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400+ TOP Gynecology Objective Questions and Answers MCQs

GYNAECOLOGY Multiple Choice Questions :-

1. A 48-year-old woman presents with intermenstrual bleeding for two months and episodes of bleeding
occurring any time in the cycle. There is no associated pain.

Differential diagnosis for intermenstrual bleeding does not include:

a. endocervical polyp

b. cervical malignancy

c. endometrial polyp

d. ovarian teratoma

e. atrophic vaginitis.

Answer: d

3. All of the following are effects of premature menopause, apart from:

a. decreased cardiovascular risk

b. infertility

c. osteoporosis

d. vasomotor symptoms

e. vaginal dryness.

Answer: a

4. A 32-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with infrequent periods. A hormone profi le
is done and all of the following are consistent with polycystic ovarian syndrome, apart

from:
a. increased androgen levels

b. normal FSH

c. normal oestradiol

d. decreased LH

e. low progesterone levels.

Answer: d

5. A 28-year-old woman attends the colposcopy clinic after an abnormal smear test. The smear is
reported as severe dyskaryosis and she has an intrauterine contraceptive device in situ. All of the
following statements are likely to be true, apart from:

a. the cervix is macroscopically normal

b. acetic acid is applied and an irregular white area is apparent to the left of the cervical os

c. Lugol’s iodine is applied and the same area stains dark brown while the rest of the cervix stains pale

d. a biopsy is taken

e. the IUCD can stay, as it will not aggravate the cervical abnormality.

Answer: c

6. A 24-year-old woman presents with the absence of periods for nine months. She started her periods
at the age of 13 years and had a regular 28-day cycle until 18 months ago. The periods then became
irregular, occurring every two to three months until they stopped completely. The following are all
included in the differential diagnosis of secondary amenorrhoea, apart from:

a. excessive exercise

b. hyperprolactinaemia

c. hyperthyroidism

d. premature ovarian failure

e. signifi cant weight loss

Answer: c
7. The following statements regarding adenomyosis are true, apart from one.

a. It tends to occur in women over 35 years.

b. Risk factors include increased parity, termination and quick labours.

c. The condition commonly occurs in association with endometriosis.

d. With each period, bleeding occurs from the endometrial tissue into the smooth muscle.

e. The diagnosis can be made by ultrasound or magnetic resonance imaging scan.

Answer: b

8. A 20-year-old woman is referred with a problem of post-coital bleeding. Over the past two months it
has occurred on six occasions and there has been a small amount of bright red blood noticed after
intercourse. There is no associated pain. The following investigations should initially be performed, apart
from:

a. cervical smear

b. endocervical swab for chlamydia

c. colposcopy

d. endocervical swab for gonorrhoea

e. speculum examination to observe the cervix.

Answer: c

9 The following are all consistent with the diagnosis of antiphospholipid syndrome except:

a hydatidiform mole

b severe early-onset pre-eclampsia

c arterial or venous thrombosis

d mid-trimester fetal loss

e placental abruption.

Answer: a
10. The following are all causes of recurrent miscarriage, apart from:

a. parental chromosomal abnormality

b. activated protein C-resistance

c. uncontrolled hypothyroidism

d. chlamydia infection

e. submucosal fi broids.

Answer: d

GYNAECOLOGY MCQs

11. Which one of the following statements about pituitary tumours is true?

a. Weight loss is a common feature of pituitary failure (hypopituitarism) due to a pituitary tumour.

b. Visual fi eld loss in female patients with prolactin-secreting pituitary tumours (prolactinoma) is usual.

c. Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) secreting pituitary tumours cause a syndrome of cortisol

excess that can lead to exaggerated vertical growth in adolescence.

d. Growth hormone defi ciency is a recognised feature in adult patients presenting with acromegaly due
to a pituitary macroadenoma.

e. A low testosterone level is more common than a low thyroxine level in men with non-functioning
gonads.

Answer: e

12. Which of the following statements concerning the anterior pituitary is true?

a. It develops in the embryo from a down-growth of the hypothalamus.

b. It secretes antidiuretic hormone (ADH).

c. It is regulated by hypothalamic-releasing hormones.

d. It secretes its hormones into the pituitary portal system.

e. It is down-regulated by low oestrogen levels.

Answer: c

13. Which one of the following statements about the implantation of the human embryo is true?

a. It will occur at any time over a period of about 14 days.

b. It will occur whether or not the zona pellucida is present.

c. It will occur when the cytotrophoblast contacts the endometrial epithelium and begins to invade the
maternal

tissue.

d. It will occur with the inner cell mass closest to the endometrium.

e. It will occur even if there is only cytotrophoblast present.

Answer: d

14. Which one of the following statements about puberty is true?

a. Puberty is preceded by falling plasma levels of adrenal androgens.

b. The fi rst menstrual period is called the adrenarche.

c. The pubertal growth spurt is the fi rst sign of puberty.

d. Pubic hair growth is stimulated in girls by oestrogen.

e. Spermatogenesis starts at puberty.

Answer: a

15. Which is the most appropriate statement concerning pulmonary embolism?

a. It is now rarely fatal, with the introduction of modern diagnostic tests and treatments.

b. It gives an area of lung which is unventilated on a ventilationperfusion

scan.

c. It does not usually show up on a CT pulmonary angiogram.

d. It is likely that the patient has symptoms of deep-vein thrombosis.

e. It may give symptoms similar to pneumonia.

Answer: e

16. One of the following is true. It is recognised that the positive predictive value of initial
mammography for breast cancer within the national screening programme in the UK is 16%. This means
that:

a. 16% of people who have breast cancer are detected on initial mammography

b. 84% of people without breast cancer have a normal mammogram

c. 16% of initial mammograms are abnormal

d. a patient with an abnormal initial mammogram has a 16% chance of having breast cancer

e. out of every 100 patients with an abnormal mammogram,

Answer: d

17. One of the following is true. Successful fertilisation and subsequent normal embryonic development:

a. require at least two spermatozoa

b. require the retention of the cortical granules in the oocyte

c. are most likely when the oocytes have been ovulated in an immature stage

d. require exclusion of the second polar body

e. often occur when the oocyte has lost its zona pellucida.

Answer: d

18. One of the following is true. The increase in maternal blood volume in pregnancy occurs as a result
of:

a. peripheral vasoconstriction

b. a reduction in progesterone

c. decreased synthesis of vasopressin

d. increased aldosterone synthesis

e. reduced renin activity.

Answer: d

19. One of the following is true. Decreased peripheral resistance in pregnancy has been attributed to an
increase in synthesis of:

a. angiotensin

b. endothelin

c. nitric oxide

d. renin

e. thromboxane.

Answer: c

20. A 25-year-old woman on liver enzyme inducers is requesting contraceptive advice. The method
providing her with the most reliable form of contraception would be:

a. combined oral contraceptive pill

b. Depo-Provera injection

c. diaphragm

d. male condom

e. progesterone-only pill.

Answer: b

21. A 35-year-old woman comes requesting long-term reversible contraception. You advise that the
method that can provide the longest protection is:

a. contraceptive implant

b. copper intrauterine device

c. Depo-Provera injection
d. intrauterine hormonal system (IUS)

e. laparoscopic sterilisation.

Answer: b

22. Regarding cervical cancer, which is the true statement?

a. HPV types 6 and 12 are high risk for developing cervical cancer.

b. The new vaccines can prevent invasive carcinoma but not CIN.

c. As soon as the new vaccination is introduced, cervical screening programmes can cease.

d. HPV types 16 and 18 account for the majority of cervical cancer in the UK.

e. HPV is an oncogenic virus for squamous cell but not adenocarcinoma of the cervix.

Answer: d

23. Regarding the menstrual cycle, which is the true statement?

a. Menstruation occurs with vasodilation of the spiral arteries.

b. The LH surge triggers menstruation.

c. The Graafi an follicle develops during the luteal phase.

d. Both the follicle and the corpus luteum secrete oestradiol.

e. Progesterone levels fall after the onset of menstruation.

Answer: d

24. Regarding Müllerian duct abnormalities which is the true statement?

a. occur about 1 in 500

b. the commonest uterine abnormality is septate uterus

c. occur not infrequently with gastrointestinal abnormalities

d. surgical correction of a septate uterus is followed by fetal salvage in <60% of cases

e. longitudinal vaginal septa are more common than transverseones.

Answer: b

25. Choose the correct statement: Uterine leiomyosarcomas:

a. are associated with exposure to tamoxifen

b. originate from leiomyomas

c. pelvic radiotherapy has a signifi cant impact on survival

d. commonly metastasise to the brain

e. anthracycline-based chemotherapy has no place in treatment.

Answer: a

GYNAECOLOGY Objective type Questions with Answers

26. Which one of the following statements about the menopause is correct?

a. Progesterone levels rise after the menopause.

b. LH levels rise after the menopause.

c. The pituitary stops secreting LH and FSH at the menopause.

d. Menstrual cycles remain regular until the last menstrual period.

e. The number of oocytes in the ovary remains constant until the menopause.

Answer: b

27. Choose the correct statement: The female reproductive tract plays important roles in sperm
transport by:

a. trapping most spermatozoa in the cervical crypt for many days

b. regulating sperm transport so that cells reach the site of fertilisation around the time of ovulation

c. allowing sperm transport at all stages of the ovarian cycle

d. preventing spermatozoa from swimming out of the peritoneal cavity

e. providing an acidic environment to keep the spermatozoa active.

Answer: b

28. Which one of the following statements is true: Semen analysis:

a. identifi es men with high-quality fertile spermatozoa

b. identifi es men with low sperm concentrations that might affect fertility

c. can always be used to predict fertility

d. cannot identify abnormal spermatozoa

e. identifi es men with hypopituitarism.

Answer: b

29. One of the following is true. A malignant tumour arising in the mesenchymal tissue is called:

a. adenoma

b. carcinoma

c. lymphoma

d. melanoma

e. sarcoma.

Answer: e

30. One of the following is true. Affording moral status to a human embryo/fetus means that it now has:

a. an inalienable right to life

b. a right to life

c. a right to consideration

d. a right dependent on moral consensus

e. a right not to be harmed.

Answer: d

31. At term amniotic fluid volume is

a. 800ml

b. 500 ml

c. 400 ml

d. 600 ml

Answer: a

32.what is the principal carbohydrate present in Amniotic fluid ?

a. Glucose

b. Fructose

c. Mannose

d. Galactose

Answer: a

33. Oligohydramnios is related which of the following condition ?

a. Renal Agenesis

b. esophageal atresia

c. anencephaly

d. down’s syndrome

Answer: a

34. Early amniocentesis is done in which period of pregnancy

a. 12-14 wks

b. 14-16 wks

c. 16-18 wks

d. 9-11 wks

Answer: b

35. Immune rejection of fetus prevented by

a. HCG

b. HPL

c. oestrogen

d. progesterone

Answer: a

36. what happens to GFR in a case of Pre-eclampsia ?

a. GFR Decreases

b. GFR increases

c. remains same

d. none of the above

Answer: a

37. Shortest diameter of pelvic Cavity

a. Interspinous

b. transverse

c. antero-posterior

d. oblique
Answer: a

38. Large Chorioangioma associated with

a. polyhydroamnios

b. oligohydramnios

c. both

d. none

Answer: a

39. Commonest presentation of Choriocarcinoma

a. vaginal bleeding

b. abdominal pain

c. breathlessness

d. perforation of the uterus

Answer: a

40. Frog eye appearance is seen in

a. Anencephaly

b. acardia

c. down’s syndrome

d. patau’s syndrome

Answer: a

41. what of the following is seen in Partial mole

a. Triploidy
b. haploidy

c. polyploidy

d. diploidy

Answer: a

42. Cervical changes in pregnancy are all except ?

a. increased collagen

b. increased Hyaluronic acid

c. Increased glands

d. increased vascularity

Answer: b

GYNAECOLOGY Questions and Answers pdf Download

1. Women with postmenopausal bleeding need endometrial sampling if endometrial on US is thicker

than

A. 1mm

B. 2mm

C. 5mm

D. 8mm

E. 10mm
Answer: C.5mm

2. Which of the following change in puberty is influenced by the estrogen:

A. Growth of the acinar buds of the breast

B. Epiphyseal fusion

C. Proliferatve phase

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: D.All of the above

3. not exclusevely in the stomach121. Pelvic ultrasound is helpful in the diagnosis of:

