Introductory Physics: Problems solving

D. A. Garanin
27 November 2023
 Introduction
Solving problems is an inherent part of the physics course that requires a more active
approach than just reading the theory or listening to lectures. Making only the latter, the
student can have an illusion of having understood the material but it is not the case until
s/he becomes able to apply one’s knowledge to solving problems that is, working actively
with the material.

The main purpose of our Introductory Physics course, for the majority of our students, is to
acquire a conceptual understanding of physics, to develop a scientific way of thinking. The
latter means relying on the scientific definitions, simple logic, and the common sense,
opposed to making wild assumptions at every step that leads to wrong results and loss of
points.

PHY166 and PHY167 courses are algebra based, while PHY168 and PHY169 are calculus
based. Both types of courses require that problems are solved algebraically and an algebraic
result, that is, a formula is obtained. Only after that the numbers are plugged in the
resulting formula and the numerical result is obtained. One should understand that physics
is mainly about formulas, not about numbers, thus the main result of problem solving is the
algebraic result, while the numerical result is secondary.

Unfortunately, most of the students taking part in our physics courses reject algebra and try
to work out the solution numerically from the very beginning. Probably, bad teachers at the
high school taught the students that problem solving consists in finding the “right” formula
and plugging the numbers into it. This is fundamentally wrong.

There are several arguments for why the algebraic approach to problem solving is better
than the numeric approach.

1. Algebraic manipulations leading to the solution are no more difficult than the
corresponding operations with numbers. In fact, they are easier as a single symbol,
such as a, stands for a number that usually requires much more efforts to write
without mistakes.
2. Numerical calculations are for computers, while algebraic calculations are for
humans. Computers do not understand what they are computing, and they are
proceeding blindly along prescribed routes. The same does a human trying to
operate with numbers. However, the human forgets what do these numbers stand
for and loses the clue very soon. If a human operates with algebraic symbols, s/he is
not losing the clue as the symbols speak for themselves. For instance, a usually is an
acceleration or a distance, m usually is a mass, etc.
3. The value of a formula is much higher than that of the numerical answer because the
formula can be used with another set of input values while the numerical result
cannot. In all more or less intelligent devices formulas are implemented that work as
“black boxed”: one supplies the input values and collects the output values.
4. Formulas allow analysis of their dependence on the input values or parameters. This
is important for understanding the formula and for checking its validity on simple
 particular cases in which one can obtain the result in a simpler way. This is
impossible to do with numerical answers. Actually, one can hardly understand them.

Probably, the reasons given above are sufficient to abandon attempts to ignore the
algebraic approach, especially as the absence of the algebraic result does not give a full
score, even if the numerical answer is correct.

In this collection, the reader will find some exemplary solutions of Introductory Physics
problems that show the efficient methods and approaches. It is recommended to read my
collection of math used in our course, “REFRESHING High-School Mathematics”.

This collection of physics problems solutions does not intend to cover the whole
Introductory Physics course. Its purpose is to show the right way to solve physics problems.

Here some useful tips.

1. Always try to find out what a problem is about, which part of the physics course is in
question
2. Drawings are very helpful in most cases. They help to understand the problem and
its solution
3. Write down basic formulas that will be used in the solution
4. Write comments in a good scientific language. It will make the solution more
readable and will help you to understand it. Solution that consists only of formulas
and numbers is not good.
5. Frame your resulting formulas. This shows to the grader that you really understand
where your results are.
Physics part I
Kinematics
Vectors, coordinates, displacement, distance, velocity, speed, acceleration, projectile
motion, etc.

1. Professor’s way to work

A professor going to work first walks 500 m along the campus wall, then enters the campus
and goes 100 m perpendicularly to the wall towards his building, after that takes an elevator
and mounts 10 m up to his office. The trip takes 10 minutes.

Calculate the displacement, the distance between the initial and final points, the average
velocity and the average speed.

500 m 1
0 0
d ,d 3 y
100 m
10 m
2
x

Solution: The total trajectory can be represented by three vectors going from 0 to 1, then
from 1 to 2, then from 2 to 3. The displacement is the vector sum of the three displacement
vectors:

𝐝 = 𝒓01 + 𝒓12 + 𝒓23.

It is convenient to choose the coordinate axes xyz that coincide with these three mutually
orthogonal vectors, as shown in the figure. Then, using, for any vector

𝐫 = (𝑟𝑥 , 𝑟𝑦 , 𝑟𝑧 ),

one writes

𝒓01 = (0,500,0) m, 𝒓12 = (100,0,0) m, 𝒓23 = (0,0,10) m.

The addition of these vectors is performed as follows:

𝐝 = (0 + 100 + 0, 500 + 0 + 0, 0 + 0 + 10) = (100,500,10) m.

The distance 𝑑 between the initial and final points is the magnitude of the displacement 𝐝:

𝑑 = |𝐝| = √𝑑𝑥2 + 𝑑𝑦2 + 𝑑𝑧2 = √1002 + 5002 + 102

= √10000 + 250000 + 100 = √260100 = 510 m.

The trajectory length (the way length) is given by

 𝑤 = 𝑟01 + 𝑟12 + 𝑟23 = 500 + 100 + 10 = 610 m

and it is longer than the distance. Now, the average velocity is

∆𝐫 𝐝 (100,500,10)
𝐯= = = = (0.167, 0.833, 0.017) m/s.
∆𝑡 ∆𝑡 10 × 60
The magnitude of the average velocity is

𝑑 510
𝑣 = |𝐯| = = = 0.85 m/s.
∆𝑡 10 × 60
The average speed is

𝑤 610
𝑠= = = 1.02 m/s.
∆𝑡 10 × 60
One can see that 𝑠 ≥ 𝑣, as it should be.

2. A 2D walker

A walker goes 1000 m the direction 30 degrees North of East, then 2000 m in the South-
West direction. The trip takes 30 minutes.

Find the displacement, way length, average velocity and average speed.

North y

r01 1

0 30° 45°
O East
West x

d ,d r12

South
2

Solution: The displacement is given by

𝐝 = 𝒓01 + 𝒓12 ,

where

√3 1
𝒓01 = (𝑟01,𝑥 , 𝑟01,𝑦 ) = (𝑟01 cos 30°, 𝑟01 sin 30°) = (1000 , 1000 ) = (500√3, 500) m
2 2

and
 √2 √2
𝒓12 = (𝑟12,𝑥 , 𝑟12,𝑦 ) = (−𝑟12 cos 45°, −𝑟12 sin 45°) = (−2000 , − 2000 )
2 2
= (−1000√2, − 1000√2, ) m.

Better is to write

√2 √2
𝒓12 = (𝑟12,𝑥 , 𝑟12,𝑦 ) = (𝑟12 cos 125°, 𝑟12 sin 125°) = (2000 (− ) , 2000 (− ))
2 2

= (−1000√2, − 1000√2, ) m

that gives the same result. Now,

𝐝 = (𝑟01,𝑥 + 𝑟12,𝑥 , 𝑟01,𝑦 + 𝑟12,𝑦 ) = (500√3 − 1000√2, 500 − 1000√2)

≈ (−548.2, −914.2) m

The distance is given by

𝑑 = |𝐝| = √𝑑𝑥2 + 𝑑𝑦2 = √(−548.2)2 + (−914.2)2 ≈ 1066 m

The length of the trajectory is

𝑤 = 𝑟01 + 𝑟12 = 1000 + 2000 = 3000 m.

The velocity:

∆𝐫 𝐝 (−548.2, −914.2) −548.2 −914.2

𝐯= = = =( , ) = (… , … ) m/s.
∆𝑡 ∆𝑡 30 × 60 30 × 60 30 × 60

The magnitude of the average velocity:

𝑑 1066
𝑣 = |𝐯| = = = 0.59 m/s.
∆𝑡 30 × 60
The average speed:

𝑤 3000
𝑠= = = 1.67 m/s > 𝑣.
∆𝑡 30 × 60
3. Motion with constant acceleration

A car started moving from rest with a constant acceleration. At some moment of time, it
covered the distance 𝑥 and reached the speed 𝑣. Find the acceleration and the time.

Solution. The formulas for the motion with constant acceleration read

1
𝑣 = 𝑎𝑡, 𝑥 = 𝑎𝑡 2 ,
2
where we have taken into account that the motion starts from rest (all initial values are
zero). If 𝑣 and 𝑥 are given, this is a system of two equations with the unknowns 𝑎 and 𝑡. This
system of equations can be solved in different ways.
First method. For instance, one can express the time from the first equation, 𝑡 = 𝑣/𝑎, and
substitute it to the second equation,

1 𝑣 2 𝑣2
𝑥 = 𝑎( ) = .
2 𝑎 2𝑎
From this single equation for 𝑎 one finds

𝑣2
𝑎= .
2𝑥
Now, one finds the time as

𝑣 𝑣 2𝑥
𝑡= = 2 = .
𝑎 𝑣 /(2𝑥) 𝑣

Second method. Also, one can relate 𝑥 to 𝑣 as follows

1 1
𝑥 = 𝑎𝑡 × 𝑡 = 𝑣𝑡.
2 2
After that one finds

2𝑥
𝑡= ,
𝑣
and, further,

𝑣 𝑣 𝑣2
𝑎= = = .
𝑡 2𝑥/𝑣 2𝑥

4. A car trip (1D motion)

A car starts from the place with an acceleration 2 m/𝑠 2 and is accelerating during 10
seconds, then travels with the same speed for 30 seconds, then decelerates at the rate
3 m/𝑠 2 until stopping. Show the graph 𝑣(𝑡). Calculate the total time of the trip and the
distance covered in each interval and the total distance covered by two methods: 1)
Calculation of the area under the line 𝑣(𝑡); 2) Using the formula for the distance in the
motion with constant acceleration.

v v1

1 2 3
0 t1 t2 t3 t

Solution: First, we introduce missing notations: 𝑎1 = 2 𝑚/𝑠 2 , 𝑡1 = 10 𝑠, ∆𝑡2 ≡ 𝑡2 − 𝑡1 =

30 𝑠, 𝑎3 = −3 𝑚/𝑠 2 . The time dependence of the car’s velocity is shown in the figure. In
the interval 1 the car accelerates according to the formula

Interval 1: 𝑣 = 𝑣0 + 𝑎1 𝑡 = 𝑎1 𝑡,
where we take into account that the initial velocity is zero: 𝑣0 = 0. At the end of the first
time interval, 𝑡 = 𝑡1 , the velocity reaches the value

𝑣1 = 𝑎1 𝑡1 .

This expression is an instance of the formula above.

The velocity remains the same in the second interval of motion:

Interval 2: 𝑣 = 𝑣1 .

The time at the end of the second interval is

𝑡2 = 𝑡1 + ∆𝑡2 = 10 + 30 = 40 𝑠.

In the third interval, the car decelerates according to

Interval 3: 𝑣 = 𝑣1 + 𝑎3 (𝑡 − 𝑡2 )

(this is the velocity formula with shifted time as the motion starts at 𝑡 = 𝑡2 rather than at
𝑡 = 0). At the end of the motion the car stops that is described by the instance of the
formula above with 𝑣 = 0, that is,

0 = 𝑣1 + 𝑎3 (𝑡3 − 𝑡2 )

that defines 𝑡3 . One obtains

𝑣1 𝑎1 𝑡1 𝑎1
∆𝑡3 ≡ 𝑡3 − 𝑡2 = − =− = − 𝑡1
𝑎3 𝑎3 𝑎3

and, further,
𝑎1
𝑡3 = 𝑡2 + ∆𝑡3 = 𝑡1 + ∆𝑡2 + ∆𝑡3 = 𝑡1 + ∆𝑡2 − 𝑡 .
𝑎3 1

This is the analytical or symbolic or algebraic answer or formula for the total time. (This
result will not be used, however). In this formula, the result is expressed through the
quantities given in the formulation of the problem (this has to be checked each time before
submitting the solution for grading!). Now, substituting given numbers, one obtains

2 20
𝑡3 = 10 + 30 − 10 = 10 + 30 + = 46.7 𝑠.
−3 3
The preparatory work done, let us now find the total distance covered. Using the first
method, we find it as the area under the curve 𝑣(𝑡) that consists of two triangles and one
rectangle, see the figure. The parameters of them have been calculated above. So we write

1 1
∆𝑥 = ∆𝑥1 + ∆𝑥2 + ∆𝑥3 = 𝑡1 𝑣1 + ∆𝑡2 𝑣1 + ∆𝑡3 𝑣1 .
2 2
Here we must substitute the expressions for the quantities that are not given in the problem
formulation: 𝑣1 and ∆𝑡3 . We prefer not to factor 𝑣1 to keep the contributions of each
interval separately. The result reads
 1 1 𝑎1
∆𝑥 = 𝑎1 𝑡12 + ∆𝑡2 𝑎1 𝑡1 + (− 𝑡1 ) 𝑎1 𝑡1
2 2 𝑎3

or, finally,

1 2
1 𝑎12 2
∆𝑥 = 𝑎1 𝑡1 + ∆𝑡2 𝑎1 𝑡1 − 𝑡 .
2 2 𝑎3 1

This is our symbolic answer for the distances covered in the motion.

Substituting the numerical values from the problem’s formulation, one obtains

1 1 22
∆𝑥 = 2 × 102 + 30 × 2 × 10 − 102 = 100 + 600 + 66.7 = 766.7𝑚.
2 2 (−3)

Now, let us find the total distance covered using the formula for the displacement in the
motion with a constant acceleration

1
∆𝑥 ≡ 𝑥 − 𝑥0 = 𝑣0 ∆𝑡 + 𝑎(∆𝑡)2
2
in the form appropriate to each of the motion intervals. One has

1 1
∆𝑥 = ∆𝑥1 + ∆𝑥2 + ∆𝑥3 = 𝑎1 𝑡12 + 𝑣1 ∆𝑡2 + [𝑣1 ∆𝑡3 + 𝑎3 (∆𝑡3 )2 ]
2 2
1 1
= 𝑎1 𝑡12 + 𝑣1 ∆𝑡2 + [𝑣1 + 𝑎3 ∆𝑡3 ] ∆𝑡3 .
2 2

Substituting here the expressions for 𝑣1 and ∆𝑡3 , one obtains

1 1 𝑎1 𝑎1
∆𝑥 = 𝑎1 𝑡12 + ∆𝑡2 𝑎1 𝑡1 + [𝑎1 𝑡1 + 𝑎3 (− 𝑡1 )] (− 𝑡1 )
2 2 𝑎3 𝑎3

1 1 𝑎1
= 𝑎1 𝑡12 + ∆𝑡2 𝑎1 𝑡1 + [𝑎1 𝑡1 − 𝑎1 𝑡1 ] (− 𝑡1 )
2 2 𝑎3

1 1 𝑎1
= 𝑎1 𝑡12 + ∆𝑡2 𝑎1 𝑡1 + 𝑎1 𝑡1 (− 𝑡1 )
2 2 𝑎3

1 2
1 𝑎12 2
= 𝑎1 𝑡1 + ∆𝑡2 𝑎1 𝑡1 − 𝑡
2 2 𝑎3 1

that coincides with the result obtained by the first method (the red formula).

5. Rocket motion (1D)

A rocket starts vertically up and moves with the acceleration 20 𝑚/𝑠 2 during 20 seconds.
Then it continues its motion ballistically. Find the maximal height reached and the
corresponding time. Find the time of hitting the ground and the corresponding speed.

Solution. First, we introduce the notations: the duration of the first stage (powered motion)
𝑡1 = 20 𝑠, the acceleration in the first stage 𝑎 = 20 𝑚/𝑠 2 . The initial velocity is zero.
We choose the origin of time 𝑡 = 0 and put the origin of 𝑧-axis (directed up) at zero, so that
the initial conditions are 𝑧0 = 0 and 𝑣0 = 0. The formulas for the motion with a constant
acceleration at the first stage are

1
𝑣 = 𝑎𝑡, 𝑧 = 𝑎𝑡 2 .
2
At the end of the first stage, 𝑡 = 𝑡1 , the velocity and the height read
1
𝑣1 = 𝑎𝑡1 , 𝑧1 = 𝑎𝑡12 .
2
These are the initial conditions for the motion on the second stage. The formulas for the
motion with the constant acceleration −𝑔 on the second (ballistic) stage are

1
𝑣 = 𝑣1 − 𝑔(𝑡 − 𝑡1 ) 𝑧 = 𝑧1 + 𝑣1 (𝑡 − 𝑡1 ) − 𝑔(𝑡 − 𝑡1 )2 .
2
Note that the second stage begins at 𝑡 = 𝑡1 , thus we use the formulas with shifted time. The
highest point can be found from the condition 𝑣 = 0 that yields the equation for the time at
which the maximal height is reached:

0 = 𝑣1 − 𝑔(𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 − 𝑡1 ).

The solution is

𝑣1 𝑎𝑡1 𝑎
𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 − 𝑡1 = = = 𝑡1
𝑔 𝑔 𝑔

and, finally,
𝑎 𝑎
𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝑡1 + 𝑡1 = ( + 1) 𝑡1 .
𝑔 𝑔

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

20
𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 = ( + 1) 20 = 60.8 𝑠.
9.8

Now one can calculate the maximal height:

1
𝑧𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝑧1 + 𝑣1 (𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 − 𝑡1 ) − 𝑔(𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 − 𝑡1 )2 .
2
Substituting here the quantities found above and simplifying, one obtains

1 𝑎 1 𝑎 2
𝑧𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝑎𝑡12 + 𝑎𝑡1 𝑡1 − 𝑔 ( 𝑡1 )
2 𝑔 2 𝑔
2 2
1 𝑎 1𝑎 2
= 𝑎𝑡12 + 𝑡12 − 𝑡
2 𝑔 2𝑔 1
1 2 1 𝑎2 2 1 𝑎
= 𝑎𝑡1 + 𝑡1 = (1 + ) 𝑎𝑡12 .
2 2𝑔 2 𝑔

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

 1 20
𝑧𝑚𝑎𝑥 = (1 + ) 20 × 202 = 12163 𝑚 = 12.2 𝑘𝑚.
2 9.8

At the third stage, the rocket falls with the acceleration −𝑔 from the height 𝑧𝑚𝑎𝑥 . The
formulas for its velocity and height at this stage are

1
𝑣 = −𝑔(𝑡 − 𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 ), 𝑧 = 𝑧𝑚𝑎𝑥 − 𝑔(𝑡 − 𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 )2
2
(also formulas with shifted time). The final time (of hitting the ground) 𝑡𝑓 is determined by
𝑧 = 0. This gives the equation (an instance of the general formula)

1 2
0 = 𝑧𝑚𝑎𝑥 − 𝑔(𝑡𝑓 − 𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 ) .
2
From here one finds

2𝑧𝑚𝑎𝑥 21 𝑎 𝑎 𝑎
𝑡𝑓 − 𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 = √ =√ (1 + ) 𝑎𝑡12 = √(1 + ) 𝑡1 .
𝑔 𝑔2 𝑔 𝑔 𝑔

This will be needed to find the final velocity. For 𝑡𝑓 itself one obtains

𝑎 𝑎 𝑎 𝑎 𝑎
𝑡𝑓 = 𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 + √(1 + ) 𝑡1 = ( + 1) 𝑡1 + √(1 + ) 𝑡1 .
𝑔 𝑔 𝑔 𝑔 𝑔

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

20 20 20
𝑡𝑓 = ( + 1) 20 + √(1 + ) 20 = 60.8 + 49.8 = 110.6 𝑠.
9.8 9.8 9.8

(Is it obvious that it takes a longer time for the rocket to reach the highest point than to fall
back to the initial level? To understand this, sketch the function 𝑧(𝑡).)

Now, the final velocity can be found from the velocity formula:

𝑎 𝑎 𝑎
𝑣𝑓 = −𝑔(𝑡𝑓 − 𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 ) = −𝑔√(1 + ) 𝑡1 = −√(1 + ) 𝑎𝑔𝑡1 = −√(𝑎 + 𝑔)𝑎𝑡1 .
𝑔 𝑔 𝑔

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

𝑣𝑓 = −√(20 + 9.8)20 × 20 = 488 𝑚/𝑠.

 6. Tennis serve (Giancoli Chapter 3)

Solution. First, we define the coordinate axes and introduce missing notations. The origin of
the coordinate system is at the server’s position, 𝑧-axis up and 𝑥-axis to the right. The initial
height (serve height) 𝑧0 = 2.5 𝑚, the height of the net 𝑧1 = 0.9 𝑚, the height of the ground
(the reference height) 0 𝑚, distance server-net 𝑥1 = 15 𝑚. Find 𝑣0𝑥 .

First, use the 𝑥- and 𝑧-formulas to find 𝑣0𝑥 :

1
𝑥 = 𝑣0𝑥 𝑡, 𝑧 = 𝑧0 − 𝑔𝑡 2 .
2
The instance of these general formulas corresponding to the ball passing just above the net
reads
1
𝑥1 = 𝑣0𝑥 𝑡1 , 𝑧1 = 𝑧0 − 𝑔𝑡12 .
2
This is a system of two equations with two unknowns: 𝑣0𝑥 and 𝑡1 . The second equation is
autonomous (contains only one unknown), so it can be solve to give

2(𝑧0 − 𝑧1 )
𝑡1 = √ .
𝑔

Then, from the first equation one finds

𝑥1 𝑔
𝑣0𝑥 = = 𝑥1 √ .
𝑡1 2(𝑧0 − 𝑧1 )

Substituting the numbers into this formula, one obtains

9.8 𝑚
𝑣0𝑥 = 15√ = 26.3 .
2(2.5 − 0.9) 𝑠

Now we can find the distance from the server at which the ball lands. We use the instances
of the general formulas above corresponding to the ball hitting the ground:
 1
𝑥2 = 𝑣0𝑥 𝑡2 , 0 = z = 𝑧0 − 𝑔𝑡22 .
2
One finds 𝑡2 from the second equation:

2𝑧0
𝑡2 = √ .
𝑔

From this formula, one can find the numerical value of 𝑡2 that is the total time of the
motion. Substituting the formula for 𝑡2 into the first equation, one obtains

𝑔 2𝑧0 𝑧0
𝑥2 = 𝑣0𝑥 𝑡2 = 𝑥1 √ √ = 𝑥1 √ .
2(𝑧0 − 𝑧1 ) 𝑔 𝑧0 − 𝑧1

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

2.5
𝑥2 = 15√ = 18.75 𝑚.
2.5 − 0.9

Now 𝑥2 − 𝑥1 = 18.75 − 15 = 3.75 𝑚 that is well below 7 𝑚. Thus, the ball is “good”.

7. Dropping a package from a copter into a moving car (Giancoli Chapter 3)

Solution: First, we must introduce missing notations: the height of the copter ℎ = 78 𝑚, the
𝑘𝑚 1000
speed of the copter 𝑣 = 215 = 215 × 3600 = 59.9𝑚/𝑠, the speed of the car 𝑢 =
ℎ
𝑘𝑚 155
155 = = 43.1𝑚/𝑠. Find the angle 𝜃.
ℎ 3.6

There are two solutions to this problem, in the laboratory frame and in the moving frame of
the car.
Solution in the laboratory frame. Put the origin of the coordinate system on the ground
below the copter. The initial 𝑥-coordinate of the car(when the package is dropped) is 𝑥𝑐,0. If
it is found, then the angle 𝜃 can be expressed as

ℎ
tan 𝜃 = .
𝑥𝑐,0

The formulas for the motion of the package and the car have the form

1
𝑧𝑝 = ℎ − 𝑔𝑡 2 , 𝑥𝑝 = 𝑣𝑡, 𝑥𝑐 = 𝑥𝑐,0 + 𝑢𝑡.
2
When the package lands into the car, the following conditions are fulfilled:

𝑧𝑝 = 0, 𝑥𝑝 = 𝑥𝑐 .

