CARE OF INFANTS AND CHILDREN
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following questions. Mark only
one answer for each item by shading the box corresponding to the letter of your choice
on the answer sheet provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no.1
only.
1. An APGAR score 5 minutes after birth will indicate:
a. Prognosis of the body
b. Need for resuscitation
c. Both a and b
2. The most important factor in the APGAR scoring system:
a. Respiration
b. Muscle tone
c. Heart rate
3. In the Silverman scoring system for pre-term newborn, a score of 10 denotes:
a. Normal ventilation
b. Good metabolism
c. Respiratory distress
4. A perfect silverman score is:
a. 0 – 3 b. 4 – 6 c. 7 – 10
5. An individual from birth to 4 weeks of life:
a. Neonate b. Fetus c. Infant
6. A normal Filipino newborn is expected to weigh a minimum of:
a. 2.275 kg b. 2.5 kg c. 3.0 kg
7. A normal length at a birth of a Filipino is:
a. 15 – 17 inches
b. 17 – 20 inches
c. 21 – 25 inches
8. This is true with regards to temperature of a neonate at birth:
a. Stable at 36 – 37oC
b. Unstable, will stabilize within 8 hours
c. Both a and b
9. These are characteristics of a neonate’s cardiac rate, EXCEPT:
a. Regular and rapid
b. Irregular
c. May increase while crying
10. The normal heart rate of the newborn:
a. 120 – 160 beats/minute
b. 160 – 180 beats/minute
c. 30 – 60 beats/minute
11. The normal head circumference of the newborn is:
a. 31 – 32 cm
b. 33 – 35 cm
c. 39 – 40 cm
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12. The biggest body part of the baby at birth:
a. Trunk b. Head c. Extremities
13. Medicine used for Crede’s prophylaxis: Medicine lang naman ang tinatanung, so
choose terramycin since this is the most common, pero kung ang tanung
medicines, ang tama ay Both A & B
a. Silver Nitrate solution
b. Terramycin ointment
c. Both a and b
14. This condition is not normal in the newborn skin an hour after birth:
a. White pinpoint papules on nose and chin
b. Cyanosis of the lips, hand and feet
c. Jaundice
15. These are temporary marks in the newborn, EXCEPT:
a. Mongolian spot
b. Nevi
c. Strawberry marks
16. The most common danger sign in the newborn:
a. Cyanosis
b. Excessive mucus secretion
c. Irregular breathing
17. A newborn’s first temperature is taken rectally so that the midwife can assess for:
a. A meconium impaction
b. Initial temperature
c. A patent anus
18. A reflex used to gauge the presence of the sense of hearing:
a. Moro reflex
b. Rooting reflex
c. Tonic-neck reflex
19. This physiologic occurrence in the newborn that makes the neonate bleed easily:
a. Physiologic jaundice
b. Neonatal hypothymia
c. Hypoprothrombinemia
20. Weight loss during the neonatal period is physiologic if:
a. It is within the first to fifth day of life
b. It does not exceed 5 – 10% of the body’s birth weight
c. Both a and b
21. This is not true of Mongolian spots:
a. Bluish discoloration of the buttocks
b. Disappear gradually in due time
c. Permanent birthmarks
22. This is not true regarding baby’s weight:
a. Increase within the first week of life
b. Physiologic loss of 5 – 10% of birth weight
c. Triple birth weight at one year of age
23. Development refers to an increase in mental and social skills that denotes:
a. Qualitative change
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b. Maturation
c. Quantitative change
24. Motor development in children normally proceeds in a cephalocaudal order,
meaning, it is from:
a. Head to lower extremities
b. Proximal to distal
c. Gross to refined
25. The level of intelligence of children can be influenced by the following factors,
EXCEPT:
a. Infection which will affect brain growth
b. Position of the child in the family
c. Nutrition
26. Genetic influences that make up the individual includes the following, EXCEPT:
a. Race of nationality
b. Level of intelligence
c. Psychosocial factor
27. Who in ordinal position of sibling is considered the most independent as to growth
and development?
