Physics Practice Assignment Day 19
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krishtendulkar24Physics Practice Assignment Day 19
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krishtendulkar24SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT
DAY – 19 (DT 28-04-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
CHAPTER: Units, Dimensions and Measurements
√
1. The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x from a fixed origin as U = , where A and B are
dimensional constants, then find the dimensional formula for AB.
(1) ML11/2T-2 (2) M0L11/2T-2 (3) ML9/2T-2 (4) ML9/2T-1
HINT : From the principle of dimensional homogeneity,
[x2] = [B]
∴ [B] = [L2]
[ ] / [ ] /
As well as [U] = [ ] [ ]
⇒[ ML2T-2] = [ ]
∴ [A] = [ML7/2T-2]
Now [AB] = [ML7/2T-2] x [L2] = [ML11/2T-2]
KEY : 1
2. The position of a particle at time t is given by the relation x(t) = (1 − ), where is a constant and
α> 0. The dimensions of and α are, respectively,
(1) and (2) and (3) and (4) and T
HINT : Dimension of αt = [M0L0T0] ⇒ [α] = [ ]
Again = [L]. so [v0] = [ L ]
KEY : 1
3. The equation of the state of some gases can be expressed as + = , where P is the pressure, V the
volume, θ the absolute temperature, and a and b are constants. The dimensional formula of a is
(1) [M ] (2) [ ] (3) [M ] (4) [M ]
HINT : By the principle of dimensional homogeneity,
[P] = ⇒ [a] = [P] x [ ] = [M ][ ] = [M ]
KEY : 1
4. Convert 1 MW power on a new system having basic units of mass, length, and time as 10 kg, 1 cm, and 1
min, respectively.
(1) 2.16 x 1010 unit (2) 2.16 x 1012 unit
(3) 2.16 x 1011 unit (4) 2.16 x 1013 unit
HINT : [P] = [ML2T-3]
Using the relation,
n2 = n1 = 1 x 106
[as 1MW = 106 W]
1
6 1 2 3
= 10 = 10 10 60 =2.16 x 1012 unit
6
10
KEY : 2
5. From the equation tan θ= , one can obtain the angle of banking θ for a cyclist taking a curve (the symbols
have their usual meanings). Then, say, it is
(1) Both dimensionally and numerically correct (2) Neither numerically nor dimensionally correct
(3) Dimensionally correct only (4) Numerically correct only
HINT : Given equation is dimensionally correct because both sides are dimensionless but numerically
wrong because the correct equation is tanθ = v2/rg
KEY : 3
6. If the dimensions of length are expressed as ℎ , where G, c and h are the universal gravitational
constant, speed of light and Planck’s constant, respectively, then
(1) x = , y= (2) x = ,z= (3) y = ,z= (4) y = - ,z=
HINT : Length ∝ ℎ
L=[ ] [ ] [ ]
By comparing the power of M, L and T in both sides, we get –x + z = 0, 3x + y + 2z = 1 and -2x –y – z = 0.
By solving above three equations, we get x = ,y=- ,z=
KEY : 2
7. The speed of light (c), gravitational constant (G) and Planck’s constant (h) are taken as the fundamental units
in a system. The dimension of time in this new system should be
(1) / ℎ / /
(2) /
ℎ/ / (3) / ℎ / /
(4) / ℎ / /
HINT : Time ∝ ℎ ⇒T=k ℎ
Putting the dimensions in the above relation
⇒[ ] = [L ]X[ ] [ ]
⇒[ ]=[ ]
Comparing the powers of M, L and T
-y +z = 0 ……….(1)
X + 3y +2z = 0 ………(2)
-x -2y –z = 1 …………….(3)
On solving equations (1) and (2) and (3) X = ,y=z=
Hence dimension of time are [ ℎ ]
KEY : 1
8. A physical quantity x depends on quantities y and z as follows: x = Ay + B tan (Cz), where A, B and C are
constants. Which of the following do not have same dimensions?
(1) x and B (2) C and z-1 (3) y and B/A (4) x and A
HINT :
[x] = [Ay] = [B] ⇒ [y] =[B/A]
Also, [x] ≠ [A] and [Cz] = dimensionless⇒ [C] = [z-1]
KEY : 4
9. Given that Y = a sin ωt + bt + ct2cosωt. The unit of abc is same as that of
(1) y (2) y/t (3) ( / ) (4) ( / )
HINT : y = a sin ωt +bt + ct2
Here a = y; b = y/t; c = y/t2
∴ a x b x c = y x y/t x y/t2 = (y/t)3
KEY : 4
10. If E, M, J and G, respectively, denote energy, mass, angular momentum, and gravitational constant, then
EJ 2 / M 5G 2 has the dimensions of
1) Time 2) Angle 3) Mass 4) Length
ML2T 2 ML2T 1 2
EJ 2
HINT : M 0 L0T 0
M M L T
5 2 2
M G 5 1 3 2
This comes out to be dimensionless and angle is also dimensionless.
KEY : 2
11. A student when discussing the properties of a medium (except vacuum)writes velocity of light in
vacuum=velocity of light in mediumThis formula is
1) Dimensionally correct 2) Dimensionally incorrect
3) Numerically incorrect 4) Both (1) and (3)
HINT : The formula can be written as =1
The formula is dimensionally correct as both the sides are dimensionless.
Numerically, this ratio is equal to refractive index which is greater than 1.
Hence, the equation is numerically incorrect.
KEY : 4
12. If L, R, C and V respectively, represent inductance resistance, capacitance and potential difference, then the
dimensions of L/RCV are the same as those of
1) Charge 2) 1/Charge 3) Current 4) 1/Current
L L 1 1
HINT :
RCV dI dI Current
T L
dt
dI
[As RC= time constant T and potential difference L ]
dt
KEY : 4
13. A liquid drop of density , radius r, and surface tension oscillates with time period T. Which of the
following expressions for T 2 is correct?
r 3 r 3
1) 2) 3) 4)None of these
r3
HINT : Let T 2 a r bc
T 2 ML3 L MT 2 M ac L3 abT 2 c
a b c
a c 0 a c
3a b 0 b 3a
2 c 2 c 1
a 1 and b 3
KEY : 1
14. Which of the following pairs have the same dimensions?
1) magnetic flux and 0 I 2) h / e and electric flux
3) Electric flux and q / 0 4) Electric flux and 0 I
HINT :Dimensions of magnetic flux = magnetic fieldarea
F MLT 2 2 2 2 1
Area L ML T A
iL AL
h Plank ' s cons tan t ML2T 1
Dimensions of
e Ch arg e AT
ML2T 2 A1
q
From Gauss theorem, electric flux
0
Dimensional formula of 0 I M 1L1T 2 A1
KEY : 3
15. Which of the following sets has different dimensions?
1) Pressure, Young’s modulus, stress 2) Emf, potential difference, electric potential
3) Heat, Work done, energy 4) Dipole moment, electric flux, electric field
HINT : Dimensional formula of Dipole moment p q length LT
1 1 1
A
Dimensional formula of Electric flux E area M 1 L3T 3 A1
F
Dimensional formula of Electric field E M 1L1T 3 A1
A
KEY : 4
16. If frequency F, velocity V, and density D are considered fundamental quantities , the dimensional formula for
momentum will be
(1) DVF2 (2) DV2 (3) D2V2F2 (4) DV4F-3
HINT : Momentum, p = D aV b F c
1 3 a 1 b 1 c
MLT M L LT T
1 1
a 1
3a b 1 b 1 3a 4
b c 1 c b 1 3
Dimensional formula of P= DV4F-3
KEY : 4
17. If radius of the sphere is (5.3 ± 0.1) cm. Then percentage error in its volume will be
100 1 100 3 0.1 0.1
(1) 3 6.01 (2) 0.01 (3) 100 (4) 100
5.3 3 5.3 5.3 5.3
4
HINT : Volume of sphere (V) r 3
3
r 0.1
% error in volume 3 100 3 100
r 5.3
KEY : 3
18. The pressure on a square plate is measured by measuring the force on the plate and the length of the sides of
the plate. If the maximum error in the measurement of force and length are, respectively, 4% and 2%.
The maximum error in the measurement of pressure is
(1) 1% (2) 2% (3) 6% (4) 8%
F F
HINT : P 2 , so maximum error in pressure (P)
A l
P F l
100 100 2 100
P max F l
= 4+2(2) =8%
KEY : 4
19. A wire has a mass 0.3 ± 0.003 g, radius 0.5 ± 0.005 mm and length 0.6 ± 0.006 cm. The maximum
percentage error in the measurement of its density is
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
M M M r L
HINT: Density 2 2
V r L M r L
0.003 0.005 0.06
2 0.01 0.02 0.01 0.04
0.3 0.5 0.6
Percentage error 100 0.04 100 = 4%
KEY : 4
20. The relative density of material of a body is found by weighing it first in air and then in water. If the weight
in air is (5.00 ± 0.05) N and weight in water is (4.00 ± 0.05) N. Then the relative density along with the
maximum permissible percentage error is
(1) 5.0 ± 11% (2) 5.0 ± 1% (3) 5.0 ±6% (4) 1.25 ±5%
HINT : Weight in air =(5.00 ± 0.05)N
Weight in water = (4.00 ± 0.05 )N
Loss of weight in water = (1.00 ± 0.1 )N
Now relative density
weight in air
=
weight loss in water
Now relative density with max permissible error
5.00 0.05 0.1
= 100 5.0 (1 10)% 5.0 11%
1.00 5.00 1.00
KEY : 1
21. The resistance R=V/i,where V=100±5V and i =10 ± 0.2 A. What is the total error in R?
5
(1) 5% (2) 7% (3) 5.2 % (4) %
2
V
HINT : R
I
R V I 5 0.2
100 100 100 100 100 7%
R max V I 100 10
KEY : 2
22. The length of a cylinder is measured with a meter rod having least count 0.1 cm. Its diameter is measured
with venier calipers having least count 0.01 cm. Given that
length is 5.0 cm. and radius is 2.0 cm. The percentage error in the calculated value of the volume will be
(1) 1% (2) 2% (3) 3% (4) 4%
HINT : Volume of cylinder V r 2l
Percentage error in volume
V 2 r l
100 100 100
V r l
0.01 0.1
2 100 100 (1 2)% 3%
2.0 5.0
KEY : 3
23. In an experiment, the following observation’s were recorded: L=2.820 m, M= 3.00 kg, l = 0.087 cm.
4MgL
Diameter D = 0.041 cm. Taking g= 9.81 m/s2, using the formula, Y ,the maximum permissible error
D 2l
in Y is
(1) 7.96% (2) 4.56% (3) 6.50% (d) 8.42%
4MgL
HINT : Y so maximum permissible error in
D 2l
Y M g L 2D l
Y 100 100
Y M g L D l
0.01 0.01 0.001 0.001 0.001
2 100 0.065 100 6.5%
3 9.81 2.820 0.041 0.087
KEY: 3
24. If X = a + b. the maximum percentage error in the measurement of X will be
a b
(1) 100%
a b
a b
(2) 100%
a b a b
a b
(3) 100%
a b a b
a b
(4) 100%
a b
HINT : X a b X a b
X ( a b )
Now 100 100
X a b
KEY : 3
25. The length l breadth b. and thickness t of a block of wood were measured with the help of a measuring
scale. The results with permissible errors (in cm) are
l = 15.12 ±0.01, b = 10.15 ± 0.01, and t = 5.28 ±0.01. The percentage error in volume of upto proper
significant figures is
(1) 0.28% (2) 0.35% (3) 0.48% (4) 0.64%
HINT : Percentage error in volume is
0.01 0.01 0.01
100 100 100 0.35%
15.12 10.15 5.28
KEY : 2
a1/ 2b2
26. An experiment measures quantities a, h, and c, and then X is calculated from X . If the percentage
c3
errors in a, b, and c are ±1%, ±3%, and ±2%. respectively, then the percentage error in X can be
(1) ±12.5% (2) ±7% (3) ±1% (4) ±4%
a1/ 2b2
HINT : X
c3
X 1 a b c
100 100 2 100 3 100
X 2 a b c
1
1 2 3 3 2 12.5%
2
KEY : 1
27. The specific resistance of a circular wire of radius r. resistance R, and length l is given by r 2 R / l
.Given: r = 0.24 ± 0.02 cm, R 30 1 and. l = 4.80 ± 0.01 cm.
The percentage error in is nearly
(1) 7% (2) 9% (3) 13% (4) 20%
r2R
HINT : Specific resistance
l
r R l
100 2 100 100 100
r R l
16.7 3. 0.2 20%
KEY : 4
28. The internal and external diameters of a hollow cylinder are measured with the help of a Vernier callipers.
Their values are 4.23 ± 0.01 cm and 3.87 ± 0.01 cm, respectively. The thickness of the wall of the cylinder is
(1) 0.36 ±0.02 cm (2) 0.18 ±0.02 cm (3) 0.36 ±0.01 cm (4) 0.18 ± 0.01 cm
D2 D1 4.23 3.87 0.36
HINT : Thickness of wall of the cylinder (t) = 0.18
2 2 2
t D2 D1 0.01 0.01 0.02
KEY : 2
29. Two full turns of the circular scale of a screw gauge cover a distance of 1 mm on its main scale. The total
number of divisions on the circular scale is 50. Further, it is found that the screw gauge has a zero error of –
0.03 mm. While measuring the diameter of a thin wire, a student notes the main scale reading of 3 mm and
the number of circular scale divisions in line with the main scale as 35. The diameter of the wire is
(1) 3.32 mm (2) 3.73 mm (3) 3.67 mm (4) 3.38 mm
0.5
HINT : Least count of screw gauge mm 0.01mm
50
Reading
Diameter = M.S.R + C.S.R (L.C) + Z.E 3 35 0.01 0.03 3.38mm
KEY : 4
30. The respective number of significant Figures for the number 23.023, 0.0003. and 2.1 103 are
(1) 5.1,2 (2) 5,1,5 (3) 5,5,2 (4) 4,4,2
HINT : (i) All the non-zero digits are significant.
(ii) All the zeros between two non-zero digits are significant, no matter where the decimal point is, if at all.
(iii) If the number is less than 1, the zero(s) on the right of decimal point but to the left of the first non-zero
digit are not significant.
(iv) The power of 10 is irrelevant to the determination of significant figures. According to the above rules,
23.023 has 5 significant figures. 0.0003 has 1 significant figures. 2.1×10–3 has 2 significant figures.Read
more on Sarthaks.
KEY : 1
31. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum is T 2 where s about 100 cm and is known to have
g
1mmaccuracy. The period is about 2s. The time of 100 oscillations is measured by a stop watch of least count
0.1 s. The percentage error in g is :-
(1) 0.1% (2) 1%
(3) 0.2% (4) 0.8%
Sol : T =2π√( L/g ) ; t/n = 2π√L/g
t= 4π²Ln²/g ; g = 4π²L/t² here n is no of oscillations
so, ∆g/g = ∆L/L + 2∆t/t given ,
L = 100 cm ; ∆L = 1mm = 0.1 cm
t = 200 sec ; ∆t =0.1 sec
now, ∆g/g = 0.1/100 + 2× 0.1/200 percentage error % of g = ∆g/g ×100
=0.1/100 ×100 + 0.1×100/100=0.1 + 0.1= 0.2 %
Key : 3
32. A cube has side length1.2 × 10–m. Volume of the cube will be :
Sol :
Key : 1
33. The mean time period of second's pendulum is2.00s and mean absolute error in the time period is 0.05s. To
express maximum estimate of error, the time period should be written as :
(1) (2.00 0.01)s (2) (2.00 0.025)s
(3) (2.00 0.05)s (4) (2.00 0.10)s
Sol : Mean time period T=2.00sec and Mean absolute error=△T=0.05 sec
To express maximum estimate of error, the time period should be written as (2.00±0.05) sec
Key : 3
34. Measure of two quantities along with the precision of respective measuring instrument is:
A = 2.5 ms–1 ± 0.5 ms–1, B = 0.10s ± 0.01sThe value of AB will be
(1) (0.25 ± 0.08) m (2) (0.25 ± 0.5) m
(3) (0.25 ± 0.05) m (4) (0.25 ± 0.135) m
Sol :
Key : 1
35. In a vernier callipers, N divisions of vernier scale coincide with (N – 1) divisions of main scale (in which 1
division represents 1mm). The least count of the instrument in cm should be
1 1
(1) N (2) N – 1 (3) (4)
10N N 1
Sol :
Key : 3
36. The external and internal radius of a hollow cylinder are measured to be (4.23 ± 0.01) cm and(3.89±0.01)cm.
The thickness of the wall of the cylinder is :-
(1) (0.34±0.02) cm (2) (0.17±0.02) cm
(3) (0.17±0.01) cm (4) (0.34±0.01) cm
Sol :
Key : 1
37. The least count of vernier callipers is 0.1 mm. The main scale reading before the zero the vernier scale is 10
and the zeroth division of the vernier scale coinsides with any main scale division is1 mm, the measured value
should expressed as:-
(1) 0.01 cm (2) 0.001 cm
(3) 0.1 cm (4) 1.00 cm
Sol :
Key : 4
38. A screw gauge gives the following reading when used to measure the diameter of a wire. Main scale reading:
0 mm Circular scale reading: 52 divisions given that 1 mm on main scale corresponds to100 divisions of the
circular scale. The diameter of wire from the above data is
(1) 0.52 cm (2) 0.052 cm
(3) 0.026 cm (4) 0.005 cm
Sol :
Key : 2
39. Which of the following is most accurate?
(1) 0.06 m (2) 60 × 10–3 m
(3) 6 × 10–2 m (4) 600 × 10–4 m
Sol :
Key : 4
40. The length of a cylinder is measured with a metre rod having least count 0.1 cm. Its diameter is measured
with vernier callipers having least count0.01 cm. Given that length is 5.0 cm and radius is 2.0 cm. The
percentage error in the calculated value of the volume will be :
(1) 1% (2) 2% (3) 3% (4) 4%
Sol :
Key : 3
41. The radius of a circular plate increases at the rate of 0.1 cm/sec. At what rate does the area increase when the
radius of plate in5/11 cm.
(1) 1 cm2/sec (2) 0.1 cm2/sec
2
(3) 0.6 cm /sec (4) 0.29 cm2/sec
Sol :
Key : 4
42. A student measures the distance traversed in free fall of a body, initially at rest in a given time. He uses this
data to estimate g, the acceleration due to gravity. If the maximum percentage errors in measurement of the
distance and the time are e1 and e2respectively,the percentage error in the estimation of g is :-
(1) e1 + 2e2 (2) e1 + e2
(3) e1 – 2e2 (4) e2 – e1
Sol :
Key : 1
43. A physical quantity ‘x’ is calculated with the equation x a b 2 where a (100 1%) and b (5 2%) .
Percentage error in the calculation of x will be
1) 3% 2) 5% 3) 4% 4) 1.6%
2 2
Sol : Let y b y (5) 25
y b
100 2. 100
y b
y
100 2(2)
25
y 1
a
100 1
a
a
100 1 a 1
100
Now x a y x a y
x a y
100 100
x a y
Key : 4
44. The length of a strip measured with a meter rod is 10.0cm. Its width measured with a vernier calipers is
1.00cm. The least count of the meter rod is 0.1cm and that of vernier calipers is 0.01cm. What will be the
error in its area?
1) 0.01cm 2 2) 0.1cm2
3) 0.11cm 2 4) 0.2cm2
l b 0.1 0.01 2
Sol : A A 10.0 1.00 cm
l b 10.0 1.00
0.02 10 0.2cm 2
Key : 4
45. If X is absolute error in the measurement of X and Y is absolute error in the measurement of Y, then
maximum absolute error in the measurement of difference of X and Y is
1) (X - Y) 2) (X + Y)
3) X/Y 4) XY
Sol :
Key : 2
46. The density of a cube is measured by measuring its mass and the length of its sides. If the maximum error in
the measurement of mass and length are 3% and 2% respectively, then find the maximum error in the
measurement of the density of cube
(1) 2% (2) 3% (3) 5% (4) 9%
M M d dM 3dL
Sol : 3 45. 1 1 1 , R R1 R2 12 24 8
V L M L R R1 R2 R1 R2 36
R R1 R2
2 2
R2 R1 R2
R R R 0.2 0.4 5
% 21 22 R 100 8 100 3 %
R R1 R2 144 576
Key : 4
47. The true length of an object is 7.6 cm. It is measured by A as 7.8 cm and measured by B as 7.85 cm. Then
compared to the measurement of A, the measurement of B has
1) less precision and more accuracy
2) more precision and more accuracy
3) more precision and less accuracy
4) less precision and less accuracy
Sol : The measurement of B is farther than the measurement of A from the true value, so it is less accurate. As the
measurement of B is taken to a resolution of 0.01 cm compared to A which is taken to a resolution of 0.1 cm,
measurement of B has more precision
Key : 3
48. A student performs an experiment to determine the young’s modulus of a wire, exactly 2m long, by searle’s
method. In a particular reading, the student measures the extension in the length of the wire to be 0.8mm with
an uncertainly of 0.05mm at a load exactly 1kg. The student also measures diameter the wire to be
0.01mm Take g 9.8m / s 2 (exact). The Young’s modulus obtained from the reading is
1) 3.0 0.3 1011 N / m 2
2) 2.0 0.2 1011 N / m 2
3) 4.0 0.1 1011 N / m 2
4) 2.0 0.5 1011 N / m 2
Sol :
Key : 2
49. If the true value of time is 12:30:16 O’ clock and two watches A and B show the time as written below.
Select the single option in which watch A is most accurate and watch B is most precise.
1) A(12:30:10), B(12:30:16)
2) B(12:30:17), A(12:30:16)
3) A(12:30:16), B(12:30)
4) B(12:30:16), A(12:30:12)
Sol :
Key : 2
50. While measuring the time of fall of a body from a height, a person makes an error of 2% in the value of
acceleration due to gravity and an error of 4% in the value of height. The percentage error in the
measurement of time of fall is
1) Zero 2) 1% 3) 6% 4) 3%
Sol :
Key : 4
51. If the force acting on a body of mass 2kg 20 g is 3 N 2% , then maximum percentage error in
acceleration is
1) 6% 2) 12% 3) 2% 4) 3%
Sol :
Key : 4
b
52. In a relation S , where b,c, S are physical quantities, b is 5.0 0.1 N and c
bc
is 2.0 0.2 N then the percentage error in S is
1) 12% 2) 2% 3) 24% 4) 6%
Sol :
Key : 1
53. The respective number of significant figures for the numbers 23.023, 0.0003 and 2.1 × 10–3 are:-
(1) 4, 4, 2 (2) 5, 1, 2
(3) 5, 1, 5 (4) 5, 5, 2
Sol : (i) All the non-zero digits are significant. (ii) All the zeros between two non-zero digits are significant, no
matter where the decimal point is, if at all. (iii) If the number is less than 1, the zero(s) on the right of
decimal point but to the left of the first non-zero digit are not significant. (iv) The power of 10 is irrelevant to
the determination of significant figures. According to the above rules, 23.023 has 5 significant figures. 0.0003
has 1 significant figures. 2.1 × 10–3 has 2 significant figures
Key : 2
54. The number of significant figure in 6.25 105 is:-
(1) 11 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 3
Sol :
Key : 4
55. The result after adding 3.8 × 10–6 with4.2 × 10–5 with due regard to significant figures is:-
(1) 4.58 × 10–5 (2) 0.458 × 10–4
(3) 4.6 × 10–5 (4) 45.8 × 10–6
Sol :
Key : 3
56. If L = 2.331 cm, B = 2.1 cm, then L + B =
(1) 4.431 cm (2) 4.43 cm
(3) 4.4 cm (4) 4 cm
Sol :
Key : 3
57. The mass of 1.2 cm3 of a certain substance is 5.74 g. If the measured values are expressed up to the correct
significant figures, the value of density is
1) 4.80 g cm-3 2) 4.73 g cm-3
-3
3) 4.8 g cm 4) 4.75 g cm-3
mass 5.74
Sol : density 4.783333
volume 1.2
Answer should have only 2 significant figures Density=4.8
Key : 3
58. The sides of a rectangle area 6.01 m and 12m, taking the significant figures into account, the area of the
rectangle is
1) 7.2 x 101 m 2 2) 72.1 m 2
3) 7.3 m 2 4) 72.12 m 2
Sol : Result should have only two significant numbers
Key : 3
59. Three quantities, the results of measurements, are to be added. They are 2.0600, 3.163, and 1.12. What is
their sum to the correct number of significant figures?
1) 6.3430 2) 6.343 3) 6.34 4) 6.3
Sol : Adding all three gives 6.3430. The number 1.12 has least number of digits after the decimal point(two).
Hence on rounding off the result is 6.34
Key : 3
60. The solid angle subtended by the periphery of an area 1 cm2 at a point situated symmetrically at a distance of
5 cm from the area is
1) 2 102 steradian 2) 4 102 steradian
3) 6 102 steradian 4) 8 102 steradian
Sol :
Key : 2
A
61. The position of a particle moving along a straight-line is given by x
B
1 e At where B is constant and A
A3
> 0. The dimensions of is same as
B
(1) linear momentum
(2)moment of inertia
(3) relative velocity (4) acceleration
Sol :
Key : 4
a a t2
62. The dimensions of in the relation p where P is the pressure, x is the distance and t is the time, is-
b bx
(1) M–1L0T–2 (2) M L0T–2
(3) M0L0T–2 (4) MLT–2
Sol :
Key : 2
63. If the dimensions of a physical quantity are given by MaLbTc, then the physical quantity will be :
(1) Force if a = 0, b = –1, c = – 2
(2) Pressure if a = 1, b = – 1, c = – 2
(3) Velocity if a = 1, b = 0, c = – 1
(4) Acceleration if a = 1, b = 1, c = – 2
Sol :
Key : 4
64. A spherical body of mass m and radius r is allowed to fall in a medium of viscosity . The time in which the
velocity of the body increases from zero to 0.63 times the terminal velocity (v) is called time constant ( ) .
Dimensionally can be represented by
mr 2 6 mr
(1) (2) 2
6 g
m
(3) (4) None of the above
6 rv
Sol :
Key : 4
65. The dimensional formula of wave number is
1) MLT 1 2) M 1 L1T
3) M 0 L1T 0 4) MLT
Sol :
Key : 3
66. Two physical quantities of which one is a vector and the other is a scalar having the same dimensional
formula are
1) Work and energy
2) Torque and work
3) Impulse and momentum
4) Power and pressure
Sol : Torque is an axial vector and work is a scalar.
Key :2
67. Temperature can be expressed as a derived quantity in terms of which of the following
1) Length and mass 2) Mass and time
3) Length. mass and time
4) In terms of none of these
Sol :
Key :4
68. The unit of Stefan's constant is
1) Wm2 K 1 2) Wm2 K 4
3) Wm2 K 4 4) Wm2 K 4
Sol :
Key :3
69. Which two of the following five physical parameters have the same dimensions?
(i) energy density (ii) refractive index
(iii) dielectric constant
(iv) Young's modulus (v) magnetic field
(1) ii and iv 2) iii and v
3) i and iv 4) i and v
Sol :
Key :3
70. In dimension of critical velocity vc, of liquid following through a tube are expressed as
( x v r z ), where , and r are the coefficient of viscosity of liquid, density of liquid and radius of the tube
respectively, then the values of x, y and z are given by:
1) 1, 1, 1 2) 1, -1, -1
3) -1, -1, 1 4) -1, -1, -1
Sol :
Key : 2
71. Which of the following relation is certainly wrong dimensionally?
1 v2
1) h gt 2 2) h
2 2g
1
3) vt 4) P 2
3c /
Sol : P ; ML1T 2 ML5T 2
C2
dimensionally wrong
Key : 4
72. Which of the following functions of A and B may be performed if A and B possess different dimensions?
1) A + B 2) A – B 3) A/B 4) ( A B)1/2
Sol : Two terms with same dimensions can be added or subtracted
Key : 3
73. Angular momentum has the same dimension as
1) Planck’s constant
2) Universal gravitational constant
3) Rydberg constant 4) Boltzmann constant
Sol : Angular momentum= ML2T 1
Plank’s constant= ML2T 1
Key : 1
74 The frequency of vibration f of a mass m suspended from a spring of spring constant K is given by a relation
of this type, f Cm x K y where C is a dimensionless quantity. The value of x and y are
1 1 1 1
1) x , y 2) x , y
2 2 2 2
1 1 1 1
3) x , y 4) x , y
2 2 2 2
x Y
Sol : By putting the dimensions of each quantity on both the sides we get T 1 M MT 2
Now comparing the dimensions of quantities in both sides we get x y 0 and 2 y 1
1 1
x , y
2 2
Key : 4
Bx
75. Suppose the kinetic energy of body oscillating with amplitude A and at a distance x is given by K .
x A2
2
The dimensions of B are the same as that of
1) work /time 2) work distance
3) work / distance 4) work time
Sol : work distance
Key : 2
76. Which of the following group have different dimensions?
1) Potential difference, emf, voltage
2) Pressure, stress, Young’s modulus
3) Heat, energy, work done
4) Dipole moment, electric flux, electric field
Sol : Dipole moment p M 0 L1T 1 A1
Electric flux ML3T 3 A1
Electric field E M 1 LT
1 3 1
A
Key : 4
77. Which of the following sets have different dimensions?
1) Pressure, Young’s modulus, stress
2) Emf, potential difference, electric potential
3) Heat, work done, energy
4) Dipole moment, electric flux, electric field
Sol : (a) [M L1T 2 ] (b) [M 1L2 T 3 A 1 ] (c) ML2 T 2 (d) Dipole moment- [M 0 L1A 1T 1 ] , Electric Flux- [M 1L3 T 3 A 1 ]
,Electric Field- [M 1 L1T 3 A 1 ]
Key : 4
78. Arrange the following in ascending order of the sum of the dimensions in length, mass and time?
G (universal gravitational constant) (torque) (coefficient of viscosity) K (bulk modulus)
1) K, , G, 2) , K, , G
3) , G, , K 4) K, G, ,
Sol : G M 1 L3T 2 ; ML2T 2
ML1T 1 ; K ML1T 2
Key : 1
79. If E represents energy, J represents angular momentum, M represents mass and G represents universal
M X GY
gravitational constant and is to be a dimensionless expression, then the values of X, Y and Z are
E JZ
respectively
1) 5, 2, 2 2) 2, 5, 2
3) 2, 2, 5 4) 5, 2, 2
y
0 0 0
M x M 1 L3T 2
Sol : M L T z
ML2T 2 ML2T 1
M x y 1 z L3 y 2 2 zT 2 y 2 z
x y z 1 0; 3 y 2 2 z 0
2y 2 z 0
On substitution we get x 5, y 2, z 2
Key : 1
80. The potential energy of a particle of mass ‘m’ is given as a function of the coordinates ‘x’ and ‘y’ by U = ax
+ by, where ‘a’ and ‘b’ are dimensional constants. Which of the following represents the acceleration of the
particle
ab a 2 b2
1) 2)
m2 m2
ab a 2 b2
3) 4)
m2 m
U ML2T 2 1 2
Sol : Dimensionally U ax a , DF of a 1
M 1 LT
x L
U ML2T 2 1 2
U= by b , DF of b 1
M 1 LT
y L
4th option gives dimensional formula for acceleration
Key : 4
dv
81. In the equation 3/2 BC 2Ct , where v is velocity, t is time, is exponent, the dimensions of B are
v
12 23 2 32 12 52 12 25
1) L 2) L 3) L 4) L
1 3
Sol : L2 2
Key : 1
V0
82. The force acting on a particle at time t is given by the equation, F sin( t 2 ), where V0 and β are
constants. The dimensions of V0 and β are respectively
1) M 1 L1T 2 & T 2 2) M 1 L1T 2 & T 2
3) M 1 L1T 4 & T 2 4) M 1LT
1 2
& T 1
Sol : M 1 L1T 4 & T 2
Key : 3
83. If U U 0 t 3 t , where U= energy, t= time, U0= constant energy, is exponential function, then the
dimensions of α are
1) M 0 L0T 3 2) M 0 L0T 2
3) M 0 LT 3 4) M 0 LT 2
Sol : M 0 L0T 3
Key : 1
84. Imagine a system of units in which the unit of mass is 10 kg, length is 1 km and time is 1 minute. Then 1 J in
this system is equal to
1) 360 2) 3.6 3) 36 105 4) 36 10-5
Sol :
Key : 4
tfermi 1angstrom
85. The value of is
1micron 1gigametre
1) 10-11 2) 10-10 3) 10-29 4) 10-25
Sol :
Key : 3
86. In a new system, unit of length is 6m, unit of mass is 2 kg, unit of time is 2 minute.
In the new system of units, unit of pressure is equal to
1) 12 kgm-1 min-2 2) 24 kgm-1, min-2
1 1
3) kgm-1, min-2 4) kgm-1, min-2
24 12
Sol :
Key : 4
87. The method of dimensional analysis can be used to derive which of the following relations ?
1) N 0e t 2) A sin t kx
1 2 1 2
3) mv I 4) None of these
2 2
Sol :
Key : 4
88. Which of the following is incorrect statement
1) A dimensionally correct equation may be correct
2) A dimensionally correct equation may be incorrect
3) A dimensionally incorrect equation may be correct
4) A dimensionally incorrect equation is incorrect
Sol : It is not possible that a dimensionally incorrect equation is correct. All the other situations are possible
Key : 3
89. Which of the following is incorrect
1) All derived quantities may be represented dimensionally in terms of the base quantities
2) A base quantity cannot be represented dimensionally in terms of other base quantities
3) The dimension of a derived quantity is never zero in any base quantity
4) The dimension of a base quantity in other base quantities is always zero.
Sol : The dimension of a derived quantity is never zero in any base quantity
Key : 3
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT-1
DAY – 20 (DT 01-05-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
CHAPTER: VECTORS
==========================================================================
1. If A B A B , which of the following options is not true?
1)
A is a null vector 2 B is a null vector
3) A is to B 4) A is to B
Sol : If A B A B , the two vectors A and B must be perpendicular to each other.
Key : 4
2. The direction of a vector A is reversed. What are the values of A and A ?
1) 2 A,0 2) A,0 3) 2A,0 4) A,0
Sol : A A A 2 A Now as A A
A 0 0.
Key : 3
3. Which of the four arrangements in the figure correctly shows the vector addition of two forces F1 and F2 to
yield the third force F3
Sol : According to triangle law of vector addition, option (3) is correct.
Key : 3
4. The resultant of A B is R1 . On reversing the vector B1 , the resultant becomes R2 . What is the value of
R12 R22 ?
1) A 2 B 2 2) A2 B 2 3) 2 A2 B 2 4) 2 A2 B 2
Sol :
Key : 3
5. Given figure shows three vectors a, b, c. If RQ=2PR, then
Q
a b R
c P
1) 2a c 3b 2) a 3c 3b 3) 3a c 2b 4) a 2c 3b
Sol : b = c – PR, b = a + 2PR
Key : 4
6. P, Q, R and S are vectors of equal magnitude. If P Q R 0, angle between P and Qis 1
and if P Q S , The angle between P&S is 2 then 1 :2 is
1) 1:1 2) 2:1 3) 1:2 4) 1: 3
q1
Sol : R=P+ R 2 P cos , q1 ?
2
Q sin q1
tan q2 , q2 ?
P Q cos q1
Key : 2
7. The resultant of the three vectors O A OB, OC, as shown figure
1) r 2)2r
3) r 1 2 4) r 2 1
Sol : Resultant of OA & OC will be along OB = 2r Net resultant of OA,OC & OB is
r 2r (1 2)r( 00 )
Key : 3
8. Orientations of a, b and c in in XY plane are shown in figure the correct option
1) a b c 2) a c b 3) b a c 4) a b c 0
Sol : Follow the laws vector addition
Key : 3
9. In figure, E equals to
1) A 2) B 3) A B 4) A B
Sol : From right triangle A B E 0
E A B
Key : 4
10. If a vector A make angles , and respectively, with the X , Y and Z axes , then
sin2 sin2 sin2 =
1) 0 2)1 3)2 4)3
2 2 2
Sol : cos cos cos 1
1 sin 1 sin 1 sin 1
2 2 2
Key : 3
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
11. Two vectors are given by a 2 i j 3 k and b 5 i 3 j 2 k . If 3a 2 b c 0 then third vector c is
^ ^ ^ ^
1) 4 i 9 j 13 k 2) 4 i 9 j 13 k 3) 4 i 9 j 13 k 4) 2 i 3 j 13 k
Sol : C 3a 2b 3 2iˆ ˆj 3kˆ 2 5iˆ 3jˆ 2kˆ
Key : 1
12. If P Q P Q , then the vectors P and Q are
1) parallel to each other
2) inclined at 450 to each other
3) perpendicular to each other
4) inclined at 600 to each other
Sol : P 2 Q 2 2PQ cos 2PQ cos
Key : 3
^ ^ ^ ^
13. A body starts with a velocity 2 i 3 j 11K m / s and moves with an acceleration of 10 i 10 j 10 K ms 2
.What is its velocity after 0.25 s ?
^ ^ ^
1) 4.5 i 0.5 j 13.5 k
^ ^ ^
2) 4.5 i 0.5 j 13.5 k
^ ^ ^
3) 4.5 i 0.5 j 13.5 k
^ ^ ^
4) 4.5 i 0.5 j 13.5 k
Sol : v u at
Key :3
14. An aeroplane is flying with the velocity of V1=800kmph relative to the air towards south, A wind velocity
of V2=15m/s is blowing from west to east. The velocity of the aeroplane with respect to the earth is
1) 222.72 m/s 2) 150 m/s 3) 82 m/s 4) 40 m/s
2 2
Sol : V V1 V 2
Key :
15. A ship is moving due east at a velocity of 12m/s, a truck is moving across on the ship with velocity 4m/s.
A monkey is climbing the vertical pole mounted on the truck with a velocity of 3 m/s. The velocity of the
monkey as observed by the man on the shore (m/s) is
1) 10 2) 15 3) 13 4) 20
Sol : V 12 i 4 j 3 k
V 144 16 9 169 13m / s
Key : 3
16. The greatest and least resultant of two forces are 9N and 5N respectively. If they are applied at 6 0 0 , the
magnitude of the resultant is
1) 100N 2) 119N 3) 119 N 4) 67 N
Sol : R p 2 q 2 2pq cos
Key : 4
17. If vectors P , Q and R have magnitudes 5, 12 and 13 units and P Q R . The angle between Q and
R
5
1 1 5 1 12 1 2
1) cos 2) cos 3) cos 4) cos
12 13 13 13
Qm
Sol : tan
P Q cos
Key : 3
18. Given that C A B and C makes an angle with A and with B . Which of the following options
is correct?
1) cannot be less than 2) , if A B
3) , if A B 4) , if A B
Sol : tan B sin sin
A B cos A
cos
B
And tan A sin sin
B A cos B cos
A
A
when 1
B
This will make B 1
A
Key : 3
19. The resultant of two vectors P and Q is R . If Q is doubled then the new resultant vector is perpendicular
to ‘ P ’, then R is equal to
1) P Q 2) Q 3) P Q 4) P
Sol : tan 90 o
2Q sin
P 2Q cos
1 2Qsin
P 2Qcos 0
0 P 2Qcos
Hence R P2 Q2 2PQcos
2 2 2
P 2 Q 2 2PQ P / 2Q P Q P Q
Key : 2
20. Two vectors A& B have nearly equal magnitudes. If magnitude of AB is equal to ‘n’ times the
magnitude of AB , then the angle between A & B is
n 1 2
n 1 2
2) cos 1 n2 1 4) sin 1 n 2 1
1 1
1) cos 3) sin
n 1 n 1 n 1 n 1
Sol : A B n A B
A 2 B 2 2 AB cos n 2 ( A 2 B 2 2 AB cos )
n2 1
A B cos 2
n 1
Key : 2
21. If a and b are two non collinear unit vectors, the resultant of sum of a and b has unit magnitude
then the resultant of difference of a and b has magnitude of
3
1) 3 units 2) 2 units 3) 1/2 units 4) units
2
Sol : c a b , c 2a cos q 2 , q ?
d a b 2 a sin q ?
2
Key : 1
22. Resultant of two vectors of magnitudes P and Q is of magnitude Q. If the magnitude of Q is doubled then
the angle made by the new resultant with P is
1) 300 2) 600 3) 900 4) 1200
Sol : R 2 P 2 Q2 2PQ cos q, If R Q,cos q P
2Q
2Q sin q
Tana =?
P 2Q cos q
Key : 3
23. Two vectors A and B have equal magnitudes. For the magnitude A B is n times the magnitude of
A B , what must be the angle between them?
1 1 1
1
1) 2 tan 2) 2 tan 1 n 3) 2 tan 4) tan 1 n
n n
Sol : A B n A B , q ?
Key : 1
24. Two forces each numerically equal to 10 dynes are acting as shown in the following figure. Then the
resultant force is
600 10dynes
1)10 dynes 2)20 dynes 3) 10 3 dynes 4) 5 dynes
Sol : F 2 F 2 2 F 2 cos(1200 ) F
F 10 dynes
Key : 1
25. If the resultant of two forces of magnitude P and 2P is perpendicular to P , then the angle between the
forces is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
3 4 5 6
2 p sin
Sol : tan ; 90
p 2 p cos
2 p sin
tan900
p 2 p cos
p 2 p cos 0 ; 1 2cos 0
2
cos 1 ; 120 0
2 3
Key : 1
26. Two forces have magnitudes in the ratio 3:5 and the angle between their directions is 600. If their resultant
is 35N, their magnitudes are
1) 12N, 20N 2) 15N , 25N 3) 18N, 30N 4) 21N, 28N
2 2 2
Sol : F F1 F2 2FF
1 2 cos
Key : 2
27. If A B C and the magnitudes of A, B and C are 5, 4 and 3 units, respectively, the angle between A and
C is
1 1 1
1) cos 3/ 5 2) cos 4 / 5 3) sin 3 / 4 4) / 2
B sin
Sol : tan
A B cos
Key : 1
28. Choose the correct statement.
1) Scalar + vector = Scalar / vector
2) vector scalar
vector
3) scalar / vector = scalr ( or) vector
4) vector – vector = vector
Sol : Vector laws
Key : 4
^ ^ ^
29. If A 3 i 6 j 2 k , the directions of cosines of the vector A are
3 6 2 3 6 2
1) , , 2) , , 3) 6 , 2 , 3 4) 2 , 3 , 6
7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
Ax Ay A
Sol : cos , cos , cos z
A A A
Key : 2
30. The angle made by the vector A 2iˆ 3 ˆj with Y – axis is
13 2
1 1 2 1 3
1) tan 2) tan 3) sin 4) cos
2 3 3 2
Ax
Sol : tan
Ay
Key : 2
31. In the figure shown, if P is in equilibrium, tensions in the strings are in the ratio
T1 4 T1 3 T1 5 T1 5
1) 2) 3) 4)
T2 3 T2 4 T2 4 T2 3
Sol : Use Lami’s theorem
Key : 1
ˆ ˆ ˆ , its components in yz and xz plane respectively are
32. If A=3i-3j+4k
1) 13 and 5 2) 5 and 2 5 3) 2 5 and 13 4) 13 and 29
Sol : A Ay Az ?, A Ax Az ?
2 2 2 2
Key : 2
33. If the system is in equilibrium (cos 530=3/5), then the value of ‘P’ is
B
A
5N
0 N
37 10
1)16 N 2)4 N 3) 205 N 4) 23N
Sol :
5N
370
N
10
P
3
cos 53 0 , cos 37 0 4
5 5
Resultant of 10 N & 5 N should be equal to P
P 5 2 10 2 2(5)(10) cos 37 0
4
25 100 100 125 80 205 N
5
Key : 4
T1
34. If `P ‘ is in equilibrium then is
T2
1
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4)
2 3
Sol : T1 cos30 T2cos60
Key : 4
35. A vector of magnitude 10N acting in X-Y-plane has components 8N and 6N along positive X-axis and
positive Y-axis respectively. The coordinate system is rotated about Z-axis through an angle 9 0 0 in anti-
clockwise direction. Find X-component and Y-component in new coordinate system
1) Fx 8N ; Fy 6N 2) Fx 6N ; Fy 8N
3) Fx 6N ; Fy 8N 4) Fx 0N ; Fy 10N
Sol : In old coordinate system
F sin 37 6 N
F cos 37 8 N
In new system
O
+ -
H3 N - CH - C - N - CH2 - COO
CH 3 H
4
10 8 N
5
3
Fx F sin 37 10 6N
5
Key : 3
36. A weight W is supported by two strings inclined at 6 0 0 and 3 0 0 to vertical. The tension in string are
T1 and T2 as shown. If these tensions are to be determined in terms of W using triangle of forces. Which
of this triangle should you draw?
1. 2. 3. 4.
Sol : According to triangle law
Key : 3
37. Three forces acting on body are shown in figure. To have resultant force along Y direction, the magnitude
of minimum additional force needed is
3
1) 3 N 2) 0.5 N 3) 1.5N 4) N
4
Sol : 1 cos 60 2 sin 30 4sin 30 F 0 ; F 1 N
2
Key : 2
38. If 0 is in equilibrium then tension T1 a n d T2 are
1) 30 N, 50 N 2) 60 N, 80 N 3) 80 N, 60 N 4) 20 N, 40 N
Sol : By Lami’s theorem
100 T2 T1
sin 90 sin127 sin143
T2 100 sin127 100 cos 37 80N
T1 100sin143 100 cos 53 60N
Key : 2
39. A boy is hanging from a horizontal branch of a tree. The tension in the arms will be maximum when the
angle between the arms is
1) 0 0 2) 3 0 0 3) 6 0 0 4) 120 0
Sol :
2T cos mg ; 2 mg cos mg
1
cos 60 0
2
Angle between arms = 1200
Key : 4
^ ^
40. A vector 3 i 4 j rotates about its tail through an angle 370 in anticlock wise direction then the new vector is
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
1) 3 i 4 j 2) 3 i 4 j 3) 5 j 4) 5 i
Sol : In rotation length of the vector does not change
Key : 3
41. If ‘O’ is at equilibrium then the values of the tension T1 and T2 are, (20 N is acting vertically downwards
at O)
1) 20N, 30N 2) 20 3 N, 20N 3) 20 3 N, 20 3 N 4) 10N, 30N
Sol : Lamiis theorem
T1 T2 20
sin 60 sin 150 sin150
Key : 2
2
42.
2 2
The condition that a . b a b is satisfied when
1) a b 2) a b 3) a.b 1 4) a b
2
Sol :
a . b a2b2
a 2 b 2 cos 2 a 2b 2
cos 1 0 0 a b
Key :1
43. If a mb c. The scalar m is
a.b b.c c.b a.c c.a b.c a.b b.c
1) 2) 3) 4)
b2 a2 c2 a2
ac
Sol : a mb c ; a c mb ; m .b
b
a c b a.b c.b
.
b b b2
Key :1
a b 3b is
44. If angle between and is , then angle between 2a, and
3
1) 2) 2 3) 4) 5
3 3 6 3
Sol : a.b ab cos ab
3 2
2 a. 3b 6ab cos
ab
6 6ab cos
2
1 2
cos 120 0
2 3
Key : 2
45.
If is the angle between unit vectors A and B , the
1 A.B
is equal to
1 A.B
1) tan 2 / 2 2)_ sin 2 / 2 3) cot 2 / 2 4) cos 2 / 2
1 A.B
Sol :
1 A.B
1 AB cos 1 cos
1 AB cos 1 cos
2sin 2 / 2
= 2
tan 2 / 2
2 cos / 2
Key : 1
46. Surface area is
1) Scalar 2) Vector 3) Neither scalar nor vector 4) Both (1) and (2)
Key : 1
Sol: In B.S , area is a vector. So area is sometimes as scalar and sometimes a vector.
47. Which of the following is a unit vector?
1 ˆ ˆ
1) iˆ ˆj 2) cos iˆ sin ˆj 3) sin iˆ 2 cos ˆj
4)
3
i j
Key :2
Sol: Magnitude of which is 1
2
cos 2 sin 1
48. If three vectors along coordinate axes represent the adjacent sides of a cube of length b, then the unit vector
along its diagonal passing through the origin will be
iˆ ˆj kˆ iˆ ˆj kˆ iˆ ˆj kˆ
1) 2) 3) iˆ ˆj kˆ 4)
2 36 3
Key :4
Sol: Diagonal vector A biˆ bjˆ bkˆ
Or A b 2 b 2 b 2 3b
A iˆ ˆj kˆ
Aˆ
A 3
49. A man walks 20m at an angle 600 north of east. How far towards east has he travelled?
1) 10m 2) 20 m 3) m 4) m
Key : 1
Sol: 20 cos 600 10m
N
600
E
50. If A = B, then which of the following is not correct?
1) Aˆ Bˆ 2) A B 3) ABˆ BAˆ 4) A B Aˆ Bˆ
Key :4
Sol:If A B
A B A Aˆ B Bˆ
Where  and B̂ are unit vectors
dA
51. If A is a unit vector in a given direction then, the value of is
dt
1) 0 2) 1 3) 4) 2
Key : 1
Sol: Since A is a unit vector in a given direction. It should be in a given direction. It should be a constant
unit vector.
dA
Or 0
dt
52. In the diagram shown in figure
C
D
Z
Y
B
W
X
A
1) X A B C D 2) Y B C A 3) Z B C 4) W B
Key : 1
Sol: Apply polygon law
53. Two particles A and B move along the straight lines x + 2y + 3= 0 and 2x + y - 3 = 0 respectively. Their
position vector, at the time of meeting will be
iˆ ˆj
1) 3iˆ 3 ˆj 2) 3iˆ 3 ˆj 3) 4) Particles will never meet
3 3
Key :2
Sol: Particles meet at point of intersection of lines. By solving x 2 y 3 0 and 2 x y 3 0 we get
x = 3 and y = -3. Hence position vector of meeting point is 3i 3 j
54. A bird moves with velocity 20m/s in a direction making an angle of 600 with eastern line and 600 with
vertical upward. Its velocity vector in rectangular form is
1) 10i 10 2 j 10k 2) 10i 10 j 10k
3) 10 2 i 10 2 j 10 2k 4) 10 2 i 10 j 10 2k
Key : 1
Sol: Let the eastern line be taken as x-axis northern as y-axis, and vertical upward as z-axis . Let the
velocity v makes angles , and with x-, y- and z-axis, respectively. Then =60° and =60°.
We have cos 2 60 0 cos 2 cos 2 60 0 1
1
or cos 450
2
v v cos iˆ v cos ˆj v cos kˆ
1 1 ˆ 1 ˆ
20 iˆ j k 10iˆ 10 2 ˆj 10kˆ
2 2 2
55. The rectangular components of a vector lying in XY plane are ( N +2) and 1. If the coordinate system is
turned by 300, they become N and 4. The value of N is
1) 7/4 2) 4/11 3) 4/7 4) 11/4
Key :4
Sol: The magnitude of vector remains same but direction changes as vectors is turned.
2 2 2 2
N 2 1 N 4
N 2 4 4 N 1 N 2 16 N 11
4
56. A vector 3i 4 j rotates about its tail through an angle 370 in anticlockwise direction then the new vector
ˆ ˆ
is
1) 3iˆ 4 ˆj 2) 3iˆ 4 ˆj 3) 5 ˆj 4) 5iˆ
Key :3
2 2 4
Sol: 3i 4 j 3 4 5 , Given vector direction is , tan 530 with x-axis. When given
3
vector rotates 37 0 anticlockwise, its direction changes to Y-axis with out changing its magnitude so new
vector becomes 5 ĵ
y Initial y Final
rf
ri
37 0
900
530
x x
57. Find the vector projection of b iˆ ˆj kˆ on a 2iˆ 2 ˆj kˆ
2iˆ 2 ˆj kˆ 2iˆ 2 ˆj kˆ iˆ ˆj kˆ iˆ ˆj kˆ
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 9 9 9
Key : 1
Sol: Vector projection of b along a is
a.b a 2 2 1 2iˆ 2ˆj k
ˆ
(b cos ) aˆ
a a 3 3
1 ˆ ˆ ˆ ˆ
2i 2ˆj kˆ 2i 2 j k
9 9
58. If A 2iˆ 3 ˆj and B iˆ ˆj then vector component of A perpendicular to vector B and in the same
plane is
5 ˆ ˆ 5 ˆ ˆ 5 ˆ ˆ 5 ˆ ˆ
1)
2
i j 2)
2
ij 3)
2
ij 4)
2
i k
Key : 1
Sol: C A A . B B
(OR)
Vector perpendicular B is C ˆi ˆj
A.C 5
Component of A along C is A cos
C 2
C
ˆ
Vector component of A along C is A cos C A cos
C
5 iˆ ˆj
2 2
5
iˆ ˆj
2
59. The magnitude of two vectors which can be represented in the form iˆ ˆj 2 xkˆ is 18 . The unit vector
perpendicular to these two vectors is
iˆ ˆj iˆ ˆj iˆ ˆj iˆ ˆj
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 8 2 8 2 2
Key : 1
Sol: iˆ ˆj 2 xkˆ 18 x 2 ; A i j 4k , B i j 4k
iˆ ˆj kˆ
A B 1 1 4 iˆ 4 4 ˆj 4 4 kˆ 1 1 8iˆ 8 ˆj
1 1 4
A B 8iˆ 8 ˆj iˆ ˆj
nˆ
A B 8 2 2
60. Three vector A, B and C satisfy the relation A. B = 0 and A.C = 0. Then the vector A is parallel to
1) B 2) C 3) B.C 4) B C
Key :2
A.B 0 A B
Sol:
A.C 0 A C
i.e., is both B and C
61. Units vector perpendicular to vector A 3iˆ 2 ˆj 3kˆ and B 2iˆ 4 ˆj 6kˆ both is
3 ˆj 2kˆ 3kˆ 2 ˆj ˆj 2 kˆ iˆ 3 ˆj kˆ
1) 2) 3) 4)
13 13 13 13
Key : 1
Sol: Unit vector perpendicular to vector a 3iˆ 2 ˆj 3kˆ and b 2iˆ 4 ˆj 6kˆ
ab
The unit vectors perpendicular to both a and b are nˆ
ab
i j k
a b 3 2 3
2 4 6
a b iˆ 12 12 j 18 6 k 12 4
a b 24 j 16k
a b 8 3 j 2k
a b 8 13
Now,
The unit vectors perpendicular to both a and b are
a b
a b
8 3 ˆj 2kˆ
3 ˆj 2kˆ
8 13 13
62. Let A iAˆ cos ˆjA sin be any vector. Another vector B which is perpendicular to A can be expressed
as
ˆ cos ˆjB sin
1) iB ˆ sin ˆjB cos
2) iB ˆ cos ˆjB sin 4) iB
3) iB ˆ sin ˆjB cos
Key :2
Sol: Dot product of two
perpendicular vectors should be zero. Cross checking with options(2) is correct
63. If A a1iˆ b1 ˆj and B a2iˆ b2 ˆj , the condition that they are perpendicular to each other is
a b a b
1) 1 2 2) a1b1 a 2b2 3) 1 1 4) None of these
b1 a2 a2 b2
Key : 1
Sol: Their dot product should be zero A.B 0 a1iˆ b1 ˆj . a2iˆ b2 ˆj 0 a1a2 b1b2 0
64. The condition under which the vectors (a + b) and (a – b) are parallel is?
1) a b 2) a b 3) a b 4) a is parallel to b
Key :4
Sol: Their cross product should be zero
a b a b 0 ;
2 a b 0 ; ab
65. A vector perpendicular to both the vector 2iˆ 3 ˆj and 3iˆ 2 ˆj is
1) ˆj 5kˆ 2) ˆj 5kˆ 3) 6kˆ 4) iˆ ˆj kˆ
Key :3
Sol: Dot product should be zero
66. The vector parallel to 4iˆ 3 ˆj 5kˆ and whose length is the arithmetic mean of lengths of two vectors
2iˆ 4 ˆj 4kˆ and iˆ 6 ˆj 3kˆ is
1) 4iˆ 3 ˆj 5kˆ
2) 4iˆ 3 ˆj 5 kˆ / 3 3) 4iˆ 3 ˆj 5 kˆ / 2
4) 4iˆ 3 ˆj 5 kˆ / 5
Key :3
| B||C|
Sol: Assume the given vectors are A, B & C respectively. K
2
4 16 16 1 6 9
K
2
62
K ; K 5 and D K A
2
ˆ ˆ ˆ
A 5 4i 3 j 5k
D K
4iˆ 3 ˆj 5kˆ
A 16 9 25 2
t t ˆ
67. If vectors A cos t iˆ sin t ˆj and B cos iˆ sin j are functions of time, then value of t at which
2 2
they are orthogonal to each other is
1) t = 0 2) t 3) t 4) t
4 2
Key :4
t t t t
Sol: A. B 0 cos t cos sin t sin 0 cos t 0 t
2 2 2 2 2
68 . Given that A+ B + C =0, out of the three vectors two are equal in magnitude and the magnitude of third
vector is 2 times that of either of two having equal magnitude. Then angle between vectors A and B , B
and C and C and A are given respectively by
1) 300 , 600 ,90 0 2) 450 , 450 , 90 0 3) 90 0 ,1350 , 450 4) 90 0 ,135 0 ,135 0
Key :4
Sol: Angle between A and B is 90 0
C
A
B
Between B and C is 1350 and that between A and C is 1350
69. What is the angle between iˆ ˆj kˆ and ĵ ?
1
1) 2) 3) 4) cos 1
6 4 3 3
Key :4
A.B 1
Sol: cos 1 cos 1
A B 3
70. The directional cosines of vector (A-B), if A 2iˆ 3 ˆj kˆ, B 2iˆ 2 ˆj 3kˆ are
1 2 2 1 1
1) 0, , 2) 0, , 3) 0,0, 4) None of these
5 5 5 5 5
Key: 1
Sol: A B ˆj 2kˆ C
C 1 4 5
0 1 2
cos 0, cos and cos
5 5 5
71. Given that A + B = C and that C is perpendicular to A further if | A || C | then what is the angle between A
and B?
3
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 2 4
Key :3
Sol: B cos C and B sin A But A C
C
B
A
B cos B sin or 450
Angle between A and B is 1350
72. If A + B = C, |A| = 2 |B| and B.C = 0, then
1) |A + C|= |A + B| 2) |A + C| = B 3) A. B < 0 4) A. C may be zero
Key :3
Sol: B. C = 0
A C
B
B C
A sin B
B 1
Or sin
A 2
300 or A.B 0
73. What is the angle between P and the resultant of P Q and P Q ?
1 1
1) Zero 2) tan P / Q 3) tan Q / P 4) tan 1 P Q / P Q
Key : 1
Sol: Resultant of (P + Q) and (P – Q) is P + Q + P – Q or 2P which is parallel to P
74. Two vectors A and B have precisely equal magnitudes. For the magnitude of A B to be larger than the
magnitude of A B by a factor n, what must be the angle between them ?
1 1
1) tan 1 2) 2 tan 1 3) 2 tan 1 n 4) tan 1 n
n n
Key :2
Sol: A B n A B
2 A cos n2 A sin
2 2
1 1 1
tan , tan 1 , 2 tan 1
2 n 2 n n
75. The two forces 2 2N and X N are acting at a point. Their resultant is perpendicular to X N and having
magnitude of 6 N . The angle between the two forces and magnitude of X are.
0
1) 120 , X 2 N 2) 300 , X 2 N 3) 1500 , X 3N 4) 1500 , X 2 N
Key : 1
2 2
Sol: x2 6 2 2
x
x 2 6 8 x 2;sin 30 .So angle between 2 2 and x is 1200.
2 2
76. If a1 and a 2 are two non - collinear unit vectors and if a1 a 2 3 then the value of
a1 a 2 . 2a1 a 2 is
3
1) 1 2) 3 3) 4) 7
2
Key : 3
Sol: a1 a2 1 ; a12 a22 2a1a2 cos 3 600
now a1 a2 . 2a1 a2 2a1.a1 a1.a2 2a2 .a1 a2 .a2
3
2 cos 00 cos 600 2 cos 600 cos 00
2
77. If A, B and C are vectors having unit magnitude. If A B C O then A.B B.C C . A is
1) 1 2) 3/2 3) 1/2 4) -3/2
Key : 4
Sol: A B C 0
Taking dot product with A on both sides
A. A B C 0 A2 A.B A.C 0
A.B A.C 1......... 1 (Since magnitude of is 1)
Similarly
B.C A.C 1.......... 2
A.B B.C 1........ 3
Adding above equations , we get
2 A.B B.C C . A 3
implies A.B B.C C . A 1.5
(or)
Angle between any two adjacent vectors is 1200
3
A.B B.C C . A 3cos1200
2
78. A metal sphere is hung by a string fixed to wall. The sphere is pushed away from the wall by a stick. The
forces acting on the sphere are shown. Which of the following is wrong
1) F W tan 2) T F W O 3) T 2 F 2 W 2 4) T F W
Key : 4
Sol: Verify by using tangent law and lami’s theorem
F
tan F W tan
W
T F W 0
T F W T F 2 W 2
but T F W
79. The below figure is a part of a horizontally stretched net. Section AB is stretched with a force of 10N. The
tensions in the sections BC and BF are
1) 10N, 11N 2) 10N, 6N 3) 10N, 10N 4) 6N, 10N
Key : 3
T1 T2 10
Sol: According to Lami’s theorem, 0
0
T1 10, T2 10
sin120 sin120 sin1200
80. Three forces start acting simultaneously on a particle moving with velocity . The forces are represented in
magnitude and direction by the three sides of a triangle ABC (as shown). The particle will now move with
velocity
B
F1 F2
A C
F3
1) less than V 2) greater than V
3) V in the direction of largest force 4) V remaining unchanged
Key : 4
Sol: According to triangle law of vectors net force acting on a particle ( F 1 F 2 F 3 O)
is zero.
F
a 0 ; Velocity remains constant.
M
81. The resultant of two forces 3P and 2P is R. If the first force is doubled then the resultant is also doubled.
The angle between the two forces is
1) 60 0 2) 1200 3) 90 0 4) 1800
Key : 2
Sol: R 9 P 2 4 P 2 12 P cos ....... 1
2 R 36 P 2 4 P 2 24 P cos .......... 2
1
Solve them cos
2
82. Two vectors a and b have equal magnitudes of 12 units. These vectors are making angles 300 and 1200 with
the x axis respectively. Their sum r is . Find the x and y components of r
1) 6 3 6 , 6 6 3
2) 6 3 6 , 6 6 3
3) 6 3 6 , 6 6 3 4) 6 3 6 , 6 6 3
Key : 1
^ ^ ^ ^
Sol: a 12 cos 30 i 12 sin 30 0 j 6 3iˆ 6 ˆj , b 12 sin 30 i 12 cos 30 0 j 6iˆ 6 3 ˆj ,
r a b 6 3iˆ 6 ˆj 6iˆ 6 3 ˆj
6 3 6 iˆ 6 6 3 ˆj
a
b 1200
300
83. Three forces acting on a body are shown in the figure. To have the resultant force only along the y -
direction , the magnitude of the minimum additional force needed is
3
1) 0.5N 2) 1.5N 3) N 4) 3N
4
Key : 1
Sol: To have component only along y-axis there should be no force along x-axis along X - axis, let be the
magnitude of minimum additional force needed for equilibrium then
4 sin 300 = 1cos 600 2sin 300 Fx
84. The sum of two co-initial vectors is 16units. Their vector sum is 8 units. The resultant of the vectors is
normal to smaller vector. The magnitudes of the two vectors are
1) 2 units & 14 units 2) 4 units & 12 units
3) 6 units & 10 units 4) 8 units & 8 units
Key : 3
Sol:
P
Q R
Given P + Q = 16, R = 8
Now Q 2 P 2 8 2 64 Q P 4
By solving Q+P=16, Q-P=4 we get Q=10, P=6
85. ABCDEF is a regular hexagon with point O as centre. Find the value of AB AC AD AE AF
1) 6 AO 2) 3 AO
3) 2 AO
4) AO
Key : 1
Sol: AB AC AD AE AF AB AE AD AC AF
AD AD AD 3 AD 3 2 AO 6 AO
E D
F O C
A B
86. Two vectors of equal magnitude P are inclined at some angle such that the difference in magnitude of
resultant and magnitude of either of the vectors is 0.732 times either of the magnitude of vectors. If the
angle between them is increased by half of its initial value then find the magnitude of difference of the
vectors
1) 2P 2) 2P 3) 3P 4) 3P
Key :2
Sol: R P 0.732 P ; R 1.732 P 3 P
60 1 90
But 2 P.cos 3P 600 ; now 1 60 900 , R1 2 p cos 2 p cos 2 p
2 2 2 2 2
87. | A B | 3 A. B , then the value of | A B | is
1/ 2
AB 1/2
1) A2 B 2
3
2) A + B
3) A2 B 2 3 AB 1/ 2
4) A2 B 2 AB
Key :4
Sol: AB sin 3 AB cos or tan 3
60 0
Now, A B A2 B 2 2 AB cos 600
A2 B 2 AB
88. If a a1iˆ a2 ˆj a3 kˆ then the value of iˆ iˆ a ˆj ˆj a kˆ kˆ a
is
1) 0 2) a kˆ 3) 2a 4) a
Key :3
Sol: Suppose a a1iˆ a2 ˆj a3 kˆ
Now, iˆ a a2 kˆ a3 ˆj
Now, i iˆ a a2 ˆj a3 kˆ
Similarly, ˆj ˆj a a1iˆ a3 kˆ
And kˆ ˆj a a1iˆ a2 ˆj
iˆ iˆ a ˆj ˆj a kˆ kˆ a 2a
89. Three vectors A 2i 3 j 2k , B 5i nj k and C i 2 j 3k are Coplanar then the value of ‘n’ is
1) 0 2) 12 3) 16 4) 18
Key :4
Sol: Three vectors are coplanar if their scalar triple product is zero. Hence, a b c =0
Substituting the respective vectors we get:
(2i+3j-2k).[(5i+nj+k)×(-i+2j+3k)]=0
6n-4-48-20-2n=0 ; 4n=72 ; n=18
90. The diagonals of a parallelogram are represented by vectors d1 5i 4 j 3kˆ and d 2 3i 2 j kˆ. Then the
area of the parallelogram is
1) 6 unit 2) 24 unit 3) 6 unit 4) 24 unit
Key : 1
Sol: Let sides of parallelogram are a and b
a b d1 , a b d 2
d d 8i 6 j 4k d d 2i 2 j 2 k
1 2
a 4 i 3 j 2 k, b 1 2
i jk
2 2 2 2
i j k
a b 4 3 2 i 2 j k area of paralle log ram 1 4 1 6 units
1 1 1
91. If the resultant of a and b is perpendicular to a and has the magnitude equal to half of the magnitude
of b . The angle between a and b is
1) 1200 2) 1500 3) 900 4) 600
Sol : cos q R ?, q 90 ?
Q
Key : 2
92. The square of resultant of two equal forces is three times their product angle between the forces is
1) 2) 2 3) 4 4) 3
P Q and R 2 3PQ 3P2
Sol :
R P Q 2PQcosq
2 2 2
Key : 4
93. If A 3i 1 j k and B i 4 j 2k are the two vectors, then the vector which is perpendicular to A
and whose magnitude is equal to that of B is
i 2 j 4k
1) 2) 2i j 4k 3) 3i 2 j 5k 4) i j k
Sol : c 2i j 4k A.C 0 CB
Key : 2
94. If a and b are two non collinear unit vectors such that a 2 b and 5 a 4 b are perpendicular to each
other, then the angle between a and b is
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 3 6 2
. 0,q ?
Sol : AB
Key : 2
95. If a is a unit vector along the axis of rotation of a purely rotating body and b is a unit vector along the
direction of linear velocity of a particle in the body then the value of ab
.
is
1) 1 2) -1 3) 0 4) 1/2
Sol : v w r , r v
Key : 3
96. If A 2 cos i 2sin j , what will be the unit vector perpendicular to A
cos i sin j
1) cosi sin j 2) cos i sin j 3) 4) sini cos j
2
Sol : A 2 cos i 2sin j
If B sinˆi cos ˆj
Then B sin 2 cos 2 1
A.B 2 cos sin 2 cos sin 0
So A and B are perpendicular vectors.
Key : 3
97. If A 2 B R and A 2 B is perpendicular to B then
2 2 2 2
1) R A 4B 2) R A 4B 3) R A2 3B2 4) R A2 3B2
Sol : A 2 B . B 0
A. B 2 B 2 0 A. B 2 B 2
A B cos 2 B 2
And
A2 4 B 2 4 A.B R 2 A2 4 B 2 4 AB cos R 2
A2 4 B 2 4 2 B 2 R 2
A2 4 B 2 R 2 R A2 4 B 2
alternate method
R
A
2B R A2 4B2
Key : 1
98. The magnitude of vector product of two non zero vectors A and B is zero. The scalar product of A and
A B is
1) zero 2) AB 3) A2 4) A2 + AB
Sol : A and B are in same direction
A . A B A A B cos
Key : 4
99. The value of A B A B is
1) 0 2) A2 B 2 3) B A 4) 2 B A
Sol :
Key : 4
100. What is the angle between A B and B A ?
1) Zero 2) / 2 3) π 4) None of these
Sol : A B is directed opposite to B A
Key : 3
101. A and B are two vectors and θ is the angle between them , if A B 3 A.B the value of θ is
1) 900 2) 600
3) 450 4) 300
Sol : A B A B co s ; A B A B sin
Key : 2
103. Let A, B and C be unit vectors, Suppose that A.B=A.C=0 and that the angle between B and C is / 6 then
prove that
B C
1) A 2 B C
2) A B C 3) A
2
4) A
Sol : Since A.B=0, A. C =0
Hence, (B+C).A=0
So, A is perpendicular to (B+C) and A is unit vector perpendicular to the plane of vectors B and C
BC
A Where , B C B C sin
BC
;
B C sin sin
6 6
1 1 BC
1 1 ;A 2 B C
2 2 BC
Key : 1
104. If a+b+c=0, then ab is equal to
1) b c 2) b
c 3) ac 4) a c
Sol : We have, a+b+c=0
a+c =–b
or a c b b b 0 or a b c b 0 or a b b c
Key : 1
105. Angle between P and Q is . What is the value of P . (Q P ) ?
2
1) P Q Cos 2) zero 3) P2Q sin cos 4) P2Q sin
0
Sol : The angle between P and Q P is 90 so
P. Q P 0
Key : 2
106. A particle is situated at the origin of a coordinate system. The following forces begin to act on the particle
simultaneously
F1 5iˆ 5 ˆj 5kˆ, F2 2iˆ 8 ˆj 6kˆ,
F3 6iˆ 4 ˆj 7kˆ, F4 iˆ 3 ˆj 2kˆ.
Then the particle will move:
(1) in X–Y plane (2) in Y–Z plane
(3) in Z–X plane (4) along X–axis
Sol : F F1 F2 F3 F4
Key : 2
107. Three forces are acting on a particle as shown in the figure. To have the resultant force only along the Y-
direction, the magnitude of the minimum additional force needed is
1) 0.866 N 2) 1.732 N 3) 0.5 N 4) 4 N
Sol : Resultant is along Y-axis so, the component of resultant force along X-axis should be zero
Fx 0
Or 1sin 30 0 2 sin 30 0 4 cos 60 0 F0 0
1 1
F0 1 2 0.5 N
2 2
Key :3
108. The resultant of A and B makes an angle with A and with B ,
(1) (2) if A B
(3) if A B (4) if A B
Sol : Conceptual
Key :3
109. Let r1 t 3tiˆ 4t 2 ˆj and r2 t 4t 2iˆ 3tjˆ represent the positions of particles 1 and 2,respectively as
functions of time t; r1 t and r2 t are in metres and t is in seconds. The relative speed of the two particles
at the instant t =1 s, will be
(1) 1 m/s (2) 3 2 m/s
(3) 5 2 m/s (4) 7 2 s m/s
Sol : Vrel V1 V2
Key : 3
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT
DAY – 19 (DT 28-04-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Chapter : MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. A wheel of radius 1m rolls forward half a revolution on a horizontal ground. The magnitude of the
displacement of the point of the wheel initially in contact with the ground is
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 4 4)
KEY:3
HINT: Horizontal distance covered by the wheel in half revolution = R.
So the displacement of the point which was initially in contact with ground =
2 2
AA '' R 2 R
R 2 4
2 4 (as R = 1m)
2. A particle, moving with uniform speed v, changes its direction by angle in time t. Magnitude of its
average acceleration during this time is
2v v 2 2v
1) Zero 2) sin 3) 4) cos
t 2 t t 2
KEY:2
v vf
v v f vi
HINT: aav
t t
v 2 v 2 2v.v cos
θ
θ
t v vi
2v sin / 2
t
3. A particle travelling along a straight line traverse one third of the total distance with a velocity V0 .
The remaining part of the distance was covered with a velocity V1 for half the time and velocity V2
for the other half of the time. Find the mean velocity of the point averaged over the whole motion
of time:
3VO (V1 V2 ) V0 (V1 V2 ) V0 V1 V2 V0
1) 2) 3) 4)
V1 V2 4V0 V1 V2 12V0 V1 V2 V0 V0
KEY:1
d
HINT: Let the time taken for one third distance be t1, then t1 , where d is the total length of the
3V0
2d V1t2 V1t2 (V1 V2 )t 2
journey. Let the time taken for next 2d/3 distance be t2
3 2 2 2
4d d 4 d d (V 1 V2 4V0 )
t2 . Thus, the total time taken for the journey is
3(V1 V2 ) 3V0 3(V1 V2 ) 3V0 (V1 V2 )
Total dis tan ce
Thus the average velocity =
Total time
d 3V0 (V1 V2 )
V
d (V1 V2 4V0 ) (V1 V2 4V0 )
3V0 (V1 V2 )
4. A car accelerates from rest at a constant rate from some time, after which it decelerates at a
constant rate and comes to rest. If the total time lapsed is t, then the maximum velocity acquired
by the car is
2 2
1) 2)
2 2
3)
t 4)
t
t t
KEY:4
HINT: Let the car accelerate at rate for time t1 . Then maximum velocity attained v 0 t1
Now, the car decelerates at a rate for time t t1 and finally comes to rest, then,
0 V (t t1 )
t1 t t1
( )t1 t
t1 t
v t
5. A particle starts with a velocity of 2ms-1 and moves in a straight line with a retardation of 0.1 ms-2.
The first time at which the particle is 15m from the starting point is
1) 10 s 2) 20 s 3) 30 s 4) 40 s
KEY:1
1
HINT: 15 2t 0.1 t 2 or t=10s
2
6. A particle returns to the starting point after 10s. if the rate of change of velocity during the motion s
constant, then its location after 7s will be same as that after
1) 1s 2) 2s 3) 3s 4) 4s
KEY:3
HINT: This is the case when velocity and acceleration of the body both are in opposite direction so body
will first moves in direction of velocity and then will move in direction of acceleration.
in the given question it is said that body returns to initial position after 10 sec.[this case can be treated same
as motion of body in vertical direction with constant acceleration downwards and thrown upward initially]
means velocity of body will be zero at 5 sec. displacement will be symmetric about the zero velocity time
so will be at same position at time 3 sec which will be at 7 sec.
so best possible answer is option 3
3
7. Velocity of a body moving along a straight line with uniform retardation a reduces by of its initial
4
velocity in time t0. The total time of motion of the body till its velocity becomes zero is
4 3 5 8
1) t0 2) t0 3) t0 4) t0
3 2 3 3
KEY:1
u
HINT: u at0
4
3u
a
4t0
u 4
Or t 0
a 3
u 4
Now, 0 u at or t t0
a 3
8. A body starts from rest with uniform acceleration a, its velocity after n seconds is v. The
displacement of the body in last 3s is (assume total time of journey from 0 to n second)
v 6n 9 2v 6n 9 2v 2n 1 2v n 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2n n n n
KEY:1
HINT: v = an
v
a
n
1 1 v vn
Now, Sn an 2 n2
2 2n
2
1 3
And S n 2 a n 3
2
1 v 2
n 3
2 n
Displacement in last 3s will be
S Sn Sn3
3
v n 3
n
2 n
6n 9 v
n 2
9. A car moving with a velocity of 10m/s can be stopped by the application of a constant force F in a
distance of 20m. If the velocity of the car is 30m/s, it can be stopped by this force in:
1) 100 m 2) 120 m 3) 180m 4) 160 m
KEY:3
HINT: According to the 3rd equation of motion v2 u 2 2as
After applying the brakes car will come to rest v = 0
u2 s
s1 u12 u
2 s2 2 s1
s2 u2 u1
2
30
s2 20 9 20 180m
10
10. A ball is bouncing elastically with a speed 1 m/s between walls of a railway compartment of size
10m in a direction perpendicular to walls. The train is moving at a constant velocity of 10 m/s
parallel to the direction of motion of the ball. As seen from the ground:
A) The direction of motion of the ball changes every 10 seconds
B) Speed of ball changes every 10 seconds
C) Average speed of ball over any 20 seconds interval is fixed.
D) The acceleration of ball is the same as from the train
1) B, C, D are correct 2) Only B is correct
3) Only A is correct 4) Only D is correct
KEY:1
HINT: In this problem. We have to keep in mind the frame of the observer. Hence, we must be
clear that we are considering the motion from the ground. Compared to velocity of trains (10 m/s)
speed of ball is less (1 m/s).
The speed of the ball before collision with side of train is 10 + 1 = 11 m/s.
Speed after collision with side of train = 10 – 1 = 9 m/s.
As speed is changing after travelling 10 m and speed is 1 m/s hence, time duration of the changing
speed is 10.
Since, the collision of the ball is perfectly elastic. There is no dissipation of energy hence, total
momentum and kinetic energy are conserved.
Since, the train is moving with constant velocity hence, it will act as inertial frame of reference as
that of Earth and acceleration will be same in both frames.
We should not confuse with non – inertial and inertial frame of reference. A frame of reference that
is not accelerating will be inertial.
11. Two trains, each of length 100m, moving in opposite directions along parallel lines, meet each
other with speeds of 50kmh 1 and 40kmh 1 . If their accelerations are 30cms 2 and 20cms 2 ,
respectively, find the time they will take to pass each other.
1)10 40 40s 2) 10 33 50 s 3) 10 22 50s 4) 10 42 40s
KEY:2
HINT: Vrel 50 40 90kmh 1 25ms 1
arel 30 20 50cms 1 0.5ms 2
1
srel urel t arel t 2
2
1
100 100 25t 0.5t 2
2
Solving, we get t 10 33 50 s
12. A police van moving on a highway with a speed of 30kmh 1 fires a bullet at a thief’s car speeding
away in the same direction with a speed of 192km h 1 . If the muzzle speed of the bullet is 150ms 1 ,
with what speed does the bullet hit the thief’s car?
1) 100ms 1 2) 210ms 1 3) 52.5ms 1 4) 105ms 1
KEY:4
5 25
HINT: Speed of police van 30 ms 1
18 3
The muzzle velocity, that is, the velocity of bullet with respect to van is
vbullet van vbullet groupnd vvan ground
vbullet ground vbullet van vvan ground
25 475 1
150 ms
3 3
5 160 1
Speed of thief’s car = 192 ms
18 3
Now velocity of bullet with respect to the thief’s car
vbullet car vbullet ground vvan ground
475 160
105ms 1
3 3
Hence, the bullet hits the thief’s car with speed 105ms 1
13. A swimmer capable of swimming with velocity v relative to water jumps in a flowing river having
velocity u. The man swims a distance d downstream and returns back to the original position. Find
out the time taken in complete motion.
dv dv 2d v dv
1) 2 2
2) 2 2
3) 2 2
4) 2 2
v u v u v u u v
KEY:3
HINT: Total time = Time of swimming downstream + Time of swimming upstream
Velocity of the man during swimming downstream = v u
Velocity of the man during swimming upstream = v u
t tdown tup tdown tup
d d 2dv
2
v u v u v u2
14. Two particles A and B start from rest and move for equal time on a straight line. Particle A has an
acceleration of 2 m / s 2 for the first half of the total time and 4 m / s 2 for the second half. The particle
B has acceleration 4 m / s 2 for the first half and 2 m / s 2 for the second half. Which particle has
covered larger distance?
1) A 2) B 3) Both have covered the same distance
4) Data insufficient
KEY:2
HINT: Area under v-t graph gives displacement. We can see that area for B is greater than area of A.
Hence B has covered larger distance.
v
B
15. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B on ground, where AB=a. The boy at B starts running in a
direction perpendicular to AB with velocity v1. The boy at A starts running simultaneously with
constant velocity v and catches the other boy in a time t, where t is
a a2 a a
1) 2) 2 2
3) 4)
2
v v12 v v1 v v1 v v1
KEY:2
HINT: v 2t 2 v12t 2 a 2
a2
t
v 2 v12
16. A train accelerates from rest at a constant rate for distance x1 and time t1. After that it retards to rest
at constant rate for distance x2 and time t2. Which of the following relations is correct?
x t x t x t x t
1) 1 1 2) 1 1 3) 1 2 4) 1 2
x2 t 2 x2 t 2 x2 t1 x2 t1
KEY:2
1
HINT: x1 t12 ....(i)
2
1
x2 t 22 ....(2)
2
Further vmax t1 ....(3)
And 0 vmax t2 ....(4)
From Eqs. (iii) and (iv) we have
t22
t1
Then from Eqs (i) and (ii)
x1 t1
x2 t 2
17. On a calm day a boat can go across a lake and return in time T0 at a speed V. On a rough day there is
uniform current at speed v to help the onward journey and impede the return journey. If the time
taken to go across and return on the rough day be T, then T/T0 is
1 1
1) 1 v 2 / V 2 2) 2 2
3) 1 v 2 / V 2 4)
1 v /V 1 v2 / V 2
KEY:2
2S S S 2 SV
HINT: T0 and T 2 2
V V v V v V v
T / T0
2
2SV / V v
2
2 2
V2 1
2S / V V v 1 v2 / V 2
18. The distance between two trucks moving towards each other is decreasing at the rate of 10m/s. If
these trucks travel with same speeds is same direction the separation increases at the rate of 5m/s.
The velocities of the trucks are:
1) V1 8.2m / s,V2 1.5m / s 2) V1 7.5m / s,V2 2.5m / s
3) V1 5m / s ,V2 5m / s 4) V1 5m / s V2 2.5m / s
KEY:2
HINT: According to the given equation
First case: Separation between the trucks decreases at the rate of 10m/s. Due to the opposite relative
motion of trucks towards each other-
V1 V2 10(condition given).......(1)
Second case: Separation between the trucks increases due to the opposite relative motion of trucks
away from each other –
V1 V2 5.....(2)(Condition given)
From equation (1) and (2), we get
V1 V2 10
V1 V2 5
2V1 15
V1 7.5m / s
By putting the value of V1 in equation (1)
7.5 V2 10
V2 2.5m / s
19. An object falling through a fluid is observed to have acceleration given by a = g –bv where g =
gravitational acceleration and b is constant. After a long time of release, it is observed to fall with
constant speed. The value of constant speed is
g b
1) 2) 3)bg 4) b
b g
KEY:1
HINT: Here, a = g – bv
When an object falls with constant speed ve , its acceleration becomes zero.
g
g bvc 0 or vc
b
20. The velocity of a particle moving in the positive direction of x-axis varies as v 5 x . Assuming that
at t= 0, particle was at x= 0. What is the acceleration of the particle?
1) 125 m/s2 2) 7.5 m/s2 3) 5 m/s2 4) 2.5 m/s2
KEY:1
HINT: v 2 25 x . Comparing with v 2 2as , we have a 12.5 m / s 2
21. The motion of a particle is described by the equation v = at . The distance travelled by the particle in
the first 4s (a is a constant)
1) 4a 2) 12a 3) 6a 4) 8a
KEY:4
HINT:
22. The displacement of a particle moving in a straight line is described by the relation , s 6 12t 2t 2 .
Here s is in metre and t is in second. The distance covered by particle in first 5s is
1) 20 m 2) 32 m 3) 24 m 4) 26 m
KEY:4
ds
HINT: v 12 4t
at
ds
Comparing with v 12 4t , u 12m / s and a 4 m / s 2
at
Velocity will become zero at 0 12 4t0 or t0 3s
Since the given time t 5s is greater than t0 3s
Distance > |displacement|
u2 1 2
Distance d S0t0 St0 t a t t0
2a 2
2
12 1 2
4 2 26m
8 2
23. Which of the following represents uniformly accelerated motion?
t a ta xa
1) x 2) x 3) t 4) x t a
b b b
KEY:3
xa
HINT: t or x a bt 2 or x a bt 2
b
1
Comparing this equation with general equation of uniform accelerated motion, s si ut at 2
2
We see that si a , u 0 and acceleration = 2b.
x2 t2
24. A particle moves along the positive branch of the curve y where x , x and y are measured
2 2
in meters and t in second. At t = 2s, the velocity of the particle is
1) 2iˆ 4 ˆj m/s 2) 4iˆ 2 ˆj m/s 3) 2iˆ 4 ˆj m/s 4) 4iˆ 2 ˆj
KEY:3
dx 2t
HINT: vx t
dt 2
At 2s, vx 2 m / s
2
x2 t / 2
2
t4
Further, y
2 2 8
dy t 3
vy
dt 2
At t 2 s , v y 4m / s
25. A particle has an initial velocity of 3iˆ 4 ˆj and an acceleration of 0.4iˆ 0.3 ˆj . Its speed after 10s is
1) 10 units 2) 7 units 3) 7 2 units 4) 8.5 units
KEY:3
HINT: v u at 3iˆ 4 ˆj 0.4iˆ 0.3 ˆj 10 7iˆ 7 ˆj
2 2
v 7 7 7 2 units
26. Water drops fall at regular intervals from a tap which is 5m above the ground. The third drop is
leaving the tap at the instant the first drop touches the ground. How far above the ground the
second drop at that instant:
1) 2.50m 2) 3.75m 3) 4.00m 4) 1.25m
KEY:2
HINT: Let the regular interval is t. When the third drop is about to fall, the first drop strikes the
ground. First drop has fallen for time: 2t
2nd drop has fallen for time: t
1
1stdrop : 5 g (2t ) 2
2
1 2 5
gt
2 4
1
2nd drop: h gt 2 1.25m
2
The distance of the second drop above the ground is 5 – 1.25 3.75 m
27. A stone is dropped from the top of a tower of height h. After 1 second, another stone is dropped
from the balcony 20 m below the top, both reach the bottom simultaneously. What is the value of
h?
1) 31.25 m 2) 100 m 3) 120 m 4) 130 m
KEY:1
HINT: According to the equation
1 2
h ut gt
2
1 2
h gt ........(1)2
2
1
(h 20) 0 g (t 1) 2
2
1
(h 20) g (t 1)2 ..........(2)
2
u = 0 in both case because stone s dropped from rest.
From the equation (1) and (2) we get
1 2
h gt
2
1
(h 20) g (t 1)2
2
1 1
h (h 20) gt 2 g (t 1)2
2 2
1 1 1
h h 20 gt 2 gt 2 g gt
2 2 2
g
20 gt
2
gt 25 ( g 10ms / 2
t 2.5sec ond
1
h 10 (2.5) 2 31.25m
2
28. A body is projected upwards with a velocity u. It passes through a certain point above the ground
after t1 . Find the time after which the body passes through the same point during the return journey.
u u u u
1) 4 t1 2) 6 t1 3) 2 t1 4) 8 t1
g g g g
KEY:3
HINT: Suppose v be the velocity attained by the body after time, t1 .
Then v u gt1 .... (i)
Let the body reaches the same point at time t2 . Now velocity will be downward with same magnitude
v, then
v u gt 2 ..... (ii)
(i) – (ii) 2v g t 2 t1
2v 2 u
Or t2 t1 u gt1 2 t1
g g g
29. A ball is dropped from an elevator at an altitude of 200m. How much time will the ball take to reach
the ground if the elevator is moving down with velocity 10m/sec.
1) 1 41 s 2) 1 41 s 3) 1 41 s 4) 1 41 s
KEY:1
1
HINT: s ut at 2
2
1
200 10t 10t 2
2
t 2 2t 40 0
t 1 41s
30. A balloon rises from rest on the ground with constant acceleration g/8. A stone is dropped from the
balloon when the balloon has risen to a height of H. Find the time taken by the stone to reach the
ground.
H H g g
1) 2) 2 3) 2 4) 4
g g H H
KEY:2
g gH
HINT: u 2 H u
8 2
1
H ut gt 2
2
gt 2 2ut 2 H 0
gt 2 gH t 2 H 0
gt 2 2 gH gH t 2 H 0
gt gt 2 H H gt 2 H 0
H
gt H
gt 2 H 0 t 2
g
31. A body falls freely from the top of a tower. It covers 36% of the total height in the last second before
striking the ground level. The height of the tower is
1) 50m 2) 75m 3) 100m 4) 125 m
KEY:4
HINT: Let height of tower is h and body takes t time to reach to ground when it fall freely.
1
h gt 2 ... (i)
2
In last second, i.e., tth sec body travels = 0.36h
It means in rest of the time i.e in (t – 1) sec it travels
h 0.36h 0.64h
Now applying equation of motion for (t – 1) sec, we get
1 2
0.64h g t 1 ....(ii)
2
From (i) and (ii), we get t = 5 sec and h = 125 m
32. From the top of the tower of height 400m, a ball is dropped by a man, simultaneously from the base
of the tower, another ball is thrown up with a velocity 50m/s; at what distance will they meet from
the base of the tower?
1) 100 m 2) 320 m 3) 80 m 4) 240 m
KEY:3
HINT: Let the first ball meet at a heights from ground
1
400 s gt 2 ....(i)
2
1
And from second ball : s 50t gt 2 ....(ii)
2
Adding 50t 400 , we get
t 8sec
Now substituting the value of ‘t’ in (ii),
1
We get s 50 8 10 64 80m
2
33. A ball is dropped vertically from a height d above the ground . It hits the ground and bounces up
vertically to a height d/2. Neglecting subsequent motion and resistance, its velocity v varies with the
height h above the ground is correctly shown in
1) 2) 3) 4)
KEY:1
HINT: For the given condition, initial height h = d and velocity of the ball is zero. When the ball
moves downward its velocity increases and it will be maximum when the ball hits the ground: just
after the collision, it becomes half and in opposite direction. As the ball moves upward, its velocity
again decreases and becomes zero at height d/2. This explanation match with graph (1)
34. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height h, take time T to reach the ground. What is the
T
position of the ball (from ground) after time ?
3
h 7h 8h 17 h
1) m 2) m 3) m 4) m
9 9 9 18
KEY:3
1
HINT: We have h gT 2
2
2
T 1 T h
in second, distance fallen g
3 2 3 9
h 8h
So position of the ball from the ground is h m
9 9
35. A stone is allowed to fall freely from rest. The ratio of the times taken to fall though the first meter
and the second meter distance is
1) 2 1 2) 2 1 3) 2 4) None of these
KEY:2
1 1 2
HINT: S at 2 1 g t12 or t1
2 2 g
1
2 gt 2
2
4
Or t2
g
4 2
But t t2 t1
g g
2
t1 g
t 4 2
g g
2
2 2
2 2 2
2
2 1
36. Among the four graph shown in the figure there is only one graph for which average velocity over
the time interval (0, T) can vanish for a suitably chosen T. Which one is it?
1) 2) 3) 4)
KEY:3
HINT: In graph (3) for one value of displacement there are two different points of time. Hence, for
one time, the average velocity is positive and for other time it is equally negative.
37. The velocity – time graph of a body is shown in fig. The displacement of the body in 8s is
1) 9m 2) 12 m 3) 10 m 4) 28 m
KEY:3
HINT: Displacement = Area under graph
1 1 1
2 2 2 6 1 1 6 1 6 1 6 2 4
2 2 2
10m
38. An object is vertically thrown upwards. Then the displacement –time graph for the motion is as
shown in
1) u/g 2u/g 2) 3) 4)
KEY:2
HINT: Let the particle be thrown up with initial velocity u
1
Displacement (s) at any time t is S ut gt 2
2
The graph should be parabolic downwards as shown in option (2)
39. Plot the acceleration – time graph of the velocity – time graph given in fig:
1) 2) 3) 4)
KEY:1
HINT: For 0 to 5s, acceleration is positive, for 5 to 15s acceleration is negative for 15 to 20s
acceleration is positive.
40. The x-t graph for motion of a car is given below. With reference to the graph which of the given
statement (s) is/are correct?
I. The instantaneous speed during the interval t = 5 s to t = 10s is negative at all time instants during
the interval.
II. The velocity and the average velocity for the interval t = 0s to t = 5 are equal and positive.
III. The car changes its direction of motion at t = 5 s
IV. The instantaneous speed and the instantaneous velocity is positive at all time instants during the
interval t = 0 s to t = 5 s.
Choose the correct option:
1) I, II and III 2) II and III 3) II, III and IV 4) I, II, III and IV
KEY:4
HINT: I. The instantaneous speed is always positive as it is the magnitude of the velocity at an
instant.
II. For t = 0s to t = 5s, the motion is uniform. So, the average velocity and the instantaneous
velocity are equal.
III. During t = 0s to t = 5s. The slope of the graph is positive, hence the average velocity and the
velocity both are positive. During t = 5s to t = 10s. The slope of the graph is negative, hence the
velocity is negative.
Since, there is change in sign of velocity at t = 5s the car changes its direction at that instant.
IV. In figure, instantaneous speed during = 5s to t = 10s is negative at all time instants during the
interval.
41. A drunkard is walking along a straight road. He takes five steps forward and three steps backward
and so on. Each step is 1m long and takes 1s. There is a pit on the road 11m away from the starting
point. The drunkard will fall into the pit after a time of
1) 29s 2) 21s 3)37s 4)31s
Sol : Since the last five steps covering 5m land the drunkard fell into the pit, the displacement prior to
this is (11-5)m=6m. Time taken for first eight steps (displacement in first eight steps=5-3=2m)=8s.
6
Then time taken to cover first 6m of journey 8 24 s
2
Time taken to cover last 5m=5s
Total time =24+5=29s
Key : 1
42. Figure shows a particle starting from point ‘A’, travelling upto ‘B’ with a speed ‘S’ then upto point
‘C’ with a speed ‘2S’ and finally upto ‘A’ with a speed ‘3S’ Its average speed is (in m/s)
C
120 0
B
O
900
A
1) 3.6S 2) 1.8 S 3) 0.9S 4) 6.2S
AB r BC 2 r
t1 t2
Sol : S 2S ; 2S 6S
CA 5 r
t3
3S 18S
2 r
1.8S
t1 t2 t3
average speed =
Key : 2
43. A particle moves with constant acceleration along a straight line staring from rest. The percentage
increase in its displacement during the 4th second compared to that in
the 3rd second is :
1) 33% 2) 40% 3) 66% 4) 77%
Sol : Let a be constant acceleration of the particle. Its displacement in nth second is
g
Sn u 2n 1
u = 0 and 2
S4 7 S4 2
1 100 100 40%
S n 2n 1 S3 5 S3 5
;
Key : 2
44. A person runs along a circular path of radius 5m. If he completes half of the circle find the magnitude
of the displacement vector, How far the person ran
1) 10m , 5 πm 2) 5 m
3) 5πm, 19 m 4) 14m , 10πm
Sol : Displacement = 2r ; Distance = r
Key : 1
45. A particle moving on a straight line covers one third of total distance with speed v and then reduces
its speed by 2 m/s to cover the remaining distance. If the average speed for the whole journey is 4.5
m/s, then the value of v is :-
1) 6 m/s 2) 3 m/s 3) 8 m/s 4) 10 m/s
distance
Sol : Average speed
time
Key :1
46. A boat travels 50 km east, then 120 km north and finally it comes back to the starting point through
the shortest distance. The total time of journey is3 hours. What is the average velocity in km h–1, over
the entire trip:-
1) 0 2) 100 3) 17 4) 33.33
displacement
Sol : Average velocity
time
Key :1
47. One car moving on a straight road covers one thirds of the distance with 20 km/hr and the rest with
60km/hr. The average speed is :–
1)40 km/hr 2) 80 km/hr
2
3) 46 km/hr 4) 36 km/hr
3
Total displacement
Sol : Average Vr=
Total time
Key :4
48. A particle is moving on a circular path of radius R with constant speed v. During motion of the
particle from point A to point B
o A
B
1) Average speed is v/2
v
2) The magnitude of average velocity is
3) The magnitude of average acceleration is
2v 2
R
4) Average velocity is zero
Sol : a)Average speed = Total distance /Total time
b) Magnitude of average velocity =
Total displacement /Total time
v u
c) The magnitude of average acceleration is =
t
Key : 3
49. A particle is moving such that its position coordinates x, y are : (2m, 3m) at time t t 0 , (6m, 7m)
at time t 2 s and (13m, 14m) at time t 5s . Average velocity vector v av from t 0 to t 5s is
1 7
1) 13i 14 j
2) i j
5 3
11
3) 2 i j 4)
5
i j
Sol : At time t 0 , the position vector of the particle is r1 2i 3 j
At time t 5s , the position vector of the particle is r2 13i 14 j
Displacement from r1to r2 is
r r2 r1 (13i 14 j ) 2i 3 j 11i 11j Average velocity,
r 11i 11j 11
vav
t
50
5
i j
Key : 4
50. A particle is moving in a straight line covers half the distance with speed of 3m/s. The other half of
the distance is covered in two equal time intervals with speed of 4.5m/s and 7.5m/s respectively. The
average speed of the particle during this motion is
1) 4.0m/s 2) 5.0m/s
3) 5.5m/s 4) 4.8m/s
Sol : If t1 and 2t2 are the times taken by particle to cover first and second half distance
respectively.
x/2 x
t1 ; x1 4.5t2 and x2 7.5t2 ----(i)
3 6
x x x
So, x1 x2 4.5t2 7.5t 2 ; t2 -----(ii)
2 2 24
x x x
Total time t t1 2t 2
6 12 4
So, average speed=4m/sec.
Key : 1
51. A body travelling with uniform acceleration crosses two points A and B with velocities 20 m/s and 30
m/s respectively. The speed of the body at mid – point of A and B is
1) 25 m/s 2) 10 6 m/s
3) 24 m/s 4) 25.5 m/s.
2 2
Sol : (30) (20) 2a(2s) or 2as = 250
Now, v 2 (20)2 2as 650
v 25.5m / s
Key : 4
52. Three persons P,Q and R are at three corners of an equilateral triangle of each side ‘a’. They start
moving simultaneously with velocity ‘V’ such that ‘P’ always moves towards ‘Q’, ‘Q’ always moves
towards ‘R’ and ‘R’ always moves towards ‘P’. After what time they would meet each other at ‘O’?
a 2a 2a 2a
1) 2) 3) 4)
V 3V 3V V
Sol : The three persons follow curvilinear paths to meet at the centroid ‘O’ of triangle. Distance
a
PO QO RO
3
Velocity component with each
V 3
Moves = V cos300
2
a
2a
t 3
V 3 3V
2
Key : 2
53. A particle starts from rest with constant acceleration. The ratio of space – average velocity to the time
average velocity is
1 3 4 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4 3 2
T
vdt at dt aT
Sol : < V >time O
T
dt
dt 2 O
ds
v ds V dt dt
< V >space
ds ds
dt dt
T T
2 2 2
V dt a t dt 2 aT
O O
T T
Vdt
O at dt 3 O
V space 2 aT / 3 4
So,
V time aT / 2 3
Key : 3
54. A particle is moving such that its position vector varies with time as r 1 t t A , where α and A
are constant quantities. At t = 0, the particle is at a position O. At some later instant ‘t0’ the particle is
again at O, velocity of the particle at the instant ‘t0’ is
1) 2A 2) A 3) A 4) 2A
Sol : At time t0 particle is again at initial position
1
O 1 t0 t0 A
t0
dr d
V
t t 2 A 1 2 t A
dt dt
At t = t0
2 1 t
0
V 1 A A
t0
Key : 3
55. A particle moves along a straight line such that its displacement at any time t is given by : s=(t3–
3t2+2)m The displacement when the acceleration becomes zero is :
1)0 m 2) 2 m 3) 3 m 4) –2 m
2
dv d s
Sol : a O Put t in s
dt dt 2
Key : 1
56. The displacement x of a particle varies with time t as x = ae–t + bet, where a, b, and are positive
constants. The velocity of the particle will:-
1) be independent of
2) drop to zero when =
3) go on decreasing with time
4) go on increasing with time
dx
Sol : v
dt
Key : 4
57. A particle moves along a straight line OX. At a time t (in seconds) the distance x (in metres) of the
particle from O is given by :- x = 40 + 12t – t 3
How long would the particle travel before coming to rest?
1) 16 m 2) 24 m 3) 40 m 4) 56 m
dx
Sol : v 0
dt
Key : 4
58. At time t = 0s particle starts moving along the x-axis. If its kinetic energy increases uniformly with
time 't', the net force acting on it must be proportional to :-
1
1) t 2) constant 3) t 4)
t
Sol : W KE FS KE
Key : 4
59. A particle moves in a straight line so that its displacement x in metres at time t seconds is given by
t x2 1 . Its acceleration in ms–2 at t seconds is :-
1 t2
1) 2)
x3 x
1 t2 t2 1
3) 3 4) 3 2
x x x x
1
2 2
Sol : t x 1 ; t x 1 ;2
x t 1
2 2
For acceleration double differentiate above equation w.r.t time [d(uv)=udv+vdu]
Key : 3
dv
60. An object is moving with a speed of 6.25 m/s and is decelerated at a rate given by 2.5v1/ 2
dt
where v is the instantaneous speed. The time taken by the object to come to rest would be.
1) 4 s 2) 8 s 3) 1 s 4) 2 s
Sol : When object stops v 0 , use integration
Key : 4
61. The velocity V of a moving particle varies with displacement as x = V 1 , the acceleration of the
particle at x = 5 unit will be :-
1) 6 unit 2) 24 unit
3) 240 unit 4) 25 unit
dv
Sol : av
dx
Key :3
62. The acceleration of a particle is increasing linearly with time t as bt. The particle starts from the
origin with an initial velocity v0. The distance travelled by the particle in time ‘t’ will be :-
1 1
1) v0t bt 2 2) v 0t bt 3
3 3
1 3 1 2
3) v0 t+ bt 4) v0 t+ bt
6 2
dv
Sol : bt use integration to find s t relation
dt
Key :3
63. The velocity v of a particle is given by the
equation v = 6t 2 – 6t 3 , where v is in m/sec and t is time in seconds then :-
1) at t = 0, velocity is maximum
2
2) at t = , velocity is minimum
3
3) minimum velocity is zero
4) minimum velocity is –2 m/sec
dv
Sol : 0 to know maximum (or) minimum v
dt
Key :3
64. If a particle moves along a straight line according to the law v=2 (x sinx + cos x) then find its
dv
acceleration (i.e. ) at x= / 2
dt
1) 2) 3) 4) zero
2 2 2 4 2
Sol : V= 2(xsinx +cosx) for acceleration differentiate above equation w.r.t time.
[d(uv)=udv+vdu]
Key : 4
65. A particle moves a distance x in time t according to equation x = (t+5)–1. The acceleration of particle
is proportional to :-
1) (velocity)2/3 2) (velocity)3/2
2
3) (distance) 4) (distance)–2
Sol : X=(t+5)-1For acceleration double differentiate above equation w.r.t time
Key : 2
66. A particle of unit mass undergoes one dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according to
v x x2n where and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of the
particle as a function of x, is given by :
2 4 n 1 2 2n1
1) 2n x 2) 2 x
2 4n1 2 2 n 1
3) 2n e 4) 2n x
dv
Sol : a v
dx
Key : 1
67. A particle moves along x-axis according to the equation x = t3+t–1. The average acceleration of the
particle from t = 2s to t = 5s is :-
1) 42 m/s2 2) 21 m/s2
2
3) 20 m/s 4) 40 m/s2
change in velocity
Sol : Average acceleration
time
Key : 2
1/2
68. The distance travelled by a particle is directly proportional to t , where t = time elapsed. What is the
nature of motion ?
1) Increasing acceleration
2) Decreasing acceleration
3) Increasing retardation
4) Decreasing retardation
d 2s
Sol : s t find 2 a
dt
Key : 4
dv
69. A body moves so that it follows the following relation v2 2v 1 where v is speed in m/s and t
dt
is time in second. If at t = 0, v = 0 then choose the incorrect statement
1) terminal velocity is 1 m/s
2) the magnitude of initial acceleration is 1
m/s2
1
3) instantaneous speed is
1 t
4) the speed is 1.5 m/s when acceleration is one fourth of its initial value
Sol : Terminal velocity a 0
Initial acceleration v 0
Key : 3
70. A particle moves along x-axis in such a way that its co-ordinate x varies with time t according to the
equation x = (2–5t+6t2)m. The initial velocity of the particle is :-
1) –5 m/s 2) 6 m/s 3) –3 m/s 4) 3 m/s
dx
Sol : v at t 0
dt
Key :
71. The relation 3t = 3x +6 describes the displacement of a particle in one direction where x is in meters
and t in seconds. The displacement, when velocity is zero, is :–
1) 24 m 2) 12 m 3) 5 m 4) zero
Sol : 3t 3x 6 ; x 3(t 2)2
Above equation Differencing w.r.t time
V=6(t-2) if v= 0 t=2; X=0
Key : 1
72. Starting from rest ,the acceleration of a particle is a = 2(t –1). The velocity of the particle at t= 5 s is :
1) 15 m/s 2) 25 m/s
3) 5 m/s 4) None of these
Sol : a=2(t-1) ; dv/dt=2(t-1); dv=2(t-1)dt
integrating on both sides
5
dv 2(t 1)dt
0
Key : 1
73. The position vector of a particle is given by r r0 (1-at)t, where t is the time and a as well as r0 are
constant. After what time the particle returns to the starting point ?
1 1
1) a 2) 3) a 2 4) 2
a a
Sol : At time t=0 r 0 t=1/a
1
r r0 1 a a ; r 0
a
Key : 2
3
74. The co-ordinates of a moving particle at any time t are given by x t 3 and y t . The speed of the
particle at time t is given by
1) 2 2 2) t 2 2 2
3) 3t 2 2 4) 3t 2 2 2
3
Sol : x t 3 and y t
2 2
dx dy
v|
dt dt
2 2 2 2
= 3 t 3 t = 9t 4 2 2
= 3t
2 2 2
Key : 4
75 . If the velocity of a particle is v At bt 2 where A and B are constants, then the distance travelled by
in between 1s and 2s is
3
1) A 4 B 2) 3 A 7 B
2
3 7 A B
3) A B 4)
2 3 2 3
2
Sol : v At Bt
dx
or At Bt 2 or dx ( At Bt 2 )dt
dt
2
At 2 Bt 3
or x
2 3 1
A B 3 7
= (4 1) 8 1 = A B
2 3 2 3
Key : 3
76. Speeds of two identical cars are u and 4u at a specific instant. The ratio of the respective distances at
which the two cars are stopped from that instant is-
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 4 3) 1 : 8 4) 1 : 16
Sol :
u2
S1
2a2 1:16
S 2 4u
2a
Key : 4
77. A car, starting from rest, accelerates at the rate f through a distance S, then continues at constant
speed for time t and then decelerates at the rate f/2 to come to rest. If the total distance travelled is 15
S, then-
1
1) S= ft 2) S= ft 2
6
1 1 2
3) S= ft 2 4) S= ft
72 4
Sol : Total distance = area of v t graph
Key : 3
78. A car starts from rest and moves with constant acceleration. The ratio of the distance covered in the
nth second to that covered in n seconds is :-
2 1 2 1
1) 2 2) 2
n n n n
2 1 2 1
3) 2 4) 2
n n n n
g
2n 1
Sol :
2
1 2
gn
2
Key : 1
79. A body starts from rest and travels a distance S with uniform acceleration, then moves uniformly a
distance 2S and finally comes to rest after moving further 3S under uniform retardation. The ratio of
the average velocity to maximum velocity is :-
1) 2/5 2) 3/5 3) 4/7 4) 5/7
Sol : s1 : s2 : s3 1:3: 5
Key : 2
80. Check up the only correct statement in the following :-
1) A body has a constant velocity and still it can have a varying speed.
2) A body has a constant speed but it can have a varying velocity.
3) A body having constant speed cannot have any acceleration.
4) A body in motion under a force acting upon it must always have work done upon it.
Sol : A body has a constant speed but it can have a varying velocity
Key : 2
81. A car starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration 'a' on a straight road from time t = 0 to t =
T. After that, a constant deceleration 'a' brings it to rest. In this process the average speed of the car is:
aT 3aT aT
1) 2) 3) 4) aT
4 2 2
total displacement
Sol : Vavg =
total time
Key : 3
4
82. The distance travelled by a particle starting from rest and moving with an acceleration ms-2 in the
3
third second is
10 19
1) 6m 2) 4m 3) m 4) m
3 3
Sol : Sn u a n
2
Key : 3
83. A stone takes time t to fall through a height h. The increment in time when it falls further through a
distance x (x <<h) is
xh xt
1) 2)
2 2
xt 2h
3) 4)
2h xt
1
2h x 2
t1 1
2 h x g h
Sol : t1 ;
g
2h
x t g 1 xt
; t t
1
t t 1 ;
2h 2h
Key : 3
84. A body starts from rest with uniform acceleration. If its velocity after n second is , then its
displacement in the last two seconds is
1) 2 n 1 2) n 1
n n
n 1 2 n 1
3) 4)
n n
1 2 1
Sol : Now, distance travelled in n sec. S n an and distance travelled in (n 2) sec S n 2 a(n 2) 2
2 2
Distance travelled in last two seconds,
1 2 1
an a(n 2) 2
S n S n 2
2 2
a 2 a
n (n 2) 2 [n (n 2)][n (n 2)]
2 2
v 2v(n 1)
= a(2n 2) (2 n 2)
n n
Key : 4
85. A body starts from rest with uniform acceleration. Its velocity after 2n second is V0.The displacement
of the body in last n seconds is
v (2n 3) v (2n 1)
1) 0 2) 0
6 4n
3v n 3v n
3) 0 4) 0
4 2
Sol : Let acceleration of the body is a
V0=0+ax2n
1
Distance travelled in 2ns,S2n= ax(2n)2
2
1
Distance travelled in ns, Sn= ax(n)2
2
3
Distance travelled in ns, S2n- Sn= an2
2
3 v0 2 3v0 n
x xn
2 2n 4
Key : 3
th
1
86. The friction of the air causes vertical retardation equal to of the acceleration due to gravity
20
(Take g =10 ms 2 ). The time of flight of projectile will be decreased by nearly
1) 0 % 2) 1 % 3) 17 % 4) 11 %
2u sin T1 g
Sol : T 2
g T2 g1
100 100 20 100 100 1000
T2
T2 100 120 12
83.33 16.66%
Key : 3
87. The average velocity of a freely falling body is numerically equal to 1/4 of the acceleration due to
gravity. The velocity of the body as it reaches the grounds is
g g
1) 2) 3) g 4) 2g
2 2
g u v' 0v' g
Sol : Vavg , v '
4 2 2 2
Key : 2
88. A train is moving at a constant speed 'V ' when its driver observes another train in front of him on
the same track and moving in same direction with constant speed u . If the distance between the
trains is x , then what should be the minimum retardation of the train so as to avoid accident ?
2 2
1.
v u 2.
v u
x x
2 2
3.
v u
4.
v u
2x 2x
Sol : The relative velocity of the train with respect to another train is
Vr v u ; V 2 Vr2 2ax
2
2 v u
0 v u 2 ax ; a
2x
Key : 2
89. A particle is moving with uniform acceleration along a straight line ABC. Its velocity at ‘A’ and ‘B’
are 6m/s and 9 m/s respectively. It AB : BC = 5 : 16 then its velocity at ‘C’ is
1) 9.6 m/s 2) 12 m/s
3) 15 m/s 4) 21.5 m/s
2 2
vc vb 2a (bc) eq 2
Sol : vb 2 va 2 2a ( ab) eq1 eq1 92 62 5
2 2
; vc 15m / s
eq 2 v c 9 16
Key : 3
90. A body is dropped from the top of a tower of height h metres. It takes T seconds to reach the ground.
After T/2 seconds it will be at a height:
1) h/2 metres from the ground
2) h/4 metres from the ground
3) 3h/4 metres from the ground
4) Cannot be answered from the data
1
Sol : h vt gt 2
2
Key : 3
91. A body is released from the top of a tower of height H metre. After 2 seconds it is stopped and then
instantaneously released. What will be its height after next 2 seconds :-
1) (H – 5) metre 2) (H – 10) metre
3) (H – 20) metre 4) (H – 40) metre
1
Sol : S vt gt 2
2
Key : 4
92. While sitting on a tree branch 20m above the ground, you drop a chestnut. When the chestnut has
fallen 5m, you throws a second chestnut straight down. What initial speed must you give the second
chestnut if they are both to reach the ground at the same time? (g=10ms–2)
1) 5 ms–1 2) 10 ms–1 3) 15 ms–1 4) None of these
2h
Sol : t
g
Key : 3
93. A ball is dropped from the roof of a tower of height h. The total distance covered by it in the last
second of its motion is equal to the distance covered by it in first three seconds. The value of h in
meter is :-
(g = 10m/s2)
1) 125 2) 200 3) 100 4) 80
2v 1
Sol : t1 t2 T ; h ut gt 2
g 2
Key : 1
94. A body dropped from the top of a tower clears7/16 of total height of tower in its last second off light.
The time taken by the body to reach the ground is :-
1) 2.5 s 2) 3 s 3) 1.5 s 4) 4 s
7 1 2 g
Sol : gn 2n 1
16 2 2
Key : 4
95. A parachutist drops freely from an aero plane for10s before the parachute opens out. Then he
descends with a net retardation of 2.5 m/s2. If he bails out of the plane at a height of 2495 m and g =
10 m/sec2, his velocity on reaching the ground will be :
1) 5 m/s 2) 10m/s 3) 15 m/s 4) 20m/s
2 2
Sol : V gt; v u 2as
Key : 1
96. From the top of a tower, a particle is thrown vertically downwards with a velocity of 10 m/s. The
ratio of the distances, covered by it in the 3rd and 2nd seconds of the motion is (Take g= 10 m/s2)
1) 5:7 2) 7 : 5 3) 3 :6 4) 6 :3
Sol :
Key : 2
97. If a particle takes ‘t’ second less and acquires a velocity of V m/s more in falling through the same
distance on two planets where the accelerations due to gravity are 2g and 8 g then
1) V = 4gt 2) V = 5 gt
3) V = 2gt 4) V = 16 gt
v v2 v1 2(8 g )h 2(2 g ) h
Sol :
t t1 t2 2h 2h
2g 8g
v 4 gt
Key :1
98. A stone is dropped from the 25thstorey of a multi-storied building and it reaches the ground in
5seconds. How many storey’s of the building it passes through in the first second?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
1 1
Sol : Suppose h be the height of each storey. Then 25h 0 10 t 2 10 5 2 or h=5m
2 2
1 2
In first second, let the stone passes through n storey. So n 5 10 1 or n=1
2
Key :1
99. A ball is released from the top of a tower of height ‘h’ meters. It takes T seconds to reach the ground.
T
What is the position of the ball at second?
3
h
1) m from the ground
9
7h
2) m from the ground
9
8h
3) m from the ground
9
17h
4) m from the ground
18
2
1 1 T h
Sol : h gT 2 and h1 g
2 2 3 9
from the ground, height = h h1
h 8h
h
9 9
Key : 3
100. A body falling freely passes two points 49m apart in 1 second, then from the height above the upper
point it begins to fall is
1) 65.332 m 2) 80.235 m
3) 99.225 m 4) 70.652 m
Sol : Velocity at P gt ; velocity at Q gt g
PQ average velocity time
A
1 g
gt g gt 1 gt 49
2 2
t 4.5sec
1 1 2
AP gt 2 9.8 4.5 99.225m
2 2
Key : 3
101. A parachute after bailing out falls for 10sec without friction when the parachute opens he descends
with an acceleration of 2 m 2 against his direction and reached the ground with 4 m . Find what
s s
height he has dropped himself ? g 10 m 2
s
1) 500m 2) 2496m 3) 2996m 4) 4296m
1 2 1
Sol : S1 gt 10 100 500 m
2 2
v gt 10 10 100 m
s
v12 v 2 2as2 ; 42 1002 2 2 s2
9984
s2 2496m ; s s1 s 2 500 2496
4
2996m
Key : 3
102. Two balls are dropped from the same height at two different places A and B where the accelerations
due to gravities are gA and gB respectively. The body at ‘B’ takes ‘t’ seconds less to reach the ground
and strikes the ground with a velocity greater than at ‘A’ by m / s . Then the value of ' / t ' is
1
1) 2) 2 g A g B
g AgB
1
3) 4) g AgB
g AgB
Sol : g A g B
Key : 4
103. One body is dropped while a second body is thrown downwards with an initial velocity of 2 m/s
simultaneously. The separation between them is 18 meters after a time:
1) 9 s 2) 4.5 s 3) 18 s 4) 9.8 s
1 2 1 2
Sol : S1 gt ; S2 ut gt
2 2
S 2 S1 ut 2 X t ; 18 2 t t 9 sec
Key : 1
104. A body is dropped from the roof of a multi storied building. It passes the ceiling of the 15th storey at a
speed of 20ms 1 . If the height of each storey is 4m, the number of storeys in the building is ( take g=
10ms 2 and neglect air resistance)
1) 20 2) 25 3) 30 4) 35
Sol : Height of each storey is x above 15 stores n are there
V 2 U 2 2as; 400 0 2 10nx
20 20
nx 20; n 5
x 4
Total storeys 15 5 20
Key : 1
105. A freely failing body travels – of total distance in 5th second
1) 8 % 2) 12% 3) 25% 4) 36 %
Sn g 1
Sol : ? ; Sn 2n 1 ; S gn2
S 2 2
S 2n 1 9
% n 2 100 =36%
S n 25
Key :4
106. A body falls freely from a height of 125m (g = 10 m/s2). After 2 second gravity ceases to act. The
total time taken by it to reach the ground
1) 5.25 s 2) 7.25 s
3) 3.25 s 4) 10.5 s
Sol : The distance travelled in 2s
1 1
S gt 2 10 22 20m
2 2
Velocity (v) at the end of 2S is
V = gt = 10 2 =20 m/s
Remaining height = h1 = 125 – 20 = 105 m
A body moves with constant velocity
h1 105
t 5.25 s
V 20
total time taken = 2 + 5.25 = 7.25S
Key :2
107. If a freely falling body covers half of its total distance in the last second of its journey. Its time of fall
is
1) 2+ 3 s 2) 2 s
3) 1 s
4) 2+ 2 s
Sol : Sn = S in ( n – 1);
g 1 2
2n 1 g n 1
2 2
2 n 1 n 2 1 2n
n 2 4n 2 0
4 16 8 4 2 2
n
2
2
2 2 S
Key : 4
108. A particle is released from rest from a tower of height 3 h,. The ratio of times to fall equal heights h,
i.e. t1 : t2 : t3
1) 3 : 2 :1 2) 3 : 2: 1
3) 9 : 4 : 1 4) 1: 2 1 : 3 2
1 1 2
Sol : h gt12 ; 2h g t1 t2
2 2
1 2
and 3h g t1 t2 t3
2
t1 : t2 : t3 1:
2 1 : 3 2
Key : 4
109. A body is dropped from a height h with initial velocity zero, strikes the ground with a velocity of
3 m/s. Another body of same mass is dropped from the same height h with an initial velocity of 4
m/s. Find the final velocity of second mass with which it strikes the ground:
1) 3m/s 2) 4 m/s 3) 5 m/s 4) 12 m/s
2 2
Sol : 3 2gh ; v 4 2gh
Key :3
110. A ball is thrown vertically upward. It has a speed of 10m/sec when it has reached one half of its
maximum height. How high does the ball rise?(Take g = 10 m/s2).
1) 5m 2) 15m 3) 10 m 4) 20 m
2
v
Sol : v 2 u 2 2as; s
4g
Key :3
111. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the distance covered during the last ‘t’ seconds of
its ascent is :–
1 1
1) ut 2) gt 2 3) ut gt 2 4) (u + gt)t
2 2
Sol :
Key : 2
112. A graph between the square of the velocity of `a particle and the distance (s) moved is shown in
figure. The acceleration of the particle in kilometers per hour square is
1) 2250 2) 3084 3) – 2250 4) – 3084
Sol : v2 u 2 2a s
Key : 4
113. A body is thrown vertically upward at t 0 . It is at a height 80m at instants t1 and t2 . Also it, is at a
height 60m at instants t11 and t12 . Then
1) t1 t2 t11 t 21 2) t1 t 2 t11 t21
1 1 t11 t12
3) t1 t2 t t
1 2 4) t1 t2
2
Sol : t1 t2 t11 t12 timeof flight
Key : 1
114. A juggler keeps on moving four balls in air throwing the balls after regular intervals. When 4th ball
leaves his hand at a speed of 20ms1 , the height of other balls from point of release in meters will be
(take g 10ms2 )
1) 10,20, 10 2) 15,20,15
3) 5,15,20 4) 5,10,20
2u 2 20
Sol : Time taken by the same ball to return to the hands of the juggler is 4 s . So he is
g 10
throwing the balls after 1s each. Let at some instant he throws ball number 4. Before 1s of throwing
it, he throws ball 3. So the height of ball 3 is
1 2
h3 20 1 10 1 15m
2
1 2
Before 2s, he throws ball 2. So the height of ball 2 is h2 20 2 10 2 20m
2
1 2
Before 3s, he throws ball 1. So the height of ball 1 is h1 20 3 10 3 15m
2
Key : 2
115. A ball is thrown vertically upward from the ground and a student gazing out of the window sees it
moving upward past him at 10 m/s. The window is at 15m above the ground level. The velocity of
2
ball three sec after it left the ground is - Take g 10m / s
1) 10 m/s, up 2) 30 m/s, up
3) 20 m/s, down 4) 10 m/s, down
Sol : V 2 u 2 2 gs ; u 20 ms 1
V 20 10 3 10ms 1
Key : 1
116. A ball of mass m is thrown upward with a velocity v. If air exerts an average resisting force F, the
velocity with which the ball returns back to the thrower is
mg F
1) V 2) V
mg F mg F
mg F
3) V 4) V
mg F
Sol : For upward Journey
V12
a) S1
F
2 g
m
b) For downward Journey
V22
S2
F
2 g
m
c)But S1 S 2
V12 m V22 m mg F
= ;V V2
2 mg F 2 mg F mg F
Key : 3
117. A boy throws n balls per second at regular time intervals. When the first ball reaches the maximum
height he throws the second one vertically up. The maximum height reached by each ball is
g g
1) 2)
2 n 1
2
2n2
g g
3) 2
4)
n n
Sol : Time interval below two ball = time of absent
1 u g
; u
n g n
u2 g
max. height h ; h 2
2g 2n
Key : 2
118. A rocket is fired upward from the earth's surface such that it creates an acceleration of 20m/s2. If after
5 s its engine is switched off, the maximum height of the rocket from the earth's surface would be
1) 250 m 2) 500 m
3) 750 m 4) 1000 m
1 u2
Sol : H S1 S2 at 2
2 2g
1 1002
20 5 250 500 750
2 20
Key : 3
't ' 't '
119. A ball thrown vertically up with a velocity ‘u’ reaches a point ‘p’ after 1 and 2 seconds from the
time of projection. Then
2u 2u
1) t1 t 2 2) t1 t 2
g g
u u
3) t1 t2 g 4) t1 t2 g
2u
Sol : T t1 t2 ; T
g
Key : 1
120. A stone is dropped from the top of 400m high tower. At the same time another stone is projected
vertically upwards from ground with speed 50ms 1 . The height at which two stones will meet each
other from the ground is (g=10m/s2)
1) 20m 2) 40m 3) 60m 4) 80m
h 400
Sol : The time after which they meet is t 8sec
u 50
1
The height at which they meet is h ut gt 2
2
2
h 50 8 5 8 =400-320= 80m
From the ground
Key : 4
121. The distance travelled by a body during last second of its total flight is d when the body is projected
vertically up with certain velocity. If the velocity of projection is doubled, the distance travelled by
the body during last second of its total flight is
1) 2 d 2) d
g g
3) 2d 4) 2d
2 2
g g
Sol : d u u d
2 2
g g
d | 2u g / 2 ; d | 2 d
2 2
|
d 2d g / 2
Key : 3
122. A stone is dropped from a height h. Simultaneously, another stone is thrown up from the ground
which reaches a height 4h. The two stones cross each other after time
h
1) 2) 8gh
8g
h
3) 2gh 4)
2g
h u2 h h
Sol : t and 4h ;t
u 2g 8hg 8g
Key : 1
123. A ball is thrown straight upward with a speed V from a point h meter above the ground. The time
taken for the ball to strike the ground is
V 2 gh V 2 gh
1) 1 1 2 2) 1 1 2
g V g V
V 2 gh V 2 gh
3) 1 1 2 4) 2 2
g V g V
1 1 2
Sol : h Vt gt 2 ; gt vt h 0
2 2
V V 2 2 gh V 2 gh
t 1 1 2
g g V
Key : 1
124. A stone thrown upwards with a speed ‘u’ from the top of a tower reaches the ground with a velocity
“4u”. The height of the tower is
3u 2 15u 2 4u 2 15u 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
g 2g g g
2
Sol : V u 2 2 gh ; 4u u 2 2 gh
15u 2
15u 2 2 gh ; h
2g
Key : 2
125. A food packet is dropped from a helicopter rising up with a velocity of 4 m/s
The velocity of the packet after three seconds will be:
1 1
1) 20.4 ms 2) 25.4 ms
1 1
3) 28.4 ms 4) 30.4 ms
Sol : The food packet is initially moving upwards with the velocity of helicopter
v u gt 4 9.8 3 25.4 m / s
Key : 2
126. Two boys are standing at the ends A and B of a ground where AB = a. The boy at B starts running in a
direction perpendicular to AB with velocity v1. The boy at A starts running simultaneously with
velocity v and catches the other boy in a time t, where t is
1) a / v 2 v12 2) a 2 / v 2 v12
3) a / v v1 4) a / v v1
Sol : Let two boys meet at point C after time‘t’ from the
Key : 2
127. A man walks up a stationary escalator in 90sec. When this man stands on a moving escalator he goes
up in 60sec. The time taken by the man to walk up the moving escalator is
1) 30 s 2) 45 s 3) 36 s 4) 48 s
d d
Sol : t1 t2
vm ve
d tt 90 60
t3 12 =36s
vm ve t1 t2 150
Key : 3
128. A coin is dropped in a lift. It takes time t1 to reach the floor when lift is stationary. It takes time t2
when lift is moving up with constant acceleration, then:
1) t1= t2 2) t1> t2
3) t2> t1 4) None of these
Sol : Relative acceleration =(a+g), t2 t1
Key : 2
129. What are the speeds of two objects if, when they move uniformly towards each other, they get 4m
closer in each second and when they movie uniformly in the same direction with the original speeds,
they get 4.0m closer each 10s’?
1)2.8m/s and 1.2 m/s
2)2.6m/s and 1.4 m/s
3)2.4m/s and 1.6 m/s
4)2.2m/s and 1.8 m/s
4.0
Sol : VA VB 4m / s and VA VB 0.4m / s
10
2VA 4.4 VA 2.2m / s
VB 1.8m / s
Key : 4
130. Two trains take 3 seconds to pass one another when going in opposite direction but only 2.5 seconds
if the speed of one is increased by 50%. The time one would take to pass the other when they are
going in same direction at original speeds is
1) 12sec 2) 10sec 3) 18sec 4) 15sec
Sol : Lengths of two trains are l1 and l2 and their speeds are v1 and v2 respectively.
l1 l2 l1 l2 1 v1 1.5v2 3 6 5v 7.5v 6v 6v v 1.5v
3 (1) 2.5 ( 2) 1 2 1 2 1 2
v1 v2 v1 1.5v2 2 v1 v2 2.5 5
l l
1 2 3 l1 l2 7.5v2
2.5v2
l l 7.5v2
t 1 2 15sec
v1 v2 1.5v2 v2
Key : 4
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT-2
DAY – 20 (DT 01-05-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
CHAPTER: MOTION IN A PLANE
==========================================================================
1. A boat is moving in direction of vector 4iˆ 3 ˆj with a speed of 10 m/sec. Velocity vector of boat can be
expressed as :-
V 10
4iˆ 3iˆ
Sol : 5
Key : 2
2.
A particle has initial velocity 2iˆ 3 ˆj and acceleration 0.3iˆ 0.2 ˆj .The magnitude of velocity after 10
seconds will be
1) 9 units 2) 9 2 units
3) 5 2 4) 5 units
Sol : V U a t
Key : 3
x2 t2
3. A particle moves along positive branch of curve y , where x x and y are measured in meters
2 2
and t in seconds. Velocity of the particle at t = 2s is :-
dx dy
Vx ;V y
Sol : V Vxiˆ Vy ˆj ; dt dt
Key :2
4. The position vector of a particle is given as The time after which the velocity vector
and acceleration vector becomes perpendicular to each other is equal to :
(1) 1 sec (2) 2 sec
(3) 1.5 sec (4) Not possible
Sol : V .a 0
Key : 1
5. If the position vector of a particle is r cos tiˆ sin tjˆ 18tkˆ then what is the magnitude of its acceleration
?
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) sin2t (4) cos t
d 2r
a 2
Sol : dt
Key : 2
6. Let r1 t 3tiˆ 4t 2 ˆj and r2 t 4t 2iˆ 3tjˆ represent the positions of particles 1 and 2,respectively as
functions of time t; r1 t and r2 t are in metres and t is in seconds. The relative speed of the two particles
at the instant t =1 s, will be
(1) 1 m/s (2) 3 2 m/s (3) 5 2 m/s (4) 7 2 s m/s
Sol : Vrel V1 V2
Key : 3
7. A particle moves along the parabola y = x2suchthat the x-component of velocity is always2m/s. The
acceleration of the particle is
(1) 4 ˆj m / s 2
(2) 2 ˆj m / s 2
(3) 8 ˆj m / s 2
(4) 8 ˆj m / s 2
g
a
Sol : y ax ;
2 2u 2
Key : 4
8. Two particles having position vectors r1 3iˆ 5 ˆj meters and r2 5iˆ 3 ˆj meters are moving with velocities
v1 4iˆ 3 ˆj m/ sand v2 iˆ 7 ˆj m / s . If they collide after 2s, the value of is :-
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 8
Sol : v1t r1 v2 t r2 is condition for collision
Key : 4
9. A particle is moving such that its position coordinates (x, y) are (2 m, 3 m) at time t = 0,
(6 m. 7 m) at time t = 2 s and (13m, 14 m) at time t = 5 s Average velocity vector Vau t = 5 s is
1 7 ˆ ˆ 11 ˆ ˆ
1)
5
13iˆ 14 ˆj
2)
3
ij
3) 2 iˆ ˆj 4)
5
ij
S
Sol : S r 2 r1 ;13iˆ 14 ˆj 2iˆ 3 ˆj 11iˆ 11 ˆj ;Vav
t
Key : 4
10. The position vector of a particle R as a function of time is given by:
R 4sin 2 t iˆ 4cos 2 t ˆj
Where R is in meters, t is in seconds and iˆ and ĵ denote unit vectors along x-and y- directions,
respectively. Which one of the following statements is wrong for the motion of particle?
(1) Path of the particle is a circle of radius 4 meter
(2) Acceleration vectors is along R
v2
(3) Magnitude of acceleration vector is where v is the velocity of particle.
R
(4) Magnitude of the velocity of particle is 8 meter/second
Sol :
Key : 4
11. A Particle A is moving towards North with an acceleration of 5 ms2 and particle B is moving North –
East direction with an acceleration of 5 2 ms2 . Find relative acceleration of particle A with respect to
particle B.
2
1) 5 ms towards East
2
2) 5 ms towards West
3) 5 ms2 towards South
4) 5 2 ms2 towards West
Sol : VA 5J ;VB 5i 5 j VAB VA VB 5i
Key :3
12. Wind is blowing at 10 3 ms1 in North direction. A car is moving to East at 10 ms1 . A flag is waving on
the car. The flag is directed.
1) 600 North of West 2) 600 North of East
3) 300 South of East 4) in North – West direction
Sol : Vw 10 3 j Vc 10i
Vwc Vw Vc 10 3 j 10i
Key :1
13. In a village game three boys A, B and C are in motion. The velocity of boy A seen by boy B is 1 ms 1
towards the North-East direction. The velocity of the boy B seen by boy C is 1 ms1 towards the North-
West direction. The direction of velocity of boy C seen by boy A is
1) 1 ms 1 towards South
2) 1 ms1 towards East
3) 2 ms1 towards South
4) 2 ms1 towards North
1 1
Sol : VAB VA VB i j
2 2
1 1
VBC VB VC i j
2 2
VCA VC VA ? VA VC 2 J
VC VA 2( J )
Key :3
14. A person crossing a road with a certain velocity due north, sees a car moving towards east. The relative
velocity of the car w.r.t the person is 2 times that of the velocity of the person. The angel made by the
relative velocity with the east is
1) 300 2) 450 3) 600 4) 900
Sol : Vc Vp 2Vp
Key :3
1
15. A ship A is moving westwards with a speed of 10kmh and a ship B, 100 km south of A is moving
northwards with a speed of 10kmh1 . The time after which the distance between them becomes shortest, is
1) 5hr 2) 5 2hr 3) 10 2hr 4) 0hr
Sol :
V A 10 i km / h and V B 10 j km / h
V AB (10 j 10i) km / h
Time for shortest distance
100 / 2 km
5hr.
10 2km / hr.
