THE SUPERIOR UNIVERSITY, LAHORE

QUESTION BANK FOR ENTRY TEST

BIOLOGY BANK
Q.1. The sphincter present at the junction of ileum and colon is called as __________:
A) Urethral sphincter B) Ileocolic sphincter C) Cardiac sphincter D) Pyloric sphincter
Q.2. Which of the followings is involved in the secretion of saliva with amylase and mucus?
A) Parotid gland B) Sublingual gland C) Gastric gland D) Submandibular
gland
Q.3. __________ is an illness which largely affects girls usually just after the onset of puberty:
A) Bulimia nervosa B) Anorexia nervosa C) Food poisoning D) Both “A” and “C”
Q.4. Liver is involved in the secretion of __________:
A) Bile B) Gastric juice C) Water D) Mucous
Q.5. Phosphatidylcholine is one of the common:
A) Acylglycerol B) Phospholipid C) Terpenoid D) Wax
Q.6. Each turn of α-helix of polypeptide chain has _______ amino acids:
A) 30 B) 3.6 C) 2.6 D) Many
Q.7. The non-protein part of enzyme is known as:
A) Activator B) Co-enzyme C) Co-factor D) Polypeptides
Q.8. __________ is the chemical that is secreted from liver and may precipitate in the gall
bladder to produce gall stones:
A) Cholesterol B) Fatty acids C) Triglycerides D) Cholecalciferol
Q.9. The substrate for the enzyme erypsin is __________:
A) Polypeptide B) Dipeptide C) Lactose D) Maltose
Q.10. Absorption, storage and food movement in the large intestine is the core responsibility of
__________:
A) Endocrine cells B) Absorptive cells C) Goblet cells D) Duodenal cells
Q.11. Secretion of parotid glands are poured through ducts to __________:
A) Anterior portions of oral cavity C) Posterior portions of oral cavity
B) Gastric cavity D) Jejunum of small intestine
Q.12. Parietal cells are involved in __________:
A) Making stomach pH acidic C) Protection
B) Regulation of secretion and motility D) Protein digestion
Q.13. What is the chemical composition of oxytocin?
A) Protein B) Amino acid derivative C) Polypeptide D) Steroid
Q.14. Antidiuretic hormone is produced by __________:
A) Median lobe of pituitary C) Neurosecretory cells
B) Posterior lobe of pituitary D) Anterior lobe of pituitary
Q.15. The activation energy of reaction is lowered by:
A) Co-enzyme B) Substrate C) Enzyme D) Product
Q.16. The reversible inhibitors have:
A) Strong linkage with enzyme C) Weak linkage
B) No linkage D) Medium linkage
Q.17. Chitin is found in the cell wall of:
A) Algae B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) Plants
Q.18. The attachment of two sub units of ribosomes is controlled by:
A) Ca+2 B) Mg+2 C) K+ D) Fe+2
Q.19. Infoldings of inner membrane of mitochondria are called as:
A) Cisternae B) Cristae C) Granum D) Thylakoid
Q.20. Parotid gland secretion is poured at __________:
A) Posterior portion of tongue C) Between the jaws
B) Below the tongue D) Anterior portion of tongue
Q.21. Which of the following sphincter is present near duodenum?
A) Cardiac sphincter B) Anal sphincter C) Urethral sphincter D) Pyloric sphincter
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Q.22. Obese people are more likely to suffer from __________:
A) High blood pressure B) Diabetes mellitus C) Stomach disorders D) All “A”, “B” and
“C”
Q.23. Which of the following hormone is responsible for hepatic and pancreatic secretions?
A) Secretin B) Insulin C) Renin D) Glucagon
Q.24. Carbohydrate digesting enzyme is known as __________:
A) Carboxylase B) Lipase C) Amylase D) Protease
Q.25. Which of the following is involved in the stimulation of epithelial cells of testes for the
production of sperms in males?
A) FSH B) LH C) ACTH D) PIH
Q.26. What may be the result if thyroxin is congenitally deficient in a body?
A) Goiter B) Grave’s disease C) Myxoedema D) Cretinism
Q.27. The example of glucocorticoid is ___________:
A) Vasopressin B) Testosterone C) Cortisol D) Aldosterone
Q.28. Spermatozoa are developed in __________:
A) Seminiferous tubules C) Thyroid cells
B) Neurosecretory cells D) β cells of pancreas
Q.29. Which of the following is involved in the birth control pills?
A) Antidiuretic hormone C) Testosterone
B) Oxytocin D) Progesterone
Q.30. Emulsification is the function of:
A) Bile B) Lipase C) Amylase D) Protease
Q.31. Pleura is double layered thin membrane that covers:
A) Heart B) Liver C) Lungs D) Kidneys
Q.32. The floor of the chest is called:
A) Bronchi B) Glottis C) Diaphragm D) Pleura
Q.33. Which of the following artery supplies blood to heart muscles?
A) Pulmonary B) Coronary C) Systemic D) None of these
Q.34. The name animalia is derived from Latin, anima
A) Symmetrical B) Bilateral C) Radial D) Soul
Q.35. Coelom is the characteristics feature of the phylum:
A) Nematoda B) Annelida C) Porifera D) Cnidaria
Q.36. A Square of 4 cocci is termed as:
A) Tetrad B) Sarcina C) Diplococcus D) Streptococcus
Q.37. Smallpox is caused by:
A) Bacteria B) Fungi C) Protozoans D) Viruses
Q.38. Anemia is associated with renal failure because of __________:
A) Exocrine role of kidney C) Damage to the renal sinus
B) Endocrine role of kidney D) Damage to the renal hilus
Q.39. Urea is the detoxified form of __________:
A) Ammonia B) Uric Acid C) Nucleic acid D) ATP
Q.40. Which of the following include all others?
A) Homeostasis B) Thermoregulation C) Excretion D) Osmoregulation
Q.41. Which of the following is not present in glomerular filtrate?
A) Water B) Potassium ions C) Erythrocytes D) Amino acids
Q.42. If stones are present in __________ of body then these will be called as kidney stones:
A) Ureter B) Urinary bladder C) Gall bladder D) Renal pelvis
Q.43. The filtrate appearing in glomerulus is called as __________:
A) Filtration pressure B) Glomerular filtrate C) Lumen filtrate D) Urine
Q.44. During counter current multiplier mechanism sodium and chloride ions are taken out to
the kidney interstitium from __________:
A) Descending loop of Henle B) Ascending loop of Henle
C) Vasa recta D) Papillary duct
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Q.45. Which of the followings is unpaired bone?
A) Vomer B) Nasal C) Maxilla D) Palatine
Q.46. __________ is the only moveable bone in skull:
A) Vomer B) Mandible C) Parietal D) Maxilla
Q.47. Total number of bones in your right arm is __________:
A) 28 B) 30 C) 32 D) 26

Q.48. Muscle is connected to bone by:

A) Tendon B) Ligament C) Z-line D) Cross bridges
Q.49. The max. speed of nerve impulse in humans is m/sec:
A) 120 B) 240 C) 100 D) 200
Q.50. In neurons the message is transmitted across synapse in the form of chemical messenger
called:
A) Neurotransmitters C) Communication
B) Nerve Impulse D) Synaptic Vesicle
Q.51. The largest part of the brain is:
A) Cerebellum B) Cerebrum C) Medulla D) Thalamus
Q.52. The hormone which controls the development of male secondary sexual characteristics
during puberty is:
A) Insulin B) Testosterone C) Oestrogen D) Progesterone
Q.53. Oviduct opens into:
A) Ovary B) Uterus C) Vagina D) Urethra
Q.54. Luteinizing hormone induces:
A) Flowering B) Ovulation C) Vernalization D) Menopause
Q.55. Locus is a:
A) Part of DNA C) Position of gene
B) Partner of gene D) Complement of gene
Q.56. The cross which is used to find out the homozygous or heterozygous nature of the
Genotype is called:
A) Test cross B) Reciprocal cross C) Monohybrid cross D) Dihybrid cross
Q.57. Haemophilia A is:
A) X-linked dominant trait C) X-linked Recessive trait
B) Sex influenced trait D) Sex limited trait
Q.58. Inheritance of acquired characteristics was proposed by:
A) Darwin B) Mendel C) Lamarck D) Malthus
Q.59. Longest, heaviest and strongest bone in the human body is __________:
A) Femur B) Tibia C) Humerus D) Fibula
Q.60. Seven vertebrae are present in __________ curvature of vertebral column:
A) Pelvic B) Lumber C) Thoracic D) Cervical
Q.61. Total number of true ribs are __________:
A) 7 B) 14 C) 4 D) 6
Q.62. Which of the following is called the knee bone?
A) Ischium B) Sacrum C) Patella D) Coccyx
Q.63. Total number of tarsals present in human body is __________:
A) 7 B) 14 C) 8 D) 16
Q.64. Among birds, Darwin collected 13 types of:
A) Robins B) Finches C) Ferrets D) Pterodactyl les
Q.65. The oldest known fossils are of:
A) Fungi B) Eukaryotes C) Prokaryotes D) Plants
Q.66. Homologous structures represent:
A) Convergent evolution C) Analogy
B) Divergent evolution D) Functional similarity

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Q.67. The mammalian testes are made up of a large number of:
A) Epididymis C) Seminiferous tubules
B) Fallopian tubule D) Uriniferous tubules
Q.68. Discharge of egg from the ovary is called:
A) Oogenesis B) Ovulation C) Gametogenesis D) Spermatogenesis
Q.69. Endocrine glands secrete:
A) Hormones B) Salts C) Enzymes D) Mucous
Q.70. Pathway of passage of impulse during reflex action is called:
A) Reflex B) Stimulus C) Membrane Potential D) Reflex Arc
Q.71. Mature bone cells are called as:
A) Osteoblasts B) Osteocytes C) Osteoclasts D) Chondrocytes
Q.72. The only bone which is not attached with any other bone:
A) Nasal B) Hyoid C) Clavicle D) Sternum
Q.73. Total number of bones in the human skull are __________:
A) 22 B) 14 C) 29 D) 8
Q.74. _________ is the condition in which a baby with small sized skull is borne:
A) Osteoarthritis B) Microcephaly C) Osteoporosis D) Arthritis
Q.75. Bowed legs and deformed pelvis are the most prominent symptom in __________:
A) Annulus fibrosus B) Rickets C) Sciatica D) Spondylosis
Q.76. Bone dissolving cells are known as __________:
A) Osteoblasts B) Osteocytes C) Osteoclasts D) Chondrocytes
Q.77. Twisting around the actin chains are two strands of another protein known as __________:
A) Tropomyosin B) Fibrin C) Troponin D) Myosin
Q.78. Sea anemone belong to phylum:
A) Coelenterata B) Arthropoda C) Echinodermata D) Annelida
Q.79. The pouched mammals are:
A) Prototheria B) Metatheria C) Eutheria D) None of these
Q.80. Reducing power of Photosynthesis in the form of:
A) NAD B) NADPH C) ATP D) ADP
Q.81. Rubisco is the most abundant protein in:
A) Golgi bodies B) Mitochondria C) Nucleoli D) Chloroplast
Q.82. Cellular respiration is essentially an:
A) Reduction process C) Redox process
B) Oxidation process D) Energy process
Q.83. Hepatic and Pancreatic secretion is stimulated by:
A) Bile B) Pancreatic juice C) Secretin D) Gastrin
Q.84. Appendix is present inside the human body near __________:
A) Pancreas B) Cecum C) Jejunum D) Rectum
Q.85. Saliva is produced by __________ glands:
A) Pancreas B) Salivary C) Nasal D) Liver
Q.86. The painful burning sensation in the chest usually associated with the back flush of acidic
chime into the esophagus:
A) Cirrhosis B) Arthritis C) Pyrosis D) Nephritis
Q.87. Which is not a lymphoid mass?
A) Liver B) Thymus C) Spleen D) Tonsils
Q.88. The joints that allow movements in several directions are:
A) Ball & socket B) Hinge joint C) Fibrous joint D) Synovial joint
Q.89. Skeletal muscles are composed of:
A) Actin C) Myosin
B) Actin & myosin D) Actin, myosin, tropomyosin
Q.90. Which of the following is earliest form of muscles?
A) Cardiac B) Smooth C) Skeletal D) All of these
Q.91. __________ is needed to break the link between the myosin bridge and the actin:
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A) GTP B) ATP C) TTP D) CTP
Q.92. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is like the endoplasmic reticulum EXCEPT having __________:
A) Mesosomes B) Peroxisomes C) Ribosomes D) Glyoxysomes
Q.93. __________ bind with the troponin molecule when the muscle needs to contract:
A) Mg++ B) Na+ C) K+ D) Ca++
Q.94. Z line lies between two consecutive __________:
A) Thick filaments C) Thin filaments
B) Thick and Thin filaments D) Actin and Myosin filaments
Q.95. In obese people, fat is stored in abdomen, around the kidneys and under skin in the form
of __________:
A) Connective tissue B) Epithelial tissue C) Adipose tissue D) Endocrine tissue
Q.96. Prokaryotic ribosomal subunits when combined, make up:
A) 100S particle B) 90S particle C) 80S particle D) 70S particle
Q.97. Which one are the smallest known viruses?
A) Pox viruses C) Polio virus
B) Influenza virus D) Paramyxo viruses

Q.98. Major cells infected by HIV are:

A) Leukocytes C) Lymphocytes
B) Helper T-Lymphocytes D) Lymph node
Q.99. Mesosomes are internal extensions of the:
A) Cell wall B) Cell membrane C) Chromatin body D) Capsule

Q.100. Sterilization is destruction of all:

A) Virus B) Bacteria C) Fungi D) life forms

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PHYSICS BANK
Q.1 A unit of magnetic induction is
A) 𝑊𝑒𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑚𝑒𝑡𝑒𝑟 −2 C) Weber/ampere-meter
B) Weber/meter D) Weber
Q.2 The magnetic field lines in the middle of a solenoid are
A) Circles C) Parallel to the axis
B) Spirals D) Perpendicular to axis
Q.3 What in a D.C motor, reverses the direction of current through the coil every half cycle.
A) The armature C) The brushes
B) The Commutator D) The slip rings
Q.4 The total base quantities are
A) two B) five C) three D) seven
Q.5 Number of significant figures in 0.0173 are:
A) 3 B) 4 C) 5 D) 2
Q.6 The brightness of the spot on CRO screen is controlled by:
A) cathode C) anode
B) grid D) plates
Q.7 When a charge particle moves in magnetic field at angle 45° the trajectory of charged particle
is
A) Circle C) Straight line
B) Helix D) Parabola
Q.8 In CRO, the time base, circuit is connected to:
A) Vertical plates C) Electron gun
B) Horizontal plates D) Fluorescent screen
Q.9 The difference between A.C generators and D.C motors in construction is that
A) split rings C) magnetic field
B) carbon brushes D) none of these
Q.10 The practical application of the mutual induction phenomena is
A) electric motor C) transformer
B) A.C generator D) transistor
Q.11 The emf induced in a coil which is rotating in magnetic field does not depend on
A) Speed of rotation C) Numbers of turns of coil
B) Resistance of coil D) Area of coil
L
Q.12 Which of the given is the unit of ?
R
A) Nm2 C) J
B) s D) Ns
Q.13 The resistance of an ideal ammeter is
A) Low C) High
B) Infinite D) Zero
Q.14 An induction ammeter is used to measure
A) A.C C) D.C
B) Magnetic flux D) All of these
Q.15 The transformer will has minimum hysteresis loss if it has ________ core
A) Soft iron C) Solid iron
B) Air D) Laminated iron
Q.16 The e/m of neutron is
A) Greater than that of proton C) Smaller than that of electron
B) Infinite D) impossible

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Q.17 In An A.C circuit the voltage
A) Leads the current C) Lags the current
B) In phase with current D) Any of above depending upon circuit component
Q.18 The structure of NaCl is
A) Hexagonal C) Octagonal
B) Cubical D) Tetrahedrals
Q.19 The substances undergoing plastic deformation until they break are known as
A) brittle substances C) ductile substances
B) elastic substances D) plastic substances
Q.20 The strain energy can be obtained by considering area under
A) force – energy graph C) stress – strain graph
B) force-stress graph D) force-extension graph
Q.21 The value of Young’s Modulus for water
A) 80 x 109 Nm-2 C) zero
9 -2
B) 70 x 10 Nm D) 2.2 x 109 Nm-2
Q.22 The number of bands necessary for electrical conduction
A) 2 C) 4
B) 5 D) 3
Q.23 7.2K is the critical temperature of
A) tin C) aluminum
B) lead D) nickel
Q.24 At temperature above 77K, any superconductor is referred as
A) high temperature superconductor C) low temperature superconductor
B) low temperature semiconductor D) high temperature conductor
Q.25 The magnetism produced by electrons within an atom is due to
A) spin motion C) orbital motion
B) spin and orbital motion D) vibratory motion
Q.26 The substances in which the atoms do not form the Magnetic Dipoles are called
A) Diamagnetic C) Paramagnetic
B) Ferromagnetic D) Crystals
Q.27 The Young’s modulus for a perfectly rigid body is
A) Zero C) Infinite
B) 1 D) None of these
Q.28 The modulus of rigidity of a liquid is
A) Zero C) 1
B) Infinite D) None of these
Q.29 The material used for permanent magnet has;
A) Low retentivity, high coercivity C) High retentivity, low coercivity
B) High retentivity, high coercivity D) Low retentivity, low coercivity
Q.30 Of dia, para and ferromagnetism, the universal property of all substances is:
A) Diamagnetics C) Paramagnetics
B) Ferromagnetics D) All of these
Q.31 Domain formation is the necessary feature of;
A) Diamagnetism C) Paramagnetism
B) Ferromagnetism D) All of these
Q.32 The vector of zero magnitude and arbitrary direction is called
A) Equal vector C) null vector
B) Unit vector D) resultant vector
Q.33 Sound waves cannot travel through
A) Air C) material medium
B) Water D) vacuum
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Q.34 The point of maximum displacement on a stationary wave is called
A) Antinode C) Node
B) Trough D) Crest
Q.35 joule is a unit of
A) Kinetic energy C) Potential energy
B) Heat energy D) All of these
Q.36 If the direction of force is perpendicular to the direction of motion of body, then work done
is
A) minimum C) maximum
B) zero D) infinity
Q.37 Which of the following devices has the highest efficiency?
A) transformer C) DC generator
B) AC generator D) DC motor
Q.38 The main reason for the world-wide use of A.C is that it can be transmitted to
A) short distances C) long distances
B) very short distances D) intermediate distances
Q.39 An A.C voltmeter reads 440V, its peak value is
A) 611.25V C) 311.23V
B) 311.12V D) 620.4V
Q.40 The basic element in a D.C circuit which controls the current or voltage is called
A) inductor C) resistor
B) capacitor D) voltmeter
Q.41 Energy stored in a winding spring
A) Elastic P.E C) K.E
B) Electrical energy D) solar energy
Q.42 The centripetal acceleration is also called:
A) Tangential acceleration C) Radial acceleration
B) Angular acceleration D) Rotational velocity
Q.43 The dimension of wavelength is
A) [LT] C) [L]
-1
B) [L ] D) [T-1]
Q.44 The relation between force and velocity is:
A) F .V C) F V
B) V  F D) PV.
Q.45 The motional emf induced in a rod moving perpendicular to a magnetic field is given by:
A) ε = -vBL C) ε = 0
B) ε = vBL D) ε = -1
Q.46 The S.I units of angular momentum are given by:
A) Js −2 C) Js −1
B) Js D) J .m
Q.47 farad is the unit of:
A) Charge C) Current
B) Electric flux D) Capacitance
Q.48 The energy stored in a dam is
A) Elastic P.E C) gravitational P.E
B) K.E D) electric energy
Q.49 If a source of emf is traversed from positive to negative the potential change will be
A) positive C) zero
B) negative D) constant
Q.50 The power output of a lamp is 6 W. How much energy does the lamp give out in 2 minutes?
A) 3 J C) 12 J

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B) 120 J D) 720 J
Q.51 Maximum power delivered by battery is
E2
A) Pmax = C) Pmax = 4rE2
4r
B) Pmax = VI D) unlimited
Q.52 Slope of the graph between “V” On X-axis and “I” on the Y-axis is
A) Resistance C) Emf
B) Conductance A) Capacitance
Q.53 Conductance is reciprocal of
A) Capacitance C) Resistance
B) Inductance D) Reactance
Q.54 Two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction attract each other because of
A) Potential difference between them C) Mutual inductance between them
B) Electric forces between them D) Magnetic forces between them
Q.55 Magnetic force on a current carrying conductor is given by
A) IL B sin α C) IL B cos α
B) IL B tan α D) IL AB sin α
Q.56 Magnetic flux and magnetic flux density are related as
magnetic flux density
A) magnetic flux = C) magnetic flux x flux density = area
area
B) flux density = magnetic flux D) flux density = Magnetic flux x area
area
Q.57 The voltage applied across X plates displaces the spot along x-axis and displacement is
proportion to
A) voltage C) current
B) time D) all of these
Q.58 The e/m of a proton is
A) same as electron C) smaller then electron
B) greater than electron D) all of these
Q.59 S.I. units of charge is:
A) ampere C) volt
B) coulomb D) calorie
Q.60 The energy supplied to the unit charge by the battery is called:
A) Voltage C) Emf
B) Capacitance D) Current
Q.61 Electromotive force and potential difference both are measured in:
A) coulomb C) farad
B) ampere D) volt
Q.62 1 watt =…
A) Js-1 C) Js-2
B) J-1C-1 D) NC-1
Q.63 The magnetic force is simply a:
A) Reflecting force C) Deflecting force
B) Restoring force D) Gravitational force
Q.64 Induced current depends upon:
A) The speed of the conductor C) Resistance of the loop
B) Both A and B D) None of these
Q.65 The unit of gravitational potential is:
A) J C) 𝐽 𝑘𝑔−1
B) J kg D) kg

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Q.66 Work depends upon
A) Force and velocity C) force and displacement
B) Angle between force and work D) force and energy
Q.67 The force which do no work on the body upon which it acts is
A) Elastic force C) Frictional force
B) Centripetal force D) Gravitational force
Q.68 In CRO the grid is at___________ w.r.t anodes.
A) positive potential C) negative potential
B) both a and b D) zero potential
Q.69 The north pole of earth’s magnet is near the geo-graphical;
A) East C) West
B) North D) South
Q.70 The hysteresis cycle for the material of permanent magnet is:
A) Short and wide C) Tall and narrow
B) Tall and wide D) Short and narrow
Q.71 Which of the following is ferromagnetic?
A) Aluminum C) Quartz
B) Nickel D) Bismuth
Q.72 In full wave rectification the number of diodes required are
A) 4 C) 5
B) 2 D) both A and B
Q.73 In the process of rectification, the current received across the load resistance is
A) A.C C) D.C
B) both a & b D) none of these
Q.74 An ideal diode is that which offers zero resistance when it is
A) reverse biased C) forward biased
B) inverse biased D) converse biased
Q.75 A transistor consists of
A) single crystal of germanium or silicon C) double crystal of silicon or germanium
B) single crystal of arsenic D) single crystal of boron
Q.76 A scalar is a physical quantity which is completely specified by
A) a number only C) Direction only
B) A number with proper units D) number and direction
Q.77 _____makes a difference between a scalar and a vector.
A) Magnitude B) direction C) Representation D) dimension
Q.78 The waves which do not require any medium for their propagation are called
A) sound waves C) water waves
B) Electromagnetic waves D) all of these
Q.79 A motion which repeats itself after an equal interval of time is called
A) Linear motion B) rotatory motion C) oscillatory motion D) periodic motion
Q.80 The relation between time period and frequency is
A) Converse B) inverse C) Direct D) None of these
Q.81 The unit of RC is:
A) volt B) second C) coulomb D) ampere
Q.82 The relation between force and velocity is:
A) F .V B) F V C) V  F D) PV
.
Q.83 In a transformer heat is produced due to eddy current in
A) Primary coil C) Secondary coil
B) Iron core D) All of these
Q.84 Which of given Laws is according to Law of conservation of energy
A) Faraday’s Law C) Lenz’s Law
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B) Ampere’s Law D) Ohm’s Law
Q.85 The coil of D.C motor is connected with
A) A.C supply C) D.C supply
B) Slip rings D) Split rings
Q.86 Which current cannot flow continuously through the capacitor?
A) A.C C) D.C
B) thermoelectricity D) photo electricity
Q.87 In a capacitor circuit, at low frequency, the reactance will be
A) high C) low
B) zero D) infinite
Q.88 The voltages generated in three phase A.C generator has the phase difference of
A) 1200 C) 900
B) 3600 D) 1800
Q.89 Which radio waves are less effected by electric interference
A) F.M C) A.M
B) A.F D) both A & C
Q.90 The motional emf induced in a rod moving perpendicular to a magnetic field is given by:
A) ε = -vBL B) ε = 0 C) ε = vBL D) ε = vEL
Q.91 Computer Chips are made up of
A) Silicon C) carbon
B) Iron D) Germanium
Q.92 The base units in S.I. are
A) Four C) Five
B) Six D) Seven
Q.93 At resonance, in R-L-C series circuit the impedance of the circuit is
A) inductive C) resistive
B) zero D) capacitive
Q.94 In RLC series circuits, the relation ‘XL> XC’ true for
A) high frequencies C) low frequencies
B) null frequencies D) none of these
Q.95 Another name of rectangular co-ordinate system is
A) Vector system C) physical co-ordinate system
B) Cartesian co-ordinate system D) Cartesian ordinate system
Q.96 The induced emf leads to an induced current when the circuit is:
A) Open C) Closed
B) Both A and B D) None of these
Q.97 Which of the following is a fundamental quantity:
A) Velocity C) Time
B) Force D) Volume
Q.98 Which of the following quantity is dimensionless?
A) Pressure C) Velocity
B) Time D) Strain
Q.99 N s is the unit of:
A) Velocity C) Momentum
B) Energy D) Angular momentum
Q.100 The branch of physics which deals with the atomic nuclei is called:
A) Nuclear physics C) Particle physics
B) Atomic physics D) Modern physics