a. Middle children
b. Youngest children
c. First born
28. At one to two months of age, an infant is expected to:
a. Have good head control
b. Smile and vocalize
c. Have head control
29. Normally, an infant walks alone at this age:
a. 8 – 10 months
b. 11 – 12 months
c. 13 – 14 months
30. A 4-year old child is expected to have this number of milk teeth:
a. 20 b. 22 c. 24
31. Which of the following behavior is not normal of a 4-year old child:
a. Getting personal thing from another
b. Sibling rivalry
c. Imaginary playmate
32. When a child becomes curious about sexual difference and learn:
a. Anal phase
b. Latent phase
c. Phallic phase
33. In choosing toys for children, the following criteria must be considered, EXCEPT:
a. Attractiveness
b. Safety
c. Stimulating
34. There is a 6-year old child. She loves to play hide and seek with friends. This kind
of play is:
a. Parallel b. Cooperative c. Solitary
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35. According to Erikson, the personality trait expected of a toddler is his sense of:
a. Trust b. Industry c. Autonomy
36. The personality trait developed during pubescence and adolescence:
a. Sense of identity
b. Sense of intimacy
c. Both a and b
37. Developmental stage in life characterized by rapid growth:
a. Infancy
b. Adolescence
c. Both a and b
38. Common behavioral problems of the adolescents include the following, EXCEPT:
a. Drugs and smoking
b. Attracting to opposite sex
c. Juvenile delinquency
39. What piece of advice can a midwife give to a mother of a preschooler to prevent
inferior complex in her child?
a. Encouragement, praises and rewards be given liberally
b. Do not compare the child with other children
c. Both a and b
40. Comparatively speaking, the toddler’s HEAD is:
a. Smaller than his chest
b. Bigger than his chest
c. As big as his chest
41. This statement is true with regards to growth and development of boy and girl:
a. Girl develops earlier than boy
b. Girls are usually bigger and heavier at birth
c. Boys develop earlier than girls
42. The quantitative change of an individual can be measure in the following,
EXCEPT:
a. Height
b. Weight
c. Level of intelligence
43. These are postnatal conditions that affect the baby’s growth and development,
EXCEPT:
a. X-ray exposure of mother during pregnancy
b. Illness of child
c. Socio-economic status of parents
44. Applied eugenics would include the following activities:
a. Blood tests in marriage to avoid blood incompatibility
b. Selection of marriage partners to avoid anomalies
c. Both a and b
45. This maternal problem may contribute to the incidence of prematurity:
a. Infection
b. Pregnancy induced hypertension
c. Diabetes mellitus
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46. This condition may cause cyanosis in the newborn:
a. Congenital heart disease
b. Atelectasis
c. Both a and b
47. Brain damage due to birth injury is common in:
a. Prolonged labor
b. Precipitate labor
c. Premature rupture of membrane
48. Premature rupture of bag of water may cause this problem in the neonate:
a. Sepsis neonatorum
b. Ophthalmia neonatorum
c. Tetanus neonatorum
49. Disease of the newborn that can be acquired thru the placenta:
a. Gonorrheal conjunctivitis
b. Tetanus neonatorum
c. Congenital syphilis
50. This is not a local symptom of omphalitis: Omphalitis is an infection of the
umbilicus and/or surrounding tissues, occurring primarily in the neonatal period
a. Wetness of the stump of cord
b. Fever
c. Foul odor
51. An abnormal condition that usually accompanies teething:
a. Gum irritability
b. Salivation
c. Diarrhea
52. The congenital union or fusion of two or three fingers is termed:
a. Syndactylism
b. Polydactylism
c. Pocomelia
53. Frequent respiratory infection which predisposes a child to rheumatic heart
disease is caused by:
a. Virus
b. Streptococcus
c. Staphylococcus
54. Erythroblastosis fetalis may manifest this symptom:
a. Severe jaundice
b. Severe anemia
c. Both a and b
Erythroblastosis fetalis = Hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn
(HDFN) is also known as alloimmune HDFN or erythroblastosis fetalis. It is