Substituting these into the general equations, one obtains their instance

1
0 = ℎ − 𝑔𝑡 2 , 𝑣𝑡 = 𝑥𝑐,0 + 𝑢𝑡.
2
This is a system of two equations with two unknowns. The first equation is autonomous and
yields the fall time

2ℎ
𝑡 = 𝑡𝑓 = √ .
𝑔

Substituting this into the second equation, one obtains

2ℎ
𝑥𝑐,0 = (𝑣 − 𝑢)𝑡𝑓 = (𝑣 − 𝑢)√ .
𝑔

Now for the angle one obtains

ℎ 𝑔 1 𝑔ℎ
𝜃 = arctan ( √ ) = arctan ( √ ).
𝑣 − 𝑢 2ℎ 𝑣−𝑢 2

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

1 9.8 × 78
𝜃 = arctan ( √ ) = arctan(1.16) = 49°.
(59.9 − 43.1) 2

Solution in the moving frame (frame of the car). The absolute velocity of the copter can be
represented as

𝑣 = 𝑣 ′ + 𝑢,

where 𝑣 ′ is the relative velocity of the copter with respect to the car, 𝑣 ′ = 𝑣 − 𝑢. The origin
of the coordinate axes in the moving frame, 𝑂′, is moving to the right with the velocity of
the car 𝑢. At 𝑡 = 0 the origins of the laboratory and moving frames coincide, 𝑂′ = 𝑂. Thus
the relation between the 𝑥-coordinate (absolute frame) and 𝑥′-coordinate (moving frame) is

𝑥 = 𝑥 ′ + 𝑢𝑡

or, conversely,

𝑥 ′ = 𝑥 − 𝑢𝑡

The formulas for the motion of the package in this frame have the form

1
𝑧𝑝 = ℎ − 𝑔𝑡 2 , 𝑥 ′ 𝑝 = 𝑣 ′ 𝑡.
2
As for the car, it is at rest in its own frame:

𝑥 ′ 𝑐 (𝑡) = 𝑥𝑐,0 .

As in the first solution, one finds the fall time,

2ℎ
𝑡𝑓 = √ ,
𝑔

and substitutes it into the condition:

𝑥 ′ 𝑝 (𝑡𝑓 ) = 𝑥 ′ 𝑐 (𝑡𝑓 )

or

2ℎ
𝑥 ′ 𝑝 (𝑡𝑓 ) = 𝑣 ′ 𝑡𝑓 = (𝑣 − 𝑢)√ = 𝑥 ′ 𝑐 (𝑡𝑓 ) = 𝑥𝑐,0 .
𝑔

The result for 𝑥𝑐,0 coincides with that obtained by the first method:

2ℎ
𝑥𝑐,0 = (𝑣 − 𝑢)√ .
𝑔

Then

ℎ ℎ 𝑔 1 𝑔ℎ
tan 𝜃 = = √ = √ ,
𝑥𝑐,0 𝑣 − 𝑢 2ℎ 𝑣 − 𝑢 2

Wherefrom one finds 𝜃.

8. Targeting angle (projectile motion)

A cannon launches missiles with the initial speed 𝑣0 . Find the targeting angles 𝜃 to hit the
target at the distance 𝑑 at the same height as the cannon.

Solution. The formulas for the projectile motion have the form

1
𝑧 = 𝑣0𝑧 𝑡 − 𝑔𝑡 2 , 𝑥 = 𝑣0𝑥 𝑡.
2
The origin of the coordinate system is put at the location of the cannon, thus 𝑥0 = 𝑧0 = 0.
The distance between the cannon and the landing point is defined by the fall time (or final
time or flight time) 𝑡𝑓 :

𝑑 = 𝑣0𝑥 𝑡𝑓 .

The time 𝑡𝑓 can be found from the first equation:

1 1
0 = 𝑣0𝑧 𝑡𝑓 − 𝑔𝑡𝑓2 = 𝑡𝑓 (𝑣0𝑧 − 𝑔𝑡𝑓 ).
2 2

The first solution to this equation, 𝑡𝑓 = 0, corresponds to the beginning of the motion and
should be discarded. The landing time nullifies the expression in the brackets,

1
𝑣0𝑧 − 𝑔𝑡𝑓 = 0,
2
wherefrom

2𝑣0𝑧
𝑡𝑓 = .
𝑔

Now

2𝑣0𝑥 𝑣0𝑧
𝑑 = 𝑣0𝑥 𝑡𝑓 = .
𝑔

The components of the initial velocity can be expressed as

𝑣0𝑥 = 𝑣0 cos 𝜃 , 𝑣0𝑧 = 𝑣0 sin 𝜃,

so that

2𝑣02 sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃 𝑣02 sin 2𝜃

𝑑= = ,
𝑔 𝑔

where the trigonometric identity sin 2𝜃 ≡ 2 sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃 was used. As the maximal value of
the sine function is 1 and it is reached for the argument equal to 90°, one can see that 𝑑
reaches its maximum for 𝜃 = 45°. One can rewrite

𝑣02
𝑑 = 𝑑𝑚𝑎𝑥 sin 2𝜃 , 𝑑𝑚𝑎𝑥 = .
𝑔

This is an equation for 𝜃 if 𝑑 has a prescribed value (the distance to the target). For the
distance to the target 𝑑 > 𝑑𝑚𝑎𝑥 the target cannot be hit. For 𝑑 < 𝑑𝑚𝑎𝑥 the target can be hit
in two different ways using two values of the targeting angle that satisfy

𝑑
sin 2𝜃 = .
𝑑𝑚𝑎𝑥

These solutions are

𝑑 𝑑
2𝜃1 = arcsin and 2𝜃2 = π − arcsin ,
𝑑𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝑑𝑚𝑎𝑥
that is,

1 𝑑 π 1 𝑑
𝜃1 = arcsin and 𝜃2 = − arcsin .
2 𝑑𝑚𝑎𝑥 2 2 𝑑𝑚𝑎𝑥

The second solution is in radians, and 𝜋 radians corresponds to 180°. For instance, for
𝑑 1
= 2 one has arcsin12 = 30° and 𝜃1 = 15° and 𝜃2 = 90° − 15° = 75°.
𝑑𝑚𝑎𝑥

sin Equation: sin  a

1 Solutions:
a<1
1  arcsina

  2   arcsina
0 1
cos

One can check algebraically that the second expression is also a solution of the equation:

sin 𝜙2 = sin(𝜋 − arcsin 𝑎) = sin(arcsin 𝑎) = 𝑎.

9. Hitting an elevated target (projectile motion, Giancoli, Chapter 3)

Solution. First, we introduce missing notations. The horizontal distance cannon-target
𝑑 = 195 𝑚, the height of the target ℎ = 155 𝑚, the missile flight time 𝑡𝑓 = 7.6 𝑠. Find: 𝑣0 ,
𝜃.

The general formulas for the projectile motion have the form

1
𝑧 = 𝑣0𝑧 𝑡 − 𝑔𝑡 2 , 𝑥 = 𝑣0𝑥 𝑡.
2
The origin of the coordinate system is put at the location of the cannon, thus 𝑥0 = 𝑧0 = 0.

The instance of these formulas, corresponding to the problem’s formulation (hitting the
target), is

1
ℎ = 𝑣0𝑧 𝑡𝑓 − 𝑔𝑡𝑓2 , 𝑑 = 𝑣0𝑥 𝑡𝑓 .
2
From here, one finds the components of the initial velocity:

𝑑 ℎ + 12𝑔𝑡𝑓2
𝑣0𝑥 = , 𝑣0𝑧 = .
𝑡𝑓 𝑡𝑓

Now

2
√𝑑 2 + (ℎ + 12𝑔𝑡𝑓2 )
2 2
𝑣0 = √𝑣0𝑥 + 𝑣0𝑧 =
𝑡𝑓

and the angle 𝜃 is the solution of the equation

𝑣0𝑧
tan 𝜃 = .
𝑣0𝑥

This equation has only one solution

𝑣0𝑧 ℎ + 12𝑔𝑡𝑓2
𝜃 = arctan = arctan .
𝑣0𝑥 𝑑

Substituting the numbers, one obtains…

 10. Car jumping (Projectile motion, Giancoli, Chapter 3)

Solution. First, we add missing notations. The horizontal distance 𝑑 = 20 𝑚, the initial
height ℎ = 1.5 𝑚, the launching angle in (b) 𝜃 = 10°.

We put the origin of the coordinate system at the foot of the “cliff” (below the end of the
takeoff ramp at the level of the roofs of the standing cars). The formulas for the motion with
a constant acceleration have the form

1
𝑧 = ℎ + 𝑣0𝑧 𝑡 − 𝑔𝑡 2 , 𝑥 = 𝑣0𝑥 𝑡.
2
When the jumping car clears the roof of the last standing car, one has (an instance of the
formulas above)

1
0 = ℎ + 𝑣0𝑧 𝑡𝑓 − 𝑔𝑡𝑓2 , 𝑑 = 𝑣0𝑥 𝑡𝑓 . (1)
2
(a) In this case 𝑣0𝑧 = 0 and 𝑣0𝑥 = 𝑣0 . From the first equation one obtains

2ℎ
𝑡𝑓 = √ .
𝑔

Substituting this into the second equation, one obtains

𝑑 𝑔
𝑣0 = = 𝑑√ .
𝑡𝑓 2ℎ

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

9.8
𝑣0 = 20√ = 36 𝑚/𝑠.
2 × 1.5

(b) In this case

𝑣0𝑥 = 𝑣0 cos 𝜃 , 𝑣0𝑧 = 𝑣0 sin 𝜃,

so that the general formulas at the clearing point, (1), take the form
 1
0 = ℎ + 𝑣0 sin 𝜃 𝑡𝑓 − 𝑔𝑡𝑓2 , 𝑑 = 𝑣0 cos 𝜃 𝑡𝑓 .
2
This is again a system of two equations with two unknowns: 𝑣0 and 𝑡𝑓 . However, it is
inconvenient to find 𝑡𝑓 from the first equation, as above, because here one needs to sole a
full quadratic equation. Thus we apply a slightly different method. Since we do not need 𝑡𝑓 ,
we can eliminate if from the second equation [ 𝑡𝑓 = 𝑑/(𝑣0 cos 𝜃) ] and substitute it into the
first equation that yields
2
𝑣0 sin 𝜃 1 𝑑
0=ℎ+ 𝑑 − 𝑔( ) .
𝑣0 cos 𝜃 2 𝑣0 cos 𝜃

After simplification, one obtains the equation for the car’s speed

𝑔𝑑2 1
0 = ℎ + 𝑑 tan 𝜃 −
2 cos2 𝜃 𝑣02

that is a quadratic equation without the linear term

𝑔𝑑 2
(ℎ + 𝑑 tan 𝜃)𝑣02 − = 0.
2 cos2 𝜃
Its solution reads

𝑑 𝑔
𝑣0 = √ .
cos 𝜃 2(ℎ + 𝑑 tan 𝜃)

For 𝜃 = 0, this formula simplifies to the solution obtained in (a). For small 𝜃, one can use

1
sin 𝜃 ≅ 𝜃, tan 𝜃 ≅ 𝜃, cos 𝜃 ≅ 1 − 𝜃 2 ≅ 1,
2
(𝜃 in radians) so that the value of 𝑣0 decreases with 𝜃 because of the tan 𝜃 term in the
denominator. We have the angle, in radians,

2𝜋
𝜃 = 10° = 0.175 ≪ 1,
360°
so that the angle is, indeed, small, and one can use the formulas for the small angles above.

Substituting the numbers, one obtains, approximately,

9.8 9.8
𝑣0 ≅ 20√ = 20√ = 19.80 𝑚/𝑠.
2(1.5 + 20 × 0.175) 2(1.5 + 3.5)

Using the full expression yields

20 9.8
𝑣0 = √ = 20.05 𝑚/𝑠.
cos 10° 2(1.5 + 20 tan 10°)
This is a serious decrease of the minimal speed in comparison to the case 𝜃 = 0. The reason
is that the small tan 𝜃 is multiplied by the large 𝑑.

11. Vertical motion with gravity ― full quadratic equation

A person standing on the edge of a cliff throws a rock straight upwards with an initial speed
of 9 m/s. The cliff stands at a height of 105 meters from the bottom of the ravine. (a) Sketch
a plot of velocity versus time and position versus time for the motion of the rock. (b) What
will be the maximum height the rock reaches? (c) How long will it take to reach the ground?
(d) How fast will it be traveling when it reaches the ground?

Solution: (a) Making a sketch is a guarantee of success in problem solving.

moving up moving down

0 tmax tf t

z
zmax

moving up moving down

0 tmax tf t

h<0

b) Let us introduce missing notations. Initial velocity 𝑣0 = 9 𝑚/𝑠, the height of the bottom
of the ravine ℎ = −105 𝑚. The reference level is the edge of the cliff.

The time dependences of the velocity and displacement in the motion with constant
acceleration 𝑎 = −𝑔 are given by the formulas
 1
𝑣(𝑡) = 𝑣0 − 𝑔𝑡; 𝑧(𝑡) = 𝑣0 𝑡 − 𝑔𝑡 2 . (1)
2
Finding the maximum of 𝑧(𝑡) directly from the second formula requires using the calculus.
However, one can use the physical argument and point out that when the height reaches its
maximum, the vertical velocity must vanish. Thus, from the first equation one obtains

𝑣0 9
0 = 𝑣0 − 𝑔𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 ⟹ 𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 = = = 0.92 𝑠.
𝑔 9.8

After that, one finds the maximal height from the height formula substituting 𝑡 ⇒ 𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 , that
is,

1 2 𝑣0 1 𝑣0 2 𝑣02
𝑧𝑚𝑎𝑥 ≡ 𝑧(𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 ) = 𝑣0 𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 − 𝑔𝑡𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝑣0 − 𝑔 ( ) = .
2 𝑔 2 𝑔 2𝑔

Substituting numbers, one obtains

92
𝑧𝑚𝑎𝑥 = = 4.1 𝑚
2 × 9.8
c) The time to reach the ground, that is, the fall time 𝑡𝑓 , can be found from the height
equation (1) substituting 𝑧 ⇒ ℎ:

1
ℎ = 𝑣0 𝑡𝑓 − 𝑔𝑡𝑓2 .
2
This is a quadratic equation that can be rewritten into the canonical form

𝑔𝑡𝑓2 − 2𝑣0 𝑡𝑓 + 2ℎ = 0.

The two solutions of this equation are

1
𝑡𝑓 = (𝑣 ± √𝑣02 − 2𝑔ℎ).
𝑔 0

If 0 < ℎ < 𝑧𝑚𝑎𝑥 , both solutions are positive and both make sense. The object thrown up
crosses the level 𝑧 = ℎ twice. The smaller 𝑡𝑓 value (with minus) corresponds to crossing the
level 𝑧 = ℎ moving up. The larger 𝑡𝑓 value (with plus) corresponds to crossing the level
𝑧 = ℎ moving down. For ℎ < 0 the object crosses the level of the negative height only once.
The negative solution for the time should be discarded on physical grounds (negative times
are not acceptable). Substituting the numbers, one obtains

1
𝑡𝑓 = (9 + √92 + 2 × 9.8 × 105) = 5.64 𝑠.
9.8
d) The velocity at the end of the fall can be obtained from the velocity equation (1) as

1
𝑣(𝑡𝑓 ) = 𝑣0 − 𝑔 (𝑣0 + √𝑣02 − 2𝑔ℎ) = −√𝑣02 − 2𝑔ℎ.
𝑔
This velocity is negative as it is directed down. The value given by the square root can be
found from the energy conservation law in a shorter way. Substituting the numbers, one
obtains
𝑚
𝑣(𝑡𝑓 ) = −√92 + 2 × 9.8 × 105 = −46.2 .
𝑠
12. Targeting angle for different heights (projectile motion)

A missile launched from a cannon with the initial speed 𝑣0 targets an object at the linear
distance 𝑑 from the cannon and at the height ℎ with respect to the cannon. Investigate the
possibility of hitting the object and the launching angles.

Solution (?). The formulas for the motion of the missile have the form (motion with constant
acceleration)

1
𝑧 = 𝑣0𝑧 𝑡 − 𝑔𝑡 2 , 𝑥 = 𝑣0𝑥 𝑡.
2
The instance of these general formulas corresponding to hitting the target is

1
ℎ = 𝑣0𝑧 𝑡𝑓 − 𝑔𝑡𝑓2 , 𝑑 = 𝑣0𝑥 𝑡𝑓 .
2
From the first equation one finds 𝑡𝑓 as in the preceding problem,

1 2
𝑡𝑓 = (𝑣 ± √𝑣0𝑧 − 2𝑔ℎ).
𝑔 0𝑧

For ℎ > 0, there are two positive-time solutions. The smaller time (with the – sign in the
formula) corresponds to hitting the target while moving upward. The larger time (with the +
sign in the formula) corresponds to hitting the target while moving downward. For ℎ < 0,
2
there is only the second solution. The solutions exists only for 𝑣0𝑧 > 𝑔ℎ, otherwise, the
missile cannot reach the required height. The time of the motion should satisfy the second
equation above,

𝑣0𝑥 2
𝑑 = 𝑣0𝑥 𝑡𝑓 = (𝑣0𝑧 ± √𝑣0𝑧 − 2𝑔ℎ).
𝑔

Substituting

𝑣0𝑥 = 𝑣0 cos 𝜃 , 𝑣0𝑧 = 𝑣0 sin 𝜃,

one obtains the equation for the targeting angle 𝜃

𝑣0 cos 𝜃
𝑑= (𝑣0 sin 𝜃 ± √𝑣02 sin2 𝜃 − 2𝑔ℎ).
𝑔

For ℎ = 0, this equation simplifies and one obtains the well-known formula from which one
finds 𝜃. In this case, the missile can hit the target only moving downward, so, using the
solution of the quadratic equation with the sign (+), one obtains the known result
 𝑣0 cos 𝜃 2𝑣02 sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃 𝑣02 sin(2𝜃)
𝑑= (𝑣0 sin 𝜃 + 𝑣0 sin 𝜃) = =
𝑔 𝑔 𝑔

In the general case, this is a complicated trigonometric equation for 𝜃 that does not have an
analytical solution and has to be solved numerically.

13. Boat in the river (relative motion, Giancoli, Chapter 3)


v’
u x

Solution. The speed of the boat with respect to water is 𝑣 ′ > 𝑢, where 𝑢 is the speed
of the water. The velocity of the boat in the laboratory system is

𝐯 = 𝐯 ′ + 𝐮.

a) The boat goes along the river. When it is going upstream, its absolute velocity is
𝑣 = 𝑣 ′ − 𝑢. When the boat goes downstream, its absolute velocity is 𝑣 = 𝑣′ + 𝑢. The
distances are 𝑑 = 𝐷/2 upstream and the same downstream. The total trip time is given by

𝑑 𝑑 𝐷 1 1
𝑡𝑡𝑜𝑡,𝑎 = 𝑡𝑢𝑝 + 𝑡𝑑𝑜𝑤𝑛 = + ′ = ( ′ + ′ )
𝑣′
−𝑢 𝑣 +𝑢 2 𝑣 −𝑢 𝑣 +𝑢
𝐷 𝑣′ + 𝑢 + 𝑣′ − 𝑢 𝐷𝑣′
= = .
2 𝑣′2 − 𝑢2 𝑣′2 − 𝑢2
If the boat is traveling in a motionless water (a lake or a sea), then 𝑢 = 0 and the time of the
trip is given by the obvious formula

𝐷
𝑡𝑡𝑜𝑡 = .
𝑣′
One can see that this time is shorter than in the case (a).

b) The boat goes straight across the river, as shown in the sketch. In this case, it is essential
to consider the velocities as vectors. Projected onto the coordinate axes, the expression for
the absolute velocity reads
 𝑣𝑥 = 𝑣 ′ 𝑥 + 𝑢𝑥 = −𝑣′ sin 𝜃 + 𝑢
𝑣𝑦 = 𝑣′𝑦 + 𝑢𝑦 = 𝑣′ cos 𝜃

The condition that the boat crosses the river straight is 𝑣𝑥 = 0. From this, using the first
equation, one obtains
𝑢
0 = −𝑣 ′ sin 𝜃 + 𝑢 → sin 𝜃 = .
𝑣′
Now from the second equation one obtains

𝑢 2
𝑣𝑦 = 𝑣 ′ √1 − sin2 𝜃 = 𝑣 ′ √1 − ( ′ ) = √𝑣 ′ 2 − 𝑢2 .
𝑣

Now the total time of the trip is

𝐷 𝐷
𝑡𝑡𝑜𝑡,𝑏 = = .
𝑣𝑦 √𝑣 ′ 2 − 𝑢2

What time is longer? Both are diverging if 𝑣′ → 𝑢 but 𝑡𝑡𝑜𝑡,𝑎 diverges stronger. Thus, in the
limit of a slow boat, 𝑡𝑡𝑜𝑡,𝑎 > 𝑡𝑡𝑜𝑡,𝑏 . In the limit 𝑣′ ≫ 𝑢, both times become 𝐷/𝑣′. Then, most
probably, 𝑡𝑡𝑜𝑡,𝑎 ≥ 𝑡𝑡𝑜𝑡,𝑏 holds always. To investigate the problem thoroughly, one can
consider

𝑣′2
2 2
𝑡𝑡𝑜𝑡,𝑎 ′2
(𝑣 −𝑢2 ) 𝑣′2
( ) = 1 = ′ 2 − 𝑢2
≥ 1.
𝑡𝑡𝑜𝑡,𝑏 ′ 2 2
𝑣
𝑣 −𝑢

Thus, indeed, 𝑡𝑡𝑜𝑡,𝑎 ≥ 𝑡𝑡𝑜𝑡,𝑏 holds always.

14. Airplane flying in the wind (relative motion, Giancoli, Chapter 3)

 N
y

airplane
total
v

x E v’

Solution.

a) Velocity of the airplane with respect to the air:

𝑘𝑚
𝐯 ′ = (0, −600) .
ℎ
Velocity of the air (of the wind):

100 100 𝑘𝑚
𝐮 = (100 cos 45° , 100 sin 45°) = ( , ) .
√2 √2 ℎ

Absolute velocity of the airplane:

100 100 𝑘𝑚
𝐯 = 𝐯′ + 𝐮 = ( , −600 + ) = (70.7, −529.3) .
√2 √2 ℎ
10 1
b) Let the considered time of the flight be 𝑡𝑓 = 10 𝑚𝑖𝑛 = 60 ℎ = 6 ℎ. We put the origin of
the coordinate system to the point of departure. Intended position:

𝐫𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑑 = 𝐯′𝑡𝑓 .

Actual position:

𝐫𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑢𝑎𝑙 = 𝐯𝑡𝑓 .

Displacement from the intended position:

𝐝 = 𝐫𝑎𝑐𝑡𝑢𝑎𝑙 − 𝐫𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑛𝑑𝑒𝑑 = (𝐯 − 𝐯 ′ )𝑡𝑓 = 𝐮𝑡𝑓 .

Substituting numbers, one obtains

100 100 1
𝐝=( , ) = (11.8,11.8) 𝑘𝑚.
√2 √2 6

Distance from the intended point:

 100 1 2 1 2 100 1 1 100
𝑑 = |𝐝| = √𝑑𝑥2 + 𝑑𝑦2 = √( ) + ( ) = √ + = = 16.7 𝑘𝑚.
6 √2 √2 6 2 2 6
Dynamics: Newton’s laws
15. Two masses on a massless block

A massless cord goes over a massless block, and the masses 𝑚1 and 𝑚2 are suspended at
the ends of the cord. Find the acceleration of the masses and the tension of the cord.

+
T
T
+ m2

m1 m2g

m1g

Solution. To write down Newton’s second law for both masses, it is essential to choose the
positive direction of motion that is down for one of the masses and up for the other, as
shown on the sketch. As the block and the cord are massless, the tension forces on both
sides of the cord are the same. As the masses are connected by the cord, their acceleration
is the same. The equations of motion for the masses (Newton’s second law), with explicit
signs, are as follows

𝑚1 𝑔 − 𝑇 = 𝑚1 𝑎
−𝑚2 𝑔 + 𝑇 = 𝑚2 𝑎.

This is a system of two linear equations with two unknowns: 𝑎 and 𝑇. Adding these
equations, one can eliminate 𝑇 that yields

(𝑚1 − 𝑚2 )𝑔 = (𝑚1 + 𝑚2 )𝑎.