Key : 1
16. Two boys are standing at two points A and B on ground where AB=a. The boy at B starts running in a
direction perpendicular to AB with velocity v1 . The boy at A starts running simultaneously with velocity
v and catches the other boy in a time t. Then t is
1) a / v 2 v12 2) a / v v1 3) a / v v1 4) a 2 / v 2 v12
Sol :
vt
2 2
2
a 2 v1t ; v 2 v1 t 2 a 2
a2 a2
t2 2
; t 2
v 2 v1 v 2 v1
Key : 4
17. The wind is blowing from south at 10 ms 1 but to a cyclist it appears blowing from the east at 10 ms 1 , the
velocity of cyclist is
1) 10 2 ms 1 towards S W
2) 10 2 ms 1 towards N W
3) 10 2 ms 1 towards S E
4) 10 2 ms 1 towards N E
Sol : V w 10 ˆj;V wM 10 ˆj
Key : 4
18. Rain, pouring down at an angle with the vertical has a speed of 10ms 1 . A girl runs against the rain
with a speed of 8ms 1 and sees that the rain makes an angle with the vertical, then relation between
and is
8 10sin 8 10 sin
1) tan 2) tan
10cos 10 cos
3) tan tan 4) tan cot
x
Sol : sin x vr sin
vr
y
cos y vr cos
vr
x vg 8 10sin
tan
y 10cos
Key : 2
19. When it is raining vertically down, to a man walking on road the velocity of rain appears to be 1.25 times
his velocity. To protect himself from rain he hold the umbrella at an angle to vertical. Then tan =
4 5 4 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 4 3 4
25 2
Sol : Vrm2 Vm2 Vr2 ; Vm Vm2 Vr2
16
9 3 V 4
Vr Vm Vm ; tan m
16 4 Vr 3
Key : 3
20. A man starts from rest with an acceleration 1 ms2 at t = O. At t = 3 3 s, it appears to him that rain falls
with the velocity 3 ms1 vertically downwards. The velocity of actual rain fall is
1) 3 3 ms 1 2) 3 ms1 3) 6 ms1 4) 6 3 ms1
Sol : Vm u at 0 3 3
Vrm Vr Vm Vr 36 6
Key : 3
21. When a man is standing, rain drop appear to him falling at 600 from the horizontal from his front side.
When he is travelling at 5km per hour on a horizontal road they appear to him falling at 300 from the
horizontal from his front side. The actual speed of the rain is ( in km per hour)
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
Vm VR sin
Sol : Tan
VR cos
Key : 3
22. A man can swim in still water at a speed of 4 kmph. He desires to cross a river flowing at a speed of
3 kmph in the shortest time interval. If the width of the river is 3 km time taken to cross the river (in
hours) and the horizontal distance travelled (in km) are respectively.
3 9 3 1 15 3
1. , 2. , 3 3. , 4. ,7
4 4 5 4 4 7
d 3 3 9
Sol : t ; x Vwt 3
Vp 4 4 4
Key : 1
23. A person swims at 1350 to current of river, to meet target on reaching opposite point. The ratio of person’s
velocity to river water velocity is
1) 3 :1 2) 2 :1 3) 1: 2 4) 1: 3
V
Sol : sin w
Vb
Key : 2
24. A man can swim at a speed of 3km/hr in still water. He wants to cross a 500m wide river flowing at
2km/hr. He keeps himself always at an angle of 1200 with the river flow while swimming. At what point
on the opposite bank will he arrive?
1 1 1 1
1) km 2) km 3) km 4) km
3 6 3 2 3 4 3
d
Sol : X VR VB sin q ?
VB cos q
Key : 2
25. When a projectile is fired at an angle w.r.t horizontal with velocity u, then its vertical component:
1) remains same
2) goes on increasing with height
3) goes on decreasing with height
4) first increases then decreases with height
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
26. A cricket ball is hit for a six leaving the bat at an angle of 600 to the horizontal with kinetic energy ‘k’. At
the top, K.E. of the ball is
k k
1) Zero 2) k 3) 4)
4 2
1
K ' mu 2 cos 2
Sol : 2
Key : 3
27. A person can throw a stone to a maximum distance of h metre. The greatest height to which he can throw
the stone is :
1) h 2) h/2 3) 2h 4) 3h
Sol : H=R/2
Key : 2
28. If R is the maximum horizontal range of a particle, then the greatest height attained by it is:
R R
1) R 2) 2R 3) 4 )
2 4
H Tan
Sol : R 4
Key : 4
29. A body is projected with a velocity u such that its horizontal range and maximum vertical heights are
same. The maximum height is
u2 3u 2 16u 2 8u 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2g 4g 17 g 17 g
4H u sin 2
2
Sol : tan ; tan 4 ; H
R 2g
2 2
u x16 8u
H
2 g17 17 g
Key : 4
30. A stone is just released from the window of a train moving along a horizontal straight track. The stone will
hit the ground following (with respect to observer on the ground)
1) Straight path 2) Circular path
3) Parabolic path 4) Hyperbolic path
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
31. A body of mass m is projected at an angle of 45 o with the horizontal. If air resistance is negligible, then
total change in momentum when it strikes the ground is
1) 2mv 2) 2 mv 3) mv 4) mv / 2
Sol : p 2mu sin
Key : 2
32. A stone is projected from the ground with velocity 50 m/s at an angle of 30 o . It crosses a wall after 3 sec.
How far beyond the wall the stone will strike the ground (g 10 m / sec 2 )
1) 90.2 m 2) 89.6 m 3) 86.6 m 4) 70.2 m
2
u sin 2
Sol : X u cos .t ; R
g
Key : 3
33. The horizontal and vertical displacements of a projectile are given as x = at & y bt ct 2 . Then velocity
of projection is
1) a 2 b2 2) b2 c2 3) a2 c2 4) a2 c 2
Sol : a u cos ; b u sin ; u a 2 b 2
Key : 1
34. For a given velocity, a projectile has the same range R for two angles of projection if t1 and t2 are the
times of flight in the two cases then
1 1
1) t1t2 R 2 2) t1t2 R 3) t1t 2 4) t1t2 2
R R
Sol : For same range angle of projection should be 90
2u sin 90 2u cos
So t 1 2u sin t2
g g g
2
4u sin cos 2 R 1
t1t2 ; t t2 R
g2 g
Key : 2
35. For a projectile, the ratio of maximum height reached to the square of flight time is g 10ms 2
1) 5 : 4 2) 5: 2 3) 5 : 1 4) 10 : 1
2 2
u sin 2u sin
Sol : H T
2g g
H g 5
So T2 8 4
Key :1
36. At the top of the trajectory of a projectile, the acceleration is
1) Maximum 2) Minimum
3) Zero 4) g
Sol : Conceptual
Key :4
37. A gun is aimed at a target in a line of its barrel. The target is released and allowed to fall under gravity at
the same instant the gun is fired. The bullet will
1) Pass above the target
2) Pass below the target
3) Hit the target
4) Certainly miss the target
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 1
38. A ball thrown by a boy is caught by another after 2 sec. some distance away in the same level. If the angle
of projection is 30o, the velocity of projection is
1) 19.6 m/s 2) 9.8 m/s
3) 14.7 m/s 4) 4.9 m/s
2u sin
Sol : T
g
Key : 1
39. A stone projected with a velocity u at an angle with the horizontal reaches maximum height H1. When it
is projected with velocity u at an angle with the horizontal, it reaches maximum height H2. The
2
relation between the horizontal range R of the projectile, H1 and H2 is
1) R 4 H 1 H 2 2) R 4 (H 1 H 2 )
2
H1
3) R 4 (H 1 H 2 ) 4) R
H22
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 1
40. At what point of a projectile motion acceleration and velocity are perpendicular to each other
1) At the point of projection
2) At the point of drop
3) At the topmost point
4) Any where in between the point of projection and topmost point
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
41. Figure shows four paths for a kicked football. Ignoring the effects of air on the flight, rank the paths
according to initial horizontal velocity component, highest first
y
1 2 3 4
x
0
1) 1, 2, 3, 4 2) 2, 3, 4, 1
3) 3, 4, 1, 2 4) 4, 3, 2, 1
Sol : R (u cos )T
Key : 4
42. The path of a projectile in the absence of air drag is shown in the figure by dotted line. If the air resistance
is not ignored then which one of the path shown in the figure is appropriate for the projectile
y
x
A B C D
1) B 2) A 3) D 4) C
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 1
43. A ball is thrown with a velocity of u making an angle with the horizontal. Its velocity vector normal to
initial vector (u) after a time interval of
u sin u u u cos
1) 2) 3) 4)
g g cos g sin g
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
44. A particle is fired with velocity u making angle with the horizontal. What is the change in velocity
when it is at the highest point?
1) u cos 2) u
3) u sin 4) u cos u
Sol : u u cos i u sin j ( at point of projection)
V u cos i at max height
Charge in velocity ; V u v ; v u sin
Key : 3
45. The maximum height attained by a projectile is increased by 5%. Keeping the angle of projection
constant. The percentage increase in horizontal range is
1) 5% 2) 10 % 3) 15 % 4) 20 %
4H
tan cons tan t
Sol : R
R H
100 100
RH R H = 5%
Key : 1
46. A body is projected with a velocity of (3i+4j+5k) m/s from the ground. Taking XY-plane as ground and
Z-axis as vertical, its range is (g=10 m/s2)
1) 5 m 2) 1.25 m 3) 1 m 4) 20 m
2U xy .U z
Sol : U xy 32 42 5 R
g
Key : 1
2
47. The velocity of a projectile when it is at greatest height is of it’s velocity when at half of its greatest
5
height, then the angle of projection is …
1. 45o 2. 30o 3. 60o 4. 75o
2 1 Cos 2
Sol : U Cos U
5 2
Key : 3
48. A particle is projected at angle of 600 with horizontal. After 3 seconds, the angle made by the velocity
vector is 300 with the horizontal. If g= 10m/s2 , the velocity of projection is
1) 10 m/s 2) 20 m/s
3) 30 m/s 4) 40 m/s
U sin 60 gt
Sol : Tan30
U Cos 60
Key : 3
49. A projectile has initially the same horizontal velocity as it would acquire if it has moved from rest with
uniform acceleration of 3m/s2 for 0.5 minutes. If the maximum height reached by it is 80m then the angle
of projection is (g = 10 m/s2)
1) tan-1 (3) 2) tan-1 (3/2)
3) tan-1 (4/9) 4) sin-1 (4/9)
u 2 sin 2
Sol : U = O+at = 0 + 3 (0.5 X 60) = 90 m/s H
2g
Key : 4
50. There are two values of time for which a projectile is to the same height. If time of flight is T. Then the
sum of these two times is equal to :
3T 4T 3T
1) 2) 3) 4) T
2 3 4
Sol : tOA tBC ; tOA tOB tBC tBO T
Key : 4
51. The P.E of the projectile at its maximum height is equal to K.E there. If the velocity of projectile is
1
20ms 1 . Its time of flight is [ g 10 ms ]
1
1) 2 S 2) 2 2S 3) 0.5 S 4) S
2
1 2u sin
Sol : mgh m(u cos ) 2 ; T
2 2
Key : 2
52. A projectile is projected at an angle of 450 to the horizontal. The slope of trajectory of the body varies
with time t as
1) 2) 3) 4)
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
53. A projectile of mass m projected with initial speed u and at angle of projection . Then the average torque
on a projectile about the point of projection between initial and final positions is
mu 2 sin 2
1) 2) mu 2 cos
2
mu 2 cos
3) mu 2 sin 4)
2
Sol : r f
Key : 1
54. At a height 0.4 m from the ground, the velocity of a projectile in vector form is: v (6i 2 j )m / s . The
angle of projection is : ( g 10 m / s2 )
1) 450 2) 600 3) 300 4) tan 1 (3 / 4)
Sol : V u 2 cos 2 (u 2 sin 2 2 gh)
Key : 3
55. Four particles are fired with same velocities at angles 200 , 400 , 550 and 70 0 with the horizontal. The
range of the projectile will be largest for the one projected at angle
1) 20 0 2) 400 3) 50 0 4) 70 0
Sol : R sin 2
Key : 2
56. A boy is standing on a truck moving with a constant velocity of 15 m/s on the horizontal road. The boy
throws a ball in such a way that it returns to the truck after the truck has moved 60 m. Find the speed and
the angle of projection as seen by a person on the truck
1) 20 m/sec, 90o 2) 15 m/sec, 90o 3) 25 m/sec, 53o 4) 20 m/sec, 53o
Sol :
If the ball returns of the truck, i.e the ball should be thrown vertically upward
For the observer on the road, path of the ball will be parabola.
For the ball, u cos 15 m / s (velocity of truck)
x 60 u cos t 15t t 4 s
1 2
y u sin t gt
2
1 2
0 u sin 4 10 4
2 u sin 20 m / s
Path of the ball will be vertical straight line. Speed of projection = u sin = 20 m/s,
Angle of projection = 90o
Key : 1
57. A body is projected with velocity v1 from the point A as shown in the fig. At the same time another body
is projected vertically upwards from B with velocity v2 . The point B lies vertically below the highest
point. For both the bodies to collide, v2 / v1 should be
3 7
1) 2 2) 3) 0.5 4)
2 10
v 1 0.707 v 7
Sol : sin 45o 2 ; 2
v1 2 1 v1 10
Key : 4
58. A particle is projected with an initial velocity of 200m/s in a direction making an angle of 30 0 with the
vertical. The horizontal distance covered by the particle in 3s is
1) 300 m 2) 150 m 3) 175 m 4) 125m
1
x u cos t 200 cos600 3 600 300m
Sol : 2
Key :1
59. A projectile is thrown with a velocity of 10 2ms1 at an angle of 45 0 with horizontal. The time interval
between the two moments when its speed is 125ms 1 is g 10ms 2
1) 1.0s 2) 0.6s 3) 1.2s 4) 0.8s
Sol : Let is the angle which the projectiles velocity is making with the horizontal at the moment when its
speed is 125ms 1
U cos v cos
1
10 2 125 cos
2
1
10 2 125 cos
2
2
cos
5
1
2v sin
2 5 5
5 1S
T
g 10
Key : 1
60. Two tall buildings are 30 m apart. The speed with which a ball must be thrown horizontally from a
window 150 m above the ground in one building so that it enters a window 27.5 m from the ground in the
other building is:
1) 2 ms 1 2) 6 ms 1 3) 4 ms 1 4) 8 ms 1
2 h2 h1
Sol : R U
g
2 150 27.5
30 U U=6m/s
9.8
Key : 2
61. From the top of a tower 39.2 m high, a ball is thrown horizontally. If line joining the point of projection to
the point where it hits the ground makes an angle of 45 0 with the horizontal, then the initial velocity of
the ball is:
1) 9.8 ms 1 2) 4.9 ms 1 3) 9.8 2 ms 1 4) 19.6 ms 1
H
Tan 45o 2H
Sol : R ; H V
g
gH g 4g
V g 2
2 2
Key : 3
62. An aeroplane is flying horizontally at a height of 490 m with a velocity of 50 ms 1 . A bag containing food
is to be dropped to the jawans on the ground. How far from them should the bag be dropped so that it
directly reaches them?
1) 1000 m 2) 500 m 3) 750 m 4) 2000 m
2H 490
Sol : R V 50 500m
g 9.8
Key : 2
63. An aeroplane is flying horizontally with a velocity of 600 km/h at a height of 1960 m. When it is vertically
at a point A on the ground, a bomb is released from it. The bomb strikes the ground at point B. The
distance AB is
1) 1200m 2) 0.33 km 3) 3.33 km 4) 33 km
2h 5 2 1960
Sol : AB u 600 3.33km
g 18 9.8
Key : 3
64. From the top of a tower of height `h ` a body is projected horizontally with velocity `u `. On reaching the
ground, magnitude of change in its velocity is
1) u2 2gh 2) 2gh 3) u 2 gh 4) u 2 gh
Sol : U y V f Vi 2 gh 0 2 gh
Key : 2
65. From the top of a tower a ball is projected horizontally with a velocity u. If the magnitudes of the
horizontal and vertical displacements of the ball are to be equal during the motion of the ball, what should
be the minimum height of the tower (g is acceleration due to gravity)
u2 u2 2u 2 u2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2g g g 4g
g
y 2
.x 2
Sol : 2U put y = x & find y
Key : 2
66. The trajectory of a particle is given by Y= 9X2 and the X- component of its velocity is( 1/3) m/s always.
Then the acceleration,
1) 1 2) 2 3) 1/2 4) 1/3
g
2
.x 2
Sol : Y = 2U
Key : 2
1
67. A particle is projected horizontally with speed 20ms from the top of a tower. After what time velocity
of particle will be at 450 angle from initial direction of projection.
1) 1 s 2) 2 s 3) 3 s 4) 4 s
Sol :
Let horizontal is x downwards is y- After time t , vx ux 20 ms 1
direction. Velocity in y –direction
vx vy u y a y t 0 gt gt
vy gt
tan if 450
vx 20
v vy 10 t
1 t 2
Then, 20 s
Key : 2
68. A stone is projected horizontally with a velocity 9.8 ms–1 from the tower of height 100m.Its velocity
one second after projection is
1) 9.8 ms–1 2) 9.8 2ms 1 3) 4.9 ms–1 4) 4.9 2ms 1
2
2
Sol : V Vx Vy u 2 ( gt ) 2
Key : 2
69. Two particles p1 and p2 are separated by a horizontal distance d. They are projected at the same instant
towards each other with speeds u 3 and u at angles of projections 300 and 600 respectively as shown in
the figure. The time after which the horizontal distance between them becomes zero is
d 2d d 4d
1) 2) 3) 4)
u u 2u u
d d
Sol : t ; t
Vrel u 3 cos300 u cos 600
d
3 1
u 3 u
2 2
Key : 3
70. A particle is projected from a tower as shown in fig, then the distance from the foot of the tower where it
strike the ground is ……...
3
( g 10 m / sec 2 , tan 37 )
4
400 2000 4000 4000
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 3 3
1
1500 u sin 37t 10t 2 t 10sec
Sol : 2
500 4 4000
4 cos T 10 m
Horizontal distance = 3 5 3
Key : 3
71. Time taken by the projectile to reach from A to B is t , then the distance AB is equal to :
ut 3ut
1. 2.
3 2
3. 3ut 4. 2ut
ut
AC u cos 60t
Sol : From the diagram 2
AC ut ut
AB
cos 30
2 3 3
2
Key : 1
72. A wheel is rotating at 900 rpm about its axis. When the power is cut off it comes to rest in 1min. The
angular retardation in rad / s 2 is
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4 6 8
900 2
w1 30 rod / sec
Sol : 60
t = 60 sec
W 30
1 rad / s 2
2 60 2
( - means retardation)
Key : 1
73. A particle moves on a circle of radius r with centripetal acceleration as function of time as ac k 2 rt 2
where k is a positive constant. Find the resultant acceleration.
1) kt 2 2) kr 3) kr k 2t 4 1 4) kr k 2 t 2 1
Sol : ac k 2t 2r w2r w kt
dw
k 2
dt at r ; at kr ; a at ac2
k 4t 4 r 2 k 2 r 2 kr k 2t 4 1
Key : 3
74. A particle ‘P’ is moving in a circle of radius ‘r’ with uniform speed v. AB is the diameter of circle and ‘C’
is the centre. The angular velocity of P about A and C are in the ratio
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 2 : 1 4) 4 : 1
Sol :
2
Wc
t ; W A / t ; Wc 2 w A ; W A 1
WC 2
Key : 2
75. Starting from rest a wheel rotates with uniform angular acceleration 2 rad / s2 . After 4 seconds if the
angular acceleration ceases to act its angular displacement in the next 4s is
1) 8 rad 2) 16 rad 3) 24 rad 4) 32 rad
Sol : WF Wi t ; WF t 2 4 8 rad / sec
After 4 sec; 0 ; WF t 8 4 32 rad
Key : 4
76. The angular acceleration of a particle moving along a circular path with uniform speed is
1) Uniform but no zero 2) zero 3) variable
4) such as cannot be predicted from the given information
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 2
77. In the given figure, a 15 m / s 2 represents the total acceleration of a particle moving in the clockwise
direction in a circle of radius R=2.5m at a given instant of time. The speed of the particle is:
1) 6.2m/s 2) 4.5m/s 3) 5.0m/s 4) 5.7 m/s
Sol : Given that total acceleration at any moment, a 15m / s 2 .
We know that centripetal acceleration at any moment,
2
ac v
R
According to figure, ac a cos 30 0 15 cos 30 0
2
15cos30 0
v
2.5
R 2.5m
2
v 32.475 or v 5.7 m / s
Key : 4
78. When ceiling fan is switched off its angular velocity reduces to 50% while it makes 36 rotations. How
many more rotations will it make before coming to rest (assume uniform angular retardation)
1) 18 2) 12 3) 36 4) 48
Sol : 22 12 2
2
2
2 36 2 1
2
2
2
2 0 2 n 2 2
Solve (1) & (2) find ‘n’
Key : 2
79. An object moves at a constant speed along a circular path in a horizontal x-y plane, with the centre at the
origin when the object is at x= –2m, its velocity is 4 ˆjms 1 . The acceleration of object in ms2 when it is
at y=2m is
ˆ ˆ
1) 8 j 2) 8iˆ 3) 4 j 4) 4iˆ
Sol :
Y
2
-2 a
X
v
V 2 16
a 8ms 2 ; a 8 ˆj ms 2
r 2
Key : 1
80. Rain is falling vertically with speed of 35 m/s. A boy rides a bicycle with a speed of 15 m/s in East to
West direction. What is the direction in which he should hold umbrella?
3 4
1) tan 1 with the vertical towards west 2) tan 1 with the vertical towards east
7
7
5
3) tan 1 with the vertical towards east 4) Towards north downward
7
Key : 1
Sol:
B Vb C East
West
Vb 15
Vrb
A
Vr 35
Vr 35m / s
Vb 15m / s
Direction of umbrella should be along relative velocity of rain w.r.t person
AD V 15 3
tan tan b
OA Vr 35 7 towards west
81. A person in a boat crosses a river of width d flowing at velocity VR. While crossing the heads himself
d
always at an angle of 1200 with the river flow and on reaching the other end he finds a drift of in the
2
direction of flow of river. The speed of the boat VB is:
1) (2 3)VR 2) 2(2 3)VR 3) 4(2 3)VR 4) 41VR
Key : 3
Sol:
d 2d
Time taken to cross the river t V cos30
B 3VB
Now, drift x (VR VB sin )t
d VB 2d
= VR 2 3V
2
B
3VB 4VR 2VB
4
VB VR 4(2 3)VR
2 3
82. A swimmer can swim in still water with speed v and the river flowing with speedv/2. To cross the river
in shortest distance, he should swim making angle with the upstream. What is the ratio of the time
taken to swim across in the shortest time to that in swimming across over shortest distance?
1) cos 2) sin 3) ta n 4) cot
Key : 2
Sol:
90
d
Shortest time t ...............1
v
d d
Time of shortest distance = t ' .................. 2
v cos(90 ) v sin
Ratio of time in two cases
d
t v
sin .
t' d
v sin
83. The position vector of a particle is r (a cos t )iˆ (a sin t ) ˆj . The velocity vector of the particle is
1) Parallel to position vector 2) Perpendicular to position vector
3) Directed towards the origin 4) Directed away from the origin
Key :2
Sol:
Position vector
rˆ (a cos t )iˆ (a sin t ) ˆj
dr d
Velocity, v [(a cos t )iˆ (a sin t ) ˆj ]
dt dt
[( a sin t )i ( a cos t ) ˆj ]
ˆ
v r [(a sin t )iˆ (a cos t ) ˆj ].[(a cos t )iˆ (a sin t ) ˆj ]
a2 cos t sin t a 2 sin t cost 0
Here, v r , i.e., velocity vector is perpendicular to position vector.
84. The position vector of particle changes with time according to the relation r (t ) 15t 2iˆ (4 20t 2 ) ˆj .
What is the magnitude of the acceleration (in ms 2 ) at t = 1?:
1) 50 2) 100 3) 25 4) 40
Key : 1
Sol:
Position vector of particle is given as r 15t 2 iˆ (4 20t 2 ) ˆj
dr d
Velocity of particle is v [15t 2 iˆ (4 20t 2 ) ˆj ] 30tiˆ 40tjˆ
dt dt
d d
Acceleration of particle is a (v ) (30tiˆ 40tjˆ) 30iˆ 40 ˆj at t 1sec a 30iˆ 40 ˆj
dt dt
So, magnitude of acceleration is | a |t 1s ax2 a y2 302 402 50ms 2
85. A standing man observes rain falling with the velocity of 20ms 1 at an angle of 300 with the vertical.
Find the velocity with which the man should move so that rain appears to fall vertically to him
1) 10ms 1 2) 20ms 1 3) 5ms 1 3) 15ms 1
Key : 2
Sol:
Vr cos 30
Velocity of rain, vr 10iˆ 10 3 ˆj ms 1
Velocity of man vm viˆ
Velocity of rain w.r.t to man vr , m v r vm 10iˆ 10 3 ˆj viˆ ms 1 10 v iˆ 10 3 ˆjms 1
For vertical fall, the horizontal component must be zero 10 v 0 or v 10 ms 1
86. A river flows with a speed more than the maximum speed with which a person can swim in still water.
He intends to cross the river by the shortest possible path (i.e., he wants to reach the point on the
opposite to the starting point). Which of the following is correct?
1) He should start normal to the river bank
2) He should start in such a way that he moves normal to the bank, relative to the bank
3) He should start in particular (calculated) direction making obtuse angle with the direction of river
4) The man cannot cross the river in that way
Key :4
Sol:
u
We know that to cross the river by the shortest path sin
v
But u v sin 1 , which is not possible
87. A man wishes to cross a river in a boat. If he crosses the river in minimum time he takes 10min with a
drift of 120m. If he crosses the river taking shortest route, he takes 12.5min. Find the velocity of the boat
with respect to water.
1) 10ms 1 2) 20ms 1 3) 5ms 1 4) 15ms 1
Key : 2
Sol:
Case I :If the man crosses the river in minimum time he should move perpendicular to bank or normal
to the direction of water flow.
Let vm , w v and vw u
d
Time to cross river, t1 10 d 10v ,
v
x ut1 120 u 10 u 12m min 1
Case – 2 :If the man crosses river taking the shortest route, the drift should be zero. Time to cross river.
d
t2 12.5
v u2
2
From case 1 , d 10v and u 12ms 1
10v
12.5 v 20ms 1
2 2
v 12
88. On a calm day a boat can go across a lake and return in time T0 at a speed V. On a rough day there is
uniform current at speed v to help the onward journey and impede the return journey. If the time taken to
go across and return on the rough day be T, then T/T0 is
v2 1 v2 1
1) 1 2 2) 2 3) 1 2 4)
V v V v2
1 2 1 2
V V
Key : 2
Sol:
2SV
2S S S 2SV T V 2 v2 V2 1
T0 and T 2 2
V V v V v V v T0 2 S 2
V v 2
v2
1 2
V V
89. A stone is thrown at an angle to the horizontal reaches a maximum height H. Then the time of flight
of stone will be:
2H 2H 2 2 H sin 2 H sin
1) 2) 2 3) 4)
g g g g
Key : 2
Sol:
u 2 sin 2 2u sin 4u 2 sin 2
We know that H and T Or T 2
2g g g2
T 2 4u 2 sin 2 2g 8 2 8H 2H
To eliminate u term let us take 2 2 2 or T T 2
H g u sin g g g
90. During projectile motion, at which position the angular momentum is minimum?
1) At the starting point 2) At the landing point
3) Highest point of projectile 4) As no such position exist
Key : 1
Sol:
Angular momentum = mvr
At starting point r = 0 so mvr = 0
91. Two projectiles A and B thrown with speeds in the ratio 1: 2 acquired the same heights. If “A” is
thrown at an angle of 600 with the horizontal, the angle of projection of B will be:
3
1) sin 1 2) 300 3) 450 4) 900
2 2
Key : 1
Sol:
u A2 sin 2 60 0 u 2 sin 2
For projectile A, Max.Height H A For projectile B Max.height H B B
2g 2g
u A2 sin 2 600 uB2 sin 2
According to question HA=HB
2g 2g
2
u A2 sin 2 1 sin 2 3 1 3 3
2
2 0
2
sin 2 sin So sin 1
uB sin 60 2 3 4 2 2 2 2 2
2
92. A projectile is projected at an angle ( 450 ) with an initial velocity u. The time t, at which its
magnitude of horizontal velocity will become equal to the magnitude of vertical velocity is:
u u u u
1) t (cos sin ) 2) t (cos sin ) 3) t (sin cos ) 4) t (sin 2 cos 2 )
g g g g
Key : 3
Sol:
Let the angle made by the projectile after time t with horizontal be ,
v u sin gt
we know that tan y 1 ( vx vy )
vx u cos
u
u sin gt u cos t sin cos
g
x2 t2
93. A particle moves along the positive part of the curve y , where x . What will be the velocity of
2 2
particle at t = 2 sec ?
1) 2iˆ 4 ˆj 2) 2iˆ 4 ˆj 3) 4iˆ 2 ˆj 4) 4iˆ 2 ˆj
Key : 2
Sol:
t2 x2
d d 2 3
dx 2 dy 2 x. dx t t t
vx t, vy
dt dt dt dt dt 2 2
dx dy ˆ ˆ t 3 ˆ
v vx iˆ v y ˆj iˆ j ti j at t 1sec v 2iˆ 4 ˆj
dt dt 2
94. A jet of water is projected with velocity 10 m / s at an angle 450 with horizontal from point A
1
which is situated at a distance x OA a m . Water strikes a wall at a point P(x,y) then( x,y) =
2
-2
(Take g=10ms )
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1) m, m 2) m, m 3) m, m 4) m, m
4 2 2 4 4 4 2 2
Key : 2
Sol:
Point P lies at the trajectory of jet of water, Hence, the coordinate of point P x, y should satisfy the
trajectory equation.
x
y x tan 1
R
2
R
u 2 sin 2
10 .sin 2 450
1m
g 10
1 1/ 2 1 1 1
If x 1/ 2m , y tan 450 1 m
2 1 2 2 4
1 1
Hence, the coordinate of P m, m
2 4
95. The horizontal range and maximum height attained by a projectile are R and H, respectively. If a
constant horizontal acceleration a = g/4 is imparted to the projectile due to wind, then its horizontal
range and maximum height will be
H H
1) R H , 2) R , 2 H 3) R 2 H , H 4) R H , H
2 2
Key : 4
Sol:
u 2 sin 2 u 2 sin 2
Under only acceleration due to gravity i.e. acceleration g along y axis H ,R
2g g
Under acceleration of wind along horizontal a=g/4 apart from g, maximum height will be same
2
1 1 g 2u sin
l
H =H, R ' u cos T aT 2 R RH
2 2 4 g
96. A ball is thrown from a point with a speed v0 at an angle of projection . From the same point and at
the same instant, a person starts running with a constant speed v0 / 2 to catch the ball. Will the person be
able to catch the ball? If yes, what should be the angle of projection?
1) yes, 600 2) Yes, 300 3) No 4) Yes, 450
Key : 1
Sol:
For the person to be able to catch that ball, the horizontal component of velocity of the ball should be
same as the speed of the person i.e.,
v 1
v0 cos 0 or cos or 600
2 2
97. At what angle with the horizontal should a ball be thrown so that the range R is related to the time of
flight as R 5T 2 ? (Take g = 10ms-2)
1) 30 0 2) 450 3) 600 4) 90 0
Key : 2
Sol:
R sin 2 g
2
g 2
cot 5cot
T 4sin 2
R
Given 2 5 ; Hence, 5 5cot or 450
T
98. A particle is thrown with velocity u at an angle from the horizontal. Another particle is thrown with
the same velocity at an angle from the vertical. What will be the ratio of times of flight of the two
particles?
1) cos 2) sec 3) tan 4) sin
Key : 3
Sol:
2u sin
For first particles angle of projection from the horizontal is . So T1
g
For second particle, angle of projection from the vertical is , it mean from the horizontal is
2u sin 90 2u cos
T2
g g
T
So, ratio of the time of flight 1 tan
T2
99. A projectile is thrown into space so as to have maximum horizontal range R. Taking the point of
projection as origin, find out the co-ordinates of the point where the speed of the particle is minimum.
1)(R/2, R/4) 2) (R/4, R/2) 3) (R/2, R/2) 4) (R/4, R/3)
Key : 1
Sol:
For maximum horizontal range, 45o
From R 4 H cot 4 H [As 45o , for maximum range ]
Speed of the particle will be minimum at the highest point of parabola.
So the co-ordinate of the highest point will be (R/2, R/4)
100. A projectile thrown with an initial speed u and the angle of projection 150 to the horizontal has a range
R1. If the same projectile is thrown at an angle of 450 to the horizontal with speed 2u, what will be its
range?
1) 4R1 2) 16R1 3) 8R1 4) 2R1
Key : 3
Sol:
u 2 sin 2
R ; R u 2 sin 2
g
2 2 o
R2 u2 sin 2 2 2u sin 90
R2 R1 o
8R1
R1 u1 sin 21 u sin 30
101. A bullet with muzzle velocity100ms 1 is to be shot at a target 30m away in the same horizontal line.
How high above the target must the rifle be aimed so that the bullet will hit the target?
1) 45 m 2) 25 m 3) 55 m 4) 35 m
Key : 1
Sol:
Horizontal range of bullet is 30m.
u 2 sin 2
Using range formula, R 30
g
30 10
Or sin 2 2
or sin 2 0.03
100
For small , sin tan , i.e., 2 0.03
Therefore, 0.015 rad
AP
In OAP, tan AP OP tan
OP
The rifle must be aimed at an angle 0.015 above horizontal. Height to be aimed
30 tan 30 30 0.015 45m
102. The below figure shows two positions A and B at the same height h above the ground. If the maximum
height of the projectile is H, then determine the time t elapsed between the positions A and B in terms of
H.
8 8 8
1) t 8 g H 2) t g h 3) t H h 4) t H h
H g g
Key : 3
Sol:
2u sin
Let T be the time of flight. We can now write T
g
4u 2 sin 2 8 u 2 sin 2 8H
T2
g2 g 2g g
2 8 H h
Hence, from A to B we can write in similar way, t
g
8
Thus, t H h
g
v
103. Two projectiles A and B are thrown from the same point with velocities v and respectively. If B is
2
thrown at an angle 450 with horizontal, what is the inclination of A when their ranges are the same?
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
1) sin 1 2) sin 3) 2 sin 1 4) sin
4 2 4 4 2 8
Key : 2
Sol:
RA RB
2
v 2 sin 2 v / 2 sin 90
0
g g
1 1 1
sin 2 or sin 1
4 2 4
1 1
sin 1
2 4
104. A projectile is thrown upward with a velocity v0 at an angle to the horizontal. The change in velocity
of the projectile when it strikes the same horizontal plane is
1) v0 sin vertically downward 2) 2v0 sin vertically downward
3) 2v0 sin vertically upward 4) Zero
Key : 2
Sol:
v a t (as a = constant)
2v sin
gjˆ 0
g
2v0 sin ˆj
i.e., change in velocity is 2v0 sin , vertically downwards.
105. Two paper screens A and B are separated by a distance of 100m. A bullet pierces A and then B. The
hole in B is 10 cm below the hole in A. If the bullet is travelling horizontally at the time of hitting A,
then the velocity of the bullet at A is nearly
1) 100 m/s 2) 200 m/s 3) 600 m/s 4) 700 m/s
Key : 4
Sol:
1
h gt 2
2
2h 2 0.1
t 0.141s
g 10
Now in horizontal direction
S 100
vx x 700 m / s
t 0.141
106. The height y and distance c along the horizontal for a body projected in the xy plane are given by
y=8t - 5t2 and x = 6t. The initial speed of projection is
1) 8 m/s 2) 9 m/s 3) 10 m/s 4) (10/3)m/s
Key : 3
Sol:
1
Equations for oblique projectile are x u cos t , y u sin t gt 2
2
2 2
u cos 6 u cos 36.... 1
Comparing with given equations from (1),(2) u= 10
u sin 8 u 2 sin 2 64..... 2
107. A stone is projected with a velocity 20 2 m/s at an angle of 450to the horizontal. The average velocity
of stone during its motion from starting point to its maximum height is (take g = 10m/s2)
1) 20 m/s 2) 20 5 m/s 3) 5 5 m/s 4) 10 5 m/s
Key : 4
Sol:
t = (u sin/g) = 2s, R = u2 sin2/g = 80m
s 20
40
u 2 sin 2
And H 20m
2g
2
2 R
H
Displacement 2
Now average velocity =
Time t
2 2
20 40
2
10 5 m / s
1
108. An object of mass m is projected with a momentum p at such an angle that its maximum height is th
4
of its horizontal range. Its minimum kinetic energy in its path will be
p2 p2 3 p2 p2
1) 2) 3) 4)
8m 4m 4m m
Key : 2
Sol:
R R tan R R tan
H , we knowthat H tan 1 45
4 4 4 4
P
Initial momentum P =mu ,momentum at highest point P1=mu cos45
2
2
K min
2
P ' p / 2 p 2
2m 2m 4m
109. A projectile is fired from level ground at an angle above the horizontal. The elevation angle of the
highest point as seen from the launch point is related to by the relation
1 1
1) tan = tan 2) tan = tan 3) tan = tan 4) tan = 2 tan
4 2
Key : 3
Sol:
2 H u sin / g
2 2
H
tan 2
R/2 R u sin 2 / g
2
sin tan
2sin cos 2
110. A ball rolls from the top of a stair way with a horizontal velocity u m/s. If the steps are a high and b
wide, the ball will hit the edge of the nth step if
2au 2au 2 2au 2 au 2
1) n 2 2) n 3) n 4) n
gb gb2 gb gb 2
Key : 2
Sol:
1 1
h gt 2 na gt 2 1 and
2 2
R ut nb ut 2
2au 2
From these two equation we get, n
gb2
111. Two stones are projected so as to reach the same distance from the point of projection on a horizontal
surface. The maximum height reached by one exceeds the other by an amount equal to half the sum of
the height attained by them. Then angle of projection of the stone which attains smaller height is
1) 450 2) 600 3) 300 4) tan 1 3 / 4
Key : 3
Sol:
H H2
H1 H 2 1 or H1 3H 2
2
u 2 sin 2 u 2 sin 2 900
3
2g 2g
2
tan 3
tan 3
Or 600
Therefore the other angle is 90 0 or 300
112. A projectile A is thrown with velocity v1 at an angle 300 to the horizontal from point P. At the same time
another projectile B is thrown with velocity v2 upwards from the point Q vertically below the highest
v
point A would reach. For B to collide with A the ratio 2 should be
v1
3 1 2
1) 2) 2 3) 4)
2 2 3
Key : 3
Sol:
Vertical component of velocity of A should be equal to vertical velocity B.
Or v1 sin 30 0 v 2
v1
Or v2
2
v2 1
v1 2
5
113. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is y 10 x x 2 . If we assume g = 10ms2 . What will be the
9
range of projectile?
1) 36m 2) 24m 3) 18m 4) 9m
Key : 3
Sol:
Equation of projectile,
5 5 x
y 10 x x 2 y 10 x 1 x comparing with y tan x 1 we get R = 90/5=18 m
9 90 R
2
114. The trajectory of a projectile in a vertical plane is y ax bx , where a and b are constants and x and y
are, horizontal and vertical distances of the projectile respectively from the point of projection. The
maximum height attained by the particle and the angle of projection from the horizontal are
b2 a2 a2 2a 2
1) , tan 1 b 2) , tan 1 2b 3) , tan 1 a 4) , tan 1 a
2a b 4b b
Key : 3
Sol:
y ax bx 2 ; for height or y to be maximum:
dy a
0 or a 2bx 0 or x
dx 2b
2
a a a2
i. ymax a b
2b 2b 4b
dy
ii. a tan 0 , where 0 = angle of projection
dx x0
0 tan 1 a
115.
The initial velocity of a particle of mass 2kg is 4iˆ 4 ˆj m/s. A constant force of 20 ˆj N is applied on
the particle. Initially the particle was at (0, 0). Find the x-coordinate of the point where its y-coordinate
is again zero.
1) 3.2 m 2) 6 m 3) 4.98 m 4) 1.2 m
Key : 1
Sol:
Comparing with projectile motion we can see that it is like a projectile motion, with u x 4m / s ,
Fy 20
u y 4 m / s and a y 10m / s 2
m 2
Apart from initial point, at range y-coordinate is again zero
2uxuy
X – coordinate = range =
g
2 4 4
3.2m
10
116. A body is projected from origin such that its position vector varies with time as r 3tiˆ 4t 5t 2 ˆj m
and m and t is time in second, then the following is not correct
1) x-coordinate of particle is 2.4m when y-coordinate is zero
2) speed of projection is 5m/s
3
3) angle of projection with x-axis is tan 1
4
4) time when particle is gain at x-axis is 0.8s
Key : 2
Sol:
Comparing with projectile motion
1
r u x t iˆ u y t gt 2 ˆj
2
u x 3 u cos 3........ 1 u y 4 u sin 4....... 2
We get
from 1 and 2 u 5
117. From the top of a tower of height 40m, a ball is projected upwards with a speed of 20 ms 1 at an angle of
elevation of 300 . Then the ratio of the total time taken by the ball to hit the ground to the time taken by
ball come at same level as top of tower.
1) 2 : 1 2) 3 : 1 3) 3 : 2 4) 4 : 1
Key : 1
Sol:
1
Let ‘t’ is the total time taken, then h u sin t gt 2
2
1
40 20sin 300 t 10 t 2
2
Or 40 10t 5t 2
or 5t 2 10t 40 0
or t 2 2t 8 0
or t 2 4t 2t 8 0
or t (t 4) 2(t 4) 0
or (t 2)(t 4) 0
t = 4 s [Negative time is not allowed]
2v sin 2 20sin 30 0
T s 2s
g g
t 4 2
T 2 1
118. A body is projected horizontally from the top of a tower with a velocity of 10m/s. If it hits the ground at
an angle of 450 , then the vertical component of velocity when it hits ground (in m/s ) is:
1) 10 2 2) 5 2 3) 5 4) 10
Key : 4
Sol:
Vy
tan 45 0
Vx
Vy
1
Vx
V y Vx 10m / s
119. A ball is projected horizontally with a speed u from the top of incline plane of inclination with
horizontal. At what distance along the plane, the ball will strike the plane?
2u 2 2u 2 u2 u2
1) tan sec 2) cot sin 3) sin cos 4) tan
g g g g
Key : 1
Sol:
Let the ball strikes the plane at the point A.
OA = d = ?
Using the equation of trajectory, we get
gx 2
y
2u 2
y gx
x 2u 2
g
tan (d cos )
2u 2
2u 2
d tan sec
g
120. Which of the following statements is not correct in uniform circular motion?
1) The speed of the particle remains constant
2) The linear velocity, linear momentum , acceleration remains constant
3) The acceleration always points towards the centre
4) The angular speed remains constant
Key : 2
Sol:
In uniform circular motion speed and angular speed remains constant. Centripetal acceleration acts
towards the centre (centre seeking) because centripetal force acts towards the centre but velocity does
not remains constant because direction in continuously changing.
121. A body is moving in a circle with a speed of 1ms 1 . This speed increases at a constant rate of 2ms 1
every second. Assume that the radius of the circle described is 25m. The total acceleration of the body
after 2s is
1) 2ms 2 2) 25ms 2 3) 5ms 2 4) 7ms 2
Key : 3
Sol :
at 2ms 2 , v u at t 1 2 2 5ms 1
v 2 52
ac 1ms 2
r 25
Net acceleration = ac2 at2 12 22 5ms 2
122. A particle is moving along a circular path with uniform speed. Through what angle does its angular
velocity change when it completes half of the circular path?
1) 00 2) 450 3) 180 0 4) 3600
Key : 1
Sol:
Angular velocity is always directed perpendicular to the plane of the circular pathi.e always along axis
of rotaion. Hence, required change in angle is 00 .
123. Find the time period of the meeting of minutes hand and seconds hand of a clock
50 59 49 60
1) min 2) min 3) min 4) min
49 60 50 59
Key : 4
Sol:
2 2
min rad min 1 , sec rad min 1
60 1
sec min 2
(For second and minute hand to meet again)
Ref.line
sec min t 2
60
2 1 1/ 60 t 2 t min
59
124. Which of the following is the graph between the height (h) of a projectile and time (t), when it is
projected from the ground?
h h h h
t t t t
1) O 2) O 3) O 4) O
Key : 3
Sol:
1 2
Height of the projectile h ut gt which is a parabola.
2
When a projectile is projected at some angle from the horizontal, the projectile attains a maximum height after
some time and after that it starts to fall down and finally comes to the ground. So correct graph is option 3.
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT-2
DAY – 21 (DT 02-05-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
CHAPTER: LAWS OF MOTION
==========================================================================
1. A locomotive engine pulls a series of wagons. Which is the correct analysis of the situation?
1) The train moves forward because the locomotive pulls forward slightly harder on the wagons than the
wagons pull backward on the locomotive.
2) Because action always equals reaction, the locomotive cannot pull the wagons. The wagons pull
backward just as hard as the locomotive pulls forward.
3) The locomotive’s force on the wagons is as strong as the force of the wagons on the locomotive, but
the frictional force on the locomotive is forward and large while the backward frictional force on the
wagons is small.
4) The locomotive can pull the wagons forward only if it weighs more than the wagons.
Sol: (3) The force exerted by the locomotive on the wagons is equal to that exerted by the wagons on the
locomotive. The locomotive moves forward because of a forward frictional force exerted by the tracks
on its wheels. The backward frictional force exerted by the track on the wheels of the wagons is much
smaller.
2. A particle is moving in free space with some velocity as shown. Three forces F1 , F2 and F3 of magnitudes
10N, 10N and 15N respectively are applied on it. Then
V
F1
1200
F3
1200
F2
1) Its velocity changes in magnitude
2) Its velocity changes only in direction
3) Its velocity changes both in magnitude and direction
4) Its velocity remains constant Velocity makes some angle with resultant force. Therefore both magnitude
and direction changes
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
3. Five forces F1 , F2 , F3 , F4 and F5 are acting on a particle of mass 2.0kg so that it is moving with 4m / s 2 in
east direction. If F1 force is removed, then the acceleration becomes 7m / s 2 in north, then the acceleration
of the block if only F1 is acting will be
2
1) 16m / s 2) 65 m / s 2 3) 260 m / s 2 4) 33 m / s 2
Sol: (2) F1 F2 F3 F4 F5 2 4iˆ --------(i) and
F3
F2
F4
F1
F5
F2 F3 F4 F5 2 7 ˆj ---------(ii)
From (i) and (ii), F1 8iˆ 14jˆ
F1
a1 4iˆ 7 ˆj
m
a1 16 49 65 m / s2 A horizontal jet of water coming out of a pipe of area of cross section 20
3.
2
cm hits a vertical wall with a velocity of 10 ms 1 and rebounds with the same speed. The force exerted by
water on the wall is
1) 0.2 N 2) 10 N 3) 400 N 4) 200 N
2
Sol : F 2 Av = 400N
Key : 3
4. A body of mass M resting on a smooth horizontal plane starts moving under a constant force F during its
rectilinear motion. The angle between the direction of force and horizontal plane varies as = kx, where
K is constant and x is the distance travelled by the body from the initial position. Velocity of the Body is
F
F sin 2 F sin F cos 2 F cos
1) 2) 3) 4)
mK mK mK mK
Sol : Fnet = F cos ; ma = F cos(Kx)
F dv F dv dx F
a= cos Kx ; cos kx ; . .cos kx
m dt m dt dx m
F v 2 F sin kx
v dv cos k x.dx ; C
m 2 m K
When x = 0 v = 0; C = 0
2 F sin
v
mK
Key : 2
5. A balloon with mass ' m ' is descending down with acceleration ' a ' a g . How much mass should be
removed from it so that it starts moving up with acceleration ‘a’
ma 2ma 2ma ma
1. 2. 3. 4.
g a g a g a g a
Sol : Mg Fb ma ……………….(1)
M M g Fb M M a ……..(2)
Solve (1) & (2)
2Ma
M
ga
Key : 2
6. A balloon of gross weight W newton is falling vertically downward with a constant acceleration a(<g).
The magnitude of the air resistance is
a a a
1) W 2) W 1 3) W 1 4) W
g g g
Sol : F B D on balloon
W
Fnet = W - FB ; .a W FB
g
a
FB W 1
g
Key : 3
7. A particle of ,mass m is at rest at the origin at time t = 0 it is subjected to a force f(t) = F0 e bt in x –
direction. Its speed V(t) is depicted by which of the following curves
F 0b
F 0 m b
m b
1) 2)
F0
m b
F 0
m b
3) 4)
Sol : ma Fo .e bt
; dv Fo ebt .dt ; v Fo ebt C
m mb
When t = 0 v = 0 C0
Fo bt F
v .e ; V o .ebt
mb mb
Key : 3
8. A ball of mass 0.2kg is thrown by a man vertically upward by applying a force by a hand. If the hand
moves 0.2m while applying the force and ball goes up to 2m height, the magnitude of force is
1. 16N 2. 20N 3. 22N 4. 4N
2 2 2
Sol : O U 2 gh ; U 2 10 2 0
U 2 40 , V 2 U 2 2as
U 2 02 2a 0.2
40 0.4a ; a 100 ms 2
F ma 0.2 100 20 N
Key : 2
A body of mass 2 kg beings to move under the action of a time dependent force F 3t i 4t j N , where
2 3
9.
i and j are unit vectors along x as y axis. What power will be developed by the force at the time t = 1sec?
1) 1 watt 2) 3.5 watt
3) 9 watt 4) 15.5 watt
Sol : F 3t 2 i 4t 3 j ; ma 3t 2 i 4t 3 j
3
2a 3t 2 i 4t 3 j m 2kg a 2 t i 2t j
2ˆ 3ˆ
;
3
dV t 2 dtiˆ 2t 3 dtjˆ ;V dV
2
3 2 ˆ
V t dti 2 t 3 dtjˆ
2
3 t3 ˆ t4 t3 t4 ˆ
V i 2 ˆj iˆ j
2 3 4 2 2
t3 t4 ˆj
3t 2iˆ 4t 3 ˆj iˆ
Power P = F.V 2 2
1.5t5 2t 7 1.5 2 3.5watt (heret 1sec)
Key : 2
10. A body is moving with an acceleration ‘a’ under the action of a force ‘g’. The weight of the body is
1) g/a 2) g 2 / a 3) g 2 / a 4) a2 / g
Sol : F g ma g m g / a
Weight (w) = mg = g/a x g g 2 / a
Key : 3
11. A body of mass 2kg is moving along positive X – direction with a velocity of 5 ms 1 . Now a force of
10 2 N is applied at an angle 450 with X – axis. Its velocity after 3s is,
1) 20 ms 1 2) 15 ms 1
3) 25 ms 1 4) 5 ms 1
Sol : i) Fx F cos 450 10 N
10
ax 5m / s 2
2
Vx u x ax t 5 5 3 20m / sec
ii) Fy F sin 450 10 N
10
ay 5m / s 2
2
Vy a y t 5 3 15m / sec
V Vx2 Vy2 400 225 625
=25 m/sec
Key : 3
12. Gravel is dropped on a conveyor belt at the rate of 2 kg/s. The extra force required to keep the belt moving
at 3 ms 1 is
1) 1 N 2) 3 N 3) 4 N 4) 6 N
dm
F V 3 2 6N
Sol : dt
Key : 4
13. A balloon has 8 gram of air. A small hole is pierced into it. The air escapes at a uniform rate of 7 cm s-1. If
the balloon shrinks in 5.6 seconds then the average force acting on the balloon is
1) 10-4N 2) 10-2 dyne
3) 56 dyne 4) 10-6 N
Sol : m 8 10 3 kg ; t 5.6 ; V 7 10 2 ms 1
dm 8 10 3
F V 7 10 2 10 4 N
dt 5.6
Key : 1
14. A machine gun is mounted on a 2000 kg vehicle on a horizontal smooth road (friction negligible). The gun
fires 10 bullets per sec with a velocity of 500 m/s. If the mass of each bullet be 10g, what is the
acceleration produced in the vehicle?
1) 2.5 cms-2 2) 25 cms-2
-2
3) 50 cms 4) 50 ms-2
Sol : M 2000 kg ; n 10 V 500 ms 1
m 10 10 3 kg a ?
Acc to newtons third law
m n V
Fvehicle Fbullet ; M a
t
3
10 10 10 500
2000 a
1
50 1
a 2.5 cms 2
2000 40
Key : 1
15. A rocket of initial mass 1500 kg ejects gas at a constant rate of 10 kgs-1 with a relative speed of 5 kms-1.
The acceleration of the rocket 50 seconds after the blast, neglecting gravity
1) 10ms2 2) 25ms2
3) 50ms 2 4) 100ms2
Sol : Initial mass = 1500
Mass after 50 seconds is = 1500-50x10
dm
= 1000 kg; Ma V
dt
1000 a 5 103 10 , a 50
Key : 3
16. In the first second of its flight, rocket ejects1/60 of its mass with a velocity of 2400 m/s–1. The acceleration
of the rocket is:-
(1) 19.6 ms–2 (2) 30.2 ms–2
(3) 40 ms–2 (4) 49.8 ms–2
dm
Sol : F v
dt
Key : 3
17. Three forces are acting on a particle of mass ‘m’ initially in equilibrium. If the first 2 forces F1 & F 2 are
perpendicular to each other and suddenly the third force F 3 is removed, then the magnitude of
acceleration of the particle is
F3 F1 F2 F1 F2 F1
1) m 2) m 3) m 4) m
Sol : F1 F 2 F 3 0 F 1 F 2 F 3
When F 3 is removed
Net force F R F 1 F 2
F R F1 F 2
a
m m
F 3 F
a a 3
m m
Key : 1
18. A body of mass0.4kg straight at origin at t=0 with a speed of 10m/s in the positive x-axis direction is
subjected to a constant force F = 8N towards negative x-axis. Calculate the position of the particle after
25seconds.
1)–6000m 2) –8000m 3)+4000m 4)+7000 m
Sol:
10m/s F=8N
2
4kg a=-20m/s
(1) Here, mass of the particle, m = 0.4 kg
F = –8N (minus sign for direction of force)
F 8 N
Acceleration a 20 m / s 2
m 0.4kg
The position of the particle at any time t is given by
1
x x0 ut at 2
2
The position of the particle at t = 0 is 0, therefore x0 =0.
1
x ut at 2
2
Position of the particle at t = 25 s
Here, u = 10m/s, a = –20 m/s2, t = 25 s
1 2
x 10 25 20 25 250 6250 6000 m
2
19. A body of mass 4 kg is accelerated upon by a constant force, travels a distance of 5m in the first second
and a distance of 3m in the third second. The force acting on the body is
1) 6N 2) 8N 3)2N 4) 4N
Sol: (4) The force is constant, i.e., the acceleration is constant. The distance is decreasing with time.
1
Therefore it is retardation. 1st second u a 1 5 …. (i)
2
1
3rd second u a 3 3 .......(ii)
2
(i) – (ii) gives (1/2)a.4 = -2 = a = -1m/s2
Constant force = ma = 4 x 1 = 4 N
[This is a retarding force as a is negative]
20. Same force acts on two bodies of different masses 3kg and 5kg initially at rest. The ratio of times required
to acquire same final velocity is
1)5:3 2)25:9 3) 9:25 4)3:5
v 1
Sol: (4) t t v is same
a a
t a m 3 1
1 2 1 a , F is the same
t2 a1 m2 5 m
21. A body of mass m1 exerts a force on another body of mass m2. If the magnitude of acceleration
of m2 is a2, then the magnitude of the acceleration of m1 is (considering only two bodies in space)
m2 a2 m1a1
1) Zero 2) 3) 4) a2
m1 m2
ma
Sol: (2) Force on M1 = Force on M2 a1 2 2
m1
22. A particle moves in the xy-plane under the action of a force F such that the components of its linear
momentum p at any time t are px 2cos t, p y 2 sin t . The angle between F and p at time t is
1) 90o 2) 0 o 3) 180o 4) 30o
Sol: (1) Given that p pxiˆ p y ˆj 2cos t ˆi 2sin tjˆ
dp
F 2sin tiˆ 2cos tjˆ
dt
Now, F . p 0 i.e., angle between F and p is 90o
23. A balloon of mass M is descending at a constant acceleration . When a mass m is released from the
balloon, it starts rising with the same acceleration . Assuming that its volume does not change, What
is the value of m?
2 g g
1) M 2) M 3) M 4) M
g g 2
Sol:
F a
a mg
F mg
(2) Suppose F = upthrust due to buoyancy
Then while descending , we find
Mg-F =M
When ascending, we have
F-(M-m) g = (M-m)
Solving Eqs. (i) and (ii) we get
2
m M
g
24. A particle of mass 2 kg moves with an initial velocity of v 4 iˆ 4 ˆj ms 1 . A constant force of
F 20 ˆjN is applied on the particle. Initially , the particle was at (0,0). The x-coordinate of the particle
when its y-coordinate again becomes zero is given by
1) 1.2m 2) 4.8m 3) 6.0m 4) 3.2m
Sol:
4iˆ 4ˆj
F=20N
(0, 0) (x, 0)
F
(4) a 10 ˆj ms 2
m
Displacement in y- direction
1 1
y ut at 2 0 4 t 10 t 2
2 2
4 4
t s x 4t 4 3.2 m
5 5
25. An object is suspended from a spring balance in a lift. The reading is 240 N when the lift is at rest. If the
spring balance reading now changes to 220 N, then the lift is moving
1) Downward with constant speed 2) Downward with decreasing speed
3) Downward with increasing speed 4) Upward with increasing speed
Sol: (3) Acceleration is to be downward which is possible in option
26. A 5000kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The exhaust speed of 800 ms1 . To give an initial upward
2
acceleration of 20 ms , the amount of gas ejected per second to supply the needed thrust will be
( g 10ms2 )
1
1) 127.5kgs 2) 187.5kgs1 3) 185.5kgs1 4) 137.5kgs1
udm
Sol: (2) F m g a
dt
dm m g a 500010 20
187.5kg / s
dt u 800
27. A block of metal weighting 2kg is resting on a frictionless plane. It is struck by a jet releasing water at a
rate of 1 kg/s and a speed of 5m/s. The initial acceleration of the block will be
1) 2.5m / s 2 2) 5m / s2 3) 10m / s 2 4) 20m / s2
Sol: (1) The water jet striking the block at the rate of 1kg/s at a speed of 5m/s will exert a force on the blank
dm
F v 51 5 N
dt
Under the action of this force of 5N, the block of mass 2kg will move with an acceleration given by
F 5
a 2.5m / s 2
m 2
28. A block of mass 5kg is suspended by a massless rope of length 2m from the ceiling. A force of 50N is
applied in the horizontal direction at the midpoint P of the rope, as shown in the figure. The angle made
by the rope with the vertical in equilibrium is (Take g 10ms2 )
1) 30o 2) 40 o 3) 60 o 4) 45 o
Sol: (4) Let q be the angle made by the rope with the vertical in equilibrium.
The free body diagram of 5kg block is as shown in figure
In equilibrium T2 5 g 510 50 N
The free body diagram of the point P is as shown in figure
In equilibrium T1 sin q 50 N ---(i)
T1 cos q T2 50 N ---(ii)
50
Dividing (i) by (ii), we get tan q 1 ; q tan1 1 45o
50
29. A ball of mass 1kg hangs in equilibrium from a two strings OA and OB as shown in figure. What are the
tensions in strings OA and OB? (Take g = 10 m/s2)
1) 5 N, 5 N 2) 5 3 N, 5 3 N 3) 5 N, 5 3 N 4) 5 3 N , 5N
Sol: (3) Various forces acting on the ball are as shown in figure. The three concurrent forces are in equilibrium.
Using Lami's theorem,
30. A pulley is attached to the ceiling of a lift moving upwards. Two particles are attached to the two ends
of a string passing over the pulley. The masses of the particles are in the ratio 2 : 1. If the
acceleration of the particles is g/2, then the acceleration of the lift will be
g g g
1) g 2) 3) 4)
6 3 4
m m2
Sol: (2) Acceleration of particle 1 g a
m1 m2
2 1 g g
g a a
2 1 2 2
31. The acceleration of block is
1. 6ms 2 2. 8ms 2 3. 10ms 2 4. 12ms 2
Sol :
N 30 Mg ; N 30 50 ; N 20
1
Fmax N 20 10 N ;
2
40 10 2
a = 6ms
5
Key : 1
32. A dynamometer D is attached to two blocks of masses 6 kg and 4kg. Forces 20 N and 10 N are applied on
the blocks as shown in the figure. The dynamometer reads
1) 10 N 2) 20 N 3) 6 N 4) 14 N
Sol : 20 T 6a ; T 10 4a
On adding 10 10a ; a 1ms 2
T-10=4x1 ; T=10+4=14 N
Key : 4
33. Two identical particles A and B each of mass m, are interconnected by a spring of stiffness k. If
particles B experiences a force F and the elongation of the spring is x, the acceleration of particle B
relative to particle A is equal to
F F kx F 2kx kx
1) 2 m 2) m 3) m 4) m
Sol: (3) Equation of motion for A
kx
kx ma a
m
For B : F-T = ma
F kx
a'
m
F 2kx
Thus relative acceleration ar a ' a
m
34. Two masses 10 kg and 20 kg are connected by a massless spring as shown in fig. A force of 200 N acts on
the 20 kg mass at the instant when the 10 kg mass has an acceleration of 12 ms 2 towards right the
acceleration of the 20 kg mass is
200N
10kg 20kg
2 2 2 2
1) 2 ms 2) 4 ms 3) 10 ms 4) 20 ms
Sol : FBD on 10kg
Fs
a=12ms -2
Fnet = Fs 10 12 FS
FBD on 20kg
Fs 200
a=?
Fnet = 200 -Fs 20 a 200 120 ; a 4ms2
Key : 2
35. Three blocks of equal masses (each 5kg) are suspended by weightless strings as shown. If applied force is
100N,then T1 is equal to ( g 10m / s 2 )
1)150N 2)190N 3)100N 4)160N
Sol : FBD for mass 5kg
T1 100 mg 100 5 10 150 N
Key : 1
36. A light string going over a clamped pulley of mass m supports a block of mass ‘M’ as shown in the figure.
The force on the pulley by the clamp is given by
1) 2 Mg 2) 2 mg
2 2
3) g M m m 2 4) g M m M2
Sol : T=mg
Force on the pulley (other than from clamp)
2 2
Fnet T mg T2 g M m M2
T
mg
T
Since pulley is in equilibrium, clamp will exert the same amount of force in opposite direction. Or pulley
will also exert this much force on clamp.
Key : 4
37. A body is in translatory equilibrium if:
i) resultant force on it is zero
ii) it is at rest
iii) it is in uniform motion
iv) it is in accelerated motion
1) i, ii are only correct
2) i, iv are only correct
3) i, ii, iii are only correct
4) ii, iv are only correct
Sol : (i, ii, iii) are only correct
i) resultant force on it is zero
ii) it is at rest
iii) it is in uniform motion
Key : 3
38. A force F is applied to the initially stationary cart. The variation of force with time is shown in the figure.
The speed of cart at t = 5 sec is
1) 10 m/s 2) 16.6 m/s 3) 2 m/s 4) zero
Sol : The equation of parabola is x2 = 4ay
Here, t2 = 4aF
When t = 5s, F = 50 N
25 1
25 = 4a 50 a
200 8
Hence , y Kx2
1 F
t2 4 F ; F 2 t 2
8 2
5
2
ma 2t a t 2dt
2
m0
5 3
2 t3 2 5 2 25
V 0 ;V
m 3 0 5 3 3
= 16.6 m/sec
Key : 2
39. A body of mass 2 Kg has an initial velocity of 3 metre/sec along OE and it is subjected to a force of 4 N in
a direction perpendicular to OE. The distance of body from O after 4 sec will be:
1) 12 metre 2) 20 metre
3) 8 metre 4) 48 metre
Sol :
Key : 2
40. A rod of length L and mass M is acted on by two unequal forces F1 and F2 F1 as shown in the
following figure. The tension in the rod at a distance y from the end A is given by:
y
y y y y F1 F2 L
1) F1 1 F2 2) F2 1 F1 3) 4) FL / y
L L L L
Sol : Net force on the rod= F1 F2
F1 F2
As mass of the rod is M, hence acceleration of the rod is: a
M
If we now consider the motion of part AB of the rod
M
[Whose mass is equal to (M/L) y], then F1 T ya
L
where T is the tension in the rod at the point B.
M F F
F1 T y 1 2
Now, L M
y y
T F1 1 F2
or L L.
Alternative Method: Considering motion of the other part BC of the rod also, we can calculate tension at
the point B. In this case,
M
T F2 L y a
L
M F1 F2
or T F2 L y
L M
y y
F1 1 F2
= L L
Key : 1
41. Three blocks with masses m, 2m and 3m are connected by strings, as shown in figure. After an upward
force F is applied on block m, the masses move upward at constant speed . What is the net force on the
block of mass 2m (g is the acceleration due to gravity )
1) 6 mg 2) Zero 3) 2 mg 4) 3 mg
Sol :
Key : 2
42. Human heart is pumping blood with constant velocity v ms1 at the rate of Mkgs 1. The force required for
this is (in N)
dM
v
1) M 2) Mv 3) M/v 4) dt
Sol : Force F M kgs 1 v ms 1
Mvkgms2 MvN.
Key : 2
43. A body of mass 5kg starts from the origin with an initial velocity u 30iˆ 40ˆjms 1. If a constant force
F (iˆ 5ˆj)N acts on the body, the time in which the y-component of the velocity becomes zero is
1) 5 seconds 2) 20 seconds
3) 40 seconds 4) 80 seconds
Sol : u y 40m / s, Fy 5N, m 5kg
Fy
So, a y 1m / s 2 (As v u at )
m
v y 40 1 t 0 t 40 sec.
Key : 3
44. A constant forces (F) is applied on a stationary particle of mass M. The velocity attained by particle in
certain displacement will be proportional to
1
1
1. m 2. m 3. m 4.
m
F
Sol : V 2as ; V 2 s
m
1
1 s 2 1
2F 2
V
= m ; m
Key : 4
45. A solid sphere of mass 2 kg is resting inside a cube as shown in the figure. The cube is moving with a
velocity v (5 t ˆi 2t ˆj)m / s . Here t is the time in second. All surface are smooth. The sphere is at rest with
respect to the cube. What is the total force exerted by the sphere on the cube. (Take g = 10 m/s2)
y
A B
D C
O x
1) 29 N 2) 29 N 3) 26 N 4) 89 N
Sol : As v 5 t ˆi 2 t ˆj a a x ˆi ay ˆj 5 ˆi 2 ˆj
F ma x ˆi m (g ay )ˆj F | m a x2 (g ay )2 26 N
; |
Key : 3
46. A body is placed on a smooth inclined plane of inclination 1 in x. The horizontal acceleration to be given
inclined plane so that the body on it remains at rest with respect to inclined plane is
g X 2 1
1) g X 2 1 2) X
gX g
3) 4)
X 2 1 X 2 1
Sol :
a) a=g Tan
1 g
Tan = = 2
2
x 1 x 1
Key : 4
47. A flexible chain of weight W hangs between two fixed points A and B as shown in the figure. Tension at
the midpoint C of the chain is :-
Sol : 2T sin w ; Tc T cos ;
Key : 3
48. Bullets of mass 0.03 kg each hit a plate at the rate of 200 bullets/s with a velocity of 50 m/s and reflect
back with a velocity of 30 m/s. The average force (in Newton) acting on the plate is
(1) 120 (2) 180 (3) 300 (4) 480
n
F mv u
Sol : t
Key : 4
49. Three blocks A, B and C of masses 4 kg, 2 kg and 1 kg respectively, are in contact on a frictionless
surface, as shown. If a force of 14 N is applied on the 4 kg block, then the contact force between A and B
is :
(1) 6 N (2) 8 N (3) 18 N (4) 2 N
F
Sol : a F f mAa
m1 m2 m3 ,
Key : 1
50. Five persons A, B, C, D& E are pulling a cart of mass 100 kg on a smooth surface and cart is moving with
acceleration 3m/s2 in east direction. When person 'A' stops pulling, it moves with acceleration 1m/s2 in the
west direction. When person 'B' stops pulling, it moves with acceleration 24 m/s2 in the north direction.
The magnitude of acceleration of the cart when only A & B pull the cart keeping their directions same as
the old directions, is:
(1) 26 m/s2 (2) 3 71 m/s2
2
(3) 25 m/s (4) 30 m/s2
Sol : F m a
Key : 3
51. The linear momentum p of a body of mass 5 kg varies with time t as, p = 5t2 + t + 5
It follows that the body is moving with :-
(1) constant acceleration
(2) constant speed
(3)variable acceleration which is increasing with time
(4)variable retardation which is decreasing with time
dp
Sol : F
dt
Key : 3
52. An impulse is supplied to a moving object with the force at an angle 1200 with velocity vector. The angle
between impulse vector and change in momentum vector is
1. 1200 2. 0 0 3. 600 4. 2400
Sol : Impulse and change in momentum are in same direction hence the angle between them is zero
Key : 2
53. A ball of mass 0.2 kg strikes an obstacle and moves at 600 to its original direction . If its speed also
changes from 20ms 1 to 10ms1 .The magnitude of impulse received by ball is
1. 2 7 NS 2. 2 3 NS
3. 2 5 NS 4. 3 2 NS
Sol :
Vx 20 cos 30 10 cos 30 10 3 5 3 15 3
Vy 20sin 30 10sin 30 =10-5 =5
2
V Vx2 Vy2 15 3 52 700 10 7
Impulse = M V = 0.2 10
7 2 7
Key : 1
54. When a force 1N acts on 1kg mass at rest for 1s, its final momentum is P. When 1N force acts on 1kg mass
at rest through a distance 1m, its final momentum is P | . The ratio of P to P | is
1) 1 : 1 2) 1: 2 3) 1 : 2 4) 2 : 1
Sol : Case (i) F t P O
P 1kgm / sec.......... 1
25
Case (ii) F t P1 0 F p1
a
P1 2kgm / sec............ 2
P 1
1
From (1) and (2) P 2
Key : 2
55. An impulse “I” given to a body changes its velocity from ‘ v1 to v2 ’. The increase in the kinetic energy of
the body is given by
1) I v1 v2 2) I v1 v2 / 2
3) I v1 v2 4) I v1 v2 / 2
1
Sol : Increase in KE m V22 V12
2
1 1
m V2 V1 V2 V1 I V1 V2
2 2
Key : 2
56. A bullet is fired from a gun. The force on the bullet is given by F 600 2 105 t , where F is in newton
and ‘t’ is in second. The force on the bullet becomes zero as soon as it leaves the barrel. The average
impulse imparted to the bullet is
1) 9 Ns 2) Zero 3) 0.9 Ns 4) 1.8 Ns
Sol : F 0 t 3 10 3 sec ; I Fdt
t2
I 600t 2 105
2
600 3 10 10 5 9 10 6
3
= 1.8 – 0.9 = 0.9 N-s
Key : 3
57. A ball of mass 2 kg moving with a velocity of 4 m/sec strikes a wall normally and bounces back with the
same speed. If the time of contact between the ball and the wall is one millisecond, the average force
exerted by the wall on the ball is
1) 2000 N 2) 16000 N 3) 4000 N 4) 8000 N
2mu
Sol : F 16000 N
t
Key : 2
58. The force ‘F’ acting on a particle of mass ‘m’ is indicated by the force – time graph shown below. The
change in momentum of the particle over the time interval from zero to 8s is:
1) 6Ns 2) 24 Ns 3) 20 Ns 4) 12Ns
Sol : p = area under F - t graph =
1
2 3 4 3 12kgm / s
2
Key : 4
59. The momentum of a body in two perpendicular direction at any time t are given by
3t 2
px 2t 2 6 and Py 3
2 force acting on the body at t = 2S is
1) 5 unit 2) 2 unit 3) 10 unit 4) 15 unit
dp dp
Sol : F x iˆ y ˆj ; 4tiˆ 3tjˆ
dt dt
| F |t 2 s | 8iˆ 6 ˆj | = 10 unit
Key : 3
60. If the average velocity of a body moving with uniform acceleration under the action of a force is ‘v’ and
the impulse it receives during a displacement of “s” is “I”, the constant force acting on the body is given
by
I v 2I v I v I s
1) 2s 2) s 3) s 4) v
s
Sol : J F t , t
v
Key : 3
61. As shown in figure, a batsman deflects a ball by an angle of 45o without changing it’s initial speed
which is equals to 54 kmph. If the mass of the ball is 0.15 kg, then the impulse imparted to it is
(sin 22.5o = 0.382, cos 22.5o = 0.9239)
1) 2.08 kg ms-1 2) 4.16 kg ms-1 3) 8.32 kg ms-1 4) 1.04 kg ms-1
5
Sol : 2 45o , V 54 15
18
J P 2m u cos
2 0.15 15 0.9239 4.16 kg ms 1
Key : 2
62. In the figure given, the position-time graph of a particle of mass 0.1 kg is shown. The impulse at t 2
seconds is
1) 0.2 kg m/s 2) -0.2 kg m/s
3) 0.1 kg m/s 4) -0.4 kg m/s
Sol : Impulse = change in momentum mV
mx 04
0.1 0.2 kg / s.
t 20
Key : 2
63. In a one dimensional collision between two identical particles A and B, B is stationary and A has
momentum p before impact. During impact B gives an impulse J to A. Then coefficient of restitution
between the two is:
2J 2J J J
1) 1 2) 1 3) 1 4) 1
p p p p
Sol : Let p1 and p2 be the moments of A and B after collision.
Then applying
Impulse change in linear momentum for the two particles
we get,
For B: J p1 For A: J p p2
or p2 p J
Coefficient of restitution
p1 p2 p1 p J J P J 2 J
e 1
p p p P
Key : 1
64. A particle of mass m, initially at rest is acted upon by a variable force F for a brief interval of time T. It
begins to move with a velocity u after the force stops acting. F is shown in the graph as a function of time.
The curve is a semicircle . Then momentum of the particle is given by
F0T F0T F0T F0T
1) 2 2) 8 3) 4 4) 16
Sol : Area under F - t graph = Impulse
F0 T
mu
2 2 ;
F0T
u ; mu F0T
4m 4
Key : 3
65. The figure shows the position-time x t graph of one-dimensional motion of a body of mass 0.4 kg. The
magnitude of each impulse is
x(m)
0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14 16
t(s)
1) 0.4 N-s 2) 0.8 N-s
3) 1.6 N-s 4) 0.2 N-s
2
Sol : Initial velocity = 1m / s
2
2
Final velocity = 1m / s
2
Pi 0.4 N s ; Pf 0.4 N s
j Pf Pi
0.4 0.4 0.8 N s j = impulse
j 0.8 N s
Key : 2
66. If the average velocity of a body moving with uniform acceleration under the action of a force is ‘v’ and
the impulse it receives during a displacement of “s” is “I”, the constant force acting on the body is given
by
I v 2I v I v I s
1) 2s 2) s 3) s 4) v
s
Sol : J F t , t
v
Key : 3
67. A particle of mass m moving with a velocity u makes an elastic one dimensional collision with a stationary
particle of mass m establishing a contact with it for extremely small time T. Their force of contact
T T
, ,
increases from zero to F0 linearly in time 4 remains constant for a further time 2 and decreases linearly
T
,
from F0 to zero in further time 4 as shown. The magnitude possessed by F0is:-
Sol : area of Ft graph P
Key : 2
68. If a ball collides with a wall at an angle of 45° and rebounds perpendicularly with to its initial direction
then find the impulse acting on the ball:-
Sol : I P along x-axis
Key : 1
1
69. A body of 2kg has an initial speed 5ms . A force acts on it for some time in the direction of motion.
The force time graph is shown in figure. The final speed of the body is
1) 9.25ms1 2) 5ms1 3) 14.25 ms1 4) 4.25ms1
Sol: (3) Impulse = Change in momentum m v2 v1 ----(i)
Again impulse = Area between the graph and time axis
1 1
2 4 2 4 4 2.50.5 2 2.5
2 2
4 8 1.625 5 18.625 -------(ii)
From (i) and (ii), m v2 v1 18.625
18.625 18.625
v2 v1 5 14.25 m / s
m 2
70. A block of mass m is projected on a smooth horizontal circular track with velocity v. What is the
average normal force exerted by the circular walls on the block during its motion from A to B?
mv 2 mv 2 2mv 2 2mv 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
R R R R
Sol: (4) Change in linear momentum of block 2mv
Time taken move from A to B
R
t
v
P 2mv 2mv 2
Force exerted on the block
t R R
V
71. A ball of mass m moving with a velocity u collides a wall normally. The collision is assumed to be
elastic and the force of Interaction between the ball and wall varies as shown in Fig. Then the value of
F0 is
F
F0
t
0.5T T
1) mu/T 2) 2 mu/T 3) 4 mu/T 4) mu/2T
Sol: (3) Area under the force time graph is impulse, and impulse is change in momentum
Area of graph = change in momentum
1 4mu
TF0 2mu F0
2 T
72. A shell at rest at the origin explodes into three fragments of masses 1kg, 2kg and m kg. The 1kg
–1 –1
and 2kg pieces fly off with speeds of 5ms along x- axis and 6ms a long y-axis respectively. If the m
–1
kg piece flies off with a speed of 6.5ms , the total mass of the shell must be
1) 4kg 2)5kg 3)3.5kg 4) 4.5kg
Sol: (2) Resolve momentum 6.5m along x and y axes and equate.
6.5m cos = 5 × 1 and 6.5m sin = 6 × 2
(6.5m)2 = (5)2 + (12)2
6.5m = 13 m = 2kg
Total mass = 1 + 2 + 2 = 5kg
73. A 100g iron ball having velocity 10m/s collides with a wall at an angle 30o normal to the wall and
rebounds with the same angle. If the period of contact between the ball and wall is 0.1 second, then the
force experienced by the wall is
1) 10 N 2) 100 N 3) 1.0 N 4) 0.1 N
Sol: (1)During collision of ball with the wall horizontal momentum changes (vertical momentum remains
constant)
100g wall
10m/s
30 o
30 o
10m/s
Change in horizontal momentum 2 P cos q 2mv cos q
F
Time of contact 0.1 0.1
20.110 cos 600
10 N
0.1
74. A ring of mass m moves from point 1 to point 2along a smooth rigid horizontal wire with a constant speed
v. The average force acting the ring over the time of its motion from 1 to 2 is–
2mv 2 mv 2
sin
(1) R (2) R
2mv 2 sin
2
(3) R (4) None of these
P 2mu sin 2
Sol : Average force
t R
v
Key : 3
75. A coin is dropped in a lift. It takes time t1 to reach floor when lift is stationary. It takes time t2 when lift is
moving up with constant acceleration. Then
1. t1 t2 2. t2 t1 3. t1 t2 4. t1 t2
2h 2h
Sol : t1 ; t2 ;t1 t2
g ga
Key : 1
76. A monkey is descending from the branch of a tree with constant acceleration. If the breaking strength of
branch is 75 % of weight of monkey, the minimum acceleration with which monkey can slide down
without breaking the branch is
1. 3 g 2. g 3. g 4. g
4 4 2
3
Sol : Mg T Ma ; Mg Ma
4
Mg
Ma ; a g
4 4
Key : 2
77. In following figure , the pulley is mass less and frictionless . There is no friction between body and floor.
The acceleration produced in the body which is displaced through certain distance with force ‘P’ will be
P P P P
1. M 2. 2M 3. 3M 4. 4M
Sol : Since pulley is massless P 2T ; T P
2
T P
Acceleration of block = ; a
M 2M
Key : 2
78. A block of mass M is pulled along a horizontal friction less surface by rope of mass m by applying a force
P at the end of rope. The force which rope exerts on block is
P PM Pm PM
1. M m 2. M m 3. M m 4. M m
P
Sol : a ;
M m
MP
T Ma
M m
Key : 4
79. A lift is moving down with acceleration a. A man in the lift drops a all inside the lift. The acceleration of
ball as observed by the man in the lift and another man standing on the ground respectively are
1. g , g 2. g a , g a 3. g a , g 4. a, g
Sol : In non – inertial frame Pseudo force acts
Mg Ma
a1 g a
M
In inertial frame pseudo force does not acts a=0 ; a g
Key : 3
80. System as shown in figure is in equilibrium and at rest. The spring and string are massless now the string is
cut. The acceleration of mass 2m and m just after the string is cut will be
1) g/2 upwards, g downwards
2) g upwards, g/2 downwards
3) g upwards,2 g downwards
4) 2g upwards, g downwards
Sol : After string is cut FBD of m
a
mg
g mmg
m
FBD of 2 m
3mg 2mg g
a=
2m 2
Key : 1
81. In the arrangement shown, The acceleration of 12 kg and 4 kg block is
2g 4g 4g 2g 2g 2g 4g 4g
, , , ,
1) 7 7 2) 7 7 3) 7 7 4) 7 7
Sol : F BD of 12 kg
a 1
12 a1 12 g 2T 6 a1 6 g T 1
F B D of 4 kg T
a2
30 0
4a2 T mg sin 4a2 T 2 g 2
From T V cos 0 ; - 2TV1 TV2 0 ; V2 2V1
a2 2a1 3
1 2 6 a4 4 a 2 4 g 4
From 3 & 4
2g 4g
a4 ; a2
7 7
Key : 1
82. M is a fixed wedge. Masses m1 and m2 are connected by a light string. The wedge is smooth and the
pulley is smooth and fixed. m1 10kg and m2 7.5kg . When m2 is just released, the distance it will
travel in 2 seconds is
1) 2.8 m 2) 7.5 m 3) 4.0 m 4) 6.0 m
Sol: (1) F.B.D of m1 and m2
Equations of motion
1
For m1 : T m1 g m1a ----(i)
2
For m2 : m2 g T m2 a -----(ii)
m2 m1 g
2 10
From (i) and (ii), a m / s2
m1 m2 7
1
Hence distance travelled by block m2 in 2 sec; using s ut at 2
2
1 10 20
s 0 2 2
2
m 2.8m
2 7 7
83. All surface are smooth in the fig. The value of F for which the block of mass ‘m’ Remain stationary with
respect to wedge.
F
M m g Mg tan
tan F
1) Tan 2) F M m g tan 3) F 4) M
M m g
Sol : F B D w r t wedge on M
For m to be at rest w.r.t
mF
Wedge N sin
M M
F
and N cos mg ; tan
m M g
F = (M+M) g tan
Key : 2
84. Two fixed frictionless inclined planes making an angle 30 0 and 60 0 with horizontal are shown in the
figure. Two blocks A and B are placed on the two planes Relative acceleration of A with respect to B is
60 0 30 0
2
1) 4.9 ms in horizontal direction
2
2) 4.9 ms in Vertical direction
2
3) 9.8 ms in horizontal direction
2
4) 9.8 ms in Vertical direction
Sol :
60 0 0
30
3g
2
3g ^ 3g ^
aA cos 60 i sin 60 j
2 2
3g ^ 3 g ^
i j
4 4
g ^ g ^
aB cos 30 i sin 30 j
2 2
3g ^ g ^ ^
i j ; a AB a A aB 4.9 j
4 4
Key : 4
85. All surfaces are smooth. The acceleration of mass m relative to wedge is
1) g sin 2) g sin a cos
3) g sin a cos 4) a cos
Sol : Fr mg sin ma cos
ma1 m( g sin a cos )
a1 g sin a cos
Key : 2
86. A block Q of mass M is placed on a horizontal frictionless surface AB and a body P of mass m is released
on its frictionless slope. As P slides by a length L on this slope of inclination , the block Q would slide by
a distance :-
Sol : m1 x1 m m2 x2
Key : 4
87. A plumb bob is hung from the ceiling of a train compartment. The train moves on an inclined track of
inclination 30o with horizontal. Acceleration of train up the plane is a=g/2. The angle which the string
supporting the bob makes with normal to the ceiling in equilibrium is
2 3
1) 30o 2) tan 1 3) tan 1
4) tan 1 2
3 2
Sol : Drawing free body diagram bob Let m be the mass of the bob. Then, Fy 0
F x ma
T cos mg cos300 ; g
T sin mg sin 300 m
2
Solving 1 and 2 , we get tan 1 2 3
Key : 2
88. A block is placed on an inclined plane moving towards right horizontally with an acceleration
a0 = g. The length of the plane AC = 1m. Friction is absent everywhere. The time taken by the block to
reach from C to A is ( g = 10 m/s2)
1) 1.2 s 2) 0.74 s 3) 2.56 s 4) 0.42 s
Sol: (2) FBD of block w.r.t. wedge
Acceleration of block w.r.t wedge
mg cos300 mg sin 300
a
m
3 1
mg mg
2 2 3 1 g
m 2
1 1 3 1 2
Now from S ut at 2 ,1 gt
2 2 2
4
t 0.74S
3 1 g
89. In the arrangement shown, by what acceleration the boy must go up so that 100 kg block remains
stationary on the wedge. The wedge is fixed and friction is absent everywhere.
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
1) 2 m/s2 2) 4 m/s2 3) 6 m/s2 4) 8 m/s2
Sol: (3) For block to the stationary T = 800 N
If man moves up by acc ‘a’
a=0 T
T-mg=ma, mg sin 800N N
o
53
800-500 = 50 a a 6 m / s 2
90. n the figure shown a ring of mass M and a block of mass m are in equilibrium. The string is light
and pulley P does not offer any friction and coefficient of friction between pole and M is μ. The
frictional force offered by the pole on M is
M P
m
1) Mg directed up 2) μ mg directed up
3) (M – m) g directed down 4)μ mg direction down
Sol: (1) Here 'M' is in equilibrium. F So net force on 'M' must be zero.
f = Mg (upwards)
91. Consider the system shown in figure. The pulley and the string are light and all the surfaces are
frictionless. The tension in the string is (take g = 10 m s–2)
1) 0 N 2) 1 N 3) 2 N 4) 5 N
Sol: (4) If a is acceleration of m2 , then from figure
m2 g T m2 a
And T= m1a
From (i) m2 g T m2 a
m2 g T m2 a
m1a m2 a
m2 g m1 m2 a
1g 1 1 a
g 10
a 5ms 2
2 2
T m1a 1 5 5 N
92. In the below figure the blocks A, B and C of mass m each have accelerations a1 ,a 2 and a 3 respectively.
F1 and F2 are external forces of magnitudes 2mg and mg respectively. Then
1) a1 a 2 a 3 2) a1 a 3 a 2 3) a 1 a 2 , a 2 a 3 4) a1 a 2 , a 2 a 3
2mg mg
Sol: (2) Case I: a1 g
m
2m m g
Case II: a2 g
2 m m 3
mg mg mg g
Case III: a3
2m 2
Hence a1 a3 a2
92. Three blocks are connected as shown in figure on a horizontal frictionless table. If m1 1kg , m2 8kg ,
m3 27kg and T3 36 N , T2 will be
1) 18 N 2) 9 N 3) 3.372 N 4) 1.75 N
Sol: (2) T3 m1 m2 m3 a
36 18 27 a a 1m / s2
Now T2 m1 m2 a 1 81 9N
94. A wooden box is placed on a table .The normal force on the box from the table is N1. Now another
identical box is kept on first box and the normal force on lower block due to upper block is N2 and
normal force on lower block by the table N3 . For this situation, mark out the correct statement (s)
1) N1 N2 N3 2) N1 N2 N3
3) N1 N2 N3 4) N1 N2 N3
Sol: (3) Let the weight of each block be W ( fig s6.1111)
N3
So N1 N2
2
95. A force F is applied on block A as shown in figure. The contact force between the blocks A and B and
between the blocks B and C respectively are (Assume frictionless surface)
F 2F 6F 4F F 4F 6F
1) , 2) , 3) F, 4) ,
7 7 7 7 2 7 7
F F
Sol: (2) a
m 2m 4m 7m
Let normal force between A and B is N1 , then
6F
N 1 2 m 4 m a
7
N2 , then 4F
And between B and C is N 2 4 ma
7
96. Two Block’s M1 and M 2 are placed on smooth inclined plane as shown in fig. If they are released from
rest, tension in the string is
3kg 1kg
3g
2 2g 3 3
1) 2) 3) 4) g
3 2g 2
Sol :
3
m1a T m1g sin30 3a T g ----( 1)
2
3g
m2a m2 g sin 60 T a T -------( 2)
2
3g
1 2 a 0 T
2
3
m1a T m1g sin30 3a T g ----( 1)
2
3g
m2a m2 g sin 60 T a T --( 2)
2
3g
1 2 a 0 T
2
Key : 1
The blocks of mass 8 kg and 6 kg are connected by a heavy rope of mass 4 kg. An upward force 216 N is
97.
applied as shown in the figure. The Tension at the mid point of the rope is
1) 90 N 2) 120 N 3) 96 N 4) 72 N
Sol : On system
Fnet = 36N m = 18 kg a = 2ms 2
216N
T
2
8 kg a 2ms
10 kg
80N
8 kg
Fnet T 80 = 8 2 T 80 = T = 96N
Key : 3
98. A pendulum is hanging from the ceiling of a cage. When the cage is moving up with certain acceleration
and when it is moving down with the same acceleration, the
tensions in the string are T1 and T2 respectively. When the cage moves horizontally with the same
acceleration, 9tension in string is,
T12 T22 2 T12 T22
1) 2 T T
1
2
2
2
2) 3) 4) T12 T22
2
Sol : T1 m g a .......... 1
T2 m g a .......... 2
T m g 2 a 2 .......... 1
Squaring and adding eq (1) & (2)
T12 T22 2m2 g 2 a 2
2 2 2 T12 T22
T T 2T ; T
1 2
2
Key : 2
99. The acceleration of 3 kg mass in figure shown in ( assume g = 10m/s2
1
3 m / s2
1) 3 upwards
2) zero
2
16 m / s 2
3) 3 downwards
1
3 m / s2
4) 3 downwards
Sol :
F. B. D. for 3 kg
3g-20=3a
10 1
Downwards a 3 m / s2
3 3
Key : 4
100. Block B is moving towards right with constant velocity V 0 velocity of block A with respect to block B is
A
. . V0
B
V0 V0
left Right
1) 2 2) 2
3V0 3V0
left Right
3) 2 4) 2
Sol : TV cos 0
2T VA cos 0 3T VB cos 180 0
3VB 3V0
VA
2 2
3V V
0
V0 right o right
V AB V A V B 2 2
Key : 2
101. Two masses m2 1kg and m2 2kg are connected by means of a weightless pulley as shown in figure.
Assuming that both the masses start from rest, the distance travelled by 2kg mass in 2s is (Take
g 10m / sec2 )
20 40 20 1
m m m m
1) 9 2) 9 3) 3 4) 3
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
102. A bird is sitting in a large closed cage which is placed on a spring balance. It records a weight of 25N .
The bird (mass m 0.5kg ) flies upward in the cage with an acceleration of 2 m / s 2 . The spring balance
will now record a weight of
1) 24 N 2) 25 N 3) 26 N 4) 20 N
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 4
103. A chain consisting of 5 links each of mass 0.1 kg is lifted vertically up with a constant acceleration of 2.5
m/s2. The force of interaction between 1st and 2nd links as shown is g 9.8 m / s 2
1
2
3
4
5
1) 6.15 N 2) 4.92 N 3) 9.84 N 4) 2.46 N
Sol : F 4m g a 4 0.1 9.8 2.5
4 0.1 12.3 4.92N
Key : 2
A pendulum of mass m hangs from a support fixed to a trolley. The direction of the string ( i.e.., angle )
104.
when the trolley rolls up a plane of inclination with acceleration ‘a ‘ is.
1) Zero 2) tan 1
a g sin a
3) tan 1 4) tan 1
g cos g
ma mg sin
Tan
Sol : mg cos
a g sin
Tan1
g cos
Key : 3
In the figure, the ball A is released from rest, when the spring is at its natural (unstretched) length. For the
105.
block B of mass M to leave contact with ground at some stage, the minimum mass of A must be
B
M
1)2M 2) M 3) M/2 4) M/4
Sol : The spring will exert maximum force when the ball is at is lowest position. If the ball has descended
through a distance x to reach the position,
1
mgx Kx2 (1); Kx 2mg
2
For the block B to leave contact spring force
Kx Mg (2)
Key : 3
106. System shown in figure is released from rest. Pulley and spring are massless and the friction is absent
everywhere. The speed of 5 kg block, when 2 kg block leaves the contact with ground is : (take force
constant of the spring K = 40 N/m and g = 10 m/s2)
1) 2m / s (2) 2 2m / s
(3) 2m/s (4) 4 2m / s
Sol : T 2 mg , PE KE
Key : 2
107. A man of mass 50 Kg stands on a frame of mass 30 Kg. He pulls on a light rope which passes over a
pulley. The other end of the rope is attached to the frame. For the system to be in equilibrium what force
man must exert on the rope?
1) 40 Kg-Wt 2) 80 Kg-Wt
3) 30 Kg-Wt 4) 50 Kg-Wt
Sol : Force exerted by man on rope transfers to it in the form of tension.
Net upwards force on the system is 2T or 2F
Net downward force is (50+30)g=80g
For equilibrium of system,
2F=80g or F=40g
Key : 1
108. An elevator and its load have a total mass of 800 kg. if the elevator, originally moving downward at
10 ms -1 , is brought to rest with constant deceleration in a distance of 25 m, the tension in the supporting
cable will be g 10 ms 2
1) 8000 N 2) 6400 N
3) 11200 N 4) 9600 N
1
Sol : Given, 10 ms , v 0,
So using , v2 2 2as
2
0 10 2 a 25
a 2ms 2 (upwards)
Now , T 800 g 800a
T 800 10 2 9600 N
Key : 4
In shown figure m1 2kg and
109.
m2 4kg . The pulley is movable. At
t = 0, both masses touch the ground and the string is taut. A vertically upward force F = 2t [F is in newton
and t is in second] is applied to the pulley. The time when m1 is lifted off the ground is
F 2t
m1 m2
1) 10s 2) 20s 3) 3s 4) 4s
F
Sol : m1 is lifted off if m1g t 20s
2
Key : 2
110. In the adjoining figure, the tension in the string connecting A and B is:
g 8g 10g
1) g 2) 9 3) 9 4) 9
Sol :
Key : 4
111. If shown system is released from rest. Find the magnitude of work done by tension force on block B in
first one second.
( g 10m / s 2 )
200
J
1) 9 2) 16 J 3) 24J 4) 36 J
m m1
Sol : (i) Acceleration of blocks = 2 g
m2 m1
3 2
(10) 2m / s 2
3 2
(ii) Displacement of block B in one second
1 1
s ut at 2 0(1) (2)(1)2 1 m
2 2
(iii) Tension force
2m m 2(2)(3)
= 1 2 g 10 24 N
m1 m2 23
(iv) Work done = F.s = (24) (1) = 24 J
Key : 3
112. Two monkeys of masses 20 kg and 10 kg are moving along a vertical rope. The former climbing up the
rope with an acceleration of 2ms-2 while later coming down the rope with uniform velocity of 2ms-1. The
tension in the rope at the fixed support is(g=9.8 ms-b)
1)196 N 2) 294 N 3) 334 N 4) 490 N
Sol : T = m1 g m1a m2 g
= 20(9.8) + 20 (b) + 10 ( 9.8)
Key : 3
113. Two masses 5 kg and 3 kg are suspended from the ends of an unstretchable light string passing over a
frictionless pulley. When the masses are released, the pressure on the pulley is:
1) 8 kgf 2) 2 kgf 3) 15 kgf 4) 7.5 kgf
Sol : Considering free-body diagrams of the masses, we have
T 3g 3a and 5g T 5a
Solving for T, we have
T 15 / 4 g
F=Force on the pulley
15
= 2T 2 7.5kgf .
4
Key : 4
114. A lift is going up. The total mass of the lift and the passengers is 1500kg. The variation in the speed of the
lift is as given in the graph. The tension in the rope pulling the lift at t 11th sec will be
1) 17400 N 2) 14700 N
3) 12000 N 4) Zero
0 3.6
Sol : At11th second lift is moving upward with acceleration a 1.8 / s 2
2
Tension in rope, T m g a
1500 9.8 1.8 12000N
Key : 3
115. The system as shown in fig is released from rest. Calculate the force exerted on the pulley P2. Assuming
pulleys and strings are massless
2 5 2g
gN N
1) 2 gN 2) 3 3) 3 4) gN
Sol :
Key : 3
116. Two masses of 1 kg and 5 kg are attached to the ends of a massless string passing over a pulley of
negligible weight. The pulley itself is attached to a light spring balance as shown in figure. The masses
start moving during this interval; the reading of spring balance will be–
(1) More than 6 kg (2) Less than 6 kg
(3) Equal t o 6 kg. (4) None of the above
4m1m2
Sol : R
m1 m2
Key : 2
117. In the arrangement shown in figure, pulley is smooth and massless and all t he strings are light let F2 be
the force exerted on the pulley in case (i) and F1 the force in case (ii). Then
Sol : F1 F2 no difference
Key : 3
118. One end of massless rope, which passes over a massless and frictionless pulley P is tied to a hook C while
the other end is free. Maximum tension that the rope can bear is 840 N. With what value of maximum safe
acceleration (in ms–2) can a man of 60 kg climb on the rope?
(1) 16 (2) 6 (3) 4 (4) 8
Sol : T m g a
Key : 3
119. Two bodies A and B of masses 10 kg and 15 kg respectively kept on a smooth, horizontal surface are tied
to the ends of a light string. If T represents the tension in the string when a horizontal force F = 500 N is
applied to A (as shown in figure 1) and T' be the tension when it is applied to B(figure 2), then which of
the following is true :-
(1) T=T' = 500 N (2) T = T' = 250 N
(3) T = 200 N, T' = 300 N (4) T = 300 N, T' = 200 N
F
Sol : a ; T m2 a
m1 m2
Key : 4
120. A block of mass 25kg is raised by a 50kg in two different ways as shown in figure. What is the action on
the floor by the man in the two cases, respectively
1) 750 N , 250 N 2) 250 N ,750 N
3) 450 N , 250 N 4) 250 N , 450 N
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 1
121. Two bodies of mass 4 kg and 6 kg are attached to the ends of a string passing over a pulley. A4 kg mass is
attached to the table top by another string. The tension in this string T1 is equal to :-
(1) 19.6 N (2) 25 N (3) 10.6 N (4) 10 N
Sol : T 6 g; T 1 6 4 g
Key : 1
122. The elevator shown in fig. is descending with an acceleration of 6 m/s2. The mass of block A is 1kg. The
force between A and B is :-
(1) 2N (2) 4N (3) 1N (4) zero
Sol : N m g a
Key : 2
123. A constant force F = m2g/2 is applied on the block of mass m1 as shown in fig. The string and the pulley
are light and the surface of the table is smooth. The acceleration of m1 is –
m2 g
(1) towards right
2( m1 m2 )
m2 g
(2) towards left
2( m1 m2 )
m2 g
(3) towards right
2( m2 m1 )
m2 g
(4) towards left
2( m2 m1 )
Sol : m2 g T m2a ; T F m1a
Key : 1
124. A constant force F is applied in horizontal direction as shown in figure. Contact force between M and m is
N and between m and M' is N' then :-
(1) N and N' are equal
(2) N > N' (3) N' > N
(4) cannot be determined
Sol : f ma ; f m
Key : 2
125. Two forces of 6N and 3N are acting on two blocks of 2 kg and 1 kg kept on frictionless floor. What is the
force exerted on 2 kg block by 1 kg block?
(1) 1N (2) 2N (3) 4N (4) 5N
F F2
Sol : a 1 ; f ma
m1 m2
Key : 3
126. Three identical particles are joined together by a thread as shown in figure. All the three particles are
moving in a horizontal plane. If the velocity of the outermost particle is v0, then the ratio of tensions in the
three sections of the string is :-
(1) 3 : 5 : 7 (2) 3 : 4 : 5
(3) 7 : 11 : 6 (4) 3 : 5 : 6
mv 2
Sol : T
r
Key : 4
127. A stationary body of mass 3kg explodes into three equal pieces. Two of the pieces fly off at right angle to
each other , one with velocity 2i ms 1 and other with velocity 3 j ms 1 . If explosion taken place in 105 sec
. The average force acting on third piece in Newton is
1. 2i 3 j 105
2. 2i 3 j 105
3. 3 j 2i 10 5
4. 2 j 2i 105
Sol : P1 P2 P5 0 P3 P1 * P2 = 2i 3 j
;
P 2i 3 j 5
F
t
105
2
i 3 j 10 N
Key : 1
128. A man and a cart move towards each other. The man weighs 64 kg and the cart weighs 32 kg. The velocity
of the man is 5.4 km/hr and that of the cart is 1.8 km/hr. When the man approaches the cart, he jumps on to
it. The velocity of the cart carrying the man will be
1) 30 km/hr 2) 3 km/hr
3) 1.8 km/hr 4) zero+
Sol : According to the law of conservation of momentum m1u1 m2u2 (m1 m2 )v
Key : 2
129. A rope ladder with a length ‘l’ carrying a man with a mass ‘m’ at its end is attached to the basket of a
balloon with a mass M. The
entire system is in equilibrium. If the man begins to climb up the rope ladder
with a uniform velocity V relative to the ladder, then the velocity of the balloon is
mV
1) V 2) M
mV mV
3) 4)
( M m) ( M m)
Sol : Acc to law of conservation of momentum P final 0 , mV j ( M m)V B 0
mV
VB
( M m)
Key : 3
130. A person weighing 60 kg in a small boat of mass 140 kg which is at rest, throws a 5 kg stone in the
horizontal direction with a velocity of 14 ms-1. The velocity of the boat immediately after the throw is (in
m/s)
1) 1.2 2) 0.5 3) 0.35 4) 0.65
Sol : According to the law of conservation of momentum (200)V 5 14
70
V 0.35
200
Key : 3
131. A nucleus moving with a velocity v emits an particle. Velocities of the particle and the remaining
nucleus are v1 and v2 and their masses are m1 and m2 respectively
1) v , v1 and v2 must be perpendicular to each other.
2) m1v1 and m2v2 must be normal to each other
3) v1 v2 must be perpendicular to v
4) m1v1 m2v2 must be parallel to v
Sol : Total momentum remains constant both in magnitude and direction
Key : 4
132. A stationary shell breaks into three fragments. The momentum of two of the fragments is P each and move
at 60 0 to each other. The momentum of the third fragment is
P
1) P 2) 2P 3) 4) 3P
3
Sol : Use law of conservation of momentum
Key : 4
133. An object initially at rest explodes into three fragments A,B and C. The momentum of A is P and that of B
is 3 P perpendicular to A. The momentum of C will be
1) 1 3 P in a direction making an angle120 0 with that of A
2) 1 3 P in a direction making an angle150 with that of B 0
3) 2P in a direction making an angle 150 0 with that of A
4) 2P in a direction making an angle 150 0 with that of B
Sol : Momentum before explosion = zero
Momentum after explosion= zero
2
Magnitude of momentum of C=
3P P 2 2P
Direction at angle 150 0 with that ‘B’
B
3P
300
900
600
600 900 P(A)
300
C
Key : 4
134. A bomb falling freely from rest bursts after 10 s into two fragments of masses in the ratio of 2:1. The
velocity of heavier fragment immediately after the explosion is 200ms 1 vertically downwards. The
velocity of the lighter fragment immediately after the explosion is g 10ms
2
1) 100 ms-1 downwards
2) 75ms 1 upwards
3) 100 ms 1 upwards
4) 400 ms 1 upwards
Sol : Velocity just before bursting
V u at 0 gt 10 10
= 100m / s downwards ( take as positive
From law of conservation of momentum
mV mV 1 1 m2V2
2m m
m 100 200 V2
3 3
400 V2 100 V2
100 ;
3 3 3 3
V2 100m / s (negative sign indicates upwards)
Key : 3
135. A balloon with mass ' m ' is descending down with acceleration ' a ' a g . How much mass should be
removed from it so that it starts moving up with acceleration ‘a’
ma 2ma 2ma ma
1. 2. 3. 4.
g a g a g a g a
Sol : Mg Fb ma ……………….(1)
M M g Fb M M a ……..(2)
2Ma
M
Solve (1) & (2); g a
Key : 2
136. A man weighing 60kg is standing on a trolley weighing 240kg. The trolley is resting on frictionless
horizontal rails. If the man starts walking on the trolley along the rails at speed 1 m/s, then after 4 seconds,
his displacement relative to the ground will be:
1) 6m 2) 4.8 m 3) 3.2 m 4) 2.4 m
Sol : In order to conserve the momentum, the trolley starts moving backords. The backward
60 1 240 60
Momentum will be shared both by the man as well as trolley. Hence
60
0.20m / s
300
Resultant speed of the man with respect to the ground
0.80m / s 1 0.2 0.8
Displacement of the man = 0.80 4 3.2m
Key : 3
137. A bullet of mass 10 g is fired from a gun of mass 1 kg with recoil velocity of gun 5 m/s. The muzzle
velocity will be
1) 30 km/min 2) 60 km/min
3) 30 m/s 4) 500 m/s
Sol : Conservation of linear momentum gives m1v1 m2v2 0
m2 v2
m1v1 m2 v2 v1
m1
10
m1 10 g kg
Given, 1000
m2 1kg and v2 5m / s
Velocity of muzzle,
1 5
v1 500m / s
10 / 1000
Key : 4
138. A shell is fired from a cannon with velocity v m / s at an angle with the horizontal direction .At the
highest point in its path it explodes into two pieces of equal mass. One of the pieces retraces its path to the
cannon and the speed in m/s of the other piece immediately after the explosion is
3 3
v cos v cos
1) 3v cos 2) 2v cos 3) 2 4) 2
Sol : 2 mvcos mv cos mv1 ; v1 3v cos
Key : 1
139. In the given arrangement, for the system to remain under equilibrium, the ‘ ’ should be
1) 0 0 2) 30 0 3) 45 0 4) 60 0
1
cos
Sol : 2T cos 2mg ; 2 mg cos 2mg ; 2
Key : 3
140. A block of weight W is suspended from the mid-point of a rope whose ends are at the same-horizontal
level. The force required to straighten the rope is
1) W 2) 2W 3) W/2 4) infinitely
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 1
141. A1N pendulum bob is held at an angle from the vertical by a 2 N horizontal force F as shown in the
figure. The tension in the string supporting the pendulum bob
( in newton) is
2
1) cos 2) cos 3) 5 4) 1
Sol : Tan 2; T cos 1 ; T 5
Key : 3
142. In a smooth hemispherical shell of radius R, a rod of mass 2kg is placed horizontally and is in equilibrium.
The length of rod is 2R . Find the normal reaction at any end of the rod (in N). [Take g = 10 m/s2]
5
1) 7.07 2) 3) 5 3 4) 14.14
3
Sol :
N R 2Ncos 45o mg
mg 10
N o
2 2 14.14N
2cos 45 2
Key : 4
143. A smooth cylinder of mass m and radius R is resting on two corner edges A and B as shown in fig. The
relation between normal reaction at the edges A and B is :-
Sol : N A cos 600 NB cos300 mg
N A sin 600 N B sin 300
Key : 4
144. Two identical heavy spheres of equal mass are placed on a smooth cup of radius 3r where r is radius of
each sphere. Then the ratio of reaction force between cup and any sphere to reaction force between two
sphere is –
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) None
1 1
Sol : sin ; F
2 sin
Key : 2
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT-1
DAY – 21 (DT 02-05-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
CHAPTER: FRICTION
==========================================================================
1. Consider the situation as shown in figure. Choose correct option when
s 0.5 and k 0.5
1. The friction force on block is 1N. if m 0.1kg
2. The friction force on block is 5N if m 1kg
3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
k 0.5
Sol : s
When M 0.1kg
Fs s F 0.1 10
Applied force mg Fs and block will not move mg Friction When m 5kg
mg 50 N
mg Fs and block will move. Fk k N
= k F 0.5 10 5N
Key : 3
2. A 2kg block is in contact with a vertical wall having coefficient of friction 0.5 between the surfaces. A
horizontal force of 40N is applied on the block at right angles to the wall. Another force of 15N is applied,
on the plane of the wall and it right angles to 40N force. Find the acceleration of the block.
1) 2.5ms 2 2) 3ms 2 3) 4ms 2 4) 5ms 2
Sol : Resultant of W=20N and 15N
FR 202 152 25 N
Frictional force f N 0.5 40 20 N
This acts in a direction, opposite to 25N force.
Net force acting on the block, Fnet 25 20 5 N
5
Acceleration of the block a 2.5ms 2 .
2
Key : 1
3. S and is piled up on a horizontal ground in the form of a regular cone of a fixed base of radius is 10m. The
coefficient of static friction between sand layers is 0.1. The maximum volume of sand that can be piled
up, without the sand slipping on the surface is
100 3 100 3 10, 000 3 100 3
1) m 2) m 3) m 4) m
3 3 3 3
h
Sol : tan h R
R
1 1
Volume V R 2 h ; V R 3
3 3
1 100 3
0.11000 m
3 3
Key :4
4. A duster weight 0.5 N . It is pressed against a vertical board with a horizontal force of 11N . If the co-
efficient of friction is 0.5 the minimum force that must be applied on the duster parallel to the board to
move it upwards is
1) 0.4 N 2) 0.7 N 3) 6 N 4) 7 N
Sol : Fup f mg N mg
(0.5)11 0.5 6 N
Key :3
5. A man of Mass 40 kg rest between the walls as shown in the figure. If between the man and the walls
is 0.8 , find the normal reactions exerted by the walls on the man
1) 250 N 2) 150 N 3) 100 N 4) 50 N
N1 N2 0 ; N1 N2 N
Sol :
F1 F2 F
; 2 N mg
2 0.8 N 400
N 250 N
Key : 1
6. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C as shown in the figure. The coefficient of static friction
between the block and the cart is . The acceleration of the cart that will prevent the blocks from
falling satisfies:
mg g g g
1) 2) 3) 4)
m
Sol : 3
Key :
7. Given in the figure are two blocks A and B of weight 20N and 100N, respectively. These are being
pressed against a wall by a force F as shown. If the coefficient of friction between the blocks is 0.1 and
between block B and the wall is 0.15, the frictional force applied by the wall on block B is
1) 100 N 2) 80 N 3) 120 N 4) 150 N
Sol :
Assuming both the blocks are stationary
N F ; f1 20 N , f 2 100 20 120 N
Key : 3
8. A fireman of mass 60kg slides down a pole. He is pressing the pole with a force of 600N. The coefficient
of friction between his hands and the pole is 0.5, with what acceleration fireman will slide down?
g 10m / s2
1) 1m / s2 2) 2.5m / s 2
3) 10 m / s 2 4) 5m / s 2
Weight Friction force
Sol : Net downward acceleration Mass
mg R 60 10 0.5 600 300 5m / s 2
m 60 60
Key : 4
9. Mark the incorrect statement about the friction between two bodies.
1) Static friction is always greater than the kinetic friction.
2) Coefficient of static friction is always greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction.
3) Limiting friction is always greater than the kinetic friction.
4) Limiting friction is never less than static friction.
Sol :
fs
fs may be less than or equal to or greater than kinetic friction
Key : 1
10. If s , k and r are the co-efficient of static, kinetic and rolling friction respectively then
1) s k r 2) s k r 3) s k r 4) s k r
s k r
Sol :
Key : 3
11. A block weighing W is held against a vertical wall by applying a horizontal force F. The minimum value
of F needed to hold the block is ( 1)
1) Less than W 2) Equal to W 3) Greater than W 4) Data is sufficient
Sol :
Here applied horizontal force F acts as normal reaction. For holding the block
Froce of friction = Weight of block
f W R W F W
W
F ; As <1, F>W
Key : 3
12. An eraser weighing 2N is pressed against the black board with a force of 5N. If the coefficient of friction
is 0.4. How much force parallel to the black board is required to slide the eraser upwards
1) 2N 2) 2.8 N 3) 4N 4) 4.8 N
FR =f+mg = N+mg =0.4x5+2 =2+2=4N
Sol :
Key : 3
13. The friction force acting on block at t 4sec when F 10t
1. 50N 2. 30N 3. 25N 4. None
Sol : At t 4sec F 10 4 40 N ; Fs s Mg 0.5 10 10 50 N 40 N Fs the block will not move
Friction f 40 N
Key : 4
14. In figure, the coefficient of friction between the floor and the block B is 0.1. The coefficient of friction
between the blocks B and A is 0.2. The mass of A is m/2 and of B is m. The maximum horizontal force F
can be applied to the block B so that two blocks move together is …
1) 0.1 mg 2) 0.05 mg 3) 0.1 mg 4) 0.45 mg
Sol :
m
Here, mA , mB m
2
A 0.2, B 0.1
Let both the blocks are moving with common acceleration a . Then,
m g
a A A A g 0.2 g
mA
F B (mB mA ) g ( mB mA )a
And
F (mB mA )a B (mB mA ) g
m m
m (0.2 g ) (0.1) m g
2 2
3 3m 0.9
m (0.2 g ) (0.1) g mg 0.45mg
2 2 2
Key : 4
15. Coefficient of friction between blocks A and B is 0.4 . The blocks are given velocities of 2m/s and 8
m/s in the shown direction. The time at which when relative motion between them will stop.
g 10m / s 2
1) 1 sec 2) 3 sec 3) 2 sec 4) 4 sec
Sol : Here, friction between A & B will speeding up block A and speeding down block B.
fk k mA g 0.4 110
aA 4m / s 2 ; aB 2m / s 2
For motion of block A : VA 2 4t
For motion of block B; VB 8 2t
VA VB 2 4t 8 2t t 1sec
Key : 1
16. Coefficient of static friction between the two blocks in fig is and the table is frictionless. Maximum
horizontal force which can be applied on the lower block such that the blocks move together, is
m2
m1 F
smooth
1) m1 g 2) m2 g 3) m1 m2 g 4) m1 m2 g
Sol :
m2
m1 F
smooth
F F
Let common acceleration be a then a
m1 m2 m2
f max m2g So, F m m g
But max 1 2
Key : 4
17. Block A of mass 35kg is resting on a friction less floor. Another block B of mass 7kg is resting on it as
shown in figure. The coefficient of static friction between the blocks is 0.5 while the coefficient of kinetic
friction is 0.4. If a force F= 100N is applied to block B, acceleration of block A will be g 10ms 2
B F
1) 0.8ms 2 2) 2.4ms 2 3) 0.4ms 2 4) zero
m 7
Sol : The minimum force required to separate the blocks is P s mA mB B g 0.5 42 10 42 N
mA 35
F P
Both blocks will move separately
aB
F
fk
aA
fk
A
f k mA aA
f k k mB g 0.4 7 10 28 N
28 35 aA aA 0.8 ms 2
Key : 1
18. If the friction coefficient between blocks are s 0.52 and k 0.5 then in how much time the upper
block will loose contact with lower block. The bottom surface is smooth. The force acting on 2kg block is
20N.
1. 0.5 sec 2.1 sec 3.1.5 sec 4. 2 sec
Sol : Applied force 20 Fs two blocks move with differed acceleration
Fk k N 0 0.5 20 10 N
FBD of 2kg block FBD of 5kg block
20 Fk 2a1 Fk 5a2
a1 5ms 2 a2 2ms 2
a12 a1 a2 5 2 3ms 2
1 1
S a12t 2 ; 0.375 3 t 2
2 2
2
t 0.25 ; t 0.5sec
Key : 1
19. A 10 kg mass is resting on a horizontal surface and horizontal force of 80 N is applied. If 0.2 , the
ratio of acceleration without and with friction is g 10ms
2
3 1 4
1) 2) 2 3) 4)
4 2 3
F F k mg
Sol : Fnet ma, a1 , a2
m m
a1 4
a2 3
Key : 4
20. A car running with a velocity 72 kmph on a level road, is stopped after travelling a distance of 30 m after
disengaging its engine ( g 10ms 2 ) . The coefficient of friction between the road and the tyres is
1) 0.33 2) 4.5 3) 0.67 4) 0.8
2 2
Sol : v u 2 as
u2 20 20 2
u 2 2 gs , u, , 0.67 ; 0.67
2 gs 2(10)30 3
Key : 3
21. The rear side of a truck is open and a box of 40 kg mass is placed 5m away from the open end as shown
in figure. The Coefficient of friction between the box the surface below it is 0.15 . On a straight road, the
truck starts from rest and accelerates with 2ms 2 . At what distance from the starting point does the box
fall from the truck?(Ignore the size of the box)
1) 20 m 2) 10 m 3) 20 m 4) 5 m
1 2l
Sol : a a g , t
a1
25
t 20
2 (0.15)(9.8)
1 1 2
S at 2 (2) 20 20 m
2 2
Key : 1
22. A block A of mass 3 kg and another block B of mass 2 kg are connected by a light inextensible string as
shown in figure. If the coefficient of friction between the surface of the table and A is 0.5 . What
maximum mass C is to be placed on A so that the system is to be in equilibrium?
1) 3 kg 2) 2 kg 3) 1 kg 4) 4 kg
F mB g ; f (mA mC ) g
Sol :
mB g (mA mC ) g ; 1
2 3 mc
2
mc 1kg
Key : 3
23. A block is in limiting equilibrium on a rough horizontal surface. If the net contact force is 3 times the
normal force, the coefficient of static friction is
1 1
1) 2 2 ) 3) 0.5 4)
2 3
R N2 f 2 2 2
Sol : ; 3N N f
3N 2 N 2 f 2 ; 2N 2 f 2
2 mg m g ; 2
Key : 1
1
24. A block of weight 100 N is lying on a rough horizontal surface. If coefficient of friction . The least
3
possible pulling force that can move the block is
100
1) N 2) 100 3 N 3) 50 3 N 4) 50 N
3
1
(100)
s mg 3 50 N
Sol : . F 2
; F
s 1 1
1
3
Key : 4
25. What is the maximum value of force F such that the block, shown in the arrangement does not move
600
M 3 kg
1) 20 N 2) 10 N 3) 12 N 4) 15 N
Sol :
f R
FCos60 ( w F sin 600 )
FCos600
w0 3
F sin 60 1 3
F 10 3 F
2 2
F 20 N
Key : 1
26. A block of mass 1 kg lies on a horizontal surface in a truck. The coefficient of static friction between the
block and the surface is 0.6 If the acceleration of the truck is 5 m/s2, the frictional force acting on the
block is:
1) 5 N 2) 6 N 3) 10 N 4) 15 N
Sol: (1) Maximum friction mg 0.6 10 1 6 N
1 5
Pseudo force = 5 m / s2
1
So required friction force is only 5 N although maximum friction force available is 6 N
27. A mass m rests on a horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction between the mass and the surface is .
If the mass is pulled by a force F as shown in fig, the limiting friction between the mass and the surface
will be
F
300
3 F F
1) m g 2) mg F 3) mg 4) mg
2 2 2
Sol : FBD of block
0
F sin 30
N
f 0
F cos 30
mg
N = mg - Fsin 300 mg F / 2
Limiting friction N mg F / 2
Key : 3
28. A system consists of three masses m1 , m2 and m3 connected by a string passing over a pulley P. The mass
m1 hangs freely and m2 and m3 are on a rough horizontal table ( the coefficient of friction = ). The
pulley is frictionless and of negligible mass. The downwards acceleration of mass m1 is:
Assume m1 m2 m3 m
g 1 2 2g g 1 2 g 1 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
9 3 3 2
m1 m2 m3
Sol : a g
m1 m2 m3
1 2 g
m1 m2 m3 m
3
Key : 3
29. A body of mass 10kg slides along a rough horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction is 1/ 3 .
2
Taking g 10m/ s , the least force which acts at an angle of 300 to the horizontal is
50
1) 25N 2) 100 N 3) 50N 4) N
3
Sol:
0
Psin30
P
0
30 F=Pcos30 0
f
mg
(3) Let P force is acting at an angle 300 with the horizontal.
For the condition of motion F R
P cos 30 0 mg P sin 30 0
3 1 1 3P P
P 100 P 100 2P 100 P 50N
2 3 2 2 2
30. A block of mass M = 5 kg is resting on a rough horizontal surface for which the coefficient of friction is
0.2. When a force F = 40 N is applied, the acceleration of the block will be (g = 10 m/s2)
1) 5.73 m/s2 2) 8.0 m/s2 3) 3.17 m/s2 4) 10.0 m/s2
Sol: (1) A kinetic friction k R 0.2 mg F sin 30 0
1
0.2 5 10 40 0.2 50 20 6N
2
3
Fcos30 Kinetic friction 40 5 6
Acceleration of the block 5.73m / s2
mass 5
31. A block of mass 0.18 kg is attached to a spring of force constant 2N/m. The coefficient of friction
between the block and floor is 0.1 Initially the block is at rest and the spring is unscratched. An impulse is
given to the block as shown in the figure. The block slides a distance of 0.06m and comes to rest for first
N
time. The initial velocity of the block in m/s is v Then N is.
10
1) 8 2) 6 3) 4 4) 3
Sol : Decrease in mechanical energy
= Work done against friction
1 1
mv 2 kx 2 mgx
2 2
2 mgx kx2
Or v
m
Substituting the values, we get
4
v 0.4 m / s m / s ; N=4
10
Key :3
32. A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor. The coefficient of static friction is 0.4. If a force of 2.8 N is
applied on the block parallel to floor, the force of friction between the block and floor (taking g = 10
m/s2) is :
1) 2.8 N 2) 8 N 3) 2 N 4) zero
Sol : a) applied force F=2.8 N
b) frictional force f= mg
0.4 2 10 = 8N
c) F < f frictional force = 2.8
Key :1
33. A body of mass 60 kg is dragged with just enough force to start moving on a rough surface with
coefficients of static and kinetic frictions 0.5 and 0.4 respectively. On applying the same force, what is
the acceleration
1) 0.98 m/s2 2) 9.8 m/s2 3) 0.54 m/s2 4) 5.292 m/s2
Sol :
F f s f k ; ma s mg k mg
a g s k 9.8(0.1)
0.98 m / sec 2
Key : 1
34. A block of mass 10 kg placed on rough horizontal surface having coefficient of friction 0.5 , if a
horizontal force of 100 N acting on it, then acceleration of the block will be: (g=10m/s2)
1) 10 m / s 2 2) 5m / s 2 3) 15m / s 2 4) 0.5m / s 2
FR F f
Sol : Resultant force
ma=100- mg
100 0.5 10 10
a
10
A=5m/sec2
Key : 2
35. A box with weight 10 N rests on a horizontal surface. A person pulls horizontally it with a force of 3 N
and it does not move. To start its motion. A second person pulls it vertically upward.
The smallest vertical force for which the box moves, is :
1N 2) 2 N 3)3N 4) 4 N
Sol : To start motion of the box
Horizontal force Limiting static friction force
Here, normal reaction=mg-Fmin=10-Fmin
3 s (10 Fmin )
So,
3 0.5(10 Fmin ) ; 6=10- F
min
Fmin=4N
Key : 4
36. A block of mass 2kg on a horizontal table is connected to another block of mass 0.5kg by a light string
passing over a friction less pulley at the edge of the table. The coefficient of sliding friction between 2kg
block and table is 0.2. The system is released from rest. After 2sec of motion, the string was broken. The
Velocity of 2kg block after breaking the string is g 10ms 2
M=2kg
100cm
m=0.5kg
1
1)0.8 ms 2) 0.2 ms1 3) 0.4 ms1 4) Zero
0.5 10 0.2 2 10
Sol : a
2 0.5
54
0.4 ms 2
2.5
V 0 0.4 2 0.8 ms 1
Key : 1
37. A horizontal force just sufficient to move a body of mass 4 kg lying on a rough horizontal surface is
applied on it. The coefficient of static and kinetic friction between the body and the surface are 0.8 and
0.6, respectively. If the force continues to act even after the block has started moving, the acceleration
of the block in m s-2 is (g = 10 ms-2)
(1) 1/4 (2) 1/2 (3) 2 (4) 4
Sol: (3) The minimum force required to just move a body will be f1 = μsmg . After the motion is started, the
friction will become kinetic. So the force which is responsible for the increase in velocity of the block is
F = (μs – μk)mg = (0.8 – 0.6) x 4 x 10 = 8 N
So a = = = 2 ms-2
38. A block of mass m is kept on the floor of a freely falling lift. During the free fall of the lift, the block is
pulled horizontally with a force of F = 5 N. μs = 0.1. The frictional force on the block will be
(1) 5 N (2) 2 N (3) Zero (4) 10 N
Sol: (3) When free fall of lift normal reaction on block by lift floor will be zero. Hence no friction
39. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when given a velocity of 6 m/s is stopped by friction in 10 s.
Then the coefficient of friction is
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.02 (3) 0.03 (4) 0.06
Sol: (4) Applying v = u + at, we get0 = 6 + a x 10
⇒ a = - 0.6 m/s2
Alsoμmg = ma
∴μ = a/g = 0.6/10 = 0.06
40. The rear side of a truck is opened and a box of mass 20kg is placed on the truck 4m away from the
open end, = 0.15 and g=10 m/sec2. The truck starts from rest with an acceleration of 2m/sec2 on a
straight road. The distance moved by the truck when box starts fall down.
1) 4 m 2) 8 m 3) 16 m 4) 32 m
Sol: (3) Acceleration of box w.r.t truck
ma mg
2 0.15 10 0.5 ms 2
m
The box will fall of at time t then from
1 1
s ut at 2 ; 4 0.5 t 2 t 4 s
2 2
Distance travelled by truck
2
1 / 2 2 4 16m
41. An insect crawls up a hemispherical surface very slowly. The coefficient of the friction between insect
and the surface is 1/3. If the line joining the centre of the hemispherical surface to the insect makes an
angle with the vertical, find the maximum possible value
1) tan 1 3 2) sec 1 3 3) cot 1 3 4) cos1 3
Sol: ; N m g cos , f tan
(3) From FBD, friction f = mg sin
N
For the maximum possible value of , the friction becomes limiting friction, so
tan cot 3
42. A block of mass 2kg rests on a rough inclined plane making an angle of 300 with the horizontal. The
coefficient of static friction between the block and the plane is 0.7. the frictional force on the block is
1) 9.8N 2) 0.7 9.8 3N 3) 9.8 3N 4) 0.8 9.8N
Sol: (1) Limiting friction, Fs mgcos
Fs 0.7 2 10 cos300 12N (approximately)
But when the block is lying on the inclined plane then component of weight down the plane
mgsin 29.8 sin300 9.8N
It means the body is stationary, so static friction will work on it
static friction – applied force = 9.8 N
43. The upper half of an inclined plane with inclination ∅ is perfectly smooth while the lower half is rough.
A body starting from rest at the top will again come to rest at the bottom if the coefficient of friction for
the lower half is given by
(1) 2 tan ∅ (2) tan ∅ (3) 2 sin ∅ (4) 2 cos ∅
Sol: (1) For first half acceleration = g sin ∅
Therefore, velocity after travelling half distance
V2 = 2(g sin ∅)l ......................(i)
For second half, acceleration = g(sin∅ - μk cos ∅)
So 02 = v2 + 2g(sin∅ - μk cos ∅)l ......................(ii)
Solving (i) and (ii), we get μk = 2tan ∅
44. A given object takes n times more time to slide down 45° rough inclined plane as it takes to slide down
a perfectly smooth 45° incline. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the object and the incline is
(1) (2) 1− (3) 1- (4)
Sol: (3) From s = ut + at2 = 0 + at2 , t =
For smooth plane a = g sin θ
For rough plane, a’ = g (sin θ – μ cos θ)
∴ t’ = nt⇒ =n
( θ μ θ) θ
2
∴ n g (sin θ – μ cos θ) = g sin θ
When θ = 45°, sin θ = cos θ = 1/√2
Solving, we get μ = 1 −
45. A block of mass 3 kg is at rest on a rough inclined plane as shown in the figure. The magnitude of
net force exerted by the surface on the block will be (g=10 m/s2)
3 kg
30
º
1) 26 N 2) 19.5 N 3) 10 N 4) 30 N
Sol: (4)
N
f
15
3
30 30
300 2
N 15 3; f 15
Total force
2
15 3 2
15 30 N
46. A block of mass m is given an initial downward velocity v0 and left on an inclined place (coefficient of
friction = 0.6). The block will
1) continue of move down the plane with constant velocity v0
1) accelerate downward
3) decelerate and come to rest
4) first accelerate downward then decelerate
3
Sol: (3) f max mg cos 0.6 mg 0.52mg
2
mg
mg sin 0.5mg
2
Since, f max mg sin
Block will decelerate and come to rest.
47. A block of mass 4 kg is pressed against the wall by a force of 80 N as shown in fig. Determine the value
of friction force and block’s acceleration (take μs = 0.2, μk = 0.15)
(1) 8 N, 0 ms-2 (2) 32 N, 6 ms-2 (3) 6 N, 0 ms-2 (4) 32 N, 2 ms-2
Sol: (1) The FBD of the block is as shown in the fig
N = 80 cos 37° = 64 N
So, f1 = 0.2 x 64 = 32 N
As 4 g < 80 sin 37°, friction force will act downwards, Net applied force in upward direction (excluding
friction force) is80 sin 37° - 40 = 48 – 40 = 8 N
As Fapplied in vertical direction is less than fL , block will not move in vertical direction and value of
static friction force is f = 8 N
48. A force of 150 N produces an acceleration of 2 ms 2 in a body and a force of 200 N produces an
acceleration of 3 ms 2 . The mass of the body and the coefficient of kinetic friction are
1) 50 kg, 0.1 2) 25 kg, 0.1 3) 50 kg, 0.5 4) 50 kg, 0.2
F F fk
Sol : R
ma F f k
m 2 150 f k f k 150 2m
m 3 200 f k f k 200 3m
150 2m 200 3m
m = 50 kg; 50 2 150 f k
fk 50 N
k mg 50 N ; 50 m 10 50
k
k 0.1 ;
Key : 1
49. On the horizontal surface of a truck 0.6 a block of mass 1 kg is placed. If the truck is accelerating
at the rate of 5 m / sec 2 then frictional force on the block will be
1) 5 N 2) 6 N 3) 5.88 N 4) 8 N
Sol : FPS ma 1 5 5N
FL S mg 0.6 110 6 N
F FL , friction is 5 N
As PS
Key : 1
50. A bullet of mass 10 g moving horizontally with a speed of 400 m/s strikes a block of mass 390 g and
remains in it. The block slides 10m on rough surface before coming to rest. The friction coefficient is
1 1 3
1) 2) 3) 4) 1
4 2 4
Sol :
By the momentum conservation
mu M 0 m M v
10 400 10 390 v 10m / s
For the Combined block
From
v 2 u 2 2 gs
02 102 2 10 10
1
2
Key : 2
51. A car starts from rest on a 2km long bridge. The coefficient of friction is 0.5. Find minimum time to cross
bridge is (g=10m/s2 )
1. 20 sec 2.15 sec 3.8 sec 4. 20 2 sec
Sol : Due to friction , the car acceleration on road
F s Mg
F
Maximum acceleration on road = max s g 0.5 10 5
M
1 1
S ut at 2 ; 2000 0 at 2
2 2
5 2
2000 t ; t 20 2
2
Key : 4
52. A lift is moving downwards. A body of mass 2kg kept on floor is pulled horizontally and is in motion. If
coefficient of friction between body and floor is 1 , find the friction acting on body when lift is moving
2
2
down with acceleration 5ms in downward direction.
1. 5N 2. 10N 3. 15N 4. 20N
Mg N 0 Ma
Sol :
2 10 N 0 2 5
N 0 10 f N 1 10 5N
; 0
2
Key : 1
53. On a smooth table two blocks of masses 2.5 kg and 1.5 kg are placed one over the other as shown in
figure. If the coefficient of static friction in between two blocks is 0.2, the maximum horizontal force to
be applied on the lower block so that the two blocks move together is ( g =10 ms 2 )
1) 8N 2) 5 N 3) 3 N 4) 16 N
Sol : Fmax m1 m2 g
2.5 1.5 0.2 10 4 2 8 N
Key : 1
54. A vehicle of mass m is moving on a rough horizontal road with momentum P. If the co-efficient of
friction between the tyres and the road be , then the stopping distance is,
P P2 P2 P
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 mg 2 mg 2
2 m g 2 m 2 g
v2 P2
Sol : S
2 g 2 gm 2
Key : 3
55. An aeroplane requires for take off a speed of 108kmph the run on the ground being 100m. Mass of the
plane is 104 kg and the coefficient of friction between the plane and the ground is 0.2. Assuming the plane
accelerates uniformly the minimum force required is g 10m2
4 4
1) 2 10 N 2) 2.43 10 N
4
3) 6.5 10 N 4) 8.86 104 N
2 2
Sol : . v 2aS ; Fr F f
ma F mg ; F 6.5 10 4
Key : 3
56. A horizontal force is applied on a body on a rough horizontal surface produces an acceleration ‘a’ If
coefficient of friction between the body and surface which is is reduced to /3, the acceleration
increases by 2 units. The value of ‘ ’ is
1) 2/3g 2) 3/2g 3) 3/g 4) 1/g
F mg ma 2m
3
Sol : F mg ma ;
3
g
Key : 3
57. A block A with mass 100kg is resting on another block B of mass 200kg. As shown in figure a horizontal
rope tide to a wall holds it. The coefficient of friction between A and B is 0.2 while coefficient of friction
between B and the ground is 0.3. The minimum required force F to start moving B will be
1) 900 N 2) 100 N 3) 1100 N 4) 1200N
F FAB FBG mag m m g
Sol : AB BG A B
0.2 100 10 0.3 300 10
F 200 900 100 N
Key : 2
58. A block B is pushed momentarily along a horizontal surface with an initial velocity V. If is the
coefficient of sliding friction between B and the surface, block B will come to rest after a time
1) V / g 2) g / V 3) g / V 4) V / g
v v
Sol : a g v at o v at t
a g
Key : 1
59. A body of mass 5 kg rests on a rough horizontal surface of coefficient of friction 0.2. The body is pulled
through a distance of 10m by a horizontal force of 25N. The kinetic energy acquired by it is g 10 ms 2
1) 330 J 2) 150 J 3) 100 J 4) 50 J
Sol : KE = Total work done – work against friction
F S mgs 25 10 0.2 5 10 10 250 100 150N
Key : 2
60. A block of mass m lying on a rough horizontal plane is acted upon by a horizontal force P and another
force Q inclined at an angle to the vertical. The block will remain in equilibrium, if the coefficient of
friction between it and the surface is
1)
P Q sin 2)
P cos Q 3)
P Q cos 4)
P sin Q
mg Q cos mg Q sin mg Q sin mg Q cos
Sol : F N P Q sin
mg Q cos P Q sin
P Q sin
mg Q cos
Key : 1
61. A block of mass m is lying on a horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction between block and the
surface is . The minimum possible force needed to move the block on the surface is
mg mg mg 2 1
1) 2) mg 3) 4)
1 2
mg
Sol : a) F ……(i)
cos sin
Force ‘F’ to be minimum
( cos sin ) must be maximum
d
b) (cos sin ) 0
d
sin co s 0 ; Tan
1
c) sin ; cos
1 2 1 2
Key : 3
62. A block of mass m rests on a rough horizontal surface as shown in the figure. Coefficient of friction
between the block and the surface is . A force F=mg acting at angle with the vertical side of the
block pulls it. In which of the following cases can the block be pulled along the surface?