A. Endometrial carcinoma

B. Asherman’s syndrome

C. Ascites

D. Ovulation detection

E. Endometriosis
Answer: D.Ovulation detection

4. Glycogen is seen in the lumina of endometrial glands :

A. During the luteal phase

B. During pregnancy only

C. During pre and post ovulatory

D. During proliferative phase only

E. At the time of ovulation only

Answer: A.During the luteal phase

5. The Wolfian duct in the female :

A. Develops into the fallopian tube

B. Forms the ovary

C. Forms the round ligament

D. Regresses and becomes vestigial

E. None of the above

Answer: D.Regresses and becomes vestigial

6. Large amount of alkaline phosphatase may be demonstrated in the endometrium of :

A. Decidua

B. Secretory phase

C. Proliferative phase

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: C.Proliferative phase

7. Oxytocin and vasopressin are transferred from hypothalamus to neurohypophysis through:

A. Venous channels

B. Lymphatics

C. Nerve axons

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: C.Nerve axons

8. The levator ani muscle :

A. Is a voluntary muscle

B. Is attached laterally to the ”white line of the pelvis ”

C. Is composed of pubococcygeus and iliococcygeus muscle

D. Contracts to prevent spillage of urine during strain

E. All of the above

Answer: E.All of the above

9. The function of round ligament is :

A. Vestigial with no apparent function

B. To prevent retrodisplacement of the uterus

C. To prevent uterine prolapse

D. To provide nerve supply of the upper vagina

E. None of the above

Answer: B.To prevent retrodisplacement of the uterus

10. The definitive epithelium of vagina is derived from :

A. Wolfian duct

B. Mullerian duct

C. Urogenital epithelium

D. Coelomic epithelium

E. none

Answer: C.Urogenital epithelium

11. Causes of post partum amenorrhoea may be :

A. Anorexia nervosa

B. Cervical atresia

C. Chlorpromazaine therapy
D. Any of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: D.Any of the above

12. The cyclic production of pituitary hormones is dependant upon:

A. Normal menstruation

B. An intact pituitary- portal system

C. An adult anterior pituitary gland

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: B.An intact pituitary- portal system

13. The clots passed with menorrhagia perhaps indicate

A. No endometrial regeneration

B. No terminal arteriolar spasm

C. Large amount of bleeding

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: C.Large amount of bleeding

14. Monilial vagintis occurs frquently during pregnancy because :

A. Glycosuria is commoner

B. The vagina contains more glycogen

C. Higher vaginal acidity suppresses other organisms

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: D.All of the above

15. Physical exam reveals the uterus to be about 6 wk size. Vaginal bleeding is scanty with no discernible
tissue in the cervical os. There are no palpable adnexal masses. The uterus is mildly tender.
Ultrasonographic exam does not reveal a gestational sac. Which of the following should be
recommended?

A. Dilatation & curettage.

B. Culdocentesis.

C. Observation followed by serial B-HCG determinations.

D. Diagnostic laparoscopy.

E. Laparotomy

Answer: D.Diagnostic laparoscopy.

16. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding levonorgestrel releasing intrauterine
system:

A. There is increased incidence of menorrhagia

B. This system can be used as hormone replacement therapy

C. This method is useful for the treatment of endometerial hyperplasia

D. Irregular uterine bleeding can be problem initially

E. none

Answer: A.There is increased incidence of menorrhagia

17. Myxoma peritonei may occur as a consequence of rupture of which ovarian cyst ?

A. Dermoid
B. Struma ovarii

C. Serous cystadenoma

D. Mucinous cystadenoma

E. Cystadenofibroma

Answer: D.Mucinous cystadenoma

18. Lutein and theca lutein cysts may be associated with all the following except :

A. Mole

B. Chorionepithelioma

C. Stein-leventhal syndrome(PCO)

D. Pregnancy

E. Abortion

Answer: C.Stein-leventhal syndrome(PCO)

19. The site of primary infection in patients with pelvic tuberculosis is usually
A. Tubal

B. Uterine

C. Cervical

D. Ovarian

E. Lungs

Answer: E.Lungs

20. The preferred treatment of ruptured tubo-ovarian abscess is :

A. Cul-de-sac drainage

B. Removal of uterus , tubes and involved ovary

C. Removal of uterus , tubes and ovaries

D. Removal of ruptured tube and ovary

E. Removal of adenexae and drainage

Answer: C.Removal of uterus , tubes and ovaries

21. The cysts of Stein -Leventhal ovary or PCOD are of which kind?

A. Lutein

B. Germinal inclusion

C. Follicular

D. Theca lutein

E. Endometrial

Answer: C.Follicular

22. Clinical findings of PCOD include all except :

A. Obesity

B. Olgomenorrhoea

C. Infertility

D. Tall stature

E. none

Answer: D.Tall stature

23. Pyogenic infections of genital tract usually spread via :

A. Mucous membrane

B. Veins

C. Lymphatics

D. Fistulous tracts

E. B+C

Answer: E.B+C

24. Presence of pyometra in a post menopausal females strongly suggests:

A. Diabetes mellitus

B. Degenerating myoma

C. Senile endometritis

D. Malignancy

E. Sexual promiscuity
Answer: D.Malignancy

25. The most common symptom associated with adenomyosis is :

A. Infertility

B. Menorrhagia

C. Haematometra

D. Dyspareunia

E. Metrorrhagia

Answer: B.Menorrhagia

26. Adenomyosis is often associated with all of the following except :

A. Endometrial hyperplasia

B. Myoma

C. Endometriosis

D. Mymetrial hypertrophy

E. Subinvolution of uterus
Answer: E.Subinvolution of uterus

27. Medadteam.org More than you dream125. A 63 old lady presents with abdominal mass & weight
loss , was diagnosed as having an ovarian tumor , the most common ovarian tumour in this woman
would be…:

A. epithelial tumour

B. germ cell tumour

C. stromal tumour

D. sex cord tumour

E. trophoblastic tumour

Answer: A.epithelial tumour

28. There is a 5% incidence of primary extrauterine malignancy associated with endometrial cancer, the
most frequent site for such is :

A. Stomach

B. lung

C. Breast

D. Bone
E. Spleen

Answer: C.Breast

29. The cause of virilizing adrenal hyperplasia is :

A. Defect in cortisol synthesis

B. defect in ACTH synthesis

C. Defect in testosterone synthesis

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: A.Defect in cortisol synthesis

30. Anterior pituitary function may be blocked by:

A. Blood levels of steroids

B. Emotional factors

C. Sensory stimuli
D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: D.All of the above

31. Subnuclear vaculoes in the endometrial mucosa are evidence of activity of:

A. Cholesterol

B. Progesterone

C. Pregnendiol

D. Androstenendione

E. Oestrogen

Answer: B.Progesterone

32. Common ovulation induced drugs are

A. Clomiphene citrate

B. Tamoxifen or the newer letrozole

C. Gonadotrophins
D. GnRh analogue down regulation protocols

E. All of the above

Answer: E.All of the above

33. The commonest cause of death in cancer cervix is :

A. Infection

B. Uraemia

C. Haemorrhage

D. Cachexia

E. Distant metastasis

Answer: B.Uraemia

34. Failure to find sperm in postcoital examination may be due to :

A. Excessive oestrogen effect on cervical mucous

B. Excessive vaginal lactic acid

C. Oligospermia
D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: C.Oligospermia

35. The differential diagnosis of vaginal cysts include :

A. Cystocele

B. Urethral diverticulum

C. Urethrocoele

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: D.All of the above

36. Factors in cervical cancer development EXCEPT:

A. HIV infection

B. Chlamydia infection

C. Breast cancer
D. Smoking

E. Immunosuppression

Answer: C.Breast cancer

37. A synthetic progestin. What is the most likely explanation for the contraceptive action of this drug?

A. Replacement of the LH surge by an FSH surge.

B. Abolition of the LH surge

C. Enhanced positive feedback of the hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis.

D. Increased conversion of testosterone to estradiol.

E. Inadequate decidualization of the uterus.

Answer: E.Inadequate decidualization of the uterus.

38. All of the following mechanisms might account for a reduced risk of upper genitaltract infection in
users of progestin releasing IUDs, except:

A. Reduced retrograde menstruation

B. Decreased ovulation

C. Thickened cervical mucus

D. Decidual changes in the endometrium

E. All of the above

Answer: E.All of the above

39. Non-neoplastic ovarian cysts include all of the following except:

A. follicular cyst

B. theca lutein cyst

C. dermoid cyst

D. corpus luteum cyst

E. endmetroid cyst

Answer: C.dermoid cyst

40. Which of the following ovarian tumor is most prone to undergo torsion duringpregnancy?

A. Serous cystadenoma

B. Mucinous cystadenoma

C. Dermoid cyst

D. Theca lutein cyst

E. none

Answer: C.Dermoid cyst

41. Magnesium sulphate toxicity include all EXCEPT:

A. CNS depression

B. This drug acts only on motor end plate

C. Respiratory depression

D. muscle relaxant

E. none

Answer: B.This drug acts only on motor end plate

42. In DUB all are right except,:

A. may be associated with hypothyroidism

B. may be associated with post-menopausal bleeding

C. may be associated with functional ovarian cysts

D. may present as menorrhagia

E. may be present as metropathia hemorrhagica

Answer: B.may be associated with post-menopausal bleeding

43. Metabolic causes of anovulatory DUB include all except :

A. Hypothyroidism

B. Halban’s syndrome

C. Cushing’s syndrome

D. Hyperthyroidism

E. diabetes mellitus

Answer: B.Halban’s syndrome

44. The primary drainage of the lower vagina is to :

A. external iliac nodes

B. Sacral nodes

C. Femoral nodes

D. superficial inguinal nodes

E. internal iliac nodes

Answer: D.superficial inguinal nodes

45. The most common causative organism in acute bartholinitis is

A. Staphylococcus

B. Streptococcus

C. Colon bacillus

D. Gonococcus

E. Trichomonas

Answer: D.Gonococcus

46. The uterine artery supplies the

A. Vagina

B. Lower cevix

C. Ovary

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: D.All of the above

47. Common accompaniments salpingitis are :

A. Pelvic mass

B. Bleeding

C. Pain

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: C.Pain

48. he ovary of new born may contain :

A. Small folicular cysts

B. Corpora lutea

C. Lutenized grnulosa cells

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: E.None of the above

49. Cervical amputation :

A. Is followed frequently by abortion

B. Is associated with high incidence of post operative sterility

C. Is not frequently followed by cervical dystocia in patients who become pregnant

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: D.All of the above

50. The effect of ovarian steroid on anterior pituitary is

A. Direct stimulation

B. Direct inhibition

C. Mediated via hypothalamus

D. Unknown

E. Direct stimulation and inhibition

Answer: C.Mediated via hypothalamus

51. What are the signs of ovulation on Ultrasonography :

A. Irregular follicle wall

B. Collapse of follicle

C. Fluid in cul de sac

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: D.All of the above

52. The uterus is held in anteflexed position by :

A. The ventral pull of round ligament

B. The dorsal pull of uterosacral ligaments

C. Its weight

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: D.All of the above

53. The most common symptom of adenomyosis is :

A. Dysmenorrhoea

B. Menorrhagia

C. Pain

D. Fever

E. None of the above

Answer: B.Menorrhagia

54. The commonest cause of stress incontinence is

A. Constipation

B. Raised intra abdominal pressure

C. Congenital weakness of sphincter

D. Childbirth trauma

E. Estrogen deficiency

Answer: D.Childbirth trauma

55. Perforation of the uterus while doing endometrial biopsy in non pregnant uterus, needs

A. Laparoscopy

B. Observation

C. Immediate laparotomy

D. Hysterectomy

E. none

Answer: A.Laparoscopy

56. Least common type of uterine anomaly in patients with recurrent pregnancy loss :

A. Unicornuate

B. Arcuate

C. Septate

D. Bicornuate

E. Didelphys

Answer: A.Unicornuate
57. Diagnosis of stress incontinence coded by which of the following before taking the patient for
surgery