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CHEMISTRY BANK
66 66
Cu zn
Q.1 Which property is the same for the two nuclides 29 and 30
A) The number of electrons C) The number of nucleons
B) The number of neutrons D) The number of protons
Q.2 Isotopes differ in
A) Properties which depend upon mass
B) Arrangement of electrons in orbitals
C) Chemical properties
D) The extent to which they may be affected in electromagnetic field
Q.3 The oxides of beryllium are
A) acidic B) basic C) amphoteric D) neutral
Q.4 Which one of the following is alcohol?
A) CH3COOH B) CH3OCH3 C) CH3CH2OH D) CH3CH2Br
Q.5 35
Which of the following is an isotone of 17CI (isotones have same number of neutrons)
A) 11Na23 C) 19K39
40
B) 20Ca D) 18Ar36
Q.6 How many electrons in chloride ion (Cl-) have azimuthal quantum number equal to zero
A) 7 C) 6
B) 5 D) 10
Q.7 Which of the following element has highest electron affinity in periodic table?
A) F C) O
B) Cl D) N
Q.8 Which order of first ionization energy is correct?
A) B > Be C) O < N
B) He < Ne D) Ca < Sr
Q.9 The first four ionization energies values of an element are 284, 412, 656 and 3210 kJmol-1.
The number of valence electrons in the element are
A) One C) Three
B) Two D) Four
Q.10 The mass of 1 mole of electrons is
A) 1.008 mg C) 0.55 mg
B) 1.10 mg D) 0.275mg
Q.11 3
Number of moles present in 4 dm of 0.5M NaOH is
A) 1 C) 2
B) 1.5 D) 2.5
Q.12 The sum of mole fractions of all the components of the solution is
A) Less than unity C) Greater than unity
B) Equal to unity D) May less or greater than unity
Q.13 A solution of glucose is 10%. The volume in which 1 g mole of it is dissolved will be
A) 1 dm3 C) 200 cm3
B) 1.8 dm3 D) 900 cm3
Q.14 If absolute temperature is doubled and pressure is also doubled, the volume of the ideal gas
1
A) Remains unchanged C) Becomes
4th
B) Becomes double D) Becomes four times
Q.15 Equal weight of methane and hydrogen are mixed in an empty container at 25 oC. The
fraction of total pressure exerted by methane is
A) 1 C) 1
3 9
B) 2 D) 8
3 9
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Q.16 N2H4 and O2 have same rate of diffusion because they have same
A) Molar mass C) Number of moles
B) Number of molecules D) All of the above
Q.17 If absolute temperature and atmospheric pressure of 4 dm3 of CH4 are doubled, then the
volume of CH4 would be
A) 4 dm3 C) 16 dm3
3
B) 2 dm D) 8 dm3
Q.18 All higher temperature isotherm moves away from both the axes because of increase in
A) Pressure C) Volume
B) Number of moles D) All of these
Q.19 Solvent extraction is an equilibrium process and it is controlled by
A) Law of mass action B) The amount of solvent used
C) Distribution law D) The amount of solute
Q.20 When water freezes at 0 C, its density decreases due to
A) Cubic structure of ice
B) Empty spaces present in the structure of ice
C) Change of bond lengths
D) Change of bond angles
Q.21 Which of the following is a pseudo solid
A) CaF2 B) Glass C) NaCl D) All
Q.22 Orbital having same energy is called
A) Hybrid orbital B) Valence orbital C) Degenerate orbital D) d-orbital
Q.23 Calorie is equivalent to
A) 0.4184 Jc B) 41.84 J C) 4.184 J D) 418.4 J
Q.24 If the salt bridge is not used between two half cells, then the voltage
A) Decreases rapidly B) Decreases slowly C) Does not change D) Drops to zero
Q.25 Which one of the following is not a property of an ideal gas?
A) Particles have negligible volume
B) Particles have zero mass
C) Particles have no attractive forces
D) The average K.E of particles is proportional to absolute temperature.
Q.26 Under which set of condition will CO has the greatest molar volume
A) High temperature, high pressure C) High temperature, low pressure
B) Low temperature and high pressure D) None of these
Q.27 1 atmosphere is not equal to
A) 760 torr C) 147 psi
B) 101.325 kPa D) 1.01325 bar
Q.28 The value of universal gas constant R depends on
A) Temperature of gas C) Number of moles of gas
B) Volume of gas D) Units of volume and pressure
Q.29 Main cause of deviation of real gases from ideal behaviour is
A) There are forces of attraction among the molecules of gas
B) Actual volume of gas molecule is not negligible as compared to total volume of vessel
C) Gases exert pressure when strikes with wall of container
D) Both A and B
Q.30 Under which condition real gases deviate from ideal behaviour
A) Low temperature and low pressure C) High temperature and high pressure
B) Low temperature and high pressure D) High temperature and low pressure
Q.31 If absolute temperature of gas is doubled and pressure is reduced to 1/2 , the volume of gas will
A) Remain unchanged C) Increase four times
th
B) Reduce to 1/4 D) Be doubled
Q.32 A mixture of 64 g each of SO2, O3, O2 and CH4 is taken in a cylinder. The correct order of their
partial pressures is
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 THE SUPERIOR UNIVERSITY, LAHORE
A) SO2 > O3 > O2 > CH4 C) CH4 > O3 > O2 >SO2
B) SO2 > O2 > O3 > CH4 D) CH4 > O2 > O3 >SO2
Q.33 Atmospheric pressure is due to
A) Partial pressure of N2 C) Partial pressure of CO2
B) Partial pressure of O2 D) All combined
Q.34 Which of the following atomic orbital has lowest relative energy when the value of n = 4
A) 4f C) 4p
B) 4d D) 4s

Q.35 Which one of the following is not an alkali metal?

A) francium B) rubidium C) radium D) caesium
Q.36 Which will form an ion with +3 oxidation state?
A) carbon B) beryllium C) aluminium D) silicon
Q.37 Laughing gas is chemically
A) N2O B) N2O3 C) NO D) NO2
Q.38 Among VA group, most electronegative element is
A) P B) As C) Sb D) N
Q.39 Hydrogen bond is strongest among the molecules of
A) HI B) HBr C) HCl D) HF
Q.40 Which one of the following is typical transition element?
A) Zn B) Cd C) Hg D) Cr
Q.41 For a p-sub-shell, the value of ‘ ’is
A) 0 C) 1
B) 2 D) 3
Q.42 Principal, azimuthal and magnetic quantum numbers are respectively related to
A) Size, shape and orientation C) Shape, size and orientation
B) Size, orientation and shape D) None of the above
Q.43 Which one of the following specie would on losing an electron have a half-filled set of p-
orbitals?
A) C-1 C) N
-1
B) N D) O+1
40 40
Q.44 Which of the following is true for 18 Ar and 19 K they have same
A) Number of electrons C) Number of protons
B) Number of neutrons D) Number of nucleons
Q.45 Formula of chloroform is
A) CH2Cl2 B) CHCl3 C) CH3Cl D) CCl4
Q.46 Preparation of vegetable ghee involves
A) oxidation B) substitution C) addition D) hydrogenation
Q.47 Aromatic hydrocarbons are derivatives of
A) alkanes B) benzene C) alkenes D) cyclohexane
Q.48 The mass of one mole of electron is
A) 1.008 mg B) 0.55 mg C) 0.184 mg D) 1.673 mg
Q.49 If electron has spin quantum number of +1/2 and magnetic quantum number of +3, it can
be present in
A) s-orbital C) p-orbital
B) d- orbital D) f-orbital
Q.50 Which of the following subshell is not possible?
A) 6s C) 4f
B) 2d D) 5p
Q.51 Quantum number values for 2p orbitals are.
A) n=2, l=1 C) n=2, l=2
B) n=1, l=0 D) n=2, l=0

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Q.52 Which of the following expression is used to calculate no. of orbitals in a subshell
A) n2 C) 2n2
B) 2 (2l + 1) D) 2l + 1
Q.53 Which is called universal solvent?
A) CH3-O-CH3 B) H2O C) C2H5OH D) CH3OH
Q.54 The carbon atom of carbonyl group is
A) sp hybridized B) sp2 hybridized C) sp3 hybridized D) dsp2 hybridized
Q.55 A carboxylic acid contains
A) a hydroxyl group B) a hydroxyl and carboxyl group
C) a carboxyl group D) a carboxyl and aldehydic group
Q.56 Which enzyme hydrolyses fats?
A) zymase B) lipase C) invertase D) urease
Q.57 Which three elements are needed for healthy plant growth?
A) N,S,P B) N,P,K C) N, Ca, P D) N, K, C
Q.58 The word paper is derived from which reedy plant?
A) poplar B) papyrus C) sun flower D) rose
Q.59 Which of the following element has lowest first electron affinity
A) Na C) K
B) Rb D) Cs
Q.60 Which of the following species is not polar?
A) PCl3 C) SO2
B) SF6 D) CHCl3
Q.61 Shape of SnCl2 is similar to
A) CO2 C) BeCl2
B) HgCl2 D) SO2
Q.62 The molecule, which does not involve sp2 hybridization is
A) BF3 C) Graphite
B) Ethene D) BeC 2
Q.63 The bond present in diamond is
A) Ionic C) Covalent
B) Co-ordinate covalent D) Metallic
Q.64 Keeping in view the size of atoms, which order is correct one?
A) Mg>Sr B) Ba>Mg C) Lu>Ce D) Cl>I
Q.65 Which statement is correct?
A) Na+ is smaller than Na atom B) Na+ is larger than Na atom
-
C) Cl is smaller than Cl atom D) Na+ and Na has equal size
Q.66 ______________has a pyramidal structure
A) CO2 C) NH3
B) H2O D) CH4
Q.67 An ionic compound A+B- is most likely to be formed when
A) Ionization energy of A is high but electron affinity of B is low
B) The ionization energy of A is low but electron affinity of B is high
C) Both ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B is high
D) Both ionization energy of A and electron affinity of B are low
Q.68 ___________hybridization leads to a regular tetrahedral structure:
A) sp3 C) sp
2
B) sp D) All of these
Q.69 Bond energy of nitrogen molecule is greater than C2H6, C2H4 and C2H2, the bond length of
nitrogen molecule may be
A) 120 pm C) 110 pm
B) 154 pm D) 133 pm

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Q.70 The substance with maximum ionic character is
A) NaCl C) HF
B) KCl D) CsF
Q.71 Which of the following has not tendency to form co-ordinate covalent with H+?
A) NH3 C) H2O
B) BF3 D) CH3OH
Q.72 Select the pair of elements that form ionic bond with highest percentage of ionic character
A) Na and Al C) Li and S
B) Li and Cl D) Na and Cl
Q.73 π-bond is formed by the overlap of
A) s-s orbitals C) p-p orbitals
B) s-p orbitals D) p-sp3
Q.74 Which is the strongest acid?
A) HClO B) HClO2 C) HClO3 D) HClO4
Q.75 The chemist who synthesized urea from ammonium cyanate
A) Grignard B) Kolbe C) Berzelius D) Wohler
Q.76 The presence of double bond in a compound is the sign of
A) saturation B) substitution C) unsaturation D) none
Q.77 Formalin is
A) 10% solution of formaldehyde in water C) 20% solution of formaldehyde in water
B) 40% solution of formaldehyde in water D) 60% solution of formaldehyde in water
Q.78 3 × 10–21 moles of an amino acid having molecular mass 200 gmol–1 would have molecules.
A) 200 C) 1800
B) 200 D) 360000
Q.79 Which of the following process is endothermic?
A) Condensation of steam C) Electrolysis of water
B) Freezing of water D) Ca + H2O ⎯⎯ → Ca(OH)2 + H2
Q.80 Heat of atomization of sodium is obtained by
A) Heat of fusion C) Heat of vaporization
B) Specific heat D) Both A and B
Q.81 Heat absorbed or evolved during the chemical reaction at constant pressure is
A) ∆H C) ∆E
B) ∆G D) ∆H+∆E
Q.82 Bomb calorimeter is used to determine the
A) ∆Hs C) ∆Hc
B) ∆Hi D) none of these
Q.83 A reaction gives out heat. This means that
A) Only new bonds are being made
B) Only existing bonds are being broken
C) Bonds being made are stronger than bonds broken
D) Bonds being broken are stronger than bonds made
Q.84 Which one of the following enthalpy terms will always have a different sign?
A) Enthalpy of atomization C) Enthalpy of neutralization
B) Enthalpy of combustion D) Enthalpy of solution
Q.85 For the reaction NaOH + HCl NaCl + H2O, the change in enthalpy is called
A) Heat of reaction C) Heat of formation
B) Heat of neutralization D) Heat of combustion
Q.86 Chile saltpeter has chemical formula
A) Na2B4O7 B) KNO3 C) Na2CO3.H2O D) NaNO3
Q.87 Stoichiometric calculations are not possible when
A) All the reactants are completely converted into products
B) 100% reaction takes place

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C) Law of conservation of mass and law of definite proportions are obeyed
D) Side reaction occurs
Q.88 How many moles of CO are produced from 0.9 moles of O2 in the reaction
2C + O2 → 2CO
A) 18 moles C) 36 moles
B) 1.8 moles D) 3.6 moles
Q.89 In primary alkyl halides, halogen is attached to that carbon atom which is further attached
to how many carbon atoms?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4
Q.90 Which one of the following is not a nucleophile?
A) H2O B) H2S C) NH3 D) BF3
Q.91 Rectified spirit contains about alcohol
A) 95% alcohol B) 98% alcohol C) 80% alcohol D) 85% alcohol
Q.92 Peroxy acetyl nitrate is secondary pollutant and it is …irritant
A) lungsB) eyes C) kidney D) throat
Q.93 4 g H2 reacts with 8 g O2 to form steam. How many moles of gases are there after the
completion of reaction in the vessel?
A) 3 C) 3.5
B) 2.0 D) 0.5
Q.94 The number of carbon atoms in 6 mg of a diamond piece is
A) 3.01  1023 C) 6.02  1023
B) 3.01  10 20
D) 6.02  1024
Q.95 Which is always true for a balanced chemical equation?
It contains equal
A) Number of moles of reactants and products C) Molecules of reactants and products
B) Masses of reactants and products D) Volume of reactants and products
Q.96 Block of metals Mg, Al, Fe, Zn of each mass 100 g. The maximum number of atoms are
present in a block of metal
A) Mg C) Al
B) Zn D) Fe
Q.97 The number of moles of steam, which contains 8.0 g of oxygen
A) 1.0 C) 0.5
B) 0.25 D) 0.1
Q.98 Which one of the following does not belong to alkaline earth metals?
A) Be B) Rn C) Ba D) Ra
Q.99 Aluminium oxide is
A) acidic B) basic C) amphoteric D) neutral
Q.100 Which of the following elements belongs to group IVA?
A) aluminium B) lead C) sulphur D) barium

