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SD-MCQ-TF All 12

This document contains true/false and multiple choice questions about systems design and application architecture. It covers topics like the different phases of systems design such as analysis, design, and procurement. It also discusses concepts like structured design, prototyping, rapid application development, and application architecture including layers like the data, data manipulation, application logic, and presentation layers. The questions test understanding of these core concepts and approaches to systems design and application architecture.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
131 views12 pages

SD-MCQ-TF All 12

This document contains true/false and multiple choice questions about systems design and application architecture. It covers topics like the different phases of systems design such as analysis, design, and procurement. It also discusses concepts like structured design, prototyping, rapid application development, and application architecture including layers like the data, data manipulation, application logic, and presentation layers. The questions test understanding of these core concepts and approaches to systems design and application architecture.

Uploaded by

Mira Makram
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

SYSTEMS DESIGN 3CS

Chapter 11: Systems Design


True/False Questions
1. In systems design, the analyst specifies the Feedback: The physical data flow diagram
detailed computer-based solution. (PDFD) is used to establish the physical
A) True processes and data stores across a network.
B) False 7. A database schema is a structural model for a
2. Modern structured design, information database.
engineering, and object-oriented design are A) True
examples of process-driven approaches. B) False
A) True 8. Prototyping, a modern engineering-based
B) False approach to design, is a sequential process that
Feedback: These are examples of model-driven limits user participation in system design, so as to
approaches. increase user morale and support for the project.
3. When modules are highly cohesive, each module A) True
should accomplish multiple tightly related B) False
functions. Feedback: Prototyping is an iterative process
A) True that encourages and requires active end-user
B) False participation to increase end-user morale and
Feedback: When modules are highly cohesive, support for the project.
each module should accomplish one and only 9. Rapid application development is a system
one function. This makes the modules reusable development approach that utilizes object-oriented
in future programs. modeling and Joint Requirement Planning to
4. The primary tool of information engineering is the develop an information system on time and within
structure chart. budget constraints.
A) True A) True
B) False B) False
Feedback: The primary tool of information Feedback: Rapid application development is a
engineering is the data model. system development approach that utilizes
5. System design is also called physical design. JAD, structure techniques, and prototyping.
A) True 10. The first task in the procurement phase is to solicit
B) False proposals or quotes from the vendors.
6. The physical data flow diagram (PDFD) is used to A) True
establish the logical processes and data stores B) False
across a network. Feedback: In the procurement phase, the first
A) True task is to research technical alternatives.
B) False
Multiple Choice questions
1. In the procurement phase, which of the following C) object-oriented design, joint
is NOT a resource used to conduct research on application, and rapid application development
technical alternatives? D) structured design, information
A) vendor qualifications engineering, CASE
B) internal standards E) none of the above
C) trade newspapers and periodicals 3. Which of the following is(are) utilized in Rapid
D) information services Application Development (RAD)?
E) none of the above A) structured techniques
2. Which one of the following is an example of B) joint application development
model-driven approaches? techniques
A) structured design, rapid application C) object-oriented design techniques
development, CASE D) both (a) and (b)
B) information engineering, CASE, joint E) both (a) and (b) and (c)
application design
4. Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of A) evaluate and rank vendor proposals
prototyping? B) validate vendor claims and
A) errors can not be detected as easily performances
when a prototype is developed C) develop system models for each of the
B) prototypes are a passive model of the vendor's proposals
system D) research technical criteria and options
C) end-users do not fully understand their E) none of the above
requirements until they see them 8. Structured design seeks to factor a program into
D) prototyping negates the need for the the top-down hierarchy of modules that have the
systems analysis phase following properties:
E) none of the above A) highly cohesive and highly coupled
5. Which of the following is the first task undertaken B) loosely structured and loosely cohesive
by system developers during the procurement C) loosely cohesive and highly coupled
phase? D) loosely cohesive and loosely coupled
A) validate vendor claims and E) none of the above
performances 9. Which of the following is the first step in
B) research technical criteria and designing a system for in-house development?
options A) design the system interface
C) award contract and debrief vendor B) design the application architecture
D) solicit proposals or quotes C) package design specifications
E) none of the above D) design the system database
6. A process model used to communicate the E) update project plan
technical implementation characteristics of an 10. A document that is prepared to solicit competitive
information system is a(n): proposals and quotes from several different
A) environmental model candidate vendors and/or project is a:
B) physical data model A) request for vendor proposal
C) logical data model B) request for specification
D) class diagram C) request for quotation
E) distributed model D) request for product proposal
7. Which of the following is NOT a task of the E) none of the above
procurement phase?