1) tan 2) cot 3) t an 4) cot
2 2
Sol : . a)
b) N=mg(1-cos ) =mg2 sin 2
2
c) Block compound will be pulled
mgsin f mg2sin cos N
2 2
mg2sin cos 2 mgsin2
2 2 2
cot
2
Key : 4
63. Consider the situation as shown. The maximum value of force F such that the block does not move
1) 5N 2) 10 N 3) 15 N 4) 20 N
Sol :
For maximum F; Fcos60=f
Fcos60= N
1 1
F [Mg+Fsin60]
2 2 3
1 F 3
F= 3 10+
3 3 2
F
=10; F=20N
2
Key : 4
64. A body is sliding down a rough inclined plane. The coefficient of friction between the body and the plane
is 0.5. The ratio of the net force required for the body to slide down and the normal reaction on the body
is 1:2. Then the angle of the inclined plane is
1) 150 2) 300 3) 450 4) 600
Fnet 1
0.5,
Sol : . Here N 2
Fnet mg sin f
N mg cos
f N
Fnet mg sin mg cos
Fnet mg sin mg cos 1
N mg cos 2
1
tan 0.5 ; tan 1 0
2 or 45
Key : 3
65. A block is released from the top of smooth inclined plane of inclination . Its velocity at the bottom of
plane is V. If it is slides down on a rough inclined plane of the same inclination, its velocity at bottom is
V 2. The coefficient of friction is
3 1 1 3
1) cot 2) cot 3) tan 4) tan
4 4 4 4
2
v 2 g sin s …………….(i)
Sol :
2
v
2 g sin g cos s (ii)
2
1
2 g sin s 2 g sin g cos s
4
sin 3
sin cos tan
4 4
Key : 4
66. Find the power of an engine which can draw a train of 400 metric ton up the inclined plane of 1 in 98 at
the rate of 10ms-1. The resistance due to friction acting on the train is 10N per ton.
1) 350 kW 2) 400k W 3) 440 kW 4) 500k W
Sol : P f mg sin V
1
10 400 400 1000 9.8 10
98
4000 40000 10
44000 10 watt 440 kw
Key : 3
67. A body of mass 10kg is lying on a rough inclined plane of inclination 370 and 1 2, the minimum
force required to pull the body up the plane is (g = 10ms-2)
1) 80 N 2) 100 N 3) 120 N 4) 60 N
Fmin mg sin f max
Sol :
mg sin mg cos mg sin cos
mg sin 37 0 cos 37 0
3 1 4
10 10 100 N
5 2 5
Key : 2
68. A small block of mass m is kept on a rough inclined surface of inclination fixed in an elevator. The
elevator goes up with a uniform velocity v and the block does not slide on the wedge. The work done by
the force of friction on the block in time t will be
1) zero 2) mgvt cos 2 3) mgvt sin 2 4) mgvt sin 2
Sol :
f mg sin
Displacement of the block in time t
x vt
2
Work done by friction f sin vt mg sin vt
Key : 3
69. Two blocks are connected over a massless pulley as shown in figure. The mass of block A is 10kg and the
coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.2. Block A slides down the incline at constant speed. The mass of block
B in kg is
1) 5.4 2) 3.3 3) 4.2 4) 6.8
Sol : Net Pulling force on the system should be zero, as velocity is constant.
mA g sin 30o mA g cos 30 o mB g
mA mB 5 3 3.3kg
3 mB
2
Key : 2
1
A particle is projected up a 37 rough incline with velocity v0 . If , the speed with which it returns
70. 2
v
back to the starting point is v. Then is
v0
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 5 2
V0 2 g (sin cos )s
Sol : : a)
b) V= 2 g (sin cos )s
V 2 g (sin cos )s
c)
V0 2 g (sin cos ) s
V 1 cot 1
=
V0 1 cot 5
Key : 3
71. The lengths of smooth & rough inclined planes of inclination 450 is same. Times of sliding of a body on
two surfaces is t1 , t 2 and 0.75 , then t1 : t 2
1) 2 :1 2) 2 : 3 3) 1: 2 4) 3 : 2
2l
tsmooth
g sin
Sol :
2l
trough
g sin cos
Key : 3
72. A body is allowed slide from the top along a smooth inclined plane of length 5m at an angle of inclination
2
300 . If g 10ms , time taken by the body to reach the bottom of the plane is
3 1
1) s 2) 1.414s 3) s 4) 2s
2 2
2l 2 5
Sol : t
2sin 10sin 30 0
2 1.414s
Key : 2
73. A box of mass 4 kg is placed on a rough inclined plane of inclination 60 0 . Its downward motion can be
prevented by applying an upward pull is F and it can be made to slide upwards by applying a force 3 F
.The coefficient of friction between the box and inclined plane is
2 3 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 2 2 2
F1 g (sin k cos )
Sol :
F2 g (sin k cos )
Key : 2
74. A block of wood of 1 kg resting on a inclined plane of angle 300 , just starts moving down if the
coefficients of friction is 0.2 its velocity after 5s is ( g 10 m / s 2 )
1) 12.75 m / s 2) 16.35 m/ s 3) 18.25 m / s 4) 20 m / s
mg cos mg sin
Sol : a 3.278 m / s 2
m
;
v u at v 0 3.278 5 16.35 m / s
Key : 2
75. A body is moving down a long inclined plane of slope37°. The coefficient of friction between the body
and plane varies as = 0.3x, where x is the distance travelled down the plane. The body will have
O 3 2
maximum speed sin 37 and g 10m / s
5
1) at x = 1.16 m 2) at x = 2 m 3) at bottom of plane 4) at x = 2.5 m
Sol : Here, = 0.3x
From figure,
Key : 4
76. A block of mass 15 kg is resting on a rough inclined plane as shown in the figure. The block is tied up by
a horizontal string which has a tension of 50N. The coefficient of friction between the surface of contacts
is (g=10 m / s2 )
T
450
1) 1/2 2) 2/3 3) 3/4 4) 1/4
Sol : The string is under tension, hence, there is limiting friction between the block and the plane. Drawing
free body diagram of the block.
N
f N
450
x T 50 N
y 0
45
0
45
mg 150 N
F x 0
N 50cos 450 150cos 450.... 1
N 50 2 ; F y 0
N 50sin450 150cos450 , f N
1
N 100 2 ;
2
Key : 1
77. Two blocks, 4 kg and 2 kg are sliding down an incline plane as shown fig. The acceleration of 2 kg block
is :
1) 1.69m / s 2 2) 2.69 m / s 2 3) 3.69 m / s 2 4) 4.69 m / s 2
FNet 6 g sin f1 f 2 1 3 3
Sol : 6a 6 10 0.3 4 10 0.2 2 10
2 2 2
1
a 5 3 3.268 0.577 2.69 m / s 2
3
Key : 2
78. A plank with a box on it at one end is gradually raised about the other end. As the angle of inclination
with the horizontal reaches 300, the box starts to slip and slides 4.0m down the plank in 4.0 s. The
coefficients of static and kinetic friction between the box and the plank will be, respectively:
1) 0.4 and 0.3 2) 0.6 and 0.6 3) 0.6 and 0.5 4) 0.5 and 0.6
1
Sol : a) s Tan Tan30 0.6
3
b) starting from rest
u 0;
1
s at 2
2
1
s g sin k cos t 2
2
10 1 3
4 k 16
2 2 2
k 0.5
Key :3
79. . A particle is projected along the line of greatest slope up a rough plane inclined at an angle of 450 with
1
the horizontal. If the coefficient of friction is , their retardation is :
2
g g g 1 g 1
1) 2) 3) 1 4) 1
2 2 2 2 2 2 2
Sol : The retardation a is given by:
g 1 1
a g sin 450 g cos 450 g
2 2 2
g 1
= 1
2 2
Key :4
80. A given object takes n times as much time to slide down a 45o rough incline as it takes to slide down a
perfectly smooth 45o incline. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the object and the incline is given
by
1 1 1 1
1) 1 2 2) 1 2 3) 1 2 4) 1 2
n n n n
1 1 o
Sol : tan 1 2 1 2 As 45
n n
Key : 2
81. A cube of weight 10N rests on a rough inclined plane of slope 3 in 5. The coefficient of friction is 0.6. The
minimum force necessary to start the cube moving up the plane is ( h
R
)
1) 5.4N 2) 4.8N 3) 2.7N 4) 10.8N
F mg sin s mg cos
Sol :
Key : 4
82. An object takes 1 second to slide down a rough 450 inclined plane of 0.5 . The time taken to slide
down a smooth 300 inclined plane having the same slope length is
1 1
1) 5 second 2) second 3) second 4) 2 1/4 second
5 2 2
2l
Sol : t1
g sin cos
45
0
2l 2l 4l
2
g 1 g 1 g
1
2 2 2 2
1 given (1)
2l
t2
g sin
300
4l
(2)
g
From equation (1) and (2)
1
4
t2 2 second
Key : 4
83. A block slides down a rough inclined plane of slope angle with constant velocity. It is then projected up
the same plane with an initial velocity v. The distance travelled by the block up the plane before coming
to rest is
v2 v2 v2 4 gv 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 g sin 2 g sin g sin sin
u2
Sol : smax
2 g sin k cos
v2
smax
2 g sin tan cos
v2 v2
sin cos 4 g sin
2 g sin
cos
Key : 1
0
84. A block is projected up a rough inclined plane of 45 with a velocity u. The block rises up and then comes
down sliding to have a velocity u/2 at the bottom. The coefficient of sliding friction between the block
and the plane is
1) 0.5 2) 0.6 3) 0.8 4) 0.45
u2
Sol : l (1)
2 g sin k cos
(While going up)
u2
l (2) (While coming down)
4 2 g sin k cos
From equation (1) and (2)
k 0.6
Key : 2
1
85. A 30 kg box has to move up an inclined slope of 300 to the horizontal at a uniform velocity of 5 ms . If
the frictional force retarding the motion is 150N, the horizontal force required to move up is
g 10 ms
2
2 3
1) 300 N 2) 300 N 3) 300N 4) 150N
3 2
F cos mg sin friction
Sol :
1
F cos300 30 10 150
2
F
300
3
F 300
2
2
F 300 N
3
Key : 1
86. A small mass slides down an inclined plane of inclination with the horizontal. The coefficient of friction
H
Cl
is 0 x where x is the distance through which the mass slides down and
H
a constant. Then the
H 3C
C C
C
CH3
COOH
speed is maximum after the mass covers a distance of
cos sin tan 2 tan
1) 2) 3) 4)
0 0 0 0
a g (sin 0 x cos )
Sol :
speed is max, when a 0
Sin 0 x cos ; x tan
0
Key : 3
87. A box of mass 50kg at rest is pulled up on an inclined plane 12m long and 2m high by a constant force of
100N. When it reaches the top of the inclined plane if its velocity is 2ms-1, the work done against friction
in Joules is (g=10ms-2)
1) 50 2) 100 3) 150 4) 200
1 2
Sol : w FL mgh mv
2
1
100 12 50 10 2 50 4
2
1200 1100
100J
Key : 2
88. A block of mass 2 kg rest on a plane inclined at an angle of 30º with the horizontal. The coefficient of
friction between the block and the surface is 0.7. What will be the frictional force acting on the block?
1)10 N (2) 23.8 N (3) 11.9 N (4) 6.3 N
Sol : tan
1
f mg sin 2 9.8 9.8 N
2
Key : 1
m
89. The coefficient of friction between a body and the surface of an inclined plane at 45 is 0.5. If g=9.8 2 ,
s
m
the acceleration of the body downwards in 2 is
s
4.9
1) 2) 49 2 3) 19.6 2 4) 4.9
2
Sol : a=g(sin - cos )=9.8(sin 45 -0.5cos 45 )
4.9
m / sec 2
2
Key :1
90. A brick of mass 2kg rets on a rough inclined plane making an angle 30 with the horizontal ( s =0.7). The
frictional force on the block is
1)9.8N 2) 0.7x9.8x 3 N 3) 9.8x 3 N 4) 0.7x9.8N
f d s mg cos
Sol : a)
3
=0.7 2 9.8
2
b) pulling force in the downward direction F=mg sin
1
2 9.8 =9.8N
2
f
F< s
Frictional force =9.8N
Key :1
91. The upper half of an inclined plane of inclination is perfectly smooth while the lower half is rough. A
body starting from rest at top comes back to rest at the bottom if the coefficient of friction for the lower
half is given by
1) sin 2) cot 3) 2 cos 4) 2 tan
as aR ; gsin =-g(sin - cos )
Sol :
2 sin = cos ; =2tan
Key :4
92. The lengths of smooth & rough inclined plane of 45 inclination is same. Times of sliding of a body on
two surfaces is t1 , t2 respectively and =0.75, then t1 : t2
1) 2:1 2) 2:3 3) 1:2 4) 3:2
2s
Sol : (a) t1 on smooth inclined plane
g sin
2s
(b) t2 or Rough inclined plane
g (sin cos )
t1 : t2 1 cot
(c)
3
= 1 1
4
1
=
2
Key : 3
93. A block is pushed up a rough inclined plane of 45 . If the time of descent is twice the time of ascent, the
coefficient of friction is
1) 0.6 2) 0.4 3) 0.5 4) 0.25
2s
Sol : a) td
g (sin cos )
2s
b) ta
g (sin cos )
1
c) td 2ta
sin cos
4
= 0.6
sin cos
Key : 1
94. A body is sliding down an inclined plane. If the normal reaction is twice that of resultant downward force
1
along the incline. Angle between in inclined plane and the horizontal is
2
0 0 0 0
1) 60 2) 30 3) 45 4) 90
Fd
Sol : N=2 ; mgcos =2mg( sin cos )
1 1 1
= tan ; tan = + =1; = 45
2 2 2
Key : 3
95. The system is pushed by a force F as shown in figure. All surfaces are smooth except between B and C.
Friction coefficient between B and C is . Minimum value of F to prevent block B from downward
slipping is
A B C
F m
2m 2m
3 5 5 3
1) mg 2) 3) mg 4) mg
mg
2 2 2 2
F F
Sol : Horizontal acceleration of the system is , a
2m m 2m 5m
C
a
Let N be the normal reaction between B and C.
2
Free body diagram of C gives N 2 ma F ;
N mB g
5
2 5
or F mg ; or F mg
5 2
5
So, Fmin mg
2
Key : 2
96. Pushing force making an angle to the horizontal is applied on a block of weight W placed on a
horizontal table. If the angle of friction is , the magnitude of force required to move the body is equal to
1) W cos / cos( ) 2) W sin / cos( )
3) W tan / s in ( ) 4) W sin / g tan( )
w
Sol : Fpush
cos sin
b) tan
Tan w
Fpush
cos tan .sin
sin
w
cos w sin
Fpush ;
sin
cos .sin cos( )
cos
Key : 2
97. A 500 kg horse pulls a cart of mass 1500 kg along a level road with an acceleration of 1 m / s 2 . If
coefficient of sliding friction is 0.2, then force exerted by the earth on horse is
1) 3000 N 2) 4000 N 3) 5000 N 4) 6000 N
Sol : From of friction F1 m1 m2 g
F1 0.2 500 1500 10
F1 2 2000 4000 N
Force producing acceleration F2 m1 m2 a
F2 500 1500 1 2000 N
F F1 F2
Total force 1
F = 4000 + 2000 = 6000 N
Key : 4
98. A wooden block of 100 kg is about to be pushed on a floor of coefficient of friction 0.4. What is the
magnitude of the force of friction on the wooden block when it is just pushed?
1) 392N 2) 294N 3) 196N 4) 490N
Sol : f mg =0.4x100x9.8 =392
Key : 1
99. A car is negotiating a curved road of radius R. The road is banked at an angle . The coefficient of
friction between the tyres of the car and the road is s . The maximum safe velocity on this road is:
tan tan g s tan g s tan
1) gR 2 s 2) gR s 3) 4)
1 s tan 1 s tan R 1 s tan R 2 1 s tan
V2 tan tan
Sol : tan V 2 gR
gR 1 tan tan
tan
V gR s
1 s tan
Key :2
100. A hollow cylinder of radius R rotates about its axis which is vertical. A block remains in contact with the
inner wall if the frequency of rotation is f hertz, but falls at lower frequencies . The coefficient of
friction between the block and the cylinder is
g g g 2g
1) 2 2
2) 2 2
3) 2 2 4) 2 2
2 f R 4 f R f R f R
2
Sol : N m R ; f N mg
g
m 2 R mg ; 2 2
4 f R
Key :2
101. A gramophone record is revolving with an angular velocity . A coin is placed at a distance r from the
centre of the record. The static coefficient of friction is . The coin will revolve with the record if
g 2 g
1) r 2) r g 2 3) r 4) r
2 g 2
2
Sol : . a) f mrw
g
b) f mg ; mrw2 mg r
w2
Key : 4
102. A conveyor belt is moving a constant speed of 2 m/s. A box is gently dropped on it. The coefficient of
friction between them is 0.5 . The distance that the box will move relative to belt before coming to
rest on it , taking g = 10 m/s-2 is :
1) 0.4 m 2) 1.2 m 3) 0.6 m 4) zero
V2 4
Sol : a) S ; S= ; S=0.4m
2 g 2 0.5 10
Key : 1
103. A coin, placed on a rotating turntable slips, when it is placed at a distance of 9 cm from the center. If the
angular velocity of the turntable is tripled, it will just slip, if its distance from the center is
1) 27 cm 2) 9 cm 3) 3 cm 4) 1 cm
2
r2 1 1 r2 1
Sol : ; r 1cm
r1 2 9 9 9
Key : 4
104. A body moves along a circular path of radius 10m and the coefficient of friction is 0.5. What should be its
angular speed in rad/s if it is not to slip from the surface? g 9.8ms 2
1) 5 2) 10 3) 0.1 4) 0.7
Sol : For moving on circular path without slipping, centripetal force must equal frictional force.
mv 2 2
That is, mg mr mg v r
r
g 0.5 9.8
r2 g; 0.7rad / s
r 10
Key :4
105. A car is moving on a circular level road of curvature 300 metres. If the coefficient of friction is 0.3 and
acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2, the maximum speed the car can have is
(1) 30 km/hr (2) 81 km/hr (3) 108 km/hr (4) 162 km/hr
2
v
Sol : ; v 2 rg
rg
0.3
v 300 10 ; v=30 m/sec
10
18
v 30 108km / hr
5
Key : 3
INCOMING SR BIPC CO SUPER CHAINA, SUPER CHAINA, N-40, N-CHAINA, N-SPARK
OBJECTIVE DAILY ASSIGNMENT – 13 Date : 17-04-2020
SUBJECT - PHYSICS
=================================================================================================
TOPIC :CAUSES AND TYPES OF FRICTION, METHODS OF REDUCING FRICTION, LAWS OF FRICTION, ANGLE OF FRICTION
1. The coefficient of friction and the angle of friction are related as
(1) sin (2) cos (3) tan (4) tan
2. A force of 98 N is required to just start moving a body of mass 100 kg over ice. The coefficient of static
friction is
(1) 0.6 (2) 0.4 (3) 0.2 (4) 0.1
3. The maximum static frictional force is
(1) Equal to twice the area of surface in contact
(2) Independent of the area of surface in contact
(3) Equal to the area of surface in contact
(4) None of the above
4. Maximum value of static friction is called
(1) Limiting friction (2) Rolling friction (3) Normal reaction (4) Coefficient of friction
5. In the figure shown, a block of weight 10 N resting on a horizontal surface. The coefficient of static
friction between the block and the surface s 0 .4 . A force of 3.5 N will keep the block in uniform motion,
once it has been set in motion. A horizontal force of 3 N is applied to the block, then the block will
(1) Move over the surface with constant velocity
(2) Move having accelerated motion over the surface
(3) Not move
(4) First it will move with a constant velocity for some time and then will have accelerated motion
6. The limiting friction is
(1) Always greater than the dynamic friction
(2) Always less than the dynamic friction
(3) Equal to the dynamic friction
(4) Sometimes greater and sometimes less than the dynamic friction
7. Which is a suitable method to decrease friction
(1) Ball and bearings (2) Lubrication (3) Polishing (4) All the above
8. Which of the following statement is true ?
(1) More force is required to start a motion than to maintain it against force
(2) Less force is required to start a motion than to maintain it against force
(3) Equal force is required to start a motion than to maintain it against force
(4) None of these.
9. Work done by a frictional force is
(1) Negative (2) Positive (3) Zero (4) All of the above
10. When two surfaces are coated with a lubricant, then they
(1) Stick to each other (2) Slide upon each other (3) Roll upon each other (4) None of these
11. If the smoothness of the surface in contact is increased, the force of friction is
(1) must decrease (2) must increase (3) may decrease (4) none of these.
12. To avoid slipping while walking on ice, one should take smaller steps because of the
(1) Friction of ice is large (2) Larger normal reaction
(3) Friction of ice is small (4) Smaller normal reaction
13. A block of mass 2 kg is kept on the floor. The coefficient of static friction is 0.4. If a force F of 2.5
Newtons is applied on the block as shown in the figure, the frictional force between the block and the floor
will be
(1) 2.5 N
(2) 5 N F
(3) 7.84 N
(4) 10 N
14. Which one of the following is not used to reduce friction
(1) Oil (2) Ball bearings (3) Sand (4) Graphite
15. A lift is moving upards with a uniform velocity v in which a block of mass m is lying . If the coefficient of
friction is , then the frictional force offered by the block is is
(1) mg (2) mg (3) 2 mg (4) Zero
16. Which one of the following statements is correct
(1) Rolling friction is greater than sliding friction
(2) Rolling friction is less than sliding friction
(3) Rolling friction is equal to sliding friction
(4) Rolling friction and sliding friction are same
17. The origin friction is due to
(1) adhesive force only (2) cohesive force only (3) both adhesive & cohesive force (4) None of these
18. When a body is moving on a surface, the force of friction is called
(1) Static friction (2) Dynamic friction (3) Limiting friction (4) Rolling friction
19. A marble block of mass 2 kg lying on ice when given a velocity of 6 m/s is stopped by friction in 10s.
Then the coefficient of friction is
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.02 (3) 0.03 (4) 0.06
20. If s , k and r are coefficients of static friction, sliding friction and rolling friction, then
(1) s k r (2) k r s (3) r k s (4) r k s
21. Which of the following is correct, when a person walks on a rough surface
(1) The frictional force exerted by the surface keeps him moving
(2) The force which the man exerts on the floor keeps him moving
(3) The reaction of the force which the man exerts on floor keeps him moving
(4) None of the above
22. When a bicycle is in motion, the force of friction exerted by the ground on the two wheels is such that it
acts
(1) In the backward direction on the front wheel and in the forward direction on the rear wheel
(2) In the forward direction on the front wheel and in the backward direction on the rear wheel
(3) In the backward direction on both front and the rear wheels
(4) In the forward direction on both front and the rear wheels
23. A block is in limiting equilibrium on a rough horizontal surface. If the net contact force is 3 times the
normal force, the coefficient of static friction is
1 1
1) 2 2) 3) 0.5 4)
2 3
24. If the coefficient of friction is 3 , the angle of friction is
1) 30 2) 60 3) 45 4) 37
25. A block of mass 5kg is lying on a rough horizontal surface. The coefficient of static and kinetic friction
are 0.3 and 0.1 and g=10ms-2. The frictional force on the block is
1) 25N 2) 15N 3) 10 N 4) zero
26. Two bodies having the same mass 5kg each have different surface areas 20m2 and 10m2 in contact with a
horizontal plane. If the coefficient of friction is 0.4, the forces of friction that come into play when they
are in motion will be in the ratio
1) 1 :1 2) 1 : 2 3) 2: 1 4) 1: 4
27. If the normal reactional force is doubled, the coefficient of friction is :
1) doubled 2) halved 3) not changed 4) tripled
28. When a wheel rolls on a surface, the resistance offered by the surface, i.e., rolling friction :
1) is greater than kinetic friction 2) is equal to the kinetic friction
3) is negligible in comparison to kinetic friction 4) none of the above
29. A man walks over a rough surface, the angle between the force of friction and the instantaneous velocity
of the person is :
1) 2) / 2 3) 2 4) zero
30. Frictional force increases when surfaces in contact are made very – very smooth. This is because
1) of molecular forces 2) of decrease in surface area
3) of decrease in irregularities 4) increase in area
KEY
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
3 4 2 1 3 1 4 1 4 2
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
3 3 1 3 4 2 3 2 4 3
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
3 1 1 2 4 1 3 3 4 1
Solutions :
1. (3) tan
F F 98 1
2. (4) 0 .1
R mg 100 9 .8 10
3. (2) the maximum statice frictional force is independent on area of surface in ciontact.
4. 1) maximum value of static friction is called limiting friction.s
5. (3) Fl s R 0. 4 mg 0. 4 10 4 N i.e. minimum 4N force is required to start the motion of a body. But
applied force is only 3N. So the block will not move.
6. (1) limiting friction is always greater then dynamic friction.
7. 4) ball bearings, lubrication,polishing are the methods of reducing friction.
8. Limiting friction f L f K , S K
More force is required to start a motion
9. (4) Work done by friction can be positive, negative and zero depending upon the situation
10. (2) Surfaces always slide over each other.
11. If surfaces are made too smooth by polishing the bonding force of adhesion will increase and so friction
decreases.
12. (3) to avoid slipping while walking on ice steps should be small due to friction of ice is small.
13. (1)Applied force 2 .5 N
Limiting friction mg 0. 4 2 9 .8 7 .84 N
For the given condition applied force is very smaller than limiting friction.
14. (3) Sand is used to increase the friction.
15. (4) the mass m is not moving with respect to the lift. Hence friction force acting in it is equal to zero.
16. (2) rolling friction is less than sliding friction.
17. The origin of friction is due to adhesive and cohesive forces
18. (2)when a body is in motion ,the force of friction is called dynamic friction.
u 6
19. (4) v u at u gt 0 0 .06
gt 10 10
20. (3) r k s
21. (3) the reaction of the force which the man exerts on floor keeps him moving..
22. (3) While pedalling the direction of friction in the backward direction on the front wheel and in the
forward direction on the rear wheel
2
23. Fnet fmax R 2 3R
2
3R 2
f max R 2
2
3R 2 f max
f max 2 R
R 2R
2
24. tan tan 1 3
25. It applied force is not present friction is zero
26. Frictional force does not depend on contact area
fL
27. Coefficient of static friction s
R
When R is double applied force F is also double
28. The velocity of point of contact w.r.t the surface remain 0 at all time.
29. When a man walks frictional force is responsible for motion so angle between frictional force is velocity is
0.
30. Distance between two molecules are in contact reducing the molecular force.
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT
DAY – 22 (DT 03-05-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
CHAPTER: WORK, POWER AND ENERGY& COLLISONS
=====================================================================
1. Consider the system shown in the figure. Coefficient of friction between the block and table is = 0.5.
The system is released from rest. Find the work done by friction, from the time the system starts moving
to the time when the speed of block is 10 m/s (m = 1kg)
1) -10 J 2) -20 J 3) -30 J 4) -50 J
KEY - 4
Sol: Acceleration of the blocks,
2mg mg 2
a g
2m m 3
2 0.5
10 5m / s 2
3
Since, v2 u2 2as , displacement
v 2 u 2 10 2 0 2
s 10 m
2a 2 5
Therefore, work done by friction
W mg s 0.5 110 10 50J
2. A force of 0.5N is applied on upper block as shown in figure. The work done by lower block on upper block
for a displacement 3m of the upper block is (Take g = 10 m/s2)
1) 1 J 2) -1 J 3) 2 J 4) -2 J
KEY - 2
Sol: Assume that the two blocks move together
Then, F m1 m2 a
F 0.5 1
Or a m/s
m1 m2 1 2 6
If f = force of friction between the two blocks, then for upper block m a F f
Or f F m1 a 0.5 11/ 6 1/ 3N
N1 m1 g 0.1110 1N
Fig:
Since f N1 , friction is static and out assumption that both blocks move together is correct.
Work done by lower block on upper block,
1
W fs 3 1J
3
3. A particle of mass 0.5kg is displaced from position r1 2, 3,1 to r2 4, 3, 2 by applying a force of
magnitude 30N which is acting along iˆ ˆj kˆ . The work done by the force is
1) 10 3J 2) 30 3J 3) 30J 4) None of these
KEY - 2
30 ˆ ˆ ˆ
Sol: F
3
i j k 10 3 iˆ ˆj kˆ
Hence, w F .r F . r2 r1
10 3 iˆ ˆj kˆ . 2iˆ kˆ
10 3 2 1 30 3J
4. Acceleration of a particle moving in x-y plane varies with time t as a tiˆ 3t 2 ˆj
2
Here a is in m/s and t in second. At time t =0 the particle is at rest at origin. Mass of the particle is 1 kg. Find
the net work done on the particle in first 2s.
1) 40 J 2) 34 J 3) 16 J 4) 48 J
KEY - 2
Sol:
dv adt tiˆ 3t 2 ˆj dt
v 2
dv tiˆ 3t ˆj dt
2
0 0
Or velocity after 2s is
v 2iˆ 8 ˆj m / s
Speed after 2s
2 2
v 2 8 = 68m / s
From work energy theorem.
1 1
W mv2 68 34 J
2 2
5. A force F 6 xi 2 y j displace a body from r1 3i 8 j to r2 5i 4 j . Find the work done by the
force
1) 0J 2) 2J 3) 3J 4) 4J
KEY - 1
Sol: given force F 6 xi 2 y j
Initial position r1 3i 8 j and final position r2 5i 4 j
s2 s2
We know work done W F .ds F . dxi dy j
s1 s1
6 xi 2 y j . dxi dy j 6 xdx
s2 5 4
W 2 ydy
s1 3 8
5 4
3 x 2 y 2 75 27 16 64 0 J
3 8
6. The displacement x of a particle moving in one dimension under the action of a constant force is related
to the time t by the equation t x 3 , where x is in meters and t is in seconds. The work done by the
force in the first 6 seconds is
1) 9 J 2) 6 J 3) 0 J 4) 3 J
KEY - 3
2 dx
Sol: x t 3 v 2 t 3 at t 0; v1 6 m / s and at t=6sec, v2 6m / s
dt
1 1
So, change in kinetic energy W mv22 mv12 0
2 2
7. A particle of mass 0.1 kg is subjected to a force which varies with distance as shown in figure. If it starts
its journey from rest at x=0, its velocity at x=12m is
1) 0 m/s 2) 20 2 m/s 3) 20 3 m/s 4) 40 m/s
KEY - 4
Sol: Area between curve and displacement axis
1
12 4 10 80 J
2
1
In this time, body acquires kinetic energy mv2
2
1
By the law of conservation of energy mv2 80J
2
1
0.1 v 2 80 ; v2 1600 ; v 40 m / s
2
8. A Block of mass 10kg is slowly slid up on a smooth incline of inclination 370 by a person . Calculate the
work done by the person in moving the block through a distance of 2.0m, if the driving force is applied
parallel to the incline and in the horizontal direction.
1)60J 2) 100J 3) 120J 4) 50J
KEY - 3
Sol: When force is applied parallel to incline : As block moves slowly,
3
F mg sin 370 10 10 60 N
5
Work done , W F .d F .d cos 00 60 2 120 J
b) When force is applied horizontally. As block moves slowly
F cos mg sin
3
F mg tan 100 75N
4
4
work done by F, WF F.d cos 75 2 120 N
5
9. Two identical cylindrical vessels with their bases at same level each contains a liquid of density r. The
height of the liquid in one vessel is h1 and that in the other vessel is h2 . The area of either base is A. The
work done by gravity in equalizing the levels when the two vessels are connected is
1 2 1 2
1) h1 h2 g 2) h1 h2 gA 3) h1 h2 gA 4) h1 h2 gA
2 4
KEY - 4
Sol: If h is the common height when they are connected, by conservation of mass
A1 h1 A2 h2 h A1 A2
;
h h1 h2 / 2 [as A1 A2 = A given]
As h1 / 2 and h2 / 2 are heights of initial centre of gravity of liquid in two vessels, the initial potential
energy of the system
h1 h2
U i h1 A g h2 A g gA
h12 h22
-----(i)
2 2 2
When vessels are connected, the height of the centre of gravity of liquid in vessel will be h/2, i.e.,
h1 h2
[as h h1 h2 / 2 ]
4
h h h h
Final potential energy of the system, U F 1 2 A g 1 2
2 4
h1 h2 2
A g
4
1 2
Work done by gravity W Ui U f gA 2 h12 h22 h1 h2
2
1 2
A g h1 h2
4
10. The potential energy of a system is represented in the first figure, the force acting on the system will be
represented by
1) 2) 3) 4)
KEY - 3
Sol: As slope of problem graph is positive and constant upto certain distance and then it becomes zero.
dU
So from F , upto distance a, F= constant (negative) and becomes zero suddenly.
dt
11. The potential energy of a particle varies with position x according to the relation U(x)= x2- 4x. The point x =
2 is a point of
1) stable equilibrium 2) Unstable equilibrium 3) Neutral equilibrium 4) None of the above
KEY - 1
Sol: U x x2 4x
dU d 2U
2 x 4 and 2 2
dx dx
dU d 2U
At x 2 , 0 and is positive
dx dx 2
Therefore, at x 2 , U(x) is minimum and is a point of stable equilibrium
a b
12. A particle located in a one-dimensional potential field has its potential energy function as U x ,
x 4 x2
where a and b are positive constants. The position of equilibrium x corresponds to
b 2a 2b a
1) 2) 3) 4)
2a b a 2a
KEY - 2
Sol: The position of equilibrium corresponds to F(x)=0
dU x
Since F x
dx
d a b 4a 2b
So F x 2 2 or F x 5 3
dx x x x x
For equilibrium, F x 0 , therefore
4a 2b 2a
5
3 0 x
x x b
2
d U x 20a 8b
2
6 4
dx x x
2a d 2U x
Putting x gives as negative
6 dx 2
So U is maximum. Hence it is position of unstable equilibrium
1
13. The potential energy of mass m is given by U kx 2 for x < 0 and U = 0 for x 0 . If total mechanical
2
2E
energy of the particle is E, its speed at x is
k
2E E E
1) Zero 2) 3) 4)
m m 2m
KEY - 2
Sol: E U K
2E
Since, U = 0 for x 0 , at x ,U=0
k
1
E 0 mv 2
2
2E
v
m
14. A particle of mass m moving with a speed u strikes a smooth horizontal surface at an angle 450. The particle
1
rebounds at an angle with speed v. If coefficient of restitution is , then angle is
3
m v
u m
450
1) 300 2) 450 3) 600 4) 370
KEY - 1
Sol: Since, there will be o change in velocity along horizontal, we have
u cos 450 v cos ....(1)
Along vertical direction, we have
v sin eu sin 450 ....(2)
From (1) and (2), we get
1
tan e tan 450 1
3
300
15. A projectile is fired on a horizontal ground. Coefficient of restitution between the projectile and the ground is
T H R
e. Let a, b and c be the ratio of time of fight 1 maximum height 1 and horizontal range 1 in
T2 H2 R2
first two collisions with the ground. Then
1 1 1
1) a 2 2) b 2 3) c 2 4) All of these
e e e
KEY - 2
Sol: In collision horizontal component u X remains unchanged while the vertical component u y becomes e u y .
Now :
2u sin 2u y
T
g g
T1 1
Or T uy
T2 e
2
u 2 sin u y H1 1
H u 2y
2g 2g H 2 e2
2
u sin 2 2u x u y R1 1
R uy
g g R2 e
16. A body X with a momentum p collides with another identical stationary body Y one dimensionally.
During the collision Y gives an impulse J to body X. Then coefficient of restitution is
2J J J J
1) 1 2) 1 3) 1 4) 1
p p p 2p
KEY - 1
Sol: u1 p / m, u 2 0, v1 p J / m , v2 J / m
v2 v1
Now apply e
u1 u2
17. A mass ‘m’ moves with a velocity v and collides in elastically with another identical mass. After
v
collision the 1st mass moves with velocity in a direction perpendicular to the initial direction of
3
motion. Find the speed of the 2nd mass after collision.
2 v
1) v 2) 3) v 4) 3 v
3 3
Sol : Let mass A moves with velocity v and collides inelastically with mass B, which is a rest.
According to problem amass A moves in a perpendicular direction and let the mass B moves at angle
with the horizontal with velocity v.
Initial horizontal momentum of system (before collision) mv ----(i)
Final horizontal momentum of system (after collision) mV cos -----(ii)
From the conservation of horizontal linear momentum mV mV cos v V cos ------(iii)
Initial vertical momentum of system (before collision) is zero.
mv
Final vertical momentum of system mV sin
3
From the conservation of vertical linear momentum
mv v
mV sin 0 V sin -----(iv)
3 3
By solving (iii) and (iv)
v2
v V 2 sin 2 cos2
2
3
4v 2 2
V2 V v
3 3
Key :1
18. Body A of mass m and B of mass 3m move towards each other with velocities V and 2V respectively
from the positions as shown, along a smooth horizontal circular track of radius r. After the first elastic
collision, they will collide again after the time
2 r r r 2 r
1) 2) 3) q 4)
V 2V V 3V
Velocity of separation
Sol : e 1
2V V
Velocity of separation 3V
2 r
Required time
3V
Key :4
19.
The velocity vector of a sphere after it hits a vertical wall which is parallel to ĵ is iˆ 3 ˆj on a smooth
horizontal surface. The coefficient of restitution between sphere and wall is (1/2). Find the velocity
vector of sphere immediately before collision
1) iˆ 3 ˆj 2) 2iˆ 3 ˆj 3) iˆ 3 ˆj 4) 2iˆ 3 ˆj
Sol
: Component of velocity parallel to wall will remain unchanged. 3 ˆj will remains same. iˆ component
1
will become iˆ iˆ 2
e
Velocity vector of sphere immediately before collision 2iˆ 3 ˆj
Key :4
20. An inelastic ball of mass m moves at speed u toward another inelastic ball of mass m at rest. They
collide and stick together, both moving at speed v. Nothing else is known about the conditions under
which the collision takes place. Which of the following statements is the most correct?
1) Neither total kinetic energy nor total linear momentum can be conserved
2) This is an elastic collision in which both total kinetic energy and total linear momentum are
conserved; the final speed is v=u/2.
3) This an inelastic collision, and in such collisions, total linear momentum is always conserved the final
speed is v=u/4
4) This is inelastic collision in which total linear momentum is conserved, provided no external force
can deliver an impulse to the system (of two balls) during the collision
Sol : Both the balls collide and stick together, so it sis perfectly inelastic collision
If no internal impulsive forces as present, then by momentum of conservation mu 0 m m v ;
u
v
2
Key :2
21. The ratio of momentum and kinetic energy of particle is inversely proportional to the time. Then, this is
the case of a
1) uniformly accelerated motion 2) uniform motion
3) uniformly retarded motion 4) simple harmonic motion
KEY - 1
1
Sol: The ratio of momentum (=mv) and kinetic energy (= mv2)
2
in inversely proportional to time ie:-
mv 1 t
v [k = constant of proportionality]
1 2 t 2 k
mv
2
differentiate both sides wrt to time,
dv 1
a as a = constant ⇒ uniformly accelerated. motion.
dt 2k
22. The force acting on a 8kg body moving along x-axis varies as shown in figure. The velocity of the body at x
= 0 is 1 m/s. The maximum kinetic energy acquired by the particle is
F
4N
x
1m 2m 3m
4N
1) 8 J 2) 12 J 3) 6 J 4) 16 J
KEY - 3
Sol: After x = 1m, work done is negative
So, KE will be maximum at x = 1m
1 2
At x 0 , initial KE, K1 8 1 4 J
2
If K 2 is KE at x 1m , then
K 2 K1 W area under the curve from x =0 to x = 1m
1
K 2 4 1 4 2 K 2 6 J
2
23. A bullet whose mass is m penetrates a thickness S of a fixed plate of mass M. If M were free to move. The
thickness penetrated will be
SM Sm SM Sm
1) 2) 3) 4)
m M m M m M
KEY - 3
Sol: Let initial velocity of the shot be u and P denote the force of resistance of penetration. In the 1st case plate is
fixed
1
0 mu 2 PS ...(i)
2
In the 2nd case plate is free to move. The shot will penetrate up to both acquire a common velocity V (say)
There will be no further penetration thus P ceases to act
1 1
M mV 2 mu 2 PS ' ...(ii)
2 2
And M m V mu ...(iii)
Solving the above equations , we get
SM
S'
M m
24. A block of mass m is released from rest from point A as shown in fig (a), (b) and (c). The velocity of the
block at the lowest point are vD , vE , vF respectively Assume coefficient of kinetic friction between surface
and the block is same is all cases. Then.
A A A
y y y
x D x E x F
A B C
1) vD vE vF 2) vF vE vD 3) vD vE vF 4) vE vD vF
KEY - 3
Sol:
s
y
x
Work done by friction = mg cos s
mg x
And is independent of y and .
Work done by gravity = mg h
Since, x and y in all the three cases is same, the work done by gravity and friction and hence increase in
KE in all cases is same
25. The kinetic energy (KE) versus time graph for a particle moving along a straight line is as shown in the
figure. The force versus time graph for the particle may be
KE
time
F F F
F
time
1) time 2) 3) time 4) time
KEY - 4
Sol: KE K t
1
K mv2 t
2
1/ 2
2 1/
v t
m
dv 1
a a
dt t
1
F ma F
t
26. A man is standing on a cart of mass double the mass of man. Initially, cart is at rest. Now, man jumps
horizontally with velocity u relative to cart. Then work done by man during the process of jumping will be
mu 2 3mu 2 mu 2
1) 2) 3) mu2 4)
2 4 3
KEY - 4
Sol: Let v1 velocity of man w.r.t ground towards right
v2 velocity of cart w.r.t ground towards left
Then , v1 v2 u
Also, by conservation of linear momentum
mv1 2mv2
On solving, we get v1 2u / 3 and v2 u / 3
1 2 1 2
Wman KE mv1 2m v2
2 2
2 2
m 2u u mu
2
2
2 3 3 3
26. Block A is hanging from a vertical spring and is at rest. Block B strikes the block A with velocity V and
sticks to it. Then the value of v for which the spring just attains natural length is
5mg 2 6mg 2 4mg 2 8mg 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
k k k k
KEY - 2
v
Sol: mv 2mv ' v '
2
2
1 v 1
2m 2mgx kx 2
2 2 2
mg
Where kx mg x
k
6mg 2
Solving, we get v
k
27. In figure, m1 and m2 <m1 are joined together by a pulley. When the mass m1 is released from the height h
above the floor, it strikes the floor with a speed
m m2 2m2 gh 2m1 gh
1) 2 gh 1 2) 2gh 3) 4)
m1 m2 m1 m2 m1 m2
KEY - 1
m m2
Sol: a 1 g Now, v2 u2 2as
m1 m2
m m2
v 2 02 2 1 gh
m1 m2
m m2
v 2 gh 1
m1 m2
28. A block of mass m is released from a height h from the top of a smooth surface. There is an ideal spring of
spring constant k at the bottom of the track. Find the maximum compression in the spring (Wedge is fixed)
aa
2mgh mgh mgh
1) 2) 3) 4) Cannot be determined
k k 2k
KEY - 1
Sol: At the maximum compression xm , the speed of block is zero
Appling conservation of mechanical energy
We have
U gravity U spring K 0
1
mgh kxm2 0 0
2
2 mgh
km
k
29. A spring block system is placed on a rough horizontal surface having coefficient of friction m . The
spring is given initial elongation 3mmg / k (where m=mass of block and k=spring constant) and the
block is released from rest. For the subsequent motion, find Maximum speed of the block
m m m m
1) 2 g 2) g 3) 3 g 4) 4 g
K K K K
KEY - 1
Sol: From Newton’s second law, we get
ma 3mg mg a 2 g
From work energy principle Wspring W f 0
1
k x02 x12 mg x1 x0 0
2
2 mg mg
x0 x1 x1
k k
Speed will be maximum where net forces is zero mg kx
mg
x (extension)
k
Now from work- energy principle, we have
2
1 mg 2 2 2 mg 1
k 3 1 mg mv 2
2 k k 2
m
Solving we get, v 2 g
k
30. A block of mass m initially at rest is dropped from a height h on to a spring of force constant k. The
maximum compression in the spring is x then
1 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
1) mgh kx 2) mg h x kx 3) mgh k x h 4) mg h x k x h
2 2 2 2
KEY - 2
Sol: Change in gravitational potential energy = Elastic potential energy stored in compressed spring
1
mg h x kx 2
2
31. A particle is given an initial speed u inside a smooth spherical shell of radius R = 1m that it is just able to
complete the circle. Acceleration of the particle when its velocity is vertical is
1) g 10 2) g 3) g 2 4) 3g
KEY - 1
Sol: Since the body is given just enough speed to complete the vertical circle
u 5 gR
When the velocity v is vertical, v 3 gR
From F.B.D,
v
v2 N
R
mg
v 2 3 gR
aH 3g
R R
aV g
2
a aH2 aV2 3g g 2 g 10
32. An object of mass m is projected at an angle 600 and with velocity u. Its kinetic energy, when it has
completed horizontal distance equal to one-third of its range, is
1) 1/ 3mu 2 2) 2 / 3mu 2 3) 1/ 6mu2 4) 1/ 4mu2
KEY - 3
Sol: From equation of trajectory
g 2
y tan 2 2 x
2u cos
On putting
0 R u2 u2
60 and x sin 2 , we get
3 3g 2 3g
2
u2 g u2
y 3
2 3 g 2u 2 1 2 3 g
4
2 2 2
u u u
2 g 6 g 3g
Loss in KE = Gain in PE = mg y
u 2 mu 2
mg
3g 3
1 2 1 2 1 2
KE mu mu mu
2 3 6
33. A smooth sphere of radius R is made to translate in a straight line with a constant acceleration a = g. A
particle kept on the top of the sphere is released from there at zero velocity with respect to the sphere. The
speed of particle with respect to the sphere as a function of angle as it slides down is
Rg sin cos
1) 2) Rg 1 cos sin
2
3) 4 Rg sin 4) 2 Rg 1 sin cos
KEY - 4
Sol:
Consider frame of reference as the sphere
WN Wmg Wma KE
0 mgR 1 cos ma R sin
1
mv2 0
2
v 2 2 gR 1 cos 2 g R sin
v 2 Rg 1 sin cos
34. A body of mass 2kg is moved from a point A to a point B by an external agent in a conservative forces field.
If the velocity of the body at the points A and B are 5m/s and 3m/s respectively and the work done by the
external agent is -10J, then the change in potential energy between points A and B is
1) 6J 2) 36 J 3) 16 J 4) None of these
KEY - 1
Sol: Wext E K U
U Wext K
1
10 m U 2f U i2
2
1
10 2 32 52
2
6J
35. A block of mass m is pushed towards a movable wedge of mass 2m and height h with a velocity u. All
surfaces are smooth. The minimum value of u for which the block will reach the rop of the wedge is
h
2m u
m
1) 2 gh 2) 3gh 3) 6gh 4) 3 / 2 gh
KEY - 2
Sol: Let ve = velocity of wedge when the block reaches the top.
At this moment, the velocity of block w.r.t. wedge is zero. By cons. Of linear momentum
mu 0 M m v 2 m m v
v u /3
By cons. Of mechanical energy
1 2 1
mu 0 M m v 2 mgh
2 2
1 1 2
mu 2 2m m u / 3 mgh
2 2
u 3 gh
36. Two identical balls of equal masses A and B, are lying on a smooth surface as shown in figure. Ball A hits
ball B (which is at rest) with a velocity v = 16ms-1. What should be the value of coefficient of restitution e
between A and B so that B just reaches the highest point of inclined plane. (g = 10 m/s-2)
1) 2/3 2) 1/4 3) 1/2 4) 1/3
KEY - 2
Sol: For B to just reach the highest point of incline plane, its velocity must be
v2 2 gh 2 10 5 10 m / s
Here, u1 16 m / s , u2 0
Now, m1u1 m2u2 m1v1 m2v2
m 16 0 mv1 m 10
v1 6m / s
v v 10 6 1
e 2 1
u1 u2 16 0 4
37. A block is released from rest from a height h=5m. After travelling through the smooth curved surface it
moves on the rough horizontal surface through a length l =8m and climbs onto the other smooth curved
surface through a height h . If m 0.5, , find h .
| |
1) 2m 2) 1m 3) 1.5m 4) 2.5m
KEY - 2
Sol:
The forces acting on the block and N, gravity and friction.
W f WN Wgr K where WN 0 , W f mgl and Wgr mg h h| and K 0
1
|
Thus mgl mg h h| 0 ; h h l 5 1m
2
38. An elevator of total mass (elevator + passenger) 1800 kg is moving up with a constant speed of 2 ms1.
A frictional force of 4000 N opposes its motion. Determine the minimum power delivered by the motor
to the elevator. Take g 10 ms 2
1) 50 hp 2) 40 hp 3) 60 hp 4) 70hp
KEY - 3
Sol: Weight of (elevator + passenger) mg 1800 10N 18000N
Frictional force =4000 N
Total downward force on the elevator is
18000 4000 N 22000 N
Clearly, the motor must have enough power to balance this force.
Now power, P Fv 22000 N 2ms1
44000
44000W hp 59.98 hp
746
39. A quarter horse power motor runs at a speed of 600 r.p.m. Assuming 40% efficiency, the work done by
the motor in one rotation will be
1) 7.46 J 2) 7400 J 3) 7.46 ergs 4) 74.6 J
KEY - 3
Sol: Motor makes 600 revolution per minute
revolution rev
n 600 10
min ute sec
1
Time required for one revolution sec
10
Energy required for one revolution =Power Time
1 1 746
746 J
4 10 40
But work done = 40% of input
746 40 746
40% 7.46 J
40 100 40
40. A man M1 of mass 80 kg runs up a staircase in 15s. Another man M2 also of mass 80kg runs up the
same stair case in 20s. The ration of the powers developed by them will be
4 16 8
1) 1 2) 3) 4)
3 9 3
KEY - 2
work
Sol: Power p
time
work done by both will be same
P t 20 4
Hence, 1 2
P2 t1 15 3
41. A body is moved from rest along a straight line by a machine delivering constant power. The ratio of
displacement and velocity (s/v) varies with time t is
t t t t
1) s/v 2) s/v 3) s/v 4) s/v
KEY - 1
Sol: From work energy thermo ( W K )
1
Pt mv2
2
2Pt
Or v ...(1)
m
ds 2 P 1/ 2
t
dt m
S 2 P t 1/2
Or 0 ds m 0 t dt ...(2)
2 P 3/ 2 2
S t
m 3
From (1) and (2)
s 2 s
t or t
v 3 v
s
i.e graph between and t is a straight line passing though origin
v
42. What falling from a 50m high fall is to be used for generating electric energy. If1.8105 kg of water falls
per hour and half the gravitational potential energy can be converted into electric energy, how many
100W lamps can be it?
1) 100 2) 50 3) 75 4) 125
5
Sol : h 50m, m 1.8 10 kg , P 100W
PE mgh 1.8 105 10 50 900 105 Jh 1
Because half the potential energy is converted into electricity
1
Electrical energy PE 450 105 Jh 1
2
So, power in watt (Js 1 ) 450 105 / 3600
450 105
The number of 100W lamps that can be lit 125
3600 100
Key :4
43. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r, such that its centripetal force F,
varies with time t as Fr K 2 rt 2 , where k is a constant. What is the power delivered to the particle by
the forces acting on it?
1) 2K 2 r 2t 2) K 2 r 2t 2 3) 3K 2 r 2t 4) 5K 2 r 2t
Sol : In general for a particle moving with constant speed, the power delivered by the total (centripetal force
is zero; the reason being, force is always radial and velocity is always tangential, the angle between then
being 90o ).
However if the particle has some tangential acceleration too, then the power delivered by all the forces
will not be zero, since in this case, tangential forces, besides radial forces also act.
Therefore, it is wise, to first known, whether the velocity (and hence KE) of the particle change with
time or remains constants)
If v be the instantaneous velocity, then
3v 2 krt
k 2 rt 2 v
r m
Obviously, the velocity depends on time. Therefore, the power delivered, is not zero.
Now, if a1 be the tangential acceleration,
dv kr
Then at
dt m
Therefore, tangential force Ft ma1 m kr
Now, power P delivered is given by P Fr Ft .v
Fr .v Ft .v Fr is to v
krt 2 2
Ft .v = m kr ; Pk r t
m
Key : 2
44. A force acts on a 30g particle in such a way that the position of the particle as a function of time is given,
x 3 t 4 t 2 t 3 where x is in meter and t is in second. The work done during the first four seconds is
1) 5.28 J 2) 450 mJ 3) 490 mJ 4) 530 mJ
d x
Sol: x 3 t 4 t 2 t 3 ; v 3 8 t 3t 2
dt
2
t 0, v1 3 m / s ; t 4 s , v2 3 8 4 3 4
3 32 48 19 m / s
1
W1 2 K 2 K 1 m v22 v12
2
1 30
2 1000
19 2 3 2 = 0.015 22 16 5.28 J
Key : 1
45. A block mass m at rest is acted upon by a force F for a time t. The kinetic energy of block after time t is
Ft 2 F 2t 2 Ft 2 F 2t 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
m 2m 2m 3m
F 1 Ft 2
Sol: a ; s at 2
m 2 2m
F 2t2
W K ; Fs K 0 K
2m
Key : 2
46. The potential energy of a body of mass m is: U = ax + by Where x and y are position co-ordinates of the
particle. The acceleration of the particle is
1/2
1)
a 2
b2
2)
a2 b2
3)
a b
1/2
4)
a b
m m m m
U ˆ U ˆ
ma i j
Sol: dx dy ai bj ;
a 2 b2
a
m
Key : 1
47. A block of mass 2kg is resting on a smooth surface. At what angle a force on 10N be acting on the block
so that it will acquire a kinetic energy of 10J after moving 2m
1) 30o 2) 45o 3) 60o 4) 90o
Sol: K K 2 K 1 10 0 10 J
K W Fs cos
1
10 10 2 cos cos ; 60 o
2
Key : 3
48. A force acting on particle is given by F 3x 2iˆ 4yjˆ N . The change in kinetic energy of particle as it
moves from (0, 2m) to (1m, 3m) is
1) 6 J 2) 10J 3) 11J 4) 13J
Key : 3
Sol: F 3 x 2 i yj; d r d xi d yj
d W F . d r 3 x 2 d x 4 yd y
1 3
2
W 3 x d x 4 yd y
0 2
1 3
x3
0
2 y2
2
1 2 3 2 2 2 11J
49. Two equal masses are attached to the two ends of a spring of spring constant k. The masses are pulled out
symmetrically to stretch the spring by a length x over its natural length. The work done by the spring on
each mass is
1 1 1 1
1) kx 2 2) kx 2 3) kx 2 4) kx 2
2 2 4 4
1
Sol: U kx 2
2
1
Work done by spring on each mass k x 2
4
Key : 4
50. A block of mass m is attached to two unstretched springs of spring constants k, each as shown. The block
is displaced towards right through a distance x and is released. The speed of the block as it passes through
the mean position will be
m 2k m 2k
1) x 2) x 3) x 4) x
2k m k m
Sol:
1 2 1 2 1
k x k x m v2
2 2 2
1 2k
k x 2 m v2 ; v x
2 m
Key : 2
51. Consider the situation shown in the figure. Initially the spring is unstretched when the system is released
from rest. Assuming no friction in the pulley, the maximum elongation of the spring is
mg mg mg 2mg
1) 2) 3) 4)
3k k 2k k
Sol:
Loss in potential energy = gain in energy of spring
1 2m g
m gx k x 2 ; x
2 k
Key : 4
52. A ball dropped from a height of 2m rebounds to a height of 1.5m after hitting the ground. Then the
percentage of energy lost is
1) 25 2) 30 3) 50 4) 100
Sol: U 1 m g 2 , U 2 m g 1.5
U 2 1.5 3
U1 2 4
Key : 1
53. A block of mass 1kg is placed at the point A of a rough track shown in the figure. If slightly pushed
towards right, it stops at the point B of the track. The work done by the frictional force on the block
during its transit from A to B is
1) 2J 2) 4J 3) 2J 4) 4J
Sol:
K A U A K B U B Wf
0 m g 1 0 m g 0.2 W f
W f m g 0.2 1 10 0.2 2 J
W f : work done against friction
W f W f 2 J
W |f : work done against friction
W |f W f 2 J
W |f : work done by friction
Key : 1
54. A particle of mass m is given a velocity u on a rough horizontal surface of friction coefficient . The
average power imparted by friction until it stops is
1
1) Zero 2) m gu 3) m gu 4) 2 m gu
2
1
Sol: m u 2 W f
2
m g
Retardation a g
m
The time after which the block stops
u u
0 u at t
a g
1
Wf m u2
1
P 2 m u g
t u 2
g
Key : 2
55. A car of mass 1250 kg is moving at 30 m/s. Its engine delivers 30 kW while resistive force due to surface
is 750N. What maximum acceleration can be given to the car?
1 1 1 1
1) m / s 2 2) m / s 2 3) m / s 2 4) m / s 2
3 4 5 6
Sol: Fv P ; F 30 30, 000
F 1000 N ; F 750 m a
1
1000 750 1250 a ; a m / s 2
5
Key : 3
56. A car moves along an uneven horizontal surface with a constant speed at all points. The normal reaction of
the road on the car is
(1) N A N B N C N 0 (2) N C N D N A N B
(3) N B N C N A N D (4) N C N D N B N A
Sol:
A : N A mg 0 N A mg
mv 2 mv 2
B : mg N B N B mg
RB RB
mv 2 mv 2
c : N C mg N C mg
RC RC
mv 2 mv
D : N D mg N D mg
RD RD
RC RD , NC N D
Since
NC N D N A N B
Key : 2
57. A block is released on a smooth track from A. The minimum value of h so that the block
will complete the loop is
R 3R 5R
(1) (2) (3) Zero (4)
2 2 2
Sol: Speed of the block at B, v 2 gh
To complete the vertical circle, v 5 gR
2 gh 5 gR
5R 5R
h , hmin
2 2
Key : 4
58. A particle is kept at rest at the top of a
sphere of diameter 42m. When disturbed
slightly, it slides down. At what height h
from the bottom, the particle will leave the
sphere
(1) 14 m (2) 28 m (3) 35 m (4) 7 m
Sol:
42 2 5
h R (1 cos ) 1 21 35m
2 3 3
Key : 3
59. A force F= (2+x) acts on a particle in x-direction where F is in Newton and x in meter. Find the work done
by this force during a displacement from x=1.0m to x=2.0m
1) 2.6 J 2) 3.5 J
3) 4.8 J 4) 6.4 J
Sol: As the force is variable, we shall find the work done in a small displacement from x to x+dx and then
integrate it to find the total work. The work done in this small displacement is
d W Fd x 2 x d x
2.0 2.0
Thus, W
1.0
dW
1.0
2 x dx
2.0
x2
2 x 3.5 J
2
1.0
Key : 2
60. A particle moves in a straight line with retardation proportional to its displacement. Its loss of kinetic
energy in any displacement x is proportional to
1) x 2 2) e x 3) x 4) loge x
Sol: a x a x , : constant
v2 x
dv
v x ; vd v xd x
dx
v1 0
v2
v2
v1 x2
2 2
1 1 m x2
m v22 m v12
2 2 2
(Loss in K.E) x 2
Key : 1
61. A block of mass m moving with speed v compresses a spring through distance x before its speed is halved.
What is the value of spring constant ?
3mv 2 mv 2
1) 2)
4 x2 4x2
mv 2 2mv 2
3) 4)
2x2 x2
2
1 2 1 v 1 2 2 2
mv m kx 3mv kx 2 k 3mv
Sol: 2 2 2 2 4 4 x2
Key : 1
62. A body is dropped from a height h. When loss in its potential energy is U, its velocity is v. The mass of the
body is
U2 2v
1) 2)
2v U
2v 2U
3) 2 4) 2
U v
Sol: Gain in KE = loss in PE = U
1 2U
U mv2 m 2
2 ; v
Sol : 4
63. A body of mass m falls from a height h and collides with another body of same mass. After collision the
two bodies combine and move through a distance ‘d’ till they come to rest. Find the work done against the
resistive force
1 1
1) mg (h 2d ) 2) mg (h 4d )
2 2
1 1
3) mg (h d ) 4) mg (h 2d )
2 2
Sol: Apply law of conservation of momentum and work-energy theorem
gh
v
m 2 gh m 0 2 m v 2
;
Work done by resistive force=loss in K.E. possessed after collision at B + loss in P.E. from B to C
1 m gh
2 m v 2 2 m gd 2 m gd
2 2
h mg
m g 2d h 4 d
2 2
Key : 2
64. An open knife edge of mass m is dropped from a height h on a wooden floor. If the blade penetrates s into
the wood, the average resistance offered by the wood to the blade is
h
1) Mg 2) Mg 1
s
2
h h
3) Mg 1 4) Mg 1
s s
Sol: According to work – Energy theorem
mg h s Fs 0
h
F mg 1
s
Key : 2
65. Given that the displacement of the body in meter is a function of time as follows x 2t 4 5 .The mass of
the body is 2 kg. What is the increase in its kinetic energy one second after the start of motion?
1) 8 J 2) 16 J
3) 32 J 4) 64 J
4
Sol: x 2t 5
dx
v 8t 3
dt
at t = 0 ; u = 0
1
at t = 1 sec v 8ms
1
KE 2 82 64 J
2
Key : 4
66. A position dependent force, F 7 2 x 3x 2 N , acts on a small body a mass 2 kg and displace it from x = 0
to x = 5m. The work done (in joule) is
1)70 2)270 3) 35 4) 135
5
W 7 2 x 3x 2 dx
Sol: 0
5 5 5
7 x 0 x 2 0 x3 0
35 25 125 135 J
Key : 4
67. A block is moved from rest through a distance of 4m along a straight line path. The mass of the block is 5
kg and the force acting on it is 20N. If the kinetic energy acquired by the block is 40J, at what angle to the
path the force is acting?
1) 300 2) 600
3) 450 4) none of these
40 20 4 cos
Sol:
60 0
Key : 2
68. The work done by a force in displacing a particle from x = 4 m to x = –2 m is
(1) 360 J (2) 240 J (3) –240 J (4) –360J
xi
Sol : W F dx
xi
Key : 1
69. The variation of velocity of particle with time moving along a straight line is illustrated in the following
figure. The
distance travelled by the particle in four seconds is
(1) 60 m (2) 55 m (3) 25 m (4) 80 m
Sol : Area of V-t graph = displacement
Key : 2
70. If velocity of particle moving along x-axis is given as v=k x . Then (a is acceleration) :
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 4
71. Figure shows the vertical section of frictionless surface. A block of mass 2 kg is released from the
position A; its KE as it reaches the position C is:
(1) 180 J (2) 140 J (3) 40 J (4) 280 J
Sol : W mg h1 h2
Key : 2
72. A wire fixed at the upper end stretches by length by applying a force F. The work done in stretching is
F F
1) 2) F 3) 2F 4)
2 2
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 4
73. A uniform chain of length 2 m is kept on a table such that a length of 60 cm hangs freely from the edge of
the table. The total mass of the chain is4 kg. What is the work done in pulling the entire chain on the table
(1) 7.2 J (2) 3.6 J (3) 120 J (4) 1200 J
L Mgl
Sol : L 2M l W 2
n 2n
Key : 2
74. A body covers a distance of 2 m under the influence of a force F = 15 – 4x Newton, where x is the
distance covered by the particle in metre. The work done by the force is
(1) 7 J (2) 11 J (3) 14 J (4) 22 J
Sol : W F .S
Key : 4
75. A body of mass 2 kg is in influence a force which causes displacement in it given x=t2+4t, metres where t
is time. The work done by the force in 2 seconds is :
(1) 12 J (2) 24 J (3) 48 J (4) 64 J
1 2 dx
Sol : W mv ; V
2 dt
Key : 3
76. In a simple pendulum, the breaking strength of the string is double the weight of the bob. The bob is
released from rest when the string is horizontal. The string breaks when it makes an angle with the
vertical–
1 1 2
1) cos 1 2) 60 3) cos 4) 0
3 3
Sol : W Mgl 1 cos
Key : 3
77. A uniform chain has a mass m and length . It is held on a frictionless table with one-sixth of its length
hanging over the edge. The work done in just pulling the hanging part back on the table is:-
mg mg mg mg
(1) (2) (3) (4)
72 36 12 6
Mgl
Sol : W 2
2n
Key : 1
78. A particle of unit mass undergoes one-dimensional motion such that its velocity varies according to
v x x2n where and n are constants and x is the position of the particle. The acceleration of the
particle as a function of x, is given by :
(1) 2n 2 x 4 n 1 (2) 2 2 x 2 n 1
(3) 2n 2 e 4 n 1 (4) 2n 2 x 2 n 1
dv
Sol : a
dt
Key : 1
79. One end of a light rope is tied directly to the ceiling. A man of mass M initially at rest on the ground starts
climbing the rope hand over h and upto a height . From the time he starts at rest on the ground to the
time he is hanging at rest at a height , how much work was done on the man by the rope?
(1) 0 (2) Mg (3) – Mg
(4) It depends on how fast the man goes up
Sol : Conceptual
Key :2
80. A person pulls a bucket of water from a well of depth h. If mass of uniform rope is m and that of bucket
full of water is M, then work done by the person is :-
(1) (M + m) gh/2 (2) (M + m/2)gh
(3) (M + m)gh (4) (M/2 + m)gh
Mgh
Sol : W Mgh
2
Key :2
81. A block of mass M is kept on a platform which starts accelerating upwards from rest with a constant
acceleration a. During the time interval The work done by contact force on mass M is
1 1
(1) Ma 2T 2 (2) zero (3) M ( g a)T 2 (4) MgaT 2
2 2
1 2
Sol : mv w
2
Key : 3
82. A position dependent force F acting on a particle and its force-position curve is shown in the figure. Work
done on the particle, when its displacement0 to 5 m is :-
(1) 35 J (2) 25 J (3) 15 J (4) 5 J
Sol : Work area in F-x graph
Key : 4
83. In the figure shown all the surfaces are frictionless, and mass of the block 'm' is 1 kg. The block and
wedge are held initially at rest. Now wedge is given a horizontal acceleration of 5 m/s2 by applying a
force on the wedge, so that the block does not slip on the wedge. Then work done by the normal force in
ground frame on the block in2 sec is:
(1) 30 J (2) 50 J (3) 100 J (4) 150 J
1
Sol : w mv 2 ; v 2 gl sin
2
Key : 2
84. A uniform chain (mass M, length L) is released from rest from a smooth horizontal surface as shown in
the figure. Velocity of the chain at the instant it completely comes out of the table will be.
3gL
(1) V gL (2) V
4
1 1
(3) V 5 gL (4) V gL
2 2
Mgl 1
Sol : w 2
; w mv 2
2n 2
Key : 2
85. The components of a force acting on a particle are varying according to the graphs shown. To reach at
point B (8, 20, 0) from point A(0, 5, 12) the particle moves on paths parallel to x-axis then y-axis and then
z-axis, then work done by this force is
(1) 192 J (2) 58 J (3) 250 J (4) 125 J
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
86. A body constrained to move in y-direction is subjected to a force given by:
F 2iˆ 15 ˆj 6kˆ N .
The work done by this force in moving the body a distance of 10 m along the y-axis is:
(1) 20 J (2) 150 J (3) 160 J (4) 190 J
Sol : W F .S
Key :2
87. A rod of length 1m and mass 0.5 kg hinged at one end is initially hanging vertically. The other end is now
raised slowly until it makes an angle 60°with the vertical. The required work is :-(g = 10 m/s2)
5 5 17 5 3
(1) J (2) J (3) J (4) J
2 4 8 4
Mgl
Sol : w 1 cos
2
Key :2
88. Two uniform rods of equal length but different masses are rigidly joined to form an L-shaped body, which
is then pivoted as shown in figure. If in equilibrium the body is in the shown configuration, ratio M/m will
be :-
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 4
89. A bead of mass1/2kg starts from rest from A to move in a vertical plane along a smooth fixed quarter ring
of radius 5 m, under the action of a constant horizontal force F = 5 N as shown. The speed of bead as it
reaches the point B is [Take g = 10 m/s2] :-
(1) 14.14 m/s (2) 7.07 m/s
(3) 5 m/s (4) 25 m/s
Sol : v2 v12 2 gr 1 1
Key : 1
90. A body of mass 3 kg is under a constant force which causes a displacement s in metres in it, given by the
1
s t2
relation 3 , where t is in s. Work done by the force in 2 s is
Sol : Work done by die force
= Force× Displacement or W = F×s
But from Newton's 2nd law, we have Force = Mass × Acceleration
i.e., F = ma
Hence, from Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
Key : 3
91. An explosion blows a rock into three parts. Two parts go off at right angles to each other. These two are 1
kg first part moving with a velocity of 12 ms-1 and 2'kg second part moving with a velocity of 8 ms-1. If
the third part flies off with a velocity of 4 ms-1, its mass would be
(1) 5 kg (2) 7 kg (3) 17kg (4) 3kg
Sol :
Key : 1
92. A body of mass ‘m’ starting from rest from origin moves along x-axis with constant power P. The relation
between velocity(v) of car and distance x travelled by car is
1
1) x v 2
2) x v 2
3) x v 4) x v 3
Sol :
Key : 4
93. A bucket of mass ’m’ tied to a light rope is lowered at a constant acceleration of g/4. If the bucket is
lowered by a distance ‘d’, the work done by the rope will be (neglect the mass of the rope)
1 3 3 5
1) mgd 2) mgd 3) mgd 4) mgd
4 4 4 4
Sol :
Key : 3
94. Work done in time t on a body of mass m which is accelerated from rest to a speed v in time t1 as a
function of time t is given by:
1 v v
1) m t 2 2) m t 2
2 t1 t1
CH 3 OH
CH 3
H OH H OH
3) H OH OH H 4)
CH2OH CH2OH
OH
Sol : a v / t1, Displacement after time t:
1 1v 2
S at 2 t
2 2 t1
2
v 1 v 2 1 2 t
W FS maS m t mv
t1 2 t1 2 t1
Key : 4
95. If the net work done by external forces on a particle is zero, which of the following statements about the
particle must be true?
1) Its velocity is zero
2) Its velocity is decreased
3) Its velocity is unchanged
4) Its speed is unchanged
Sol : The work-energy theorem states that
1 1
Wnet K K f Ki . Thus, if Wnet 0 then K f Ki . or mv 2 f mv 2 i , which leads to the conclusion
2 2
that the speed is unchanged (v f vi. ) . The velocity of the particle involves both magnitude (speed) and
direction. The work-energy theorem shows that the magnitude or speed is unchanged when Wnet 0 but
makes not statement about the direction of the velocity
Key : 4
96. A small block of mass ‘ m’ is kept on a rough inclined surface of inclination fixed in an elevator. The
elevator goes up with a uniform velocity V and the block does not slide on the wedge. The work done by
the force of friction on the block in a time ‘t’ will be
1
1) Zero 2) mgvt cos2 3) mgvt sin2 4) mgvt sin2
2
Sol : W f s f sin vt mg sin vt sin
Key : 3
97. A box of mass 50kg at rest is pulled up on an inclined plane 12m long and 2m high by a constant force of
100N. When it reaches the top of the inclined plane if its velocity is 2ms-1, the work done against friction
in Joules is (g=10ms-2)
1) 50 2) 100 3) 150 4) 200
1
Sol : w FL mgh mv 2
2
1
100 12 50 10 2 50 4
2
1200 1100
100J
Key : 2
98. In a tug of war, both the teams A and B remain in equilibrium, then
1) work done by team A is positive
2) work done by team B is positive
3) work done by both the teams is negative
4) work done by both the teams is zero
Sol : Because both the teams balance each other, hence displacement is zero. Therefore work done is also
zero.
Key : 4
N identical cubes each of mass ‘m’ and side ‘l’ are on the horizontal surface. Then the minimum
99.
amount of work done to arrange them one on the other is
mg ln 2
1) nmgl 2)
2
mg ln n 1 mg ln n 1
3) 4)
2 2
Sol : w F .S ; w mgl mg 2l
mgl 1 2 3 n 1
mg ln n 1
2
Key : 3
100. A ladder ‘AB’ of weight 300N and length 5m is laying on a horizontal surface. Its centre of gravity is at a
distance of ‘2m’ from end A. A weight of 80N is attached at end B. The work done in raising the ladder to
the vertical position with end ‘A’ in contact with the ground is,
1) 500 J 2) 1000 J
3) 150 J 4) 1900 J
Sol : w mgh1 mgh2 300 2 80 5 1000 joules
Key : 2
101. W1, W2 and W3 represent the work done in moving a particle from A to B along three different paths 1, 2
and 3 respectively (as shown) in the gravitational field of a point mass m, find the correct relation between
W1, W2 and W3.
1) W1 > W2 > W3 2) W1 = W2 = W3 3) W1 < W2 < W3 4) W1 > W2 < W3
Sol : Gravitational force is a conservative force and work done against it is a point function. i.e does not depends on
the path
Key : 2
102. Two rectangular blocks A and B of masses 2 kg and 3 kg respectively are connected by a spring of spring
1
constant 10.8Nm and are placed on a frictionless horizontal surface. The block A was given an initial
velocity of 0.15ms1 in the direction shown in the figure. The maximum compression of the spring during
the motion is
1) 0.01 m 2) 0.02 m
3) 0.05 m 4) 0.03 m
Sol : Block A moves with velocity 0.15ms 1 compresses the spring which pushes B towards right. A goes on
compressing the spring till the velocity acquired by B becomes equal to the velocity of A. Let this velocity
be v. this state occurs when the spring is in a state of maximum compression. Let x be the maximum
compression in this state. According to the law of conservation of linear momentum, we get
mA u m A mB v
mAu 2 0.05
v 0.06ms 1
mA mB 23
According to the conservation of energy, we get
1 1 1
m A u 2 m A m B v2 kx 2
2 2 2
1 1 1
m A u 2 m A m B v 2 kx 2
2 2 2
1 2 1 2 1
2 0.15 2 3 0.06 kx 2
2 2 2
1 1
0.0225 0.009 kx 2 0.0135 kx 2
2 2
0.027 0.027
x 0.05m
k 10.8
Key : 3
F K yi xj
103. A force (where K is a positive constant) acts on a particle moving in the xy-plane.
Starting from the origin, the particle is taken along the positive x-axis to the point (a,O) and then parallel
to the y-axis to the point (a,a). The total work done by the force F on the particles is
2 2 2 2
1) -2 Ka 2) 2 Ka 3) - Ka 4) Ka
Sol : While moving from (0,0) to (a,0)
Along positive x-axis, y = 0 F kx j
i.e., force is in negative y-direction while displacement is in positive x-direction.
W1 0
Because force is perpendicular to displacement.
Then particle moves from (a,0) to (a,a) along a line parallel to y-axis (x = +a) during this
F k yi a j
The first component of force, kyi will not contribute any work because this component is along
i
negative x-direction while displacement is in positive y-direction (a,0) to (a,a). The second
component of force i.e, ka j will perform negative work.
W2 ka j a j ka ka 2
W W1 W2
So net work done on the particle
0 ka 2 ka 2
Key : 3
K
104. Force acting on a particle moving in a straight line varies with the velocity of the particle as F
v
where K is a constant. The work done by this force in time t is
K 2Kt
(1) 2 (2) 2Kt (3) Kt (4) 2
v v
k dx
Sol : F ; W Fdx k / v dx v
v dt
k
W dx F .d t ; W=Kt
dx
dt
Key : 3
105. A body of mass 4kg is moving with momentum of 8kg m . Force of 0.2N acts on it in the direction of
s
motion of the body for 10 seconds. The increase in kinetic energy is
1. 10J 2. 8.5J 3. 4.5J 4. 4J
Sol : Momentum P mu
p 8
u 2m
m 4 s
F 0.2
Acceleration a 0.05 m 2
m 4 s
1
Distance s ut at 2
2
1 2
2 10 0.05 10 20 2.5 22.5
2
From the work-energy theorem
work w F .d 0.2 22.5
W=increasing K.E = 4.5J
Key : 3
106. The kinetic energy k of a particle moving along a circle of radius R depends upon the distances as k = as2.
The force acting on the particle is: (Here a is constant)
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 2
107. A stone is projected vertically up to reach
4h
maximum height ‘h’. The ratio of its kinetic energy to potential energy, at a height will be :-
5
(1) 5 : 4 (2) 4 : 5
(3) 1 : 4 (4) 4 : 1
1 2 V2
MV
KE 2
Sol : 2
PE M g h1 g h1
u2
h u 2 2 gh ; v 2 u 2 2 g 4 h
2g 5
Key : 3
108. A body of mass m moving with velocity v makes a head on perfectly inelastic collision with another body
of mass 2m which is initially at rest. Then percentage loss in the kinetic energy :-
200 800
(1) 50% (2) % (3) % (4) 25%
3 3
M1M 2 2
Sol : KE u1 u2
2 M1 M 2
1 KE
KE mv12 ; 100 ?
2 KE
Key : 2
109. A particle with total energy E moves in one dimension in a region where the potential energy is U(x). The
acceleration of the particle is zero where
dU x
(1) U(x) = 0 (2) 0
dx
d 2U x
(3) 0 (4) U(x) = E
dx 2
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 2
110. A cannon ball is fired with a velocity 200 m/sec at an angle of 60° with the horizontal. At the highest
point of its flight it explodes into 3 equal fragments, one going vertically upwards with a velocity 100
m/sec, the second one falling vertically downwards with a velocity 100 m/sec The third fragment will be
moving with a velocity
(1) 100 m/s in the horizontal direction
(2) 300 m/s in the horizontal direction
(3) 300 m/s in a direction making an angle of 60°with the horizontal
(4) 200 m/s in a direction making an angle of 60°with the horizontal
1
Sol : w kx 2
2
Key : 3
111. A body of mass 1 kg is thrown upwards with a velocity of 20 m/s. It momentarily comes to rest after
attaining a height of 18 m. How much energy is lost due to air friction ? (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 10 J (2) 20 J (3) 30 J (4) 40 J
1
Sol : Ei mv 2 ; E j Mgh ; E Ei E j
2
Key : 2
112. A body is thrown vertically up with certain initial velocity at certain point P. The potential and kinetic
energies of the body are equal. If this body is now projected vertically upwards with the double of
previous velocity then, the ratio of potential and kinetic energies of the body when it crosses the same
point, is :-
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 7 (4) 1 : 8
Sol : Law of conservation of energy
Key : 3
113. The slope of the kinetic energy versus position vector curve gives the rate of change of :-
(1) work (2) force
(3) power (4) momentum
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 4
114. If nucleus D at rest breaks up into two fragments A and C which fly off with velocities in the ratio8 : 1,
then the ratio of radii of the fragments is:-
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 4 : 1 (4) 2 : 1
Sol : L.C.M
Key : 3
115. A bomb of mass 30 kg at rest explodes into two pieces of masses 18 kg and 12 kg. The velocity of 18 kg
mass is 6 ms-1. The kinetic energy of the other mass is
(a) 256 J (b) 486 J
(c) 524 J (d) 324 J
Sol : Applying conservation of linear momentum, we write m1m1 = m2m2
m1 = 18 kg, m2 = 12 kg
m1=ms-1 m2 =?
18×16= 12 2
18 6
m2 9ms 1
12
Thus, kinetic energy of 12 kg mass
1 1 2
K 2 m2u 22 12 9
2 2
1 1 2
K 2 m2u 22 12 9
2 2
Key : 2
116. The potential energy of a system increases if work is done
(a) by the system against a conservative force
(b) by the system against a on conservative force
(c) upon the system by a conservative force
(d) upon the system by a non conservatival force
Sol :
Key : 1
117. A body of mass (4 m) is lying in x-y plane at rest. It suddenly explodes into three pieces. Two pieces each
of mass (m) move perpendicular to each other with equal speeds ( ). The total kinetic energy generated
due to explosion is
3
1) mv 2 2) mv 2 3) 2mv2 4) 4mv2
2
Sol :
Key : 2
118. A block of mass 10 kg moving in x direction with a constant speed of 10 ms-1 is subjected to a retarding
force F = 0.1x J/m during its travel from x = 20m to 30m. Its final KE will be
(1) 475 J (2) 450 J
(3) 275 J (4) 250J
Sol :
Key : 1
119. Two similar springs P and Q have spring constants KP and KQ such that KP> KQ. They are stretched first
by the same amount (case a), then by the same force (case b). The work done by the springs WP and WQ
are related as, in case (a) and case (b), respectively.
(1) WQ WP (2) WQ WP
(3) WQ WP (4) cannot decide
Sol :
Key : 3
120. If the K.E of a body increases by 125%, the percentage increases in its momentum is
1) 50% 2) 62.5%
3) 250% 4) 200%
Sol :
Key : 1
A small particle is released from P. As it reaches Q its K.E. becomes K. The force exerted by it on
121.
hemisphere at Q is
K 2K 3K 3K
a) b) c) d)
R R R 2R
Sol :
Key : 1
122. A ring of mass m and radius ‘R’ has three particles rigidly attached to the ring as shown in the figure. If
the ring is moving with centre of the ring has a speed V0 , the kinetic energy of the system in case of no
slipping is
1) 6mV02 2) 12mV02 3) 4mV02 4) 0.4mV02
Sol :
Key : 1
123. Two wires of the same material and same length but diameters in the ratio 1:2 are stretched by the same
force. The ratio of potential energy per unit volume of the first wire to the second wire will be in the ratio
1) 1:2 2) 4:1 3) 2:1 4) 16:1
U 1
Sol : stress strain
V 2
2
1 stress stress
U= [strain= ]
2 Y Y
2
1 F 1 1 1
U= ; u 2 u 4
2 A Y A d
4
u1 d 2
u2 d1
Key : 4
124. A body of mass M is dropped from a height h on a sand floor. If the body penetrates x cm into the sand,
the average resistance offered by the sand to the body is:
h h
1) Mg 2) Mg 1
x x
h
3) Mgh Mgx 4) Mg 1
x
1
Sol : If the body strikes the sand floor with a velocity V, then mgh mV 2
2
with this velocity V, when body passes through the sand floor it comes to rest after travelling a distance x.
Let F be the resisting force acting on the body. Net force in downward direction Mg F
1
We know that work done by all the forces is equal to change in KE : Mg F x 0 MV 2
2
or MG F x Mgh or Fx Mgh Mgx
h
or F Mg 1
x
Key : 2
125. A particle is released from a height H. At certain height its kinetic energy is two times its potential energy.
Height and speed of particle at that instant are
H 2 gH H gH
1) , 2) ,2
3 3 3 3
2H 2 gH H
3) , 4) , 2 gH
3 3 3
Sol :
v 2 g ( H h)
H
2g H
3
gH
v2
3
Key : 2
A tank of size 10mX10mX10m is full of water and built on the ground. If g=10m/s2, the potential energy
126.
of the water in the tank is
1) 5X108 J 2) 1X107 J
3) 5X107 J 4) 5X105 J
Adgh2
Sol : PE
2
(10 10).103 10 102
=
2
= 5 107 joule
Key : 3
127. A body is thrown vertically up with certain initial velocity, the potential and kinetic energies of the body
are equal at a point ‘P’ in its path. If the same body is thrown with double the initial velocity upwards, the
ratio of potential and kinetic energies of the body at the same point ‘P’ is
1) 1:1 2) 1:7 3) 1:4 4) 1:8
Sol :
1 2
Case – 1: mgh mv mgh
2
1 2
mv 2mgh
2
mgh mgh
Case – 2:
1 1
m(2v) 2 mgh 4 mv 2 mgh
2 2
mgh 1
= =
4 2mgh mgh 7
Key : 2
128. A bullet loses 19% of its kinetic energy, when passes through an obstacle. The percentage change in its
speed is
1) increase by 10% 2) decrease by 10% 3) increase by 20% 4) decrease by 20%
1 2 2K
Sol : As, K mv v
2 m
2K ' 2 0.81K
v ' 0.9v
m m
v 0.9v
% decrease in speed 100 10%
v
Key : 2
129. A particle is acted upon by a force F which varies with position x as shown in figure. If the particle at x=0
has kinetic energy of 25 J, then the kinetic energy of the particle at x=16 m is
1) 45 J 2) 30 J 3) 70 J 4) 20 J
Sol :
Work done W=area under F-x graph with proper sign
W= Area of triangle ABC+ Area of rectangle CDEF+ Area of rectangle FGHI+ Area of rectangle IJKL
1
W 6 10 [4 (5)] [4 (5)] [2 (5) =30-20+20-10=20 J
2
According to work energy theorem
K f Ki W
Or ( K f ) x 16 m ( K i ) x 0 m W
( K f ) x 16 m ( K i ) x 0 m W =25J+20J=45 J
Key : 1
130. A block 'A' of mass M moving with speed u collides elastically with block B of mass m which is
connected to block C of mass m with a spring. When the compression in spring is maximum the velocity
of block C with respect to block A is (neglect friction) :-
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
131. A spring of force constant k is cut in two parts at its one third length. When both the parts are stretched by
same amount, the work done in the two parts, will be
(1) equal in both
(2) greater for the longer part
(3) greater for the shorter part
(4) data insufficient.
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
132. A mass of 0.5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 on a horizontal smooth surface collides with a nearly
weightless spring of force constant k = 50 N/m. The maximum compression of the spring would be:
(a) 0.15 m (b) 0.12 m
(c) 1.5m (d) 0.5 m
Sol :
Key : 1
133. A spring streached through a distance x with a force F=6x2+3x. Find the work needed to elongate the
spring from x=1m to x=2m
1)10J 2)40J 3)25.5J 4)20J
Sol : F 6 x 3 x ; F 6 x 3 x kx
2
K 6x 3
1 1
Work W= K 2 x22 K1 x12
2 2
1 1
W (6 2 3)(2) 2 (6 1 3)(1) 2
2 2
30 4.5 25.5 joule
Key : 3
134. A spring of force constant ‘k’ is stretched by a small length ‘x’. The work done in stretching it further by
a small length ‘y’ is
1 1
1) k (x 2 y 2 ) 2) k (x y) 2
2 2
1 1
3) k (y2 x 2 ) 4) ky (2 x y)
2 2
Sol : Let W1 is the work done in stretching a spring of force constant ‘K’ through a length ‘x’. Then W1
1
= Kx 2 Let ‘ W2 ’ is the work done in stretching the spring through a length x y , Then
2
1
W2 K x y 2
2
Additional work done, to increase the elongation by ‘y’ is W W2 W1
1 1
W K x y 2 Kx 2
2 2
1
W Ky y 2 x
2
Key : 4
135. A ring of mass m can slide over a smooth vertical rod as shown in the figure. The ring is connected to a
spring of force constant k = 4 mg/R, where 2R is the natural length of the spring. The other end of spring
fixed to the ground at a horizontal distance 2R from the base of the rod. If the mass is released at a height
1.5 R, then the velocity of the ring as it reaches the ground is
1) gR 2) 2 gR
3) 2gR 4) 3gR
Sol :
Key : 2
136. Two blocks A and B of masses 2m and m respectively are connected by a massless spring of stiffness K.
At the instant shown, there is force F acting on B and the acceleration of A at this instant is a towards left.
The acceleration of B at this instant is
F 2ma F 2ma
1) 2)
2m 3m
F ma F 2ma
3) 4)
2m m
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 4
137. Two blocks each of mass m are connected to a spring of spring constant k. If both are given velocity v in
opposite directions, then the maximum elongation of the spring is :-
mv 2 2mv 2
1) 2)
k k
mv 2 mv 2
3) 4) 2
2k k
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 2
The total work done on a particle is equal to the change in its kinetic energy. This is applicable–
138.
(1) Always
(2) Only if the conservative forces are acting on it
(3) Only in inertial frames
(4) Only when pseudo forces are absent
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 2
139. For the given fig. find the speed of block A when = 60° :-
(1) 2 3 m/s (2) 4 m/s
(3) 2 m/s (4) None
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 1
140. The force F acting on a body moving along x-axis varies with the position x of the particle as shown in the
graph. The body is in stable equilibrium at
F
x1 x2
X
1) x x1 2) x x2
3) both x1 and x2 4) Neither x1 nor x2
Sol : When the particle moves away from the origin then at position x x1 force is zero and x x1 , force is
positive, i.e., repulsive in nature. Therefore particle moves further away does not return back to the
original position which means that the equilibrium at point x x1 is not stable. Quite similarly at x x2 ,
force is zero and at x x2 the particle returns back to the original position which means that the
equilibrium at x x2 is stable.
Key : 2
141. If F = 2x2 –3x–2, then choose correct option :-
(1) x = – 1/2 is position of stable equilibrium
(2) x = 2 is position of stable equilibrium
(3) x = – 1/2 is position of unstable equilibrium
(4) x = 2 is position of neutral equilibrium
Sol : Conceptual
Key :2
142. A car of mass 500 kg is driven with acceleration 1 m/s2along straight level road
against constant external resistance of 1000 N. When the velocity is 5 m/s the rate at which t he engine is
working is–
(1) 5 kW (2) 7. 5 kW
(3) 2. 5 kW (4) 10 kW
Sol : Fint erval Ma
Key :2
143. A particle of mass m is moving in a circular path of constant radius r such that its centripetal acceleration
ac is varying with time t as ac= k2rt2 . The power delivered to particle is :-
V2 1 mv 2
Sol : k 2 rt 2 ; Power
r 2 t
Key : 2
144. Power applied to a particle varies with time as P = (3t2 – 2t + 1) watt, where t is in second. Find the
change in its kinetic energy between t = 2s to t = 4s.
(1) 32 J (2) 46 J (3) 61 J (4) 102 J
tf
Sol : W P dt
ti
Key : 2
145. A body of mass m is accelerated uniformly from rest to a speed v in a time T. The instantaneous power
delivered to the body as a function of time is given by:-
mv 2t
1)
T2
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
146. Two bodies of massm1 and m2(m2> m1)are connected by a light inextensible string which passes through a
smooth fixed pulley. The instantaneous power delivered by an external agent to pull m1 with constant
velocity v is :
(1) (m2 – m1) g/v (2) (m2 – m1) v/g
(3) (m2 – m1) gv (4) (m1 – m2) gv
Sol : Conceptual
Key :3
147. A wind powered generator converts wind energy into electrical energy. Assume that the generator
converts a fixed fraction of wind energy intercepted by its blades into electrical energy. For wind speed v,
the electrical power output will be proportional to:-
(1) v (2) v 2 (3) v 3 (4) v 4
work
Sol : P
t
Key : 3
148. A pump motor is used to deliver water at a certain rate from a given pipe. To obtain thrice as much water
from the pipe in the same time power of the motor has to be increased :-
(1) 3 times (2) 9 times
(3) 27 times (4) 81 times
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
149. A car of mass m is accelerating on a level smooth road under the action of a single force F. The power
delivered to the car is constant and equal to P. If the velocity of the car at an instant is v, then after
travelling how much distance it becomes double?
7 mv3 4 mv3 mv 3 18 mv 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3P 3P P 7P
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 1
150. An engine pumps water through a hose pipe. Water passes through the pipe and leaves it with a velocity
of 2 ms-1. The mass per unit length of water in the pipe is 100 kgm-1. What is the power of the engine?
(1) 400 W (2) 200 W (3) 100W (4) 800 W
Sol :
Key : 1
151. A particle of mass m is driven by a machine that delivers a constant power k watts. If the particle starts
from rest the force on the particle at time t is
1 1 1
mk 12 1 2
1)
2 t 2) mk
t 2
3) 2mk t 2
4)
2
mk
t
Sol :
Key : 1
152. An electric motor produces a tension of 4500N in a load lifting cable and rolls it at the rate of 2m/s. The
power of the motor is –
(1) 9KW (2) 15KW (3) 225KW (4) 9 × 103 HP
Sol :
Key : 1
153. A man of mass 60kg lifts a 15kg mass to the top of the building of height 10m in 5 minutes. The
efficiency of a man is
1) 10% 2) 20% 3) 30% 4) 40%
Sol :
Key : 2
154. A machine gun fires 360 bullets per minute each bullet moves with a velocity of
600 ms-1.If the power of the gun is 5.4 KW. The mass of the each bullet is
1) 5 kg 2) 0.5kg 3) 0.05kg 4) 0.005kg
Sol :
Key : 4
155. A body of mass ‘m’ accelerates uniformly from rest to velocity v0 in time t0 . The instantaneous power
v0
delivered to body when velocity becomes is
2
m v0 2 m v0 m v0 2 m v0
1) 2) 3) 4)
t0 2t 2t0 3t0
Sol :
Key : 3
156. The input power of an electric motor is 200 KW. Its efficiency is 80%. It operates a crane of efficiency
90%. If the crane is lifting a load of 3.6 tonnes, the velocity with which the load moves is g 10ms
2
1 1 1 1
1) 8ms 2) 4ms 3) 2ms 4) 40 ms
Sol :
Key : 2
157. A motor pump is delivering water at certain rate. In order to increase the rate of delivery by 100%, the
power of the motor is to be increased by
1) 300% 2) 200% 3) 400% 4) 700%
3
P1 v1
Sol : Power P Adv 3 ;
P v
3
P1 200 1
; P 800
100 100
Power increased by 700%
Key : 4
158. A constant power P is applied to a particle of mass m. The distance travelled by the particle when its
velocity increases from v1 to v2 is (neglect friction):
m 3 3 m 3P 2 2 m 2 2
1)
3P
v2 v1 2)
3P
v2 v1 3)
m
v2 v1 4)3P
v2 v1
P
Sol : P Fv mav a
mv
Key : 1
159.The blades of a windmill sweep out a circle of area A. The wind flows at a velocity V perpendicular to the
circle. Density of air is . Assume that the windmill converts 25% of the wind energy into electrical
energy, in time ‘t’ the electrical power produced is
AV 3 AV 3
1) 2)
4 8
3
AV AV 2
3) 4)
2 8
Sol :
mass of wind flowing per second = AV
mass of air passing in ‘t’ sec = AV t
1 1 AV3ρt
mV 2 AVρt V 2
KE of air 2 2 2
25 AV 3ρt AV 3ρt
Electrical energy produced 100 2 8
Electric power in time t
AV3ρt AV3ρ
8t 8
Key : 2
A mass m moving horizontally with velocity strikes a pendulum of mass m. If the two masses stick
160.
together after the collision, then the maximum height reached by the pendulum is :
Sol : v 2 gh
Key : 1
Mass m is released from point A as shown in figure then tension in the string at the point B will be
161.
(1) mg (2) 2mg (3) 3mg (4) 4mg
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
10
162. A stone of mass 1 kg tied to a light inextensible string of length L m is whirling in a circular path of
3
radius L in a vertical plane. If the ratio of the maximum to the minimum tension in the string is 4 and g =
10m/s2 , the speed of the stone at
the highest point of the circle is :
(1) 20 m/s (2) 10 3 m/s (3) 5 2 m/s (4) 10 m/s
T Mv 2
Sol : max 4 ; Tmin Mg
Tmin r
Key : 4
163. A thin uniform rod of length and mass m is swinging freely about a horizontal axis passing through its
end. Its maximum angular speed is .Its centre of mass rises to a maximum height of:
1 2 2 1 1 2 2 1 2 2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 g 6 g 2 g 6 g
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 4
164.
A block of mass m is pushed towards the movable wedge of mass M and height h, with a velocityv0. All
surfaces are smooth. The minimum value of v0 for which the block will reach the top of the wedge is :-
2ghm 2 gh(m M ) 2 ghM
(1) 2gh (2) (3) (4)
M M (m M )
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
165. A small block of mass m slides along a smooth frictional track as shown in the figure. If it starts from rest
at P, velocity of block at point Q is–
(1) 2gR (2) 3gR (3) 2 2gR (4) Zero
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
166. A body of mass 1kg is moving in a vertical circular path of radius 1 m. The difference is kinetic energies
at the highest and lowest positions :-
(1) 20 J (2) 10 J (3) 4 5 J (4) 10
5 1 J
1 1
Sol : v22 v12 4 gr ; m v22 v12 4 gr
2 2
1
2
m v22 v12 2 gr
Key : 1
167. A circular over bridge has radius 20m. What is the maximum speed with which a car can cross the bridge
without leaving contact with the over bridge at the highest point ?
( g = 9.8 m/s2 )
(1) 14 m/s (2) 20 m/s
(3) 22.3 m/s (4) 28 m/s
mv 2
Sol : N Mg cos
r
Key : 1
168. A block of mass 2.9kg is suspended from a string of length 50cm and is at rest. Another block of mass
100g ; which is moving with speed 150ms1 strikes and sticks to first block. Subsequently when strings
makes an angle of 600 with vertical the tension is string will be g 10ms 2
1. 140N 2. 135N
3. 125N 4. 90N
Sol :
Key : 2
169. A vehicle is moving with uniform speed along horizontal, concave and convex surface roads. The surface
on which , the normal reaction on the vehicle is maximum is
a) concave b) convex
c) horizontal d) same at all surfaces
Sol :
Key : 1
A car is travelling along a flyover bridge which is a part of vertical circle of radius 10m. At the highest
170.
point of it the normal reaction on the car is half of its weight, the speed of car is
a) 7 m/s b) 10 m/s
c) 14 m/s d) 20 m/s
Sol :
Key : 1
171. A stone tied to string of length L is whirled in a vertical circle with other end of string at the centre. At
certain instant of time, the stone is at its lowest position and has a speed u . The magnitude of change in
velocity as it reaches a position when the string is horizontal is
1. u 2 2 gL 2. 2gL
3. u 2 gL 4. 2 u 2 gL
Sol : V v u VB u 2 2 gl 1 cos90
u 2 2 gl j ui u 2 2 gL
v u 2 2 gl u 2
2 u 2 2 gl
Key : 4
172. A nail is fixed at point P vertically below point of suspension O of simple pendulum of length 1m. The
bob is released when string of pendulum makes an angle 600 with vertical. The bob reaches lowest point
and then describes vertical circle whose centre coincides with P. The least distance of P from O is
1. 0.4 m 2. 0.5m 3. 0.8m 4. 0.6m
Sol : VA 2 gL 1 cos 60
To complete vertical circle with radius ' r '
VA 5gr
5 gr 2 gl 1 2
1
r 0.2
5
l r 1 0.2 0.8m
Key : 3
173. A small body slides over the curved surface of a semicircular cylinder of radius r, kept horizontally on the
ground as shown in the figure. At what height from the ground would the body lose contact with the
surface?
2r 2r r 3r
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 5 2 4
Sol :
Let at A the block loose contact
N=0
mvA2 mvA2
mg cos N ; mg cos
r r
2
or v A rg cos
1
or mgr mgh mrg cos
2
rh 3h 2
r h or r ; h r.
2r 2 3
Key : 1
174. A weightless rod of length 2l carries two equal masses each 'm', one tied at lower end A and the other at
the middle of the rod at B. The rod can be rotated in a vertical plane about a fixed horizontal axis passing
through C. The rod is released from rest in horizontal position. The speed of the mass B at the instant rod,
become vertical is:
3g 4g 6g 7g
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 5 5 5
Sol : Let v be the speed of B at lowermost position, the speed of A at lowermost position is 2v.
From conservation of energy
1 2 1
m 2v mv 2 mg 2 mg
2 2
6
Solving we get v g
5
Key : 3
175. A very small particle rests on the top of a hemisphere of radius 20 cm. The smallest horizontal velocity to
be given to it, if it has to leave the hemisphere without sliding down its surface ( g 9.8 ms 2 ) is
1) 9.8 m / s 2) 4.9 m / s
3) 1.96 m / s 4) 3.92 m / s
20
Sol : U mpr rg 9.8
100
196
1.96 ms 1
100
Key : 3
176. A bucket tied at the end of a 1.6 m long string is whirled in a vertical circle. What should be the minimum
speed at the lowest position so that the water from the bucket does not spill when the bucket is at the
highest position (Take = g 10 m / sec2 )
1) 4 m/sec 2) 6.25 m/sec
3) 16 m/sec 4) 8.9 m/sec
Sol : v 5 gl 5 10 1.6
80 8.9 ms 1
Key : 4
177. A child is swinging a swing. Minimum and maximum heights of swing from the earth's surface are 0.75 m
and 2 m respectively. The maximum velocity of this swing is
(1) 5 m/s (2) 10 m/s
(3) 15 m/s (4) 20 m/s
Sol :
v 2 gh 2 10 1.25 5 m / sec
Key : 1
178. A pendulum of length l = 1 m is released from 0 60o . The rate of change of speed of the bob at 30o
is: (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 5 3 m / s 2 (2) 5 m / s 2 (3)10 m / s 2 (4) 2.5 m / s 2
Sol :
ar g cos 60 o ; ar g / 2
Key : 2
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT-1
DAY – 23 (DT 06-05-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
CHAPTER: SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTATORY MOTION
================================================================================================================
1. The distance between the carbon atom and the oxygen atom in a carbon monoxide molecule
is 1.1 A0. Given, mass of carbon atom is 12 a.m.u. and mass of oxygen atom is 16 a.m.u.,
calculate the position of the centre of mass of carbon monoxide molecule
1) 6.3A0 from the carbon 2) 1A0 from the oxygen atom
3) 0.63A0 from the carbon atom 4) 0.12 A0 from the oxygen atom
Sol: Let carbon atom is at the origin and the oxygen atom is placed at x-axis
m1 = 12, m2 = 16, and r 1 0i 0 j r 2 1.1i 0 j
m r m r 16 1.1 0
r 1 1 2 2
i r 0.63i i.e0.63 A from carbon atom
m1 m2 28
Key: 3
2. The velocities of three particles of masses 20g, 30g and 50g
are 10i,10 j, and 10k respectively. The velocities of the centre of mass of the three particles is
1) 2i 3 j 5k 2) 10 i j k
3) 20i 30 j 5k 4) 2i 30 j 50k
Sol: Velocity of centre of mass
m v m2 v2 m3v3 20 10i 30 10 j 50 10k
vcm 1 1 2i 3 j 5k
m1 m 2 m3 10
Key: 1
3. Masses 8, 2, 4, 2kg are placed at the corners A, B, C, D respectively of a square ABCD of
diagonal 80cm. The distance of centre of mass of the system from A will be
1) 20cm 2) 30cm 3) 40cm 4) 60cm
Sol: Let corner A of square ABCD is at the origin and the mass 8kg is placed at this corner
(given in problem) Diagonal of square d a 2 80cm a 40 2cm
m1 5kg , m2 2kg , m3 4kg , m4 2kg
Let r 1 0i 0 j , r 2 ai 0 j, r 3 ai a j , r 4 0i a j , From the formula of centre of mass
1|Page
m r1 m r 2 m r 3 m r 4
r 1 2 3 4
15 2i 15 2 j
m1 m2 m3 m4
Key: 2
4. A circular hole of radius ‘r’ is made in a disk of radius ‘R’ and of uniform thickness at a distance ‘a’
from the centre of the disk. The distance of the new centre of mass from the original centre of mass
is
aR2 ar 2
1) 2 2) 2
R r2 R r2
a( R 2 r 2 ) a( R 2 r 2 )
3) 4)
r2 R2
Sol: m A r 2
M1 r2
X cm cc 2
1 1 2
.a
M m R r2
5. From the circular disc of radius 4R two small disc of radius R are cut off. The centre of
mass of the new structure will be:
R R R R 3R ˆ ˆ
1) iˆ ˆj
5 5
2) iˆ ˆj
5 5
3)
14
i j
4) None of these
Sol: If mass of removed disc is m then mass of big disc will be 16m
16m 0 m 0 m 3R 3
xcm R
16m m m 14
Because of symmetry we can say ycm will also have same magnitude
3
ycm R
14
3
rcm R iˆ ˆj
14
2|Page
Key: 3
6. In a system of particles 8 kg mass is subjected to a force of 16 N along +ve x-axis and another 8 kg
mass is subjected to a force of 8N along +ve y-axis. The magnitude of acceleration of centre of mass
and the angle made by it with x-axis are given , respectively, by
5 2
ms , 450
1) 2
2 1 2
2) 3 5ms , tan
3
5 1
3) , tan 1
2 2
4) 1ms
2
, tan1 3
F 16 i 8 j 1
Sol: aCM i j
m1 m2 88 2
2
1 2 5
| aCM | 1 m / s2
2 2
1
ay 2 1 1
tan tan 1
ax 1 2 2
Key: 2
7. A uniform square sheet has a side length of 2R . A circular sheet of maximum possible area is
removed from one of the quadrants of the square sheet. The centre of mass of the remaining portion
from the centre of the original sheet is at a distance of
R R R
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 16 16 16 16
m M
Sol: m
v t
Removedmass separationbetweencentreof masses
Xcm
Remainingmass
A1
1
x
A A
2
R
2 R
2
R 2
4R2
2
R
2 16
Key: 1
8. Two spheres made of copper have radii ‘r’ and ‘2r’. They are arranged to touch each other. The
distance of the centre of mass of the system from the point of contact of the two spheres is
1)3r/2 2)5r/3
3)8r/3 4)2r
3|Page
r 3 R r 3r r
Sol: x 3 3
R r 9 3
r 5r
d 2r x 2 r
3 3
(c.m of combined system lies in larger sphere)
Key: 2
9. Two particles of equal mass have velocities V1 4i andV2 4 j . First particle has an acceleration
a1 5i 5 j ms 2 while the acceleration of the other particle is zero. The centre of mass of the two
particles moves in a path of
1)Straight line 2)Parabola
3)circle 4)ellipse
Sol: Velocity and accelerations of C.M are parallel. Hence straight line
Key: 1
10. Three identical particles each of mass 0.1kg are arranged at three comers of a square of side 2m .
The distance of the centre of mass from the fourth corner is
2 4 8
1) m 2) m 3)1m 4) m
3 3 3
Sol:
m1 x1 m2 x2 m3 x3 m 0 m 2 0 2
X cm
m1 m2 m3 3m 3
m1 y1 m2 y2 m3 y3 2
Ycm
m1 m2 m3 3
AC 2
2 2 2
d m
9 9 3
2 4
OC 2 m
3 3
Key: 2
11. Six identical particles each of mass “m” are arranged at the corners of a regular hexagon of side
length ”L”. If the masses of any two adjacent particles are doubled, the shift in the centre of mass is
1) L/8 2) 3L /8
3) 3L/16 4) 3L/4
Added mass
Sol: X cm c1c2
Total mass
2m 3 3
L L
8m 2 8
Key: 2
4|Page
12. A bomb of mass ‘m’ at rest at the coordinate origin explodes into three equal pieces. At a certain
instant one piece is on the x-axis at x=40cm and another is at x=20cm and
y=-60cm.The position of the third piece is
1) x 60 cm , y 60 cm
2) x 60 cm , y 60 cm
3) x 60 cm , y 60 cm
4) x 60 cm , y 60 cm
Sol: Explosion of a bomb is internal reaction. Internal force will not change the position of C.M
m
m1 x1 m2 x2 x3
X cm X cm1 0 3
m1 m2 m3
m1 x1 m2 x2 m3 x3 0
m m m
40 20 x3 0
3 3 3
x3 60cm
m1 y1 m2 y2 m3 y3 0
y3 60cm
Key: 3
13. A disc and a square sheet of same mass are cut from same metallic sheet. They are kept side by side
with contact at a single point. Then the centre of mass of combination is
1) at point of contact
2) inside the disc
3) inside the square
4) outside the system
Sol: Disc r2 a2
a
r
a
m1x m2 r x
2
r a a a
x
2 4 2 4
Henceinside disc
Key: 2
14. Two particles of mass “p” and “q”(q<p) are at a certain distance apart. On interchanging the position
of the masses, the centre of mass of the system is found to shift through a distance “d”. The distance
between the two particles is
d p q d p q
1) 2)
q p
d p q d p q
3) 4)
pq pq
p
Sol: x1 r
pq
q
x11 r q p
pq
5|Page
pq
d x11 x1 r
r
pq
r d
pq
Key: 3
15. On a large tray of mass M, an ice cube of mass m, edge L is kept. If the ice melts completely, the
centre of mass of the system comes down by
mL ML
1) 2)
2 M m 2 M m
3)
M 2m L 4) 2 ML
2 M m 2 M m
m L
Sol: Initial position of centre of mass r1
M m 2
Shift in C.M
Key: 1
16. Figure shows a square plate of uniform thickness and side length 2 m . One fourth of the plate is
removed as indicated. The distance of centre of mass of the remaining portion from the centre of the
original square plate is
1)1/3m 2)1/2m
3)1/6m 4)1/8m
M1
Sol: X cm cc
1 1 2
M m
m a a 2
3m 2 2 6 2 6 2
1
X cm cm
6
Key: 3
17. A 10kg boy standing in a 40kg boat floating on water is 20m away from the shore of the
river. If the boy moves 8m on the boat towards the shore, then how far is he from the shore?
(Assume no friction between boat and water)
1) 12.0 m 2) 13.6 m 3) 12.8 m 4) 11.6 m
Sol: Let boat moves a distance x away from shore.
Then net displacement of boy towards shore = 8-x
Now apply: m1 x1 m2 x2
40 x 10 8 x x 1.6m
Distance of boy from shore 20 8 x 13.6m
Key: 2
6|Page
18. Three identical spheres each of mass ‘m’ and radius ‘R’ are placed touching each other so that their
centres A,B and C lie on a straight line. The position of their centre of mass from centre of B is
2R
1) 2)2R
3
5R
3) 4)zero
3
Sol: m1 m2 m3 m
x1 0 x2 2R x3 4R
m1x1 m2 x2 m3x3 m 0 m2r m 4R
Xcm
m1 m2 m3 3m
Xcm 2R
Key: 2
19. The mass of a uniform ladder of length 5m is 20 kg. A person of mass 60kg stand on the ladder at a
height of 2m from the bottom. The position of centre of mass of the ladder and man from the bottom
is
1)1.256m 2)2.532m
3)3.513m 4)2.125m
r 0.5m
Sol:
m2 20 0.5
r1 r
m1 m2 80
1
r1 0.125m
8
x 2 0.125 2.125m
Key: 4
20. Two particles are shown in Fig. At t=0 , a constant force F=6N starts acting on the 3kg man. Find
the velocity of the centre of mass of these particles at t=5s
1)5 m/s 2)4 m/s 3)6 m/s 4)3 m/s
Sol: Method-1 Acceleration of 3kg:
6
a2 2 m / s 2
3
Velocity of 3kg at t=5s: v2 u2 a2t 0 25 10 m / s
2 0 3 10
vcm t 5 s 6m / s
23
Key: 3
21. A boy of mass 50kg is standing at one end of a boat of length 9m and mass 400kg. He runs to the
other end. The distance through which the centre of mass of the boat-boy system moves is
1)0 2)1m 3)2m 4)3m
Sol: Internal force should not change the position of C.M
Key: 1
22. As shown in figure from a uniform rectangular sheet a triangular sheet is removed from one edge.
The shift of centre of mass is
7|Page
1)4.2 cm 2)- 4.2 cm
3)6.67 cm 4)- 6.67 cm
Sol: m A 20 60 1200
1
m1 A1 20 30 300
2
m m m1 900
11
m1 300 20
X cm .c c
1 1 2
mm 900
6.67cm
[Triangle is bisects 1:2 i.e 10:20]
Key: 4
23. A dog weighing 5kg is standing on a flat boat so that it is 10 metres from the shore. It walks 4m on
the boat towards the shore and then halts. The boat weighs 20kg and one can assume that there is no
friction between it and water. The distance of dog from the shore at the end of this time is
1)3.4 m 2)6.8 m 3)12.6m 4)10 m
mb
Sol: d1 d y
mb md
20
10 4
25
d 1 6.8m
Internal force should not change the position of C.M
X cm X cm1
Key: 2
24. The rectangular plates of length l as shown in the figure. Half of the plate is made up of a material
of density and the other half of the plate density is 3 . The distance of centre of mass from O is
3l l 5
1) 2) 3) l 4) l
8 2 8
Sol: m m1 m2
8|Page
m2 3 l 3l
r1 r .
m1 m2 4 2 8
l 3l l 5l
d r1
4 8 4 8
Key: 3
25. A man weighing 80kg is standing on a trolley weighing 320 kg. The trolley is resting on frictionless
horizontal rails. The displacement relative to ground after 4s, if the man stars walking on the trolley
along the rails at a speed of 1ms-1. is
1)1.6 m 2)2.8m 3)3.2m 4)4.6m
Sol: d Vt 4 1 4m
m2 320
r1 d 4 3.2 m
m1 m2 400
Key: 3
26. A ball kept in a closed box moves in the box making collisions with the walls. The box is kept on a
smooth surface. The velocity of the centre of mass
1)of the box remains constant
2)of the ( box+ball) system remains constant
3)of the ball remains constant
4)of the ball relative to the box remains constant
Sol: As no external force acts on the ball+box system, hence velocity of the system remains constant
Key: 2
27. A bomb is initially at rest on the ground and suddenly explodes into two fragments of equal masses.
One of the fragments is found moving north with a velocity of 20 m/s. The velocity and acceleration
of the centre of mass of the bomb after the explosion are
1)20,0 2)20,g 3)0,g 4)0,0
Sol: Explanation of the bomb is due to internal force. It will not change VC.M andaC.M
Hence VC.M 0 and aC.M 0
Key: 4
28. Three identical spheres each of radius R are placed touching each other on a horizontal table
as shown in figure. The co-ordinates of centre of mass are:
R R R
1) R, R 2) 0, 0 3) , 4) R,
2 2 3
m 0 m 2 R mR
Sol: xcm R
3m
m 0 m 0 mR 3 R
ycm
3m 3
9|Page
Key: 4
29. Two particles of masses 2kg and 3kg are projected horizontally in opposite directions from the top
of a tower of height 39.2 m with velocities 5m/s and 10 m/s respectively. The horizontal range of the
centre of mass of two particles is
1) 8 2 m in the direction of 2 kg
2) 8 2 m in the direction of 3 kg
3) 8 m in the direction of 2 kg
4) 8 m in the direction of 3 kg
m2v2 m1v1 30 20
VCM 2m / sec
Sol: m1 m2 5
2h 2 39.2
RC.M Vcm 2 8 2m
g 9.8
In the directions of 3kg
Key: 2
30. Three identical uniform rods of the same mass M and length L are arranged in xy plane as shown in
Fig. A fourth uniform rod of mass 3M has been placed as shown in the xy plane. What should be the
value of the length of the fourth rod such that the centre of mass of all the four rods lie at the origin?
1)3L 2)2L
3) L
2 1 / 3
4) L 2 2 1 / 3
x L L
3M M 2 M M 0
2 2 2 2
Sol: Xcm 0
6M
2 1
x L
3
Key: 3
31. A rope of length 30cm is on a horizontal table with maximum length hanging from edge A of the
table. The coefficient of friction between the rope and table is 0.5. The distance of centre of mass of
10 | P a g e
the rope from
A is
5 15 5 17
1) cm 2) cm
3 3
5 19 7 17
3) cm 4) cm
3 3
l l 0.5
l 10cm
Sol: L 1 30 1 0.5
Mass per unit
m m1 m2
L L1 L2
m1 x1 m2 x2 20 10 0 200 20
length= X cm
m1 m2 30 30 3
m1 y1 m2 y2 20 0 10 5 5
Ycm
m1 m2 30 3
2 400 25 425 5 17
rcm XCM YCM2
9 9 9 3
Key: 2
R
of radius is removed. Then the shift in centre of
32. From a solid sphere of radius ‘R’ a small sphere 2
mass is
R R R R
1) 2) 3) 4)
7 14 2 3
3
r
X CM 3 CC
3 1 2
Sol: R r
3
R
2 R R
3
R 2 14
R3
2
Key: 2
33. Three identical spheres each of radius R touching one another . If one sphere(upper) is removed.
Then shift in centre of mass is
R R R R
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 2 3 3 33
Sol: L 2R
L 2R R
X cm c1c2
2 3 2 3 3
Key: 3
34. Particles of mass m,2m,3m,……nm are placed at x=1,x=4,x=9 …then the position of centre of mass
from x=0 is
n 1 2n 1
1) X cm 2) X cm
2 3
n n 1
3) Xcm 4) X cm n n 1
2
11 | P a g e
m1x1 m2 x2 m3 x3
Sol: X cm
m1 m2 m3
m1 1 2m 4 3 9
X cm
m 2m 3m
2
n n 1
m 1 2 3 2 n n 1
3 3
m1 2 3 n n 1 2
2
Key: 3
35. The co-ordinates of centre of mass of particles of mass 10,20, and 30 gm are (1,1,1)cm. The position
co-ordinates of mass 40 cm which when added to the system, the position of combined centre of
mass be at (0,0,0) are,
1) 3/ 2,3 / 2,3/ 2 2) 3/ 2, 3/ 2, 3 / 2
3) 3/ 4,3 / 4,3/ 4 4) 3/ 4, 3/ 4, 3 / 4
10 x1 20 x2 30 x3
Sol: X cm 1
60
10 x1 20 x2 30 x3 60
10 x1 20 x2 30 x3 40 x4
X cm1 0
100
60 40 x4 0
3 3 3
x4 ; y 4 ; z4
2 2 2
Key: 2
36. Two particles of masses 4kg and 6kg are at rest separated by 20 m. If they move towards each other
under mutual force of attraction, the position of the point where they meet is
1)12m from 4kg body
2)12m from 6kg body
3)8 from 4kg body
4)10m 4kg body
m2 6
Sol: r1 d 20 12 m from 4 kg
m1 m 2 10
Key: 1
37. One end of a thin uniform rod of length L and mass M1 is riveted to the centre of a uniform circular
disc of radius ‘r’ and mass M2 so that both are coplanar. The centre of mass of the combination from
the centre of the disc is (Assume that the point of attachment is at the origin)
L M1 M 2 LM1
1) 2)
2M1 2 M1 M 2
2 M1 M 2 2LM 1
3) 4)
LM 1 M1 M 2
L
Sol: x2 0 x1 d
2
r2 ?
M1 M1 L
r2 d
M 1 m2 M 1 m2 2
Key: 2
12 | P a g e
38. A uniform disc of radius R is put over another uniform disc of radius 2R of same thickness and
density. The peripheries of the two discs touch each other. The position of their centre of mass is
R
1)at from the centre of the bigger disc towards the centre of the smaller disc
3
R
2) at from the centre of the bigger disc towards the centre of the smaller disc
5
2R
3) at from the centre of the bigger disc towards the centre of the smaller disc
5
4)none of the above
added mass
Sol: X cm c1c2
total mass
R2
2 R
2 R R2
R
from centre of big disc towards smaller disc
5
Key: 2
39. A system consists of two identical particles one particle is at rest and the other particle has an
acceleration ’a’. The centre of mass of the system has an acceleration of
1)2a 2)a
3)a/2 4)a/4
m1a1 m2 a2 m 0 m a a
X cm
Sol: m1 m2 2m 2
Key: 3
40. A thin uniform rod of length L is bent at its mid point as shown in the figure. The distance of centre
of mass form the point ‘O’ is
L L
cos 2) sin
1) 2 2 2 2
L L
3) cos 4) sin
4 2 4 2
Sol:
x1
sin
2 L
4
13 | P a g e
l
x1 sin
4 2
2
L
op x 2
2
4
2 2
L L L
op sin 2 cos
4 4 2 4 2
Key: 3
41. Two blocks of masses 5 kg and 2 kg are placed on a frictionless surface and connected by a spring.
An external kick gives a velocity of 14 m/s to the heavier block in the direction of lighter one. The
magnitudes of velocities of two blocks in the centre of mass frame after the kick are, respectively,
1)4 m/s , 4 m/s 2)10 m/s, 4 m/s
3)4 m/s, 10 m/s 4)10 m/s, 10 m/s
5 14
Sol: vCM 10 m / s
5 2
Velocity of the 5kg block w.r.t
CM=14-10=4 m/s
Velocity of the 5kg block w.r.t
CM=0-10= 10 m/s
Key: 3
42. Two particles A and B initially at rest move towards each other under a mutual force of attraction.
At the instant when the speed of A is V and the speed of B is 2v, the speed of the centre of mass of
the system is
1)0 2)V
3)1.5V 4)3V
Sol: Velocity of centre of mass is zero
43. A uniform wire of length L is bent in the form of a circle. The shift in its centre of mass is
L 2L L L
1) 2) 3) 4)
L
L 2 r r
Sol: 2
Key: 3
44. A man stands at one end of a boat which is stationary in water. Neglect water resistance. The man
now move to the other end of the boat and again becomes stationary. The centre of mass of the ‘man
plus boat’ system will remain stationary with respect to water
1)only when the man is stationary initially and finally
2)only if the man moves without acceleration on the boat
3)only if the man and the boat have equal masses
4)in all cases
Sol: As long as no external force acts on the system of ‘man+ boat ’its centre of mass will remain
stationary.
Key: 4
45. Two bodies of 6kg and 4kg masses have their velocities 5 i 2 j 10 k and 10 i 2 j 5 k
respectively. Then the velocity of their centre of mass is
1) 5 i 2 j 8 k 2) 7 i 2 j 8 k
3) 7 i 2 j 8 k 4) 5 i 2 j 8 k
6 5 i 2 j10 k 4 10 i 2 j 5 k
mV m V
Sol: V cm 1 1 2 2
m1 m2 10
14 | P a g e
70 i 20 j 80 k
10
7 i 2 j 8 k
Key: 3
46. Four particles of masses m,2m,3m and 4m are at the vertices of a parallelogram in x-y plane with
one of the adjacent angle 600 and smaller side ‘a’ and larger side 2a. The mass ‘m’ is at the origin
and mass 4m on x-axis. The centre of mass of the system is
3a a a 3a
1) ; 2) ;
2 2 2 2
3a 3a
3) 1.65a; 4) ;0.82a
4 4
Sol:
0,0 2a,0 2a, acos60, asin600 acos600, asin600
m1 x1 m2 x2 m3 x3 m4 x4
X cm 1.65a
m1 m2 m3 m4
m1 y1 m2 y2 m3 y3 m4 y4 3a
Ycm
m1 m2 m3 m4 4
Key: 3
47. Two pendulums each of length l are initially situated as shown in Fig. The first pendulum is
released and strikes the second. Assume that the collision is completely inelastic and neglect the
mass of the string and any frictional effects. How high does the centre of mass rise after the
collision?
2
m1 m1
1) d 2) d
m1 m2 m1 m2
2 2
m1 m2 m2
3) d 4) d
m2 m1 m2
Sol: Applying the law of conservation of momentum, m1v1 m1 m2 V i
Where v1 2gd is the velocity with which m1 collides with m2. Therefore,
m1
V 2 gd
m1 m2
Now , let the centre of mass rise through a height h after collision. In this case, the kinetic energy
of m1+m2 system is converted into potential energy at maximum height h.
15 | P a g e
1
m1 m2 V 2 m1 m2 gh
2
2
1 m1
m1 m2 2 gd m1 m2 gh
2 m1 m2
2
m1
hd
m1 m2
Key: 1
48. Two bodies of masses (M+m) and (M-m) are connected to the ends of a light inextensible string and
the string is laid over a smooth fixed pulley. The system is released from rest. The velocity of the
centre of mass of the two body system ‘t’ seconds after the release is
m m2 m2
1) gt 2) 2gt 2 3) gt 2 4) zero
M M M
m1 M m
Sol:
m2 M m
m m2
a 1 g
m1 m2
m m2 m1 m2
Vcm 1 V at
m1 m2 m1 m2
2
m m2 m2
1 gt ; Vcm gt
m1 m2 M2
Key: 3
49. Two identical ‘rods each of length “L” and mass “m” are arranged along two sides of an equilateral
triangle of side “L” . The distance of the centre of mass of the system from the corner where the two
rods meet eachother
L 3 3L
1) 2) 3L 3) L 4)
4 4 2
Sol:
L y1 0
x1
2
L L L
x2 cos 60 0 y2 sin 60 0
2 4 2
16 | P a g e
m1x1 m2 x2 3L
X cm
m1 m2 8
m1 y1 m2 y2 3L
Ycm
m1 m2 8
2 3L
rcm X cm Ycm2
4
Key: 3
50. Two blocks of masses 2kg and 1 kg respectively are tied to the ends of a string which passes over a
light frictionless pulley. The masses are held at rest at the same horizontal level and then released.
The distance traversed by centre of mass in 2s is
: g 10m / s 2
1)1.42 m 2)2.22m 3)3.12m 4)3.33m
2 2
m m 1
Sol: aC.M 2 1 g 10
m1 m2 3
10
aC .M m / sec 2
9
1 1 10 20
S aCM t 2 4
2 2 9 9
S 2.22m
Key: 2
51. If the system is released, then the acceleration of the centre of mass of the system is:
g g
1) 2) 3) g 4) 2g
4 2
3m m g
Sol: a g
3m m 2
17 | P a g e
ma 3m a 2ma a g
acm
m 3m 4m 2 4
Key: 1
52. A hemisphere and a solid cone have a common base. The center of mass of common
structure coincides with the common base. If R is the radius of hemisphere and h is the
height of the cone, then h/R will be
1 1
1) 3 2) 3 3) 4)
3 3
1 h
Sol: m1 k R 2 h, y1
3 4
2 3R
m2 k R 3 , y2
3 8
m1 y1 m2 y2
yC . M 0
m1 m2
h
3
R
Key: 1
18 | P a g e
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT-2
DAY – 23 (DT 06-05-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
CHAPTER: SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTATORY MOTION
================================================================================================================
1. The wheel of a car rotating at the rate of 1200 revolutions per minute. On pressing the
acceleration for 10 sec it is rotate at 4500 revolutions per minute. The angular acceleration
the wheel is
1) 30 radians/sec2 2) 1880 degrees/sec2 3) 40 radians/sec2 4) 1980 degree/sec2
Sol: Angular acceleration =rate of change of angular speed
4500 1200 3300
2 2
2 n2 n1 60 60 360 Degree 1980 degree/sec2.
t 10 10 2 sec2
Key: 4
2. Angular displacement of a flywheel varies with time as at + bt2 + ct3 then angular
acceleration is given by
1) a + 2bt – 3ct2 2) 2b – 6t 3) a + 2b – 6t 4) 2b + 6ct
2 2
d d
Sol: Angular acceleration a 2 2 at bt 2 ct 3 2b 6ct
dt dt
Key: 4
3. A wheel completes 2000 rotations in covering a distance of 9.5km. The diameter of the
wheel is
1) 1.5m 2) 1.5cm 3) 7.5m 4) 7.5cm
Sol: Distance covered by wheel in 1 rotation 2 r D (Where D = 2r = diameter of wheel)
Distance covered in 2000 rotation = 2000 D 9.5 103 m (given)
D = 1.5 meter
Key: 1
4. A wheel is at rest. Its angular velocity increase uniformly and becomes 60 rad/sec after
5sec. Its angular displacement is
1) 600 rad 2) 75 rad 3) 300 rad 4) 150 rad
1 60 0
Sol: Angular acceleration 2 12 rad/sec2
t 5
1 2 1 2
Now from 1t t 0 12 5 150 rad
2 2
Key: 4
5. A wheel initially at rest, is rotated with a uniform angular acceleration. The wheel rotates
through an angle 1 in first one second and through an additional angle 2 in the next one
second. The ratio 2 is
1
1) 4 2) 2 3) 3 4) 1
1|Page
1 2 1
Sol: Angular displacement in first one second 1 1 .... i [From 1t t 2 ]
2 2 2
Now again we will consider motion from the rest and angular displacement in total two
seconds
1 2
1 2 2 2 ................... ii
2
3 2
Solving (i) and (ii) we get 1 and 2 3.
2 2 1
Key: 3
6. As a part of maintenance inspection the compressor of a jet engine is made to spin
according to the graph as shown. The number of revolutions made by the compressor during
the test is
1) 9000 2) 16570 3) 12750 4) 11250
Sol: Number of revolution = Area between the graph and time axis = Area of trapezium
1
2.5 5 3000 1250 revolution
2
Key: 4
7. Figure shows a small wheel fixed coaxially on a bigger one of double the radius. The sytem
rotates about the common axis. The strings supporting A and B do not slip on the wheels. If
x and y be the distance travelled by A and B in the same time interval, then
1) x = 2y 2) x = y 3) y = 2x 4) y = 3x
Sol: Linear displacement (S) = Radius (r) Angular displacement
S r (if = constant)
Distance travelled by mass A(x)
Distance travelled by mass B(y)
Radius of pulley concerned with mass A(r) 1
y=2x
Radius of pulley concerned with mass B(2r) 2
Key: 3
2|Page
8. If the position vector of a particle is r 3i 4 j meter and its angular velocity
is j 2k rad/sec then its liner velocity is (in m/s)
1) 8i 6 j 3k
2) 3i 6 j 8k
3) 3i 6 j 6k
4) 6i 8 j 3k
i j k
Sol: v r 3i 4 j 0k 0i j 2k 3 4 0 8i 6 j 3k
0 1 2
Key: 1
9. Two points of a rod move with velocities 3v and v perpendicular to the rod and in the same
direction, separated by a distance ‘r’. Then the angular velocity of the rod is:
3v 4v 5v 2v
1) 2) 3) 4)
r r r r
v
Sol: red po int rel ; vrel . being the velocity of one point w.r.t other
r
3v v 2v
and ‘r’ being the distance between them
r r
Key: 4
10. A grindstone increases in angular speed from 4.00rad/s to 12.00 rad/s in 4.00s. Through
what angle does it turn during that time interval if the angular acceleration is constant?
1) 8.00 rad 2) 12.0 rad 3) 16.0 rad 4) 32.0 rad
Sol: The angular displacement will be
i
avg t f t
2
12.00rad / s 4.00 rad / s
4.00 s 32.0rad
2
Key: 4
11. A hoop rolls on a horizontal ground without slipping with linear speed v. Speed of a particle
P on the circumference of the hoop at angle is
3|Page
1) 2v sin / 2 2) v sin 3) 2v cos / 2 4) v cos
Sol: v p v 2 v 2 2vv cos 180
v p 2v 2 1 cos
2v sin / 2
Key: 1
12. The force 7iˆ 3 ˆj 5kˆ acts on a particle whose position vector is iˆ ˆj kˆ . What is the
torque of a given force about the origin?
1) 2iˆ 12 ˆj 10kˆ 2) 2iˆ 10 ˆj 12kˆ 3) 2iˆ 10 ˆj 10kˆ 4) 10iˆ 2 ˆj kˆ
ˆ ˆ ˆ
Sol: Here, r i j k
F 7iˆ 3 ˆj 5kˆ
Torque, r F
iˆ ˆj kˆ
1 1 1 i 5 3 ˆj 7 5 kˆ 3 7
7 3 5
Or 2iˆ 12 Jˆ 10 kˆ
Key: 1
13. A weightless rod is acted upon by two upward parallel forces of 2N and 4N at ends A and B
respectively. The total length of the rod AB 3 m. To keep the rod in equilibrium a force of
6N should act in the following manner.
