Practice Test for XII

NEET – 2024

Dated: 15.10.2023 Nazira

Time: 3 hours MM: 720

Instructions: :
 There are three sections in this paper, consisting Physics, Chemistry, Biology.
 For each correct answer 4 marks awarded and for each incorrect answer, one mark will be
deducted.
 Mark only one correct answer out of four alternatives.
 Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking.
 Use of Calculator is not allowed.
 Dark the circle in the space provided only.
 Use of white fluid or any other material which damage the answer sheet, is not permissible on
the Answer Sheet.

USEFUL CONSTANTS
Boltzmann constant (k) = 1.38 × 10–23 J K–1 Avogadro’s number (NA) = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1
Planck’s constant (h) = 6.63 × 10–34 J s Speed of light in vacuum (c) = 3 × 108 m s–1
Rest mass of electron (me) = 9.1 × 10–31 kg 1 unified atomic mass
unit (u) = 1.66 × 10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J 1 nm = 10–9 m
Charge of Electron (e) = 1.6 × 10–19 C Gas constant (R) = 8.31 J mol–1 K–1

SECTION – A – PHYSIS
1. Supporting that the earth of mass m moves around the sun in a circular orbit of radius R, the work done
in half revolution is
mv 2 mv 2
(1) R (2)  2R (3) Zero (4) None of these
R R

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2. A string of mass m and length  rests over a frictionless table with 1/4th of its length hanging
from a side. The work done in bringing the hanging part back on the table is
(1) mg  / 4 (2) mg  / 32 (3) mg  / 16 (4) None of these
3. A weight mg is suspended from a spring. If the elongation in the spring is x0, the elastic energy stored in
it is
1 1
(1) mgx0 (2) 2mgx0 (3) mgx0 (4) mgx0
2 4
4. A constant retarding force is applied to stop a train. If its initial speed were doubled, the distance
covered by the train by the time it stops will be (compared with the previous value)
(1) eight times (2) doubled (3) half (4) four times
5. Work done in time t on a body of mass m which is uniformly accelerated from rest to a speed v in time
t1 is given by

1  mv 
2
1 v v 1 v2 2
(1) m t 2 (2) m t 2 (3)  t  t 2 (4) m t
2 t1 t1 2  t1  2 t12

6. A ball is thrown up with a certain velocity at angle  to the horizontal. The kinetic energy KE of the ball
varies with horizontal displacement x as:

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

7. A body of mass m1 is projected vertically upward with velocity v1. Another body of same mass is
projected at an angle of 45°. Another body of same mass is projected at an angle of 45°. Both reach
the same maximum height. What is the ratio of their kinetic energies at the point of projection?
(1) 1 (2) 1/2 (3) 1/3 (4) 1/4
8. A particle of mass m is fixed to one end of a light rigid rod of length  and rotated in a vertical
circular path about its other end. The minimum speed of the particle at its highest point must be
(1) zero (2) g (3) 1.5g (4) 2g

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9. The period of revolution of an earth satellite close to the surface of earth is 90 minutes. The time
period of another satellite in an orbit at a distance of three times the radius of earth from its surface
will be
(1) 90 8 min (2) 360 min (3) 720 min (4) 270 min
10. A weight mg is suspended from a spring. If the elongation in the spring is x0, the elastic energy
stored in it is
1 1
(1) mgx 0 (2) 2mgx 0 (3) mgx 0 (4) mgx 0
2 4
11. The distance (R) of a satellite from the centre of a spinning planet is such that it appears to be
stationary with respect to an observer on its surface. The rate of spin of the planet is now suddenly
halved. By what factor should the distance of the satellite from the centre of the planet be changed
for the satellite to appear stationary relative to the surface of the planet ?
(1) (2)1/3 times (2) (2)3/2 times (3) (2)2/3 times (4) 4 times
12. The speed of S2 relative to S1 is
 
(1) 104 km / h (2) 2104 km / h (3) 104 km / h (4) 104 km / h
3 2
13. The angular speed of S2 as actually observed by an astronaut in S1.
   
(1) rad/h (2) – rad/h (3) rad/h (4) – rad/h
2 3 4 2
14. The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface of earth of radius R
in circular orbit at an altitude 2R, ignoring the earth’s rotation, is (mass of earth is M)
5GmM 2GmM GmM GmM
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6R 3R 2R 3R
15. If the period of revolution of an artificial satellite just above the earth’s surface is T and the density
of earth is , then T2
3
(1) is a universal constant whose value is
G
3
(2) is a universal constant whose value is
2G
(3) is proportional to radius of earth R
(4) is proportional to square of the radius of earth R2
Here G = universal gravitational constant

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16. Imagine a light planet revolving around a very massive star in a circular orbit of radius R with a
period of revolution T. If the gravitational force of attraction between the planet and the stat is
proportional to R–5/2, then T2 is proportional to
(1) R3 (2) R7/2 (3) R3/2 (4) R3.75
17. How much faster than its present rate  should the earth rotate about its axis in order that the
weight of the body on the equator may be zero ? Radius of earth = 6400km.
(1) 2  (2) 15  (3) 17  (4) 19 
18. With what angular velocity should be earth rotate so that a body at the latitude of 45° would be
weightless?
2g g 2g 3g
(1)  = (2)  = (3) (4)
3R 3R R R
19. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent, its mass remaining the same, the
acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface would
(1) decrease by 2% (2) remain unchanged (3) increase by 2% (4) decrease by 9.8%
20. At what height above the earth’s surface is the acceleration due to gravity 4% less than its value at
the surface of the earth ?
R R R R
(1) (2) (3) (4)
25 40 50 96
21. The time period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. The radius of the orbit in which
time period is 8T is
(1) 2R (2) 3R (3) 4R (4) 5R
22. The acceleration due to gravity g and mean density of the earth  are related by which of the
following relations ? (where G is the gravitation constant and R is radius of the earth)
4gR 2 4gR 3 3g 3g
(1)   (2)   (3)   (4)  
3G 3G 4GR 4GR 3
23. Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed at the vertices of a right angle isosceles triangle as shown
below. The net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero, if the value of Q is

q  2q
(1) –2q (2) (3) +q (4)
1 2 2 1
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24. A charged ball B hangs from a silk thread S, which makes an angle  with a large charged
conducting sheet P, as shown in the figure. The surface charge density  of the sheet is proportional
to

(1) cos  (2) cot  (3) sin  (4) tan 

25. Two point charge +8q and –2q are located at x = 0 and x = L respectively. The location of a point
on the x-axis at which the net electric field due to those two point charges is zero is
L
(1) 2L (2) (3) 8L (4) 4L
4
26. Two thin wire rings each having a radius R are placed at a distance d apart, with their axes
coinciding. The charges on the two rings are +q and –q. The potential difference between the
centres of the rings is

qR q 1 1 
(1) (2)   
4 0 d 2 20 R 
 R  d2
2


q 1 1 
(3) Zero (4)   
40 R 
 R  d2
2

27. The charge given to any conductor resides on its outer surface, because
(1) the free charge tends to be in its minimum potential
(2) the free charge tends to be in its minimum kinetic energy state
(3) the free charge tends to be in its maximum potential energy state
(4) the free charge tends to be in its maximum kinetic energy state
28. Two parallel large thin metal sheet have equal surface charge densities ( = 26.4 10–22 C/m2) of
opposite signs. The electric field between these sheets is
(1) 1.5 N/C (2) 1.5  10–10 N/C (3) 3 N/C (4) 3  10–10 N/C
29. The electric potential V is given as a function of distance x (metre) by V = (5x2 + 10x – 9) volt. The
value of electric field at x = 1 is
(1) –20 V/m (2) 6 V/m (3) 11 V/m (4) –23 V/m

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30. The spatial distribution of the electric field due to charge (A, B) is shown in figure. Which one of
the following statements is correct ?

(1) A is +ve and B –ve and |A| > |B| (2) A is –ve and B +ve; |A| = |B|
(3) Both are +ve but A > B (4) Both are –ve but A > B
31. A capacitor of capacitance 1F is filled with two dielectrics of dielectric constants 4 and 6. What is
the new capacitance ?
(1) 10 F (2) 5 F (3) 4 F (4) 7 F

32. Two bulbs X and Y having same voltage rating and power of 40 watt and 60 watt respectively are
connected in series across a potential difference of 300 volt. Then,

(1) X will glow brighter (2) resistance of Y is greater than X

(3) heat produced in Y will be greater than X (4) voltage drop in X will be greater than Y

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33. Each resistance in the given network has a value of 10 . The equivalent resistance between point
A and B will be

(1) 30 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 2

34. The charge q in the circuit shown here varies with time t as

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
35. A straight conductor of length  carrying a current I, is bent in form of a semicircle. The magnetic
field (in tesla) at the centre of the semicircle is
2 I I I I 2
(1) 107 (2) 107 (3) 107 (4) 107
  2 
36. An electric current passes through a long straight copper wire. At a distance 5 cm from the straight
wire, the magnetic field is B. The magnetic field at 20 cm from the straight wire would be
B B B B
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 4 3 2