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ENGLISH BANK
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Refer to the text to
check your answers when appropriate.
In this age of texts and tweets, it is easy to send The Pony Express had 184 stations along the trail. The
messages. You just press a few buttons, and boom! stations were around ten miles apart. This is about how
Your message is sent. The person to whom you sent it far a horse could run at a gallop before tiring. The rider
will get it in just a few seconds. Distance is no longer an would switch to a new horse at each station. He would
issue. But things weren't always so easy. only take his mail pouch with him. Every 75-100 miles,
In 1848 gold was found in California. Thousands of the rider would get to a home station. At each home
people rushed there to get some. Many people liked station, riders would rest. Before resting, he would give
living there and decided to stay. But there wasn't a his mail pouch to a new rider. The mail never stopped
whole lot between California and Missouri, where the moving, even while the horses and riders rested.
nearest trains ran. The train line to California wasn't It was tough to ride for the Pony Express. Each rider had
finished until 1869. It took a long time to ride a horse to weigh less than 125 pounds. Speed was the key.
to Missouri. Most of the riders were teenage boys. They rode at a
Imagine that it is the year 1860. You have moved to fast pace for up to 100 miles a day. If there were an
California to open a shop. Most of your family stayed emergency, one might have to ride 200 miles in a day.
back East. Your shop is doing well and now you want to The ride could be rough and dangerous. Attacks by
your family to join you. How do you get news to them? Native Americans were common. But in its time
There's no phone, no train, and you can't leave your running, the Pony Express only lost one mail pouch.
shop for too long. What do you do? Well, you could use The Pony Express filled an important role for a time, but
the Pony Express. it did not last. The Civil War started in April of 1861. This
In 1860 and 1861, the Pony Express was the fastest way was bad news for the owners. The worst for them was
to get news to and from the West. The trail that they yet to come. On October 24th, 1861, the first telegraph
rode was around 2000 miles long. It took most people line to California was finished. This linked them to the
weeks or months to ride that far. The Pony Express rest of the country.
could make the trip in just ten days. Those speeds were People could send messages in an instant. Two days
unheard of at the time. So how did they do it? Well, later the Pony Express closed. But the lore of the brave
they had a good system. riders lives on even today
Questions:
Q.1. Which happened first?
A) Settlers rushed to California to find gold.
B) The Pony Express was started.
C) The train line to California was finished.
D) The first telegraph line to California was finished.
Q.2. Which best explains why Pony Express riders had to weigh less than 125 pounds?
A) Heavier men were more expensive.
B) Horses were scared of heavier men.
C) Heavier men scared customers.
D) Horses could move quicker with lighter men.
Q.3. How fast could the Pony Express take a letter from California to Missouri?
A) 24 hours B) ten days C) twenty days D) one month
Q.4. Why were the Pony Express stations about ten miles apart?
A) This was about as far as a man could walk in a single day.
B) This was as far as a man could ride on a horse in a day.
C) This was so the riders wouldn't get so lonely at night.
D) This was as far as a horse could run without getting tired.
Q.5. Which was probably not a requirement to be a rider for the Pony Express?
A) You had to be light.
B) You had to be an expert horse rider.
C) You had to be able to read and write.
D) You had to be brave in the face of danger.

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 THE SUPERIOR UNIVERSITY, LAHORE
Q.6. Which best describes that main idea of the fifth paragraph?
A) It is about how many Pony Express stations there were.
B) It is about how the Pony Express carried mail so quickly.
C) It is about how the Pony Express riders slept in the stations.
D) It is about how far the Pony Express riders would go in a day.

Q.7. Which of these ended the Pony Express?

A) The telegraph B) The Civil War
C) Wars with Native Americans D) The train line
Q.8. About how far did Pony Express riders travel on a usual day?
A) 10 miles B) 200 miles
C) 100 miles D) 2000 miles
Q.9. How many mail pouches did the Pony Express lose?
A) The Pony Express never lost a mail pouch. B) One
C) Two D) Too many to keep track
Q.10. Which title best describes the author's purpose in writing this?
A) Out of Touch: Why Phones are Faster Than Horses
B) The Pony Express: Stories of Their Bravery in Battle
C) Back in Touch: Why We Should Use Horses to Deliver the Mail.
D) The Pony Express: About the 1860's Fastest Mail Service
SENTENCE COMPLETION:
Complete the following sentences by selecting appropriate verbs.
Q.11. He _______ to the college every day.
A) come B) comes C) came D) had come
Q.12. He _________ you as soon as he gets his money.
A) will pay B) had paid C) has paid D) pays
Q.13. We saw her _______ out of the room.
A) to go B) goes C) went D) going
Q.14. You _______ to see him last night.
A) have gone B) will go C) went D) had gone
Q.15. It _________ now.
A) rain B) rains C) is raining D) has been raining
Q.16. Phosphorus__________ in dark.
A) glowed B) glow C) glows D) glowing
Q.17. Would that it __________spring forever.
A) is B) was C) were D) has been
Note: Complete the following sentences by selecting appropriate words.
Q.18. The pedestrian came _____________ me without looking at me.
A) after B) down C) by D) through
Q.19. And don't stuff your head _____________ things you don't understand.
A) to B) with C) on D) by
Q.20. The Turks were only too glad to be able to lay ______________arms.
A) in B) down C) off D) about
Q.21. A British motor ambulance drew at a side-door of the palace.
A) up B) out C) into D) in
Q.22. It turned ________________the merchant manufacturers and professional men.
A) off B) in C) out D) up
Q.23. He made a slight________ of judgment for which he had to repent latter.
A) error B) slip C) mistake D) blunder
Q.24. Many people think rabbits love to eat carrots, but they actually ______ lettuce.
A) hate B) consume C) grow D) prefer
Q.25. Although it is ______ outside, Quincy is not wearing a ______.
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 THE SUPERIOR UNIVERSITY, LAHORE
A) cool … hat B) warm … scarf C) hot … shirt D) cold … jacket
Q.26. Brian was worried that he would be late for school, so he ______ out the front door.
A) wandered B) ran C) danced D) drove
Q.27. He is capable __________ doing this job.
A) to B) in C) of D) on
Q.28. In his absence, his uncle will care __________ all his property.
A) from B) for C) with D) by
Q.29. You should be careful __________ your health.
A) in B) on C) about D) over
Q.30. A doctor should never be careless __________ his duty.
A) over B) off C) within D) about
Q.31. Let us carry __________ with our work so that we can finish it today.
A) out B) on C) in D) up
Q.32. Why did you not carry __________ my order?
A) about B) over C) on D) out
Q.33. Please call __________ the doctor immediately!
A) in B) of C) about D) around
Q.34. He had for some reason been afflicted ______________ an acute desire to depreciate himself.
A) in B) to C) with D) on
Q.35. The examiners, on the other hand, were partial ___________ Latin and Mathematics.
A) with B) to C) by D) of
Q.36. He was generous _________ scholars and established twenty seven free schools.
A) of B) to C) against D) for
Analogy:
Q.37. Cow is to Barn as Silkworm is to……..?
A) marsh B) cave C) under water D) tree
Q.38. Tie is to Neck as Actor is to……….?
A) committee B) penal C) stage D) play ground
Q.39. Drama is to Acts as Song is to………?
A) cycle B) sequence C) music D) stanza
Q.40. Drill is to Bore as Wrench is to……….?
A) shoe B) twist C) accolade D) harvest
Q.41. Chemist is to Laboratory as Judge is to……..?
A) office B) public library C) court house D) supreme court
Q.42. Conductor is to Baton as Chairman is to………?
A) gravel B) oars C) guitar D) celebrity
Q.43. Drama is to Acts as Song is to………?
A) cycle B) sequence C) music D) stanza
Q.44. Wince is to Pain as Frown is to………?
A) flirt B) dislike C) shrug D) indifference
Q.45. Geology is to Earth as Linguistics is to……….?
A) learning B) language C) lionize D) phonetics
Q.46. 3 is to 9 as 4 is to………?
A) 12 B) 8 C) 26 D) 24
Q.47. Food is Hunger as Diet is to…….?
A) overweight B) cripple ness C) eye sight D) sleep
Comprehension:
Chess is called the game of kings. It has been around Chess is a two-player game. One player uses the white
for a long time. People have been playing it for over pieces. The other uses the black pieces. Each piece
500 years. Chess is based on an even older game from moves in a special way. One piece is called the king.
India. The chess we play today is from Europe. Each player has one. The players take turns moving
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 THE SUPERIOR UNIVERSITY, LAHORE
their pieces. If a player lands on a piece, he or she
takes it. The game ends when a player loses his or her
king. There are a few more rules, but those are the
basics.
Some people think that chess is more than a game.
They think that it makes the mind stronger. Good
chess players use their brains. They take their time.
They think about what will happen next. These skills
are useful in life and in chess. Chess is kind of like a
work out for the mind.
You don't always have lots of time to think when
playing chess. There is a type of chess with short time
limits. It's called blitz chess. In blitz chess, each player
gets ten minutes to use for the whole game. Your clock
runs during your turn. You hit the time clock after your
move. This stops your clock. It also starts the other
player's clock. If you run out of time, you lose. Games
of blitz chess are fast-paced.
Chess is not just for people. Computers have been
playing chess since the 1970s. At first they did not play
well. They made mistakes. As time went on they grew
stronger. In 1997, a computer beat the best player in
the world for the first time. It was a computer called
Deep Blue. Deep Blue was big. It took up a whole
room. By 2006 a cell phone could beat the best players
in the world. Chess sure has come a long way. Don't
you think so?

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Questions
Q.48. What is the author's purpose in writing the second paragraph?
A) To explain the rules of chess B) To talk about game pieces
C) To compare different types of games D) To persuade people to play chess
Q.49. Which is not a reason that chess is a good workout for the mind according to the text?
A) Good chess players think about what will happen next.
B) Good chess players take a lot of risks.
C) Good chess players take their time.
D) Good chess players use their brains.
Q.50. How long have people been playing chess?
A) Over 100 years B) Over 1000 years
C) Over 500 years D) Over 5000 years
Q.51. Where did the game that chess is based on come from?
A) Europe C) India
B) America D) All of these
Q.52. Which best describes the main idea in the fourth paragraph?
A) This paragraph argues that players should think less.
B) This paragraph explains how blitz chess is played.
C) This paragraph explains time clocks work.
D) This paragraph describes many different ways to play chess.
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Refer to the text to check
your answers when appropriate.

You know that you're doing something big when Google was the first search engine that began
your company name becomes a verb. Ask Xerox. considering links. Links are those blue underlined
In 1959 they created the first plain paper copy words that take you to other pages when you
machine. It was one of the most successful click on them. Larry Page, cofounder of Google,
products ever. The company name Xerox grew believed that meaningful data could be drawn
into a verb that means "to copy," as in "Bob, can from how those links connect. Page figured that
you Xerox this for me?" Around 50 years later, websites with many links pointing at them were
the same thing happened to Google. Their more important than those that had few. He was
company name grew into a verb that means "to right. Google's search results were much better
do an internet search." Now everyone and their than their rivals. They would soon become the
grandma knows what it means to Google it. world's most used search engine.

Unlike Xerox, Google wasn't the first company to It wasn't just the great search results that led to
invent their product, not by a long shot. Lycos Google becoming so well liked. It also had to do
released their search engine in 1993. Yahoo! with the way that they presented their product.
came out in 1994. AltaVista began serving results Most of the other search engines were cluttered.
in 1995. Google did not come out until years Their home pages were filled with everything
later, in 1998. Though a few years difference from news stories to stock quotes. But Google's
may not seem like much, this is a major head homepage was, and still is, clean. There's
start in the fast moving world of tech. So how nothing on it but the logo, the search box, and a
did Google do it? How did they overtake their few links. It almost appears empty. In fact, when
competitors who had such huge leads in time they were first testing it, users would wait at the
home page and not do anything. When asked

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 THE SUPERIOR UNIVERSITY, LAHORE
and money? Maybe one good idea made all the why, they said that they were, "waiting for the
difference. rest of the page to load." People couldn't
imagine such a clean and open page as being
There are millions and millions of sites on the complete. But the fresh design grew on people
internet. How does a search engine know which once they got used to it.
ones are relevant to your search? This is a
question that great minds have been working on These days Google has its hands in everything
for decades. To understand how Google changed from self-driving cars to helping humans live
the game, you need to know how search engines longer. Though they have many other popular
worked in 1998. Back then most websites looked products, they will always be best known for
at the words in your query. They counted how their search engine. The Google search engine
many times those words appeared on each page. has changed our lives and our language. Not only
Then they might return pages where the words is it a fantastic product, it is a standing example
in your query appeared the most. This system that one good idea (and a lot of hard work) can
did not work well and people often had to click change the world.
through pages and pages of results to find what
they wanted.
Questions:

Q.53. Which event happened last?