1) Downwards at any point between A and B
2) Downwards at the midpoint of AB
3) Downwards at a point C such that AC = 1m
4) Downwards at a point D such that BD = 1m
Sol: 2 3 x 4 x x 1m
4|Page
Key: 4
14. A uniform disc of mass M and radius R is mounted on an axle supported in frictionless
bearings. A light cord is wrapped around the rim of the disc and a steady downward pull T
is exerted on the cord. The angular acceleration of the disc is
T MR 2T 2R
1) 2) 3) 4)
MR T MR MR
Sol: Torque exerted on the disc TR
Now I
TR 2TR 2T
Or
I 1 MR 2 MR 2 MR
2
Key: 3
15. A particle of mass 1kg is moving along the line y x 2 (here x and y are in m) with speed
2m/s. The magnitude of angular momentum of the particle about origin is
2 1
1) 4kgm s 2) 2 2kgm2 s 1 3) 4 2kgm2 s 1 4) 2kgm2 s 1
Sol: Angular momentum of particle about orign O is
4
L mvr1 1 2 2cos 450 2 2kgm2 s 1
2
Key: 2
5|Page
16. A child is standing with his two arms outstretched at the centre of a turntable that is rotating
bout its central axis with an angular speed 0 . Now, the child folds his hands back so that
moment of inertia becomes 1/3 times the initial value . The new angular speed is
1) 0 2) 0 3) 30 4) 0
3 6
Sol: Here,
Initial angular speed, i 0
Initial moment of inertia = Ii
Ii
Final moment of inertia I f
3
According to the law of conservation of angular momentum, we get
Li L f
I i I f f
Iii I i 3I I
f i i i ; I f i
If I
f Ii 3
3i 30 i 0
Key: 3
17. Five particles each of mass = 2kg are attached to the rim of a circular disc of radius 0.1m
and negligible mass. Moment of inertia of the system about the axis passing through the
centre of the disc and perpendicular to its plane is
1) 1kg m2 2) 0.1kgm2 3) 2kg m2 4) 0.2kgm2
Sol: We will not consider the moment of inertia of disc because it doesn’t have any mass so
2
moment of inertia of five particles system I 5mr 2 5 2 0.1 0.1kg m 2
Key: 2
18. A circular disc X of radius R is made from an iron plate of thickness t, and another disc Y
of radius 4R is made from an iron plate of thickness t/4. Then the relation between the
moment of inertial IX and IY is
1) IY = 64IX 2) IY = 32IX 3) IY = 16IX 4) IY = IX
1 1 1
Sol: Moment of inertia of disc I MR 2 R 2t R 2 t R 4
2 2 2
2
[As M 1 R t where t = thickness, =density]
4
Iy
t R
y y [If = constant]
I x t x Rx
I 1 4 tx
y 4 64 [Given Ry 4 Rx , t y ]
Ix 4 4
Key: 1
19. Moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc about a diameter is I. Its moment of inertia
about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through a point on its rim will be
1) 5I 2) 6I 3) 3I 4) 4I
1
Sol: Moment of inertia of disc about a diameter MR 2 I (Given) MR2 = 4I
4
6|Page
Now moment of inertia of disc about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through
3 3
a point on its rim MR 2 4 I 6 I
2 2
Key: 2
20. Four thin rods of same mass M and same length l, form a square as shown in figure.
Moment of inertia of this system about an axis through centre O and perpendicular to plane
is
4 Ml 2 Ml 2 2
1) Ml 2 2) 3) 4) Ml 2
3 3 6 3
1
Sol: Moment of inertia of rod AB about point P ml 2
12
2 2
Ml l 1 2
M.I of rod AB about point O M Ml [by the theorem of parallel axis]
12 2 3
4
and the system consists of 4 rods of similar type so by the symmetry I System ml 2 .
3
Key: 1
21. Three rings each of mass M and radius R are arranged as shown in the figure. The moment
of inertia of the system about YY” will be
1) 3MR2 2) 3/2 MR2 3) 5MR2 4) 7/2MR2
Sol: M.I of system about YY’ I = I1 + I2 + I3
Where I1 = moment of inertia of ring about diameter, I2 = I3 = M.I. of inertia of ring about a
tangent in a plane
1 3 3 7
I mR 2 mR 2 mR 2 mR 2
2 2 2 2
Key: 4
22. Let I be the moment of inertia of an uniform square plate about an axis AB that passes
through its centre and is parallel to two of its sides. CD is a line in the plane of the plate that
passes through the centre of the plate and makes an angle with AB. The moment of inertia
of the plate about axis CD is then equal to
7|Page
1) I 2) I sin 2 3) I cos 2 4) I cos 2
2
Sol: Let IZ is the moment of inertia of square plate about the axis which is passing through the
centre and perpendicular to the plane
I Z I AB I A' B ' I CD IC ' D ' [By the theorem of perpendicular axis]
I Z 2 I AB 2 I A' B 2 ICD 2 IC ' D ' [As AB, A’B’ and CD, C’ D’ are symmetric axis]
Hence ICD = IAB = I
Key: 1
23. Three rods each of length L and mass M are placed along X, Y and Z-axes in such a way
that one end of each of the rod is at the origin. The moment of inertia of this system about Z
axis is
2 ML2 4 ML2 5ML2 ML2
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 3 3
Sol: Moment of inertia of the system about z-axis can be find out calculating the moment of
inertia of individual rod about z-axis
mL2
I1 I 2 because z-axis is the edge of rod 1 and 2
3
and I3 = 0 because rod in lying on z-axis
ML2 ML2 2 ML2
I System I1 I 2 I3 0
3 3 3
Key: 1
24. Three point masses each of mass m are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of
side a. Then the moment of inertia of this system about an axis passing along one side of the
triangle is
1) ma2 2) 3ma2 3) 3/4ma2 4) 2/3ma2
Sol: The moment of inertia of system about AB side of triangle
8|Page
I = IA + IB + IC
= 0 + 0 + mx2
2
a 3 3 2
m ma
2 4
Key: 3
25. Two identical rods each of mass M. And length l are joined in crossed position as shown in
figure. The moment of inertia of this system about a bisector would be
Ml 2 Ml 2 Ml 2 Ml 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
6 12 3 4
Sol: Moment of inertial of system about an axes which is perpendicular to plane or rods and
Ml 2 Ml 2 Ml 2
passing through the common centre of rods I 2
12 12 6
Ml 2
Again from perpendicular axes theorem I z I B1 I B2 2 I B1 2 I B2 [As I B1 I B2 ]
6
Ml 2
I B1 I B2 .
12
Key: 2
26. The moment of inertia of a rod of length l about an axis passing through centre of mass and
perpendicular to rod is I. The moment of inertia of hexagonal shape formed by six such rods
about an axis passing through its centre of mass and perpendicular to its plane will be
1) 16I 2) 40I 3) 60I 4) 80I
Sol: Moment of inertia of rod AB about its centre and perpendicular to the length
ml 2
I ml 2 12l
12
Now moment of inertia of rod about the axis which is passing through O and perpendicular
ml 2
to the plane of hexagon I rod mx 2 [From the theorem of parallel axes]
12
9|Page
2
ml 2 3 5ml 2
m l
12 2 6
5ml 2
Now the moment of inertia of system I System 6 I rod 6 5ml 2
6
I System 5 12 I 60 I [As ml2 = 12l]
Key: 3
27. The moment of inertia of HCl molecule about an axis passing through its centre of mass and
perpendicular to the line joining the H+ and Cl– ions will be, if the interatomic distance is
1A0
1) 0.61 10 – 47 kg.m2 2) 1.61 10 – 47kg.m2 3) 0.061 10 – 47kg.m2 4) Zero
Sol: If r1 and r2 are the respective distance of particles m1 and m2 from the centre of mass then
m1r1 m2 r2 1 x 35.5 L x x 35.5 1 x
x 0.973 A and L – x = 0.027A
Moment of inertia of the system about centre of mass
2
I m1 x 2 m2 L x
2 2
I 1amu 0.973 A 35.5amu 0.027 A
Substituting 1 a. m. =1.67 10 – 27g and 1A0 = 10 – 10 m
I = 1.62 10 – 47kgm2
Key: 2
28. Four masses are joined to a light circular frame as shown in the figure. The radius of
gyration of this system about an axis passing through the centre of the circular frame and
perpendicular to its plane would be
1) a / 2 2) a/2 3) a 4) 2a
Sol: Since the circular frame is massless so we will consider moment of inertia of four masses
only.
I ma 2 2ma 2 3ma 2 2ma 2 8ma 2 ...... i
Now from the definition of radius of gyration I = 8mk2 ......(ii)
Comparing (i) and (ii) radius of gyration k = a
Key: 3
29. Four spheres, each of mass M and radius r are situated at the corners of square of side R.
The moment of inertia of the system about an axis perpendicular to the plane of square and
passing through its centre will be
5 2 2 5
1) M 4r 2 5R 2 2) M 4r 2 5R 2 3) M 4r 2 9 R 2 4) M 4r 2 9 R 2
2 5 5 2
10 | P a g e
2
Sol: M. I. Of sphere A about its diameter I O Mr 2
5
Now M.I. of sphere A about an axis perpendicular to the plane of square and passing
through its centre will be
2
R 2 2 MR 2
I0 I0 M Mr [by the theorem of parallel axis]
2 5 2
2 MR 2 2
Moment of inertia of system (i.e four sphere) 4l0 4 Mr 2 2 2
5 M 4r 5R
5 2
Key: 2
30. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of density and radius R about its diameter is
105 5 105 2 176 5 176 2
1) R 2) R 3) R 4) R
176 176 105 105
2 24
Sol: Moment of inertia of sphere about is diameter I MR 2 R3 R 2
5 53
4 8 5 8 22 5 176 5
[As M V R 3 ] I R R R
3 15 15 7 105
Key: 3
31. Two circular discs A and B are of equal masses and thickness but made of metals with
densities dA and dB (dA > dB). If their moments of inertia about an axis passing through
centres and normal to the circular faces be IA and IB, then
1) IA = IB 2) IA > IB 3) IA < IB 4) IA IB
Sol: Moment of inertia of circular disc about an axis passing through centre and normal to the
circular
1 1 M M
I MR 2 M [As M V R 2t R 2 ]
2 2 t t
M2 1
I or I If mass and thickness are constant
2 t
I d
So, in the problem A B I A I B [As dA > dB]
IB dA
Key: 3
32. A disc of mass M and radius R rotating at an angular velocity about an axis perpendicular to is
R
plane at a distance from the center with an angular momentum L. If a particle of mass M is
2
placed on the edge of the disc at point P as shown in figure. Its new angular velocity about same
axis is
11 | P a g e
R P
R/2
1) 2) 3) 4) 3
4 3
Sol: The moment of inertia of the disc about the give axis may be found from the parallel axes
theorem, equation I=Icm+Md2 , when h is the distance between the given axis and a parallel axis
through the center of the mass.
2
R 2 R = 3 MR2
Here h= , therefore I 1 =Icm+Md +M 4
2 2
3 2
The angular momentum is L=I = 4 MR
2
3 3R
I2 MR 2 M
4 2
3MR 2 9 MR 2 12MR 2
3MR 2
4 4 4
3
L1 3MR 2 1 MR 2
4
1
4
Key: 2
33. A disc of moment of inertia 4kgm2 is spinning freely at 3 rads-1 . A second disc of moment of inertia
2kgm2 slides down the spindle and they rotate together. The change in kinetic energy of the
system is
1) -2J 2) -4J 3) -6J 4) 6J
I11 I1 I 2
Sol:
4 3 4 2
2rad / s
1 1
KEi Iii2 4 32 2 9 18 J
2 2
1 1
KE f I f 2f 6 22 12 J
2 2
K K f K i 6 J
The change in
Key: 3
34. A homogeneous rod AB of length L=1.8m and mass M is pivoted at the center O in such a way that
it can rotate freely in the vertical plane (shown in figure).The rod is initially in the horizontal
position. An insect s of the same mass M falls vertically with speed V on the point C, midway
between the point O and B. Immediately after falling, the insect moves towards the end B such
that the rod rotates with a constant angular velocity .Determine the angular velocity in terms
of V and L.
12 | P a g e
V 12V V 7V
1) 2) 3) 4)
7L 7L 12 L 12 L
Sol: In this problem we will denote angular momentum by its standard symbol H because L has been
used for length of the rod
Angular momentum of the system (rod + insect) about the center of the rod O will remain
conserved just before collision and after collision i.e, Hi=Hf .
2
L ML2 L
MV =I = M
4 12 4
L 7
MV ML2
4 48
12 V
7 L
Key: 2
35. Three identical thin rods each of length l and mass M are joined together to form a letter H.
What is the moment of inertia of the system about one of the sides of H?
Ml 2 Ml 2 2 Ml 2 4 Ml 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 3 3 3
2 2
MI 4ML
Sol: I ml 2
3 3
Key: 4
36. Two thin discs each of mass M and radius r are attached as shown in figure, to form a rigid
body. The rotational inertia of this body about an axis perpendicular to the plane of disc B
and passing through its centre is:
13 | P a g e
1) 2Mr 2 2) 3Mr 2 3) 4Mr 2 4) 5Mr 2
1 1 2
Sol: I I B I A Mr 2 Mr 2 M 2r 5Mr 2
2 2
Key: 4
37. A force of 2i 4 j 2k N acts at a point 3i 2 j 4k metre from the origin. The
magnitude of torque about the point is
1) Zero 2) 24.4 N-m 3) 0.244 N-m 4) 2.444 N-m
Sol:
F 2i 4 j 2k N and r 3i 2 4k meter
i j k
Torque r F 3 2 4
2 4 2
12i 14 j 16k and
2 2 2
12 14 16 24.4 N-m
Key: 2
38. A horizontal heavy uniform bar of weight W is supported at its ends by two men. At the
instant, one of the men lets go off his end of the rod, the other feels the force on his hand
changed to
1) W 2) W/2 3) 3W/4 4) W/4
Sol: Let the mass of the rod is M Weight (W) = Mg
Initially for the equilibrium F + F = Mg F = Mg/2
When one man withdraws, the torque on the rod
l
I Mg
2
2
Ml l
Mg [As I = Ml2/3]
3 2
3g
Angular acceleration
2 l
l 3g
and linear acceleration a
2 4
Now if the new normal force at A is F then Mg – F = Ma
3Mg Mg W
F Mg Ma Mg
4 4 4
Key: 4
39. Consider a body, shown in figure, consisting of two identical balls, each of mass M
connected by a light rigid rod. If an impulse J = Mv is imparted to the body at one of its
ends, what would be its angular velocity
14 | P a g e
1) v / L 2) 2v / L 3) v / 3L 4) v / 4 L
Sol: Initial angular momentum of the system about point O = Linear momentum Perpendicular
L
distance of linear momentum from the axis of rotation Mv .... i
2
Final angular momentum of the system about point O
L 2 L
2
I1 I 2 I1 I 2 M M .... ii
2 2
Applying the law of conservation of angular momentum
2
L L v
mv 2M
2 2 L
Key: 1
40. A thin circular ring of mass M and radius R is rotating about its axis with a constant angular
velocity . Four objects each of mass m, are kept gently to the opposite ends of two
perpendicular diameters of the ring. The angular velocity of the ring will be
1)
M
2)
M 4m 3)
M 4m 4)
M
M 4m M M 4m 4m
2
Sol: Initial angular momentum of ring I MR
If four object each of mass m, and kept gently to the opposite ends of two perpendicular
diameters of the ring then final angular momentum = (MR2 + 4mR2) ' By the conservation
of angular momentum. Initial angular momentum = final angular momentum
M
MR 2 MR 2 4mR 2 ' ' .
M 4m
Key: 1
41. A circular platform is free to rotate in a horizontal plane about a vertical axis passing
through its centre. A tortoise is sitting at the edge of the platform. Now, the platform is
given an angular velocity 0 . When the tortoise moves along a chord of the platform with a
constant velocity (with respect to platform), the angular velocity of the platform (t) will
vary time t as
1) 2) 3) 4)
Sol: The angular momentum (L) of the system is conserved i.e. L I =constant
When the tortoise walks along a chord, it first moves closer to the centre to the centre and
then away from the centre. Hence, M.I. First decreases and then increases. As a result,
will first increase and then decrease. Also the change in will be non-linear functions of
time.
Key: 2
15 | P a g e
42. The position of a particles is given by: r i 2 j k and momentum P 3i 4 j 2k .
The angular momentum is perpendicular to
1) X-axis 2) Y-axis
3) Z-axis 4) Line at equal angles to all the three axes
i j k
Sol: L r p 1 2 1 0i j 2k j 2k and the X-axis is given by i 0 j 0 j . Do
3 4 2
product of these two vectors is zero i.e. angular momentum is perpendicular to X-axis.
Key: 1
43. A girl of mass M stands on the rim of a frictionless merry go-round of radius R and
rotational inertia I that is not moving. She throws a rock of mass m horizontally in a
direction that is tangent to the outer edge of the merry-go-round. The speed of the rock,
relative to the ground, is v, Afterward, the linear speed of the girl is
1)
mvR 2
2)
m M vR 2 3)
mvR 2
4)
mvR 2
I MR 2 I MR 2 I M m R2 I M m R2
Sol: The initial angular momentum of the system is zero. The final angular momentum of the
girl-plus-merry-go-ground is I MR 2 , which we will take to be positive. The final
angular momentum we associate with the thrown rock is negative : mRv , where v is the
speed (positive, by definition) of the rock relative to the ground.
Angular momentum conservation lead to
mRv
0 I MR 2 mRv
I MR 2
mvR
The girl’s linear speed is R
I MR 2
Key: 1
44. A smooth uniform rod of length L and mass M has two identical beads of negligible size, of
mass m, which can slide freely along the rod. Initially the two beads are at the centre of the
rod and the system is rotating with angular velocity 0 about an axis perpendicular to the rod
and passing through the mid point of the rod. There are no external forces. When the beads
reach the ends of the rod, the angular velocity of the system is
M 0 M 0 M 0
1) 0 2) 3) 4)
M 12m M 2m M 6m
Sol: Since there are no external forces therefore the angular momentum of the system remains
constant
ML2
Initially when the beads are at the centre of the rod angular momentum L1 0 ... i
12
When beads reach the ends of the rod then angular
L 2 2
L ML
2
Momentum m m
2 '.... ii
2 12
2
ML mL ML2
2
M 0
Equating (i) and (ii) 0 ' '
12 2 12 M 6m
Key: 4
16 | P a g e
45. Moment of inertia of uniform rod of mass M and length L about an axis through its centre
and perpendicular to its length is given by ML2/12. Now consider one such rod pivoted at
its centre, force to rotate in a vertical plane. The rod is at rest in the vertical position. A
bullet of mass M moving horizontally at a speed strikes and embedded in one end of the
rod. The angular velocity of the rod just after the collision will be
1) v/L 2) 3v/L 3) 3v/2L 4) 6v/L
Sol: Initial angular momentum of the system = Angular momentum of bullet before collision
L
Mv ........(i)
2
Let the rod rotates with angular velocity .
ML2 L
Final angular momentum of the system M .... ii
12 2
L ML2 ML2
By equation (i) and (ii) Mv or 3v / 2 L
2 12 4
Key: 3
46. A solid cylinder of mass 2kg and radius 0.2m is rotating about its own axis without friction
with angular velocity 3rad/s. A particle of mass 0.5kg and moving with a velocity 5m.s-1
strikes the cylinder and sticks to it as shown in figure. The angular velocity of the system
after the particle sticks to it will be
1) 0.3 rad/s 2) 5.3rad/s 3) 10.3rad/s 4) 89.3rad/s
Sol: Angular momentum of the cylinder before collision
1 1 2
L I MR 2 2 0.2 3 0.12 J s
2 2
Key: 1
47. A rod of length l whose lower end is fixed on a horizontal plane, starts toppling from the
vertical position. The velocity of the upper end when it hits the ground is
1) g / l 2) 3gl 3) 3 g / l 4) 3g / l
Sol: loss in Pe = gain in KE
l 1 l 1 ml 2 2 3g
mg I A 2 mg
2 2 2 2 3 l
v l
3 g / l l 3 gl
Key: 2
48. A ring of radius 0.5m and mass 10kg is rotating about its diameter with an angular velocity
of 20 rad/s. Its kinetic energy is
1) 10J 2) 100J 3) 500J 4) 250J
17 | P a g e
1 2 11 11 2 2
Sol: Rotational kinetic energy I MR 2 2 10 0.5 20 250 J
2 2 2 2 2
Key: 4
49. An automobile engine develops 100 kW when rotating at a speed of 1800 rev/min. What
torque does it deliver ?
1) 350 N-m 2) 440 N-m 3) 531 N-m 4) 628 N-m
3
100 10
Sol: P 531N m
1800
2
60
Key: 3
50. A body of moment of inertia of 3kg-m2 rotating with an angular velocity of 2rad/sec has the
same kinetic energy as a mass of 12 kg moving with a velocity of
1) 8 m/s 2) 0.5 m/s 3) 2 m/s 4) 1 m/s
1 1
Sol: Rotational kinetic energy of the body I 2 and translator kinetic energy mv 2
2 2
1 1 1 2 1
According to problem I 2 mv 2 3 2 12 v 2 v 1m / s.
2 2 2 2
Key: 4
51. A disc and a ring of same mass are rolling and if their kinetic energies are equal, then the
ratio of the velocities of centre of mass will be
1) 4 : 3 2) 3 : 4 3) 3 : 2 4) 2 : 3
1 2 k2 3 2 k2 1
Sol: K disc mvd 1 2 mvd As R 2 2 for disc
2 R 4
1 k2 k2
K ring mvr 1 2 mvr2 As R 2 1 for ring
2 R
3 2 v 4
According to problem K disc K ring mvd mvr2 d .
4 vr 3
Key: 1
52. A wheel is rotating with an angular speed of 20 rad/sec. It is stopped to rest by applying a
constant torque in 4s. If the moment of inertia of the wheel about its axis is 0.20 kg-m2.
Then the work done by the torque in two seconds will be
1) 10J 2) 20J 3) 30J 4) 40J
2 20
Sol: 1 20 rad/sec, 2 0, t 40 sec. So angular retardation 1 5rad / sec 2
t 4
Now angular speed after 2sec 2 1 t 20 5 2 10 rad/sec
Work done by torque in 2sec = loss in kinetic energy
1 1 2 2
I 12 22 0.20 20 10 )
2 2
1
0.2 300 30 J .
2
Key: 3
53. If the angular momentum of a rotating body is increased by 200%, then its kinetic energy of
rotation will be increased by
1) 400% 2) 800% 3) 200% 4) 100%
2 2
L2 E L 3L
Sol: As E 2 2 1 [As L2 = L1 + 200%. L1 = 3L1]
2l E1 L1 L1
18 | P a g e
E2 9 E1 E1 800% of E1
Key: 2
54. A ring, a solid sphere and a thin disc of different masses rotate with the same kinetic energy.
Equal torques are applied to stop them. Which will make the least number of rotations
before coming to rest
1) Disc 2) Ring
3) Solid sphere 4) All will make same number of rotations
Energy
Sol: As W Energy 2n
So, if energy and torque are same then all the bodies will make same number of rotation.
Key: 4
55. The angular velocity of a body is 2i 3 j 4k and a torque i 2 j 3k acts on it. The
rotational power will be
1) 20W 2) 15W 3) 17 W 4) 14 W
Sol: Power (P) . i 2 j 3k . 2i 3 j 4k 2 6 12 20 W
Key: 1
56. A flywheel of moment of inertia 0.32kg-m2is rotated steadily at 120 rad/sec by a 50W
electric motor. The kinetic energy of the flywheel is
1) 4608J 2) 1152J 3) 2304J 4) 6912J
1 1 2
Sol: Kinetic energy K R I 2 0.32 120 2304 J .
2 2
Key: 3
57. From a solid sphere of mass M and radius R a cube of maximum possible volume is cut.
Moment of inertia of cube about an axis passing through its centre and perpendicular to one
of its faces is
MR 2 MR 2 4MR 2 4MR 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
32 2 16 2 9 3 3 3
Sol: Figure alongside shows a solid sphere of mass M. The radius of the sphere is R. The volume
4 3
of the sphere is V R
3
M M 3M
The density of the sphere is . From this solid sphere a cube of
4 3
V R3 4 R
3
maximum
possible volume is cut.
Therefore 2 R 3a, where a is the length of the side of the cube of maximum volume
2R
a
3
3M 8 R 2M
Mass of the cube is M ' a 3
4 R 3 3 3
The moment of inertia of the cube is
19 | P a g e
2
a 2 2M 1 2R 8MR 2 4MR 2
M'
6 3 6 3 18 3 9 3
Key: 3
58. A wire of mass m and length l is bent in the form of an arc of a circle subtends an angle at
its centre. Its moment of inertia (I) about an axis through centre of the circle and normal to
the plane of the circle varies as
1) I 2) I 2 3) I 3/ 2 4) I 0
2
2 l
Sol: I mr
Key: 2
59. Four solid rigid balls each of mass m and radius r are fixed on a rigid-ring of radius 2r and
mass 2m. The system is whirled about ‘O’ as shown. The radius of gyration of the system is
128 88 64
1) r 2) r 3) 12 r 4) r
30 5 3
2 2 2 128 2
Sol: I 4 mr 2 m 2r 2m 2r mr
5 5
I 128 mr 2 128
Radius of gyration K r
M 5 6m 30
Key: 1
60. A rod PQ of mass M and length L is hinged at end P. The rod is kept horizontal by a
massless string tied to point Q as shown in figure. When string is cut, the initial
angular acceleration of the rod is:
1) g/L 2)2g/L
2g 3g
3) 4)
3L 2L
20 | P a g e
L ML2 3g
Sol: Mg
2 3 2L
Key: 4
61. ABC is an equilateral triangle with O as its centre. F1 , F 2 and F 3 represent three
forces acting along the sides AB, BC and AC respectively. If the total torque about O
is zero then the magnitude of F 3 is :
F1 F2
1) 2) 2 F1 F2
2
3) F1 F2 4) F1 F2
F1 r F2 r F3 r 0
Sol:
Key: 3
62. From a circular disc of radius R and mass 9M, a small disc of mass M and radius
R
is removed concentrically. The moment of inertia of the remaining disc about an
3
axis perpendicular to the plane of the disc and passing through its centre is:
40
1) MR 2 2) MR 2
9
4
3) 4MR 2 4) MR 2
9
1
Sol: I tot 9M R 2
2
21 | P a g e
2
1 R
I cut M
2 3
40 MR 2
I rem I tot I cut
9
Key: 1
63. A door 1.6 m wide requires a minimum force of 1 N to be applied at the free end to
open or close it. The minimum force that is required at a point 0.4 m distant from
the hinges for opening or closing the door is:
1) 1.2N 2) 3.6N
3) 2.4N 4) 4N
Sol: 1.6 1 1.6 N m
1.6
F 4N
d 0.4
Key: 4
64. A uniform rod AB of length l and mass m is free to rotate about point A. The rod is
released from rest in the horizontal position. Given that the moment of inertia of
ml 2
the rod about A is , the initial angular acceleration of the rod will be:
3
2g l
1) 2) mg
3l 2
3 3g
3) gl 4)
2 2l
Sol: The moment of inertia of the uniform rod about an axis through one end and
perpendicular to its length,
ml 2
I
3
where m is the mass of the rod and l is the length.
Torque I acting on the centre of gravity of rod is given by:
l
mg
2
l
or I mg
2
ml 2 l
or mg
3 2
3g
or
2l
Key: 4
65. A thin rod of length L and mass M is bent at its mid-point into two halves so that
the angle between them is 900 . The moment of inertia of the bent rod about an axis
passing through the bending point and perpendicular to the plane defined by the
22 | P a g e
two halves of the rod is:
ML2 2ML2
1) 2)
6 24
ML2 ML2
3) 4)
24 12
Sol: Same mass distribution as that of initial given rod.
Key: 4
66. Consider a uniform square plate of side a and mass m . The moment of inertia of
this plate about an axis perpendicular to its plane and passing through one of its
corners is:
5 2 1
1) ma 2) ma 2
6 12
7 2
3) ma 2 4) ma 2
12 3
Sol:
ma 2
Moment of inertia of the square plate about XY is moment of inertia about ZZ
6
can be computed using parallel axis theorem,
2
a
I ZZ I XY m
2
ma 2 ma 2 2ma2
.
6 2 3
Key: 4
67. A thin wire of length l and uniform linear mass density is bent into a circular
loop with centre O and radius r as shown in the figure. The moment of inertia of
the loop about the axis XX’ is :
3 l 3 l 3 3 l 3 l 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
8 2 16 2 8 2 r 8 2 r
l
Sol: M= l and R
2
2
3MR 3 l l 2 3 l 3
IT 2
2 4 2 8 2
23 | P a g e
Key: 1
68. The moment of inertia of a uniform rectangular door of mass m, length 2l and
width l about its longer side is .
11ml 2 5ml 2 ml 2 ml 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
24 24 3 12
2
ml ml 2 ml 2
Sol:
12 4 3
Key: 3
69. A uniform rod AB of mass m and length 2a is falling freely without rotation under
gravity with AB horizontal. Suddenly the end A is fixed when the speed of the rod is
v . The angular speed with which the rod begins to rotate is :
1) v / 2a 2) 4v / 3a
3) v / 3a 4) 3v / 4a
Sol:
Angular momentum about A will be conserved, i.e.,
Li L f
or mva I
2
m 2a
or mva .
3
3v
4a
Key: 4
70. A rigid spherical body is spinning around an axis without any external torque. Due
to change in temperature, the volume increases by 1%. Its angular speed:
1) Will increase approximately by 1%
2) Will decrease approximately by 1%
3) Will decrease approximately by 0.67%
4) Will decrease approximately by 0.33%
Sol: I c o n st , R V 1 / 3
2
MR 2 const
3
V 2 /3 const
2 /3
V
2 V
100 100
3 V
2
1 0.67%
3
Key: 3
71. A stick of length L and mass M lies on a frictionless horizontal surface on which it
is free to move in any way. A ball of mass m moving with speed vcollides elastically
with the stick as shown in the figure. If after the collision the ball comes to rest,
then what should be the mass of the ball?
24 | P a g e
1) m 2 M 2) m M
3) m M / 2 4) m M / 4
Sol: According to law of conservation of linear momentum
mv MV .......1
According to law of conservation of angular momentum,
L ML2
mv
2 12 .......(2)
Since, the collision is elastic, therefore
1 1 1
mv 2 MV 2 I 2
2 2 2
Putting the values of and V in above equation,
M
m
4
Key: 4
72. A cylinder of height h is placed on an inclined plane, such that its base is resting
on the inclined plane. The angle of inclination of the inclined plane is slowly
increased. It begins to slip when the angle of inclination is 4 5 0 . What is the radius
of the cylinder?
3 1 1
1) h 2) h 3) h 4) h
4 2 4
Sol: The cylinder will just begin to slip and will not topple, if
h
Mg sin Mg cos r
2
r
tan
h/2
h
As 45 0 , hence r
2
Key: 3
73. A uniform rod of length L is free to rotate in a vertical plane about a fixed horizontal
axis through B. The rod begins rotating from rest from its unstable equilibrium
position. When it has turned through an angle its average angular velocity is
given as:
25 | P a g e
6g 6g
1) sin 2) sin
L L 2
6g 6g
3) cos 4) cos
L 2 L
Sol: When the rod rotates through angle , the fall ‘h’ of centre of gravity is given by .
L/2h
cos
L/2
L
or h 1 cos
2
Decrease in potential energy
L
Mgh Mg 1 cos
2
1 2
Now, KE of rotation I
2
1 ML2 2
2 3
I ML2 / 3 because rod is rotating about an axis pas sin g through its one end
According to law of conservation of energy,
L ML2 2
Mg 1 cos
2 6
6 g / L sin
2
Key: 2
74. A cricket mat of mass 50 kg is rolled loosely in the form of a cylinder of radius 2 m.
3
Now again it is rolled tightly so that the radius becomes th of original value; then
4
the ratio of moment of inertia of mat in the two cases is
1) 1 : 3 2) 4 : 3
3) 16 : 9 4) 3 : 5
26 | P a g e
Sol: Moment of inertia of a cylinder about an axis perpendicular to its circular face
MR 2
2
2
MR 2 M 3R / 4
I1 ; I2
2 2
2
I R 16
Hence, 1 2
I 2 3R / 4 9
Key: 3
75. Two rods OA and OB of equal length and mass are lying on XY-plane as shown in
figure. Let Ix, Iy and Iz be the moments of inertia of both the rods about x, y and z-axis
respectively. Then
1) Ix = Iy > Iz 2) Ix = Iy < Iz
3) Ix > Iy > Iz 4) Iz > Iy > Ix
ml 2 ml 2
Sol: I x I y 2 sin 2 45o
3 3
ml 2 2 2
Iz 2 ml
3 3
Ix I y Iz
Key: 2
76. A uniform cube of side a and mass m rests on a rough horizontal table. A horizontal
force F is applied normal to one of the faces at a point that is directly above the centre
3a
of face, at a height above the base. The minimum value of F for which the cube
4
begins to tilt about the edge is (Assuming that the cube does not slide)
mg 2mg 3mg
1) 2) 3) 4) mg
4 3 4
Sol: Taking moments about the edge about which the cube is likely to tilt,
3a a
F mg
4 2
2
F mg
3
Key: 2
27 | P a g e
77. If the earth suddenly stops revolving and all its rotational KE is used up in raising its
temperature and if s is taken to be the specific heat of the earth’s material, the rise of
temperature of the earth will be (R=radius of the earth and ω =its angular velocity)
R 2 2 R 2 2
1) 2)
5 Js 5J
2
R R 2 2
3) 4)
5 Js 5s
1 2
I
KR 2
Sol: Ms
J J
1 2 MR2 2
Or Ms
2 5 J
R 2 2
5sJ
Key: 1
78. A uniform rod AB of mass m and length l is at rest on a smooth horizontal surface. An
impulse J is applied to the end B perpendicular to the rod in horizontal direction.
Speed of particle P at a distance l/6 from the centre towards A of the rod after time
ml
t is
12 J
J J
1) 2 2)
m 2m
J J
3) 4) 2
m m
Sol:
Let v and ω be the linear and angular speeds of the rod after applying an impulse J at
B. Then from,
Impulse = change in momentum
J
We have, mv = J or v
m
l
I J . ….(i)
2
ml 2 l
or . J .
12 2
6J
or …. (ii)
ml
28 | P a g e
ml
After the given time, t
12 J
The rod will rotate an angle,
6 J ml
t
ml 12 J 2
l l 6 J J
. v
6 6 ml m
J
v p 2v 2
m
Key: 4
79. If a street light of mass M is suspended from the end of a uniform rod of length L in
different possible patterns as shown in figure, then
1) pattern A is more sturdy
2) pattern B is more sturdy
3) pattern C is more sturdy
4) all will have same sturdiness
Sol: Pattern A is more sturdy because the moment of the tension about the fulcrum is
maximum in position A, to counterbalance the moment of mg acting from the centre of
mass of the rod.
Key: 3
80. A thin uniform rod of length l and mass m is swinging freely about a horizontal axis
passing through its end. Its maximum angular speed is ω. Its centre of mass rises to a
maximum height of
1 l 2 2 1 l 1 l 2 2 1 l 2 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 g 6 g 2 g 6 g
Sol: TEi TE f
1 2
I mgh
2
1 1 2 2
ml mgh
2 3
1 l 2 2
or h
6 g
29 | P a g e
Key: 4
81. A rod of negligible mass is pivoted at one end so that it can swing freely as a
pendulum. Two masses 2m and m are
attached to it at distances b and 3b respectively, from the pivot. The rod is held
horizontal and then released, angular acceleration of the rod at the instant it is released
is
2g 4g 5g 5g
1) 2) 3) 4)
11b 17b 11b 12b
Sol: Torque about the pivot
2mg b mg 3b
= 5mgb
and moment of inertia of the rod
2 2
I 2m b m 3b 11mb 2
[Remember, it is given that mass of rod is negligible]
Now, I
5mgb 5 g
or
I 11mb2 11b
Key: 3
30 | P a g e
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT-3
DAY – 23 (DT 06-05-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
CHAPTER: SYSTEM OF PARTICLES AND ROTATORY MOTION
================================================================================================================
1. The line of action of the resultant of two like parallel forces shifts by one –fourth of the distance
between the force when the two forces are interchanged . The ratio of the two forces is
1) 1: 2 2) 2:3 3) 3:4 4) 3:5
Sol: For 0
F1 L x F2 x ………………..(i)
3L L
F2 x F1 x
4 4 ……………………(ii)
From (i) and (ii)
Lx 3
x L / 4 3L / 4 x
3L 3x x
x 2 x 3L 8 x
4 4 4
So putting the value of x
5L 3L
F1 F2 F1 : F2 3 : 5
8 8
Key: 4
2. A rod of length l is moving in a vertical plane (x-y) when the lowest point A of the rod is moved
with a velocity v. Find the angular velocity of the rod
1|Page
v l 3v 2v
1) 2) 3) 4)
l cos v cos l cos l cos
Sol: Since the rod is rigid ,the components of vA and vB along the rod are equal . Thus,
v
Using the equation (i) and (ii) , BA
l cos
Key: 1
3. A particle starts from the point (0m, 8m) and moves with uniform velocity of 3 iˆ m/s . After 5
seconds, the angular velocity of the particle about the origin will be
8 3 24 8
1) rad / s 2) rad / s 3) rad / s 4) rad / s
289 8 289 17
Sol: Velocity v r
3 8
3
rad s 1
8
Key: 2
4. A uniform ladder of mass 10 kg leans against a smooth vertical wall making an angle of 530 with it .
The other end rests on a rough horizontal floor. Find the frictional force that the floor exerts on the
ladder
100 300 100 200
1) N 2) N 3) N 4) N
3 4 4 3
2|Page
Sol: N1 10 g 100 N
Balancing torque about A:
l
log cos 37 0 N 2 l cos 530
2
2
N2 N
3
200
Now f1 N 2 N
3
Key: 4
5. A force of F kˆ acts on O, the origin of the co-ordinate system. The torque about the point(1,-1)
is.
1) F i j
2) F i j
3) F i j
4) F i j
Sol: Torque r F
(iˆ ˆj ) ( Fkˆ )
F iˆ ˆj
Key: 2
6. In an experiment with a beam balance, an unknown mass m is balanced by two known masses of
16 kg and 4 kg shown in figure . The value of the unknown mass m is
1) 10 kg 2) 6 kg 3) 8 kg 4) 12 kg
Sol: Balancing the torque :
For the first case : 16l1 ml2
For the second case : ml1 4l2
Divide them to get m= 8 kg
3|Page
Key: 3
7. The angular velocity of a rigid body about any point of that body is same
1) only in magnitude
2) only direction
3) both magnitude and direction necessarily
4) both in magnitude and direction about some points ,but not about all points
Sol:
Suppose a rod is having angular velocity w about point C.
Choose two points A and B as shown in the fig . Velocity of B w.r.t A= v r1 v r2
VB ' A r1 r2
VB 'A
Angular velocity of B w.r.t BA
AB
( r1 r2 )
BA
r1 r2
Key: 3
8. When a person throws a meter stick it is found that the centre of the stick is moving with speed 10
m/s and left end of stick with a speed 20 m/s . Both points move vertically upwards at that
moment .Then angular speed of the stick is
1) 20 rad / sec 2) 10 rad / sec 3) 30 rad / sec 4) 50 rad / sec
20 10
Sol: Angular velocity , 20 rad / sec
0.5
Key: 1
9. A diver makes 2.5 revolutions on the way from a 10 m high platform to the water . Assuming zero
initial vertical velocity ,the average angular velocity during the dive is ( take g=10 m/ s 2 )
3 5 5
1) rad / s 2) rad / s 3) rad / s 4) rad / s
2 2 3 2
Sol: The free-fall time :
1 2(10 m)
y v0 y t gt 2 t 2s
2 10 m / s
Thus, the magnitude of the average angular velocity is
(2.5 rav)(2 rad / rev) 5
avg rad / s
2s 2
Key: 2
10. In figure , wheel A of radius rA 10 cm is coupled by belt B to wheel C of radius rC =25 cm . The
angular speed of wheel A is increased from rest at a constant rate of 1.6 rad/ s 2 . Find the time
needed for wheel C to reach an angular speed of 12.8 rad/s, assuming the belt does not slip
4|Page
1) 15 s 2) 12.5 s 3) 20 s 4) 10 s
Sol: If the belt does not slip, the linear speeds at the two rims must be equal . Since the belt does not
slip ,a point on the rim of wheel C has the same tangential acceleration as a point on the rim of
wheel A. This means that ArA C rC where A is the angular acceleration of wheel A and C is
the angular acceleration of wheel C. Thus ,
r 10cm
1.6 rad / s 0.64 rad / s
2 2
C A C
r
C 25 cm
With the angular speed of wheel C given by c Ct ,the time for it to reach an angular
speed of 100 rev/min = 10.5 rad/s starting from rest is
12.8 rad / s
t C 20 s
C 0.64 rad / s 2
Key: 3
11. Two particles A and B are situated at a distance d=2 m apart . Particle A has a velocity of 10 m/s at
an angle of 600 and particle B has a velocity v at angle 300 as shown in figure , the distance d
between A and B is constant . The angular velocity of B with respect to A is
5 10
1) 5 3 rad / s 2) rad / s 3) 10 3 rad / s 4) rad / s
3 3
0 0
Sol: If the distance between them remains constant ,then v cos30 u cos 60
3 1 10
v 10 v
2 2 3
(v sin 30 u sin 600 ) / d
o
10 1 10 3
3 2 2 5
rad / s
2 3
Key: 2
12. A rigid body rotates about a fixed axis with variable angular velocity equal to t at time t,
and are constants . The total angle ( in radians) through which it rotates before it comes to rest
is
2 2 2 2 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2
Sol: 0 t 0
5|Page
t
d
(t ) t ; t
dt
d ( t ) dt
2
t2 2
2
t 0
2 2 2
Key: 1
13. A particle moving in a circular path with constant tangential acceleration . At a time interval t after
the beginning of motion , the direction of net acceleration is at 300 to the radius vector at that
instant . The angular acceleration of the particle at that time t is
3 1 3 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
t2 t2 t t 2
at
Sol: tan
ac
1 a
t ac 3at
3 ac
v2 dv
3
r dt
3rdv v 1 3r 3r
dt t v
v2 1 t
dv d 3r
at
dt dt t
3r
r
t2
3
2
t
Key: 4
14. A shaft is turning at 65 rad/sec at time zero. Thereafter ,angular acceleration is given by
10 5t rad / s 2 where t is the elapsed time . Find its angular speed at t= 3sec
1) 25 rad/sec 2) 12.5 rad/sec 3) 17 rad/sec 4) 22 rad/sec
Sol: dt
3
d 10 5t dt
0 0
3
5t 2
0 10t
2 0
5
65 10(3) 32 02
2
65 30 22.5
12.5 rad s 1
Key: 2
6|Page
15. A boiled egg and a raw egg of same mass and size are made to rotate about their own axis . If I1
and I 2 are moments of inertia of boiled egg and raw egg, then
1) I1 I 2 2) I1 I 2 3) I1 I 2 4) I1 2 I 2
1
Sol: I ; boiled raw
Iboiled I raw
Key: 3
16. A particle of mass m is projected from origin in x y plane with a velocity v at an angle 450 from
+vex- axis . The magnitude of angular momentum of the projectile about the z-axis when the
particle is at maximum height is
mv3
1) 0 2) m 2 gh 3
3) 4) mv 2 2 g
4 2g
R
Sol: L m r v ; r iˆ Hjˆ
2
v u cos iˆ
L mvH cos
v 2 sin 2
mv cos 450
2g
mv 3
sin 2 450 cos 450
2g
mv 3
4 2g
Key: 3
17. A particle P is moving in a circle radius ‘a’ with a uniform speed V.C is the centre of the circle and
AB is diameter .Then angular velocity of P about A and C are in the ratio
1) 1: 1 2) 1:2 3) 2:1 4)4: 1
v cos
Sol: A but AP 2a cos
AP
v cos v
A
2a cos 2a
v
C ; A : C 1: 2
a
Key: 2
7|Page
18. A ball of mass 1 kg is projected with a velocity of 20 2 m / s from the origin of an xy coordinate
axis system at an angle 450 with x-axis (horizontal) . The angular momentum [in SI units] of the ball
about the point of projection after 2 s of projection is take g 10 m / s 2 (y-axis is taken as
vertical)
1) -400 k 2) 200 i 3) 300 j 4) -350 j
U 20iˆ 20 ˆj
v 2 sin 2
h 20 m
Sol: 2g
v 2 sin 2
R 80
g
r 40iˆ 20 ˆj
L rp
Key: 1
19. A particle of mass m is moving with constant velocity v parallel to the x-axis as shown in the figure.
Its angular momentum about origin O is
1) mvb 2) mva 3) mv a 2 b 2 4) mv a b
Sol:
Key: 1
20. In the given figure, a=15 m / s 2 represent the total acceleration of an particle moving in the clock
wise direction in a circle of radius
R=2 3 m at a given instant of time . The speed of the particle is
1) 5.7m/s 2) 6.7 m/s 3) 4.5 m/s 4) 5.0 m/s
2
v
a cos 300 ac
Sol: R
8|Page
3 3
v 2 aR 15 2 3
2 2
v 2 45
v 6.7 ms 1
Key: 2
21. A particle of mass m describes a circle of radius r. The centripetal acceleration of particle is 4 / r 2 .
What will be the momentum of the particle?
1) 2 m/r 2) 2 m / r 3) 4 m / r 4) 4 m/r
2
v
a v 2 ar v ar p mv
Sol: r
4 2m
m ar m 2
r
r r
Key: 2
22. A particle moves in a circular path of radius R with an angular velocity a bt where a and b
are positive constants and t is time . The magnitude of the acceleration of the particle after time
2a/b is
1) a/R 2) a 2 R
3) R a 2 b 4) R a 4 b 2
Sol: a bt
2a
t
b
2a
a b a
b
d d
a bt b
dt dt
at r Rb
v r
R(a )
aR
v2
ac Ra 2
R
aNet at 2 ac 2
R a 4 b2
Key: 4
23. A body is hinged about any point on x-axis and its moment of inertia I is given as
I 2 x 2 12 x 27 value of x co-ordinate of centre of mass will be
1)x=2 2) x=3 3) x=0 4)x=1
dI
0
Sol: dx
d
dx
2 x 2 12 x 27 0
4 x 12 0
x 3
Key: 2
9|Page
24. A heavy wheel of radius 20cm and weight 10kg is to be dragged over a step of height 10cm, by a
horizontal force F applied at the centre of the wheel. The minimum value of F is
1)20kgwt 2)1kgwt 3) 10 3 kgwt 4) 10 2 kgwt
Sol: clockwise torque = anticlockwise torque
2 2
mg 20 10 F 20 10
F mg 3 10 3 kgt
Key: 3
25. A solid sphere of radius r is gently placed on a rough horizontal ground with an initial angular speed
0 and no linear velocity. If the coefficient of friction is , find the time t when the slipping stops.
0
2 r 0 1 r 0 2r0 7r0
1) 2) 3) 4)
7 g 7 g g g
Sol: Let m be the mass of the sphere. According to the problem v0 r0 , so it is a case of backward
slipping and hence force of friction is in forward direction. Limiting friction will act in this case.
f mg
Linear acceleration a g
m m
fr 5 g
Angular retardation
I 2 mr 2 2 r
5
Slipping ceases when v r
at r 0 t
5 gt
gt r 0
2 r
2 r0
t
7 g
Key: 1
26. A wheel of radius r rolls without slipping with a speed v on a horizontal road. When it is at point A
on the road, a small blob of mud separates from the wheel at its highest point and lands at a
point B on the road. Then
r r r r
1) AB v 2) AB 2v 3) AB 4v 4) AB 8v
g g g g
Sol: From the concept of projectile motion
2v
v
A B
10 | P a g e
1 2
2r gt
2
4r
t
g
Since X AB 2v t
r
AB 4v
g
Key: 3
27. A solid sphere rolls down two different inclined planes of same height but different
inclinations. In both cases
1) the speed and time of descent will be same
2) the speed will be same but time of descent will be different
3) the speed will be different but time of descent will be same
4) speed and time of descent both are different
Sol: In pure rolling mechanical energy remains conserved, therefore speed will be same in both cases.
Acceleration of the sphere, a, down the plane is proportional to sin .
So, a sin , i.e, acceleration and hence, time of descent will be different.
Key: 2
28. A solid sphere and a hollow sphere of equal masses and radius are placed
over a rough horizontal surface after rotating them about their respective center of mass with
same angular velocity 0 . Once the pure rolling starts let v1 and v2 be the linear speeds of their
centers of mass. Then
1) v1 v2 2) v1 v2 3) v1 v2 4) data is insufficient
Sol: Applying conservation of angular momentum about point of contact, we get
I 0 I mvR
V
I 0 I mvR
R
I 0
v
I
mR
R
0
v
1 mR
R I
Now I solid sphere I hollow
vsolid I hollow
v1 v2
Key: 3
29. A solid sphere of radius r rolls without slipping from rest from a height h of an inclined track at the
bottom of which there is a loop of radius R much larger than the radius of sphere, as shown in
figure. The minimum value of h for the sphere to complete the loop is
11 | P a g e
1) 2.1R 2) 2.3R 3) 2.5R 4) 2.7R
Sol: At the topmost point of the loop minimum value of linear speed of centre of sphere is v gR
1 2 1
So, translational kinetic energy at topmost point is KT mv mgR
2 2
In case of pure rolling of a solid sphere the ratio of rotational to translational kinetic energy is
KR k 2 2
KT r 2 5
So, total kinetic energy at topmost point is
5 2 71 7
K KT mgR mgR
5 52 10
Now by law of conservation of mechanical energy, we have
7
mgR mg h 2 R
10
h 2.7 R
Key: 4
30. A solid uniform sphere rotating about its axis with kinetic energy E1 is gently placed on a rough
horizontal plane at time t=0. Assume that at time t t1 , it starts pure rolling and at that instant
total KE of the sphere is E2 . After sometime at time t t2 , KE of the sphere is E3 . Then
1) E1 E2 E3 2) E1 E2 E3 3) E1 E2 E3 4) E1 E2 E3
Sol:
KErotational E1
E2 , E3
are total energies when sphere is rolling.
Key: 4
31. A force F is applied at the top of a ring of mass M and radius R placed on a rough horizontal surface
as shown in figure. Friction is sufficient to prevent slipping. The friction force acting on the ring is
F
F F 2F
1) towards right 2) towards left 3) towards right 4) zero
2 3 3
Sol: Let f be the friction on the ring towards right, a be the linear acceleration and be the angular
acceleration of the ring about centre of mass
12 | P a g e
F
a
f
P
Point of contact P is momentarily at rest, about instantaneous
Centre of zero velocity IC (located at P). i.e., ring will rotate about P, so
P F 2R F
I P 2 MR 2 MR
For translational motion of ring, we have
F f Ma MR F
f 0
(OR)
F Rx
The motion tendency at point P depends on both x and I as a p 1
M K2
Rx Rx
The motion tendency of point P will be in forward direction if 1 2 0 1 2 K 2 Rx
K K
If this condition is satisfied, friction will act in backward direction.
Note:
If K 2 Rx : friction will act in backward direction
If K 2 Rx : no friction will act
If K 2 Rx : friction will act in forward direction
F R.R
So for the given ring a p 1 2 0 . f 0
M R
Key: 4
32. A bar of mass m, length l is in pure translatory motion with its centre of mass velocity v. It collides
with and sticks to another identical bar at rest as shown in figure. Assuming that after collision it
becomes one composite bar of length 2l, the angular velocity of the composite bar will be
3v 4v 3v 4v
1) , anticlockwise 2) , anticlockwise 3) , clockwise 4) , clockwise
4l 3l 4l 3l
Sol: By law of conservation of angular momentum
13 | P a g e
mvr I system
l 2m 2l 2m 4l
2 2
mv
2 12 12
3v
anticlockwise
4l
Key: 1
33. Two men each of mass m stand on the rim of a horizontal circular disc, diametrically opposite to
each other. The disc has a mass M and is free to rotate about a vertical axis passing through its
centre of mass. Each man starts simultaneously along the rim clockwise and reaches its original
starting position on the disc. The angle turned through by the disc with respect to the ground (in
radian) is
m 2 m 4 m 8 m
1) 2) 3) 4)
M m 4M m 2M m 4m M
1
Sol: 2 mR 2 2 MR 2
2
M
4 m 2m
2
8 m
4m M
Key: 4
34. A disc of mass M and radius R is rolling with angular speed on a horizontal plane as shown in
figure. The magnitude of angular momentum of the disc about the origin O is
y
M
R
O x
1 3
1) MR 2 2) MR 2 3) MR 2 4) 2MR2
2 2
Sol: The angular momentum of a body L may be expresses as the sum of two parts
a) one arising from the motion of the centre of mass of the body and
b) the other from the motion of the body with respect to its centre of mass
i.e., Ltotal LC .M . r C .M . p
L total L C . M . M r C . M . vC .M .
1
LC . M I MR 2 and
2
M r C .M. v C .M. MRvCM MR R
14 | P a g e
M r C .M. v C .M. MR 2
1 3
Ltotal MR 2 MR 2 MR 2
2 2
Key: 3
35. A disc rolling (without slipping) on a horizontal surface. C is its centre and Q and P are two points
equidistant from C. Let vP , vQ and vC be the magnitude of velocities of points P, Q and C
respectively, then
Q
C
P
1
1) vQ vC vP 2) vQ vC vP 3) vQ vP , vC vP 4) vQ vC vP
2
Sol: In case of pure rolling bottommost point is the instantaneous centre of zero velocity.
Velocity of any point on the disc, v r , where r is the distance of point from O.
Q
C
P
O
rQ rC rP
vQ vC vP
Key: 1
36. If the radius of the earth becomes half of its present value, with its mass remaining the same, the
duration of one day will become
1) 6h 2) 12h 3) 48h 4) 96h
2
2 2 2 r
mr m 2
Sol: 5 5 2
2 4
2 2
4
T2 24
T2 6h
Key: 1
37. A cockroach is moving with velocity v in anticlockwise direction on the rim of a disc of radius R of
mass m. The moment of inertia of the disc about the axis is I and it is rotating in clockwise direction
with an angular velocity . If the cockroach stops, the angular velocity of the disc will be
I I mvR I mvR I mvR
1) 2) 3) 4)
I mR 2 I mR 2 I mR 2 I
Sol:
15 | P a g e
I mvR I mR 2 '
I mvR
'
I mR 2
Key: 3
38. Consider a body, shown in the figure, consisting of two identical balls, each of mass M connected
by a light rigid rod. If an impulse J=MV is imparted to the body at one of its ends, what would be its
angular velocity
L
M M
J MV
V 2V V V
1) 2) 3) 4)
L L 3L 4L
Sol: By the conservation of angular momentum about c.m.
2 2
L L L
MV M M
2 2 2
V
L
Key: 1
39. A sphere is rolling without slipping on a fixed horizontal plane surface. In the figure, A is the point of
contact, B is the center of the sphere and C is its topmost point. Then
I) V C V A 2 V B V C
II) V C V B V B V A
III) V C V A 2 V B V C
IV) V C V A 4 V B
1) i, iii 2) ii, iii 3) i, iv 4) ii, iv
Sol: v C 2v i; v B v i; v A 0
i) v C v A 2 v B v C 2 vi 2vi 2vi, incorrect
ii) v C v B 2vi vi vi, v B v A vi 0 vi, correct
iii) vC v A 2v, 2 v B vC 2v,correct
iv) vC v A 2v,4 v B 4v,incorrect
Key: 2
40. A string of negligible thickness is wrapped several times around a cylinder kept on a rough horizontal
surface. A man standing at a distance L from the cylinder holds one end of the string and pulls the
cylinder towards him. There is no slipping anywhere. The length of the string passed through the
hands of the man while the cylinder reaches his hands is
1) L 2) 2L 3) 3L 4) 4L
16 | P a g e
Sol: Velocity of the highest point = 2 (velocity of centre of mass)
Key: 2
41. A solid sphere of mass m and radius R rolls without slipping on a horizontal surface such that
vc.m v0
1 2
1) The kinetic energy of rotation is mv0
5
7
2) The total kinetic energy is mv02
10
7
3) The mechanical energy (assume the ground as reference) is mgR + mv02
10
4) All options are correct
k2 2
Sol: For sphere, 2
R 5
k2 1 2 2 1 1
K R 2 mvc.m mv02 mv02
R 2 5 2 5
2
k 1 2 1 7
K 1 2 mvc2.m 1 mv02 mv02
R 2 5 2 10
U mgR
7
E K U mv02 mgR
10
Key: 3
42. A solid sphere is rolling on a frictionless surface, shown in the figure with a translational velocity v. If
sphere climbs up to height h then value of v should be
v h
10 10
1) gh 2) 2gh 3) 2gh 4) gh
7 7
1 2
Sol: mv 1 k 2 / R 2 mgh
2
1 2 2
mv 1 mgh
2 5
7
mv 2 mgh
10
10 gh
v
7
10 gh
v
7
Key: 1
17 | P a g e
43. Consider the sphere moving on horizontal surface. At some instant it has linear velocity v0 and
angular velocity about center of mass v0 / 2 R . The translational velocity after the sphere starts
pure rolling
v0
2R
v0
5v0 6v0 3v0 3v0
1) 2) 3) 4)
7 7 4 5
Sol:
By the conservation of angular momentum about A
2 v 2 v
mv0 R mR 2 0 mvc.m R mR 2 c.m
5 2R 5 R
6v
vc.m 0
7
Key: 2
44. The ratio of the accelerations for a solid sphere (mass m and radius R) rolling down an incline of
angle without slipping and slipping down the incline without rolling is
1) 2 : 3 2) 2 : 5 3) 7 : 5 4) 5 : 7
Sol: Rolling without slipping
g sin g sin 5
a1 g sin
k2 1
2 7
1 2
R 5
Slipping without rolling
a2 g sin
a1 5
a2 7
Key: 4
45. A wheel of radius R rolls on the ground with a uniform velocity v. The relative acceleration of
topmost point of the wheel with respect to the bottommost point is
v2 2v 2 v2 4v 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
R R 2R R
18 | P a g e
P
2v
O v
Sol: Q
vr vPQ 2v
vr2 4v 2 2v2
ar
2R 2R R
Key: 2
46. A homogenous cylinder of mass M and radius R is pulled on horizontal plane by a horizontal force F
acting through its centre of mass. Assuming the cylinder to roll without slipping, the angular
acceleration of the cylinder is
3F 2F F 3F
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 MR 3MR 2 MR 4 MR
Sol: In case of rolling without slipping, the point of contact P on the ground is at rest. So, the cylinder
will rotate about P with angular acceleration
F
P
P FR
I P 3 MR 2
2
2F
3MR
Key: 2
47. A spherical body of radius R is allowed to roll without slipping down an incline to reach the bottom
with a speed v0 . The incline is then made smooth by waxing and the body is allowed to slide
5
without rolling now to reach the bottom with a speed v0 . The radius of gyration of the body
4
about an axis passing through its centre is
2 3 4 5
1) R 2) R 3) R 4) R
5 4 3 2
Sol: Assuming mass of body to be m, the mechanical energy is conserved in both the cases, so
2
1 5 1 2 1 2
Hence, m v0 mv0 I
2 4 2 2
2
25 2 I v
v0 v02 0
16 m R
If K be the radius of gyration, then
I mK 2 , so
19 | P a g e
25 mK 2
1
16 mR 2
3
K R
4
Key: 2
48. A body is rolling down an inclined plane. If K.E. of rotation is 40% of K.E. in translatory state, then
the body is a
1) ring 2) cylinder 3) hollow ball 4) solid ball
1 2 k2
mv 2
KR 2 R
Sol:
Kt 1 2
mv
2
k 2 40 2
2 , solid sphere i.e., solid ball
R 100 5
Key: 2
49. A solid ring, sphere and a disc are rolling down from the top of the same height, then the sequence
to reach on the surface is
1) ring, disc, sphere 2) sphere, disc, ring 3) disc, ring, sphere 4) sphere, ring, disc
2h 1 k2
Sol: t 1 2
g sin R
k2
For Ring, 2 1
R
k2 2
For Solid sphere = 0.4
R2 5
k2
For Disc, 0.5
R2
Key: 1
50. A solid cylinder is rolling down on an inclined plane of angle . The minimum value of the
coefficient of friction between the plane and the cylinder to allow pure rolling
1 2 2 4
1) tan 2) tan 3) tan 4) tan
3 3 5 5
Sol: Minimum vale if friction coefficient for pure rolling
tan
min
R2
1 2
k
tan 1
tan
1 2 3
Key: 1
51. When a circular disc is rolling along level surface the percentage of its translational kinetic energy
in its total energy is
300 200
1) % 2) % 3) 12.27 % 4) 40%
7 3
KETrans 1 1 200
Sol: 100 2 100 100 %
KETotal 1 k 1 3
1
R2 2
Key: 2
20 | P a g e
52. Consider the situation as shown in the figure. A solid sphere of mass m is released from rest from
the rim of a hemispherical cup so that it rolls along the surface. Find the normal contact force
between the solid sphere and the cup at the bottom most point.
17 10
1) 7mg 2) mg 3) mg 4) 10mg
7 7
Sol: Applying the energy conservation between A and B.
K A U A KB U B
1 2 k2
0 mgR mv 1 2 0
2 R
1 2 2 k2 2
mv 1 sin ce 2
2 5 R 5
10
mv 2 mgR
7
mv 2 10
N mg mg
R 7
17
N mg
7
Key: 2
53. A carpet of mass M made of inextensible material is rolled along its length in the form of a cylinder
of radius R and is kept on rough floor. The carpet starts unrolling without sliding on the floor when
a negligibly small push is given to it. The horizontal velocity of the axis of cylindrical part of the
R
carpet when its radius reduces to .
2
14 gr gr 14 gR 3 gR
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3 3 14
Sol: Mass = density volume
M R 2l
2
' R
M l
2
M
M'
4
Applying the conservation of mechanical energy
K A U A KB U B
1 M 2 k2 M R
0 MgR v 1 g
2 4 R 2 4 2
2
21 | P a g e
7 M 1
MgR v2 1
8 8 2
14 gR
v
3
Key: 1
54. If the polar ice caps melt suddenly
1) the length of the day will be more than 24h
2) the length of the day will be less than 24h
3) the length of the day will remain same as 24h
4) the length of the day will become more than 24h initially and then becomes equal to 24h
Sol: I constant
2
I constant
T
I T
If polar ice caps melt suddenly, water flood travel towards equator, M.I. increases, angular velocity
decreases and hence duration of the day increases.
Key: 1
55. A particle is confined to rotate in a circular path decreasing linear speed, then which of the
following is correct?
1) L (angular momentum) is conserved about the centre
2) Only direction of angular momentum L is conserved
3) It spirals towards the centre
4) Its acceleration is towards the centre
Sol: Since v is changing (decreasing), L is not conserved in magnitude. Since it is given that a particle is
confined to rotate in a circular path, it cannot have spiral path. Since the particle has two
ac at
accelerations and therefore the net acceleration is not towards the centre.
v
at
L ac
The direction of L remains same even when the speed decreases.
Key: 2
56. The circular motion of a particle with constant speed is
1) periodic but not simple harmonic 2) simple harmonic but not periodic
3) periodic and simple harmonic 4) neither periodic not simple harmonic
Sol: In circular motion of a particle with constant speed, particle repeats its motion after a regular
interval of time but does not oscillate about a fixed point. So, motion of particle is periodic but not
simple harmonic
r
Key: 1
57. F ai 3 j 6k and r 2i 6 j 12k . The value of ‘a’ for which the angular momentum is
conserved is
1) -1 2) 0 3) 1 4) 2
Sol: If angular momentum is conserved
22 | P a g e
0
rF 0
2i 6 j 12k ai 3 j 6k 0
a 1
Key: 1
58. A dancer spins about a vertical axis at 60rpm with her arms folded. If she stretches her hands so
that M.I. about the vertical axis increases by 25%, the new rate of revolution is
1) 48 rpm 2) 75 rpm 3) 15 rpm 4) 24 rpm
I11 I 22
Sol:
125
I 60 I 2
100
4
2 60 48rpm
5
Key: 1
59. A circular disc is rotating without friction about its natural axis with an angular velocity . Another
circular disc of same material and thickness but half radius is gently placed over it coaxially. The
angular velocity of composite disc will be
4 8 7 16
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 9 8 17
2
Sol: Mass of 1st disc M R t
2
nd 'R M
Mass of 2 disc M t
2 4
I11 I1 I 2 2
2
' R
2 2 M
MR MR 2
2 2 2 2
2
M R
MR 2 MR 2
4 4 2
2 2 2
16
2
17
Key: 4
60. A massless thin hollow sphere is completely filed with water of mass m. If the hollow sphere rolls
with a velocity v, the kinetic energy of the sphere of water is (Assume water is non viscous)
1 2 1 2 7 5 2
1) mv 2) mv 3) mv 2 4) mv
2 3 10 6
Sol: Liquid gets only translatory motion without any rotatory motion.
23 | P a g e
1 2
Therefore its KE = mv
2
Key: 1
61. When a sphere rolls without slipping the ratio of its kinetic energy of translation to its total
kinetic energy is
1) 1 : 7 2) 1 : 2 3) 1 : 1 4) 5 : 7
1 2
KEt mv
2 5
Sol: f
KEt KEr 1 mv 2 1 I 2 7
2 2
v 2 2
R .I 5 mR
Key: 4
62. A loop and a disc have same mass and roll without slipping with the same linear velocity v.
If the total kinetic energy of the loop is 8J, the kinetic energy of the disc must be
1) 8 J 2) 16 J 3) 6 J 4) 4 J
2
L 1
Sol: KE KE for same L
2I I
3 3
K1 mv2 8J ; K 2 mv 2 8 6 J
4 4
Key: 3
63. A hoop of radius 2m weighs 100kg. It rolls along a horizontal floor so that its centre of
1
mass has a speed of 20cm s . How much work has to be done to stop it?
1) 2J 2) 4J 3) 6J 4) 8J
1
Sol: Here, R 2m , R 100kg , v 200 cm s
20 102 m s1
Total kinetic of the loop KT KR
1 1
Mv 2 I 2 [ For a hoop, I MR 2 ]
2 2
1 1
Mv 2 MR 2 2
2 2
1 1
Mv 2 Mv 2 v R
2 2
Mv 2
Work required to stop the hoop = Total kinetic energy of the hoop
Mv 2 100kg 2 102 ms 1 4 J
Key: 2
64. When a solid sphere rolls without slipping down an inclined plane making an angle with
the horizontal, the acceleration of its centre of mass is a. If the same sphere slides without
friction, its acceleration is
24 | P a g e
7 5 7 5
1) a 2) a 3) a 4) a
2 7 5 2
Sol: Acceleration of the solid sphere when it rolls without slipping down an inclined plane is
g sin
a
I
1
MR 2
2
For a solid sphere, I MR 2
5
g sin 5
a g sin
2 7
1
5
Acceleration of the same sphere when it slides without friction down an same incline plane
is a ' g sin
a' 7 7
Divide (ii) by (i) we get or a ' a
a 5 5
Key: 3
65. A solid cylinder rolls up an inclined plane of inclination with an initial velocity v. How
far does the cylinder go up the plane?
3v 2 v2 3v 2 3v 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 g sin 4 g sin g sin 4 g sin
Sol:
Let the cylinder go up the plane upto a height h, let M and R be the mass and radius of cylinder
respectively. According to law of conservation of mechanical energy, we get
1 1
Mv 2 I 2 Mgh
2 2
1 2 1 MR 2 2
Mv Mgh
2 2 2
1
( for a solid cylinder, I MR 2 )
2
1 1
Mv 2 MR 2 2 Mgh
2 4
1 1
Mv 2 Mv 2 Mgh v R
2 4
3
Mv 2 Mgh
4
3v 2
h ... (i)
4g
Let s be distance travelled by the cylinder up the plane
h h 3v 2
sin or s (Using (i))
s sin 4 g sin
Key: 4
25 | P a g e
66. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R rolls without slipping down an inclined plane of
length L and height h. What is the speed of its centre of mass when the cylinder reaches its
bottom
3 4
1) gh 2) gh 3) 4gh 4) 2gh
4 3
2 gh 2 gh 4
Sol: Velocity at the bottom ( ) 2
gh .
K 1 3
1 2 1
R 2
Key: 2
67. A ring solid sphere and a disc are rolling down from the top of the same height, then the
sequence to reach on surface is
1) Ring, disc, sphere 2) Sphere, disc, ring 3) Disc, ring, sphere 4) Sphere, ring disc
k2 k2 k2 k2
Sol: Time of descent moment of inertia 2 2 0.4, 2 0.5, 2 1
R R Sphere R disc R ring
tsphere tdisc tring .
Key: 2
68. The motion of a sphere moving on a rough horizontal surface change from pure sliding
(without rolling) to pure rolling (without slipping). In this process, the force of friction
1) Initially acts opposite to the direction of motion and late in the direction of motion
2) cause linear acceleration
3) cause angular retardation
4) Initially acts opposite to linear motion and become zero when pure rolling starts
Sol:
Key: 4
69. A solid sphere and a disc of same mass and radius starts rolling down a rough inclined
plane, from the same height the ratio of the time taken in two cases is
1) 15:14 2) 15 : 14 3) 14:15 4) 14 : 15
k2
1 R 2 2
1
1 2h k 2 tSphere Sphere 5 7 2 14
Sol: Time of descent t 1
sin g R2 tdisc k 2
1
1 5 3 15
1 R 2 2
disc
Key: 4
70. A solid sphere rolls down an inclined plane and its velocity at the bottom is1 .Then same
sphere slides down the plane (without friction) and let its velocity at the bottom be2 .
Which of the following relation is correct
5 7 5
1) 1 2 2) v1 v2 3) v1 v2 4) v1 v2
7 5 7
10
Sol: When solid sphere rolls down an inclined plane the velocity at bottom v1 gh
7
26 | P a g e
But, if there is no friction then it slides on inclined plane and the velocity at bottom
v 5
v2 2 gh 1 .
v2 7
Key: 4
71. A cord is wound round the circumference of wheel of radius r. The axis of the wheel is
horizontal and moment of inertia about it is I. A weight mg is attached to the end of the cord
and falls from rest. After falling through a distance h, the angular velocity of the wheel will
be
2gh 2mgh 2mgh
1) 2) 2
3) 4) 2gh
I mr I mr I 2mr 2
1 2mgh
Sol: According to law of conservation of energy mgh I mr 2 2
2 I mr 2
Key: 2
72. In the following figure, a body of mass m is tied at one end of a light string and this string is
wrapped around the solid cylinder of mass M and radius R. At the moment t = 0 the system
starts moving. If the friction is negligible, angular velocity at time t would be
mgRt 2 Mgt 2mgt 2mgt
1) 2) 3) 4)
M m M 2m R M 2m R M 2m
g g 2mg
Sol: We known the tangential acceleration a 2
I 1/ 2MR 2m M
1 1
mR 2 mR 2
1
[As I MR 2 for cylinder]
2
27 | P a g e
2mgt
After time t, linear velocity of mass m, v u at 0
2m M
v 2mgt
So angular velocity of the cylinder .
R R M 2m
Key: 4
73. A block of mass 2kg hangs from the rim of a wheel of radius 0.5m. On releasing from rest
the block falls through 5m height in 2s. The moment of inertia of the wheel will be
1) 1kg-m2 2) 3.2kg-m2 3) 2.5kg-m2 4) 1.5kg-m2
Sol: On releasing from rest the block falls through 5m height in 2sec.
1 2 1
5 0 a 2 [As S ut at 2 ] a 2.5m / s 2
2 2
g
Substituting the value of a in the formula a and by solving we get
I
1
mR 2
10
2.5 I 1.5kg m 2
I
1 2
2 0.5
Key: 4
74. Two forces of magnitude F are acting on a uniform disc kept on a horizontal rough surface
as shown figure. Friction force by the horizontal surface on the disc
1) is in forward direction 2) is a backward direction
3) is zero 4) depends on the magnitude of F
Sol: 2F f ma
1 a 1
F f r mr 2
mar f 0
2 r 2
Key: 3
75. A force of F k acts on O, the origin of the coordinate system. The torque about the point
(1, -1) is
1) F i j
2) F i j 3) F i j
4) F i j
Sol: v i j , F F k
r F (i j ) ( F k )
F [i k j k ]
F j i F i j
Key: 2
28 | P a g e
76. In figure the velocities are in ground frame and the cylinder is performing pure rolling on
the plank, velocity of point ‘A’ would be
1) 2vC 2) 2vC vP 3) 2vC vP 4) 2 vC vP
Sol: For pure rolling velocity of the point of contact has to be equal to the velocity of the surface.
Let’s say cylinder rolls with angular velocity .
At point B, vC r vP ; r vC vP
At point A, v A vC r 2vC vP
Key: 3
77. A uniform horizontal meter scale of mass m is suspended by two vertical strings attached to
its two ends. A block of mass 3m is placed on the 60cm mark. The tensions in the two
strings are in the ratio
1) 17:19 2) 19:21 3) 17:23 4) 19:23
Sol: T1 + T2 = mg + 3mg = 4mg
A 0 mg 50 3mg 60 T2 100
T2 2.3mg , T1 1.7 mg
T1 17
T2 23
Key: 3
78. A cubical block of side a is moving with velocity v on a horizontal smooth plane as shown.
It hits a ridge at point O. The angular speed of the block after it hints O is
3
1) 3 / 4a 2) 3 / 2a 3) 4) Zero
2a
2
a ma 2 a
Sol: m I m
2 6 2
29 | P a g e
ma 2 ma 2 2ma 2
6 2 3
3
4a
Key: 1
79. Consider the sphere moving on horizontal surface. At some instant it has linear
velocity 0 and angular velocity about center of mass v0 / 2 R . The translational velocity after
the sphere starts pure rolling
5v0 6v 3v 3v0
1) 2) 0 3) 0 4)
7 7 4 5
Sol: By the conservation of angular momentum about A
2 2
m0 R mR 2 0 m C.M R mR 2 C .M
5 2R 5 R
60
C . M
7
Key: 2
80. A disc of radius R is under pure rolling as shown in the figure. Among A, B, C, D and E
which of the following points will have the same speed (Given ED = 2R ?
A
E
R
B C
2R
D
1) VA = VD 2) VB = VC = VE 3) VB = VC = VA 4) None of these
Sol: in pure rolling speed of particle is r where r is radial distance of particles from
instantaneous axis of rotation (D). Since r for B,E and C points is same 2 R so
VB VE VC .
Key: 2
81. A disc of mass M and radius R is in pure rolling. If centre of mass of disc is moving with
speed , then angular momentum about the origin O is
1 3
1) M R 2) M R 3) M R 4) 2M R
2 2
30 | P a g e
1 3
Sol: L m R I M R MR 2 M R
2 R 2
Key: 3
31 | P a g e
SR +LT BIPC DAY-1 PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
CHAPTER: GRAVITATION
1. The radius of a planet is R. A satellite revolves around it in a circle of radius r with angular velocity
0 . The acceleration due to the gravity on planet’s surface is
r 30 r 303 r 302 r 302
1. 2. 3. 4.
R R2 R R2
GMm
HINT : mrw02
r2
GM r 3 w02
GM r 3 w02
Acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the planet is g 2
R2 R
KEY : 4
2. A space vehicle approaching a planet has a speed v , when it is very far from the planet. At that
moment tangent of its trajectory would miss the centre of the planet by distance R. If the planet has
mass M and radius r , what is the smallest value of R in order that the resulting orbit of the space
vehicle will just miss the surface of the planet ?
1
r 2GM 2 2GM r 2GM 2GMv
1. v 2 2. vr 1 3. v 2 4.
v r r v r r
HINT : From the law of conservation of angular momentum
mvR mv r................... 1
v is the speed when spaceship is just touching the planet.
1 1 2 GMm
From the law of conservation of energy mv2 mv1 ............ 2
2 2 r
1
r 2GM 2
By solving the above equations we get R v 2
v r
KEY : 1
3. The orbital velocity of an artificial satellite in a circular orbit just above the earth’s surface is v.
For a satellite orbiting at an altitude of half of the earth’s radius , the orbital velocity is
3 3 2 2
1. v 2. v 3. v 4. v
2 2 3 3
HINT : Orbital velocity of satellite
GM
v
r
v2 r1 R R 2R
v1 r2 Rh RR 3R
2
2
V2 V1
3
KEY : 3
4. The radius of the earth is about 6400km and that of Mars is about 3200km. The mass of the earth is
about 10 times the mass of Mars. An object weights 200N on the surface of the earth. Its weight on
the surface of Mars would be
1. 6 N 2. 20N 3. 40 N 4. 80 N
HINT : Weight of the object on the surface of earth w mg
200 mg
GM
Where g 2
R
GMm
200 N
R2
Weight of the object on the surface of Mars
w1 mg1
1 GM 1
g 2
R1
GM 1m
w1 2
R1
2 2
w1 M 1 R M 1 6400
200 M R1 10 M 1 3200
w1 4
200 10
w1 80 N
KEY : 4
5. Two particles of equal mass go around a circle of radius R under the action of their mutual
gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle is
1 1 Gm 1 Gm 4Gm
1. v 2. v 3. v 4. v
2R Gm 2R 2 R R
HINT : Centripetal force = Gravitational force of attraction
mv 2 Gm2
2
R 2R
Gm 1 GM
v2 v
4R 2 R
KEY :3
6. A solid sphere of radius R is cut out of a solid sphere of radius R such that the spherical cavity
2
formed and it touches the surface on one side and the centre of the sphere on the other side, as
shown. The initial mass of the solid sphere was M. If a particle of mass m is placed at a distance
2.5R from the centre of the cavity , then what is the gravitational attraction on the mass m ?
GMm GMm GMm 23 GMm
1. 2
2. 3. 4.
R 2R2 8R 2 100 R2
HINT : Let mass of the cavity = M
Density of the sphere = M / 4 / 3 R3
4 R3 M
Mass of the cavity cut out = M
3 8 4 R3
3
M
M
8
Fnet FMm FM m
GMm GM m GMm GMm
4 R 2 5 2 4R2 50 R 2
R
2
23 GMm
Fnet
100 R 2
KEY : 4
7. Two satellites A and B of masses m1 and m2 m1 2m2 are moving in circular orbits of radii
r1 and r2 r1 4 r2 respectively , around the earth. If their periods are TA and TB , then the ratio
TA / TB is
1. 4 2. 16 3. 2 4. 8
m1
HINT : m1 2m2 2
m2
r1
r1 4r2 4
r2
TA2 r13 and TB2 r23
3
TA r1 2 1 T
43 2 A 8
TB r2 TB
KEY : 4
8. Two equal masses each m are hung from a balance whose scale pans differ in vertical height by h.
The error in weighing in terms of density of the earth is
1 8 4
1. G mh 2. G mh 3. G mh 4. G mh
3 3 3
g 2h
HINT : g1 2
g 1
h R
1
R
h1 h2 GM h GM
W2 W1 error in weighing 2mg
2m 2 g 2 and h1 h2 h
R R R R R
4 h 8
Therefore , W2 W1 error in weighing 2mG R 3 3 Gm h
3 R 3
KEY : 3
9. The distances from the centre of the earth , where the weight of a body is zero and one-fourth that
of the weight of the body on the surface of the earth are (assume R is the radius of the earth)
R 3R R 3R
1. 0, 2. 0, 3. ,0 4. ,0
4 4 4 4
HINT : The weight of the body at the centre of the earth is equal to zero because
d R
g centre g 1 g 1 0
R R
g1 d 1 3R
1 d
g R 4 4
R
So from the centre , r
4
KEY : 1
10.
If a man at the equator would weigh 3 of his weight, the angular speed of the earth is
5
2g g R 2R
1. 2. 3. 4.
5R R g 5g
HINT : 3 mg mg mR 2
5
3 2g
2 g g
5 5R
KEY : 4
11. A space ship is launched into a circular orbit close to the surface of the earth. The additional
velocity now imparted to the spaceship in the orbit to overcome the gravitational pull is (radius of
the earth R 6400 km )
1. 11.2 km s 1 2. 8km s 1 3. 3.2 km s 1 4. 1.414 8km s 1
HINT : Ve 11.2 km / s
mv2 GMm
R R2
GM GM
v2 2 R gR ( g 2 )
R R
v 10 6400000 8 km / s
Therefore , the additional velocity ve v = 11.2 8 3.2 km / s
KEY : 3
12. Two satellites of the same mass are launched in the same orbit around the earth so as to rotate
opposite to each other. If they collide inelastically and stick together as wreckage, the total energy
of the system just after collision is
2GMm GMm GMm GMm
1. 2. 3. 4.
r r 2r 4r
GMm
HINT : Energy of each satellite in the orbit =
2r
GMm GMm
Total energy of the system before collision= E1 E2 2 E 2
2r r
As the satellites of equal mass are moving in the opposite directions and collide inelastically , the
velocity of the wreckage just after the collision is
mv mv 2mV , i.e., V 0
The energy of the wreckage just after the collision will be totally potential and will be
GM 2m 2GMm
Ef
r r
As after collision the wreckage comes to stand still in the orbit , it will move along the radius
towards the earth under gravity.
KEY : 1
13. A rocket is launched vertically up from the surface of earth with an initial velocity v. How far
above the surface of earth it will go? Neglect the air resistance.
1 1 2
2 gR 2 2 gR 2 gR 2 gR
1. R 2 1 2. R 2 1 3. R 2 1 4. R 2 1
v v v v
HINT : On the surface of the earth ,
Total energy = Kinetic energy + Potential energy
1 GmM
mv2
2 R
At the highest point , v 0 , potential energy = GmM / R h
Where h is the maximum height.
1 2 GmM GmM
mv
2 R Rh
1 2 gRh R h 2 gR
v h or 2
2 R h v
1
2 gR
h R 2 1
v
KEY : 3
14. The gravitational potential due to earth at infinite distance from it is zero. Let the gravitational
potential at a point P be 5 J kg 1 . Suppose , we arbitrarily assume the gravitational potential at
infinity to be 10 J kg 1 , then the gravitational potential at P will be
1. 5 J kg 1 2. 5 J kg 1 3. 15 J kg 1 4. 15 J kg 1
HINT : According to the problem , as the potential at infinity increases by 10 J kg 1 , hence potential will
increase by the same amount everywhere (potential gradient will remain constant) . Hence , potential at
point P 10 5 5 J kg 1
KEY : 2
15. How many hours would make a day if the earth were rotating at such a high speed that the weight
of a body on the equator were zero (radius of the earth=6400km)
1. 6.2 h 2. 1.4 h 3. 28 h 4. 5.6 h
2
HINT : ge g r
As he weight is zero
g R 2
mg mR 2
R radius of earth
g
R
R
T 2 2 64000
g
2 800
2 800s h 1.39h 1.4h
3600
KEY : 2
16. In the solar system, the sun is in the focus of the system for sun-earth binding system. Then the
binding energy for the system will be [Given that radius of the earth’s orbit round the sun is
1.5 1011 m ,mass of the earth = 6 1024 kg and mass of the sun = 1030 kg )
1. 2.7 1033 J 2. 5.4 1033 J 3. 2.7 1030 J 4. 5.4 1030 J
HINT : Binding energy = GMm / R
M = mass of the sun = 1030 kg
m = mass of the earth = 6 1024 kg
R 1.5 1011 m
Binding energy of the system is
6.67 1011 1030 6 1024
2.7 1033 J
1.5 1011
KEY : 1
17. The earth moves around the sun in an elliptical orbit as shown in Figure. The ratio OA / OB x .
The ratio of the speed of the earth at B to that at A is nearly
1. x 2. x 3. x x 4. x 2
HINT : Applying conservation of angular momentum at position A and B
mvA OA mvB OB
v OA
Hence , B x
vA OB
KEY : 2
18. Two satellites A and B of the same mass are revolving around the earth in the concentric circular
orbit such that the distance of satellite B from the centre of the earth is thrice as compared to the
distance of the satellite A from the centre of the earth. The ratio of the centripetal force acting on B
as compared to that on A is
1 1 1
1. 2. 3 3. 4.
3 9 3
GM GM
HINT : VA and VB
rA rB
Given rB 3rA
mv2A m GM GMm
Now FA 2
rA rA rA rA
GMm FB rA2 1
FB
rB2 FA rB2 9
KEY : 3
19. What is the mass of the planet that has a satellite whose time period is T and orbital radius is r ?
4 2 r 3 4 2 r 3 4 2 r 3 4 2T
1. 2. 3. 4.
GT 2 GT 2 GT 3 GT 2
HINT : Suppose that a satellite of mass m describes a circular orbit around a planet of mass M.
GmM
The gravitational force on the satellite due to the planet = F
r2
2 4 2
And the centripetal force of the satellite F m r m r
T2
4 2 r 3
The centripetal force =gravitation force M
GT 2
KEY : 1
20. Three particles, each of mass M , are placed at the three corners of an equilateral triangle of side l .
What is the force due to this system of particles on another particle of mass m placed at the
midpoint of any side ?
3GMm 4GMm GMm 4GMm
1. 2
2. 2
3. 2
4.
4l 3l 4l l2
HINT : Force on m due to masses at Q and R is zero . So , the net force is due to the mass at P.
2
Hence , F GMm / PL
3
Now , PL l sin 600 l
2
4GMm
F
3l 2
KEY : 2
21. A body is fired with a velocity of magnitude gR V 2 gR at an angle of 300 with the radius
vector of the earth. If at the highest point , the speed of the body is V / 4 , the maximum height
attained by the body is equal to
V2
1. 2. R 3. 2 R 4. None
8g
HINT : Conservation of angular momentum of the body about O yield the following :
mv sin 300 R mV R h
V V V
R R h V
2 4 4
Therefore , h R
KEY : 2
22. The change in the value of g at a height h above the surface of earth is the same as at a depth d
below the earth. When both d and h are much smaller than the radius of earth, then which one of
the following is correct ?
h 3h
1. d 2. d 3. d 2h 4. d h
2 2
HINT : At height h above the surface of the earth
2h 2h
g g 1 g1 g
R R
At depth d below the surface of the earth
d d
g g 1 g 2 g
R R
g1 g2 d 2h
KEY : 3
gRe
23. A body is thrown from the surface of the earth with velocity , where Re is the radius of the
2
earth at some angle from the vertical. If the maximum height reached by the body is Re / 4 , then
the angle of projection with the vertical is
5 5 3
1. sin 1 2. cos1 3. sin 1 4. None of these
4 4 2
HINT : Let the speed at the maximum height be v1 , then from energy be conservation.
mv 2 GMm mv12 GMm
2 Re 2 5Re / 4
From angular momentum conservation
5R
mvRe sin mv1 e
4
gRe 5
Using v and solving the equation , we get sin 1
2 4
KEY : 1
24. A tunnel has been dug into a solid sphere of non-uniform mass density as shown in the figure.
As one moves from A to B , the magnitude of gravitational field intensity
1. Will continuously decrease
2. Will decrease up to the centre of the sphere and then increase
3. May increase or decrease 4. Will continuously increase
HINT : As the sphere is having non – uniform mass density , so nothing can be predicted about the variation of
gravitational field intensity.
KEY : 3
25. An artificial satellite of the earth is launched in circular orbit in the equatorial plane of the earth
and the satellite is moving from west to east. With respect to a person on the equator, the satellite is
completing one round trip in 24 h. Mass of the earth is M 6 1024 kg . For this situation the orbital
radius of the satellite is
1. 2.66 104 km 2. 6400 km 3. 36,000 km 4. 29,600 km
HINT : Here time period of the satellite with respect an observer on the equator is 24h and the satellite is
moving from west to east , so angular velocity of the satellite with respect to earth’s axis of rotation
2 2
(considered as fixed) is , where Ts and Te are time periods of satellite and earth ,
Ts Te
respectively.
h 1 1.45 104 rad s 1
6
GM
From , v
r
GM
r
r
GM GM
r 2 2 r3 2
r
r 2.66 10 m 2.66 104 km
7
KEY : 1
26. Two point masses A and B having masses in the ratio 4:3 are separated by a distance of 1m. When
rd
another point mass C of mass M is placed in between A and B , the force between A and C is 1
3
of the force between B and C. Then the distance of C from A is
2 1 1 2
1. m 2. m 3. m 4. m
3 3 4 7
GM .4m GM .3m
HINT : F1 2
, F2 2
x 1 x
(1)
C B
A
(1-x)
1
F1 F2
3
4GMm 1 3GMm
.
x2 3 1 x 2
4 1 2 1
2
2
x 1 x x 1 x
2
2 2x x x m
3
KEY :1
27. If the radius of the earth were to shrink by 1% its mass remaining the same, the acceleration due
to gravity on the earth’s surface would
1. Decrease by 2 % 2. Remain unchanged 3. Increase by 2 % 4. Increase by 1 %
1
HINT : R1 R 1
100
GM GM
g 2 and g 1 2
R 1
R 1
100
2
g 1 2 g
1 1 ; 1 100 2%
g 100 100 g
KEY : 3
28. Assuming the earth to have a constant density , point out which of the following curves show the
variation of acceleration due to gravity from the centre of earth to the points far away from the
surface of earth
HINT : r : distance from centre of earth
Re : radius of earth
gr
r Re , g g r (straight line)
Re
gRe2 1
r Re , g 2 g 2 (rectangular hyperbola type)
r r
KEY : 3
29. Two bodies of masses m and 4m are placed at a distance r. The gravitational potential at a point on
the line joining them where the gravitational field is zero is
4Gm 6Gm 9Gm
1. Zero 2. 3. 4.
r r r
Gm
HINT : At P : Gravitational field due to m , E1 2 , along A
x
(r)
m 4m
A P B
x
(r-x)
G.4m
Gravitational field due to 4m , E2 2
, along B
r x
EP 0 E1 E2
2
Gm 4Gm rx
2
2
4
x r x x
rx
2 r x 2x x r
x 3
Gravitational , potential at P
Gm Gm 3Gm
Due to m, V1
x r/3 r
G.4m 4Gm 6Gm
Due to 4 m, V2
rx 2r / 3 r
9Gm
VP V1 V2
r
KEY : 4
0 for r R
30. A spherically symmetric gravitational system of particles has a mass density
0 for r R
Where 0 is a constant. A test mass can undergo circular motion under the influence of the
gravitational field of particles. Its speed v as a function of distance r 0 r
GMr
HINT : Inside sphere r R , E
R3
4
G 0 . R3mr
GMmr 3
F mE 3
R R3
4
0Gmr
3
mv 2 4
0 Gmr v r (straight line)
r 3
Outside sphere r R
4
2 m.G.0 . R 3
mv mGM 3
mE 2
2
r r r
1
v (rectangular hyperbola type)
r
KEY : 3
31. If the distance between the earth and the sun becomes half of its present value, the number of days
in a year would have been
1. 64.5 days 2. 130 days 3. 182.5 days 4. 730 days
3 3
HINT : T r 2 , T r / 2 2
3
T 1 2
1 T 365 365 365
; T 130 days
T 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 1.4 2.8
KEY : 2
32. A satellite is launched into a circular orbit of radius R around the earth. A second satellite is
launched into an orbit of radius (1.01) R. the period of the second satellite is large than that of the
first one by approximately
1. 0.5 % 2. 1.0 % 3. 1.5 % 4. 3.0 %
3
T 1.01R 2
HINT : 2
1.5
1 0.01 1 1.5 0.01 1 0.015
T1 R
T2
1 100 1.5%
T1
KEY : 3
33. In a satellite if the time of revolution is T , then its K.E is proportional to
1 1 1 2
3
1. 2. 2 3. 3 4. T
T T T
2
1 2 1 2 2 1 2 2 2 2 mR 2
HINT : K mv m R m R
2 2 2 T T2
1
K 2
T
KEY :2
34. The mass of a space-ship is 1000 kg. It is to be launched from the earth’s surface out into free
space. The value of ‘g’ and ‘R’ (radius of earth) are 10 m 2 and 6400 km respectively. The
s
required energy for this work will be
1. 6.4 1011 J 2. 6.4 108 J 3. 6.4 109 J 4. 6.4 1010 J
1 GMm
HINT : mv 2 0
2 R
1 2 GMm
mv mgR 1000 10 6400 103 6.4 1010 J
2 R
KEY :4
35. The earth is assumed to be a sphere of radius R. A platform is arranged at a height R from the
surface of the Earth. The escape velocity of a body from this platform is fv . Where v is its escape
velocity from the surface of the Earth. The value of f is
1. 1 2. 1 3. 2 4. 1 2
3 2
1 GMm GM
HINT : mv 2p 0 vp
2 RR R
vp 2GM
2 v p 2 v 2 v fv v
v R
f 2
KEY :3
36. A satellite is moving with a constant speed 'V ' in a circular orbit around the earth. An object of
mass ' m ' is ejected from the satellite such that it just escapes from the gravitational pull of the
earth. At the time of its ejection, the kinetic energy of the object is
1 3
1. mV 2 2. mV 2 3. mV 2 4. 2mV 2
2 2
HINT : ve 2 V
1
K.E K mve2 mV 2
2
KEY :2
37. A double star is a system of two stars rotating about their centre of mass only under their mutual
gravitational attraction. Let the stars have masses m and 2m and let their separation be L. Their
time period of rotation about their centre of mass will be proportional to
3 1
(i) L 2 (ii) L (iii) m0 (iv) m 2
1. i , iii 2. i , iv 3. ii , iii 4. ii , iv
2mL 2L
HINT : r1
m 2m 3
G.2m.m 2L
2
m 2 r1 m 2 .
L 3
3Gm
L3
3
2 2 L 2 3 1
T ,T L 2 ,T m 2
3Gm
KEY : 2
38. Three point masses are at the corners of an equilateral triangle of side a , Their separation do not
change when the system rotates bout the centre of the triangle. For this , the time period of rotating
must be proportional to
3 1 1
(i) a 2 (ii) a (iii) m 2 (iv) m 2
1. i , ii 2. ii , iii 3. i , iii 4. i , iv
Gm 2 a
HINT : F 2 , r
a 3
Resultant force on m 3 F
3 F m 2 r
Gm 2 a
3 2 m 2
a 3
3Gm
a3
3
2 2 a 2 3 1
T ,T a 2 , T m 2
3Gm
KEY : 4
39. A small body of super dense material , whose mass is half of the mass of the earth , but whose size is
very small compared to the size of the earth starts from rest at a height H<<R above the earth’s
surface and reaches the earth’s surface in time ‘t’ , then t is equal to
1. 2 H / g 2. H / g 3. 2 H / 3 g 4. 4 H / 3 g
m
HINT : x1 mx2 x2 x1 / 2
2
x 2H
x1 x2 H x1 1 H x1
2 3
2H 1 2 4H
x1 gt t
3 2 3g
KEY : 4
40. The escape velocity for a planet is ve . A tunnel is dug along a diameter of the planet and a small
body is dropped into it at the surface . When the body reaches the centre of the planet , its speed
will be
ve v
1. ve 2. 3. e 4. Zero
2 2
HINT : K A U A K B U B
K A mVA K B mVB
GM 1 2 3GM
0 m mv m
R 2 2R
1 2 1 GMm
mv
2 2 R
GM 1 2GM 1
v . ve
R 2 R 2
KEY : 2
41. Two identical trains A and B moves with speeds on parallel tracks along the equator. A moves from
east to west and B , from west to east. Which train will exert greater force on the tracks ?
1. A 2. B 3. They will exert equal force
4. The mass and the speed of each train must be known to reach a conclusion
HINT : Let v : speed of each train relative to the earth’s surface
vE : Speed of earth’s surface relative to the earth’s axis .
vA , vB : Speeds of A and B relative to the earth’s axis
Then vA vE v, vB vE v
mvA2 mv 2
N A mg , N B mg B = N A N B
R R
KEY : 1
42. If a rocket is fired with a speed v 2 gR near the earth’s surface and directed upwards , its speed
in the intersteller space is :
1. 4 gR 2. 2gR 3. gR 4. 4gR
HINT : According to law of conservation of energy ,
1 2 GMm 1 2
mv mv1 0
2 R 2
1 2 1 2 GMm
Or mv1 mv
2 2 R
2 GM
Or v12 v 2 v 2 ve2
R
v1 v 2 ve2
4 gR 2 gR 2 gR
KEY : 2
43. If an artificial satellite is moving in a circular orbit around the earth with a speed equal to half the
magnitude of the escape velocity from the earth , the height of the satellite above the surface of the
earth is :
R R
1. 2R 2. 3. R 4.
2 4
2GM
HINT : ve escape velocity =
R
GM
v0 orbital velocity =
Rh
ve
Given that : v0
2
GM 1 2GM
Rh 2 R
GM 1 2GM
Or
Rh 4 R
Solving , we get ; h R
KEY : 3
44. There are two planets and the ratio of radius of the two planets is K but the ratio of acceleration
due to gravity of both planets is . What will be the ratio of their escape velocities?
1 1 2 2
1. k 2 2. k 2
3. k 4. k
ve 1 g1 R1
HINT : ve 2 gR ; k
ve 2 g 2 R2
KEY : 1
45. If g = acceleration due to gravity and V be gravitational potential at a distance r from the centre of
the earth (where r R ) , then what is the relation between g and V ?
1. g V / r 2. g dV / dr 3. g d 2V / dr 2 4. g V 2 / r 2
HINT : Gravitational field intensity is nothing but acceleration due to gravity and it is equals to negative
potential gradient.
KEY : 2
46. A ball of mass m is fired vertically upwards from the surface of the earth with velocity nve , where
ve is the escape velocity and n 1 . Neglecting air resistance , to what height will the ball rise ?
(Take radius of the earth = R)
1. R / n 2 2. R / 1 n2 3. Rn 2 / 1 n 2 4. Rn2
1 2 GMm GMm
HINT : mv
2 R Rh
GMmh
R R h
1 2 mghR
mv
2 Rh
Rn 2
Since , v nve and ve 2 gR , hence h
1 n 2
KEY : 3
47. A satellite is revolving around the sun in a circular orbit with uniform velocity v . If the
gravitational field suddenly disappears , the velocity of the satellite will be :
1. Zero 2. v 3. 2v 4. Infinity
HINT : If the gravitational force suddenly disappears , satellite will no more revolve round the sun but it will
fly off tangentially with velocity v.
KEY : 2
48. The magnitudes of gravitational field at distances r1 and r2 from the centre of a uniform solid
sphere of radius R and mass M are F1 and F2 respectively . Then :
F r F1 r22
1. 1 1 if r1 R and r2 R 2. if r1 R and r2 R
F2 r2 F2 r12
3. Both 1 and 2 4. None of the above
GM GMr
HINT : Outside the sphere gravitational field = 2 and inside the sphere gravitational field =
r R3
KEY : 3
49. A satellite is revolving round the earth with orbital speed v0 . If it stops suddenly , the speed with
which it will strike the surface of the earth would be : ( ve = escape velocity of a particle on the
earth’s surface)
ve2
1. 2. v0 3. ve2 v02 4. ve2 2v02
v0
HINT : Let r be the radius of the satellite . Then
GM
v02
r
Applying conservation of mechanical energy between points A and B , we have :
1 2 GMm GMm
mv
2 r R
2GM 2GM
v2
R r
2 2
ve 2v0
v ve2 2v02
KEY : 4
50. The ratio of the earth’s orbital angular momentum (about the sun) to its mass is 4.4 1015 m2 / s .
The area enclosed by the earth’s orbit is approximately :
1. 7 1022 m2 2. 6.02 1023 m2 3. 7 1023 m2 4. None of these
A L
HINT :
t 2M
L
A t
2M
4.4 1015 365 24 60 60
7 10 22
2
KEY : 1
51. A black hole is an object whose gravitational field is so strong that even light cannot escape from it. To
what approximate radius would earth (mass = 5.98 x 1024 kg) have to be compressed to be a black hole?
(1) 10-9 m (2) 10-6 m (3) 10-2 m (4) 100 m
HINT : Problem solving strategy for the black hole, the escape speed is more than c (speed of light). We
should compare the escape speed with the c (Note that the escape speed should be at least just greater than
c)
ve = [R’ =New radius of the earth]
c= [ve ≈ c]⇒ c2 = 2
.
R’ = = = 8.89 x 10-3 = 0.889 x 10-2 ≈ 10-2 m
KEY : 3
52. The height at which the weight of a body becomes 1/16th, its weight on the surface of the earth (radius R),
is
(1) 5 R (2) 15 R (3) 3 R (4) 4 R.
HINT : According to the question
( )
=
Where, m = mass of the body and = gravitational acceleration
( )
= or = or = 4; h = 3R
KEY : 3
53. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at a height of 5 R above that surface of the earth, R being the
radius of the earth. The time period of another satellite in hour at a height of 2 R from the surface of the
earth is
(1) 5 (2) 10 (3) 6√2 (4) 6/ √2
HINT : From Kepler’s third law T2 ∝ r2
ℎ , =
= ( )
Hence, ∝ and ∝
( )
So, = =( )
or =
= ; T2 = = 6√2 h
√
KEY : 3
54. The radii of circular orbits of two satellites A and B of the earth are 4R and R, respectively. If the speed of
satellite A is 3 v, then the speed of satellite B will be
(1) 3v/4 (2) 6 v (3) 12 v (4) 3v/2
HINT : Orbital velocity of satellite is given by, v =
Ratio of orbital velocities of A and B is given by,
⇒ = = =
= =
= 6v
KEY : 2
55. A roller coaster is designed such that riders experience “weightlessness” as they go round the top of a hill
whose radius of curvature is 20m. The speed of the car at the top of the hill is between
(1) 14 m/s and 15 m/s (2) 15 m/s and 16 m/s
(3) 16 m/s and 17 m/s (4) 13 m/s and 14 m/s
HINT : The appearance of weightlessness occurs in space when the gravitational attraction of the earth on a
body in space is equal to the centripetal force.
∴ = mg or v = = √20 10 = 14.14 m/s
KEY : 1
56. For a satellite moving in an orbit around the earth, the ratio of kinetic energy to potential energy is
(1) 2 (2) 1/2 (3) (4) √2
√
HINT : Potential energy, U = -
Where, Me = mass of the earth m = mass of satellite
Re = radius of the earth
G = gravitational constant
or | |=
Kinetic energy,
K=
| |
= x =
KEY : 2
57. A body of mass m is placed on the earth’s surface. It is then taken from the earth’s surface to a height h = 3
R, then the change in gravitational potential energy is
(1) (2) mgR (3) mgR (4)
HINT : Potential energy
U=-
At the earth’s surface, r = R Ue = -
Now, if a body is taken to height h = 3 R, then the potential energy is given by
Uh = - (r =h+R) = -
Thus, change in gravitational potential energy,
∆U = Uh - Ue
=- - − =- - =
∴∆U = (GM=gR2)
= mgR
KEY : 3
58. Escape velocity from the earth is 11.2 km/s. Another planet of same mass has radius ¼ times that of the
earth. What is the escape velocity from another planet?
(1) 11.2 km/s (2) 44.8 km/s (3) 22.4 km/s (4) 5.6 km/s
HINT : Problem solving strategy compare the equation of escape velocity of earth and planet.
Escape velocity is given by,
Ves =
From a planet, v’es =
Therefore, = x
It is given that, Mass of the planet = mass of the earth
i.e. Mp = Me so, = ...................(i)
Given, = ⇒ = ; = 11.2 km/s
Substituting in Eq. (i) , we have
= = 2; V’es =11.2 x 2 = 22.4 km/s
.
KEY : 3
59. The escape velocity of a body on the surface of the earth is 11.2 km/s. If the earth’s mass increases to twice
its present value and the radius of the earth becomes half, the escape velocity would become
(1) 44.8 km/s (2) 22.4 km/s
(3) 11.2 km/s (remain unchanged) (4) 5.6 km/s
HINT : Escape velocity on the earth’s surface is given by
Ves =
Where, G is gravitational constant, Me and Re are the mass and radius of the earth respectively.
By talking the ratios of two different cases
=
But ′ =2 ; ′ =
= 11.2 km/s
= = √4 = 2
/
′ =2 = 2 x 11.2 = 22.4 km/s
KEY : 2
60. When a satellite going round the earth in a circular orbit of radius r and speed v loses some of its energy,
then r and v change as
(1) r and v both with increase
(2) r and v both will decrease
(3) r will decrease and v will increase
(4) r will decrease and v will decrease
GMm 1
HINT : B.E. . If B.E. decreases then r also decreases and v increases as v
r r
KEY : 3
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAY-5 PRACTICE ASSIGNMENTS
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
CHAPTER: MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF SOLIDS
1. If the length of a wire is reduced to half, then it can hold the -------- load
1. half 2. Same 3. Double 4. One fourth
Sol: Breaking force is proportional to Area of cross section of wire, i.e., load hold by the wire does not
depend upon the length of the wire
Key: 2
2. The spring balance does not read properly after its long use because
1. the elasticity of spring increases 2. the elasticity decreases
3. its plastic power decreases 4. Its plastic power increases
Sol: Due to elastic fatigue, its elastic property decreases
Key : 2
3. A wire of length L and radius r is rigidly fixed at one end. On stretching the other end of the wire with
force F, the increases in its length is l . If another wire of same material but of length 2L and radius 2r
is stretched with a force of 2F ,then the increases in its length will be
l l
1. l 2. 2l 3. 2 4.
4
Sol:
FL FL FL
As l AY r 2Y l r 2 Y Cons tan t
2 2
l F L r 1
2 2 2 1 2 2 1
l1 F1 L1 r2 2
l1 l2 , i.e increment inits length will bel
Key : 1
4. When a weight of 10 kg is suspended from a copper wire of length 3 m and diameter 0.4 mm, its
length increases by 2.4 cm. If the diameter of the wire is doubled, then the extension in its length will
be
1. 9.6 cm 2. 4.8 cm 3. 1.2 cm 4. 0.6 cm
1
Sol: As l r 2 F , L and Y cons tan s
2 2
l r 1 l 2.4
2 1 l2 1
l1 r2 2 4 4
l2 0.6 cm
Key : 4
5. The following four wires are made of same material and same tension is applied on them . Which one
will have maximum increase in length?
1. Length = 100 cm, Diameter =1 mm
2. Length = 50 cm, Diameter =0.5 mm
3. Length = 200 cm, Diameter = 2 mm
4. Length = 300 cm, Diameter = 3 mm
F .l
Sol: Young’s modulus (Y) = Al
F .l
l
YA
F .l l
K 2
Y D / 4
2
D
l
l
D2
l 100 4
For first wire, D 2 1 102 1 10
l 50 4
For second wire, D 25 104 2 10
2
l 200 3
For third wire, D 2 4 102 5 10
l 300 1 4 3
For fourth wire, D 2 9 102 3 10 3.33 10
l
As D 2 is maximum for second wire, therefore increase in its length will be maximum
Key : 2
6. The strain-stress curves of three wires of different materials are shown in the
figure. P, Q and R are the elastic limits of the wires. The figure shows that
1) Elasticity of wire P is maximum
2) Elasticity of wire Q is maximum
3) Tensile strength of R is maximum
4) None of the above is true
Sol: As stress is shown on x-axis and strain on y-axis
So we can say that
1 1
Y cos
tan Slope
So the elasticity of wire P is minimum and of wire R is maximum
Key : 4
10 2 10 2
7. The Young’s modulus of brass and steel are respectively 1.0 10 N / m and 2 10 N / m . A brass
wire and a steel wire of the same length are extended by 1 mm under the same force, the radii of brass
and steel wires are RB and RS respectively. Then
RB RB
1) RS 2 RB 2) RS 2 3) RS 4 RB 4) RS 4
Fl Fl
Sol : l
AY R 2Y
l , F and l are same
2
Hence, R Y constant
RS YB 1 RB
Or R Y 2 or RS 2
B S
Key : 2
8. The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two materials A and B are as shown in
figure. If YA and YB are the Young’s moduli of the materials, then
1) YB 2YA 2) YA YB 3) YB 3YA 4) YA 3YB
YA tan A tan 60o 3
Sol : Y tan tan 30o 1 / 3 3 YA 3YB
B B
Key : 4
9. The ratio of diameters of two wires of same material is n :1 . The length of each wire is 4 m. On
applying the same load, the increase in the length of thin wire will be n 1
2
1) n times 2) n times 3) 2n times 4) 2 n 1 times
F / a Fl Fl 4
Y or Y
Sol: l / l al D 2 l
l l D2 n2
or l 2 or 2 12
D l1 D2 1
Key : 1
10. A piece of copper wire has twice the radius of a piece of steel wire. Young’s modulus for steel is twice
that of the copper. One end of the copper wire is joined to one end of the steel wire. so both can be
subjected to the same longitudinal force. By what fraction of its length will the steel have stretched
when the length of the copper has increased by 1%?
1)1% 2)2% 3)2.5% 4)3%
Fl l 1
Sol: l r 2Y or l r 2Y
l 2 Ys
l r 2 4rS
s
Cu2 Cu 2 2 2
l rs Y3 rs Ys
l Cu
l l
l 2 l
S Cu
Key :2
11. Two wires of the same material and length are stretched by the same force. Their masses are in the
ratio 3:2.Their elongations are in the ratio
1) 3:2 2)9:4 3)2:3 4)4:9
Fl 1
Sol: Y or l
al a
m al or m a
1
l
m
l1 m2 2
l2 m1 3
Key :3
12. A beam of metal supported at the two ends is loaded at the centre. The depression at the centre is
proportional to
1. Y2 2. Y 3. 1/Y 4. 1/Y2
Sol: Depression in beam
Wl 3
, wherel length ; b breadth; d depth
4Ybd 2
1
Y
Key : 3
13. A steel ring of radius r and cross-sectional area A is fitted on to a wooden disc of R(R>r). If Young’s
modulus be E , then the force with which the steel ring is expanded is
R Rr E Rr Er
1. AE r 2. AE 3. 4.
r A r AR
Sol: Initial length (circumference ) of the ring L 2 r
|
Final length (circumference) of the ring L 2 R
Change in length L 2 R 2 r
Changein length 2 R r R r
Strain Original length 2 r
r
F/A F/A
Now Young’s modulus , E l / L R r / r
Rr
F AE
r
Key : 2
14. The length of an elastic string is a metre when the longitudinal tension is 4 N and b metre when the
longitudinal tension 5 N. The length of the string (in metre) when the longitudinal tension is 9 N is
1
1. a-b 2. 5a-4b 3. 2b 4 a 4. 4a-3b
Sol: Let L be the original length of the wire and K be force constant of wire
Final length = Initial length + Elongation
F
L' L F Kx
K
4
For first condition , a L K
5
For second condition b L K
By solving (i) and (ii) equations we get
1
L 5a 4b and K
ba
9
Now when the longitudinal tension is 9N length of the string is L K 5a 4b 9 b a 5a 4b
Key : 2
15. A steel wire is suspended vertically from a rigid support, when loaded with a weight in air, it expands
by La and when the weight is immersed completely in water, the extension reduced to L w. Then
relative density of the material of the weight is
La L L Lw
1. L L 2. w 3. a 4.
a w La Lw La Lw
Sol:
In case of suspended wire elongation load
in air, La mg
1
in water , Lw mg 1
x
mg
x = Relative density= 1
mg mg 1
x
La
La Lw
La
x
La Lw
Key :1
16. A brass wire of length 2 m and cross-sectional area 2.0 cm2 is attached end to end to a steel rod of
length L
and cross-sectional area 1.0 cm2. The compound rod is subjected to equal and opposite pulls of
4
magnitude 5 10 N at its ends. If the elongations of the two rods are equal, then the length of steel
rod (L) is Y
Brass 1.0 1011 N / m 2 and YSteel 2.0 1011 N / m 2
1. 1.5 m 2. 1.8 m 3. 1 m 4. 2 m
Sol:
lB 2 m, AB 2 cm2 ; ls L, As 1cm2
lB ls
F lB F ls
AB YB As Ys
AY
L s s lB ls L
ABYB
Substituting the given values.
1 2 1011
L 2 2m
2 11011
Key : 4
17. If the ratio of lengths, radii and Young’s moduli of steel and brass wires in the figure are a, b, c
respectively, then the corresponding ratio of increase in their lengths would be
2ac 3a 3c 2a 2c
1. b 2 2. 3. 4.
2b 2 c 2ab 2 b
Sol:
r1 l1 Y1
Given, r b; l a ; Y c
2 2 2
3mg l1
l1
AY
1 1
2 mg l2
And l2 A2Y2
l1 3l1 3 a 3a
A2Y2 2
2
l2 2l2 AY
1 1 2 b c 2b c
Key : 2
18. One end of a uniform wire of length L and of weight W is attached rigidly to a point in the roof and a
weight W1 is suspended from its lower end. If s is the area of cross-section of the wire, the stress in the
L
wire at a height 4 from its lower end is
W 3W
W1 W1
W1 4 4 W W
1. s 2. 3. 4. 1
s s 4
L 1
Sol: Tension in the wire at height 4 from its lower end = weight suspended + Weight of 4 of the wire
W
T W1
4
W W / 4
Stress 1
s
Key : 2
19. A wire of cross-sectional area A is stretched horizontally between two clamps located at a distance
2l m from each other. A weight W newton is suspended from the midpoint of the wire. The strain
produced in the wire if the vertical distance through which of the midpoint of the wire moves down is
x(<<l), will be
2 2
1. x / l 2. 2 x 2 / l 2 3. x 2 / 2l 2 4. x / 2l
Sol: Change in length l AC AO
l 2
x2 l
1 x2
l 1 2
l
2l
x2
2l
l x 2 / 2l x 2
Longitudinal strain 2
l l 2l
Key : 3
20. When the tension in a metal wire is T1, its length is l1 .When the tension is T2 , its length is l2. The natural
length of the wire is
T l1T2 l2T1 l1T2 l2T1
1) 2 l1 l 2 2) T1l1 T2l2 3) 4)
T1 T2 T1 T2 T1
Sol:
Fl Y , l
Y ; and a are constants
a l
Fl
constant or l F
l
Now, l1 l T1 and l2 l T2
l1 l T1
Dividing,
l 2 l T2
or l1T2 lT2 l2T1 lT1 or T T1 T2 l 2T1 l1T2
l2T1 l1T2 l T l T
or l or l 1 2 2 1
T1 T2 T2 T1
KEY : 3
21. A light rod of length 2.00m is suspended from the ceiling horizontally by means of two vertical wires
3 2
Of equal length tied to its ends. One of the wires is made of steel and is of cross-section 10 m and the
3 2
other is of brass of cross-section 2 10 m . Find out the position along the rod at which a weight may
be hung to produce
a) Equal stresses in both wires, b) equal strains in both wires
11 2 11 2
Young’s modulus for steel is 2 10 N / m and for brass is 10 N / m
Sol : (a) Given , Stress in steel = stress in brass
TS TB TS AS 103 1
AS AB ; TB AB 2 10 3
2 --------(i)
As the system is in equilibrium, taking moments about D, we have
T 2 x
TS . x TB 2 x ; S
TB x ---------(ii)
From eqs (i) and (ii) we get
x 1.33m
strees
(b) Strain Y
Given, strain in steel = strain in brass
TS / AS TB / AB TS AS YS 1 10 2 10
3 11
1 -------(iii)
Y
S Y
B T
B AYB B
2 103 1011
From (ii) and (iii) we have x 1.0m
22. Two wires of the same metal (Young’s modulus =Y) and same length L but radii R and 2R
respectively are joined end to end and a weight w is suspended from the combination as shown in the
figure. The elastic potential energy in the system is
3w2 L 3w2 L 5 w2 L w2 L
1) 4 R 2Y 2) 8 R 2Y 3) 8 R 2Y 4) R 2Y
wL wL
Sol : l1 4 R 2 y , l2 4 R 2Y
1 2 1 2
U K1 l1 K 2 l2
2 2
1 Y 4 R wL 1 Y R wL
2 2 2 2
2
4 R Y 2
2
2 L L R Y
2
5w L
8 R 2Y
Key : 3
23. A uniform elastic plank moved due to a constant force F placed over a smooth surface. The area of end
face is S and Young’s modulus of the material is E. What is average strain produced in the direction of
the force?
F F F
1) SE 2) 2SE 3) 4SE 4) Zero
F
Sol : Tension at distance x from end A, Tx F L x
L T dx FL
x
Total change in length, l 0 ES
2 ES
l F
Average strain
L 2 ES
Key : 2
24. A copper wire Y 10 N / m of length 8m and a steel wire Y 2 10 N / m of length 4m, each of
11 2 11 2
0.5m2 cross-section are fastened end to end at O and stretched with a tension of 500N
1) The shift of O is towards copper side by 0.6mm
2) Elongation in steel is 1/4 th the elongation in copper wire
3) Total elongation is 1.0 mm
4) All of the above
Fl 500 8
Sol : l C AY 0.5 104 1011
C
0.8 103 m 0.8 mm
Fl 500 4
l S 4 11
0.2 103 m 0.2 mm
AY S 0.5 10 2 10
1
l S l C and l 0.8 0.2 1.0 mm
4
Key : 4
25. A uniform cylinder rod of length L, cross-sectional area A and Young’s modulus Y is acted upon by
the forces shown in the figure. The elongation of the rod is
3FL 2 FL 3FL 8FL
1) 5 AY 2) 5 AY 3) 8 AY 4) 3 AY
Sol : The free body diagrams of two parts are shown in figure.
Both parts are stretched. Therefore total elongation
2L L
3F 2 F 8FL
l l1 l2 3 3
AY AY 3 AY
Key : 4
26. A horizontal force of magnitude F acts at the end P of a uniform rigid rod which is
welded at point Q. In each case 1 and 2, as shown in figure. Find the reaction force
acting at a point C at a distance x from the fixed end Q of the rod.
Sol: Since the shaded segment is in translational equilibrium at rest;
F F F | 0 in both the figures
|
Thus gives F F
Since the rod is in rotational equilibrium F |x Fl 0
| Fl
This gives, F x
Compressive forces compress the rod; tensile forces elongate the rod and shearing
forces twist (bend) the rod. The tensile and compreesive forces are equal to the
applied force when the rod is in equilibrium horizontally, whereas the shearing force
need not be equal to the applied force.
7 2
27. Three rods of uniform area of cross section A 10 m are arranged as shown in
figure. Find out the shift in point B, C and D
FL MgL
Sol: L B L AB
AY AY
10 10 0.1
7 10
4 10 3 m 4mm
10 2.5 10
LC LB LBC
100 0.2
4 10 3 4 103 5 103 9mm
107 4 1010
LD LC LCD
100 0.15
9 103 7 10
9 103 15 103 24mm
10 1 10
28. A wire is suspended vertically from a rigid support . When loaded with a steel weight in air, the wire
extends by 16 cm. When the weight is completely immersed in water, the extension is reduced to
14 cm. the relative density of the material of the weight is
3 3 3 3
1) 2 g / cm 2) 6 g / cm 3) 8 g / cm 4)16 g / cm
Fl
Sol: Y al ; Y and a are constants
F l
In the first case , V g 16
In the second case V g V 1 g 14
Vg 1 14 7
Dividing ,
Vg 16 8
1 7
or or 8 7 or 8 g / cm3
8
Key : 3
29. When a mass of 4 kg is suspended from a string, its length is l1. If a mass of 6 kg is suspended then its
length is l2. Its length when a mass of 10 kg is suspended from it is
1) l1 l2 2) 3l2 2l1 3) 2l2 3l1 4) 2 l1 l2
Fl
Sol: Y Ae
4 gl 6 gl 10 gl
2 l2 l 3 l1 l
A l1 l A l2 l Ae
2l2 2l 3l1 3l
l 3l1 2l2
6 10
l2 l e
3e 5l2 5l
l3 l 52 5l1
l3 3l1 2l2 5l2 5l1
l3 3l2 2l1
Key : 2
30. A light rod of length 100 cm is suspended from the ceiling horizontally by means of two vertical wires
of equal lengths tied to the ends of the rod. One of the wires is made of steel and is of area of cross
section 0.1 cm2. The other wire is of brass and of area of cross-section 0.2 cm2. The position from the
steel wire along the rod at which a load is to be placed to produce equal stresses in both wires is
(Ysteel = 20 x 1011 dynes/cm2 ; Ybrass = 10x 1011 dynes/cm2)
100 200
1) 3 cm 2) 3
cm 3) 50 cm 4) 75 cm
F
Sol: Stress A same
F1 A1 0.1 1
F2 A2 0.2 2
Moments at ' 0 ' , F1 x F2 100 x
F2
x 100 x
F1
x 2 100 x 200 2 x
200
x cm
3
Key : 2
31. Find out longitudinal stress and tangential stress on a fixed block
Sol: Longitudinal or normal stress
100sin30o
l 5N / m 2
52
100 cos 30o
Tangential stress t 5 3N / m 2
52
32. A steel wire 1.5 m long and of radius 1 mm is attached with a load 3 kg at one end, the other end of the
wire is fixed. It is whirled in a vertical circle with a frequency 2Hz. Find the elongation of the wire
11 2 2
when the weight is at the lowest position– (Y = 2 10 N / m and g = 10 m/ s ) is nearly
3 3 7 7
1) 1.77 10 m 2) 7.17 10 m 3) 3.17 10 m 4) 1.37 10
Sol: Tension in wire at lowest position
T mg m 2 r
FL mg m L L
2
So enlonation
AY r 2Y
45 48 22.5
5
1.79 103 m
2 10
Key : 1
33. One end of a long metallic wire of length L area of cross section A and Young's modulus Y is tied to
the ceiling. The other end is tied to a massless spring of force constant k. A mass m hangs freely from
the free end of the spring. It is slightly pulled down and released. Its time period is given by
m mYA mk m kL YA
1) 2 k 2) 2 kL 3) 2 YA 4) kYA
YA
Sol: Spring constant of wire= L
YA
k
k1k 2 L kYA
So effective spring constant k k YA kL YA
1 2 k
L
m m kL YA
Time period 2 k 2 kYA
eff
Key : 4
34. A bob of mass m bangs from the ceiling of smooth trolley car which is moving with a constant
acceleration a. If young’s modulus, radius and length of the string are Y, r and l ,respectively . Find
the stress in the string when it makes a constant angle relative to vertical
m g 2 a2 m g 2 a2 m g 2 a2 2m g 2 a 2
1) r2 2) 2 r 3) 2 r 3 4) 3 r 2
Sol: Relative to the accelerating frame (trolley car) ,the forces acting on the bob are as shown in the figure
2 2
Then T m a g
Since the string is light ,same tension is felt at all points of the string
2
Putting the area of cross section of the string A r in the formula
F'
A
2 2
Where F ' T m a g
m g 2 a2
r2
Key : 1
35. Two wires of diameter 0.25 cm , one made of steel and other made of brass, unloaded length of the
11
steel wire is 1.5 m and that of brass is 1.0 m. young’s modulus of steel is 2.0 10 Pa and that of brass
11 lsteel
is 1.0 10
Pa. compute the ration of elongations of steel and brass wires l ?
brass
1) 1 2) 1.25 3) 2.25 4) 3.25
Sol: lbrass 6 g 1.0 / A 1 10
11
lSteel 10 g 1.5 / A 2 1011
lsteel
After solving equation , we get l 1.25
brass
Key : 2
m2 g
36. Consider the situation shown in the figure F is equal to . Area of cross-section is A. Find strain in
2
the wire the surface is friction less and string is light
m2 g 2m1 m2 m1 g 2m1 m2 m1 g 2m2 m1 m2 g m2 m1
1. 2 Ay m m 2. 3. 4.
1 2 2 Ay m1 m2 2 Ay m1 m2 Ay m1 m2
Sol:
We have
m2 g T m2 a.... i
And T F m1a.... ii
From (i) and (ii) ,we get
mg
F 2
2
m2 g F
a
m1 m2
m2 g
a
2 m1 m2
Now, T=F+ m1a (from (ii))
mg m2 g m22 g 2m1m2 g (m22 2m1m2 ) g
T 2 m1 =
2 2 m1 m2 2 m1 m2 2( m1 m2 )
FL l F
Now Y= Al l Ay
l m2 2m1m2 g m2 g m2 2m1
2
l 2 m1 m2 Ay 2 Ay m1 m2
Key :1
37. Two blocks each of mass 2 kg are connected as shown in the figure. The breaking stress of the
2 9 2
material of the wire is 10 N / m . Find the minimum radius of the wire used if it not to break
3
1. 10 m 2. 104 m 3. 105 m 4. 106 m
Sol:
mg 2 10 20 N
T = 20 N
2 9 20
Now, 10 r 2
r 104 m
Key : 2
2
38. A copper wire of length 3m and area of cross–section 1 mm , passes through an arrangement of two
frictionless pulleys, P1 and P2 . One end of the wire is rigidly clamped and a mass of 1 kg is hanged
10 2
from the other end. If the Young's modulus for copper is 10 10 N / m , then the elongation in the
wire is
1) 0.05 mm 2) 0.1 mm 3) 0.2 mm 4) 0.3 mm
Sol: Tension in wire mg 10 N
F .L 10 3
so elongation AY 106 10 1010 0.3 mm
Key : 4
7 2
39. An elevator cable can have a maximum stress of 7 10 N / m for appropriate safety factors. Its
2
maximum upward acceleration is 1.5 m / s . If the cable has to support the total weight of 2000 kg of a
loaded elevator, the minimum area of cross-section of the cable should be g 10 m / s 2
1. 3.28 cm2 2. 2.38 cm2 3. 0.328 cm2 4. 8.23 cm2
Sol:
Given
F
7 10 7
A
F (7 107 ) A
F M ( g a)
2000(10 1.5)
2000(11.5)
(7 107 ) A 2000(11.5)
2000 11.15
A 3.28 104 m 2 3.28cm2
7 107
Key : 1
6 2
40. The breaking stress for a substance is 10 N / m .what length of the wire of this substance should be
suspended vertically, so that the wire breaks under its own weight (Given: Density of material of the
3 3 2
wire 4 10 Kg/ m and g 10ms )
1)10 m 2)15 m 3)25 m 4)34 m
maximum weight
Sol: Breaking stress Are of cross section
al g
106 l g
a
106 106
or l m 25m
g 4 103 10
Key : 3
41. The rods of different materials having coefficients of linear explanation 1 and 2 and young’s
moduli, Y1 and Y2 respectively are fixed between two rigid massive walls. The rods are heated such that
they undergo the same increase in temperature, there is no bending of rods .If 1 / 2 2 / 3 , then
the thermal stresses developed in the two rods are equal , provided Y1 / Y2 is equal to
1) 2:3 2) 1:1 3) 3:2 4) 4:9
Sol: Thermal stess Y t
In given problem,
Y constant
Y1 2 3
Y2 1 2
Key : 3
42. A small but heavy block of mass 10 kg is attached to a wire 0.3 m long .Its breaking stress i
4.8 107 N / m2 , the area of the cross section of the wire is 106 m2 . The maximum angular velocity
with which the block can be rotated in the horizontal circle is
1) 4 rad / s 2) 8 rad / s 3) 10 rad / s 4) 32 rad / s
2
Sol: mr = Breaking stress Cross –Sectional area
10 0.3 2 4.8 10 7 10 6 48
48
2 16 or 4 rad / s
Or 3
Key : 1
2
43. The two femurs each of cross-sectional area 10 cm support the upper part of a human body of mass
40kg. The average pressure sustained by the femurs is Take g 10 m s
2
3 2 4 2 5 2 6 2
1) 2 10 N m 2) 2 10 N m 3) 2 10 N m 4) 2 10 N m
Sol: Total cross-sectional area of the femurs is,
A 2 10 cm2 2 10 104 m2 20 104 m2 ,
Force acting on them is
F mg 40kg 10ms 2 400 N
Average pressure sustained by them is
F 400 N
P 2 105 Nm 2
A 20 104 m 2
Key : 3
44. If one end of a wire is fixed with a rigid support and other end is stretched by a force of 10 N, then the
increase in its length is 0.5 mm . The ratio of the energy of the wire and the work done in displacing it
through 0.5 mm by the weight is
1 1 1
1. 3 2. 3. 4. 1
4 2
Sol: Work done in stretching a wire
1 1
W Fl 10 0.5 103 2.5 10 3 J
2 2
Work done to displace it through 0.5 mm
W F l 5 103 J
The ratio of energy and work done = 1 : 2
KEY : 3
45. The Young’s modulus of a wire is Y . If the energy per unit volume is E, then the strain will be
2E E
1. Y 2. 2EY 3. EY 4.
Y
Sol:
1 2
Energy per unit volume , E 2 Y strain
2E
Strain
Y
KEY : 1
46. Wires A and B are made from the same material. A has twice the diameter and three times the length
of B. If the elastic limits are not reached when each is stretched by same tension, then the ratio of
energy stored in A to that in B is
1. 2 : 3 2. 3 : 4 3. 3 : 2 4. 6 :1
Sol:
1 F 2L L
U Fl ,U 2 F and Y are cons tan ts
2 2 AY r
2 2
U L r 1 3
A A B 3
U B LB rA 2 4
Key : 2
47. A rubber cord catapult has cross-sectional area 25 mm2 and initial length 10 cm. It is stretched by 5 cm
8 2
and then released to project a missile of mass 5g. Taking Yrubber 5 10 N / m , velocity of the
projected missile is
20ms 1 2. 100 m s 1 3. 250m s 1 4. 200m s 1
1.
Sol: Potential energy stored in the rubber cord missile catapult will be converted into kinetic energy of
missile
1 2 1 2 1 YAl 2 YAl 2
mv Kx v
2 2 2 L mL
2
5 108 25 106 5 10 2
250 m / s
5 103 10 103
KEY : 3
48. An elastic material of Young’s modulus Y is subjected to a stress S. The elastic energy stored per unit
volume of the material is
2Y S2 S S2
1. S 2 2. 3. 4.
2Y 2Y Y
Sol:
1
Energy stored Stress Strain Volume
2
Stress
Young ' s mod ulus, Y
Strain
Stress
Strain
Y
1 Strain Stress 2 S 2
U Stress
2 Y 2Y 2Y
KEY: 2
49. The diagram below shows a force-extension graph for a rubber band. Consider the following
statements
I. It will be easier to compress this rubber than expand it
II. Rubber does not return to its original length after it is stretched
III. The rubber band will get heated if it is stretched and released
Which of these can be deduced from the graph?
1) III only 2) II and III 3) I and III 4) I only
Sol : Area of bysteresis loop gives the energy loss in the process of stretching and unstretching of rubber
band and this loss will appear in the form of heating
Key : 1
50. When a metal wire elongates by hanging a load Mg on it, the gravitational potential energy of mass M
decreases by Mgl. This energy appears
1) as elastic potential energy completely
2) as thermal energy completely
3) half as elastic potential energy and half has thermal energy
4) as kinetic energy of the load completely
Sol : When a metal wire elongates by hanging a load Mg on it, decrease in potential energy of the load
1
Mgl where L = elongation of metal wire. Elastic potential energy stored in stretched wire Mgl
2
1
Difference of Mgl and 2 Mgl appears a heat energy in stretched wire
1 1
Energy appearing as heat Mgl Mgl Mgl
2 2
Key : 3
51. A pan with set of weights is attached with a light spring. When disturbed, the
mass-sprng system oscillates with a time period of 0.6s. When some additional
weights are added, then time period is 0.7s. The extension caused by the additional
weights is approximately given by
1) 1.38 cm 2) 3.5 cm 3) 1.75 cm 4) 2.45 cm
m
Sol: 2 k 0.6 ---(i) and
m m|
2 0.7 ---(ii)
k
Dividing (ii) by (i), we get
2
7 m m| 49
6 m 36
m m| 49 m| 13 13m
1 1 m|
m 36 m 36 36
2
k 4
Also m 0.6 2
m|g 13 mg
Desired extension
k 36 k
13 0.36
10 3.5cm
36 4 2
Key : 2
10
52. The Young’s modulus of the material of a rod is 20 10 pascal. When the longitudinal strain is
0.04% , The energy stored per unit volume is
3 3 3 3
1) 4 10 J / m 2) 8 10 J / m
3 3 3 3
3) 16 10 J / m 4) 16 10 J / m
1
u stress×strain
Sol: 2
2
1 2 1 0.04
Y strain 2 1011
2 2 100
16 103 J /m3
KEY: 4
53. Two wires of the same material and length but diameters in the ratio 1:2 are stretched by the same
force. The potential energy per unit volume for the two wires when stretched will be in the ratio
1) 16:1 2) 4:1 3) 2:1 4) 1:1
Sol: Energy density 2 Stress×strain
2
stress stress 1
Stress 4
2 Y 2Y D
4
u A DB 4
Now, u D 4 2 16
B A
KEY: 1
54. A body of mass M is attached to the linear end of a metal wire, whose upper end is fixed. The
elongation of the wire is l . Then elastic energy stored in the wire is:
1 1
1) Zero 2) Mg l 3) 2 Mgl 4) 4 Mgl
1 1
Sol: Elastic energy stored 2 load extension= 2 Mgl
KEY : 3
55. When the load on a wire is increased slowly from 2 kg wt. to 4 kg wt, the elongation increases from
0.6 mm to 1 mm. The work done during this extension of wire is g 10 ms :
2
3 3 3 3
1) 10 J 2) 0.4 10 J 3) 0.8 10 J 4) 14 10 J
1 1 1 1
Sol: W 2 F2 x2 2 F1 x1 2 M 2 gx2 2 M 1 gx1
1
4 10 103 2 10 0.6 103 14 103 J
2
Key : 4
56. If the tension on a wire is removed at once, then:
1) It will break
2) Its temperature increases
3) There will be no change in its temperature
4) Its temperature will be reduced
Sol: Strain energy appears as heat energy
Key : 2
57. The upper end of a wire of radius 4 mm and length 100 cm is clamped and its other end is twisted
through an angle of 300. Then angle of shear is
1. 120 2. 0.120 3. 1.20 4. 0.0120
1
r 4 10 0 0
Sol: Angle of shear, L 100 30 0.12
KEY : 2
58. A bar of cross-section A is subjected to equal and opposite tensile forces at its ends. Consider a plane
section of the bar whose normal makes an angle with the axis of the bar
a) For what value of is the tensile stress maximum?
b) For what value of is the shearing stress maximum?