Thus
𝑚1 − 𝑚2
𝑎= 𝑔.
𝑚1 + 𝑚2

If 𝑚1 > 𝑚2, the acceleration is positive and the masses are accelerating in the directions
indicated in the sketch. If 𝑚2 = 0, then 𝑎 = 𝑔, as expected. If 𝑚1 = 0, then 𝑎 = −𝑔, as
expected.

Tension force can now be found from one of the equations, for instance, from the first one:

𝑚1 − 𝑚2 𝑚1 + 𝑚2 − 𝑚1 + 𝑚2
𝑇 = 𝑚1 𝑔 − 𝑚1 𝑎 = 𝑚1 𝑔 (1 − ) = 𝑚1 𝑔
𝑚1 + 𝑚2 𝑚1 + 𝑚2
and, finally,

2𝑚1 𝑚2
𝑇= 𝑔.
𝑚1 + 𝑚2

This formula is symmetric in 𝑚1 and 𝑚2 , as it should be. If one of the masses is small,
tension force is also small, as expected. If 𝑚1 = 𝑚2 = 𝑚, then

2𝑚2
𝑇= 𝑔 = 𝑚𝑔,
𝑚+𝑚
as expected.

16. Dangling watch in the airplane (Giancoli, chapter 4)

Solution. First, we introduce missing notations: deviation angle 𝜃 = 25°, takeoff time
𝑡𝑓 = 18 𝑠.

Newton’s second law for the dangling watch reads

𝑚𝐠 + 𝐅𝑇 = 𝑚𝐚.

In projections onto the axes this becomes

"x": 𝐹𝑇 sin 𝜃 = 𝑚𝑎

"z": 𝐹𝑇 cos 𝜃 − 𝑚𝑔 = 0.

From the second equation one finds the tension force:

𝑚𝑔
𝐹𝑇 = .
cos 𝜃
Substituting this into the first equation, one finds the acceleration:
 𝐹𝑇 sin 𝜃 𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃
𝑎= = = 𝑔 tan 𝜃.
𝑚 cos 𝜃 𝑚
Now the takeoff speed can be found as

𝑣𝑓 = 𝑎𝑡𝑓 = 𝑔 tan 𝜃 𝑡𝑓 .

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

1
𝑚 1000
𝑘𝑚 𝑘𝑚 𝑘𝑚
𝑣𝑓 = 9.8 × tan 25° × 18 = 82.3 = 82.3 1 = 82.3 × 3.6 = 296 .
𝑠 3600
ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟 ℎ ℎ

17. Pulling a block with friction

A worker is pulling a block at the angle 𝜃 to the horizontal without acceleration. The mass of
the block is 𝑚, the coefficient of dry friction is 𝜇. What is the value of the force 𝐹 the worker
is applying? What is the optimal value of 𝜃?

FN F

Ffr

mg

Solution: As the acceleration of the block is zero (the motion is quasistatic), Newton’s
second law has the form of the equilibrium condition

𝐅𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = 𝑚𝐠 + 𝐅𝑁 + 𝐅𝑓𝑟 + 𝐅 = 𝟎.

As the block is moving, the friction force is given by 𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝜇𝐹𝑁 . Components x,z of this
equation (with explicit signs) are

"x": − 𝜇𝐹𝑁 + 𝐹 cos 𝜃 = 0

"z": − 𝑚𝑔 + 𝐹𝑁 + 𝐹 sin 𝜃 = 0.

This is a system of two equations with two unknowns: 𝐹 and 𝐹𝑁 . There are many ways to
solve this system of linear algebraic equations. As we do not need 𝐹𝑁 , we can eliminate it by
multiplying the second equation by 𝜇 and then adding the two equations. This yields a single
equation for 𝐹:

−𝜇𝑚𝑔 + 𝐹 cos 𝜃 + 𝜇𝐹 sin 𝜃 = 0.

The solution of this equation reads

 𝜇𝑚𝑔
𝐹= . (1)
cos 𝜃 + 𝜇 sin 𝜃

For 𝜃 = 0 one has the obvious result 𝐹 = 𝜇𝑚𝑔. Increasing 𝜃 from zero leads to the
increasing of the denominator as, for small 𝜃, one has cos 𝜃 ≅ 1 − 𝜃 2 /2 and sin 𝜃 ≅ 𝜃. This
leads to decreasing the applied force. Thus, to minimize the force, one has to use some
nonzero pulling angle 𝜃. The physics of this is the following: the vertical component of the
pulling force decreases the normal reaction force and thus the friction force.

To find the optimal condition for pulling, one can transform the denominator to a single
trigonometric function with the help of the following trick.

1 𝜇
cos 𝜃 + 𝜇 sin 𝜃 = √1 + 𝜇 2 ( cos 𝜃 + sin 𝜃).
√1 + 𝜇 2 √1 + 𝜇 2

Here the coefficients in front of cos 𝜃 and sin 𝜃 can be interpreted as sine and cosine of an
angle 𝜑, as the sum of their squares is one. For instance

1 𝜇
cos 𝜑 = , sin 𝜑 = .
√1 + 𝜇 2 √1 + 𝜇 2

Then, using the formula

cos 𝜑 cos 𝜃 + sin 𝜑 sin 𝜃 = cos(𝜃 − 𝜑),

one obtains

1
cos 𝜃 + 𝜇 sin 𝜃 = √1 + 𝜇 2 cos(𝜃 − 𝜑) , 𝜑 = arccos
√1 + 𝜇 2

and can rewrite our final result, Eq. (1), as

1 𝜇𝑚𝑔
𝐹= .
√1 + 𝜇 2 cos(𝜃 − 𝜑)

Thus, the minimal value of the pulling force 𝐹 is reached for 𝜃 = 𝜑 and is given by
𝜇𝑚𝑔
𝐹𝑚𝑖𝑛 = < 𝜇𝑚𝑔.
√1 + 𝜇 2

For example, for 𝜇 = 1 one has 𝐹𝑚𝑖𝑛 = 𝜇𝑚𝑔/√2 = 0.71𝜇𝑚𝑔 that is achieved for

1
𝜃 = 𝜑 = arccos = 45°.
√2

In this case, the beneficial effect of pulling at the angle to the horizontal is substantial.

For 𝜇 = 1/2 one has 𝐹𝑚𝑖𝑛 = (2/√5)𝜇𝑚𝑔 = 0.89𝜇𝑚𝑔 that is achieved for

2
𝜃 = 𝜑 = arccos = 26.6°.
√5

In this case, the gain is smaller.

For 𝜇 = 0.1, the gain is very small, 𝐹𝑚𝑖𝑛 = 0.995𝜇𝑚𝑔, that is, 0.5%. The corresponding
pulling angle reads

𝜃 = 𝜑 = arccos 0.995 = 5.7°.

18. Pulling a block uphill with friction

A worker is pulling a block of mass 𝑚 up a slope with the angle 𝜃. The pulling force is
applied parallel to the slope. The friction coefficients are 𝜇 and 𝜇𝑠 . What pulling force has to
be applied to set the block in motion? What pulling force is needed to stationary pull the
block uphill? Calculate the forces for 𝑚 = 30 𝑘𝑔, 𝜃 = 10°, friction wood on wood.

FN
F z

Ffr
x


mg

Solution: In the absence of acceleration (quasistatic regime) Newton’s second law has the
form

𝐅𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = 𝑚𝐠 + 𝐅𝑁 + 𝐅𝑓𝑟 + 𝐅 = 𝟎.

Components x,z of this equation (with explicit signs) are

"x": 𝐹𝑓𝑟 − 𝐹 + 𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃 = 0

"z": 𝐹𝑁 − 𝑚𝑔 cos 𝜃 = 0.

If the pulling force is too small and the block is not moving, then from the first equation one
obtains

𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝐹 − 𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃,

or, for the pulling force,

𝐹 = 𝐹𝑓𝑟 + 𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃.

From the second equation follows 𝐹𝑁 = 𝑚𝑔 cos 𝜃. The friction force satisfies 𝐹𝑓𝑟 ≤ 𝜇𝑠 𝐹𝑁 .
The block begins to move when the friction force reaches its maximal value,

𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝜇𝑠 𝐹𝑁 = 𝜇𝑠 𝑚𝑔 cos 𝜃.

Substituting this into the formula for 𝐹, one obtains

𝐹 = 𝑚𝑔(sin 𝜃 + 𝜇𝑠 cos 𝜃).

One can see that the worker has to work both against gravity and against friction. For wood
on wood, 𝜇𝑠 = 0.4 and 𝜇 = 0.2. Numerically, the force required to start the block moving is

𝐹 = 30 × 9.8 × (sin 10° + 0.4 cos 10°) = 294 × (0.174 + 0.394) = 167 𝑁.

In this case, the contribution of the friction force is greater than that of gravity.

If the block is moving, then the friction force is given by 𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝜇𝐹𝑁 . In a similar way, one
obtains

𝐹 = 𝑚𝑔(sin 𝜃 + 𝜇 cos 𝜃).

Numerically, the force required to pull the block stationary uphill is

𝐹 = 30 × 9.8 × (sin 10° + 0.2 cos 10°) = 294 × (0.174 + 0.197) = 109 𝑁.

In this case, the contributions of gravity and friction are comparable.

19. Two boxes with different frictions on the incline (Giancoli, chapter 4)

Solution. First, we introduce missing notations: 𝜇1 = 0.1, 𝜇2 = 0.2.

In lecture notes, the formula for the acceleration of a block sliding on the incline was
obtained:

𝑎 = 𝑔(sin 𝜃 − 𝜇 cos 𝜃).

In the case a), boxes are not connected by the string and move independently from each
other. The acceleration of the block 1 is higher as it has less friction.
In the case b), the solution is the same as in a) as the string does not resist shortening its
length. As the acceleration of box 1 is higher than that of box 2, the distance between them
will be decreasing until they come in contact. After that, they will be moving together as a
system, and the regime changes.

c) In this case, the distance between the boxes would increase with time but the string does
not allow it. Thus, both boxes are moving as a system with a common acceleration. The
shortest way to find the acceleration is to consider the motion of the system of two blocks
along the x-axis parallel to the slope, as usual. In this solution, one does not have to consider
the tension of the string. The projection of Newton’s second law onto this axis reads

−𝐹𝑓𝑟,1 − 𝐹𝑓𝑟,2 + (𝑚1 + 𝑚2 )𝑔 sin 𝜃 = (𝑚1 + 𝑚2 )𝑎.

Here,

𝐹𝑓𝑟,1 = 𝜇1 𝐹𝑁,1 = 𝜇1 𝑚1 𝑔 cos 𝜃 , 𝐹𝑓𝑟,2 = 𝜇2 𝐹𝑁,2 = 𝜇2 𝑚2 𝑔 cos 𝜃.

Substituting this into the equation above and dividing by 𝑚1 + 𝑚2 , one obtains the result

𝜇1 𝑚1 + 𝜇2 𝑚2
𝑎 = 𝑔 (sin 𝜃 − cos 𝜃).
𝑚1 + 𝑚2

The fraction here is the effective friction coefficient for the system of two connected blocks:

𝜇1 𝑚1 + 𝜇2 𝑚2
𝜇𝑒𝑓𝑓 = .
𝑚1 + 𝑚2

If the masses are equal to each other, 𝜇𝑒𝑓𝑓 is just the average of the two friction
coefficients. In our case,

0.1 × 1 + 0.2 × 2
𝜇𝑒𝑓𝑓 = = 0.167.
1+2
Circular motion
20. A lamp dangling in a train (Giancoli, chapter 5)

This problem uses the same idea as that of the dangling watch in the airplane above, thus,
one can use the same drawing

Let us introduce missing notations: 𝑅 = 235 𝑚, 𝜃 = 17.5°.

Newton’s second law for the dangling lamp reads

𝑚𝐠 + 𝐅𝑇 = 𝑚𝐚.

In projections onto the axes this becomes

"x": 𝐹𝑇 sin 𝜃 = 𝑚𝑎

"z": 𝐹𝑇 cos 𝜃 − 𝑚𝑔 = 0.

From the second equation one finds the tension force:

𝑚𝑔
𝐹𝑇 = .
cos 𝜃
Substituting this into the first equation, one finds the acceleration:
𝑚𝑔
𝐹𝑇 sin 𝜃 cos 𝜃 sin 𝜃
𝑎= = = 𝑔 tan 𝜃.
𝑚 𝑚
This is the centripetal acceleration due to the curvature of the train’s trajectory:

𝑣2
𝑎𝑐 = .
𝑅
Equating these two expressions, one finds the train’s speed as
 𝑣 = √𝑅𝑔 tan 𝜃.

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

𝑣 = √235 × 9.8 × tan 17.5° = 27 𝑚/𝑠 = 27 × 3.6 𝑘𝑚/ℎ = 97 𝑘𝑚/ℎ.

21. Two masses on a string (Giancoli, chapter 5)

Solution. Let the tension force acting on 𝑚1 from the central part of the cord be 𝐹 and let
the tension of the cord between the two masses be 𝑇. With the radial axis directed towards
the center, Newton’s second law has the form

𝑚1 𝑎𝑐,1 = 𝑚1 𝜔2 𝑟1 = 𝐹 − 𝑇, 𝑚2 𝑎𝑐,2 = 𝑚2 𝜔2 𝑟2 = 𝑇.

From the second equation one immediately finds the value of 𝑇. Adding these equations,
one eliminates 𝑇 and obtains the value of 𝐹:

𝐹 = 𝑚1 𝜔2 𝑟1 + 𝑚2 𝜔2 𝑟2 = (𝑚1 𝑟1 + 𝑚2 𝑟2 )𝜔2 .

The angular velocity 𝜔 is defined as

∆𝜃
𝜔= ,
∆𝑡
where 𝜃 is the rotation angle in radians. The frequency of rotations 𝑓 is defined as the
number of rotations per second,

𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑟𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑠
𝑓= .
∆𝑡
As one rotations corresponds to 2𝜋 radians, the number of rotations in the angle ∆𝜃 is given
by ∆𝜃/(2𝜋). Thus

∆𝜃/(2𝜋) 1 ∆𝜃 𝜔
𝑓= = =
∆𝑡 2𝜋 ∆𝑡 2𝜋
and 𝜔 = 2𝜋𝑓. Thus, in terms of what in given in the problem’s formulation, the results have
the form

𝑇 = 𝑚2 𝜔2 𝑟2 = 𝑚2 𝑟2 (2𝜋𝑓)2

and

𝐹 = (𝑚1 𝑟1 + 𝑚2 𝑟2 )(2𝜋𝑓)2 .

22. A car going over a hilltop

A car is going over a hilltop with the curvature radius 𝑅 at speed 𝑣. Suddenly the driver sees
an obstacle behind the hilltop and needs to brake. What is the maximal deceleration if the
static friction coefficient is 𝜇𝑆 ?

FN z

Ffr
mg

Solution. The maximal deceleration is set by the maximal friction force 𝐹𝑓𝑟,𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝜇𝑠 𝐹𝑁 .
When the car is going over a hilltop, the normal force decreases so that it does not
compensate for the gravity force, and this creates the centripetal force. For the projections
of the forces on x-axis one has

𝑣2
𝐹𝑁 − 𝑚𝑔 = −𝐹𝑐 = −𝑚
𝑅
(centripetal acceleration is directed down towards the center of curvature). From here one
obtains

𝑣2
𝐹𝑁 = 𝑚 (𝑔 − ) < 𝑚𝑔.
𝑅

Now the maximal deceleration is given by

𝐹𝑓𝑟,𝑚𝑎𝑥 𝜇𝑠 𝐹𝑁 𝑣2
𝑎𝑚𝑎𝑥 = = = 𝜇𝑠 (𝑔 − ).
𝑚 𝑚 𝑅

It is smaller than on the flat road, thus hilltops are dangerous.

 23. The satellite (Giancoli, chapter 5)

Solution. Let us introduce missing notations. The satellite’s mass 𝑚 = 5500 𝑘𝑔, the mass of
the Earth 𝑀 = 0.6 × 1025 𝑘𝑔, the period of the satellite’s orbiting around the Earth
𝑇 = 6200 𝑠.

The gravitational force acting on the satellite is given by the gravitation law and plays the
role of the centripetal force:

𝑚𝑀
𝐹=𝐺 = 𝑚𝑎𝑐 = 𝑚𝜔2 𝑅𝑠 ,
𝑅𝑠2

where 𝑅𝑠 is the radius of the satellite’s orbit. The angular velocity of the satellite’s rotation
can be expressed via the orbiting period as follows:

2𝜋
𝜔 = 2𝜋𝑓 = .
𝑇
Thus, one can solve task (b) of finding 𝑅𝑠 . Canceling the satellite’s mass in the first equation,
one obtains

𝑀
𝐺 2
= 𝜔2 𝑅𝑠 ,
𝑅𝑠

or

𝐺𝑀 = 𝜔2 𝑅𝑠 3 ,

(the third Kepler’s law) where from

1/3
𝐺𝑀 1/3 𝐺𝑀𝑇 2
𝑅𝑠 = ( 2 ) = ( ) .
𝜔 4𝜋 2

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

1/3
0.667 × 10−10 × 0.6 × 1025 × 62002
𝑅𝑠 = ( ) = 7.3 × 106 𝑚 = 7300 𝑘𝑚.
4𝜋 2

Since the radius of the Earth is 𝑅 = 6400 𝑘𝑚, the satellite’s altitude ℎ is

ℎ = 𝑅𝑠 − 𝑅 = 7300 − 6400 = 900 𝑘𝑚

above the Earth’s surface.

Now one can solve task (a) to find the gravitational force on the satellite. Using the first
formula and the result for 𝑅𝑠 , one obtains
 2/3 2/3
𝑚𝑀 4𝜋 2 1−2/3
2𝜋 2 1/3
2𝜋 4/3
𝐹 = 𝐺 2 = 𝑚𝐺𝑀 ( ) = 𝑚(𝐺𝑀) (( ) ) = 𝑚(𝐺𝑀) ( ) .
𝑅𝑠 𝐺𝑀𝑇 2 𝑇 𝑇

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

−10 25 )1/3
2𝜋 4/3
𝐹 = 5500 × (0.667 × 10 × 0.6 × 10 ( ) = 41258 𝑁.
6200

24. Gravity and apparent gravity on Jupiter (Giancoli, chapter 5)

Solution. First, introduce missing notations: mass of Jupiter 𝑀 = 1.9 × 1027 𝑘𝑔, radius of
Jupiter 𝑅 = 7.1 × 104 𝑘𝑚 = 7.1 × 107 𝑚, Jupiter’s rotation period 𝑇 = 9 ℎ𝑟 55 𝑚𝑖𝑛. One
can see that Jupiter rotates fast, thus the apparent gravity on Jupiter’s equator can be
significantly smaller than the real gravity because of the effect of the centripetal force. We
immediately convert the period into seconds: 𝑇 = 9 × 3600 + 55 × 60 = 35700 𝑠.

On Jupiter’s surface, the gravity can be calculated using the law of gravitation for any mass
𝑚:

𝑚𝑀
𝑚𝑔 = 𝐺 ,
𝑅2
thus

𝑀
𝑔=𝐺 .
𝑅2
Substituting the numbers, one obtains

−10
1.9 × 1027
𝑔 = 0.667 × 10 = 25.2 𝑚/𝑠 2 .
(7.1 × 107 )2

This is slightly more than twice the value of 𝑔 on the Earth, and a person having the mass
50 𝑘𝑔 would feel like having 50 × 25.2/9.8 = 129 𝑘𝑔. While it is questionable whether
such a high gravity would crush a human immediately, it is clear that living with such a high
gravity is difficult.

Let us now consider the apparent gravity defined via the normal reaction force 𝐹𝑁 acting on
the person from the ground. According to Newton’s second law,

𝑚𝑔 − 𝐹𝑁 = 𝑚𝑎𝑐 = 𝑚𝜔2 𝑅.
Using the relations between the angular velocity 𝜔, frequency 𝑓, and period 𝑇,

2𝜋
𝜔 = 2𝜋𝑓 = ,
𝑇
one obtains

2
2𝜋 2
𝐹𝑁 = 𝑚(𝑔 − 𝑎𝑐 ) = 𝑚(𝑔 − 𝜔 𝑅) = 𝑚 (𝑔 − ( ) 𝑅).
𝑇

One can write 𝐹𝑁 = 𝑚𝑔𝑎𝑝𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 , where

2𝜋 2 𝑀 2𝜋 2
𝑔𝑎𝑝𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 = 𝑔 − ( ) 𝑅 =𝐺 2−( ) 𝑅
𝑇 𝑅 𝑇

is smaller than the actual 𝑔. Substituting the numbers, one obtains

2𝜋 2
𝑔𝑎𝑝𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 = 25.2 − ( ) × 7.1 × 107 = 23.0 𝑚/𝑠 2 .
35700

This only slightly smaller than the actual 𝑔 on Jupiter.

25. A tape planet (Giancoli, chapter 5)

Solution. In this case, the apparent gravity is created by the rotation of the tape planet that
creates the normal reaction force 𝐅𝑁 imitating the gravity 𝑚𝐠. That is,

𝐹𝑁 = 𝑚𝑎𝑐 = 𝑚𝜔2 𝑅 = 𝑚𝑔,

where 𝑅 is the radius of the tape planet. From this one can find the angular velocity
 𝑔
𝜔=√
𝑅

The angular velocity can be expressed via the orbiting period as follows:

2𝜋
𝜔 = 2𝜋𝑓 = .
𝑇
Thus the period is given by

2𝜋 𝑅
𝑇= = 2𝜋√ .
𝜔 𝑔

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

1.5 × 1011 777343

𝑇 = 2𝜋√ = 777343 𝑠 = = 9.0 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠.
9.8 24 × 3600

This is very fast. However, rotation of this planet around the sum does not lead to the
change of seasons.

26. Orbiting of the sum around the center of our galaxy (Giancoli, chapter 5)

Solution. Let us introduce missing notations. The distance from the Sun to the center of our
galaxy (the radius of Sun’s orbit) is 𝑅 = 30000 𝑙𝑦, The period of the sun’s orbiting is
𝑇 = 200 × 106 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠, the mass of the sun is 𝑚 = 2 × 1030 𝑘𝑔. The mass is the galaxy is 𝑀.

According to Newton’s second law, the gravitational force causes the centripetal
acceleration of the Sun,

𝑚𝑀
𝐺 = 𝑚𝑎𝑐 = 𝑚𝜔2 𝑅.
𝑅2
From here one finds the mass of the galaxy

𝜔2 𝑅3
𝑀= .
𝐺
The angular velocity can be expressed via the orbiting period as follows:

2𝜋
𝜔 = 2𝜋𝑓 = .
𝑇
Thus

2𝜋 2 𝑅 3
𝑀=( ) .
𝑇 𝐺

If all stars in the galaxy have approximately the mass of the Sun, the number of the stars can
be estimated as

𝑀 2𝜋 2 𝑅 3
𝑁= =( ) .
𝑚 𝑇 𝑚𝐺

To calculate the numerical result, first one has to convert all numbers from special units to
the SI units. The light year (ly) is defined as the distance covered by the light during one
year. Using the speed of light 𝑐 = 3 × 108 𝑚/𝑠, one obtains
𝑚 𝑚
1 𝑙𝑦 = 3 × 108 × × 1 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟 = 3 × 108 × × 365 × 24 × 3600 𝑠 = 9.46 × 1015 𝑚.
𝑠 𝑠
Thus

𝑅 = 30000 𝑙𝑦 = 30000 × 9.46 × 1015 = 2.84 × 1020 𝑚

The orbiting period of the Sun is

𝑇 = 200 × 106 𝑦𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑠 = 200 × 106 × 365 × 24 × 3600 = 6.31 × 1015 𝑠.

Now the mass of the galaxy is

2
2𝜋 (2.84 × 1020 )3
𝑀=( ) = 2.10 × 1043 𝑘𝑔.
6.31 × 1015 0.667 × 10−10

The number of stars in the galaxy is

𝑀 2.10 × 1043
𝑁= = = 1.05 × 1013 ≈ 1013 .
𝑚 2 × 1030
Work and energy
27. Sliding piano (Giancoli, chapter 6)

Solution. First, we introduce missing notations. The mass of the piano 𝑚 = 330 𝑘𝑔, the
incline’s angle 𝜃 = 28°, kinetic friction coefficient 𝜇 = 0.4, the sliding distance 𝑑 = 3.6 𝑚.