A. History

B. Subjective demonstration of stress incontinence

C. Objective demonstration of stress incontinence

D. Urodynamic studies

E. none

Answer: D.Urodynamic studies

58. The following are the factors associated with CIN EXCEPT

A. Onset of coitus at early stage

B. Multiple sexual partners

C. Lower socioeconomic status

D. Nulliparity

E. H/o veneral disease

Answer: D.Nulliparity
59. Best treatment for severe stress incontinence without prolapse is

A. Pelvic floor exercise

B. Kelly’s repair

C. Burch colposuspension

D. MMK operation

E. Urethral collagen implant

Answer: B.Kelly’s repair

60. Bartholin’s gland duct opens in…..

A. Upper third of labia majora

B. Middle third of labia majora

C. Upper third of labia minora

D. Middle third of labia minora

E. none

Answer: D.Middle third of labia minora

61. A 19-year-old female comes to the physician because of left lower quadrant pain for 2 months. She
states that she first noticed the pain 2 months ago but now it seems to be growing worse. She has had
no changes in bowel or bladder function. She has no fevers or chills and no nausea, vomiting, or
diarrhea. The pain is intermittent and sometimes feels like a dull pressure. Pelvic examination is
significant for a left adnexal mass that is mildly tender. Urine hCG is negative. Pelvic ultrasound shows a
6 cm complex left adnexal mass with features consistent with a benign cystic teratoma (dermoid). Which
of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Repeat pelvic examination in 1 year

B. Repeat pelvic ultrasound in 6 weeks

C. Prescribe the oral contraceptive pill

D. Perform hysteroscopy

E. perform laparotomy

Answer: E.perform laparotomy

62. A 54-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has no complaints. For
the past year, she has been taking tamoxifen for the prevention of breast cancer. She was started on this
drug after her physician determined her to be at high risk on the basis of her strong family history,
nulliparity, and early age at menarche. She takes no other medications. Examination is within normal
limits. Which of the following is this patient most likely to develop while taking tamoxifen?

A. Breast cancer

B. Elevated LDL cholesterol

C. Endometrial changes

D. Myocardial infarction
E. Osteoporosis

Answer: C.Endometrial changes

63. A 62-year-old woman comes to the physician because of bleeding from the vagina. She states that
her last menstrual period came 11 years ago and that she has had no bleeding since that time. She has
hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. Examination shows a mildly obese woman in no apparent
distress. Pelvic examination is unremarkable. An endometrial biopsy is performed that shows grade I
endometrial adenocarcinoma. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A. Chemotherapy

B. Cone biopsy

C. Dilation and curettage

D. Hysteroscopy

E. Hysterectomy

Answer: E.Hysterectomy

64. Ovarian precursors of oestradiol include :

A. Oestrone

B. Androstenedione

C. Testosterone
D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: D.All of the above

65. Female patient with endometrial hyperplasia could be all of these except:

A. thecoma

B. fibroma

C. Brenner tumor

D. follicular cyst

E. none

Answer: B.fibroma

66. Endometroid cyst, on examination:

A. adenexal tenderness

B. cyst felt in thin people

C. cyst fixed and tender

D. all of the above .

E. none

Answer: D.all of the above .

67. Considering epithelial neoplasm of the ovaries all true except :

A. the commonest

B. mucinous cystadenoma lined by tubal epithelium

C. Brenner tumor lined by urinary tract epithelium

D. embryologically arise from wolffian epithelium .

E. none

Answer: B.mucinous cystadenoma lined by tubal epithelium

68. The Commonest ovarian neoplasm complicated with torsion during pregnancy:

A. fibroma

B. teratoma

C. simple serous cyst

D. thecoma .
E. none

Answer: B.teratoma

69. Female patient with acute abdomen , CBC normal , B-HCG negative , No vaginal bleeding , Mostly is :

A. hemorrhagic teratoma

B. disturbed ectopic pregnancy

C. appendicitis

D. peritonitis .

E. none

Answer: A.hemorrhagic teratoma

70. Considering mucinous cystadenoma :

A. the commonest neoplasm

B. usually bilateral

C. sometimes fill the entire abdominal cavity

D. lined by tubal epithelium .

E. none

Answer: C.sometimes fill the entire abdominal cavity

71. Considering Brenner tumor all true except :

A. potential malignant is common

B. histologically has epithelial nests and coffe bean nuclei

C. vaginal bleeding reported with it

D. usually in childbearing women

E. none

Answer: D.usually in childbearing women

72. Considering Meig’s syndrome it is associated with :

A. ovarian fibroma

B. left side pleural effusion

C. ascitis

D. a&b
E. a&c

Answer: E.a&c

73. Considering malignant ovarian neoplasm histologically may be all except :

A. epithelial tumors

B. germ cells tumor

C. cystic and solid tumors

D. sex cord tumors .

E. none

Answer: C.cystic and solid tumors

74. For endometrial cyst all true except :

A. choclate cyst on TVS

B. laparoscope is indicated

C. C125 is a specific test

D. associated with dysmenoorrhoea .

E. none
Answer: C.C125 is a specific test

75. Female patient with history of induction of ovulation present with tender lowerabdominal pain and
discomfort , TVS show cyst , Next step is :

A. assurance sending home

B. hold ovarian stimulatin drug

C. laparotomy

D. non of the above .

E. none

Answer: B.hold ovarian stimulatin drug

76. Considering endometroid cyst :

A. not uncommon

B. due to menstrual reaction

C. torsion is common

D. a&b .

E. all the above

Answer: D.a&b .

77. Considering endometrial cyst ttt all true except :

A. GNRH is of benefit

B. laparosope idicated in small cyst

C. laparotomy is preferred

D. recurrence is not common

E. none

Answer: D.recurrence is not common

78. Considering the follicular cyst it is rarely associated with :

A. endometrial hyperplasia

B. acute abdomen

C. polycystic ovary

D. On PV in obese patient it may rupture .

E. none
Answer: B.acute abdomen

79. Female patient with history of endometriosis , menstrual disorders complaining from pain on right
iliac fossa , on examination there was tenderness on right iliac fossa with no rebound pain no rigidity ,
on CBC it was normal , most likely :

A. peritonitis

B. appendicitis

C. follicular cyst

D. non of the above

E. none

Answer: C.follicular cyst

80. Considering a case of follicular cyst it need all of following except :

A. assurance follow up

B. OCP

C. usually surgical removal

D. repeated US

E. none
Answer: C.usually surgical removal

81. Considering the follicular cyst all of following is true except :

A. associated with metropathia hemorrhagica

B. OCP indicated in ttt

C. the second common functional cyst

D. TAS is the gold standard diagnostic method

E. none

Answer: C.the second common functional cyst

82. Considering the endometroid cyst :

A. associated with dysmenorrhoea

B. associated with pelvic pain

C. associatd with pelvic endometriosis

D. All of the above

E. none
Answer: D.All of the above

83. Female patient with history of hydatiform and complaining of lower abdominal pain , on
examination there was tenderness on palpation and the lab result show high level of HCG , most likely to
be :

A. follicular cyst

B. theca lutein cyst

C. corpus luteum cyst

D. none of the above .

E. all

Answer: B.theca lutein cyst

84. A 29-year-old G4P4 is found to have an abnormal smear signed out as atypical glandular cells,
favouring neoplasia. She undergoes a colposcopy with cervical biopsies. One of the ectocervical biopsies
demonstrated adenocarcinima in the situ. The most appropriate next step is:

A. Vaginal hysterectomy

B. Radical hysterectomy/Radiotherapy

C. Cold-knife conization of the cervix

D. Loop excision of the cervical tranformation zone

E. none

Answer: C.Cold-knife conization of the cervix

85. The following about human papilloma virus (HPV) infection are correct EXCEPT:

A. It is the most common viral STDs.

B. It may lead CIN and cervical cancer.

C. It is due to RNA virus.

D. Infection may be warty or flat condyloma.

E. Infection is usually associated with others STDs.

Answer: C.It is due to RNA virus.

86. The lymphatic drainage of the cervix is to the following lymph nodes EXCEPT:

A. The femoral lymph nodes.

B. The internal iliac lymph nodes.

C. The para-cervical lymph nodes.

D. The pre-sacral lymh nodes.

E. The Obturator lymph nodes

Answer: A.The femoral lymph nodes.

87. The commonest secondary change in uterine fibroids is:

A. Fatty degeneration

B. Myxomatous degeneration.

C. Hyaline degeneration

D. Cystic degeneration

E. Calcification

Answer: C.Hyaline degeneration

88. The following is correct about the ovarian ligaments:

A. Contain ureters.

B. Contain ovarian arteries.

C. Are attached laterally to pelvic wall.

D. Lie anterior to the broad ligament.

E. Are homologous to part of the gubernaculums testis in the male

Answer: B.Contain ovarian arteries.

89. The severity of CIN is graded

A. 1-3

B. 1a-4a

C. I-III+ I-IV

D. A-C

E. none

Answer: A.1-3

90. Cervical polyps

A. causes spontaneous abortion

B. are cause of antepartum hge

C. cause watery vaginal discharge

D. are covered by squamous epithelium

E. cause intermenstrual bleeding

Answer: E.cause intermenstrual bleeding

91. Involves pelvic LN clearance, hysterectomy, removal of the parametrium and theupper third of the
vagina.

A. Wartman’s hysterectomy

B. Wertheim’s hysterectomy

C. Wertheims Trachelectomy

D. Radical trachelectomy

E. Trachelems hysterectomy

Answer: B.Wertheim’s hysterectomy

92. 5 year survival for someone with stage 3-4 cervical carcinoma

A. 10-30%!!!

B. 80-95%

C. 2-10%

D. 65-80%

E. 45-60%
Answer: A.10-30%!!!

93. Cervical carcinoma spread and staging: Microinvasion of the basement membrane, <7mm across,
with no lymph/vascular space invasion

A. Stage 1b

B. Stage 3

C. Stage 4

D. Stage 1a

E. Stage 2a

Answer: D.Stage 1a

94. Acetic acid turns a portion of the cervix _____ in a patient with a CIN

A. Green

B. Blue

C. Brown

D. Orange

E. White

Answer: E.White
95. Typical cells are found only in the lower third of the epithelium

A. CIN III

B. CIN I

C. CIN V

D. CIN IV

E. CIN II

Answer: E.CIN II

96. A 42-year-old G4P4 has had postcoital bleeding for the past four months. She has not had a Pap test
since the delivery of her last child 7 years ago. Speculum examination shows a vaginal discharge and a 1
cm exophytic lesion of the posterior cervical lip. The most appropriate next step is:

A. Perform a Pap smear

B. Perform a cold-knife conization

C. Give the patient a course of intravaginal Metronidazole gel followed by reexamination in 6 weeks

D. Perform a punch biopsy of the lesion

E. none
Answer: D.Perform a punch biopsy of the lesion

97. The area where cervical carcinoma usually originates

A. Neoplastic zone

B. Metaplastic field

C. Retrograde area

D. Transformation zone

E. Transition field

Answer: D.Transformation zone

98. Cervical carcinoma is most common between the ages of

A. 45-55

B. 16-18

C. 18-22

D. 35-45

E. 25-35

Answer: A.45-55
99. Cervical carcinoma characteristically spreads in the

A. Tissue

B. Lymph

C. Bone

D. Blood

E. Mucus

Answer: B.Lymph

100. Which of the following is thought to be protective against CIN?

A. HIV

B. Oral contraceptive usage

C. Long term sexual abstinence

D. Smoking

E. Long term steroid use

Answer: C.Long term sexual abstinence

101. Cervical carcinoma that can be treated with cone biopsy

A. Stage 5

B. Stage 1a

C. Stage 3

D. Stage 2a

E. Stage 4a

Answer: B.Stage 1a

102. The presence of atypical cells within the squamous epithelium

A. Cervical dyskaryosis

B. Nabothian follicles

C. Dysplasic dyskaryosis

D. Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

E. Cervicitis

Answer: D.Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia

103. 5 year survival for someone with stage 1a cervical carcinoma

A. 95%

B. 10%

C. 30%

D. 80%

E. 60%

Answer: A.95%

104. Cervical carcinoma spread and staging: Invasion of the lower vagina or pelvicwall, or causing
ureteric obstruction

A. Stage 1a

B. Stage 4

C. Stage 3

D. Stage 2a

E. Stage 1b

Answer: C.Stage 3

105. HPV types _________ are the most significant and account for 70% of allcervical cancers
A. 45 and 46

B. 31 and 33

C. 14 and 16

D. 16 and 18

E. 12 and 14

Answer: D.16 and 18

106. Anovulatory infertility in PCO is due to:

A. alteration of folliculogenesis caused by dysregulation of GnRH pulse generator

B. alteration of folliculogenesis caused by adrenal & ovarian hyperandrogenism

C. alteration of folliculogenesis caused by insulin resistance

D. alteration in folliculogenesis caused by alteration of ovarian growth factors

E. all of the above

Answer: E.all of the above

107. Ovarian tumors which may produce chorionic gonadotrophins include :

A. Dysgerminoma
B. Teratoma

C. Choriocarcinoma

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: D.All of the above

108. Pathology of endometriosis may be explained by :

A. coelemic metaplasia

B. endometrial hyperplasia

C. retrograde menstruation

D. intraperitoneal immunologic deficit

E. lymphatic diffusion

Answer: C.retrograde menstruation

109. The cysts in Polycystic Ovarian syndrome are formed by:

A. Failure of atretic follicles to undergo apoptosis

B. Oocyte proliferation

C. Multiple corpus lutea

D. Cystic degeneration of ovarian cortex

E. none

Answer: A.Failure of atretic follicles to undergo apoptosis

110. An ‘ in situ ‘ stage has not been officially recognized in which of the following :

A. Ovarian carcinoma

B. Endometrial carcinoma

C. Cervical carcinoma

D. Vulvar carcinoma

E. Vaginal carcinoma

Answer: A.Ovarian carcinoma

111. The gastrointestinal primary of a Krukenberg tumour of the ovary is most oftenfound in the :

A. Gall bladder
B. Rectum

C. Pylorus

D. Colon

E. Small intestine

Answer: C.Pylorus

112. Functional ovarian cysts include:

A. Follicular cysts.

B. Endometriomas.

C. Dermoid cysts.

D. fibromas.

E. none

Answer: A.Follicular cysts.

113. In contrast to a malignant ovarian tumor, a benign tumor has which of the following gross features?

A. Excrescences on the surface.

B. Peritoneal implants.

C. Intra-cystic papillations.

D. Free mobility.

E. Capsule rupture.

Answer: D.Free mobility.

114. A 54-year-old woman is found to have endometrial hyperplasia on endometrialbiopsy. A functional

ovarian tumor to be suspected is a:

A. Lipid cell tumor.

B. Granulosa-theca cell tumor.

C. Sertoli-Leydig yumor.

D. Muncious cystadenocarcinoma.

E. Polycystic ovary

Answer: B.Granulosa-theca cell tumor.

115. A uni-locular ovarian cyst measuring 4.4 cm by 4.9 cm found on routine ultrasonograrhy during the
8th week of gestation . best management for this case is

A. observation and repeated ultrasonography

B. laparoscoic aspiration of the cyst

C. immediate laparotomy and cystectomy

D. immediate laparotomy and ovariectomy

E. laparotomy and cystectomy postponed to 14 weeks

Answer: A.observation and repeated ultrasonography

116. Germ cell tumours include all the following except

A. choriocarcinoma

B. gonadoblastoma

C. endodermal sinus tumour

D. begnin cystic teratoma

E. solid teratoma

Answer: B.gonadoblastoma

117. Which is the major cause of cancer death in women?

A. Breast cancer
B. Cervical cancer

C. Endometrial cancer

D. Lung cancer

E. Ovarian cancer

Answer: A.Breast cancer

118. Endometrial carcinomas associated with estrogen therapy “ caused by unopposedestrogen therapy
“:

A. well differentiated

B. are deeply invasive

C. are sensitive to progesterone therapy

D. generally have poor prognosis

E. have high rates of reccurence

Answer: C.are sensitive to progesterone therapy

119. Ovarian cancer:

A. Separate FIGO staging systems exist for epithelial and sex-cord/stromal ovarian tumors
B. Granulosa Cell Tumor has an excellent prognosis because most patients present with early-stage
disease

C. Meigs’ syndrome consists of ascites; hydrothorax and a malignant ovarian tumor

D. Krukenberg tumours are metastatic ovarian neoplasms originating exclusively in the stomach

E. none

Answer: B.Granulosa Cell Tumor has an excellent prognosis because most patients present with early-
stage disease

120. Regarding ovarian tumours

A. adenocarcinoma is more commonly bilateral than mucinous

B. the use of oral contraceptives is a risk factor for ovarian cancer

C. Sertoli-Leydig tumours of the ovary are typically estrogen secreting

D. Fat saturation MRI images are of value in diagnosing cystic teratomas

E. RI (Resistive index) values of intratumoral areas can differentiate between benign and malignant
ovarian tumours

Answer: A.adenocarcinoma is more commonly bilateral than mucinous

121. A Krukenberg tumour is an ovarian neoplasm which :

A. Is primary in the ovary

B. Is associated with hydrothorax

C. Is secondary to any GIT cancer

D. Shows characteristic mucoid epithelial change

E. None of the above

Answer: D.Shows characteristic mucoid epithelial change

122. CA-125 is ?

A. A mucin-type glycoprtein

B. A ganglioside

C. A tumor-specific transplantation antigen

D. Useful for ovarian cancer screening in the general patient population

E. An antigen which is commonly expressed by mucinous ovarian carcinomas

Answer: A.A mucin-type glycoprtein

123. A young female came to you with complaint of oligomenorrhea ,hirsutism & weightgain ,US reveals
bulky ovaries with subcapsular cysts. Most likely diagnosis is

A. ovarian cancer
B. cushing syndrome

C. PCOD

D. DM

E. PID

Answer: C.PCOD

124. A large cystic tumour is detected in a woman in routine antenatal examination.The most common
complication she can encounter?

A. Torsion

B. rupture

C. hemorrhage

D. infection

E. degeneration

Answer: A.Torsion

125. A 18-year-old woman comes to the physician for an annual examination. She has no complaints.
She has been sexually active for the past 2 years. She uses the oral contraceptive pill for contraception.
She has depression for which she takes fluoxetine. She takes no other medications and has no allergies
to medications. Her family history is negative for cancer and cardiac disease. Examination is
unremarkable. Which of the following screening tests should this patient most likely have?
A. Colonoscopy

B. Mammogram

C. Pap smear

D. Pelvic ultrasound

E. Sigmoidoscopy

Answer: C.Pap smear

126. Hilus or Leydig cell tumour may be associated with :

A. Reinke crystals

B. Oestrogen effect on endometrium

C. Clinical virilism

D. All of the above

E. None of the above

Answer: D.All of the above

127. A multiparous woman aged 40 years, presents with menorahagia and progressively increasing
dysmenorrhoea. Most probable diagnosis is:
A. Ca Cervix

B. Ca Endometrium

C. Adenomyosis

D. DUB

E. none

Answer: C.Adenomyosis

128. Female with history of frequent micturition may be :

A. prolapse

B. incarcerated fibroma

C. pregnancy

D. a&c

E. all above .

Answer: E.all above .

129. Considering dysgerminoma all true except :

A. the commonest germ cell tumor

B. usually in young females

C. lymphatic spread is so late

D. elevate lactic dehydrogenase level .

E. none

Answer: C.lymphatic spread is so late

130. Ordering accord to the commonest cancers in female genital tract the right is :

A. cervical , endometrial ,ovarian

B. ovarian , cervical , endometrial

C. endometrial , cervical , ovarian

D. endometrial , ovarian , cervical .

E. none

Answer: C.endometrial , cervical , ovarian

131. Female came to the ER with Bp 80/60 and pulse 125 with history of acute abdomen , next step is

A. laparotomy
B. iv fluids

C. CBC

D. PV examination

E. none

Answer: B.iv fluids

132. Considering ovarian cancer :

A. surgery is preferred to be last line

B. early discovered with good prognosis

C. chemotherapy is good in most tumors

D. germ cell tumors show good response to chemotherapy

E. none

Answer: D.germ cell tumors show good response to chemotherapy

133. A 48-year-old woman has noted a small amount of irregular vaginal bleeding for the past 2 months.
She has a pelvic examination that reveals no cervical lesions, and a Pap smear that shows no abnormal
cells. Next, an endometrial biopsy is performed, and there is microscopic evidence for endometrial
hyperplasia. An abdominal ultrasound reveals a solid right ovarian mass. Which of the following
neoplasms is this woman is most likely to have?
A. Mature cystic teratoma

B. Choriocarcinoma

C. Sertoli-Leydig cell tumor

D. Fibrothecoma

E. Krukenberg tumor

Answer: D.Fibrothecoma

134. Vaginal adenocarcinomas in children is caused by

A. Virus

B. Administration of DES to pregnant mothers

C. Hormonal changes

D. All of the above

E. none

Answer: B.Administration of DES to pregnant mothers

135. Carcinoma cervix with involvement of upper 2/3 of vagina is stage

A. II

B. II B

C. III A

D. III B

E. none

Answer: A.II

136. A 47-year-old woman has noted a pressure sensation, but no pain, in her pelvic region for the past
5 months. On physical examination there is a right adnexal mass. An ultrasound scan shows a 10 cm
fluid-filled cystic mass in the right ovary. A fine needle aspirate of the mass is performed and cytologic
examination of clear fluid aspirated from the mass reveals clusters of malignant epithelial cells
surrounding psammoma bodies. Which of the following neoplasms is she most likely to have?

A. Endometrial adenocarcinoma

B. Ovarian serous cystadenocarcinoma

C. Mesothelioma

D. Ovarian mature cystic teratoma

E. Adenocarcinoma of fallopian tube

Answer: B.Ovarian serous cystadenocarcinoma

137. Ovarian masses:

A. Are malignant in presence of ascites

B. Include benign teratomas

C. Of germ cell origin may secrete hormones

D. May be confused with develpomental abnormalities of renal tract

E. If malignant can be reliably staged pre-operatively

Answer: B.Include benign teratomas

138. A 4-year-old girl is noted to have breast enlargement and vaginal bleeding. On physical
examination, she is noted to have a 9-cm pelvic mass. Which of the following is the most likely etiology?

A. Cystic teratoma

B. Dysgerminoma

C. Endodermal sinus tumor

D. Granulosa cell tumor

E. Mucinous tumor

Answer: D.Granulosa cell tumor

139. Current modes of investigation for infertility to check functioning of tubes are all of the following
execpt:

A. Air insufflation

B. Sonosalpingography

C. Hysterrosalpingography

D. Laparoscopic chromotubation

E. all of the above

Answer: E.all of the above

140. Before puberty, what is the ratio between the cervical length and uterine body ?

A. 1 : 2

B. 2 : 1

C. 1 : 3

D. 1 : 4

E. none

Answer: B.2 : 1

141. As regard mastalgia:

A. in cyclic mastalgia pain is usaully max. postmenestrual

B. is treaeted surgically

C. bromocriptine may be used

D. gammaleinoliec acid is contraindicated

E. none

Answer: C.bromocriptine may be used

142. Pap smear

A. the next step in dysplastic smear is colposcopy

B. is simple but inaccurate

C. should be carried out every 5 years

D. has no role in screening of assymptomatic women

E. all of the above

Answer: A.the next step in dysplastic smear is colposcopy

143. A 40-years-old female with history of fibroid on investigation showed CIN-2 changes. Treatment of
choice in this case is :
A. Hysterectomy

B. Conization

C. Cryotherapy

D. Laser ablation

E. none

Answer: A.Hysterectomy

144. Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding (DUB) is defined as abnormal uterine bleeding ?

