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ISRO
SCIENTIST ME
2015 PAPER

(1)
80 Questions

Que. 1 The value of y as t → ∞ for an initial value of y(1) = 0, for the differential equation
dy
+ 8yt − t = 0 , is
2
(4t + 1)
dt

1. 1
2. 1

3. 1

4. 1

Que. 2 A shell is fired from a cannon with a speed ‘v’ at an angle θ with the horizontal direction as shown in
the figure. At the highest point in its path, it explodes into two pieces of equal mass. One of the pieces
retraces its path to the cannon. The speed of other piece immediately after the explosion is

1. 3 v cos θ
2. 2 v cos θ
3. 3
v cosθ
2

−
−
4. √
3
v cosθ
2

Que. 3 The point of a contra flexure is the point where ________.

1. B.M. changes sign
2. B.M. is maximum
3. B.M. is minimum
4. S.F. is zero

Que. 4 A mass of 35 Kg is suspended from a weightless bar AB which is supported by a cable CB and a pin at
A as shown in fig. The pin reactions at A on the bar AB are

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 1. Rx = 343.4 N, Ry = 755.4 N
2. Rx = 343.4 N, Ry = 0 N
3. Rx = 755.4 N, Ry = 343.4 N
4. Rx = 755.4 N, Ry = 0 N

Que. 5 A simple structure ABCDE is supported on a hinge at A and on rollers at B while it carriers a
horizontals force of 1000 kN at E as shown in the figure. Determine the force in member AC using the
method of joints.

1. 1500 kN
2. 1400 kN
3. 1314 kN
4. 1414 kN

Que. 6 A circular shaft subjected to torsion undergoes a twist of 1° in length of 120 cm. If the maximum shear
stress induced is limited to 1000 kg/cm2 and if modulus of rigidity G = 0.8 × 106 kg/cm2, then the
radius of the shaft (in cm) should be
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 1. π/18
2. 18/π
3. π/27
4. 27/π

Que. 7 A frame of two arms of equal length L is shown in the adjacent figure. The flexural rigidity of each arm
of the frame is EI. The vertical deflection at the point of application of load P is

1.
3
PL

3EI

2.
3
2P L

3EI

3.
3
PL

EI

4. 4P L
3

3EI

Que. 8 Poisson ratio of a thin cylindrical shell is given as , the diameter is ‘d’, length ‘l’, thickness ‘t’ is
1

subjected to an internal pressure ‘p’. Then, the ratio of longitudinal strain to hoop strain is
1. m−2

2m+1

2. 2m−1

m−2

3. m−2

2m−1

4. 2m+1

m−2

Que. 9 A simply supported beam carries a load ‘P’ through a bracket as shown in figure. The maximum
bending moment in the beam is

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 1. P
l

2. P
l
+
a⋅P

2 2

3. Pl
+
Pa

4 2

4. P
l
− a ⋅ P
2

Que. 10 A vertical column has two moments of inertia (i.e. Ixx and Iyy). The column will tend to buckle in the
direction of the:
1. axis of load
2. perpendicular to the axis of load
3. maximum moment of inertia
4. minimum moment of inertia

Que. 11 Which of the following is applied to brittle materials?

1. maximum principal stress theory
2. maximum principal strain theory
3. maximum strain energy theory
4. maximum shear stress theory

Que. 12 A moving fluid mass may be brought to a static equilibrium position by applying an imaginary inertia
force of the same magnitude as that of the accelerating force but in the opposite direction. This
statement is called
1. Pascal’s law
2. Archimedes’ principle
3. D’Alembert’s principle
4. None of these

Que. 13 For the component loaded with a force F as shown in the figure, the maximum stress at the corner
point P is

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 1. F (3L−b)

3
4b

2. F (3L+b)

3
4b

3. F (3L+2b)

3
4b

4. F (3L−2b)

3
4b

Que. 14 When a body, floating in a liquid is given a small angular displacement, it starts oscillating about a
point known is
1. Centre of pressure
2. Centre of gravity
3. Centre of buoyancy
4. Meta centre

Que. 15 Bernoulli’s equation is applied to

1. Venturimeter
2. Orifice meter
3. Pitot tube meter
4. All of the above

Que. 16 A jet of water discharging from a 40 mm diameter orifice has minimum area corresponding to dia of
24.4 mm at its vena contracta. The coefficient of contraction is
1. 0.46
2. 0.37
3. 0.78
4. 0.87

Que. 17 A tank of uniform cross sectional cross area (A) containing liquid upto height (H) has an orifice of
cross sectional areas (a) at its bottom. The time required to empty the tank completely will be
1. 2A√H
1