This is a problem about the incline. We use the sketch from one of the preceding problems.

FN
z
F

Ffr
x


mg

In the absence of acceleration (quasistatic regime) Newton’s second law has the form

𝐅𝑡𝑜𝑡𝑎𝑙 = 𝑚𝐠 + 𝐅𝑁 + 𝐅𝑓𝑟 + 𝐅 = 𝟎.

Components x,z of this equation (with explicit signs) are

"x": − 𝐹𝑓𝑟 − 𝐹 + 𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃 = 0

"z": 𝐹𝑁 − 𝑚𝑔 cos 𝜃 = 0.

As the piano is sliding, the dry friction force is given by

𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝜇𝐹𝑁 .
This is a system of three equations for three unknowns: 𝐹, 𝐹𝑓𝑟 , and 𝐹𝑁 . Finding 𝐹𝑁 =
𝑚𝑔 cos 𝜃 from the “z” equation, one then finds the friction force as

𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝜇𝐹𝑁 = 𝜇𝑚𝑔 cos 𝜃.

After that, from the “x” equation one finds the pushing force:

𝐹 = 𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃 − 𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝑚𝑔(sin 𝜃 − 𝜇 cos 𝜃).

Let us calculate the work done by different forces now. The normal force is perpendicular to
the displacement that is along x-axis and is not doing any work. The gravity force makes the
angle 𝜃 ′ = 90° − 𝜃 with x-axis and doing a positive work:

𝑊𝐺 = 𝑚𝑔𝑑 cos 𝜃′ = 𝑚𝑔𝑑 cos(90° − 𝜃) = 𝑚𝑔𝑑 sin 𝜃 .

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

𝑊𝐺 = 330 × 9.8 × 3.6 × sin 28° = 5466 J.

Both pushing force and friction force are directed oppositely to the displacement and thus
are doing a negative work. For the friction force the work is given by

𝑊𝑓𝑟 = 𝜇𝑚𝑔 cos 𝜃 𝑑 cos 180° = −𝜇𝑚𝑔𝑑 cos 𝜃.

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

𝑊𝑓𝑟 = −0.4 × 330 × 9.8 × 3.6 × cos 28° = −4112 J.

Finally, the work done by the pushing force is given by

𝑊 = 𝐹𝑑 cos 180° = −𝑚𝑔𝑑(sin 𝜃 − 𝜇 cos 𝜃).

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

𝑊 = −330 × 9.8 × 3.6 × (sin 28° − 0.4 × cos 28°) = −1354 J.

The total work is zero:

𝑊𝐺 + 𝑊𝑓𝑟 + 𝑊 = 𝑚𝑔𝑑 sin 𝜃 − 𝜇𝑚𝑔𝑑 cos 𝜃 − 𝑚𝑔𝑑(sin 𝜃 − 𝜇 cos 𝜃) = 0

because the sum of projections of all forces on x-axis is zero (“x” equation).

28. Accident skid mark (Giancoli, chapter 6)

Solution. First, we introduce missing notations: the length of the skid mark (distance
traveled) 𝑑 = 88 𝑚, kinetic friction coefficient 𝜇 = 0.42.
In this problem it is illustrated that the energy is the ability to do work. In the initial state,
the car possesses the kinetic energy that is then wasted into the heat via dry friction in the
process of braking /skidding. More precisely, in the process, the friction force is doing a
negative work on the car decreasing its kinetic energy to zero. We use the work-energy
relation

𝑊 = 𝐸𝑓 − 𝐸𝑖 (1).

Here

𝑚𝑣 2
𝐸𝑖 = , 𝐸𝑓 = 0
2
and the work of the friction force is given by

𝑊 = −𝐹𝑓𝑟 𝑑.

Using the formula for the friction force

𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝜇𝐹𝑁 = 𝜇𝑚𝑔

and putting everything together, one obtains the work-energy balance in the form

𝑚𝑣 2
−𝜇𝑚𝑔𝑑 = 0 − .
2
From this equation one finds

𝑣 = √2𝜇𝑔𝑑.

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

𝑣 = √2 × 0.42 × 9.8 × 88 = 26.9 𝑚/𝑠 = 26.9 × 3.6 = 96.8 𝑘𝑚/ℎ.

Notes:

 Police officers need to know physics.

 A tutor solving this problem for you would typically start with the formula
𝑚𝑣 2
𝐹𝑓𝑟 𝑑 = .
2
Although this relation is correct and leads to the correct result, it hides the fact that
friction is doing a negative work and the kinetic energy decreases. It distorts the
fundamental work-energy relation, Eq. (1). Thus, in our course, such a solution is
inacceptable.
 29. Looped track (Giancoli, chapter 6)

FN+mg

Solution. This is a problem about energy conservation and circular motion. At the top of the
loop, the speed should be sufficiently high so that a normal force must add to the gravity
force to ensure the needed centripetal acceleration. In projection on the vertical-up z-axis,
Newton’s second law reads

𝑣2
−𝐹𝑁 − 𝑚𝑔 = −𝑚𝑎𝑐 = −𝑚 ,
𝑟
where from

𝑣2
𝐹𝑁 = 𝑚 ( − 𝑔).
𝑟

To preserve the contact of the sliding block with the structure, the condition 𝐹𝑁 > 0 should
be satisfied. This requires that the speed 𝑣 is above a minimal value,
2
𝑣 2 ≥ 𝑣𝑚𝑖𝑛 = 𝑟𝑔.

The speed can be found from the energy conservation law. At the highest point in the loop
the height is 𝑧 = 2𝑟. The energy conservation 𝐸𝑖 = 𝐸𝑓 becomes

𝑚𝑣 2
𝑚𝑔ℎ = 𝑚𝑔2𝑟 + ,
2
where from

𝑣 2 = 2𝑔(ℎ − 2𝑟).

Substituting this into the inequality above, one obtains

2𝑔(ℎ − 2𝑟) ≥ 𝑟𝑔,

that is,

𝑟 5
ℎ≥ + 2𝑟 = 𝑟 ≡ ℎ𝑚𝑖𝑛 .
2 2
It is noteworthy that the result does not depend on 𝑚 and 𝑔.

30. Spring cut in half (Giancoli, chapter 6)

What do you think before solving this problem? What does your intuition tell you?

Solution. If the spring is pulled with the force 𝐹, any part of the spring is acting on the
neighboring part with the same force 𝐹 that is related to the spring’s deformation 𝑥 by the
Hooke’s law

𝐹 = 𝑘𝑥.

This is the result of the absence of acceleration and Newton’s laws. In particular, if we
consider a half of the spring, it is pulled by the other half with the same force 𝐹 but its
elongation is 𝑥 ′ = 𝑥/2. For this half of the spring, the Hooke’s law has the form

𝐹 = 𝑘 ′ 𝑥 ′ = 𝑘 ′ 𝑥/2.

Comparing with the first formula, one obtains

𝑘𝑥 = 𝑘 ′ 𝑥/2,

that is, 𝑘 ′ = 2𝑘. Is it counterintuitive that cutting a spring in two makes it stronger?

The same result can be obtained from the energy argument. The energy of the deformed
spring is

𝑘𝑥 2
𝐸= .
2
Considering the two halves of the spring, one can write the same energy as the sum of the
energies of both halves:

𝑘′𝑥′2 𝑘′𝑥′2
𝐸= + .
2 2
Substituting here 𝑥 ′ = 𝑥/2 and equating to the preceding formula, one obtains

′ ′2
𝑘 ′ 𝑥 2 𝑘𝑥 2
𝐸=𝑘𝑥 = = .
4 2
From here follows 𝑘 ′ = 2𝑘.
 31. Power of the patient on a treadmill (Giancoli, chapter 6)

Solution. First, we introduce missing notations. Mass of the patient 𝑚 = 75 𝑘𝑔, the slope of
the treadmill 𝜃 = 15°, the speed of the patient 𝑣 = 3.3 𝑘𝑚/ℎ = 3.3/3.6 = 0.917 𝑚/𝑠.

FN
z

Ffr
F x


mg

The mechanical power is given by

𝑃 = 𝐅 ∙ 𝐯.
The question is of how to apply this formula correctly.

The solution in the Giancoli book is conceptually wrong, although it leads to the correct final
result. Giancoli assumes that the patient generates a pushing force 𝐹𝑝 = 𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃 (to
compensate for the gravity) that is applied to himself and multiplies this by the speed,
obtaining the power 𝑃 = 𝑚𝑔𝑣 sin 𝜃. However, the speed of the patient is zero, and this
approach in fact yields a zero power.

In this setting, mechanical work is not done on the patient. Rather, the patient does work on
the treadmill pushing it back with his feet with the force 𝐅, as shown in the sketch. This
force is applied to the treadmill and is opposite to the friction force applied from the
treadmill to the patient, according to Newton’s third law,

𝐅 = −𝐅𝑓𝑟

As there is no acceleration, the total force on the patient is zero:

𝐅𝑓𝑟 + 𝐅𝑁 + 𝑚𝐠 = 𝟎.

Thus, the friction force compensates for the x-component of the gravity force,

𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃.

Now, the treadmill band is moving down the slope and the force 𝐅 is applied to it from the
patient in the same direction, so that the power developed by the patient is given by

𝑃 = 𝐹𝑣 = 𝐹𝑓𝑟 𝑣 = 𝑚𝑔𝑣 sin 𝜃.

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

𝑃 = 75 × 9.8 × 0.917 × sin 15° = 174 𝑊

that is comparable with the power of the electric bulb (an old-style one with a wolfram
filament).

If a person is just walking up the incline that is at rest, then the work is done on the person
by the person him- or herself. This problem should have the same answer and the person
should develop the same power. However, this problem is conceptually more difficult as it is
not easy to identify the force that is doing work. One needs to consider the human body as
consisting of different parts, so that different parts are doing work on each other (feet on
legs, legs on the torso, etc.)
Linear momentum
32. Inelastic collision

Mass 𝑚1 = 2 𝑘𝑔 moving North-West with the velocity 𝑣1 = 4 𝑚/𝑠 collides inelastically with
mass 𝑚2 = 3 𝑘𝑔 moving North-East with the velocity 𝑣2 = 5 𝑚/𝑠. Find the velocity of the
system 𝑢 after the collision and the lost energy.

Solution: In the collision the momentum of the system is conserved and in the final state
both bodies are moving together, thus

𝑚1 𝐯1 + 𝑚2 𝐯2 = (𝑚1 + 𝑚2 )𝐮.

From here one obtains

𝑚1 𝐯1 + 𝑚2 𝐯2
𝐮= .
𝑚1 + 𝑚2

Substituting the numbers into this formula, one obtains

2 × (4 cos 135° , 4 sin 135°) + 3 × (5 cos 45° , 5 sin 45°)

𝐮=
2+3
1 1 1 1
2 × (4 (− ) , 4 ) + 3 × (5 ,5 )
= √2 √2 √2 √2
2+3
(−2 × 4 + 3 × 5, 2 × 4 + 3 × 5) (7, 23)
= = = (0.99, 3.25)𝑚/𝑠
5√2 5√2

The energy lost in the collision if defined as

𝐸𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑡 ≡ 𝐸𝑖 − 𝐸𝑓 ,

where

𝑚1 𝐯12 𝑚2 𝐯22 (𝑚1 + 𝑚2 )𝐮2

𝐸𝑖 = + , 𝐸𝑓 = .
2 2 2
Substituting here 𝐮 found above, one obtains

2 × 42 3 × 52 (2 + 3) × (0.992 + 3.252 )
𝐸𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑡 ≡ + −
2 2 2
= 43.5 − 40.4 = 3.1 𝐽.

33. Energy lost in the inelastic collision (general)

Derive a general formula for the energy lost in the inelastic collision. Calculate the energy
lost and the fraction of the energy lost in the collision of the mass 𝑚1 = 1 𝑘𝑔 moving with
the speed 𝑣1,𝑖 = 2 𝑚/𝑠 and the mass 𝑚2 = 2 𝑘𝑔 moving with the speed 𝑣2,𝑖 = 1 𝑚/𝑠, if in
the initial state the masses are moving perpendicularly to each other (the angle between
their velocities being 90°.
Solution. In the inelastic collision, the two masses stick together as the result of the collision,
so that the conservation of the linear momentum has the form

𝑚1 𝐯1 + 𝑚2 𝐯2 = (𝑚1 + 𝑚2 )𝐮,

where 𝐮 ≡ 𝐯𝑓 is the velocity of the system in the final state. From here, one finds

𝑚1 𝐯1 + 𝑚2 𝐯2
𝐮= . (1)
𝑚1 + 𝑚2

Now, the energies in the initial and final states are given by

𝑚1 𝐯12 𝑚2 𝐯22 (𝑚1 + 𝑚2 )𝐮2

𝐸𝑖 = + , 𝐸𝑓 = .
2 2 2
Here and elsewhere, the square of a vector is defined as the dot-product of the vector with
itself, for instance:

𝐮2 ≡ 𝐮 ∙ 𝐮 = |𝐮||𝐮| cos 0° = |𝐮|2 = 𝑢2 . (2)

The energy lost in the collision is defined as

𝐸𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑡 ≡ 𝐸𝑖 − 𝐸𝑓 ,

so that here

𝑚1 𝐯12 𝑚2 𝐯22 (𝑚1 + 𝑚2 )𝐮2

𝐸𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑡 = + − . (3)
2 2 2
Substituting the solution for 𝐮, one obtains

𝑚1 𝐯12 𝑚2 𝐯22 𝑚1 + 𝑚2 𝑚1 𝐯1 + 𝑚2 𝐯2 2
𝐸𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑡 = + − ( )
2 2 2 𝑚1 + 𝑚2
𝑚1 𝐯12 𝑚2 𝐯22 𝑚12 𝐯12 + 2𝑚1 𝑚2 𝐯1 ∙ 𝐯2 + 𝑚22 𝐯22
= + − .
2 2 2(𝑚1 + 𝑚2 )

Bringing this expression into the form with the common denominator, one proceeds as
follows

(𝑚1 + 𝑚2 )(𝑚1 𝐯12 + 𝑚2 𝐯22 ) − 𝑚12 𝐯12 − 2𝑚1 𝑚2 𝐯1 ∙ 𝐯2 − 𝑚22 𝐯22

𝐸𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑡 =
2(𝑚1 + 𝑚2 )
2 2
𝑚1 𝑚2 𝐯1 + 𝑚1 𝑚2 𝐯2 − 2𝑚1 𝑚2 𝐯1 ∙ 𝐯2 𝑚1 𝑚2 (𝐯1 − 𝐯2 )2
= = . (4)
2(𝑚1 + 𝑚2 ) 2(𝑚1 + 𝑚2 )

In this calculation, the terms 𝑚12 𝐯12 and 𝑚22 𝐯22 cancel that leads to a great simplification. The
formula obtained is very elegant and can be checked on particular cases. If one of the
masses is zero or the initial velocities are equal to each other, there is actually no collision
and the lost energy is zero. Of course one can calculate the lost energy using Eq.(3) in which
𝐮 is given by Eq.(1). However, using the formula above is more satisfying.

For the example to consider, one can choose the axes so that the first mass is moving in the
positive x-direction and the second mass is moving in the positive y-direction, that is
 𝐯1 = (2,0,0) 𝑚/𝑠, 𝐯2 = (0,1,0) 𝑚/𝑠.

(we take into account the z-component, too). Thus,

𝐯1 − 𝐯2 = (2,0,0) − (0,1,0) = (2, −1,0) 𝑚/𝑠

and, according to Eq.(2),

(𝐯1 − 𝐯2 )2 = |𝐯1 − 𝐯2 |2 .

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

(𝐯1 − 𝐯2 )2 = |(2, −1,0)|2 = 22 + (−1)2 + 02 = 5 𝑚2 /𝑠 2 .

Then, the lost energy given by Eq.(4) becomes

1×2×5 5
𝐸𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑡 = = = 1.67 𝐽.
2 × (1 + 2) 3

The initial energy is

𝑚1 𝑣12 𝑚2 𝑣22 1 × 22 2 × 12
𝐸𝑖 = + = + = 2 + 1 = 3 𝐽.
2 2 2 2
Thus, the fraction of the energy lost in the collision is

𝐸𝑙𝑜𝑠𝑡 5/3 5
𝜂≡ = = = 0.556.
𝐸𝑖 3 9

34. Recoil

In the recoil of an object into two parts with masses 𝑚1 and 𝑚2 , the energy ∆𝐸 is released.
Find the velocities of the parts 1 and 2.

Solution. Conservation laws for the linear momentum in this case has the form

𝑚1 𝐯1 + 𝑚2 𝐯2 = 𝟎.

As the vectors 𝐯1 and 𝐯2 (the velocities in the final state) are proportional to each other,
that is, directed along the same line (that has a random direction), one can choose the x-axis
along this line. Then one can discard vectors and write

𝑚1 𝑣1 + 𝑚2 𝑣2 = 0,

where 𝑣1 and 𝑣2 are projections of the velocity vectors onto the x-axis, that can be positive
or negative. The energy balance in the process has the form

𝑚1 𝑣12 𝑚2 𝑣22
∆𝐸 = 𝐸1 + 𝐸2 = + ,
2 2
where ∆𝐸 is the energy released and converted into mechanical energy. From the first
equation, one obtains
𝑣2 𝑚1
=− .
𝑣1 𝑚2
This implies that the lighter part has a higher speed (think about the rifle and the bullet).

Expressing 𝑣2 via 𝑣1 ,
𝑚1
𝑣2 = −𝑣1 ,
𝑚2

and substituting this into the energy equation, one obtains

𝑚1 𝑣12 𝑚2 𝑚1 2 𝑚1 𝑣12 𝑚12 𝑣12 𝑚1 (𝑚1 + 𝑚2 )𝑣12

∆𝐸 = + (−𝑣1 ) = + = .
2 2 𝑚2 2 2𝑚2 2𝑚2

From this one finds

2𝑚2 ∆𝐸 2∆𝐸 𝑚2
𝑣1 = √ =√ √ .
𝑚1 (𝑚1 + 𝑚2 ) 𝑚1 + 𝑚2 𝑚1

The last form of the result separates the parts symmetric and non-symmetric in 1 and 2.
Now 𝑣2 can be found using the formula for 𝑣2 above:

𝑚1 2∆𝐸 𝑚2 𝑚1 2∆𝐸 𝑚1
𝑣2 = −𝑣1 = −√ √ = −√ √ .
𝑚2 𝑚1 + 𝑚2 𝑚1 𝑚2 𝑚1 + 𝑚2 𝑚2

In fact, this formula could be obtained immediately from the formula for 𝑣1 by just
exchanging 1 ⇌ 2 and changing the sign.

35. Explosion of an object (recoil, Giancoli, chapter 7)

Solution. Conservation laws for the linear momentum in this case has the form

𝑚1 𝐯1 + 𝑚2 𝐯2 = 𝟎.

As the vectors 𝐯1 and 𝐯2 (the velocities in the final state) are proportional to each other,
that is, directed along the same line, one can choose the x-axis along this line. Then one can
discard vectors and write

𝑚1 𝑣1 + 𝑚2 𝑣2 = 0,

where 𝑣1 and 𝑣2 are projections of the velocity vectors onto the x-axis, that can be positive
or negative. The energy balance in the process has the form

𝑚1 𝑣12 𝑚2 𝑣22
∆𝐸 = 𝐸1 + 𝐸2 = + ,
2 2
where ∆𝐸 is the energy released in the explosion. It turns out that the energy equation is
not needed, however.

The condition in the problem’s formulation is

 𝐸1
𝛼≡ = 2.
𝐸2

Inserting here the kinetic energies, one obtains

𝑚1 𝑣12 𝑣1 2 𝑚1
𝛼= = 𝛽 ( ) , 𝛽≡ ,
𝑚2 𝑣22 𝑣2 𝑚2

where the mass ratio, 𝛽, has to be found. From the linear-momentum conservation above
follows

𝑣1 𝑚2 1
=− =− .
𝑣2 𝑚1 𝛽

Substituting this into the equation above, one obtains

1 1
𝛼=𝛽 2
= .
𝛽 𝛽

From this one finds

1 1
𝛽= = .
𝛼 2
We have found that the smaller mass, here 𝑚1 , receives a larger energy in the process of
recoil. This is an important result. In shooting a rifle or a gun, the most energy of the burning
powder goes to the bullet and only a very small energy goes to the rifle itself, as the ratio of
the masses 𝑚𝑟𝑖𝑓𝑙𝑒 /𝑚𝑏𝑢𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑡 is very large.

36. The center of mass of a system of point masses

Find the position of the CM of a system of three masses: 𝑚1 = 1 𝑘𝑔 at 𝐫1 = (1,1, −1) 𝑚,

𝑚2 = 2 𝑘𝑔 at 𝐫2 = (2, −2,2) 𝑚, and 𝑚3 = 3 𝑘𝑔 at 𝐫3 = (−3,3,3) 𝑚.

Solution. The position of the CM is defined by

1
𝐫𝐶𝑀 = ∑ 𝑚𝑖 𝐫𝑖 .
𝑀
𝑖

Substituting the given values, one obtains

1
𝐫𝐶𝑀 = [1 × (1,1, −1) + 2 × (2, −2,2) + 3 × (−3,3,3)]
1+2+3
(1 + 4 − 9,1 − 4 + 9, −1 + 4 + 9) (−4,6,12) 2
= = = (− , 1,2) 𝑚.
6 6 3
 37. People exchanging seats in a boat (Giancoli, chapter 7)

Solution. Let us introduce notations: 𝑚1 = 75 𝑘𝑔, 𝑚2 = 60 𝑘𝑔, the mass of the boat
𝑀 = 80 𝑘𝑔, 𝐿 = 3.2 𝑚.

Neglecting the waves produced by the process, one can consider the system of two persons
+ the boat as isolated. Then, the center of mass of this system remains at the same position.
This problem is effectively one-dimensional, so we use the x-axis directed along the axis of
the boat. The X-coordinate of the center of mass (CM) in the laboratory system (related to
the ground) is given by

𝑀𝑋𝐵 + 𝑚1 𝑋1 + 𝑚2 𝑋2
𝑋𝐶𝑀 = .
𝑀 + 𝑚1 + 𝑚2

Here 𝑋𝐵 is the coordinate of the center of the boat in the laboratory system (the ground or
the water) and 𝑋1 and 𝑋2 are the positions of the persons in the laboratory system. The
latter can be expressed via their positions in the boat frame (with respect to the boat) 𝑥1
and 𝑥2 as

𝑋1 = 𝑥1 + 𝑋𝐵 , 𝑋2 = 𝑥2 + 𝑋𝐵 ,

resulting in

𝑀𝑋𝐵 + 𝑚1 (𝑥1 + 𝑋𝐵 ) + 𝑚2 (𝑥2 + 𝑋𝐵 )

𝑋𝐶𝑀 = .
𝑀 + 𝑚1 + 𝑚2

According to the problem’s formulation,

𝑥2 − 𝑥1 = 𝐿 (1)

(the larger mass 𝑚1 is shifting in the positive direction, from 𝑥1 to 𝑥2 ). In the initial state,
after collecting terms, one has

𝑚1 𝑥1 + 𝑚2 𝑥2
𝑋𝐶𝑀,𝑖 = 𝑋𝐵,𝑖 + .
𝑀 + 𝑚1 + 𝑚2

In the final state, the persons have the interchanged positions and the boat is shifted, so
that

𝑚1 𝑥2 + 𝑚2 𝑥1
𝑋𝐶𝑀,𝑓 = 𝑋𝐵,𝑓 + .
𝑀 + 𝑚1 + 𝑚2

The positions of the CM in both states are the same: 𝑋𝐶𝑀,𝑓 = 𝑋𝐶𝑀,𝑖 . Subtracting the first
equation from the second one yields
 𝑚1 (𝑥2 − 𝑥1 ) + 𝑚2 (𝑥1 − 𝑥2 )
0 = 𝑋𝐵,𝑓 − 𝑋𝐵,𝑖 + .
𝑀 + 𝑚1 + 𝑚2

From here, using Eq. (1), one finds the displacement of the boat,

𝑚1 𝐿 − 𝑚2 𝐿 𝑚1 − 𝑚2
∆𝑋𝐵 ≡ 𝑋𝐵,𝑓 − 𝑋𝐵,𝑖 = − =− 𝐿.
𝑀 + 𝑚1 + 𝑚2 𝑀 + 𝑚1 + 𝑚2

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

75 − 60
∆𝑋𝐵 = − 3.2 = −0.22 𝑚.
80 + 75 + 60

That is, the boat is shifting in the negative direction, opposite to the direction of shifting of
the larger mass 𝑚1 . The direction of the displacement of the boat must be opposite to the
direction of the displacement of the heavier person, to keep the CM at the same position.