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37. The long parallel wires carry equal current, I in the same direction. The length of each wire is l and
the distance between them is a. The force acting on each wire is
 0li 2  0li 2  0l 2 i 2  0l 2 i 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2a 2a 2 4a 4a 2
38. Current of 10 amp and 2 amp are passed through two parallel wires A and B respectively in
opposite directions. If the wire A is infinitely long and the length of the wire B is 2 metres, the
force on the conductor B which is situated 10 cm, distance of from A will be
(1) 8  10–5 N (2) 4  10–5 N (3) 8  10–7 N (4) 4  10–7 N
39. Lenz’s law is in accordance with law of conservation of
(1) mass (2) charge (3) momentum (4) energy
40. The emf produced in a wire by its motion across a magnetic field does not depend upon
(1) length (2) composition (3) orientation (4) diameter of the wire
41. The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an amount  in a time t. Total
quantity of electric charge Q that passes any point in the circuit during t is represented by
1    
(1) Q  . (2) Q  (3) Q  (4) Q  R
R t R t dt
42. Magnetic field due to 0.1 A current flowing through a circular coil of radius 0.1 m and 1000 turns
at the centre of the coil is
(1) 6.28  10–4 T (2) 4.31  10–2 T (3) 2  10–1 T (4) 9.81  10–4 T
43. Magnetic field intensity at the entre of the coil of 50 turns, radius 0.5 m and carrying a current of
2A, is
(1) 3  10–5 T (2) 1.25  10–4 T (3) 0.5  10–5 T (4) 4  106 T
44. A long wire carries a steady current. First, it is bent into a circular coil of one turn when the
magnetic induction at the centre is B1. Then, the same wire is bent to form a circular coil of smaller
radius but with two turns when the magnetic induction at the centre is B2. Then,
(1) B2 = B1 (2) B2 = 2B1 (3) B2 = 4B1 (4) B1 = 4B2
  
45. The magnetic field dB due to a small current element dl at a distance r and element carrying current i
is
 
  0 2  dl  r    0  dl  r 
(1) dB = i   (2) dB = i  3 
4  r  4  r 
 
  0  dl  r    0 2  dl  r 
(3) dB = i   (4) dB = i  2 
4  r  4  r 

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 SECTION – B – CHEMISTRY
x
46. An electron in an atom jumps in such a way that its kinetic energy changes from x to . The change in
4
potential energy will be :
3 3 3 3
(1) + x (2)  x (3)  x (4)  x
2 8 4 4

47. A compound of vanadium has a magnetic moment of 1.73 BM. What will be the electronic
configurations:
(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d1 (2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d2
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3 (4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4
48. During change of O2 to O2– ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals ?

(1) * 2pz orbital (2)  2pz orbital (3) * 2px / * 2pyorbital (4)  2px /  2py orbital

49. Which one of the following compounds has covalent as well as coordinate bond ?
(1) F3B.NH3 (2) C5H5N.SF4 (3) BH3.CO (4) all
50. Which of the following is not an ionic compound ?
(1) NaNO3 (2) CaCO3 (3) CaBr2 (4) P4S3
1 2 3 4 5
51. HC  C– CH  CH – CH3 Which carbon atom will show minimum electronegativity :

Hint : Electronegativity  % s character

(1) Fifth (2) Third (3) First (4) Second
52. The threshold wavelength (0) of sodium metal is 6500Å. If UV light of wavelength 360Å is used,
what will be kinetic energy of the photoelectron in ergs?
(1) 55.175 × 10–12 (2) 3.056 × 10–12 (3) 52.119 × 10–12 (4) 48.66 × 10–10
53. The possible set of quantum no. for the unpaired electron of chlorine is :
n  m n  m
(1) 2 1 0 (2) 2 1 1
(3) 3 1 1 (4) 3 0 0
54. Which of the following statements are correct ?

(I) structure is not allowed because octet around 'O' can not be expanded.
(II) H2O2 is ionic compound

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 (III) In B2 molecule, the highest occupied molecular orbital is  molecular orbital.
(IV) The lp–bp repulsion is stronger than bp–bp repulsion.
(1) (I) and (III) (2) (II) and (III) (3) (I) and (IV) (4) (III) and (IV)
55. Which species should be least likely to act as a Lewis base ?
(1) CN– (2) PCl3 (3) I+ (4) SCl2
56. Select the correct order of the strength of acids given below :
(1) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO < HClO2 (2) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO
(3) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 (4) none of these
57. Which does not form linear structure ?
(1) CO2 (2) NO2 (3) C2H2 (4) BeCl2
58. Which of the following compounds has the smallest bond angle in its molecule ?
(1) SO2 (2) H2O (3) H2S (4) NH3
59. Which of the following aqueous solution has minimum freezing point ?
(1) 0.01m NaCl (2) 0.05m C2H5OH (3) 0.05m MgI2 (4) 0.05m MgSO4
60. The freezing point depression constant for water is –1.86° C m–1. If 5.00 g Na2SO4 is dissolved in
45.0 g H2O, the freezing point is changed by –3.82°C. Calculate the vanhoff factor for Na2SO4.
(1) 2.05 (2) 2.63 (3) 3.11 (4) 0.381
61. Which of the following aqueous solutions produce the same osmotic pressure ?
(i) 0.1 M NaCl solution
(ii) 0.1 M glucose solution
(iii) 0.6 g urea in 100 mL solution
(iv) 1.0 g of a non-electrolyte solute (X) in 50 mL solution (molar mass of X = 200)
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (ii), (iii), (iv) (3) (i), (ii), (iv) (4) (i), (iii), (iv)
62. Which of the following associated with isotonic solutions is not correct ?
(1) They will have the same osmotic pressure
(2) They will have the same vapour pressure
(3) They have same weight concentration
(4) Osmosis does not take pace when the two solutions are separated by a semipermeable
membrane

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63. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The freezing point
depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is
(rounded off upto two decimal places) :
(1) 0.80 K (2) 0.40 K (3) 0.60 K (4) 0.20 K
64. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be
(1) halved (2) tripled (3) unchanged (4) doubled
65. During osmosis, flow of water through a semipermeable membrane is
(1) from solution having lower concentration only
(2) from solution having higher concentration only
(3) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with equal flow rates
(4) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with unequal flow rates
66. The van’t Hoff factor i for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one solvent and association in
other solvent is respectively.
(1) less than one and greater than one
(2) less than one and less than one
(3) greater than one and less than one
(4) greater than one and greater than one
67. Which of the following equations is a balanced one :
– + 2+ 3+ –
(1) 5BiO3 + 22H + Mn  5Bi + 7H2O + MnO4
– + 2+ 3+ –
(2) 5BiO3 + 14H + 2Mn  5Bi + 7H2O + 2MnO4
– + 2+ 3+ –
(3) 2BiO3 + 4H + Mn  2Bi + 2H2O + MnO4
– + 2+ 3+ –
(4) 6BiO3 + 12H + 3Mn  6Bi + 6H2O + 3MnO4
68. During the disproportionation of Iodine to iodide and iodate ions, the ratio of iodate and iodide ions
formed in alkaline medium is :
(1) 1 : 5 (2) 5 : 1 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3
69. The temperature at which molarity of pure water is equal to its molality is :
(1) 273 K (2) 298 K (3) 277 K (4) None
70. What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution that has a density 1.84 g/cc at 35ºC and contains 98% by
weight-

(1) 4.18 M (2) 8.14 M (3) 18.4 M (4) 18 M

71. A compound is composed of 74% C, 8.7% H and 17.3% N by mass. If the molecular mass of the
compound is 162, what is its molecular formula ?

(1) C5H7N (2) C10H16N2 (3) C8H14N3 (4) C10H14N2

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72. Number of gm of oxygen in 32.2 g Na2SO4. 10H2O is :
(1) 20.8 (2) 22.4 (3) 2.24 (4) 2.08
73. The molecular weight of a compound is 180. If its empirical formula is CH2O then the molecular
formula of compound is :
(1) C2H4O2 (2) C3H6O3 (3) C6H12O6 (4) C12H24O12
74. 1.12 mL of a gas is produced at STP by the action of 4.12 mg of alcohol ROH with methyl
magnesium iodide. The molecular mass of alcohol is :
(1) 16.0 (2) 41.2 (3) 82.4 (4) 156.0
75. XeF6 fluorinates I2 to IF7 and liberates Xenon(g). 3.5 mmol of XeF6 can yield a maximum of_____
mmol of IF7.
XeF6 + I2  IF7 + Xe
(1) 3 (2) 7 (3) 1 (4) 6
76. Oxidation number of Os in OsO4 :
(1) + 2 (2) + 4 (3) + 8 (4) + 10
77. The oxidation number of sulphur in H2S2O7 is :
(1) + 2 (2) + 6 (3) + 4 (4) + 8