Cd a√2g

2. 2AH1

Cd a√2g

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 3. 2AH
3/2

Cd a√2g

4.
2
2AH
1

Cd a√2g

Que. 18 A railway wagon A of mass 10000 kg collides with another identical wagon B as shown in the figure.
If A is moving at 5 m/s and B is at rest at the time of collision, the maximum compression in the spring
S with a spring constant of 2 MN/m will be

1. 20
2. 30
3. 35
4. 45

Que. 19 Two shafts A and B are made of the same material. The diameter of shaft B is twice that of shaft A.
The ratio of power which can be transmitted by shaft A to that of shaft B is
1. 1/2
2. 1/4
3. 1/8
4. 1/16

Que. 20 The power transmitted through the pipe is maximum when the head loss due friction is equal to
1. 1/4th of the total supply head
2. 1/3th of the total supply head
3. 1/2th of the total supply head
4. 2/3th of the total supply head

Que. 21 A massless beam has a loading pattern as shown in the figure. The beam is of rectangular cross-section
with a width of 30 mm and height of 100 mm. The maximum magnitude of bending stress (in MPa) is
given by

1. 60

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 2. 67.5
3. 200
4. 225

Que. 22 What is the type of flow when a cylindrical vessel containing some liquid is rotated about its vertical
axis?
1. Steady flow
2. turbulent flow
3. vortex flow
4. non-uniform flow

Que. 23 Water at 25°C is flowing through a 1.0 km long GI pipe of 200 mm diameter at the rate of 0.07 m3/s. If
value of Darcy friction factor for this pipe is 0.02 and density of water is 1000 kg/m3, the pumping
power (in kW) required to maintain the flow is
1. 1.8
2. 17.4
3. 20.5
4. 41.0

Que. 24 The velocity at which the laminar flow stops is known as

1. Velocity of approach
2. Lower critical velocity
3. Higher critical velocity
4. None of the above

Que. 25 Consider steady-state heat conduction across the thickness in a plane composite wall (as shown in the
figure) exposed to convection conditions on both sides.

Given
hi = 20 W / m2K; h0 = 50 W / m2K; T∞,i = 20°C; T∞,0 = - 2°C ; k1 = 20 W / mk; k2 = 50 W / mk; L1 = 0.30 m
and L2 = 0.15 m
Assuming negligible contact resistance between the wall surfaces, the interface temperature, T (in °C), of the two
walls will be
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 1. -0.50
2. 2.75
3. 3.76
4. 4.50

Que. 26 4 1
For the matrix [ ] , the eigen values are
1 4

1. 3, -3
2. -3, -5
3. 3, 5
4. 5, 0

Que. 27 Solution for the following differential equation with boundary conditions,
2
d y
y(0) = 2 and y(1) = -3 is dx
2
= 3x − 2

1. y =
x
3

−
x
2

+ 3x − 6
3 2

2. y = 3x
3
−
x
2

− 5x + 2
2

3. y =
3
x
− x
2
−
9x
+ 2
2 2

4. y = x
3
−
2
x
+ 5x +
3

2 2

Que. 28 3

is the deflection under the load P of a cantilever beam (length L, modulus of elasticity E, moment
PL

3EI

of inertia I). The strain energy due to bending is

1. P
2
L
3

3EI

2. P
2
L
3

6EI

3.
2 3
P L

4EI

4. P
2
L
3

48EI

Que. 29 ⎡
8 x 0
⎤

For which value of x, will the matrix ⎢ 4 0 2⎥ become singular.

⎣ ⎦
12 6 0

1. 4
2. 6
3. 8
4. 12

Que. 30 A coolant fluid at 30°C flows over a heated flat plate maintained at a constant temperature of 100°C.
The boundary layer temp distribution at a given location on the plate may be approximated as T = 30 +
70exp(-y), where y (in m) is the distance normal to the plate and T is in °C. If the thermal conductivity of the
fluid is 1.0 W/mK, the local convective heat transfer (in W/m2K) at that location will be
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 1. 0.2
2. 1
3. 5
4. 10

Que. 31 In a butt welding process using arc welding, the arc power is found to be 2.5 kVA. The process is used
to weld two steel plates each of 3 mm thickness as shown in the figure. Determine maximum possible
welding speed. It is assumed that the metal transfer is of short circuit type and the arc is on for 85% of the total
time. Take αsteel = 1.2 × 10-5 m2/s, ksteel = 43.6 W/m°C, melting point of steel = 1530°C and ambient
temperature = 30°C.