A. Secondary to hormonal dysfunction

B. Caused by cancer

C. In a patient with von Willebrand’s disease

D. With no organic cause

E. Caused by an endometrial polyp

Answer: D.With no organic cause

145. Abnormal Uterine bleeding (AUB) is defined by all of the following except ?

A. Excessive Blood loss (>80 ml) during menses

B. Menstrual length less than 7 days

C. An interval of less than 21 days between the starts of successive menses

D. Irregular bleeding episodes between menses

E. Extended (>35 days) intervals between menses

Answer: B.Menstrual length less than 7 days

146. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding is said to present when there is bleeding due to :

A. Fibroid

B. Endometriosis

C. Irregular ripening and irregular shedding

D. Chronic endometritis

E. none

Answer: C.Irregular ripening and irregular shedding

147. Post menopausal bleeding does not occur in….

A. Use of combined OCP’s

B. Atrophic vaginitis

C. Endometrial hyperplasia

D. CA-Endometrium

E. none

Answer: A.Use of combined OCP’s

148. Bicornute uterus may predispose to all the following except:

A. recurrent PTL

B. primary amenorrhea

C. retention of placenta after delivery

D. menorrhagia

E. none

Answer: B.primary amenorrhea

149. A couple presented in OPD with H/0 infertility since last 2 years. Husbands semen analysis was
advised. What is WHO criterion – for minimum sperm count in normal semen?

A. 10 million.
B. 20 million.

C. 30 million.

D. 40 million.

E. 70 million.

Answer: B.20 million.

150. A 23 years old primigravida presents with abdominal pain, syncope and vaginal spotting.
Assessment reveals that she has an ectopic pregnancy. The most common site of pregnancy is:

A. Ampulla.

B. Isthmus.

C. Fimbrial end.

D. Abdomin.

E. Cervix.

Answer: A.Ampulla.

151. Mean age for menopause is:

A. 40 years.
B. 45 years.

C. 51 years.

D. 48 years.

E. 39 years.

Answer: C.51 years.

152. Second degree uterovaginal prolapse is characterized by:

A. Complete protrusion of uterus outside introitus.

B. Descent of genital tract within vagina.

C. Descent of genital tract upto introitus.

D. Descent of genital tract outside the introitus.

E. Descent of cervix below the ischeal spines.

Answer: D.Descent of genital tract outside the introitus.

153. A 63 years old lady presents with abdominal mass and weight loss, was diagnosed as having an
ovarian tumour. The most common ovarian tumour in this woman would be:

A. Epithelial tumour.

B. Germ cell tumour.

C. Stromal tumour.

D. Sex cord tumour.

E. Trophoblastic tumour.

Answer: A.Epithelial tumour.

154. A young girl, 23 years old is presented with complaint of abdominal pain, menorrhagia and 18
weeks size mass arising from hypogastrium. The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Endometriosis.

B. Pelvic inflammatory disease.

C. Ovarian cyst.

D. Fibroid uterus.

E. Mesenteric cyst.

Answer: D.Fibroid uterus.

155. A 25 years old school teacher Para 1 wants to use oral contraceptive pills for contraception. She is
asking about the mode of action of oral contraceptive pills. The mechanism of action of oral
contraceptive pills is:

A. Inhibiting ovulation by suppression of serum FSH.

B. Inducing endometrial atrophy.

C. Increasing cervical mucous hostility.

D. Inducing endometritis.

E. Inhibiting prolactin.

Answer: A.Inhibiting ovulation by suppression of serum FSH.

156. Women complaining of milky whitish discharge with fishy odour. No history of itching. Most likely
diagnosis is:

A. Bacterial vaginosis.

B. Trichomoniasis.

C. Candidiasis.

D. Malignancy.

E. Urinary tract infection.

Answer: A.Bacterial vaginosis.

157. A young medical student has come to you with complaints of oligomenorrrhea, hirsuitism and
weight gain, ultrasound reveals bulky ovaries with sub-capsular cysts. Most likely diagnosis is:

A. Ovarian cancer.
B. Cushing’s syndrome.

C. Polycystic ovarian disease.

D. Diabetes mellitus.

E. Pelvic inflammatory disease.

Answer: C.Polycystic ovarian disease.

158. A 43 year old, lecturer has come to you with complaints of heavy but regular menstrual bleeding
with flooding and clots. There is no anatomical reason for heavy flow. The most effective remedy for
reducing her menstrual flow is:

A. Tranexemic acid.

B. Dilatation and Curettage.

C. Depomedroxy progesterone acetate.

D. Misoprostol.

E. Ergometrine maleate.

Answer: A.Tranexemic acid.

159. A 39 years old women Para 6 has presented with complaint of post coital bleeding for the past
three months. Your first investigation should be:

A. Dilatation & Curettage.

B. Cone biopsy of cervix.

C. Pap smear.

D. Colposcopy.

E. Laparoscopy.

Answer: C.Pap smear.

160. A 28 years old woman has 14 weeks size irregular uterus. She does not complain of abdominal pain
or menorrhagia. Her pap smear is normal. The best next step in her management would be:

A. Continued observation.

B. Endometrial biopsy.

C. Hysterectomy.

D. Pelvic ultrasonography.

E. Laparoscopy.

Answer: D.Pelvic ultrasonography.

161. The most effective treatment of pruritis vulvae associated with atrophic vulvitis is:

A. Antihistamines.
B. Hydrocortisone.

C. Alcohol injections.

D. Tranquilizers.

E. Topical estrogen therapy.

Answer: E.Topical estrogen therapy.

162. The most common cause of rectovaginal fistula is:

A. Obstetrical.

B. Irradiation of the pelvis.

C. Carcinoma.

D. Crohn’s disease.

E. Endometriosis.

Answer: A.Obstetrical.

163. A 40 years old multiparous woman complains of involuntary loss of urine associated with coughing,
laughing, lifting or standing. The history is most suggestive of:

A. Fistula.
B. Stress incontinence.

C. Urge incontinence.

D. Urethral diverticulum.

E. Urinary tract infection.

Answer: B.Stress incontinence.

164. A 28 years old G3 P2 has presented with complaints of brownish vaginal discharge, passage of
vesicles and excessive vomiting. Ultrasound scan shows snowstorm appearance in uterus with no fetus.
The most likely diagnosis is:

A. Septic induced abortion.

B. Twin pregnancy.

C. Gestational trophoblastic disease.

D. Ectopic pregnancy.

E. Fibroid uterus.

Answer: C.Gestational trophoblastic disease.

165. The maximum number of oogonia are formed at what ageof female life:

A. One month intrauterine.

B. Five month intrauterine.

C. At birth.

D. At puberty.

E. At 21 years of age.

Answer: B.Five month intrauterine.

166. Menarche usually occurs at age of:

A. 8 and 10 years.

B. 11 and 13 years.

C. 14 and 16 years.

D. 17 and 18 years.

E. 18 and above.

Answer: B.11 and 13 years.

167. The most common cause of vesicovaginal fistula (VVF) in under developed countries would be:

A. Obstetrical injuries.
B. Pelvic irradiation.

C. Carcinoma .

D. Haemorrhoidectomy.

E. Operative injury.

Answer: A.Obstetrical injuries.

168. A 28 year old patient complains of amenorrhea after having dilatation and curettage. The most
likely diagnosis is:

A. Kallman’s Syndrome.

B. Turner’s Syndrome.

C. Asherman’s Syndrome.

D. Pelvic inflammatory disease.

E. Anorexia nervosa.

Answer: C.Asherman’s Syndrome.

169. A large cystic ovarian tumour is detected in a woman on routine antenatal check up. The most
common complication she can encounter is:

A. Torsion.
B. Rupture.

C. Haemorrhage.

D. Degeneration.

E. Infection.

Answer: A.Torsion.

170. Which of the following is used to take cervical smear:

A. Colposcope.

B. Vaginoscope.

C. Ayre’s spatula.

D. Laparoscope.

E. Forceps.

Answer: C.Ayre’s spatula.

171. Normal duration of menstrual cycle is:

A. 1-3 days.
B. 1-4 days.

C. 2-7 days.

D. 7-10 days.

E. 1-2 days.

Answer: C.2-7 days.

172. a 20 year old medical student presents with five years history of weight gain, irregular periods and
worsening fascial hair. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Polycystic ovarian disease.

B. Hypothyroidism.

C. Obesity.

D. Cushing’s Syndrome.

E. Nephrotic Syndrome.

Answer: A.Polycystic ovarian disease.

173. 28 years old woman with previous history of having baby with Down’s Syndrome is now 12 weeks
pregnant. Which of the following would you suggest to her:

A. Amniocentesis.
B. Obstetric ultrasound.

C. Chorionic villus sampling.

D. Fetal blood sampling.

E. Wait till eighteen weeks for detailed ultrasound and amniocentesis.

Answer: C.Chorionic villus sampling.

174. A newly married girl comes to gynae OPD with history of dysuria, burning, micturition and sore
perineum. What is your likely diagnosis:

A. Trichomonas vaginalis.

B. Candida infection.

C. Trauma due to coitus.

D. Honey moon cystitis.

E. Genital herpes.

Answer: D.Honey moon cystitis.

175. Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) stimulates the release of:

A. ACTH.

B. Growth hormone.
C. Leutinising Hormone (LH).

D. Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH).

E. Opiate peptides.

Answer: C.Leutinising Hormone (LH).

176. Serum prolactin levels are highest in which of the following conditions:

A. Menopause.

B. Ovulation.

C. Parturition.

D. Sleep.

E. Running.

Answer: C.Parturition.

177. Main uterine support is:

A. Uterosacral ligaments.

B. Round ligaments.
C. Transverse cervical ligaments.

D. Ovarian ligaments.

E. Broad ligaments.

Answer: C.Transverse cervical ligaments.

178. The most likely cause of abnormal uterine bleeding in 13years old girl is:

A. Uterine cancer.

B. Ectopic pregnancy.

C. Anovulation.

D. Systemic bleeding diatheses.

E. Trauma.

Answer: C.Anovulation.

179. Which of the following pubertal event would occur even in the absence of ovarian estrogen
production:

A. Thelarche.

B. Menarche.
C. Pubarche.

D. Skeletal growth.

E. Vaginal cornification.

Answer: C.Pubarche.

180. 58 years old woman has presented with complaints of postmenopausal bleeding for the past two
weeks. The most essential investigation would be:

A. Colposcopy.

B. Pap smear.

C. Cone biopsy.

D. D & C (dilatation & Curettage).

E. Hysteroscopy.

Answer: D.D & C (dilatation & Curettage).