78. CrO5 has structure as shown

The oxidation number of chromium in the above compound is

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 0
79. Which of the following reaction is balanced ?
(1) AsO42– + MnO4–  AsO43– + MnO2 + 2H2O
(2) MnO4– + C2O42–  Mn2+ + CO2
(3) Cu + 4HNO3  Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2
(4) H2S + HNO3  H2O + NO + S
80. Normality of 0.3 M H3PO4 solution is :
(1) 0.3 N (2) 0.4 N (3) 0.6 N (4) 0.9 N
81. The normality of mixture obtained by mixing 100 mL of 0.2 M H2SO4 and 200 mL of 0.2 M HCl is
:
(1) 0.0267 (2) 0.2670 (3) 1.0267 (4) 1.1670
82. For neutralisation of one mol of NaOH the mass of 70% H2SO4 required is :
(1) 48 g (2) 70 g (3) 49 g (4) 35 g
83. In which of the following metal is reduced (this is not balanced equation) :
(1) [Cr2O7]2–  [CrO4]2– (2) [Fe(CN)6]4–  [Fe(CN)6]3–
(3) MnO4–  MnO2 (4) MnO42–  MnO2–1
84. 20 g of solute X are dissolved in 50 g of water. 15 g of solute Y are dissolved in 70 g of benzene.
The molalities of the solutes in these two solutions are the same. Hence, the ratio of the molecular
weights of solute X to that of the solute Y is
(1) 7:5 (2) 4:3 (3) 15:28 (4) 28:15

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85. The molarity of H2SO4 solution, which has a density 1.84 g/cc at 35°C and contains 98% by weight
is :
(1) 1.84 M (2) 18.4 M (3) 20.6 M (4) 24.5 M
86. What is correct order of reducing capacity :
(1) Ye2+ > Sn2+ > Pb2+ (2) Ye2+ < Sn2+ < Pb2+ (3) Ye2+ = Sn2+ = Pb2+ (4) Pb2+ > Ye2+ > Sn2+
87. The second ionization enthalpies of elements are always higher than their first ionization enthalpies
because:
(1) cation formed always have stable half filled or completely filled valence shell electron
configuration.
(2) it is easier to remove electron from cation.
(3) ionization is an endothermic process.
(4) the cation is smaller than its parent atom.
88. In which of the following configuration, there will be large difference between second and third
ionisation energies ?
(1) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,3s1 (2) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,3s2, 3p1 (3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,3s2, 3p6 (4) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,3s2
89. A sample of hydrogen (in the form of atoms), is made to absorb white light. 52% of the hydrogen
atoms got ionised. In order to calculate the ionisation energy of hydrogen from its absorption
spectrum (assuming the electrons that got ejected have KE = 0), it is possible by measuring the
frequency of the
(1) line of shortest wavelength (2) line of longest wavelength
(3) line of greatest intensity (4) line of smallest intensity
90. The relative strength of interionic/intermolecular forces in decreasing order is:

(1) dipole-dipole > ion-dipole > ion-ion (2) ion-ion > ion-dipole > dipole-dipole
(3) ion-dipole > dipole-dipole > ion-ion (4) ion-dipole > ion-ion > dipole-dipole

SECTION – C – BIOLOGY
91. Microbes are present in
(1) Soil (2) Thermal vents (3) Polluted water (4) All of these
92. Refer to the given figure and select the correct match

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 (1) A-Fungal colony B-Bacterial colony
(2) A-Viral colony B-Bacterial colony
(3) A-Bacterial colony B-Viral colony
(4) A-Bacterial colony B-Fungal colony
93. Study the following flow chart depicting the formation of curd from milk. Identify the missing
parts
X and Y–
(1) X-Gluconic acid, Y-Vitamin B1 (2) X-Lactic acid, Y-Vitamin B2
(3) X-lactic acid, Y-Vitamin B12 (4) X-Citric acid, Y-Vitamin C
94. Which one of the following combinations of organisms are responsible for the formation and flavour of
yoghurt?
(1) Lactobacillus bulgaricus and Streptococus thermophilus
(2) Rhizobium meliloti and Azotobactor
(3) Bacillus subtilis and Escherichia coli
(4) Bacillus megathermus and Xanthomonas species
95. Read the following statements and select the incorrect one
(1) The depth used for making Dosa and Idli is fermented by bacteria
(2) Microbes are used to ferment fish, soyabean and bamboo shoots to make food
(3) The large holes in “Swiss cheese’ are due to production of large amount of CO2 by a fungi called
Propionibacterium Sharmanii
(4) “Toddy’ is a traditional drink of Southern India made by fermentation by micropbes
96. Which of the following organisms is used in the production of beverages?
(1) Penicillium notatum (2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(3) Aspergillus niger (4) Clostridium butylicum

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97. Which of the following option contains the end products formed during anaerobic respiration in yeast?
(1) H2O, CO2 and energy (2) H2S, C6H12O6 and energy
(3) CO2, C2H5OH and energy (4) H2O and CO2
98. Antibiotics are obtained from
(1) bacteria (2) fungi (3) Actinomycetes (4) All of these
99. Which of the following antiobiotics was extensively used to treat American soldiers wounded in World
war II ?
(1) Neomycin (2) Bacitracin (3) Chloramphenicol (4) Penicillin
100. Streptomycin is obtained from
(1) Streptomyces griseus (2) S.cerevisiae (3) S.venezuelae (4) S.rimosus
101. Which of the following antibiotics is not correctly matched with the source from which it is obtained ?
Antibiotic Source
(1) Penicillin Penicillium chrysogenum
(2) Bacitracin Bacillus Licheniform is
(3) Griseofulvin Penicillium griseofulvum
(4) Streptomycin Bacillus griseus
102. A drug used for patient A is obtained from the organism B. Identify A and B in the above statement and
select the correct answer-
A B
(1) Swine flue Monascus purpureus
(2) AIDS Pseudomonas denitrificans
(3) Heart Penicillium chrysogenum
(4) Organ transplant Trichoderma polysporum
103. Monascus purpureus is a yeast commercially used in the production of
(1) Citric acid
(2) Ethanol
(3) Blood cholesterol lowering statins
(4) Streptokinase for removing clots from blood vessels.
104 During the primary treatment of sewage, solid particles that settle down are called
(1) Flocs (2) Primary sludge (3) Activated sludge (4) Anaerobic sludge
105. The purpose of biological treatment of waste water is to

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 (1) Reduce BOD (2) Increase BOD
(3) Reduce sedimentation (4) Increase sedimentation
106. BOD is _________ in polluted water and ________ in potable water
(1) More, less (2) Less, more (3) Less in Both (4) Medium in both
107. Select the correct statement regarding activated sludge formed during secondary sewage treatment.
(1) A small part of it is rapidly pumped back from sedimentation to aeration tank
(2) It absorbs pathogenic bacteria present in waste water while sinking to the bottom of the settling tank.
(3) A major part of it is anaerobically digested
(4) Both (1) and (3)

108. Which of the following steps is taken by the Ministry of Environment and forests to protect rivers from
water pollution?
(1) Ganga Action Plan (2) Narmada Action Plan
(3) Yamuna Action Plan (4) Both (1) and (3)
109. Study the following statements and select the incorrect ones-
(i) Physical removal of large and small particles through filtration and sedimentation is called primary
sewage treatment.
(ii) Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a mechanical process
(iii) Activated sludge sediment in a sewage treatment plant is a rich source of
aerobic bacteria
(iv) Biogas, commonly called as gober gas, is pure methane
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iv) (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (iii) and (iv)
110. Which of the following bacteria is present in the rumen of cattle?
(1) Azotobacter (2) Rhizobium (3) Methanobacterium (4) Azospirillum
111. Process of biogas production is
(1) Aerobic process (2) Anaerobic process (3) Active process (4) Passive process
112. Biogas is produced by
(1) Aerobic breakdown of biomass (2) Anaerobic breakdown of biomass
(3) With the help of methanogenic bacteria (4) Both (2) and (3)
113. These bacteria grow anaerobically on cellulosic material produce large amount of methane along with
CO2 and H2, and are collectively called as methanogens. Examples of such bacteria are
(1) Methanobacterium (2) Methanobrevibacter
(3) Methanococcus (4) All of the above

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114. The given figure represents a typical biogas plant. Select the correct option A, B and C respectively-

(1) A is the inlet for cattle dung

(2) C is the outlet for the release of bogas
(3) B is the chamber which contains leftover slurry
(4) All of these
115. Biopesticides are

(1) The chemical which are used to destroy the pests

(2) The living organisms or their products which are used for the pest control

(3) The organisms which destroy the crops

(4) None of these

116. Dragonflies are used to get rid of

(1) Mosquitoes (2) aphids (3) Butterfly caterpillars (4) Both (1) and (2)

117. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel-

(1) Biofertilisers (2) Bio-metallurgical techniques

(3) Bio-mineralisation process (4) Bio-insecticidal plants

118. Baculoviruses (Nucleopolyhedrovirus) do not show-

(1) Host specificity (2) Narrow spectrum applications

(3) Effects of non-target pathogens (4) Utility in IPM programme

119. Integrated Pest Management (IPM) discourages the excessive use of
(1) Biological methods (2) Chemical pesticides
(3) Mechanical methods (4) All of these