1. 0.035 m/s
2. 0.0146 m/s
3. 0.02 m/s
4. 0.0156

Que. 32 The effective number of lattice points in the unit cell of simple cubic, body centered cubic, and face
centered cubic space lattices, respectively, are
1. 1,2,2
2. 1,2,4
3. 2,3,4
4. 2,4,4

Que. 33 Thermosetting plastics have in general

1. Molecular chins that slip past one
2. Be a ceramic since all ceramics are glass and glass is a kind of ceramic
3. Have a monolithic crystal structure
4. Have no long range crystalline lattice structure

Que. 34 Silicon steel is widely used in

1. Cutting tools
2. Dies and punches
3. Electrical industry
4. Chemical industry

Que. 35 A furnace wall is constructed as shown in the figure. The interface temperature T1 will be

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 1. 560°C
2. 200°C
3. 920°C
4. 1120°C

Que. 36 Which bond gives the softest bond?

1. Silicate bond
2. Shellac bond
3. Vitrified bond
4. All of equal strength

Que. 37 An eutectoid steel consists of

1. Wholly pearlite
2. Wholly austenite
3. Pearlite and ferrite
4. Pearlite and cementite

Que. 38 Fifty flat pieces of 1 mm thick and initial dimensions as shown in the figure on left side to be milled in
a single cut to the final dimensions shown in figure on right side using end milling. The cutter of
diameter 25 mm has 10 teeth and rotates at 100 rpm. Horizontal feed of the table is 10 mm/min. Assuming
single tooth in contact, the material removal rate will be

1. 35.7 mm3/s
2. 37.7 mm3/s
3. 41.7 mm3/s
4. 47.7 mm3/s

Que. 39 German silver contains

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 1. 12.5% silver
2. 5% silver
3. 1% silver
4. None of the above

Que. 40 Addition of coal dust to the green moulding sand is to improve

1. Permeability
2. Surface finish
3. Mouldability
4. Green strength

Que. 41 Slush casting process is used to produce

1. Hollow castings
2. Intricate castings
3. Large size castings
4. Thin walled castings

Que. 42 Two castings of the same metal have the same surface area. One casting is in the form of a sphere and
the other is a cube. What is the ratio of the solidification time for the sphere to that of the cube?
1. 3/4
2. 6/π
3. 5/4π
4. 3π/8

Que. 43 Plug gauge is used to measure

1. Taper bores
2. Cylindrical bores
3. Spherical holes
4. None of the above

Que. 44 Resistance spot welding is performed on two plates of 1.5 mm thickness with 6 mm diameter
electrode, using 15000 A current for a time duration of 0.25 seconds. Assuming the interface resistance
to be 0.0001Ω, the heat generated to form the weld is
1. 5625 W-sec
2. 8437 W-sec
3. 22500 W-sec
4. 33750 W-sec

Que. 45 Preheating before welding is done to

1. Make the steel softer
2. Burn away oil, grease etc. from the plate surface
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 3. Prevent cold cracks
4. Prevent plate distortion

Que. 46 The velocity of tool along the tool face known as

1. Shear Velocity
2. Chip velocity
3. Cutting velocity
4. Mean velocity

Que. 47 A milling cutter having 8 teeth is rotating at 150 RPM. If the feed per tooth is 0.1, the table speed in
mm per minute is
1. 120
2. 187
3. 125
4. 70

Que. 48 A mass of 100 kg is held between two springs as shown in figure. The natural frequency of vibration
of the system in cycles/second is

1. 10/π
2. 5/π
3. ½π
4. 20/π

Que. 49 In ultrasonic machining process, the material removal rate would

1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Increase and then decrease
4. Decrease and then increase

Que. 50 Tool life of 10 hrs is obtained when cutting with single point tool at 63 m/min. If Taylor’s constant C =
257.35, tool life on doubling the velocity will be
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 1. 5 hrs
2. 25.7 min
3. 38.3 min
4. No change

Que. 51 3-2-1 method of location in a jig or fixture would collectively restrict the work piece in ‘n’ degrees of
freedom where the value of ‘n’ is
1. 6
2. 8
3. 9
4. 1

Que. 52 During orthogonal machining with a HSS tool, the rake angle is 5°, un-deformed chip thickness is 0.25
mm and width of cut is 4 mm. Assuming shear strength of work material to be 350 N/mm2 and
coefficient of friction as 0.5, determined cutting and thrust force.
1. 1029.4 N, 406.8 N
2. 1000 N, 500 N
3. 1110.5 N, 425.8 N
4. 1025.4 N, 410.8 N

Que. 53 The probability that a teacher will give an unannounced test during any class is 1/5. If a student is
absent twice, then probability that misses atleast one test is
1. 2