181. Red degeneration of fibroid is seen in ?

A. Early pregnancy

B. Mid pregnancy

C. Puperium
D. Nulliparous women

Answer: B

182. Radical hysterectomy in stage lb ca cervix better than radiotherapy all are true except ?

A. Chance of survival more

B. Chance of recurrence less

C. Ovary function can be preserved

D. Less complicated

Answer: A

183. Bilateral ovarian carcinoma + capsule + ascitis+ paraaortic LN. Which stage ?

A. 1C

B. 2C

C. 3C

D. 4C

Answer: A

184. Radiation to point A in cervix is ?

A. 8000 rad

B. 6000 rad

C. 10000 rad

D. 4000 rad
Answer: A

185. Most common presentation of cervical cancer is

A. Deep pelvic pain

B. Rectal pain

C. Bleeding per vaginum

D. Weight loss

Answer: C

186. Treatment of simple hyperplasia of endometrium is ?

A. Progesterone

B. Estrogen

C. Hysterectomy

D. Cryosurgery

Answer: A

187. Most common presenting feature of complete mole is ?

A. Vomiting

B. Amenorrhoea

C. Amenorrhoea

D. Bleeding per vaginum

Answer: D

188. Androgenic XX chromosome is ?

A. Partial mole

B. Complete mole

C. Turner’s syndrome

D. Stein leventhal syndrome

Answer: B

189. High chance of rupture in tubal pregnancy are seen in which ?

A. Ampulla

B. Isthmus

C. Interstitial

D. Fimbrial

Answer: B

190. Most common site of ectopic pregnancy is

A. Tubal

B. Abdominal

C. Ovarian

D. Uterine
Answer: A

191. % of ectopic pregnancy seen in fallopian tube is?

A. 75%

B. 90%

C. 80%

D. 67%

Answer: B

192. Drugs used in ectopic pregnancy ?

A. PGE2

B. PGI

C. PGF2

D. None

Answer: C

193. Most common congenital uterine anomaly is ?

A. Bicornuate uterus

B. Septate uterus

C. Unicornuate uterus

D. Arcuate uterus
Answer: B

194. When is copper T inserted ?

A. 3 days after periods are over

B. Within 10 days of start of menstrual cycle

C. PID just before menstruation

D. Just after menstruation

Answer: B

195. Most common cause of annular cervix is ?

A. Obstructive labor

B. Prepitate labor

C. Primary cervical dystocia

D. Iatrogenic

Answer: C

196. Intrauterine adhesions best seen by?

A. USG

B. CT

C. Hysteroscopy

D. MRI

Answer: C
197. Insulin resistance in pregnancy is due to ?

A. Estrogen

B. Progesterone

C. HPL

D. GH

Answer: A:C

198. Gestational diabetes mellitus ?

A. Is first recognized during pregnancy

B. Previous history of IUGR

C. There is no recurrance of GDM in future pregnancy

D. No risk of overt diabetes

Answer: A

199. True about gestational diabetes is ?

A. These are increased chances of congenital malformation

B. Only 2% of women present with overt diabetes

C. There is chance of macrosomia

D. Usually diagnosed in early pregnancy

Answer: C
200. Most common presenting symptom of TB endometritis is

A. Abdominal pain

B. Infertility

C. Amenorrhoea

D. Vaginal discharge

Answer: B

201. PID after insertion of IUD is seen in how many weeks?

A. 3

B. 5

C. 7

D. 14

Answer: A

202. Acute PID, most common route of spread ?

A. Descending

B. Ascending infection

C. Lymphatics

D. Hematogenous

Answer: B
203. Best way to look at endometrial activity is by

A. HSG

B. Biopsy

C. USG

D. Colposcopy

Answer: B

204. Block given in forceps delivery ?

A. Pudendal

B. Ilio inguinal

C. Genitofemoral

D. Posterior femoral

Answer: A

205. Cause of big baby ?

A. Hyperglycemia

B. Hyperinsulinemia

C. Multiparity

D. Post maturity

Answer: A:B:C:D
206. Decubitus ulcer is ?

A. Due to trauma

B. Due to venous congestion

C. Due to friction created by thighs

D. Due to

Answer: B

207. Patient with history of vaginal prolapse with ulcer on it. Diagnosis ?

A. Carcinoma

B. Pressure erosion

C. Syphilis

D. Decubitus ulcer

Answer: D

208. SERMs are ?

A. Agonist on estrogen receptor

B. Antagonist on estrogen receptor

C. Some are agonist some antagonist on estrogen receptor

D. Used due to reduced chances of hot flushes, thromboembolism

Answer: C

209. Female with hirsutism with ammenorrhoea and obesity. Diagnosis ?

A. PCOD

B. Ovarian tumor

C. Androgen insensitivity syndrome

D. Turner syndrome

Answer: A

210. HAIRAN syndrome is seen in ?

A. PCOD

B. Endometeriosis

C. CA ovary

D. Adrenal tumours

Answer: A

211. Regarding PCOD all are true except ?

A. High FSH/LH

B. High DHEA

C. Raised LH

D. T Estrogen

Answer: A

212. Which hormone increases in PCOD ?

A. LH
B. FSH

C. Estrogen

D. TSH

Answer: A

213. Stein Levinthal syndrome what hormone is raised?

A. LH

B. FSH

C. GnRH

D. Progesterone

Answer: A

214. What should not be done during delivery of Rh negative?

A. IV Fluids

B. External version

C. Manual removal of placenta should be done gently

D. Ergometire to be withheld at delivery of ant. shoulder

Answer: A

215. History of yellow green watery discharge and pruritus?

A. Trichomonas vaginalis

B. Candida
C. Bacterial vaginosis

D. Clamydia tracomatis

Answer: B

216. Most common genital infection in pregnancy is ?

A. Candida

B. Gonorrhea

C. Trachoma

D. Cytomegalo virus

Answer: A

217. Decreased fetal heart sound is due to which drug

A. Oxytocin

B. Sodium bicarbonate

C. IV fluids

D. Iron

Answer: A

218. Dose of mifepristone in MTP is ?

A. 10mg

B. 20 mg
C. 100mg

D. 200mg

Answer: A

219. A young sexually active female has intensive pruritus and watery discharge, smear shows ?

A. Trichomonas vaginalis

B. Candida vaginitis

C. Gardenlla vaginalis

D. HIV

Answer: D

220. Treatment for trichomonas vaginalis is ?

A. Metronidazole

B. Azithromycin

C. Ciprofloxacin

D. None

Answer: A

221. Which organism causes puerperal sepsis ?

A. CMV

B. Toxoplasma gondii

C. Group A beta hemolytic streptococci

D. Group B beta hemolytic streptococci

Answer: C

222. The prostaglandin most commonly used at term for induction of labor is ?

A. PGI2

B. PGE1

C. PGE2

D. PGF2a

Answer: C

223. HCG levels at which Expectant management of Ectopic pregnancy can be done :

A. 10000 IU/L

B. 1000 IU/L

C. 2500 IU/L

D. 5000 IU/L

Answer: B

224. MC cause of Primary Amenorrhea is ?

A. Constitutional/idiopathic

B. RMKH syndrome

C. Ovarian dysgenesis

D. None of the above

Answer: C

225. An infertile woman has bilateral tubal block at cornua diagnosed on hysterosalpingography. Next
treatment of choice is ?

A. IVF

B. Laparoscopy and hysteroscopy

C. Tuboplasty

D. Hydrotubation

Answer: B

226. Fetal karyotyping can be done by all, EXCEPT?

A. Cordocentesis

B. Amniocentesis

C. CVS

D. Fetal skin biopsy

Answer: D

227. 55 year old lady complaints of mass in the vagina, which is reducible & increases on defecation. The
diagnosis is?

A. Rectal prolapse

B. Uterine prolapse

C. Cervical fibroid
D. Vaginal cancer

Answer: B

228. Moschowit’s surgery is done for

A. Cervical cancer

B. Fundal fibroids

C. Uterine prolapse

D. Enterocele prevention

Answer: D

229.Which of the following is used in quantifying hirsutism?

A. Bishop score

B. Rotterdam criteria

C. Ferriman-Gallwey score

D. All of the above

Answer: C

230. MC heart disease in pregnancy is ?

A. MS

B. AS
C. MR

D. WPW syndrome

Answer: A

231. Rate of cervical dilatation in primigravida is ?

A. 0.8 cm/hour

B. 1.2 cm/hour

C. 1.5 cm/hour

D. 2 cm/hour

Answer: A

232. Complications of pre eclampsia are all except ?

A. Post datism

B. DIC

C. Blindness

D. None of the above

Answer: A

233. What is monitored in a patient of pre eclamsia ?

A. Uric acid

B. Platelet count

C. LFT
D. All of the above

Answer: D

234. Not an absolute contraindication for methylergometrine use is ?

A. Eclampsia

B. Heart disease

C. Rh incompatibility

D. After delivery of first baby in twin pregnancy

Answer: C

235. A lady with 35 weeks of pregnancy is admitted in view of first episode of painless bout of bleeding
yesterday. On examination Hb 10g%, BP 120/70 mmHg, uterus relaxed, and cephalic floating. FHS
regular. Next line of management is ?

A. Cesarean section

B. Induction of labor

C. Wait and watch

D. Blood transfusion

Answer: C

236. G3P2L2 with previous 2 LSCS with anterior placenta previa has got a very high risk of which
complication?

A. Placenta acreta

B. Vasa previa

C. Abruption
D. None of the above

Answer: A

237. B-Lynch suture is applied on ?

A. Cervix

B. Uterus

C. Fallopian tubes

D. Ovaries

Answer: B

238. A 28-year-old primigravida with 33 weeks of pregnancy suddenly complains of headache, oliguria,
and blurred vision. Her BP is 180/110 and urine albumin is +3. The line of further management is ?

A. Wait and watch

B. LSCS

C. Induction of labor

D. Anticonvulsant + antihypertensive therapy

Answer: D

239. Which of the following statements concerning abdominal pregnancy is correct?

A. Gastrointestinal symptoms are quite often very severe

B. Fetal survival is approximately 80%

C. Aggressive attempts should be made to remove the placenta at

the time of initial surgery

D. Placenta can be left in situ at the time of surgery

Answer: D

240. Complete vesicular mole is associated Theca leutin csyts in what percentage of cases ?

A. <5

B. 5-15

C. 20-40

D. 60-70

Answer: C

241. Patient with 3 months amenorrhoea, c/o hyperemesis and vaginal bleeding since one month.
O/E=uterus 16 weeks with absent fetal heart sound. The diagnosis is ?

A. Vesicular mole

B. Ectopic pregnancy

C. IUFD

D. Abruptio placentae

Answer: A

242. Patient with choriocarcinoma & jaundice, treatment of choice is ?

A. Methotreaxate

B. Actinomycin D
C. Suction evacuation

D. Combination of all

Answer: B

243. EMACO regime is for ?

A. Ca cervix

B. Ca endometrium

C. Ca ovary

D. Chorio carcinoma

Answer: D

244. Stage lb cervical cancer is diagnosed in a young woman. Assuming that the cancer is confirmed to
the cervix and that intraoperative biopsies are negative, which of the following structure would not be
removed during the radical hysterectomy?

A. Uterosacral and uterovesical ligaments

B. Pelvic nodes

C. The entire parametrium on both sides of the cervix

D. Both ovaries

Answer: D

245. In vaginal hysterectomy, the first clamp includes:

A. Uterine artery

B. Fallopian tube & round ligament

C. Uterosacral ligament

D. None of the above

Answer: C

246. Therapeutic conization is indicated in?

A. Microinvasive carcinoma cervix stage lal

B. CIN III

C. Unsatisfactory colposcopy with cervical dysplasia

D. Cervical metaplasia

Answer: A

247. Cervical cancer III B treatment is ?

A. Wertheim’s operation

B. Radiotherapy

C. Chemotherapy

D. Chemoradiation

Answer: D

248. Wertheim’s hysterectomy is done for ?

A. 1A1 cervical cancer

B. IB cervical cancer

C. Germ cell ovarian cancer

D. All of the above

Answer: B

249. Radio isotope used in Ca cervix Brachytherapy ?

A. Cobalt

B. Iridium

C. Cesium

D. All of the above

Answer: D

250. Ca vulva spreads to all except ?

A. Urethra

B. Deep inguinal nodes

C. Superficial inguinal nodes

D. Paraaortic nodes

Answer: D

251. Which ovarian tumour can present with menorrhagia ?

A. Demoid cyst

B. Epithelial ovarian cancer

C. Granulosa cell tumour

D. Yolk sac tumour

Answer: C

252. All are risk factors for ectopic pregnancy except ?

A. Past history

B. Tubal ligation failure

C. IVF

D. LNG IUCD

Answer: D

253. A 21-year-old female presents to emergency ward with 2 months of amenorrhea with pain in
abdomen and shock. BP 90/60 mmHg and Hb 6 gm%. Urine pregnancy test is found positive. Next
immediate line of treatment is ?