Chapter 12: Application Architecture


True/False Questions
1. Database architecture is the specification of the B) False
technologies to be used to implement information 4. Physical data stores implement the logical data
systems. stores.
A) True A) True
B) False B) False
Feedback: Application architecture is the 5. A distribution layer is one of the four layers for
specification of the technologies to be used to mapping an information system application.
implement information systems. A) True
2. One of the considerations that define the B) False
application architecture is the degree to which the Feedback: There are five layers and the
information system will be centralized or distribution layer is not among them.
distributed. 6. A file server is a WAN-based solution in which
A) True server computers host the data and the data
B) False manipulation layers.
3. A physical data flow diagram models the technical A) True
and human design decisions to be implemented as B) False
part of an information system. Feedback: A file server system is a LAN-based
A) True solution in which a server computer hosts only
the data layer. All other layers of the (1) the data and data manipulation layers are
information system applications are placed on their own server(s); (2) the
implemented on the client PC. application logic is placed on its own server;
7. File server architectures are practical only for and (3) only the presentation logic and
small database applications to be shared by presentation layers are placed on the clients.
relatively few users 9. Vertical partitioning is when different rows in a
A) True database are assigned to different database servers.
B) False A) True
8. A distributed data and application client/server B) False
system is a is a solution in which: (1) the data and Feedback: Vertical partitioning is when
data manipulation layers are placed on their own different columns in a database are assigned to
server(s); (2) the application logic is placed on its different database servers.
own server; and (3) the presentation logic and 10. Remote procedure calls (RPCs), message queues
presentation layers are placed on different servers. and object request brokers are examples of
A) True application middleware.
B) False A) True
Feedback: A distributed data and application B) False
client/server system is a is a solution in which:
Multiple Choice questions
1. A system in which the components of an 5. A server that hosts services for e-mail,
information system are distributed to multiple calendaring, and other work group functionality is
locations in a computer network is known as a: known as a(n):
A) database system A) groupware server
B) networked system B) communication server
C) distributed system C) exchange server
D) communication system D) application server
E) none of the above E) transaction server
2. Which of the following define the application 6. Which technique allocates different rows in a table
architecture for an information system? to different database servers?
A) the implementation technology for all A) vertical partitioning
software to be developed in-house B) segmented partitioning
B) the technology to be used to implement C) hierarchical partitioning
the user interface D) horizontal partitioning
C) the distribution of stored data across a E) none of the above
network 7. Which of the following does not describe a rule of
D) the degree to which the information correctness for drawing a physical DFD?
system will be centralized or distributed A) a system that fulfills user requirements
E) all of the above B) a system that works
3. Which of the following is NOT an information C) a system that provides adequate
system application layer? performance (throughput and response time)
A) data layer D) a system that is adaptable to changing
B) database layer requirements and enhancements
C) presentation layer E) a system that is not cost effective
D) application logic layer 8. Which of the following is(are) shown on a
E) data manipulation layer network architecture DFD?
4. An application system can be mapped into how A) processor specifications
many different layers? B) transport protocols
A) one C) clients and their physical locations
B) two D) servers and their physical locations
C) three E) all of the above
D) four 9. Which technique assigns different columns to
E) none of the above different database servers?
A) vertical partitioning A) replicate specific tables or subsets on
B) horizontal partitioning different servers
C) hierarchical partitioning B) store all data on a single server
D) segmented partitioning C) store subsets of specific tables on
E) none of the above different servers
10. Which of the following is(are) data distribution D) store specific tables on different servers
option(s)? E) all of the above