A) Lycos released their search engine. B) Yahoo! released their search engine.
C) Google released their search engine. D) Xerox released their copy machine.
Q.54. Which best expresses the main idea of the third paragraph?
A) There are lots and lots of websites connected to the internet.
B) Google created a better way to organize search results.
C) Many smart people have worked on search engines over the years.
D) Older search engines used unreliable methods to order results.
Q.55. Which statement would the author most likely agree with?
A) Google became successful because its founders were well-connected
B) Google was the world's first and best search engine.
C) Google changed the world by solving an old problem in a new way.
D) Google's other products are now more important to its success than search.
Q.56. Which best expresses the main idea of the fourth paragraph?
A) Links allow people to surf from one website to the next.
B) Larry Page's ideas about links helped Google get to the top.
C) Larry Page contributed to the internet by inventing the link.
D) Google is a website that serves important links to users.
Q.57. Which title best expresses the author's main purpose in writing this text?
A) Xerox Vs. Google: Battle of the Titans
B) Search Engines: How They Work and Why They're Important
C) A Better Way: How Google Rose to the Top
D) Search Engines: A Short History of Important Tools
Synonyms:
Q.58. ABILITY
A) Agility B) Capability C) Negligence D) Dull

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 THE SUPERIOR UNIVERSITY, LAHORE
Q.59. ABSORPTION
A) Amalgamation B) Rejection C) Adjust D) Congest
Q.60. DISCERNMENT.
A) Wisdom B) Illiteracy C) Rejection D) Mystery

Q.61. SMUDGES.
A) Marks B) Pictures C) Words D) Sentences
Q.62. CHUBBY
A) Fat B) Tall C) Smart and strong D) Handsome
Q.63. GLEAMS
A) Rays B) Oil C) Smell D) Stink
Q.64. FAINT
A) Strong B) Confident C) Sleepy D) Unconscious
Q.65. GLEAMS
A) Rays B) Oil C) Smell D) Stink
Q.66. SCOURGE
A) Strap B) Fiend C) Building D) Pestilence
Q.67. HAMPERS
A) Hinders B) Encourages C) Urges D) Highlights
Antonyms
Q.68. DEVOID
A) latent B) inevitable C) patent D) full of
Q.69. EXODUS
A) neglect B) entry C) gain D) consent
Q.70. GREGARIOUS
A) antisocial B) anticipatory C) glorious D) convivial
Q.71. CATER
A) withhold B) decorate C) provide D) denounce
PREPOSITION
Q.72. He is capable __________ doing this job.
A) to B) in C) of D) on
Q.73. In his absence, his uncle will care __________ all his property.
A) from B) for C) with D) by
Q.74. You should be careful __________ your health.
A) in B) on C) about D) over
Q.75. A doctor should never be careless __________ his duty.
A) over B) off C) within D) about
Q.76. Let us carry __________ with our work so that we can finish it today.
A) out B) on C) in D) up
Q.77. Why did you not carry __________ my order?
A) about B) over C) on D) out
Q.78. Please call __________ the doctor immediately!
A) in B) of C) about D) around
Q.79. He called __________ his friend's house.

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 THE SUPERIOR UNIVERSITY, LAHORE
A) behind B) over C) up D) at
Q.80. They have cautioned him __________ making political speeches.
A) of B) for C) against D) from
Q.81. A drowning man catches __________ a straw.
A) over B) at C) in D) up
Q.82. She is clumsy __________ cooking.
A) about B) on C) over D) at
Q.83. He tried to calm __________ his angrily shouting brother.
A) up B) down C) out D) in
Q.84. I am certain __________ his capabilities.
A) of B) on C) in D) at
Q.85. The villagers complained __________ the poor sanitary conditions.
A) of B) to C) in D) with
Q.86. The workers will complain __________ the peon for his inefficiency.
A) against B) off C) above D) in
Q.87. Mustafa Kamal refused to comply __________ the order of Mehemet IV.
A) at B) of C) on D) with
Q.88. This book is composed __________ the exercises from topics in text and grammar.
A) of B) in C) out D) without
Q.89. In the hall, we came __________ some of our old friends.
A) up B) on C) across D) about
Q.90. In the party, his father did not come __________ him.
A) above B) along C) about D) in
Directions: Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow. Refer to the text to check
your answers when appropriate.

The day after Thanksgiving is the start of the So where does the name "Black Friday" come
holiday shopping season. Thanksgiving is always from? It was first used in Philadelphia in the
on a Thursday, so the day after is a Friday. This 1950s. The police called this day Black Friday
day has come to be known as Black Friday. It has because of the heavy traffic it drew. In the 1960s,
been the busiest shopping day of the year since stores tried to rename the day "Big Friday." It did
2005. not stick. The name "Black Friday" continued to
spread across the country. It seems that it is here
Most stores offer great deals on Black Friday. to stay.
They open their doors in the wee hours of the
morning. They try to attract shoppers with big Now people all over the country take part in the
discounts. Some items like TVs are much cheaper event known as Black Friday. It is even spreading
than usual. Stores may even lose money on these to other parts of the world. Stores have held
items. They hope that shoppers will buy gifts for Black Friday events in the U.K., Australia, and
other people while they are in the store. Brazil since 2012. In Costa Rica Black Friday is
known as "Viernes Negro." And in Mexico, stores
Black Friday is a great time to get good deals. The offer an annual weekend of discounts. They call it
problem is that there are not enough low-priced "El Buen Fin," which means "the good weekend"
items to go around. Each store may only have a

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 THE SUPERIOR UNIVERSITY, LAHORE
few. These items are in high demand. People in Spanish. I guess the language of savings is
stand in long lines to get such great deals. They universal.
may line up hours before a store opens. They
may be hoping to get a low price on a TV or
laptop, but not everyone who wants one will get
one. Some people leave disappointed

The situation can be tense. Some Black Friday

events have been violent. Large, eager crowds
have trampled workers. Fights have broken out
over toys or people cutting in line. People have
shot one another over parking spots. But most
Black Friday events are safe and fun. Still, if you
plan on going, expect large crowds and a bit of
shoving.
Questions:
Q.91. According to the text, why do stores set prices so low on some items that they lose money?
A) They want people to enjoy the holidays.
B) They hope people will buy other gifts while they are in the store.
C) They are in a giving mood because the holiday season is just beginning.
D) They are trying to get rid of old items from last year to make room for new items.
Q.92. Which is not true about Black Friday?
A) Black Friday is always the day after Thanksgiving.
B) Black Friday is the busiest shopping day of the year.
C) Black Friday is a national holiday.
D) Black Friday is the start of the holiday shopping season.
Q.93. Where does the name Black Friday come from?
A) The police called this day Black Friday because there is a lot of traffiC)
B) The stores called this day Black Friday because it is a serious shopping day.
C) The police called this day Black Friday to remember the victims of violence.
D) The stores called this day Black Friday because they make a lot of money.
Q.94. Which best explains the main idea of the third paragraph?
A) People stand in long lines on Black Friday.
B) Black Friday is the best time of the year to get good deals.
C) Black Friday is a really disappointing time of the year.
D) Black Friday deals are limited and not everyone will get one.
Q.95. Which country does not participate in Black Friday?
A) France C) Brazil
B) Costa Rica D) United Kingdom
Q.96. Which happened first?
A) Stores tried to rename the day after Thanksgiving "Big Friday."
B) Black Friday events began happening in Australia .
C) Police began calling the day after Thanksgiving "Black Friday."
D) Black Friday became the busiest shopping day of the year.
Q.97. Which title best expresses the author's purpose in writing this text?
A) Black Friday: Stories from the Parking Lot

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 THE SUPERIOR UNIVERSITY, LAHORE
B) Black Friday: Why You Should Go This Year
C) Black Friday: The Stuff That You Should Know
D) Black Friday: How to Save Money on the Big Day
Q.98. Which best describes the overall structure of the fifth paragraph?
A) chronological order C) compare and contrast
B) problem and solution D) order of importance
Q.99. Which was not cited as one of the downsides of Black Friday?
A) Stores run out of high demand items quickly.
B) Nobody really saves any money on Black Friday.
C) There are large crowds and lots of shoving.
D) Sometimes violence occurs at Black Friday events.

Q.100. Which best explains why Costa Ricans call Black Friday "Viernes Negro"?
A) Costa Rican stores don't want the shopping day associated with American violence.
B) Viernes Negro sounds more exotic and exciting than Black Friday.
C) Costa Ricans want to establish their own shopping tradition.
D) This is how you say "Black Friday" in Spanish, the language of Costa Rica

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 THE SUPERIOR UNIVERSITY, LAHORE

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE BANK

Q.1. Who was he custodian of Sahifa Abu Huraira (RA)?
A) Hazrat Ikrima B) Hazrat Ibn-e-Sireen
C) Hazrat Saeed D) Hazrat Hamam Bin Manaba
Q.2. The social boycott with Banu Hashim happened in
A) 8 San-i-Nabvi B) 7 San-i-Nabvi
C) 10 San-i-Nabvi D) 9 San-i-Nabvi
Q.3. Which Lake is situated in “Pearl of Himalayas” literally in Kaghan Valley?
A) Lalusar Lake B) Saiful Maluk C) Ansoo Lake D) All of these
Q.4. Where is the Mirani Dam?
A) Dashat river B) Jhelum river C) Bolan river D) Hub river
Q.5. Total lenght of the river known as Ravi is _____.
A. 715 Km B. 635 KM C. 610 KM D. 695 KM
Q.6. Zahir-ud-din Muhammad Babur was died in_______
A) 25 November 1526 B) 9 January 1555 C) 17 September 1540 D) 26 December 1530
Q.7. National flower of the Argentina is ________
A) Calla Lily B) Cornflower C) Ceibo D) Marsh Marigold
Q.8. ____________ has +90 as its International code
A). Yemen B). Vietnam C). Turkey D). Cuba
Q.9. The Indus river ends at________.
A. Sutlej B. Chenab C. Arabian sea D. Indian ocean
Q.10. A city is known as the City of Palaces is ________
A) Geneva B) Mexico City C) Rome D) Cairo
Q.11. What is the Currency of Panama?
A) Balboa B) Kina C) Peso D) New Sol
Q.12. National game of Pakistan is ----------
A) Cricket B) football C) hockey D) kabadi
Q.13. Tehran is the capital of -------
A) Iraque B) turkey C) Iran D) Libiya
Q.14. -----------is Japanese currency.
A) Yan B) pond C) dollar D) frank
Q.15. Largest export of Pakistan is ----------
A) Rice B) cotton C) mango D) leather
Q.16. Who became first Pakistani to receive prestigious honorary Fellowship award by Oxford
University
A) Malala Yosuzai B) Kirshna Kumari Kohli C) Sherry Rehman D) Abida Parveen
Q.17. First SOS village of Pakistan was__________?
A) Karachi B) Sialkot C) Lahore D) Multan
Q.18. First DNA Test laboratory was established at___________?
A) Lahore B) Islamabad C) Karachi D) Quetta
Q.19. Where is the First Nuclear Power Plant in Arab World that was inaugurated in March 2018?
A) UAE B) Qatar C) Saudi Arabia D) Iraq
Q.20. A country that has the large number of nuclear warheads is _________
A) America B) China C) France D) Russia

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Q.21. _________river originates from the Maikal range.
A. Gomti B. Son C. Ghagra D. Narmada
Q.22. ________ is also known as Indus river .
A. Attock River B. Skardu River C. Abaseen River D. None of the above
Q.23. Ajmer is suited on _______ river?
A. Beas B. Teesta C. Ganga D. Luni
Q.24. In Sindh, ______ rivers flows.
A. Four B. Five C. Six D. Seven
Q.25. The longest river in Australia is __________.
A. Volga B. Murray C. Nile D. Mahaweli Gange
Q.26. Indus river rises from ______.
A. China B. Jammu C. Kashmir D. Tibet
Q.27. The oldest mountain of the world lies in India and the youngest mountain of the world lies
in____
A. India B. China C. Pakistan D. Burma
Q.28. All Indi a Muslim League was formed in the year.
A) 1885 B) 1906 C) 1909 D) 1940
Q.29. ASF stands for?
A) Airports Security Force B) Airport Security Force
C) Army Selection Field D) None of the above
Q.30. Famous dish “Sajji” originated from ________ ?
A) Sindh B) KPK C) Balochistan D) Punjab
Q.31. Cripps Mission was sent to the sub-continent in:
A) 1938 B) 1940 C) 1942 D) 1947
Q.32. Where was Allama Iqbal given the title of “Sir”?
A) London B) Lahore C) Delhi D) Bombay
Q.33. Which Pakistani Prime Minister received Indian Prime Minister Atal Behari Vajpayee when he
arrived by bus to Lahore?
A) Nawaz Sharif B) Benzair Bhutto C) Shujat Hussain D) Shaukat Aziz
Q.34. In May 2023, Saudi Arabia is going to sign a “Road to Makkah” project with which country?
A) Iran B) Pakistan C) Iraq D) Israel
Q.35. Prime Minister Shehbaz Sharif would visit which country on 6 May 2023?
A) USA B) UK C) UAE D) None of these
Q.36. Who was the founder of FIA (Federal Investigation Agency) Pakistan?
A) Zulfiqar Ali Bhutto B) General Zia ul Haq C) Pervez Musharraf D) None of these
Q.37. Currently largest share in Pakistan’s Electricity generation comes from?
A) Thermal Energy B) Hydel Energy C) Coal Energy D) Nuclear Energy
Q.38. The river which originates and as well as end in the territory of India
A. Chambal B. Indus C. Kosi D. None of the above
Q.39. In which province of Pakistan, Bolan river is located______
A. KPK B. Sindh C. Punjab D. Balochistan
Q.40. _______ river does not flow through the Himalayas
A. Indus B. Alaknanda C. Bhagirathi D. Godavari
Q.41. Who wrote the book Emergence of Pakistan?
A). K K Aziz B) Ch Najib C) Ch Muhammad Ali D).Ayesha Jalal
Q.42. Mark the correct one which is called as Sagarmatha in its home country.
A. K2 B. Manaslu C. Dhaulagiri I D. Mount Everest

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 THE SUPERIOR UNIVERSITY, LAHORE
Q.43. _______ highest mountain peak of the world is known as Nanga parbat.
A. 10th B. 8th C. 5th D. 9th
Q.44. Pakistan’s highest peak is ____.
A. K-2 B. Kilik Peak C. Broad Peak D. Sia kingri Peak

Q.45. Which strong Muslim leader was against Non-Cooperation Movement?

