa in Linnean
R: Some red algae secrete and deposit calcium
hierarchy.
(1) species, genus, family, order, class carbonate on their walls.
(2) class family species, genus, order (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(3) species, genus, phylum, family, class Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(4) phylum, class, family, species, order (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not the correct explanation of
147. The phylogenetic system refers to grouping Assertion.
(1) According to floral similarities (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(2) According to all morphological characters (4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.
(3) According to evolutionary trends
(4) of plants in order of their increasing
complexities.

SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION - A (3) Selectable markers such as genes for antibiotic
151. How many germ layers are present in the resistance
embryonic stages of phylum platyhelminthes? (4) One or more unique restriction endonuclease
(1) One (2) Two site
(3) Three (4) Four
155. Match column I with column II:
Column I Column II
152. Arthropoda is best characterised by (Animals) (Characters)
(1) Triploblastic, bilateral symmetry and a. Torpedo i. Presence of a poisonous sting
abdominal appendages b. Trygon ii. Presence of electric organs
(2) Bilateral symmetry and two pairs of wings c. Pila iii. Presence of swim bladder
d. Labeo iv. Presence of radula
(3) Acoelomate and radial symmetry
a b c d
(4) Exoskeleton, metameric segmentation and
(1) i ii iii iv
jointed appendages (2) ii i iii iv
(3) iv ii iii i
153. In which of the following animals is the notochord (4) ii i iv iii
replaced by bony vertebral columns in adult?
156. In cockroach the wings that help in flying are
(1) Ascidia (2) Branchiostoma
(1) Fore wings
(3) Petromyzon (4) Labeo (2) Mesothoracic wings
(3) The hind wings which are transparent and
154. Identify a character that is not desirable in a cloning membranous
vector: (4) Tegmina
(1) An inactive promoter
157. Muscle is connected to bone by
(2) An origin of replication site
(1) Tendon (2) Ligament
(3) Adipose tissue (4) Areolar tissue

[13]
158. The stem cells which have potency to give rise to (1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
all tissues and organs are formed from (2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(1) Trophoblast (2) Umblical cord (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
(3) Inner cell mass (4) Placenta correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
159. Collagen is
correct explanation of (A)
(1) Hormone
(2) Enzyme
(3) Transporter 166. Secretion of parietal cells does not include
(4) Intercellular ground substance (1) Pepsinogen and mucous
(2) HCl
160. Casein of milk is a (3) Castle’s intrinsic factor
(1) Nucleoprotein (2) Metalloprotein (4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) Phosphoprotein (4) Chromoportein
167. The optimum pH for the action of ptyalin is
161. Statement I: If the total amount of adenine in (1) 1.8 (2) 6.8
eukaryotic dsDNA is 30% then total pyrimidine (3) 7.8 (4) 9.8
content is 50%.
Statement II: Nitrogenous bases donot form parts 168. Jaundice is a disorder of
of backbone in DNA (1) Skin and eyes (2) Digestive system
Select the correct option (3) Excretory system (4) Respiratory system
(1) Statement I is incorrect
(2) Statement II is incorrect 169. Respiratory organ of Columba livia is
(3) Both statement I and II are incorrect (1) Lungs (2) Gills
(4) Both statement I and II are correct (3) Skin (4) All of these

162. Oxytocin helps in 170. The maximum volume of air a person can breathe
(1) Ovulation in after a forced expiration
(2) Lactation and Childbirth (1) Vital capacity (2) ERV + TV + IRV
(3) Lactation but not child birth (3) TLC – RV (4) All of these
(4) Childbirth but not Lactation
171. Choose the incorrect match.
163. Which of the following factors affecting enzyme (1) P wave – Depolarisation of atria
activity is depicted in the given graph? (2) Q wave – Excitation of atria
(3) QRS complex – Depolarisation of ventricle
(4) T wave – Repolarisation of ventricle

172. Rate of heart beat and cardiac output can be

increased by
(1) Neural signals through the sympathetic nerves
(1) pH (2) Parasympathetic neural signals
(2) Temperature (3) Adrenal medullary hormones
(3) Product concentration (4) Both (1) and (3)
(4) Substrate concentration
173. Assertion (A): Lubb sound is produced by closing
164. Cholesterol is a of AV valves during ventricular systole
(1) Wax (2) Triglyceride Reason (R): It is low pitched and of longer duration
(3) Steroid (4) Phospholipid Choose the appropriate option
(1) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
165. Assertion (A): All enzymes are proteinaceous in (2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
nature. (3) Both (A) and (B) are correct and (R) is the
Reason (R): Ribozymes are not proteinaceous in correct explanation of (A)
nature. (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
Choose the appropriate option. correct explanation of (A)