Intro to SAD_Ch13_DB Design


True/False Questions
1. A database is a collection of files. A) True
A) True B) False
B) False 7. Information architecture refers to the database
Feedback: A database is a collection of technology, such as the database engine, database
interrelated files. utility, and database case tools.
2. A descriptive field cannot be a primary key. A) True
A) True B) False
B) False Feedback: Database architecture refers to the
3. The number of logical records included in a single database technology, such as the database
read or write operation is known as a blocking engine, database utility, and database case
factor. tools.
A) True 8. SQL provides a RETRIEVE command to select
B) False specific records from a table based on specific
4. Data warehouse stores data extracted from criteria.
strategic databases. A) True
A) True B) False
B) False Feedback: SQL provides a SELECT command
Feedback: Data warehouse stores data to select specific records from a table based on
extracted from operational databases. specific criteria.
5. A good data model has no redundant data 9. The Delete:Restrict rule of referential integrity
attributes. This means that each data attribute specifies that a deletion of a record in the table
describes at most one entity. must be disallowed until any matching records are
A) True deleted from a related table.
B) False A) True
Feedback: A good data model is essentially (but B) False
not fully) nonredundant, which means that 10. A referential integrity error will occur when a
each data attribute, other than foreign keys, foreign key value in one table has no matching
describe at most one entity. primary key value in the related table.
6. Replication of data refers to the physical A) True
duplication of entire tables to multiple locations. B) False
Multiple Choice questions
1. The CustomerID field in a customer table cannot C) master file
be left blank. This is an example of: D) audit file
A) domain integrity E) archival file
B) logical integrity 3. A language used by a DBMS to define a database
C) referential integrity or a view of a database is:
D) physical integrity A) DML
E) none of the above B) DLL
2. A table containing records that describe business C) DCL
events is: D) DDL
A) transaction file E) none of the above
B) document file
4. Many relational DBMSs can automatically C) a DB should support the business
enforce Delete:Cascade rule of referential integrity requirements of the information system
using D) a DB should provide for efficient
A) triggers storage
B) stored procedures E) all of the above
C) views 8. Which form of distribution is the simplest and the
D) DCL easiest to maintain?
E) DDL A) vertical distribution
5. To delete an existing record from a database, you B) centralization
would use: C) replication
A) DCL D) horizontal distribution
B) DDL E) hierarchical distribution
C) DML 9. If two records in a student table would have the
D) DLL same value for StudentID, this would violate:
E) none of the above A) key integrity
6. Which of the following is(are) criteria for B) referential integrity
producing a quality data model? C) table integrity
A) a good data model is complex D) physical integrity
B) a good data model is flexible E) field integrity
C) a good data model is redundant 10. Which of the following is NOT a valid deletion
D) a good data model is adaptable to future rule?
needs A) Delete:Restrict
E) both (b) and (d) B) Delete:Default
7. Which of the following is(are) goals of database C) Delete:Cascade
design? D) Delete:Set Null
A) a DB should be reliable E) none of the above
B) a DB should be scalable