caused by the destruction of neonatal red blood cells by maternal
immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibodies
55. The bluish discoloration of the palm and sole is called:
a. Cyanosis
b. Mongolian spot
c. Acrocyanosis
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56. When there is jaundice of the sclera within twenty 4 hours after birth:
a. It needs immediate referral
b. It is a condition that needs close observation
c. It is physiologic
57. To prevent trauma and deformity of a pre-term newborn, the midwife must
observe this precaution:
a. Minimal and gentle handling
b. Place infant in an isolate
c. Wash hands before handling the baby
58. Care of the pre-term infant turning him from side to side at least every 2 hours to
prevent:
a. Deformity b. Trauma c. Atelectasis
59. A pregnant woman must avoid infection to protect her baby from this disease:
a. Icterus neonatorum
b. Sepsis neonatorum
c. Tetanus neonatorum
60. The perennial area and buttocks of the infant should be washed with soap and
water whenever necessary to prevent:
a. Impetigo - Impetigo is a common and highly contagious skin infection that mainly affects
infants and young children. It usually appears as reddish sores on the face, especially around
the nose and mouth and on the hands and feet. Over about a week, the sores burst and
develop honey-colored crusts
b. Intertrigo - Intertrigo describes a rash in the flexures, such as behind the ears, under the
arms, and in the groin. It is a sign of inflammation or infection
c. Ammoniacal dermatitis – or Napkin dermatitis results from prolonged skin contact with
urine and feces. Bacteria convert urea to ammonia which is an alkaline irritant.
61. To prevent vomiting in infants, prevent the most common cause which is:
a. Overfeeding
b. Underfeeding
c. Frequent burping
62. Children who fail to gain weight but instead loses it without justifiable causes are
called:
a. Latch-key children
b. Failure to thrive children = When growing kids don't gain weight as they should, it is
called "failure to thrive." Failure to thrive is not a disease or disorder itself
c. Battered child
63. In order to facilitate removal of excessive vernix caseosa, a midwife should use:
a. Soap and water
b. Baby oil
c. Warm water
64. Colic can be prevented by the following, EXCEPT:
a. Burping the baby in between and after feeding
b. Diluting milk formula correctly
c. Giving sterile water in between feedings
65. To prevent impetigo, the midwife must advise mothers to:
a. Sterilize baby’s layette
b. Change baby’s clothing more frequently
c. Bathe the baby daily
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66. Advice that can be given to mothers to prevent oral moniliasis:
a. Sterilize feeding equipment properly
b. Provide good oral hygiene
c. Both a and b
67. A septic technique in dressing the cord will prevent the following, EXCEPT:
a. Hernia b. Tetanus c. Omphalitis
68. The following conditions can be prevented by good skin care, EXCEPT:
a. Malaria b. Intertrigo c. Milia
69. The best preventive measure of mongolism:
a. Select marriage partners carefully
b. Avoid pregnancy after 35 years of age
c. Both a and b
70. Next to cereals, the following foods are given to the baby:
a. Fish, liver, egg yolk
b. Banana, papaya, mashed potatoes
c. Lugao, am
71. In supplementary feeding, placing the food at the back of the tongue is done to:
a. Detect allergies
b. Prevent aspiration
c. Both a and b
72. The midwife must advice the mother to start giving supplementary foods one at a
time in order to:
a. Familiarize the baby with the taste
b. Soothe the gums
c. Trace of allergy
73. These are foods that usually cause allergies in children, EXCEPT:
a. Cereals b. Chocolates c. Egg white
74. If the baby’s weight is only 70% of his ideal baby weight, he is considered to be
malnourished in his count:
a. First degree
b. Second degree
c. Third degree
75. When tetanus toxoid is given to pregnant mother, her baby is assured of this type
of immunity:
a. Natural b Active c. Passive
76. P.D. 995 refers to compulsory immunization of children against the following