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120. Which of the following is not used as a biopesticide ?
(1) Trichoderma harzianum (2) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(3) Xanthomonas campestris (4) Bacillus thuringiensis
121. The reason that the chemical/synthetic fertilizers should be replaced by biofertilisers is that the former-
(1) Are source of environmental pollution
(2) Are expensive
(3) Exhaust the valuable energy resources for their manufacture
(4) All of these
122. Organic farming does not include
(1) Green manures (2) Chemical fertilizers (3) Farmyard manures (4) Compost
123. Organic farming includes
(1) Use of fertilizers and pesticides of biological origin
(2) IPM (Integrated Pest Management)
(3) Locally developed pest resistant varieties
(4) All of these
124. Biofertilisers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil. Which of the following can be
used as biofertilisers ?
(1) Nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria (2) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
(3) Mycorrhizae (4) All of these
125. Biofertilisers are the living organisms which
(1) Bring about soil nutrient enrichment (2) Maximize the ecological benefits
(3) Minimise the environment hazards (4) All of these
126. Unicellular symbiotic organisms improve yield of legumes by
(1) Fixing atmospheric nitrogen without colonizing roots of host plant
(2) Fixing atmosphere nitrogen and colonizing roots of host plant
(3) Inducing the host plant to absorb more phosphorus
(4) Stimulating the host plant to become tolerant to drought
127. Which one of the following can be used as biofertiliser in cotton field ?
(1) Azolla-Anabaena (2) Streptococcus (3) Azospirillum (4) Azotobactor chroococcum
128. Which one of the following microorganisms forms symbiotic association with plants and helps them in
their nutrition ?
(1) Glomus (2) Azotobactor (3) Klebsiella (4) Azospirillum
129. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(1) Rhizobium – Parasite in the roots of leguminous plants

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 (2) Mycorrhiza – mineral uptake from soil
(3) Yeast – Production of biogas
(4) Azospirillum – Symbiotic N2 – fixing bacterium
130. Which of the following is widely used as a successful biofertiliser in India rice fields?
(1) Rhizobium (2) Acacia arabica (3) Acalypha indica (4) Azolla pinnata
131. Which of the following options includes biofertilisers ?
(1) Cowdung manure and farmyard waste (2) A quick growing crop ploughed back into the field
(3) Nostoc, Oscillatoria (4) All of these
132. Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is brought about by
(1) Frankia (2) Azorhizobium (3) Bradyrhizobium (4) Clostridium
133. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of rice by using which of the following biofertilisers?
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis (2) Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis
(3) Mycorrhizae (4) Azolla pinnata
134. The vitamin whose content increases following the conversion of milk into curd by lactic acid bacteria
is:
(1) vitamin C (2) vitamin D (3) vitamin B12 (4) vitamin E
135. The primary treatment of waste water involve the removal of:
(1) dissolved impurities (2) stable particles (3) toxic substances (4) harmful bacteria
136. Endemic plants are those which are
(1) Cosmopolitan in distribution (2) Restricted to certain area
(3) Found in arctic region (4) Gregarious in habit
137. Red data book provides data on
(1) Red flowered plants (2) Red coloured fishes
(3) Endangered plants and animals (4) Red eyed birds
138. World Wild Life Week is
(1) First week of September(2) First week of October
(3) Third week of October (4) Least week of October
139. Which of the following in most dangerous to wild life
(1) Over exploitation (2) Man made forest
(3) Habitat destruction (4) Introduction of foreign species
140. Plant genes of endangered species are stored
(1) Gene library (2) Gene bank (3) Herbarium (4) None above

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141. Red data book is maintained by
(1) IUCNNR (2) The Bombay Natural History Society
(3) WPSI (4) IUCN
142. The presence of diversity at the junction of territories of two different habitats is known as
(1) Bottle neck effect (2) Edge effect (3) Junction effect (4) Pasteur effect
143. Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the parliament in the year
(1) 1992 (2) 1996 (3) 2000 (4) 2002
144. The most biodiversity rich zone in India
(1) Gangetic planes (2) Trans Himalayas
(3) Western Ghats (4) Central India
145. One of the ex-situ conservation methods for endangered species is
(1) Wildlife Sanctuaries (2) Biosphere Reserves
(3) Cryopreservation (4) National Parks
146. Wildlife is
(1) All biota excluding man, domestic animals and cultivated crops
(2) All vertebrates of reserve forests
(3) All animals of reserve forests
(4) All animals and plant of reserve forest
147. One of the most important functions of botanical gardens is that
(1) They provide a beautiful area for recreation
(2) One can observe tropical plants there
(3) They allow ex-situ conservation of germ plasm
(4) They provide the natural habitat for wild life
148. Alpha diversity is biodiversity present
(1) Within community (2) Between community
(3) Ranges of communities (4) All the above
149. Species very near to extinction if conservation measures are not promptly taken is
(1) Threatened species (2) Rare species
(3) Endangered species (4) Vulnerable species
150. What is most effective way to conserve plant diversity of an area
(1) Tissue culture (2) Botanical garden
(3) Biosphere reserves (4) Speed banks
151. Hippopotamus is found in
(1) America (2) Africa (3) Asia (4) Australia

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152. In a biosphere reserve, limited human activity is permitted in
(1) Core zone (2) Buffer zone (3) Manipulation zone (4) None of these
153. Which monkey has prehensile tail
(1) Spider monkey (2) Semnopithecus (3) Rhesus monkey (4) Bonnet monkey
154. The most important human activity leading to the extinction of wildlife is
(1) Alteration and destruction of the natural habitats
(2) Hunting for commercially valuable wild life products
(3) Pollution of air and water
(4) Introduction of alien speices
155. In-situ conservation national genetic resources can be achieved by establishing
(1) National park (2) Wild life sanctuaries
(3) Biosphere reserve (4) All of the above
156. Kaziranga wild life sanctuary is located in
(1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Hgujarat
(3) Jammu and Kashmir (4) Assam
157. Which one of the following is the matching pair of a sanctuary and its main protected wild animal
(1) North–Eastern Himalayan Region – Sambhar (2) Sunderban – Rhino
(3) Gir – Lion (4) Kaziranga – Musk deer
158. Kanha National Park is famous for
(1) Birds (2) Rhinoceros (3) Tigers (4) Crocodiles
159. Dudhwa National Park is located in
(1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Himachal Pradesh (3) Arunachal Pradesh (4) Uttar Pradesh
160. What is the major cause of diminishing wild life number
(1) Cannibalism (2) Habitat destruction (3) Falling of trees (4) Paucity of drinking water
161. Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of endangered species
(1) Birds (2) Mammals (3) Fishes (4) Reptiles
162. The country which hosted the first world earth summit on conservation of environment is
(1) Brazil (2) Spain (3) India (4) Peru
163. Kaziranga wild life sanctuary is famous for
(1) Tiger (2) Musk deer (3) Elephant (4) Rhino
164. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched to the wild life and national park
(1) Rann of Kutch – Wild ass (2) Gir forest – Tiger
(3) Manas – Elephant (4) Corbett park – Asiatic lion
165. The species which are very few in number in the world are known as
(1) Living fossils (2) Endangered (3) Threatened (4) Rare

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166. Which one of the following groups consists of non-renewable organic resources
(1) Air, sand and clay (2) Coal, oil and natural gas
(3) Air, minerals and water (4) Water, wood and natural pastures
167. Non-polluting renewable type of energy is
(1) Wind (2) Solar (3) Tidal (4) All of the above
168. Soil erosion can be prevented by
(1) Overgrazing (2) Removal of vegetation
(3) Afforestation (4) Increasing birds population
169. Silent valley of Kerala is preserved because
(1) Has many rare species (2) Many new plants
(3) New hybrids (4) None of the above
170. Soil conservation is the process where
(1) Sterile soil is converted to fertile soil (2) Soil is aerated
(3) Soil erosion is allowed (4) Soil is protected against loss
171. Deforestation may reduce the chances of
(1) Rainfall (2) Frequent cyclones (3) Erosion of surface soil (4) Frequent land slides
172. Chipko movement is concerned with
(1) Plant conservation (2) Project Tiger
(3) Plant breeding (4) Animal breeding
173. Minerals and metals are
(1) Renewable resources (2) Non-renewable resources
(3) Renewable and non-renewable resources (4) Biodegradable resources
174. Which of the following is a renewable resource
(1) Fossil fire (2) Metal (3) Water (4) All the above
175. Land mass occupied by forest is above or According to Indian forest policy what percentage of the land
area should be under forest cover
(1) 11% (2) 22% (3) 30% (4) 60%
176. Forests should be conserved as they provide
(1) Food (2) Medicine (3) Wood (4) All of the these
177. More that 70% of world’s freshwater is contained in
(1) Polar ice (2) Glaciers and mountains
(3) Antartica (4) Greenland
178. Mine spoil is
(1) Wastes from mines (2) Wastes from mine processing
(3) Land degraded by mining (4) Both (1) and (2)
179. Deforestation brings about
(1) Increased sunlight (2) Increased grazing area
(3) Weed control (4) Soil erosion
180. Silent Valley has been preserved as it has
(1) Recreational value (2) Valuable timber plants
(3) Natural forest (4) Rare plants and animals

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 Practice Test for XII
NEET – 2024

Dated: 15.10.2023 Nazira

Time: 3 hours MM: 720

Instructions: :
 There are three sections in this paper, consisting Physics, Chemistry, Biology.
 For each correct answer 4 marks awarded and for each incorrect answer, one mark will be
deducted.
 Mark only one correct answer out of four alternatives.
 Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars/marking.
 Use of Calculator is not allowed.
 Dark the circle in the space provided only.
 Use of white fluid or any other material which damage the answer sheet, is not permissible on
the Answer Sheet.