A) Allama Iqbal B) Maulana Muhammad Ali Johar
C) Quaid-e-Azam D) None of These
Q.46. Eid-ul-Fitr is celebrated on 1st of --------
A) Ramazan B) Muharam C) Shiwal D) Rajab
Q.47. Pakistan won the cricket world cup of --------
A) 1995 B) 1992 C) 2011 D) 2014
Q.48. ---------- is the capital of America.
A) New York B) London C) Washington D.C. D) Zurich
Q.49. The ------- is the largest desert of the world.
A) Thar B) Sahara C) Gobi D) Cholistan
Q.50. Pakistan successfully conducted its nuclear tests on 28 May
A) 1996 B) 1998 C) 2000 D) 2002
Q.51. Fighter aircraft made by Pakistan is ---------
A) F16 B) Shaheen C) AL-khalid D) JF Thunder 17
Q.52. Youngest Prime Minister of Pakistan was_________?
A) Fahmeeda Mirza B) Benazir Bhutto C) Ghulam Muhammad D) None of these
Q.53. First TV station of Pakistan was at_________?
A) Karachi B) Lahore C) Multan D) Faisalabad
Q.54. How many times did squash player Jansher Khan win World Open?
A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9
Q.55. K2 is ranked as the ______ highest peak of the world?
A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth
Q.56. World’s ______ highest mountain is Makalu.
A. Third B. Fifth C. Seventh D. Ninth
Q.57. Due to the force generated by the endogenetic force ____ mountains are formed. For example,
when two plates collide head-on, and their edge crumbled?
A. Fold Mountains B. Block Mountains C. Volcanic Mountains D. Dissected mountains
Q.58. K-2 is also called as ______________ ?
A. Godwin Austin B. Broad Peak C. Roshan Peak D. Sia Kingri
Q.59. K2 is located in ___________ Mountain Range.
A. Mahalangur Himalaya B. Hispar Karakoram
C. Kangchenjunga Himalaya D. Baltoro Karakoram
Q.60. Nandipur Power Plant is located in
A) Lahore B) Sahiwal C) Gujranwala D) Bahawalpur
Q.61. Pakistan launched Operation Zarb-e-Azb in North Waziristan on
A) 15 March 2014 B) 15 April 2014 C) 15 May 2014 D) 15 June 2014
Q.62. Dasu Dam is located in __ .
A) Sindh B) Punjab C) Baluchistan D) KPK
Q.63. Total number of seats in National Assembly of Pakistan are __.
A) 306 B) 326 C) 332 D) 342

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 THE SUPERIOR UNIVERSITY, LAHORE
Q.64. North America’s largest mountain _________.
A. Prime Charles mountain B. Aconcagua
C. Mckinley D. Rockies mountain
Q.65. Nanga Parbat is the smallest part of?
A. Hindu Kush B. Karakoram C. Pamir D. Himalayas
Q.66. Mark the correct option which demands “ Which one of the following mountains is also
known as Mountain Godwin-Austen? “
A. K2 B. Nanga Parbat C. Himalchuli D. Mount Everest
Q.67. The Gasherbrum 1 is seen in _____ _.
A. Karakoram Range B. Himalaya Range C. Hindu Kush range D. Pir Panjal Range
Q.68. _______ is called the roof of the world?
A. Karakoram B. Hindu kush Range C. Pamir Plataau D. Himalayas Range
Q.69. The world’s third tallest mountain name is _______?
A. Kangchenjunga B. Lhoste C. Cho oyu D. Makalu
Q.70. Range which separates Pakistan from china is _________?
A. Hindu Kush B. Pamir C. Himalayas D. Karakoram
Q.71. The world’s second tallest mountain is _________?
A. Kangchenjunga B. Mount Everest C. K2 D. Lhoste
Q.72. World’s tallest mountain lies in_______
A. Iceland B. Pakistan C. Switzerland D. Nepal
Q.73. The tallest mountain of the world is
A. Mount Everest B. K2 C. Kangchenjunga D. Lhoste
Q.74. In research k2 has a height of ______?
A. 30,472 ft B. 28,251 ft C. 26,159 ft D. 27,998 ft
Q.75. The total number of Haroof e manqoot in Urdu?
A. 17 B. 18 C. 19 D. 20
Q.76. Malaria is a disease of?
A. Kidney B. spleen C. head D. all above
Q.77. French revolution is in?
A. 1789 B. 1790 C. 1791 D. 1792
Q.78. The scientific name of bleaching powder?
A. Calcium hypochlorite. B. Calcium hypochloride.
C. both D. None of these
Q.79. Who tested Wuhai Missile?
A. Pak B. China C. Japan D. US
Q.80. Where was the longest traffic jam in the world recorded?
A. Beijing B. New York C. Tokyo D.Karachi
Q.81. _____ type of rainfall is occurred in most of the World
A. Convectional rainfall B. Cyclonic or Frontal rainfall
C. Orographic rainfall or Relief rainfall D.None of these
Q.82. Which of the following is the Lingua Franca of Pakistan?
A. Punjabi B. Sindhi C. Pashto
D.Urdu
Q.83. The Greek goddess of war and wisdom was_______
A. Ganga B. Lakshmi C. Athena D.None of these
Q.84. In__________ country the aptly named Snowy Mountain are located?

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 THE SUPERIOR UNIVERSITY, LAHORE
A. Turkey B. Canada C. Russia D.Australia
Q.85. Who was the Firdausi?
A. a poet B. He was well known for his epic ‘Shahnama’
C. Both option A and B D.None of these
Q.86. The highest peak in the 48 contiguous U.S states is_____
A. Mount Elbert B. Mount Rainier C. Pikes Peak D.Mount Whitney
Q.87. The invention of a device that was the main reason for the demise of the Pony Express was
______
A. Radio B. Telephone C. Telegraph D.Train

Q.88. Which of the following Kansas city’s name means ‘potato’ in the Kansa language?
A. Abeline B. Wichita C. Omaha D.Topeka
Q.89. In US politics, who has carried the nickname of ‘the Veep’?
A. President B. Vice-President C. General Secretory D.Clerk
Q.90. According to Hadith who will never become a needy
A) One who save money B) A miser
C) One who does not tell a lie D) One who adopts moderation
Q.91. Holy Prophet’s teeth were fractured in
A) Ghazwa-e-Uhad B) Ghazwa-e-Ahzab
C) Ghazwa-e-Badar D) Ghazwa-e-Hunain
Q.92. The book written by Muhammad Bin Ismael was
A) Sunan-e-Abi Dwood B) Saheeh Bukhari
C) Saheeh Muslim D) Sunan-e-Nisai
Q.93. Hazrat Muhammad(PBUH) performed Hajj in:
A) 10 Hijri B) 8 Hijri C) 12 Hijri D) 11 Hijri
Q.94. It is in HADEES “your father are”
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
Q.95. Back biting is a disease
A) Moral B) Spiritual C) Internal D) Physical
Q.96. It is the necessary for the stability of economic system
A) Zakat B) Honesty C) Justice D) Prayer
Q.97. The Nisab-i-Zakat of silver is:
A) 50 Taula B) 52 ½ Taula C) 70 ½ Taula D) 7 ½ Taula
Q.98. Which nation was in majority in the state of Hyderabad Deccan at the time of creation of
Pakistan?
A) Muslim B) Hindu C) Sikh D) Christian
Q.99. The book, ‘Pakistan Naguzeer Tha’ was written by:
A) Dr. Safdar Mehmood B) Abdul Haleem Sharar
C) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan D) Syed Hassan Riaz
Q.100. Pakistan Ideology is based on:
A) Islamic Ideology B) Hindu Ideology
C) Single nation theory D) None of these

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MATHEMATICS BANK
Q.1 If A − A + I = O , then the inverse of A is
2

A) A-I C) I-A
B) A+I D) A
 5 5 
Q.2

Let A = 0  5  , if | A2 |= 25, then |  |=

 0 0 5 
A) 5 C) 25
1
B) 1 D)
5
Q.3 A five digit number divisible by 5 is to be formed using the digit 1,2,3,4,5 without repetition, The
number of ways this can be done is _______
A) 120 C) 23
B) 24 D) 26
Q.4 Find the number of arrangements of 3 books on English and 5 books on Urdu for placing them
on a shelf so that the books on the same subject are always together
A) 120 C) 723
B) 724 D) 1440
n n
Q.5 Find the values of n and r, when C = 35 and P = 210
r r
A) n=7,r=5 C) n=5,r=3
B) n=7 ,r=3 D) n=8 , r=5
If C35 + C x = C x then x is equal to _____
189 189 190
Q.6
A) 34 C) 36
B) 35 D) 37
Q.7 n
Cr + 2n Cr+1 +n Cr+2 = ?
n n +2
A) 2 Cr +1 C) Cr +2
n+2 n +1
B) Cr +1 D) Cr + 2
Q.8 There are 8 men and 10 women member of a club. How many committees of 7 member can be
formed having 4 women
A) 11672 C) 11760
B) 11762 D) 11670
Q.9 In how many way can a book or more than one book be chosen from 6 books
A) 63 C) 62
B) 64 D) 65
Q.10 In an examination a candidate has to pass in each of the four subjects. In how many ways can
he fail?
A) 15 C) 25
B) 20 D) 10
a
Q.11 Golden rule of fractions is that for ( k  0 ) , =?
b
ab K Kb Ka
A) B) C) D)
K ab Ka Kb

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22
Q.12 is
7
A) Natural number B) Whole number
C) Rational number D) Irrational number
Q.13 The sum of the fourth roots of unity is
A) 0 B) 1 C) −1 D) i
Q.14 The period of 3sin3x is:
  2
A) 3 B) 2 C) 3 D) 

s (s − a)
Q.15 is equal to
bc
   
A) sin B) sin C) cos D) cos
2 2 2 2
Q.16 sin ( 0 ) + cos ( 0 ) =
−1 −1

  2 
A) B) C) D)
2 6 5 4
1
Q.17 Solution of equation tan x = is:
3
A) I & III quad. B) I & II quad. C) II & IV quad. D) I quad.
Q.18 The notation used by Leibniz for derivative is
dy
A) B) f ( x ) C) f  ( x ) D) Df ( x )
dx
d
Q.19 ( x − 5)( 3 − x ) = :
dx
A) 2 x + 8 B) −2 x + 8 C) 2 x − 8 D) x + 8
Q.20 Differential of y is denoted by:
dy
A) dy  B) C) dy D) dx
dx
3
Q.21 −1
x 3dx =
A) 20 B) 80 C) 28 D) 18
Q.22 Point P ( x, y ) lies on the line bisecting quadrants I and III if:
A) x = − y B) x = y C) − x = y D) x  y
x + 2y + z = 9
Q.23 The system of the equation can be expressed as
2 x + y + 3z = 7
 x x
1 2 1   9  1 2 1 9   
A)    y =   B)   =    y
 2 1 3    7   2 1 3  7   
z z

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x
1 2 1 9   
C)     =  y D) None of these
 2 1 3  7   
z

cos  − sin  
Q.24 The multiplicative inverse of A = 
cos  
is
 sin 
 − cos  sin    cos  sin  
A) 
− cos  
C)  
 − sin   − sin  cos  
 − cos  − sin    cos  sin  
B)   D)  
 sin  − cos    sin  − cos  
Q.25 If 1 2 3 A =  4 5 , what is the order of matrix A?
A) 3  2 C) 3 1
B) 2  3 D) 2 1
Q.26 If each element of a 3  3 matrix is multiplied by 3 then the determinant of the newly formed
matrix is
A) 3 | A | C) 9 | A |
3
B) 27 | A | D) | A |
1  2
Q.27 If  is a cube root of unity, then  2 1 =
2 1 
A) 1 C) 
B)  2 D) 0

Q.28 Solution of a quadratic equation x 2 + 5 x − 6 = 0

A) −1, 6 C) x = 1
B) 1, −6 D) x = 6

An equation of form ax + bx + c = 0, a  0 is called

2
Q.29
A) the quadratic equation C) linear equation
B) the cubic equation D) polynomial of degree n
If a  0 , then function f ( x ) = ax + bx + c has a maximum value at
2
Q.30
a b
A) x = C) x = −
2b 2b
a 2b
B) x = − D) x =
2b a
Q.31 Quadratic equation whose roots are  ,  is
A) x + ( +  ) x +  = 0 C) x − ( +  ) x −  = 0
2 2

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B) x 2 + ( +  ) x −  = 0 D) x 2 − ( +  ) x +  = 0
Q.32 If x 4 − 3x + 5 is divided by 2x −1 , then remainder is
35 57
A) C)
16 16
35
B) − D) 3
16
Q.33 If x 2 − 7 x + a has a remainder 1 when divided by x + 1 , then
A) a = −7 C) a = 0
B) a = 7 D) a = 1
Q.34 Sum and product of roots of equation 4 x 2 + 7 x − 3 = 0 are
3 7 7 3
A) − , − C) − ,
4 4 4 4
7 3
B) − , − D) None of these
4 4
Q.35  29 +  28 +  27 =
A) 0 C) 2
B) 1 D) 
1 1
Q.36 If  ,  are roots of x 2 − 2 x + 3 = 0 , then equation with root , is
 
A) x 2 − 6 x + 11 = 0 C) x 2 − 11x + 6 = 0
B) x 2 + 6 x − 11 = 0 D) 3 x 2 − 2 x + 1 = 0
Q.37 If a polynomial f ( x ) is divided by a linear divisor x + a, the remainder is
A) f ( 0 ) C) f ( −a )
B) f ( a ) D) af ( a )
Q.38 If one root of equation ax 2 − 3 x + 4 = 0 is −1 + i then other root will be
A) −1 + i C) 1 − i
B) −1 − i D) Insufficient data
Q.39 x − 3x + 2 x − 6 has a factor
3 2

A) x − 4 C) x + 3
B) x − 3 D) x + 2
Graph of y = 2 x − x + 4 is
2
Q.40
A) parabola C) circle
B) ellipse D) parabola upward
Q.41 If 9 x + kx + 16 = 0 is a perfect square then k =
2

A) 24 C)  24
B) -24 D) 0
Q.42 Quadratic equation whose one root is 2 + 3 then equation will be
A) x 2 + 4 x + 1 = 0 C) x 2 − 6 x + 6 = 0
B) x 2 − 4 x + 1 = 0 D) x 2 − 6 x − 6 = 0

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Q.43 If is a cube root of unity , then cube roots of 125 are
A) 3,3 ,3 C) −5, −5 , −5
2 2


B) −3, −3 , −3 D) 5,5 ,5
2 2

x2 − 3
Q.44 3x + 1 is:
A) Polynomial B) Equation
C) Proper fraction D) Improper fraction