2. 4

3. 7

25

4. 9

25

Que. 54 The difference between two specific heats, C p

− Cv =
R
. This relation is valid for
J

1. Any gas
2. Perfect gases
3. Real gases
4. Pure gases

Que. 55 A process in which no heat is supplied or rejected from the system and entropy is not constant is
known as
1. Isothermal
2. Isentropic
3. Polytropic
4. Hyperbolic

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Que. 56 Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for
1. Petrol engine
2. Diesel engine
3. Reversible engine
4. Irreversible engine

Que. 57 The inlet and the outlet conditions of stream for an adiabatic steam turbine are as indicated in the
notations are as usually followed. If mass flow rate of steam through the turbine is 20 kg/s, the power
output of the turbine (in MW) is

1. 12.157
2. 12.941
3. 168.001
4. 168.784

Que. 58 A solar energy based heat engine which receives 80 kJ of heat at 100 degree C and rejects 70 kJ of heat
to the ambient at 30 degree C is to be designed. The thermal efficiency of the heat engine is
1. 70%
2. 1.88%
3. 12.5%
4. None of the above

Que. 59 A Carnot cycle refrigerator operates between 250 K and 300 K. Its coefficient of performance is
1. 6.0
2. 5.0
3. 1.2
4. 0.8

Que. 60 A large diesel engine runs on a 4-stroke cycle at 2000 rpm. The engine has a displacement of 25 litre
and a brake mean effective pressure of 0.6 MN/m2. It consumes 0.018 kg/s of fuel (calorific value =
42000 kJ/Kg). Determined the brake power.
1. 250 kW
2. 225 kW
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 3. 275 kW
4. None of the above

Que. 61 A gas having a negative Joule-Thomson coefficient (μ < 0), when throttled, will
1. Become cooler
2. Become warmer
3. First become cooler and then warmer
4. Either be cooler or warmer depending on the type of gas

Que. 62 The pressure p of an ideal gas and its mean kinetic energy E per unit volume are related by the relation
1. p =
4

3
E

2. p =
3E

3. p =
2

3
E

4. p =
E

Que. 63 The figure shows the principle of

1. traceability
2. interchangeably
3. matched fits
4. selective assembly

Que. 64 Your finger sticks to an ice tray just taken form the refrigerator. Which factor has more effect on this
phenomenon?
1. The inside temperature of the freezer
2. The humidity of the air
3. The heat capacity of both your finder and the tray
4. The thermal conductivity of the tray

Que. 65 Wet clothes are hung on a clothesline outdoors in sub-zero weather. After a day, the clothes are brought
into the house and observed to be dry. The process of drying is best explained as
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 1. Vaporization
2. Sublimation
3. Melting
4. Condensation

Que. 66 A 10 kg solid at 100°C with a specific heat, of 0.8 kJ/kg°C is immersed in 40 kg of 20°C liquid with a
specific heat of 4.0 kJ/kg°C. Estimate the temperature after a long time if the container is insulated?
1. 30°C
2. 28°C
3. 26°C
4. 24°C

Que. 67 For a current-carrying wire of 20 mm diameter exposed to air (h = 20 W/m2K), maximum heat
distribution occurs when the thickness of insulation (k = 0.5 W/mK) is
1. 20 mm
2. 10 mm
3. 2.5 mm
4. None of the above

Que. 68 A steel ball of mass 1 kg and specific heat 0.4 kJ/kgK is at a temperature of 60°C. It is dropped into 1
kg water at 20°C. The final steady state temperature of water is
1. 23.5°C
2. 30°C
3. 35°C
4. 40°C

Que. 69 It is proposed to coat a 1 mm diameter wire with enamel paint (k = 0.1 W/mK) to increase the heat
transfer with air. If the air side heat transfer coefficient is 100 W/m2K, the optimum thickness of
enamel paint should be
1. 0.25 mm
2. 0.5 mm
3. 1 mm
4. 2 mm

Que. 70 In a pulverized fuel fired large power boiler, the heat transfer from the bringing fuel to the walls of the
furnace is
1. by conduction only
2. by convection only
3. by conduction and convection
4. predominantly by radiation

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Que. 71 Three metal walls of the same cross-sectional area having thermal conductivities in the ratio 1: 2: 4
transfer heat at the rate of 3000 kJ/hour. For the same wall thickness, the temperature drops will be in
the ratio
1. 1 : 2 : 4
2. 1 : : 1 1