USEFUL CONSTANTS
Boltzmann constant (k) = 1.38 × 10–23 J K–1 Avogadro’s number (NA) = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1
Planck’s constant (h) = 6.63 × 10–34 J s Speed of light in vacuum (c) = 3 × 108 m s–1
Rest mass of electron (me) = 9.1 × 10–31 kg 1 unified atomic mass
unit (u) = 1.66 × 10–27 kg
1 eV = 1.6 × 10–19 J 1 nm = 10–9 m
Charge of Electron (e) = 1.6 × 10–19 C Gas constant (R) = 8.31 J mol–1 K–1

SECTION – A – PHYSIS
1. Supporting that the earth of mass m moves around the sun in a circular orbit of radius R, the work done
in half revolution is
mv 2 mv 2
(1) R (2)  2R (3) Zero (4) None of these
R R

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2. A string of mass m and length  rests over a frictionless table with 1/4th of its length hanging
from a side. The work done in bringing the hanging part back on the table is
(1) mg  / 4 (2) mg  / 32 (3) mg  / 16 (4) None of these
3. A weight mg is suspended from a spring. If the elongation in the spring is x0, the elastic energy stored in
it is
1 1
(1) mgx0 (2) 2mgx0 (3) mgx0 (4) mgx0
2 4
4. A constant retarding force is applied to stop a train. If its initial speed were doubled, the distance
covered by the train by the time it stops will be (compared with the previous value)
(1) eight times (2) doubled (3) half (4) four times
5. Work done in time t on a body of mass m which is uniformly accelerated from rest to a speed v in time
t1 is given by

1  mv 
2
1 v v 1 v2 2
(1) m t 2 (2) m t 2 (3)  t  t 2 (4) m t
2 t1 t1 2  t1  2 t12

6. A ball is thrown up with a certain velocity at angle  to the horizontal. The kinetic energy KE of the ball
varies with horizontal displacement x as:

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

7. A body of mass m1 is projected vertically upward with velocity v1. Another body of same mass is
projected at an angle of 45°. Another body of same mass is projected at an angle of 45°. Both reach
the same maximum height. What is the ratio of their kinetic energies at the point of projection?
(1) 1 (2) 1/2 (3) 1/3 (4) 1/4
8. A particle of mass m is fixed to one end of a light rigid rod of length  and rotated in a vertical
circular path about its other end. The minimum speed of the particle at its highest point must be
(1) zero (2) g (3) 1.5g (4) 2g

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9. The period of revolution of an earth satellite close to the surface of earth is 90 minutes. The time
period of another satellite in an orbit at a distance of three times the radius of earth from its surface
will be
(1) 90 8 min (2) 360 min (3) 720 min (4) 270 min
10. A weight mg is suspended from a spring. If the elongation in the spring is x0, the elastic energy
stored in it is
1 1
(1) mgx 0 (2) 2mgx 0 (3) mgx 0 (4) mgx 0
2 4
11. The distance (R) of a satellite from the centre of a spinning planet is such that it appears to be
stationary with respect to an observer on its surface. The rate of spin of the planet is now suddenly
halved. By what factor should the distance of the satellite from the centre of the planet be changed
for the satellite to appear stationary relative to the surface of the planet ?
(1) (2)1/3 times (2) (2)3/2 times (3) (2)2/3 times (4) 4 times
12. The speed of S2 relative to S1 is
 
(1) 104 km / h (2) 2104 km / h (3) 104 km / h (4) 104 km / h
3 2
13. The angular speed of S2 as actually observed by an astronaut in S1.
   
(1) rad/h (2) – rad/h (3) rad/h (4) – rad/h
2 3 4 2
14. The minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass m from the surface of earth of radius R
in circular orbit at an altitude 2R, ignoring the earth’s rotation, is (mass of earth is M)
5GmM 2GmM GmM GmM
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6R 3R 2R 3R
15. If the period of revolution of an artificial satellite just above the earth’s surface is T and the density
of earth is , then T2
3
(1) is a universal constant whose value is
G
3
(2) is a universal constant whose value is
2G
(3) is proportional to radius of earth R
(4) is proportional to square of the radius of earth R2
Here G = universal gravitational constant

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16. Imagine a light planet revolving around a very massive star in a circular orbit of radius R with a
period of revolution T. If the gravitational force of attraction between the planet and the stat is
proportional to R–5/2, then T2 is proportional to
(1) R3 (2) R7/2 (3) R3/2 (4) R3.75
17. How much faster than its present rate  should the earth rotate about its axis in order that the
weight of the body on the equator may be zero ? Radius of earth = 6400km.
(1) 2  (2) 15  (3) 17  (4) 19 
18. With what angular velocity should be earth rotate so that a body at the latitude of 45° would be
weightless?
2g g 2g 3g
(1)  = (2)  = (3) (4)
3R 3R R R
19. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by one percent, its mass remaining the same, the
acceleration due to gravity on the earth’s surface would
(1) decrease by 2% (2) remain unchanged (3) increase by 2% (4) decrease by 9.8%
20. At what height above the earth’s surface is the acceleration due to gravity 4% less than its value at
the surface of the earth ?
R R R R
(1) (2) (3) (4)
25 40 50 96
21. The time period of a satellite in a circular orbit of radius R is T. The radius of the orbit in which
time period is 8T is
(1) 2R (2) 3R (3) 4R (4) 5R
22. The acceleration due to gravity g and mean density of the earth  are related by which of the
following relations ? (where G is the gravitation constant and R is radius of the earth)
4gR 2 4gR 3 3g 3g
(1)   (2)   (3)   (4)  
3G 3G 4GR 4GR 3
23. Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed at the vertices of a right angle isosceles triangle as shown
below. The net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero, if the value of Q is

q  2q
(1) –2q (2) (3) +q (4)
1 2 2 1
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24. A charged ball B hangs from a silk thread S, which makes an angle  with a large charged
conducting sheet P, as shown in the figure. The surface charge density  of the sheet is proportional
to

(1) cos  (2) cot  (3) sin  (4) tan 

25. Two point charge +8q and –2q are located at x = 0 and x = L respectively. The location of a point
on the x-axis at which the net electric field due to those two point charges is zero is
L
(1) 2L (2) (3) 8L (4) 4L
4
26. Two thin wire rings each having a radius R are placed at a distance d apart, with their axes
coinciding. The charges on the two rings are +q and –q. The potential difference between the
centres of the rings is

qR q 1 1 
(1) (2)   
4 0 d 2 20 R 
 R  d2
2


q 1 1 
(3) Zero (4)   
40 R 
 R  d2
2

27. The charge given to any conductor resides on its outer surface, because
(1) the free charge tends to be in its minimum potential
(2) the free charge tends to be in its minimum kinetic energy state
(3) the free charge tends to be in its maximum potential energy state
(4) the free charge tends to be in its maximum kinetic energy state
28. Two parallel large thin metal sheet have equal surface charge densities ( = 26.4 10–22 C/m2) of
opposite signs. The electric field between these sheets is
(1) 1.5 N/C (2) 1.5  10–10 N/C (3) 3 N/C (4) 3  10–10 N/C
29. The electric potential V is given as a function of distance x (metre) by V = (5x2 + 10x – 9) volt. The
value of electric field at x = 1 is
(1) –20 V/m (2) 6 V/m (3) 11 V/m (4) –23 V/m

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30. The spatial distribution of the electric field due to charge (A, B) is shown in figure. Which one of
the following statements is correct ?

(1) A is +ve and B –ve and |A| > |B| (2) A is –ve and B +ve; |A| = |B|
(3) Both are +ve but A > B (4) Both are –ve but A > B
31. A capacitor of capacitance 1F is filled with two dielectrics of dielectric constants 4 and 6. What is
the new capacitance ?
(1) 10 F (2) 5 F (3) 4 F (4) 7 F

32. Two bulbs X and Y having same voltage rating and power of 40 watt and 60 watt respectively are
connected in series across a potential difference of 300 volt. Then,

(1) X will glow brighter (2) resistance of Y is greater than X

(3) heat produced in Y will be greater than X (4) voltage drop in X will be greater than Y

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33. Each resistance in the given network has a value of 10 . The equivalent resistance between point
A and B will be

(1) 30 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 2

34. The charge q in the circuit shown here varies with time t as

(1) (2)

(3) (4)
35. A straight conductor of length  carrying a current I, is bent in form of a semicircle. The magnetic
field (in tesla) at the centre of the semicircle is
2 I I I I 2
(1) 107 (2) 107 (3) 107 (4) 107
  2 
36. An electric current passes through a long straight copper wire. At a distance 5 cm from the straight
wire, the magnetic field is B. The magnetic field at 20 cm from the straight wire would be
B B B B
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 4 3 2