The key point in this solution is using the moving frame of the boat to specify the positions
of the persons. This is suggested by the fact that the persons interchange their positions in
the frame of the boat, not in the laboratory frame.
Rotational motion
38. Two coupled rotating disks (Giancoli, chapter 8)

R1 R2

Solution. The two discs are not slipping with respect to each other, thus the velocity of the
contact point 𝐯 is the same for both disks. Using the linear-angular velocity relation 𝑣 = 𝜔𝑅,
one writes for both discs

𝜔1 𝑅1 = 𝑣 = 𝜔2 𝑅2 .

From this one finds

𝜔1 𝑅2
= .
𝜔2 𝑅1

The smaller disk is rotating faster.

 39. The torque on the seesaw (Giancoli, chapter 8)

Solution. With respect to the support point, the total torque is the sum of two torque due to
gravity forces on the two masses:

𝜏 = 𝑚𝑔𝐿1 − 𝑚𝑔𝐿2 = 𝑚𝑔(𝐿1 − 𝐿2 ).

We have taken into account that the torque rotating clockwise is negative and the torque
rotating counterclockwise is positive. If the rod has the mass 𝑀 and is uniform, then its
center of mass is in the middle of the rod at the distance from the support

𝐿1 + 𝐿2 𝐿2 − 𝐿1
𝐿𝑀 = − 𝐿1 = .
2 2
In this case, the total torque on the system is

𝑀
𝜏 = 𝑚𝑔(𝐿1 − 𝐿2 ) − 𝑀𝑔𝐿𝑀 = (𝑚 + ) 𝑔(𝐿1 − 𝐿2 ).
2

For 𝐿1 = 𝐿2 the torque is zero due to the symmetry.

 40. Torque and work on a lever

A worker is lifting a heavy block of the mass 𝑀 with the help of the lever. The far end of the
lever is put on the solid floor, and the other end is slowly lifted by the worker. The length of
the lever is 𝐿. The heavy block is lying on the lever at the distance 𝑥 from the far end. What
force does the worker apply? Prove that the total work by all forces in this process is zero.
Prove that the work by the worker is converted into the potential energy of the heavy block.

Solution. For the lever in the horizontal position (that is tacitly assumed in the problem’s
formulation) the rotational equilibrium condition has the form

𝜏 = 𝐹𝐿 − 𝑀𝑔𝑥 = 0.

From this one finds the force applied by the worker:

𝑥
𝐹= 𝑀𝑔 < 𝑀𝑔.
𝐿
One can see that the lever allows gaining in the force.

F
x

O
Mg

Let us consider the work now. If the lever turns by a small angle ∆𝜃 out of the horizontal
position, the elevations of the worker’s end of the lever and the heavy block are

∆𝑧 = 𝐿∆𝜃, ∆𝑧𝑀 = 𝑥∆𝜃,

respectively. The total work done by the worker and by the gravity force is

∆𝑊 = 𝐹∆𝑧 − 𝑀𝑔∆𝑧𝑀 .

Substituting the elevations listed above, one finds

∆𝑊 = 𝐹𝐿∆𝜃 − 𝑀𝑔𝑥∆𝜃 = (𝐹𝐿 − 𝑀𝑔𝑥)∆𝜃.

The expression in the brackets is the total torque that is zero. Thus, the total work is zero,
too. This is how the work-energy principle is working for the lever.

One can consider the work-energy balance as the equality between the work done by the
worker and the increase of the potential energy of the heavy block:

∆𝐸𝑝𝑜𝑡 = 𝑀𝑔∆𝑧𝑀 = 𝐹∆𝑧,

where the last term in the work done by the worker.

 41. The gravity force is applied to the CM

For a system of masses 𝑚𝑖 placed at positions 𝑥𝑖 on the horizontal axis prove that torque of
the gravity force with respect to the CM is zero. This allows one to consider the gravity force
as applied at the CM.

CM
x0 x
xCM
m3g m4g
m1g m5g
m2g

Solution. First, the position of the CM is given by

1
𝑥𝐶𝑀 = ∑ 𝑚𝑖 𝑥𝑖 , 𝑀 = ∑ 𝑚𝑖 .
𝑀
𝑖 𝑖

Then, with respect to support point 𝑥0 , the lever arms of the individual gravity forces are

𝐿𝑖 = 𝑥𝑖 − 𝑥0 .

The total torque is given by

𝜏 = ∑ 𝑚𝑖 𝑔𝐿𝑖 = 𝑔 ∑ 𝑚𝑖 (𝑥𝑖 − 𝑥0 ) = 𝑔 ∑ 𝑚𝑖 𝑥𝑖 − 𝑔𝑥0 ∑ 𝑚𝑖 .

𝑖 𝑖 𝑖 𝑖

Using the definitions of 𝑥𝐶𝑀 and 𝑀 above, one obtains

𝜏 = 𝑔𝑀𝑥𝐶𝑀 − 𝑔𝑥0 𝑀 = 𝑀𝑔(𝑥𝐶𝑀 − 𝑥0 ) = 𝑀𝑔𝐿𝐶𝑀 ,

where we have introduced the lever arm of the CM

𝐿𝐶𝑀 ≡ 𝑥𝐶𝑀 − 𝑥0 .

Thus, the total torque can be calculated in a simplified way by considering the CM instead of
all elementary masses:

𝜏 = ∑ 𝑚𝑖 𝑔𝐿𝑖 ⇒ 𝑀𝑔𝐿𝐶𝑀 .
𝑖

This means that, in the calculation of torques, one can consider the total gravity force 𝑀𝑔
applied to the center of mass.

We now put the support point at the center of mass of the system, 𝑥0 = 𝑥𝐶𝑀 and thus
𝐿𝐶𝑀 = 0, then the torque of the gravity force with respect to this pivot point will be zero
and the system will be in rotational equilibrium.

Using similar approach, one can prove that the gravity force can be considered as applied to
the CM for any arrangement of masses in 3D. For this, one has to put the support under the
CM of the system, and check that the total gravity torques with respect to 𝑥 and 𝑦 axes are
zero.

42. Calculation of the moment of inertia of a system of point masses (Giancoli,

chapter 8)

1 2

3 4

Solution. This problem has to be prepared for solving, so that one gets a connection to the
general formulas. First, we rewrite the problem in the intelligible way by numbering the
masses as shown in the picture. One obtains

𝑚1 = 𝑚2 = 𝑚 = 1.8 𝑘𝑔, 𝑚3 = 𝑚4 = 𝑀 = 3.1 𝑘𝑔.

After putting the origin of the coordinate system 𝑂 at the intersection of the 𝑥 and 𝑦 axes
the coordinates of the masses become

𝐫1 = (−0.5, 0.25) 𝑚, 𝐫2 = (1, 0.25) 𝑚

𝐫3 = (−0.5, −0.25) 𝑚, 𝐫4 = (1, −0.25) 𝑚.

The moment of inertia with respect to the 𝑥 axis is given by

𝐼𝑥 = ∑ 𝑚𝑖 𝑦𝑖 2 = 𝑚1 𝑦1 2 + 𝑚2 𝑦2 2 + 𝑚3 𝑦3 2 + 𝑚4 𝑦4 2 .
𝑖

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

𝐼𝑥 = 1.8 × 0.252 + 1.8 × 0.252 + 3.1 × (−0.25)2 + 3.1 × (−0.25)2 = 0.6125 𝑘𝑔 𝑚2 .

The moment of inertia with respect to the 𝑦 axis is given by

𝐼𝑦 = ∑ 𝑚𝑖 𝑥𝑖 2 .
𝑖
Substituting the numbers, one obtains

𝐼𝑦 = 1.8 × (−0.5)2 + 1.8 × 12 + 3.1 × (−0.5)2 + 3.1 × 12 = 6.125 𝑘𝑔 𝑚2

that is exactly ten time greater than 𝐼𝑥 . One could investigate what is special about the
numbers in this problem.

Finally, one can calculate the moment of inertia with respect to 𝑧 axis that is perpendicular
to the 𝑥 and 𝑦 axes and goes through their intersection 𝑂. One has

𝐼𝑧 = ∑ 𝑚𝑖 (𝑥𝑖 2 + 𝑦𝑖 2 ) = 𝐼𝑦 + 𝐼𝑥 .
𝑖

Using the values calculated above, one obtains 𝐼𝑧 = 0.6125 + 6.125 = 6.7375 𝑘𝑔 𝑚2.

Note: The relation 𝐼𝑧 = 𝐼𝑥 + 𝐼𝑦 holds for any arrangement of masses within the 𝑥𝑦 plane.

43. Checking the Steiner theorem for a system of two masses.

Consider the moment of inertia of a system of two masses, 𝑚1 and 𝑚2 , with respect to the
axes perpendicular to the line connecting the two masses. Consider the following cases: a)
the axis goes through the CM of the system; b) the axis goes through the mass 𝑚1 ; c) the
axis goes through the mass 𝑚2 . Check if the Steiner theorem holds.

b) a) c)

m1 m2
xCM

Solution. First, one has to find the position of the center of mass 𝑥𝐶𝑀 . Choosing the position
of the mass 𝑚1 as the origin of the 𝑥 axis, one obtains

0𝑚1 + 𝐿𝑚2 𝑚2
𝑥𝐶𝑀 = = 𝐿,
𝑚1 + 𝑚2 𝑚1 + 𝑚2

as well as
𝑚1
𝐿 − 𝑥𝐶𝑀 = 𝐿.
𝑚1 + 𝑚2

Now, the moment of inertia with respect to the CM is given by

2
𝐼𝐶𝑀 = 𝑚1 𝑥𝐶𝑀 + 𝑚2 (𝐿 − 𝑥𝐶𝑀 )2 .
Substituting here the expressions for 𝑥𝐶𝑀 and 𝐿 − 𝑥𝐶𝑀 above, one finds

𝑚2 2 𝑚1 2 𝑚1 𝑚2 2
𝐼𝐶𝑀 = 𝑚1 ( 𝐿) + 𝑚2 ( 𝐿) = 𝐿.
𝑚1 + 𝑚2 𝑚1 + 𝑚2 𝑚1 + 𝑚2

The moment of inertia with respect to the axis going through the mass 𝑚1 is

𝐼1 = 𝑚2 𝐿2 .

The moment of inertia with respect to the axis going through the mass 𝑚2 is

𝐼2 = 𝑚1 𝐿2 .

Let us now obtain 𝐼1 using the Steiner theorem, that is,

2
𝐼1 = 𝐼𝐶𝑀 + (𝑚1 + 𝑚2 )𝑥𝐶𝑀 .

One obtains

𝑚1 𝑚2 2 𝑚2 2
𝐼1 = 𝐿 + (𝑚1 + 𝑚2 ) ( 𝐿)
𝑚1 + 𝑚2 𝑚1 + 𝑚2
2
𝑚1 𝑚2 2 𝑚2
= 𝐿 + 𝐿2 = 𝑚2 𝐿2
𝑚1 + 𝑚2 𝑚1 + 𝑚2

that coincides with the result above obtained directly. The same calculation can be done for
𝐼2 .

44. Two masses on a massive block

A massless cord goes over a massive block of radius 𝑅 and the moment of inertia 𝐼, and the
masses 𝑚1 and 𝑚2 are suspended at the ends of the cord. Find the acceleration of the
masses and the tension of the cord.

+
𝑚1 𝑔 − 𝑇1 = 𝑚1 𝑎
T2
−𝑚2 𝑔 + 𝑇2 = 𝑚2 𝑎
T1 𝜏 = (𝑇1 − 𝑇2 )𝑅 = 𝐼𝛼
+ m2
𝑎 = 𝛼𝑅
m1 m2g

m1g

Solution. A similar problem with a massless block was solved above in the section on
dynamics. Here, the tension forces on the two sides of the block must be different to
provide the torque on the block needed to give it the required angular acceleration. The
latter satisfies the constraint tying it to the linear acceleration of the loads 𝑎:
 𝑎 = 𝛼𝑅.

Again, to write down Newton’s second law for both masses and the block, it is essential to
choose the positive direction of motion that is down for one of the masses and up for the
other, as shown on the sketch. The equations of motion for the masses (Newton’s second
law) and for the block, with explicit signs, are as follows

𝑚1 𝑔 − 𝑇1 = 𝑚1 𝑎
−𝑚2 𝑔 + 𝑇2 = 𝑚2 𝑎
𝜏 = (𝑇1 − 𝑇2 )𝑅 = 𝐼𝛼.

It is convenient to divide the last equation by 𝑅 and express 𝛼 = 𝑎/𝑅. This yields a system
of three linear equations with three unknowns: 𝑇1 , 𝑇2 , and 𝑎:

𝑚1 𝑔 − 𝑇1 = 𝑚1 𝑎
−𝑚2 𝑔 + 𝑇2 = 𝑚2 𝑎
𝐼
𝑇1 − 𝑇2 = 2 𝑎.
𝑅
Adding these equations, one can eliminate the tension forces that yields

𝐼
(𝑚1 − 𝑚2 )𝑔 = (𝑚1 + 𝑚2 + ) 𝑎.
𝑅2

Thus
𝑚1 − 𝑚2
𝑎= 𝑔.
𝐼
𝑚1 + 𝑚2 + 2
𝑅
One can see that the total mass of the system increases because of the massive block that
contributes 𝐼/𝑅 2 as its effective mass. If 𝑚1 > 𝑚2 , the acceleration is positive and the
masses are accelerating in the directions indicated in the sketch. Tension forces can now be
found from the first and second equations of motion. One obtains

𝐼
𝑚1 − 𝑚2 𝑚1 (2𝑚2 +
2)
𝑇1 = 𝑚1 𝑔 − 𝑚1 𝑎 = 𝑚1 𝑔 (1 − )= 𝑅 𝑔
𝐼 𝐼
𝑚1 + 𝑚2 + 2 𝑚1 + 𝑚2 + 2
𝑅 𝑅
and

𝐼
𝑚1 − 𝑚2 𝑚2 (2𝑚1 +
)
𝑇2 = 𝑚2 𝑎 + 𝑚2 𝑔 = 𝑚2 𝑔 ( + 1) = 𝑅 2 𝑔.
𝐼 𝐼
𝑚1 + 𝑚2 + 2 𝑚1 + 𝑚2 + 2
𝑅 𝑅
The difference of the tension forces is

𝐼 𝑚1 − 𝑚2 𝐼
𝑇1 − 𝑇2 = 𝑔 = 2 𝑎.
𝑅 𝑚 +𝑚 + 𝐼
2 𝑅
1 2
𝑅2
This is just the equation of motion for the block listed above. In the limit of the massless
block, 𝐼 = 0, the tension forces become the same, 𝑇1 = 𝑇2 .
 45. Rotational vs translational kinetic energy of a rolling body

A solid cylinder is rolling on a horizontal surface without slipping. Find the ratio of its
rotational to translational kinetic energies.

Solution. The formulas for both parts of the kinetic energy have the form

𝑀𝑣 2 𝐼𝜔2
𝐸𝑡𝑟 = , 𝐸𝑟𝑜𝑡 = .
2 2
The angular and linear velocities are related by

𝑣 = 𝜔𝑅.
𝜔 1
With the help of this (in the form = 𝑅), for the ratio of the energies one obtains
𝑣

𝐸𝑟𝑜𝑡 𝐼𝜔2 𝐼
= 2
= .
𝐸𝑡𝑟 𝑀𝑣 𝑀𝑅 2

For the solid sphere, one has

2
𝐼 = 𝑀𝑅 2 .
5
Thus, in this case,

𝐸𝑟𝑜𝑡 2
= .
𝐸𝑡𝑟 5

46. Rolling down the incline

A solid sphere is put on the incline with the angle 𝜃. Find the acceleration of the center of
mass of the sphere if it is rolling without slipping.

FN
z

Ffr

x
mg 

Solution. The three forces acting on the rolling sphere are shown in the sketch above. With
respect to the center of the sphere, only the friction force has a nonzero torque, and this
force creates the angular acceleration in the direction of rolling. This is why the friction force
is directed back. Because of this, the acceleration of the center of the rolling object is always
smaller than that of a body sliding down the incline without friction, 𝑔 sin 𝜃. The equations
of motion are Newton’s second law for translational motion of the center of mass and for
the rotation around the CM. The former projected on the 𝑥-axis reads

𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃 − 𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝑚𝑎,

the same as for the body sliding with friction. The rotational Newton’s law reads

𝜏 = 𝐹𝑓𝑟 𝑅 = 𝐼𝛼,

where 𝑅 is the radius of the sphere. Finally, there is a constraint equation relating 𝛼 and 𝑎 in
the condition of non-slipping:

𝑎 = 𝛼𝑅.

Thus, we have a system of three equations with three unknowns: 𝐹𝑓𝑟 , 𝑎, and 𝛼, that is well
defined and can be solved. Dividing the rotational equation by 𝑅 and expressing 𝛼 via 𝑎, one
obtains

𝐼
𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝑎.
𝑅2
Substituting this into the first equation and solving for 𝑎, one obtains

𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃 𝑔 sin 𝜃
𝑎= =
𝐼 𝐼
𝑚+ 2 1+
𝑅 𝑚𝑅 2
that is smaller than 𝑎 = 𝑔 sin 𝜃 for the body sliding without friction. The formula above is
good for any rolling body: a wheel, a cylinder, a solid or a hollow sphere. For the solid
sphere one has

2
𝐼 = 𝑚𝑅 2 ,
5
thus, in this case,

𝑔 sin 𝜃 5
𝑎= = 𝑔 sin 𝜃.
2 7
1+
5
47. The minimal friction coefficient for rolling down the incline without
slipping

In the problem above, find the minimal value of the static friction coefficient, for which
rolling without slipping is possible.

Solution. The no-slipping condition requires

𝐹𝑓𝑟 ≤ 𝜇𝑠 𝐹𝑁 .

Substituting

𝐼 𝐼 𝑔 sin 𝜃 𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃
𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝑎 = = , 𝐹𝑁 = 𝑚𝑔 cos 𝜃,
𝑅2 𝑅2 1 + 𝐼 𝑚𝑅 2
𝑚𝑅 2 + 1
𝐼
one obtains the condition

𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃
≤ 𝜇𝑠 𝑚𝑔 cos 𝜃
𝑚𝑅 2
𝐼 +1
from which follows

tan 𝜃
𝜇𝑠 ≥ .
𝑚𝑅 2
+ 1
𝐼
For the solid sphere, this condition becomes

tan 𝜃 2
𝜇𝑠 ≥ = tan 𝜃.
5 7
2+1
48. Rolling cylinder pulled at its center

There is a cylinder of mass 𝑀 that can roll without slipping on a horizontal surface. It is
pulled by its center by a cord going over a massless block and then down to the mass 𝑚
suspended on the cord. Find the linear acceleration of the system, the tension of the cord,
and the friction force acting on the cylinder.

Ffr

mg

Solution. As the block is massless, the tension forces on its sides are the same. With the
obvious choice of the positive direction of motion, Newton’s second law for the suspended
mass has the form

𝑚𝑔 − 𝑇 = 𝑚𝑎.

For the rolling cylinder, there are two equations of motion for its translational and rotational
motion:

𝑇 − 𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝑀𝑎
𝜏 = 𝐹𝑓𝑟 𝑅 = 𝐼𝛼.
Dividing the rotational equation by 𝑅 and expressing the angular acceleration via the linear
acceleration as 𝛼 = 𝑎/𝑅, for the rolling cylinder one obtains

𝑇 − 𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝑀𝑎
𝐼
𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 2 𝑎.
𝑅

Summing the equation for the suspended mass and thsese two equations, one eliminates 𝑇 and 𝐹𝑓𝑟
and obtains

𝐼
𝑚𝑔 = (𝑚 + 𝑀 + ) 𝑎,
𝑅2

where the expression in the brackets is the effective mass of the system. From here one finds the
acceleration of the system:
𝑚
𝑎= 𝑔.
𝐼
𝑚+𝑀+
𝑅2

Now, the friction force can be obtained from the rotational equation:

𝐼
𝐼 𝑚 2
𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 2 𝑎 = 𝑅 𝑔
𝑅 𝐼
𝑚+𝑀+ 2
𝑅

The cord tension force can be found from the equation for the suspended mass:

𝐼
𝑚 ) 𝑚 (𝑀 +
𝑇 = 𝑚𝑔 − 𝑚𝑎 = 𝑚𝑔 (1 − )= 𝑅 2 𝑔.
𝐼 𝐼
𝑚+𝑀+ 2 𝑚+𝑀+ 2
𝑅 𝑅

49. Rolling cylinder pulled at its top

There is a cylinder of mass 𝑀 that can roll without slipping on a horizontal surface. It is
pulled by its top by a cord going over a massless block and then down to the mass 𝑚
suspended on the cord. Find the linear acceleration of the system, the tension of the cord,
and the friction force acting on the cylinder.

Ffr T

mg
Solution. As the block is massless, the tension forces on its sides are the same. With the
obvious choice of the positive direction of motion, Newton’s second law for the suspended
mass has the form

𝑚𝑔 − 𝑇 = 𝑚𝑎.

For the rolling cylinder, there are two equations of motion for its translational and rotational
motion:

𝑇 − 𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝑀𝑎
𝜏 = 𝐹𝑓𝑟 𝑅 + 𝑇𝑅 = 𝐼𝛼.

Dividing the rotational equation by 𝑅 and expressing the angular acceleration via the linear
acceleration as 𝛼 = 𝑎/𝑅, for the rolling cylinder one obtains

𝑇 − 𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝑀𝑎
𝐼
𝐹𝑓𝑟 + 𝑇 = 2 𝑎.
𝑅

Summing the doubled equation for the suspended mass and these two equations, one eliminates 𝑇
and 𝐹𝑓𝑟 and obtains

𝐼
2𝑚𝑔 = (2𝑚 + 𝑀 + ) 𝑎.
𝑅2

From here one finds the acceleration of the system:

2𝑚 𝑚
𝑎= 𝑔= 𝑔.
𝐼 1 𝐼
2𝑚 + 𝑀 + 2 𝑚 + (𝑀 + 2 )
𝑅 2 𝑅

The mass combination in the denominator is the effective mass of the syste. It is smaller than in the
preceding problem because the contribution of the rolling body enters with the factor ½.

The cord tension force can be found from the equation for the suspended mass:

𝐼
2𝑚 2) 𝑚 (𝑀 +
𝑇 = 𝑚𝑔 − 𝑚𝑎 = 𝑚𝑔 (1 − )= 𝑅 𝑔.
𝐼 𝐼
2𝑚 + 𝑀 + 2 2𝑚 + 𝑀 + 2
𝑅 𝑅

The friction force can be obtained by subtracting translational equation for the cylinder from the
rotational equation:

𝐼 𝐼
𝐹𝑓𝑟 + 𝑇 − (𝑇 − 𝐹𝑓𝑟 ) = 2𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝑎 − 𝑀𝑎 = ( − 𝑀) 𝑎.
𝑅2 𝑅2

From this one obtains

𝐼
𝑚 ( 2 − 𝑀)
𝐹𝑓𝑟 = 𝑅 𝑔
𝐼
2𝑚 + 𝑀 + 2
𝑅

For the solid cylinder,

1
𝐼 = 𝑀 𝑅2 ,
2
so that the friction force becomes

𝑚𝑀
2 𝑚𝑀
𝐹𝑓𝑟 = − 𝑔=− 𝑔.
3𝑀 4𝑚 + 3𝑀
2𝑚 +
2

Note that the friction force is negative. This means that it is directed not to the left, as shown in the
sketch, but to the right. This is the case for most round bodies having the factor smaller than 1 in the
moment of inertia. For the hollow cylinder

𝐼 = 𝑀 𝑅2 ,

and the friction force is zero!