Q.45 The product of roots of 5x2 − x + 2 = 0 is:

5 −5
A) 2 B) 2 C) 2/5 D) 2
Q.46 The power set of the empty set is:
A) Empty set B) Non empty set C) Proper set D) Improper set
Q.47 If A and B are disjoint sets then n ( A  B ) is equal to
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) 3
Q.48 Common difference of arithmetic sequence 3,5,7,……….is
−2 2 1
A) 15 B) 15 C) 2 D) 2
Q.49 The harmonic mean between two numbers a and b is:
a+b a−b 2ab 2ab
A) 2ab B) 2ab C) a + b D)
a−b
Q.50 The value of 4!.0!.1! is:
A) 0 B) 1 C) 4 D) 24
Number of terms in the expansion of (1 + x )
2 n +1
Q.51 is:
A) 2n +1 B) 2n C) 2n + 2 D) 3n + 1
3
Q.52 If sin  = 2 then  is equal:
A) 30o B) 45o C) 90o D) 60o
Q.53 If 81 is the discriminant of 2 x 2 + 5 x − k = 0 then the value of k is ___________
A) 5 C) -7
B) 7 D) 2
Discriminant of the quadratic equation 5 x − 3 3x − 2 5 = 0 is _______
2
Q.54
A) 67 C) -67
B) 76 D) -76
If the equation x − m ( 2 x − 8) − 15 = 0 has equal roots then m = ______
2
Q.55
A) 3,-5 C) 3,5
B) -3,5 D) -3,-5
x −a x −b a b
Q.56 The solution set of equation + = + , ( a  b ) is ________
x −b x −a b a
A) a − b,0 C) a + b,0

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a 
B)  , 0  D) ab,0
b 
Q.57 3x = 2 is a (an) ___________
A) Conditional equation C) Identity
B) Equation D) fraction

2 2x 2 2
Q.58 In the expression = + , is called
x−2 ( x + 1)( x − 2 ) 3 ( x + 1) x − 2
A) Partial fraction C) Identity
B) Partial fraction resolution D) Improper rational fraction

Q.59 ( x + 5)( x + 7 ) = x2 + 7 x + 10 is _________

A) Equation C) Identity
B) Conditional Equation D) Fraction
x2 + 1
Q.60 Partial fraction of is
x2 −1
A B A Bx + C
A) + C) + 2
x +1 x −1 x −1 x +1
A B A B
B) 1 + + D) −1 + +
x +1 x −1 x +1 x −1
Q.61 Which of the following is an identity?
A) 2x + 3 = 2 C) x 2 − 2 x + 1 = 0
B) ( x − 2 )( x − 1) = x − 3x − 2 D) 2 ( x + 1) = 4 ( x + 1) − 2 ( x + 1)
2

Q.62 A sequence is a function whose domain is

A) C)
B) D)
Q.63 Next two terms of the sequence if the sequence -1,2,12,40,… are
A) 60,80 C) 112,288
B) 112,224 D) 80,160
For an = ( −1) ( 2n − 3) 5th term is
n
Q.64
A) 7 C) 13
B) -7 D) -13
Q.65 The general term of the sequence 1,3,12,60,…
A) an = 3n − 5 C) an = nan −1
B) an − an−1 = n + 2 D) an = ( n + 1) an −1
Q.66 For an A.P if a5 = 13 and a17 = 49 then a13 = ?
A) 37 C) 35
B) 36 D) 38
Q.67 Which term of the A.P 5,2,-1,... is -85?
A) 30th C) 28th

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B) 31st D) 29th
Q.68 The 18 term of the A.P, if its 6 term is 19 and 9th term is 31.
th th

A) 45 C) 67
B) 60 D) 65
1 1 1
Q.69 If , and are in A.P then b = ?
a b c
2ac 2a
A) C)
a+c a+c
a+c
B) D) None of these
2ac
Q.70 If an − 2 = 3n − 11 then an = ?
A) 2n −11 C) 3n + 5
B) 3n − 7 D) 3n − 5
a n −1 + b n −1
Q.71 For what value of n, maybe the A.M between a and b
a n−2 + bn−2
A) 1 C) 3
B) 2 D) 0
Q.72 An object falling from rest falls 9 meters during the first second, 27 meters during the next
second, 45 meters during the third and so on. How far will it fall up to fifth second?
A) 81 C) 200
B) 225 D) 100
Q.73 A clock strikes once when its hour hand is at one, twice when it is at two and so on. How many
times does the clock strike in twelve hours?
A) 76 C) 78
B) 72 D) 80
Q.74 Fifth term of 3,6,12,… is
A) 48 C) 40
B) 24 D) 36
Q.75 For a G.P if a9 = 512 and a2 = 4 then a7 = ?
A) 32 C) 256
B) 64 D) 128
a
Q.76 0.159 = , then a + b = ?
b
A) 1158 C) 386
B) 1160 D) 1098
x x2
Q.77 If y = 1 + + + ... then x = ?
2 4
y +1 2y
A) C)
2y y −1
y 2 ( y − 1)
B) D)
y −1 y
Q.78 If A.M between two numbers is 5 and G.M is 4 then the number are?

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A) 4,6 C) 2,8
B) 3,7 D) 5,5
Q.79 4!+0!=
A) 24 C) 20
B) 25 D) 23
19!
Q.80 =?
19!(19 − 19)!
A) 0 C) 1
B) undefined D) 19
Q.81 The value of n if (n + 2)! = 930n !
A) 30 C) 32
B) 31 D) 29
(2 n )!
Q.82 is equal to
n!
A) {1.3.5...(2n − 1)}n C) {1.3.5...(2n − 1)}n !
2

B) {1.3.5...(2n − 1)}2 D) {1.3.5...(2n − 1)}2 .n !

n n

Q.83 How many other words can be formed by word “WORD”

A) 24 C) 23
B) 12 D) 6
Q.84 How many two digit numbers can be formed from digits 1,2,3,4 when no digit is to be repeated.
A) 6 C) 8
B) 12 D) 18
Q.85 How many different 4-digit numbers can be formed out of 1,2,3,4,5,6 when no digit repeated
A) 360 C) 125
B) 125 D) 180
Q.86 How many 3-digit numbers can be formed consisting of all odd digits when digit may repeat?
A) 60 C) 25
B) 125 D) 180
Q.87 How many necklaces can be made by using 6 beads of different colors?
A) 160 C) 60
B) 125 D) 120
Q.88 The number of arrangements that can be made out of the letter of the word " SUCCESS " so that
the all S's do not come together is
A) 60 C) 360
B) 120 D) 420
Q.89 Solution of inequality x + 2 y  6 is:
A) (1,1) B) (1,3) C) (1, 4 ) D) (1,5)
Q.90 The non-negative inequalities are called:
A) Parameters B) constants C) decision variables D) vertices
The length of the diameter of the circle x + y = a is
2 2 2
Q.91
A) a B) 2a C) 1 D) 2
Q.92 x + y = r is equation of the circle with center
2 2 2

A) (1,1) B) ( 0, 0 ) C) ( 0,1) D) (1, 0 )

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The length of latus rectum of parabola y = 8 x is:
2
Q.93
A) 2 B) 4 C) 8 D) 2 2
Q.94 A unit vector is a vector whose magnitude is
A) 0 B) 1 C) 2 D) not defined
Q.95 Length of the vector 2iˆ − ˆj + 2kˆ is
A) 6 B) 4 C) 3 D) 5
sin ax
Q.96 lim =
x →0
sin bx
b a
A) B) Undefined C) 0 D)
a b
Q.97 The period of y = sin x + cot x is
A)  C) 2
2
B) 3 D)
3
Q.98 The maximum value of y = 3cos  + 4sin  is
A) 5 C) 25
B) 12 D) -12
x
Q.99 If y = tan then the Dom ( y ) = ?
4
 
A) − n  , n  z C) − ( 2n + 1)  , n  z
 2
B) − ( 2n + 1) 2  , n  z D) − ( 2n + 1)   , n  z
Q.100 The graph of sin x = cos x cut each other in
A) I & II Quadrant C) I & III Quadrant
B) II & III Quadrant D) II & IV Quadrant

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ANALYTICAL BANK
Question
A group of at least three townspeople is to be chosen by the mayor to accompany her on a trip to the state capital. There are
seven people who are eligible to be chosen – one man, one woman, two boys and three girls. In choosing the group the
mayor must adhere to the following conditions.
At least one adult must be chosen.
At least one male must be chosen.
The group selected cannot include all the three males.
The group selected cannot include all the four females.
If a woman is chosen at least one girl must be chosen.
Q.1. If all the girls are chosen who else must be in the group?
(A) No one else.
(B) The man..
(C) One of the boys.
(D) The man and one of the boys.
(E) The man, the woman and one of the boys.
Q.2. Which of the following could be the complete makeup of the group?
(A) The three girls.
(B) Both boys and two of the girls.
(C) The woman and two of the girls.
(D) The woman, a boy and tow of the girls.
(E) The man, both boys and one of the girls.

Q.3. If both adults are chosen, each of the following could be a complete list of the other
members of the group EXCEPT
(A) One girl.
(B) One boy.
(C) One girl and one boy.
(D) Two girls and one boy.
(E) Two girls.
Q.4. Each of the following statements about the composition of the group could be true EXCEPT
A) There are more males than females.
B) There are more females than males.
C) There are exactly four members.
D) There are exactly five members.
E) There are exactly six members.
Question
A, B, C and D are to be seated in a row. But C and D cannot be together. Also B cannot be at the
third place.
Q.5. Which of the following must be false?
A) A is at the first place C) A is at the second place
B) A is at the third place D) A is at the forth place
Q.6. If A is not at the third place, then C has which of the following option?
A) The first place only C) The third place only

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B) The first and third place only D) Any of the places

Q.7. If A and B are together, then which of the following must be necessarily true?
A) C is not at the first place C) A is at the third place
B) D is at the first place D) C is at the first place
Question
John purchased a toy for his young daughter. The toy included nine colorful pieces in the shape
of the numbers from 1 to 9. In examining these pieces he made the following observations.
One piece is purple and two pieces each are red, green, yellow and blue.
The two red pieces are consecutive numbers.
The number 4 is green.
The two blue pieces are not consecutive numbers.
Both the 1 and 9 are yellow.
The purple piece is not a number immediately less than or immediately greater than either
green piece.
Q.8. If one of the red pieces is number 3 then what number is the other red piece?
A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
E) 7
Q.9. If the number 5 is green each of the following could be true except
A) The purple piece and one of the yellow pieces are consecutive numbers.
B) The number 6 is purple.
C) The two blue pieces and the purple piece are consecutive numbers.
D) The number 2 is red.
E) The number 8 is red.
Q.10. If the number 6 is green which of the following could be true?
A) 2 is blue. B) 3 is purple. C) 5 is red. D) 5 is purple.
E) 7 is blue.
Q.11. Which of the following if true would enable you to determine the color of every number?
A) The 2 is blue B) The 3 is blue. C) The 5 is red. D) The 7 is blue.
E) The 7 is green.
Question
Each of the integers from 1 to 7 inclusive is to be assigned to one of the two sets – X and Y –
such that:
No integer is a member of both sets
Neither set has more than four members.
1 and 4 must be in the same set.
If 2 is a member of set X then so is 7.
If 6 is a member of set Y then 5 is not a member of set Y.
Q.12. Which of the following could be a complete list of the members of the set X?
A) 1, 4. B) 1, 2 and 7 C) 1, 4 and 7 D) 1, 2 and 4
E) 1, 4, 5, 7
Q.13. Which of the following cannot be true?
A) 4 and 7 are in X. B) 5 and 6 are in X. C) 1 and 2 are in Y. D) 1, 3 and 7 are in X.
E) 2, 3 and 6 are in Y.
Q.14. If 5 and 7 are both members of the set Y, how many different ways are there to assign the
other five members to the two sets?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 5

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E) 6
Q.15. If X has four members, none of which is 1, which of the following numbers must be in X?
A) 2 B) 3 C) 5 D) 6
E) 7
Question

The plan above shows an office block for six officers, A, B, C, D, E and F. Both B and C occupy
offices to the right of the corridor (as one enters office block) and A occupies of office to the
left of the corridor. E and F occupy offices on opposite sides of the corridor but their offices do
not face each other. The offices of C and D face each other. E does not have a corner office. F's
office id further down the corridor than A's, but on the same side.
Q.16. If E sits in his office and faces the corridor, whose office is to his left?
A) A B) B C) C D) D
Q.17. Whose office face A's office?
A) B B) C C) D D) E
Q.18. Who is/are F's neighbour(s)?
A) A only B) A and D C) C only D) B and C
Q.19. D was heard telling some one to go further down the corridor to the last office on the right. To
whose room was he trying to direct the person?
A) A B) B C) C D) F
Question
The seven basic symbols in a certain numeral system and their respective values are as follows:
I = 1, V = 5, X = 10, L = 50, C = 100, D = 500 and M = 1000
In general, the symbols in the numeral system are read from left to right, starting with the
symbol representing the largest value; the same symbol cannot occur contiguously more than
three times; the value of the numeral is the sum of the values of the symbols. For example, XXVII
= 10 + 10 + 5 + 1 + 1 = 27. An exception to the left to right reading occurs when a symbol is
followed immediately by a symbol of greater value; then, the smaller value is subtracted from
the larger. For example, XLVI = (50 - 10) + 5 + 1 = 46.
Q.20. The value of the numeral MDCCLXXXVII is:
A) 1687 B) 1787 C) 1887 D) 1987
Q.21. The value of the numeral MCMXCIX is:
A) 1999 B) 1899 C) 1989 D) 1889
Q.22. Which of the following can represent the numeral for 1995?
a) MCMLXXV b) MCMXCV c) MVD d) MVM
A) Only a and b B) Only c and d C) Only b and d D) Only d

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Question
Four people of different nationalities live on the same side of a street in four houses each of
different colours. Each person has a different favourite drink. The following additional
information is also known:
A. The Englishman lives in the red house.
B. The Italian drink tea.
C. The Norwegian lives in the first house on the left.
D. In the second house from the right they drink milk.
E. The Norwegian lives adjacent to the blue house.
F. The Spaniard drinks fruit juice.
G. Tea is drunk in the blue house.
H. The white house is to the right of the red house.
Q.23. Milk is drunk by:
A) Norweign B) Englishman C) Italian D) None of these
Q.24. The Norwegian drinks:
A) Milk B) Cocoa C) Tea D) Fruit Juice
Q.25. The colour of the Norwegian's house is:
A) Yellow B) White C) Blue D) Red
Questions 1-5
John purchased a toy for his young daughter. The toy included nine colorful pieces in the shape
of the numbers from 1 to 9. In examining these pieces he made the following observations.
One piece is purple and two pieces each are red, green, yellow and blue.
The two red pieces are consecutive numbers.
The number 4 is green.
The two blue pieces are not consecutive numbers.
Both the 1 and 9 are yellow.
The purple piece is not a number immediately less than or immediately greater than either
green piece.
Q.26. If one of the red pieces is number 3 then what number is the other red piece?
A) 2 B) 4 C) 5 D) 6
E) 7
Q.27. If the number 5 is green each of the following could be true except
A) The purple piece and one of the yellow pieces are consecutive numbers.
B) The number 6 is purple.
C) The two blue pieces and the purple piece are consecutive numbers.
D) The number 2 is red.
E) The number 8 is red.
Q.28. If the number 6 is green which of the following could be true?
A) 2 is blue. B) 3 is purple. C) 5 is red. D) 5 is purple.
E) 7 is blue.
Q.29. Which of the following if true would enable you to determine the color of every number?
A) The 2 is blue B) The 3 is blue. C) The 5 is red. D) The 7 is blue.
E) The 7 is green.