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37. The long parallel wires carry equal current, I in the same direction. The length of each wire is l and
the distance between them is a. The force acting on each wire is
 0li 2  0li 2  0l 2 i 2  0l 2 i 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2a 2a 2 4a 4a 2
38. Current of 10 amp and 2 amp are passed through two parallel wires A and B respectively in
opposite directions. If the wire A is infinitely long and the length of the wire B is 2 metres, the
force on the conductor B which is situated 10 cm, distance of from A will be
(1) 8  10–5 N (2) 4  10–5 N (3) 8  10–7 N (4) 4  10–7 N
39. Lenz’s law is in accordance with law of conservation of
(1) mass (2) charge (3) momentum (4) energy
40. The emf produced in a wire by its motion across a magnetic field does not depend upon
(1) length (2) composition (3) orientation (4) diameter of the wire
41. The magnetic flux through a circuit of resistance R changes by an amount  in a time t. Total
quantity of electric charge Q that passes any point in the circuit during t is represented by
1    
(1) Q  . (2) Q  (3) Q  (4) Q  R
R t R t dt
42. Magnetic field due to 0.1 A current flowing through a circular coil of radius 0.1 m and 1000 turns
at the centre of the coil is
(1) 6.28  10–4 T (2) 4.31  10–2 T (3) 2  10–1 T (4) 9.81  10–4 T
43. Magnetic field intensity at the entre of the coil of 50 turns, radius 0.5 m and carrying a current of
2A, is
(1) 3  10–5 T (2) 1.25  10–4 T (3) 0.5  10–5 T (4) 4  106 T
44. A long wire carries a steady current. First, it is bent into a circular coil of one turn when the
magnetic induction at the centre is B1. Then, the same wire is bent to form a circular coil of smaller
radius but with two turns when the magnetic induction at the centre is B2. Then,
(1) B2 = B1 (2) B2 = 2B1 (3) B2 = 4B1 (4) B1 = 4B2
  
45. The magnetic field dB due to a small current element dl at a distance r and element carrying current i
is
 
  0 2  dl  r    0  dl  r 
(1) dB = i   (2) dB = i  3 
4  r  4  r 
 
  0  dl  r    0 2  dl  r 
(3) dB = i   (4) dB = i  2 
4  r  4  r 

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 SECTION – B – CHEMISTRY
x
46. An electron in an atom jumps in such a way that its kinetic energy changes from x to . The change in
4
potential energy will be :
3 3 3 3
(1) + x (2)  x (3)  x (4)  x
2 8 4 4

47. A compound of vanadium has a magnetic moment of 1.73 BM. What will be the electronic
configurations:
(1) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d1 (2) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d2
(3) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3 (4) 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d4
48. During change of O2 to O2– ion, the electron adds on which one of the following orbitals ?

(1) * 2pz orbital (2)  2pz orbital (3) * 2px / * 2pyorbital (4)  2px /  2py orbital

49. Which one of the following compounds has covalent as well as coordinate bond ?
(1) F3B.NH3 (2) C5H5N.SF4 (3) BH3.CO (4) all
50. Which of the following is not an ionic compound ?
(1) NaNO3 (2) CaCO3 (3) CaBr2 (4) P4S3
1 2 3 4 5
51. HC  C– CH  CH – CH3 Which carbon atom will show minimum electronegativity :

Hint : Electronegativity  % s character

(1) Fifth (2) Third (3) First (4) Second
52. The threshold wavelength (0) of sodium metal is 6500Å. If UV light of wavelength 360Å is used,
what will be kinetic energy of the photoelectron in ergs?
(1) 55.175 × 10–12 (2) 3.056 × 10–12 (3) 52.119 × 10–12 (4) 48.66 × 10–10
53. The possible set of quantum no. for the unpaired electron of chlorine is :
n  m n  m
(1) 2 1 0 (2) 2 1 1
(3) 3 1 1 (4) 3 0 0
54. Which of the following statements are correct ?

(I) structure is not allowed because octet around 'O' can not be expanded.
(II) H2O2 is ionic compound

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 (III) In B2 molecule, the highest occupied molecular orbital is  molecular orbital.
(IV) The lp–bp repulsion is stronger than bp–bp repulsion.
(1) (I) and (III) (2) (II) and (III) (3) (I) and (IV) (4) (III) and (IV)
55. Which species should be least likely to act as a Lewis base ?
(1) CN– (2) PCl3 (3) I+ (4) SCl2
56. Select the correct order of the strength of acids given below :
(1) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO < HClO2 (2) HClO4 < HClO3 < HClO2 < HClO
(3) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4 (4) none of these
57. Which does not form linear structure ?
(1) CO2 (2) NO2 (3) C2H2 (4) BeCl2
58. Which of the following compounds has the smallest bond angle in its molecule ?
(1) SO2 (2) H2O (3) H2S (4) NH3
59. Which of the following aqueous solution has minimum freezing point ?
(1) 0.01m NaCl (2) 0.05m C2H5OH (3) 0.05m MgI2 (4) 0.05m MgSO4
60. The freezing point depression constant for water is –1.86° C m–1. If 5.00 g Na2SO4 is dissolved in
45.0 g H2O, the freezing point is changed by –3.82°C. Calculate the vanhoff factor for Na2SO4.
(1) 2.05 (2) 2.63 (3) 3.11 (4) 0.381
61. Which of the following aqueous solutions produce the same osmotic pressure ?
(i) 0.1 M NaCl solution
(ii) 0.1 M glucose solution
(iii) 0.6 g urea in 100 mL solution
(iv) 1.0 g of a non-electrolyte solute (X) in 50 mL solution (molar mass of X = 200)
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (ii), (iii), (iv) (3) (i), (ii), (iv) (4) (i), (iii), (iv)
62. Which of the following associated with isotonic solutions is not correct ?
(1) They will have the same osmotic pressure
(2) They will have the same vapour pressure
(3) They have same weight concentration
(4) Osmosis does not take pace when the two solutions are separated by a semipermeable
membrane

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63. The freezing point depression constant (Kf) of benzene is 5.12 K kg mol–1. The freezing point
depression for the solution of molality 0.078 m containing a non-electrolyte solute in benzene is
(rounded off upto two decimal places) :
(1) 0.80 K (2) 0.40 K (3) 0.60 K (4) 0.20 K
64. If molality of the dilute solution is doubled, the value of molal depression constant (Kf) will be
(1) halved (2) tripled (3) unchanged (4) doubled
65. During osmosis, flow of water through a semipermeable membrane is
(1) from solution having lower concentration only
(2) from solution having higher concentration only
(3) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with equal flow rates
(4) from both sides of semipermeable membrane with unequal flow rates
66. The van’t Hoff factor i for a compound which undergoes dissociation in one solvent and association in
other solvent is respectively.
(1) less than one and greater than one
(2) less than one and less than one
(3) greater than one and less than one
(4) greater than one and greater than one
67. Which of the following equations is a balanced one :
– + 2+ 3+ –
(1) 5BiO3 + 22H + Mn  5Bi + 7H2O + MnO4
– + 2+ 3+ –
(2) 5BiO3 + 14H + 2Mn  5Bi + 7H2O + 2MnO4
– + 2+ 3+ –
(3) 2BiO3 + 4H + Mn  2Bi + 2H2O + MnO4
– + 2+ 3+ –
(4) 6BiO3 + 12H + 3Mn  6Bi + 6H2O + 3MnO4
68. During the disproportionation of Iodine to iodide and iodate ions, the ratio of iodate and iodide ions
formed in alkaline medium is :
(1) 1 : 5 (2) 5 : 1 (3) 3 : 1 (4) 1 : 3
69. The temperature at which molarity of pure water is equal to its molality is :
(1) 273 K (2) 298 K (3) 277 K (4) None
70. What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution that has a density 1.84 g/cc at 35ºC and contains 98% by
weight-

(1) 4.18 M (2) 8.14 M (3) 18.4 M (4) 18 M

71. A compound is composed of 74% C, 8.7% H and 17.3% N by mass. If the molecular mass of the
compound is 162, what is its molecular formula ?

(1) C5H7N (2) C10H16N2 (3) C8H14N3 (4) C10H14N2

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72. Number of gm of oxygen in 32.2 g Na2SO4. 10H2O is :
(1) 20.8 (2) 22.4 (3) 2.24 (4) 2.08
73. The molecular weight of a compound is 180. If its empirical formula is CH2O then the molecular
formula of compound is :
(1) C2H4O2 (2) C3H6O3 (3) C6H12O6 (4) C12H24O12
74. 1.12 mL of a gas is produced at STP by the action of 4.12 mg of alcohol ROH with methyl
magnesium iodide. The molecular mass of alcohol is :
(1) 16.0 (2) 41.2 (3) 82.4 (4) 156.0
75. XeF6 fluorinates I2 to IF7 and liberates Xenon(g). 3.5 mmol of XeF6 can yield a maximum of_____
mmol of IF7.
XeF6 + I2  IF7 + Xe
(1) 3 (2) 7 (3) 1 (4) 6
76. Oxidation number of Os in OsO4 :
(1) + 2 (2) + 4 (3) + 8 (4) + 10
77. The oxidation number of sulphur in H2S2O7 is :
(1) + 2 (2) + 6 (3) + 4 (4) + 8