50. Angular momentum conservation (Giancoli, chapter 8)

Solution. As there are no external torque acting on the system disk+rod, its algular
momentum is conserved, 𝐿 = 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡, or, in terms of the initial and final states,

𝐿 = 𝐼𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑘 𝜔𝑖 = (𝐼𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑘 + 𝐼𝑟𝑜𝑑 )𝜔𝑓 .

Thus, the final angular velocity 𝜔𝑓 is

𝐼𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑘
𝜔𝑓 = 𝜔.
𝐼𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑘 + 𝐼𝑟𝑜𝑑 𝑖

The moments of inertia of the disk is given by

1
𝐼𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑘 = 𝑀𝑅 2 .
2
The moment of inertia of the rod (with respect to its center) is
 1 1 1
𝐼𝑟𝑜𝑑 = 𝑀𝑙 2 = 𝑀(2𝑅)2 = 𝑀𝑅 2 .
12 12 3
Substituting these expressions, one obtains

1
𝑀𝑅 2 3
𝜔𝑓 = 2 𝜔𝑖 = 𝜔𝑖 .
1 2 1 2 5
2 𝑀𝑅 + 3 𝑀𝑅
Substituting the numbers, one obtains

3 𝑟𝑒𝑣 𝑟𝑒𝑣
𝜔𝑓 = × 2.3 = 1.38 .
5 𝑠 𝑠
Physics part II
Electrostatics
51. Electric field from a collection of charges

Electric charges Q1 = Q, Q2 = 2Q, and Q3 = 3Q are placed at r1 = (1,0,0)a, r2 = (0,1,0)a, and r3 =

(0,0,1)a. Find the electric field E at r = (1,1,1)a.

Solution. This problem deals the electric field in the general vector form in 3D with vectors
given by their components, such as A = (Ax,Ay,Az). In the notations above a is a length in
meters. The basic formula for the electric field of a point charge Q following from the
Coulomb’s law reads

𝑄r
E=𝑘 .
𝑟2 𝑟
Here the first part gives the magnitude of the electric-field vector E while the unit vector r/r
gives its direction. (Check that it is indeed a unit vector by calculating its magnitude that
should be 1). This formula implies that the charge Q is in the origin of a coordinate system
and the position of the observation point is given by the vector r that goes from the origin to
the observation point. However, if there are several charges, one cannot put them all in the
origin. A more general formula for the electric field E1 created by the charge Q1 that is not
necessarily in the origin reads

𝑄1 r − r1
𝑬1 = 𝑘 .
|r − r1 |2 |r − r1|

Here the vector r − r1 goes from the charge Q1 located at r1 to the observation point r. This
formula can be generalized for several charges put at different positions:

𝑄𝑖 r − r𝑖 r − r𝑖
𝐄 = ∑𝑘 2
= 𝑘 ∑ 𝑄𝑖 .
|r − r𝑖 | |r − r𝑖 | |r − r𝑖 |3
𝑖 𝑖

This formula can be used as a starting point for solving our problem. It is convenient to pre-
calculate

r − r1 = (1,1,1)𝑎 − (1,0,0)𝑎 = (0,1,1)𝑎

r − r2 = (1,1,1)𝑎 − (0,1,0)𝑎 = (1,0,1)𝑎
r − r3 = (1,1,1)𝑎 − (0,0,1)𝑎 = (1,1,0)𝑎

and

|r − r1 | = √02 + 12 + 12 𝑎 = √2𝑎
|r − r2 | = √2𝑎
|r − r3 | = √2𝑎.

Now

𝑄 (0,1,1) 2𝑄 (1,0,1) 3𝑄 (1,1,0)

𝐄 = 𝑘[ 3 + 2 3 + 2 3 ]
𝑎2 𝑎 𝑎
2 2 2 2 22
 𝑄 (0,1,1) + 2(1,0,1) + 3(1,1,0)
=𝑘 3
𝑎2
22
𝑄 (0 + 2 + 3,1 + 0 + 3,1 + 2 + 0)
=𝑘 2 3
𝑎
22
𝑄 (5,4,3)
= 𝑘 2 3 .
𝑎
22
Understanding this problem gives a student a tool to find the electric field from a collection
of point charges in the most general form.

52. Forces on charges Q put in corners of a rectangle with sides a and b

Charges Q are put in the corners of a rectangle with sides a and b. Find the magnitude of the
force acting on each charge.

Solution. Here we use the Coulomb’s law for the interaction of two point charges Q1 and Q2
at positions r1 and r2

𝑄1 𝑄2 𝐫1 − r2
F12 = 𝑘 .
|𝐫1 − r2 |2 |𝐫1 − r2 |

This is the force acting on charge 1 from charge 2. The force is directed along the line
connecting the two charges. Vector 𝐫1 − r2 goes from charge 2 to charge 1. It is repulsive if
the charges have the same sign and attractive if the charges have different signs.

In the problem, position vectors are not explicitly given but we know that the lines
connecting the charges are sides and diagonals of the rectangle. Thus, we do not need the
full form of the formula above.

2 a 3

b y

F14 1 
4 x
F13

F12

We have to introduce the axes x and y and project all forces on these axes to and add the
forces component by component. The magnitudes of the forces acting on each of the
charges are the same, only their directions are different. We will consider the force acting
on the charge 1,

F1 = 𝐅12 + 𝐅13 + 𝐅14 .

The force from charge 2 has only y component, while the force from charge 4 has only x-
component. The force from charge 3 has both x- and y-components and is defined by the
distance √𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 , as well as by

𝑎 𝑏
cos 𝜃 = , sin 𝜃 = .
√𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 √𝑎2 + 𝑏 2

One obtains

𝑄2 𝑄2 𝑄2 𝑄2𝑎
𝐹1,𝑥 = −𝑘 2 − 𝑘 2 cos 𝜃 = −𝑘 2 − 𝑘 3
𝑎 𝑎 + 𝑏2 𝑎
(𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 )2
𝑄2 𝑄2 𝑄2 𝑄2𝑏
𝐹1,𝑦 = −𝑘 2 − 𝑘 2 sin 𝜃 = −𝑘 − 𝑘 3.
𝑏 𝑎 + 𝑏2 𝑏2 2 2
(𝑎 + 𝑏 )2

Now the magnitude of the force is given by

2 2
2 2 1 𝑎 1 𝑏
𝐹1 = √𝐹1,𝑥 + 𝐹1,𝑦 = 𝑘𝑄 2 √( 2 + 3 ) + ( + 3) .
𝑎 𝑏2
(𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 ) 2 (𝑎2 + 𝑏 2 )2

Forces acting on other charges have the same magnitude, so that one can discard the
subscript 1. In the case b=a the result simplifies to

𝑄2 1 2 𝑄2 1
𝐹=𝑘 √2 (1 + ) = 𝑘 (√2 + ).
𝑎2 23/2 𝑎2 2

This result can be obtained directly for the problem with the square instead of the rectangle
that is much simpler (the next problem).

53. Forces on charges Q put in corners of a square

This problem is a particular case of the more general preceding problem. In the case of the
square with all charges the same, there is a symmetry that allows one to obtain the solution
without invoking the full vector formalism.

a
2 3

a
F14 1
4
F13
F12

Solution. By the symmetry it is clear that the force on charge 1 is directed along the diagonal
shown in the drawing. Thus, one has to project all three forces on this direction that yields

𝑄2 𝑄2
𝐹 = 2𝑘 2 cos 45° + 𝑘 .
𝑎 (√2𝑎)2
Here the factor 2 accounts for the two contributions from charges 2 and 4. The second term
accounts for charge 3. With cos 45° = √2/2 one obtains

𝑄2 1
𝐹=𝑘 2
(√2 + ).
𝑎 2

This result has been obtained as a particular case of the preceding problem and it can be
used for testing the validity of the latter.

54. Forces on different charges at an equilateral triangle

Charges Q, Q, and 2Q are put at the corners of an equilateral triangle with side a. Find the
magnitudes of the forces acting on each charge.

Q 2

y a

x
2Q F31
F13 Q
1 3
F12
F1 F3
F32

Solution. Here the system has symmetry with respect to the triangle’s bisectrix shown in the
drawing. By the symmetry, the force on charge 2Q,

F3 = F31 + F32 ,

is directed along the bisectrix. The magnitude of this force is given by

𝑄 × 2𝑄 𝑄2
𝐹3 = 𝑘 2 cos 30° = 𝑘 2 2√3.
𝑎2 𝑎
To the contrary, there is no symmetry that could help to simplify the forces acting on
charges Q. Thus, one has to add the vectors in

F1 = F12 + F13 ,

component by component using x- and y-axes shown in the drawing. One obtains

𝑄2 2𝑄 2 𝑄2 1 𝑄2 5
𝐹1,𝑥 = 𝐹12,𝑥 + 𝐹13,𝑥 = −𝑘 cos 60° − 𝑘 = −𝑘 ( + 2) = −𝑘
𝑎2 𝑎2 𝑎2 2 𝑎2 2

and

𝑄2 𝑄 2 √3
𝐹1,𝑦 = 𝐹12,𝑦 + 𝐹13,𝑦 = −𝑘 2 sin 60° + 0 = −𝑘 2 .
𝑎 𝑎 2
Now the magnitude of F2 is given by

2
2 2 𝑄2 5 2 √3 𝑄2 1 𝑄 2 √28 𝑄2
𝐹1 = √𝐹1,𝑥 + 𝐹1,𝑦 = 𝑘 2 √( ) + ( ) = 𝑘 2 √25 + 3 = 𝑘 2 = 𝑘 2 √7.
𝑎 2 2 𝑎 2 𝑎 2 𝑎

The force acting on the other charge Q has the same magnitude: F2 = F1.

55. Electric field at the center line between two equal charges

Find the electric field E(z) along the straight line going between two equal charges Q put at
the distance a from each other. Analyze particular cases.
Q

a/2


0 z  E
0
a/2
O r

Solution. Put the origin of the coordinate system O in the point between the two charges
and direct z-axis in the right horizontal direction. From the symmetry it follows that the
electric field on the center line is directed horizontally. It is given by

𝑄
𝐸 = 2𝑘 cos 𝜃,
𝑟2
where the factor 2 takes care for the two contributions into the result from the upper and
lower charges. Using

𝑎 2 𝑧
𝑟 = √𝑧 2 + ( ) , cos 𝜃 = ,
2 𝑟

one finally obtains

2𝑄𝑧
𝐸=𝑘 3/2
.
𝑎 2
(𝑧 2 + (2 ) )

One particular case is the point between the charges, z=0. Here the electric field from the
two charges cancel each other and E=0. The formula above reproduces this result that
serves as its check.

Another particular case is the region far away from the charges, z>>a. Here one can neglect
the term (a/2)2 in the denominator of the formula after which the result becomes

2𝑄
𝐸=𝑘 .
𝑧2
This is is nothing else than the electric field of the charge 2Q at the distance z. This is an
expected result as from large distances the two charges close to each other are looking as
one double charge. This is another check on our general formula.

The plot of the dependence E(z) is shown below. There is a maximum of E at the distance z
of order a.

0 z

56. Electric field at the center line between two opposite charges

Find the electric field E(z) along the straight line going between two opposite charges Q and
–Q put at the distance a from each other. Analyze particular cases.

-Q

E
a/2


0 z 
0
a/2
O r

QQ

Solution. As the upper charge is negative, its electric field at the observation point is
directed toward it, as shown in the drawing. The resulting electric field E is thus directed up.
It is given by

𝑄
𝐸 = 2𝑘 sin 𝜃.
𝑟2
Using

𝑎 2 𝑎/2
𝑟 = √𝑧 2 + ( ) , sin 𝜃 = ,
2 𝑟

one finally obtains

𝑄𝑎
𝐸=𝑘 3/2
.
𝑎 2
(𝑧 2 + (2 ) )
One particular case of this formula is z=0, the observation point between the charges. In this
case one obtains

8𝑄
𝐸=𝑘
𝑎2
that is the doubled electric field at the distance a/2 from the charge Q.

At large distances , z>>a, one can neglect the term (a/2)2 in the denominator of the formula
after which the result becomes

𝑄𝑎
𝐸=𝑘 .
𝑧3
As the power in the denominator is three rather than two, one concludes that the electric
field produced by two opposite charges decreases faster at large distances than the field
produces by one charge. Indeed, looking from large distances, one cannot see the system of
two opposite charges as one effective charge (as in the preceding problem) because the
sum of the two charges is zero. Such a system is called “electric dipole”.

57. Electric potentials in the center of the equilateral triangle of charges and in
the middle of a side.

Consider an equilateral triangle with side a having point charges Q at its corners. Compare
electric potentials in the center of the triangle and in the middle of its side. What is your
expectation? Which potential is higher?
Q

h
a

Vc
l

Q  Vm Q
a/2

Solution. Let us denote the electric potential in the center of the triangle Vc and the electric
potential in the middle of the side Vm. At the center one has

𝑄
𝑉𝑐 = 3𝑘 ,
𝑙
while in the middle of the side
 𝑄 𝑄
𝑉𝑚 = 2𝑘 +𝑘 .
𝑎/2 ℎ

With

√3 𝑎/2 𝑎
ℎ = 𝑎 cos 30° = 𝑎 , 𝑙= =
2 cos 30° √3

one finally obtains

𝑄 𝑄
𝑉𝑐 = 𝑘 3√3 ≈ 𝑘 × 5.196
𝑎 𝑎
and

𝑄 2 𝑄
𝑉𝑚 = 𝑘 (4 + ) ≈ 𝑘 × 5.155 < 𝑉𝑐 .
𝑎 √3 𝑎

These two values are so close to each other that no intuition in the world can figure out
what potential is higher without the actual calculating the potentials.

58. Electric potentials in the center of a square of charges and in the middle of
a square’s side.

Consider a square with side a having point charges Q at its corners. Compare electric
potentials in the center of the square and in the middle of its side. What is your
expectation? Which potential is higher?

2 a 3

Vc a
l

1 4
Vm

Solution. Let us denote the electric potential in the center of the triangle Vc and the electric
potential in the middle of the side Vm. At the center one has

𝑄 𝑄 𝑄
𝑉𝑐 = 4𝑘 =𝑘 4√2 = 𝑘 × 5.657
𝑎/√2 𝑎 𝑎

In the middle of a site there are two different contributions:

𝑄 𝑄
𝑉𝑚 = 2𝑘 + 2𝑘 .
𝑎/2 𝑙
The distance 𝑙 can be obtained from the Pythagoras’ theorem:

𝑎 2 √5
𝑙 = √𝑎 2 + ( ) = 𝑎 .
2 2

Finally,

𝑄 1 𝑄
𝑉𝑚 = 𝑘 4 (1 + ) = 𝑘 × 5.789 > 𝑉𝑐.
𝑎 √5 𝑎
Electric circuits
59. The Wheatstone bridge

Not all circuits can be calculated using the formulas for the serial and parallel connection of
resistors. The simplest example is the so-called Wheatstone bridge. The task is to calculate
the effective resistance of the bridge as 𝑅 = 𝑉/𝐼. For this, one has to write down the
Kirchhoff’s equations and solve them (using computer algebra) for 𝐼 for a given 𝑉. In the
limits 𝑅5 = 0 and 𝑅5 → ∞ the problem simplifies, and these solutions can be used to check
the general formula for 𝑅.

Solution. The Kirchhoff equations for the currents are

𝐼 = 𝐼1 + 𝐼3 , 𝐼1 = 𝐼2 + 𝐼5 , 𝐼3 + 𝐼5 = 𝐼4

and Kirchhoff equations for the voltages, combined with the Ohm’s law, have the form

𝑅1 𝐼1 + 𝑅2 𝐼2 = 𝑉, 𝑅3 𝐼3 + 𝑅4 𝐼4 = 𝑉, 𝑅1 𝐼1 + 𝑅5 𝐼5 + 𝑅4 𝐼4 = 𝑉.

One can add more equations but they are not independent and follow from the equations
written above. There are six unknowns, all currents, and six equations, so that the system of
these linear equations is well defined and can be solved. It is difficult to do by hand but one
can use computer algebra. Surprisingly, one obtains a formula compact enough:

𝑉 (𝑅1 + 𝑅2 )(𝑅3 + 𝑅4 )𝑅5 + (𝑅1 + 𝑅3 )𝑅2 𝑅4 + (𝑅2 + 𝑅4 )𝑅1 𝑅3

𝑅= = .
𝐼 (𝑅1 + 𝑅2 + 𝑅3 + 𝑅4 )𝑅5 + (𝑅1 + 𝑅3 )(𝑅2 + 𝑅4 )
For 𝑅5 = 0, one can set this in the formula above and obtain

𝑅1 𝑅3 𝑅2 𝑅4
𝑅= + .
𝑅1 + 𝑅3 𝑅2 + 𝑅4
For 𝑅5 → ∞, one can neglect in the general formula the terms in the numerator and the
denominator that do not contain 𝑅5 . After this 𝑅5 cancels and one obtains
 (𝑅1 + 𝑅2 )(𝑅3 + 𝑅4 )
𝑅= .
𝑅1 + 𝑅2 + 𝑅3 + 𝑅4

These two limits can be considered independently. For 𝑅5 = 0, the upper and the lower
corners of the circuit are short-circuited, thus one has the parallel connection of resistors 𝑅1
and 𝑅3 and the parallel connection of resistors 𝑅2 and 𝑅4 . These two groups of resistors are
connected serially. Thus

1 1 𝑅1 𝑅3 𝑅2 𝑅4
𝑅= + = + .
1 1 1 1 𝑅1 + 𝑅3 𝑅2 + 𝑅4
𝑅1 + 𝑅3 𝑅2 + 𝑅4

For 𝑅5 → ∞, there is simply no resistor 𝑅5 in the circuit. Then we have resistors 𝑅1 and 𝑅2
connected serially, same for 𝑅3 and 𝑅4 , and these two groups are connected in parallel.
Thus one obtains

1 (𝑅1 + 𝑅2 )(𝑅3 + 𝑅4 )
𝑅= = .
1 1 𝑅1 + 𝑅2 + 𝑅3 + 𝑅4
+
𝑅1 + 𝑅2 𝑅3 + 𝑅4

One more feature of the Bridge is the following. If 𝑅1 = 𝑅3 and 𝑅2 = 𝑅4 , the circuit is
symmetric with respect to the horizontal central line. Thus, in this case, the current through
𝑅5 does not flow and one can remove 𝑅5 (make a break or short-circuiting at its place). One
obtains

𝑅1 + 𝑅2
𝑅=
2
that also follows from all the formulas above as a particular case.

More complicated electric circuits can be treated similarly. Typically, the system of linear
equations has to be solved numerically as the analytical solution becomes too cumbersome.
 60. Problem 83, end of Chapter 19 of the Giancoli book, 6th edition

Solution. Without redrawing the circuit with general notations for resistors, one can write
down the equations as follows. For both switches open one has

(𝑅50 + 𝑅20 + 𝑅10 )𝐼 = ℰ, 𝐼20 = 𝐼.

For both switches closed for the total current 𝐼 one has

1
(𝑅50 + ) 𝐼 = ℰ.
1 1
𝑅20 + 𝑅

The voltage 𝑉𝑅 on the group of parallel resistors 𝑅20 and 𝑅 is

1 1 ℰ ℰ
𝑉𝑅 = 𝐼= × = .
1 1 1 1 1 1 1
𝑅20 + 𝑅 𝑅20 + 𝑅 𝑅50 + 1 1 𝑅50 (𝑅 + 𝑅 ) + 1
20
𝑅20 + 𝑅

The current 𝐼20 is given by

𝑉𝑅 ℰ 1
𝐼20 = = .
𝑅20 𝑅 ( 1 + 1 ) + 1 𝑅20
50 𝑅 𝑅
20

Equating it with 𝐼20 found from the first equation, one obtains

ℇ ℰ 1
= .
𝑅50 + 𝑅20 + 𝑅10 𝑅 ( 1 + 1 ) + 1 𝑅20
50 𝑅 𝑅
20

This is the equation for 𝑅. Canceling ℇ and simplifying the fractions, one obtains
 1 1
(𝑅50 ( + ) + 1) 𝑅20 = 𝑅50 + 𝑅20 + 𝑅10
𝑅20 𝑅

and further

1 1
𝑅20 𝑅50 ( + ) = 𝑅50 + 𝑅10
𝑅20 𝑅

and

1 1 𝑅50 + 𝑅10 1 𝑅50 + 𝑅10 −𝑅50 + 𝑅50 + 𝑅10 𝑅10

=− + = (−1 + )= = .
𝑅 𝑅20 𝑅20 𝑅50 𝑅20 𝑅50 𝑅20 𝑅50 𝑅20 𝑅50

Finally,

𝑅20 𝑅50 20 × 50
𝑅= = = 100 Ω.
𝑅10 10

61. A circuit with two batteries and three resistors

Find the currents and voltages for each of three resistors in the following circuit

E1 E2

R1 R3 R2
I3

I1 I2

Solution. Choose the positive directions of the currents according to the directions of the
EMF’s of the batteries. According to the first Kirchhoff’s law,

𝐼3 = 𝐼1 + 𝐼2

(charges are not accumulating in the nodes). The second Kirchhoff’s law states that for each
closed loop in the circuit the sum of voltages is zero that reflects the fact that electric
potential is defined unambiguously (and the work of the electric field over each closed
trajectory is zero):

∑ 𝑉𝑖 = 0.
𝑖

To the Kirchhoff’s laws, one has to add the Ohm’s law

𝑉𝑖 = 𝑅𝑖 𝐼𝑖
for each resistor. On the top of it, there can be EMF’s acting within resistors (batteries have
their own internal resistance and thus can be considered as resistors) and pushing the
current through them. With the EMF’s, the Ohms law becomes

𝑉𝑖 + E𝑖 = 𝑅𝑖 𝐼𝑖 .

Substituting 𝑉𝑖 = 𝑅𝑖 𝐼𝑖 − E𝑖 into the second Kirchhoff’s law, one obtains

∑ 𝑅𝑖 𝐼𝑖 = ∑ E𝑖 .
𝑖 𝑖

In the circuit above, we neglect the internal resistances of the batteries. The Kirchhoff-
Ohm’s law above for the left and right loops becomes

𝑅1 𝐼1 + 𝑅3 (𝐼1 + 𝐼2 ) = E1
𝑅2 𝐼2 + 𝑅3 (𝐼1 + 𝐼2 ) = E2 .

This is a system of two linear equations with two unknowns that has a solution. To solve this
system of equations in a most elegant way, one can first rewrite it in the form collecting
terms with I1 and I2

(𝑅1 +𝑅3 )𝐼1 + 𝑅3 𝐼2 = E1

𝑅3 𝐼1 + (𝑅2 +𝑅3 )𝐼2 = E2 .

Then one can eliminate, say, I2 by multiplying the first equation by R2+R3, the second
equation by R3 and then subtracting the second equation from the first one. This yields

(𝑅1 + 𝑅3 )(𝑅2 + 𝑅3 )𝐼1 − 𝑅32 𝐼1 = (𝑅2 + 𝑅3 )E1 − 𝑅3 E2 .

From here one finds

(𝑅2 + 𝑅3 )E1 − 𝑅3 E2
𝐼1 = .
𝑅1 𝑅2 + (𝑅1 +𝑅2 )𝑅3

Since this circuit is symmetric, one can obtain the formula for I2 without calculations just by
replacing 1 → 2, 2 → 1. This yields

(𝑅1 + 𝑅3 )E2 − 𝑅3 E1
𝐼2 = .
𝑅1 𝑅2 + (𝑅1 +𝑅2 )𝑅3

Now

𝑅2 E1 + 𝑅1 E2
𝐼3 = 𝐼1 + 𝐼2 = .
𝑅1 𝑅2 + (𝑅1 +𝑅2 )𝑅3

Voltages on the three resistors can be now found from Ohm’s law. One can see that the
currents can flow both in positive and negative directions. For instance, if E1=E2, then both
currents are positive. If E1 is sufficiently stronger than E2 (work out the exact condition!),
then I1>0 but I2<0. If E2 is sufficiently stronger than E1, then I2>0 but I1<0.