A. Laparotomy

B. IV fluids & cross match

C. Medical management

D. Laparoscopy

Answer: B

254. DOC for medical management of ectopic pegnancy ?

A. Actinomycin D

B. Intramuscular Methotrexate

C. Intramuscular Methotrexate

D. PGf2 alpha
Answer: B

255. What is not used in PCOS ?

A. OC pills

B. Cyclical progesterones

C. Myoinositol

D. Danazol

Answer: D

256. Pearl necklace appearance is characteristic of ?

A. Ectopic pregnancy

B. PCOS

C. Endometriosis

D. PID

Answer: B

257. Violin string adhesion [violent string sign] is seen in ?

A. PCOS

B. Endometriosis

C. Fitz – high -curtis syndrome

D. Ruptured ectopic pregnancy

Answer: C

258. Dysgerminoma spreads mainly via ?

A. Hematogenous route

B. Lymphatic route

C. Direct spread

D. Does not spread

Answer: B

259. Triad of symptoms of endometriosis are all except ?

A. Infertility

B. Dysmenorrhea

C. Dyspareunia

D. Cyclical hematuria

Answer: D

260. Complication of Benign Ovarian Cysts is ?

A. Torsion

B. Intracystic hemorrhage

C. Pseudomyxoma perotonei

D. All of the above

Answer: D
261. Level 1 support of uterus & vagina is ?

A. levator ani

B. Perineal body

C. Uterosacral ligaments

D. All of the above

Answer: C

262. MC presenting symptom of fibroid is ?

A. Menorrhagia

B. Infertility

C. Lump

D. Compression

Answer: A

263. Medical management of fibroids is with all except

A. Progesterone

B. Mifepristone

C. Ulipristal acetate

D. Misoprostol

Answer: D
264. Endometriosis is ?

A. Endometrium within the myometrium

B. Functional endometrium outside the uterus

C. Myometrium within the endometrium

D. Rare squamous variety of CA endometrium

Answer: B

265.Samson’s theory for Development of Endometriosis is ?

A. Celomic metaplasia

B. Hematogenous spread

C. Lymphatic spread

D. Retrograde menstruation

Answer: D

266. Examination of a 26 years old obese infertile female reveals. Fixed retroverted uterus & Nodularity
of the uterosacral ligaments. The most likely diagnosis is ?

A. PCOS

B. Endometriosis

C. Adenomyosis

D. TB

Answer: B
267. Investigation of choice for endometriosis ?

A. USG

B. CA 125

C. MRI

D. Laparoscopy

Answer: D

268. Powder burnt lesion seen in ?

A. PID

B. PCOS

C. Endometriosis

D. All of the above

Answer: C

269. Treatment of choice in patient with infertility & endometriosis ?

A. IUI

B. Surgery

C. Danozol

D. Ovulation induction

Answer: B
270. Surgery of choice in 42 year old P3L3 with diffuse endometriosis is ?

A. Ovarian cystectomy & adhesiolysis

B. Hysterectomy

C. Hysterectomy with BSO with resection of endometrial implants

D. Ovarian cystectomy & adhesiolysis & resection of implants

Answer: C

271. The most common Mullerian anomaly is?

A. Mullerian agenesis (RMKH)

B. Unicornuate uterus

C. Bicornuate uterus

D. Septate uterus

Answer: D

272. SEAM used in DUB is ?

A. Clomiphene

B. Raloxifene

C. Ormiloxifene

D. Mifepristone

Answer: C

273. Choice of adjuvant treatment for endometrial carcinoma stage IA, grade I is?
A. Radiotherapy

B. Chemotherapy

C. Chemotherapy plus radiotherapy

D. No treatment

Answer: D

274. A 46-year-old P3L3 complains of menorrhagia since 3 months. Next line of management is ?

A. D & C

B. Progesterone x 6 months

C. OC pills x 6 months

D. Hysterectomy

Answer: A

275. Simple hyperplasia with atypia will progress to ca endometrium in % of cases ?

A. 1-2

B. 3-4

C. 8-9

D. 20

Answer: C

276. Grade 1 Ca endometrium, there is presence of % non sqoumaous growth ?

A. <5 B. 6-25 C. 25-50 D. >50

Answer: A

277. Definitive treatment of adenomyosis is ?

A. OC pills

B. NSAIDS

C. Endometrial ablation

D. Hysterectomy

Answer: D

278. MC cause for hysterectomy is ?

A. Prolapse

B. Fibroids

C. Ca endometrium

D. Acute PID

Answer: B

279. Prolonged surgery time of vaginal hysterectomy would lead to damage to which nerve ?

A. Obturator

B. Pudendal

C. Peroneal

D. Sural
Answer: C

280.Which of the following is not a part of PID

A. Endometritis

B. Cervicitis

C. Tuboovarian abcess

D. Peritonitis

Answer: B

281. Triad for clinical diagnosis PID includes all except ?

A. Fever

B. Lower abdominal pain

C. Cervical motion tenderness

D. Bilateral adnexal tenderness

Answer: A

282. Acute salpingitis is most commonly caused by ?

A. N. gonorrhoeae

B. Chlamydia trachomatis

C. Mycoplasma

D. Staphylococcus
Answer: B

283. Tumor marker for germ cell malignancy are all except?

A. LDH

B. Alkaline phosphatase

C. AFP

D. CA-125

Answer: D

284. Acute pelvic pain could be due to ?

A. Ectopic pregnancy

B. PID

C. Corpus luteum hematoma

D. All of the above

Answer: D

Ans. D. All of the above

285. Nugent score includes all except

A. Lactobacillus

B. Gardnerella

C. Mobiluncus

D. Gonococcus
Answer: D

286. Clue cells are seen in?

A. Bacterial vaginosis

B. Candidiasis

C. Chlamydiasis

D. Trichomoniasis

Answer: A

287. HSG findings suggestive of genital koch ?

A. Beaded tubes

B. Honeycomb uterus

C. Golf club tube

D. All of the above

Answer: D

288. A pregnant lady presents with genital warts. The best management for her is ?

A. Imiquimod

B. Trichloroacetic acid

C. Podophyllin

D. Cryotherapy
Answer: D

289. 28 year old female complaints of foul smelling yellowish urethral discharge since 4 days. History of
burning micturation. History of sexual contact with multiple partners 2 days before the onset of
symptoms. Most likely diagnosis is ?

A. Syphilis

B. Chancroid

C. Gonococcal urethritis

D. Non-infective urethritis

Answer: C

290. Twin-peak sign is seen in ?

A. All Monozygotic twins

B. Monochorionic twins

C. Dichorionic twins

D. Siamese twins

Answer: C

291. In ca Cervix treatment, point A receives ?

A. 3000 cGy

B. 5000 cGy

C. 7000 cGy

D. 10,000 cGy
Answer: C

292. Ashermans syndrome is characterized by ?

A. Amenorrhea

B. Menorrhagia

C. Polymenorrhea

D. All of the above

Answer: A

293. GARDASIL vaccine is for

A. HPV 16,18

B. HSV

C. HPV 6,11,16,18

D. Hepatitis B

Answer: C

294. LNG content of Mirena is

A. 20 gms

B. 20 mg

C. 52 gms

D. 52 mgs
Answer: D

Ans. D. 52 mgs

295. Which of the following decreases the risk of Pelvic Inflammatory Disease ?

A. Cu T

B. Spermicidal agents

C. O.C. pills

D. Today vaginal sponge

Answer: C

296. Patient with 45 XO , what HRT to be given ?

A. Growth hormone + E+P

B. Estrogene

C. No HRT Needed

D. HRT only after 45 years

Answer: A

297. Tamoxifen decreases the risk of which cancer?

A. Breast

B. Endometrium

C. Ovary

D. All of the above

Answer: A

298. Raloxifene decreases the risk of which cancer?

A. Breast

B. Cervix

C. Ovary

D. All of the above

Answer: A

299. Least failure rate ?

A. CuT

B. MIRENA

C. DMPA

D. O.C. PILLS

Answer: B

300. Nuva ring contains ?

A. EE+ etonogestrel

B. LNG + EE

C. LNG

D. EE+ drosperinone
Answer: A

301. Which drug used for endometriosis can cause increase in hepatic enzyme & adverse lipid profile

A. 0. C. pills

B. GnRh analogues

C. Both of the above

D. None of the above

Answer: A

302.Norgestimate in OC pills has the following advantage ?

A. Reduces venous thrombosis

B. Is cheaper than standard OC pills

C. Reduces acne and hirsutism

D. Useful in heart disease

Answer: C

303. Which of the following is not an ideal candidate for IUCD insertion ?

A. Previous LSCS

B. Lactating mother

C. Acute PID

D. All of the above

Answer: C

304. Betamethasone given to preterm patient for all except ?

A. Fetal lung maturity

B. Decrease intraventricular hemorrhage

C. Prevents periventricular leukomalacia

D. Prevent PPH

Answer: D

305. A 32-year-old female with mild hypertension. Two days after normal delivery, she develop seizures,
headache. No proteinuria was there. On imaging she was found to have parasagittal infarction and
hematoma 3x2cm.The most probable cause is?

A. Eclampsia

B. Superior sagittal sinus thrombosis

C. Pituitary apoplexy

D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

Answer: B

306. Penicillamine use in pregnancy is associated with this fetal complication ?

A. Conradi syndrome

B. Renal anomalies

C. Thymus hypolplasia
D. Cutis laxa

Answer: D

307. DOC for malaria in pregnancy ?

A. Chloroquin

B. Quinine

C. Primaquin

D. Artesunate

Answer: A

308. Prophylactic methergin given for ?

A. Induction of labour

B. Induction of abortion

C. To stop excess bleeding from uterus

D. All of the above

Answer: C

309. 6 year old son of pregnant women is suffering from chicken pox. Which of the following is given to
pregnant women ?

A. Acyclovir

B. Acyclovir + immunoglobulin

C. Only immunoglobulin

D. Vaccination
Answer: B

310. Maximum chance of transmission during

delivery?

A. HSV

B. CMV

C. VZV

D. Rubella

Answer: A

311. Drug of choice for pneumocystis carinii in pregnancy?

A. SMZ/TMP

B. Primaquine

C. Dapsone

D. Pentamidine

Answer: A

312. A pregnant woman in first trimester has four fold rise in IgG against toxoplasmosis. it indicates ?

A. Protective antibodies

B. Acute infection

C. Chronic infection

D. None of the above

Answer: B

313. HRT is given in ?

A. Symptomatic postmenopausal women

B. Following hysterectomy

C. Gonadal dysgenesis

D. All of the above

Answer: D

314. Methergin is given for prophylaxis of ?

A. Anaemia

B. Cardiac disease

C. Renal disease

D. Lung disease

Answer: A

315. All of the following occurs because of prostaglandin use except?

A. Excess water retention

B. Flushes

C. Increased motility of bowel

D. Nausea
Answer: A

316. Definite use for PGE2 is all except ?

A. Contraception

B. Induces labour

C. Therapeutic abortion

D. Keeps patency of PDA

Answer: A

317. Which of following most commonly clinically used?

A. Diagonal conjugate

B. Ant post diameter of inlet

C. Transverse diameter of outlet

D. Oblique diameter of pelvis

Answer: A

318. Least diameter of inlet of gynecoid pelvis is?

A. Transverse

B. Oblique

C. Diagonal conjugate

D. Obstetric conjugate

Answer: D
319. Tdap vaccine is give in between which weeks of pregnancy?