78. CrO5 has structure as shown

The oxidation number of chromium in the above compound is

(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) 0
79. Which of the following reaction is balanced ?
(1) AsO42– + MnO4–  AsO43– + MnO2 + 2H2O
(2) MnO4– + C2O42–  Mn2+ + CO2
(3) Cu + 4HNO3  Cu(NO3)2 + 2NO2
(4) H2S + HNO3  H2O + NO + S
80. Normality of 0.3 M H3PO4 solution is :
(1) 0.3 N (2) 0.4 N (3) 0.6 N (4) 0.9 N
81. The normality of mixture obtained by mixing 100 mL of 0.2 M H2SO4 and 200 mL of 0.2 M HCl is
:
(1) 0.0267 (2) 0.2670 (3) 1.0267 (4) 1.1670
82. For neutralisation of one mol of NaOH the mass of 70% H2SO4 required is :
(1) 48 g (2) 70 g (3) 49 g (4) 35 g
83. In which of the following metal is reduced (this is not balanced equation) :
(1) [Cr2O7]2–  [CrO4]2– (2) [Fe(CN)6]4–  [Fe(CN)6]3–
(3) MnO4–  MnO2 (4) MnO42–  MnO2–1
84. 20 g of solute X are dissolved in 50 g of water. 15 g of solute Y are dissolved in 70 g of benzene.
The molalities of the solutes in these two solutions are the same. Hence, the ratio of the molecular
weights of solute X to that of the solute Y is
(1) 7:5 (2) 4:3 (3) 15:28 (4) 28:15

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85. The molarity of H2SO4 solution, which has a density 1.84 g/cc at 35°C and contains 98% by weight
is :
(1) 1.84 M (2) 18.4 M (3) 20.6 M (4) 24.5 M
86. What is correct order of reducing capacity :
(1) Ye2+ > Sn2+ > Pb2+ (2) Ye2+ < Sn2+ < Pb2+ (3) Ye2+ = Sn2+ = Pb2+ (4) Pb2+ > Ye2+ > Sn2+
87. The second ionization enthalpies of elements are always higher than their first ionization enthalpies
because:
(1) cation formed always have stable half filled or completely filled valence shell electron
configuration.
(2) it is easier to remove electron from cation.
(3) ionization is an endothermic process.
(4) the cation is smaller than its parent atom.
88. In which of the following configuration, there will be large difference between second and third
ionisation energies ?
(1) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,3s1 (2) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,3s2, 3p1 (3) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,3s2, 3p6 (4) 1s2, 2s2, 2p6,3s2
89. A sample of hydrogen (in the form of atoms), is made to absorb white light. 52% of the hydrogen
atoms got ionised. In order to calculate the ionisation energy of hydrogen from its absorption
spectrum (assuming the electrons that got ejected have KE = 0), it is possible by measuring the
frequency of the
(1) line of shortest wavelength (2) line of longest wavelength
(3) line of greatest intensity (4) line of smallest intensity
90. The relative strength of interionic/intermolecular forces in decreasing order is:

(1) dipole-dipole > ion-dipole > ion-ion (2) ion-ion > ion-dipole > dipole-dipole
(3) ion-dipole > dipole-dipole > ion-ion (4) ion-dipole > ion-ion > dipole-dipole

SECTION – C – BIOLOGY
91. Microbes are present in
(1) Soil (2) Thermal vents (3) Polluted water (4) All of these
92. Refer to the given figure and select the correct match

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 (1) A-Fungal colony B-Bacterial colony
(2) A-Viral colony B-Bacterial colony
(3) A-Bacterial colony B-Viral colony
(4) A-Bacterial colony B-Fungal colony
93. Study the following flow chart depicting the formation of curd from milk. Identify the missing
parts
X and Y–
(1) X-Gluconic acid, Y-Vitamin B1 (2) X-Lactic acid, Y-Vitamin B2
(3) X-lactic acid, Y-Vitamin B12 (4) X-Citric acid, Y-Vitamin C
94. Which one of the following combinations of organisms are responsible for the formation and flavour of
yoghurt?
(1) Lactobacillus bulgaricus and Streptococus thermophilus
(2) Rhizobium meliloti and Azotobactor
(3) Bacillus subtilis and Escherichia coli
(4) Bacillus megathermus and Xanthomonas species
95. Read the following statements and select the incorrect one
(1) The depth used for making Dosa and Idli is fermented by bacteria
(2) Microbes are used to ferment fish, soyabean and bamboo shoots to make food
(3) The large holes in “Swiss cheese’ are due to production of large amount of CO2 by a fungi called
Propionibacterium Sharmanii
(4) “Toddy’ is a traditional drink of Southern India made by fermentation by micropbes
96. Which of the following organisms is used in the production of beverages?
(1) Penicillium notatum (2) Saccharomyces cerevisiae
(3) Aspergillus niger (4) Clostridium butylicum

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97. Which of the following option contains the end products formed during anaerobic respiration in yeast?
(1) H2O, CO2 and energy (2) H2S, C6H12O6 and energy
(3) CO2, C2H5OH and energy (4) H2O and CO2
98. Antibiotics are obtained from
(1) bacteria (2) fungi (3) Actinomycetes (4) All of these
99. Which of the following antiobiotics was extensively used to treat American soldiers wounded in World
war II ?
(1) Neomycin (2) Bacitracin (3) Chloramphenicol (4) Penicillin
100. Streptomycin is obtained from
(1) Streptomyces griseus (2) S.cerevisiae (3) S.venezuelae (4) S.rimosus
101. Which of the following antibiotics is not correctly matched with the source from which it is obtained ?
Antibiotic Source
(1) Penicillin Penicillium chrysogenum
(2) Bacitracin Bacillus Licheniform is
(3) Griseofulvin Penicillium griseofulvum
(4) Streptomycin Bacillus griseus
102. A drug used for patient A is obtained from the organism B. Identify A and B in the above statement and
select the correct answer-
A B
(1) Swine flue Monascus purpureus
(2) AIDS Pseudomonas denitrificans
(3) Heart Penicillium chrysogenum
(4) Organ transplant Trichoderma polysporum
103. Monascus purpureus is a yeast commercially used in the production of
(1) Citric acid
(2) Ethanol
(3) Blood cholesterol lowering statins
(4) Streptokinase for removing clots from blood vessels.
104 During the primary treatment of sewage, solid particles that settle down are called
(1) Flocs (2) Primary sludge (3) Activated sludge (4) Anaerobic sludge
105. The purpose of biological treatment of waste water is to

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 (1) Reduce BOD (2) Increase BOD
(3) Reduce sedimentation (4) Increase sedimentation
106. BOD is _________ in polluted water and ________ in potable water
(1) More, less (2) Less, more (3) Less in Both (4) Medium in both
107. Select the correct statement regarding activated sludge formed during secondary sewage treatment.
(1) A small part of it is rapidly pumped back from sedimentation to aeration tank
(2) It absorbs pathogenic bacteria present in waste water while sinking to the bottom of the settling tank.
(3) A major part of it is anaerobically digested
(4) Both (1) and (3)

108. Which of the following steps is taken by the Ministry of Environment and forests to protect rivers from
water pollution?
(1) Ganga Action Plan (2) Narmada Action Plan
(3) Yamuna Action Plan (4) Both (1) and (3)
109. Study the following statements and select the incorrect ones-
(i) Physical removal of large and small particles through filtration and sedimentation is called primary
sewage treatment.
(ii) Secondary sewage treatment is mainly a mechanical process
(iii) Activated sludge sediment in a sewage treatment plant is a rich source of
aerobic bacteria
(iv) Biogas, commonly called as gober gas, is pure methane
(1) (i) and (ii) (2) (ii) and (iv) (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (iii) and (iv)
110. Which of the following bacteria is present in the rumen of cattle?
(1) Azotobacter (2) Rhizobium (3) Methanobacterium (4) Azospirillum
111. Process of biogas production is
(1) Aerobic process (2) Anaerobic process (3) Active process (4) Passive process
112. Biogas is produced by
(1) Aerobic breakdown of biomass (2) Anaerobic breakdown of biomass
(3) With the help of methanogenic bacteria (4) Both (2) and (3)
113. These bacteria grow anaerobically on cellulosic material produce large amount of methane along with
CO2 and H2, and are collectively called as methanogens. Examples of such bacteria are
(1) Methanobacterium (2) Methanobrevibacter
(3) Methanococcus (4) All of the above

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114. The given figure represents a typical biogas plant. Select the correct option A, B and C respectively-

(1) A is the inlet for cattle dung

(2) C is the outlet for the release of bogas
(3) B is the chamber which contains leftover slurry
(4) All of these
115. Biopesticides are

(1) The chemical which are used to destroy the pests

(2) The living organisms or their products which are used for the pest control

(3) The organisms which destroy the crops

(4) None of these

116. Dragonflies are used to get rid of

(1) Mosquitoes (2) aphids (3) Butterfly caterpillars (4) Both (1) and (2)

117. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been used for designing novel-

(1) Biofertilisers (2) Bio-metallurgical techniques

(3) Bio-mineralisation process (4) Bio-insecticidal plants

118. Baculoviruses (Nucleopolyhedrovirus) do not show-

(1) Host specificity (2) Narrow spectrum applications

(3) Effects of non-target pathogens (4) Utility in IPM programme

119. Integrated Pest Management (IPM) discourages the excessive use of
(1) Biological methods (2) Chemical pesticides
(3) Mechanical methods (4) All of these