In the particular case R3=0 (short circuiting) there are two independent circuits for which
one obtains
 E1 E2
𝐼1 = , 𝐼2 =
𝑅1 𝑅2

that follows from the formulas above if one sets R3=0. This provides a check for the formulas
obtained.

If one removes R3, there is only one loop for which one obtains

E1 − E2
𝐼1 ≡ 𝐼 = .
𝑅1 + 𝑅2

This result follows from the limit 𝑅3 → ∞ as follows

(𝑅2 /𝑅3 + 1)E1 − E2 E1 − E2

𝐼1 = → .
𝑅1 𝑅2 /𝑅3 + 𝑅1 +𝑅2 𝑅1 + 𝑅2

(one discards the terms containing R3 in the denominator). This is another check of our main
result.

62. Problem 79, end of Chapter 19 of the Giancoli book, 6th edition

Solution. To use algebra, first we introduce the notations for the resistors and currents,
making another sketch of the circuit, trying to choose the notations as symmetric as
possible
 R1 R2
a b
I1 I2

E1 R3 R4 E2
I3 I4

I5 E5

First, one can eliminate 𝐼3 and 𝐼4 from the 1-st Kirchhoff’s law:

𝐼3 = 𝐼1 + 𝐼5 , 𝐼4 = 𝐼2 − 𝐼5 .

Then, one can write the 2-nd Kirchhoff’s law combined with the generalized Ohm’s law for
the three loops: ℰ1 𝑅1 𝑅3 , ℰ2 𝑅2 𝑅4 , and ℰ1 ℰ2 ℰ5 𝑅2 𝑅1(counterclockwise). One obtains

𝑅1 𝐼1 + 𝑅3 (𝐼1 + 𝐼5 ) = ℰ1
𝑅2 𝐼2 + 𝑅4 (𝐼2 − 𝐼5 ) = ℰ2
−𝑅1 𝐼1 + 𝑅2 𝐼2 = −ℰ1 + ℰ2 + ℰ5 .

In the third equation, there is a minus sign in front of 𝑅1 𝐼1 and ℰ1 because we are moving
counterclockwise in the direction opposite to the chosen positive direction of 𝐼1 and against
the EMF of the first battery. There are three equations for three unknowns, the currents 𝐼1 ,
𝐼2 , and 𝐼5 . Thee equations are close to symmetric, except for the minuses. The first step in
solving this system of equations is to group the terms with the same currents in the first two
equations:

(𝑅1 + 𝑅3 )𝐼1 + 𝑅3 𝐼5 = ℰ1
(𝑅2 + 𝑅4 )𝐼2 − 𝑅4 𝐼5 = ℰ2
−𝑅1 𝐼1 + 𝑅2 𝐼2 = −ℰ1 + ℰ2 + ℰ5 . (1)

Now, one can eliminate 𝐼1 and 𝐼2 from the first two equations,

ℰ1 − 𝑅3 𝐼5 ℰ2 + 𝑅4 𝐼5
𝐼1 = , 𝐼2 = , (2)
𝑅1 + 𝑅3 𝑅2 + 𝑅4

and substitute these expression into the third equation:

ℰ1 − 𝑅3 𝐼5 ℰ2 + 𝑅4 𝐼5
−𝑅1 + 𝑅2 = −ℰ1 + ℰ2 + ℰ5 .
𝑅1 + 𝑅3 𝑅2 + 𝑅4

Regrouping the terms, one obtains

𝑅1 𝑅3 𝑅2 𝑅4 𝑅1 𝑅2
𝐼5 + 𝐼5 = ℰ1 − ℰ − ℰ1 + ℰ2 + ℰ5 .
𝑅1 + 𝑅3 𝑅2 + 𝑅4 𝑅1 + 𝑅3 𝑅2 + 𝑅4 2

On the right side, one can add the similar terms that yields
 𝑅1 𝑅3 𝑅2 𝑅4 𝑅3 𝑅4
( + ) 𝐼5 = − ℰ1 + ℰ + ℰ5 .
𝑅1 + 𝑅3 𝑅2 + 𝑅4 𝑅1 + 𝑅3 𝑅2 + 𝑅4 2

Finally,

𝑅 𝑅
− 𝑅 +3 𝑅 ℰ1 + 𝑅 +4 𝑅 ℰ2 + ℰ5
1 3 2 4
𝐼5 = .
𝑅1 𝑅3 𝑅2 𝑅4
𝑅1 + 𝑅3 + 𝑅2 + 𝑅4

The currents 𝐼1 and 𝐼2 can be found by substituting this expression into the formulas for 𝐼1
and 𝐼2 above in Eq. (2). However, the formulas for 𝐼1 and 𝐼2 become too cumbersome and it
does not make sense to write them down. At this point, the numbers can be plugged into
the formulas. One obtains
12 20
− 10 + 12 14 + 18 + 12 47 −3
𝐼5 = 15 + 20 10−3 = 10 𝐴 ≈ 1.0444 × 10−3 𝐴.
10 × 12 15 × 20 45
10 + 12 + 15 + 20
47
14 − 12
𝐼1 = 45 10−3 = 1 10−3 𝐴 ≈ 0.0666 × 10−3 𝐴 = 0.667 × 10−4 𝐴
10 + 12 15
47
18 + 20
𝐼2 = 45 10−3 = 10 10−3 𝐴 ≈ 1.1111 × 10−3 𝐴.
15 + 20 9

The factor 10−3 arises because the resistances are in K. One can see that all the current
are positive, thus they all flow in the directions shown in the sketch, although 𝐼1 is
anomalously small. The latter is the current through the 14 V battery. Finally, the voltage
between the points a and b in the sketch is

𝑉𝑎 − 𝑉𝑏 = 𝑅1 𝐼1 − 𝑅2 𝐼2 .

Here the minus sign arises because we move from a to b across the resistor 𝑅2 in the
direction opposite to the chosen positive direction of the current 𝐼2 . As 𝐼1 is anomalously
small, the voltage is dominated by the second term and is negative, that is, 𝑉𝑎 is lower than
𝑉𝑏 . Numerically,

1 10
𝑉𝑎 − 𝑉𝑏 = 10 − 15 = −16 𝑉.
15 9
The solution in the Giancoli book is purely numerical: one plugs numbers already into Eq.
(1).
Magnetic field created by electric currents
63. Triangle of wires with the same direction of currents

I 2

F32
F3
I
I
1 F31 3

Find the forces acting on the long parallel wires forming an equilateral triangle with a side a
in the cross-section. All currents flow in the same direction.

Solution. The solution of such problems resembles the solution of the problems with
charges in electrostatics. The difference is that the currents flowing in the same direction
attract and the currents flowing in different directions repel each other. As in the case of the
Coulomb interaction, the forces between the wires are directed along the lines connecting
them. Thus, the problem is to add up force vectors acting on each wire, as shown in the
figure. In this case, because of the symmetry, the direction of the total forces is obvious, so
that one has to project the forces acting from the individual wires on the direction of the
total force. One obtains, for each wire,

𝜇0 𝐼 2 𝜇0 𝐼 2
𝐹= 𝑙 × 2 cos 30° = 𝑙√3,
2𝜋 𝑎 2𝜋 𝑎
where 𝑙 is the length of the wire.

64. Triangle of wires with different directions of currents

I 2
F2

a Symmetry axis

F3
F32

F1
I
. 1 3 I
F31
Find the forces acting on the long parallel wires forming an equilateral triangle with a side a
in the cross-section. Two currents flow in one direction and one current is flowing in the
other direction.

Solution. Here the currents in wires 2 and 3 flows in one direction, while the current in wire
1 flows in the other direction. Again, there is symmetry in the problem, so that the
directions of all forces are obvious. The magnitude of 𝐅2 and 𝐅3 are the same:

𝜇0 𝐼 2 𝜇0 𝐼 2
𝐹2 = 𝐹3 = 𝑙 × 2 cos 60° = 𝑙.
2𝜋 𝑎 2𝜋 𝑎
The magnitude of 𝐅1 is the same as in the preceding problem, only its direction is inverted:

𝜇0 𝐼 2 𝜇0 𝐼 2
𝐹= 𝑙 × 2 cos 30° = 𝑙√3.
2𝜋 𝑎 2𝜋 𝑎
65. Magnetic field in the center of the triangle of wires

I 2

B
B1 B3
a
B2
b
I
.
1 3
I

Here we find the magnetic field in the center of the equilateral triangle of wires in the case
when two currents are flowing in one direction and the third current is flowing in the other
direction, as in the preceding problem.

Solution. The total magnetic field is the sum of all three contributions created by each wire:

𝐁 = 𝐁1 + 𝐁2 + 𝐁3 .

The magnetic field from wires 2 and 3 is rotating clockwise around the respective wires,
whereas the magnetic field from wire 1 rotates counterclockwise. Each magnetic field is
perpendicular to the line connecting the wire and the observation point. The directions of
the magnetic fields shown in the sketch makes the angles 30° with the bisectrices. The
direction of the total magnetic field coincides with that of 𝐁1, thus we project 𝐁2 and 𝐁3
onto this direction. The result is

𝜇0 𝐼 𝜇0 𝐼 1 𝜇0 𝐼
𝐵= (1 + 2 cos 60°) = (1 + 2 ) = × 2,
2𝜋 𝑏 2𝜋 𝑏 2 2𝜋 𝑏

where 𝑏 is the distance between the corner of the triangle and its center. It can be obtained
as
 𝑎/2 𝑎/2 𝑎
𝑏= = = .
cos 30° √3/2 √3

Substituting this into the formula for B, one finally obtains

𝜇0 𝐼
𝐵= 2√3.
2𝜋 𝑎
If the current in wire 1 flow in the same direction as the other two, then 𝐁1 is inverted and
the three vectors pointing in different directions cancel each other, 𝐁 = 0.

66. Magnetic field in the middles of the sides of the triangle of wires

I 2
B

B B1 B3
B1 B B3
2
a
B2

I
.1
h
3
I

Here we find the magnetic field in the middles the sides of the equilateral triangle of wires
in the case when two currents are flowing in one direction and the third current is flowing in
the other direction, as in the preceding problem.

Solution: In general,

𝐁 = 𝐁1 + 𝐁2 + 𝐁3 .

In the middle of the 23 side, 𝐁2 and 𝐁3 are opposite and cancel each other, so that only 𝐁1
remains, 𝐁 = 𝐁1 . Thus, one has

𝜇0 𝐼
𝐵= ,
2𝜋 ℎ
where h is the height of the triangle,

𝑎√3
ℎ = 𝑎 cos 30° = .
2
Substituting this into the formula for B, one finally obtains

𝜇0 𝐼 2
𝐵 = 𝐵1 =
2𝜋 𝑎 √3

for the middle of the 23 side. The situation in the middle of the sides 12 and 13 is similar by
symmetry. For instance, for the 12 side, 𝐁1 and 𝐁2 are the same, while 𝐁3 is perpendicular
to them. One has
 𝜇0 𝐼 𝜇0 𝐼 2
𝐵1 = 𝐵2 = , 𝐵3 = .
2𝜋 𝑎/2 2𝜋 𝑎 √3

The magnitude of the total field is given by

𝜇0 𝐼 2 2 𝜇0 𝐼 12 + 1 𝜇0 𝐼 13
𝐵= √ 2
4 +( ) = × 2√ = × 2√
2𝜋 𝑎 √3 2𝜋 𝑎 3 2𝜋 𝑎 3

67. Magnetic field at the center line between two long wires with the currents
in the same direction

Two long straight wires are going parallel to each other at the distance a from each other.
The wires carry the currents I that go in the same direction. Find the magnetic field created
by this system at the center line between the wires (the vertical line on the drawing).

B2


B
r  r
z B1
1  2
a/2 O a/2

Solution. We set the origin of the coordinate system in the point O in the middle between
the wires and the z-axis going up along the center line. Let the currents be directed inside
the paper sheet, then, according to the screw rule, the magnetic field created by each wire
is directed clockwise. The currents 1 and 2 create magnetic fields B1 and B2 directed as
shown in the drawing. By symmetry, the resulting magnetic field B = B1 + B2 is directed
horizontally to the right. Using the basic formula for the magnetic field created by the long
wire

𝜇0 𝐼
𝐵= ,
2𝜋 𝑟
and projecting the vectors B1 and B2 on the horizontal direction x, one obtains

𝜇0 𝐼
𝐵 = 𝐵1,𝑥 + 𝐵2,𝑥 = × 2 sin 𝜃.
2𝜋 𝑟
With
𝑧
𝑟 = √𝑧 2 + (𝑎/2)2 , sin 𝜃 =
𝑟
one finally obtains

𝜇0 𝐼 2𝑧
𝐵= .
2𝜋 𝑧 + (𝑎/2)2
2

Here, it does not make sense to cancel 2 in the numerator and denominator.

Let us analyze particular and limiting cases. First, our formula yields B=0 for z=0 (at the point
O). This is an expected result, as in this case fields B1 and B2 are opposite and cancel each
other.

At large distances, z>>a, one can neglect (𝑎/2)2 in the denominator that yields

𝜇0 2𝐼
𝐵= .
2𝜋 𝑧
This is the field produced by one wire with the current 2I. Indeed, from large distances these
two wires are seen as one wire with the double current. This limiting case serves as one of
the checks of the general formula.

68. Magnetic field at the center line between two long wires with the currents
in the opposite directions

Two long straight wires are going parallel to each other at the distance a from each other.
The wires carry the currents I that go in the opposite directions. Find the magnetic field
created by this system at the center line between the wires (the vertical line on the
drawing).

r r


1

a/2
B2
z
B O
B1

a/2
. 2

Solution. We set the origin of the coordinate system in the point O in the middle between
the wires and the z-axis going up along the center line. Let current 1 be directed inside the
paper sheet and current 2 be directed outside the paper sheet, then, according to the screw
rule, the magnetic fields created by each wire are directed clockwise and counterclockwise,
respectively. The currents 1 and 2 create magnetic fields B1 and B2 directed as shown in the
drawing. By symmetry, the resulting magnetic field B = B1 + B2 is directed vertically down.
Using the basic formula for the magnetic field created by the long wire

𝜇0 𝐼
𝐵= ,
2𝜋 𝑟
and projecting the vectors B1 and B2 on the vertical direction x, one obtains

𝜇0 𝐼
𝐵 = 𝐵1,𝑧 + 𝐵2,𝑧 = 2 cos 𝜃.
2𝜋 𝑟
With

𝑎/2
𝑟 = √𝑧 2 + (𝑎/2)2 , cos 𝜃 =
𝑟
one finally obtains

𝜇0 𝐼 𝑎
𝐵= .
2𝜋 𝑧 + (𝑎/2)2
2

Let us consider particular and limiting cases of this formula. At z=0 the result reads

𝜇0 𝐼 4
𝐵=
2𝜋 𝑎
that is twice the magnetic field created by a wire at the distance a/2, an expected result.

At large distances, z>>a, one can neglect (𝑎/2)2 in the denominator that yields

𝜇0 𝐼 𝑎
𝐵= .
2𝜋 𝑧 2
This decreases at large distances faster than the magnetic field from one wire since B1 and
B2 become almost opposite and nearly cancel each other.
Different problems on the magnetic field
69. Problem 86, end of chapter 20, Giancoli 6th edition: Suspended wires with
opposite currents



y 
a T

x F

mg

Solution. First, we introduce missing notations. Second, we identify the forces acting on a
wire, as shown in the sketch. The three forces, including the tension force 𝐓 from the
suspending cord, balance each other:

𝐅 + 𝑚𝐠 + 𝐓 = 0.

In components (with explicit signs of the force components), this vector equation becomes

(𝑥) : − 𝐹 + 𝑇 sin 𝜃 = 0, (𝑦) : − 𝑚𝑔 + 𝑇 cos 𝜃 = 0.

The magnetic force 𝐹 is given by

𝜇0 𝐼 2 𝜇0 𝐼2
𝐹= 𝑙= 𝑙,
2𝜋 𝑆 2𝜋 2𝑎 sin 𝜃
where 𝑙 is the length of the wires.

Now, one can eliminate the tension force from the mechanical equilibrium equation to
relate 𝐹 to 𝑚𝑔. Multiplying the x-equation by cos 𝜃, the y-equation by sin 𝜃, and
subtracting them from each other, one obtains

−𝐹 cos 𝜃 + 𝑚𝑔 sin 𝜃 = 0
or

𝐹 = 𝑚𝑔 tan 𝜃.

In fact, this relation could be written immediately without considering 𝑇. Equating this to
the magnetic expression for 𝐹, one obtains

𝜇0 𝐼2
𝑚𝑔 tan 𝜃 = 𝑙.
2𝜋 2𝑎 sin 𝜃
Solving this for 𝐼 yields

sin2 𝜃 2𝜋 2𝑎
𝐼 = √𝑚𝑔 .
cos 𝜃 𝜇0 𝑙

Here, the mass of the wire is proportional to its length, so that the result does not depend
on 𝑙. Expressing the wire mass as

𝑚 = 𝜌𝑙𝜋𝑑 2 /4,

one obtains

𝜌𝑙𝜋𝑑 2 sin2 𝜃 2𝜋 2𝑎 2𝜋 𝜋𝑎 sin2 𝜃

𝐼=√ 𝑔 = 𝑑√ 𝜌𝑔
4 cos 𝜃 𝜇0 𝑙 𝜇0 2 cos 𝜃

that is the final analytical result. Now one can substitute the given numerical values,
including the aluminum density 𝜌 = 2700 𝑘𝑔/𝑚3. One obtains

2𝜋 𝜋 × 0.5 sin 3°
𝐼 = 0.5 × 10−3 √ −7
2700 × 9.8 = 8.44 𝐴
4𝜋 × 10 2 √cos 3°

70. Problem 84, end of chapter 20, Giancoli 6th edition: Energy loss in cyclotron
motion
Solution. The proton circling in the magnetic field interacts with the gas molecules and gives
them a part of its kinetic energy. As the gas is rarified, these interactions occur at large
distances and are weak. This is why the kinetic energy of the proton changes slowly. The
equation describing the cyclotron motion (the second Newton’s law) has the form

𝑣2
𝑒𝑣𝐵 = 𝑚 ,
𝑅
where from the well-known formula for the orbit radius follows:
𝑚𝑣
𝑅= .
𝑒𝐵
To tailor it to the current problem, one can relate the velocity with the kinetic energy:

𝑚𝑣 2
𝐸𝑘 = .
2
Finding 𝑣 from the formula for 𝑅 and substituting it into the kinetic energy, one obtains

𝑚 𝑅𝑒𝐵 2 (𝑅𝑒𝐵)2
𝐸𝑘 = ( ) = .
2 𝑚 2𝑚

In this formula, 𝑅𝑒𝐵 is the linear momentum of the proton. Now the loss of the kinetic
energy can be represented as

(𝑒𝐵)2 2
∆𝐸𝑘 = (𝑅1 − 𝑅22 ).
2𝑚
Substituting the numbers, one obtains

(1.6 × 10−19 × 0.01)2

∆𝐸𝑘 = (102 − 8.52 ) × 10−6 = 2.1 × 10−20 J.
2 × 1.67 × 10−27
71. Problem 87, end of chapter 20, Giancoli 6th edition: Helical motion of the
charge in the magnetic field

Solution. First, we introduce the missing notation of 𝜃 as the angle between the electron’s
velocity and the magnetic field. The motion of the electron is described, as usual by the
second Newtons’ law:
 𝐅 = 𝑚𝐚.

Here 𝐅 is the Lorentz force,

𝐅 = 𝑒𝐯 × 𝐁.

Only the velocity component perpendicular to 𝐁 make a contribution to the force, and the
force is perpendicular to 𝐁. On the other hand, the velocity component parallel to 𝐁 does
not create and force, and there is no force in this direction. One can conclude that the
motion parallel to the magnetic field if free, while the motion in the plane perpendicular to
𝐁 should be a cyclotron motion.

Introducing the coordinate axes z along the magnetic field, x and y perpendicular to the
magnetic field, and projecting the equation of motion onto these axis, one obtains

𝑣𝑧 = const = 𝑣 cos 𝜃

for the motion along the magnetic field and the circular motion with the speed

𝑣⊥ = const = 𝑣 sin 𝜃

in the xy plane. The radius of the orbit is

𝑚𝑣⊥ 𝑚𝑣 sin 𝜃
𝑅= = .
𝑒𝐵 𝑒𝐵
The period of the orbiting is

2𝜋𝑅 2𝜋𝑚
𝑇= = .
𝑣⊥ 𝑒𝐵

During this time, the electron covers the distance

2𝜋𝑚
𝑝 = 𝑣𝑧 𝑇 = 𝑣 cos 𝜃 .
𝑒𝐵
Substituting the numerical values, one obtains

0.91 × 10−30 × 3 × 106 sin 45°

𝑅= −19
= 0.0000518 𝑚 = 0.518 × 10−4 𝑚
1.6 × 10 × 0.23
and

2𝜋 × 0.91 × 10−30
𝑝 = 3 × 106 cos 45° = 0.00032959 𝑚 = 3.30 × 10−4 𝑚.
1.6 × 10−19 × 0.23
Electromagnetic induction
72. Problem 13 end of chapter 21, Giancoli 6th edition

Solution. First, introduce missing notations. The magnetic field 𝐵 = 0.75 𝑇, The loop
diameters 𝐷1 = 20 𝑐𝑚 = 0.2 𝑚, 𝐷2 = 6 𝑐𝑚 = 0.06 𝑚, the time interval ∆𝑡 = 0.5 𝑠,
Resistance of the coil 𝑅 = 2.5 Ω.

We use the Faraday-Lenz law

ΔΦ
ℰ=− .
Δ𝑡
Here, we take into account only the external magnetic flux and neglect the contribution of
the currents in the loop (this is valid for the resistance of the loop large enough so that the
current is small)

𝜋𝐷22 𝜋𝐷12 𝜋
ΔΦ = Φ2 − Φ1 = 𝐵− 𝐵 = 𝐵(𝐷22 − 𝐷12 ).
4 4 4
Thus one obtains

𝜋 𝐷22 − 𝐷12
ℰ=− 𝐵 ,
4 Δ𝑡
where we keep the symbolic Lenz sign that shows that the direction of the EMF is such that
it induces currents whose magnetic field partially compensates the change of the external
magnetic flux. Substituting the numbers, one obtains

𝜋 0.062 − 0.22
ℰ = − 0.75 = 0.0439 𝑉 = 43.9 𝑚𝑉.
4 0.5
(a) The loop is contracting, thus the magnetic flux into the plane of the loop (away from us)
is decreasing. Thus, the current will flow in the clockwise direction to create its own
magnetic flux into the plane of the loop.

(b) The induced current is given by the Ohm’s law

ℰ 𝜋𝐵 𝐷22 − 𝐷12
𝐼= = .
𝑅 4𝑅 Δ𝑡
0.0439
Substituting the numbers, one obtains 𝐼 = = 0.01756 𝐴 = 17.56 𝑚𝐴.
2.5
 73. Problem 18 end of chapter 21, Giancoli 6th edition

Solution. First, we introduce missing notations. The coil’s diameter 𝐷 = 22 𝑐𝑚 = 0.22 𝑚,

the number of turns of wire 𝑁 = 20, the diameter of the wire 𝑑 = 2.6 𝑚𝑚 = 2.1 × 10−3 𝑚
∆𝐵
the rate of change of the magnetic field = 8.65 × 10−3 𝑇/𝑠. We have to add the
∆𝑡
−8
resistivity of the copper 𝜌 = 1.72 × 10 Ω 𝑚.

We use the Faraday-Lenz law for a coil with 𝑁 turns

ΔΦ
ℰ = −𝑁 .
Δ𝑡
Here, we take into account only the external magnetic flux and neglect the contribution of
the currents in the coil (this is valid for the resistance of the coil large enough so that the
current is small). The applicability of this approach can be tested a posteriori.