2 4

3. 1
: 1
:1
4 2

4. 1:1:1

Que. 72 A basic hole is one whose

1. Lower deviation is zero
2. Upper deviation is zero
3. Lower and upper deviations
4. None of the above

Que. 73 As per IT 5, standard tolerance unit (i) is equal to

1. 0.002 + 0.8 D
2. 0.8 + 0.002 D
3. 0.45∛D + 0.001 D
4. 0.001∛D + 0.45 D

Que. 74 Circular shapes appear in this fashion when viewed at an angle other than 90 degrees
1. Circular
2. Elliptical
3. Lengthened
4. Angular

Que. 75 Starting friction is low in:

1. Hydrostatic lubrication
2. Hydrodynamic lubrication
3. Mixed (or semi-fluid) lubrication
4. Boundary lubrication

Que. 76 Which of the following is Trapezoidal thread?

1. Acme
2. Square
3. Buttress
4. All options are correct

Que. 77 The ratio of the diameter of rivet hole to the pitch of the rivet is 0.25, then the tearing efficiency of the
joint is
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 1. 50 %
2. 75 %
3. 25 %
4. 87 %

Que. 78 The life of a ball bearing at a load of 10 kN is 8000 hours. If the load is increased to 20 kN, keeping all
other conditions the same, then its life in hours is
1. 4000
2. 2000
3. 1000
4. 500

Que. 79 A drawing which shows the product with its components in their correct physical relationship is called
1. Part drawing
2. Layout drawing
3. Assembly drawing
4. Fabrication drawing

Que. 80 Which one of the following is a solid state joining process ?

1. Gas tungsten arc welding
2. Resistance spot welding
3. Friction welding
4. Submerged arc welding

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80 Questions

Que. 1 Correct Option - 4

Que. 2 Correct Option - 1

Que. 3 Correct Option - 1

Que. 4 Correct Option - 4

Que. 5 Correct Option - 4

Que. 6 Correct Option - 4

Que. 7 Correct Option - 4

Que. 8 Correct Option - 3

Que. 9 Correct Option - 3

Que. 10 Correct Option - 4

Que. 11 Correct Option - 1

Que. 12 Correct Option - 3

Que. 13 Correct Option - 4

Que. 14 Correct Option - 4

Que. 15 Correct Option - 4

Que. 16 Correct Option - 2

Que. 17 Correct Option - 1

Que. 18 Correct Option - 3

Que. 19 Correct Option - 3

Que. 20 Correct Option - 2

Que. 21 Correct Option - 2

Que. 22 Correct Option - 3

Que. 23 Correct Option - 2

Que. 24 Correct Option - 2

Que. 25 Correct Option - 3

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Que. 26 Correct Option - 3

Que. 27 Correct Option - 3

Que. 28 Correct Option - 2

Que. 29 Correct Option - 1

Que. 30 Correct Option - 2

Que. 31 Correct Option - 4

Que. 32 Correct Option - 2

Que. 33 Correct Option - 4

Que. 34 Correct Option - 3

Que. 35 Correct Option - 3

Que. 36 Correct Option - 1

Que. 37 Correct Option - 1

Que. 38 Correct Option - 3

Que. 39 Correct Option - 4

Que. 40 Correct Option - 2

Que. 41 Correct Option - 1

Que. 42 Correct Option - 2

Que. 43 Correct Option - 2

Que. 44 Correct Option - 1

Que. 45 Correct Option - 3

Que. 46 Correct Option - 2

Que. 47 Correct Option - 1

Que. 48 Correct Option - 1

Que. 49 Correct Option - 3

Que. 50 Correct Option - 2

Que. 51 Correct Option - 3

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Que. 52 Correct Option - 1

Que. 53 Correct Option - 4

Que. 54 Correct Option - 2

Que. 55 Correct Option - 3

Que. 56 Correct Option - 3

Que. 57 Correct Option - 1

Que. 58 Correct Option - 3

Que. 59 Correct Option - 2

Que. 60 Correct Option - 1

Que. 61 Correct Option - 2

Que. 62 Correct Option - 3

Que. 63 Correct Option - 4

Que. 64 Correct Option - 4

Que. 65 Correct Option - 2

Que. 66 Correct Option - 4

Que. 67 Correct Option - 4

Que. 68 Correct Option - 1

Que. 69 Correct Option - 2

Que. 70 Correct Option - 4

Que. 71 Correct Option - 2

Que. 72 Correct Option - 1

Que. 73 Correct Option - 3

Que. 74 Correct Option - 2

Que. 75 Correct Option - 1

Que. 76 Correct Option - 1

Que. 77 Correct Option - 2

Que. 78
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 Correct Option - 3

Que. 79 Correct Option - 3

Que. 80 Correct Option - 3

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