preventable diseases, EXCEPT:
a. Measles b. Tetanus c. Hepatitis B
77. After a DPT vaccination, the midwife should assure the mother that it is normal if:
a. Her baby develops a rise in temperature after a few hours
b. A small lump is formed at injection site
c. Both a and b
78. The current trend in the treatment of all diarrhea cases:
a. Anti-diarrheal drugs
b. Antibiotics
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c. Oresol treatment
79. The national code of marketing breastmilk substitute and its violation is embodied
in:
a. P.D. 651 b. P.D. 603 c. E.O. 51
80. The method for proper breastfeeding is:
a. Suckling b. Sucking c. Latch-in
81. Advices that a midwife may give to breastfeeding mothers who are taking
medicines for whatever illness includes:
a. Stop breastfeeding temporarily while taking medicine
b. Take the medicine immediately after breastfeeding
c. Breastfeed 2 hours after taking medicine
82. Insufficient milk supply in breastfeeding mothers is usually due to:
a. Anxiety and fatigue
b. Poor maternal nutrition
c. Both A & B
83. This is not true of breastfeeding:
a. There is no absolute contraindication
b. Frequent suckling of the breasts enhances milk secretion
c. Breast size affects amount of milk
84. A normal nipple is one which is:
a. Inverted b. Protracted c. Contracted
85. Nipple care should usually be recommended to mothers with:
a. Contracted nipple
b. Crack and lesions of nipple
c. Both a and b
86. The following are true about colostrum, EXCEPT:
a. First immunization that the baby receives
b. Nutritious
c. May cause diarrhea
87. One way to prevent breastfeeding jaundice:
a. Frequent breastfeeding day and night
b. Stop breastfeeding temporarily
c. Give sterile water frequently
88. Breastmilk will provide the needed nutrients, vitamins and minerals of the body to
about this age:
a. 6 months b. 8 months c. 1 year
89. A modern trend in the care of pre-term newborn is to give breastmilk thru:
a. Medicine dropper
b. Medicine glass
c. Gavage = introduction of material into the stomach by a tube / PURPOSE is
for feeding
90. Milk banking is another modern concept in breastfeeding that includes:
a. Collection of breastmilk thru breast expression
b. Storage of breastmilk in the refrigerator or freezer
c. Both a and b
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91. The nutrient is more in breastmilk than in cow’s milk?
a. Carbohydrates
b. Proteins
c. Fats
92. The newborn is immediately places to this mother’s breast after clearing air
passages in order to:
a. Stimulate uterine contraction
b. Initiate mother to child bonding
c. Both a and b
93. The midwife evaluates Baby-A for the second time by using the APGAR scoring
system. She has recorded the infant’s color, respiratory effort, reflex irritability,
heart rate and should next the infant’s:
a. Length c. Muscle
b. Weight d. Blood pressure
94. The first and most common finding is mild hemolytic disease of the newborn:
a. Anemia c. Bilirubinuria
b. Jaundice d. Pallor
95. The administration of parenteral Vit. K is indicated for:
a. Infants below 2,500 gm
b. Infants of less than 36 weeks of gestation
c. All newborn infants
d. Jaundiced infant
96. These are characteristics of a neonate’s cardiac rate, EXCEPT:
a. Regular and rapid
b. Irregular
c. May increase while crying
d. Constant
97. Caution should be considered in the administration of oxygen to pre-term
newborn as this may affect the baby’s:
a. Eye
b. Heart
c. Lungs
d. Brain
98. A baby was born with the head elongated and slightly swollen. This appearance
of the baby’s head is considered as:
a. Caput succedaneum
b. Brain damage
c. Cephalhematoma
99. To prevent the child from getting ophthalmia neonatorum, the midwife will perform
a preventive measure known as:
a. Eye washing
b. Eye irrigation
c. Crede’s prophylaxis
100. The solution commonly used for the preventive measure to prevent
ophthalmia neonatorum is:
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a. Antibiotic ointment 10%
b. Boiled water
c. Silver nitrate 1%
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