In our case, the Faraday-Lenz law becomes

𝜋𝐷2 Δ𝐵
ℰ = −𝑁
4 Δ𝑡
and the current is given by

ℰ 𝜋𝐷2 Δ𝐵
𝐼 = = −𝑁 .
𝑅 4𝑅 Δ𝑡
The resistance of the wire is given by

𝐿 𝜋𝐷𝑁 4𝐷𝑁
𝑅=𝜌 =𝜌 2 =𝜌 2 .
𝑆 𝜋𝑑 /4 𝑑

Substituting this into the formula for the current, one obtains

𝜋𝐷2 𝑑2 Δ𝐵 𝜋𝐷𝑑 2 Δ𝐵
𝐼 = −𝑁 =− .
4 𝜌 × 4𝐷𝑁 Δ𝑡 16𝜌 Δ𝑡

Substituting the numerical values, one obtains

𝜋 × 0.22 × (2.1 × 10−3 )2

𝐼=− 8.65 × 10−3 = 0.0958 𝐴.
16 × 1.72 × 10−8
(b) The dissipated power is

𝑃 = 𝐼 2 𝑅.

Substituting the formulas for the current and resistance above, one obtains
 2
𝜋𝐷𝑑 2 Δ𝐵 4𝐷𝑁 𝜋 2 𝐷3 𝑑 2 𝑁 Δ𝐵 2
𝑃=( ) 𝜌 2 = ( ) .
16𝜌 Δ𝑡 𝑑 64𝜌 Δ𝑡

Substituting the numbers yields

𝜋 2 0.223 (2.1 × 10−3 )2 × 20

𝑃= (8.65 × 10−3 )2 = 0.00063 𝑊 = 0.63 𝑚𝑊.
64 × 1.72 × 10−8
Let us look at what happens if we take into account the magnetic flux created by the current
in the wire. The total magnetic EMF in this case will be

ΔΦ ∆𝐼
ℰ = −𝑁 −𝐿 ,
Δ𝑡 ∆𝑡
where

𝜇0 𝑁 2 𝑆 𝜇0 𝑁 2 𝜋𝐷2
𝐿= =
𝑙 4𝑙
and 𝑙 is the coil’s length whose numerical value is not given. Using the Ohm’s law, one
obtains the equation for the current

∆𝐼 ΔΦ
𝑅𝐼 + 𝐿 = −𝑁 .
∆𝑡 Δ𝑡
This equation contains both the current and the rate of the current’s change, that is, it is a
differential equation that belongs to the calculus-based course. Qualitatively one can say
that the current cannot increase immediately from zero to a finite value obtained above
after the external magnetic flux started to change. The current will increase from zero to the
value obtained above during the characteristic time

𝐿
𝜏𝐿𝑅 = .
𝑅
74. EMF in a rotating coil

A coil with diameter 𝐷 and 𝑁 turns of wire is initially oriented with its axis parallel to the
magnetic field 𝐵. It begins to rotate with the angular velocity 𝜔 around an axis
perpendicular to the magnetic field. What is the average EMF during the time ∆𝑡? Work out
the result in the limit of short ∆𝑡. What is the exact condition for ∆𝑡 to be short? What is the
EMF at the initial moment of time?

Tip. Use the formula

𝜃2
cos 𝜃 ≅ 1 − , 𝜃 ≪ 1.
2
Solution. We use the Faraday law

ΔΦ
ℰ = −𝑁 .
Δ𝑡
The magnetic flux is defined by
 Φ = 𝑆𝐁 ∙ 𝐧 = 𝑆𝐵 cos 𝜃,

where 𝐧 is the normal to the coil’s plane and 𝜃 is the angle between the vectors 𝐁 and 𝐧. In
the initial state 𝐧 ∥ 𝐁 and thus 𝜃 = 0. In the initial state, 𝑡 = 0, the magnetic flux has its
maximal possible value

Φ(0) = Φ0 ≡ 𝑆𝐵.

Because of the coil’s rotation, the angle changes at the linear rate:

𝜃 = 𝜔𝑡.

At the time 𝑡 the magnetic flux is given by

Φ(𝑡) = Φ0 cos 𝜃 = Φ0 cos(𝜔𝑡).

Thus, the average EMF in the process is given by

Φ(∆𝑡) − Φ(0) 1 − cos(𝜔∆𝑡)

ℰ = −𝑁 = −𝑁Φ0 .
Δ𝑡 Δ𝑡
If the time interval is short, that is,

𝜔∆𝑡 ≪ 1 or ∆𝑡 ≪ 1/𝜔

(or the rotation angle is small), then one can use the small-argument expansion of the
cosine that yields

(𝜔∆𝑡)2 𝜔2 ∆𝑡
ℰ = −𝑁Φ0 ≅ −𝑁Φ0 .
2Δ𝑡 2
One can see that the average EMF is small for small ∆𝑡. In the limit ∆𝑡 → 0, that is, at the
initial moment of time, the EMF is zero.
Geometrical optics
75. Mirror equation

Solution: Introduce missing notations: ℎ𝑜 = 1.5 𝑐𝑚, 𝑑𝑜 = 20 𝑐𝑚, 𝑟 = 30 𝑐𝑚; find 𝑑𝑖 and ℎ𝑖 .

Basic formulas. The focal length is given by

𝑓 = 𝑟/2.

The mirror equation is

1 1 1
+ = .
𝑑𝑜 𝑑𝑖 𝑓

The magnification 𝑚 is defined by

ℎ𝑖 𝑑𝑖
𝑚= =− .
ℎ𝑜 𝑑𝑜

(a) From the mirror equation follows the solution for 𝑑𝑖 :

1 1 1
= −
𝑑𝑖 𝑓 𝑑𝑜

thus

1 𝑑𝑜 𝑓
𝑑𝑖 = = .
1 1 𝑑𝑜 − 𝑓
−
𝑓 𝑑𝑜

From here one can see that for 𝑑𝑜 > 𝑓 the image is real (𝑑𝑖 > 0), while for 𝑑𝑜 < 𝑓 the
image is virtual (𝑑𝑖 < 0). If 𝑑𝑜 → 𝑓 + 0, then 𝑑𝑖 → ∞, while for 𝑑𝑜 → 𝑓 − 0, then 𝑑𝑖 → −∞.
If the object is at the center of curvature, 𝑑𝑜 = 𝑟 = 2𝑓, then also 𝑑𝑖 = 𝑟 = 2𝑓.

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

30
𝑓= = 15 𝑐𝑚
2
and

20 × 15
𝑑𝑖 = = 60 𝑐𝑚.
20 − 15
(b) Substituting the formula for 𝑑𝑖 into that for the magnification, one obtains

ℎ𝑖 𝑑𝑖 𝑓 𝑓
𝑚= =− =− =
ℎ𝑜 𝑑𝑜 𝑑𝑜 − 𝑓 𝑓 − 𝑑𝑜

and
 ℎ𝑜 𝑓
ℎ𝑖 = 𝑚ℎ𝑜 = .
𝑓 − 𝑑𝑜

Substituting the numbers, one obtains

15
𝑚= = −3
15 − 20
and

1.5 × 15
ℎ𝑖 = = −4.5 𝑐𝑚.
15 − 20
76. The depth of the pool

Solution. First, introduce missing notations: 𝜃′1 = 14°, 𝐿 = 5.5 𝑚 (the length of the pool),
𝑛 = 1.33 (refraction index of water). Find ℎ, the depth of the basin.

The angle 𝜃′1 is the angle complimentary to the incidence angle 𝜃1 , that is,

𝜃1 = 90° − 𝜃1′ .

We use the Snell’s law

𝑛1 sin 𝜃1 = 𝑛2 sin 𝜃2

with 𝑛1 = 1 for the air and 𝑛2 = 𝑛 for the water. From here, one finds the refraction angle:

sin 𝜃1 cos 𝜃1′

sin 𝜃2 = = .
𝑛 𝑛
Now, from the triangle formed by the light ray inside the pool, its left wall, and the bottom,
one finds

𝐿
= tan 𝜃2 ,
ℎ
so that

cos 𝜃1′
ℎ = 𝐿 cot 𝜃2 = 𝐿 cot arcsin .
𝑛
This is the analytical answer to the problem that is sufficient for an exam. However, it can be
simplified, as tangent and cotangent can be expressed via the sine and cosine. Here,

cos 𝜃2 √1 − sin2 𝜃2 1
cot 𝜃2 = = = √ 2 − 1.
sin 𝜃2 sin 𝜃2 sin 𝜃2

Using this, one obtains

𝑛2
ℎ = 𝐿 cot 𝜃2 = 𝐿√ 2 ′ − 1.
cos 𝜃1

Substituting the numbers yields

1.332
ℎ = 5.5√ − 1 = 5.16 𝑚.
cos 2 14°

77. Critical angle in another material

Solution. The critical angle is defined by the condition that the angle of refraction is 90°, that
is,

𝑛1 sin 𝜃1 ≡ 𝑛1 sin 𝜃𝐶 = 𝑛2 sin 90° = 1,

as there is the air on the other side. For another material on the refractive side, one can
write a similar formula:

𝑛1 sin 𝜃′𝐶 = 𝑛′2 ,

where 𝑛′2 is the refraction index of the water, so that

𝑛′2
sin 𝜃′𝐶 = .
𝑛1

One has to find 𝑛1 . From the first equation one finds

1
𝑛1 = .
sin 𝜃𝐶

So that

sin 𝜃′𝐶 = 𝑛′2 sin 𝜃𝐶

and

1
𝜃′𝐶 = arcsin(𝑛′2 sin 𝜃𝐶 ), sin 𝜃𝐶 < .
𝑛′2
 78. Total internal reflection in a prism

Solution. To solve the problem, we need a more detailed sketch.

 '
'
  

We have to apply the Snell’s law two times, for both refractions,

sin 𝜃1 = 𝑛 sin 𝜃2 , 𝑛 sin 𝜃3 = sin 𝜃4 = 1.

An additional relation for the angles can be obtained from the triangle formed by the two
sides of the prism and the light ray inside the prism. One has

𝜙 + 𝜃′2 + 𝜃′3 = 180°

as well as

𝜃′2 = 90° − 𝜃2 , 𝜃 ′ 3 = 90° − 𝜃3 .

Substituting this into the relation for the angles in the triangle, one obtains

𝜙 − 𝜃2 − 𝜃3 = 0.

To find the required 𝜃1 as

𝜃1 = sin−1(𝑛 sin 𝜃2 ),
one needs 𝜃2 that follows from the relation above:

𝜃2 = 𝜙 − 𝜃3 .

Here, 𝜃3 follows from the second Snell’s law:

1
𝜃3 = sin−1 ( ),
𝑛

so that

1
𝜃1 = sin−1 (𝑛 sin (𝜙 − sin−1 ( ))),
𝑛

Substituting the numbers, one obtains 𝜃1 ≅ 49°. Note that for 𝜙 small enough the value of
𝜃1 is negative that corresponds to the incident ray (on the left of the prism) deviating
clockwise from the normal (not counterclockwise, as shown in the sketch).

79. Change of the direction of light in the prism

a) Find the change-of-the-direction angle 𝛿 in a prism with the apex angle 𝛼 and the
refraction index 𝑛 for the arbitrary incidence angle 𝜃1 ; b) Find the result in the symmetric
case; c) Express the refraction index 𝑛 via 𝜃1 in the symmetric case; d*) Obtain the limiting
expression for 𝛿 for small 𝛼.

O


C 
'
 A '   B 
' '

Solution.

a) The change-of-direction angle 𝛿 shown in the sketch can be found considering the
triangle ABC. One has

𝛿 = 180° − ∡𝐴𝐶𝐵.

(We do not introduce a notation for the angle ∡𝐴𝐶𝐵 to avoid a mess on the sketch). On the
other hand, as in any triangle the sum of all angles is 180°, one finds
 ∡𝐴𝐶𝐵 = 180° − ∡𝐶𝐴𝐵 − ∡𝐴𝐵𝐶.

Thus

𝛿 = ∡𝐶𝐴𝐵 + ∡𝐴𝐵𝐶.

Further,

∡𝐶𝐴𝐵 = 𝜃2′ − 𝜃1′ = 90° − 𝜃2 − (90° − 𝜃1 ) = 𝜃1 − 𝜃2

and

∡𝐴𝐵𝐶 = 𝜃3′ − 𝜃4′ = 90° − 𝜃3 − (90° − 𝜃4 ) = 𝜃4 − 𝜃3 .

Substituting these expressions into the formula for 𝛿, one obtains

𝛿 = 𝜃1 − 𝜃2 − 𝜃3 + 𝜃4 .

To find the remaining angles for a given 𝜃1 , one uses the Snell’s law for the two sides of the
prism,

sin 𝜃1 = 𝑛 sin 𝜃2 , 𝑛 sin 𝜃3 = sin 𝜃4

Another relation can be obtained from the triangle AOB:

𝛼 + 𝜃′2 + 𝜃′3 = 180°,

as well as 𝜃′2 = 90° − 𝜃2 and 𝜃 ′ 3 = 90° − 𝜃3 . Substituting this into the relation above, one
obtains

𝛼 − 𝜃2 − 𝜃3 = 0 (1)

and thus

𝜃3 = 𝛼 − 𝜃2 .

This simplifies the formula for 𝛿 to

𝛿 = 𝜃1 − 𝛼 + 𝜃4 . (2)

Now, one has to find 𝜃4 :

sin 𝜃1
𝜃4 = sin−1 (𝑛 sin 𝜃3 ) = sin−1(𝑛 sin(𝛼 − 𝜃2 )) = sin−1 (𝑛 sin (𝛼 − sin−1 ( ))).
𝑛

The final result for 𝛿 reads

sin 𝜃1
𝛿 = 𝜃1 − 𝛼 + sin−1 (𝑛 sin (𝛼 − sin−1 ( ))) (3).
𝑛

One can see that for 𝛼 = 0 (that corresponds to a flat glass) one has 𝛿 = 0. It can be shown
that 𝛿 reaches its minimal value in the symmetric case.

b) In the symmetric case, one has 𝜃1 = 𝜃4 and 𝜃2 = 𝜃3 . From (1) one obtains
𝛼
𝜃2 = .
2
Now from the Snell’s law follows
𝛼
𝜃1 = sin−1(𝑛 sin 𝜃2 ) = sin−1 (𝑛 sin )
2
Now from (2) one obtains
𝛼
𝛿 = 2𝜃1 − 𝛼 = 2 sin−1 (𝑛 sin ) − 𝛼.
2
c) We now resolve the last formula for 𝑛:

𝛿+𝛼 𝛼
sin ( ) = 𝑛 sin ,
2 2

thus

𝛿+𝛼
sin ( 2 )
𝑛= 𝛼 .
sin 2

This formula is used in the lab to find the refraction index.

d*) To simplify (3) for small 𝛼, one can use the trigonometric formula

sin(𝛼 − 𝛽) = sin 𝛼 cos 𝛽 − sin 𝛽 cos 𝛼 . (4)

Thus one obtains

sin 𝜃1 sin 𝜃1
𝛿 = 𝜃1 − 𝛼 + sin−1 [𝑛 (sin 𝛼 cos sin−1 ( ) − sin sin−1 ( ) cos 𝛼)].
𝑛 𝑛

Here

sin 𝜃1 sin 𝜃1
sin sin−1 ( )=
𝑛 𝑛
sin 𝜃1 sin 𝜃1 2
cos sin−1 ( ) = √1 − ( ) .
𝑛 𝑛

Thus

sin 𝜃1 2 sin 𝜃1
𝛿 = 𝜃1 − 𝛼 + sin −1 √
[𝑛 (sin 𝛼 1 − ( ) − cos 𝛼)]
𝑛 𝑛

or

sin 𝜃1 2
𝛿 = 𝜃1 − 𝛼 + sin −1 √
[𝑛 sin 𝛼 1 − ( ) − sin 𝜃1 cos 𝛼]
𝑛

As 𝛼 is small, one can use sin 𝛼 ≅ 𝛼 and cos 𝛼 ≅ 1 to simplify this to

 sin 𝜃1 2
𝛿 = 𝜃1 − 𝛼 − sin −1
[sin 𝜃1 − 𝑛𝛼 √1 − ( ) ]. (5)
𝑛

In the argument of arcsin, the first term is regular, while the second one is small. Thus, it can
be approximately simplified. Writing

sin 𝜃1 2
𝛾 = sin −1
[sin 𝜃1 − 𝑛𝛼 √1 − ( ) ]
𝑛

and further

sin 𝜃1 2
sin 𝛾 = sin 𝜃1 − 𝑛𝛼 √1 − ( ) , (6)
𝑛

one can see that 𝛾 is very close to 𝜃1 . Thus we write 𝛾 = 𝜃1 − 𝜀, where 𝜀 is a small angle.
Now, using (4), one can write

sin 𝛾 = sin(𝜃1 − 𝜀) = sin 𝜃1 cos 𝜀 − sin 𝜀 cos 𝜃1 ≅ sin 𝜃1 − 𝜀 cos 𝜃1 .

Substituting this into (6), one obtains

sin 𝜃1 2
𝜀 cos 𝜃1 = 𝑛𝛼 √1 − ( ) ,
𝑛

where from

2
√1 − (sin 𝜃1 ) √𝑛2 − sin2 𝜃1
𝑛
𝜀 = 𝑛𝛼 =𝛼 .
cos 𝜃1 cos 𝜃1

Now, (5) becomes

𝛿 = 𝜃1 − 𝛼 − 𝛾 = 𝜃1 − 𝛼 − (𝜃1 − 𝜀) = 𝜀 − 𝛼

and, finally,

√𝑛2 − sin2 𝜃1
𝛿 = 𝛼( − 1).
cos 𝜃1

One can see that if 𝛼 = 0 or 𝑛 = 1, the deviation angle 𝛿 becomes zero, as it should be.
Thus, our formula passes the available checks. If the incidence angle is small, then one can
use cos 𝜃1 ≅ 1 and sin 𝜃1 ≅ 0 to obtain the simplified result

𝛿 = 𝛼(𝑛 − 1).
Wave optics
80. Modified two-slit experiment

A glass plate of thickness 𝑡 is placed before one of the slits in the two-slit experiment. How
does it modify the two-slit interference?

Solution. As the wave length in glass is smaller than that in the air (𝜆𝑛 = 𝜆/𝑛 < 𝜆), the wave
going through the glass make an effective extra distance in comparison to that going
through the air. To define this extra distance, one has to consider phases of the waves.
Phase 𝜑 in radians, accrued at the distance 𝑥 is given by
𝑥
𝜑 = 2𝜋 . (1)
𝜆
Indeed, at the distance 𝑥 = 𝜆 the accrued phase is 2𝜋, that is, 360°. The phase accrued in
the glass plate is

𝑡 𝑡
𝜑𝑛 = 2𝜋 = 2𝜋𝑛 .
𝜆𝑛 𝜆

On the other hand, for the wave traveling the same distance through the air the accrued
phase 𝜑 is given by a similar formula without 𝑛. The phase difference between the two
waves is thus

𝑡
∆𝜑 ≡ 𝜑𝑛 − 𝜑 = 2𝜋(𝑛 − 1) .
𝜆
Now we can define the effective extra distance ∆𝑥 by inverting the phase-distance relation
(1):

∆𝜑
∆𝑥 = 𝜆 = (𝑛 − 1)𝑡.
2𝜋
This adds up to the extra distance in the double-slit experiment 𝑑 sin 𝜃. In particular, the
condition for the interference maximum now has the form

(𝑛 − 1)𝑡 + 𝑑 sin 𝜃 = 𝑚𝜆, 𝑚 = integer.

The glass plate rotates all interference maxima in the negative direction. In particular, the
zero-order fringe is seen at the angle corresponding to sin 𝜃 = −(𝑛 − 1)𝑡/𝑑.
 81. One-slit diffraction

Solution. First, introduce missing notations: 𝜆 = 630 𝑛𝑚 = 6.3 × 10−7 𝑚, 𝐷 = 1 𝑐𝑚 =

10−2, 𝐿 = 380,000 𝑘𝑚 = 3.8 × 108 𝑚.

The laser beam undergoes one-slit diffraction, and its angular width is determined by the
angle 𝜃 corresponding to the first diffraction minimum that is defined by

𝐷 sin 𝜃 = 𝑚𝜆, 𝑚 = ±1.

Since this angle is very small, sin 𝜃 ≅ tan 𝜃 ≅ 𝜃. The width of the beam on the Moon’s
surface is

2𝐿𝜆
∆𝑥 = 2𝐿 tan 𝜃 ≅ 2𝐿𝜃 = .
𝐷
Substituting the numbers, one obtains

2 × 3.8 × 108 × 6.3 × 10−7

∆𝑥 = = 47880 𝑚 = 48 𝑘𝑚.
10−2
82. Thin-film interference (theory)

Thin-film interference occurs between the light rays reflected

from different surfaces of a thin film, as shown for the thin
layer of oil on the water. To observe interference in natural
light that is incoherent, the thickness of the film 𝑡 has to be
much smaller than the coherence length of light, 𝑡 ≪ 𝜉. For
thicker films, the two rays will have a random phase with
respect to each other so that there will be no interference.
Practically, thin-film interference can be observed on films with
the thickness comparable to the wave length of light 𝜆. In the
laser light that is coherent, interference can be observed on
thicker films.

The condition for constructive interference is that the phase shift between the two reflected
waves is a multiple of 360° that corresponds to the extra distance covered by one ray with
respect to the other equal to a multiple of the wave lengths of light in the film 𝜆𝑛 = 𝜆/𝑛. In
addition, there is a phase jump by 180° upon reflection if the refraction index of the other
media is larger than that of the media hosting the incident and reflected rays (case (a) in the
figure below). This corresponds to changing the extra distance by 𝜆𝑛 /2.
 Thus, the condition for the constructive interference can be written
as

2𝑡 + [𝜆𝑛 /2] + [𝜆𝑛 /2] = 𝑚𝜆𝑛 , 𝑚 = integer

Here the terms in the square brackets should be added or not

depending on whether there is a phase jump or not. If there are
phase jumps on both surfaces, they cancel each other and have no
effect. The condition for the destructive interference has the form

2𝑡 + [𝜆𝑛 /2] + [𝜆𝑛 /2] = 𝜆𝑛 /2 + 𝑚𝜆𝑛 , 𝑚 = integer

In this form, the interference conditions can be understood and memorized.

In the case of an oil film on the water surface, we use 𝑛 = 1.47 for the oil that is larger than
that of the water, 1.33. Thus there is a phase jump for the ray reflected at A but no jump for
that reflected at B. The condition for the constructive interference becomes

2𝑡 + 𝜆𝑛 /2 = 𝑚𝜆𝑛 , 𝑚 = integer

83. Thin-film interference

Solution. In this case, there is a phase jump on both interfaces, thus phase jumps can be
ignored and the condition for the constructive interference reads

2𝑡 = 𝑚𝜆𝑛 , 𝑚 = integer.

With increasing the film width 𝑡 and thus the number 𝑚 the incoherence of the natural light
leads to gradual washing out the interference. Thus the strongest interference is observed
for 𝑚 = 1 that requires

𝜆𝑛 𝜆
𝑡= = .
2 2𝑛
Substituting the numbers, one obtains

643
𝑡= = 240 𝑛𝑚.
2 × 1.34
 84. Polarizers

P1 P2

I0 I1 I2

 

Solution. First, we introduce missing notations: 𝜙 = 40°, 𝜂 = 0.15. Using the Malus law for
the intensities of light, we obtain

𝐼1 = 𝐼0 cos2 𝜃 , 𝐼2 = 𝐼1 cos 2 𝜙.

Combining these two formulas, one obtains

𝐼2 = 𝐼0 cos 2 𝜃 cos2 𝜙.

According to the data in the problem,

𝐼2
= 𝜂.
𝐼0

Thus, for the angle 𝜃 one obtains the equation

𝜂 = cos2 𝜃 cos 2 𝜙.

Solving it for 𝜃, one obtains

𝜂 √𝜂
𝜃 = cos −1 √ 2
= cos −1 .
cos 𝜙 cos 𝜙

Substituting the numerical values yields

√0.15
𝜃 = cos −1 = 59.63° ≈ 60°.
cos 40°