[14]
174. Nearly all of the essential nutrients and 70-80% of 183. The layer which undergoes cyclical changes during
electrolytes and water are reabsorbed in which menstrual cycle is
segment of nephron? (1) Perimetrium (2) Myometrium
(1) PCT (3) Endometrium (4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) Ascending limb of loop of Henle
184. Which of the following STD is transmitted by
(3) Descending limb of loop of Henle
bacteria?
(4) DCT
(1) AIDS (2) Chlamydiasis
(3) Genital herpes (4) Genital warts
175. Amount of CO2 removed by our lungs per minute is
(1) 200 ml (2) 300 ml 185. Genetic drift operates in
(3) 100 ml (4) 500 ml (1) Small isolated population
(2) Large isolated population
176. Ball and socket joint is found in (3) Non-reproductive population
(1) Shoulder joint (4) Slow reproductive population
(2) Hip joint
(3) Between atlas and axis SECTION - B
(4) Both (1) and (2) 186. Gene pool is
(1) Genotype of an individual in a population
177. Globular regulatory protein of skeletal muscle (2) Different genes of all individuals of a species
fibres is found in an area
(3) Pool of artificially synthesised genes
(1) Tropomyosin (2) Troponin
(4) Genes of a genus
(3) Actin (4) Myosin
187. Choose the incorrect option
178. Receptor sites for neurotransmitters are present on (1) Life began in water
(1) Membrane of synaptic vesicles (2) Invertebrates evolve around 500 mya
(2) Pre-synaptic membrane (3) Lobefins are thought to be evolved into first
(3) Tips of axon amphibians
(4) Post synaptic membrane (4) Fishes are the first water organisms

179. Which of the following is not a part of knee jerk 188. Due to continental drift, South American mammals
reflex? were overridden by
(1) Afferent pathway (1) Australia mammals
(2) Muscle spindle (2) North America flora
(3) Efferent pathway (3) South America flora
(4) North-America fauna
(4) Interneuron
189. Disease caused by helminthes is/are :
180. Statement I: Thymus is a soft-bilobed structure (1) Ascariasis (2) Filariasis
where two lobes lie side-by-side and are joined in (3) Ringworm (4) Both (1) and (2)
the middle by connective tissues
Statement II: Thymus size is maximum at about 190. Example of physiological barriers are
15 years of age. (1) PMNL (2) Saliva in mouth
Choose the appropriate answer. (3) Interferons (4) Skin
(1) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
191. AIDS disease was first reported in
(2) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(1) USA (2) France
(3) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(3) Russia (4) Germany
(4) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
192. Assertion (A): Filariasis is caused by Wuchereria.
181. Innermost layer of adrenal cortex secrete mainly Reason (R): Filariasis is commonly called as
(1) Aldosterone Elephantiasis
(2) Cortisol Choose the correct option
(3) Androgenic steroids (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
(4) Epinephrine explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but the (R) is not the
182. Ovary is connected to pelvic wall by correct explanation of (A)
(1) Tendons (2) Ligaments (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(3) Muscles (4) Bones (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
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193. The best breeding method for animals that are 197. In bacteria, plasmid is
below average in productivity in milk production (1) Extra chromosomal material
would be: (2) Main DNA
(1) Inbreeding (3) Non-functional DNA
(2) Out-crossing (4) Repetitive DNA
(3) Cross-breeding
(4) Interspecific hybridisation 198. Transgenic animals are produced for
(1) Medicine (2) Agriculture
194. rDNA is (3) Industry (4) All of these
(1) Chimeric DNA
(2) Hybrid DNA-RNA 199. Silencing of mRNA has been used in producing
(3) Recombination of vector DNA and desired transgenic plants resistant to
gene (1) White rusts (2) Bacterial blights
(4) Both (1) and (3) (3) Boll worm (4) Nematodes

195. In case of BamHI, H represents 200. The first transgenic plant is

(1) Genus (1) Tomato (2) Tobacco
(2) Species (3) Rice (4) Soyabean
(3) Name of scientist
(4) Strain

196. Agrose gel is extracted from

(1) Sea water
(2) Sea-weeds
(3) Sea-animals
(4) Sea-gooseberry

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