Intro to SAD_Ch14_Output Design


True/False Questions
1. Detailed reports present information with little or Feedback: The most common medium for
no filtering or restrictions. computer output is paper.
A) True 5. A radar chart is a useful graphic output for
B) False comparing different aspects of more than one
2. Turnaround outputs are internal outputs that series or category of data.
eventually reenter the system as inputs. A) True
A) True B) False
B) False 6. Output requirements should have been defined
Feedback: Turnaround outputs are external during problem analysis.
outputs that eventually reenter the system as A) True
inputs. B) False
3. Zoned output, the most common format for Feedback: Output requirements should have
printed reports, presents text and numbers in been defined during requirements analysis.
designated areas of a form or screen. 7. A scatter chart is useful for showing the
A) True relationship between two or more series or
B) False categories of data measured at uneven intervals of
Feedback: Tabular output is the most common time.
format for printed reports A) True
4. The most common medium for computer output is B) False
screen. 8. An automated teller machine (ATM) is an
A) True example of Electronic Terminal.
B) False A) True
B) False Feedback: The first step in the output design
Feedback: An automated teller machine (ATM) process is to identify system outputs and review
is an example of Point-of-Sales Terminal. logical requirements.
9. The first step in the output design process is to 10. One of the design principles for tabular reports is
specify the physical output requirements. to have column headings that are short and
A) True descriptive.
B) False A) True
B) False
Multiple Choice questions
1. Which of the following reports presents C) summary output
information with little or no filtering or D) exception output
restrictions? E) none of the above
A) non-filtered 7. A count of the number of students who earned A,
B) summary B, C, D, and F grades in a given course would be
C) external an example of a(n):
D) exception A) external report
E) none of the above B) summary report
2. A list of the names of all customers who C) detailed report
purchased only one product within a six-month D) exception report
period would be an example of a(n): E) none of the above
A) detailed report 8. Which kind of chart is useful for comparing series
B) summary report or categories of data, each in its own bar?
C) exception report A) line chart
D) external report B) pie chart
E) none of the above C) scatter char
3. A listing of the names and addresses of all the D) bar chart
employees for an organization would be an E) none of the above
example of a(n): 9. Which of the following is NOT a general principle
A) detailed report for output design?
B) summary report A) The distribution of (or access to)
C) external report computer outputs must be sufficient to assist all
D) exception report relevant users.
E) none of the above B) The computer outputs should be
4. The most common medium for computer outputs designed with automated tools.
is: C) The computer outputs must be
A) screen acceptable to the system users.
B) paper D) Computer outputs should be simple to
C) e-mail read and interpret.
D) microfilm E) The timing of computer outputs is
E) none of the above important. Output information must reach
5. Which of the following reports categorizes recipients while the information is pertinent to
information for managers who are not interested to transactions or decisions.
wade through the details? 10. Which of the following is(are) the step(s) in the
A) external output design process?
B) detailed A) specify physical output requirements
C) exception B) identify system outputs and review
D) supplemental logical requirements
E) none of the above C) design, validate, and test outputs
6. A turnaround output is an example of D) design any preprinted forms
A) internal output E) all of the above
B) external output
Intro to SAD_Ch15_Input Design
True/False Questions
1. Data entry is the process of translating the source 6. Optical character recognition (OCR) requires the
data or document into a computer-readable format. user or customer to carefully handwrite input data
A) True on a business form.
B) False A) True
2. A combination box should be used in those cases B) False
where the data item has a large number of 7. Electromagnetic transmission technology is based
predefined values and screen space availability on the use of radio technology to identify physical
prohibits the use of a list box. objects, so as to track the objects that are out of
A) True sight and on the move.
B) False A) True
Feedback: This is a description of a drop-down B) False
list control. 8. One of the general design principles for input
3. A spin box is a screen-based control that consists design is to capture variable and constant data.
of a single-line text box followed immediately by A) True
two small buttons. B) False
A) True Feedback: One of the general design principles
B) False for input design is to capture variable data.
4. The most common example of data entry is the 9. A check list box is an advanced input control that
keyboard. is useful for combining several check boxes in
A) True situations where several boxes may be applicable.
B) False A) True
5. Existence checks determine whether all required B) False
fields on the input have actually been entered. 10. Using codes for appropriate attributes is one of the
A) True general principles for input design.
B) False A) True
B) False
Multiple Choice questions
1. Which of the following is(are) an input process E) none of the above
method(s)? 4. Which of the following is NOT an advanced input
A) smart card control?
B) biometric A) radio button
C) optical mark B) slider edit calendar
D) point-of-sale C) spin box
E) all of the above D) both (a) and (c)
2. A form used to record data about a transaction is E) Internet hyperlink
a(n) 5. If you need a student to select from a list of eighty
A) batch document courses of the university's on-line catalogue, your
B) source document best choice for a GUI control would be:
C) on-line document A) check box
D) data entry document B) radio buttons
E) none of the above C) drop-down list
3. Combination checks: D) combination box
A) determine data entry errors on primary E) Internet hyperlink
keys 6. If you need to collect employee status information
B) ensure that the correct type of data is (e.g., full-time vs. part-time) on a computer
input screen, your best choice for a GUI control would
C) determine whether a known be:
relationship between two fields is valid A) drop-down list
D) determine whether all required fields of B) masked edit control
the input have actually been entered C) radio buttons
D) spin box E) both (a) and (b) and (c)
E) none of the above 9. Which of the following advanced input controls
7. Remote batch processing has the following provides a nonnumeric means of selecting a
characteristic(s): value?
A) Data is entered online. A) ellipsis control
B) Data is collected in batches. B) Internet hyperlink
C) Data is processed at a later time. C) check list box
D) both (a) and (b) and (c) D) slider edit calendar
E) none of the above E) none of the above
8. Optical character recognition: 10. In cases where the data item has a large number of
A) is less prevalent than optical mark predefine values and screen space is tight, the
recognition following GUI control should be used for an input:
B) is used on forms for subjective-based A) combination box
questions on exams B) drop-down list
C) requires the user to carefully handwrite C) list box
input data on a business form D) ellipsis control
D) both (a) and (c) E) none of the above