1) 00, 450 2) 450, 600 3) 600, 900 4) 00, 900
Sol: The resolved part of F along the normal is the tensile force on this plane and the resolved part parallel
to the plane is the shearing force on this plane.
force F cos F cos F 2
Therefore, tensile stress area A A sec A cos
cos
(Area of section =Asec )
force F sin F sin F
Shearing stress = area A A sec 2 A sin 2
cos
2
Obviously, tensile stress on the plane is maximum when cos is maximum, that is
cos 1or 0o
o
Obviously, shearing stress in maximum when sin 2 is maximum, that is sin 2 1 or 2 90 or
45o
KEY : 1
59. A bar is subjected to equal and opposite forces as shown in the figure. PQ is a plane making angle
with the cross-section of the bar. If the area of cross-section be ‘a’, then the tensile stress on PQ is
F F cos F cos2 F
1) a 2) a 3) a 4) a cos
Force normal to PQis F1 F cos
Sol:
a a
cos a1
a1 cos
F1 F cos F cos 2
Tensile stress
a1 a / cos a
KEY : 3
60. The poisson’s ratio (s) should satisfy the relation
1) 1 s 0.5 2) 0.5 s 1 3) 0.5 s 1 4) 1 s 0.5
Sol: Theoritical limit of poisson ratio is
1 s 0.5
KEY : 1
61. Y, K, n represent respectively the young’s modulus, bulk modulus and rigidity modulus of a body. If
rigidity modulus is twice the bulk modulus, then
5 9 5 18
1) Y 18 K 2) Y 5 K 3) Y 9 4) Y 5 K
9k 2 k 18k
9kn
Sol: Y 5k 5
3k n
KEY : 4
62. The poisson ‘s ratio of material which does not suffer any change in volume when a force is applied on
it is
1) 0.5 2) 1 3) 2 4) 4
V l l
Sol: V 1 2 l 1 2 0.5 l 0
KEY : 1
63. The poisson’s ratio of a material is 0.4. If a force is applied to a wire of this material, there is a
decrease of cross-sectional area by 2%. The percentage increase in its length is:
1) 3% 2) 2.5 % 3) 1% 4) 0.5 %
2
Sol: A r
A r
2
A r
2 r
2
100 r
r
l 1 100
r
100 100 2.5%
l 100 0.4
KEY : 2
64. A metal cylinder of length L is subjected to a uniform compressive force F as shown in the figure. The
material of the cylinder has young’s modulus Y and Poisson’s ratio . The change in volume of the
cylinder is
FL 1 FL 1 2 FL 1 2 FL
1) Y 2) Y 3) Y 4) Y
V L
Sol: V L 1 2 .....(i)
Y
F /r 2
Young’s modulus, L / L
L F
or 2
L r Y
L
On substituting this value of L in Eq. (i), we get
FL
V 1 2
Y
KEY : 4
3
65. A material has Poisson’s ratio 0.5. If a uniform rod of it suffers a longitudinal strain of 2 10 , then
the percentage change in volume is
1) 0.6 2) 0.4 3) 0.2 4) zero
V l
Sol: V 1 2 l
KEY : 4
66. The pressure applied from all directions on a cube is P. How much its temperature should be raised to
and the coefficient of volume
maintain the original volume? (the volume elasticity of the cube is
expansion is )
P P P
1. 2. 3. 4.
P
Sol:
If coefficient of volume expansion is and rise in temperature is
V
, then V V
V
P P P
Volume elasticity, V / V
KEY : 1
67. Bulk modulus for rubber is 9.8 107 Nm 2 . To what depth should a rubber ball be taken in a lake so
that its volume is decreased by 0.1%?
1) 10 m 2) 100 m 3) 50 m 4) 25m
Sol:
K
P V K V
or P
V V
Let h be the required depth and the density of water be . Then
K V K V 9.8 108 0.1
h g or h 3 100m
V gV 10 9.8 100
KEY : 2
5 2
68. A metal block is experiencing an atmospheric pressure of10 N / m . When the same block is placed in
11 2
a vacuum chamber, the fractional change in its volume (the bulk modulus of metal is 1.25 10 N / m )
7 7 7 7
1) 4 10 2) 2 10 3) 8 10 4) 110
V P 1105
Sol : V 11
8 107
B 1.25 10
Key : 3
69. The density of a metal at normal pressure is . Its density when it is subjected to
| |
an excess pressure p is . If B is the bulk modulus of the metal, the ratio is
1 B 1 p
1) 2) 1 3) 4) 1
p p B B
1 1
B p
m 1
Sol : V or V (as m= constant)
| V V p
B
V1 V dV dV / V
V 1
Vp p
V 1
B B
Key : 1
70. Find out bulk stress on the spherical object of radius 10 / cm if area and mass of
2
piston are 50cm and 50kg, respectively, for a cylinder filled with gas as shown in
figure
mg 50 10 5 5 2
Sol: pgas A pa 50 10 4 1 10 2 10 N / m
5 2
Bulk stress p gas 2 10 N / m
71. A solid sphere of radius R, made up of a material of bulk modulus K is surrounded by a liquid in a
cylindrical container . A massless piston of area A floats on the surface of the liquid . When mass M
is placed on the piston to compress the liquid ,the fractional change in the radius of the sphere is
Mg Mg 3Mg Mg
1) AK 2) 3 AK 3) AK 4) 2 AK
Mg
Sol: Change in pressure due to placing of mass on piston is p A
dp
From bulk modulus definition K dV / V
dV p Mg
V K AK
4
From V r 3
3
dV 3dR dR 1 dV Mg
V R R 3 V 3 AK
KEY : 2
72. Bulk modulus of water is 2 x 109 N/m2. The pressure required to increase the density of water by 0.1
% in N/m2 is
1) 2 x 109 2) 2 x 108 3) 2 x 106 4) 2 x 104
6
Sol: e 10 m
KEY : 3
5
73. The compressibility of water is 4 10 per unit atmospheric pressure. The decrease in volume of 100
cm3 of water under a pressure of 100 atmosphere will be
3 3 5 3 3
1) 0.4 cm 2) 0.025 cm 3) 4 10 cm 4) 0.04 cm
P 1 P
Sol: K V / V or K V P
1
or V K V P
4 105 100 100cm3
4 101 cm3 0.4 cm3
KEY : 1
74. The load versus elongation graph for four wires of the same material is shown in the figure. The
thinnest wire is represented by the line
1. OC 2. OD 3. OA 4. OB]
Sol:
F/A
As, l / l Y
F YA
slope s
l l
S R2Y / L
S R2
So, OA has least slope
Key : 3
6 2
75. A 1 m long metal wire of cross-sectional area 10 m is fixed at one end from a rigid support and a
weight W is hanging at its other end. The graph shows the observed extension of length l of the wire
as a function of W. The Young’s modulus of material of the wire in SI units is
4
1. 5 10 2. 2 105 3. 2 1011 4. 5 1011
Sol:
l
As l YA W
l
The graph is straight line passing through origin in the slope of which is YA
l
Slope
YA
l 1 1.0 80 20
Y 6 4
A slope 10 4 1 10
2.0 1011 N / m2
Key : 3
76. The diagram below shows a force-extension graph for a rubber band. Consider the following
statements
I. It will be easier to compress this rubber than expand it
II. Rubber does not return to its original length after it is stretched
III. The rubber band will get heated if it is stretched and released
Which of these can be deduced from the graph?
1) III only 2) II and III 3) I and III 4) I only
Sol : Area of bysteresis loop gives the energy loss in the process of stretching and unstretching of rubber
band and this loss will appear in the form of heating
Key : 1
77. A light rod of length 2.00 is suspended from the ceiling horizontally by means of two vertical wires of
3 2
equal length tied to its ends. One of the wires is made of steel and is of cross-section 10 m and the
3 2
other is of brass of cross-section 2 10 m . Find out the position along the rod at which a weight may
be hung to produce
b) Equal stresses in both wires, b) equal strains in both wires
11 2 11 2
Young’s modulus for steel is 2 10 N / m and for brass is 10 N / m
Sol : (a) Given , Stress in steel = stress in brass
TS TB TS AS 103 1
; 3
--------(i)
AS AB TB AB 2 10 2
As the system is in equilibrium, taking moments about D, we have
T 2 x
TS .x TB 2 x ; S
TB x ---------(ii)
From eqs (i) and (ii) we get
x 1.33m
strees
(b) Strain Y
Given, strain in steel = strain in brass
TS / AS TB / AB TS AS YS 1 10 2 10
3 11
1 -------(iii)
YS Y
B T
B AY
B B
2 103 1011
From (ii) and (iii) we have x 1.0m
78. When a metal wire elongates by hanging a load Mg on it, the gravitational potential energy of mass M
decreases by Mgl. This energy appears
1) as elastic potential energy completely
2) as thermal energy completely
3) half as elastic potential energy and half has thermal energy
4) as kinetic energy of the load completely
Sol : When a metal wire elongates by hanging a load Mg on it, decrease in potential energy of the load
1
Mgl where L = elongation of metal wire. Elastic potential energy stored in stretched wire Mgl
2
1
Difference of Mgl and 2 Mgl appears a heat energy in stretched wire
1 1
Energy appearing as heat Mgl Mgl Mgl
2 2
Key : 3
5 2
79. A metal block is experiencing an atmospheric pressure of10 N / m . When the same block is placed in
11 2
a vacuum chamber, the fractional change in its volume (the bulk modulus of metal is 1.25 10 N / m )
7 7 7 7
1) 4 10 2) 2 10 3) 8 10 4) 110
V P 1105
Sol : V 11
8 107
B 1.25 10
Key : 3
10 2 10 2
80. The Young’s modulus of brass and steel are respectively 1.0 10 N / m and 2 10 N / m . A brass
wire and a steel wire of the same length are extended by 1 mm under the same force, the radii of brass
and steel wires are RB and RS respectively. Then
RB RB
1) RS 2 RB 2) RS 3) RS 4RB 4) RS 4
2
Fl Fl
Sol : l AY R 2Y
l , F and l are same
2
Hence, R Y constant
RS YB 1 RB
Or R R
2 or
S
B YS 2
Key : 2
81. Two wires of the same metal (Young’s modulus =Y) and same length L but radii R and 2R
respectively are joined end to end and a weight w is suspended from the combination as shown in the
figure. The elastic potential energy in the system is
3w2 L 3w2 L 5w2 L w2 L
1) 4 R2Y 2) 8 R 2Y 3) 8 R 2Y 4) R 2Y
wL wL
Sol : l1 4 R 2 y , l2 4 R 2Y
1 2 1 2
U K1 l1 K 2 l2
2 2
1 Y 4 R wL 1 Y R wL
2 2 2 2
2
4 R Y 2
2
2 L L R Y
2
5w L
8 R 2Y
Key : 3
82. A uniform elastic plank moved due to a constant force F placed over a smooth surface. The area of end
face is S and Young’s modulus of the material is E. What is average strain produced in the direction of
the force?
F F F
1) SE 2) 2SE 3) 4SE 4) Zero
F
Sol : Tension at distance x from end A, Tx F L x
L T dx FL
x
Total change in length, l 0 ES
2 ES
l F
Average strain
L 2 ES
Key : 2
83. A copper wire Y 10 N / m of length 8m and a steel wire Y 2 10 N / m of length 4m, each of
11 2 11 2
0.5 m2 cross-section are fastened end to end and stretched with a tension of 500N
1) Elongation in copper wire is 0.8mm
2) Elongation in steel is 1/4 th the elongation in copper wire
3) Total elongation is 1.0 mm
4) All of the above
Fl 500 8
Sol : l C AY 0.5 104 1011
C
0.8 103 m 0.8 mm
Fl 500 4
l S 4 11
0.2 103 m 0.2 mm
AY S 0.5 10 2 10
1
l S l C and l 0.8 0.2 1.0 mm
4
Key : 4
84. A uniform cylinder rod of length L, cross-sectional area A and Young’s modulus Y is acted upon by
the forces shown in the figure. The elongation of the rod is
3FL 2 FL 3FL 8FL
1) 5 AY 2) 5 AY 3) 8 AY 4) 3 AY
Sol : The free body diagrams of two parts are shown in figure.
Both parts are stretched. Therefore total elongation
2L L
3F 2 F
l l1 l2 3 3 8FL
AY AY 3 AY
Key : 4
85. The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two materials A and B are as shown in
figure. If YA and YB are the Young’s moduli of the materials, then
1) YB 2YA 2) YA YB 3) YB 3YA 4) YA 3YB
YA tan A tan 60o 3
Sol : Y tan tan 30o 1/ 3 3 YA 3YB
B B
Key : 4
86. The density of a metal at normal pressure is . Its density when it is subjected to
| |
an excess pressure p is . If B is the bulk modulus of the metal, the ratio is
1 B 1 p
1) 2) 1 3) 4) 1
p p B B
1 1
B p
m 1
Sol : V or V (as m= constant)
| V V p
B
V1 V dV dV / V
V 1
Vp p
V 1
B B
Key : 1
87. A horizontal force of magnitude F acts at the end P of a uniform rigid rod which is
welded at point Q. In each case 1 and 2, as shown in figure. Find the reaction force
acting at a point C at a distance x from the fixed end Q of the rod.
Sol: Since the shaded segment is in translational equilibrium at rest;
F F F | 0 in both the figures
|
Thus gives F F
|
Since the rod is in rotational equilibrium F x Fl 0
| Fl
This gives, F x
Compressive forces compress the rod; tensile forces elongate the rod and shearing
forces twist (bend) the rod. The tensile and compreesive forces are equal to the
applied force when the rod is in equilibrium horizontally, whereas the shearing force
need not be equal to the applied force.
88. Find out longitudinal stress and tangential stress on a fixed block
Sol: Longitudinal or normal stress
100 sin30o
1 5N / m 2
52
100 cos 30o
Tangential stress t 5 3N / m 2
52
89. Find out bulk stress on the spherical object of radius 10 / cm if area and mass of
2
piston are 50cm and 50kg, respectively, for a cylinder filled with gas as shown in
figure
mg 50 10 5 5 2
Sol: pgas A pa 50 10 4 1 10 2 10 N / m
5 2
Bulk stress pgas 2 10 N / m
7 2
90. Three rods of uniform area of cross section A 10 m are arranged as shown in
figure. Find out the shift in point B, C and D
FL MgL
Sol: LB L AB AY AY
10 10 0.1
7 10
4 10 3 m 4mm
10 2.5 10
LC LB LBC
100 0.2
4 10 3 7 10
4 103 5 103 9mm
10 4 10
LD LC LCD
100 0.15
9 103 7 10
9 103 15 103 24mm
10 1 10
91. A pan with set of weights is attached with a light spring. When disturbed, the
mass-spring system oscillates with a time period of 0.6s. When some additional
weights are added, then time period is 0.7s. The extension caused by the additional
weights is approximately given by
1) 1.38 cm 2) 3.5 cm 3) 1.75 cm 4) 2.45 cm
m
Sol: 2 k 0.6 ---(i) and
m m|
2 0.7 ---(ii)
k
Dividing (ii) by (i), we get
2
7 m m| 49
6 m 36
m m| 49 m| 13 13m
1 1 m|
m 36 m 36 36
2
k 4
Also m 0.6 2
m|g 13 mg
Desired extension
k 36 k
13 0.36
10 3.5cm
36 4 2
Key : 2
92. The potential energy U between two molecules as a function of the distance X
between them has been shown in the figure. The two molecules are
1) attracted when x lies between A and B are repelled when X lies between B and C
2) attracted when x lies between B and C and are repelled when X lies between A
and B
3) attracted when they reach B
4) reprelled when they reach B
dU
Sol: F dx
In the region BC, slope of the graph is positive.
F negative, i.e., force is attractive in nature
In the region AB, slope of the graph is negative
F positive, i.e., force is repulsive in nature
93. Two exactly similar wires of stell and copper are stretched by equal foces. If the
difference in their elongations is 0.5cm, the elongation (l) of each wire is
Ys steel 2.0 1011 N / m 2 , Yc copper 1.2 1011 N / m 2
1) ls 0.75cm,lc 1.25cm
2) ls 1.25cm,lc 0.75cm
3) ls 0.25cm,lc 0.75cm
4) ls 0.75cm,lc 0.25cm
1 Ys l c lc 2 1011 5
Sol: l Y Y l l 1.2 1011 3 -------(i)
c s s
Also lc ls 0.5 -----(ii)
On solving (i) and (ii), we get
lc 1.25cm and ls 0.75cm
Key : 1
94. A rectangular block of size 10cm8cm5cm is kept in three different positions P, Q
and R in turn as shown in the figure. In each case, the shaded area is rigidly fixed
and a definite force F is applied tangentially to the opposite face to deform the
block. The displacement of the upper face will be
1)
Same in all the three cases
2)
Maximum in P position
3)
Maximum in Q position
4)
Maximum in R position
F /A L F
Sol: x
x /L A
L
If and F are constant, then x A
For maximum displacement, area at which force applied should be minimum and
vertical side should be maximum. This is given in the R position of rectangular
block.
Key : 4
95. The diagram shows stress vs. strain curve for the materials A and B. From the
curves we infer that
1) A is brittle but B is ductile 2) A is ductile and B is brittle
3) Both A and B are ductile 4) Both A and B are brittle
Sol : In ductile materials, yield point exists while in brittle material, failure would occur
without yielding
Key : 2
96. The force (F) –extension l , graph shows that the strain energy stored in the
material under test, for an extension of 4 min, is greater than which of the
following values?
1) 80 mJ 2) 60 mJ 3) 40 mJ 4) None of these
Sol : Area under the curve presents strain energy stored and it is greater than 40 mJ.
Area under curve (straight line)
1 1
.F .l 20 4 103 J 40 mJ
2 2
Key : 3
97. A rubber a volume 2000cc is alternately subjected to tension and released. The
figure shows the stress – strain curve of rubber. Each curve is a quadrant of an
ellipse. The amount of energy lost as heat per cycle per unit volume will be
2 2
1) 2 1 16 10 J 2) 4 1 8 10 J
2 2
3) 4 1 32 10 J 4) 2 1 32 10 J
Sol : Hysteresis loss corresponding to elasticity per unit volume of a substance is given
by the area of hysteresis loop, i.e., stress- strain curve corresponding loading and
reloading
Area of an ellipse semi-major axis semi-minor axis
1 1
A1 8 4 10 2 A2 8 4 102
4 4
2
Also, A3 8 4 10
Area of hysteresis loop is A A1 A2 A3
4
A 2 8 4 102 8 4 102 1 32 102 J
2
= work done per cycle
= energy lost per cycle per unit volume
Key : 4
98. The length of a steel cylinder is kept constant by applying pressure as its two ends.
o
When the temperature of rod is increased by 100 C from its initial temperature, the
increase in pressure to be applied at its ends is
11 2 6 o 5 2
(Ysteel 2 10 N / m , steel 11 10 / C , 1atm 10 N / m )
7 3 3
1) 22 10 atm 2) 2.2 10 atm 3) zero 4) 4.3 10 atm
Sol : If the rod is allowed to expanded, then it will expand by l l T due to increase
in temperature by T . But as the length of the cylinder is kept constant by applying
pressure, a stress is developed in the cylinder. The decrease in length of cylinder
Fl
due to elasticity is l
AY and a compressive stress will develop in it.
Stress= Excess pressure applied at ends
F l
Y Y T 2 1011 11 106 100 2.2 103 atm
A l
Key : 2
99. A mass m is hanging from a wire of cross-sectional area A and length L. Y is
Young’s modulus of wire. An external force F is applied on the wire which is then
slowly further pulled down by x from its equilibrium position. Find the work done
by the force F the wire exerts on the mass
2 2 2
YA 2 YA x x YA x x YA x
1) mg x 2 L x 2) mg x L 3) mg
2
L 4) mg
2
2L
Sol : Work done by applied force and gravity will be
x
x x2
W K x l dx K xl
0
2 0
2
YA x
x l
L 2
It will be work done by the force the wire exerts on the mass,
2
YA x
W W xl
L 2
mgl
But l AY
YA x mgL
W x
So, L 2 AY
2
YA x
mg x
L 2
Key : 1
100. Wires A and B are connected with blocks P and Q, as shown. The ratio of lengths,
radii and Young’s modulus of wires A and B are r, 2r, and 3r respectively (r is a
constant). Find the mass of block P if ratio of increase in their corresponding
1
lengths is 6r 2 . The mass of the block Q is 3M
1) M 2) 3M 3) 6M 4) 9M
FL
Sol : l AY
l A FA LA AB YB
l B FB LB AA YA
2
KM 1 1 K 1
r 2
2 (given)
3M 2r 3r 36r 6r
K 6 ; Mass of block P = 6M
Key : 3
101. A man grows into a giant such that his linear dimensions increase by a factor of 9.
Assuming that his density remains same, the stress in the leg will change by a
factor of
1 1
1) 81 2) 81 3) 9 4) 9
Vf 3
Sol : V 9
i
Density remains same
So, mass volume
mf Area f 2
93 and 9
mi Area i
Mass g
Stress = Area
2 m f Ai 93
9
1 mi Af 92
Key : 3
102. A solid sphere of radius r made of a soft material of bulk modulus K is surrounded
by a liquid in a cylindrical container. A massless piston of area a floats on the
surface of the liquid, covering entire cross section of cylindrical container. When a
mass m is placed on the surface of the piston to compress the liquid, the fractional
decrement in the radius of the sphere
mg Ka Ka mg
1) Ka 2) mg 3) 3mg 4) 3Ka
volumetricstress
Sol : Bulk modulus = volumetricstrain
mg / a dV mg
K
dV / V V Ka ---------(i)
4 3
Volume of sphere V 3 r ---------(ii)
dV 3dr
Fractional change in volume V r
3dr mg dr mg
Using (i) and (ii) r Ka hence r 3Ka
Key : 4
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENTS-3
DAY – 6 (DT 07-04-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Chapter : MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS
=============================================================================================================================================
1. The neck and bottom of a bottle are 3 cm and 15 cm in radius respectively. If the cork is pressed with a
force 12 N in the neck of the bottle, then force exerted on the bottom of the bottle is:
1) 30 N 2) 150 N 3) 300 N 4) 600 N
F2 F F2 12
Sol: 1 2
2
F2 300 N
A 2 A1 15 3
2. A piston of cross-sectional area 100 cm 2 is used in a hydraulic press to exert a force of 106 dynes on the
water. The cross-sectional area of the other piston, which supports a truck having a mass of 1000 kg, is
1) 9.8 102 cm2 2) 9.8 103 cm2 3) 9.8 104 cm2 4) 9.8 105 cm 2
F 1000 103 980
Sol: A a 6
100 9.8 104 cm 2
f 10
3. Blood flows through a main artery of area of cross section 2cm2 with a speed of 0-25ms-1. If it branches into
several capillaries of total area of cross section 0.4m2, the average speed of blood through each capillary is
1) 0.25 ms-1 2) 1.25 x 10-4 ms-1 3) 12.5 x 10-2 ms-1 4) 0.5 x 10-4 ms-1
KEY : 2
Sol :
A1 2 104
From A1v1 A2 v2 v2 v1 0.25 1.25 104 ms 1
A2 0.4
4. An ideal fluid is flowing in a tube of varying cross section. At some point the radius of the tube is r and
the velocity of flow is v . The velocity of flow at another point, where the radius is r/2, is
1) v / 4 2) v / 2 3) 2v 4) 4v
Sol: A2 v2 A1v1
5. Water from a tap emerges vertically downwards with an initial speed of 1.0 m/s. The cross-sectional area
of the tap is 104 m 2 . Assume that the pressure is constant through the stream of water, and that the flow
is steady. The cross-sectional area of the stream 0.15 m below the tap is : g 10 ms 2
1) 0.5 104 m 2 2) 1.0 104 m2 3) 5.0 105 m 2 4) 2.0 105 m 2
Sol: Use the equation of continuity
A2 2 A1 1
Here 1 1.0 m / s
2
22 12 2gh 1.0 2 10 0.15 4.0
or 2 2.0m / s
Substituting in (1)
A11 104 1.0
A2
2 2.0
5.0 105 m2
6. A large open tank has two holes in the wall. One is a square hole of side L at a depth y from the top and
the other is a circular hole of radius R at a depth 4y from the top. When the tank is completely filled with
water, the quantities of water flowing out per second from both holes are the same. Then, R is equal to
L L
1) 2) 2 L 3) L 4)
2 2
Sol: Rate of flow A
A11 A22
or L2 2 gh R 2 2 g 4h
R L / 2
7. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius R, one end of which has n fine holes, each of radius r . If
the speed of the liquid in the tube is V, the speed of the ejection of the liquid through the holes is:
V 2R VR 2 VR 2 VR 2
1) 2) 2 2 3) 4) 3 2
nr nr nr 2 nr
'
Sol: Let the required speed be
According to the equation of continuity
' '
AV AV
' AV R 2V R 2V
V ' 2
A n r 2 nr
8. The velocity of flow of liquid through a pipe at a point of radius r is V. At a point where the radius is 2r, the
mass of the liquid flowing out per second is ( d is the density of the liquid)
r 2Vd
1) 2 r 2Vd 2) 4 r 2Vd 3) r 2Vd 4)
4
Sol :
We know that velocity of fluid is inversely proportional to the radius of the tube
r r V
V2 V1 1 V2
r2 2r 2
Mass of the liquid flowing out per second = Area of cross section x Velocity x Density
2 r 2 V / 2 d r 2Vd
KEY : 3
9. An engine pumps a liquid of density d continuously through a pipe of area of cross – section A. If the velocity
of liquid is V, the rate at which kinetic energy is imparted to water is
1 1 1 1
1) AdV 3 2) AdV 3 3) AdV 3 4) AdV 3
5 3 4 2
KEY : 4
Sol :
Mass of water flowing per second = AVd
K.E imparted per second 1 AVd V 2 1 AdV 3
2 2
10. The cylindrical tube of a spray pump has radius R. one end of which has n fine holes, each of radius r. If the
speed of the liquid in the tube is V, the speed of the ejection of the liquid through the holes is
V 2R VR 2 VR 2 VR 2
2 2 2 3 2
1) nr 2) n r 3) nr 4) n r
KEY : 3
Sol :
11. in the following fig. Then the velocity v of the fluid is
v2 = 1.5 m/s
A
v1 = 3 m/s A
1.5 A
v
(a) 3.0 m/s (b) 1.5 m/s (c) 1.0 m/s (d) 2.25 m/s
Sol : If the liquid is incompressible then mass of liquid entering through left end, should be equal to mass of
liquid coming out from the right end.
M m1 m 2 Av1 Av 2 1 .5 A . v
A 3 A 1. 5 1. 5 A . v v 1m / s
Key : (3)
12. Water enters through end A with speed v1 and leaves through end B with speed v 2 of a cylindrical tube AB. The
tube is always completely filled with water. In case I tube is horizontal and in case II it is vertical with end A
upwards and in case III it is vertical with end B upwards. We have v1 v 2 for
(a) Case I (b) Case II
(c) Case III (d) Each case
Sol : This happens in accordance with equation of continuity and this equation was derived on the principle of
conservation of mass and it is true in every case, either tube remain horizontal or vertical.
Key : (4)
13. Water flows out of two small holes P and Q in a wall of a tank and the two streams strike the ground at
the same point. If the hole P is at a height h above the ground and the level of water stands at a height H
above the ground, then the height of Q above the ground is
H h
1) 2) H h
2
h H h
3) H 4)
2 2
Sol: R h H h . This shows that the range is same for both heights h and H h above the ground. Therefore,
the correct choice is (2)
14. Water stands at level B in the capillary tube in the arrangement shown in the figure. If a jet of air is
blown into the horizontal tube in the direction shown in the figure, then
1) Water level will rise above B in the capillary tube
2) Water level will fall below B in the capillary tube
3) There will be no effect on the level of water
4) Air will emerge from end A in the form of bubbles
Sol: As the speed of air in the horizontal tube increases, the pressure of air in the tube will fall. Therefore, water
level in the capillary tube will rise
15. A vessel of cross-sectional area A contains a liquid to a height H1 . If a hole having cross-sectional area a
is made at the bottom of the vessel, then the time taken by the liquid level to decrease from H1 and H 2 is
A g
1) H1 H 2
a 2
A 2
2) H1 H 2
a g
a g
3) H1 H 2
A 2
a 2
4) H1 H 2
A g
A 2
Sol: t
a g
H1 H 2
16. Bernoulli’s principle does not explain
1) Curved path of a spinning ball
2) Surviving of a fish in a lake
3) Working of a paint sprayer
4) Automatic blowing off the roofs of houses during blizzard in hilly areas
Sol: Surviving of fish is not according to Bernolullis theorem.
17. There is a hole at the bottom of a large vessel open at the top. If water is filled up to a height h , it flows
out in time t . If water is filled to a height 2h , it will flow out in time
1) 2t 2) 2t
3) 2 2t 4) 4t
A 2
Sol: Use the formula t
a g
H1 H 2
In the first case, H1 h, H 2 0 . Therefore,
A 2
t h 0
a g
In the second case, H1 2h, H 2 0 . Therefore,
A 2
t' 2h 0
a g
t'
2
t
or t ' 2t
18. A cylinder is filled with a non-viscous liquid of density d to a height h0 and a hole is made at a height h1
from the bottom of the cylinder. The velocity of the liquid issuing out of the hole is
1) 2gh0 2) dgh0
3) dgh1 4) 2g h0 h1
Sol: v 2 gh where h is height of water above hole.
19. A liquid is kept in a cylindrical vessel which is rotating about its axis. The liquid rises at the sides. If the
radius of the vessel is 0.05 m and the speed of rotation is 2 rev/s, the difference in the heights of the liquid
at the centre of the vessel and at its sides is
1) 0.01 m 2) 0.02 m 3) 0.03 m 4) 0.04 m
1 1
Sol: P v 2 0 ; P2 P1 v22 v12
2 2
1 1
hdg v22 0 r 2 2
2 2
r 2 2 25 10 4 4 4 2
h
2g 2 10
200 104 0.02m
20. A gale blows over a house. The net force due to the gale on the roof is
1) In the downward direction 2) In the upward direction
3) Zero 4) Horizontal
1
Sol: P v 2 constant
2
21. A large water tank stands on a frictionless surface. The seal over a circular hole of radius 0.5 cm in the
wall of the tank ruptures. If the level of water above the hole is 1 m, then the force that must be applied
on the cylinder to keep it from being set in motion is
1) 6.16 N 2) 3.08 N 3) 1.54 N 4) 0.77 N
Sol: Water will flow out of the hole horizontally with a speed
m l
2gh . Mass of water flowing out per second A Av
t t
where A is the area of the hole. Therefore, thrust on the tank
= Change of momentum per second
m
= A 2 r 2 2 r 2 2 gh
t
2
0.5 3
3.14 10 2 9.8 1 1.54 N
100
22. A water tank of height 10m, completely filled with water, is placed on a level ground. It has two holes,
one at 3 m and the other at 7 m from its base. The water ejecting from
1) Both the holes will fall at the same spot
2) Upper hole will fall farther than that from the lower hole
3) Upper hole will fall closer than that from the lower hole
4) More information is required
Sol: R 2 h H h
23. A water barrel having water up to a column of height d is placed on a table of height h. A small hole is
made on the wall of the barrel at its bottom. If the stream of water coming out of the hole falls on the
ground at a horizontal distance R from the barrel, then the value of d is
4h R2 h
1) 2) 4hR 2 3) 4)
R2 4h 4R2
Sol: R 2 dh
or R2 4dh
R2
or d
4h
24. An aeroplane of mass 3 104 kg and total wing area of 120 m 2 is in a level flight at some height. The
difference in pressure between the upper and lower surface of its wings, (in kilo pascals) is g 10ms 2
1) 2.5 2) 5.0 3) 10.0 4) 12.5
Sol: P A Mg
Mg 3 104 g 30 103
P 2.5 103 Pascal
A 120 12
25. A large open top container of negligible mass and uniform cross sectional area A has a small hole of cross
sectional area ‘a’ in its side wall near the bottom. The container is kept over a smooth horizontal floor and
contains a liquid of density ρ and mass m0. Assuming that the liquid starts flowing through the hole, the
acceleration of the container will be
2ag ag 2Ag Ag
1) A 2) A 3) a 4) a
KEY : 1
Sol :
2
Force on container F av
2
Mass x acc = av
av2 a 2 gh 2 ga
acc
m0 Ah A
26. Water flows steadily through a horizontal pipe of variable cross section. If the pressure of water is P at a point
where the flow speed is v, the pressure at another point where the flow of speed is 2v is ( is density of water)
3 v 2 v 2 3 v 2
P P P
1) 2 2) 2 3) 4 4) P
KEY : 1
Sol :
1 1 2 3
P v 2 P 1 2v P 1 P v 2
2 2 ; 2
27. The velocity of kerosene oil in a horizontal pipe is 5 m/s. If g 10 m / s 2 then the velocity head of oil will be
(a) 1.25 m (b) 12.5 m
(c) 0.125 m (d) 125 m
v2 (5 )2
Sol : Velocity head h 1 .25 m
2 g 2 10
Key : (1)
28. In the following fig. is shown the flow of liquid through a horizontal pipe. Three tubes A, B and C are connected
to the pipe. The radii of the tubes A, B and C at the junction are respectively 2 cm, 1 cm and 2 cm. It can be said
that the
A C
B
(a) Height of the liquid in the tube A is maximum
(b) Height of the liquid in the tubes A and B is the same
(c) Height of the liquid in all the three tubes is the same
(d) Height of the liquid in the tubes A and C is the same
Sol : As cross-section areas of both the tubes A and C are same and tube is horizontal. Hence according to equation
of continuity v A vC and therefore according to Bernoulli's theorem PA PC i.e. height of liquid is same in both
the tubes A and C.
Key : (4)
29. A manometer connected to a closed tap reads 3.5 × 105 N/m2. When the valve is opened, the reading of
manometer falls to 3.0 × 105 N/m2, then velocity of flow of water is
(a) 100 m/s (b) 10 m/s (c) 1 m/s (d) 10 10 m/s
Sol : Bernoulli's theorem for unit mass of liquid
P 1 2
v constant
2
1 2 P1 P2 1 3 . 5 10 5 3 10 5
As the liquid starts flowing, it pressure energy decreases v v2 v2
2 2 10 3
2 0 . 5 10 5
v 2 100 v 10 m / s
10 3
Key : (2)
30. Air is streaming past a horizontal air plane wing such that its speed in 120 m/s over the upper surface and 90 m/s
at the lower surface. If the density of air is 1.3 kg per metre3 and the wing is 10 m long and has an average width
of 2 m, then the difference of the pressure on the two sides of the wing of
(a) 4095.0 Pascal (b) 409.50 Pascal
(c) 40.950 Pascal (d) 4.0950 Pascal
Sol : From the Bernoulli's theorem
1 1
P1 P2 (v 22 v12 ) 1 .3 [(120 )2 (90 )2 ]
2 2
4095 N / m 2 or Pascal
Key : (1)
31. A large tank filled with water to a height ‘h’ is to be emptied through a small hole at the bottom. The ratio of
h h
time taken for the level of water to fall from h to and from to zero is
2 2
1 1
(a) 2 (b) (c) 2 1 (d)
2 2 1
Sol : Time taken for the level to fall from H to H' t
A
A0
2
g
H H'
h A 2 h
According to problem- the time taken for the level to fall from h to t1 h
2 A0 g 2
1
1
h A 2 h t1 2 2 1.
and similarly time taken for the level to fall from to zero t2 0
1
2 A0 g 2 t2 0
2
Key : (3)
32. There is a hole in the bottom of tank having water. If total pressure at bottom is 3 atm (1 atm = 105N/m2) then
the velocity of water flowing from hole is
(a) 400 m / s (b) 600 m / s (c) 60 m / s (d)None of these
N
Sol : Pressure at the bottom of tank P hg 3 10 5 Pressure due to liquid column
m2
Pl = 3 10 5 1 10 5 2 10 5 and velocity of water v 2 gh
2 Pl 2 2 10 5
v 400 m /s
10 3
Key : (1)
33. There is a hole of area A at the bottom of cylindrical vessel. Water is filled up to a height h and water flows out
in t second. If water is filled to a height 4h, it will flow out in time equal to
(a) t (b) 4t (c)2 t (d) t/4
A 2H
Sol : Time required to emptied the tank t
A0 g
t2 H2 4h
2 t2 2 t
t1 H1 h
Key : (3)
34. A cylindrical tank has a hole of 1 cm2 in its bottom. If the water is allowed to flow into the tank from a tube
above it at the rate of 70 cm3/sec. then the maximum height up to which water can rise in the tank is
(a) 2.5 cm (b) 5 cm (c) 10 cm (d) 0.25 cm
Sol : The height of water in the tank becomes maximum when the volume of water flowing into the tank per
second becomes equal to the volume flowing out per second.
Volume of water flowing out per second
= Av A 2 gh …(i)
Volume of water flowing in per second
70 cm 3 /sec …(ii)
From (i) and (ii) we get
A 2gh 70 1 2gh 70
1 2 980 h 70
4900
h 2.5 cm.
1960
Key : (1)
35. At what speed the velocity head of a stream of water be equal to 40 cm of Hg
(a) 282.8 cm/sec (b) 432.6 cm/sec
(c) 632.6 cm/sec (d) 832.6 cm/sec
v2
Sol : h v 2gh
2g
2 10 3 40 =2 2 10 2 = 282 . 8 cm/s
Key : (1)
36. In this figure, an ideal liquid flows through the tube, which is of uniform cross-section. The liquid has velocities
v A and v B , and pressure PA and PB at points A and B respectively
(a) v A vB A
(b) vB v A
B
(c) PA = PB
(d) PB > PA
Sol : (1, 2)
37. A liquid flows through a horizontal tube. The velocities of the liquid in the two sections, which have areas of
cross-section A1 and A2 , are v1 and v 2 respectively. The difference in the levels of the liquid in the two vertical
tubes is h
(a) The volume of the liquid flowing through the tube in unit time is A1v1
h
(b) v 2 v1 2gh
A1 v1 A2
(c) v 22 v12 2 gh
v2
(d) The energy per unit mass of the liquid is the same in both sections of the tube
Sol : According to equation of continuity the volume of liquid flowing through the tube in unit time remains
constant i.e. A1v1 A2v 2 , hence option (a) is correct
According to Bernoulli's theorem,
1 2 1
P1 v1 P2 v 22
2 2
1
P1 P2
2
v 22 v12 hg 12 v 2
2 v12
v 22 v12 2 gh
Hence option (c) is correct.
Also, according to Bernoulli's theorem option (d) is correct
Key : (1, 3, 4)
38. There are two identical small holes of area of cross-section a on the opposite sides of a tank containing a liquid
of density . The difference in height between the holes is h. Tank is resting on a smooth horizontal surface.
Horizontal force which will has to be applied on the tank to keep it in equilibrium is
(a) gh a
2 gh
(b)
a h
(c) 2 agh
gh
(d)
a
Sol :
dp B dp A
Net force (reaction) = F FB FA
dt dt
av B v B av A v A
F a v B2 v 2A …(i)
According to Bernoulli's theorem
1 2 1
pA v A gh p B v B2 0
2 2
1
2
v B2 v A2 gh v B2 v 2A 2 gh
From equation (i), F 2 a gh.
Key : (3)
39. A bent tube is lowered into the steam as shown. The velocity of the stream relative to the tube is equal to v.
The closed upper end of the tube located at the height h0 . To what height h will be water jet spurt?
Sol : Let tube’s entrance be a depth y below the surface. Take point 1 at entry, 2 at the maximum height of the
fountain. Applying Bernoulli’s theorem.
1 1
p1 gh1 v12 p2 gh2 v22
2 2
Taking, h1 0, h2 y h0 h , v1 v, v2 0
1
Substituting, p0 gy v 2 p0 g y h0 h
2
1 2 v2
v g h0 h h h0
2 2g
40. Figure shows an L-shaped tube filled with a liquid to a height H. What should be the horizontal acceleration a
of the tube so that the pressure at the point A becomes atmospheric
Sol : Applying Pascal’s law starting from point B, we get
PB gH aL PA
H
Since PB PA Patm , therefore a g
L
41. A non-viscous liquid of constant density 500 kg / m 3 flows in a variable cross-sectional tube. The area of cross
section of the tube at two points P and Q at heights of 3m and 6m are 2 103 m3 and 4 103 m3 , respectively.
Find the work done per unit volume by the forces of gravity as the fluid flows from point P to Q
Sol : Work done by per unit volume by force of gravity = - change in potential energy per unit volume
W U g h2 h1 g 6 3
3 500 10 15 104 J / m3
42. Air is blown through a pipe AB at a rate of 15L/min. The cross-sectional area of the broad portion of the pipe
AB is 2 cm2 and that of the narrow portion is 0.5cm 2 . The difference in water level h is (density of air
1.32 kg / m3 )
1) 16 mm 2) 1.5 mm 3) 10 mm 4) 3.2 mm
Sol : Q A1v1 A2 v2 15 L / min
15 103
2.5 104 m3 / s
60
2.5 104 2.5 104
v1 125 m / s ; v2 5.0m / s
2 104 0.5 10 4
Now difference in pressure = difference in kinetic energy
1
w gh a v22 v12
2
a v22 v12
h 1.5 103 m 1.5mm
2w g
1
Or h w g air v22 v12
2
air 132 5 2 125 2
Or g v22 v12
2w g 2 10 10
3
1.5 103 m 1.5 mm
Key :2
43. A pump is designed as a horizontal cylinder with a piston area A and an outlet orifice arranged near the axis
of the cylinder. Find the velocity of outflow of liquid from pump, if the piston moves with a constant velocity
under the action of a constant force F. The density of the liquid is
F 2F A A
1) 2) 3) 4)
A A F 2F
F
Sol : p . Difference in pressure energy is equal to difference in kinetic energy
A
F 1 2 2F
v or v
A 2 A
Key : 2
44. The terminal velocity of a sphere moving through a viscous medium is
1) directly proportional to the radius of the sphere
2) inversely proportional to the radius of the sphere
3) directly proportional to the square of the radius of sphere
4) inversely proportional to the square of the radius of sphere
2
2 R g
Sol: T
9
45. Two equal drops are falling through air each with a steady velocity of 5 cm/sec. If the drops coalesce, the
new terminal velocity will be
1/3 5
1) 5 2 cm / sec 2) 5 2 cm / sec 3) 5 4 cm / sec 4) cm / sec
2
Sol: V n 2/3v
46. If the velocity of the fluid is the same at a given point at all times, then the flow is
1) turbulent 2) rapid 3) viscous 4) stream-lined
Instructions:
In each of the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is given followed by a corresponding statement
of reason (R) just below it. Of the following statements, choose the correct answer
1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
3) If assertion is true but reason is false
4) If assertion is false but reason is true
Sol: It is by definition of stream line flow
47. A cubical block of side 2m and mass 20kg slides on an inclined plane lubricated with the oil of viscosity
coefficient 10ms 1 poise with constant velocity of 10 ms 1 . Thickness of the liquid layer is (g = 10ms-1)
1) 4mm 2) 2 mm 3) 1 mm 4) 0.5 mm
KEY : 1
Sol :
Viscous force = mg sin
dv
A mg sin
dy
102 4 10h 20 10 sin 300
h 4 10 3 m 4 mm
48. A small sphere falls from rest in a viscous liquid. Due to friction heat is procured. Rate of production of heat at
terminal velocity is related to radius r of the sphere as proportional to rx, the x =
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
KEY : 4
Sol :
Rate of production of heat = P = Fv = 6 rv2
But v r 2 P r 5
49. A small ball is dropped in a viscous liquid. Its fall in the liquid is best described by the figure.
1) Curve A 2) Curve B 3) Curve C 4) Curve D
KEY : 3
Sol :
Velocity increases and then becomes constant after attaining terminal velocity.
50. A spherical object of mass 1 kg and radius 1 m is falling vertically downward inside a viscous liquid in a
gravity free space. At a certain instant the velocity of the sphere is 2 m/s. If the coefficient of viscosity of the
1
liquid is 6 SI units, then velocity of ball will become 0.5 m/s after a time.
1) ln (4) s 2) 2ln (4) s 3) 3ln (4) s 4) 3ln (2) s
KEY : 1
Sol :
F 6 r
1
6 1
6
F F
a
retardation m 1
t 0.5
d d
dt t ln 4
dt 0 2
51. The product of the coefficient of viscosity and volume of liquid flowing through a tube of area of cross –section
A and length L in time t is x. Then, the pressure difference P between the two ends of the tube is given by:
8 xL 8 xL 8 2 xL 8xL
2 2 2 2
1) A 2) tA 3) tA 4) tA
KEY : 2
Sol :
Pr 4 t P(A2 / 2 )
V
8 L 8L
8xL
P 2
At
52. A small steel ball falls through a syrup at a constant speed of 1.0 m/s. If the steel ball is pulled up wards with a
force equal to twice its effective weight how fast will it move upward
1) 1.0 m/s 2) 2.0 m/s 3) 0.5 m/s 4) Zero
KEY : 1
Sol :
When the small steel falls through a syrup, only the gravitational force was acting on it. Now, when we apply the
force equal to twice the gravitational force or effective weight, then the net force magnitude becomes equal to its
effective weight in the upward direction. since the magnitude of net force remains same, so there will be no change
in the velocity of the small steel. But now , it will start moving in the vertically upward direction.
53. In which one of the following cases will the liquid flow in a pipe be most streamlined
(a) Liquid of high viscosity and high density flowing through a pipe of small radius
(b) Liquid of high viscosity and low density flowing through a pipe of small radius
(c) Liquid of low viscosity and low density flowing through a pipe of large radius
(d) Liquid of low viscosity and high density flowing through a pipe of large radius
r
Sol : For streamline flow, Reynold's number NR should be less. For less value of NR , radius and density
should be small and viscosity should be high.
Key : (2)
54. A small sphere of mass m is dropped from a great height. After it has fallen 100 m, it has attained its terminal
velocity and continues to fall at that speed. The work done by air friction against the sphere during the first 100
m of fall is
(a) Greater than the work done by air friction in the second 100 m
(b) Less than the work done by air friction in the second 100 m
(c) Equal to 100 mg
(d) Greater than 100 mg
Sol : In the first 100 m body starts from rest and its velocity goes on increasing and after 100 m it acquire
maximum velocity (terminal velocity). Further, air friction i.e. viscous force which is proportional to velocity
is low in the beginning and maximum at v vT .
Hence work done against air friction in the first 100 m is less than the work done in next 100 m.
Key : (2)
55. A ball of radius r and density falls freely under gravity through a distance h before entering water. Velocity of
ball does not change even on entering water. If viscosity of water is , the value of h is given by
2 2 1
(a) r g
9
2 2 1
(b) r g
81
h
2
2 4 1
(c) r g
81
2
2 4 1
(d) r g
9
Sol : Velocity of ball when it strikes the water surface v 2 gh …(i)
2 2 1
Terminal velocity of ball inside the water v r g …(ii)
9
2 r2g
Equating (i) and (ii) we get 2 gh ( 1)
9
2
2 4 1
h r g
81
Key : (3)
56. What is the velocity v of a metallic ball of radius r falling in a tank of liquid at the instant when its acceleration
is one-half that of a freely falling body ? (The densities of metal and of liquid are and respectively, and the
viscosity of the liquid is ).
r2 g r2 g r2 g 2r 2 g
(a) ( 2 ) (b) (2 ) (c) ( ) (d) ( )
9 9 9 9
Sol :
Key : (3)
57. A plate of area 2m2 is made of move horizontally with a speed of 2m/s by applying a horizontal tangential
force over the free surface of a liquid. If the depth of the liquid is 1m and the liquid in contact with the bed is
stationary. Coefficient of viscosity of liquid is 0.01paise. Find the tangential force needed to move the plate
v 2 0 m/ s
Sol : Velocity gradient 2
y 1 0 m
v
From, Newton’s law of viscous force, F A
y
0.01 101 2 2 4 103 N
So, to keep the plate moving, a force of 4 103 N must be applied
58. A metal plate of area 0.10m2 is connected that passes over an ideal pulley (considered to be frictionless), as
shown in the figure. A liquid with a film thickness of 3.0mm is placed between the plate and the table. When
released, the plate moves to the right with a constant speed of 0.085 ms 1 . Find the coefficient of viscosity of
the liquid
Sol : As the metal plate moves with constant velocity, mg T 0 T mg
If F is the viscous force on the plate then
F T mg 0.01 9.8 9.8 102 N
dv dv 0.085
By Newton’s law of viscosity, F A where 28.3s
dy dy 0.3 103
9.8 102 0.10 28.3
3.4 103 N s / m 2
59. With what terminal velocity will an air bubble 0.8mm in diameter rise in a liquid of viscosity 0.15 Ns / m 2 and
specific gravity 0.9. Density of air is 1.293 kg / m3
1)
2
2 r g
Sol : The terminal velocity of the bubble is given by, vT
9
Here, r 0.4 103 m, 0.9 103 kg / m 3 , 1.293 kg / m3 , 0.15 Ns / m 2 , g 9.8 m / s 2
3 2
2 0.4 10 1.293 0.9 10 9.8
3
Substituting the values we have, vT
9 0.15
0.0021 m / s or vT 0.21 cm / s
60. Two capillary tubes of same radius r but of lengths l1 and l2 are fitted in parallel to the bottom of a vessel.
The pressure head is P. What should be the length of a single tube that can replace the two tubes so that
the rate of flow is same as before
1 1 ll 1
1) l1 l2 2) 3) 1 2 4)
l1 l2 l1 l2 l1 l2
pr 4
Sol: V
8 l
Voff V1 V2
Pr 4 Pr 4 Pr 4
8 l 8 l1 8 l2
ll
l 12
l1 l2
61. Two water pipes of diameters 2 cm and 4 cm are connected with the main supply line. The velocity of flow of
water in the pipe of 2 cm diameter is
1
(a) 4 times that in the other pipe (b) times that in the other pipe
4
1
(c) 2 times that in the other pipe (d) times that in the other pipe
2
Sol : d A 2 cm and d B 4 cm rA 1 cm and rB 2 cm
From equation of continuity, av = constant
2
v A a B (rB )2 2
v A 4 vB
v B a A (rA )2 1
Key : (1)
62. In Poiseuilli's method of determination of coefficient of viscosity, the physical quantity that requires greater
accuracy in measurement is
(a) Pressure difference (b) Volume of the liquid collected
(c) Length of the capillary tube (d) Inner radius of the capillary tube
Key : (4)
63. Two capillary tubes of the same length but different radii r1 and r2 are fitted in parallel to the bottom of a vessel.
The pressure head is P. What should be the radius of a single tube that can replace the two tubes so that the rate
of flow is same as before
(a) r1 r2 (b) r12 r22 (c) r14 r24 (d) None of these
Sol : V V1 V2
π Pr 4 Pr14 Pr24
r 4 r14 r24
8l 8l 8l
r (r14 r24 )1 / 4
Key : (4)
64. Two capillary of length L and 2L and of radius R and 2R are connected in series. The net rate of flow of fluid
through them will be (given rate of the flow through single capillary, X PR 4 / 8L)
8 9
(a) X (b) X
9 8
5 7
(c) X (d) X
7 5
8l
Sol : Fluid resistance is given by R .
r 4
When two capillary tubes of same size are joined in parallel, then equivalent fluid resistance is
8L 8 2 L 8L 9
R e R1 R 2
r 4 (2 R )4 r 4 8
9 8
Equivalent resistance becomes times so rate of flow will be X
8 9
Key : (1)
65. A liquid is flowing through horizontal pipes as shown in figure.
LEF LGH
Length of different pipes has the following ratio LAB LCD
2 2
R
Similarly, radii of different pipes has the ratio, RAB REF RCD GH
2
Pressure at A is 2 p0 and pressure at D is p0 . The volume flow rate through the pipe AB is Q. Find
a) Volume flow rates through EF and GH
b) Pressure at E and F
L 8 L
Sol : The equivalent electrical circuit can be drawn as under, X 4
(as X )
R R4
1 1
1 1
2
X AB : X CD : X EF : X GH = 2 4 : 4 : 4
: 4
8 : 8 :16 :1
1 1 1 1
2 2 2
a) As the current is distributed in the inverse ratio of the resistance (in parallel). The Q will be distributed in
the inverse ratio of X.
Q 16
Thus, volume flow rate through EF will be and that from GH will be Q
17 17
16 X X 288
b) X net 8 X 8X X
16 X X 17
p V
Q (as i )
X net R
2 p0 p0 17 p0
288 288 X
X
17
Now, let P1 be the pressure at E, then
8 17 p0
2 p0 p1 8QX
288
17 8
p1 2 p0 1.53 p0
288
Similarly, if p2 be the pressure at F, then
8 17
p2 p0 8QX ; p2 p0 p0 or p2 1.47 p0
288
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENTS-1
DAY – 6 (DT 07-04-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Chapter : Photosynthesis - 13.7 Where are the ATP and NADPH Used? To the END
=============================================================================
1. Density of ice is and that of water is . What will be the decrease in volume when a mass M of ice melts
M 1 1 1 1 1
(a) (b) (c) M (d)
M M
M M
Sol : Volume of ice , volume of water .
M M 1 1
Change in volume M
Key : (3)
2. If two liquids of same masses but densities 1 and 2 respectively are mixed, then density of mixture is given
by
1 2 1 2 2 1 2 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
Total mass 2m 2m
Sol :
Total volu me V1 V2 1 1
m
1 2
2 1 2
1 2
Key : (3)
3. If two liquids of same volume but different densities 1 and 2 are mixed, then density of mixture is given by
1 2 1 2 2 1 2 1 2
(a) (b) (c) (d)
2 2 1 2 1 2 1 2
Total mass m m 2 V 1 2 2
Sol : 1 1
Total volu me 2V 2V 2
Key : (1)
4. A body of density d1 is counterpoised by Mg of weights of density d2 in air of density d. Then the true mass of
the body is
d d M (1 d / d 2 )
(a) M (b) M 1
(c) M 1
(d)
d 2 d 1 (1 d / d 1 )
Sol : Let M 0 mass of body in vacuum.
Apparent weight of the body in air = Apparent weight of standard weights in air
Actual weight – upthrust due to displaced air
= Actual weight – upthrust due to displaced air
d
M 1
M0 M d2
M 0 g dg Mg dg
d M 0
d
1 2 d
1
d1
Key : (4)
5. The density of water of bulk modulus B at a depth y in the ocean is related to the density at surface 0 by the
relation
gy gy Β B
(a) 0 1 0 (b) 0 1 0 (c) 0 1 (d) 0 1
B B 0 hgy 0 gy
p p
Sol : Bulk modulus, B V0 V V0
V B
p
V V0 1
B
1
p p
Density, 0 1 0 1
B B
where, p p p0 h 0 g
= pressure difference between depth and surface of ocean
gy
0 1 0 (As h = y)
B
Key : (2)
6. Three liquids of densities d, 2d and 3d are mixed in equal volumes. Then the density of the mixture is
(a) d (b) 2d (c) 3d (d) 5d
m1 m 2 m 3 V (d 2d 3d )
Sol : mix = = 2d.
3V 3V
Key : (2)
7. Three liquids of densities d, 2d and 3d are mixed in equal proportions of weights. The relative density of the
mixture is
11d 18 d 13d 23d
(a) (b) (c) (d)
7 11 9 18
3m 3m 36 18
Sol : mix = = d d
V1 V2 V3 m m m 11 11
d 2d 3 d
Key : (2)
8. A concrete sphere of radius R has a cavity of radius r which is packed with sawdust. The specific gravities of
concrete and sawdust are respectively 2.4 and 0.3 for this sphere to float with its entire volume submerged under
water. Ratio of mass of concrete to mass of sawdust will be
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c)3 (d) Zero
Sol : Let specific gravities of concrete and saw dust are 1 and 2 respectively.
According to principle of floatation weight of whole sphere = upthrust on the sphere
4 4 4
(R 3 r 3 )1 g r 3 2 g R 3 1 g
3 3 3
R 3 1 r 3 1 r 3 2 R 3
R 3 1 2
R 3 (1 1) r 3 ( 1 2 )
r3 1 1
R 3 r 3 1 2 1 1
r3 1 1
(R 3 r 3 )1 1 2 1
r3 2 1 1 2
Mass of concrete 1 0 .3 2 .4
4
Mass of saw dust 2 . 4 1 0 . 3
Key : (2)
9. Pressure at a point inside a liquid does not depend on
1) The nature of the liquid.
2) Shape of the container.
3) The depth of point below the surface of the liquid.
4) Acceleration due to gravity at that point
Sol: Pressure depends on the depth of the point below the surface(h), nature of liquid and acceleration due to
gravity g while it is independent of the amount of the liquid and shape of the container
10. A manometer reads the pressure of a gas in an enclosure as shown in the figure. The abSolute and gauge
pressure of the gas in cm of mercury is ( Take atmospheric pressure 76 cm of mercury)
1) 76, 20 2) 20, 76 3) 96, 20 4) 20, 96
Sol: Here, atmospheric pressure P 76 cm of mercury In figure,
Pressure head, h 20 cm of mercury
Absolute pressure of gas in the manometer P h 76 20 96 cm of mercury
Gauge pressure h 20 cm of mercury.
11. A U tube contains water and methylated spirit separated by mercury. The mercury columns in the two
arms are at the same level with 10 cm of water in one arm and 12.5 cm of spirit in the other as shown in
figure. The relative density of the spirit is
1) 0.6 2) 0.8 3) 1.0 4) 1.25
Sol: Refer figure.
As the mercury columns in the two arms of U tube are at the same level, therefore
Pressure due to water Pressure due to spirit column
w hw g s hs g
h
s w w
hs
h 10 cm
Relative density of spirit s w 0.8
w hs 12.5 cm
12. The property utilized in the manufacture of lead shoots is
1) specific weight of liquid lead
2) compressibility of liquid lead
3) specific gravity of liquid lead
4) surface tension of liquid lead
Sol: In the manufacture of lead shots, the property utilized is surface tension of liquid lead
13. An open vessel containing water is given a constant acceleration a in the horizontal direction. Then the
free surface of water gets sloped with the horizontal at an angle given by
a g a g
1) tan 1 2) tan 1 3) sin 1 4) cos 1
g a g a
Sol: If the acceleration is towards right hand side, then the water will bulge at the back of vessel as shown in figure.
Consider a horizontal liquid cylinder in the liquid, of length L, area of cross-section A. Let h1 and h2 be the
heights of liquid column at the ends of cylinder from the surface of liquid as shown figure. For translatory
motion of cylinder with acceleration a,
F1 F2 ma
or P1 A P2 A AL a
or h1 g h2 g A AL a
( P h g ]
or h1 h2 g La
h1 h2 a
L g
or
h1 h2 a
From figure, tan
L g
or tan 1 a / g
14. Torricelli’s barometer used mercury but Pascal duplicated it using French wine of density 984 kg m3 . In
that case, height of the wine column for normal atmospheric pressure is (Density of mercury
13.6 103 kg m 3 )
1) 5.5 m 2) 10.5 m 3) 9.8 m 4) 15 m
Sol: As P h g
Height of mercury column in Torricelli’s barometer
0.76 m of Hg , mercury 13.6 103 kg m3 , french wine
984 kg m 3
or 0.76 13.6 103 9.8 h 984 9.8
0.76 13.6 103 9.8
or h 10.5 m
984 9.8
15. The force acting on a window of area 50 cm 50 cm of a submarine at a depth of 2000 m in an ocean, the
interior of which is maintained at sea level atmospheric pressure, is
(Density of sea water 103 kgm 3 , g 10ms 2 )
1) 5 105 N 2) 25 105 N 3) 5 106 N 4) 25 106 N
Sol: Here, h 2000 m, 103 kg m 3
g 10 m s 2
The pressure outside the submarine is
P Pa gh
Where Pa is the atmospheric pressure.
Pressure inside the submarine is Pa .
Hence, net pressure acting on the window is gauge pressure.
Gauge pressure, Pg P Pa gh
103 kg m 3 10 m s 2 2000 m 2 107 Pa
Area of a window is
A 50 cm 50 cm 2500 104 m 2
Force acting on the window is
F Pg A 2 107 Pa 2500 104 m 2
5 106 N
16. To what height should a cylindrical vessel be filled with a homogeneous liquid to make the force with
which the liquid pressure on the sides of the vessel equal to the force exerted by the liquid on the bottom
of the vessel?
1) Equal to the radius 2) Less than radius
3) More than radius 4) Four times of radius
2
Sol: Force on bottom gh R
Force on walls of vessel g h / 2 2 Rh
According to question,
gh R 2 g Rh 2
or R h
17. Three vessels A, B and C of different shapes contain a water upto the same height as shown in the figure.
PA , PB and PC be the pressures exerted by the water at the bottom of the vessels A, B and C respectively.
Then
1) PA PB PC 2) PB PC PA 3) PC PB PA 4) PA PB PC
Sol: Pressure h g
Pressure at the bottom is independent of the area of the base of the vessel. It depends on the height of water
upto which the vessel is filled with water. As in all the three vessels, level of water are the same, therefore
pressure at the bottom in all the vessels is also the same.
Hence, PA PB PC
18. A cubical tank filled with a liquid upto the top is placed in a train and is tightly closed. The train moves
with constant acceleration ' a ' in horizontal direction. If the lid does not exert any pressure on the liquid,
the pressure at a point at depth ‘h’ and distance ' l ' from the front wall will be:
2 2
1) hdg 2) lda 3) hdg lda 4) hdg lda
Sol: Pressure due to vertical column of liquid at point A, P1 hdg
Pressure due to horizontal acceleration of vessel at point A, P2 lda
As pressure is scalar quantity
P P1 P2 hdg lda
Total pressure on piston. P atmospheric pressure pressure of closed are
19. A pressure gauge is shown in fig. The spring of spring constant K is in vacuum. The area of piston is A.
Its right end is connected to a closed container of gas at a pressure 0.25 atmosphere. How far is the
spring compressed? (1 atmosphere 105 N / m2 ):
0.25 105 A 1.25 105 A 0.25 1.25
1) 2) 3) 4)
K K K K
Sol: Total pressure on piston, P atmospheric pressure + pressure of closed gas
1105 0.25 105 1.25 105 N / m2
Force on piston, F PA
F PA 1.25 105 A
Compression of spring, x
K K K
20. If the blood vessels in a human being acted as a simple pipes, the difference in pressure between blood in
feet and head of a 2m tall standing man will be (specific gravity of blood 1.06, g 10 m / s 2 ):
1) 2.12 Pa 2) 21.2 Pa 3) 21.2 103 Pa 4) 21.2 103 Pa
Sol: Pressure difference hdg
2 1.06 10 10 2.12 10 4 Pa
3
21. A vessel contains a liquid of density as shown in fig. The gauge pressure at a point P is:
1) h g 2) H g
3) H h g 4) H h g cos
Sol: Gauge pressure Excess pressure over atmospheric pressure.
22. Consider an ideal barometer shown in figure. Density of mercury is . A small hole is made at point S as
shown. The mercury comes out from this hole with speed v equal to
1) 2gh 2) 2gH 3) 2g H h 4) Mercury will not come out
Sol: The mercury will not come out from this hole as the pressure outside the tube [Atmospheric pressure
g h H ] is greater than the pressure inside the tube gh . Here is the density of mercury.
23. A satellite revolves round the earth. Air pressure inside the satellite is maintained at 76 cm of mercury.
What will be the height of mercury column in a barometer tube 90 cm long placed in the satellite
1) 76 cm 2) 90 cm 3) Zero 4) Can be any of these
Sol: Inside the satellite g eff 0
So, there will be no pressure difference inside the mercury. Hence the mercury will rise to full length of the
tube i.e. 90 cm because air pressure outside the tube is 76 cm of mercury, while pressure above the tube is zero.
24. Two liquids which do not react chemically are placed in a bent tube as shown in figure. The heights of
the liquids above their surface of separation are
1) Directly proportional to their densities 2) Inversely proportional to their densities
3) directly proportional to square of their densities 4) equal
Sol: The pressure at the interface must be same, calculated via either side. Since, both sides are open to the
atmosphere, we must have
h1 1 g h2 2 g
or h1 1 h2 2
or h constant
1
or h
25. Some liquid is filled in a cylindrical vessel of radius R. Let F1 be the force applied by the liquid on the
bottom of the cylinder. Now the same liquid is poured into a vessel of uniform square cross section of side
R. Let F2 be the force applied by the liquid on the bottom of this new vessel, then
F2
1) F1 F2 2) F1 3) F1 F2 4) F1 F2
Sol: F1 F2 weight of liquid
Note: Pressure on the bottom will depend on the level of liquid in the vessel and hence on the area of base. But
net force will depend on weight of liquid only.
26. A vessel of water is placed on the floor of an elevator. How does the pressure at the bottom of the vessel
change if the elevator moves up with uniform acceleration a ?
1) becomes zero 2) Decreases by h a
3) No change in pressure 4) Increases by h a
Sol: Pf Pi heg a hpg
h a
27. Siphon is a device to transfer liquid from a higher level to a lower level. The condition of working of a
siphon is
1) h2 h1 2) h2 h1 3) h2 h1
4) h1 should be greater than the height of corresponding liquid barometer
Sol: h1 should be less than the height of corresponding liquid barometer otherwise liquid will not rise to that level.
28. A beaker containing a liquid of density moves up with an acceleration a . The pressure due to the
liquid at a depth h below the free surface of the liquid is
ga
1) h g 2) h ( g a) 3) h ( g a) 4) 2h g
g a
Sol: g ap g a and P h g app
29. A close rectangular tank is completely filled with water and is accelerated horizontally with an
acceleration a towards right. Pressure is (i) maximum at and (ii) minimum at:
1) (i) B (ii) D 2) (i) C (ii) D 3) (i) B (ii) C 4) (i) B (ii) A
Sol: We know that P d hg la
Now, h and l are maximum at point B. So PB is maximum. Further, h 0
and l 0 at point D. So PD is minimum.
30. A tube 1 cm2 in cross-section is attached to the top of a vessel 1 cm high and of cross-section 100 cm2 .
Water is poured into the system filling it to a depth of 100 cm above the bottom of the vessel as shown in
the figure. Take g 10 m s 2 . Now.
1) The force exerted by the water against the bottom of the vessel is 100 N.
2) The weight of water in the system is 1.99 N.
3) Both 1 and 2 are correct. 4) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct.
3 2
Sol: P 100 cm 1g cm 1000 cms
105 dyn cm 2
F 105 100 dyne 100 N
Again, V 199 cm3
Weight 199 11000 dyne
1.99N
31. A cart supports a cubic tank (side ' ' ) filled with a liquid (density ) up to the top of the tank. The cart moves
with a constant acceleration 'a' in the horizontal direction. The tank is tightly closed. The pressure at a point P at
a depth 'h' and distance 'x' from the front wall (see figure) is:-
1) h g 2) h g ( x ) a 3) h g x a 4) h g l a
KEY : 3
Sol :
The pressure P at point x is the sum of pressure P1 and P2 where P1 is the pressure due to gravity and P2 is the
pressure due to column of liquid of length l. Pressure P2 act on a column of length l and area of cross- section A
gives it an acceleration a in the horizontal direction
P2 A Axda
P2 xda
As pressure is a scalar quantity. So
P P1 P2 hdg xda d hg xa
Pressure at p = x a h g
32. A closed rectangular tank is completely filled with water and is accelerated horizontally with an acceleration a
towards right. Pressure is (i) maximum at, and (ii) minimum at
(a) (i) B (ii) D A D
a
(b) (i) C (ii) D
(c) (i) B (ii) C B C
(d) (i) B (ii) A
Sol :
A D
a
B C
Due to acceleration towards right, there will be a pseudo force in a left direction. So the pressure will be
more on rear side (Points A and B) in comparison with front side (Point D and C).
Also due to height of liquid column pressure will be more at the bottom (points B and C) in comparison with
top (point A and D).
So overall maximum pressure will be at point B and minimum pressure will be at point D.
Key : (1)
33. A triangular lamina of area A and height h is immersed in a liquid of density in a vertical plane with its base
on the surface of the liquid. The thrust on the lamina is
1 1 1 2
(a) A gh (b) A gh (c) A gh (d) A gh
2 3 6 3
Sol : Thrust on lamina = pressure at centroid × Area
h g 1
= A = A gh.
3 3
Key : (2)
34. From the adjacent figure, the correct observation is
Water Water
(a) (b)
(a) The pressure on the bottom of tank (a) is greater than at the bottom of (b).
(b) The pressure on the bottom of the tank (a) is smaller than at the bottom of (b)
(c) The pressure depend on the shape of the container
(d) The pressure on the bottom of (a) and (b) is the same
Sol : Pressure = hg i.e. pressure at the bottom is independent of the area of the bottom of the tank. It depends on
the height of water upto which the tank is filled with water. As in both the tanks, the levels of water are the
same, pressure at the bottom is also the same.
Key : (4)
35. The volume of an air bubble becomes three times as it rises from the bottom of a lake to its surface. Assuming
temperature to be constant and atmospheric pressure to be 75cm of Hg and the density of the water to be 1/10
of the density of the mercury, the depth of the lake is
1) 5 m 2) 10 m 3) 15 m 4) 20 m
Sol : pV1 p2V2
75 h V 75 3V
h 150 cm of Hg
1.5m of Hg or 15m of water
Key :3
36. The pressure of the gas in a cylindrical chamber is p0 . The vertical force exerted by the gas on its
hemispherical end is
1) p0 r 2 2) 4 p0 r 2 3) 2 p0 r 2 4) p0 r 2
Sol : Force exerted by gas on its hemispherical end = Pressure of gas Projected area p0 r 2
Key :4
37. A metal sphere connected by a string a dipped in a liquid of density as shown in figure. The pressure at the
bottom of the vessel will be ( p0 =atmospheric pressure)
1) p p0 gh 2) p p0 gh 3) p p0 gh 4) p0
Sol : Upthrust on sphere from the liquid makes equal and opposite pair of forces. Hence there will be no effect on
the pressure at bottom of vessel, or p p0 gh
Key :1
38. Water (density )is flowing through the uniform tube of cross-sectional area A with a constant speed v as
shown in the figure. The magnitude of force exerted by the water on the curved corner of the tube is (neglect
viscous forces)
Av 2
1) 3 Av 2 2) 2 Av 2 3) 2 Av 2 4)
2
3
Sol : Px mv sin 60o mv
2
mv 3
Py mv mv
2 2
9 3
Pnet Px2 Py2 mv
4 4
dm 2
Pnet 3 mv Fnet 3 .v 3 Av
dv
dm
Since, dm A vdt A v
dt
Key :1
39. The density of water at the surface of ocean is . If the bulk modulus of water is B, then the density of ocean
water at depth, when the pressure is p0 and p0 is the atmospheric pressure is
B B B B
1) 2) 3) 4)
B 1 p0 B 1 p0 B p0 B p0
dp
Sol : From the definition of bulk modulus B
dV / V
As we move from surface to placed where pressure changes to p0 let us assume volume changes by V , then
V V 1 p0
B
V V
1 p0
Net volume, V | V V V 1
B
B
Density at the given depth, | V / V | , where is density at surface |
B 1 p0
Key :1
40. A uniformly tapering vessel is filled with a liquid of density 900 kg / m3 . The force that acts on the base of the
vessel due to the liquid is g 10ms 2
1) 3.6 N 2) 7.2 N 3) 9.0 N 4) 14.4 N
Sol : Force actin on the base
F P A hdg A 0.4 900 10 2 103 7.2 N
Key :2
41. A 50kg girl wearing high heel shoes balances on a single heel. The heel is circular with a diameter 1.0cm.
What is the pressure exerted on the horizontal floor?
1)
F 50 9.8
Sol : p or p 6.24 106 Pa
A 3.142 25 106
p 6.24 106 Pa
42. A tank with a square base of area1.0m 2 is divided by a vertical partition in the middle. The bottom of the
partition has a small hinged door of area 20 cm 2 . The tank is filled with water in one compartment, and an acid
(of relative density 1.7) in the other, both to a height of 4.0m. Compute the force necessary to keep the door
close
Sol : a) If p1 be the pressure exerted by water at the door provided at the bottom. Then p1 h1 1 g
4.0 103 9.8 39.2 103 Pa
a) If p2 be the pressure exerted by acid at the door provided at the bottom. Then
p2 h2 2 g 4.0 1.7 9.8 10 3 66.64 103 Pa
Difference of pressure p p2 p1 66.64 103 39.2 103 27.44 103 Pa
Area of door, A 20cm2 20 104 m 2
p A 2744 103 20 104 54.88 N 55 N
To keep the door closed, a force equal to 55N should be applied horizontally on the door from compartment
containing water.
43. A barometer kept in an elevator reads 76cm when it is at rest. What will be the barometric reading when the
elevator accelerates upwards with 4 m / s 2 g 10 m / s 2
Sol : Let a be the acceleration of the elevator and h be the barometer height then
h h0 ------(i)
For the static elevator with barometric height h0
Pa gh0 --------(ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii) we get
gh0 10 190
h 76 63.33
g a 12 3
Clearly, h h0 so barometric reading in an accelerating elevator will be less than 76 cm.
44. For the arrangement shown in the figure, the force at the bottom of the vessel is
1) 200 N 2) 100 N 3) 20 N 4) 2 N
Sol : F p A ghtotal A
103 10 1.0 100 10 4 100N
Key : 2
45. A vertical glass capillary tube, open at both ends, contains some water. Which of the following shapes
may be taken by the water in the tube (weight of liquid is negligible)
KEY – 4
Sol: For water glass interface, the angle of contact is less than 900, so the shape of liquid meniscus is concave
upwards on both faces
46. A ring is cut from a platinum tube 8.5 cm internal diameter and 8.7 cm external diameter. It is supported
horizontally from a pan of balance so that it comes in contact with the water in a glass vessel. If an
extra3.47 gm. Wt. is required to pull it away from water, S.T. of water is
1) 72.07 dyne/cm 2) 7.80 dyne/cm
3) 6.535 dyne/cm 4) 60.00 dyne/cm
Sol: Force on the ring due to S.T. of water
( D1 D 2 ) S m g
mg 3.47 980
So , S
( D1 D 2 ) (22 / 7) [8.5 8.7]
72.07 dyne / cm
47. A 20 cm long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water rises up to 8 cm. If the entire arrangement is
put in a freely falling elevator the length of water column in the capillary tube will be
1) 20 cm 2) 4 cm 3) 10 cm 4) 8 cm
Sol: When the elevator is falling freely so water will rise in capillary tube upto its full length i.e. 20 cm
48. The rise of liquid in a capillary tube has a meniscus. If the angle of contact is 900, the shape of the
meniscus is
1) concave 2) convex 3) flat 4) none of the above
Sol: When =900, the shape of liquid meniscus flat
49. A drop of oil is placed on the surface of water. Which of the following statement is correct
1) It will remain on it as a sphere
2) It will spread as a thin layer
3) It will partly be a spherical droplet and partly a thin film
4) It will float as a distorted drop on the water surface
Sol: The surface tension of oil is less than that of water, so the oil spreads as a thin year
50. A thread is tied slightly loose to a wire frame as shown in fig and the frame is dipped into a soap
Solution and taken out. The frame is completely covered with the film. When the portion A is punctured
with a pin, the thread
1) becomes concave towards A 2) becomes convex towards A
3) either (A) or (B) depending on the size of A with respect to B
4) remains in the initial position
Sol: When frame is dipped into a soap Solution and taken out, a soap film is formed on frame. When the portion A
is punctured, the soap film of portion A will break. Due to surface tension, the portion of film in B will tend to
have least surface area. Due to which the thread line between A and b will bend having concave shape towards
A and convex shape towards B.
51. A soap bubble assumes a spherical surface. Which of the following statements is wrong?
1) The soap film consists of two surface layers of molecules back to back
2) The bubble encloses air inside it
3) The pressure of air inside the bubble is less than the atmospheric pressure: that is why the atmospheric
pressure has compressed it equally from all sides to give it a spherical shape
4) Because of the elastic property of the film, it will tend to shrink to have as small a surface area as possible
for the volume it has enclosed
Sol: The pressure inside the bubble is more than the outside pressure
52. Which graph represent the variation of surface tension with temperature over small temperatures
ranges for water
Key : 2
Sol: Over a small temperaturre ranges, S.T. of water decreases linearly with rise of temperature
53. A mosquito with 8 legs stands on water surface and each leg makes depression of radius ‘a’. If the surface
tension and angle of contact are ‘T’ and zero respectively. Then the weight of mosquito is (Buoyancy is
negligible)
1) 8Ta 2) 16 Ta 3) Ta 4) Ta
8 16
Sol: T 2 a 8 w t .o f m o s q u ito
( n o o f le g s 8 )
54. A thin liquid film formed between a U shaped wire and a light slider supports a weight of 3 10-2N. The
length of slider is 20 cm and its weight negligible. The surface tension of liquid film is
1) 0.075 N/m 2) 0.1 N/m
3) 0.05 N/m 4) 0.025 N/m
w eig h t 3 1 0 2
Sol: T
2L 2 2 0 1 0 2
0 .0 7 5 N / m
55. A thin loop of a thread floats on a soap film formed inside a wire frame which is kept horizontal. When the film
is pierced, the loop arranges in the form of a circle of radius r. If a- is the surface tension of the soap Solution,
the tension in the string will be
1) R 2) 2 R 3) 4 R 4) 8 R
KEY : 2
Sol :
Tension 2 R 2 R
56. On heating water, bubbles beings formed at the bottom of the vessel detach and rise. Take the bubbles to be
spheres of radius R and making a circular contact of radius r with the bottom of the vessel. If r< <e R,
and the surface tension of water is T, value of r just before bubbles detach is
2w g w g w g 3 w g
1) R 2 2) R 2 3) R 2 4) R 2
3T 6T T T
KEY : 1
r
sin
Sol : R
The bubble will detach if Buoyant force Surface tension force
4
w R 3 g T 2 r sin q
3
2w R 4 g
Solving r
3T
57. Two very wide parallel glass plates are held vertically at a small separation r, and dipped in water of
surface tension S. Some water climbs up in the gap between the plates. If P0 is the atmospheric pressure,
then the pressure of water just below the water surface in the region between the two plates is
1) P 2S 2) P0
2S
0
r r
4S 4S
3) P0 4) P0
r r
Here, the free liquid surface between the plates will be cylindrical which is curved along one axis (parallel to
Sol:
the plates). The radius of curvature of meniscus R=r/2. For cylindrical surface,
S S 2S
p
R r/2 r
58. The maximum force, in addition to the weight required to pull a wire of 5.0cm long from the surface of water
at temperature 20o C is 728 dynes. The surface tension of water is
1) 7.28 N / cm 2) 7.28 dyne / cm 3) 72.8 dyne / cm 4) 7.28 102 dyne / cm
F 728
Sol :T 72.8 dyne / cm
2l 2 5
Key :2
59. A thin metal disc of radius r floats on water surface and bends the surface downwards along the perimeter
making an angle with vertical edge of the disc. If the disc displaces a weight of water W and surface tension
of water is T, then the weight of metal disc is
1) 2 rT W 2) 2 rT cos W 3) 2 rT cos W 4) W 2 rT cos
Sol : Weight of metal disc = total upward force
= upthrust force + force due to surface tension
= weight of displaced water + T cos 2 r W 2 rT cos
Key :3
60. There is a circular tube in a vertical plane. Two liquids which do not mix and of densities d1 and d 2 are filled in
the tube. Each liquid subtends 90o angle at centre. Radius joining their interface makes an angle with
vertical. Ratio d1 / d 2 is
1 tan 1 sin 1 sin 1 cos
1) 2) 3) 4)
1 tan 1 cos 1 sin 1 cos
Sol : Equating pressure at A
R cos R sin d2 g R cos R sin d1 g
d1 cos sin 1 tan
d 2 cos sin 1 tan
Key :1
61. If a water drop is kept between two glass plates, then its shape is
Sol : Angle of contact is acute
Key : 3
62. Two very wide parallel glass plates are held vertically at a small separation r, and dipped in water of
surface tension S. Some water climbs up in the gap between the plates. If P0 is the atmospheric pressure,
then the pressure of water just below the water surface in the region between the two plates is
1) P 2S 2) P0
2S
0
r r
4S 4S
3) P0 4) P0
r r
Here, the free liquid surface between the plates will be cylindrical which is curved along one axis (parallel to
Sol:
the plates). The radius of curvature of meniscus R=r/2. For cylindrical surface,
S S 2S
p
R r/2 r
63. The diagram shows three soap bubbles A, B and C prepared by blowing the capillary tube fitted with
stop cocks S, S1, S2 and S3. With stop cock S closed and stop clock S1, S2 and S3 opened
1) B will start collapsing with volumes of A and C increasing
2) C will start collapsing with volume of A and B increasing
3) Volume of A, B and C will becomes equal in equilibrium
4) C and A will both start collapsing with volume of B increasing
Sol: As excess pressure, therefore, pressure inside C is highest and pressure inside B is lowest. The pressure inside
A Is in between.. Therefore C starts collapsing with volume of A and B increasing
64. Excess pressure of one soap bubble is four times more than the other. Then the ratio of volume of first
bubble to another one is
1) 1:64 2) 1:4
3) 64:1 4)1:2
P1
4 o r p1 4 p 2 ;
Sol: P2
4S 4S r1 1
4 or
r1 r2 r2 4
4
r13 3
V1 3 r13 1 1
3
V2 4 r2 4 64
r23
3
65. A bigger drop of radius R is converted into n smaller drops of radius r, the required energy is
1) (4 r 2 n 4 R 2 )T
2) ( 4 4 r 3n 4 R3 )T
3 3
3) (4 R 4 r 2 ) nT
2
4) (n.4 r 2 n 4 R 2 )T
Sol: Work done =S.T x increase in surface and
T (n 4 r 2 4 R 2 )
66. A soap bubble in vacuum has a radius of 3cm and another soap bubble in vacuum has a radius of 4 cm. If
two bubbles coalesce under isothermal conditions then the radius of the new bubble is
1) 2.3 cm 2) 4.5 cm
3) 5 cm 4) 7 cm
Sol: R r12 r22
67. The work done is increasing the size of a soap film from 10 cm 6cm to10 cm 11cm is 3 10-4 joule.
The surface tension of the film is
1) 1.5 10-2 N/m 2) 3.0 10-2 N/m
3) 6.0 10 N/m
-2
4) 11.0 10-2N/m
Sol: Increase in area,
A 2(10 11 10 6) 10 4 10 2 m 2
Surface tension ,
S W A 3 10 4 / 10 2
3 10 2 N / m
68. A spherical drop of water has 1 mm radius. If the surface tension of water is 70 10-3N/m, then the
difference of pressures between inside and outside of the spherical drop is
1) 35 N/m2 2) 70 N/m2
2
3) 140 N/m 4) zero
3
Sol: p 2 S 2 7 0 1 0
3
1 40 N / m 2
r 10
69. The force required to separate two glass plates each of area 10-2m-2 with a film of water 0.05 mm
thickness between them is (surface tension of water = 70 10-3 N/m
1) 28 N 2) 112 N
3) 5.6 N 4) 11.2 N
Sol: A = 10 m , t = 0.05x10-3 m
-2 2
S=70x10-3 N/m
2 SA 2 7 0 1 0 3 1 0 2
F 28 N
t 0 .0 5 1 0 3
70. Two soap bubbles of radii R1 and R2 kept in atmosphere are combined isothermally to form a big bubble
of radius R. The expression for surface tension will be
3 3 3
2) P0 ( R1 R2 R )
3 3 3
1) P0 ( R R1 R2 )
4( R 2 R12 R22 ) 4( R 2 R12 R22 )
3) P0 ( R13 R23 R 3 ) 4) 4P0 ( R13 R23 R3 )
Sol: According to isothermal process
PV = P1V1+P2V2
4T 4 3 4T 4 3
P
0 R P0 R1
R 3 R1 3
P0 ( R 3 R13 R 23 ) 4T ( R12 R 22 R 2 )
P0 ( R 3 R13 R 23 )
T
4 ( R12 R 22 R 2 )
71. The excess pressure inside a spherical drop of water is three times that of another drop then their
respective mass ratio is
1) 1:16 2) 8:1
3) 1:4 4) 1:27
P1 r 3 2T
2 ; P
P2 r1 1 r
Sol:
V r 3; M V
M1 V r3 1
1 13
M 2 V2 r2 27
72. The excess pressure inside an air bubble of radius r just below the surface of water is p1.The excess
pressure inside a drop of the same radius just outside the surface is p2. If T is surface tension, then
1) p1 = 2 p2 2) p1 = p2
3) p2 = 2p1 4) p2 = 0, p1 0
Sol: 2T 2T
P1 P2
r r
2
73. Two soap bubbles A and B are kept in a closed chamber where the air is maintained at a pressure 8 N / m . The
radii of bubbles A and B are 2cm and 4cm, respectively. Surface tension of the soap water used to make bubbles
n /n , n n
is 0.04N/m. Find the ratio B A where A and B are the number of moles of air in bubbles A and B, respectively.
(Neglect the effect of gravity)
1) 2 2) 9 3) 8 4) 6
KEY : 4
Sol :
4S 4S
p1 p 0 p1 p0
. r1 r1
4 0.04
8 16N / m2
2 102
4S 4S
p 2 p0 p 2 p0
r2 r2
4 0.04
8 12N / m2
4 102
3 3
n B p 2 V2 p2 r2 12 4
. 6
n A p1V1 p1 r1 16 2
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENTS-2
DAY – 6 (DT 07-04-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Chapter : MECHANICAL PROPERTIES OF FLUIDS
=============================================================================
1. A hollow sphere has a very narrow hole in it. On lowering the sphere into water, to a depth of 40cm below the
surface, then only water starts entering into the sphere. If T 7 10 2 Nm 1 , radius of the hole is
1 1 1 1
1) mm 2) mm 3) mm 4) mm
7 14 21 28
KEY : 2
Sol :
Excess pressure is balanced by liquid column
2T 2T 2 7.0 10 2
hdg r 0.035 10 3 m 0.071mm 1 / 14 mm
r hdg 40 10 2 103 9.8
2. The excess pressure inside an air bubble of radius r just below the surface of water is p1.The excess pressure
inside a drop of the same radius just outside the surface is p2. If T is surface tension, then
1) p1 = 2 p2 2) p1 = p2 3) p2 = 2p1 4) p2 = 0, p1 0
2T 2T
Sol : P1 , P2
r r
Key : (2)
3. On heating water, bubbles being formed at the bottom of the vessel detach and rise. Take the bubbles to be
spheres of radius R and making a circular contact of radius r with the bottom of the vessel. If r R and the
surface tension of water is T, the value of r just before bubbles detach is (density of water is w )
w g 3 w g w g w g
1) R 2 2) R 2 3) R 2 4) R 2
T T 6T 3T
4
Sol : 2 rT sin R 3 w g
3
2 R 4 w g
2 2 w g
r r R2
3 T 3T
Key : None
4. Water rises in a capillary tube to a certain height such that the upward force due to surface tension is
balanced by 75 10-2 newton force due to the weight of the liquid. If the surface tension of water is 6 10-
2
N/m the inner circumference of the capillary must be
1) 1.25 10-3 metre 2) 0.50 10-2 metre 3) 6.5 10-2 metre 4) 12.5 10-2 metre
2 r s m g
Sol:
or
mg 7 5 1 0 4
2 r
S 6 1 0 2
1 2 .5 1 0 2 m
5. By inserting a capillary tube upto a depth l in water, the water rises to a height h. If the lower end of the
capillary tube is closed inside water and the capillary is taken out and closed end opened, to what height
the water will remain in the tube, when l > h.
1) zero 2) l + h 3) 2h 4) h
Sol: Due to surface tension water rises in the capillary tube upto a height h with concave meniscus on both the sides.
Therefore, the total height of water column in the capillary tube
=h +h=2h
6. A capillary tube of radius R is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height H. Mass of water in
capillary tube is M. If the radius of the tube is doubled, mass of water that will rise in capillary tube will
be
1) 2 M 2) M 3) M/2 4) 4 M
1
h
r
Sol:
h2 r R 1
1
h1 r2 2 R 2
M a s s m 1 r1 2 h 1 M
M a s s m 2 r22 h 2 2 M
7. Two capillary tubes of same diameter are put vertically one each in two liquids whose relative densities
are 0.8 and 0.6 and surface tension are 60 and 50 dynes/cm respectively. Ratio of heights of liquid in the
two tubes, h1/h2 is
1) 10/9 2) 3/10 3) 10/3 4) 9/10
Sol: h 1 S 1 2 6 0 0 .6 9
h2 S2 p1 5 0 0 .8 10
8. Water rises to a height of 16.3 cm in a capillary tube of height 18 cm above the water level. If the tube is
cut at a height of 12 cm
1) Water will come as a fountain from the capillary tube
2) Water will stay at a height of 12 cm in the capillary tube
3) The height of water in the capillary tube will be 10.3 cm
4) Water will flow down the sides of capillary tube
Sol: When tube is of insufficient length as compared to the height through which the water can rise, there is no over
flowing of liquid but there will be adjustment of radius of curvature of liquid meniscus at the end of tube.
Hence option (b) is correct
9. The radii of the two columns in U tube are r1 and r2. When a liquid of density p (angle of contact is 00) is
filled in it, the level difference of liquid in two arms is h. The surface tension of liquid is (g=acceleration
due to gravity)
1)
g hr1 r2 2)
g h (r2 r1 ) 3) 2( r2 r1 ) 4) gh
2(r2 r1 ) (2r1 r2 ) g hr1r2 2(r2 r1 )
2 S cos 0 0
h1
r1 g
Sol: 2 S co s 0 0
a n d h2
r2 g
2S 1 1
g ive n h h h1 h 2
g r1 r2
2 S ( r2 r1 ) h g r1 r2
h S
r1 r2 g 2 ( r2 r1 )
10. Water rises in a capillary tube up to height of 7 cm whereas mercury depresses in it by 0.6 cm. If the
angle of contact and density of mercury are 1350 and 13.6 gm/cc respectively, then the ratio of the surface
tension of water and mercury will be nearly
1) 13:2 2) 5:16 3) 16:5 4) 7:50
T1 h cos 2
1 1
Sol: T 2 h2 2 co s 1
7 1 1 2 7
2 .6 1 3 .6 1 50
11. Which of the following graphs may represents the relation between the capillary rise h and the radius r
of the capillary tube
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
Sol: h 1/ r hr constant
h v /sr graph will be rectangular hyperbola
12. A barometer tube reads 75 cm of Hg. If tube is gradually inclined at an angle of 300 with horizontal,
keeping the open end in the mercury container, then the length of mercury column in the barometer tube
1) 86.74 cm 2) 150 cm
3) 75 cm 4) 92.5
Sol:
13. A cold soft drink is kept on the balance. When the cap is opened, then the weight
1) increases 2) decrease 3) first increases, then decreases 4) remains same
Sol: Firstly, when the cap is opened, gas and liquid rush out and as a reaction weight increases and then it decreases
14. A capillary tube of radius ‘r’ is immersed in water and water rises to a height of ‘h’. Mass of water that rises up
3
in the capillary tube is 5 10 kg. The same capillary tube is now immersed in a liquid whose surface tension is
2 times the surface tension of water. The angle of contact between the capillary tube and this liquid is 450
.The mass of liquid which rises into the capillary tube now is, ( in kg)
3 3 3 3
1) 5 10 2) 2.5 10 3) 5 2 10 4) 3.5 10
KEY : 1
Sol :
Force due to surface tension = Weight of water in capillary tube
T cos 2 r mg
T1 cos 1 m1 T1 1 5 103
T2 cos 2 m2 2T1 1/ 2 m2 m2 5 103 kg
15. Water rises in a capillary tube up to a height of 7 cm whereas mercury depresses in it by 2.6 cm. If the angle of
0
contact and density of mercury are 135 and 13.6 gm/ cc respectively, then the ratio of the surface tension of
water and mercury will be nearly
1) 13 : 2 2) 5 : 16 3) 16 : 5 4) 7 : 5
KEY : 4
Sol :
T1 h1 1 cos 2 7 1 1/ 2 7
T2 h2 2 cos 1 2.6 13.6 1 5
16. The lower end of a capillary tube of radius r is placed vertically in water. Then, with the rise of water in the
capillary through a height h, heat evolved is
r 2 h2 dg r 2 h2 dg r 2 h2 dg r 2 h2 dg
1) J 2) 2J 3) 2J 4) J
KEY : 2
Sol :
17. A vertical capillary with inside diameter 0.50mm is submerged into water so that the length of its part
emerging outside water surface is equal to 25mm. Find the radius of curvature of the meniscus. Surface
tension of water is 73 103 N / m
2T
Sol : In the capillary tube the water should rise to a height h
r g
Here T 73 103 N m
0.50mm
r 0.25 103 m
2
103 kg / m 3
2 73 103
h 59 103 m 59mm
0.25 103 103 9.8
Now h h| , i.e., length is outside water surface. Therefore, radius of meniscus > radius of capillary r. If R is
the radius of meniscus, then we have
2T 2T
h| g or R |
R hg
Here h| 25mm 25 103 m
2 73 103
R 3 3
0.6 103 m 0.6 mm
25 10 10 9.8
18. A container has two immiscible liquids of densities 1 and 2 1 . A capillary tube of radius r is inserted in
the liquid so that its bottom reaches upto the denser liquid. The denser liquid rises in the capillary and attains a
height h from the interface of the liquids. Assuming angle of contact to be zero, the surface tension of heavier
liquid is
2 rgh r
1) 2 r 2 gh 2) 3) 2 1 gh 4) 2 r 2 1 gh
2 2
Sol : Let us write pressure equation in path ABCDE
2I
p0 2 g h h| 2 gh| 1 gh p0
r
r
T 2 1 gh
2
Key :3
19. Two parallel glass plates are dipped partly in the liquid of density ‘d’ keeping them vertical. If the distance
between the plates is ‘x’ surface tension for liquid is T and angle of contact is , then rise of liquid between
the plates due to capillary will be
T cos 2T cos 2T T cos
1) 2) 3) 4)
xd xdg xdg cos xdg
Sol : Let the width of each plate is b and due to surface tension, liquid will rise upto height h. Then upward force
due to surface tension 2Tb cos -------(i)
Weight of the liquid that rises in between the plates Vdg bxh dg ------(ii)
Equating (i) and (ii), we get 2T cos bxhdg
2T cos
h
xdg
Key :2
20. Soap Solution bubble having radius 1 cm is expanded to a bubble of radius 2 cm . If the surface
tension of soap Solution is 30 dyne/cm, the work done is
1) 180 ergs 2) 360 ergs 3) 720 ergs 4) 960 ergs
Sol: Work done
2 2
2 1
S 4 4 2
30 12 2 720 ergs
21. The work done in blowing a soap bubble of 10 cm radius is (surface tension of the soap Solution is 0.03 N
m-1)
1) 37.68 10-4 J 2) 75.36 10-4J 3) 150.72 10-4J 4) 75.36 10-3J
Sol: Work done
W S A
0.03 4 (0.10) 2 2
75.36 10 4 J
22. The radius of a soap bubble is r and the surface tension of soap Solution is T. Keeping the temperature
constant, the extra energy needed to double the radius of the soap bubble by blowing is
1) 32 r 2T 2) 24 r 2T 3) 16 r 2T 4) 8 r 2T
Sol: Energy spent = S.T x increase in surface area
T [ 4 ( 2 r ) 2 4 r 2 ] 2
2 4 r 2T
23. The ratio of surface energy of 1 small drop and 1 large drop if 1000 drops combined to form 1 large drop
1) 100 : 1 2) 1000:1 3) 10:1 4) 1:1
Sol: Surface energy independent of radius
24. Work done in splitting a drop of water of 1mm radius into 64 droplets is (S.T. of water
72 10-3J/m2)
1) 2.0 10-6J 2) 2.7 10-6 J 3) 4 60-6J 4) 5.4 10-6J
4 4
R 3 64 r 3
3 3
Sol: or
R 1 0 3
4 4
W S [ 6 4 4 r 2 4 R 2 ]
2
3
1 0 3 3 2
7 2 1 0 4 6 4 (1 0 )
4
6
2 .7 1 0 J
25. A film of water is found between two straight parallel wires of length 10 cm each separated by 0.5 cm. If
their separation is increased by 1mm, while still maintaining their parallelism, how much work will have
to be done (S.T of water is 7.2 10-2N/m)
1) 7.22 10-6J 2) 1.44 10-5J 3) 2.88 10-5J 4) 5.76 10-5J
Sol: Work done = S.T x increase in area
W S.T [0.10 0.006 0.10 0.005] 2
7.2 10 2 0.10 0.001 2
1.44 10 5 J
26. A frame made of a metallic wire enclosing a surface area A is covered with a soap film. If the area of the
frame of metallic wire is reduced by 50%, the energy of the soap film will be changed by
1) 100% 2) 75% 3) 50% 4) 25%
Sol: Surface energy = S.T surface area
E = S 2A
New surface energy,
E1=S 2(A/2)=S A
% decrease in surface energy
E E1
100
E
2 SA SA
100 50%
2 SA
27. Water is filled into a container with hexagonal cross section of side 8cm. If the surface tension of water is
0.07 Nm-1 then the surface energy of water will be
1) 8.5 10-4 J 2) 11.64 10-4 J 3) 6.4 10-4 J 4) 7 10-4 J
1 3a
W T A T 6 a
2 2
Sol: 3 3 2 0.0 7 3 3 (8 1 0 2 ) 2
T a
2 2
4
11.6 4 10 J
28. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid of radius r coalesce to form a single drop of radius R and
volume V. If T is the surface tension of the liquid, then
1) 1 1 2) E nergy 3V T 1 1 is absorbed
E n e r g y 4V T is r e le a se d
r R r R
3) E n e r g y 1 1 4) Energy is neither released nor absorbed
3 VT r R is r e le a s e d
2
Sol: w 1 n 4 r T w 2 n 4 R 2T
1
w w1 w 2 R n 3r
29. 512 water droplets, each of radius ‘r’, coalesce to form a single drop. If the energy released rises the
temperature of the drop, then the rise in temperature is (surface tension is ‘T’, specific heat is ‘s’ and density
is ‘’, all are in SI units)
5T 21T 25 T 32 T
2 r s 8r s 4 r s 5 r s
1) 2) 3) 4)
KEY : 2
Sol :
W JH W mst
4 3
4 r 2T n n2/3 n1/3r s t
3
3T 1 3T 1 1
t 1 1/3 1/3
rs n r s 512
3T 7 21T
r s 8 8r s
30. In a cylinder – piston arrangement air is under a pressure P1 and at constant temperature t. A soap bubble lies
inside the cylinder. The soap bubble is to be reduced to half its size, the required pressure P2 to which air should
be compressed by slowly pulling the piston into the cylinder is [surface tension = T, Initial radius of bubble =r]
24T 3T 2T 12T
1) 8P1 2) 8 P1 3) 8 P1 4) 8P1
r r r r
KEY : 1
Sol :
P1 P2
P11 P21
4T
P11 P1 4T 8T
r P21 P2 P
r/2 r
1 1
According to Boyle’s law P1 V1 P2V2
3
4T 4 3 8T 4 r
P1 r P2
r 3 r 3 2
3 24T
4T 3 8T r 32T 8T
P1 r P2 8 P1 P2 P2 8 P1
r r 8 r r r
31. The potential energy of the liquid of surface tension “T” and density that rises into the capillary tube is
2 2
1) 2T 2 2 g 2) 4 T 2 2 g q 3) 2 T 4) T
g g
h
Sol : Gravitational potential energy of a liquid that rises in the tube is U= Weight
2
2T 2 cos2 2T 2
g g
Key : (3)
32. A piece of wood of relative density 0.36 floats in oil of relative density 0.90. the fraction of volume of
wood above the surface of oil is
1) 0.3 2) 0.4 3) 0.6 4) 0.8
Sol: Vb d b g Vbin d g
Vbin db 0.36
0.4
Vb d 0.90
fraction outside =0.6
33. A bucket containing water is suspended from a spring balance. A piece of iron suspended from a string is
immersed in water without touching the sides or the bottom of the bucket. How will the reading on the
spring balance be affected, assuming that no water flows out of the bucket?
1) The reading will not change
2) The balance will indicate less weight
3) The balance will indicate more weight
4) The reading will be less or more depending on the depth at which the piece of iron is immersed.
Sol: Water gives an up thrust to the iron piece which gives an equal down thrust to water. Therefore, the balance
will indicate more weight,
34. Two Solids A and B float in water. A floats with half its volume immersed and B floats with 2/3rd of its
volume immersed. The densities of A and B are in the ratio
1) 2:3 2) 4:3 3) 3:4 4) 3:2
Sol: If A and B are the densities of A and B respectively, V A and VB their respective volumes, and is the
density of water, then
1
VA A g VA g ....(1)
2
2
VB B g VB g ....(2)
3
A 3
Dividing (1) by (2),
B 4
35. Two pieces of different metals, when completely immersed in water, experience equal up thrust. Then
1) Both pieces have equal weights in air 2) Both pieces have the same density
3) Both pieces have equal volumes 4) Both are immersed to the same depth
Sol: V1d g V2 d g
V1 V2
36. A boat loaded with rocks floats in a swimming pool and a man in the boat throws rocks overboard in
water. The water level of the pool will
1) Rise 2) Fall 3) Not change 4) Rise or fall depending on the volume of the rocks.
Sol: When a rock is in the boat, it is floating with the boat and, therefore, displaces water equal to its own weight.
However, when it is in water, it sinks because it displaces less water than its own weight. Therefore, the water
level will fall
37. A Solid weighs 5 N in air, 4 N in water and 4.5 N in some other liquid. The specific gravity of the liquid is
1) 0.5 2) 1.5
3) 0.9 4) 2
Sol: Let , w and l be the densities of the Solid, water and the other liquid, respectively
Density of Solid relative to water
weight in air
w loss of weight in water
5
5
5 4
Density of Solid relative to liquid
weight in air
l loss of weight in liquid
5
10
5 4.5
Dividing (1) by (2)
l 5
0.5
w 10
38. The density of a block of wood that floats in water with 10% of its volume outside water is (density of
water 103 kg / m 3 )
1) 10 kg / m 3 2) 90 kg / m 3
3) 900 kg / m 3 4) 900gm/cc
Sol: Relative Density = Fraction of volume
inside water = 0.9
Density = 0.9 103 900 kg / m 2
39. The specific gravity of ice is 0.9. the area of the smallest slab of ice of height 0.5 m, floating in fresh
water, that will just support a 100 kg man is
1) 1.5 m 2 2) 2.0 m 2 3) 3.0 m 2 4) 4.0 m 2
Sol: Let the required area be A
Depth of ice slab below the surface of water
VS S g VSl W g AS lS S AS lW 1
lW 0.5 0.5 0.45 m
Height of ice slab above the surface 0.05 m
it is clear that the weight of water displaced by the upper portion of the slab is equal to 100 g. That is,
0.05 A 103 g 100 g or A = 2 m 2
40. A cube of wood supporting a 200 g mass just floats in water. When the mass is removed, the cube rises by
2cm. The linear dimension of the cube is
1) 5 cm 2) 10 cm 3) 15 cm 4) 18 cm
Sol: Vair d g 200 g
Al d m 200 g 2 2 1 g
10 cm
41. A block of ice is floating in a liquid of specific gravity 1.1 contained in a beaker. When the ice melts
completely, the level of the liquid in the beaker will
1) Rise 2) Fall
3) Not change
4) Change but no conclusion can be drawn about rise or fall from the given data.
Sol: The density of the liquid is 1.1 g / cm 3 which is higher than the density of water, which is 1. 0 g / cm 3 . Let the
mass of ice be x grams. The volume of liquid displaced by it is x /1.1 cm3 .But this ice, on melting, will
produce x cm3 of water. Since x /1.1 x, the volume of the liquid displaced by ice is less than the volume of
the water produced when the ice melts. Therefore, the level of the liquid will rise
42. A vessel contains oil (density 0.8 g/ cm3 ) over mercury (density 13.6 g/ cm3 ). A homogeneous sphere floats
with half its volume immersed in mercury and the other half in oil. The density of the material of the
sphere in g/ cm3 is
1) 3.3 2) 6.4 3) 7.2 4) 12.8
Sol: Weight of sphere Weight of mercury displaced Weight of oil displaced
V V
V g 13.6 g 0.8 g
2 2
7.2 g / cm 3
43. A body of volume V and density is initially submerged in a liquid of density ' . If it is lifted through a
height h in the liquid, its potential energy will
1) Increase by hV ' g 2) Decrease by hV ' g
3) Increase by hV g / ' 4) Decrease by hV g / '
Sol: Resultant downward force on the body FR mg FP
V g V 'g V ' g
When it is lifted up, work done Force Distance
V ' gh
Potential energy increase by hV g
'
44. A cubical wooden block of side 10 cm floats at the interface between oil and water with its lower face 2
cm below the interface. If the density of oil is 0.6 g / cm 3 , the mass of the block is
1) 200 g 2) 340 g 3) 480 g 4) 680 g
Sol: Let the mass of the block be m
Since the block is floating,
Weight of block Weight of water displaced Weight of oil displaced V1 g V2 l g A1 l1 g A2 l2 l g
2 2
mg 2 10 1 g 8 10 0.6 g
or m 680 g
45. A sphere has a hollow portion which is one-third of its total volume. It floats in water with four-fifth of
its volume immersed. The specific gravity of its material is
1) 0.9 2) 1.2 3) 1.8 4) 2.4
Sol: Let V be the volume of the sphere, be its density and w be the density of water Now, weight of sphere
weight of water displaced. That is VS S g VSl g ;
2 4 6
V g V w g or 1.2
3 5 w 5
46. A streamlined body of density d1 falls from a height h on the surface of a liquid of density d 2 , where
d 2 d1 . The time for which the body will fall inside the liquid is
d1 2h d2 2h d1 2h d 2 d1 2h
1) 2) 3) 4)
d2 g d1 g d 2 d1 g d2 g
Sol: Velocity of the body just before touching the surface
u 2 gh
Net retarding force inside the liquid is
F Upthrust – Weight of body
V d 2 d1 g
where V is the volume of the body
V d 2 d1 g d 2 d1
Retardation a g
Vd 1 d1
u d1 2h
Time of fall t
a d 2 d1 g
47. A small ball of density is immersed in a liquid of density to a depth h and then released.
The height above the surface of water up to which the ball will jump is
h h
1) 2) 1 h 3) 1 h 4)
Sol: Let the volume of the ball be V . Then the net force on the ball, when it is inside the liquid, is F FB mg
F V g
This force is directed upwards
F V g
Acceleration a g
m V
On being released, the body moves upwards. Velocity on reaching the surface is
2
gh
2
Height attained above the surface
2g
1
2 gh
2g
h 1 h
48. In Bernoulli’s theorem which of the following is conserved
1) Mass 2) Energy 3) Linear momentum 4) Angular momentum
Sol: Bernoulli’s theorem is a consequence of law of conservation of energy.
49. A piece of copper (density 8.8 g / cm 3 ) having an internal cavity weights 264g in air and 221 g in water.
The volume of the cavity is
1) 26 cm 3 2) 6.5 cm 3 3) 19.5 cm 3 4) 13 cm 3
Sol: Loss of weight in water 43g Weight of water displaced
Volume of water displaced = Volume of copper with cavity 43cm3
264
Volume of copper alone 30 cm3
8.8
Volume of cavi9ty 43 30 13cm3
50. A sphere of Solid material of relative density 9 has a concentric spherical cavity and sinks in water. If the radius
of the sphere be R, then the radius of the cavity (r) will be related to R as
8 2 8 3 2 3
1) r 3 R 3 2) r 3 R 3 3) r 3 R 4) r 3 R
9 3 3 3
KEY : 1
Sol :
According to law of floatation, a body floats if weight of the body is equal to the weight of water displaced
51. A hemispherical bowl just floats without sinking in a liquid of density 1.2 x 103 kg m-3. If the outer diameter
and density of the bowl are 1m and 2 x 104 kg m-3 respectively, inner diameter of the bowl would be
1/3 1/3 1/3 1/3
3 3 47 47
1) 2) 2 3) 4) 2
50 50 50 50
KEY : 3
Sol :
2 2
R3 r 3 s g R3 L g
3 3
Here R and r are outer and inner radii s is density of bowl material and L is density of liquid
R 3
r 3 s R3 L
R 3 r 3 1.2 3
R3 20 50
1/3
3 3 47 47
r 1 r
50 50 50
52. A log of wood of mass 120 kg floats in water. The weight that can be put on the raft to make it just sink should
be (density of wood – 600 kg/m3)
1) 80kg 2) 50kg 3) 60kg 4) 30kg
KEY : 1
Sol :
mass 120
Volume of log of wood V 0.2m 3
density 600
Let .x be the weight that can be put on the log of wood.
So weight of the body = (120 + x) × 10 N Weight of displaced liquid = V g = 0.2 × 103×10N The body will
just sink in liquid if the weight of the body will be equal to the weight of displaced liquid.
120 x 10 0.2 103 10
120 x 100 x 80kg
53. Drops of a liquid of density d are floating half immersed in a liquid of density . If the surface tension of the
liquid is T, then the radius of the drop will be ( d = density of the liquid drop)
3T 6T 2T 3T
g 2d g 2d g 2d g 5d 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
KEY : 1
Sol :
Weight of drop = Buoyancy force + force due to surface tension
Mg FB Fsurfacetension
4 1 4
r 3 dg r 3 g T 2 r
3 2 3
4
r 3 g d T 2 r
3 2
3T 3T
r2 r
g 2d g 2d
54. A cubical block is floating in a liquid with half of its volume immersed in the liquid. When the whole system
accelerates upwards with acceleration of g/3, the fraction of volume immersed in the liquid will be
1
(a)
2
3
(b)
8
2
(c)
3
3
(d)
4
Sol : Fraction of volume immersed in the liquid Vin V i.e. it depends upon the densities of the block and liquid.
So there will be no change in it if system moves upward or downward with constant velocity or some
acceleration.
Key : (1)
55. A silver ingot weighing 2.1 kg is held by a string so as to be completely immersed in a liquid of relative density
0.8. The relative density of silver is 10.5. The tension in the string in kg-wt is
(a) 1.6 (b) 1.94
(c) 3.1 (d) 5.25
M
Sol : Apparent weight V ( )g ( )g
0.8
M 1 g 2 . 1 1 g 1 .94 g N= 1.94 Kg-wt
10 .5
Key : (2)
56. A cork is submerged in water by a spring attached to the bottom of a bowl. When the bowl is kept in an elevator
moving with acceleration downwards, the length of spring
(a) Increases (b) Decreases
(c) Remains unchanged (d) None of these
Sol : Effective weight W ' m (g a) which is less than actual weight mg, so the length of spring decreases.
Key : (2)
57. A Solid sphere of density ( > 1) times lighter than water is suspended in a water tank by a string tied to its
base as shown in fig. If the mass of the sphere is m then the tension in the string is given by
1
(a) mg
(b) mg
mg
(c)
1
(d) ( 1) mg
Sol : Tension in spring T = upthrust – weight of sphere
Vg Vg Vg Vg (As )
( 1)Vg = ( 1)mg .
Key : (4)
58. A rectangular block is 5 cm × 5 cm × 10cm in size. The block is floating in water with 5 cm side vertical. If it
floats with 10 cm side vertical, what change will occur in the level of water?
(a) No change (b)It will rise
(c) It will fall (d)It may rise or fall depending on the density of block
Sol : Since no change in volume of displaced water takes place, hence level of water remains same.
Key : (1)
59. A ball whose density is 0.4 × 103 kg/m3 falls into water from a height of 9 cm . To what depth does the ball sink
(a) 9 cm (b) 6 cm (c) 4.5 cm (d) 2.25 cm
Sol : The velocity of ball before entering the water surface
v 2 gh 2 g 9
When ball enters into water, due to upthrust of water the velocity of ball decreases (or retarded)
apparent weight
The retardation, a =
mass of ball
V ( )g 0 .4 1 3
g g g
V 0 . 4 2
If h be the depth upto which ball sink, then,
3
0 v 2 2 g h 2 g 9 3 gh h = 6 cm.
2
Key : (2)
60. A candle of diameter d is floating on a liquid in a cylindrical container of diameter D (D>>d) as shown in figure.
If it is burning at the rate of 2cm/hour then the top of the candle will
(a) Remain at the same height L
(b) Fall at the rate of 1 cm/hour L
d
(c) Fall at the rate of 2 cm/hour
D
(d) Go up the rate of 1cm/hour
Sol :
Key : (2)
61. An ice block contains a glass ball when the ice melts within the water containing vessel, the level of water
(a) Rises (b) Falls
(c) Unchanged (d) First rises and then falls
Sol :
Key : (2)
62. A large ship can float but a steel needle sinks because of
(a) Viscosity (b) Surface tension
(c) Density (d) None of these
Sol :
Key : (4)
63. Construction of submarines is based on
(a) Archimedes’ principle (b)Bernoulli’s theorem
(c) Pascal’s law (d) Newton’s laws
Sol :
Key : (1)
64. A homogeneous Solid cylinder of length L (L H / 2 ) . Cross-sectional area A / 5 is immersed such that it floats with
its axis vertical at the liquid-liquid interface with length L / 4 in the denser liquid as shown in the fig. The lower
density liquid is open to atmosphere having pressure P0 . Then density D of Solid is given by
5
(a) d
4
H/2 d
4 3L/4
(b) d L
5 H/2 2d
(c) d
d
(d)
5
Sol : Weight of cylinder = upthrust due to both liquids
A 3 A L
V D g L d g 2d g
5 4 5 4
A Ld g
A L D g Dd D
5
d
5 4 5 4 4
Key : (1)
65. A body floats in a liquid contained in a beaker. The whole system as shown falls freely under gravity. The
upthrust on the body due to the liquid is
(a) Zero
(b) Equal to the weight of the liquid displaced
(c) Equal to the weight of the body in air
(d) Equal to the weight of the immersed position of the body
Sol : Upthrust Vliquid (g a)
where, a = downward acceleration,
V = volume of liquid displaced
But for free fall a = g Upthrust = 0
Key : (1)
66. A uniform rod of density is placed in a wide tank containing a liquid of density 0 (0 ) . The depth of liquid
in the tank is half the length of the rod. The rod is in equilibrium, with its lower end resting on the bottom of the
tank. In this position the rod makes an angle with the horizontal
1 1 0
(a) sin 0 / (b) sin .
2 2
(c) sin / 0 (d) sin 0 /
Sol : Let L = PQ = length of rod
L
SP SQ
2
Weight of rod, W Al g , acting Q
At point S R
And force of buoyancy, FB S
L
FB Al 0 g , [l = PR] h=L/2
P W
which acts at mid-point of PR.
For rotational equilibrium,
l L
Al0 g cos AL g cos
2 2
l2 l
2
L 0 L 0
h L 1 0
From figure, sin
l 2l 2
Key : (1)
67. A small ball of density is immersed in a liquid of density to a depth h and released. The height above
the surface of water up to which the ball will jump is
1) 1 h 2) 1 h 3) 1 h 4) 1 h
Sol : Let V be the volume of the ball.
Net upward force V g V g
V g V g g
Net upward acceleration, a
V
2 gh
Velocity at the surface
If ha is the height in air to which the ball rises, then
2 gh
0 2 g ha
r gh
ha 1 h
g
Key :1
68. Three identical vessels A, B and C contain same quantity of liquid. IN each vessel balls of different densities
but same masses are placed. In vessel A, the ball is partly submerged; in vessel B, the ball is completely
submerged but floating and in vessel C, the ball has sunk to the base. If FA , FB and FC are the total forces
acting on the base of vessels A, B and C respectively then
1) FA FB FC 2) FA FB FC 3) FA FB FC 4) FA FB FC
Sol : W = weight of liquid.
f B buoyant force on the ball
mg weight of the ball
N normal reaction between the ball and the surface . The free-body diagrams of the balls in each vessel are
as follows.
At base, reaction force on buoyant force will act in downward direction.
The forces acting at the base of each tank are
FA W f B W mg
FB W f B W mg
FC W f B N W mg
Thus, FA FB FC
Key :1
69. A stone of relative density K is released from rest on the surface of a lake. If viscous effects are ignored, the
stone sinks in water with an acceleration of
1 1
1) g 1 K 2) g 1 K 3) g 1 4) g 1
K K
Sol : The net force acting on the stone in a downward direction should be equal to F V g V g , where m is
the mass of the stone, the force acting downwards would be equal to V g due to its weight and the force
acting upwards would be equal to V g duet to the buoyant force. Hence, we get
F V g V g V g 1
1
mg 1 mg 1
K
1
Thus, a g 1
K
Key :3
70. A tank filled with water has two taps to exhaust and pour. A hollow spherical ball is half submerged in water.
Through one tap, water is taken out and through another tap, a liquid of density double the density of water is
poured in tank such that volume of liquid in tank remains constant. Sphere will
1) go down 2) go up 3) maintain same height 4) sink to bottom
W
Sol : W= Upthrust Vi lg or Vi
l g
If density of liquid l is increased, immersed volume Vi will decrease or the ball will go up
Key :2
71. An ornament weighing 36g in air weighs only 34g in water. Assuming that some copper is mixed with goad to
prepare the ornament, find the amount of copper in it. Specific gravity of gold is 19.3 and that of copper is 8.9
1) 2.2 g 2) 4.4 g 3) 1.1 g 4) 3.6 g
Sol : Given that mreal 36 g , mapp 34 g
Density of gold Au 19.3 g / cc
Density of copper Cu 8.9 g / cc
We know that loss of weight = weight of displaced water 36 34 2g Buoyant force =B
Here, mreal mAw mCa 36 g -------(i)
Let v be the volume of the ornament tin centimetres. Then B v w g 2 g
m m
Au Cu w g 2 g
Au Cu
mAu Cu mCu Au 2 Acc Cu
8.9 mAu 19.3mCu 2 19.3 8.9 343.54 -------(ii)
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get 8.9mAu 19.3mCu 343.54
8.9 mAu mCu 10.4mCu 343.54
8.9 36 10.4mCu 343.54
mCu 2.225 g
So the amount of copper in the ornament is 2.2g
Key :1
72. A Solid floats in a liquid of different material. Carry out an analysis to see whether the level of liquid in the
container will rise or fall when the Solid melts
Sol : Let M = Mass of the floating Solid
1 density of liquid formed by melting of the Solid
2 density of the liquid in which the Solid is floating
M
The mass of liquid displaced by the Solid is M. Hence, the volume of liquid displaced is
2
M
When the Solid melts, the volume occupied by it is
1
Hence, the level of liquid in container will rise or fall according as
M M
or i.e., 1 or 2
1 2
There will be no change in the level, if 1 2 . In case of ice floating in water 1 2 and hence, the level of
water remains unchanged when ice melts.
73. A Solid ball of density half that of water falls freely under gravity from a height of 19.6m and then enters
water. Upto what depth will the ball go. How much time will it take to come again to the water surface.
Neglect air resistance and viscosity effects in water. g 9.8 m / s 2
Sol : v 2 gh 2 9.8 19.6 19.6m / s
Let be the density of ball and 2 the density of water. Net retardation inside the water,
upthrust weight V 2 g V g
a (V= volume of ball)
mass V g
g 9.8 m / s 2
Hence, the ball will go upto the same depth 19.6m below the water surface. Further, time taken by the ball to
v 19.6
come back to water surface is, t 2 2 4s
a 9.8
74. A ball is made of a material of density , where oil water with oil and water representing the densities
of oil and water, respectively. The oil and water are immiscible. If the above ball is in equilibrium in a
mixture of this oil and water, which of the following pictures represents its equilibrium positon?
Sol : oil water
Oil is the least dense of them, so it will settle at the top with water at the base. Now the ball is denser than oil
but less denser than water. So it will sink in oil but not in water. It will stay at the oil-water interface
Key :3
75. A block of mass 1kg and density 0.8 g / cm3 is held stationary with the help of a string as shown in figure. The
tank is accelerating vertically upwards with an acceleration a 0.1 m / s 2 . Find.
a) the tension in the string, b) if the string is now cut find the acceleration of block.
(Take g 10m / s 2 and density of water 103 kg / m3 )
Sol : a) Free body diagram of the block is shown in above figure
mass of block
F= upthrust force V m g a w g a
density of block
1
1000 10 1 13.75 N
800
Equation of motion of the block is , F T W ma
13.75 T 10 11 T 2.75 N
F W 13.75 10
b) When the string is cut T 0 a 3.75 m / s 2
m 1
76. A beaker containing water is kept on a spring scale. The mass of water and beaker is 5kg. A block of mass
2kg and specific gravity 10 is suspended by means of thread from a spring balance as shown. The readings of
scales S1 and S2 are respectively (Take g 10ms 2 )
1) 52 N and 20 N 2) 50 N and 18 N 3) 52 N and 18 N 4) 52 N and 22 N
2
Sol : Upthrust 1 10 2 N
10
Reading of S1 will increase by 2N while that of S2 will decrease by 2N
Key :3
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT-1
DAY – 24 (DT 07-05-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
CHAPTER: THERMAL PROPERTIES OF MATTER
================================================================================================================================
1. The temperature of the sun is measured with
(1)Platinum thermometer
(2) Gas thermometer
(3) Pyrometer
(4) Vapour pressure thermometer
Sol : Pyrometer can measure temperature from 800°C to 6000°C. Hence temperature of sun is measured with
pyrometer.
Key : 3
2. Absolute temperature can be calculated by
(1) Mean square velocity (2)Motion of the molecule
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of the above
2
Sol : v T
Key :1
3. Thermoelectric thermometer is based on
(1)Photoelectric effect (2) Seeback effect
(3) Compton effect (4) Joule effect
Sol : Thermoelectric thermometer is based on Seeback Effect.
Key :2
4. The study of physical phenomenon at low temperatures (below liquid nitrogen temperature) is called
(1) Refrigeration (2) Radiation
(3) Cryogenics (4) Pyrometry
Sol : Production and measurement of temperature close to 0K is done in cryogenics
Key : 3
5. The absolute zero is the temperature at which
(1) Water freezes
(2) All substances exist in solid state
(3) Molecular motion ceases
(4) None of the above
Sol : At absolute zero (i.e. 0 K) vrms becomes zero.
Key :3
6. Absolute scale of temperature is reproduced in the laboratory by making use of a
(1) Radiation pyrometer
(2) Platinum resistance thermometer
(3) Constant volume helium gas thermometer
(4) Constant pressure ideal gas thermometer
Sol :3
Key : Constant volume helium gas thermometer
7. On which of the following scales of temperature, the temperature is never negative
(1) Celsius (2) Fahrenheit
(3) Reaumur (4) Kelvin
Sol : Zero kelvin 273 C (absolute temperature). As no matter can attain this temperature, hence temperature
can never be negative on Kelvin scale.
Key :4
8. One quality of a thermometer is that its heat capacity should be small. If P is a mercury thermometer, Q is
a resistance thermometer and R thermocouple type then
(1) P is best, R worst (2) R is best, P worst
(3) R is best, Q worst (4) P is best, Q worst
Sol : Thermoelectric thermometer is used for finding rapidly varying temperature.
Key :3
9. The temperature of a body on Kelvin scale is found to be x K. When it is measured by Fahrenheit
thermometer, it is found to be x°F, then the value of x is
(1) 40 (2) 313
(3) 574.25 (4) 301.25
F 32 K 273 x 32 x 273
Sol : x 574 .25
9 5 9 5
Key : 3
10. At what temperature the centigrade (Celsius) and Fahrenheit, readings are the same
(1) – 40° (2) + 40°
(3) 36.6° (4) – 37°
C F 32 t t 32
Sol : t 40
5 9 5 9
Key : 1
11. Standardisation of thermometers is obtained with
(1) Jolly’s thermometer
(2) Platinum resistance thermometer
(3) Thermocouple thermometer
(4) Gas thermometer
Sol : Standardisation of thermometers is done with gas thermometer
Key : 4
12. The gas thermometers are more sensitive than liquid thermometers because
(1) Gases expand more than liquids
(2) Gases are easily obtained
(3) Gases are much lighter
(4) Gases do not easily change their states
Sol : For gases is more.
Key : 1
13. Mercury boils at 367°C. However, mercury thermometers are made such that they can measure
temperature up to 500°C. This is done by
(1) Maintaining vacuum above mercury column in the stem of the thermometer
(2) Filling nitrogen gas at high pressure above the mercury column
(3) Filling nitrogen gas at low pressure above the mercury level
(4) Filling oxygen gas at high pressure above the mercury column
Sol : By filling nitrogen gas at high pressure, the boiling point of mercury is increased which extend the range
upto 500°C.
Key : 2
14. Of the following thermometers, the one which can be used for measuring a rapidly changing temperature
is a
(1) Thermocouple thermometer
(2) Gas thermometer
(3) Maximum resistance thermometer
(4) Vapour pressure thermometer
Sol : Rapidly changing temperature is measured by thermocouple thermometers.
Key :1
15. A Celsius thermometer and a Fahrenheit thermometer are put in a hot bath. The reading on Fahrenheit
thermometer is just 3 times the reading on Celsius thermometer. The temperature of the hot bath is
1) 26.67 0 C 2) 36.67 0 C 3) 46.67 0 C 4) 56.67 0 C
F 32 C 0
and F 2C
Sol : 180 100
Key :1
16. Oxygen boils at 1830 C .This temperature is approximately
1) 2150 F 2) 297 0 F 3) 329 0 F 4) 3610 F
F 32 C 0
Sol : 180 100
Key :2
17. A mercury thermometer is transferred from melting ice to a hot liquid. The mercury rises to 9/10 of the
distance between the two fixed points. Find the temperature of the liquid in Fahrenheit scale
1) 194 0 F 2) 162 0 F 3) 112 0 F 4) 1130 F
F 32 9
Sol : 180 10
Key :1
18. A Centigrade and a Fahrenheit thermometer are dipped in boiling water. The water temperature is lowered
until the Fahrenheit thermometer registers140 0 . What is the fall in temperature as registered by the
centigrade thermometer
1) 30 0 2) 40 0 3) 60 0 4) 80 0
F 32 C 0
Sol :
180 100
Key :2
19. The temperature coefficient of resistance of wire is12.5 10 4 / C 0 . At 300 K the resistance of the wire is 1
ohm. The temperature at which resistance will be 2 ohm is
1) 1154 K 2)1100 K 3) 1400 K 4)1127 K
R2 R1
Sol :
R1t2 R2t1
Key :4
20. The resistance of a certain platinum resistance thermometer if found to be 2.56 at 0 0 C and 3.56 at
100 0 C . When the thermometer is immersed in a given liquid, its resistance is observed to be 5.06 . The
temperature of the liquid
1) 45 0 C 2) 2500 C 3) 2250 C 4) 120 0 C
R R0
Sol : t t 100
R100 R0
Key :2
21. The pressure of a gas filled in the bulb of a constant volume gas thermometer at 0 0 C and 100 0 C are 28.6
cm and 36.6 cm of mercury respectively. The temperature of bulb at which pressure will be 35.0cm of
mercury will be
1) 80 0 C 2) 70 0 C 3) 550 C 4) 40 0 C
P P
Sol : t t 0 100
P100 P0
Key :1
22. The higher and lower fixed points on a thermometer are separated by 150mm. When the length of the
mercury thread above the lower temperature is 30mm, the temperature reading would be
1) 20 0 C 2) 300 C 3) 10 0 C 4) 0 0 C
P P0 30
Sol : t t 100 100 200 C
P100 P0 150
Key : 1
23. On a hypothetical scale A the ice point is 42 0 and the steam points is 182 0 for another scale B. The ice
point is 10 0 and steam point in 90 0 . If B reads 60 0 . The reading of A is.
1) 160 0 2) 140 0 3) 120 0 4) 110 0
Re ading LFP
Sol : = constant
UFP LFP
Key : 2
24. Which of the curves in figure represents the relation between Celsius and Fahrenheit temperatures
°C
(1) 1
(2) 2 2 3
(3) 3 °F
(4) 4 4 1
C F 32 5 20
Sol : C F . Hence graph between °C and °F will be a straight line with positive slope and
5 9 9. 3
negative intercept.
Key : 1
25. The graph between two temperature scale A and B is shown in figure. Between upper fixed point and
lower fixed point there are 150equal division on scale A and 100 on scale B. The relationship for
conversion between the two scales is give by
t A 180 t B t A 30 t B
1) 2)
100 150 150 100
tB 180 t A tB 40 t A
3) 4)
150 100 100 180
Sol :
From the graph,
For the scale A,
Lower fixed point = 300 A
Upper fixed point = 1800 A
For the scale B,
Lower fixed point = 00 B
Upper fixed point =1000
Key : 2
26. The ideal gas thermometers A and B use oxygen and hydrogen respectively. The following observations
are made:
What is the absolute temperature of normal melting point of Sulphur as read by thermometers A and B
1) 392.69K, 391.98 K
2) 450.56 K, 291.87 K
3) 292.76 K, 258.58 K
4) 310.65 K, 250.58 K
Sol :
Key : 1
27. A brass disc fits into hole in an iron plate. To remove the disc.
1) the system must be cooled
2) the system must be heated
3) the plate may be heated (or) cooled
4) the disc must be heated
Sol : The system must be cooled because brass iron
Key : 1
0
28. A semicircular metal ring subtends an angle of 180 C at the centre of the circle. When it is heated, this
angle
1) remains constant 2) increases slightly
0
3) decreases slightly 4) become 360 C
Sol : Remains constant. Because expansion does not takes place at centre. i.e, there is no material
Key : 1
0
29. The length of each steel rail is 10m in winter. The coefficient of liner expansion of steel is 0.000012/ C
0
and the temperature increases by 15 C in summer. The gap to be left between the rails
1)0.0018m 2) 0.0012m
3) 0.0022m 4)0.05m
Sol : l2 l1 l1 t 2 t1
Key : 2
30. Two metal rods of lengths L1 and L2 coefficients of linear expansion 1 and 2 respectively are welded
0
together to make a composite rod of length L1 L2 at 0 C .Find the effective coefficient of linear
expansion of the composite rod
L 2 L2 22 L121 L22 2
1) 1 12 2)
L1 L22 L12 L22
L11 L2 2 L L
3) 4) 1 1 2 2
L1 L2 L1 L2
Sol : Given the length of rods are L1 and L2 coefficients of linear expansions are 1 and 2 As we know that
L L1 L2 t L2 2 L2 t
L1 L2 t 1 L1t 2 L2 t
L1 L2 1 L1 1 L2
1 L1 2 L2
L1 L2
Key : 3
31. A cylindrical metal rod of length L0 is shaped into a ring with a small gap as shown. On heating the system
(1) x decreases, r and d increase
(2) x and r increase, d decreases d
(3) x, r and d all increase
(4) Data insufficient to arrive at a conclusion
Sol : On heating the system; x, r, d all increases, since the expansion of isotropic solids is similar to true photographic
enlargement.
Key : 3
32. An iron rod of length 50 cm is joined at an end to an aluminium rod of length 100 cm. The coefficients of
6 0 6 0
linear expansion of iron and aluminium are 12 10 / C and 24 10 / C respectively. The average
coefficient of composite system is
6 0 6 0
1) 36 10 / C 2) 12 10 / C
6 0 6 0
3) 20 10 / C 4) 48 10 / C
l l 50 12 100 24
Sol : 1 1 2 2 20
l1 l2 50 100
Key : 3
33. Two holes of unequal diameters d1 and d2 (d1 d 2 ) are cut in a metal sheet. If the sheet is heated
(1) Both d1 and d2 will decrease d2
(2) Both d1 and d2 will increase
(3) d1 will increase, d2 will decrease d1
(4) d1 will decrease, d2 will increase
Sol : If the sheet is heated then both d1 and d2 will increase since the thermal expansion of isotropic solid is
similar to true photographic enlargement.
Key : 2
34. An anisotropic material has coefficients of linear thermal expansion 1 , 2 and 3 along x, y and z-axis
respectively. Coefficient of cubical expansion of this material will be equal to:-
Sol : 1 2 3
Key : 2
35. A thin brass sheet at100C and a thin steel sheet at 200C have the same surface area. The common
temperature at which both would have the same area is (coefficient of linear expansion for brass and
steel are 19×10-6/0C and 11×10-6/0C respectively)
1) -3.750C 2) -2.750C 3) +2.750C 4) +3.750C
t 2t2
t 1 1
Sol :
1 2 Here 2
1t1 2t2
t
1 2
Key : 1
36. The coefficient of linear expansion of crystal in one direction is 1 and that in every direction
perpendicular to it is 2 . The coefficient of cubical expansion is
1) 1 2 2) 21 2
3) 1 22 4) 21 22
Sol :
Key : 3
37. When a copper ball is heated, the largest percentage increase will occur in its
1) Diameter 2) Area
3) Volume 4) Density
Sol :
Key : 3
38. When a bimetallic strip is heated, it
1) Does not bend at all
2) Gets twisted in the form of an helix
3) Bend in the form of an arc with the more expandable metal outside
4) Bend in the form of an arc with the more expandable metal inside
Sol :
Key : 2
39. The co-efficient of thermal expansion of a rod is temperature dependent and is given by the formula
0 0
aT , where a is a positive constant and T in C . If the length of the rod is l at temperature 0 C , then
the temperature at which the length will be 2l is:
ln 2 ln 4 1 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
Sol :
Key : 4
40. The lengths of two metallic rods at temperatures are LA and LB and their linear coefficient of expansion
are A and B respectively. If the difference in their lengths is to remain constant at any temperature
then
1) LA / LB A / B 2) LA / LB B / A
3) A B 4) A B 1
Sol :
Key : 2
41. A pendulum clock (fitted with a small heavy bob that is connected with a metal rod) is 5 seconds fast each
day at a temperature of 150C and 10 seconds slow at a temperature of 30oC, The temperature at which it is
designed to give correct time, is
1) 180C 2) 200C 3) 240C 4) 250C
KEY – 2
1
HINT - Fractional loss of time per second = T
2
1
Therefore T0 15 24hrs 5
2
1
and 30 T0 24hrs 10
2
on solving T0 200 C
42. The coefficient of linear expansion of an inhomogeneous rod changes linearly from 1 to 2 from one end
to the other end of the rod. The effective coefficient of linear expansion of the rod is
2
1) 1 2 2) 1 3) 1 2 4) 1 2
2
KEY – 2
2 1 . x
HINT - x L
1
L
L x . dx. L 2
1 .