A. 10-16 weeks

B. 17-22 weeks

C. 22-26 weeks

D. 27-36 weeks

Answer: D

320. If 300 microgram anti D is given to mother , amount of blood it will neutralise ?

A. 30m1

B. 40m1

C. 50m1

D. 60m1

Answer: A

321. Maximum success after reversal of tubal ligation?

A. Cauterization

B. Pomeroy’s technique

C. Clip method

D. Fimbriectomy

Answer: C
322. Failure rate of Pomeroy’s method of tubal ligation is ?

A. 0.2%

B. 0.4%

C. 0.6%

D. 0.8%

Answer: B

323. Least failure rate is of ?

A. OC pills

B. IUDs

C. Condom

D. DMPA

Answer: A

324. Cholestasis of pregnancy false is ?

A. Bilirubin level >2mg%

B. Most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy

C. Oestrogen is involved

D. Manifestations usually appear in last trimester

Answer: B

325. I-pill is used when ?

A. Accidental sexual exposure

B. OCP forgotten

C. Of choice in young

D. All of the above

Answer: A

326. Emergency contraceptive should must be started with in how much time after unprotected
intercourse?

A. 24 hrs

B. 48 hrs

C. 72 hrs

D. 96 hrs

Answer: C

327. 35 year old with history of repeated D&C. She now has secondary amenorrhea. What is your
diagnosis?

A. Hypothyroidism

B. Kallman syndrome

C. Sheehan’s syndrome

D. Asherman’s syndrome

Answer: D

328. Asherman’s syndrome false is ?

A. Associated with menstrual irregularities

B. Progesterone challenge test is positive

C. Synechiae formation in uterus

D. May be secondary to TB

Answer: B

329. Most common site of endometriosis

A. Ovary

B. FT

C. Colon

D. LSCS Scar

Answer: A

Ans, A. Ovary

330. Gold standard diagnostic technique for diagnosis of endometriosis?

A. Laproscopy

B. Ca 125 level

C. Ultrasound

D. MRI

Answer: A
331. TB uterus all is true except?

A. Mostly secondary

B. Increase incidence of ectopic pregnancy

C. Involvement of endosalpinx

D. Most common is ascending infection

Answer: D

332. Fallopian tube tuberculosis ?

A. Most common type of genital TB

B. Size of the tubes is unchanged

C. Is asymptomatic

D. Primary focus of infection is always in fallopian tubes

Answer: A:C

333. Initial drug for ovarian cancer ?

A. Cisplatin

B. Doxorubicin

C. Ifosfamide

D. Methotrexate

Answer: A

334. Diagnosis of adenomyosis is made by ?

A. Histopathology

B. Ultrasound

C. MRI

D. Laproscopy

Answer: D

335. Endometrial carcinoma involving cervix, stage is?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Answer: B

336. Hydronephrosis is seen in which stage of Ca cervix?

A. 2a

B. 2b

C. 3a

D. 3b

Answer: D

337. Bartholin’s cyst treatment of choice

A. Excision

B. Antibiotics

C. Marsupialisation

D. Drainage

Answer: C

338. Definitive management of Adenomyosis is?

A. GNRH analogue

B. Danazole

C. LH

D. Hysterectomy

Answer: D

339. Most common degeneration of fibroids ?

A. Calcareous

B. Hyaline

C. Red

D. Cystic

Answer: B

340. Which of the following cannot be treated by laparoscopy

A. Ectopic pregnancy

B. Sterilization

C. Non descent of uterus

D. Genital prolapsed

Answer: C

341. Which is least injured in gynaecological procedures?

A. Ureter at pelvic brim

B. Renal pelvis

C. Urinary bladder

D. Ureter at infundibulopelvic ligament

Answer: B

342. Definitive treatment for preeclampsia?

A. Delivery of baby

B. Antihypertensive drugs

C. Rest

D. Diet

Answer: A

343. Best to diagnose unruptured ectopic pregnancy ?

A. Scopy
B. UPT

C. USG

D. Culdocentesis

Answer: A

344. Most of ectopic pregnancies are at ampulla as?

A. It is the narrowest part

B. Tubal movements are least here

C. Salpingitis produces least crypts here

D. Plicae are most numerous here

Answer: D

345.Prolapsed of uterus in nulliparous women, treatment is?

A. Sling used involving rectus sheath

B. Anterior colporrhaphy

C. Posterior colporrhaphy

D. Manchester operation

Answer: A

346. Exclusively Fetal blood loss occurs in ?

A. Vasa previa
B. Placenta praevia

C. Polyhydramnios

D. Oligohydramnios

Answer: A

347. Placenta previa, false is ?

A. Most common cause of APH

B. Painful vaginal bleeding

C. Usg is the investigation of choice

D. Increased maternal age is a risk factor

Answer: A

Ans. A. Most common cause of APH

348. 45 yr old female patient underwent hysterectomy, on 7th post op day complaints about continuous
dribbling of urine and fever. Micturition was not voluntary, what diagnosis?

A. Vesico vaginal fistula

B. Uretero vaginal fistula

C. Vesico uterine fistula

D. Urethra vaginal fistula

Answer: C

349. Vacuum delivery produces?

A. Chingon
B. Cephalhematoma

C. Both

D. None

Answer: C

350. HT indicated in menopausal women

A. Hot flash

B. Ca breast

C. Endometriosis

D. Uterine bleeding

Answer: A

351. In Uterine prolapse how to know if ring is in place?

A. If not expelled after increased abdominal pressure

B. If Bleeding does not occur

C. If patient feels discomfort

D. None

Answer: A

352. Drug that is used for fetal lung maturity is:

A. Dexamethasone

B. Folic acid
C. Beclomethasone

D. None

Answer: A

353. Best time to do quadruple test

A. 8-12 weeks

B. 11-15 weeks

C. 15-20 weeks

D. 18-22 weeks

Answer: C

354. Which One of the following is not a cause of secondary Postpartum Haemorrhage?

A. Placenta previa

B. Retained bits of placenta

C. Endometritis

D. Polyp

Answer: A

355. RDA of iodine in lactation in microgram

A. 150

B. 220
C. 100

D. 250

Answer: D

356. Paget’s is associated with which other cancer:

A. Vulva

B. Vagina

C. Cervix

D. Uterus

Answer: A

357. Fimbriectomy procedure is known as

A. Uchida method

B. Irving method

C. Madlener technique

D. Kroener method

Answer: D

358. Establishment of fetoplacental circulation seen at

A. 11 to 13 days
B. 20 to 22 days

C. 7 days

D. 25 to 26 days

Answer: B

359. Dilatation & curettage (D&C. is contraindicated in

A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID)

B. Endometriosis

C. Ectopic pregnancy

D. None

Answer: A

360. Anteversion of uterus is maintained by?

A. Cardinal ligament

B. Uterosacral ligament

C. Pubocervical ligament

D. Round ligament

Answer: D

361. What is the effect of Progesterone only pills?

A. Completely suppresses ovulation

B. Thin lining of uterus

C. Thick cervical mucus

D. All of the above

Answer: D

362. Long-standing pelvic inflammation may lead to which of the following conditions?

A. Pyometra

B. Uterine polyposis

C. Pseudopregnancy

D. Cystic endometrial hyperplasia

Answer: A

363. Meiosis occurs in

A. Adult ovary

B. Prepubertal testis

C. At birth in ovary

D. All

Answer: A

364. Prolactin secreted maximum at

A. 24 hrs after delivery

B. REM

C. 2 hrs running

D. 24 hour after Ovulation

Answer: A

365. A sexually active female with the profuse frothy foul-smelling discharge with intense itching.
Strawberry cervix revealed on examination. What will be the diagnosis?

A. Trichomonas vaginalis

B. Bacterial vaginosis

C. Candidiasis

D. None

Answer: A

366. 18-year-old girl presents with 6 months of amenorrhea with h/o low-grade fever, weight loss, pain
abdomen, generalized weaknesses. On PR examination, palpable left-sided pelvic mass felt… Diagnosis is

A. Fibroid with degeneration

B. TB pelvis with Tubo ovarian mass

C. Ectopic pregnancy

D. Granulosa cell tumour

Answer: B

367. A pregnant female had Meconium stained liquor and underwent emergency LSCS. A few days later
her condition deteriorated. USG showed edematous bowels. What’s the cause?
A. Meconium peritonitis

B. Paralytic ileus

C. Adhesive intestinal obstruction

D. Intra-abdominal abscess

Answer: B

368. Best treatment option for septate uterus

A. Tompkins Metroplasty

B. Jones metroplasty

C. Strassmann metroplasty

D. Transcervical hysteroscopic resection of the septum

Answer: D

369. Distension media used for hysteroscopy with bipolar cautery?

A. Glycine

B. NS

C. Co2

D. Dextran 70

Answer: B

370. Most common site for Fertilization is

A. Ampulla

B. Isthmus

C. Intramural

D. Fimbriae

Answer: A

371. A 22-year-old primigravida visits ANC OPD with 20 weeks POG. On examination uterine height
reveals a 16-week size.USG shows reduced liquor. What will be the diagnosis?

A. Renal agenesis

B. Fetal anemia

C. Barter’s syndrome

D. Liddle syndrome

Answer: A

372. Which of the following is not an estrogen-dependent pubertal change?

A. Hair growth

B. Menstruation

C. Vaginal Cornification

D. Cervical mucus

Answer: B
373. A mother brought her 16-year-old daughter to Gynaecology OPD with a complaint of not attending
menarche. She gives H/O cyclic abdominal pain. On further examination midline, abdominal swelling
seen. Per rectal examination reveals a bulging mass in the vagina. Which of the following can be most
commonly seen?

A. Imperforate hymen

B. Transvaginal septum

C. Vaginal agenesis

D. MRKH

Answer: A

374. 13 yr old child visit gynaecology OPD with a complaint of not attaining menarche with karyotype
46XX. On examination, clitoromegaly is seen. Which enzyme is most likely to be deficient in the above
condition?

A. 21 alpha-hydroxylase

B. 11 beta-hydroxylase

C. 17 alpha-hydroxylase

D. 3 beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

Answer: A

375. In early pregnancy clinical signs of feeling the cer?vix and the body of bulky uterus separated be?
cause of softened isthmus at 6 – 8 weeks of gestation :

A. Goodell’s sign
B. Chadwick’s sign

C. Piskacek’s sign

D. Hegar’s sign

Answer: D

376. Misoprostol used in the induction of labour is an analogue of which of the following type of
prostaglandin?

A. PG E1

B. PG E2

C. PG I2

D. PG F2alpha

Answer: A

377. Treatment of choice in patient with infertility & endometriosis ?

A. IUI

B. Surgery

C. Danozol

D. Ovulation induction

Answer: B

378. Surgery of choice in 42 year old P3L3 with diffuse endometriosis is ?

A. Ovarian cystectomy & adhesiolysis

B. Hysterectomy

C. Hysterectomy with BSO with resection of endometrial implants

D. Ovarian cystectomy & adhesiolysis & resection of implants

Answer: C

379. The most common Mullerian anomaly is?

A. Mullerian agenesis (RMKH)

B. Unicornuate uterus

C. Bicornuate uterus

D. Septate uterus

Answer: D

380. SEAM used in DUB is ?

A. Clomiphene

B. Raloxifene

C. Ormiloxifene

D. Mifepristone

Answer: C

381. The most common symptom of endometrial hyperplasia is:

A. Vaginal discharge.
B. Vaginal bleeding.

C. Amenorrhea.

D. Pelvic pain.

E. Abdominal distention.

Answer: B.Vaginal bleeding.

382. 56 years old woman has come to you with the complaints of hot flushes irritability, joint pains with
lack of sleep. Most appropriate treatment would be:

A. Hysterectomy.

B. Vitamins.

C. Combined oestrogen, progesterone preparations.

D. Phytooestrogens.

E. Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMS).

Answer: C.Combined oestrogen, progesterone preparations.

383. Which of the following is used as an emergency contraceptive:

A. Combined oral contraceptive pills.

B. Progesterone only.

C. Depoprovera.

D. Levonorgestril (EM-Kit).

E. Ergometrine.

Answer: D.Levonorgestril (EM-Kit).