Intro to SAD_Ch16_User Interface Design


True/False Questions
1. Novice users usually graduate to expert users 6. Paging displays one half of screen of characters at
through practice and experience. a time.
A) True A) True
B) False B) False
2. An interface designer should expect any user Feedback: Paging displays a complete screen of
interface design to go through no more than two characters at a time.
design iterations and testing. 7. A pop-up menu is context-sensitive and is
A) True dependent on a pointing device.
B) False A) True
Feedback: An interface designer should expect B) False
any user interface design to go through 8. A mnemonic syntax is built around a widely
multiple design iterations, which are not accepted common language that can be used by
limited to two. the user to invoke actions.
3. A pop-up menu appears when the user right-clicks A) True
on the mouse. B) False
A) True Feedback: A mnemonic syntax is built around
B) False commands for custom IS applications.
4. One key to user interface design is to avoid 9. A question-answer dialogue style is primarily used
specifying default values for fields and answers to to supplement either menu-driven or instruction-
be entered by the user. driven dialogues.
A) True A) True
B) False B) False
Feedback: Default values for fields and answers 10. A state transition diagram is a tool used in user
to be entered by the user should be specified. interface design to coordinate the screens that can
5. The tone and terminology of a dialogue are very occur in a user interface.
important human factors in user interface design. A) True
A) True B) False
B) False
Multiple Choice questions
1. Which of the following is NOT an interface design B) excessive use of computer jargon and
problem? acronyms
A) inconsistent problem-solving approaches
C) the use of black background on a screen A) practice iterative design
form B) understand your users and their tasks
D) design inconsistency C) use automated tools in designing user
E) less than intuitive design interface
2. Which kind of menu is designed primarily for D) test the system on a limited number of
expert users because there is no visual clue to its actual users
presence? E) both (a) and (b)
A) iconic 7. With respect to the tone of a dialogue, which of
B) pop-up the following should not be used?
C) cascading A) use abbreviations so that users can read
D) pull-down them more quickly
E) none of the above B) use simple terms
3. Which of the following instruction-driven C) use appropriate action verbs
interfaces allows a customer to enter a question D) be consistent in the use of terminology
about a given product? E) use simple, grammatically correct
A) mnemonic sentences
B) textual 8. Which of the following instruction-driven
C) natural language interfaces is built around a widely accepted
D) language-based command language that can be used by the user to
E) none of the above invoke actions?
4. Which of the following is(are) human engineering A) a mnemonic syntax
guideline(s)? B) a command-control syntax
A) Users should not be allowed to proceed C) a language-based syntax
without correcting an error. D) a natural language syntax
B) The system user should always be aware E) none of the above
of what to do next. 9. Which of the following is the first step in user
C) Anticipate the errors users might make. interface design process?
D) Use display attributes sparingly. A) prototype the dialogue and the user
E) All of the above interface
5. In which of the following user interface steps do B) chart the dialogue
the designers use a state transition diagram to C) test the dialogue
show the sequence and variations of screens that D) re-design the dialogue
can occur when the system user sits at the E) none of the above
terminal? 10. Which of the following is a tool used to depict the
A) prototype the dialogue sequence and variation of screens that occur
B) test the dialogue during a user session?
C) prototype user interface A) sequence diagram
D) chart the dialogue B) data flow diagram
E) re-design the dialogue C) object-oriented diagram
6. Which of the following is important in user D) environmental diagram
interface design? E) state transition diagram