0
2
1 2
eff
2
43. Two uniform brass rods A and B of length l and 2l and radii 2r and r respectively are heated to the same
temperature .The ratio of the increases in the volume of A to that of B is
1) 1:1 2) 1:2 3) 2:1 4) 1:4
Sol : Let the original temperature be 00C
2
Volume of A= l 2 r V1 ;V1' V1 1 T
V 2
'
V1
T V2' V2 V2
V1
2
V1 l 2r 2
2
V2 2lr 1
Key : 2
0
44. A steel rod of diameter 1cm is clamped firmly at each end when its temperature is 25 C so that it cannot
0
contract on cooling .The tension in the rod at 0 C is approximately
( 105 / 0 C , Y 2 1011 Nm2 )
1) 4000 N 2) 7000 N
3) 7400 N 4) 4700 N
l
Sol : Strain =
l
Force or tension T=stress x area = YA
Y d 2 d2
A
4 4
2 1011 105 104 25
T
4
=3926N=4000N
Key : 1
0
45. A rod of length 20 cm is made of metal. It expands by 0.075 cm when its temperature is raised from 0 C
0
to 100 C . Another rod of a different metal B having the same length expands by 0.045 cm for the same
change in temperature. A third rod of the same length is composed of two parts, one of metal A and the
other of metal B. This rod expands by 0.060 cm for the same change in temperature. The portion made of
metal A has the length
1) 20cm 2) 10cm 3) 15cm 4) 18 cm
0.075 0.045
Sol : Here, 0.060. This is possible when each part is 10cm long
2
Key : 2
46. Two rods of different materials having coefficients of linear expansion 1 and 2 and Young’s Module Y1
and Y2 respectively are fixed between two rigid massive walls. The rods are heated such that they undergo
the same increase in temperature. There is no bending of rods. If 1 : 2 2 : 3 , then the thermal stress
developed in two rods are equal provided Y1 : Y2 is equal to
1) 2:3 2) 4:9 3) 1:1 4) 3:2
Sol : Thermal stress y t
y constant ; y1 2
y2 1
Key : 4
0 0
47. A brass scale gives correct length at 0 C . If the temperature be 25 C and the length read by the scale is
10 cm. Then the actual length will be
1) more than 10 cm 2) less than 10 cm
3) equal to 10 cm 4) volume
Sol : l2 l1 l1 b t
l2 10 10 19 10 6 25 0
10 475 105
10 0.0475 10.0475m
Key : 1
48. A steel tape is calibrated at 20°C. On a cold day when the temperature is –15°C, percentage error in the
tape will be [ steel 1.2 10 –5 C –1 ]
1) –0.035% 2) –0.042%
3) 0.012% 4) –0.018%
L
Sol : % error 100 100
L
1.2 105 35 100 42 10 3
0.042%
Key : 2
0
49. A steel tape measures the length of a copper rod as 90.0 cm when both are at10 C , the calibration
0
temperature, for the tape. What would the tape read for the length of the rod when both are at 30 C ?
( steel 1.2105 / 0 C andCu 1.7105 / 0 C )
1) 89.00 cm 2) 90.21 cm
3) 89.80 cm 4) 90.01 cm
0
Sol : At 30 C , the copper rod will be of length Lo (1 c ) while adjacent centimetre marks in the steel tape
will be separated by a distance of (1cm)(1+ s ), therefore, the number of centimetres read on the tape
will be
L0 (1 c ) 90[1 1.7 105 ]20
90.01cm
(1cm)(1 s ) 1[1 1.2 105 ]20
Key : 4
0
50. A uniform metal rod is used as a bar pendulum. If the room temperature raises by 10 C and the
coefficient of linear expansion of the metal of the rod is 2 106 per 0C , then the period of the pendulum
will have percentage increase of
3 3
1) 2 10 2) 110
3 3
3) 2 10 4) 110
L
T 2
Sol : We know that, g
1/2
2 1
T L
2 Lg
T L 1 2 10 6 10
0r 10 5
T 2L 2 2
T
100 1105 100 103%
T
Key : 4
0
51. A brass scale is graduated at 10 C what is the true length of a zinc rod which measures 60.00cm on this
0
scale at 30 C ? brass 18 106 0 C 1 zinc 23 106 0 C 1
1) 60.2 cm 2) 60.38 cm
3) 60.02 cm 4) 60.01 cm
Sol : l l0 1 0 s T
60 1 23 18 106 30
=60.01cm
Key : 4
52. The temperature compensated pendulum is designed to compensate for the change in length due to
temperature rise. Figure shown one such pendulum. It consists of an isosceles triangular frame as shown
in the figure. The pendulum is supported at mid-point of side AB, and it remains horizontal. Determine
2
the ratio l1 / l2 . So that the length of the pendulum remains same at all temperatures.
l1 , 1
A1 A D B B1
l2 , 2 l2 , 2
C
1 2 2 4 2
1) 2) 1 3) 4)
2 2 2 1 1
Sol : Before rise in temperature
l12
h2 l22
4
After rise in temperature
2 2 2 l12 2
h1 l2 1 2 1 2
4
Given h 2 h12
l12
l22 2 2 .2 2
4
2
l 4
1 2
l2 1
Key : 4
53. A second’s pendulum clock has a steel wire. The clock shows correct time at 25°C. How much time does
the clock lose or gain, in one week, when the temperature is increased to 35°C? steel 1.2 10 –5 / C
1) 321.5 s 2) 3.828 s
3) 82.35 s 4) 36.28 s
1 1
Sol : T t 1.2105 107 243600
2 2
36.28sec
Key : 4
54. An iron tyre is to be fitted on a wooden wheel 1.0 m in diameter. The diameter of the tyre is 6mm smaller
than that of the wheel . The tyre should be heated by temperature of (co efficient of volume expansion of
iron is 3.6 105 / 0 C )
1) 1670 C 2) 3340 C
0 0
3) 503 C 4) 1000 C
d 3.6 10 5
Sol : ;
d t 3 3
5 0
1.2 10 / C
6 10 3
t = 5030 C
0.994 1.2 10 5
Key : 3
55. Two large holes are cut in a metal sheet. If this is heated, distance AB and BC, (as shown)
1) Both will increase
2) Both will decrease
3) AB increase, BC decreases
4) AB decreases, BC increases
Sol : On heating the expansion will take place hence both the distances will increase
Key : 1
56 Two rods of different materials and identical cross sectional area are joined face to face at one end and
their free ends are fixed to the rigid walls. If the temperature of the surroundings is increased by 300 C, the
magnitude of the displacement of the joint of the rod is (length of rod l1 l2 1 unit, ratio of their young’
moduli, Y1 / Y2 2, coefficients of linear expansion are 1and 2
1) 5( 2 1 ) 2) 10(1 2 )
3) 10( 2 21 ) 4) 5(21 2 )
Sol :
Key : 3
57. A wire of length L0 is supplied heat to raise its temperature by T. if is the coefficient of volume
expansion of the wire and Y is Young’s modulus of the wire then the energy density stored in the wire is
1 1
1) 2T 2Y 2) 2T 2Y 3
2 3
2 2
1 T 1
3) 4) 2T 2Y
18 Y 18
Sol :
Key : 4
58. A Steel wire AB length 100cm is fixed rigidly at points A and B in an aluminum frame as shown in the
figure. If the temperature of the system increases through 1000 C, then the excess stress produced in the
steel wire relative to the aluminum? Al 22 X 106 / 0 Cand steel 11X 106 / 0 C
Young’s modulus of steel is 2 X 1011 Nm-2
1) 2.2 X 108 Pa 2) 22 X 108 Pa
3) 0.2 X 108 Pa 4) 220 X 108 Pa
Sol :
Key : 1
59. Two bars are unstressed and have lengths of 25cm and 30cm at 200 C as shown in figure. Bar (1) is of
aluminum and bar (2) is of steel. The cross sectional area bars are 20cm2 for aluminum and 10cm2 for
N
steel. Assuming that the top and bottom supports are rigid, stress in Al steel bars in when the
mm 2
temperature is 700 C. (Nearly)
(Ya 0.70 X 105 N / mm2 .Ys 2.1X 105 N / mm2 . a 24 X 106 / 0 Cand s 12 X 106 / 0 C )
1) 75,150 2) 25,50
3) 50,100 4) 100,200
Sol :
Key : 1
60. A uniform solid brass sphere is rotating with angular speed 0 about a diameter. If its temperature is now
increased by 1000C, what will be its new angular speed?
(given B 2.0 105 / 0 C )
1) 1.1 0 2) 1.01 0 3) 0.996 0 4) 0.824 0
Sol : Let M be the mass of the sphere and R its radius before increasing the temperature. Then from
conservation of angular momentum,
I
I I 00 or 0 0
I
2
MR 20 0
5
2
MR 2 (1 2 ) 1 2
5
0
0.9960
1 2(2.0 10 5 )100
Key :2
61. On heating a liquid of coefficient of cubical expansion in a container having coefficient of linear
expansion / 3, the level of liquid in the container will
(1) Rise
(2) Fall
(3) Will remain almost stationary
(4) It is difficult to say
Sol : As coefficient of cubical expansion of liquid equals coefficient of cubical expansion of vessel, the level
of liquid will not change on heating.
Key : 3
62. 5 litre of benzene weighs
(1) More in summer than in winter
(2) More in winter than in summer
(3) Equal in winter and summer
(4) None of the above
Sol : Similar to previous question, benzene contracts in winter. So 5 litre of benzene will weigh more in winter
than in summer.
Key : 2
63. At some temperature T, a bronze pin is a little large to fit into a hole drilled in a steel block. The change in
temperature required for an exact fit is minimum when
(1) Only the block is heated
(2) Both block and pin are heated together
(3) Both block and pin are cooled together
(4) Only the pin is cooled
Sol : Since coefficient of expansion of steel is greater than that of bronze. Hence with small increase in it's
temperature the hole expand sufficiently.
Key : 1
64. If the length of a cylinder on heating increases by 2%, the area of its base will increase by
(1) 0.5% (2) 2%
(3) 1% (4) 4%
A L A
Sol : A L2 2 2 2 4% .
A L A
Key : 4
65. If a cylinder of diameter 1.0 cm at 30°C is to be solid into a hole of diameter 0.9997 cm in a steel plate at
the same temperature, then minimum required rise in the temperature of the plate is : (Coefficient of linear
expansion of steel 12 10 6 / C )
(1) 25°C (2) 35°C
(3) 45°C (4) 55°C
L (1 0 . 9997 )
Sol : 25 C
L0 0 .9997 12 10 6
Key : 1
66. Two rods, one of aluminum and the other made of steel, having initial length l1 and l2 are connected
together to form a single rod of length l1 l2 . The coefficients of linear expansion for aluminum and steel
are a and s respectively. If the length of each rod increases by the same amount when their temperature
l1
are raised by to C , then find the ratio
(l1 l2 )
s a
(1) (2)
a s
s a
(3) (4)
( a s ) ( a s )
Sol : Given l1 l2 or l1 a t l2 s t
l l1 s
1 s or .
l2 a l1 l2 a s
Key : 3
67. A body suspended from a spring balance is immersed in liquid. If the coefficient of cubical expansion of
liquid is thrice that of the suspended body, then on heating the liquid which one of the following would
occur?
1) the reading on the spring balance decreases
2) the reading on the spring balance increases
3) the reading on the spring balance remains the same
4) the water flows out of the container
Sol : Mass of the body X g remains the same. But volume increases and density decreases proportionately.
But for weight of liquid displaced, volume of the body increases but density of the liquid decreases at
double the rate. Therefore, the upward thrust will be less and the apparent weight is more
Key : 1
68. The absolute coefficient of expansion of a liquid is 7 times that the volume coefficient of expansion of
the vessel. Then, the ratio of absolute and apparent expansion of the liquid is
1) 1/7 2) 7/6 3) 6/7 4) none of these
Sol :
r 7 s
hence, a
r s 7 s s 6 s real exp ansion V r r 7 s 7
apparent exp ansion V 6 s 6
Key : 2
0 0
69. The loss in weight of a solid when immersed in a liquid at 0 C is W and at t C is W. If cubical
0
coefficient of expansion of the solid and the liquid be S and L respectively, then W is equal to
1) W0[1 ( S L ) t] 2) W0[1 ( S L ) t]
3) W0 [( S L ) t] 4) W0 t/ ( S L )
0
U V0 g W0 and U1 V1 1L g W
Sol : 0 L
W Vt Lt 1 S
W0 V0 L0 1 L
(1 S )(1 L )1 1 S L
W W0[1 ( S L ) ] W0[1 ( S L ) t]
Key :1
79. The apparent coefficient of expansion of a liquid when heated in a brass vessel is X and when heated in a
tin vessel is Y. If is the coefficient of linear expansion for brass, the coefficient of linear expansion of
tin is
X Y 3 X 3 Y
1) 2)
3 3
3)
X Y 2
4)
X Y 2
3 2
Sol : R a vessel
R X 3brass Y 3tin
X Y 3
tin
3
Key :2
71. The coefficient of real expansion R of a liquid is 5 times the coefficient of linear expansion of the
material of the container in which the liquid is present. The ratio of the coefficient of apparent expansion
and real expansion of the liquid is
1) 5 : 2 2) 1 : 5 3) 2 : 5 4) 5 : 1
Sol : Given R 5 g
R a 3 g
3
R a R
5
2 2
R a a
5 R 5
Key : 3
72. A glass vessel of volume V0 is completely filled with a liquid and its temperature is raised by T .What
volume of liquid will overflow?( Co efficient of linear expansion of glass= g and coefficient of volume
expansion of the liquid = l )
1) 2V0 AT l ` 3 g 2) V0 T l 3 g
V0 T
3) V0 T l g
2
4) l 3 g
Sol : Volume of the liquid overflow
= increase in the volume of the liquid
– Increase in the volume of the container
= V0 (1 l T V0 ) V0 1 g T V0
V0 T l g V0 T l 3 g
Key : 2
73. A sphere of diameter 7.0 cm and mass 266.5g floats in a liquid bath. As the temperature rises, the sphere
begins to sink at a temperature of 350 C. If the density of the liquid is 1.527 g cm 3 at 0 0 C, the coefficient
of cubical expansion of the liquid (Neglect the expansion of the sphere) in units of 0 C 1 is:
1) 6.28 10 4 2) 5.28 10 4
3) 7.28 10 4 4) 8.28 10 4
Sol : It is given that the expansion of the sphere is negligible as compared to the expansion of the liquid. At 0 0 C , the
density of the liquid equals the density of the sphere. This is the reason that the sphere floats on the liquid bath.
Thus,
266.5kg
1.484 g cm3
4
(3.5)3
3
We have
t V0 1
0 V 1
0
or t
1
0 35 1.527 1.484
Thus,
35 35 1.484 35
= 8.28 104 0C 1
Key : 3
74. A horizontal tube, open at both ends, contain a column of liquid. The length of this liquid column does not
change with temperature. If is coefficient of volume expansion of the liquid and is coefficient of
linear expansion of the tube. Then
1) 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
KEY – 2
HINT - V vessel V liquid
lA2 Al l co ns tan t
2
75. A liquid having coefficient of cubical expansion is filled in the container having coefficient of linear
expansion . If on heating the liquid overflows, then which of the following relations is correct?
1) 2 2) 3
3) 3 4) 2 3
Sol : Coefficient of cubical expansion of the vessel is 3 . When 3 , increase in volume of the liquid is
more than that of the vessel and liquid overflows. Hence, the correct answer is option (3).
Key :3
76. At 0°C, the densities of a cork and a liquid in which the cork floats are d1 and d2 respectively. The coeffi-
cients of expansion for the material of the cork and the liquid are and 100 respectively. If the cork sinks
when temperature of liquid is t°C, then ratio (d2/d1) is
1 100 t 1 t
1) 2)
1 t 1 100 t
100 t 1 t
3) 4)
1 t 100 t
d1
d c2
Sol : 1 t
d2
d l2
1 100 t
d 2 1 100t
d1 1 t
Key : 1
77. A piece of metal weights 64 g in air. When it is immersed in a liquid of specific gravity 1.25 at 27oC, it
weight 20 g. When the temperature is raised to 42oC, the metal piece weights 21g. If the specific gravity
of the liquid at 42oC is 1.2 the linear expansion of the metal is
1) 10 4 / o C 2) 4 10 4 / o C
3) 2 10 4 / o C 4) 40 10 4 / o C
Sol :
Change in weight = Upthrust (F)
53.75 0.95
1 45 45
52.8 52.8
0.000399 4 10 4 / o C
Key : 2
2
78. A non-conducting body floats in a liquid at 200 C with if its volume immersed in the liquid .When
3
4
liquid temperature is increased to 1200 C , of body’s volume is immersed in the liquid, then the
5
coefficient of real expansion of the liquid is (neglecting the expansion of container of the liquid)
1) 20 10 4 /oC 2) 2 10 4 /oC
3) 2 10 5 /oC 4) 2 10 6 /oC
f
Sol : 2 1 l s t
f1
4
5 2 1
2 1 l 0 t l 20 10 4 / 0 C
10 100
3
Key : 2
3
79. A price of wood of density 0.88gm cm3 floats in benzene of density 0.9gm cm at 00 C . The temperature
at which the piece of wood sinks in benzene is
wood 8.4105 0C1 Benzene 1.2 103 0C 1
1) 20.40 C 2) 19.60 C 3) 300 C 4) 300 C
Sol : d 2 d1 1 gt
Key : 1
1 0
80. If coefficient at real expansion of liquid is / C the temperature at which its density is 1% less than
5500
density at 00C is
1) 55.50C 2) 1000C
3)990C 4)10C
1 0
Vr / C
5500
Sol :
99d0 d0 100
1 rt
100 1 r t 99
1 t 1
rt
99 500 99
5500 500
t 55.50 C
99 9
Key : 1
81. If (apparent) at a liquid in vessels is 76% of (real) of that liquid, the coefficient of linear expansion of
vessel is
1) 8% of (real) 2) 16% of (real)
3) 24% of (real) 4) 25.3% of (real)
76 r 8
Sol : r 3 r
100 100
8% of (real)
Key : 1
82. Density of substance at 0 0 C is 10g/cc and at 100 0 C , its density is 9.7 g/c.c. The coefficient of liner
expansion of the substance is
1) 10 4 2) 3 10 4 3) 19.7 103 4) 10 3
Sol :
Key : 1
83. The coefficient of volume expansion of glycerin is 46 105 0C 1 . What is the fractional change in its
density when there is a 300 C rise in temperature?
1) 0.0436 2) 0.136 3) 0.0136 4) 0.0126
Sol :
Key : 3
84. A of liquid is 7/8 of R of liquid. g of vessel is
R R R R
1) 2) 3) 4)
8 12 24 36
Sol :
Key : 1
85. The fraction of the volume of a glass flask must be filled with mercury so that the volume of the empty
space may be the same at all temperature is ( glass 9 106 / 0C, Hg 18.9 105 / 0C )
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 7 4 5
Sol :
Key : 2
86. When a block of iron floats in mercury at 0 0 C , a fraction K1 of its volume is submerged, while at the
temperature 600 C ,a fraction K2 is seen to be submerged. If the coefficient of volume expansion of iron is
Fe and that of mercury is Hg , then the ratio K1 / K2 can be expressed as
1 60 Fe 1 60 Fe
1) 2)
1 60 Hg 1 60 Hg
1 60 Fe 1 60 Hg
3) 4)
1 60 Hg 1 60 Fe
Sol :
Key : 1
87. A metal ball immersed in alcohol weighs W1 at 0 0 C and W2 at 590 C . The coefficient of cubical
expansion of the metal is less than that of alcohol. Assuming that the density of metal is large compared to
that of alcohol, it can be shown that
1) W1 W2 2) W1 W2
3) W1 W2 4) W2 (W1 / 2)
Sol :
Key : 3
88. In a vertical U-tube containing a liquid, the two arms are maintained at different Temperature t1 and t2 .
The liquid columns in the two arms have heights l1 and l2 respectively. The coefficient of volume
expansion of the liquid is equal to
l1 l2 l1 l2
1) 2)
l2t1 l1t2 l1t1 l2t2
l1 l2 l l
3) 4) 1 2
l2t1 l1t2 l1t1 l2t2
Sol :
Key : 1
89. Coefficient of apparent expansions of a liquid in two different vessels are a and b, then the real coefficient
of expansions of liquid, if the ratio of volume expansion of vessel s is x:y
bx ay ay bx
1) 2)
x y x y
ay bx ay bx
3) 4)
x y x y
x x a R
Sol : a ;
b y y b R
Key : 1
90. At 0 0 C the densities of a cork and a liquid in which the cork floats are d1 and d 2 respectively. The
coefficient of expansion for the material of the cork and the liquid are g and 100g respectively. If the cork
d
sinks when the temperature of the liquid is ‘ t 0 C ’then the ratio 2 is
d1
1 100 t 1 t
1) 2)
1 t 1 100 t
100 t 1 t
3) 4)
1 t 100 t
d d 1 2 t
Sol : d f d1 1 t ; 2 i
d1 d i 1 1t
Key :1
91. A non-conducting body floats in a liquid at 20 0 C with 2/3 of its volume immersed in the liquid. When
liquid temperature is increased to 100 0 C , 3/4 of body volume is immersed in the liquid. Then the
coefficient of real expansion of the liquid is …(neglecting the expansion of container of the liquid)
1) 1.56 10 4 / 0 C 2) 15.6 10 4 / 0 C
3) 1.56 10 5 / 0 C 4) 15.6 10 5 / 0 C
V V
Sol : V1 2V / 3, V2 3V / 4, 2 1
V1t
Key :2
92. A vessel is half filled with a liquid at 0 0 C .When the vessel is heated to 100 0 C , the liquid occupies ¾
volume of the vessel. Coefficient of apparent expansion of the liquid is
1) 0.5 / 0 C 2) 0.05 / 0 C
0
3) 0.005 / C 4) 0.0005 / 0 C
3 V
V V V
Sol : rA 2 1 4 2 0.005 / 0 C
V1 t2 t1 V 100
2
Key :3
93. A vertical column 50 cm long at 50 0 C balances another column of same liquid 60 cm long at 100 0 C. The
coefficient of absolute expansion of the liquid is
1) 0.005 / 0 C 2) 0.0005 / 0 C
3) 0.002 / 0 C 4) 0.0002 / 0 C
Sol : Height of liquid column at 500 C = h1 =50cm
height of liquid column at 1000 C h2 60cm
t1 500 C , t2 1000 C
h d d0 1 t1
now, 1 2
h2 d1 1 t2 d0
50 1 50
60 1 100
1
0.005 / 0 C
200
94. The density of a gas at normal pressure and 27°C temperature is 24. Keeping the pressure constant, the
density at 127°C will be
(1) 6 (2) 12
(3) 18 (4) 24
Sol : At constant pressure T constant
1 T2 24 273 127 400
; 2 18
2 T1 2 273 27 300
Key : 3
95. The gas which obeys Boyle's law for maximum range of temperature is
(1) CO 2 (2) O 3
(3) H 2 (4) He
Sol : Helium is much nearer to the ideal behavior due to octet in its outer shell (due to monotonicity)
Key : 4
96. The temperature below which a gas should be cooled, before it can be liquefied by pressure only is termed
as
(1) The dew point (2) The freezing point
(3) The saturation point (4) The critical point
Sol : From Andrews curve
Key :4
97. When air is filled in the balloon, the pressure and volume both increases while temperature does not
change. Here Boyle's law is not obeyed because
(1) Mass of air is negligible
(2) Mass of air does not remain constant
(3) Air is not perfect gas
(4) Pressure inside the balloon is less than that of the atmospheric pressure
Sol : Boyle’s law is applicable only when the mass and temperature of ideal gas are constant.
Key :2
98. If pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessel is increased by 0.4% when heated by 1°C, the initial
temperature must be
(1) 250 K (2) 250°C
(3) 2500 K (4) 25°C
Sol : Closed vessel i.e., volume is constant
P1 T1 P T
T 250 K
P2 T2 0.4 T 1
P P
100
Key :1
99. If a Vander-Waal's gas expands freely, then final temperature is
(1) Less than the initial temperature
(2) Equal to the initial temperature
(3) More than the initial temperature
(4) Less or more than the initial temperature depending on the nature of the gas
Sol : In free expansion of Vander waal’s gas, its temperature decreases
Key :1
100. At NTP, sample of equal volume of chlorine and oxygen is taken. Now ratio of No. of molecules
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 32 : 27
(3) 2 : 1 (4) 16 : 14
Sol : According to Avogadro hypothesis
Key :1
101. The molecular weights of O2 and N2 are 32 and 28 respectively. At 15°C, the pressure of 1 gm O2 will be
the same as that of 1 gm N2 in the same bottle at the temperature
(1) – 21°C (2) 13°C
(3) 15°C (4) 56.4°C
R
Sol : For 1gm gas PV rT T
M
Since P and V are constant T M
TN 2 M N 2 TN 2 28
TN2 252 K 21o C
TO 2 M O2 273 15 32
Key : 1
102. Under which of the following conditions is the law PV = RT obeyed most closely by a real gas
(1) High pressure and high temperature
(2) Low pressure and low temperature
(3) Low pressure and high temperature
(4) High pressure and low temperature
Sol : At low pressure and high temperature real gases behaves like ideal gases
Key : 3
PV
103. The gas equation constant is true for a constant mass of an ideal gas undergoing
T
(1) Isothermal change (2) Adiabatic change
(3) Isobaric change (4) Any type of change
Sol : Conceptual
Key :4
104. That gas cannot be liquified
(1) Which obeys Vander Waal's equation
(2) Which obeys gas equation at every temperature and pressure
(3) The molecules of which are having potential energy
(4) Which is a inert gas
Sol : Ideal gases cannot be liquefied easily
Key :2
105. The volume of a gas at 21°C temperature and 768 mm pressure is 1 litre. If the density of the gas is 1.2
gm/litre at NTP, then its mass will be
(1) 4 gm (2) 4.21 gm
(3) 1.13 gm (4) 10 gm
PV P0 m0
Sol : We have
T d 0T0
PVd 0T0 760 103 1.2 103 273
m 1.13gm
TP0 76 294
Key : 3
106. We write the relation for Boyle's law in the form PV = C when the temperature remains constant. In this
relation, the magnitude of C depends upon
(1) The nature of the gas used in the experiment
(2) The magnitude of g in the laboratory
(3) The atmospheric pressure
(4) The quantity of the gas enclosed
Sol : PV RT CT C R, depends upon mass of gas.
Key : 4
107. A sample of an ideal gas occupies a volume V at a pressure P and absolute temperature T, the mass of each
molecule is m. The expression for the density of gas is (k = Boltzmann’s constant)
(1) mkT (2) P/kT
(3) P/kTV (4) Pm/kT
m Pm
Sol : PV kT P kT
kT
Key : 4
108. A vessel contains 1 mole of O 2 gas (molar mass 32) at a temperature T. The pressure of the gas is P. An
identical vessel containing one mole of He gas (molar mass 4) at temperature 2T has a pressure of
(1) P/8 (2) P
(3) 2P (4) 8P
Sol : PV RT P T
P2 2 T2 P 1 2T
He PHe 2 P
P1 1 T1 P 2 T
Key : 3
109. For ideal gas, which statement is not true
(1) It obeys Boyle's law
(2) It follows PV = RT
(3) Internal energy depends on temperature only
(4) It follows Vander-Waal's equation
Sol : Vander Wall’s equation followed by real gases.
Key : 4
110. A flask is filled with 13 gm of an ideal gas at 27C and its temperature is raised to 52C. The mass of the
gas that has to be released to maintain the temperature of the gas in the flask at 52C and the pressure
remaining the same is
(1) 2.5 g (2) 2.0 g
(3) 1.5 g (4) 1.0 g
Sol : PV mrT . Since P,V , r remains same
1 m T 13 273 52 325
Hence m 1 2 m2 12 gm
T m2 T1 m2 273 27 300
I.e., mass released 13gm 12 gm 1gm.
Key : 4
111. The equation of state corresponding to 8 g of O2 is
(1) PV = 8RT (2) PV = RT/4
(3) PV = RT (4) PV = RT/2
R 8
Sol : PV mrT m T T
M 32
RT
M O2 32 ; PV
4
Key : 2
112. Three containers of the same volume contain three different gases. The masses of the molecules are m 1 , m 2
and m 3 and the number of molecules in their respective containers are N 1 , N 2 and N 3 . The gas pressure in
the containers are P1 , P2 and P3 respectively. All the gases are now mixed and put in one of the containers.
The pressure P of mixture will be
P1 P2 P3
(1) P (P1 P2 P3 ) (2) P
3
(3) P P1 P2 P3 (4) P (P1 P2 P3 )
Sol : According to the Dalton’s law of particle pressures, the total pressure will be P1 P2 P3
Key : 3
113. A vessel is filled with an ideal gas at a pressure of 10 atmospheres and temperature 27C. Half of the mass
of the gas is removed from the vessel and temperature of the remaining gas is increased to 87C. Then the
pressure of the gas in the vessel will be
(1) 5 atm (2) 6 atm
(3) 7 atm (4) 8 atm
Sol : PV mrT P mT
P m T
1 1 1
P2 m2 T2
10
m
273 27 P 6atm
2
P2 m / 2 273 87
Key : 2
114. The value of critical temperature in terms of Vander Waal’s constant a and b is
8a a
(1) Tc (2) Tc
27 Rb 2 Rb
8 27 a
(3) Tc (4) Tc
27 Rb 8 Rb
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 1
115. Air is pumped into an automobile tube upto a pressure of 200 kPa in the morning when the air temperature
is 22°C. During the day, temperature rises to 42°C and the tube expands by 2%. The pressure of the air in
the tube at this temperature, will be approximately
(1) 212 kPa (2) 209 kPa
(3) 206 kPa (4) 200 kPa
PV PV P T
Sol : R (constant) 1 1 2 2
T T1 T2
200 V P 1.02V
2 V2 V 0.02V
273 22 273 42
200 315
P2 209kPa
295 1.02
Key : 2
116. What is the mass of 2 litres of nitrogen at 22.4 atmospheric pressure and 273K
(1) 28g (2) 14 22 .4 g
(3) 56 g (4) None of these
PV 22.4 1.01 105 2 103
Sol : 2
RT 8.31 273
Mass of 2 litre nitrogen M 2 14 28 gm
Key : 1
117. At constant pressure, the ratio of increase in volume of an ideal gas per degree raise in kelvin temperature
to it's original volume is (T = absolute temperature of the gas)
(1) T2 (2) T
1 1
(3) (4)
T T2
V T
Sol : At constant pressure V T
V T
Hence ratio of increase in volume per degree raise in kelvin temperature to it’s original volume
V / T 1
V T
Key : 3
118. Figure shows two flasks connected to each other. The volume of the flask 1 is twice that of flask 2. The
system is filled with an ideal gas at temperature 100 K and 200 K respectively. If the mass of the gas in 1
be m then what is the mass of the gas in flask 2
(1) m
m
(2)
2
100 K 200 K
m
(3)
4
1 2
m
(4)
8
m V m T
Sol : PV RT V mT 1 1 . 1
M V2 m2 T2
2V m 100 m
m2
V m2 200 4
Key : 3
119. When an air bubble of radius ‘r’ rises from the bottom to the surface of a lake, its radius becomes 5r/4 (the
pressure of the atmosphere is equal to the 10 m height of water column). If the temperature is constant and
the surface tension is neglected, the depth of the lake is
(1) 3.53 m (2) 6.53 m
(3) 9.53 m (4) 12.53 m
Sol : According to Boyle’s law PV
1 1 At top of thelake PV
2 2 At the bottom of thelake
3
4 5r 4 3
1 1 P1 h V2 10
PV 10 h r
3 4 3
610
h 9.53 m
64
Key : 3
120. A horizontal uniform glass tube of 100 cm, length sealed at both ends contain 10 cm mercury column in
the middle. The temperature and pressure of air on either side of mercury column are respectively 81°C
and 76 cm of mercury. If the air column at one end is kept at 0°C and the other end at 273°C, the pressure
of air which is at 0°C is (in cm of Hg)
Hg
10 cm
100 cm
(1) 76 (2) 68.2
(3) 102.4 (4) 122
Sol : Length of air column an both side is 45 cm when one side is at 0o C and the other is at 273o C
l l l l2 l
The pressure must be same on both sides. Hence 1 2 1 l1 2
T1 T2 273 273 273 2
Also, l1 l2 90cm l1 30cm and l2 60cm
Key : 3
121. An ideal gas is initially at temperature T and volume V. Its volume is increased by V due to an increase
in temperature T , pressure remaining constant. The quantity V /(VT ) varies with temperature as
(1) (2)
T T T
T T T
Temp. (K)
(3) (4)
T T T T T T
Temp. (K) Temp. (K)
Sol : From ideal gas equation PV =RT -----(i)
or PV RT ------(ii)
Dividing equation (ii) by (i) we get
V T V 1
V T V T T
1
T
So the graph between and T will be rectangular hyperbola.
Key : 3
122. Pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal gas is as shown in figure. Density of the gas at point A is 0 .
Density at B will be
3
(1) 0
4
3 P
(2) 0
3P0 B
2
4
(3) 0
3 P0 A
(4) 2 0
T0 2T0
M P
Sol : From PV RT P RT
T
P P P 3 P0
From graph 0 and
T A T0 T B 2 T0
3 3
B A 0
2 2
Key : 2
123. Two different masses m and 3m of an ideal gas are heated separately in a vessel of constant volume, the
pressure P and absolute temperature T, graphs for these two cases are shown in the figure as A and B. The
ratio of slopes of curves B to A is
P B
3m A
m
T
(1) 3 : 1 (2) 1 : 3
(3) 9 : 1 (4) 1 : 9
m
Sol : For a gas, PV RT RT
M
m
For graph A, PV RT
M
P m R
Slope of graph A, ------(i)
T M V
3m
For graph B, PV RT
M
P 3m R
Slope of graph B, -------(ii)
T M V
3m R
Slope of curve B M V 3
Slope of curve A m R 1
MV
Key : 1
124. During an experiment an ideal gas is found to obey an additional law VP2 constant. The gas is initially at
temperature T and volume V. What will be the temperature of the gas when it expands to a volume 2V?
3T
1) 2 T 2) 2T 3)
2
4) 3 T
2
Sol : VP K 1 ; PV nRT 2
K
V nRT
V nRT
; V T
K
V1 T1 V T 1
; i.e 1 ; T 2 T
V2 T2 2V T
Key :1
125. Gas at a pressure P0 is contained in a vessel. If the masses of all the molecules are doubled and their
speeds are halved, the resulting pressure P will be equal to
P
1) 4P0 2) 2P0 3) P0 4) 0
2
2
1 1 c P
Sol : P0 mnc 2 ; P1 2mn ; P1 0
3 3 4 2
Key :4
126. A given mass of ideal gas volume V at pressure P and room temperature T. Its pressure is first increased
by 50% and then decreased by 50%. (both at constant temperature). The final volume is
V 2V 4V
1) V 2) 3) 4)
3 3 3
3P1 2V
1 1 PV
Sol : PV 2 2 PV
1 1 V2 V2 1
2 3
2V P
P2V2 P3V3 P2 1 2 V3
3 2
4V
V3 1
3
Key : 4
127. At the top of a mountain a thermometer reads 70C and a barometer reads 70 cm of mercury. At the foot of
the mountain, they read 270C and 76 cm of mercury respectively. The ratio of density of air at the top to
that at the bottom of the mountain is:
1) 0.885 2) 0.987 3) 0.75 4) 1.0
PM PM
Sol : PV RT or RT , i.e., d P dT
d RT ,
Pt d T 70 dt 280
t t;
Pb db Tb 76 db 300
d 0.987
t
db 1
Key : 2
128. An ideal gas is expanding such that PT 2 = constant. The coefficient of volume expansion of the gas is:
1 2 3 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
T T T T
Sol : ; 2
PV nRT PT const
T3
const
V
Differentiate on both sides
3T 2 dT T 3 dv
2 0
V V
dV
T. 3 dT
V
Key : 3
129. Two thermometers are constructed in the same way except that one has a spherical bulb and the other a
cylindrical bulb, which one will respond quickly to temperature change?
1) Spherical bulb thermometer 2) cylindrical bulb thermometer
3) both equally 4) either of any option
Sol : The rate of flow of heat through conduction is given by
dQ KA( H L )
dt d
In order that a mercury thermometer inspite of having low thermal conductivity (K) of glass may quickly conduct
heat from a body to mercury; the glass bulb containing mercury is made long (so that its area is increased) and
thin (so that d is decreased)
Key : 4
130. A scientist proposes a new temperature scale in which the ice point is 25X (X is the new unit of
temperature) and the steam point is 305 X. The specific heat capacity of water in this new scale is(in J kg
1
X 1 )(given specific heat of water=4200J kg 1 K 1 )
1) 4.2 103 2) 3.0 103
3) 1.2 103 4) 1.5 103
Sol : On the X scale, the temperature difference between the boiling and freezing points is 305X-25X=280X
on the 0 C scale,it is 1000 o0 1000 C thus, a temperature difference of 280X is equal to a temperature
difference of 1000 C
for a 10 C change in 0 C scale, there is a corresponding 2.8X change in X scale
specific heat capacity of water =4200 J kg 1 0C 1
4200
specific heat capacity of water in this new scale is J kg 1 X 1 1500 J kg 1 X 1
2.8
1.5 103 J kg 1 X 1
Key : 3
131. A one liter glass flask contains some mercury. It is found that at different temperatures the volume of air
inside the flask remains the same. What is the volume of mercury in this flask, if coefficient of linear
expansion of glass is 9 106 / 0 C while that of volume expansion of mercury is 1.8 104 / 0 C
1) 50cc 2) 100cc
3) 150cc 4) 200cc
Sol : It is given that the volume of air in the flask remains the same. This means that the expansion in volume
of the vessel is exactly equal to the volume expansion of the mercury,
i.e., VG VL
or VG G VL L
VG G 1000 (3 9 106 )
VL 150 cc
L 1.8 104
Key : 3
132. The absolute coefficient of expansion of a liquid is 7 times that the volume coefficient of expansion of the
vessel. Then, the ratio of absolute and apparent expansion of the liquid is
1) 1/7 2) 7/6 3) 6/7 4) none of these
Sol : r 7 s
hence, a
r s 7 s s 6 s
real exp ansion V 7 7
r r s
apparent exp ansion V 6 s 6
Key : 2
1
133. If an air bubble rises from the bottom of a mercury tank to the top its volume becomes 1 times . When
2
normal pressure is 76 cm of Hg then depth of the Hg tank is
1) 38 cm 2) 132 cm 3) 76 cm 4) 49 cm
3 3
Sol : V1 V ; n
2 2
3 1
h H n 1 76 1 76 38cm
2 2
Key :1
134. Thermal coefficient of volume expansion at constant pressure for an ideal gas sample of n moles having
pressure P0 , volume V0 and temperature T0 is
R PV 1 1
1) 2) 0 0 3) 4)
P0 V0 R T0 nT0
Sol : PV nRT
PdV nRdT
1 dV dV nR 1
and ,
V dT dT P T
1
For given temperature T0 ,
T0
Key :3
135. A gas is enclosed in a vessel of volume V at a pressure P. It is being pumped out of the vessel by means of
a piston – pump with a stroke volume v . The final pressure in the vessel after n strokes of the pump is
(Assume temperature remains constant)
n n
V V
1) Pn P 2) P
2V v V 2v
n
n n
V 2V
3) Pn P 4) Pn P
V v V v
Sol : According to ideal gas equation PV RT , at constant temperature for a given mass, PV P' V ' Now
as stroke volume is v, during 1st stroke for constant mass (say m) volume changes from V to (V + v) and
so it pressure changes from P to P1, the above equation yields
V
P1 P ...................
PV P1 V v i.e., V v (1)
After the first stoke the gas left in the vessel has again volume V but at pressure P1. Now the second
stroke will take place from these initial conditions and if P2 is the pressure of the gas in the cylinder at the
end of 2nd – stroke,
V
P2 P1
PV
1 P2 V v , i.e., V v
2
V
P2 P
Substituting the value of P1 from equation (1) in the above Vv
Repeating the same for n strokes, the pressure of the gas in the vessel after nth stroke will be,
n
V
Pn P
V v
Key : 3
RT a
136. If pressure of CO2 (real gas) in a container is given by P 2 , then mass of the gas in
2V b 4b
container is
1) 11g 2) 22g 3) 33 g 4) 44 g
Sol : Vander walls gas equation for n moles of real gas
n2 a
p V nb nRT
V2
nRT n2a
p 2
V nb V
RT a
p 2 2 .............. 1
V
b V / n
n
RT a
Given p 2 .............. 2
2V b 4b
Compare (1) and (2)
1 m
n
2 M
1 m
m 22 grams
2 44
Key : 2
137. A uniform pressure P is exerted in all sides of a solid cube at t0C. By what amount should the temperature
of the cube be raised in order to bring its volume back to the volume it has before the pressure was
applied? ( K is bulk modulus and is coefficient of linear expression)
P P K K
1) 2) 3) 4)
K 3K 3P P
P V P
Sol : K ie numerically
V / V V K
V V 1
but t or t
V V
P P
ie t
K 3K
Key : 2
138. For a constant volume gas thermometer, one should fill the gas at
1) Low temperature and low pressure
2) Low temperature and high pressure
3) High temperature and low pressure
4) High temperature and high pressure
Sol : High temperature and low pressure
Key : 4
139. An air bubble comes from the bottom to the surface of lake of depth 2.5m. The surface temperature of the
lake is 40 0 C . The diameter of the bubble at the bottom and at the surface are 3.6 mm and 4 mm
respectively. Find the temperature of the lake at the bottom
1) 5.30 C 2) 12.50 C 3) 20.30 C 4) 30.30 C
PV
Sol : cons tan t
T
0
p gh r13 P0 r23
T1 T2
3
10 5
103 10 2.5 . 3.6
105 43
T1
313 5 3.6
3
285.22K
T1 313 256
T1 12.2 0 C
Key : 2
140. Two thermally insulated vessels 1 and 2 are filled with air at temperature T1 , T2 , Volume (V1,V2 ) and
pressure P1 , P2 respectively. If the valve joining the two vessels is opened, the temperature inside the
vessel at equilibrium will be
1) T1 T2
2) T1T2 PV
1 1 P2V2 / PV
1 1T1 P2V2T2
3) T1T2 PV
1 1 P2V2 / PV 2 2T1
1 1T2 PV
4) T1 T2 / 2
Sol : From mole conservation
PV
1 1 PV
PV V T T P V1 V2
2 2 1 2 T 1 2
T1 T2 T PV
1 1T2 P2V2T1
From energy conservation
3 3 3
PV1 1 PV2 2 P V1 V2
2 2 2
P V1 V2 PV 1 1 P2V2
From 1 and 2
T T PV P V
T 1 2 1 1 2 2
PV
1 1T2 P2V2T1
Key : 3
141. A cylindrical tube of cross – sectional area A has two air tight frictionless pistons at its two ends. The
pistons are tied with a straight piece of metallic wire. The tube contains a gas at atmospheric pressure P0
and temperature T0 . If temperature of the gas is doubled then the tension in the wire is
1) 4P0 A 2) P0 A / 2 3) P0 A 4) 2P0 A
Sol : F.BD on piston at T0 temperature
P0 A T P0 A
T=0
F.B.D on piston at 2To temperature
P0 A T 2P0 A
T1 P0 A
Key :3
142. Two identical containers joined by a small pipe initially contain the same gas at pressure P0 and absolute
temperature T0. One container is now maintained at the same temperature while the other is heated to 3T0.
The common pressure of the gases will be
3 4 5
1) P0 2) P0 3) P0 4) 2P0
2 3 3
Sol : (n1 + n2) = (n1 + n2)f
p0V p0V pV pV 2 p V 4 pV
0
RT0 RT0 RT0 3RT0 RT0 3RT0
3
p p0
2
Key :1
143. Two rigid boxes containing different ideal gases are placed on table. Box A contains two moles of oxygen
at temperature T0 , while box B contains one mole of CO2 at temperature (7/4) T0 . The boxes are then put
into thermal contact with each other, and heat flows between them until the gases reach a common final
temperature (ignore the heat capacity of boxes). Then the final temperature of the gases Tf in terms of T0
is
3 41
1) T f T0 2) T f T0
7 32
3 5
3) T f T0 4) T f T0
2 2
Sol : Internal energy of system remains constant
Box A Box B
2 mole of O2 1 mole of CO2
5R
CV CV 3R
2
7
T T0 T T0
4
Qgained =Qlost
n1Cv1dT1 n2Cv2dT2
5R 7
2 T f T0 1 3R T0 T f
2 4
21
5T f 5T0 T0 3T f
4
21 41
8T f T0 5T0 ; T f T0
4 32
Key :2
144. The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 4 g of Oxygen at NTP, from T1K to T2K is
3 5 3 3 T
1) N a k B (T2 T1 ) 2) N a k B (T2 T1 ) 3) N a k B (T2 T1 ) 4) N a kB ( 2 )
8 16 4 4 T1
m 4 1
Sol : dQ nCv dT here n
M 32 8
1 5R
= [T2 T1 ]
8 2
5 R
= R[T2 T1 ] since K B
16 Na
5
N a K B [T2 T1 ]
16
Key :2
145. An ideal gas is expanding such that pT constant . The coefficient of volume expansion of the gas
is(p Pressure, T Absolute Temperature)
1 2 3 4
1) 2) 3) 4)
T T T T
Sol : Given process equation is, pT cons tan t
using PV=nRT
nRT
we can have, T cons tan t
V
T2
or cons tan t
V
2TdT T 2 dV dV 1 2
by differentiating above equation on both sides, 2
0 or
V V V dT T
in above equation left side term is representing coefficient volume expansion of gas, as from the
definition. The coefficient volume expansion is defined as fractional change in volume per unit rise in
temperature.
Key : 2
146. Half a mole of helium at 270 C and at a pressure of 3atmosphere is mixed with 1.5 mole of N2 at 770 C
and at a pressure at 3.5 atmosphere so that the volume of the mixture is equal to the sum of their initial
volumes. If the temperature of the mixture is 690 C , its pressure is :
1) 3.42atm 2) 3.8 atm
3) 3.95 atm 4) 4.25 atm
Sol : PV1 1 1RT1
1RT1 1 R 300
or V1 50 R
P1 2 3
2 2 2 RT2
PV
RT2 R 350
or V2 2 1.5 150 R
P2 3.5
P V1 V2 1 2 RT
1
P 50 R 150 R 1.5 R 273 69
or 2
or P 200 R 2 R 342
342
P 3.42 atm
100
Key : 1
147. A gas at a temperature of 250 K is contained in a closed vessel. If the gas is heated through 5.460 C , the
percentage increase in its pressure is nearly:
1) 0.4% 2) 2 % 3) 0.8 % 4) 1.0 %
d
Pt P0 1 d P0 1
Sol : 273
P P 5.46
1 0 100 100 2%
P0 273
Key : 2
P0
148. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a process: P and V. P
1 (v 0 /v )2
Here are constants. Change in temperature of the gas when volume is changed from V V0 toV 3V0 is:
2P V 11P0V0
1) 0 0 2)
5R 5R
5 P0V0
3) 4) PV
0 0
4R
P0
Sol : At V V0 : P
2
9P0
3V0
Tf
PV
10 27 PV
0 0
nR R 10R
27 1 PV 11PV
T T f Ti 0 0 0 0
10 2 R 5R
Key : 2
149. PV versus T graph of equal masses of H 2 , He and O2 is shown in figure. Choose the correct option
(P pressure, V volume and T absolute temperature)
1. A corresponds to H 2 , B to He and C to O2
2. A corresponds to He, B to H 2 and C to O2
3. A corresponds O2 , B to He and C to H 2
4. A corresponds to O2 , B to H 2 and C to He
m PV
Sol : PV RT ;Slope=
M T
1
M
slope ; M M M
H2 He O2
A corresponds to H 2
B to He and C to O2
Key : 3
0 0
150. At 10 C the ratio of the density of a fixed mass of an ideal gas to its pressure is x . At 110 C this ratio is
383 10 283
1. x 2. x 3. x 4. x
283 110 383
d M
p RT p RT
Sol : ;
d M
d
p
1 T2 ; x 383
d T1 d 283
p
2 p 2
d 283
x
p 2 383
Key : 3
151. The P-T graph for the given mass of an ideal gas is sown in figure. Then the volume
1) increases 2) decreases
3) remains constant 4) data insufficient
Sol :
p 1
Slope
tan tan ; T V
VA VB
Key : 1
152. Find the minimum attainable pressure of one mole of an ideal gas if during its expansion its temperature
and volume are related as T T0 V 2 where T0 and are positive constants
1) 2R T0 2) R T0
T0
3) R 4) R 2T0
Sol : PV = nRT
PV R T0 V 2
RT0
P RV ............ 1
V
dP
If P is minimum 0
dV
RT0 T
2
R 0 V 0
V
T
From (1) Pmin RT0 R 0 2R T0
T0
Key : 1
153. A cubic vessel (with face horizontal + vertical) contains an ideal gas at NTP. The vessel is being carried
by a rocket which is moving at a speed of 500m/s in vertical direction. The pressure of the gas inside the
vessel as observed by us on the ground
1) remains the same because 500 m/s is very much smaller than vrms of the gas
2) remains the same because motion of the vessel as a whole does not affect the relative motion of the gas
molecules and the walls
3) will increase by a factor equal to (v 2 rms 500 ) / v 2rms where vrms was the original mean square velocity
of the gas
4) will be different on the top wall and bottom wall of the vessel
Sol : Motion of vessel as a whole does not effect the relative motion of the gas molecules with respect to the
walls
Key : 2
0
154. If pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessel is increased by 0.4% when heated by 1 C , its initial
temperature must be :
0 0 0
1) 250 C 2) 23 C 3) 2500 K 4) 25 C
Sol : = constant; P T
P T P 0.4
; T 10 C 1K
P T ; P 100
0.4 1 100
T 250 K
100 T 0.4
t 250 273 230 C
Key : 2
155. The graph drawn between pressure and volume in Boyle’s law experiment is shown in figure for different
molecular weights then
1) M 2 M1 2) M1 M 2
3) M1 M 2 4) M13 M 2
Sol :
Key : 1
156. The graph drawn between pressure and volume in Boyle’s law experiment is shown in figure for different
masses of same gas at same temperature then
1) m2 m1 2) m1 m2 2) m1 m2 4) m13 m2
Sol :
Key : 1
157. A volume V absolute temperature T diagram was obtained when a give mass of gas was heated. During
the heating process from state 1 to 2, the pressure
1) Remains constant 2) Decreased
3) Changed erratically 4) increased
Sol :
Key : 3
158. An ideal gas is initially at temperature T and volume V. Its volume is increased by V due to an increase
V
in temperature T , pressure remaining constant. The physical quantity varies with temperature
V T
as
V T 1
Sol :
V T T
Key : 1
159. The pressure p for a gas is plotted against its absolute temperature T for two different volumes V1 and V2 .
If p is plotted on y-axis and T on x-axis, then
1) the curve for V1 has greater slope than that for V2
2) the curve for V2 has greater slope than that for V1
3) both curves have same slope
4) the curves intersect at some point other than T=0
Sol :
Key : 1
160. Two containers of equal volume contain the same gas at pressures P1 and P2 absolute temperatures T1
and T2 respectively. On joining the vessels, the gas reaches a common pressure P and a common
P
temperature T. The value is
T
1P P 1P P 1 P P 1 P P
1) 1 2 2) 1 2 3) 2 1 4) 2 1
2 T1 T2 4 T1 T2 2 T1 T2 4 T1 T2
Sol :
Key : 3
161. A horizontal uniform glass tube of 100cm length is sealed at both ends contains 10 cm mercury column in
the middle, the temperature and pressure of air on either side of mercury column are respectively 310 C
and 76 cm of mercury, if the air column at one end is kept at 0 0 C and the other end at 2730 C then
pressure of air which is at 0 0 C is (in cm of Hg)
1) 76 2) 88.2 3) 102.4 5) 122
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
1
162. The pressure and temperature of an ideal gas in a closed vessel are 720 kPa and 40C respectively. If th
4
of the gas is released from the vessel and the temperature of the remaining gas is raised to 353C, the final
pressure of the gas is
(1) 1440 kPa (2) 1080 kPa (3) 720 kPa (4) 540 kPa
Sol : P1 720 kpa , T1 40 C 273 40 313 K
P2 m 2 T2 3 626
P mT = 1.5
P1 m 1 T1 4 313
P2 1 .5 P1 1 . 5 720 1080 kPa
Key : 2
163. An air bubble doubles its radius on raising from the bottom of water reservoir to be the surface of water in
it. If the atmospheric pressure is equal to 10 m of water, the height of water in the reservoir is
(1) 10 m
(2) 20 m
(3) 70 m
(4) 80 m
Sol : According to Boyle’s law (P1 V1 )bottom (P2 V2 )top
4 3 4
(10 h) r1 10 r23 but r2 2r1
3 3
(10 h)r13 10 8 r13 10 h 80 h = 70m
Key : 3
164. Pressure versus temperature graphs of an ideal gas are as shown in figure. Choose the wrong statement
P P P
T T T
(i) (ii) (iii)
(1) Density of gas is increasing in graph (i)
(2) Density of gas is decreasing in graph (ii)
(3) Density of gas is constant in graph (iii)
(4) None of these
PM
Sol :
RT
Density remains constant when P/T or volume remains constant.
In graph (i) Pressure is increasing at constant temperature hence volume is decreasing so density is
increasing. Graphs (ii) and (iii) volume is increasing hence, density is decreasing. Note that volume
would had been constant in case the straight line in graph (iii) had passed through origin.
Key : 3
RT a
165. If pressure of CO 2 (real gas) in a container is given by P then mass of the gas in container is
2V b 4 b 2
(1) 11 gm (2) 22 gm
(3) 33 gm (4) 44 gm
Sol : Vander wall's gas equation for mole of real gas
2 a RT 2a
P
V b RT P 2
V 2 V b V
1 m
on comparing the given equation with this standard equation we get . Hence mass of gas
2 M
1
m m 44 22 gm .
2
Key : 2
166. A pressure cooker contains air at 1 atm and 30°C. If the safety value of the cooler blows when the inside
pressure 3 atm, then the maximum temperature of the air, inside the cooker can be
(1) 90°C (2) 636°C
(3) 909°C (4) 363°C
Sol : Since volume is constant,
P1 T 1 (273 30 )
Hence 1
P2 T2 3 T2
T2 909 K 636 C
Key :2
167. From the following V-T diagram we can conclude
V P2
(1) P1 = P2
(2) P1 > P2 P1
(3) P1 < P2
(4) None of these
T1 T2 T
Sol : In case of given graph, V and T are related as V = aT – b, where a and b are constants.
From ideal gas equation, PV = RT
RT R
We find P
aT b a b / T
Since T2 > T1, therefore P2 < P1.
Key : 2
168. A cylinder contains 10 kg of gas at pressure of 10 7 N / m 2 . The quantity of gas taken out of the cylinder, if
final pressure is 2 .5 10 6 N / m 2 , will be (Temperature of gas is constant)
(1)15.2 kg (2) 3.7 kg
(3) Zero (4) 7.5 kg
Sol : PV mrT Pm [ V, r, T constant]
m1 P 10 10 7
1 = m2 = 2.5 kg.
m2 P2 m2 2 .5 10 6
Hence mass of the gas taken out of the cylinder
10 2 .5 7 .5 kg .
Key : 4
169. Air is filled at 60°C in a vessel of open mouth. The vessel is heated to a temperature T so that 1/4th part of
air escapes. Assuming the volume of the vessel remaining constant, the value of T is
(1) 80°C (2) 444°C
(3) 333°C (4) 171°C
Sol : For open mouth vessel, pressure is constant.
Volume is also given constant
T1 m 2
Hence from m
PV RT RT T 1
M m T2 m1
1 3 (273 60 ) 3 / 4 m 1
th part escapes, so remaining mass in the vessel m2 m1
4 4 T m1
T 444 K = 171°C
Key : 4
170. A partition divides a container having insulated walls into two compartments I and II. the same gas fills
the two compartments. The ratio of the number of molecules in compartments I and II is
(1) 1 : 6
P, V, T 2P, 2V,
(2) 6 : 1
(3) 4 : 1 I II
(4) 1 : 4
PV (2 P )(2 V ) PV n 1
Sol : n Now, n' 4 4n or
kT kT kT n' 4
Key : 4
171. Graph between volume and temperature for a gas is shown in figure. If volume coefficient of gas =
1
per °C, then what is the volume of gas at a temperature of 819°C
273
(1) 1 10 3 m 3 V(litre)
1
(2) 2 10 3 m 3
0.75
(3) 3 10 3 m 3
0.5
(4) 4 10 3 m 3 0.25
t°C
1
Sol : Vt V0 (1 t) 0.5 1 819 2 litre= 2 10 3 m 3
273
Key : 2
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT-1
DAY – 24 (DT 07-05-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
CHAPTER: CALORIMETRY
=======================================================================================================================
1. Iron, lead and brass spheres of equal masses are heated to a common temperature and are kept on a sheet
of wax. The sphere that passes through the plate first is ( lead S= 0.03cal / g / 0 C , iron S= 0.11
cal / g / 0 C , brass S= 0.08 cal / g / 0 C )
1) lead 2) brass
3) iron 4)all at the same time
Sol : Q mL ; Mst mL ; s m
Key :3
2. Density of a liquid ‘A’ is 0.5 g/c.c and that of liquid ‘B’ is 0.6 g/c.c. Heat capacity of 8 liters of ‘A’ is
equal to that of 10 liters of ‘B’. Then their specific heats ratio is
1) 4 : 5 2) 3 : 2 3) 2 : 3 4) 1 : 1
s vd
Sol : m1 s1 m2 s2 ; v1d1 s1 v2 d 2 s2 ; 1 2 2
s2 v1d1
Key :2
3. The temperatures of equal masses of three different liquids A,B and C are 120 C, 190 C and 280 C
respectively. The temperature when A and B are mixed is 160C and when B and C are mixed, it is 230 C.
What should be the temperature when A and C are mixed? (nearly)
0 0 0 0
1) 20 C 2) 15 C 3) 25 C 4) 30 C
Sol : When A and B are mixed
ms A 4 msB 3
s A : sB 3: 4
When B and C mixed
msB 4 msC 5
sB : sC 5 : 4
s A : sB : sC 15 : 20 :16
When A and C are mixed
msA t 12 msC 28 t
15 t 12 16 28 t
15t 180 448 16t
31t 628
628
t 20.260 C 200 C
31
Key : 1
4. Two liquid at temperatures 600 C and 20 0 C respectively have masses in the ratio 3 : 4 and their specific
heats In the ratio 4 : 5. If the two liquids are mixed, the resultant temperature is
1) 700 C 2) 500 C 3) 40 0 C 4) 350 C
m s t m2 s2t2
Sol : t 1 1 1
m1s1 m2 s2
Key : 4
5. Two liquids of masses M 1 and M 2 and specific heats S1 and S2 respectively are mixed. The specific
heat of the mixture is
M 1S1 M 2 S 2 M S M 2 S2
1) 2) 1 1
M1 M 2 2( M 1 M 2 )
M S M 2S2 M S M 2S2
3) 1 1 4) 1 1
M1 M 2 M1 M 2
m s m2 s2
Sol : s 1 1
m1 m2
Key :1
6. A liquid of mass ‘m’ and specific heat ‘S’ is at a temperature ‘2t’. If another liquid of thermal capacity 1.5
times of first liquid, at a temperature of t/3 is added to it, the resultant temperature will be
4 t 2
1) t 2) t 3) 4) t
2 2 3
m1s1t1 m2 s2t2
Sol : t
m1s1 m2 s2
Key :2
0
7. The quantity of heat which can rise the temperature of x gm of a substance through t2 C can rise the
0
temperature of y gm of water through t1 C is same. The ratio of specific heats of the substances is
1) yt1 / xt2 2) xt2 / yt1 3) yt2 / xt1 4) xt1 / yt2
s mt xt
Sol : m1s1t1 m2 s2 t2 ; 1 2 2 2
s2 m1t1 yt1
Key :2
8. Liquids A and B are at 40 0 C and 300 C . When mixed in equal masses, the temperature of the mixture is
found to be 360 C . Find the ratio of their specific heat capacities.
3 2 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 2 3
m1s1t1 m2 s2t2
Sol : t
m1s1 m2 s2
Key :1
9. 10g of ice at 00 C is mixed with 10 g of water at 300 C . Find the temperature of the mixture in
equilibrium.
1) 23.66 0 C 2) 13.66 0 C 3) 51.67 0 C 4) 00 C
Sol : Qwater 10 30 1 cal
Qice mL 10 80 cal
Qwater Qice ; t 0o C
Key : 4
10. Three liquids of equal volumes are thoroughly mixed. If their specific heats are s1 , s2 , s3 and their
temperatures 1 , 2 , 3 and their densities d1 , d 2 , d3 respectively, then the final temperature of the mixture
is
s s s d s d 2 s2 2 d3 s33
1) 1 1 2 2 3 3 2) 1 1 1
d1s1 d 2 s2 d3 s3 d1s1 d 2 s2 d 3s3
d s d 2 s2 2 d3 s33 d d 2 2 d 3 3
3) 1 1 1 4) 1 1
d11 d 2 2 d33 s11 s2 2 s33
m s t m2 s2t2 m3s3t3 v1d1s1t1 v2 d 2 s2t2 v3d3 s3t3
Sol : t 1 1 1 and v1 v2 v3
m1s1 m2 s2 m3 s3 v1d1s1 v2 d 2 s2 v3d3 s3
Key : 2
11. Two tanks A and B contain water at 30oC and 80oC respectively. Calculate the amount of water that must
be taken from each tank to prepare 40 kg of water at 50oC
1) 24 kg, 16 kg 2) 16 kg, 24 kg
3) 20 kg, 20 kg 4) 30 kg, 10 kg
m1t1 m2t2
Sol : t R
m1 m2
m 30 (40 m1 )80
50 1
40
m1 24, m2 16
Key : 1
12. M grams of ice at 0oC is mixed with M grams of steam at 100oC. The resultant temperature of the mixture
is
1) 0oC 2) 66.7oC 3) 100oC 4) 33.3oC
Sol : Qsteam M 560 cal , M ice M 80 cal
Qwater M 100 cal
Qsteam Qice Qwater ; t 100o C
Key : 3
13. A block of ice at -10oC is slowly heated and converted to steam at 100oC. Which of the following curves
represents this phenomenon qualitatively?
1) 2) 3) 4)
Sol :
Key : 1
14. A copper block of mass 2.5 kg is heated in a furnace to a temperature of 500oC and then placed on a large
ice block. The maximum amount of ice that can melt is nearly (specific heat of copper 0.39 Jg 1 o C 1 ;
heat of fusion of water = 335 Jg-1)
1) 1kg 2) 0.75 kg 3) 1.5 kg 4) 0.321 kg
Sol :
Key : 3
15. A Student takes 50gm wax (specific heat = 0.6 kcall/ kg 0C ) and heats it till it boils. The graph between
temperature and time is as follows. Heat supplied to the wax per minute and boiling point is respectively
0 0
1) 500 cal, 500 C 2) 1000cal, 100 0 C 3) 1500cal, 200 C 4) 200 C
Sol : Since specific heat 0.6kcal / gm '0C 0.6cal / gm '0C From graph it is clear that in a minute, the
temperature is raised from 00 C to 500 C . Heat required for a minute = 50 0.6 50 1500cal . Also
from graph, Boiling point of wax is 2000 C .
Key : 3
16. P-T phase diagram of carbon dioxide is as shown in figure. When pressure is decreased, what happens to
fusion and boiling points of CO2.
1) Boiling point increases, fusion point decreases
2) Boiling point decreases , fusion point increases
3) Boiling point increases, fusion point increases
4) Boiling point decreases, fusion point decreases
Sol :
Key : 4
17. A copper calorimeter contains 100g of water at 160 C. When 15g of ice is added to it, the resultant
temperature of the mixture is 4 0 C . Water equivalent of the calorimeter is
1) 10g 2) 20g 3) 5g 4) 25g
Sol :
Key : 3
18. ‘n’ number of liquids of masses m,2m,3m,4m,…….. having specific heats s, 2s,3s,4s, ….. and at
temperatures t, 2t,3t,4t . . . . are mixed. The resultant temperature of the mixture is
3n 2 n n 1 3n n 1 3n n 1
1) t 2) t 3) t 4) t
2n 1 3 2n 1 2 2n 1 2n 1
Sol :
Key : 3
19. An electric kettle can heat certain quantity of water from 190 C to 1000 C in 6 minutes. Further time it
takes to boil the same quantity of water into steam at 1000 C is (in minutes)
1) 40 2) 30 3) 20 4) 50
w
Sol : p constant
t
m 100 19 m 540
t 40 min
6 t
Key : 1
20. 50g of steam at 1000 C is passed into 50 g of ice at 0 0 C . The resultant temperature is
1) 1000 C 2) 300 C 3) 200 C 4) 100 C
Sol :
Key : 1
21. The triple point for water is
1) 00 C at a pressure of 1 atmosphere
2) 273 K at a pressure of 76 mm of Hg
3) -2730C of a pressure of 4mm. of Hg
4) 273. 16K at a pressure of 610.24 Pa
Sol : The single combination of pressure and temperature at which liquid water, solid ice, and water vapour can
coexist in a stable equilibrium occurs at approximately 273.1575 K.
Key : 4
22. Ice, water and steam co-exist at triple point. If the pressure is increased a little while keeping the
temperature constant, then the system contains
1) ice only 2) water only
3) steam only 4) water and ice
Sol : If pressure increases the water does not boil at 100o C
Key : 2
23. In a pressure cooker, cooking is fast because
1) The boiling point of water is raised by the increased pressure inside the cooker
2) The boiling point is lowered
3) More steam is available for cooking
4) Pressure cooker is very strong
Sol : Cooking is fast in pressure cooker just because the trapped steam increases the atmospheric pressure inside the
cooker. At that pressure, boiling point of water is increased and this higher temperature cooks food faster.
Key : 1
24. A 10 kW drilling machine is used to drill a bore in a small aluminium block of mass 8kg. FInd the rise in
temperature of the block in 2.5 minutes, assuming 50% power is used up in heating the machine itself or
-1 -1
lost to the surroundings. (Specific heat of aluminium = 0.91Jg 0 C )
1) 1000C 2) 1030C 3) 1500C 4) 1550C
Sol :
Key : 2
25. Equal volumes of water and alcohol when put in similar calorimeters take 100 sec and 74 sec respectively
to cool from 500 C to 400 C . The thermal capacity of each calorimeter is numerically equal to the volume
of either liquid. The specific gravity of alcohol is 0.8. if the specific heat capacity of water is 1 cal/gm–0C,
the specific heat capacity of alcohol will be
1) 0.6 cal / gm 0 C 2) 0.8 cal / gm 0 C
3) 1.6 cal / gm 0 C 4) 1.8 cal / gm 0 C
Sol : Given Vl Vw V let
heat capacity of calorimeter ms c V
and mw vwd w v 1 g sw 1cal / g 0C
ml vl dl v 0.8 g sl ?
tw 100sec tl 74sec
tw ms c ms w
since
tl ms c ms l
100 V V 1 50 2
74 V V 0.8 Sl 37 1 0.8Sl
25 1
37 1 0.8sl
25 20sl 37
20 sl 12
6
sl
10
0.6 cal / g / 0C
Key : 1
26. The specific heat of a substance varies as s= 3t 2 t 103 Cal / gm0C . What is the amount of heat
required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of substance from 50 C to 100 C
1) 912.5 Cal 2) 7150 Cal
3) 1050 Cal 4) 8200 Cal
Sol : dQ msdt
dQ m sdt
Q 10 3t
3 2
t 10 3 dt
10
3t 3 t 2
Q 103 103
3 2 5
75
= 1000 125
2
Q 912.5cal
Key : 1
0 0
27. A 10 kg iron bar (specific heat 0.11 cal/g C ) at 80 C is placed on a block of ice. How much ice melts ?
1. 1.1 kg 2.10 kg 3.16 kg 4. 60 kg
Sol : Qice mL
m 80 cal
Qiron M s
= 10 103 0.11 80 0
88 103 cal
From the principle of calorimetry Qice Qiron
m 11102 gm
= 1.1 kg
Key : 1
28. Steam at 100 C is allowed to pass into a vessel containing 10g of ice and 100g of water at 00 C , until all
0
0
the ice is melted and the temperature is raised to 50 C . Neglecting water equivalent of the vessel and the
loss due to radiation etc… Calculate how much steam is condensed
1. 10.7 gm 2.3.8 gm 3.107 gm 4. 38.0 gm
Sol : Qlost mL m s
= m 540 1 100 50
Qgain mi Li mi s mw s
= 10 80 10 1 50 0 100 1 50 0
= 800 500 5000
6300
From the principle of calorimetry
Qlost Qgain
m 540 50 6300
6300
m 10.7gm
590
Key : 1
29. Equal volumes of water and aliquid when put in similar calorimeters take 100 sec and 80 sec respectively
to cool from 500Cto 400C. The thermal capacity of each calorimeter is numerically equal to the volume of
either liquid. The specific gravity of alcohol is 0.9. if the specific heat capacity of water is 1 cal/gm–0C,
the specific heat capacity of liquid will be
1) 0.6 cal/gm -0C 2) 0.8 cal/gm -0C
3) 0.667cal / g / 0C 4) 1.8 cal/gm -0C
tw ms c ms w
Sol : since
tl ms c ms l
100 V V 1 5 2
80 V V 0.9 Sl 4 1 0.9Sl
5(1 0.9Sl ) 8; 4.5S1 3
2
S1 0.667cal / g / 0C
3
Key : 3
30. A scientist proposes a new temperature scale in which the ice point is 15T (T is the new unit of
temperature) and the steam point is 225 T.The specific heat capacity of water in this new scale is(in J kg
1
T 1 )(given specific heat of water=4200J kg 1 K 1 )
1) 2 103 2) 3.0 103 3) 1.2 103 4) 1.5 103
Sol : On the X scale, the temperature difference between the boiling and freezing points is
225T – 15T =210T
on the 0 C scale,it is 1000 o0 1000 C
thus, a temperature difference of 210T is equal to a temperature difference of 1000 C
for a 10 C change in 0 C scale, there is a corresponding 2.1T change in X scale.
specific heat capacity of water =4200 J kg 1 0C1
4200
specific heat capacity of water in this new scale is J kg 1T 1 2000 J kg 1T 1
2.1
2 103 J kg 1T 1
Key : 1
31. A ball of thermal capacity 20 cal / 0 C is heated to the temperature of furnace. If is then transferred into a
vessel containing water. The water equivalent of vessel and the contents is 150 gm. The temperature of
0 0
the vessel and its contents rises from 10 C to 30 C . What is the temperature of furnace?
1) 6400 C 2) 1800 C 3) 6000 C 4) 1000 C
Sol : Thermal capacity of ball = mc = 20cal/ 0C
Let Tbe the furnace temperature.
Water eq. of vessel and contents = mc=150gm
Resultant temperature= 300C
According to principle of calorimetry,
Heat lost by hot body = heat gained by cold body
mc T 30 mc 30 10
20 T 30 150 20
T 1800 C
Key : 2
32. A hot piece of iron of mass 20 g is dropped into a calorimeter of water equivalent 40 g containing 260 g
of water at 200C. If the equilibrium temperature is 600C, the initial temperature of iron piece is (specific
heat of iron = 1.2 cal g-1 0C-1)
1) 5600 C 2) 4200C 3) 5000 C 4) 4400C
Sol :
Key : 1
33. Steam at 100 0 C is passed into 20g of water at 10 0 C . When water acquires a temperature of 80 0 C ,the
10 1
mass of water present will be [Take specific heat of water = 1cal g C and latent heat of steam =
540cal g1 ]
1. 24 g 2. 31.5g 3. 42.5 g 4. 22.5g
Sol :
Key : 4
34. Which of the substances A, B or C has the highest specific heat? The temperature vs time graph is shown
A
Temperature (T)
B
Time (t)
1) A 2) B 3) C
4) All have equal specific heat
Sol : Substances having more specific heat take longer time to get heated to a higher temperature and longer
time to get cooled. T A
B
t
tA tB tC
If we draw a line parallel to the time axis then it cuts the given graphs at three different points.
Corresponding points on the times axis shows that
tC t B t A CC CB C A
Key : 3
35. 10 gm of ice cubes at 00 C are released in a tumbler (water equivalent of tumbler + water=55g) at 40 0 C .
Assuming that negligible heat is taken from the surroundings, the temperature of water in the tumbler
becomes nearly (L=80 cal/g)
1) 310 C 2) 22 0 C 3) 19 0 C 4) 15 0 C
Sol : mL ms ice ms tumbler with water tumber with water
10 80 10 1 0 55 40
1400
21.50 C
65
Key : 2
36. 10g of ice at - 20o C is dropped into a calorimeter containing 10g of water at10o C ; the specific heat of
water is twice that of ice. When equilibrium is reached, the calorimeter will contain
1) 20g of water 2) 20g of ice
3) 10g ice and 10g water
4) 5g ice and 15g water
Sol :
Key :3
37. At triple point the value of latent heat is
1) Infinity 2) Zero 3)80 cal/gm 4)540cal/gm
Sol :
Key :2
38. From the graph the substance having highest specific heat is (Heat is supplied to A, B, C at constant rate)
1) A 2) B 3) C
4) all have equal specific heats
Sol :
Key : 3
39. Ice, water and steam co-exist at triple point temperature 273.16 K and pressure 4.6 mm of Hg. In a system
in which the triple point conditions of temperature and pressure exist, the pressure is increased a little
while keeping the temperature constant, then the system contains.
1) ice only 2) water only
3) steam only 4) water and ice
Sol :
Key :2
40. When ' m ' grams of ice at 00 C is mixed with m grams of steam at 1000 C , then
(A) Resultant temperature of the mixture is 1000 C
4m 2m
(B)The final mixer contains g of steam and g of water
3 3
1) A is true, B is false
2) A is false, B is true
3) Both A and B are true
4) Both A and B are false
Sol :
Key :1
41. The melting point of substances that contract on melting
1) Decrease with increase of pressure
2) Increase with increase in pressure
3) Decrease at first and then increases with increase of pressure
4) Is independent of pressure
Sol :
Key :1
42. Two liquids of specific heats S and 2S and masses 2m and m are heated to temperatures t0C and 2t0C
respectively are mixed, the specific heat of the mixture is
4S 5S 3S
1) 2) 3) 2S 4)
3 3 2
m c m2c2
Sol : c 1 1
m1 m2
Key :1
43. Liquids A and B are at 300 C and 20 0 C . When mixed in equal masses, the temperature of the mixture is
found to be 26 0 C . Find the ratio of their specific heat capacities.
3 2 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 2 3
Sol : m.c A 30 26 m.cB 26 20
0 0 0 0
CA 3
CB 2
Key :4
44. Boiling water is changing into steam. Under this condition the specific heat of water is
1) zero 2) one 3) infinite 4) less than one
Sol : During phase change dT=0
1 d
S S
m dT
Key :3
45. 50g of steam at 1000 C is passed into 50 g of ice at 0 0 C . The resultant temperature is
1) 1000 C 2) 300 C 3) 200 C 4) 100 C
Sol : Conceptual
Key :1
46. Two identical bodies are made of a material for which the heat capacity increases with temperature. One
of these is at 100 0 C , while the other one is at 00 C . If the two bodies are brought into contact, then
assuming no heat loss, the final common temperature is
1) 500 C 2) more than 500 C
3) less than 500 C but greater than 00 C
4) 00 C
Sol : Heat lost by 1st body = heat gained by 2nd body. Body at 100 0 C temperature has greater heat capacity
than body at 00 C so final temperature will be closer to 100 0 C . So, TC 500 C
Key : 2
47. 80.g of water at 300 C are poured on a large block of ice at 00 C .The mass of ice that melts is
1) 30 g 2) 80 g 3) 1600g 4) 150 g
1
Sol : ms m L
80 1 30 0 m1 80
m1 30gm
Key : 1
48. In the definition of calorie, one calorie is the heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water
through 1 C in a certain interval of temperature and at certain pressure. The temperature interval and the
pressure are
1) 13.5 Cto14.5 C and 76mm of Hg
2) 14.5 Cto15.5 C and 760mm of Hg
3) 6.5 Cto 7.5 C and 76mm of Hg
4) 98.5 Cto99.5 C and 760mm of Hg
Sol : From the experimental result specific heat of water is maximum between 14.5 C to15.5 C
Key : 2
49. 50 grams of ice at 00 C is mixed with 40gm of water at 600 C . Then the ratio of ice and water at
equilibrium is
1) 2:7 2) 7:2 3) 2:3 4) 2:5
Sol :
50 g ice O0C 40 g water 600 C
Lm ms T
4000 cal 2400cal
50g water O0C 40 g water O0C
2400cal < 4000 cal
Only x g ice at 00 C converts to x g water at 00 C
So L x 2400 x 30 g
Final equilibrium temperature is O 0C & The composition is
20 g ice +70 g water
Key : 1
50. A metal sphere of radius r and specific heat S is rotated about an axis passing through its centre at a speed
of n rotations per second. It is stopped and 50% of its energy is used in increasing its temperature, then the
raise in temperature of the sphere is
2 2 n2 r 2 1 2 n2 7 5 rn
1) 2) 2
3) r 2 n 2 S 4)
5 S 10 r S 8 14 S
Sol : 50% of K.ER msT
50 1
Ih2 msT
100 2
1 1 2
mr 2 n2 4 2 mS T
2 2 5
2 2 n2 r 2
T
5 s
Key : 1
51. 1g of ice at 00 C is mixed 1g of steam at 1000 C . The mass of water formed is
1) 1.33g 2) 1 g 3) 0.133g 4) 13.3g
Sol : Heat gained = heat lost
mice Lice micesw t 0
ms Ls ms s w 100 t
T > 100
So resultant temp is taken as 1000C
1 80 1100 x 540
X = 0.33 gm (mass of condensed steam)
Total mass of water = 1+0.33gm = 1.33gm
Key : 1
52. A nuclear power plant generates 500MW of waste heat that must be carried away by water pumped from
a lake. If the water temperature is to rise by 100C, what is the required flow rate in Kg/s
1) 1.2 104 2) 2.4 104 3) 1 10 4 4) 2 104
dm dm
Sol : P a 500 106 4200 10
dt dt
dm 50
104 1.2 104
dt 42
Key : 1
53. The fraction of ice melts by mixing equal masses of ice at - 10 0 C and water at 600 C is
Sice 0.5cal gm.0 C
6 11 5 11
1) 2) 3) 4)
11 16 16 15
Sol : H.G.C.B=H.L.H.B
m 0.5 10 m1 80 m 1 60
m1 80 m 55
m1 11
m 16
Key : 2
54. The specific heat of a substance varies as
S = 3t 2 t 10 3 cal / g 0C (t = denotes temperature). What is the amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of 1 kg of substance from 10 0 C to 20 0 C
1) 8500 cal 2) 8150 cal 3) 7150 cal 4) 7300 cal
Sol : dQ msdt
dQ m sdt
Q 10 3t
3 2
t 10 3 dt
20
t2
t 3 = 7000 +150= 7150 cal
2 10
Key : 3
55. A steel ball of mass 0.1 kg falls freely from a height of 10 m and bounces to a height of 5.4 m from the
ground. If the dissipated energy in this process is absorbed by the ball, the rise in its temperature is (
specific heat of steel 4 6 0 J k g 1 K 1 , g 1 0 m s 2 )
1) 0.010 C 2) 0.10 C 3) 10 C 4) 1.10 C
Sol :
Key : 2
56. Two spheres A and B with masses in the ratio 2 : 3 and specific heats 2 : 3 fall freely from rest. If the rise
in their temperatures on reaching the ground are in the ratio 1 : 2 the ratio of their heights of fall is
1) 3 : 1 2) 1 : 3 3) 4 : 3 4) 3 : 4
Sol : Two spheres A and B with masses in the ratio 2:3 and specific heat 2:3 fall freely from rest. If the rise in
their temperature on reaching the ground are in the ratio 1:2 the ratio of their heights of fall is.
Key : 2
57. The fraction of ice that melts by mixing equal masses of ice at 10 0 C and water at 60 0 C is
6 11 5 11
1) 2) 3) 4)
11 16 16 15
Sol :
Key : 3
58. A piece of ice falls from a height hh so that it melts completely. Only one-quarter of the heat produced is
absobed by the ice and all energy of ice gets converted into heat during its fall. The value of hh is
[Latent heat of ice is 3.4×105J/kg and g=10N/kg]
1) 34.18 km 2) 544 km 3) 136 km 4) 168.75 km
Sol :
Key : 3
59. A man had a machine to crush ice and convert it to water. The machine could crush 1.2 kg of ice per
minute. What is the power of the machine?
1) 1.6 × 103 W 2) 3.2 × 103 W
3
3) 4.34 × 10 W 4) 6.72 × 103 W
Sol :
Key : 4
60. The amount of heat required to convert 10gm of ice at –50 °C to steam is ____cal
[Sice=0.5 cal gm–1 °C–1; Swater=1 cal gm–1 °C–1; Lice=80 calgm–1;Lsteam=540 cal gm–1]
1) 8480 cal 2) 6460 cal
3) 4450 cal 4) 7450 cal
Sol :
Key : 4
61. 10 gm of ice at 20 0 C is dropped into a calorimeter containing 10 gm of water at 10 0 C : the specific heat
of water is twice that of ice. When equilibrium is reached, the calorimeter will contain:
1) 20 gm of water 2) 20 gm of ice
3) 10 gm ice and 10 gm water
4) 5 gm ice and 15 gm water
Sol :
Key :1
62. 10 litres of a liquid with specific heat 0.2 cal/ g m 0 C has the same thermal capacity as that of 20 litres of
liquid with specific heat 0.3 cal/ g m 0 C , find the ratio of their densities:
1) 3:1 2) 1:3 3) 1:6 4) 6:1
Sol :
Key :2
63. Two spheres A and B have diameters in the ratio 1:2 densities in the ratio 2:1 and specific heats in the
ratio 1:3 find the ratio of their thermal capacities:
1) 1:6 2) 1:12 3) 1:3 4) 1:4
Sol :
Key :1
64. A 2 gm bullet with a velocity of 200 m/s is brought to a sudden stoppage by an obstacle. If the total heat
0
produced goes to the bullet. If the specific heat of the bullet is 0.03 cal/ gm C , the rise in its
temperature will be:
1)158.0 0 C 2) 15.80 0 C 3) 1.58 0 C 4) 0.1580 0 C
Sol :
Key : 1
65. A piece of ice falls from a height h so that it melt completely. If Only one-quarter of heat produced is
absorbed by the ice during its fall then the value of h is
[ Latent heat of ice is 3.4 1 0 5 J/kg and g=10N/kg]
1) 34 km 2) 544 km 3) 136 km 4) 68 km
Sol :
Key : 3
66. A substance of mass m kg requires a power input of P watt to remain in the molten state at its melting
point. When the power is turned off, the sample completely solidifies in time t sec. What is the latent heat
of fusion of the substance?
Pm Pt m t
1) t 2) m 3) Pt 4) Pm
W Q mL Pt
Sol : P L
T T t m
Key : 2
67. A substance of mass 10 kg requires a power input of 50 watt to remain in the molten state at its melting
point. When the power is turned off, the sample completely solidifies in time 10 sec. What is the latent
heat of fusion of the substance?
1) 25J/ kg 2) 50J/ kg 3) 10J/ kg 4) 15J/ kg
Pt 50 10
Sol : L 50 J / kg
m 10
Key : 2
68. A tap supplies water at 100C and another tap at 1000C. The amount of hot water that must be taken so that
we get 20 kg of final water at 350C is
1) 40/9 kg 2) 50/9 kg 3) 20/9 kg 4) 130/9 kg
Sol :
Key : 2
69. The rates of cooling of two different liquids put in exactly similar calorimeters and kept in exactly
same surroundings are the same if
1) masses of the liquids are same
2) equal masses at equal temperatures are taken
3) different volumes at the same temperature are taken
4) equal volumes at the same temperature are taken
Sol :
Key : 4
70. Two identical balls ‘A’ and ‘B’ are moving with same velocity. If velocity of ‘A’ is reduced to half and
of ‘B’ to zero, then the rise in temperatures of ‘A’ to that of ‘B’ is
1) 3 : 4 2) 4 : 1 3) 2 : 1 4) 1 : 1
1 2
Sol : mv Jms v 2
2 ;
1 v12 3
2 v22 4
Key : 1
71. A kettle with 2 litre water at 270C is heated by operating coil heater of power 1KW. The heat is lost to the
atmosphere at constant rate 160JS-1, when its lid is open. The time taken by water to heat upto 770C is
(specific heat of water = 4.2 KJ/kg0C)
1) 6min 2sec 2) 14min 3) 8 min 20sec 4) 7min
Sol : Q ms
1000 160 t 2 4200 50
840t 100 4200 t 500sec
Key : 3
72. Pure water super cooled to 15o C is contained in a thermally insulated flask. Some ice is thrown into the
flask. The fraction of water frozen into ice is :
3 6 6 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
35 35 29 35
Sol : M = Mass of the super cooled water
m = Mass of ice formed
0
The heat released due to formation of the ice is used to rise the temperature of water from 15 c to zero
Heat lost = Heat gained
80 m m 0.5 15 M m 115
80m 7.5m 15M 15m
m
6 / 35
M
Key : 2
73. 100 g of ice at 00 C is mixed with 100g of water at 100 0 C .What will be the final temperature of the
mixture
1) 10 0 C 2) 20 0 C 3) 300 C 4) 00 C
Sol : Heat lost = heat gained
10080 1001 T 0 100 1100 T
T 100 C
Key : 1
74. A liquid of mass m and specific heat c is heated to a temperature 2T. Another liquid of mass m/2 and
specific heat 2c is hearted to a temperature T. if these two liquids are mixed , the resulting temperature of
the mixture is
2 8 3 3
1) T 2) T 3) T 4) T
3 5 5 2
Sol : Temperature of mixture
m
m1c1T1 m2c2T2 m c 2T 2 2c T 3
mix T
m1c1 m2c2 m 2
m c 2c
2
Key : 4
75. Steam at 1000 C is passed into 20 g of water at 100C. When water acquires a temperature of 800C, the
mass of water present will be [Take specific heat of water = 1 cal g-10C-1 and latent heat of steam = 540
cal g-1]
1) 24 g 2) 31.5 g 3) 42.5 g 4) 22.5 g
Sol : According to the principle of calorimetry
Heat lost = Heat gained
mLv + msw= mwsw
m x540 m x1x(100 80)
= 20 x 1 x (80 – 10)
m 2.5g
Therefore total mass of water at 800C
= (20 + 2.5)g = 22.5 g
Key : 4
76. What extinguishes a fire most quickly?
1) Cold water 2) Boiling water 3) Hot water 4) Ice
Sol :
Key : 2
0 0
77. Two tanks A and B contain water at 30 C and 80 C respectively. Calculate the amount of water that must
0
be taken from each tank to prepare 40 kg of water at 50 C .
1) 24 kg, 16 kg 2) 16 kg, 24 kg 3) 20 kg, 20 kg 4) 30 kg, 10 kg
Sol : m1 1 50 30 m2 1 80 50
m1 3
or m1 20 m2 30 or
m2 2
3
Mass of water from tank A 40 24 kg
5
2
Mass of water from tank B 40 16 kg
5
Key :1
78. The amount of heat required will be minimum when a body is heated through:
1) 1 K 2) 10 C 3) 10 F
4) it will be the same in all the three cases
Sol :
Key :1
79. The figure given below shows the cooling curve of pure wax material after heating. It cools from A to B
and solidifies along BD. If L and C are respective values of latent heat and the specific heat of the liquid
wax, the ratio L/C is
Y
T°C A
90
B D
80
2 min 4 min
X
Time (Min.)
(1) 40 (2) 80 (3) 100 (4) 20
Sol : Let the quantity of heat supplied per minute be Q. Then quantity of heat supplied in 2 min mC (90 80 )
In 4 min, heat supplied 2m C(90 80 )
L
2 m C (90 80 ) m L 20
C
Key : 4
80. A student takes 50gm wax (specific heat = 0.6 kcal/kg°C) and heats it till it boils. The graph between
temperature and time is as follows. Heat supplied to the wax per minute and boiling point are respectively
250
Temperature (°C)
200
150
100
50
0
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Time (Minute)
(1) 500 cal, 50°C (2) 1000 cal, 100°C (3) 1500 cal, 200°C (4) 200°C
Sol : Since specific heat = 0.6 kcal/gm °C = 0.6 cal/gm °C
From graph it is clear that in a minute, the temperature is raised from 0°C to 50°C.
Heat required for a minute = 50 0.6 50 = 1500 cal.
Also from graph, Boiling point of wax is 200°C.
Key : 3
81. Two substances A and B of equal mass m are heated at uniform rate of 6 cal s–1 under similar conditions.
A graph between temperature and time is shown in figure. Ratio of heat absorbed H A / H B by them for
complete fusion is
9
(1)
4 100
Temperature °C
A
80
4
(2) 60
9 40 B
8 20
(3)
5
0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
5
(4)
8
Sol : From given curve,
Melting point for A 60 C
and melting point for B 20 C
Time taken by A for fusion (6 2) 4 minute
Time taken by B for fusion (6. 5 4 ) 2. 5 minute
HA 6 4 60 8
Then .
H B 6 2 .5 60 5
Key : 3
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAY-4 PRACTICE ASSIGNMENTS-1
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
CHAPTER: TRANSMISSION OF HEAT
1. A solid cylinder of radius R made of a material of thermal conductivity K1 is surrounded by a
cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer radius 3R made of a material of thermal conductivity K2.
The two ends of the combined system are maintained at two different temperatures. There is no loss of
heat across the curved surface and the system is in steady state. The effective thermal conductivity of
the system is
K2 K1 8 K1 K 2 K1 8 K 2
1) K1 K2 2) 3) 4)
K1 K 2 9 9
2 22
K1 A1 K 2 A2 K1 R K 2 ( 3R R )
Sol : K 2
A1 A2 R 2 ( 3R R 2 )
KEY : 4
1 1 1 1
2. Two rods of same length having conductivities 60 Wm K ,40 Wm K and areas of cross-section
0.2 m2 ,0.3m2 are connected in Parallel to each other. The effective conductivity of the combination is
1 1
1) 50 Wm K 2) 45 Wm 1 K 1 3) 52 Wm 1 K 1 4) 48 Wm 1 K 1
K1 A1 K 2 A2
Sol : K
A1 A2
KEY : 4
3. A cylinder or radius r and of thermal conductivity K1 is surrounded by a cylindrical shell of inner
radius r and outer radius 2r made of a material of thermal conductivity K 2 .The effective thermal
conductivity of the system is
1 1 1 1
1) K1 2 K 2 2) 2 K1 3K 2 3) 3K1 2 K 2 4) K1 3K 2
3 2 3 4
Sol : Both the cylinders are in parallel, for the heat flow from one end as shown
K1 A1 K 2 A2
Hence, K eq ; where A1 = area of cross-section of inner cylinder R2 and A2 = area of
A1 A2
cross-section of cylindrical shell
K1 R 2 K 2 3 R 2 K1 3K 2
2 2
2 R R 3 R Keq
2
R 2 3 R 2
4
KEY : 4
4. One end of a cylindrical rod is kept in steam chamber and the other end in melting Ice. Now 0.5 gm of
ice melts in 1 s. If the rod is replaced by another rod of same length, half the diameter and double the
conductivity of the first rod, then rate of melting of ice will be
1) 0.25 gm/s 2) 0.5 gm/s 3) 1 gm/s 4) 2 gm/s
Sol : Q mL
KA t t
mL
l
KA m (since all other parameters one constant)
KEY : 1
5. Three rods of same dimensions have thermal conductivities 3 K, 2K and K. They are arranged as
shown in the figure below.
500C
2K
3K
1000C
K
00 C
Then the temperature of the junction in steady state is
0 0
100 200
1) C 2) C
3 3
0
50
3) 750 C 4) C
3
500C
Q2
2K
3K
Q1 x0C
1000C
K
Q3
00C
Sol :
KA t t
Q
l
Q1 Q2 Q3
A and L are same for all the three rods
3K 100 x 2 K x 50 K x 0
300 3x 2 x 100 x
200 0
x C
3
KEY : 2
6. A ring consisting of two parts ADB and ACB of same conductivity K carries an amount of heat H. The
ADB part is now replaced with another metal keeping the temperatures T1 and T2 constant. The heat
ACB
carried increases to 2H. What should be the conductivity of the new ADB part? Given 3
ADB
7 5
1) K 2) 2 K 3) K 4) 3 K
3 2
KA(T1 T2 ) KA(T1 T2 )
H H1 H 2
Sol : 3l L
4 KA(T1 T2 )
3 l
8 KA(T1 T2 ) KA(T1 T2 )
H 2 2 H H1
3 l 3l
7 KA(T1 T2 )
H2
3l
1
K A (T1 T2 ) 7K A (T1 T2 )
l 3l
7K
K1
3
KEY : 1
7. Ice starts forming on a lake with water at 0 0 C when the atmospheric temperature is 60 C. If the time
taken for 1 cm of Ice to be formed is 5 hours, then time taken for thickness of ice to change from 1 cm
to 2 cm is
1) 20 Hr. 2) 10 Hr.3) 15 Hr. 4) 25 Hr.
L 2
Sol : t x
2k
t1 x2 1 5 1
2 1 2
t2 x2 x1 3 t2 3
t2 15hrs
KEY : 3
8. Three conducting rods of same material and cross-section are shown in figure. Temperatures of A,D
and C are maintained at 20 0 C , 90 0 C and 0 0 C . The ratio of lengths of BD and BC if there is no heat
flow in AB is
1) 2/7 2) 7/2 3) 9/2 4) 2/9
Sol : There is no flow of heat through AB
H DB H BC
90O 20O 20O 0O C
LDB LBC
70 LDB 7 LDB
20 LBC ; 2 LBC
KEY : 2
9. A cubical vessel of side 10 cm is filled with Ice at 0 0 C and is immersed in water bath at 100 0 C . If
thickness of walls of vessel is 0.2 cm and conductivity is 0.02 CGS units, then time in which all the Ice
melts is
( Density of Ice=0.9 gm/cc)
1) 6 sec 2) 9 sec 3) 12 sec 4) 15 sec
Sol :
MLice KA
time t
Dice L Lice K 6 L2 (100o 0o )
3
time 0.2
0.9 10 80 0.02 6 100
time 0.2
time 12sec
KEY : 3
10. In the steady state the two ends of a meter rod are at 30 0 C and 20 0 C , the temperature at the 40th cm
from the end at higher temperature is
1) 22 0 C 2) 26 0 C 3) 25 0 C 4) 24 0 C
30 20
Sol : constant ;
l 40 60
KEY : 1
11. The figure shows a system of two concentric spheres of radii r1 and r2 kept at temperatures T1 and T2
respectively. The radial rate of flow of heat in the substance between the concentric spheres is
proportional to
r1r2
1) 2) r1 r2
r2 r1
r1 r2 r
3) 4) log 2
r1r2 r1
Sol :
KAdT
H
dr
2
K 4 r
H dT
dr
dr 4 K
dT
r2 H
r2 T
dr 4 K 2
r r 2 H T dT
1 1
1 1 4 K
T2 T1
r1 r2 H
rr
H 12
r2 r1
KEY : 1
12. Three thermal conductors of same length and area of cross section and having thermal conductivities
k , 2k ,3k are joined series respectively. If the temperature difference across the combination of three
conductors is 1100 , then the temperature across the middle conductor is
0 0
1. 20 C 2. 60 C
3. 300 C 4. 1000 C
Sol :
Q
same
t
Q K 1 A
t
combination 3l
3l l l l
1
K K 2 K 3K
3 6 3 2 11
K1 6K 6K
18
K1 K
11
Q 18 KA 110
t comb 11 3l
60KA
=
l
Q 2 KA
t middle l
Q Q
t comb t middle
60KA 2KA
=
l l
30 0 C
KEY : 3
13. Two rods of same length and material transfer a given amount of heat in 12 s, when they are joined
parallel. But when they are joined in series, then they will transfer same heat in same conditions in
1) 24 s 2) 3 s 3) 1.5 s 4) 48 s
Q
Sol :
t R
t R
ts Rs t 2R
; S
t p Rp t p R
2
ts 4 x12 =48 s
KEY : 4
14. Rate of flow of heat through 12 identical conductors made of same material is as shown. Then. Which
of the following is correct.
2 J/s
A
1 J/s
1 J/s
G
C B 4 J/s
F
D E
2 J/s
3 J/s
1) The rate of flow of heat through the rod DE is 9 J/s
2) The rate of flow of heat through the rod DE is 5 J/s
3) The rate of flow of heat through the rod DE is 1 J/s
4) The rate of flow of heat through the rod DE is 11 J/s
Sol :
2 J/s
A 2-x
1 J/s
1 J/s x
G x+8-i
C
B 4 J/s
x-1 F
1
x+
x+4-i
D i E
2 J/s
3 J/s
Applying Kirchhoff’s junction law at G
2-x+x+8-i=1
i = 9 J/s
KEY : 1
15. Two identical rods are joined at their middle points. The ends are maintained at constant temperatures
as indicated. Find the temperature of the junction
1) 82.50C 2) 800C 3) 85.20C 4) 810C
Sol : Under steady state condition
Let be the temperature of the junction
180 75 50 25
82.50C
R R R R
KEY : 1
16. Two rods ( one semi- circular and other straight) of same material and of same cross - sectional area
are joined as shown in the figure. The points A and B are maintained at different temperatures. The
ratio of heat transferred through a cross -section of a semicircular rod to the heat transferred through a
cross section of the straight rod in a given time is
1) 2 : 2) 1 : 2 3) : 2 4) 3: 2
Sol : The rate of flow of heat
Q KA Q
t l
Q1 l2 2 R 2
Q2 l1 R
KEY : 1
17. Three rods of identical area of cross section and made from the same metal from the sides of an
isosceles triangle ABC, right angled at B. the points A and B are maintained at temperature T and
2T respectively ,In the steady state the temperature of the point C is TC is Assuming that only heat
conduction takes place, TC/T is equal to
1 3
1) 2)
2 1 2 1
1 1
3) 4)
2 2 2 1 3 2 1
Q Q
Sol :
t BC t CA
K 2T TC A
K TC T A
TC
3
a 2a T 1 2
KEY : 2
18. Consider the 6 identical rods as shown in figure, the conductivity of x is double that of y. The
temperature of the junction B is
1) 30 0 C 2) 40 0 C 3) 50 0 C 4) 20 0 C
Sol :
KEY : 2
19. In the figure ABC is a conducting rod whose lateral surfaces are insulated. The length of the section
AB is one-half of that of BC, and the respective thermal conductivities of the two sections are as given
in the figure. If the ends A and C are maintained at 0o C and 70o C respectively, temperature of junction
B in the steady state is
1) 30o C 2) 40o C 3) 50o C 4) 60o C
Sol : Heat currents in both the rods are equal.
B A
Or H CB H BA or C B
2l / 3KA l / 2 KA
3
70 B 2 B 0 or B 30o C
2
KEY : 1
20. Three rods made of the same material and having same cross-sectional area but different length 10cm,
20cm, and 30cm are joined as shown. The temperature of the junction is
1) 10.8o C 2) 14.6o C 3) 16.4o C 4) 18.2o C
Sol : Let be the temperature of junction, H1 , H 2 and H 3 the heat currents. Then
30 20 10
H1 H 2 H 3 or
30 / KA 20 / KA 10 KA
Or 2 30 3 20 10
Or 16.36o C = 16.4o C
KEY : 3
21. Three rods of same dimensions are arranged as shown in figure. They have thermal conductivities
K1 , K 2 and K3 . The points P and Q are maintained at different temperatures. For the heat flow at the
same rate along PRQ and PQ which of the following option is correct?
1 K1 K 2
1) K3 K1 K 2 2) K3 K1 K 2 3) K 3 4) K 3 2 K1 K 2
2 K1 K 2
Sol : RPR RRQ RPQ
1 1 1 KK
or K 3 1 2
K1 A K 2 A K 3 A K1 K 2
KEY : 3
22. Rate of heat flow through a cylindrical rod is H1 . Temperatures of ends of rod are T1 and T2 . If all the
dimensions of rod become double and temperature difference remains same and rate of heat flow
becomes H 2 . Then
H
1) H 2 2 H1 2) H 2 H1 3) H 2 1 4) H 2 4 H1
4
Q KA 1 2 A
Sol : H or H or H 2 2 H1
t l l
KEY : 1
23. Two identical conducting rods AB and CD are connected to a circular conducting ring at two
diametrically opposite points B and C. The radius of the ring is equal to the length of rods AB and CD.
The area of cross-section, and thermal conductivity of the rod and ring are equal. Points A and D are
maintained at temperatures of 100o C and 0o C . Temperature of point C will be
1) 62o C 2) 37o C 3) 28o C 4) 45o C
Sol : RAB RCD R say
Length of semicircle l
Resistance of semicircle R as R l
R
RBC (in parallel)
2
100 0
Heat current H 28 units
R R .R
2
Now C 0o HR 28o C ; C 28o C
KEY : 3
24. The spectrum of a black body at two temperatures 27 0 C and 327 0 C is shown in the figure. Let A1
A
and A2 be the areas under the two curves respectively. Find the value of 2 .
A1
1) 16 : 1 2) 8 : 1
3) 9 : 4 4) 16 : 9
Sol : Area under given curve, represents emissive power
E T4
area of graph A T 4
4 4 4
A T 327 273 600
2 2 24 16
A1 T1 27 273 300
KEY : 1
25. The plots of intensity of radiation versus wavelength of three black bodies at temperatures T1 , T2 and
T3 are shown. Then
1) T3 T2 T1 2) T1 T2 T3 3) T2 T3 T1 4) T1 T3 T2
1
Sol : According to Wien’s law, m
T
and from the figure m 1 m 3 m 2
Therefore, T1 T3 T2
KEY : 4
26. In the figure, the distribution of energy density of the radiation emitted by a blank body at a given
temperature is shown. The possible temperature of the blank body is
1) 1500 K 2) 2000 K 3) 2500 K 4) 3000 K
Sol : mT b where b 2.89 103 mK
b 2.89 103
T 2000 K
m 1.5 10 6
KEY : 2
27. A solid sphere is at a temperature T K. The fraction of energy emitted per second by the half sphere to
that complete sphere is
1 1 3 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4 4 16
2
P 3 R
Sol : P A 1
P2 4 R 2
KEY : 3
28. A sphere and a cube of same material and same volume are heated up to same temperature and allowed
to cool in the same surroundings. The ratio of the amounts of radiations emitted in equal time intervals
will be
4
1) 1 : 1 2) :1
3
1/ 3 2/3
1 4
3) :1 4) :1
6 2 3
Sol : Vsphere Vcube
4
R3 a 3
3
1/ 3
R 3
a 4
Psphere A1 4 R 2
Pcube A2 6a 2
2/3
4 3
6 4
1/ 3
1 4
2/ 3 6
1/ 3
2 3 1
KEY : 3
29. A body cools down from 80°C to 60°C in 10 minutes when the temperature of surroundings is 30°C.
The temperature of the body after next 10 minutes will be
(1) 30°C (2) 48°C (3) 50°C (4) 52°C
0
20 C
Sol : K 70 30 (1)
10 min
60 T 60 T
K 30 (2)
10 min 2
Solve equations (1) and (2)
d
K 1 2 s
dt 2
80 60 80 60
K 30
10 2
1
2 K 40 K
20
|
60 1 60 |
30
10 20 2
1 60 | 60
; | 48o C
2 2
KEY : 2
30. Two bodies have thermal capacities in the ratio 3 : 4 and the rates of loss of heat in the ratio 3 : 5.
Their rates of cooling will be in the ratio of
1) 9 : 20 2) 4 : 5 3) 5 : 4 4) 1 : 1
d
dQ d 3 3 dt 1
Sol : ms
dt dt 5 4 d
dt 2
KEY : 2
31. A black body is at a temperature of 5760K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength
250nm is U1, at wavelength 500nm is U2 and that at 1000nm is U3. Wien’s constant, b= 2.88 10 6
nmK. Which of the following is correct
1) U1=0 2) U3=0 3) U1>U2 4) U2>U1
b
Sol : Maximum amount of emitted radiation corresponding to m
T
KEY : 4
32. The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy around the wavelength 0 .
Now the temperature of the black body is changed so that it radiates maximum energy around
wavelength 0 / 2 . The power radiated by it will now increase by a factor of:
1) 2 2) 16 3) 8 4) 64
0
Sol : T ' 0 T 2T Power radiated will increase by a factor of 2 4 16
2
P AeT 4
4 4
P T 1
4 1
PT ; 1 1 ; P2 16P1
P2 T2 2 16
KEY : 2
33. A sphere has a surface area of1.0 m2 and a temperature of 400K and the power radiated from it is
150W. Assuming the sphere is black body radiator, the power in kilowatt radiated when the area
expands to 2.0 m2 and the temperature changes to 800K
1) 6.2 2) 9.6 3) 4.8 4) 16
4
Sol : P AT
5
Area and temperature both are doubled. Hence power will become 2 or 32 times.
32 150
P| 32 P kW = 4.8kW
1000
KEY : 3
34. The ratio of the emissive power to the absorptive power of all substances for a particular wavelength is
the same at given temperature. The ratio is known as
1) the emissive power of a perfectly black body
2) the emissive power of any type of body
3) the Stefan’s constant
4) the Wein’s constant
e e
Sol :
a any body a Perfectly black body
According to Kirchhoff’s law
e
But a 1 for perfectly black body. Hence for anybody is equal to e for perfectly black body
a
KEY : 1
35. If a body coated blank at 600K surrounded by atmosphere at 300K has cooling rate r0 , the same body
at 900K, surrounded by the same atmosphere will have cooling rate equal to
16 8
1) r0 2) r0 3) 16r0 4) 4r0
3 16
Sol : Cooling rate T 4 T04
900 4 300 4 16
r 4 4 0
r r0
600 300 3
KEY : 1
36. If e and a be the emissive power of body, then according to Kirchhoff’s law, which is same ( E
=emissive power of perfectly black body)
1) e a E 2) e E a 3) e a E 4) e a E constant
Sol : According to Kirchhoff’s law, the ratio of emissive power to absorptive power is same for all bodies.
Which is equal to the emissive power of a perfectly black body i.e.,
e
EBlack body for a particular wavelength
a body
e
E Black body e a E
a body
KEY : 3
37. The area of the hole of heat furnace is 104 m 2 . It radiates1.58 105 cal of heat per hour. If the
emissivity of the furnace is 0.80, then its temperature is
1) 1500 K 2) 2000 K 3) 2500 K 4) 3000 K
4
Sol : According to Stefan’s law E AT
1.58 105 4.2
5.67 108 104 0.8 T 4 T 2500 K
60 60
KEY : 3
38. A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate are heated to the same temperature. All are made of the same
material and have the equal masses. If t1 , t2 and t3 are the respective time taken by the sphere, cube and
the circular plate in cooling down to a common temperature, then
1) t1 t2 t3 2) t1 t2 t3 3) t2 t1 t3 4) t1 t2 t3
Sol : A body having maximum surface are will cool at fastest rate.
KEY :
39. Snow is more heat insulating than ice, because
1) Air is filled in porous of snow
2) Ice is more bad conductor than snow
3) Air is filled in porous of ice
4) Density of ice is more
Sol : Air is filled in porous of snow
KEY : 1
40. Air is bad conductor of heat, still vacuum is preferred between the walls of the thermos flask because
1) it is difficult to fill the air between the walls of thermos flask
2) due to more pressure of air, the flask can crack
3) by convection, heat can flow through air
4) None of the above
Sol : No flows of heat by convection in vacuum.
KEY : 3
41. The graph, shown in the adjacent diagram, represents the variation of temperature (T) of two bodies, x
and y having same surface area, with time (t) due to the emission of radiation. Find the correct relation
between the emissivity (e) and absorptivity (a) of two bodies
1) ex e y and ax a y 2) ex ey and ax a y 3) ex e y and ax a y 4) ex ey and ax a y
dT
Sol : Rate of cooling emissivity (e)
dt
dT dT
From graph, ex e y
dt x dt y
Further emissivity e absorptive power (a) ax a y
(good absorbers are good emitters)
KEY : 3
42. At 273o C , the emissive power of a perfect black body is R. What is its value at 0o C ?
R R R
1) 2) 3) 4) None of these
4 16 2
Sol : From Stefan’s law, the total radiant energy emitted per second per unit surface area of a black body is
proportional to the fourth power of the absolute temperature (T) of the body
E T 4 where is Stefan’s constant.
Given, E1 R, T1 273o C 273 273 546K
T2 0o C 273K
4
E T4 T4
1 14 E2 24 E1 E2
273 R
4
E2 T2 T1 546
R
E2
16
KEY : 2
43. A thin square steel plate with each side equal to 10cm is heated by a blacksmith. The rate radiated
energy by the heated plate is 1134 W. The temperature of the hot steel plate is
(Stefan’s constant 5.67 108Wm1 K 4 , emissivity of the plate = 1)
1) 1000 K 2) 1189 K 3) 2000 K 4) 2378 K
4
Sol : The rate of radiated energy E AT
2
Or 1134 1 5.67 10 8 0.1 T 4
Temperature T 1189 K
KEY : 2
44. The tungsten filament of an electric lamp has a surface area A and a power ratting P. If the emissivity
of the filament is and is Stefan’s constant the steady temperature of the filament will be
1 1
4
P P A 4 P 4
1) T 2) T 3) T 4) T
A A P A
Sol : The energy radiated per second per unit area at temperature T is given P T 4
Thus, the energy radiated per second (or power radiate) from the filament of area A is
1
4 P 4
P A T or T
A
KEY : 4
45. Two solid sphere A and B made of the same material have radii rA and rB respectively. Both the spheres
are cooled from the same temperature under the conditions valid for Newton’s law of cooling. The
ratio of the rate of change of temperature A and B is
r r r2 r2
1) A 2) B 3) A2 4) B2
rB rA rB rA
Sol :
H A rB
(say) Ratio of rates of fall of temperature
H B rA
KEY : 2
46. The temperature of a radiating body increases by 30%. Then the increase in the amount of radiation
emitted will be approximately
1) 185% 2) 285% 3) 325% 4) 245%
Sol :
KEY : 1
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAY-4 PRACTICE ASSIGNMENTS-2
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
CHAPTER: THERMODYNAMICS
1. If the density of water 1gm cm 3 changes to 6.25 10 4 gm cm 3 when 1gm of water is converted to
vapour, then the work done against 1 atmospheric pressure of 10 5 Pa is
1) 160J 2) 625J 3) 312.5J 4) 82.3J
KEY : 1
Sol :
W PdV P(V2 V1 )
1
W 105 4
106 1 106 160 J
6.25 10
2. Variation of internal energy with density of one mole of monatomic gas is depicted in the adjoining
figure, corresponding variation of pressure with volume can be depicted as (Assuming the curve is
rectangular hyperbola)
U
P
P P P
v v v v
1) 2) 3) 4)
KEY : 4
Sol :
1 P RT
Since U or U = constant, P = constant since is increasing, therefore V is
M
decreasing
3. In the following indicator diagram, the net amount of work done will be
1) Positive 2) Negative 3) Zero 4) Infinity
KEY : 2
Sol :
The cyclic process 1 is clockwise where as process 2 is anticlockwise. Clockwise area represents
positive work and anticlockwise area represents negative work. Since negative area (2) > positive
area (1), hence net work done is negative
4. The volume of air increases by 5% in its adiabatic expansion. The percentage decrease in its pressure
will be 1.4
(1) 5% (2) 6% (3) 7% (4) 8%
KEY : 3
Sol :
PV K or P V 1dV dP . V 0
dP dV dP dV
or or 100 100
P V P V
1.4 5 7%
5. When an ideal gas ( 5 / 3 ) is heated under constant pressure, then what percentage of given heat
energy will be utilised in doing external work
(1) 40 % (2) 30 % (3) 60 % (4) 20 %
KEY : 1
Sol :
W U nC dT
Q U W 1 1 V
Q Q nCP dT
W C 3 2 W
1 V 1 0.4 100 40%
Q CP 5 5 Q
6. A reversible engine converts one-sixth of the heat input into work. When the temperature of the sink
is reduced by 62°C, the efficiency of the engine is doubled. The temperatures of the source and sink
are
(1) 80°C, 37°C (2) 95°C, 28°C (3) 90°C, 37°C (4) 99°C, 37°C
KEY : 4
Sol :
T W 1
Initially 1 2 ...(i)
T1 Q 6
T ' (T 62 ) T 62
Finally ' 1 2 1 2 1 2
T1 T1 T1 T1
62
....(ii)
T1
It is given that ' 2.
62 62 1 62
2n n n ;
T1 T1 6 T1
T1 372 K 99C and T2 310 K 37C
7. The P-V diagram of 2 gm of helium gas for a certain process A B is shown in the figure. what is
the heat given to the gas during the process A B
P
2P0
B
P0 A
V0 2V0 V
(1) 4 PV
o o (2) 6 PoVo (3) 4.5PV
o o (4) 2 PV
o o
KEY : 2
Sol :
Change in internal energy from A B is
f f
U nRT ( Pf V f PV i i)
2 2
3 9
(2 P0 2V0 P0 V0 ) PV
0 0
2 2
Work done in process A B is equal to the Area covered by the graph with volume axis i.e.,
1 3
W A B (P0 2 P0 ) (2 V0 V0 ) P0 V0
2 2
Hence, Q U W 9 P0 V0 3
P0 V0 6 P0 V0
2 2
8. A gas mixture consists of 3 moles of oxygen and 5 moles of argon at temperature T. Considering
only translational and rotational modes, the total internal energy of the system is
1) 12 RT 2) 15 RT 3) 20 RT 4) 4 RT
KEY : 2
Sol :
n f RT
Internal energy of a gas with f degree of freedom is U , where n is the number of moles.
2
n f RT 5
Internal energy due to O2 gas which is a diatomic gas is U1 1 1 3 RT
2 2
( n1 3 moles, degree of freedom for a diatomic gas f1 5 )
n f RT 3
Internal energy due to Ar gas which is a monoatomic gas is U 2 2 2 5 RT
2 2
( n2 5 moles, degree of freedom for a monoatomic gas f 2 3 )
Total internal energy = U 1 U 2
U 15 RT
9. For free expansion of the gas which of the following is true
(1) Q W 0 and Eint 0 (2) Q 0, W 0 and Eint W
(3) W 0, Q 0, and Eint Q (4) W 0, Q 0 and Eint 0
KEY : 1
Sol :
For the free expansion of the gas Q and W are zero and change in internal energy is also zero
10. The specific heat of hydrogen gas at constant pressure is C P 3. 4 10 3 cal / kg o C and at constant volume is
CV 2 .4 10 3 cal / kg o C. If one kilogram hydrogen gas is heated from 10 o C to 20 o C at constant pressure,
the external work done on the gas to maintain it at constant pressure is
(1) 10 5 cal (2) 10 4 cal (3) 10 3 cal (4) 5 10 3 cal
KEY : 2
Sol :
From first law of thermodynamics, Q = U + W
Work done at constant pressure (W )P (Q)P U
(Q)P (Q)V (As we know (Q)V U )
Also (Q)P mc P T and (Q)V mc V T
(W )P m(c P c V )T
(W )P 1 (3. 4 10 3 2 .4 10 3 ) 10 10 4 cal
11. In a thermodynamic process, pressure of a fixed mass of a gas is changed in such a manner that the gas
molecules gives out 30 J of heat and 10 J of work is done on the gas. If the initial internal energy of the
gas was 40 J, then the final internal energy will be
(1) 30 J (2) 20 J (3) 60 J (4) 40 J
KEY : 2
Sol :
Q U W (U f U i ) W
30 (U f 40) 10 U f 20 J
12. If the ratio of specific heat of a gas at constant pressure to that at constant volume is , the change in
internal energy of a mass of a gas, when the volume changes from V to 2V at constant pressure p, is
(1) R /( 1) (2) pV (3) pV /( 1) (4) pV /( 1)
KEY : 3
Sol :
R
U nCV T n T
1
PV P(2 V V ) PV
U
( 1) 1 ( 1)
13. When an ideal gas in a cylinder was compressed isothermally by a piston, the work done on the gas was
found to be 1. 5 10 4 joules . During this process about
(1) 3.6 10 3 cal of heat flowed out from the gas
(2) 3.6 10 3 cal of heat flowed into the gas
(3) 1. 5 10 4 cal of heat flowed into the gas
(4) 1. 5 10 4 cal of heat flowed out from the gas
KEY : 1
Sol :
In isothermal compression, there is always an increase of heat without change of temperature.
Q U W Q W ( U 0)
1.5 104
Q 1.5 104 J cal 3.6 103 cal
4.18
14. The latent heat of vaporisation of water is 2240 J/gm. If the work done in the process of expansion of 1
g is 168 J, then increase in internal energy is
(1) 2408 J (2) 2240 J (3) 2072 J (4) 1904 J
KEY : 3
Sol :
Q U W U Q W 2240 168 2072 J .
15. One gm mol of a diatomic gas ( 1 . 4 ) is compressed adiabatically so that its temperature rises from
27 o C to 127 o C . The work done will be
(1) 2077.5 joules (2) 207.5 joules (3) 207.5 ergs (4) None of the above
KEY : 1
Sol :
R
W (T1 T2 )
1
8 . 31 {(273 27 ) (273 127 )}
2077 . 5 joules
1.4 1
1
16. If 2 .5 and final volume is equal to times to the initial volume then final pressure P' is equal to
8
(Initial pressure = P)
(1) P ' P (2) P' 2 P (3) P ' P (2)15 / 2 (4) P' 7 P
KEY : 3
Sol :
P2 V1 P'
(8 )5 / 2 P ' P (2)15 / 2
P1 V2
P
17. For a reversible process, necessary condition is
(1) In the whole cycle of the system, the loss of any type of heat energy should be zero
(2) That the process should be too fast
(3) That the process should be slow so that the working substance should remain in thermal
and mechanical equilibrium with the surroundings
(4) The loss of energy should be zero and it should be quasistatic
KEY : 4
Sol : For a reversible process dQ 0
T
18. A Carnot's engine used first an ideal monoatomic gas then an ideal diatomic gas. If the source and sink
temperature are 411 o C and 69 o C respectively and the engine extracts 1000 J of heat in each cycle, then
area enclosed by the PV diagram is
(1) 100 J (2) 300 J (3) 500 J (4) 700 J
KEY : 3
Sol :
T2 (273 69 )
1 1 0. 5
T1 (273 411)
Work done Q 0 .5 1000 500 J
19. The temperature of a hypothetical gas increases to 2 times when compressed adiabatically to half
the volume. Its equation can be written as
(1) PV 3 / 2 = constant (2) PV 5 / 2 = constant (3) PV 7 / 3 = constant (4) PV 4 / 3 = constant
KEY : 1
Sol :
TV 1 = constant
1 1
T1 V2 1 1
or
T2 V1 2 2
1 3
1 or PV 3 / 2 = constant
2 2
20. Six moles of an ideal gas performs a cycle shown in figure. If the temperature are TA = 600 K, TB = 800
K, TC = 2200 K and TD = 1200 K, the work done per cycle is
P B C
A
D
(1) 20 kJ (2) 30 kJ (3) 40 kJ (4) 60 kJ
KEY : 3
Sol :
Processes A to B and C to D are parts of straight line graphs of the form y = mx
nR
Also P T ( n = 6)
V
P T. So volume remains constant for the graphs AB and CD
P
P2 B TB =800 K TC = 2200 K
P2 C
VB
VC
TA =600 K
P1 TD =1200 K
A VA D
VD
T
So no work is done during processes for A to B and C to D i.e., WAB = WCD = 0 and WBC = P2(VC – VB) = nR
(TC – TB)
= 6R (2200 – 800) = 6R 1400 J
Also WDA = P1 (VA – VD) = nR(TA – TB)
= 6R (600 – 1200)= – 6R 600 J
Hence work done in complete cycle
W = WAB + WBC + WCD + WDA
= 0 + 6R 1400 + 0 – 6R 600
= 6R 900 = 6 8.3 800 40 kJ
21. Heat energy absorbed by a system in going through a cyclic process shown in figure is
V (litre)
30
10
10 30 P (kPa)
7 4
1)10 J 2) 10 J 3) 102 J 4) 10 3 J
KEY : 3
Sol :
In a cyclic process, U = 0
2
20
From Q = U + W = 0 + W = Area of closed curve Q = r2 kPa litre
2
100 10 3 10 3 J 100 J
22. When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, the fraction of the heat energy supplied
Which increases the internal energy of the gas is
1) 2/5 2) 3/5 3) 3/7 4) 5/7
KEY : 4
Sol :
Fraction of supplied energy which increases the internal energy is given by
U Q V CV T 1
f
Q P Q P CP T
7 5
For diatomic gas f
5 7
23. For one complete cycle of a thermodynamic process on a gas as shown in the P-V diagram, Which of
following is correct( ΔE int change in internal energy, Q is net heat)
P
A
C B
V
1) E int 0, Q O 2) E int 0, Q 0 3) E int 0, Q 0 4) E int 0, Q 0
KEY : 2
Sol :
E int 0 , for a complete cycle and for given cycle work done is positive, so from first
law of thermodynamics Q will be negative i.e. Q 0.
24. A vessel contains helium, which expands at constant pressure when 15 kJ of heat is supplied to it.
What will be the variation of the internal energy of the gas? What is the work performed in the
expansion?
1) 2 kJ, 12kJ 2) 6 kJ, 9kJ 3) 9kJ, 6 kJ 4) 8 kJ, 5Kj
KEY : 3
Sol :
Here Q 15000 J given
Q C p T
U Cv T
W RT
25. A gas is compressed from a volume of 2m3 to a volume of 1m3 at a constant pressure of 100 N/m2.
Then it is heated at constant volume by supplying 150 J of energy. As a result, the internal energy of
the gas:
1) Increases by 250 J 2) Decreases by 250 J 3) Increases by 50 J 4) Decreases by 50 J
KEY : 1
Sol :
As we know,
Q u w 1st law of thermodynamics
Q u Pv
150 u 100 1 2 u 100
u 150 100 250 J
Thus the internal energy of the gas increase by 250 J
26. In a cyclic process shown in the figure an ideal gas is adiabatically taken from B to A, the work done
on the gas during the process B A is 30 J, when the gas is taken from A B the heat absorbed by
the gas is 20 J. The change in internal energy of the gas in the process A → B is
1) 20 J 2) – 30 J 3) 50 J 4) – 10 J
KEY : 2
Sol :
WBA 30 J
QBA 0
U BA WBA 30 J
Now U AB U BA 30 J
27. Certain amount of an ideal gas is contained in a closed vessel. The vessel is moving with a constant
velocity v. The molecular mass of gas is M. The rise in temperature of the gas when the vessel is
suddenly stopped is CP / CV
Mv 2 1 Mv2 1 Mv 2 Mv 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 R 1 2R 2 R 1 2 R 1
KEY : 2
Sol :
1 2
If m is the total mass of the gas, then its kinetic energy = mv
2
When the vessel is suddenly stopped, total kinetic energy will increase the
temperature of the gas (because process will be adiabatic), i.e.,
1 2
mv nCV T
2
m
CV T
M
m R 1
T mv 2
M 1 2
R
As CV
1
Mv 2 1
T
2R
c
28. If p and cv denote the specific heats of nitrogen per unit mass at constant pressure and constant
volume respectively, then
R R
1) c p cV 2) c p cV 3) c p cV R 4) c p cV 28R
28 14
KEY : 1
Sol :
R R
Mayer formula c p cV
M 28
29. The relation between internal energy U, pressure P and volume V of a gas in an adiabatic process is
U a bPV . Where a and b are constants. What is the effective value of adiabatic constant ?
a b 1 a 1 b
1) 2) 3) 4)
b b a a
KEY : 2
Sol :
For an adiabatic process
0 dU PdV
d a bPV PdV 0
bPdV bVdP pdV 0
dV dP
b 1 b 0
V P
(b 1) log V b log P constant
V b 1 pb constant
b 1
b
PV constant
b 1
b
8 5
30. An ideal gas at 27 0 C is compressed adiabatically to of its original volume. If , then the rise
27 3
in temperature is
1) 450 K 2) 375 K 3) 225 K 4) 405 K
KEY : 2
1
1 V
Sol : TV constant T2 T1 1
V2
2
27 1/3 3
2
300 300 675 K
8 2
T 675 300 375 K
31. One mole of an ideal diatomic gas undergoes a transition from A to B along a path AB as shown in
the figure,
The change in internal energy of the gas during the transition is :
1) –20 kJ 2) 20 J 3) –12 kJ 4) 20 KJ
KEY : 1
Sol :
32. An ideal gas expands isothermally from a volume V1 to V 2 and then compressed to original volume
V1 adiabatically. Initial pressure is P1 and final pressure is P3 . The total work done is W. Then
C
P3
P1
A
P2 B
E(V1) D(V2) V
1) P3 P1 , W 0 2) P3 P1 , W 0 3) P3 P1 , W 0 4) P3 P1 , W 0
KEY : 3
Sol :
From graph it is clear that P3 P1 .
Since area under adiabatic process (BCED) is greater than that of isothermal
process (ABDE). Therefore net work done
W Wi (WA ) WA Wi W 0
33. P-V plots for two gases during adiabatic process are shown in the figure. Plots 1 and 2 should
correspond respectively to
P
2
V
1) He and O 2 2) O 2 and He 3) He and Ar 4) O 2 and N 2
KEY : 2
Sol :
In adiabatic process, slope of PV-graph.
dP P
|Slope|
dV V
From the given graph (Slope)2 > (Slope)1 2 1
therefore 1 should correspond to O2 ( = 1.4) and 2 should correspond to He ( =
1.66)
34. A cyclic process ABCA is shown in the V-T diagram. Process on the P-V diagram is
V
C B
A
T
P C P
B
A
A C
B
1) V 2) V
P P
A
A B
C B
C
3) V 4) V
KEY : 3
Sol :
From the given VT diagram,
In process AB, V T Pressure is constant (As quantity of the gas remains
same)
In process BC, V = Constant and in process CA,
T = constant
These processes are correctly represented on PV diagram by graph (3)
35. A gas expands with temperature according to the relation V kT 2 / 3 . What is the work done when the
temperature changes by 30o C
1) 10 R 2) 20 R 3) 30 R 4) 40 R
KEY : 2
Sol :
RT
W PdV V
dV
2
Since V kT 2 / 3 KT 1 / 3 dT dV
3
Eliminating K, we find dV 2 dT
V 3 T
T2 2 RT 2 2
Hence W
dT R(T2 T1 ) R(30) 20 R
T1 3 T 3 3
36. A gas undergoes a change of state during which 100 J of heat is supplied to it and it does 20 J of
work. The system is brought back to its original state through a process during which 20 J of heat is
released by the gas. The work done by the gas in the second process is
1) 60 J 2) 40 J 3) 80 J 4) 20 J
KEY : 1
Sol :
In a cyclic process U 0 Q W
(100 20 ) 20 W2 W2 60 J
37. Three samples of the same gas A, B and C 3 / 2 initially have equal volume. Now the volume
of each sample is doubled. The process is adiabatic for A, isobaricfor B and isothermal for C. If the
final pressures are equal for all the three samples, the ratio of their initial pressures is
1) 2 2 : 2 :1 2) 2 2 :1: 2 3) 2 :1: 2 4) 2 :1: 2
KEY : 2
Sol :
Let the initial pressure of the three samples be PA , PB and PC then
3/2 3/ 2 3/ 2
PA V 2V P PA P 2
For B, PB P
PC V P 2V PC 2 P
3/2
PA : PB : PC 2 :1: 2 2 2 :1: 2
38. For a gas undergoing an adiabatic process, the relation between temperature and volume is found to
be TV0.4=constant. This gas must be:
1) hydrogen 2) helium 3) carbon dioxide 4) argon
KEY : 1
Sol :
From the adiabatic relation
TV 1 constant
Here 1 0.4
Which gives = 1.4, corresponds to diatomic gas
39. During an adiabatic process, the pressure of a gas is found to be proportional to the cube of absolute
C
temperature. The ratio p for the gas is
Cv
1) 4/3 2) 2 3) 5/3 4) 3/2
KEY : 4
Sol :
Given, that p T 3
pT 3 constant ….. (i)
Also for adiabatic process, pV constant
But pV = RT (ideal gas law)
RT
V
p
RT
p constant
p
p1 T constant
1
pT constant …… (ii)
Equating Eq. (i) and (ii), we get
3
1
3 3
2 3
3
2
Cp 3
Cv 2
40. A resistance ‘R’ connected to an external battery is put inside an adiabatic cylinder containing an
ideal gas as shown. The piston can move along cylinder length without friction and atmospheric
pressure is P0 . The constant speed ‘v’ by which piston of area of cross-section A should be moved
02
so that temperature of gas do not change is [ Power radiated through resistor is R ]
2 20 8 02 20 20
1) 2) 3) 4)
3P0AR 5 P0AR 2P0AR P0AR
KEY : 4
Sol :
dQ dU dW
dQ dU dW
dt dt dt
PA
PA
du
Temperature do not change. Hence 0
dt
dQ dw
dt dt
Thus,
2
0 P0A.(v)
R
02
v
P0 AR
41. In the P-V diagram shown in figure ABC is a semicircle. The work done in the process ABC is
1) zero 2) atm L 3) atm L 4) 4 atm L
2 2
KEY : 2
Sol :
WAB is negative (volume is decreasing) and WBc is positive (volume is increasing)
and since, WBC > WAB
r1r2
Net work done is positive and area between semicircle which is equal to
2 2
atm-L.
42. A carnot engine takes 2000J of heat from a reservoir at 500K, dose some work, & discards some heat
to a reservoir at 350K. How much work does it do& what is the efficiency?
1) 1400J, 30% 2) 600J, 20% 3) 1400J, 20% 4) 600J, 30%
KEY : 4
Sol :
From equation for carnot engine Q C /Q H TC /TH
Q C 1400J
w Q H Q C 600J
W /Q H 600 / 2000 100% 30%
43. Two Carnot engines A and B are operated in series. The first one, A receives heat at T1 (=600 K) and
rejects to a reservoir at temperature T2 . The second engine B receives heat rejected by the first engine
and in turn rejects to a heat reservoir at T3 ( = 400 K). Calculate the temperature T2 if the work outputs
of the two engines are equal.
1) 600 K 2) 500 K 3) 400 K 4) 300 K
KEY : 2
Sol :
Q1 Q2 Q2 Q3
Q1 Q3 2Q2
Q1 Q3
2
Q2 Q2
44. A Carnot freezer takes heat from water at 0°C inside it and rejects it to the room at a temperature
of 27°C. The latent heat of ice is 336 103 J kg–1. If 5 kg of water at 0°C is converted into ice at 0°C
by the freezer, then the energy consumed by the freezer is close to:
1) 1.51 105 J 2) 1.68 106 J 3) 1.71 107 J 4) 1.67 105 J
KEY : 4
Sol :
H mL 5 336 103 Qsink
Qsink T
sink
Qsource Tsource
Tsource
Qsource Qsink
Tsink
Energy consumed by freezer
Woutout Qsource Qsink
T
Qsink source 1
Tsink
0
Given : Tsource 27 C 273 300K ,
Tsink 00 C 273 273K
300
Woutput 5 336 103 1 1.67 105 J
273
45. An engine operates by taking n moles of an ideal gas through the cycle ABCDA shown in figure. The
thermal efficiency of the engine is: (Take CV =1.5 R, where R is gas constant)
1) 0.24 2) 0.15 3) 0.32 4) 0.08
KEY : 2
Sol :
Work done (W) = P0V0
According to principle of calorimetry
Heat given = QAB QBC nCV dTAB nC P dTBC
3 5
nRTB nRTA nRTC nRTB
2 2
3 5
2 PV 0 0
0 0 PV 4PV 0 0
0 0 2 PV
2 2
13
PV 0 0
2
Thermal efficiency of engine
W 2
( ) = 0.15
Qgiven 13
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT
DAY – 25 (DT 08-05-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
CHAPTER: KINETIC THEORY OF GASES
============================================================================================================================
1. Which of the following statement is true according to kinetic theory of gases?
1) The collision between two molecules is inelastic and the time between two collisions is less than
the time taken during the collision.
2) There is a force of attraction between the molecules
3) All the molecules of a gas move with same velocity
4) The average of the distances travelled between two successive collision is mean free path.
Sol : The average of the distances travelled between two successive collision is mean free path.
Key : 4
2. Gas exerts pressure on the walls of container because the molecules
1) Are losing their Kinetic energy
2) Are getting stuck to the walls
3) Are transferring their momentum to walls
4) Are accelerated towards walls
Sol : Gas molecules are in random motion having some momentum and while colliding with the walls they
transfer their momentum to the walls and this collective transfer of momentum from all the molecules to
the walls appears as pressure exerted by gas on the container wall
Key :3
3. In kinetic theory of gases, it is assumed that molecules
1) Have same mass but can have different volume
2) Have same volume but masses can be different
3) Have both mass and volume different
4) Have same mass but negligible volume
Sol : Have same mass but negligible volume
Key :4
4. An electric fan is switched on in a closed room. The air in the room is
1) Cooled 2) Heated 3) Maintains its temperature
4) Heated of cooled depending on the Atmosphere
Sol : If an electric fan is switched on in a closed room, the air will be heated because due to motion of the
fan, the speed of air molecules will increase. In fact, we feel cold due to evaporation of our sweat
Key :2
PV
5. The figure below shows the plot of versus P for oxygen gas at two different temperatures.
nT
Read the following statements concerning the curves given below.
I) The dotted line corresponds to the ‘ideal’ gas behavior.
II) T1 T2
PV
III) The value of at the point, where the curves meet on the y-axis is the same for all gases.
nT
Which of the above statement(s) is/are true?
1) I only 2) I and II
3) I, II and III 4) None of these
Sol : Ideal gas obeys gas laws at all temperatures and pressures.
At high temperature and low pressure, all gases behave like ideal gas.
