AHG Practice questions

Questions Answer
1. A description of the antiglobulin test is
a. IgG C3d are required for RBC
sensitization.
b. Human globulin is completely eluted
from RBCs during saline washings.
c. Human globulin is injected into an
animal.
d. AHG reacts with human globulin
molecules bound to RBCs.

2. Polyspecific AHG reagent contains:

a. Anti-IgG and anti-IgA.
b. Anti-IgG and anti-IgM.
c. Anti-IgG and anti-C3d.
d. Anti-IgA and Anti-C3d.
3. What are the 2 types of anti globulin
tests

4. Monoclonal anti-C3d is:

a. Derived from one clone of plasma cells.
b. Derived from multiple clones of plasma
cells.
c. Derived from immunization of rabbits.
d. Reactive with C3b and C3d.
5. Which of the following is a clinically
significant antibody whose detection has
been reported in some instances to be
dependent on anticomplement activity in
polyspecific AHG?
a. Anti-Jka
b. Anti-Lea
c. Anti-P1
d. Anti-H
6. After the addition of IgG-coated RBCs (check
cells) to a negative AHG reaction during an
antibody screen, a negative result is
observed. Which of the following is a correct
interpretation based on these findings?
a. The antibody screen is negative.
b. The antibody screen cannot be
interpreted.
c. The saline washings were adequate.
d. AHG reagent was added.
7. RBCs must be washed in saline at least three
times before the addition of AHG reagent to:
a. Wash away any hemolyzed cells.
b. Remove traces of free serum globulins.
c. Neutralize any excess AHG reagent.
d. Increase the antibody binding to antigen.
AHG Practice questions
8. An in vivo phenomenon associated with a
positive DAT is:
a. Passive anti-D detected in the maternal
sample.
b. Positive antibody screen tested by LISS.
c. Identification of alloantibody specificity
using a panel of reagent RBCs
d. Maternal antibody coating fetal RBCs.
9. False-positive DAT results are most often
associated with:
a. Use of refrigerated, clotted blood
samples in which complement
components coat RBCs in vitro.
b. A recipient of a recent transfusion
manifesting an immune response to
recently transfused RBCs.
c. Presence of antispecies antibodies from
administration of immune globulin (IVIG).
d. A positive autocontrol caused by
polyagglutination
10. Polyethylene glycol (PEG) enhances antigen –
antibody reactions by:
a. Decreasing zeta potential.
b. Concentrating antibody by removing
water
c. Increasing antibody affinity for antigen
d. Increasing antibody specificity for
antigen
11. Solid-phase antibody screening is based on:
a. Adherence
b. Agglutination.
c. Hemolysis.
d. Precipitation.
12. A positive DAT may be found in which of the
following situations?
a. A weak D-positive patient
b. A patient with anti-M
c. HDFN
d. An incompatible crossmatch
13. What do Coombs’ check cells consist of?
a. Type A-positive cells coated with anti-IgG
b. Type A-negative cells coated with anti-
IgG
c. Type O-positive cells coated with anti-D
d. Type B-negative cells coated with anti-D
14. Which of the following IAT methods requires
the use of check cells?
a. Manual tube method with albumin
b. Gel
c. Automated solid-phase analyzer
d. Enzyme-linked
15. Which uncontrollable factor can affect AHG
AHG Practice questions
testing?
a. Temperature
b. Antibody affinity
c. Gravitational force in the centrifuge
d. Incubation time
16. Which would be the most efficient method
for a laboratory staffed by medical laboratory
technicians?
a. LISS
b. Polybrene
c. Solid-phase or gel
d. Enzyme-linked
17. A 27-year-old group O mother has just given
birth to a group A baby. Since the mother has
IgG anti-A, anti-B and anti-A, B in her plasma,
which of the following methods and tests
would be most effective at detecting the anti-
A on the baby’s RBCs?
a. DAT using common tube technique
b. DAT using gel
c. IAT using common tube technique
d. IAT using gel
18. Why are the red cells washed?

19. A positive DAT indicates what?

20. Anti-IgG attaches to what portion of IgG?

21. Without washing what would occur?

22. Why is EDTA the preferred additive for

DAT blood sample?

23. How many IgG and C3d molecules should

be present for DAT to be positive? How
about for IAT?

24. "Complete" agglutinins that agglutinate

red blood cells in saline are of which
immunoglobulin class?
a. IgG
b. IgM
c. IgA
d. IgE
25. What condition: (-) Anti-IgG; (+) Anti-C3d
AHG Practice questions

26. What condition: (+) Anti-IgG; (-) Anti-C3d

27. What step in the experiment

differentiates DAT from IAT?

28. What condition has a biphasic Ab that

can react to warm or cold temperature?

29. Drug induced hemolytic anemia type that

involves hapten dependent antibody.

30. Drug induced hemolytic anemia type that

involves drug-dependent antibody.

31. Enumerate the medical application of IAT:

32. What is the ratio of serum to cells that is

necessary to prevent zonal phenomenon
to occur?
33. Potentiator that removes water
molecules which results in increasing of
ab concentration.
34. (True or false) PEG reacts with both IgG
and IgM.
35. What is the effect of proteolytic enzymes
(e.g., papain, ficin and trypsin) as
Potentiators?
36. (fill in the blanks) Result of Coombs’
check cell addition will only be a ___
reaction and will NEVER be a ___ reaction
37. Rabbit/murine monoclonal blend AHG
reagent contains:

38. Described the use of antiglobulin test to

detect weak non-agglutinating Rh ab in
1945.
39. Devised the monoclonal antibody
techniques utilized to produce High-titer
ab for AHG reagents.
40. What are the types of AHG complexes?
AHG Practice questions