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Q.30. Each week the forensics teams at Roslyn High School and Manhasset High School debate each other.
Each team has several members and each week three are selected to debate. Whenever Aviva debates for
Roslyn. Roslyn wins; and whenever Zachary debates for Roslyn, Roslyn wins. Whenever Josh debates for
Roslyn, Manhasset wins.

If one week Roslyn lost to Manhasset, which of the following must be true?
A) Josh debated for Roslyn.
B) Either Aviva or Zachary debated for Roslyn.
C) Neither Aviva nor Zachary debated for Roslyn.
D) Josh and either Aviva or Zachary debated for Roslyn.
E) Josh and Neither Aviva nor Zachary debated for Roslyn.
Questions 6-10
The Fairfield Foreign Film Festival plans to show six foreign films one each from Belgium, Canada,
Denmark, England, France and Germany. The festival will open on Thursday and will close three days
later on a Sunday. The each film will be shown once during the festival and the order in which the films
will be shown must confirm to the following conditions.
At least one film will be shown each day.
No more than three films will be shown on any two consecutive days.
The Belgian film must be shown on Saturday.
The Canadian film must be shown on same day as another film.
The French film must be shown on a day before the German film is shown.
The Danish film must be shown on a day after the English film is shown.
Q.31. If only one film is shown on Thursday, it could be the entry from which of the following
country?
A) Belgium B) Canada C) Denmark D) France
E) Germany
Q.32. If the Belgian and French film are shown on the same day which of the following must be true?
A) The film from Denmark will be shown on Thursday.
B) The film from Denmark will be shown on Friday.
C) The film from Germany will be shown on Thursday.
D) The film from Canada will be shown on Sunday.
E) The film from England will be shown on Sunday.
Q.33. If the director of the festival decides to show two films on Thursday and two on Sunday.
How many films would be eligible to be shown on Friday?
A) 1 B) 2 C) 3 D) 4 E) 5
Q.34. If the English and German films are shown on the same day which of the following must be
true?
A) The film from England will be shown on Thursday.
B) The film from France will be shown on Friday.
C) The film from Canada will be shown on Saturday.
D) The film from Germany will be shown on Saturday.
E) The film from Canada will be shown on Sunday.
Q.35. If the film from England is shown on Saturday which of the following films cannot be shown on
the same day as another film?
A) Belgian. B) Canadian. C) English. D) French.
E) German.

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Q.36. Which of the following is an acceptable schedule, in order, of interviews for the seven
applicants?
MONDAY TUESDAY
A) H, L F, G, I, J, K
B) K, J, G L, H, I, F
C) H, K, L, F I, G, J
D) L, H, I, J K, F, G
E) L, H, K, J I, G F
Q.37. If G has the very first interview and if exactly four people are interviewed on Tuesday, which of
the following could be the schedule for the two interviews immediately following G’s
A) First H then L
B) First L then F
C) First I then L
D) First I then F
E) First H then F
Q.38. If only applicant who have interviews on Monday are F, J and I and if H is the first applicant to
be interviewed on Tuesday, Which of the following statement must be true?
A) K has the second interview on Tuesday.
B) G has the third interview on Tuesday.
C) L has the third interview on Tuesday.
D) G has the last interview on Tuesday.
E) K has the last interview on Tuesday.
Q.39. If three interviews are scheduled for Monday, and if H and I have the first and last interviews,
respectively, on Tuesday, which of the following must be true?
A) F has the first interview on Monday.
B) F has the third interview on Monday.
C) G has an interview on Tuesday.
D) J has the second interview on Tuesday.
E) J has the third interview on Tuesday.
Question
Seven varsity basketball players A, B, C, D, E, F and G are to be honored at a special luncheon.
The players will be seated on the dais in a row. A and G have to leave the luncheon early and so
must be seated at the extreme right. B will receive the most valuable player's trophy and so
much be in the center to facilitate presentation. C and D are bitter rivals and therefore, must be
seated as far apart as possible
Q.40. Which of the following cannot be seated at either end?
A) C B) D C) F D) G
Q.41. Which of the following pairs cannot be seated together?
A) B and D B) C and F C) D and G D) E and A
Q.42. Which of the following pairs cannot occupy the seats on either side of B?
A) F and D B) D and E C) E and G D) C and F
Question
The proportion of male students and the proportion of vegetarian students in a school are
given below. The school has a total of 800 students, 80% of whom are in the secondary section
and rest equally divided between class 1 and 12.
Male Vegetarian
Class 12 0.60 0.50

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Class 11 0.40 0.60
Secondary section 0.30 0.40
Total 0.30 0.70
Q.43. What is the percentage of vegetarian students in class 12?
A) 40 B) 45 C) 60 D) 65
Q.44. In class 12, twenty five percent of the vegetarians are male. What is the difference between
the number of female vegetarians and male non vegetarians?
A) 10 B) 12 C) 8 D) 20
Q.45. What is the percentage of male students in the secondary section?
A) 40 B) 45 C) 60 D) 30
Q.46. In the triangle below, what is the value of x?

A) 30 B) 50 C) 20 D) 40
Q.47. What is the value of w in the figure below?

A) 60 B) 90 C) 120 D) 105
1 2 3
Q.48. If Rs. 782 be divided in to three parts, proportional to : : then the first part is
2 3 4
A) Rs. 182 B) Rs. 190 C) Rs. 196 D) Rs. 204
2 2
Q.49. 7n – 7n + 5 – (3n + 7n ) =
A) 5+10n B) 10n-5 C) –10n+5 D) 45-10n
(7x-49)
Q.50. =?
(x-7)
A) x-7 B) x C) 7 D) 7x
Q.51. What percent of 3/5 is 3/10?
A) 25% B) 20% C) 50% D) 60%
Q.52. 0.036 in terms of percent is:
A) 36% B) 6.36% C) 3.6% D) 360%
1
Q.53. What is % of 6000?
5
A) 120 B) 12 C) 1200 D) 500
Q.54. If 0.75: x ::5:8 , then x is equal to
A) 1.12 B) 1.2 C) 1.25 D) 1.30
Q.55. The price of a book increases by 10% in June but in July it decreases by 10%. What is its price at
the end of July if its original price was 200?
A) 198 B) 200 C) 190 D) 210
Q.56. Out of 5 children, the eldest is a girl. Find the probability that the rest are boys.
A) 1/4 B) 1/32 C) 1/16 D) 1/5
Q.57. What is the average of 5, 4 and 12?
A) 4 B) 5 C) 7 D) 8

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Q.58. What is the Average of 2, 3, 7, 13 and 15?
A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9
Q.59. Justin’s average on 4 tests is 80. What grade does he need on his fifth test to raise his average to
84?
A) 82 B) 92 C) 96 D) 100
Which of the following is the average of x − 10,30 − x , and 6 x + 10 ?
2 2
Q.60.
A) 2x + 10 B) 3x + 15 C) 2x + 30 D) 6x + 10

 1 
Q.61. The value of log 5   is
 25 
A) 2 B) -2 C) 1/2 D) -1/2
Q.62. What percent is 1/5?
A) 20 B) 25 C) 30 D) 35
Q.63. What is 10% of 350?
A) 17.5 B) 35 C) 70 D) 87.5
Q.64. What is the Average of 2, 5, 6, 9 and 18?
A) 6 B) 7 C) 8 D) 9
Q.65. What is mode of 52,50,52,18,7,2,3,18,5,7,5,3,2,2,2?
A) 7 B) 18 C) 2 D) 1
Q.66. Average of three numbers is 15. What is the sum of the three numbers?
A) 45 B) 36 C) 5 D) 10
Q.67. 7:21 in lowest term is?
A) 1:3 B) 7:21 C) 14:42 D) None of these
Q.68. A:B = 2:3. If value of A is 8 what is the value of B?
A) 8 B) 10 C) 12 D) 15
Q.69. In the figure what is the value of x if x:y = 1:2? 60º
A) 40 B) 61 C) 25 D) 35 yº xº
Q.70. Find the value of the product 5/5 × 5/10 × 5/15 × 5/20 × 5/25
1 5 1 1
A) B) C) D)
144 144 120 130
4 8
Q.71. of a number is 22, what is of that number:
3 3
11 11
A) B) C) 2 D) 44
9 6
Q.72. Which of the following is equal to (10010)2?
A) 16 B) 17 C) 18 D) 32
Q.73. Which of the following is the binary equivalence of 131?
A) (1000010)2 B) (10000011)2 C) (1000110)2 D) (1111110)2
Q.74. Ali can run at a speed of 10 km/h. What will be the distance covered by him in 3 hours?
A) 100km B) 10km C) 20km D) 30km
Q.75. A train is running at the speed of 25 km/h. How far will it travel in 5 hrs?
A) 100km B) 110km C) 120km D) 125km
Q.76. Andy solves problems 74 to 125 inclusive in a Math exercise. How many problems does he solve?
A) 53 B) 52 C) 51 D) 50
Q.77. What is the distance between the points (3,5) and (7,9)?
A) 22 B) 32 C) 42 D) 23

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Q.78. What is the slope of the line perpendicular to the line joining the points (1, 2) and (3, 4)?
A) -1 B) 1 C) 4 D) 2
Q.79. What is the area of a circle having its center at the point (3,4) and passing through the origin?
A) 2 B) 16 C) 25 D) 43
Q.80. Which of the following is the value of the function x3+2x+5 at x=2.
A) 15 B) 17 C) 18 D) 19
Q.81. If log x y = 100and log 2 x = 10 then value of y is
A) 210000 B) 210 C) 21000 D) 2100

Q.82. A jar contains 10 liters of milk. After selling 1 liter of milk, the milkman adds 1 liter of water to
the jar. He repeats the process again. What is the percentage of milk contained in the jar now?
A) 81% B) 82% C) 72% D) 80%

Q.83. The value of log 343 7 is

A) -3 B) 3 C) 1/3 D) -1/3
.009
Q.84. = .01
?
A) .0009 B) .09 C) .9 D) 9
4.2  4.2 − 1.9 1.9
Q.85. is equal to
2.3  6.1
A) 0.5 B) 1.0 C) 20 D) 22
Q.86. 0.002 x 0.5 = ?
A) 0.0001 B) 0.001 C) 0.01 D) 0.1
144 14.4
Q.87. If = , then the value of x is
0.144 x
A) 0.0144 B) 1.44 C) 14.4 D) 144
Q.88. If ABCD is square. What is the value of ‘a’?
D C

2a + 18

A B
4a + 8
A) 2 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5
Q.89. I bought 10 pencils for Rs. 50 and sold them for Rs. 60. What is my gain % ?
A) 10% B) 5% C) 20% D) 12%
Q.90. A man can row upstream at a speed of 20 kmph and downstream at a speed of 27 kmph. Find
the speed of the stream.
A) 2.5 B) 3.5 C) 7 D) 23.5
4 8
Q.91. of a number is 22, what is of that number:
3 3
11 11
A) B) C) 2 D) 44
9 6

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Q.92. A train is running at the speed of 25 km/h. How far will it travel in 5 hrs?
A) 100km B) 110km C) 120km D) 125km
Q.93. What is the slope of the line perpendicular to the line joining the points (1, 2) and (3, 4)?
A) -1 B) 1 C) 4 D) 2
Q.94. Which of the following is the value of the function x3+2x+5 at x=2.
A) 15 B) 17 C) 18 D) 19
Q.95. What percent of 3/5 is 3/10?
A) 25% B) 20% C) 50% D) 60%
Q.96. 0.036 in terms of percent is:
A) 36% B) 6.36% C) 3.6% D) 360%

1
Q.97. What is % of 6000?
5
A) 120 B) 12 C) 1200 D) 500
Q.98. Find x if 5:50 : x : 10
A) 1 B) 2 C) 4 D) 3
Q.99. If A can do a piece of work in 10 days, then part of work done by him in one day.
2 3 1 3
A) B) C) D)
5 8 10 7
1
Q.100. If A’s 1 day’s work = then time required to finish the job (in days).
20

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