Key :3
6. The root mean square and most probable speed of the molecules in a gas are:
1) same 2) different
3) cannot say
4) depends on nature of the gas
Sol : The root mean square and most probable speed of the molecules in a gas are different
Key :2
7. According to Max well’s law of distribution of velocities of molecules, the most probable velocity
is:
1) greater than the mean velocity
2) equal to the mean velocity
3) equal to the root mean square velocity
4) less than the root mean square velocity
3RT 8 RT
Sol : v ; vav
M M
Key :4
8. Mean free path of gas molecule at constant temperature is inversely proportional to?
1) P 2) V
3) m 4) n (number density)
kT
Sol :
2 r 2 P
Key :1
9. Two containers A and B contain molecular gas at same temperature with mass of molecules are
mA and mB, then relation of momentum PA and PB will be
1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2
m m m
1) PA PB 2) PA A PB 3) PA B PB 4) PA A PB
mB mA mB
1 2 p2
Sol : E mv constant p m
2 2m
Key :2
10. Maxwell distribution function is shown in figure for different gases, which of the following is
correct matching?
(1) A Ne, B O2, C He
(2) A Ne, B He, C O2
(3) A O2, B He, C Ne
(4) A O2, B Ne, C He
Sol :
Key :1
o
10. The total kinetic energy of 1 mole of N 2 at 27 C will be approximately.
1) 1500 J 2) 1500 Calories
3) 1500 kilo Calories 4) 1500 erg
1
Sol : According to law of equipartition of energy, a molecule can have nRT energy per degree of
2
freedom. Here given molecule N2 is diatomic molecule. and we know, there are five degree of
freedom of a diatomic molecule ( three translational and two rotational ).
5
so, total kinetic energy = nRT
2
here, n is number of mole. given, n = 1
R is universal gas constant i.e., R = 2 Cal/mol.K
and T is temperature in Kelvin. given, T = 27°C = (27 + 273)K = 300K
now, total kinetic energy = 5/2 × 1 × 2 × 300
= 5 × 300 = 1500 Cal
Key :2
11. The root mean square velocity of a gas molecule of mass m at a given temperature is proportional to
1
1) m 2) m 3) m 4)
m
3RT m
Sol : Vrms ; (M )
M n
3RT 3nRT
Vrms Vrms
m/n m
1
Vrms
m
Key :4
12. Mean kinetic energy (or average energy) per gm. Molecule of a monatomic gas given by
1) 3RT/2 2) KT/2 3) RT/3 4)3KT/2
Sol : Conceptual
One gram molecule is the no.of molecules present in one mole, i.e, 6.022×102 3 molecules.
Therefore mean kinetic energy per gram molecule of a monoatomic gas:
3 3
= NkBT = RT since R=NkB
2 2
Key :1
13. Relation between pressure (P) and energy density (E) of an ideal gas is
1) P = 2/3 E 2) P = 3/2 E 3) P = 3/5 E 4) P = E
m
Sol : PV RT
M
Note that the internal energy of an ideal gas is equal to its kinetic energy because the potential
energy of an ideal gas is zero as there is no intermolecular interaction between gas particles.
Key :1
14. If the total number of H 2 molecules is double that of the O2 molecules then the ratio of total
kinetic energies of H 2 to that of O2 at 300 K is
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 2 : 1 4) 1 : 16
3
Sol : Kinetic energy for a single molecule is given as E= kT
2
where k is Boltzman's constant so for 2n molecules of Hydrogen the kinetic energy will be
EH2 =2n (1.5kT)
And that for n molecules of O2 will be EO2 =n(1.5kT)
ratio of energies will be EH2 : EO2 2 : 1
Key : 3
15. At which temperature of the following, does any gas has average molecular kinetic energy double
that of at 20o C
1) 40o C 2) 80o C 3) 313o C 4) 586o C
Sol :
Key :3
16. When temperature is increased from 0 C to 273 C, in what ratio the average kinetic energy of
molecules change?
1) 1 2) 3 3) 4 4) 2
Sol :
Key :4
17. At a given temperature, the pressure of an ideal gas of density is proportional to
1 1
1) 2) 3) 2 4)
2
Sol :
Key :4
18. The volume of an ideal gas is V at pressure P and temperature T. The mass of each molecule of the
gas in m. The density of gas will be (K is Boltzmann’s constant)
1) mKT 2) Pm/KT 3) mKT 4) P/KT
Sol :
Key :4
19. A gas has volume V and pressure P. The total translational kinetic energy of all the molecules of the
gas is
3
(1) PV only if the gas is monoatomic
2
3
(2) PV only if the gas is diatomic
2
3
(3) PV if the gas is diatomic
2
3
(4) PV in all cases
2
Sol :
Key :4
20. The mean kinetic energy of one mole of gas per degree of freedom is
1 3 3 1
1) kT 2) kT 3) RT 4) RT
2 2 2 2
Sol : The mean kinetic energy per molecule per degree of freedom is (1/2) kBT. For one mole of gas
1 1
U av kB N AT RT
2 2
Key :4
21. Relationship between P, V and E for a gas is (E = total transactional kinetic energy)
3 2 3 2
1) p EV 2) V Ep 3) pV E 4) pV E
2 3 2 3
m 1 2
Sol : PV RT ; E mv
M 2
2
p (Energy per unit volume) 2 E 2
3 pV E
3V 3
Key :4
22. For the molecules of an ideal gas which of the following velocity average cannot be zero
4 3 5
1) < v > 2) v 3) v 4) v
Sol : The average velocity of even power quantity cannot be zero
Key :2
23. The root mean square speed of hydrogen molecules of an ideal hydrogen gas kept in a gas chamber
at0o C is 3180 m/s. The pressure of the hydrogen gas is
2 3 5 2
(Density of hydrogen gas is 8.99 10 Kg / m 1 atmosphere = 1. 01 10 N / m )
1) 1.0 atmosphere 2) 1.5 atmosphere
3) 2.0 atmosphere 4) 3.0 atmosphere
Sol :
Key :4
24. A mixture of 2 moles of helium gas (atomic mass = 4u) and 1 mole of argon gas (atomic mass =40u)
vrms helium
is kept at 300 K in a container. The ratio of their rms speeds is close to
vrms argon
1) 0.32 2) 2.24 3) 3.16 4) 0.45
3RT
Sol : Root mean square (rms) velocity of the molecules of a gas is given as vrms
M
Where, M is the atomic mass of the gas
1
vrms
M
vrms helium M argon
.....(i )
vrms argon M helium
Given, M argon = 40u and M helium =4u
Substituting these values in Eq. (i), we get
vrms helium 40
10 3.16
vrms argon 4
Key :3
25. Four molecules have speeds 2km/s, 3km/s, 4km/s and 5km/s. The rms speed of these molecules in
km/s is
27
1) 2) 27 3) 2 27 4) 54
2
v 2 v22 v32 v42
Sol : v2 1
N
2 2 2 2
2 3 4 5
4
27 / 2
27
vrms v 2 km / s
2
Key :1
26. Speed of sound in a gas is v and rms velocity of the gas molecules is c. The ratio of v to c is
3 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 3
RT
Sol : Speed of sound vs v
M0
;
3RT v
rms speed vrms c
M0 c 3
;
Key :4
27. At room temperature the rms speed of the molecules of a certain diatomic gas is found to be
1930m/s. The gas is
1) H 2 2) F2 3) O2 4) Cl2
3RT
Sol : vrms
M0
3RT 3 8.3 300
M0 2
2
2 10 3 kg 2 g
vrms 1930
Molecular mass = 1g i.e. gas is H 2
Key :1
28. If gas molecules undergo inelastic collision with the wall of the container?
1) the temperature of the gas will decrease
2) the pressure of the gas will increase
3) neither the temperature nor the pressure will change
4) the temperature of the gas will increase
Sol : When temperature of gas is equals to the temperature of container, no transfer of
energy takes place, So no change in temperature and also no change in pressure.
Key :3
29. One kg of a diatomic gas is at a pressure of 8 104 N / m 2 . The density of the gas is 4kg/m3. What is
the energy of the gas due to its thermal motion?
1) 8 104 J 2) 4 104 J 3) 5 104 J 4) 7 104 J
Sol : Thermal energy correspondent to internal energy
mass 1
V m3
density 4
Internal energy
f 5 5
nRT nRT PV
2 2 2
5 1
8 104
2 4
4
5 10 J
Key :3
30. At what temperature does the average translational kinetic energy of a molecule in
a gas become equal to kinetic energy of an electron accelerated from rest through
a potential difference of 1 volt? K 1.38 1023 J 1K
1) 3770 K 2) 7370 K 3) 7730 K 4) 7330 K
3 3
Sol : KT Vq KT 1eV 1.6 1019 J
2 2
Key :3
31. The average degrees of freedom per molecule for a gas is 6. The gas performs 25J
of work when it expands at constant pressure. The heat absorbed by gas is
1) 75 J 2) 100 J 3) 150 J 4) 125 J
2
Sol : 1
f
Fraction of energy given for external work
W 1
1
Q
Key :2
32. A vessel of volume V=5.0 litre contains 1.4 gm of nitrogen of temperature T=1800 K. Find the
pressure of the gas if 30% of its molecule are dissociated into atom at this temperature.
1) 0.54 105 N / m2 2) 1.94 105 N / m 2 3) 2.62 105 N / m 2 4) 3.75 105 N / m 2
RT P1 1
Sol : P ;
M V P2 1 2
Key :2
33. An insulated container containing monoatomic gas of molar mass ‘m’ is moving with a velocity V0.
If the container is suddenly stopped, find the change in temperature
3 mV02 2 mV02 mV02
1) 2) 3) 4) zero
2 R 3 R 3R
Sol : Mass of gas = nm (n = number of moles in the gas)
1
KE nm V02
2
Change in internal energy of gas
3
U nCV T n R T
2
U K .E
3 1
n R T nmV02
2 2
2
mV0
T
3R
Key :3
34. The pressure of an ideal gas varies according to the law P P0 Av 2 where P0 and A are positive
constant, what is the highest temperature that can be attained by the gas?
P P0 P P0 2 P P0 2 P0 P0
1) 0 2) 0 3) 0 4)
nR A nR 2 A nR 2 A 3nR 3 A
nRT
Sol : P P0 AV 2 P0 AV 2 at max
V
dT
Temperature 0 P0 3 AV 2
dV
Key :4
35. Find the number of degrees of freedom of molecules in a gas whose molar heat capacity at constant
pressure is equal to CP 29 J / mol.K
1) 3 2) 4 3) 5 4) 6
R 2
Sol : CP ; 1
1 f
Key :3
36. An ideal gas undergoes a process in which PV a = constant where V is the volume occupied by the
gas initially at pressure P. At the end of the process, ‘rms’ speed of gas molecule has become a1/2
times of its initial value. What will be the value of CV so that energy transferred in the form of heat
to the gas is ‘a’ times of the initial energy
1)
a 2 1 R
2)
a 2 1 R
3)
a 1 R 4)
a 1 R
2
a 1 a 1
2
a 1 a 1
Sol : Q aV1
a f
nC T2 T1 nRT1 .... 1
2
but Vrms a T T2 aT1
[as rms speed became a times]
aF
From (1) C a 1 T1 RT1
2
afR 2C
C here, f V for polytrophic process
2 a 1 R
R
C CV
1 n
Where n a
Key :4
37. N molecules each of mass ‘m’ of gas ‘A’ and ‘2N’ molecules each of mass ‘2m’ of gas ‘B’ are
contained in the same vessel which are maintained at a temperature T. The mean square velocity of
molecules of B type is denoted by V2 and the mean square of the x component of the velocity of A
2
type is denoted by 2 , then 2 is
V
1 2
1) 2 2) 1 3) 4)
3 3
Sol : Mean kinetic energy of two types of molecules should be equal
1 1 2 2
So, m 3 2 2m V 2 2
2 2 V 3
Key :4
38. The r.m.s. speed of oxygen molecule (O2) at a certain temperature is T is V. If on increasing the
temperature of the oxygen gas to 2T, the oxygen molecules dissociate into atomic oxygen, find the
speed of the oxygen atom
V
1) 2V 2) V 3) 4) 3V
2
3KT
Sol : Vrms
m
' 3K 2T 3KT
Vrms
m/2 m
'
V 2Vrms
rms
Key :1
39. Diatomic molecules like hydrogen have energies due to both translational as well as rotational
2
motion from the equation in kinetic theory PV E , E ' is
3
1) the total energy per unit volume
2) only the translational part of energy because rotational energy is very small compared to the
translational energy
3) only the translational part of energy because during collision with the wall pressure relates to
changes in linear momentum
4) the translational part of the energy because rotational energies of molecules can be of either sign
and its average over all the molecules is zero.
Sol : Since the gas is ideal and the collisions of the molecules are elastic. When the molecules coil
Key :3
40. When an ideal gas is compressed adiabatically, its temperature rises. The molecule on the average
have more kinetic energy than before. The kinetic energy increase
1) Because of collision with moving parts of the wall only
2) Because of collision with the entire wall
3) Because of molecules gets accelerated in their motion inside the volume
4) Because of redistribution of energy amongst the molecules
Sol : According to Ist law
dQ dU dW
dQ 0; dW is negative
dU is positive, So kinetic energy increases due to collision of molecules with the moving parts of
the wall only.
Key :1
P0
41. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a process P 2
. Here, P0 and V0 are constants.
V0
1
V
Change in temperature of the gas when volume is changed from V V0 to V 2V0 is
2 PV
0 0 11PV0 0 5PV0 0
1) 2) 3) 4) PV0 0
5R 10 R 4R
P
Sol : At V V0 , P 0
2
P0
V PV
PV 2 0
T1 0 0
nR R 2R
4 P0
(n =1 and at V 2V0 , P )
5
4 P0
2V0
Tf
PV
5 8 PV
0 0
nR R 5R
8 1 PV 11PV
T T f Ti 0 0 0 0
5 2 R 10 R
Key :2
aT 2 c
42. The equation of state of a gas is given by P
V (RT b ) ,
where a, b, c and R are constants. The
V
isotherms can be represented by P AV m BV n ,where A and B depend only on temperature and
1) m c and n 1 2) m c and n 1
3) m c and n 1 4) m c and n 1
Sol :
Key :1
43. Inside a cylinder having insulating walls and closed at ends is a movable piston, which divides the
cylinder into two compartments. On one side of the piston is a mass m of a gas and on the other side
a mass 2 m of the same gas. What fraction of volume of the cylinder will be occupied by the larger
mass of the gas when the piston is in equilibrium? Consider that the movable piston is conducting so
that the temperature is the same throughout
1 1 1 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 3 2 3
Sol : At equilibrium, pressure is same, temp. and molecular weight do not change (given). Using ideal
gas eq. P1V1 = n1RT1
Key :4
44. A gas mixture consists of 2 moles of oxygen and 4 moles of neon at temperature T. Neglecting all
vibrational modes, calculate the total internal energy of the system. (Oxygen has two rotational
modes)
1) 7 RT 2) 11 RT 3) 20 RT 4) 9 RT
Sol : For oxygen
nfRT 2 5 RT
U 5 RT
2 2
For Neon
nfRT 4.3RT
U 6 RT
2 2
Net entry of gas mixture
5 RT 6 RT 11RT
Key :2
45. The graph which represent the variation of mean kinetic energy of molecules with temperature t°C is
E E
1) 2)
t°C t°C
E E
3) 4)
t°C t°C
Sol : KE RT t
KE R t 273
KE Rt 273
Graph is a straight line with +ve intercept on y-axis
Key :3
46. Figure shows the variation in temperature T with the amount of heat supplied (Q) in an isobaric
process corresponding to a mono atomic (M), diatomic (D) and a polyatomic (P) gas. The initial state
of all the gases are the same and scales for the two axes coincide. Ignoring vibrational degrees of
freedom, the lines a, b and c respectively correspond to
Q
a
T
1) P, M and D 2) M, D and P 3) P,D and M 4) D, M and P
Sol : For an isobaric process,
Q nCP T
Here all gases having same P,V,T so ‘n’ is same
Q
Slope nC p
T
f 3 for monoatomic gas
f 5 for diatomic gas
f 6 for polyatomic gas…..
Key :2
47. Internal energy of n1 mole of hydrogen of temperature T is equal to the internal energy of n 2 mole
n
of helium at temperature 2T. The ratio 1 is
n2
3 2 6 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 3 5 7
RT1 RT2
Sol : n1f1 n 2 f2
2 2
Key :3
48. Consider a collection of large number of particles each with speed v. The direction of velocity is
randomly distributed in the collection. What is the magnitude of the relative velocity between a pair
in the collection?
1) 2 V / 2) V / 3) 8 V / 4) 4 V /
Sol : Acc to parallelogram law
2
2vsin dv
v 2 4v
v 2v sin v avg 0 2
2
0
dv
Key :4
49. In an ideal gas temperature T, the average force that a molecule applies on the walls of a closed
container depends on T as T q . A good estimate for ‘q’ is
1 1
1) 2 2) 1 3) 4)
2 4
Sol : Average force applied on the walls by a molecule
2mV 2l
F t
t V
1
i.e., mV 2 T i.e., V 2 T ; F T , q 1
2
Key :2
50. A cubic vessel (with face horizontal + vertical) contains, an ideal gas at NTP. The vessel is being
carried by a rocket which is moving at a speed of 500ms-1 in vertical direction. The pressure of the
gas inside the vessel as observed by us on the ground
1) Remains the same because 500 ms-1 is very much smaller than Vrms of the gas
2) Remains the same because motion of the vessel as a whole does not affect the relative motion of
the gas molecules and the walls
2
v 2rms 500
3) Will increase by a factor equal to where v rms was the original mean square velocity
v 2rms
of the gas
4) Will be different on the top wall and bottom wall of the vessel
Sol : Remains the same because motion of the vessel as a whole does not affect the relative motion of the
gas molecules and the walls
Key :2
51. From the following statements, concerning ideal gas at any given temperature T, select the incorrect
one (s)
1) The coefficient of volume expansion at constant pressure is same for all ideal gas
2) The average translational kinetic energy per molecule of oxygen gas is 3KT (K being Boltzmann
constant)
3) In a gaseous mixture, the average translation kinetic energy of the molecules of each component is
same
4) The mean free path of molecules increases with decrease in pressure
1
Sol : Coefficient of volume expansion at constant pressure is for all gases. The average translational
273
3
K.E. is same for molecules of all gases and for each molecules it is kT
2
kT
Mean free path (as P decreases, increases)
2 r 2 P
Key : 2
52. ‘N’ moles of a diatomic gas in a cylinder are at a temperature ‘T’. Heat is supplied to the cylinder
such that the temperature remains same but ‘n’ moles of the diatomic gas get converted into
monoatomic gas. What is change in the total kinetic energy of the gas?
1) 2 nRT 2) 1 .3 nRT 3) 0.5 nRT 4) 0.3 Nrt
Sol : The total kinetic energy of a gas having ‘n’ moles is given as
f
U nRT
2
For diatomic gas, f 5
For monoatomic gas, f 3
f 5
U i NRT NRT
2 2
Finally there are (N-n) moles of diatomic gas and ‘2n’ moles of monoatomic gas
5 3
U f N n RT 2n RT
2 2
1
U U f U i nRT
2
Key : 3
53. At a pressure of 24 10 5 dyne / cm 2 , the volume of O 2 is 10 litre and mass is 20 gm. The r.m.s. velocity
will be
(1) 800 m/sec (2) 400 m/sec (3) 600 m/sec (4) Data is incomplete
Sol :
Key : 3
54. Which of the following statement is true
(1) Absolute zero degree temperature is not zero energy temperature
(2) Two different gases at the same temperature pressure have equal root mean square velocities
(3)The root mean square speed of the molecules of different ideal gases, maintained at the same
temperature are the same
(4) Given sample of 1 cc of hydrogen and 1 cc of oxygen both at NTP; oxygen sample has a large
number of molecules
Sol : At absolute temperature kinetic energy of gas molecules becomes zero but they posses potential
energy so we can say that absolute zero degree temperature is not zero energy temperature.
Key : 1
55. The average speed vav and r.m.s. speed v of the molecules are related as v : vav
8 3 3
(1) 3: (2) : 8 (3) 3 : 8 (4) : 4
3RT 8 RT
Sol :v ; vav
M M
Key : 1
56. Root mean square velocity of a particle is v at pressure P. If pressure is increased two times, then the
r.m.s. velocity becomes
(1) 2 v (2) 3 v (3) 0.5 v (4) v
Sol : Root mean square velocity does not depend upon pressure.
Key : 4
57. The root mean square speed of the molecules of a gas is
(1) Independent of its pressure but directly proportional to its Kelvin temperature
(2) Directly proportional to the square roots of both its pressure and its Kelvin temperature
(3) Independent of its pressure but directly proportional to the square root of its Kelvin temperature
(4) Directly proportional to both its pressure and its Kelvin temperature
Sol : Root mean square velocity does not depend upon pressure
Key : 1
58. In the two vessels of same volume, atomic hydrogen and helium at pressure 1 atm and 2 atm are filled.
If temperature of both the samples is same, then average speed of hydrogen atoms C H will be
related to that of helium C He as
C He
(1) C H 2 C He (2) C H C He (3) C H 2 C He (4) C H
2
8 RT 1
Sol : C C
nM M
Key : 3
59. At a given temperature if Vrms is the root mean square velocity of the molecules of a gas and Vs the
CP
velocity of sound in it, then these are related as
Cv
3 3
(1) Vrms Vs (2) Vrms Vs (3) Vrms Vs (4) Vrms Vs
3
3
Sol : vrms vs
Key : 2
60. The r.m.s. speed of a group of 7 gas molecules having speeds (6, 4, 2, 0, – 2, – 4, – 6) m/s is
(1) 1.5 m/s (2) 3.4 m/s (3) 9 m/s (4) 4 m/s
v12 v22 v32 v42
Sol : v2
N
Key :4
1
61. If the ratio of vapour density for hydrogen and oxygen is , then under constant pressure the ratio of
16
their rms velocities will be
4 1 1 16
(1) (2) (3) (4)
1 4 16 1
3P
Sol : Vrms =
V1 2
= ---------- at constant pressure
V2 1
1
{(density for H2) / (density for O2)} = 1
2 16
V 1
∴ 1 4
V2 16
∴ ratio of rms velocity 4 : 1
Key : 1
62. If the pressure in a closed vessel is reduced by drawing out some gas, the mean free path of the
molecules
(1) Is decreased (2) Is increased
(3) Remains unchanged (4) Increases or decreases according to the nature of the gas
Sol : The mean-free path of molecule is the distance traveled by a molecule in two consecutive collision. If
pressure is reduced and there are less particle then a molecule will travel longer distance before
collision, so mean free path is increased.
Key : 2
63. A cubical box with porous walls containing an equal number of O 2 and H2 molecules is placed in a
large evacuated chamber. The entire system is maintained at constant temperature T. The ratio of
v rms of O 2 molecules to that of the v rms of H2 molecules, found in the chamber outside the box after a
short interval is
1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) 2
2 2 4 2
Vrms O
Sol : According to question, 2
Vrms H 2
M 0 H 2 1
2
M 0 O 2
32 4
Key : 2
64. The gas having average speed four times as that of SO 2 (molecular mass 64) is
(1) He (molecular mass 4) (2) O 2 (molecular mass 32)
(3) H2 (molecular mass 2) (4) CH 4 (molecular mass 16)
Sol : Average speed (vav) of gas molecules is inversely proportional to the square root of the absolute
temperature (T) of the gas
8 RT
vav
M
where R is gas constant and M the molecular weight
Given v1=v, M1=64, v2=4v
v1 M2
v2 M1
v M2
4v 64
64
M2 4
16
hence, the gas is helium (molecular mass 4)
Key : 1
65. The molecules of a given mass of gas have rms speed 200 ms-1 at 270C and 105 Nm-2 pressure. When
the absolute temperature is doubled and the pressure is halved, the rms speed of the molecules of the
same gas is
1) 200 ms-1 2) 400 ms-1 3) 200 2ms 1 4) 400 2ms 1
Sol : vrms T . If temperature is doubled rms speed will becomes two times.
Key : 3
66. The average speed of molecules in a gas is given by
3p p 2p 8p
1) 2) 3) 4)
Sol : Molecules of gas have a random motion. Thus the velocity vectors cancel each other and the 'average
velocity' of gas is zero. Hence option 4 is correct.
Key : 4
67. The most probable speed of molecules in a gas is given
3p 8p 2p p
1) 2) 3) 4)
Sol : Molecules of gas have a random motion. Thus the velocity vectors cancel each other and the 'average
velocity' of gas is zero. Hence option 3 is correct.
Key : 3
68. O2 gas is filled up in a cylinder. If pressure is increased 2 times temperature becomes four times.
Then how much times their density will be
1 1
1) 2 2) 4 3) 4)
4 2
Sol : let initial pressure of O2 gas = P
final pressure of O2 gas = 2P
similarly, let initial temperature of O2 gas = T
final temperature of O2 gas = 4T
we know, density, d = PM/RT
where M is molar mass of gas and R is universal gas constant.
hence, density is directly proportional to Pressure but inversely proportional to temperature.
d1 P1 T2
d 2 P2 T1
2 1
P / 2P 4T / T d 2 d1
1 2
Key :4
69. A cylinder of 20 liter capacity is containing H2. The total average translational kinetic energy of
molecules is 1.5 105 J. The pressure of H2 in the cylinder will be in N m-2
1) 2 106 2) 3 106 3) 4 106 4) 5 10 6
Sol :
Key : 4
70. The average kinetic energy of a gas molecule at 270C is 6.21 1021 J. Its average kinetic energy at
2270C will be
1) 52.2 10-21 J 2) 5.22 10-21J 3) 10.35 10-21 J 4) 11.35 10-21 J
Sol :
Key :3
71. Pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal gas is as shown in figure. Density of the gas at point
A is 0 . Density at point B will be:-
Sol :
Key :2
72. At what temperature does the average translational kinetic energy of a molecule in a gas become
equal to the KE of an electron accelerated from rest through a potential difference of 1 Volt?
K 1.38 1023 J / k
1) 1060 K 2) 2080 K 3) 8321 K 4) 7730 K
Sol : When an electron is accelerated by 1 volt, its kinetic energy will be 1 eV. Now as according to
3
kinetic theory of gases KE kT
2
3
kT 1eV 1.6 1019 J
2
2 1.6 1019
i.e., T 7730 K
3 1.38 1023
Key :4
73. Estimate the fraction of molecular volume to the actual volume occupied by oxygen gas at STP.
0
Take the radius of an oxygen molecule to be roughly 3 .
1) 3.8 x 10-4 2) 38 x 10-4 3) 0.38 x 10-4 4) 38 x 10-6
0
Sol : Given the diameter of oxygen molecule = 3 .
Key :1
74. A vessel of volume 2000 cm 3 contains 0.1 mole of oxygen and 0.2 mole of carbon dioxide. If the
temperature of the mixture is 300K, its pressure in kilo pascal is _____
1) 175 2)275 3) 375 4) 475
3 1 2 1 2
Sol : PV mvrms mvrms
2 2 O2 2 CO2
3 1 3RT 1 3RT
PV m. m.
2 2 M O2 2 M CO2
1 1
0.1 3RT 0.2.3RT
2 2
25 750
3PV 0.3 300 3 p
3 V
750
P = 375 K Pa
2 10 2 106
Key :3
75. If the rms velocity of molecules of a gas in a container is doubled then the pressure will
1) Become four times 2) Also get doubled
3) Be same 4) Become one half
Sol : We know that the rms velocity is given as Vr= 2 3P
Vr2
or pressure P= or simply P∝Vr
3
So on making Vr , 2 times the pressure will become 22=4 times.
Key :1
76. v , vrms rms and v p respectively denote the mean speed, root mean square speed and most probable
speed of the molecules in an ideal monoatomic gas at absolute temperature T. The mass of the
molecules is m. Then :-
(1) No molecule can have a speed greater than 2vrms
vp
(2) No molecules can have a speed less than
2
(3) v v p vrms
3
(4) The average kinetic energy of the molecules is
4
mv2p
Sol :
Key :4
77. At what temperature most probable speed of O2 molecules have the same value of root mean square
speed of O2 molecules at 300K?
(1)150 k (2)600 k (3)750 k (4)450 k
Sol :
Key :4
78. 0.014kg of nitrogen is enclosed in a vessel at a temperature of 27 C . How much heat has to be
transferred to the gas to double the rms speed of its molecules? (R=2 cal/mol K)
1) 1250 cal 2) 3750 cal
3) 2250 cal 4) 2525 cal
Sol : As gas is enclosed in the cylinder, V=constant
(Q)V CV T
Hence (0.014 103 ) / 28 (1 / 2) mol
And as nitrogen is diatomic, CV (5 / 2) R
Further as according to given problem,
vrms 2 T2
2, T2 4T1
(vrms )1 T1
So, T 4T1 T1 3T1 3 300 900
1 5
(Q)V 2 900
2 2
2250calorie
Key :3
79. Two moles of an ideal gas X occupying a volume V exerts a pressure P. The same pressure is
exerted by one mole of another gas Y occupying a volume 2V. If the molecular weight of Y is
16times the molecular weight of X, find the ratio of the rms speeds of the molecules of X and Y
1) 2:1 2) 2 :1 3) 1: 2 4) 1:2
3PV m
Sol : Vrms n
nM M
V1rms V1 n2 M2
V2 rms V2 n1 M1
V1rms V 1 16 V1rms
; 2
V2 rms 2V 2 1 V2 rms
Key :1
80. N(<100) molecules of a gas have velocities 1,2,3,…. N km/s respectively. Then
1) rms speed and average speed of molecules are same.
2) Ratio of ‘rms’ speed and average speed is
2 N 1 N 1
6N
3) Ratio of ‘rms’ speed and average speed is
2 N 1 N 1
6
2N 1
4) Ratio of ‘rms’ speed and average speed of molecules is 2 .
6 N 1
12 22 32 ....N 2
Sol : vrms
N
1 2 3 .....N
vave
N
vrms N N 1 2 N 1 2 N 1
2 2
vave 2
N N 1 6 N 1
6N.
4N 2
Key :4
81. A mixture of 8 g of helium and 14 g of nitrogen is kept inside a closed vessel at 300 K. the quantity
of heat supplied to the mixture to double the rms velocity of its molecules is (universal gas constant
is R)
1) 272.5 R 2) 3600 R 3) 3825 R 4) 572.5 R
Sol : vrms T
To double the rms velocity, temperature must be 1200 K. Heat supplied (at constant volume)
n1CV1 T n2 CV2 T
8 3 14 5
R 900 R 900 3825 R
4 2 28 2
Key :3
82. Three closed vessels A, B and C at the same temperature T and contain gases which obey the
Maxwellian distribution of velocities. Vessel A contains only O2 , B only N 2 and C a mixture of
equal quantities of O2 and N 2 molecules if the average speed of the O2 in vessel A is v1 , that of the
N 2 molecules in vessel B is v2 , the average speed of the O2 molecules in vessel C is
(v1 v2 ) 1 3KT
1) 2) v1 3) (v1v2 ) 2 4)
2 M
Sol : The average speed of molecules of an ideal gas is given
8RT
<v> = i.e., <v> T for same gas.
M
Since, temperatures of A and C are same, average speed of O2 molecules will be equal in A and C i.e.,
v1 .
Key :2
83. The mena free path of collision of gas molecules varies with its diameter (d) of the molecules as
1) d 1 2) d 2 3) d 3 4) d 4
KT
Sol : mean free path 2
; d 2
2 d P
Key :2
84. In a certain gas, the ratio of the velocity of sound and root mean square velocity is 5 /12 . The
molar heat capacity of the gas in a process given by PT= constant is
(Take R=2 cal/mole K). Treat the gas as ideal
3R 5R 7R
1) 6R 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2
RT 3RT
Sol : Since Vsound ; Vrms
M M
Vsound 5 5 5
; ;
Vrms 3 12 3 12 4
here PT = constant
PV P 2V const
P const ;
nR
1
PV 2 const
In polytrophic process, specific heat
R R R
C or Cv
1 1 x 1 x
1
here x
2
R R
C 4 R 2 R, 6 R
5 1
1 1
4 2
Key :1
85. The mean free path molecules of a gas.
( radius r) is inversely proportional to
1) r 3 2) r 2 3) r 4) r
1
Sol : mean free path
2 nd 2
1 1
d =diameter of a molecule 2 2
d r
Key :2
86. If distance between the gas molecules is doubled at constant temperature, then pressure
1) P/16 2) P/8 3) P/4 4) P/2
Sol : Conceptual
Key :2
SR+LT BIPC PHASE-3 ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENTS
DAY – 8 (DT 25-05-2020)
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
CHAPTERS-: Calorimetry, Heat transfer, Kinetic theory of gases ASSIGNMENT-5
========================================================================
TRANSMISSION OF HEAT ASSIGNMENT
( SUB TOPIC ORDER GIVEN IN PHASE-2 REVISION UPTO 10.05.2020)
1. A solid cylinder of radius R made of a material of thermal conductivity K1 is surrounded by a
cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer radius 3R made of a material of thermal conductivity K2.
The two ends of the combined system are maintained at two different temperatures. There is no loss of
heat across the curved surface and the system is in steady state. The effective thermal conductivity of
the system is
K2 K1 8 K1 K 2 K1 8K 2
1) K1 K2 2) 3) 4)
K1 K 2 9 9
2 2 2
K1 A1 K 2 A2 K1 R K 2 ( 3R R )
Sol : K 2
A1 A2 R 2 ( 3R R 2 )
Key : 4
1 1 1 1
2. Two rods of same length having conductivities 60 Wm K ,40 Wm K and areas of cross-section
0.2 m2 ,0.3m2 are connected in Parallel to each other. The effective conductivity of the combination is
1 1 1 1
1) 50 Wm K 2) 45 Wm K 3) 52 Wm 1 K 1 4) 48 Wm 1 K 1
K1 A1 K 2 A2 60 0.2 40 0.3 24
Sol : K 48Wm1 K 1
A1 A2 0.5 0.5
Key : 4
3. A cylinder or radius r and of thermal conductivity K1 is surrounded by a cylindrical shell of inner
radius r and outer radius 2r made of a material of thermal conductivity K 2 .The effective thermal
conductivity of the system is
1 1 1 1
1) K1 2K 2 2) 2K1 3K 2 3) 3K1 2K 2 4) K1 3K 2
3 2 3 4
Sol : Both the cylinders are in parallel, for the heat flow from one end as shown
l 1 1 1 l l l
Thermal resistance R ; ;
KA R R1 R2 K A1 A2 K1 A1 K 2 A2
K1 A1 K 2 A2
Hence, K eq ; where A1 = area of cross-section of inner cylinder R2 and A2 = area of
A1 A2
cross-section of cylindrical shell
2R 2
R
2
3 R 2
K1 R 2 K 2 3 R 2 K1 3K 2
K eq 2 2
R 3 R 4
Key : 4
4. In the steady state the two ends of a meter rod are at 30 0 C and 20 0 C , the temperature at the 40th cm
from the end at higher temperature is
1) 22 0 C 2) 26 0 C 3) 25 0 C 4) 24 0 C
30 20
Sol : constant ; 90 3 2 40
l 40 60
130 5 26 o C
Key : 2
5. Two rods ( one semi- circular and other straight) of same material and of same cross - sectional area
are joined as shown in the figure. The points A and B are maintained at different temperatures. The
ratio of heat transferred through a cross -section of a semicircular rod to the heat transferred through a
cross section of the straight rod in a given time is
1) 2 : 2) 1 : 2 3) : 2 4) 3: 2
Sol : The rate of flow of heat
Q KA Q
t l
Q1 l2 2 R 2
Q2 l1 R
Key : 1
6. Three rods of same dimensions have thermal conductivities 3 K, 2K and K. They are arranged as
shown in the figure below.
500C
2K
3K
1000C
K
00C
Then the temperature of the junction in steady state is
0 0 0
100 200 0 50
1) C 2) C 3) 75 C 4) C
3 3 3
500C
Q2
2K
3K
Q1 x0C
1000C
K
Q3
00C
Sol :
KA t t
Q
l
3KA 100 X 2 KA X 50 KA X 0
Q1 Q2 Q3
l l l
A and L are same for all the three rods
3K 100 x 2 K x 50 K x 0
300 3x 2 x 100 x
200 0
x C
3
Key : 2
7. A ring consisting of two parts ADB and ACB of same conductivity K carries an amount of heat H. The
ADB part is now replaced with another metal keeping the temperatures T1 and T2 constant. The heat
ACB
carried increases to 2H. What should be the conductivity of the new ADB part? Given 3
ADB
7 5
1) K 2) 2 K 3) K 4) 3 K
3 2
KA(T1 T2 ) KA(T1 T2 )
H H1 H 2
Sol : 3l l
4 KA(T1 T2 )
H ; 2 H H 2| H1
3 l
8 KA(T1 T2 ) KA(T1 T2 )
H 2| 2 H H 1
3 l 3l
7 KA(T1 T2 ) K | A T1 T2
H 2| ; Let H 2|
3l l
1
K A (T1 T2 ) 7K A (T1 T2 )
l 3l
7K
K1
3
Key : 1
8. Three conducting rods of same material and cross-section are shown in figure. Temperatures of A,D
and C are maintained at 20 0 C , 90 0 C and 0 0 C . The ratio of lengths of BD and BC if there is no heat
flow in AB is
1) 2/7 2) 7/2 3) 9/2 4) 2/9
Sol : There is no flow of heat through AB
H DB H BC
90O 20O 20O 0O C
LDB LBC
70 LDB 7 LDB
20 LBC ; 2 LBC
Key : 2
9. Three thermal conductors of same length and area of cross section and having thermal conductivities
k , 2k ,3k are joined series respectively. If the temperature difference across the combination of three
conductors is 1100 , then the temperature across the middle conductor is
1. 200 C 2. 600 C 3. 300 C 4. 1000 C
Sol :
Q
same
t
Rx R1 R2 R3
3l l l l
1
K K 2 K 3K
3 6 3 2 11
K1 6K 6K
18
K1 K
11
Q K 1 A
t
combination 3l
Q 18 KA 110 60KA
=
t comb 11 3l l
Q 2 KA
t middle l
Q Q
t
comb t middle
60KA 2KA
=
l l
30 0 C
Key : 3
10. Two rods of same length and material transfer a given amount of heat in 12 s, when they are joined
parallel. But when they are joined in series, then they will transfer same heat in same conditions in
1) 24 s 2) 3 s 3) 1.5 s 4) 48 s
Q
Sol :
t R
t R
ts Rs t 2R
; Rs 2 R and R p R / 2 ; S
t p Rp tp R
2
ts 4 x12 =48 s
Key : 4
11. Rate of flow of heat through 12 identical conductors made of same material is as shown. Then. Which
of the following is correct.
2 J/s
A
1 J/s
1 J/s
G
C B 4 J/s
F
D E
2 J/s
3 J/s
1) The rate of flow of heat through the rod DE is 9 J/s
2) The rate of flow of heat through the rod DE is 5 J/s
3) The rate of flow of heat through the rod DE is 1 J/s
4) The rate of flow of heat through the rod DE is 11 J/s
Sol :
2 J/s
A 2-x
1 J/s
1 J/s x G x+8-i
C
B 4 J/s
x-1 F
1
x+4-i
x+
D i E
2 J/s
3 J/s
Applying Kirchhoff’s junction law at G
2-x+x+8-i=1
i = 9 J/s
Key : 1
12. Two identical rods are joined at their middle points. The ends are maintained at constant temperatures
as indicated. Find the temperature of the junction
1) 82.50C 2) 800C 3) 85.20C 4) 810C
Sol : Under steady state condition
Let be the temperature of the junction
180 75 50 25
180 3150 4 330 82.50 C
R R R R
Key : 1
13. Three rods of identical area of cross section and made from the same metal from the sides of an
isosceles triangle ABC, right angled at B. the points A and B are maintained at temperature T and
2T respectively. In the steady state the temperature of the point C is TC is Assuming that only heat
conduction takes place, TC/T is equal to
1 3 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 1 2 1
2 2 2 1 3 2 1
Q Q
Sol :
t BC t CA
K 2T TC A
K TC T A
2T TC TC T
2T 2 TC TC T
a 2a 1 2
TC 3
3T
2 1 TC
T 1 2
Key : 2
14. Consider the 6 identical rods as shown in figure, the conductivity of x is double that of y. The
temperature of the junction B is
1) 30 0 C 2) 40 0 C 3) 50 0 C 4) 20 0 C
Sol :
Key : 2
15. In the figure ABC is a conducting rod whose lateral surfaces are insulated. The length of the section
AB is one-half of that of BC, and the respective thermal conductivities of the two sections are as given
in the figure. If the ends A and C are maintained at 0o C and 70o C respectively, temperature of junction
B in the steady state is
1) 30o C 2) 40o C 3) 50o C 4) 60o C
Sol : Heat currents in both the rods are equal.
C B A
Or H CB H BA or B
2l / 3KA l / 2 KA
3
70 B 2 B 0 210 3 B 4 B 210 7 B or B 30o C
2
Key : 1
16. Three rods made of the same material and having same cross-sectional area but different length 10cm,
20cm, and 30cm are joined as shown. The temperature of the junction is
1) 10.8o C 2) 14.6o C 3) 16.4o C 4) 18.2o C
Sol : Let be the temperature of junction, H1 , H 2 and H 3 the heat currents. Then
30 20 10
H1 H 2 H 3
30 / KA 20 / KA 10 KA
Or 2 30 3 20 10
Or 16.36o C = 16.4o C
Key : 3
17. Two identical conducting rods AB and CD are connected to a circular conducting ring at two
diametrically opposite points B and C. The radius of the ring is equal to the length of rods AB and CD.
The area of cross-section, and thermal conductivity of the rod and ring are equal. Points A and D are
maintained at temperatures of 100o C and 0o C . Temperature of point C will be
1) 62o C 2) 37o C 3) 28o C 4) 45o C
Sol : RAB RCD R say
Length of semicircle l
Resistance of semicircle R as R l
R
RBC (in parallel)
2
100 0
Heat current H -----------(i)
R R .R
2
C 0
And H --------------(ii)
R
From (i) and (ii), we get
200 200
C C 28o
4R R R 4
Key : 3
18. Three rods of same dimensions are arranged as shown in figure. They have thermal conductivities
K1 , K 2 and K 3 . The points P and Q are maintained at different temperatures. For the heat flow at the
same rate along PRQ and PQ which of the following option is correct?
1 K1K 2
1) K3 K1 K2 2) K 3 K1 K 2 3) K 3 4) K 3 2 K1 K 2
2 K1 K 2
d
Sol : i constant and d is constant ; RPRQ RPQ
R
RPR RRQ RPQ
1 1 1 KK
or K 3 1 2
K1 A K 2 A K 3 A K1 K 2
Key : 3
19. Two identical rods MN and OP, each of length L, cross – sectional area A and thermal conductivity K
are connected as shown in figure. Ends M, O and P are maintained at temperature T1 200 C, T2 300 C
and T3 400 C respectively. The temperature at N is
1) 320 C 2) 330 C 3) 340 C 4) 350 C
Sol : Let TN be the temperature at N. The rate of flow of heat from O towards N is
Q1 KA T2 T1
t L/2
The rate of flow of heat from P towards N
Q2 KA T3 TN
t L/2
Key :1
20. Two thermometers are constructed in the same way except that one has a spherical bulb and the other a
cylindrical bulb, which one will respond quickly to temperature change?
1) Spherical bulb thermometer 2) cylindrical bulb thermometer
3) both equally 4) either of any option
Sol : The rate of flow of heat through conduction is given by
dQ KA( H L )
dt d
In order that a mercury thermometer in spite of having low thermal conductivity (K) of glass may
quickly conduct heat from a body to mercury; the glass bulb containing mercury is made long (so that
its area is increased) and thin (so that d is decreased)
Key :4
21. One end of a cylindrical rod is kept in steam chamber and the other end in melting Ice. Now 0.5 gm of
ice melts in 1 s. If the rod is replaced by another rod of same length, half the diameter and double the
conductivity of the first rod, then rate of melting of ice will be
1) 0.25 gm/s 2) 0.5 gm/s 3) 1 gm/s 4) 2 gm/s
Sol : Q mL
KA t t
mL
l
KA m (since all other parameters one constant)
m1 K1 r12 r12 K1
2
m2 K 2 r22 r12 2 K1
4
m 0.5
m2 1 0.25 gm / s
2 2
Key : 1
22. Rate of heat flow through a cylindrical rod is H 1 . Temperatures of ends of rod are T1 and T2 . If all the
dimensions of rod become double and temperature difference remains same and rate of heat flow
becomes H 2 . Then
H
1) H 2 2 H1 2) H 2 H1 3) H 2 1 4) H 2 4 H1
4
Q KA 1 2 A r2 H1 r 2l 1
Sol : H or H H 2
; H 2 2 H1
t l l l H 2 2r l 2
Key : 1
23 A cubical vessel of side 10 cm is filled with Ice at 0 0 C and is immersed in water bath at 100 0 C . If
thickness of walls of vessel is 0.2 cm and conductivity is 0.02 CGS units, then time in which all the Ice
melts is ( Density of Ice=0.9 gm/cc)
1) 6 sec 2) 9 sec 3) 12 sec 4) 15 sec
Sol :
MLice KA
time l
Dice L Lice K 6 L2 (100o 0o )
3
time 0.2
0.9 10 80 0.02 6 100
time 0.2
time 12sec
Key : 3
24. The figure shows a system of two concentric spheres of radii r1 and r2 kept at temperatures T1 and T2
respectively. The radial rate of flow of heat in the substance between the concentric spheres is
proportional to
r1r2 r1 r2 r
1) 2) r1 r2 3) 4) log 2
r2 r1 r1r2 r1
Sol :
KAdT
H
dr
K 4 r 2
H dT
dr
dr 4 K
dT
r2 H
r2 T
dr 4 K 2
r r 2 H T dT
1 1
1 1 4 K r r 4 K
T2 T1 2 1 T2 T1
r1 r2 H r1r2 H
4 r1r2 K T2 T1 rr
H H 12
r2 r1 r2 r1
Key :1
25. A 3cm cube of iron one face at 100 0 C and the other in a block of ice at 00 C . If K of iron=0.2CGS
units and L for ice is 80cal/gm, then the amount of ice that melts in 10 minutes is (assume steady state
heat transfer)
1) 450 g 2) 900 g 3) 350 g 4) 500 g
Sol :
Key :1
26. Under steady state of conduction, the temperature at a cross-section of a rod
1) Decreases with time
2) Increases with time
3) Does not change with time and is same at all cross sections of the rod
4) Does not change with time and is different at different cross sections of the rod
Sol :
Key : 4
27. Three thermal conductors of same length and area of cross section and having thermal conductivities
k , 2k ,3k are joined series respectively. If the temperature difference across the combination of three
0
conductors is 110 , then the temperature across the middle conductor is
0 0 0 0
1. 20 C 2. 60 C 3. 30 C 4. 100 C
Q Q K 1 A
Sol : same ,
t t combination 3l
3l l l l 3 6 3 2 11
1
;
K K 2 K 3K K1 6K 6K
18 Q 18 KA 110
K1 K ;
11 t comb 11 3l
60KA Q 2 KA
= ;
l t middle l
Q Q 60KA 2KA
; = ; 30 0 C
t t
comb middle l l
Key : 3
28. Two ends of a rod of non-uniform area of cross-section are maintained at temperature T1 and T2
(T1> T(2) as shown in the figure
If I is heat current through the cross-section of conductor at distance x from its left face, then the
variation of I with x is best represented by
Sol : In steady state, rate of heat transfer is constant so heat current through any cross-section remains
same with time
Key : 1
29. The temperature of the two outer surface of a composite slab, consisting of two materials having
coefficients of thermal conductivity K and 2K and thickness 2x and 6x respectively are
A T2 T1 K
T2 and T1 T2 T1 . The rate of heat transfer through the slab, in a steady state is f , with
x
f equal to:
1)2/5 2)1/2 3) 2/3 4) 1/3
Sol : Sol For slabs in series, we have,
Req R1 R2
8x 6x 2x 8K
i.e., , K eq
K eq A 2 KA KA 5
Now, in steady state, rate of heat transfer through the slab
K A T2 T1 A T2 T1 K
eq f
8x 2 x
8 K 1 fK
5 8x 2 x
2
Putting the value of Keq . , we get; f
5
Key : 1
30. The coefficient of thermal conductivities of metals are K1, K2 and K3 such that K1< K2< K3. If X1, X2
and X3 are their temperature gradients for same rate of flow of heat per unit area, then
1) X1 =X2 = X3 2) X1 >X2 >X3 3) X1 < X2 < X3 4) X1> X2< X3
1
Sol :
L k
Key : 2
31. When a metal rod attain same temperature, throughout its length, then its conductivity is
1) Zero 2) Infinite 3) One 4) We can’t say
Sol :
Key : 2
32. In steady state of a thermal conductor
a) Heat is not absorbed along the conductor
b) Temperature gradient decreases uniformly
c) The rate of change in temperature at any cross-section of the conductor is zero.
1) a and b are correct 2) b and c are correct
3) a and c are correct 4) a, b and c are correct
Sol :
t t 1 t 2
Key : 3
33. A cylindrical metallic rod in thermal contact with two reservoirs of heat at its two ends conducts an
amount of heat Q in time ‘t’. The metallic rod is melted and the materialis formed into a rod of half the
radius of original rod. The amount of heat conducted by the new rod when placed in thermal contact
with the same two reservoirs in time ‘t’ is
Q Q Q
1) 4 2) 16 3) 2 Q 4) 2
A R2
Sol : Q Q
l l
Here volume is constant
r12l1 r22l2
r12
r12l1 l2
4
l2 4l1
Q2 r22 l1
Q1 r12 l2
1 1 1
4 4 16
Q Q
Q2 1
16 16
Key : 2
34. Two rods have the same length but their radii are in the ratio 3 : 4, their linear coefficients are
0.000012/K and 0.000018/K respectively. Their specific heats are in the ratio 9:10 and densities in the
ratio 2 : 3. When both are supplied H calories of heat the ratio of the increase of length in the two rods
is
1) 160 : 81 2) 150 : 50
3) 140 : 30 4) 180 : 60
Sol : H mst r h st
2
Since they are supplied the same heat
r12 .1s1t1 r22 .2 s2t2
2
t r s
1 2 . 2 2
t2 r1 1 s1
t 16 3 10 80
1 .
t2 9 2 9 27
Increase of lengths are in the ratio
1 t1 2 t2
t 2 80
1 1 160 : 81
2 t2 3 27
Key : 1
35. Two rods of same length and material transfer a given amount of heat in 12 s, when they are joined
parallel. But when they are joined in series, then they will transfer same heat in same conditions in
1) 24 s 2) 3 s 3) 1.5 s 4) 48 s
Sol :
Key : 4
36. A metal rod of length 2m has cross sectional areas 2A and A as shown in figure .The ends are
maintained at temperatures 1000C and 700C .The temperature at middle point C is
1) 800C 2) 850C 3) 900C 4) 950C
Sol : Let T be temperature of middle point C and in series rate of heat flow is same
K 2 A 100 T KA T 70
200 2T T 70 3T 270 T 90 0 C
Key : 3
0 0
37. Two ends of a conducting rod of varying cross-section are maintained at 200 Cand0 C respectively.
In steady state:
1) Temperature differences across AB and CD are equal
2) temperature difference across AB is greater than that across CD
3) temperature difference across AB is less than that across CD
4) temperature difference may be equal or different depending upon thermal conductivity of the rod.
dQ
Sol : Rate of flow of heat or H is equal throughout the rod. Temperature difference is given by:
dt
T.D = (H) × (Thermal Resistance)
or T.D Thermal Resistance R
1 1
Where, R or R
KA A
Area across CD is less. Therefore, T.D. across CD will be more
Key : 3
38. Two spheres of different materials, one with double the radius and one-fourth wall thickness of the
other are filled with ice. If the time taken for complete melting of ice in the larger sphere is 25 minutes
and for smaller one is 16 minutes, the ratio of thermal conductivities of the materials of larger sphere
to that of smaller sphere is:
(1) 4:5 (2) 5:4 (3) 25:8 (4) 8:25
Sol : Radius of small sphere=r and thickness=t
t
Radius of bigger sphere=2r and thickness=
4
4
Mass of ice melted= r 3
3
4 3
K1 4 (2r ) 2 100 3
2r L
For bigger sphere, Qb
t 25 60
4
4 3
r L
K 2 4 r 2 100 3
For smaller sphere, Qs
t 16 60
K1 8
K 2 25
Key : 4
39. Ice formed over lakes
1) has very high thermal conductivity and helps in further ice formation
2) has very low conductivity and retards further formation of ice
3) permits quick convection and retards further formation of ice
4) is very good radiator
Sol : Ice is non conducting
Key : 2
40. Ice starts forming on a lake with water at 0 0 C when the atmospheric temperature is 60 C. If the time
taken for 1 cm of Ice to be formed is 5 hours, then time taken for thickness of ice to change from 1
to 2 cm is
1) 20 Hr. 2) 10 Hr. 3) 15 Hr. 4) 25 Hr.
L 2
Sol : t x
2k
t1 x2 1 5 1
2 1 2
t2 x2 x1 3 t2 3
t2 15hrs
Key : 3
41. A solid sphere and a half sphere of same radians and material are is at a temperature T K. The fraction
of energy emitted per second by the half sphere to that complete sphere is
1 1 3 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 4 4 16
Sol :
r
r
AHS r 2 2 r 2 3 r 2 AS 4 r 2
P1 3 R 2
P A
P2 4 R 2
Key : 3
42. A sphere has a surface area of1.0 m 2 and a temperature of 400K and the power radiated from it is
150W. Assuming the sphere is black body radiator, the power in kilowatt radiated when the area
expands to 2.0 m 2 and the temperature changes to 800K the power radiated
1) 6.2 2) 9.6 3) 4.8 4) 16
2 4
P A T
4 1 400 1
Sol : P AT 1 1 1
P2 A2 T2 2 800 32
5
Area and temperature both are doubled. Hence power will become 2 or 32 times.
32 150
P| 32P kW = 4.8kW
1000
Key : 3
43. A sphere and a cube of same material and same volume are heated up to same temperature and allowed
to cool in the same surroundings. The ratio of the amounts of radiations emitted in equal time intervals
will be
1/ 3 2/ 3
4 1 4
1) 1 : 1 2) :1 3) :1 4) :1
3 6 2 3
Sol : Vsphere Vcube
4
R3 a3
3
1/ 3
R 3
a 4
Psphere A1 4 R 2
Pcube A2 6a 2
2/ 3
4 3
6 4
1/ 3
1 4
2/3 6
1/ 3
2 3 1
Key : 3
44. At 273o C , the emissive power of a perfect black body is R. What is its value at 0o C ?
R R R
1) 2) 3) 4) None of these
4 16 2
Sol : From Stefan’s law, the total radiant energy emitted per second per unit surface area of a black body is
proportional to the fourth power of the absolute temperature (T) of the body
E T 4 where is Stefan’s constant.
Given, E1 R, T1 273o C 273 273 546K
T2 0o C 273K
4
E1 T14 T24
4 E2 4 E1 E2
273 R
4
E2 T2 T1 546
R
E2
16
Key : 2
45. A sphere, a cube and a thin circular plate are heated to the same temperature. All are made of the same
material and have the equal masses. If t1 , t2 and t3 are the respective time taken by the sphere, cube and
the circular plate in cooling down to a common temperature, then
1) t1 t2 t3 2) t1 t2 t3 3) t2 t1 t3 4) t1 t2 t3
d 1
Sol : A and dt d is cons tan t
dt A
ASphere ACube APlate ; tS tC t P
A body having maximum surface are will cool at fastest rate.
Key : 1
46. The area of the hole of heat furnace is104 m2 . It radiates1.58 10 5 cal of heat per hour. If the
emissivity of the furnace is 0.80, then its temperature is
1) 1500 K 2) 2000 K 3) 2500 K 4) 3000 K
4
Sol : According to Stefan’s law E AT
1.58 105 4.2
5.67 108 10 4 0.8 T 4 T 2500K
60 60
Key : 3
47. A thin square steel plate 10 cm on a side is heated in a black smith's forge to temperature of 8000C. If
the emissivity is 0.60, what is the total rate of radiation of energy?
(Stefan’s constant 5.67 108Wm1 K 4 )
1) 1000 W 2) 900 W 3) 1800 W 4) 450 W
Sol: Total rate of radiation of energy:
4 2
er T 4 A 0.6 5.67 10 8 800 273 0.1 2 900W
Key : 2
48. The tungsten filament of an electric lamp has a surface area A and a power ratting P. If the emissivity
of the filament is and is Stefan’s constant the steady temperature of the filament will be
1 1
4
P P A 4 P 4
1) T 2) T 3) T 4) T
A A P A
Sol : The energy radiated per second per unit area at temperature T is given P T 4
Thus, the energy radiated per second (or power radiate) from the filament of area A is
1
4 P 4
P A T or T
A
Key : 4
49. If a body coated blank at 600K surrounded by atmosphere at 300K has cooling rate r0 , the same body
at 900K, surrounded by the same atmosphere will have cooling rate equal to
16 8
1) r0 2) r0 3) 16r0 4) 4r0
3 16
Sol : Cooling rate T 4 T04
900 4 300 4 16
r 4 4 0
r r0
600 300 3
Key : 1
50. The temperature of a radiating body increases by 30%. Then the increase in the amount of radiation
emitted will be approximately
1) 185% 2) 285% 3) 325% 4) 245%
Sol :
Key : 1
51. The spectrum of a black body at two temperatures 27 0 C and 327 0 C is shown in the figure. Let A1
A
and A2 be the areas under the two curves respectively. Find the value of 2 .
A1
1) 16 : 1 2) 8 : 1
3) 9 : 4 4) 16 : 9
Sol : Area under given curve, represents emissive power
E T4
area of graph A T 4
4 4 4
A T 327 273 600
2 2 24 16
A1 T1 27 273 300
Key : 1
52. The plots of intensity of radiation versus wavelength of three black bodies at temperatures T1 , T2 and
T3 are shown. Then
1) T3 T2 T1 2) T1 T2 T3 3) T2 T3 T1 4) T1 T3 T2
1
Sol : According to Wien’s law, m
T
and from the figure m 1 m 3 m 2
Therefore, T1 T3 T2
Key : 4
53. The power radiated by a black body is P and it radiates maximum energy around the wavelength 0 .
Now the temperature of the black body is changed so that it radiates maximum energy around
wavelength 0 / 2 . The power radiated by it will now increase by a factor of:
1) 2 2) 16 3) 8 4) 64
0
Sol : T ' 0 T 2T
2
Power radiated will increase by a factor of 2 4 16
P AeT 4
4 4
P1 T1 1 1
P T4 ; ; P2 16P1
P2 T2 2 16
54. A body cools down from 80°C to 60°C in 10 minutes when the temperature of surroundings is 30°C.
The temperature of the body after next 10 minutes will be
(1) 30°C (2) 48°C (3) 50°C (4) 52°C
Sol :
d
K 1 2 s
dt 2
80 60 80 60
K 30
10 2
1
2 K 40 K
20
|
60 1 60 |
30
10 20 2
1 60 | 60
; | 48o C
2 2
Key : 2
55. Two bodies have thermal capacities in the ratio 3 : 4 and the rates of loss of heat in the ratio 3 : 5.
Their rates of cooling will be in the ratio of
1) 9 : 20 2) 4 : 5 3) 5 : 4 4) 1 : 1
d d
dQ d 3 3 dt 1 dt 1 4
Sol : ms
dt dt 5 4 d d 5
dt 2 dt 2
Key : 2
56. Two solid sphere A and B made of the same material have radii rA and rB respectively. Both the spheres
are cooled from the same temperature under the conditions valid for Newton’s law of cooling. The
ratio of the rate of change of temperature A and B is
r r r2 r2
1) A 2) B 3) A2 4) B2
rB rA rB rA
Sol :
H A rB
(say) Ratio of rates of fall of temperature
H B rA
Key : 2
57. In the figure, the distribution of energy density of the radiation emitted by a black body at a given
temperature is shown. The possible temperature of the black body is
1) 1500 K 2) 2000 K 3) 2500 K 4) 3000 K
Sol : mT b where b 2.89 103 mK
b 2.89 10 3
T 2000 K
m 1.5 106
Key : 2
58. A black body is at a temperature of 5760K. The energy of radiation emitted by the body at wavelength
250nm is U1, at wavelength 500nm is U2 and that at 1000nm is U3. Wien’s constant, b= 2.88 106
nmK. Which of the following is correct
1) U1=0 2) U3=0 3) U1>U2 4) U2>U1
b
Sol : Maximum amount of emitted radiation corresponding to m
T
According to Wein’s displacement law
Key : 4
59. Snow is more heat insulating than ice, because
1) Air is filled in porous of snow
2) Ice is more bad conductor than snow
3) Air is filled in porous of ice
4) Density of ice is more
Sol : Air is filled in porous of snow
Key : 1
60. Air is bad conductor of heat, still vacuum is preferred between the walls of the thermos flask because
1) it is difficult to fill the air between the walls of thermos flask
2) due to more pressure of air, the flask can crack
3) by convection, heat can flow through air
4) None of the above
Sol : No flows of heat by convection in vacuum, and there is flow of heat in the form convection by air
Key : 3
61. The ratio of the emissive power to the absorptive power of all substances for a particular wavelength is
the same at given temperature. The ratio is known as
1) the emissive power of a perfectly black body
2) the emissive power of any type of body
3) the Stefan’s constant
4) the Wein’s constant
e e e
Sol : e black body
a any body a Perfectly black body 1 black body
According to Kirchhoff’s law
e
But a 1 for perfectly black body. Hence for anybody is equal to e for perfectly black body
a
Key : 1
62. If e and a be the emissive power and absorptive power of a body, then according to Kirchhoff’s law,
which is same ( E =emissive power of perfectly black body)
1) e a E 2) e E a 3) e a E 4) e a E constant
Sol : According to Kirchhoff’s law, the ratio of emissive power to absorptive power is same for all bodies.
Which is equal to the emissive power of a perfectly black body i.e.,
e
EBlack body for a particular wavelength
a body
e
E Black body e a E
a body
Key : 3
63. The graph, shown in the adjacent diagram, represents the variation of temperature (T) of two bodies, x
and y having same surface area, with time (t) due to the emission of radiation. Find the correct relation
between the emissivity (e) and absorptivity (a) of two bodies
1) ex e y and ax a y 2) ex ey and ax a y 3) ex e y and ax a y 4) ex ey and ax a y
dT
Sol : Rate of cooling emissivity (e)
dt
dT dT
From graph, ex ey
dt x dt y
Further emissivity e absorptive power (a) a x a y
(good absorbers are good emitters)
Key : 3
64. Two bodies of same shape, same size and same radiating power have emissivities 0.2 and 0.8. The
ratio of their temperature is
1) 3 :1 2) 2 :1 3) 1: 5 4) 1: 3
Sol :
Key : 2
65. The thermal emissivities of two bodies A and B are in the ratio of 1/e. The outer surface area of the
bodies are same and they radiate the energy at the same rate. Find the ratio of the wavelengths
corresponding to the maximum spectral radiance in the radiation from A to maximum spectral radiance
in the radiation from B
1 1/4 1
1) e1/4 2) 1/4 3) 1 e 4) 1/4
e 1 e
Sol : From stefen’s law
for given body
radiating power P AeT 4
1
here P1 P2 and m
T
4 4
e1 T2 1
e2 T1 2
4
1 1
e 2
1
1 1/4
2 e
Key : 2
66. Suppose the sun expands so that its radius becomes 100 times its present radius and its surface
temperature becomes half of its present value. The total energy emitted by it then will increase by a
factor of
1) 104 2) 625 3) 256 4) 16
T
Sol : T2 1
2
from Stefen’s law
P AT 4 here A 4 R 2
4
P2 A2 T2
P1 A1 T1
2 4
R T
2 2
R1 T1
4
2 2 1 10000
10 2 16
P2
625
P1
Key : 2
67. If the absolute temperature of a black body is doubled the percentage increase in the rate of loss of heat
by radiation is
1) 15% 2) 16% 3) 1600% 4) 1500%
4 4
P T 2
Sol : 2 2
P1 T1 1
P2 P1 16 1
100 100 1500%
P1 1
Key : 4
68. A liquid in a beaker has temperature t at time t and 0 is temperature of surroundings, then
according to Newton’s law of cooling the correct graph between log e 0 and t is
Sol :
Key : 1
69. Two spherical black bodies of radii r1and r2 and with surface temperatures T1and T2 respectively
r
radiate the same power. Then, 1 must be equal to
r2
2 2 4 4
T T T T
1) 1 2) 2 3) 1 4) 2
T2 T1 T2 T1
Sol :
Key : 2
70. A block of metal is heated to a temperature much higher than the room temperature and allowed to
cool in a room free from air currents. Which of the following curves correctly represents the cooling?
(T: Temperature of block, T0=Room temperature)
T T T T
T0
1) time 2) time 3) time 1) time
Sol :
Key :2
71. A calorimeter of mass 0.2 kg and specific heat 900J/kg-K. Containing 0.5 kg of a liquid of specific
heat 2400 J/kg-K. Its temperature falls from 600 C to 550 C in one minute. Find the rate of loss in
heat energy.
1) 5 J/s 2) 15 J/s
3) 100 J/s 4) 115 J/s
Sol :
Key :4
72. Two circular discs A and B with equal radii and masses are blackened. They are heated to same
temperature and are cooled under identical conditions. What inference do your draw from their cooling
curves?
R
B
( 0 )
1) A and B specific heat is same
2) specific heat of A is less
3) specific heat of B is less
4) Nothing can be said
d
Sol : Rate of cooling R
dt
dQ
since k 0
dt
d
ms k 0
dt
d k
0
dt ms
k
R 0 ; y m1x
ms
k 1
slope m1 ; slope
ms s
slopeA slopeB
;
s A sB
Key : 2
73. Newton’s law of cooling is used in laboratory for the determination of the
1) specific heat of the gases
2) the latent heat of gases
3) specific heat of liquids
4) latent heat of liquids
Sol : Newton’s law of cooling is used for the determination of specific heat of liquids.
Key : 3
74. A body cools from a temperature 3T to 2T in 10 minutes. The room temperature is T. Assume that
Newton’s law of cooling is applicable. The temperature of the body at the end of next 10 minutes will
be :
4 7 3
1) T 2) T 3) T 4) T
3 4 2
Sol : Newton’s laws of cooling
T1 T2 T T
k 1 2 T
t 2
3T 2T 5T 2T T 3T
k k .....(1)
10 2 10 2
2T T ' 2T T ' 2T T ' T '
k T k .....(2) By solving eqns. (1) and (2)
10 2 10 2
3
T' T
2
Key : 4
75. We consider the radiation emitted by the human body. Which of the following statements is true?
1) The radiation is emitted only during the day
2) The radiation is emitted during the summers and absorbed during the winters
3) The radiation emitted lies in the ultraviolet region and hence is not visible
4) The radiation emitted is in the infrared region
Sol Every body at all time, at all temperatures, emits radiation except at T=0 K. The radiation emitted
by the human body is in the infrared region
Sol : Every body at all time, at all temperatures, emits radiation except at T=0 K. The radiation emitted by
the human body is in the infrared region
Key : 4
SR +LT BIPC DAY-2 PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT
SUBJECT: Physics
CHAPTER: OSCILLATIONS
1. Two particles are executing SHM in a straight line. Amplitude A and time period T of both the particles
are equal. At time t=0, one particle is at displacement x 1 A and the other at x A and they
2
2
are approaching towards each other. The time after which they cross each other is equal to
T T 5T T
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 4 4 6
Sol: At the time of crossing velocities must be equal. According to given problem x1 A cos t and
x2 A sin t
6
V1 V2 A sin t A cos t
6
2 t 2 t
2 6 3 T
T
t
6
Key : 4
2. Four simple harmonic vibrations x1 8 sin t , x 6 sin t ,
2
2
x3 4sin t and x4 2 sin t 3 are superimposed on each other. The resulting amplitude
2
and its phase difference with x1 are respectivley
1) 2 0, ta n 1 1 2) 4
3) 20, tan 1 (2) 4) 4
2, 2,
2 2 4
Sol: The resulting amplitude and corresponding phase difference can be calculated by vector method as
follows:
A 84 4
x
and A 6 2 4
y
Therefore, resulting amplitude is 4 2 and phase difference with
x 1 is
4
Key : 4
3. Find the displacement equation of the simple harmonic motion obtained by combining the motions.
x1 2sin t , x2 4 sin t and x3 6 sin t
6 3
1) x 11.25cos t 2) x 11.25sin t 3) x 11.25sin t 4) x 11.25cos t
Sol : The resultant equation is x A sin t
A x 2 4sin 30o 6 cos 60o 8.46
o o
And A 4sin 30 6cos 30 7.2
y
2 2
A A A 8.46 7.2
2 2
x y 11.25
And tan
A 7.2 0.85 y
A 8.46 x
Or tan 1
0.85 40o
Thus, the displacement equation of the combined motion is
x 11.25sin t where 40o
Key : 2
4. Two simple harmonic motion are represented by the equations y1 0.1sin 100 t and
3
y2 0.1cos t. The phase difference of velocity of particle 1 with respect to the velocity of particle 2 at
time t=0 is
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 6 6 3
dy1
Sol : v1 0.1 100 cos 100t
dt 3
dy 2
v2 0.1 sin t 0.1 cos t
dt 2
Phase difference of velocity of first particle with respect to the velocity of 2nd particle at t=0 is
1 2
3 2 6
Key : 3
5. A particle executing SHM of amplitude 4cm and T=4s. The time taken by it to move from positive
extreme position to half the amplitude is
1 2 3
1) 1 s 2) s 3) s 4) s
3 3 2
a
Sol : Equation of motion y a cos t a cos t t
2 3
T
2 t 3 4 2
t s
T 3 2 3 2 3
Key : 3
6. A body is vibrating in simple harmonic motion. If its acceleration is12 cm / s 2 at a displacement 3cm from
the mean position, then time period is
1) 6.28 s 2) 3.14 s 3) 1.57 s 4) 2.57 s
2 2
Sol : a x ; 12 3
2
2rad / s
T
T second or 3.14 second
Key : 2
7. Two particles executes S.H.M. of same amplitude and frequency along the same straight line. They pass
one another when going in opposite directions, and each time their displacement is half of their
amplitude. The phase difference between them is
1)30° 2) 60° 3) 90° 4) 120°
Sol : y a sin(t 0 ) . According to the question
a a 5
y a sin( t 0 ) ( t 0 ) or
2 2 6 6
Physical meaning of : Particle is at point P and it is going towards B
6
a/2
A O P B
a
5
Physical meaning of : Particle is at point P and it is going towards O
6
a/2
A O P B
a
5 2
So phase difference 120
6 6 3
Key : 4
8. Maximum speed of a particle in simple harmonic motion is m a x . Then average speed of a particle in
SHM is equal to
max max max 2max
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2
Sol: In SHM Vmax = a
Where, a= amplitude and =angular velocity
Since, v = distance travelled in one oscillation/ time period
4a 4a
v
T 2
2 a 2V m ax
v
Key : 4
9. A body of mass 5g is executing S.H.M. With amplitude 10cm. Its maximum velocity is 100 cms-1.Its
velocity will be 50 cms-1 at a displacement from the mean position equal to
1) 5 cm 2) 5 3 3) 10 cm 4) 1 0 3
Sol: v2 2 a2 x2
Since vmax a
2 x2
2 x2 3
v v max 1 2 2500 10000 1 2 x a x 5 3cm
a a 2
Key : 2
10. A particle executing simple harmonic motion has an amplitude of 6cm. Its acceleration at a distance of
2cm from the mean position is 8 cm / s 2 . The maximum speed of the particle is
1) 8 cm / s 2) 12 cm / s 3) 16 cm / s 4) 24 cm / s
a 8
Sol : a 2 y 2 rad / s
y 2
Now vmax A 6 2 12cm / s
Key : 2
11. The displacement of the motion of a particle is represented (in metre) by the equation
t t
y 0 .4 c o s 2 s in
2
2 2
The motion of the particle is
1) oscillatory but not S.H.M.) 2) S.H.M. with amplitude 0.4 m
3) S.H.M. with amplitude 0 . 4 2m 4) S.H.M. with amplitude 0.8 m
Sol: From Trigonometry
cos 2 sin 2 cos(2 ) cos 2 t sin 2 t cos( t ) y 0.4 cos t
2 2
Which indicates that motion is harmonic with amplitude 0.4 m
Key : 2
12. A particle moves such that its acceleration is given by a ( x 2) , where is a positive constant
and x the position from origin. The time period of oscillations is
1 1
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 2 4) 2
2
Sol: a=0, at x=2, x=2 is the mean position
Let x-2 =X a x a x
Since, the oscillations are simple harmonic, so time period of the oscillations is given by
1
T 2
Key : 2
13. A simple pendulum has time period T1. The point of suspension is now moved upward according to the
relation y K t 2 (K=1ms-2) Where y is the vertical displacement. The time period now becomes T2.
2
The ratio of T 1 is (g=10 ms-2)
2
T 2
1) 6/5 2) 5/6 3) 1 4) 4/5
Sol: y=Kt2
d2y
2k
dt 2
a y 2ms 2 K 1ms 2
K 1ms 2
l
S in c e , T1 2
g
l T 2
g ay 10 2 6
a n d T 2 2 1
g ay T 2
2 g 10 5
Key : 1
2 2
14. The energy of a particle executing simple harmonic motion is given by E Ax Bv where x is the
displacement from mean position and v is the velocity of the particle at x. Then maximum velocity of
the particle during SHM is
E 2E E E
1) 2) 3) 4)
A A B 2B
Sol: Maximum velocities obtained for x = 0
E BV 2
E E
V 2 V
B B
Key : 3
15. A particle oscillating under a force kx bv is a (k and b are constants)
F
1) Simple harmonic oscillator 2) Non-linear oscillator
3) Damped oscillator 4) Forced oscillator
Sol: -kx : restoring force
-bv : damping force
Key : 3
16. If the displacement of a moving point at any time it given by an equation of the form
y t a cos t b sin t , show that the motion is simple harmonic. If a=3m, b=4m and =2;
determine the time period
1) sec 2) sec 3) 2 sec 4) sec
2 4
Sol : The particle is moving along the y-axis
y t a cos t b sin t
y a 2 b 2 sin t 0
Where tan 0 a / b y a 2 b 2 sin t tan1 a / b
Comparing with y a sin t
2 2
T s
2
Key : 2
17. The displacement of a particle varies with time as x 12sin t 16 sin3 t (in cm). If its motion is
S.H.M., then its maximum acceleration is
1) 12 2 2) 36 2 3) 144 2 4) 192 2
Sol : x 12sin t 16 sin3 t 4 3 sin t 4sin3 t
4[sin 3t ] (By using sin 3 3 sin 4 sin3 )
Amax 3 2 4 36 2
Key : 2
18. The displacement of an object attached to a spring and executing SHM is given by
x 2 102 cos t m. The time at which the maximum speed first occurs is
1) 0.75s 2) 0.125s 3) 0.25s 4) 0.5s
2
Sol : x 2 10 cos t
Comparing it with the standard form x cos t , we have
2
T 2s
T
Now in time t T / 4 , the particles goes from the extreme position tot he mean position where the KE
2
becomes maximum. So t 0.5
4
Key : 4
19. The displacement of a particle varies with time as x 12 sin t 16 sin3 t (in cm). If its motion is S.H.M.,
then its maximum acceleration is
1) 12 2 2) 36 2 3) 144 2 4) 192 2
Sol : x 12 sin t 16 sin 3 t 4[3 sin t 4 sin 3 t]
4[sin 3 t] (By using sin 3 3 sin 4 sin 3 )
maximum acceleration Amax (3 )2 4 36 2
Key : 2
20. The displacement y of a particle executing periodic motion is given by y 4 cos 2 (t / 2) sin(1000 t) . This
expression may be considered to be a result of the superposition of ........... independent harmonic
motions
1) Two 2) Three 3) Four 4) Five
t
Sol : y 4 cos 2 sin 1000 t
2
y 2(1 cos t) sin 1000 t
y 2 sin 1000 t 2 cos t sin 1000 t
y 2 sin 1000 t sin 999 t sin 1001 t
It is a sum of three S.H.M
Key : 2
21. The amplitude and the time period in a SHM is 0.5 cm and 0.4s respectively. If the initial phase is / 2
rad, then the equation of SHM will be
1) y 0.5sin5 t 2) y 0.5sin 4 t 3) y 0.5sin 2.5 t 4) y 0.5cos5 t
2
Sol : y a sin r a sin t
T
2
y 0.5sin t y 0.5sin 5 t 0.5 cos 5 t
0.4 2 2
Key : 4
22. The displacement of a particle executing SHM is given by x 0.01sin100 t 0.05 . The time period is
1) 0.01 s 2) 0.02 s 3) 0.1 s 4) 0.2 s
2
Sol : 100 T 0.02 s
Key : 2
23. A particle undergoing SHM has the equation x A sin t , where x represents the displacement of
the particle. The kinetic energy oscillates with time period
2 4
1) 2) 3) 4) None of these
Sol : Frequency of oscillation of kinetic energy is doubled. i.e., 2
2
T
2
Key : 2
24. A particle executing simple harmonic motion along y-axis has its motion described by the equation
y A sin t B. The amplitude of the simple harmonic motion is
1) A 2) B 3) A + B 4) A B
Sol : The amplitude is a maximum displacement from the mean position.
Key : 1
25. Two pendulums of length 100 cm and 121 cm start vibrating. At some instant the two are at the mean
position in the same phase. After how many vibrations of the longer pendulum will the two be in the
same phase at the mean position again
1) 10 2) 11 3) 20 4) 21
Sol: T l 1 1 l 10Tl 11Ts
Ts 10
T
10 oscillations of longer pendulum = 11 oscillations of shorter pendulum
Key : 1
26. A simple pendulum is suspended from the roof of a trolley that moves freely down a plane of inclination
. The time period of oscillation is
1) 2 L 2) 2 L 3) 2 L 4) 2 L
g g cos g sin g ta n
Sol: Since the vehicle is moving down the frictionless, so the acceleration of the vehicle is g sin along the
incline. So the bob will experience a pseudo force mg sin in the back ward direction, as shown. The
weight of the bod vertically downwards. If a net is the net acceleration of the bob then,
anet g2 g2 sin2 2(g)(g sin)cos(90 ) a net g 2 g 2 sin 2 2 g 2 sin 2 )
2
a n et g 2 g 2 sin 2 a net g 1 sin
Further T= 2 L L
T 2
a net g cos
As s short cut if we think 0,
L
T 2
g
i.e. the time period of a simple pendulum
Key : 2
27. A simple pendulum of a length 1m is allowed to oscillate with amplitude 20 . It collides elastically with a
wall inclined at 10 to the vertical. Its time period will be: ( g 2 )
2 4 3
1) sec 2) sec 3) 2 sec 4) sec
3 3 2
l 1 2
T 2 2 2 sec
Sol: Time period for half part g g
T
So 20 part will be covered in a time t 0
1sec For the left 1 part;
2
0 sin t
2 1 2
10 20 sin t sin t
T 2 T
t t 1/ 6sec.
6
T 1 4
Total time 2 t 1 sec
2 3 3
Key : 2
28. Find the period of small oscillations of a uniform rod of mass m with length l, pivoted at one end.
2l 2l 3g 3g
1) 2 2) 2 3) 4) 4
3g g 2l 2l
I0
Sol : T 2
mg OG
1 1
Here, I 0 ml 2 and OG
3 2
1 2
ml
T 2 3 or T 2 2l
1
m g 3g
2
Key : 1
29. A simple pendulum of length l and having a bob of mass M is suspended in a car. The car is moving on a
circular track of radius R with a uniform speed v. If the pendulum makes small oscillations in a radial
direction about its equilibrium position, what will be its time period?
l l 2l 2l
1) 2 1
2) T 1
3) T 1
4) T 2 1
2 v4 2 2 v4 2 2 v4 2 2 v4 2
g R2 g 2 g 2 g 2
R R R
Sol : Point of suspension has an acceleration a c in horizontal direction.
v2
Hence a g a c ; a c
R
l l
If T be the time period of oscillation of the pendulum, then T 2 2
a 2 v4
g 2
R
l
Or T 2 1
2 v4 2
g R2
Key : 1
30. A simple pendulum is suspended from the ceiling of a car and its period of oscillation is T when the car
is at rest. The car starts moving on a horizontal road with a constant acceleration g (equal to the
acceleration due to gravity, in magnitude) in the forward direction. To keep the time period same the
length of the pendulum
1) will have to be increased by 2 l
2) will have to be increased by
2 1 l
3) will have to be decreased by 2l
4) will have to be decreased by
2 1 l
Sol : l | 2l
Key : 2
31. A particle of mass m is dropped from a great height h above the hole in the earth dug along its diameter
a) The motion of the particle is simple harmonic
b) The motion of the particle is periodic
2GM
c) The speed of the particle at the centre of earth equals ,where R and M are the radius and
R h
mass of the earth respectively
GM R 3h
d) The speed of the particle at the centre of earth equals , where R and M are the radius
R R h
and mass of the earth respectively
1) (a) ,(b) 2) ) (b) ,(c) 3) (c) ,(a) 4) (b) ,(d)
1 2 GMm 3 GMm
Sol : The motion is simple harmonic only inside earth. Further mv ;
2 R h 2 R
GM R 3h
v
R R h
Key : 4
32. If ks and kp respectively are effective spring constant in series and parallel combination of springs as
shown in the figure, find ks/kp
1) 9/2 2) 3/7 3) 2/9 4) 7/3
Sol: 1 1 1
Ks K1 K2
Kp K1 K 2
Key : 3
33. A pan with a set of weights is attached to a light spring. The period of vertical oscillations is 0.5 s. When
some additional weights are put on the pan, the period of oscillations increases by 0.1 s. The extension
caused by the additional weights is
1) 1.3 cm 2) 2.7 cm 3) 3.8 cm 4) 5.5 cm
m m'
Sol: 0 .5 2 m ; 0.6 2
k k
0.36 m m '
4 2 k k
0.36 0.25 m ' m ' 0.11
4 2 4 2 k k 4 2
Lets x be additional extension, then M’g=kx
m' 0 .1 1
x g x ' 0 .1 1 g x ' (9 .8 ) x ' 2.69cm
k k 4 2
Key : 2
34. The mass M shown in the figure oscillates in simple harmonic motion with amplitude A. The amplitude
of the point P is
1) k 1 A 2) k 2 A 3) k1 A 4) k2 A
k2 k1 k1 k 2 k1 k 2
Sol: Internal forces in the springs are same, so we have
K1x1= K2x2
k2 A
Also, x1 +x2=A x1
k1 k2
Key : 4
35. The system shown in the figure can move on a smooth surface. The spring is initially compressed by 6cm
and then released. Find the time period
1) sec 2) sec 3) sec 4) sec
5 2 10 4
Sol. T 2 ;Here,
k
m1m 2 36
2kg
m1 m2 9
2 1
T 2 2 ;T sec
800 20 10
Key : 3
36. A spring mass system is hanging from the ceiling of an elevator in equilibrium. The elevator suddenly
starts accelerating upwards with acceleration a find
a) the frequency and b) the amplitude of the resulting SHM
1 k mg 1 k 2mg m k m mg
1) , 2) ; 3) 2 ; 4) 2 ,
2 m k 2 m k k mg k k
1k
Sol : (a) Frequency (Frequency is independent of g in spring)
2
m
mg
(b) Extension in spring in equilibrium initial
k
m g a
Extension in spring in equilibrium in acceleration lift
k
m g a mg mg
Amplitude
k k k
Key : 1
37. The system shown in the figure can move on a smooth surface. The spring is initially compressed by 6cm
and then released. Find the time period
1) sec 2) sec 3) sec 4) sec
5 2 10 4
Sol : T 2 ;Here,
k
m1m 2 36
2kg
m1 m2 9
2 1
T 2 2 ;T sec
800 20 10
Key : 3
38. One end of a spring of force constant k is fixed to a vertical wall and the other to a block of mass m
resting on a smooth horizontal surface. There is another wall at a distance x0 from the block. The spring
is then compressed by 2x0 and released. The time to strike the wall is
1 m m 2 m m
1) 2) 3) 4)
6 k k 3 k 4 k
Sol : The total time from A to C
t AC t AB t T /4 tBC
where T=time period of oscillation of spring mass system
t BC can be obtained from, BC AB sin 2 /T tBC
BC 1 T T T 2 m
Putting we obtain t BC t AC
AB 2 12 4 12 3 k
Key : 3
39. Three masses 700g, 500g, and 400g are suspended at the end of a spring a shown and are in
equilibrium. When the 700g mass is removed, the system oscillates with a period of 3 seconds, when the
500 gm mass is also removed, it will oscillate with a period of
700gm
500gm
400gm
12
1) 1 s 2) 2 s 3) 3s 4) s
5
Sol : When mass 700 gm is removed, the left out mass (500 + 400) gm oscillates with a period of 3 sec
(500 400 )
3 t 2 …...(i)
k
When 500 gm mass is also removed, the left out mass is 400 gm.
400
t 2 …..(ii)
k
3 900
t 2 sec
t 400
Key : 2
40. A particle of mass m is attached to three identical springs A, B and C each of force constant k a shown
in figure. If the particle of mass m is pushed slightly against the spring A and released then the time
period of oscillations is
B
C
90°
O m
2m m m m
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 4) 2
k 2k k 3k
Sol : When the particle of mass m at O is pushed by y in the direction of A The spring A will be compressed
by y while spring B and C will be stretched by y y cos 45 . So that the total restoring force on the mass m
along OA.
FC FB
C B
O m
FA
Fnet FA FB cos 45 FC cos 45
ky 2k y cos 45 ky 2k (y cos 45 ) cos 45 2ky
Also Fnet k y k y 2ky k 2k
m m
T 2 2
k 2k
Key : 2
41. A spring having a spring constant1200 Nm 1 is mounted on a horizontal table as shown. A mass of 3.0kg
is attached to the free end of the spring. The mass is then pulled sideways to a distance of 0.2 cm and
released. Determine
i) the frequency of oscillations ii) the maximum acceleration of the mass
1) 3.18Hz,8.0ms 5 2) 3.18Hz,8.0ms 2 3) 2.18Hz, 6.0ms 2 4) 3.18Hz, 6.0ms 3
1 k 1 1200
Sol : i) Frequency, f 3.18Hz
2 m 2 3.142 3
k k
ii) The acceleration is given by a 2 x x or a max x max
m m
i.e., acceleration will be maximum, when x is maximum.
1200
i.e., x max A 0.02m a 0.02 8.0ms 2
3
Key : 2
42. If both spring constants k1 and k2 are increased to 4k1 and 4k2 respectively, what will be new frequency, if f
was the original frequency?
1
1) f 2) 2 f 3) f 4) 4 f
2
l
Sol : T 2 , here ge effective value of g, which is zero in a freely falling lift. Hence T
ge
Key : 3
43. Molten-wax of mass m drops on a block of mass M, which is oscillating on a frictionless table as shown.
Select the incorrect option
1) If the collision takes place at extreme position, amplitude does not change
2) If the collision takes place at mean position, amplitude decreases
3) If the collision takes place at mean position, time period decreases
4) If the collision takes placed at extreme position, time period increases
m
Sol : T 2 or T m
K
Mass is increasing therefore time period will increase.
Key : 3
44. A heavy brass sphere is hung from a spring and it executes vertical vibrations with period T. The sphere
is now immersed in a non-viscous liquid with a density (1/10)th that of brass. When set into vertical
vibrations with the sphere remaining inside liquid all the time, the time period will be:
1) 9 / 1 0 T 2) 1 0 / 9 T 3) 9 / 10 T 4) u n ch a ng ed
Sol: Time period of spring in independent of g
Key : 4
45. A particle starts SHM from the mean position. Its amplitude is a and total energy E. At one instant its
3E
kinetic energy is . Its displacement at that instant is
4
a a a
1) 2) 3) 3 4) zero
2 2 2
1
Sol : KE K A2 x 2
2
1 3E
Put KA2 E and KE
2 4
Key : 3
46. A particle of mass 0.50kg executes a simple harmonic motion under a force F 50N /m x. If it
crosses the centre of oscillation with a speed of 10m/s, find the amplitude of motion
1) 1 m 2) 2 m 3) 2.5 m 4) 3 m
Sol : The kinetic energy of the particle when it is mean position, it is also its total energy as the potential
energy is zero here.
1 1 2
E mv 2 0.50kg 10m / s 25J
2 2
At the maximum displacement x=A, the speed is zero and hence the kinetic energy is zero. The potential
1
energy here is1/2 kA 2. At this position it will also its total energy. Hence kA 2 25J ----(i)
2
The force on the particle is given by
F 50N /m x
Thus, the spring constant is
k 50N / m
1
Equation (i) gives 50N / m A 2 25J A 1m
2
Key : 1
47. A particle is performing simple harmonic motion along x-axis with amplitude 4cm and time period
1.2sec. The minimum time taken by the particle to move from x 2cm to x 4cm and back again is
given by
1) 0.6 sec 2) 0.4 sec 3) 0.3 sec 4) 0.2 sec
Sol : Time taken by particle to move from x 0 (mean position) to x=4 (extreme position)
T 1.2
0.3s . Let t be the time taken by the particle to move from x=0 to x=2cm
4 4
2 1 2 2
y a sin t 2 4 sin t sin t t t 0.1s
T 2 1.2 6 1.2
Hence time to move from x 2 to x 4 will be equal to 0.3-0.1=0.2sec
Hence total time to move from x 2 tp x 4 and back again 2 0.2 0.4sec
Key : 2
48. Potential energy of a body of unit mass moving in a one-dimension conservation force field is given by
U x2 4x 3 . All units are in SI. The time period of oscillation of body is
1
1) 2 sec 2) 2 sec 3) sec 4) sec
2 2
2
Sol : U x 4 x 3; m 1
du
2 x 4 kx c
dx
k 2 m 2 or 2 2
T 2 / w
Key : 1
49. The potential energy of a particle of mass m is given by U x U 0 1 cos cx where U 0 and c are
constants. The time period of small oscillations of the particle is
m U0 2 U 0c 2
1) T 2 2 2) T 2 3) T 2 mU 0c 4) T 2
c U0 mc 2 m
Sol:
u x u0 1 cos c x
u x
F u0 c sin c x u0c 2 x sin c x c x
x
F u0 c 2 x
a 2 x
m m
m
T 2 2
c u0
Key : 1
50. A force f 10 x 2 acts on a particle of mass 0.1kg. Where ‘x’ is in m and F in Newton. If it is
released from rest at x 2 m , then its equation of motion is
11 11
1) x 0.2 cos10t 2) x 0.2 sin10t
5 5
11 11
3) x 0.2 sin10t 4) x 0.2 cos10t
5 5
Sol : f 10 x 2 x0 0.2 at which f=0 is the mean position
At x1 2 v1 0 & at x x2 v2 0
x2 x2
Then f dx KE 0 5 x 2 2 x 0
x1 2
2 484 2 22
5 x22 2 x2 24 0 Or x2
10 10
22
A x2 x0 11/ 5m
10
k 10
100 10
m 0.1
Key : 4
51. A linear harmonic oscillator has a total mechanical energy of 200J. Potential energy of it at mean
position is 50J. Find,
i) the maximum kinetic energy ii) the minimum potential energy
iii) the potential energy of extreme positions
1) 150J, 50J, 200J 2) 100J, 250J, 50J 3) 200J, 50J, 150J 4) 300J, 250J, 200J
Sol : At mean position, potential energy is minimum and kinetic energy is maximum.
Here, U min 50 J (at mean position) and K max E U min 200 50 150J (at mean position)
At extreme positions, kinetic energy is zero and potential energy is maximum
U max E 200 J (at extreme position)
Key : 1
52. Two simple harmonic motions y1 A sin t and y2 A cos t are superimposed on a particle of mass m.
The total mechanical energy of the particle is
1 1
1) m 2 A2 2) m 2 A2 3) m 2 A2 4) zero
2 4
Sol : y y1 y2 2 A sin t
4
1 2
E m 2 2 A m 2 A2
2
Key : 3
53. Maximum kinetic energy of a particle of mass 1kg in SHM is 8J. Time period of SHM is 4s. Maximum
potential energy during the motion is 10J. Then
1) amplitude of oscillations is approximately 2.53m
2) minimum potential energy of the particle is 2J
3) maximum acceleration of the particle is approximately 6.3 m / s 2
4) minimum kinetic energy of the particle is 2 J
Sol : Maximum kinetic energy = energy of oscillation in SHM
1
8 kA2 ; kA2 16 ------(i)
2
m 1 4 2
Further, 2 4 ; 2 or k -------(ii)
k k 4
From Eqs, (i) and (ii) we get k 2.4 N / m and A 2.53m
Maximum acceleration of the particle will be
k 2.5 2
amax 2 A A 2.53 6.3 m / s
m 1
k 2.5
.A 2.53 6.3 m / s 2
m 1
Key : (2, 3, 4)
54. A wooden cube (density of wood ‘d’) of side ‘ l ’ floats in a liquid of density ‘ ’ with its upper and
lower surfaces horizontal. If the cube is pushed slightly down and released, it performs simple
harmonic motion of period ‘T’. Then, ‘T’ is equal to :-
l ld l ld
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 4) 2
d g g dg d g
Sol: By using
m
T 2
A g
Where m l 3 d and A l 2
l 3k ld
T 2 2
T 2
l g g
Key : 2
55. A uniform cylinder of mass m and length l having area of cross section a is suspended lengthwise with
the help of a massless spring of constant k. The cylinder is half submerged in a linquid of density . A
small push and release makes it vibrate with small amplitude. The frequency of oscillation is
1 k 1 ka g 1 m a g 1 k a g
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 m 2 m 2 k 2 m
Sol:
Key : 4
56. A sphere of radius r is kept on a concave mirror of radius of curvature R. The arrangement is kept on a
horizontal table (the surface of concave mirror is frictionless and sliding not rolling). If the sphere is
displaced from its equilibrium position and left, then it executes S.H.M. The period of oscillation will be
R r 1 . 4 R r rR R
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 4) 2
g g a gr
Sol. Tangential acceleration, at g sin g
x
at g
( R r)
displaceme nt x R r
Motion is S.H.M., with time period T 2 2
gx
2
accelerati on g
( R r)
Key : 2
57. A U tube of uniform bore of cross-sectional area A has been set up vertically with open ends facing up.
Now m gm of a liquid of density d is poured into it. The column of liquid in this tube will oscillate with a
period T such that
M MA M M
1) T 2 2) T 2 3) T 2 4) T 2
g gd gdA 2 Adg
Sol. If the level of liquid is depressed by y cm on one side, then the level of liquid in column P is 2y cm higher
than B as shown.
P Q Q P
y
2y
y
The weight of extra liquid on the side P 2 Aydg .
This becomes the restoring force on mass M.
2 Aydg
Restoring acceleration
M
This relation satisfies the condition of SHM i.e. a y .
Displaceme nt y M
Hence time period T 2 2 T 2
| Accelerati on | 2 Aydg 2 Adg
M
Key : 4
58. A bob of mass M is hung using a string of length l. A mass m moving with a velocity u pierces through
u
the bob and emerges out with velocity . The frequency of oscillation of the bob considering as
3
amplitude A is
3mu 1 3m 1 2mu
1) 2 2) 3) 4) Can not be
2MA 2 3MA 2 3MA
Sol. PB = PA
mu 2um
mu M 0 MV V
3 3M
2um
V A A2 f 2 fA
3M
1 2mu
f
2 3MA
Key : 3
59. A Solid cube floats in water half immersed and has small vertical oscillations of time period s. Its
5
mass (in kg) is (Take g 10m / s 2 )
1) 4 2) 2 3) 1 4) 0.5
Sol : Since the cube is half immersed. The density of cube should be half the density of water, i.e., 500 kg / m3
m
T 2 k w Ag
w Ag
a3
2
5 w a2 g
a 1 a 1
; or a 0.2 m
g w 100 20 10
Now m a 3 4kg
Key : 1
60. A ring of mass m and radius r suspended through a point on its periphery, time period of small
oscillations is
r 2r r g
1) 2 2) 2 3) 2 4) 2
g g 2g 2r
Sol:
mgr sin
I mr 2 mr 2 2mr 2
sin ; mgr
I mgr ;
mgr
2
I
I 2mr 2 2r
T 2 2 2
mgr mgr g
Key : 2
61. A disc of radius R and mass M is pivoted at the rim and is set for small oscillations. If simple pendulum
has to have the same period as that of the disc, the length of the simple pendulum should be
5 2
1) R 2) R 3) 3 R 4) 3 R
4 3 4 2
Sol : Time period of a physical pendulum
O
d=R
1 2 2
mR mR
I0 2
T 2 2
mgd mgR
3R
2 …..(i)
2g
l
Tsimple pendulum 2 …..(ii)
g
3
Equating (i) and (ii), l R.
2
Key : 4
62. A block is kept on a rough horizontal plank. The coefficient of friction between the block and the plank is
½. The plank is undergoing SHM of angular frequency 10 rads-1 . If g=10 ms-2, then the maximum
amplitude of plank in which the block does not slip over the plank is
1) 4 cm 2) 5 cm 3) 10 cm 4) 16 cm
Sol: Maximum acceleration in SHM is
amax 2 A
This will be provided to the block by friction. Hence. amax g
1
L g (1 0 )
2
T 2 A 2
2
g (1 0 )
Key : 2
63. A plank with a small block on top of it is undergoing vertical SHM. Its period is 2s. The minimum
amplitude at which the block will separate from plank is
10 2 20
1) 2 2) 3) 2 4)
10 10
2
Sol : Here g A
g g gT 2 10 4 10
A 2m
2 2 2 4 2 4 2
T
Key : 1
A0
64. The amplitude of a damped oscillator is A0.It becomes in 2 minutes .The amplitude of oscillation
3
after 6 minutes will be
A A A A
1) 0 2) 0 3) 0 4) 0
6 9 27 81
Sol: Since the amplitude decreases exponentially, in equal time it decreases by equal ratio after 2 minutes
A A
the amplitude is 0 ,after another 2 minutes, the amplitude will be 0 .After another 2 minutes
3 9
A0
amplitude will be
27
Key : 3
65. A particle moves with a simple harmonic motion in a straight line. In the first second starting from rest
it travels a distance a and in the next second it travels a distance b in the same direction. The amplitude
of the motion is
2a 2 3a 2 2a 2 3a 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
3b a 3a b 3a b 3b a
2
Sol. Let the acceleration be f; f x
Therefore, distance of the particle from the centre at any time t is given by
x r cos r , where r is the amplitude
when t 1s, x r a ; r a r cos
r a
cos ---(i)
r
When t 2s, x r a b ; therefore r a b cos 2
r a b r 2 cos2 1 ---(ii)
Substituting the value of cos from Eq. (i) in Eq. (ii) we get
r a 2 2 r a 2
r a b r 2 1 r
r2 r
2a 2
r 3a b 2a 2 r
3a b
Key : 3
66. A particle executes simple harmonic motion (amplitude=A) between x A and x A . The time
taken for it to go from 0 to A/2 is T1 and to go from A / 2 to A is T2 . Then
1) T1 T2 2) T1 T2 3) T1 T2 4) T1 2T2
Sol : Using x A sin t
For x A / 2,sin T1 1/ 2 T1
6
For x A,sin T1 T2 1 T1 T2
2
T2 T1 ; i.e., T1 T2
2 2 6 3
Key : 1
67. The variation of potential energy of harmonic oscillator is as shown in figure. The spring constant is
U(Joule)
0.04
0.01
y(in mm)
(0.0)
20 mm
1) 1102 N / m 2) 150 N/m 3) 0.667 102 N / m 4) 3102 N / m
Sol: Total potential energy = 0.04 J
Restoring potential energy = 0.01 J
Maximum kinetic Energy = 0.04-0.01
= 0.03 J
2
1 1 20
m 2 a 2 0.03 ; k 0.03 ; k 150 N / m
2 2 1000
Key : 2
68. A body performs S.H.M. Its kinetic energy K varies with time t as indicated by graph
KE KE
1) 2)
t t
KE
KE
3) 4)
t
t
Sol. Kinetic energy varies with time but is never negative.
Key : 1
69. Find the period of the function, y sin t sin 2t sin 3t
2 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 2
Sol : The given function can be written as, y y1 y2 y3
2 2
Here, y1 sin t , T1 and y2 sin 2t , T2
2
2
And y3 sin 3t , T3 ; T1 2T2 and T1 3T3
3
2
So, the time period of the given function is T1 or
2
Because in time T , first function completes one oscillation, the second function two oscillations and
the third, three.
Key : 2
70. The velocity – time diagram of a harmonic oscillator is shown in the adjoining figure. The frequency of
oscillation is
1) 25 Hz 2) 50 Hz 3) 12.25 Hz 4) 33. 3Hz
1 1
Sol : f 25Hz
T 0.04
Key : 1
71. A body of mass 0.1 kg executes simple harmonic motion (SHM) about x=0 under the influence of a force
shown in figure. The period of the SHM is
1) 1.05 s 2) 0.52 s 3) 0.25 s 4) 0.31 s
F 8
Sol : From graph, slope K 4
x 2
m 0.01
T 2 T 2 0.31s
k 4
Key : 4
SR +LT BIPC ONLINE PROGRAM DAY-1 PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
CHAPTER: WAVES
x
1. A simple harmonic wave is represented by the relation y ( x, t ) a0 sin 2 vt
If the maximum particle velocity is three times the wave velocity, the wavelength of the wave is
1. a0/3 2. 2 a0/3 3. a0 4. a 0/2
Sol : Maximum particle velocity = a0 = 2 a0 v
Wave velocity
Given that 2 a0 v 3v or (2 a0 / 3)
Key : 2
t x
2. The equation of a progressive wave is y 0.02sin 2 ,here x and y are in metres and t is in
0.01 0.30
seconds. The velocity of propagation of the wave is
1. 300 m/s 2. 30 m/s 3. 400 m/s 4. 40 m/s
2 2
Sol : and k
0.01 0.30
2 0.30
v 30 m/ s
k 0.01 2
Key : 2
3. The amplitude of a wave disturbance propagating in the positive y-direction is given by
1 1
y 2
at t = 0 and y at t 2 s
1 x 1 ( x 1) 2
The wave speed is
1. 1 m/s 2. 1.5 m/s 3. 0.5 m/s 4. 2 m/s
Sol : At t = 2 s
1
y or x vt x 1 1 vt
1 ( x 1) 2
1 v 2 v 0.5m/ s
Key : 3
4. A wave is represented by the equation y = y0 sin [10 x - 15 t + ( /3)] where x is in metres and t in
seconds. The equation represents a travelling wave:
1. in the positive direction with a velocity 1.5 m/s and wavelength 0.2 m.
2. in the negative direction with a velocity 1.5 m/s and wavelength 0.2 m.
3. in the positive direction with a velocity 2 m/s and wavelength 0.2 m.
4. in the negative direction with a velocity 2 m/s and wavelength 1.5 m.
Sol : Negative sign with ‘ ’ indicates that wave is propagating along positive x - axis.
2 2 15
0.2 m And v 1.5 m/ s
k 10 k 10
Key : 1
x
5. The equation of a stationary wave is y 0.8cos sin 200 t where x is in cm and t is in s. The separation
20
between consecutive nodes will be
1. 20 cm 2. 10 cm 3. 40 cm 4. 30cm
Sol : standard equation
2 x 2 vt
y A cos sin
By comparing this equation with given equation.
2 x x
40 cm
20
Distance travelled between two nodes = /2 = 20 cm.
Key : 1
6. The following equations represent progressive transverse waves
z1 Acos (t kx) , z2 Acos (t kx) , z3 A cos (t ky ) , z4 Acos (2t 2ky)
A stationary wave will be formed by superposing
1. z1 and z2 2. z1 and z4 3. z2 and z3 4. z3 and z4
Sol : The direction of wave must be opposite and frequencies will be same then by superposition, standing wave
formation takes place.
Key : 1
7 The amplitude of a wave represented by displacement equation
1 1
y sin t cos t will be
a b
a b a b a b a b
1. 2. 3. 4.
ab ab ab ab
1
Sol : Assume 1/ a A cos ; A sin
b
On simplifying, we get; y A sin( t )
ab
Squaring and adding Eqs. (i) and (ii) A
ab
Key :4
8. At t = 0, a transverse wave pulse in a wire is described by the function y = 6/(x2 – 3) where x and y are in
metres. The function y(x, t) that describes this wave equation if it is travelling in the positive x
direction with a speed of 4.5 m/s is
6 6
1) y 2
2) y
( x 4.5t ) 3 ( x 4.5t ) 2 3
6 6
3) y 2
4) y
( x 4.5t ) 3 ( x 4.5t ) 2 3
a
Sol : y ( x, t )
( x vt )2 b
is another form of progressive wave equation propagating with a speed v.
Negative sign to be taken for propagation along +x – axis and positive sign to be
taken to propagation along -ve axis.
Key :4
9. The length of a sonometer wire is 90 cm and the stationary wave setup in the wire is represented by an
x
equation y 6 sin
30
cos 250t where x, y are in cm and t is in second. The number of loops is
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 3
Sol :
90
Therefore no. of loops = 3
30
Key :4
5
10. Two pulses travelling on the same string are described by y1 and
3x 4t 2
2
5
y2 .At what instant do the two cancel everywhere?
3x 4t 6 2
2
1) 0.5 s 2) 0.75 s 3) 1 s 4) 0.25 s
Sol : We require, y1 y2 0
Key : 2
11. Fig. below shows the wave y A sin( kx t ) at any instant travelling in the +vex-direction. What is the slope
of the curve at B y
B
O x
1) / A 2) k/A 3) kA 4) A
dy
Sol : The particle velocity is maximum at B and is given by (v p )max A
dt
dx
Also wave velocity is v
dt k
dy (v p )max
So slope kA
dx v
Key : 3
12. Figure shows a snapshot of a sinusoidal travelling wave taken at t = 0.3 s. The wavelength is 7.5 cm and
amplitude is 2 cm.
If the speed of wave is 4 cm s-1, write the equation of travelling wave.
4 16 16 4
1) y 2 sin x t 2) y 2 cos t x
15 15 15 15
16 4 16 4
3) y 2 sin t x 4) y 2 cos t x
15 15 15 15
Sol: In solution
y A sin kx t 8 ; at t = 0 and x = 0
2 2sin 0 0 8
y A sin kx t A cos kx t
2
A cos wt kx
Key :4
2 x 2 x
13. The path difference between the two waves y1 a1 sin t and y2 a2 cos t is
2 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2 2
2 x 2 x
Sol : y1 a1 sin t , y2 a2 sin t
Phase difference
2 x 2 x
t t
2 2
Path difference Phase difference
2 2 2
Key : 2
x
14. A transverse wave is described by the equation Y y0 sin 2 ft
The maximum particle velocity is four times the wave velocity if
y y
1) 0 2) 0 3) y0 4) 2 y0
4 2
y
Sol : Maximum particle velocity = 4 wave velocity A 4 f ; y0 2 f 4 f ; 0
2
Key : 2
x
15. A simple harmonic wave is represented by the relation y x, t a0 cos 2 vt
If the maximum particle velocity is two times the wave velocity, the wavelength of the wave is
1) a0 / 3 2) 2 a0 / 3 3) a0 4) a0 / 2
Sol : Maximum particle velocity a0 2 a0 v
Wave velocity v
Given that 2 a0 v 2v or 2 a0 / 2 a0
Key : 3
16. The graph shows a wave at t=0 travelling to the right with a velocity of 4m/s. The equation that best
represents the wave is
1) y x, t 2sin x / 4 t meters 2) y x, t 2sin 16x 8t meters
3) y x, t 2sin x / 4 t meters 4) y x, t 4sin x / 4 t meters
Sol : Let equation of the wave is
y A sin t kx 0
The particle at origin is moving downwards (from graph) at t=0, so 0 . Also A=2m from graph.
2 4
From graph 8m, so k , vk
4 4
Putting all the values
y 2 sin t x y 2 sin x t
4 4
Key : 1
17. Figure shown is a graph, at a certain time t, of the displacement function S x, t of three sound waves 1, 2
and 3 as marked on the curves that travel along x-axis through air. If P1 , P2 and P3 represent their pressure
amplitudes respectively, then correct relation between them is
1) P1 P2 P3 2) P3 P2 P1 3) P1 P2 P3 4) P2 P3 P1
2 1
Sol : P0 B.K .S 0 B S0 P0
Thus, pressure amplitude is highest for minimum wavelength, other parameters B and S 0 being same for all.
From given graphs. 3 2 1 . Hence P3 P2 P1
Key : 2
18. The equation of displacement due to a sound wave is s s0 sin 2 t kx . If the bulk modulus of the medium
is B, then the equation of pressure variation due to that sound is
1) Bks0 sin 2t 2kx 2) Bks0 sin 2t 2kx
3) Bks0 cos 2 t kx 4) Bks0 cos 2 t kx
Sol : The equation of pressure variation due to sound is
ds d
p B s0 sin 2 t kx
dx dx
Bks0 sin 2t 2kx
Key : 1
19. The equation of displacement of two waves are given as
y1 10 sin 3 t ; y2 5 sin 3 t 3 cos 3 t
3
Then what is the ratio of their amplitudes
1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 1
3) 1 : 1 4) None of these
Sol : y2 5 sin 3 t 3 cos t 5 1 3 sin 3 t
3
10sin 3 t
3
So, A1 10 and A2 10
Key : 3
20. Two particles of medium disturbed by the wave propagation are at x1 = 0 and x2 = 1 cm. The respective
displacements (in cm) of the particles can be given by the equations:
y1 2sin 3 t , y2 2sin(3 t / 8)
The wave velocity is
1. 16 cm/s 2. 24 cm/s 3. 12 cm/s 4. 8 cm/s
Sol : Given 3
f 1.5 Also x 1.0 cm
2
Given,
2 2
x 1
8
= 16 cm; v f 16 1.5 24 cm/ s
Key : 2
21. A sound wave of wavelength travels towards the right horizontally with a velocity V. It strikes and reflects
from a vertical plane surface, travelling at a speed v towards the left. The number of positive crests striking in
a time interval of 3 s on the wall is
1. 3(V+ v)/ 2. [3(V-v)/ ]. 3. (V + v)/3 4. (V - v)/3
Sol : The relative velocity of sound waves w.r.t. the wall is V + v. Hence, the apparent frequency of the waves
striking the surface of the wall is (V + v)/ . The number of positive crests striking per second is same as
frequency. In 3 s, the number is [3( V + v)]/ .
Key : 1
22. A sound wave starting from source S, follows two paths SEFD and SEABFD. If AB = l, AE = BF = 0.6 l and
wavelength of wave is =6 m. If maximum sound is heard at D, then minimum value of length l is
1. 11 m 2. 6 m 3. 2.5 m 4. 5 m
Sol : For maximum path difference = n
6
2 0.6l ; l 5m
1.2 1.2
Key : 4
23. Under similar conditions of temperature and pressure, which of the following gases will have the largest
velocity of sound.
1. H2 2. N2 3. He 4. CO2
Sol : The speed of sound in air is
RT
v
M
/M of H2 is highest, hence speed of sound in H2 shall be maximum.
Key :1
24. In a medium in which a transverse progressive wave is travelling, the phase difference between two points
with a separation of 1.25 cm is (π/4). If the frequency of wave is 1000 Hz. The wave velocity will be
1)10 4 m/s 2) 125 m/s 3) 100 m/s 4) 10 m/s
2 2 1.25
Sol : x ;
4 100
1 1
On solving, we get λ= m u = n 1000 100 m / s
10 10
Key :3
25. At t= 0, a transverse wave pulse travelling in the positive x direction with a speed of 2 m/s in a wire is
described by the function y = 6/x2 given that x ≠ 0. Transverse velocity of a particle at x = 2 m and t = 2 s is
1) 3 m/s 2) -3 m/s 3) 8 m/s 4) -8 m/s
6 6
Sol : y(x, t = 0) = 2 then y(x, t) =
x ( x 2t ) 2
y 24
at x = 2, t = 2
t ( x 2t )3
Vy = 24/(-2)3 = -3 m/s
Key :2
26. Two waves of wavelengths and produce 6 beats per second. If , find the speed of
51
sound wave in a gas in which these waves produce beats
1) 316 m/s 2) 310 m/s 3) 306 m/s 4) 326 m/s
Sol : Given
51
1 1
;
51 51
1 1 1
-------------(i)
51
v v
But we know, f1 f 2 6 or 6 -------(ii)
6 1
Comparing (i) and (ii), v 306 m / s
v 51
Key : 3
27. A sound source emits sound waves in a uniform medium. If energy density is E and maximum speed of the
particles of the medium is v max . The plot between E and v max is best represented by
E E
1) 2)
vmax vmax
E E
3) 4)
vmax vmax
I
Sol : Energy density (E) 2 2 n 2 A 2
v
v max A 2nA E (v max ) 2
i.e., graph between E and vmax will be a parabola symmetrical about E axis.
Key : 3
28. Oxygen is 16 times heavier than hydrogen. Equal volumes of hydrogen and oxygen are mixed. The ratio of
speed of sound in the mixture to that in hydrogen is
1 2 32
1) 8 2) 3) 4)
8 17 17
Sol :
Given molecular mass of oxygen
M 0 16 M H ( where M H is the molecule are mass hydrogen) and volume of oxygen V0 VH ( Where
VH is the volume of hydrogen). We know that density of a gas
M
V
M V 17 M H VH
Therefore, mix mix H 17
H M H Vmin MH 2VH
We also know that velocity of sound in a gas
P 1
V , i.e., V
Vmi x H 2
Therefore, VH mix 17
Key : 3
29. The average density of Earth’s crust 10cm beneath the surface is 2.7 gm / cm3 . The speed of longitudinal
seismic waves at that depth is 5.4 km/s. The bulk modulus of Earth’s crust considering its behaviour as fluid
at that depth, is
1) 7.9 1010 Pa 2) 5.6 1010 Pa 3) 7.9 107 Pa 4) 1.46 107 Pa
B 2
Sol : v B v 2 5.40 103 m / s 2.7 103 7.6 1010 Pa
Key : 1
165
30. Wavelengths of two notes in air are 1m and m . Each note produces 1 beats/s with a third note of a fixed
164
frequency. The speed of sound in air is
1) 330 m/s 2) 340 m/s 3) 350 m/s 4) 328 m/s
165
Sol : 1 1m, 2 m
164
C 164C
f1 ; f 2 ; f1 f 2 2
1 165
C
2; C 330m / s
165
Key : 1
31. Length of a string of density and Young’s modulus Y under tension is increased by 1/n times of its
original length. If the velocity of transverse and longitudinal vibrations of the string is same, find the value
of such velocity
Y Y Y Y
1) 2) 1/ 2
3) 4)
n n n 3/ 2
Y
Sol : V1 = velocity of longitudinal waves
T
V2 velocity of transverse waves
S
1 Y T
1 2
VV Y .Y (As Y )
S
/ n 1
But
n
Y Y
1 2
VV 1/2
;V 2 1/ 2
n n
Y
V
n1/2
Key : 2
32. The displacement vs time graph for two waves A and B which travel along the same string are shown in the
figure. Their intensity ratio IA/IB is
9 81 3
1. 2. 1 3. 4.
4 16 2
I1 a12 f12 (3) 2 (8) 2
Sol : 1
I 2 a22 f 22 (2) 2 (12) 2
Key : 2
33. Two waves having intensity I and 9I produce interference. If the resultant intensity at a point is 7I, what is the
phase difference between the two waves ?
1. 0o 2. 60o 3. 90o 4. 120o
Sol : I I1 I 2 2 I1 I 2 cos 7 I I 9 I 2 I 9 I cos
cos 1/ 2 or 120o
Key : 4
34. If the amplitude of sound is doubled and the frequency reduced to one-fourth, then intensity of sound
assuming plane wave will be
1) increased by a factor of 2 2) decreased by a factor of 2
3) decreased by a factor of 4 4) unchanged.
Sol : Intensity of a mechanical wave,
1
I 2a 2 c
2
I v2a 2
2
V 2
I ' 2a
4
I' 4 1 1
or I '
I 16 4 4
Key : 3
35. The displacement-time graphs for two sound waves A and B are shown in the figure, then the ratio of their
intensities I A / IB is equal to
1)1 : 4 2) 1 : 16 3)1 : 2 4)1 : 1
Sol : Intensity a2 2
2 2
aA 2 A 1 I 2 1 1
here and A
aB 1 B 2 IB 1 2 1
Key : 4
36. Two sound waves move in the same direction. If the average power transmitted across a cross-section by
them are equal while their wavelengths are in the ratio of 1:2. Their pressure amplitudes would be in the ratio
of
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 1/2
1
Sol : P 2 A2 sv
2
1 1 f1 1 2 1
( as f
2 2 f 2 2 1
P1 P2
1 A1 2 A2
Now pressure amplitude
1 2
P0 B0 Ak 1
2 1
Key : 1
37. The maximum pressure variation that the human ear can tolerate in loud sound is about 30 N / m2 . The
corresponding maximum displacement for a sound wave in air having a frequency of 103 Hz is (take velocity
of sound in air as 300 m/s and density of air 1.5 kg / m3 )
2 2 10 4 10 4
1) 10 2 m 2) m 3) 102 m 4) m
3 3 3
Sol : P m 2 f vA
P m 30 104
A m
2 f v 2 103 300 1.5 3
Key : 4
38. Two pulses in a stretched string whose centres are intially 8 cm apart are moving towards each other as shown
in figure. The speed of each pulse in 2 cm/s. After 2 s the total energy of the pulses will be
1. zero 2. purely kinetic
3. purely potential 4. party kinetic and partly potential
Sol : After 2 s, the two pulses will nullify each other. As string now becomes straight, there will be no deformation
in the string. In such a situation, the string will not have potential energy at any point. The whole energy will
be kinetic.
Key :
39. Two pulses (of same dimensions) in a stretched string, whose centres are initially 8 cm apart, are moving
towards each other as shown in the figure. The speed of each pulse is 2 cm-1. After 2 second, the total
energy of the pulse will be
1) zero 2) purely kinetic
3) purely potential 4) partly kinetic and partly potential
Sol : After two seconds, both the pulses will have moved 4 cm towards each other. So, by their superposition,
the resultant displacement at every point will be zero. Therefore, total energy will be purely in the form of
kinetic. Half of the particles will be moving upwards and half downwards.
Key :2
40. A pulse is incident on a yielding surface, then the possible form of reflected pulse is
Sol : When incident ray is reflected back from a yielding end, then the last end is treated as free end. So, option
(2) is correct..
Key : 2
41. Two pulses travel in mutually opposite directions in a string with a speed of 2.5 cm/s as shown in the figure.
Initially the pulses are 10cm apart. What will be the state of the spring after two seconds?
1) 2)
3) 4)
Sol : After two seconds each wave travel a distance of 2.5 2 5cm, i.e., the two pulses will meet in mutually
opposite phase and hence the amplitude of resultant will be zero.
Key : 3
42. The linear density of a vibrating string is 10-4 kg/m. A transverse wave is propagating on the string, which is
described by the equation y = 0.02 sin (x + 30 t), where x and y are in metres and time t in seconds. Then
tension in the string is
1. 0.09 N 2. 0.36 N 3. 0.9N 4. 3.6 N
Sol : y = 0.02 sin (x + 30t)
Comparing with standard equation
y A sin( Kx t ), 30, K 1
30
Velocity of wave, v 30 m/ s
K 1
T
Expression v gives ; Tension T v 2 m (30)2 104 0.09 N
m
Key : 1
43. Transverse waves are generated in two uniform wires A and B of the same material by attaching their free
ends to a vibrating source of frequency 200Hz. The area of cross section of A is half that of B while tension
on A is twice than on B. The ratio of wavelengths of transverse waves in A and B is.
1) 1 : 2 2) 2 :1 3) 1:2 4) 2:1
Sol :
Key :4
44. A string of length 0.4 m and mass 10 2 kg is tightly clamped at its ends. The tension in the string is 1.6 N.
Identical wave pulses are produced at one end at equal intervals of time t. The minimum value of t which
allows
1) 0.05 s 2) 0.10 s 3) 0.20 s 4)0.40 s
Mass 10 2
Sol : For string, m 2 .5 10 2 kg / m
Length 0 .4
T 16
Velocity v 8m / s
m 2 .5 10 2
For constructive interference between successive pulses.
2l 2(0. 4)
t min 0.1 sec
v 8
(After two reflections, the wave pulse is in same phase as it was produced since in one reflection it’s phase
changes by , and If at this moment next identical pulse is produced, then constructive interference will be
obtained.
Key :2
45. Both the strings, shown in figure, are made of same material and have same cross section. The pulleys are
light. The wave speed of a transverse wave in the string AB is v1 and in CD it is v2. Then v1/v2 is ( mass of
the string is negligible compared to the hanging loads)
1) 1 2) 2 3) √2 4) 1/√2
T V T T 1
Sol : V= 1= 1 =
μ V2 T2 2T 2
Key : 4
46. The frequency of a stretched uniform wire under tension is in resonance with the fundamental frequency of a
closed tube. If the tension in the wire is increased by 8 N, it is in resonance with the first overtone of the
closed tube. The initial tension in the wire is
1) 1 N 2) 4 N 3)8 N 4) 16 N
Sol : According to problem
1 T v
…..(i)
2L m 4L
1 T 8 3v
and ..…(ii)
2L m 4L
T 1
Dividing equation (i) and (ii), T 1N
T 8 3
Key : 1
47. A wire of density 910 3 kg /m3 is stretched between two clamps 1 m apart and is subjected to an extension of
4.9 10 -4 m. The lowest frequency of transverse vibration in the wire is (Y = 9 1010 N / m2)
1) 40 Hz 2) 35 Hz 3)30 Hz 4)25 Hz
Sol : For wire if
M = mass, = density, A = Area of cross section
V = volume, l = length, l = change in length
M Al
Then mass per unit length m A
l l
T/A
And Young’s modules of elasticity y
l / l
l
y A
Y lA 1 T 1 l 1 y l
T . Hence lowest frequency of vibration n
l 2l m 2l A 2l l
1 9 10 10 4 .9 10 4
n 35 Hz
2 1 1 9 10 3
Key : 2
48. A stone is hung in air from a wire which is stretched over a sonometer. The bridges of the sonometer are
Lcm apart when the wire is in unison with a tuning fork of frequency N. When the stone is completely
immersed in water, the length between the bridges is lcm for re-establishing unison, the specific gravity of
the material of the stone is
L2 L2 l 2 L2 2
l2
1) 2) 3) 4) L
L2 l 2 L2 L2 l 2 L2
1 T
Sol : Frequency of vib. is stretched string n
2(Length) m
When the stone is completely immersed in water, length changes but frequency doesn’t ( unison
reestablished)
Vg
Hence length T L
Tair
l Twater V ( 1)g
(Density of stone = and density of water =1)
L2
L
l 1 L l2
2
Key : 3
49. Small amplitude progressive wave in a stretched string has a speed of 100 cm/s, and frequency 100 Hz. The
phase difference between two points 2.75 cm apart on the string, in radians, is
1) 0 2) 11π/2 3) π/4 4) 3π/8
Sol : v = 1 m/s, v = 100 Hz
v 1
m 1cm
V 100
2 11
2.75rad 5.5 rad = rad
2
Key : 2
50. A stretched rope having linear mass density 5 x 10-2 kg/m is under a tension of 80 N. The average power
that has to be supplied to the rope to generate harmonic waves at a frequency of 60 Hz and an amplitude of
2 2
m is
15
1) 215 W 2) 251 W 3) 512 W 4) 521 W
1 T
Sol : P 2 A2 v where v
2
Key : 3
51. An organ pipe P1 closed at one end vibrating in its firs overtone and another pipe P2 open at both ends
vibrating in third overtone are in resonance with a given tuning fork. The ratio of the length of P1 to that of P 2
is
1. 8/3 2. 3/8 3. 1/2 4. 1/3
v v l 3v 2 3
Sol : 3 4 or c
4lc 2lo lo 4 4v 8
Key : 2
52. While measuring the speed of sound by performing a resonance column experiment, a student gets the first
resonance condition at a column length of 18 cm during winter. Repeating the same experiment during
summer, she measures the column length to be x cm for the second resonance. Then,
1) 18 >x 2) x > 54 3) 54 >x > 36 4) 36 >x > 18
Sol : l 1=18cm
where, l2 x according to given situation and also v1 v2 v as during summer temperature would be
higher
So, x>54
Key :2
53. An open pipe is in resonance in its 2nd harmonic with tuning fork of frequency f1 . Now it is closed at one
end. If the frequency of the tuning fork is increased slowly from f1 then again a resonance is obtained with
a frequency f2 . If in this case the pipe vibrates n th harmonics then
3 5
1) n 3, f 2 f1 2) n 3, f 2 f1
4 4
5 3
3) n 5, f 2 f1 4) n 5, f 2 f1
4 4
2v
Sol : Open pipe resonance frequency f1
2L
nv
Closed pipe resonance frequency f2
4L
n
f2 f1 (where n is odd and f2 f1 ) n=5
4
Key : 3
54. Vibrating tuning fork of frequency n is placed near the open end of a long cylindrical tube. The tube has a
side opening and is fitted with a movable reflecting piston. As the piston is moved through 8.75 cm, the
intensity of sound changes from a maximum to minimum. If the speed of sound is 350 m/s. Then n is
1) 500 Hz 2) 1000 Hz
3) 2000 Hz 4) 4000 Hz
Sol : When the piston is moved through a distance of 8.75cm, the path difference produced is 2 8. 75 cm 17 .5 cm .
This must be equal to for maximum to change to minimum. 17.5 cm 35 cm 0.35 m
2 2
v 350
So, v n n 1000 Hz
0. 35
Key : 2
55. A cylindrical tube partially filled with water is in resonance with a tuning fork when height of air column is
0.1. When the level of water is lowered, the resonance is again observed at 0.35m. The end correction is
1) 0.025m 2) 0.015m 3) 0.001m 4) 0.002m
l 3l1
Sol : e 2
2
Key : 1
56. A hollow pipe of length 0.8m is closed at one end. At its open end a 0.5m long uniform string is vibrating in
its second harmonic and it resonates with the fundamental frequency of the pipe. If the tension in the wire is
50N and the speed of sound is 320 ms-1 , the mass of the string is
1) 5 gm 2) 10 gm 3) 20 gm 4) 40 gm
2 T v
Sol :
2l 4lc
Key : 2
57. Two organ pipes, both closed at one end, have lengths l and l l. Neglect end correction. If the velocity of
sound in air is V, then the number of beats/s is
V V V V
1) 2) 3) 2 l 4) 2 l
4l 2l 4l 2l
V V V l V l
Sol : Beats = l l
4l 4 l l 4 l l l 4l 2
Key : 3
58. An open and a closed pipe have same length. The ratio of frequency of their nth overtone is
n 2 n 1 n n 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2n 1 2n 1 2n 1 2n
Sol : Let l be the length of the pipes and v the speed of sound. Then frequency of open organ pipe of nth
v
overtone is f1 n 1
2l
v
and frequency of closed organ pipe of nth overtone f 2 2n 1
4l
f 2 n 1
Therefore, the desired ratio is 1
f 2 2n 1
Key : 2
59. A light pointer fixed to one prong of a tuning fork touches a vertical plate. The fork is set vibrating and the
plate is allowed to fall freely. If eight oscillations are counted when the plate falls through 10 cm, the
frequency of the tuning fork is
1) 360 Hz 2) 280 Hz 3)560 Hz 4) 56 Hz
2h 2 10 1
Sol : Time of fall =
g 1000 50
In this time number of oscillations are eight.
1
So time for 1 oscillation =
8 50
Frequency = 8 50 Hz = 56 Hz
Key : 4
60. On sounding tuning fork A with another tuning fork B of frequency 384 Hz, 6 beats are produced per second.
After loading the prongs of A with wax and then sounding it again with B, 4 beats are produced per second.
What is the frequency of the tuning fork A.
1. 388 Hz 2. 80 Hz 3. 378 Hz 4. 390 Hz
Sol : Probable frequency of A is 390 Hz and 378 Hz and after loading the beats are decreasing from 6 to 4 so the
original frequency of A will 390 Hz.
Key : 4
61. Forty-one forks are so arranged that each produces 5 beat/s when sounded with its near fork. If the frequency
of last fork is double the frequency of first fork, then the frequencies of the first and last fork, respectively are
1. 200, 400 2. 205, 410 3. 195, 390 4. 100, 200
Sol : Let the frequency of first tuning for k = n and that of last = 2n
n, n + 5, n + 10, n + 15,.... 2n this forms AP
Formula of AP, l = a + (N - 1) r where l = Last term, a = First term, N = Number of term. r = Common
difference
2n = n + (41 - 1) 5
2n = n + 200
n = 200 and 2n = 400
Key : 1
62. Two tuning forks P and Q are vibrated together. The number of beats produced are represented by the straight
line OA in the following graph. After loading Q with wax again these are vibrated together and the beats
produced are represented by the line OB. If the frequency of P is 341Hz, the frequency of Q will be
A
3 B
1) 341 Hz
Beats
2) 338 Hz 2
3) 344 Hz 1
4) None of the above 0 t(s)
1 2
Sol : n Q 341 3 344 Hz or 338 Hz
on waxing Q, the number of beats decreases hence nQ 344 Hz
Key : 3
63. A source of sound is moving with constant velocity of 20m/s emitting a note of frequency 1000Hz. The ratio
of frequencies observed by a stationary observer while the source is approaching him and after it crosses him
will be (velocity of sound = 340m/s)
1. 9 : 8 2. 8 : 9 3. 1 : 1 4. 9 : 10
n v vS 340 20 9
Sol : a (Speed of sound v=340 m/s)
nr v vS 340 20 8
Key : 1
64. The difference between the apparent frequencies of a source of sound as perceived by a stationary observer
during its approach and recession is 2% of the actual frequency of the source. If the speed of sound is 300
ms-1 , speed of source is
1) 3 ms -1 2) 4 ms-1 3) 4 ms-1 4) 1.5 4 ms-1
Sol :
Key :1
65. Two cars are moving on two perpendicular roads towards a crossing with uniform speeds of 72 km/hr and
36 km/hr. If first car blows horn of frequency 280 Hz, then the frequency of horn heard by the driver of
second car when line joining the cars make 45° angle with the roads, will be
1) 321 Hz 2) 298 Hz 3)289 Hz 4)280 Hz
Sol : Here v A 72 km / hr 20 m / sec
v B 36 km / hr 10 m / sec
v v B cos 45 o
n' n
o
v v A cos 45
vA
A
45°
vAcos45° vB
vBcos45° B
340 10 / 2
n' 280 298 Hz45°
340 20 / 2
Key : 2
66. Two loudspeakers L1 and L2 driven by a common oscillator and amplifier, are arranged as shown. The
frequency of the oscillator is gradually increased from zero and the detector at D records a series of maxima
and minima. If the speed of sound is 330 ms–1 then the frequency at which the first maximum is observed is
L1 40m
D
9m
L2
1) 165 Hz 2) 330 Hz 3)496 Hz 4) 660 Hz
Sol : Path difference between the wave reaching at D
x L 2 P L1 P 40 2 9 2 40 41 40 = 1m
For maximum x (2n)
2
For first maximum (n = 1) 1 2(1) 1m
2
v
n 330 Hz .
Key : 2
67. A racing car moving towards a cliff, sounds its horn. The driver observes that the sound reflected from the
cliff has a pitch one octave higher than the actual sound of the horn. If v is the velocity of sound, then the
velocity of the car is
1) v / 2 2) v / 2 3) v / 3 4) v / 4
v vO
Sol : Frequency of reflected sound heard by driver n n
v vS
vO = vCar vS = vCar
It is given that n 2n
v Echo sound
v vcar
Hence, 2n n v car v / 3.
v v car
Key : 3
68. A man is standing on a railway platform listening to the whistle of an engine that passes the man at constant
speed without stopping. If the engine passes the man at time t 0 . How does the frequency f of the whistle as
heard by the man changes with time
f f
1) 2)
t0 t t0 t
3) f 4) f
t0 t t0 t
v v0
Sol : When the train is approaching the stationary observer frequency heard by the observer n n
v
v v0
when the train is moving away from the observer then frequency heard by the observer n n
v
it is clear that n and n are constant and independent of time. Also and n'>n".
Key : 1
69. An engine running at speed v/10 sounds a whistle of frequency 600Hz. A passenger in a train coming from
the opposite side at speed v/15 experiences this whistle to be of frequency f. If v is speed of sound in air and
there is no wind, f is nearest
to
1) 711 Hz 2) 630 Hz 3) 580 Hz 4) 510 Hz
Sol : As the source and the observer the approaching one another so n’ would be larger.
v v /15
f 600 711 Hz
v v /10
Key : 1
70. A Source of sound S is travelling at 100/3 m/s along a road, towards a point A. When the source is 3m away
from A, a person standing at a point O on a road perpendicular to AS hears a sound of frequency v| . The
distance of O from A at that time is 4m. If the original frequency is 640Hz, then the value of v| is (velocity of
sound is 340 m/s)
1) 620 Hz 2) 680 Hz 3) 720 Hz 4) 840 Hz
Sol : Effective value of velocity of source is
100 100 3
vs cos 20m / s
3 3 5
v 340
v| v v| 640 Hz 680 Hz
v vs 340 20
Key : 2
71. A tuning fork of frequency 380Hz is moving towards a wall with a velocity of 4m/s. Then the number of
beats heard by a stationary listener between direct and reflected sounds will be (velocity of sound in air is
340m/s)
1) 0 2) 5 3) 7 4) 10
Sol : The frequency of direct and reflected sound is same
Key : 1
72. Two sirens situated one kilometre apart are producing sound of frequency 330Hz. An observer starts moving
from one to the other with a speed of 2m/s. If the speed of sound be 330 m/s, what will be the beat frequency
heard by the observer?
1) 8 2) 4 3) 6 4) 1
Sol : Observer is moving away from siren 1 and towards the siren 2.