Intro to SAD_Ch17_Object Oriented Design


True/False Questions
1. An object-oriented system is structured into at 2. Interface classes are a means through which the
least two different types of object classes. application will interface with the database.
A) True A) True
B) False B) False
Feedback: An object-oriented system is Feedback: Interface classes are a means
structured into at least three different types of through which the user will interface with the
object classes. system.
3. In role playing, the use case scenarios are acted A) True
out by the participants. B) False
A) True 7. A sequence diagram is a useful tool for
B) False discovering and/or documenting class behaviors
4. If a method needs to be invoked in response to a and responsibilities.
message sent by another class, the method should A) True
be declared public. B) False
A) True 8. An object's state is the value of its attributes at one
B) False point in time.
5. A class responsibility collaboration (CRC) card is A) True
a popular tool for documenting the software logic B) False
that is executed in response to a message. 9. A design class diagram shows classes that
A) True correspond to software components used to build
B) False the software application.
Feedback: A class responsibility collaboration A) True
(CRC) card documents the behaviors and B) False
collaborations for an object. 10. A life cycle of a single object is modeled via a
6. One of the activities in object-oriented design is to state machine diagram.
update the class diagrams to reflect the A) True
implementation environment. B) False
Multiple Choice questions
1. A class that takes data pertaining to a business 5. A customer class in a sales system would be an
event and translates the data for appropriate example of a(n):
presentation to the user would be a(n): A) interface class
A) system class B) entity class
B) interface class C) control class
C) persistence class D) system class
D) control class E) persistence class
E) entity class 6. Which of the following is NOT a tool that can be
2. Which of the following is(are) the UML level of used for discovering class behaviors and
visibility? responsibilities?
A) persistent A) interface diagram
B) public B) class diagram
C) protected C) CRC card
D) both (b) and (c) D) sequence diagram
E) both (a) and (b) and (c) E) none of the above
3. A class that contains business-related information 7. Which diagram depicts classes that correspond to
and implements the analysis classes is a(n): software components that are used to build the
A) interface class software application?
B) control class A) state transition
C) entity class B) design class
D) object-oriented class C) state machine
E) none of the above D) sequence
4. For which level of visibility, the attributes of an E) none of the above
object can be accessed and methods can be 8. Which of the following is the last step in modeling
invoked by any other methods in any other class? class interactions, behaviors, and states that
(check) support the use-case scenarios?
A) protected A) transforming the "analysis" use cases to
B) unprotected "design" use cases
C) private B) identifying class behaviors and
D) public responsibilities
E) persistence C) identifying class attributes
D) identifying and classifying use-case E) navigability
design classes 10. Which diagram models the life cycle of a single
E) model object states object?
9. Which of the following is not included on a design A) visibility diagram
class diagram? B) state transition
A) methods with parameters C) sequence
B) dependencies D) state machine
C) classes E) none of the above
D) entities

Intro to SAD_Ch18: Systems Construction and Implementation


True/False Questions
1. The System Implementation phase includes the a. True
tasks of development, installation, and testing of b. False
system components. Feedback: A program test is a test performed
a. True on an entire program.
b. False 6. Staged conversion is a variation on the abrupt and
Feedback: The System Implementation phase parallel conversions.
includes the tasks of installation and delivery of a. True
the entire system into production. b. False
2. An unpopulated database means the database 7. Validation testing runs the system in a live
structure is implemented, but data has not been environment using real data.
loaded into tables for testing the database. a. True
a. True b. False
b. False 8. In parallel conversion, both the old and the new
3. The first activity of the construction phase is to system are operated for some time period.
write and test new programs. a. True
a. True b. False
b. False 9. Verification testing is sometimes called alpha
Feedback: The first activity of the construction testing.
phase is to build and test networks. a. True
4. The task of preparing a conversion plan is b. False
performed during the Systems Implementation 10. One of the validation tests performed during the
phase. systems acceptance testing is human engineering
a. True test.
b. False a. True
5. A program test is a test performed on a subset of a b. False
program.
Multiple Choice Questions
1. The person generally responsible for the program d. program test
design strategy, standards, and construction is e. system test
called a(n): 3. Which of the following is the last phase of the
a. program librarian Systems Construction phase?
b. backup chief programmer a. build and test databases
c. network designer b. write and test new programs
d. chief programmer c. prepare conversion plan
e. systems analyst d. build and test networks
2. Which one of the tests is performed on a subset of e. none of the above
a program? 4. Which installation strategy is a variation on the
a. subset test abrupt and parallel conversion?
b. unit test a. location conversion
c. stub test b. staged conversion
c. partial conversion d. integration requirements
d. hierarchical conversion e. both (a) and (c)
e. none of the above 8. Which of the following is the first phase of the
5. Which of the following is(are) the task(s) of the Systems Implementation phase?
Systems Conversion phase? a. conduct system test
a. prepare conversion plan b. build and test networks
b. train users c. prepare conversion plan
c. convert to new system d. build and test databases
d. build and test networks e. write and test new programs
e. none of the above 9. Which of the following is(are) the deliverables of
6. Which of the tests is a final system test performed the Systems Implementation phase?
by end users using real data over an extended a. training materials
period of time? b. functional system
a. final test c. physical design specification
b. complete test d. operational system
c. systems acceptance test e. none of the above
d. parallel test 10. Which of the following is(are) the inputs to the
e. none of the above Systems Construction phase?
7. Which of the following is(are) the primary inputs a. design prototypes
into the task of writing and testing new programs? b. redesigned business processes
a. programming plan c. physical design specifications
b. database structure d. documentation
c. test data e. all of the above

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