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120. Which of the following is not used as a biopesticide ?
(1) Trichoderma harzianum (2) Nucleopolyhedrovirus
(3) Xanthomonas campestris (4) Bacillus thuringiensis
121. The reason that the chemical/synthetic fertilizers should be replaced by biofertilisers is that the former-
(1) Are source of environmental pollution
(2) Are expensive
(3) Exhaust the valuable energy resources for their manufacture
(4) All of these
122. Organic farming does not include
(1) Green manures (2) Chemical fertilizers (3) Farmyard manures (4) Compost
123. Organic farming includes
(1) Use of fertilizers and pesticides of biological origin
(2) IPM (Integrated Pest Management)
(3) Locally developed pest resistant varieties
(4) All of these
124. Biofertilisers are organisms that enrich the nutrient quality of the soil. Which of the following can be
used as biofertilisers ?
(1) Nitrogen fixing cyanobacteria (2) Nitrogen fixing bacteria
(3) Mycorrhizae (4) All of these
125. Biofertilisers are the living organisms which
(1) Bring about soil nutrient enrichment (2) Maximize the ecological benefits
(3) Minimise the environment hazards (4) All of these
126. Unicellular symbiotic organisms improve yield of legumes by
(1) Fixing atmospheric nitrogen without colonizing roots of host plant
(2) Fixing atmosphere nitrogen and colonizing roots of host plant
(3) Inducing the host plant to absorb more phosphorus
(4) Stimulating the host plant to become tolerant to drought
127. Which one of the following can be used as biofertiliser in cotton field ?
(1) Azolla-Anabaena (2) Streptococcus (3) Azospirillum (4) Azotobactor chroococcum
128. Which one of the following microorganisms forms symbiotic association with plants and helps them in
their nutrition ?
(1) Glomus (2) Azotobactor (3) Klebsiella (4) Azospirillum
129. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched ?
(1) Rhizobium – Parasite in the roots of leguminous plants

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 (2) Mycorrhiza – mineral uptake from soil
(3) Yeast – Production of biogas
(4) Azospirillum – Symbiotic N2 – fixing bacterium
130. Which of the following is widely used as a successful biofertiliser in India rice fields?
(1) Rhizobium (2) Acacia arabica (3) Acalypha indica (4) Azolla pinnata
131. Which of the following options includes biofertilisers ?
(1) Cowdung manure and farmyard waste (2) A quick growing crop ploughed back into the field
(3) Nostoc, Oscillatoria (4) All of these
132. Nitrogen fixation in root nodules of Alnus is brought about by
(1) Frankia (2) Azorhizobium (3) Bradyrhizobium (4) Clostridium
133. Farmers have reported over 50% higher yields of rice by using which of the following biofertilisers?
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis (2) Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis
(3) Mycorrhizae (4) Azolla pinnata
134. The vitamin whose content increases following the conversion of milk into curd by lactic acid bacteria
is:
(1) vitamin C (2) vitamin D (3) vitamin B12 (4) vitamin E
135. The primary treatment of waste water involve the removal of:
(1) dissolved impurities (2) stable particles (3) toxic substances (4) harmful bacteria
136. Endemic plants are those which are
(1) Cosmopolitan in distribution (2) Restricted to certain area
(3) Found in arctic region (4) Gregarious in habit
137. Red data book provides data on
(1) Red flowered plants (2) Red coloured fishes
(3) Endangered plants and animals (4) Red eyed birds
138. World Wild Life Week is
(1) First week of September(2) First week of October
(3) Third week of October (4) Least week of October
139. Which of the following in most dangerous to wild life
(1) Over exploitation (2) Man made forest
(3) Habitat destruction (4) Introduction of foreign species
140. Plant genes of endangered species are stored
(1) Gene library (2) Gene bank (3) Herbarium (4) None above

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141. Red data book is maintained by
(1) IUCNNR (2) The Bombay Natural History Society
(3) WPSI (4) IUCN
142. The presence of diversity at the junction of territories of two different habitats is known as
(1) Bottle neck effect (2) Edge effect (3) Junction effect (4) Pasteur effect
143. Biodiversity Act of India was passed by the parliament in the year
(1) 1992 (2) 1996 (3) 2000 (4) 2002
144. The most biodiversity rich zone in India
(1) Gangetic planes (2) Trans Himalayas
(3) Western Ghats (4) Central India
145. One of the ex-situ conservation methods for endangered species is
(1) Wildlife Sanctuaries (2) Biosphere Reserves
(3) Cryopreservation (4) National Parks
146. Wildlife is
(1) All biota excluding man, domestic animals and cultivated crops
(2) All vertebrates of reserve forests
(3) All animals of reserve forests
(4) All animals and plant of reserve forest
147. One of the most important functions of botanical gardens is that
(1) They provide a beautiful area for recreation
(2) One can observe tropical plants there
(3) They allow ex-situ conservation of germ plasm
(4) They provide the natural habitat for wild life
148. Alpha diversity is biodiversity present
(1) Within community (2) Between community
(3) Ranges of communities (4) All the above
149. Species very near to extinction if conservation measures are not promptly taken is
(1) Threatened species (2) Rare species
(3) Endangered species (4) Vulnerable species
150. What is most effective way to conserve plant diversity of an area
(1) Tissue culture (2) Botanical garden
(3) Biosphere reserves (4) Speed banks
151. Hippopotamus is found in
(1) America (2) Africa (3) Asia (4) Australia

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152. In a biosphere reserve, limited human activity is permitted in
(1) Core zone (2) Buffer zone (3) Manipulation zone (4) None of these
153. Which monkey has prehensile tail
(1) Spider monkey (2) Semnopithecus (3) Rhesus monkey (4) Bonnet monkey
154. The most important human activity leading to the extinction of wildlife is
(1) Alteration and destruction of the natural habitats
(2) Hunting for commercially valuable wild life products
(3) Pollution of air and water
(4) Introduction of alien speices
155. In-situ conservation national genetic resources can be achieved by establishing
(1) National park (2) Wild life sanctuaries
(3) Biosphere reserve (4) All of the above
156. Kaziranga wild life sanctuary is located in
(1) Uttar Pradesh (2) Hgujarat
(3) Jammu and Kashmir (4) Assam
157. Which one of the following is the matching pair of a sanctuary and its main protected wild animal
(1) North–Eastern Himalayan Region – Sambhar (2) Sunderban – Rhino
(3) Gir – Lion (4) Kaziranga – Musk deer
158. Kanha National Park is famous for
(1) Birds (2) Rhinoceros (3) Tigers (4) Crocodiles
159. Dudhwa National Park is located in
(1) Madhya Pradesh (2) Himachal Pradesh (3) Arunachal Pradesh (4) Uttar Pradesh
160. What is the major cause of diminishing wild life number
(1) Cannibalism (2) Habitat destruction (3) Falling of trees (4) Paucity of drinking water
161. Which group of vertebrates comprises the highest number of endangered species
(1) Birds (2) Mammals (3) Fishes (4) Reptiles
162. The country which hosted the first world earth summit on conservation of environment is
(1) Brazil (2) Spain (3) India (4) Peru
163. Kaziranga wild life sanctuary is famous for
(1) Tiger (2) Musk deer (3) Elephant (4) Rhino
164. Which one of the following pair is correctly matched to the wild life and national park
(1) Rann of Kutch – Wild ass (2) Gir forest – Tiger
(3) Manas – Elephant (4) Corbett park – Asiatic lion
165. The species which are very few in number in the world are known as
(1) Living fossils (2) Endangered (3) Threatened (4) Rare

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166. Which one of the following groups consists of non-renewable organic resources
(1) Air, sand and clay (2) Coal, oil and natural gas
(3) Air, minerals and water (4) Water, wood and natural pastures
167. Non-polluting renewable type of energy is
(1) Wind (2) Solar (3) Tidal (4) All of the above
168. Soil erosion can be prevented by
(1) Overgrazing (2) Removal of vegetation
(3) Afforestation (4) Increasing birds population
169. Silent valley of Kerala is preserved because
(1) Has many rare species (2) Many new plants
(3) New hybrids (4) None of the above
170. Soil conservation is the process where
(1) Sterile soil is converted to fertile soil (2) Soil is aerated
(3) Soil erosion is allowed (4) Soil is protected against loss
171. Deforestation may reduce the chances of
(1) Rainfall (2) Frequent cyclones (3) Erosion of surface soil (4) Frequent land slides
172. Chipko movement is concerned with
(1) Plant conservation (2) Project Tiger
(3) Plant breeding (4) Animal breeding
173. Minerals and metals are
(1) Renewable resources (2) Non-renewable resources
(3) Renewable and non-renewable resources (4) Biodegradable resources
174. Which of the following is a renewable resource
(1) Fossil fire (2) Metal (3) Water (4) All the above
175. Land mass occupied by forest is above or According to Indian forest policy what percentage of the land
area should be under forest cover
(1) 11% (2) 22% (3) 30% (4) 60%
176. Forests should be conserved as they provide
(1) Food (2) Medicine (3) Wood (4) All of the these
177. More that 70% of world’s freshwater is contained in
(1) Polar ice (2) Glaciers and mountains
(3) Antartica (4) Greenland
178. Mine spoil is
(1) Wastes from mines (2) Wastes from mine processing
(3) Land degraded by mining (4) Both (1) and (2)
179. Deforestation brings about
(1) Increased sunlight (2) Increased grazing area
(3) Weed control (4) Soil erosion
180. Silent Valley has been preserved as it has
(1) Recreational value (2) Valuable timber plants
(3) Natural forest (4) Rare plants and animals

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