Hearing frequency of sound emitted by siren 1
v v0 330 2
n1 n 330 328 Hz
v 330
Hearing frequency of sound emitted by siren 2
v v0 330 2
n2 n 330 332 Hz
v 330
Hence, beat frequency n2 n1 332 328 4
Key : 2
73. A small source of sound moves on a circle as shown in the figure and an observer is standing on O. Let
n1 , n2 and n3 be the frequencies heard when the source is at A, B and C respectively. Then
1) n1 n 2 n3 2) n2 n 3 n1 3) n1 n 2 n3 4) n2 n 1 n3
Sol : At point A, source is moving away from observer so apparent frequency n1 n (actual frequency). At
point B source is coming towards observer so apparent frequency n2 n and point C source is moving
perpendicular to observer so n3 n. Hence n2 n3 n1
Key : 2
74. Source and observer start moving simultaneously along x and y-axis. The speed of source is twice the speed
of observer V0. If the ratio of observed frequency of the frequency of the source is 0.75, find the velocity of
sound
11 17 16 19
1) V0 2) V0 3) V0 4) V0
5 5 5 5
Sol : OS= 2OP
2 1
cos ,cos
5 5
V V0 cos
| V V0 / 5
f f f
V Vs cos
V 0
2V 2/ 5
V V0 / 5
f
V 4V0 / 5
V0 f| 3 V x
Let x. Given
5 f 4 V 4x
3 5x 16
or 1 or V 16 x V0
4 V 4x 5
Key : 3
RAY OPTICS
1. Two lenses are placed in contact with each other and the focal length of combination is 80 . If the focal
length of one is 20 , then the power of the other will be
a) 1.66 b) 4.00 c) −1.00 d) −3.75
Ans. d
Sol.: 1 1 1 1 1 1 80
= + ⇒ = + ⇒ =−
80 20 3
∴ Power of second lens
100 100
= = = −3.75
−80/3
2. A light ray of 5895Å wavelength travelling in vacuum enters a medium of refractive index 1.5. The speed of
light in the medium is
a) 3 × 10 ms b) 2 × 10⁸ ms c) 1.5 × 10⁸ ms d) 6 × 10⁸ ms
Ans. b
Sol.: Speed of light is given by
3 × 10
= = = 2 × 10 ms
1.5
3. For a convex lens, if real image is formed the graph between ( + ) and or is as follows
a) u+v b) u+v c) u+v d) u+v
4f 4f 4f
2f u or v 2f u or v u or v 2f u or v
Ans. a
Sol.: For convex lens (for real image) + ≥ 4
For = 2 , is also equal to 2
Hence + = 4
4. A person can see objects clearly only upto a maximum distance of 50 cm. His eye defect, nature of the
corrective lens and its focal length are respectively
a) Myopia,concave, 50 cm b) Myopia,convex, 50 cm
c) Hypermetropia, concave, 50 cm d) Catract, convex, 50 cm
Ans. a
Sol.: Range of vision for healthy eye is 25 cm (near point) to∞ (far point). If the person can see clearly only
upto a maximum distance of 50 cm he is suffering from myopia (short sightedness). A shortsighted eye can
see only nearer objects. This defect can be removed by using a concave lens of suitable focal length = 50
cm.
5. How many images are formed by the lens shown, if an object is kept on its axis?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Ans. a
Sol.: Only one converging point is found by this lens. Therefore only one image is formed
6. A telescope consists of two thin lenses of focal lengths 0.3 m and 3 cm respectively. It is focused on moon
which subtends on angle of 0.5°at the objective. Then, the angle subtended at the eye by the final image
P a g e |1 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
will be
a) 5° b) 0.25° c) 0.5° d) 0.35°
Ans. a
Sol.: For a telescope
=
0.3
∴ = ⟹ = 5°
0.5° 0.03
7. An opera glass (Gallilean telescope) measures9 from the objective to the eyepiece. The focal length of
the objective is15 . Its magnifying power is
a) 2.5 b) 2/5 c) 5/3 d) 0.4
Ans. a
Sol.: − = 9 and = − 9 = 15 − 9 = 6
15
⇒ = = = 2.5
6
8. The diameter of the eye-ball of a normal eye is about 2.5 . The power of the eye lens varies from
a) 2 to 10 b) 40 to 32 c) 9 to 8 d) 44 to 40
Ans. d
Sol.: An eye sees distant objects with full relaxation
So − = or = = = 40
. × . ×
An eye sees an object at25 with strain
So − =
. × ×
or = = 40 + 4 = 44
9. The field of view is maximum for
a) Plane mirror b) Concave mirror c) Convex mirror d) Cylindrical mirror
Ans. c
10. Given figures show the arrangements of two lenses, The radii of curvature of all the curved surfaces are
same. The ratio of the equivalent focal length of combinations , and is
a) 1 ∶1 ∶1 b) 1 ∶1 ∶−1 c) 2 ∶1 ∶1 d) 2 ∶1 ∶2
Ans. a
Sol.: In given images, , and lenses in contact for combination of lenses
1 1 1 2
= + =
=
2
Similarly for and combination
=
2
=
2
Then ∶ ∶ = 1 ∶1 ∶1
11. In Huygen’s eyepiece
a) The cross wires are outside the eyepiece
b) Condition for achromatism is satisfied
c) Condition for minimum spherical aberration is not satisfied
P a g e |2 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
d) The image formed by the objective is avirtual image
Ans. b
Sol.: Huygen eyepiece satisfies the conditions for elimination of the chromatic aberration as well as spherical
aberration.
12. In the measurement of the angle of a prism using a spectrometer, the readings of first reflected image are
Vernier 1:320°40 ;Ve rnier II :140°30′and those of the second reflected image are Vernier I :80°38 ;
Vernier II :260°24′. Then the angle of the prism is
a) 59°58′ b) 59°56′ c) 60°2′ d) 60°4′
Ans. a
13. Given the width of aperture = 3 mm and = 500 nm. For what distance ray optics is good approximation?
a) 18 m b) 18 mm c) 18 Å d) 18 light years
Ans. a
Sol.:
=
3 × 10 (3 × 10 ) 90
= = m = 18m
500 × 10 5
14. If the speed of light in vacuum is / , then the velocity of light in a medium of refractive index 1.5
a) Is 1.5 × b) Is
c) Is d) Can have any velocity
.
Ans. c
Sol.:
= ⇒ =
1.5
15. In the given figure, what is the angle of prism?
C
A
a) b) c) d)
Ans. c
16. When a glass prism of refracting angle 60°is immersed in a liquid its angle of minimum deviation is 30°.
The critical angle of glass with respect to the liquid medium is
a) 42° b) 45° c) 50° d) 52°
Ans. b
Sol.: sin
= 60°, = 30° =
sin
° °
sin sin 45°
= °
= = √2
sin sin 30°
Also = ⇒ = sin ⇒ = 45°
17. If luminous efficiency of a lamp is 2 lumen/watt and its luminous intensity is 42 candela, then power of the
lamp is
a) 62 b) 76 c) 1.38 d) 264
Ans. d
Sol.: Luminous flux= 4 = 4 × 3.14 × 42 = 528
P a g e |3 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
Power of lamp = = = 264
18. A ray of monochromatic light is incident on one refracting face of a prism of angle 75°. It passes through
the prism and is incident on the other face at the critical angle. If the refractive index of the material of the
prism is √2, the angle of incidence on the first face of the prism is
a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 0°
Ans. b
Sol.: From figure
1
= + = + sin
1
⇒ = 75 − sin
From Sne ll’s law At
sin sin
= ⇒ √2 = ⇒ = 45°
sin sin 30°
A
90°
i r1 C
B C
19. A convex lens has a focal length . If is cut into two parts along the dotted line as shown in the figure. The
focal length of each part will be
3
a) b) c) d) 2
2 2
Ans. d
Sol.:
= , = ⇒ =2
2( − 1) ( − 1)
20. Given a point source of light, which of the following can produce a parallel beam of light
a) Convex mirror b) Concave mirror
c) Concave lens d) Two plane mirrors inclined at an angle of 90°
Ans. b
Sol.: Obj ect should be placed on focus of concave mirror
Point image
21. A convex lens of focal length 20 cm and a concave lens of focal length 56 cm are kept along the same
axis with the distance between them. If a parallel beam of light falling on leaves as a parallel beam,
then distances in cm will be
a) 25 b) 36 c) 30 d) 50
Ans. b
Sol.: 1 1
= + − =0
P a g e |4 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
1 1
∴ + =
1 1
− =
20 56 20(−5 6)
56 − 20
=
20 × 56 −20 × 56
= −36 cm
22. A lens of focal power 0.5 is
a) A convex lens of focal length 0.5 b) A concave lens of focal length 0.5
c) A convex lens of focal length 2 d) A concave lens of focal length 2
Ans. c
Sol.: 1 1
= ⇒ = =2
0.5
23. Whichof the prism is used to see infrared spectrum of light
a) Rock salt b) Nicol c) Flint d) Crown
Ans. a
Sol.: Rock salt prism is used to see infrared radiations
24. In a given direction, the intensities of the scattered light by a scattering substance for two beams of light
are in the ratio of 256 ∶81. The ratio of the frequency of the first beam to the frequency of the second
beam is
a) 64 ∶127 b) 4 ∶3 c) 64 ∶27 d) 2 ∶1
Ans. b
Sol.: According to Rayleigh scattering formula intensity of scattered light, ∝
( )
or ∝ (frequency ) ∴ =
/
256 / 4
= = =
81 3
25. Correct exposure for a photographic print is 10 at a distance of one metre from a point source of
20 . For an equal fogging of the print placed at a distance of 2 from a 16 source, the
necessary time for exposure is
a) 100 b) 25 c) 50 d) 75
Ans. c
Sol.: For equal fogging × = ×
16 20
⇒ × = × ⇒ × = × 10
4 1
⇒ = 50
26. The refractive index of a piece of transparent quartz is the greatest for
a) Red light b) Violet light c) Green light d) Yellow light
Ans. b
Sol.: 1
∝ , >
27. The refractive index and the permeability of a medium are respectively 1.5 and 5 × 10 . The
relative permittivity of the medium is nearly
a) 25 b) 15 c) 81 d) 6
Ans. e
Sol.:
= ∙
9 × 10 4 × 10
∴ = × = 5.8 ≈ 6
4 × 10 5 × 10
28. A convex lens of focal length 10 cm and image formed by it, is at least distance of distinct vision then the
P a g e |5 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
magnifying power is
a) 3.5 b) 2.5 c) 1.5 d) 1.4
Ans. a
Sol.: The coverging lens used for magnification is called simple microscope or a magnifier.
When image is formed at , the least distance of distinct vision, then magnifying power
=1+
Given, = 25 cm, = 10 cm
25
∴ = 1 + = 1 + 2.5 = 3.5
10
29. When light is refrac ted from air into glass
a) Its wavelength and frequency both increase
b) Its wavelength increases but frequency remains unchanged
c) Its wavelength decreases but frequency remains unchanged
d) Its wavelength and frequency both decrease
Ans. c
30. When a glass lens with = 1.47 is immersed in a trough of liquid, it looks to be disappeared. The liquid in
the trough could be
a) Water b) Kerosene c) Glycerin d) Alcohol
Ans. c
Sol.: Glass lens will disappear if = . Therefore, when a glass lens of refractive index 1.47 is immersed in
glycerin whose refractive index is 1.473 (at20℃ ), the glass lens look like disappeared
31. A thin glass (refractive index 1.5) lens has optical power of-5 D in air. Its optical power in a liquid medium
with refractive index 1.6 will be
a) 1 D b) -1 D c) 25 D d) -25 D
Ans. a
Sol.: 1 1 1
= ( − 1)( − )
1 1
= (1.5 − 1) − … … … … .(. )
1 − 1 1
= ( − )
1 1.5 1 1
= −1 − … … … . (. )
1.6
Thus,
(1.5 − 1)
= .
= −8
−1
.
= −8 × ₐ
−1 1 1
= −8 × ∵ = =−
5 5
= 1.6
∴ =
1.6
= =1
1.6
32. The maximum illumination on a screen at a distance of 2 from a lamp is 25 . The value of total
luminous flux emitted by the lamp is
a) 1256 b) 1600 c) 100 d) 400
Ans. a
Sol.:
= ⇒ = . = 25 × 2 = 100
P a g e |6 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
Now = 4 = 4 × 3.14 × 100 = 1256
33. All of the following statements are correct except
a) The total length of an astronomical telescope is the sum of the focal lengths of its two lenses
b) The image formed by the astronomical telescope is always erect because the effect of the combination
of the two lenses is divergent
c) The magnification of an astronomical telescope can be increased by decreasing the focal length of the
eye-piece
d) The magnifying power of the refracting type of astronomical telescope is the ratio of the focal length of
the objective to that of the eye-piece
Ans. b
Sol.: Final image formed by astronomical telescope is inverted not erect
34. An air bubble in sphere having 4 diameter appears 1 from surface nearest to eye when looked
along diameter. If = 1.5, the distance of bubble from refracting surface is
a) 1.2 b) 3.2 c) 2.8 d) 1.6
Ans. a
Sol.: = 1 , =2
2=1
1=1.5
C
v
u
R
By using
−
− =
1 1.5 1 − 1.5
− =
−1 −2
⇒ = −1.2
35. Two plane mirrors are inclined to each other such that a ray of light incident on the first mirror and
parallel to the second is reflected from the second mirror parallel to the first mirror. The angel between
the two mirrors is
a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) 75°
Ans. c
Sol.: Let the angle between the two mirrors beθ, Ray is parallel to mirror and is parallel to .
So, ∠ =∠ =∠ = θ
Similarly, ∠ =∠ = ∠ =θ
∴ In ∆ , 3θ = 180°
θ = 60°
36. Two vertical plane mirrors are inclined at an angle of 60°with each other. A ray of light travelling
horizontally is reflected first from one mirror and then from the other. The resultant deviation is
a) 60° b) 120° c) 180° d) 240°
Ans. d
Sol.: = (360 − 2 ) = (360 − 2 × 60) = 240°
37. A double convex lens of focal length 20 is made of glass of refractive index 3/2. When placed
P a g e |7 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
completely in water ( = 4/3), its focal length will be
a) 80 b) 15 c) 17.7 d) 22.5
Ans. a
Sol.: =4× , air lens is made up of glass
38. The magnifying power of an astronomical telescope is 10 and the focal length of its eye-piece is 20 cm. The
focal length of its object will be
a) 200 cm b) 2 cm c) 0.5 cm d) 0.5× 10 cm
Ans. a
Sol.:
= , 10 = , = 200 cm
20
39. A light beam is being reflected by using two mirrors, as in a periscope used in submarines. If one of the
mirrors rotates by an angle , the reflected light will deviate from its original path by the angle
a) 2 b) 0° c) d) 4
Ans. a
Sol.: When a mirror is rotated by an angle , the reflected ray deviates from its original path by angle 2
40. A source of light emits a continuous stream of light energy which falls on a given area. Luminous intensity
is defined as
a) Luminous energy emitted by the source per second
b) Luminous flux emitted by source per unit solid angle
c) Luminous flux falling per unit area of a given surface
d) Luminous flux coming per unit area of an illuminated surface
Ans. b
41. What is the angle of incidence for an equilateral prism of refractive index √3so that the ray is parallel to
the base inside the prism?
a) 30° b) 45° c) 60° d) Either 30°or 60°
Ans. c
Sol.: °
sin
√3 = °
sin
√3 60°+
= sin
2 2
60°+
sin 60°= sin
2
°
Or = 60°
° °
Or = 60°; = = = 60°
42. Diameter of a plano-convex lens is 6 and thickness at the centre is 3 . If the speed of light in the
material of the lens is 2 × 10 / , the focal length of the lens is
a) 15 b) 20 c) 30 d) 10
Ans. c
Sol.: According to lens formula = ( − 1) −
The lens is plano-convex . . , = and =∞
Hence = ⇒ =
Speed of light in medium of lens = 2 × 10 /
3 × 10 3
⇒ = = = = 1.5
2 × 10 2
P a g e |8 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
A
R r
B
O
(R–y) y
If is the radius and is the thickness of lens (at the centre), the radius of curvature of its curved
surface in accordance with the figure is given by
= +( − ) ⇒ + −2 =0
( /)
Neglecting ;we g et = = = 15
× .
Hence = .
= 30
43. A circular disc of which 2/3 part is coated with yellow and 1/3 part is with blue. It is rotated about its
central axis with high velocity, then it will be seen as
a) Green b) Brown c) White d) Violet
Ans. a
Sol.: Yellow Blue Green
+ =
(Primary) (Primary) (Secondary)
44. How should people wearing spectacles work with a microscope
a) They cannot use the microscope at all
b) They should keep on wearing their spectacles
c) They should take off spectacles
d) (b ) and (c) is both way
Ans. c
Sol.: If eye is kept at a distance then ( )
= , decreases
45. A convex lens of focal length 30 and a concave lens of 10 focal length are placed so as to have the
same axis. If a parallel beam of light falling on convex lens leaves concave lens as a parallel beam, then the
distance between two lenses will be
a) 40 b) 30 c) 20 d) 10
Ans. c
Sol.: Let distance between lenses be . As per the given condition, combination behaves as a plane glass plate,
having focal length ∞
So by using = + −
1 1 1
⇒ = + − ⇒ = 20
∞ +30 −10 (+30)( −10)
46. A leaf which contains only green pigments, is illuminated by a laser light of wavelength 0.632 . It would
appear to be
a) Brown b) Black c) Red d) Green
Ans. b
Sol.: Given wavelength does not belong to green therefore all light will be absorbed
47. A wire mesh consisting of very small squares is viewed at a distance of 8 cm through a magnifying
converging lens of focal length 10cm, kept close to the eye. The magnification produced by the lens is
a) 5 b) 8 c) 10 d) 20
Ans. a
Sol.: Lens formula is given by
1 1 1
= − … (i)
Where is focal length of lens, is image distance and is object distance.
P a g e |9 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
Given = 10 cm (as len s is converging)
= −8 cm (as object is placed on left side of the lens)
Su bstituting these values in Eq. (i) , we get
1 1 1
= −
10 −8
1 1 1
⇒ = −
10 8
1 8 − 10
⇒ =
80
80
∴ = = −40 cm
−2
Hence, magnification produced by the lens
−40
= = =5
−8
48. If and are the focal length of the objective and eye piece respectively of a telescope, then its
magnifying power will be
1
a) + b) × c) / d) ( + )
2
Ans. c
49. Wavelength of given light waves in air and in a medium are 6000 Å and 4000 Å respectively. The critical
angle is
3 2 3 2
a) sin b) sin c) tan d) tan
2 3 2 3
Ans. b
Sol.: ₂ 1
=
₁ sin
1 ₁ 6000 3
= = =
sin ₂ 4000 2
2
= sin
3
50. A telescope of diameter 2 uses light of wavelength 5000 Å for viewing stars. The minimum angular
separation between two stars whose image is just resolved by this telescope is
a) 4 × 10 b) 0.25 × 10 c) 0.31 × 10 d) 5.0 × 10
Ans. c
Sol.: Minimum angular separation ∆ = .
. .
=
1.22 × 5000 × 10
= = 0.3 × 10
2
51. A ray of light on the surface of a glass plate of thickness . If the angle of incidence θis small,the emerging
ray would be displaced sideways by an amount
(Take =refractive index of glass)
a) θ /( + 1) b) θ ( − 1)/ c) θ /( − 1) d) θ ( + 1)/
Ans. b
Sol.: In ∆
sin(θ − ) =
P a g e |10 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
= sin( − )
or = sin(θ − ) … (i)
In ∆
cos =
or == … (ii)
cos cos
From Eqs (i) and (iii) we get
= sin(θ − )
cos
= (si n θ cos − cos θ sin )
cos
= (sin θ − cos θ tan )
If is the refractive index of material of slab (glass) w.r.t. air, then
θ
=
For small angle
θ
=
θ
=
And = (θ − 1 . )[∵ sin θ = θ cos θ = 1 if θis small ]
θ 1
= θ− = θ 1−
θ( − 1)
∴ =
52. If tube length of astronomical telescope is 105 and magnifying power is 20 for normal setting, calculate
the focal length of objective
a) 100 b) 10 c) 20 d) 25
Ans. a
Sol.: | | = = 20 and = + = 105 ⇒ = 100
53. The earth radiates in the infra-red region of the spectrum. The spectrum is correctly given by
a) Rayleigh J eans law b) Planck’ s of law of radiation
c) Stefan’s law of radiation d) Wien’s law
Ans. a
54. The maximum magnification that can be obtained with a convex lens of focal length2.5 is (the least
distance of distinct vision is 25 )
a) 10 b) 0.1 c) 62.5 d) 11
Ans. d
Sol.: 25
=1+ =1+ = 11
2.5
55. In the figure, an air lens of radii of curvature 10 ( = = 10 ) is cut in a cylinder of glass
( = 1.5). The focal length and the nature of the lens is
Air Glass
a) 15 , concave b) 15 , convex
P a g e |11 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
c) ∞ , neitherconcave nor convex d) 0, concave
Ans. a
Sol.: 1 1 1 2 2
= −1 − = −1
3 10
⇒ = −15 , so behaves as concave lens
56. As the wavelength is increased from violet to red, the luminosity
a) Continuously increases b) Continuously decreases
c) Increases then decreases d) Decreases then increases
Ans. c
Sol.: The variation of relative luminosity with wavelength is shown here
57. A neon sign does not produce
a) Line spectrum b) An emission spectrum
c) An absorption spectrum d) Photos
Ans. c
58. Angle of deviation ( ) by a prism (refractive index= and supposing the angle of prism to be small) can
be given by
sin −1
a) = ( − 1) b) = ( + 1) c) = d) =
sin +1
Ans. a
59. “ Lux” is a unit of
a) Luminous intensity of a source b) Illuminance on a surface
c) Transmission coefficient of a surface d) Luminous efficiency of source of light
Ans. b
60. In an optics experiments, with the position of the object fixed, a student varies the position of a convex
lens and for each position, the screen is adjusted to get a clear image of the object. A graph between the
obj ect distance and the image distance , from the lens, is plotted using the same scale for the two axes. A
straight line passing through the origin and making an angle of 45°with the -axis meets the experimental
curve at . The coordinates of will be
a) (2 , 2 ) b) , c) ( , ) d) (4 , 4 )
2 2
Ans. a
Sol.: It is possible when object kept at center of curvature.
=
=2 , =2 .
P a g e |12 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
61. An object is placed infront of a convex mirror at a distance of50 . A plane mirror is introduced covering
the lower half of the convex mirror. If the distance between the object and plane mirror is30 , it is
found that there is no parallax between the images formed by two mirrors. Radius of curvature of mirror
will be
50
a) 12.5 b) 25 c) d) 18
3
Ans. b
Sol.: Since there is no parallax, it means that both images (By plane mirror and convex mirror) coinciding each
other
Object
A
30 cm 20 cm
50 cm
10 cm
According to property of plane mirror it will form image at a distance of 30 behind it. Hence for convex
mirror = −50 , = +10
By using = + ⇒ = + =
25
⇒ = ⇒ = 2 = 25
2
62. A ray of light travelling in water is incident on its surface open to air. The angle of incidence isθ, which is
less than the critical angle. Then there will be
a) Only a reflected ray and no reflected ray
b) Only a reflected ray and no reflected ray
c) A reflected ray and a refracted ray and the angle between then would be less than 108° − 2θ
d) A reflected ray and a refracted ray and the angle between then would be greater than 108° − 2θ
Ans. c
Sol.: Sinceθ < θ , both reflection and refraction will take place. From the figure we can see that angle between
reflected and refracted rays is less than 180°− 2θ.
63. If the focal length of the lens is 20 cm, what is the distance of the image from the lens in the following
figure?
a) 5.5 cm b) 7.5 cm c) 12.0 cm d) 20.0 cm
Ans. b
P a g e |13 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
Sol.: The point on the right side of the lens at will rays converge will behave as virtual object of the lens.
∴ = +12 , = 20
From the relation
1 1 1
= −
1 1 1
∴ = −
20 12
1 1 1
⟹ = +
20 12
3+5 8
= =
60 60
60
∴ = = 7.5
8
So, image will be formed on same side of the virtual object at a distance of 7.5 cm from the lens.
64. A point object is placed on the principal axis of a convex lens of focal length20 at a distance of 40 cm
to the left of it. The diameter of the lens is 10 . If the eye is placed 60 to the right of the lens at a
distance ℎ below the principal axis, then the maximum value ofℎ to see the image will be
a) 0 b) 5 c) 2.5 d) 10
Ans. c
Sol.: In the following ray diagram ∆ , and are symmetric
A 60 cm
O C D
B h
E
40 cm 40 cm
20 cm
So, = ⇒ = ⇒ ℎ = 2.5
65. An astronomical telescope of ten-fold angular magnification has a length of 44 . The focal length of the
objective is
a) 4 b) 40 c) 44 d) 440
Ans. b
Sol.: = + = 44 and | | = = 10
This gives = 40
66. A concave mirror of focal length (in air) is immersed in water( = 4/3). The focal length of the mirror
in water will be
4 3 7
a) b) c) d)
3 4 3
Ans. a
Sol.: Focal length of the mirror remains unchanged
67. Magnification of a compound microscope is 30. Focal length of eye -piece is 5 and the image is formed
at a distance of distinct vision of 25 . The magnification of the objective lens is
a) 6 b) 5 c) 7.5 d) 10
Ans. b
Sol.:
= 1+ = 1+
25
⇒ 30 = 1+ = ×6⇒ =5
5
68. Angle of minimum deviation for a prism of refractive index 1.5 is equal to the angle of the prism. The angle
of the prism is (given cos 41° − 24 − 36 = 0.75)
a) 82°− 49′− 12′′ b) 72°− 48′− 30′′ c) 41°− 24′− 36′′ d) 31°− 49′− 30′′
Ans. a
P a g e |14 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
Sol.: Let be the angle of prism, and the angle of minimum deviation, then refractive index of the medium of
prism is given by
sin
=
sin
Given, = , = 1.5
sin
∴ 1.5 =
sin
Also sin 2 = 2 sin cos
2sin cos
∴ 1.5 =
sin
1.5
⟹ co
s = = 0.75
2 2
⟹ = 41°− 24 − 36
2
⟹ = 82°− 48 − 72′′
69. A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen. When upper half of the lens is covered by an
opaque screen
a) Half the image will disappear
b) Complete image will be formed of same intensity
c) Half image will be formed of same intensity
d) Complete image will be formed of decreased intensity
Ans. d
Sol.: Because to form the complete image only two rays are to be passed through the lens and moreover, since
the total amount of light released by the object is not passing through the lens, therefore image is faint
(intensity in decreased)
70. Focal length of a convex lens will be maximum for
a) Blue light b) Yellow light c) Green light d) Red light
Ans. d
Sol.: = and ∝ . Hence ∝ and >
( )
71. The impact of an image on the retina remains for
a) 0.1 b) 0.5 c) 10 d) 15
Ans. a
72. As shown in figure position of an images of an object formed by lens. This is possible if
a) A convex lens is placed to the left of b) A concave lens is placed to the left of
c) A convex lens is placed between and d) A concave lens is placed to the right of
Ans. d
Sol.: Diminished erect image is produced only by a concave lens
73. Magnifying power of a simple microscope is (when final image is formed at = 25 from eye)
a) b) 1 + c) 1 + d) 1 −
Ans. b
74. In a thin prism of glass (refractive index 1.5), which of the following relations between the angle of
minimum deviations and angle of refraction will be correct
a) = b) = 1.5 c) =2 d) =
2
P a g e |15 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
Ans. a
Sol.: = ( − 1)( 2 ) = (1.5 − 1)2 = 0.5 × 2 =
75. The solar spectrum during a complete solar eclipse is
a) Continuous b) Emission line c) Dark line d) Dark band
Ans. a
Sol.: At the time of solar eclipse light is received from chromosphere. The bright lines appear exactly at the
places where dark lines were there. Hence at the time of solar eclipse continuous spectrum is obtained
76. What is the time taken (in ) to cross a glass of thickness4 and = 3 by light
a) 4 × 10 b) 2 × 10 c) 16 × 10 d) 8 × 10
Ans. a
Sol.: 3 × 4 × 10
= = = 4 × 10
3 × 10
77. The resolving power of a telescope depends on
a) Focal length of eye lens b) Focal length of objective lens
c) Length of the telescope d) Diameter of the objective lens
Ans. d
Sol.: Resolving power of telescope =
.
78. The nature of sun’s spectrum is
a) Continuous spectrum with absorption lines b) Line spectrum
c) The spectrum of the helium atom d) Band spectrum
Ans. a
Sol.: Su nlight consists of all the wavelength with some black lines
79. The reason for shining of air bubble in water is
a) Diffraction of light b) Dispersion of light
c) Scattering of light d) Total internal reflection of light
Ans. d
80. It is necessary to illuminate the bottom of a well by reflected solar beam when the light is incident at an
angle of α = 40°to the vertical. At what angle β to the horizontal should a plane mirror be placed?
a) 70° b) 20° c) 50° d) 40°
Ans. a
Sol.: Clearly, + = + = 140°
Or = 70°
Clearly, plane mirror makes as angle of 20°with vertical and 70°with horizontal
81. Two lamps of luminous intensity of 8 and 32 respectively are lying at a distance of 1.2 from each
other. Where should a screen be placed between two lamps such that its two faces are equally illuminated
due to two sources
a) 10 from 8 lamp b) 10 from 32 lamp
c) 40 from 8 lamp d) 40 from 32 lamp
Ans. c
Sol.: 8 Cd P 32 Cd
x (120–x)
120 cm
= ⇒ =
P a g e |16 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
or =( )
Solving it we get = 40
82. A screen receives 3 of radiant flux of wavelength 6000 Å. One lumen is equivalent to 1.5 × 10
of monochromatic light of wavelength 5550 Å. If relative luminosity for 6000 Å is 0.685 while that for
5550 Å is 1.00, then the luminous flux of the source is
a) 4 × 10 b) 3 × 10 c) 2 × 10 d) 1.37 × 10
Ans. d
Sol.: 3
= × 0.685 = 1.37 × 10
1.5 × 10
83. In refraction, light waves are bent on passing from one medium to the second medium, because, in the
second medium
a) The frequency is different b) The coefficient of elasticity is different
c) The speed is different d) The amplitude is smaller
Ans. c
Sol.: Refractive index of refracted medium w.r.t. incident medium
Speed in incident medium
=
Speed in refracted medium
84. At sun rise or sunset, the sun looks more red than at mid-day because
a) The sun is hottest at these times b) Of the scattering of light
c) Of the effect of refraction d) Of the effect of diffraction
Ans. b
Sol.: According to Rayleigh’s law of scattering, intensity scattered is inversely proportional to the forth power
of wavelength. So red is least scattered and sun appears Red
85. Image of an object approaching a convex mirror of radius of curvature 20 m along its optical axis is
observed to move from m to m in 30 s. What is the speed of the object in kmh⁻¹?
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
Ans. a
Sol.: Using mirror formula,
1 1 1
+ =
+25/3 − ₁ +10
Or = −
Or = 50 m
And ( / )
+ =
1 7 1
∴ = −
50 10
Or = 25 m
Speed of object=
25
= ms
30
= 3 kmh
86. Dispersion can take place for
a) Transverse waves only but not for longitudinal waves
b) Longitudinal waves only but not for transverse waves
c) Both transverse and longitudinal waves
d) Neither transverse nor longitudinal
Ans. c
87. Dark lines on solar spectrum are due to
a) Lack of certain elements
b) Black body radiation
P a g e |17 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
c) Absorption of certain wavelengths by outer layers
d) Scattering
Ans. c
Sol.: Due to the absorption of certain wavelengths by the elements in outer layers of sun
88. A plane mirror reflects a pencil of light to form a real image. Then the pencil of light incident on the mirror
is
a) parallel b) convergent c) divergent d) Any of these
Ans. b
89. A person suffering from ‘presbyopia’ (myopia and hyper metropia both defects) should use
a) A concave lens
b) A convex lens
c) A bifocal lens whose lower portion is convex
d) A bifocal lens whose upper portion is convex
Ans. c
Sol.: A bifocal lens consist of both convex and concave lenses with lower part is convex
90. An infinitely long rod lies along the axis of concave mirror of focal length . The near end of the rod is at a
distance > from the mirror. Then the length of the image of the rod is
a) b) c) d)
+ − −
Ans. e
Sol.: = + and = = −
Using above relation, the length of image
=
−
91. A thin convex lens of focal length 10 is placed in contact with a concave lens of same material and of
same focal length. The focal length of combination will be
a) Zero b) Infinity c) 10 d) 20
Ans. b
Sol.: 10(−10) −100
= = = =∞
+ 10 + (−10) 10 − 10
92. In Ramsden eyepiece, the two planoconvex lenses each of focal length are separated by a distance 12 cm.
The equivalent focal length (in cm) of theeyepiece is
a) 10.5 b) 12.0 c) 13.5 d) 15.5
Ans. c
Sol.: 2
=
3
3 3 × 12
= = = 18
2 2
Equivalent focal length is
18 × 18 18
′= + = +
+ 4 18 + 18 4
= 9 + 4.5 = 13.5 cm
93. A monochromatic light is passed through a prism………..colours shows minimum deviation
a) Red b) Violet c) Yellow d) Green
Ans. a
Sol.: When monochromatic light pass through a prism, the red colour suffers minimum deviation.
94. The dispersion for a medium of wavelength is , then the dispersion for the wavelength 2 will be
a) /8 b) /4 c) /2 d)
Ans. a
Sol.: ∵ = + [Cauchy’ s equation]
P a g e |18 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
and dispersion =− ⇒ = −(−2 ) =
1 1
⇒ ∝ ⇒ ⇒ = = =
2 8 8
95. A beaker contains water up to a height ℎ₁and kerosene of height ℎ₂above water so that the total height of
(water +kerosene) is (ℎ + ℎ ). Refractive index of water is u and that of kerosene is u . The apparent
shift in the position of the bottom of the beaker when viewed from above is
1 1 1 1
a) 1 − ℎ + 1− ℎ b) 1 + u ℎ + 1 + u ℎ
u u
1 1 1 1
c) 1 − u ℎ + 1 − u ℎ d) 1 + u ℎ − 1 + u ℎ
Ans. c
Sol.: Apparent shift ℎ = 1 − ℎ
∴ Apparent shift produced by water
1
△ ℎ = 1− ℎ
μ
And apparent shift produced by kerosene
1
△ ℎ = 1− ℎ
μ
1 1
△ ℎ = △ ℎ₁ +△ ℎ₂= 1 − ℎ₁+ 1 − ℎ₂
μ₁ μ₂
96. A diver in a swimming pool wants to signal his distress to a person lying on the edge of the pool by flashing
his water proof flash light
a) He must direct the beam vertically upwards
b) He has to direct the beam horizontally
c) He has to direct the beam at an angle to the vertical which is slightly less than the critical angle of
incidence for total internal reflection
d) He has to direction the beam at an angle to the vertical which is slightly more than the critical angle of
incidence for the total internal reflection
Ans. c
Sol.: When incident angle is greater than critical angle, then total internal reflection takes place and will come
back in same medium
97. With a concave mirror, an object is placed at a distance from the principal focus, on the principal axis.
The image is formed at a distance from the principal focus. The focal length of the mirror is
+
a) b) c) d)
2
Ans. d
Sol.: 1 1 1
+ =
1 1 1
+ =
− −
Or ( )( )
=
Or − − + =2 − ( + )
Or = or = √
This is Newton’s mirror formula
98. The wavelength of red light from He -Ne laser is 633nm in air but 474 nm in the aqueous humor inside the
eye ball. Then the speed of red light through the aqueous humor is
a) 3 × 10 ms b) 1.34 × 10 ms c) 2.25 × 10 ms d) 2.5 × 10 ms
P a g e |19 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
Ans. c
Sol.: Speed of light in air
Speed of light in aqueous humor
Wavelength of light in air
=
Wavelength of light in aqueous humor
λ
⇒ =
λ
Or = × = × 3 × 10
= 2.25 × 10 ms
99. The focal lengths of convex lens for red and blue light are 100 and 96.8 respectively. The dispersive
power of material of lens is
a) 0.325 b) 0.0325 c) 0.98 d) 0.968
Ans. b
Sol.: − −
= =
Putting value of and we get = 0.0325
100. If aperture of lens is halved then image will be
a) No effect on size b) Intensity of image decreases
c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
Ans. c
Sol.: Since intensity ∝ (Aperature) , so intensity of image will decrease but no change in the size occurs
101. Refractive index of the material of a prism is 1.5. If δ = , what will be a value of angle of the given
prism?
(whereδ = minimum deviation; = angle of prism )
a) 82.8° b) 41.4° c) 48.6° d) 90°
Ans. a
Sol.: μ = 1.5
δ =
We knowthat
sin
μ=
sin
sin sin
1.5 = =
sin sin
2 sin . cos
1.5 =
sin
1.5 = 2 cos
2
1.5
cos = = 0.75
2 2
41.4 = 0.75
= 41.4
2
= 82.8
102. In fog, photographs of the objects taken with infrared radiations are more clear than those obtained
during visible light because
a) − radiat ion has lesser wavelength than visible radiation
b) Scattering of − light is more than visible light
c) The intensity of − light from the object is less
P a g e |20 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
d) Scattering of − light is less than visible light
Ans. c
Sol.: In fog, visible light is scattered more according to Rayleigh scattering, but scattering of infrared radiations
is less due to high wavelengths, hence in fog, photographs of the objects taken with infrared radiations are
clearer.
103. The refractive index of water is 1.33. The direction in which a man under water should look to see the
setting sun is
a) 49°to the hor izontal b) 90°with the vert ical c) 49°to the v ertical d) Along the horizontal
Ans. c
Sol.: Ray from setting sun will be refracted at angle equal to critical angle
104. A ray incident at 15°on one refracting surface of a prism of angle 60°, suffers a deviation of 55°. What is
the angle of emergence
a) 95° b) 45° c) 30° d) None of these
Ans. d
Sol.: Using = + − ⇒ 55 = 15 + − 60 ⇒ = 100°
105. A object is placed at a distance of /2 from a convex lens of focal length . The image will be
a) At one of the foci, virtual and double its size b) Is greater than 1.5 but less than 2.0
c) At 2 ,virtual and erect d) None of the above
Ans. a
Sol.: 1 1 1
− =
− /2
1 1 2 1
= − =−
or =−
Again, = = /
=2
Clearly, the image is virtual and double the size
106. A photograph of the moon was taken with telescope. Later on, it was found that a housefly was sitting on
the objective lens of the telescope. In photograph
a) The image of housefly will be reduced
b) There is a reduction in the intensity of the image
c) There is an increase in the intensity of the image
d) The image of the housefly will be enlarged
Ans. b
Sol.: Because size of the aperture decreases
107. The critical angle for diamond (refractive index =2) is
a) About 20° b) 60° c) 45° d) 30°
Ans. d
Sol.: 1 1
= ⇒ = sin = 30°
sin 2
108. The instrument used by doctors for endoscopy works on the principle of
a) Total internal reflection b) Reflection
c) Refraction d) None of the above
Ans. a
Sol.: An optical fibre is a transparent thin fibre, usually made of glass or plastic for transmitting light. Optical
fibres are used in imagine optics, and work on the principle of total internal reflection of light. Bundles of
fibres are used along with lenses for long, thin imagine devices called endoscopes, which are used to view
obj ects through a small hole. Medical endoscopes are used for minimally invasive exploratory or surgical
procedures (endoscopy).
109. Let the − plane be the boundary between two transparent media. Medium 1 in ≥ 0 has a refractive
index of √2 and medium 2 with < 0 has a refractive index of√3. A ray of light in medium 1 given by the
P a g e |21 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
vector = 6√3î+ 8 √3ĵ– 10 is incident on the plane of separation. The angle of refraction in medium 2
is
a) 45° b) 60° c) 75° d) 30°
Ans. a
Sol.: As refractive index for > 0 and ≤ 0 is different − plane should be boundary between two media
Angle of incidence,
1
cos = =
2
+ +
∴ = 60°
From Sne ll’s law
sin √3
=
sin 2
⇒ = 45°
110. Emission spectrum of gas
a) Is a line spectrum b) Is a band spectrum
c) Is a continuous spectrum d) Does not fall in the visible region
Ans. b
111. To get three images of a single object, one should have two plane mirrors at an angel of
a) 60° b) 90° c) 120° d) 30°
Ans. b
Sol.: 360°
= −1
θ
360°
3 = −1
θ
= 90°
112. A convex lens forms an image of an object placed 20 cm away from it at a distance of 20 cm on the other
side of the lens. If the object is moved 5 cm towards the lens, the image will move
a) 5 cm towards the lens b) 5 cm away from the lens
c) 10 cm towards the lens d) 10 cm away from the lens
Ans. d
Sol.: Clearly, 2 = 20 cm or = 10 cm
Now, = −15 cm, =?
= 10 cm
1 1 1
− =
−15 10
Or + = or = −
Or = = or = 30 cm
The charge in image distance is (30 − 20)cm , 10 cm
113. Large aperture of telescope are used for
a) Large image b) Greater resolution
c) Reducing lens aberration d) Ease of manufacture
Ans. b
Sol.: Resolving power ∝ Aperture
114. The sun’s diameter is1.4 × 10 and its distance from the earth is 10 . The diameter of its image,
formed by a convex lens of focal length 2 will be
a) 0.7 b) 1.4
c) 2.8 d) Zero (. . point image)
Ans. c
P a g e |22 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
Sol.: ′ 2 × 1.4 × 10
= = ⇒ = = 2.8
10 2 10
A 2m
B F
B
Image
1011 m A
115. A convex mirror of radius of curvature 1.6 m has an object placed at a distance of 1 m from it. The image is
formed at a distance of
a) 8/13 m in front of the mirror b) 8/13 m behind the mirror
c) 4/9 m in front of the mirror d) 4/9 m behind the mirror
Ans. d
Sol.: 1.6
= m = 0.8m, = −1 m
2
1 1 1 10 18 9
= − = +1= =
0.8 −1 8 8 4
Or = m
116. A lens of focal projects times magnified image of an object on a screen.The distance of the screen from
the lens is
a) b) c) ( − 1) d) ( + 1)
( − 1) ( + 1)
Ans. d
Sol.: Image will be real
We know that
1 1 1
= −
⇒ = 1 − (∴ is negative)
= ( + 1)
117. Two immiscible liquids of refractive indices 1.5 and are filled in glass jar each of length 6 cm. A light of
source is at the bottom of the jar, the apparent depth of light source will be
4/3
1.5
a) 12.5 cm b) 17 cm c) 12 cm d) 8.5 cm
Ans. a
Sol.: Apparent depth is given by
= +
μ μ
6 6
= + = 4.5 + 4
4/3 1.5
= 8.5 cm
118. Whichone of the following spherical lenses does not exhibit dispersion? The radii of curvature of the
surfaces of the lenses are as given in the diagrams
a) b) c) d)
R1 R2 R R R R
R1R2
P a g e |23 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
Ans. c
Sol.: The dispersion produced by a spherical surface depends on it’s radius of curvature. Hence, a lens will not
exhibit dispersion only if it’s two surfaces have equal radii, with one being convex and the otherconcave
119. A ray of light enters from a rarer to a denser medium. The angle of incidence is . Then the reflected and
refracted rays are mutually perpendicular to each other. The critical angle for the pair of media is
a) sin (tan ) b) tan (si n ) c) sin (cot ) d) cos (tan )
Ans. c
Sol.: From law of reflection, ∠ = ∠ … (i)
And = … (ii)
From the figure,
+ ′+ 90°= 180°
⇒ + ′= 90°
Or + ′= 90°
= (90°− ) … (iii)
( ° )
From Eq. (ii), =
Or = ⇒ cot =
But = sin (where is critical angle)
∴ cot = sin ⇒ = sin (cot )
120. When a white light passes through a hollow prism, then
a) There is no dispersion and no deviation
b) Dispersion but no deviation
c) Deviation but no dispersion
d) There is dispersion and deviation both
Ans. a
Sol.: Effectively there is no deviation or dispersion
121. Figure shows a glowing mercury tube. The illuminances at point , and are related as
C B
A
a) > > b) > > c) = > d) = <
Ans. d
Sol.: By the symmetry of the rays and location of the points
122. In a laboratory four convex lenses , , and of focal length 2, 4, 6 and 8 cm respectively are
available. Two of these lenses from a telescope of length 10 cm and magnifying power 4. The objective and
eye lenses are respectively
a) , b) , c) , d) ,
Ans. d
Sol.: Length of tube = 10 cm
+ = 10
Magnification
= =4
P a g e |24 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
=4
Putting in Eq. (I)
5 = 10
=2
=8
=8 , =2
Hence, and will be used.
123. A ray of light passes through an equilateral prism such that an angle of incidence is equal to the angle of
emergence and the latter is equal to th the angle of prism. The angle of deviation is
a) 45° b) 39° c) 20° d) 30°
Ans. d
Sol.: Angle of incidence = angle of emergence
Ie, = ′
Also, = × angle of equilateral prism = × 60°= 45°
Thus, angle of deviation
=+ −
=(45°+ 45°− 60°) = 30°
124. The refractive index of a material of a planoconcave lens is 5/3, the radius of curvature is 0.3 m. The focal
length of the lens in air is
a) -0.45 m b) -0.6 m c) -0.75 m d) -1.0 m
Ans. a
Sol.: Lens maker’s formula
1 1 1
= ( − 1) −
Where, ₂= ∞ , ₁ = 0.3
1 5 1 1
∴ = −1 −
3 0.3 ∞
1 2 1
⇒ = ×
3 0.3
= 0.45
125. A compound microscope has an objectiveand eye-piece as thin lenses of focal lengths 1 cm and 5 cm
respectively. The distance between the objective and the eye-piece is 20 cm. The distance at which the
object must be placed infront of the objective if the final image is located at 25 cm fromhe
t eye-piece, it
numerically
a) 95/6 cm b) 5 cm c) 95/89 cm d) 25/6 cm
Ans. c
Sol.: For the eye-piece
= −25 cm, = 5 cm
1 1 1
− =
−25 5
Or =− − or =−
Or =−
Now , = −| | = 20 −
120 − 25 95
= cm = cm
6 6
Now, − = or = −1
/
Or = − cm or | |= cm
126. A double convex thin lens made of refractive index 1.6 has radii of curvature 15 cm each. The focal length
P a g e |25 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
of this lens when immersed in a fluid of refractive index 1.63, is
a) 25 cm b) 125 cm c) 250 cm d) -407. 5 cm
Ans. d
Sol.: Focal length of lens in given by
1 1 1
= −1 −
1.6 1 1
= −1 +
1.63 15 15
0.03 × 2 −6
=− =
1.63 × 15 1.63 × 15
815
, = −
2
= −407.5
127. The critical angle between an equilateral prism and air is 45°. If the incident ray is perpendicular to the
refractive surface, then
a) After deviation it will emerge from the second refracting surface
b) It is totally reflected on the second surface and emerges out perpendicularly from third surface in air
c) It is totally reflected from the second and third refracting surfaces and finally emerges out from the first
surface
d) It is totally reflected from all the three sides of prism and never emerges out
Ans. b
Sol.:
o
90o 60o 60
o
60
128. The graph shows how the magnification produced by a convex thin lens varies with image distance .
What was the focal length of the used lines
m
a c
v
a) / b) / c) / d) /
Ans. d
Sol.: For a lens = =− +1
Comparing it with = +
Slope = =−
From graph, slope of the line =
Hence − = ⇒| |=
129. The minimum magnifying power of a telescope is , If the focal length of its eye lens is halved, the
magnifying power will become
a) /2 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
Ans. b
Sol.: 1
∝
130. A prism having an apex angle 4°and refraction index 1.5 is located in front of a vertical plane mirror as
shown in figure. Through what total angle is the ray deviated after reflection from the mirror
P a g e |26 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
4°
90°
a) 176° b) 4° c) 178° d) 2°
Ans. c
Sol.: = ( − 1) = (1.5 − 1)4°= 2°
∴ = +
= ( − 1) + (180 − 20) = 2°+ (180 − 2 × 2) = 178°
131. Whichhas more luminous efficiency
a) A 40 bulb b) A 40 fluorescent tube
c) Both have same d) Cannot say
Ans. b
132. The length of a telescope is 36 . The focal lengths of its lenses can be
a) 30 ,6 b) −30 , −6 c) 30 , −6 d) −30 ,6
Ans. a
Sol.: Total length = + and both lenses are convex
133. The angel of prism is 5°and its refractive indices for red and violet colours are 1.5 and 1.6 respectively.
The angular dispersion produced by the prism is
a) 7.75° b) 5° c) 0.5° d) 0.17°
Ans. c
Sol.: = ( − ) = (1.6 − 1.5) × 5 = 0.5°
134. A person’s near point is50 and his far point is 3 . Power of the lenses he requires for
(i) reading and
(ii) for seeing distant stars are
a) −2 and 0.33 b) 2 and −0.33 c) −2 and 3 d) 2 and −3
Ans. b
Sol.: For correcting the near point, required focal length
50 × 25
= = 50
(50 − 25)
So power = = +2
For correcting the far point, required focal length
= − (defec ted far point)= −3
1
∴ =− = −0.33
3
135. A person is suffering from myopic defect. He is able to see clear objects placed at15 . What type and of
what focal length of lens he should use to see clearly the object placed60 away
a) Concave lens of 20 focal length b) Convex lens of 20 focal length
c) Concave lens of 12 focal length d) Convex lens of 12 focal length
Ans. a
Sol.: For viewing far objects, concave lenses are used and for concave lens
= wants to see = −60 ; = can see = −15 so from = − ⇒ = −20
136. The twinkling effect of star light is due to
a) Total internal reflection
b) High dense matter of star
c) Constant burning of hydrogen in the star
d) The fluctuating apparent position of the star being slightly different from of the star being different
from the actual position of the star
Ans. d
P a g e |27 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
Sol.: The atmosphere can be considered to consist of a number of parallel layers of air of different densities and
therefore of different refractive indices. The density and the refractive index of layers decrease with
altitude.
The rays of light coming from a star to the earth are thus continually refracted from the rarer to the denser
layers and so they bend slightly towards the normal at each refraction from one layer to the next. Thus,
they follow a curved path and reach the eyes of the observer at as shown in figure. Hence, the image of
the star is seen as .′ But due to the wind and the convection currents in air the density of layers keep on
changing and hence, the position of the stat ′as seen, keeps on changing. These different images of the
start give an impression to an observer that the star is twinkling.
137. If ℎ and ℎ are the heights of the images in conjugate position of a convex lens , then the height of the
object is
a) ℎ + ℎ b) ℎ − ℎ c) ℎ /ℎ d) ℎ ℎ
Ans. d
Sol.: Size of object
ℎ= ℎ ℎ
138. The magnifying power of a microscope with an objective of5 focal length is 400. The length of its tube
is 20 . Then the focal length of the eye-piece is
a) 200 b) 160 c) 2.5 d) 0.1
Ans. c
Sol.: If nothing is said then it is considered that final image is formed at infinite and ( ).
= ≃
20 × 25
⇒ 400 = ⇒ = 2.5
0.5 ×
139. A car is fitted with a convex side view mirror of focal length 20 cm. A second car 2.8 m behind the first car
is overtaking the first car is a relative speed of 15 m/s. The speed of the image of the second car as seen in
the mirror of the first one is
1 b) 10 m/s c) 15 m/s 1
a) m/s d) m/s
15 10
Ans. a
Sol.: 1 1 1
+ =
1 1
⇒− − =0
⇒ = −
But =
∴ = −
−
0.2 1
= × 15 = ms
−2.8 − 0.2 15
140. Whichof the following is true for rays coming from infinity?
a) Two images are formed
b) Continuous image is formed between focal points of upper and lower lens
P a g e |28 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
c) One image is formed
d) None of the above
Ans. a
Sol.: Since, lens is made of two layers of different refractive indices, for a given wavelength of light it will have
two focal lengths or will form two images at two different points as there are ’s as
1
∝ ( − 1)
141. The respective angles of the flint and crown glass prisms are ’ and . They are to be used for dispersion
without deviation, then the ratio of their angles / will be
( − 1) ( ′− 1)
a) − b) c) ( ′− 1) d) ( − 1)
( ′− 1) ( − 1)
Ans. a
Sol.: Since ( )
−1 + −1 =0⇒ =− ( )
142. An object is placed 30 cm to the left of a diverging lens whose focal length is of magnitude 20 cm. Which
one of the following correctly states the nature and position of the virtual image formed?
Nature of image Distance from lens
a) Inverted, enlarged b) Erect, diminished c) Inverted, enlarged d) Erect, diminished
60 cm to the right 12 cm to the left 60 cm to the left 12 cm to the right
Ans. b
Sol.: When an object is placed between 2 and (focal length) of the diverging lens, the image is virtual, erect
and diminished as shown in the graph. To calculate the distance of the image from the lens, we apply
1 1 1 1 1 1
= − ⟹ = −
−20 30
(20)(30)
⇒ =−
20 + 30
= −12 cm (to the left to the diverging lens.)
143. Two plane mirrors are perpendicular to each other. A ray after suffering reflection from the two mirrors
will be
a) Perpendicular to the original ray b) Parallel to the original ray
c) Parallel to the first mirror d) At 45°to the original r ay
Ans. b
Sol.: Here, angular deviation
δ = 2π − 2θ
π
= 2π − 2 × = π
2
P
P Q
Hence, final emergent ray is parallel to incident ray.
P a g e |29 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
144. A large glass slab μ = of thickness 8 cm is placed over a point source of light on a plane surface. It is
seen that light emerges out of the top surface of the slab from a circular area of radius cm. What is the
value of ?
a) 6 cm b) 7 cm c) 8 cm d) 9 cm
Ans. a
Sol.:
tan θ
Or = (tan θ )
But, sin θ = =
3
∴ tan θ =
4
3 3
= = (8 cm) = 6 cm
4 4
Hence, the answer is 6.
145. Whichof the following is not a correct statement
a) The wavelength of red light is greater than the wavelength of green light
b) The wavelength of blue light is smaller than the wavelength of orange light
c) The frequency of green light is greater than the frequency of blue light
d) The frequency of violet light is greater than the frequency of blue light
Ans. c
146. If and be the size of the images respectively for the two positions of lens in the displacement method,
then the size of the object is given by
a) / b) × c) × d) /
Ans. c
Sol.: = and = ⇒ =
147. Figure shows a mixture of blue, green and red coloured rays incident normally on a right angled prism.
The critical angles of the material of the prism for red, green and blue are 46°, 44°and 43°respectively.
The arrangement will separate
43
B
44
G
46
R
45
a) Red colour from blue and green b) Blue colour from red and green
c) Green colour from red and blue d) All the three colours
Ans. a
Sol.: Condition of no emergence is
>
As angle of prism is greater than critical angle for blue and green coloured rays, total internal reflection
will take place at second surface and hence the arrangement will separate red colour from blue and green.
148. A small source of light is to be suspended directly above the centre of a circular table of radius . What
should be the height of the light source above the table so that the intensity of light is maximum at the
edges of the table compared to any other height of the source
P a g e |30 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
a) b) c) d) √2
2 √2
Ans. b
Sol.: cos ℎ
= = /
(ℎ + ) (ℎ + )
For maximum intensity =0
Applying this condition have get ℎ =
√
149. The two lenses of an achromatic doublet should have
a) Equal powers
b) Equal dispersive powers
c) Equal ratio of their power and dispersive power
d) Sum of the product of their powers and dispersive power equal to zero
Ans. d
Sol.: The two lenses of an achromatic doublet should have, sum of the product of their powers and dispersive
power equal to zero
150. A diminished virtual image can be formed only in
a) Plane mirror b) A concave mirror
c) A convex mirror d) Concave-parabolic mirror
Ans. c
151. A light ray is incident upon a prism in minimum deviation position and suffers a deviation of 34°. If the
shaded half of the prism is knocked off, the ray will
a) Su ffer a deviation of 34° b) Su ffer a deviation of 68°
c) Su ffer a deviation of 17° d) Not come out of the prism
Ans. c
Sol.: By formula = ( − 1) ⇒ 34 = ( − 1) and in the second position = ( − 1)
34 ( − 1) 34
∴ = or = = 17°
( − 1) 2
152. Consider the following two statements A and B and identify the correct choice in the given answers
A: Line spectra is due to atoms in gaseous state
B: Band spectra is due to molecules
a) Both A and B are false b) A is true and B is false
c) A is false and B is true d) Both A and B are true
Ans. d
Sol.: Line and band spectrum are also known as atomic and molecular spectra respectively
153. Focal length of a plane mirror is
a) Zero b) Infinite c) Very less d) Indefinite
Ans. b
Sol.: = and = ∞ for planemirror
154. Light travels in two media and with speeds 1.8 × 10 and 2.4 × 10 respectively. Then the
critical angle between them is
2 3 2 3
a) sin b) tan c) tan d) sin
3 4 3 4
Ans. d
Sol.: Here, = 1.8 × 10
P a g e |31 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
= 2.4 × 10
Light travels slower in denser medium. Hence medium is a denser medium and medium is a rarer
medium. Here, light travels from medium to medium .
Let be the critical angle between them
1
∴ sin = =
Refractive index of medium .r.t medium is
Velocity of light in medium
= =
Velocity of light in medium
1.8 × 10 3
∴ sin = = =
2.4 × 10 4
3
⇒ = sin
4
155. The combination of a convex lens ( = 18 ) and a thin concave lens ( = 9 ) is
a) A concave lens ( = 18 ) b) A convex lens ( = 18 )
c) A convex lens ( = 6 ) d) A concave lens ( = 6 )
Ans. a
Sol.: = + ⇒ = −18 (. ., co ncave lens)
( )
156. A thin prism of angle 15°made of glass of refractive index = 1.5 is combined with another prism of
glass of refractive index = 1.75. The combination of the prisms produces dispersion without deviation.
The angle of the second prism should be
a) 12° b) 5° c) 7° d) 10°
Ans. d
Sol.: Deviation = zero
So, = + =0
( − 1) + ( − 1) = 0
(1.75 − 1) = −(1.5 − 1)15°
0.5
=− × 15°⇒ = −10°
0.75
157. A convex lens of focal length m forms a real, inverted image twice in size of the object. The distance ofthe
object form the lens is
a) 0.5 m b) 0.166 m c) 0.33 m d) 1 m
Ans. a
Sol.:
= = −2 =
+ +
2 1
− −2 =
3 3
Or −2 = + = 1
Or = − m = −0.5 m
158. A prism of angle 30°has its face silvered. A ray of light incident at an angle of 45°at the face
retraces its path after refraction at face and reflection at face . The refractive index of the material of
the prism is
P a g e |32 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
a) 1.5 b) 3/√2 c) √2 d) 4/3
Ans. c
Sol.: = + 0 ⇒ = 30°
sin sin 45°
∴ = = = √2
sin sin 30°
159. A convex lens makes a real image 4 long on a screen. When the lens is shifted to a new position without
disturbing the object, we again get a real image on the screen which is16 tall. The length of the object
must be
a) 1/4 b) 8 c) 12 d) 20
Ans. b
Sol.: = = √4 × 16 = 8
160. An object is kept at a distance of 16 cm from a h
t in lens and the image formed is real. If the objectis kept at
a distance of 6 cm from the same lens, the image formed is virtual. If the sizes of the images formed are
equal the focal length of the lens will be
a) 21 cm b) 11 cm c) 15 cm d) 17 cm
Ans. b
Sol.: As a convex lens alone can form a real images as well as a virtual images, therefore, the lens in the present
question is a convex lens. Let be the focal length of the lens and be the magnification produced
In the first case, when image is real,
= −16 cm, = ( × 16)cm
As − =
∴ + = or 1 + = ...( i)
In the second case, when image is virtual
= −6 cm, = (−6 m)cm
From − =
+ = or 1 − = , …(ii)
Add Eq.(i) and Eq.(ii) we have
2= or = = 11 cm
161. In an astronomical telescope in normal adjustment, a straight black line of length is drawn on the
objective lens. The eyepiece forms a real image of this line. The length of this image is. The magnification
of the telescope is
+
a) b) + 1 c) − 1 d)
−
Ans. a
Sol.: Here we treat the line on the objective as the object and the eyepiece as the lens
Hence = −( + ) and =
Now − ( )
=
( )
Solving we get =
Magnification = = = =
∴ Magnification of telescope in normal adjustment
P a g e |33 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
= =
162. A beam of light consisting of red, green and blue colours is incident on a right-angled prism .The
refractive indices of the material of the prism for the above red, green and blue wavelengths are 1.39, 1.44
and 1.47 respectively. The colour/colours transmitted through the face of the prism will be
A
45o (
B C
a) Red only b) Red and green c) All the three d) None of these
Ans. a
Sol.: The refractive indexμ =
1
μ= = √2 = 1.414
sin 45°
Because the refractive index for green is 1.44 and blue is 1.47. So, red alone will betransmitted.
163. The focal length of convex lens is 30 and the size of image is quarter of the object, then the object
distance is
a) 150 b) 60 c) 30 d) 40
Ans. a
Sol.: 1 30
= ⇒− = ⇒ = −150
+ 4 30 +
164. In the visible region the dispersive powers and the mean angular deviations for crown and flint glass
prisms are , ′and , ′respectively. The condition for getting deviation without dispersion when the
two prisms are combined is
a) √ + ′′ =0 b) + =0 c) + =0 d) ( ) = ( ) =0
Ans. c
Sol.: = + =0⇒ + =0
( = An gular dispersion = . )
165. The index of refraction of diamond is 2.0. The velocity of light in diamond is approximately
a) 1.5 × 10 cms b) 2 × 10 cms c) 3.0 × 10 cms d) 6 × 10 cms
Ans. a
Sol.: Refractive index of diamond is
velocity of light in air
μ=
velocity of light in diamond
3.0 × 10
2=
velocity of light in diamond
So, velocity of light in diamond is
3.0 × 10
= = 1.5 × 10 cms
2
166. Why sun has elliptical shape on the time when rising and setting? It is due to
a) Refraction b) Reflection c) Scattering d) Dispersion
Ans. a
Sol.: In the morning or evening, the sun is at the horizon and refractive index in the atmosphere of the earth
decreases with height. Due to this, the light reaching the earth’s atmosphere, bends unequally, and the
image of the sun get’s distorted and it appears elliptical and larger
167. Parallel beam containing light of = 400nm and 500 nm is incident on a prism as shown in figure. The
P a g e |34 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
refractive index μ of the prism is given by the relation
0.8 × 10
μ(λ) = 1.20 +
Whichof the following statement is correct?
a) Light of = 400 nm undergoes total internal reflection
b) Light of = 500 nm undergoes total internal reflection
c) Neither of two wavelength undergoes total internal reflection
d) Both wavelengths undergoes total internal reflection
Ans. a
Sol.: 0.8 × 10
μ = 1.20 +
(400 × 10 )
. ×
Or μ = 1.20 + × ×
.
Or μ = 1.20 +
Or μ = 1.20 + 0.05
Or μ = 1.25
Or sin = = 0.8
.
Or = 53.13°
. ×
Again, μ = 1.20 + ( × )
.
Or μ = 1.20 + or μ = 1.20 + 0.32
Or μ = 1.232
Or sin = = 0.81
.
Or = sin 0.81
= 54.26°
Now, sin θ = 0.8 or θ = 53.13°
This angle is clearly greater than critical angle corresponding to wavelength 400 nm. So, light of 400 nm
wavelength under goes total internal reflection
168. A small piece of wire bent into an shape with upright and horizontal portions of equal lengths, is placed
with the horizontal portion along the axis of the concave mirror whose radius of curvature is10 . If the
bend is 20 from the pole of the mirror, then the ratio of the lengths of the images of the upright and
horizontal portions of the wire is
a) 1 ∶2 b) 3 ∶1 c) 1 ∶3 d) 2 ∶1
Ans. b
Sol.: Focal length of mirror = = = 5
P a g e |35 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
P
C
Q R 10m
20 m
For part :transverse magnification
length of image = ×
−5 −
= × =
−5 − (−20) 3
For part :longitudinal magnification
Length of image =
−5 3
= × = ⇒ =
−5 − (−20) 9 1
169. An electric lamp is fixed at the ceiling of a circular tunnel as shown is figure. What is the ratio the
intensities of light at base and a point on the wall
S Lamp
Tunnel
B
O
A
a) 1 ∶2 b) 2 ∶ √3 c) √3 ∶1 d) 1 ∶ √2
Ans. d
Sol.: S
Lamp
Tunnel
B
O
=( )
and = cos
√
= . =
2 √2 2√2
2√2 1
∴ = =
4 √2
170. A point object is placed on the axis of the concave mirror at a distance of60 from the focal point of the
mirror. Its image is formed at the point of object, then focal length of the mirror is
a) 15 b) 30 c) 60 d) 120
Ans. c
Sol.: Since the image is formed at the point of object. ., object is kept on the radius of curvature
∴ C. F. = F. P. = 60 =
171. The refractive index of a certain glass is 1.5 for light whose wavelength in vacuum is 6000 Å. The
wavelength of this light when it passes through glass is
a) 4000 Å b) 6000 Å c) 9000 Å d) 15000 Å
Ans. a
Sol.: 6000
= = = 4000 Å
1.5
172. A man can see the object between15 and 30 . He uses the lens to see the far objects. Then due to the
lens used, the near point will be at
P a g e |36 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
10 100
a) b) 30 c) 15 d)
3 3
Ans. b
Sol.: For improving far point, concave lens is required and for this concave lens = ∞ , = −30
So = − ⇒ = −30
For near point = −
⇒ = −30
173. A combination of two thin lenses with focal lengths and respectively forms an image of distant object
at distance 60 when lenses are in contact. The position of this image shift by 30 towards the
combination when two lenses are separated by 10 . The corresponding values of and are
a) 30 , −60 b) 20 , −30 c) 15 , −20 d) 12 , −15
Ans. b
Sol.: 1 1 1
= + … (i)
60
And = + − …(ii)
On solving (i) and (ii) = −600 and + = −10
Hence = 20 and = −30
174. A person sees his virtual image by holding a mirror very close to the face. When he moves the mirror away
from his face, the image becomes inverted. What type of mirror he is using?
a) Plane mirror b) Convex mirror c) Concave mirror d) None of these
Ans. b
Sol.: Plane mirror and convex mirror always from erect images. Image formed by concave mirror may be
erected or inverted depending on position of object.
175. The frequency of a light ray is 6 × 10 . Its frequency when it propagates in a medium of refractive
index 1.5, will be
a) 1.67 × 10 b) 9.10 × 10 c) 6 × 10 d) 4 × 10
Ans. c
Sol.: Frequency remain unchanged
176. An object is placed asymmetrically between two plane mirrors inclined at an angle of72°. The number of
images formed is
a) 5 b) 4 c) 2 d) Infinite
Ans. a
Sol.: 360°
= =5
72°
Note that is odd and object line asymmetrically
177. For the myopic eye, the defect cured by
a) Convex lens b) Concave lens c) Cylindrical lens d) Toric lens
Ans. b
Sol.: In myopia, = ∞ , = = distance of far point
By = − , we get =−
Since is negative, hence the lens used is concave
178. The slit of a collimator is illuminated by a source as shown in the adjoining figures. The distance between
the slit and the collimating lens is equal to the focal length of the lens. The correct direction of the
emergent beam will be as shown is figure
1 2 3
S L S L S L
P a g e |37 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
a) 1 b) 3 c) 2 d) None of the figures
Ans. c
Sol.: In case of convex lens if rays are coming from the focus, then the emergent rays after refraction are
parallel to principal axis
179. An observer can see through a pin-hole the top end of a thin rod of height ℎ, placed as shown in the figure.
The beaker height is 3ℎ and its radius ℎ. When the beaker is filled with a liquid up to a height 2ℎ, he can
see the lower end of the rod. Then the refractive index of the liquid is
3h
h
2h
a) 5/2 b) (5/2) c) (3/2) d) 3/2
Ans. b
Sol.: The line of sight of the observer remains constant making an angle of 45°with the normal
h
45o h
h
3h 2h
h
ℎ 1
sin = =
ℎ + (2ℎ) √5
sin 45°
=
sin
1/√2 5
= =
1/√5 2
180. When the object is self-luminous, the resolving power of a microscope is given by the expression
2 sin sin 2 cos 2
a) b) c) d)
1.22 1.22
Ans. a
181. The optical path a monochromatic light is same if it goes through 4.0 cm of glass of 4.5 cm of water. If the
refractive index of glass is 1.53, the refractive index of the water is
a) 1.30 b) 1.36 c) 1.42 d) 1.46
Ans. b
Sol.: Optical path μ = constant
. .,μ =
⇒ 1.53 × 4 = μ × 4.5
1.53 × 4
⇒μ = = 1.36
4.5
182. A given ray of light suffers minimum deviation in an equilateral prism .Additional prisms and of
identical shape and material are now added to ,as shown in the figure. The ray will suffer
R
P
P a g e |38 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
a) Same deviation b) Greater deviation
c) Total internal reflection d) No deviation
Ans. a
Sol.: Since prism is placed in position of minimum deviation, therefore refracted rays becomes parallel to the
base of the prism, again by adding two prism and of same material as shown in figure, the deviation
produced by and equal and opposite in sense, therefore final deviation is same as due to prism .
183. In the position of minimum deviation when a ray of yellow light passes through the prism, then its angle of
incidence is
a) Less than the emergent angle
b) Greater than the emergent angle
c) Sum of ang le incidence and emergent angle is 90°
d) Equal to the emergent angle
Ans. d
Sol.: In minimum deviation position ∠ = ∠
184. We combined a convex lens of focal length and concave lens of focal lengths and their combined focal
length was . The combination of these lenses will behave like a concave lens, if
a) > b) < c) = d) ≤
Ans. a
Sol.: = , will be negative if >
185. The minimum distance between the object and its real image for concave mirror is
a) b) 2 c) 4 d) Zero
Ans. d
Sol.: When object is kept at centre of curvature. It’s real image is also formed at centre of curvature
186. A concave mirror gives an image three times as large as the object placed at a distance of20 from it.
For the image to be real, the focal length should be
a) 10 b) 15 c) 20 d) 30
Ans. b
Sol.:
= ⇒ −3 = ⇒ = −15
− − (−20)
187. An optical fibre consists of core of surrounded by a cladding of < . A beam of light enters form air
at an angle with axis of fibre. The highest for which ray can be travelled through fibre is
2
1
a) cos − b) sin − c) tan − d) sec −
Ans. b
Sol.: Here the requirement is that >
⇒ sin > sin ⇒ sin > … (i)
From Sne ll’s law = …(ii)
B
r
O A
Also in ∆
+ = 90°⇒ = (90 − )
Hence from equation (ii)
P a g e |39 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
sin = sin(90 − )
sin
⇒ cos =
sin
sin = 1 − cos = 1− … (iii)
From equation (i) and (iii) 1 − >
⇒ sin < ( − ) ⇒ sin < −
= sin −
188. An movie projector forms an image3.5 long of an object35 . Supposing there is negligible absorption
of light by aperture then illuminance on slide and screen will be in the ratio of
a) 100 ∶1 b) 10 ∶1 c) 1 ∶100 d) 1 ∶10
Ans. b
Sol.: ∝ so,
Illuminance on slide (Length of image on screen)
=
Illuminance on screen (Length of objecton slide )
3.5
= = 10 :1
35
189. A convex lens is in contact with concave lens. The magnitude of the ratio of their focal length is 2/3. Their
equivalent focal length is 30 cm. What are their individual focal lengths?
a) -75, 5 0 b) -10, 1 5 c) 75, 50 d) -15, 1 0
Ans. d
Sol.: Let focal length of convex lens is + then focal length of concave lens would be − .
From the given condition,
1 1 2 1
= − =
30 3 3
∴ = 10 cm
Therefore, focal length of convex lens = + 10 cm and that of concave lens = -15 cm.
190. Whichsource is associated with a line emission spectrum
a) Electric fire b) Neon street sign c) Red traffic light d) Su n
Ans. b
Sol.: Neon street sign emits light of specific wavelength
191. Two plane mirrors inclined to each other at an angle 72°, what is the number of image formed?
a) 3 b) 5 c) 9 d) 7
Ans. b
Sol.: Number of images formed
360°
=
θ
360°
= =5
72
192. One side of a glass slab is silvered as shown. A ray of light is incident on the other side at angle of incidence
= 45°. Refractive index of glass is given as 1.5. the deviation of the ray of light from its initial path when it
comes out of the slab is
45o
= 1.5
P a g e |40 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
a) 90° b) 180° c) 120° d) 45°
Ans. a
Sol.: From the figure it is clear that the angle between incident ray and emergent ray is 90°
Incident Emergent
45o 45o ray 45o 45o ray
r r
193. The radius of curvature of the convex face of a planoconvex lens is 15 cm and the refractive index of the
material is 1.4. Then the power of the lens in diopter is
a) 1.6 b) 1.66 c) 2.6 d) 2.66
Ans. d
Sol.: 1 1 1
= ( − 1) −
For planoconvex lens
₁= ∞ , ₂= − = −1.5 , = 1.4
1 1
∴ = (1.4 − 1) 0 +
15
1 1
= 0.4 ×
15
Therefore, power of the lens in diopter
100 40
= = = 2.66
15
194. A beam of monochromatic blue light of wavelength 4200 Å in air travels in water of refractive index 4/3.
Its wavelength in water will be
a) 4200 Å b) 5800 Å c) 4150 Å d) 3150 Å
Ans. d
Sol.: speed of light in air
= =
speed of light in water
∴ =
4200 3
⇒ = = = × 4200 = 3150 Å
(4/3) 4
195. The principal section of a glass prism is an isosceles triangle with = . The face is silvered. A
ray of light is incident normally on the face and after tworeflections, it emerges from the base
perpendicular to the base. Angle of the prism is
a) 30° b) 36° c) 60° d) 72°
Ans. b
Sol.: From the figure
= 90°− (90°− ) =
∝ = 90°− 2 = 90°− 2
∴ = 90°− = 90°− (90°− 2 ) = 2
P a g e |41 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
∴ = 90°− = 90°− 2
From the geometry of the figure
+ 2 + 2 = 180°
∴ = 36°
196. Our eye is most sensitive for which of the following wavelength
a) 4500 Å
b) 5500 Å
c) 6500 Å
d) Equally sensitive for all wave lengths of visible spectrum
Ans. b
197. The mean distance of sun from the earth is 1.5 × 10 (n early). The time taken by the light to reach
earth from the sun is
a) 0.12 b) 8.33 c) 12.5 d) 6.25
Ans. b
Sol.: 1.5 × 10 × 10
= = = 500 = 8.33
3 × 10
198. The frequency of a light wave in a material is 2 × 10¹⁴Hz and wavelength is 5000Å. The refractive index
of material will be
a) 1.40 b) 1.50 c) 3.00 d) 1.33
Ans. c
Sol.: Velocity of light water in material is
= λ … (i)
Refractive index of material is
μ= … (ii)
Where is speed of light in vacuum or air
or μ = … (iii)
Given, = 2 × 10 ⁴Hz,
λ = 5000Å = 5000 × 10 m
= 3 × 10 ms
Hence, from Eq (iii), we get
3 × 10
μ= = 3.00
2 × 10 × 5000 × 10
199. A man runs towards a mirror at a speed 15 / . The speed of the image relative to the man is
a) 15 b) 30 c) 35 d) 20
Ans. b
Sol.: Relative velocity of image . . man
= 15 − (−15) = 30 /
Man Image
15m/s 15m/s
200. Near and far points of human eye are
a) 25 cm and infinite b) 50 cm and 100 cm c) 25 cm and 50 cm d) 0 cm and 25 cm
Ans. a
Sol.: Our eye lens has a power to adjust its focal length to see the nearer and father objects, this process of
adjusting focal length is called accommodation. However, if the object is brought too close or bring too far
from the eye, the focal length cannot be adjusted to from the image on the retina. Thus, there is minimum
or maximum distance for the clever vision of an object. For a normal eye, near point or least distant vision
= 25 cm and far point = ∞
P a g e |42 CH RUSHIKESH Sir
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENTS
DAY – 11 (DT 16-04-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Chapter : ELECTRIC FIELDS AND CHARGES
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
PHYSICS
1. Three concentric metallic spherical shells of radii R, 2R, 3R, are given charges Q1, Q2, Q3,
respectively. It is found that the surface charge densities on the outer surfaces of the shells
are equal. Then, the ratio of the charges given to the shells, Q1 : Q2 : Q3 is
1) 1 : 2 : 3 2) 1 : 3 : 5 3) 1 : 4 : 9 4) 1 : 8 : 18
Q1 Q Q2 Q Q2 Q3
Sol : 2
1 2
1 2
4 R 4 2 R 4 3R
Q1 Q2 Q1 Q2 Q3
Q1
4 9
Q2 3Q1 and Q3 5Q1
Q1 : Q2 : Q3 1: 3: 5
Key :3
0
2. A solid sphere of radius R1 and volume charge density is enclosed by a hollow sphere of
r
radius R2 with negative surface charge density , such that the total charge in the system is zero. 0
R2
is a positive constant and r is the distance from the centre of the sphere. The ratio is
R1
2 0 0
1) 2) 3) 4)
0 0 2
Sol : Total charge in the inner sphere
R1 R1 R2
Q1 dV 0 4 r 2 dr 4 1 0
0 0 r 2
Total charge on outer shell
Q2 4 R22
Since, Q1 Q2 0
R12
4 0 4 R22
2
R2 R 0
22 0 2
R1 2 R1 2
Key :3
3. 64 small drops of mercury, each of radius ‘r’ and charge q are combined to form a big drop. The ratio
of the surface density of the charge of each small drop to that of a big drop is
1) 4:1 2) 1:4 3) 1:64 4) 64:1
4 4
Sol: 64 r 3 R 3
3 3
3
4r R 3
R 4r
s charge density on small drop q / 4 r 2
b charge density on big drop Q / 4 R 2
2 2
q R q 4r 1
16
Q r 64q r 64
s 1
b 4
4. A charged spherical conductor has a surface charge density of 0.7 C/m2.When its charge is increased
by 0.44C, the charge density changes by 0.14 C/m2. The radius of the sphere is
1) 5 cm 2) 10 m 3) 0.5 m 4) 5 m
q C q 0.44 C
Sol: 0.7 2 ; 0.84 2
A m A m
0.44 0.44 22
0.14 A
A 0.14 7
1
4 r 2 r
2
5. What is charge on 90 kg of electrons?
1) 1.58 x1013 2) 2.3 x1012 3) 2.53 x1012 4) None of these
M 90
M Nme N
Sol: me 9.1 1031
9.89 1031
Q Ne 9.89 1031 1.6 10 19
1.58 1013
6. Induction precedes attraction because
1) An uncharged body can attract an uncharged body due to induction of opposite charge on it
2) A charged body can attract an uncharged body due to induction of same charge on it
3) A charged body can attract an uncharged body due to induction of opposite charge on it
4) A charged body can attract another charged body due to induction of same charge on it
Sol: A charged body can attract uncharged body due to induction of opposite charge on it
7. Consider a neutral conducting sphere. A positive point charge is placed outside the sphere. The net
charge on the sphere is then
1) Negative and distributed uniformly over the surface of the sphere
2) Negative and appears only at the point on the sphere closest to the point charge
3) Negative and distributed non-uniformly over the entire surface of the sphere
4) Zero
Sol: Induction causes equal and opposite charges to be induced, so that net charge is zero
8. A conductor has been given a charge -3 x 10-7C by transferring electrons. Mass increase (in kg) of
the conductor and the number of electrons added to the conductor are respectively (nearly)
1) 2 x 10-16 and 2 x 1031 2) 5 x 10-31 and 5 x 1019
-19 16
3) 3 x 10 and 9 x 10 4) 2 x 10-18 and 2 x 1012
Sol: Q Ne 3 107
3 107
N
1.6 1019
N 1.875 1012
N 2 1012 (nearly)
M N me
2 1012 9.1 1031 kg
18.2 1019
1.8 1018 kg
M 2 1018 kg (nearly)
9. Two identical conducting spheres carrying different charges attract each other with a force F when
placed in air medium at a distance ‘d’ apart. The spheres are brought into contact and then taken to
their original positions. Now the two spheres repel each other with a force whose magnitude is equal
to that of the initial attractive force. The ratio between initial charges on the spheres is
1) 3 8 only 2) 3 8 only
3) 3 8 or 3 8 4) 3
2
Q Q2
k 1
kQ Q 2
Sol : F1 12 2 and F2
d d2
According to question,
F1 F2
2
Q1Q2
Q Q2
1 4Q1Q2 Q12 Q22 2Q1Q2
4
Q1
0 Q12 Q22 6Q1Q2 3 8
Q2
Key :3
10. Two particle of equal mass m and charge q are placed at a distance of 16cm. They do not experience
q
any force. The value of is
m
0 G
1) l 2) 3) 4) 4 0G
G 4 0
Sol : They will not experience any force if FG Fe
m2 1 q2 q
G . 4 0G
2 2 4 0 16 102 2
16 10 m
Key :4
11. Two charges each equal to q, are kept at x a and x a on the x-axis. A particle of mass m and
q
charge q0 is placed at the origin. If charge q0 is given a small displacement (y<<a) along the y-
2
axis, the net force acting on the particle is proportional to
1) y 2) –y 3) 1/y 4) -1/y
Sol : Fnet 2 F cos
q
2kq
2 . y
Fnet 2
y2 a2
y a2
2
y
q/2
F F
q a a q
kq 2 y
Fnet Fnet y
a3
Key :1
12. In figure two positive charges q2 and q3 fixed along the y - axis, exert a net electric force in the + x-
direction on a charge q1 fixed along the x-axis. If a positive charge Q is added at (x,0), the force on
q1
1) Shall increase along the positive x-axis
2) Shall decrease along the positive x-axis
3) Shall point along the negative x-axis
4) Shall increase but the direction changes because of the intersection of Q with q2 and q1
Sol : The net force on q1 by q2 and q3 is along the + x - direction, so nature of force between q1 , q2 and
q1 , q3 is attractive. This can be represent by the figure give, below
The attractive force between these charges states that q1 is a negative charge (since, q2 and q3 are
positive).
Thus, nature of force between q1 and newly introduced charge Q (positive) is attractive and net
force on q1 by q2, q3 and Q are along the same direction as given in the diagram below
The figure given above clearly shows that the force on q1 shall increase along the positive x-axis due
to the positive charge Q
Key : 1
13. Two spherical conductors B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them repel each
other with a force F when kept apart at some distance. A third spherical conductor having same
radius as that of B but uncharged is brought in contact with B, then brought in contact with C and
finally removed away from both. The new force of repulsion between B and C is
1) F/4 2) 3F/4 3) F/8 4) 3F/8
Sol :
KQ 2
F
r2
3Q
Now, qC q A
4
Q 3Q
K
2 4
F '
r2
Key :4
14. Two protons are a distance of 11010 cm from each other. The forces acting on them are
1) Nuclear force and coulomb force 2) Nuclear force and gravitational force
3) Coulomb force and gravitational force 4) Nuclear, coulomb and gravitational force
Sol : Both FG and Fe , because, proton has mass and charge both.
Key :3
15. Two positive ions, each carrying a charge q, are separated by a distance d. If F is the force of
repulsion between the ions, the number of electrons missing from each ion will be (e being the
charge of an electron)
4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fe 2 4 0 Fd 2 4 0 Fd 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
e2 d2 e2 q2
kq 2 1
Sol: F 2
;" q Ne "& k
d 4 0
1 N 2e 2
F
4 0 d 2
24 0 Fd 2
N
e2
4 0 Fd 2
N
e2
16. Three charges are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side a as shown in the given
figure. The force experienced by the charge placed at the vertex A in a direction normal to BC is
Q2 Q2
1) 2) Q 2 (4 0 a 2 ) 3) Zero 4)
0 a 2 4 0 a 2
Sol:
F resultant is parallel to ‘BC’, in direction perpendicular to ‘BC’, it is Zero
17. In the basic CsCl crystal structure, Cs+ and Cl- ions are arranged in a bcc configuration as shown in
the figure. The net electrostatic force exerted by the eight Cs+ ions on the Cl- ion at center is
1 4e 2 1 16e 2 1 32e2
1) 2) 3) 4) Zero
4 0 3a 2 4 0 3a 2 4 0 3a 2
Sol: Since for every cesium atom, there exist one cesium atom at diagonally opposite corner . So net force
on central chlorine atom is zero
18. Identify incorrect for electric charge q
1) Quantized 2) Conserved 3) Additive 4) Non-transferable
Sol: Charge is transferable
19. Three identical charges are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side length r. The force
experienced by each charge, (if k=1/4 0 ) is
q2 kq 2 q2 kq 2
1) 2k 2) 3) 3k 4)
r2 2r 2 r2 2r 2
kq 2
Sol: ( F , F ;60 0 ) 3F where F
r2
3kq 2
r2
20. Three charges –q1, +q2 and –q3 are place as shown in the figure. The x- component of the force on –
q1 is proportional to
q2 q3 q2 q3 q2 q3 q2 q3
1) cos 2) sin 3) cos 4) sin
b2 a 2 b2 a 2 b2 a 2 b2 a 2
Sol:
kq1q3 kq q
F sin F 1 2
sin 12 2
a b
q q
kq1 32 sin 22
a b
q q
22 32 sin
b a
21. Two identical pendulums A and B are suspended from the same point. Both are given positive
charge, with A having more charge than B. They diverge and reach equilibrium with the suspension
of A and B making angles 1 and 2 with the vertical respectively.
1) 1> 2 2) 1< 2
3) 1= 2 4) The tension in A is greater than that in B
Sol: so that electrostatic forces are equal and opposite and horizontal for identical pendulums.
22. A soap bubble is given a negative charge, then its radius
1) Decreases 2) Increases 3) Remains unchanged
4) Nothing can be predicted as information is insufficient
Sol: Because of mutual repulsions radius increases
Key :2
23. Two spheres carrying charges +6 C and +9 C , separated by a distance d, experiences a force of
repulsion F. When a charge of -3 C is given to both the spheres and kept at the same distance as
before, the new force of repulsion is
1) 3F 2) F/9 3) F 4) F/3
F 1
3 6 F
Sol: F1
F 6 9 3
Key :4
24. A charge Q is divided into two parts of q and Q-q. If the coulomb repulsion between them when they
Q
are separated is to be maximum, the ratio of should be
q
1 1
1) 2 2) 3) 4 4)
2 4
kq Q q
Sol: F
r2
dF
By making 0 since force is to be maximum
dq
Q
We get q
2
Q
2
q
25. A point charge q is situated at a distance r on axis from one end of a thin conducting rod of length L
having a charge Q [Uniformly distributed along its length]. The magnitude of electric force between
the two is
2KQ KQq KQq KQq
1) 2) 2
3) 4)
r ( r L) r r ( r L) r ( r L)
Sol:
kqdQ
dF x2
r L
1 Q kQq
F kq 2 dx
x r x L r r L
26. Two small conducting spheres of equal radius have charges +10 C and -20 C respectively and
placed at a distance R from each other experience force F1. If they are brought in contact and
separated to the same distance. They experience force F2. The ratio of F1 to F2 is
1) 1:8 2) -8:1 3) 1:2 4) -2:1
1 q1q2
F
Sol: 4 0 r 2
19 2
9 10 1.6 10
9
10 2
10
9 109 256 1040
1020
2.3 108 N
d
27. Two charges are at a distance ‘d’ apart. If a copper plate (conducting medium) of thickness is
2
placed between them, the effective force will be
1) 2F 2) F/2 3) 0 4) 2F
1 q1q2
F 2
4 0 d d
k
Sol: 2 2
Kmetal
F 0
28. Two copper balls, each weighting 10g are kept in air 10cm apart. If one electron from every 106
atoms is transferred from one ball to the other, the coulomb force between them is ( atomic weight of
copper is 63.5)
1) 2.0 x 1010N 2)2.0 x 104N 3) 2.0 x 108N 4)2.0 x 106N
Sol: For 63.5 g Avogadro number of copper atoms will be there
10 g ? N
10 N A
N
63.5
6.023 1024
63.5
N 9.5 1022
106 atoms 1e-
9.5 1022 atoms ?=Ne
9.5 1022
Ne 6
9.5 1016
10
2
kq 2 9 10 9.5 10 1.6 10
9 16 19
F 2 2 2 108 N
r 1010
2
29. An electron is moving around the nucleus of a hydrogen atom in a circular orbit of radius r. The
1
coulomb force F between the two is ( where K= )
4 0
e2 e2 e2 e2
1) K 3 rˆ 2) K 3 r 3) K 3 r 4) K 2 rˆ
r r r r
ke2
F 2 rˆ
Sol: r
ke 2
F 3 r
r
30. Five balls numbered 1 to 5 are suspended using separate threads. Pairs (1, 2),(2, 4) and (4, 1) show
electrostatic attraction, while pair (2, 3) and (4, 5) show repulsion. Therefore ball 1 must be
1) Positively charged 2) Negatively charged
3) Neutral 4) Made of metal
Sol: Repulsion will be there between unlike charges
(2,3) opposite charges Let q2 Ve, q3 Ve
(4,5) opposite charges Let q4 Ve, q5 Ve
(2,4) Attraction q2 Ve, q4 Ve
4,1
attraction where q2 Ve, q4 Ve q1 Netural
2,1
Ball ‘1’ is Neutral
31. Two equal negative charge –q are fixed at the fixed points (0, a) and (0, -a) on the Y-axis. A positive
charge Q is released from rest at the point (2a, 0) on the X-axis. The charge Q will
1) Executive simple harmonic motion about the origin
2) Move to the origin and remain at rest
3) Move to infinity
4) Executive oscillatory but not simple harmonic motion
Sol: Since Displacement X=2a is large, Force is only oscillatory
But not simple harmonic,
32. An infinite number of charges, each of charge 1 C , are placed on the x-axis with co-ordinates x=1,
2, 4, 8….. . If a charged of 1 C is kept at the origin, then what is the net force acting on 1 C charge
1) 9000N 2) 12000N 3) 24000N 4) 36000N
Sol:
k 1 106 k 1 106 k 1 106
Fnet
12 22 42
1 1
k 106 1
4 16
1
9 109 106
1
1
4
4
9 103
3
3
12 10 N
33. Two equally charged, identical metal spheres A and B repel each other with a force ‘F’. The spheres
are kept fixed with a distance ‘r’ between them. A third identical, but uncharged sphere C is brought
in contact with A and then placed at the mid-point of the line joining A and B. The magnitude of the
net electric force on C is
1) F 2) 3F/4 3) F/2 4) F/4
Sol:
Q Q Q
kQ k
Fon ' C ' 2 2 2
2 2
r r
2 2
2 2
2kQ kQ
2 2
r r
2
KQ
2
r
F
34. Equal charges q are placed at the four corners A, B, C, D of a square of length a. The magnitude of
the force on the charge at B will be
3q 2 4q 2 q2 1 2 2 q2 1
1) 2
2) 2
3)
2
4) 2
2
4 0 a 4 0 a 4 0 a 2 4 0 a 2
Sol:
kq 2
F 2
a
1 1 kq 2 2 2 1 q2
F
Fnet 2 F 2 2 a2 net
2 4 0a 2
2 ,
35. Two point charges placed at a certain distance r in air exert a force F on each other. Then the distance
‘r1’ at which these charges will exert the same force in a medium of dielectric constant k is given by
r
1) r 2) r/k 3) 4) r k
k
1 q1q2 1 q1q2
Sol: FMedium 12
; FVacumme ;
4 0 k r 4 0 r 2
1 q1q2
4 0 kr 1 2
r
By comparing kr1 r r1
k
36. A ring of radius r carries a charge Q uniformly distributed over its length. A charge q is placed at its
centre will experience a force equal to
qQ qQ
1) 2
2) 3) Zero 4) None of these
4 0 r 8 0 r 2
Sol : The electric field () at centre of circular charged ring of radius R is zero
Force = qE = Zero
Key :3
37. An electron of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘q’ is accelerated from rest in a uniform electric field of strength
‘E’. The velocity acquired by it as it travels a distance ‘l’ is
1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2
2Eql 2Eq 2Em Em
1) 2) 3) 4)
m ml ql ql
1/ 2
2Eql
Sol :
m
Key :1
38. A cube of side b has a charge q at each of its vertices. The electric field due to this charge
distribution at the centre of this cube will be
1) q / b 2 2) q / 2b 2 3) 32 q / b 2 4) Zero
Sol : Due to symmetric charge distribution.
Key :4
39. The diagrams below show regions of equipotentials
A positive charge is moved from A to B in each diagram
1) Maximum work is required to move q in figure (c)
2) In all the four cases the work done is the same
3) Minimum work is required to move q in figure (a)
4) Maximum work is required to move q in figure
Sol : In all cases work done will be equal as
W q V f Vi
Key :2
40. The surface of a planet is found to be uniformly charged. When a particle of mass m and no charge is
thrown at an angle from the surface of the planet, it has a parabolic trajectory as in projectile motion
with horizontal range L. A particle of mass m and charge q, with the same initial conditions has a
range L/2. The range of particle of mass m and charge 2q with the same initial conditions is
1) L 2) L/2 3) L/3 4) L/4
Sol : For uncharged particle
Key :3
3R
41. The electric field at a distance from the centre of a charged conducting spherical shell of radius
2
R
R is E. The electric field at a distance from the centre of the sphere is
2
1) Zero 2) E 3) E/2 4) E/3
Sol : Field is always perpendicular to conducting surface and inside conductor E = 0
Key :1
42. A metallic solid sphere is placed in a uniform electric field. The lines of force follow the path(s)
shown in figure as 1 1
2 2
3 3
4 4
1) 1 2) 2 3)3 4) 4
Sol : Electric field inside conductor is zero
Key :4
43. The electric field near a conducting surface having a uniform surface charge density is given by
2
1) and is parallel to the surface 2) and is parallel to the surface
0 0
2
3) and is normal to the surface 4) and is normal to the surface
0 0
Sol : E= and perpendicular to surface
0
Key :3
44. Consider a thin spherical shell of radius R consisting of uniform surface charge density . The
electric field at a point of distance x from its centre and outside the shell is
1) Inversely proportional to 2) Directly proportional to x2
3) Directly proportional to R 4) Inversely proportional to x2
Kq 1 4 R 2 R 2
Sol : EOut
x 2 4 0 x2 0 x2
Key :4
45. Identify the false statement.
1) Inside a charged or neutral conductor electrostatic field is zero
2) The electrostatic field at the surface of the charged conductor must be tangential to the surface at
any point
3) There is no net charge at any point inside the conductor
4) Electrostatic potential is constant throughout the volume of the conductor
Sol : Field is normal of surface of conductor always
Key :2
p cos
46. A point electric dipole placed at the origin has a potential given by V r. where s the
4 0 r 2
angle made by the position vector with the direction of the dipole. Then
1) Since the potential vanishes at , the electric field is zero
2
2) The electric field everywhere on the plane is parallel to the plane
2
3) The electric field everywhere on the plane is perpendicular to the plane
2
4) The electric field vanishes on the 0 line
Sol : Potential due to dipole
Key :3
47. A sphere of radius R has a volume density of charge = kr, where r is the distance from the centre
of the sphere and k is constant. The magnitude of the electric field which exists at the surface of the
sphere is given by ( 0 =permittivity of the free space)
4 kR 2 kR 4 kR kR 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 0 3 0 0 4 0
Sol : Volume density kr
kR 2
E
4 0
Key : 4
48. Two point charges Q and -3Q are placed at some distance apart. If the electric field at the location of
Q is E , the field at the location of -3Q is
E E
1) E 2) E 3) 4)
3 3
Sol:
E 3Q E1
Q
1 2
E2 E E1 ?
1 3Q
E (1)
4 0 r 2
1 3Q
E1 (2)
4 0 r 2
E1 1 E
E1
E 3 3
49. A point charge 25 C is located in the XY – plane at the point of position vector r0 = iˆ ˆj m What
is the magnitude of electric field at the point of position vector r1 = 4iˆ 5 ˆj m?
1) 900v/m 2) 9 kV/m 3) 90V/m 4) 90 kv/m
kq
Sol: E= 2 Where
r
R= r1 r0 = 4iˆ 5 ˆj iˆ ˆj = 3iˆ 4 ˆj =5m
9 X 109 X 25 X 106
E=
5X 5
= 9X 10 3 V m 1
kV
=9
m
50. Two charges 4 x 10–9 C and –16 x 10–9 C are separated by a distance 20 cm in air. The position of
the neutral point from the small charge is
1) 40/3 cm 2) 20/3cm 3) 20 cm 4) 10/3cm
d 20
Sol: x 20cm
q2 16
1 1
q1 4
51. The number of electrons to be put on a spherical conductor of radius 0.1 m to produce an electric field
of 0.036 N/C just above its surface is
1) 2.7 105 2) 2.6 105 3) 2.5 105 4) 2.4 105
1 q
Sol: E
4 0 r 2
9 109 n 1.6 1019
0.036
102
36 105 10
n 9 19
105
9 10 1.6 10 4
2.5 105
52. The magnitude of electric intensity at a distance 'x' from a charge 'q' is E. An identical charge is
placed at a distance '2x' from it. Then the magnitude of the force it experience is
Eq Eq
1) Eq 2) 2Eq 3) 4)
2 4
q x E q
Sol: 2x
q
E 9 10 9 1
x2
F Eq 2
q E
E ' 9 109 2
4x 4
Eq
F ' E 'q
4
53. The electric field in a region is radially out ward with magnitude E = Ar. Find the charge contained in
a sphere of radius 20 cm. Given A =100Vm-2 .
1) 8.891011 C 2) 91011 C 3) 8.891011 C 4) 88.91011 C
Sol: E Ar
1 q
Where A
4 0 r 3
q
100 9 109
8 10 10 6
3
8 105 106
q 9
8.89 1011 C
9 10
54. A sphere of mass 50gm is suspended by a string in an electric field of intensity 5NC–1 acting
vertically upward. If the tension in the string is 520 millinewton, the charge on the sphere is
(g = 10ms–2)
1) 4 10–3 C 2) –4 10–3 C 3) 8 10–3 C 4) –8 10–3 C
T Eq
Sol: Mg
T Eq mg 520 103 50 103 10 5q
m 0.02kg
55. A and B are two points separated by a distance 5cm. Two charges 10C and 20 C are placed at A
and B. The resultant electric intensity at a point P outside the charges at a distance 5cm from 10C is
1) 54 x 106 N/C away from 10 C 2) 56 x 106 N/C towards 10 C
3) 9 x 106 N/C away from 10 C 4) zero
10 C 20 C
P 5cm A 5cm B
Sol:
EP EA EB
10 10 6 20 10 6
9 109 4
25 10 100 10 4
60 106
9 109
100 104
5.4 107 N / C
54 10 6 N / C
56. At the corners A, B, C of a square ABCD, charges 10mC, –20mC and 10mC are placed. The electric
intensity at the centre of the square to become zero, the charge to be placed at the corner D is
1) –20mC 2) +20mC 3) 30mC 4) –30Mc
10mc
D C
EA
EC EB
A B
10mc -20mc
Sol:
To become E= 0, an equal and like charge should be place at D
57. A particle of mass 'm' and charge q is placed at rest in a uniform electric field E and then released.
The K.E. attained by the particle after moving a distance y is
1) qEy2 2) qE2y 3) qEy 4) q2Ey
Sol: W KE F .S Eqy
58. A proton and an -particle start from rest in a uniform electric field, then the ratio of times of flight
to travel same distance in the field is
1) 5: 2 2) 3 :1 3) 2 :1 4) 1: 2
1 2S 2 Sm
Sol: S at 2 t
2 a Eq
m
t
q
tp 1 2 1
ta 4 1 2
59. Two particles having equal charges, but masses are in the ratio 1:2, are placed in an uniform electric
field ‘E’ and allowed to move simultaneously. The ratio of their kinetic energies at any instant will be
1) 1 : 2 2) 2 : 1 3) 1 : 8 4) 8 : 1
2 2 2
1 q0 E t KE1 m2 2
Sol: KE ,
2 m KE2 m1 1
60. There are n electrons of charge e on a drop of oil of density . It is in equilibrium in an electric field
E. Then radius of drop is
1/ 2 1/ 2 1/3 1/ 3
2neE neE 3neE 2neE
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 g g 4 g g
Sol: Mg EQ
4 3
r g Ene
3
3neE
r3
4 g
1/ 3
3neE
r
4 g
61. A body of mass 2 gm is projected horizontally from the top of tower of height 20m with a velocity 10
m/s. The charge on the body is 2C. Electric field is applied vertically downwards and of intensity
10–2 N/C. Find the time taken by the body to touch the ground ( g = 10 m/s2 )
1) 1 sec 2) 1.414 sec 3) 2.828 sec 4) 2 sec
2l 2l
Sol: t
ga Eq
g
m
2 20
t 2
102 2
10
2 103
1.414sec
62. A charge of 2C is placed on the x-axis at 1m from the origin along –ve x-axis. Infinite number of
charges each of magnitude 2C are placed on x-axis at 1m, 2m, 4m, ..... from origin along +ve x-axis.
The first charge is positive and alternate charges are of opposite in nature. The electric field intensity
at the origin
1 1
1) along +ve x-axis 2) along –ve x-axis
10 o 10 o
1 1
3) along +ve x-axis 4) along –ve x-axis
0 0
Sol: ER E1 E2
1 q 1 1
1 q
4 0 1 4 0 1 1
4
1 4
q 1
4 0 5
1 1 1
2
4 0 5 10 0
63. An electric field is acting vertically upwards. A small body of mass 1 gm and charge 1 C is
projected with a velocity 10 m/s at an angle 45º with horizontal. Its horizontal range is 2m then the
intensity of electric field is : (g=10 m/s2)
1) 20,000 N/C 2) 10,000 N/C 3) 40,000 N/C 4) 90,000 N/C
2
u sin 2 100 1
Sol: R
g
Eq E 10 6
10
m 10 3
100
2
10 E 10 3
10 E 103 50 E 40,000N / C
64. A bob of a simple pendulum of mass 40gm with a positive charge 4x10–6C is oscillating with time
period 'T1'. An electric field of intensity 3.6x104 N/c is applied vertically upwards now time period is
T
T2 .The value of 2 is (g=10 m/s2)
T1
1) 0.16 2) 0.64 3) 1.25 4) 0.8
l l
Sol: T1 2 T2 2
g Eq
g
m
T2 g 10
T1 g
Eq 3.6 10 4 4 10 6
10
m 40 10 3
100 10
1.25
64 8
65. A body of mass 10 gm and having charge 2C is attached to a spring which is suspended from ceiling.
If it is vibrating then its time period is 1 sec. If an electric field of intensity 100 N/C is applied in the
downward direction then the time period becomes:
1) 1 sec 2) 3 sec 3) 4 sec 4) 1/2 sec
m
Sol: T 2
K
T is independent of ‘g’
T =1sec
66. Two charges 3C and q C are placed at 2, 0 and 0, 2 . The direction of intensity of electric field
at 2, 2 makes an angle 300 with y axis then q is:
(2, 2)
qc
3c
1) 1C 2) 2C 3) 3C 4) 3C
E2
(2,2)
qc E1
3c
Sol:
q
9 109
E1 4 1
tan
E2 9 109 3 1 3
4
300 q 1c
67. Three particles are projected in a uniform electric field with same velocity perpendicular to the field
as shown Which particle has highest charge to mass ratio?
1) A 2) B
3) C 4) All the same charge to mass ratio
Sol: Charge with maximum curved path has highest charge to mass ratio
68. There is a uniform electric field of strength 103Vm–1along Y-axis. A body of mass 1gm and charge
10–6 C is projected into the field from origin along the positive X-axis with a velocity of 10 ms–1. Its
speed in ms–1 after 10s is (Neglect gravitation)
1) 10 2) 5 2 3) 10 2 4) 20
Eq
Sol: vx 10ms 1 v y t
m
103 106
10
103
v v x2 v y2 10 2 ms 1
69. An electron with a velocity of 2.4 x 106ms–1 flies into a uniform electric field of intensity 135 Vm–1.
It moves along a field line until it comes to rest. The distance travelled by the electron before coming
to rest within the field is
1) 0.12 m 2) 0.6 m 3) 0.4 m 4) 0.2 m
2Eq
Sol: V 2 - u 2 =2as u 2 = s
m
mu 2 9 X 1031 X (2.4)2 X 1012
S= = =0.12m
2 Eq 2 X135 X1.6 X1019
70. A sphere carrying charge is just at rest without falling down touching a vertical wall, by applying a
horizontal electric field 100 NC–1. The charge on the ball is 0.01 C. If the coefficient of friction
between wall and sphere is 0.2, mass of the sphere is (g = 10 m/s2)
1) 2 kg 2) 20gm 3) 2g 4) 0.2 kg
Sol: f= n
mg= (Eq)
f
N=F=Eq
Mg
N= F=Eq
m 10 0.2 100 0.01 ; m 0.02kg
71. A particle of mass 1 Kg and carrying 0.01 C is at rest on an inclined plane of angle 300 with
490
horizontal when an electric field of NC 1 applied parallel to horizontal, the coefficient of friction
3
is
1) 0.5 2) 1 3 3) 3 / 2 4) 3 / 7
mg tan Eq
Sol: =
mg Eq tan
1 490
1X 9.8 X X 0.01
=
3 3
490 1
1X 9.8 X 0.01X
3 3
9.8 4.9 4.9 3 3
= = =
9.8 X 3 4.9 4.9[6 1] 7
3[ ]
3
72. If two charges +q and +4q are separated by a distance 'd' and a point charge Q is placed on the line
joining the above two charges and in between them such that all charges are in equilibrium. Then the
charge Q and it's position are
4q d 2Q d
1) at a distance from 4q 2) at a distance from q
9 3 3 3
4q d 2Q d
3) at a distance from q 4) at a distance from 4q
9 3 3 3
d
q x Q 4q
Sol:
d d
X= = from q
q2 3
1
q1
F1 F2 =0
1 q 4q 1 qQ
=
4 0 d 2
4 0 d / 32
4q2 Qd 9
=
d2 d2
4q d
Q= at a distance from q
9 3
73. Two unit negative charges are placed on a straight line. A positive charge 'q' is placed exactly at the
mid-point in between these unit charges. If the system of three charges is in equilibrium the value of
'q' (in C) is
1) 1.0 2) 0.75 3) 0.5 4) 0.25
Sol:
-1C
.
A
d/2
.
q
B
d/2
.
-1C
C
FAC
FAC + FAB =oc system is in equilibrium
K ( 1)(1) K ( 1) q
=
D2 d
2
2
1 4q 1
2
= 2 q= =0.25c
d d 4
74. An electron is projected with certain velocity into an electric field in a direction opposite to the field.
Then it is
1) accelerated 2) retarded
3) neither accelerated nor retarded 4) either accelerated or retarded
Sol: An electron is projected with certain velocity into an electric field in a direction opposite to the field.
Then it is accelerated
75. A simple pendulum of period T has a metal bob which is negatively charged. If it is allowed to
oscillate above a positively charged metal plate, its period will be
1) Remains equal to T 2) Less than T 3) Greater than T 4) Infinite
L
Sol: T 2
g eff
Eq
g eff g
m
76. A charged particle enters at point “A” and comes out from “B”. If velocity makes angles & with
electric field at these two points. The ratio of K.E of charged particle at these two points is:
A B
sin 2 sin 2 sin cos
1) 2) 3) 4)
sin 2 sin 2 sin cos
B
A
VA sin VB sin
E
Sol:
We know along horizontal, velocity is const
VA sin VB sin
VA sin
VB sin
1
mVA2
K .E A 2
K . EB 1 2
mVB
2
2
K .EA sin
K .EB sin 2
77. An electric field 1.5 104 N / C exist b/w two parallel plates of length 2cm. An electron enters the
region b/w the plates at right angles to the field with a K.E of 2000eV. Find the deflection that the e
experiences at the deflecting plate?
1) 7.5mm 2) 0.075mm 3) 750mm 4) 0.75 mm
Eq
Sol: y x2
4 K.E
1.5 104 1.6 1019
19
4 104
4 2000 1.6 10
15 101
2 103
7.5 10 4
y 0.75mm
3R
78. The electric field at a distance from the centre of a charged conducting spherical shell of radius
2
R
R is E. The electric field at a distance from the centre of the sphere is
2
1) Zero 2) E 3) E/2 4) E/3
Sol : Electric field inside shell is zero
Key :1
79. Three infinitely long charge sheets are placed as shown in figure. The electric field at point P is
Z
Z 3a
P
2 Z a
Z a
2 2 4 4
1) k̂ 2) k̂ 3) k̂ 4) k̂
0 0 0 0
ˆ 2 ˆ ˆ 2 ˆ
Sol : E k k k k
2 0 2 0 2 0 0
Key :2
80. A ball with charge -50e is placed at the centre of a hollow spherical shell which has a net charge of
-50e. What is the charge on the shell’s outer surface.
1) -50e 2) Zero 3) -100e 4) +100e
Sol :
Charge on outer surface = 50e 50e
100e
Key :3
81. A rod lies along the x-axis with one end at the origin and the other at x . It carries a uniform
C
charge . The electric field at the point x a on the axis will be
m
1) E i
2) E i 3) E i 4) E i
4 0 a 4 0 a 2 0 a 2 0 a
Sol :
Key :1
82. Let there be a spherically symmetric charge distribution with charge density varying as
5 r
r 0 up to r R , and r 0 for r R , where r is the distance from the origin.
4 R
The electric field at a distance r r R from the origin is given by
0 r 5 r 40 r 5 r 0 r 5 r 4 0r 5 r
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 0 4 R 3 0 4 R 4 0 3 R 3 0 4 R
Sol :
Key :3
83. An infinite plane sheet of a metal is charged to charge density C/ m2 in a medium of dielectric
constant K. Intensity of electric field near the metallic surface will be.
K
1) E 2) E 3) E 4) E
0K 2 0 2 0 K 2 0
Sol: For conducting plate E 1 (In medium)
K0
E1 (In air)
0
84. Electric field intensity at a point due to an infinite sheet of charge having surface charge density is
E. If sheet were conducting electric intensity would be
1) E/2 2) E 3) 2 E 4) 4 E
Sol: E1 (Conducting)
0
E (Non conducting)
2 0
85. Two thin infinite parallel sheets (non conducting) have uniform surface densities of charge and
.Electric field in the space between the two sheets is
1) / 0 2) / 2 0 3) 2 / 0 4) Zero
Sol: E 1
2 0 2 0 0
86. The magnitude of the electric field on the surface of a sphere of radius r having a uniform surface
charge density σ is
q
1) / 0 2) / 2 0 3) E 2
4) / 4 0
4 0 r 0
q
Sol: E 4 r 2
0
q
E 2
4 0 r 0
87. Two infinitely long thin straight wires having uniform linear charge densities and 2 are arranged
parallel to each other at a distance r apart. The intensity of the electric field at a point midway
between them is
2 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
0 r 0 r 2 0 r 2 0 r
2
Sol: E= E2 E1
r r 0 r
2 0 2 0
2 2
88. Two parallel plane sheets 1 and 2 carry uniform charge densities 1 and 2 as shown in fig. electric
field in the region marked II is (1 2 )
1)
1 2 2)
1 2
2 0 2 0
2
3) 1
2
4) 1
2 0 2 0
1 2
Sol: E1 E2
2 0 2 0
2
E= E1 E2 = 1
2 0
89. An electric dipole of moment ‘p’ is placed in an electric field of intensity ‘E’. The dipole acquires a
position such that the axis of the dipole makes an angle with the direction of the field. Assuming
that the potential energy of the dipole to be zero when 900 , the torque and the potential energy of
the dipole will respectively be
1) pE sin , pE cos 2) pE sin , 2 pE cos
3) pE sin , 2 pE cos 4) pE cos , pE cos
Sol : pE sin
U pE cos
Key :1
90. Two electric dipoles of moment P and 64P are placed in opposite direction on a line at a distance of
25cm. The electric field will be zero at point between the dipoles whose distance from the dipole of
moment P is
25 4
1) 5 cm 2) cm 3) 10cm 4) cm
9 13
Sol : Suppose neutral point N lies at a distance x from dipole of moment p or at a distance (25-x) from
dipole of 64p.
p 64 p
1 2
x
25cm
At N |E.F. due to dipole (1) |=|E.F. due to dipole (2)|
1 2P 1 2 64 p
. 3 .
4 0 x 4 0 25 x 3
1 64
3
3
x 5cm
x 25 x
Key :1
91. An electric dipole of length 1 cm is placed with the axis making an angle of 300 to an electric field of
strength 104 NC 1 . If it experiences a torque of 10 2 Nm, the potential energy of the dipole is
1) 0.245 J 2) 2.45 J 3) 0.245J 4) 24.5 J
Sol : U PE cos
U min PE
00
Key :4
92. Figure shows electric field lines in which an electric dipole P is placed as shown. Which of the
following statements is correct
1) The dipole will not experience any force
2) The dipole will experience a force towards right
3) The dipole will experience a force towards left
4) The dipole will experience a force upwards
Sol : The space between the electric field lines is increasing, here from left to right and its characteristics
states that, strength of electric field decreases with the increases in the space between electric field
lines. As a result force on charges also decreases from left to right.
Thus, the force on charge -q is greater than force on charge +q in turn dipole will experience a force
towards left.
Key :3
93. An electric dipole has a fixed dipole moment p , which makes angle with respect to x-axis. When
subjected to an electric field E1 Ei , it experiences a torque T 1 k . When subjected to another
electric field E 2 3E j it experiences a torque T 2 T 1 . The angle is
1
0
1) 90 2) 300 3) 450 4) 600
Sol : For 1st case
Key :4
94. If Ea be the electric field strength of a short dipole at a point on its axial line and Ee that on the
equatorial line at the same distance, then
1) Ee 2Ea 2) Ea 2 Ee 3) Ea Ee 4) Ea 4 Ee
Sol: Ea 2Ee
95. Electric charges q, q, -2q are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle ABC of side l . The
magnitude of electric dipole moment of the system is
1) ql 2) 2ql 3) 3ql 4) 4ql
Sol: P1 2 P cos
2
60
2 P cos
2
3P
3ql
96. An electric dipole of moment p is placed with its centre at the origin along the x-axis. The electric
field at a point P, whose position vector makes an angle with the x-axis, will make an angle ….
With the x-axis, when tan tan / 2
1) 2) 3) 4) 2
y
x
OH
dipole
Sol:
97. An electric dipole is placed among the x-axis at the origin O. A point P is at a distance of 20cm from
this origin such that OP makes an angle / 3 with the x-axis. If the electric filed at P makes an angle
with the x-axis, the value of would be
3 2 3
1) 2) tan 1 3) 4) tan 1
3 3 2 3 2
cm
20
/3
Sol:
3
1
Where tan tan
2 3
3
Tan 1
2
3
tan 1
3 2
98. For a dipole q 2 106 C and d 0.01m . Calculate the maximum torque for this dipole
( E 5 105 N / C ).
1) 1103 Nm 2) 10 103 Nm 3) 10 102 Nm 4) 1 102 Nm
Sol: max PE
2 10 6 10 2 5 10 5
10 10 3 Nm
99. Two electric dipoles of moment P and 64P are placed opposite direction on a line at a distance of
25cm. The electric field will be zero at a point between the dipoles with a distance from the dipole of
moment P is
25 4
1) 5cm 2) cm 3) 10 cm 4) cm
9 13
1 2P 1 2 64 P
Sol:
4 0 x 3
4 0 25 x 3
3
1
4
3 3
x 25 x
1 4
x 25 x
25 x 4 x
5 x 25 x 5cm
100. The electric field at a point on equatorial line of a dipole and direction of the dipole moment
1) will be parallel 2) will be in opposite direction
3) will be perpendicular 4) Are not related
Sol: The electric field at a point on equatorial line of a dipole and direction of the dipole moment will be in
opposite direction
101. The inward and outward electric flux for a closed surface in units of N m2 / C are respectively
8 103 and 4 103 . Then the total charge inside the surface is (where 0 permittivity constant]
1) 4 103 C 2) 4 103 C 3)
4 10 C
3
4) 4 103 0C
1
Sol : By Gauss’s law [Q enclosed]
0
Qenclosed 0 8 103 4 103 0
4 103 0 Coulomb
Key :4
102. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If is the electric flux in units of volt-meter
associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in units of volt-meter
will be
B
C A
1 q q q
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 0 2 0 3 0
q
Sol : total A B C
0
B and A C ' [assumed]
q 1 q
2 ' '
0 2 0
Key :1
103. The total electric flux through a cube when a charge 8q is placed at one corner of the cube is
q
1) 0 q 2) 0 3) 4 0 q 4)
q 0
Sol : Change 8q is placed at one corner of the cube, it can be imagined to be placed at the centre of a
large cube which can be formed using 8 similar cubes and arranging them
New 8q is at centre of the 8 cubes arranged to form a closed box.
Total flux through the bigger cube
8q
[Gauss’s law]
0
1 8q q
Flux through one small cube =
8 0 0
Key :4
104. A linear charge having linear charge density , penetrates a cube diagonally and then it penetrate a
sphere diametrically as shown. What will be the ratio of flux coming cut of cube and sphere
1 2 3 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 2 1
Sol :
Key :3
105. A charge 10C is placed at the centre of a hemisphere of radius R = 10cm as shown. The electric
flux through the hemisphere (in MKS units) is
1) 20 105 2) 10 105 3) 6 105 4) 2 105
q
Sol : Electric flux through the sphere =
0
1 q
Electric flux through the hemisphere =
2 0
Key :3
106. An electric charge q is placed at the center of a cube of side l. The electric flux through one of its
faces will be
q q q q
1) 2) 3) 4) 2
0 6 0 0l
2
4 0l
Sol:
q q
q
0 n 0 6 0
107. A point charge q is placed at one corner of a cube of edge a. The flux through each of the cube faces
is.
q q q q
1) 2) 3) 4)
0 16 0 24 0 48 0
Sol:
q 1 q
q
0 3 8 0 24 0
108. A hemispherical body of radius ‘R’ is placed in a uniform electric field ‘E’ If the field E is parallel to
the base of the hemisphere the flux linked with it is
1) 2πRE 2) 2πR2E 3) πR2E 4) Zero
Sol: ES cos90 0
109. The length, and radius of cylinder are ‘L’ and ‘R’ respectively. The total flux for the surface of the
cylinder, when it is placed in a uniform electric field ‘E’ parallel to the axis of the cylinder is
2
2 R
1)Zero 2) 2πR2E 3) 4) R 2 E
E
Sol: ES cos90 0
110. If the electric flux entering and leaving an enclosed surface respectively is 1 and, 2 the electric
charges inside the surface will be
1) (1 2 ) / 0 2) (1 2 ) / 0
3) (1 2 ) 0 4) (2 1 ) 0
Sol: Inward flux is negative and outward flux is positive
total
q
2 1
0
q (
1 ) 0
2
111. A charge Q is placed at the mouth of a conical flask. The flux of the electric field through the flask is
Q Q
1) Zero 2) Q / 0 3) 4) <
2 0 2 0
Sol:
q Q
(Imagine Gaussian surface)
0 2 0
112. The Gaussian surface for calculating the electric field due to a charge distribution is
1) Any closed surface around the charge distribution
2) Any surface near the charge distribution
3) A spherical surface
4) A closed surface at a every point of which electric field has a normal component which is zero or
a fixed value
Sol: Conceptual
113. Charge of 2C is placed at the centre of a cube. What is the electric flux passing through one face?
1 1 2 3
1) 2) 0 3) 4)
(3 0 ) 4 0 0
Sol:
q 2
1
0 6 0 3 0
114. A point charge +q is placed at mid point of a cube of side ‘L’. The electric flux emerging from
the cube is
2
1) q 2) 6qL 3) q 2 4) zero
0 6L 0
Sol:
q
0
115. A charged ball hangs from silk thread which makes an angle ‘θ’ with large charged conducting
sheet ‘P’ as shown. The surface charge density (σ) of the sheet is proportional to
1) cos 2) cot 3) sin 4) tan
F mg tan Eq q
Sol: 0
tan
116. A charge Q is distributed uniformly on a ring of radius r. a sphere of equal radius r is constructed
with its centre at the periphery of the ring as shown in the figure. Find the flux of the electric field
through the surface of the sphere.
Q 3q q
1) 2) 3) 4) zero
3 0 0 2 0
Sol: q1 = Q/3 θ=120°
q Q
0 3 0
117. The electric field in a region is given by E ( x)i .Here is a constant of proper dimensions
x l , x 2l , y 0, y l , z 0, z l
The charge contained inside the above cube is
1) 2 0 l 3 2) 0 l 3 3) 4 0 l 3 4) 3 0 l 3
Sol:
L ( x )S ( l )l 2
R ( x) S ( 2l )l 2
R L l 3
Q l 3 0
118. A long string with a charge of per unit length passes through an imaginary cube of edge a. The
maximum flux of the electric field through the cube will be
1) a / 0 2) 2 a / 0 3) 6 a 2 / 0 4) 3 a / 0
q q q 3a
Sol: ;
x 3a 0 0
119. For a closed surface the flux associated is .On adding 75 C to it becomes 4 . find out initial
charge enclosed by surface
1) 50 C 2) 25C 3) 125C 4) 50C
2 Q2 45 Q
Sol: 4 Q 25 c
1 Q3 Q
120. There is a square Gaussian surface placed in yz plane. Its axis is along
x- axis and centre is at origin. Two identical charges, each Q, are placed at point ( a, 0, 0 ) and
(-a, 0, 0). Each sided length of square is 2a then electric flux passing through the square is:-
Q Q Q
1) 2 ) 3 ) 4)zero
6 0 3 0 12 0
Sol: 90
ES cos90 0
121. A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If is the electric flux
In unit of V-m associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked within
the plane surface A is unit of V-m will be
q q 1 q
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 0 3 0 2 0
q
Sol: total A B C
0
1 q
A A B
2 0
122. In a uniform electric field find the total flux associated with the given surface (R is radius)
1) a 0, b 0, c 0 2) a 0, b R 2 E , c 0
3) a 2 RE , b R 2 E , c 0 4) a R 2 E , b 0, c 0
Key: 1
Sol: a 0, b 0, c 0
123. Deutron and -particle are put 1A0 apart in Air. Magnitude of intensity of electric field due to
deuteron at -particle is (N/C)
1) Zero 2) 2.88 1011 3) 1.44 1011 4) 5.76 1011
1 q 9 109 1.6 1019
Sol: E
4 0 r 2 1020
1.44 1011
124. A thin metallic spherical shell contains a charge Q on it. A point charge q is placed at the centre of
shell and another charge q1 is placed outside it as shown in figure. All the three charges are positive.
The force on the charge at the centre is
1) towards left 2) towards right 3) upward 4) zero
Sol : The metallic spherical shell acts as a shield and do not allow the electric field outside to penetrate through
it. Hence, electric field inside shell due to Q and q1 is zero. Hence, no force will act on charge q.
Key : 4
125. A point charge Q is placed outside a hollow spherical conductor of radius R, at a distance r r R
from its centre C. The field at C due to the induced charges on the conductor is
Q
1) zero 2) k 2
r R
Q Q
3) k , directed towards Q 4) k , directed away from Q
r2 r2
Q
Sol : The electric field at centre is zero. Due to Q, electric field will be k 2 away from Q, to balance this
r
Q
field, induced charge will produce electric field k 2 towards Q, so that net electric field is zero.
r
Key :3
126. A positive charge q is placed in front of a conducting solid cube at a distance d from its centre. The
electric field at the centre of the cube due to the charges appearing on its surface
1 q 1 2q 1 3q 1 4q
1) . 2 2) . 2 3) . 2 4) .
4 0 d 4 0 d 4 0 d 4 0 d 2
Sol : Since field inside a conductor is always 0. Hence field due to charge q and those appearing at surface
should cancel each other. Hence, the magnitude of field at center due to charges appearing at surfaces
q
is E
4 0 d 2
Key :1
127. Two large, parallel conducting plates X and Y, kept close to each other, are given Q1 and Q2
Q1 Q2 . The four surfaces of the plates are A, B, C and D as shown
1 1
i) The charge on A is Q1 Q2 ii) The charge on B is Q1 Q2
2 2
1 1
iii) The charge on C is Q2 Q1 iv) The charge on D is Q1 Q2
2 2
1) (i), (ii) 2) (ii), (iii) 3) (ii), (iv) 4) All
Sol : The outer surfaces of extreme plates have same charge (total charge/2), facing surfaces have equal
and opposite charges
Key : 4
128. Three identical metal plates with large surface areas are kept parallel to each other as shown in figure.
The leftmost plate is given a charge Q, the rightmost a charge 2Q and the middle one remains
neutral. The charge appearing on the outer surface of the rightmost plate is
Q Q Q Q
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 2 4
Q 2Q Q
Sol : The charge on outer surfaces of extreme plates = total charge/2
2 2
Key : 3
129. The electric field due to a uniformly charged sphere of radius R as a function of the distance from its
centre is represented graphically is
1) 2) 3) 4)
R3
Sol : Einside r r R , Eoutside r r R i.e., inside the uniformly charged sphere field varies
3 0 3 0 r 2
1
E r with distance and outside varies according to E 2
r
Key : 2
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENTS
DAY – 12 (DT 17-04-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Chapter : ELECTRIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
===================================================================
1. A hexagon of side 8 cm has a charge 4 µC at each of its vertices. The potential at the centre of the
hexagon
1) 2.7 × 106 V 2) 7.2 × 1011 V 3) 2.5 × 1012 V 4) 3.4× 104 V
Sol:
The potential at O is
q 6 9 10 9 4 10 6
V 6
4 0 r 8 1 0 2
2.7 10 6 V
2. A spherical shell of radius 10 cm is carrying a charge q. If the electric potential at distance 5cm, 10 cm
and 15 cm from the centre of the spherical shell is V1, V2 and V3 respectively, then
1) V1 < V2 < V3 2) V1 = V2 < V3 3) V1 > V2 > V3 4) V1 = V2 > V3
Sol:
1 q
V in sid e V su rfa c e
4 0 R
and V 1 q
o u ts id e
4 0 R
Where q is the charge on the shell and R its radius.
V1 V 2 V 3
3. A large solid sphere with uniformly distributed positive charge has a smooth narrow tunnel through its
centre. A small particle with negative charge, initially at rest far from the sphere approaches it along the
of the tunnel, reaches its surface with a speed v, and passes through the tunnel. Its speed at the centre of
the sphere will be
1) 0 2) v 3) 2v 4) 1.5v
Sol: Potential at ∞, V∞ = 0
Potential at the surface of the sphere, V k Q
S
R
Potential at the centre of the sphere, V k Q
3
C
2 R
Let m and –q be the mass and the charge of the particle respectively.
Let v0 = speed of the particle at the centre of the sphere
1 Q
m v 2 = -q [V -V s ] q k
2 R
1 3 Q
m v 0 2 = -q [V -V c ] q . k
2 2 R
2
Dividing v 0 3 1 . 5 o r v 1 .5 v
0
v2 2
4. n identical droplets are charged to V volt each. If they coalesce to form a single drop, then its potential
will be
2/3 1/3
1) n V 2) n V 3) nV 4) V /n
Sol: Vol. of big drop = n×vol. of small drop
4 4
R3 n r 3
3 3
R n1/3 r
Qbig nqsmall
1 Q 1 nq
Potential of big drop
4 0 R 4 0 n1/3 r
1 q
n 2/3 n2/3 Potential of small drop
4 0 r
5. The radii of two concentric spherical conducting shells are r1 and r2 (>r1). The charge on the outer shell
is q. The charge on the inner shell which is connected to the earth is:-
1) r1 q 2) r2 q 3) q 4) zero
r2 r1
Sol:
V= 0 as it is earthed.
When the potential of the inner one is zero
1 q Q
0
i.e 4 0 r2 r1
r
Q q 1
r2
6. A hollow sphere of radius 0.1 m has a charge of 5×10-8 C. The potential at a distance of 5cm from the
centre of the sphere is 1 9 10 9 N m 2 C 2
4 0
1) 4000 V 2) 4500 V 3) 5000 V 4) 6000 V
-8
Sol: R = 0.1 m, q=5×10 C
Since sphere is hollow then potential at any distance from the centre of sphere will be same as the
potential at surface of the sphere
1 Q 5 1 0 8
V 9 109
4 0 R 0 .1
4 5 1 0 2 4 5 0 0V
7. Two concentric spheres of radii R and r have positive charges q1 and q2 with equal surface charge
densities. The electric potential at their common centre
1) ( R r ) 2) (R r) 3) 1 1 4) R
0 0
0 R r 0 r
Sol:
1 2
q1
2
or q1 4 R 2
4 R
Electric potential at the common centre O is V= V1+V2
1 q1 1 q2 1 q1 q2
4 0 R 4 0 r 4 0 R r
1 4R2 4r2 4
[(R r)] (R r)
4 0 R r 4 0 0
8. Four point charge-Q, -q, 2q and 2Q are placed, one at each corner of the square. The relation between Q
and q for which the potential at the centre of the square is zero
1) Q = -q 2) Q 1 3) Q = q 4) Q 1
q q
Sol:
Potential at the centre O due to given charge configuration is
Q+q = 0 or Q = -q
9. A hallow metal ball 8 cm in diameter is given a charge -4×10-8 C. The potential on the surface of the
ball is
1) 0 2) -90 V 3) -9000 V 4) -900 V
Sol: Here diameter of a ball, D=8cm radius of a ball
D 8
R cm 4 cm 4 10 2 m
2 2
Potential on the surface of the ball is
1 q 9 109 (4 108 )
V 9000 V
4 0 R 4 102
10. If a charged spherical conductor of radius 10 cm has potential V at a point distant 5 cm from its centre,
then the potential at a point distant 15 cm from the centre will be
1) V 2)
2 3)
3 4) 3V
V V
3 3 2
Sol: The electric potential inside the conductor is same as that at the surface. Hence,
1 q 1 q
V
4 0 R 4 0 1 0
Outside potential is given by
1 q 2 1 q 2V
V '
4 0 1 5 3 4 0 10 3
11. Four electric charges +q, +q, -q and –q are placed at the corners of a square of side 2L (see figure). The
electric potential at point A, midway between the two charges +q and +q, is
1) 1 2q 1 2q 1 1 2q 1
(1 5) 2) 1 3)
1
4) Zero
40 L 40 L 5 4 0 L 5
Sol: A is the midpoint of PS
Electric potential at point A due to the given charge configuration is
1 q q ( q ) ( q )
V A PA AS AQ AR
4 0
1 q q q q
L L
4 0 L 5 L 5
1 2q 2q 1 2q 1
4 1
4 0 L L 5 0 L
5
12. Two equal and opposite point charges each of one coulomb are placed at a distance of one metre from
each other. The potential at a point midway between the two point charges will be
1) zero volt 2) 2 volt 3) 1 volt 4) 2 volt
Sol: Potential is a scalar quantity
Potential at point O due to the given charge distribution is
1 1 ( 1)
V zero volt
4 0 0.5 0.5
13. In the case of a hollow metallic sphere, without any charge inside the sphere, electric potential (V)
changes with respect to distance (r) from the centre as
Key: 2
Sol: Electric potential due to a hollow metallic sphere having radius R at a distance r from the centre o the
sphere is
(i) For r < R, V 1 q
4 0 R
(ii) For r = R, V 1 q
4 0 R
(iii) For r > R, V 1 q
4 0 R
The variation of V with respect to r as shown in the figure
14. A conducting spherical shell of inner radius 2R and outer radius 3R has a positive point charge q located
at its centre. The electric potential at point P, which is at a distance 6 R from its centre as shown in the
7
figure
1 q 1 q 1 q 1 6q
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 0 3R 4 0 2 R 4 0 R 4 0 7 R
Sol:
The electric potential at point P is
1 q q q
V P 6
4 2 R 3 R
0 R
7
1 7 3 2 1 q
VP
4 0 R 6 4 R
0
15. A cube of side b has a charge q at each of its vertices. The potential due to this charge array at the centre
of the cube is
1) zero 2) 4q 3) q 4) 4q
3 0 b 0 b 0 b
Sol: All the eight charges are symmetrically situated at the eight vertices of the cube, each at a distance r
equal to half the longest diagonal from the centre.
Length of the longest diagonal of the cube,
d b2 b2 b2 3b
Hence, r d 3
b
2 2
Potential at the centre of the cube due to all the eight charges
Is, 1 q 1 q 4q
V 8 . 8
40 R R 40 R 1 30b
b
2
16. The electrostatic potential of a uniformly charged thin spherical shell of charge Q and radius R at a
distance r from the centre is
1) Q for points outside and Q for points inside the shell
4 0 r 4 0 R
2) Q for both points inside and outside the shell
4 0 r
Q
3) zero for points outside and for point inside the shell
4 0 r
4) zero for both points inside and outside the shell
Sol: For all points inside a charged spherical shell, electrostatic potential is constant and is equal to that at
the surface i.e, Q .
4 0 R
For points outside the shell V Q
4 0 r
17. 6 charges +q, -q, +q, -q, +q, -q are placed in the same order at the vertices of a regular hexagon. The
electric field and potential at the centre of hexagon is
1) E = 0, V = 0 2) E ≠ 0, V ≠ 0 3) E = 0, V ≠ 0 4) E ≠ 0, V = 0
Sol:
O be the centre and a be the side of a regular hexagon
Resultant electric field at point O is = zero
Potential at point O due to the given chare configuration is zero
Zq = 0
Q q q q q q q
V 0
4 0 r a a a a a a
18. Three charges 2q, -q, -q are located at the vertices of an equilateral triangle. At the circum centre of the
triangle
1) the field is zero but potential is non zero 2) potential is zero and the field is infinity
3) both the field and potential are zero 4) the field is non zero but potential is zero
Sol:
The field due to +2q will be acting on unit positive charge kept at O along the direction AO, vertically
downwards. The two negative charges at B and C will be pulling the positive charge towards B and C.
Their horizontal components will cancel each other but their vertical components will be also acting
downwards.
Hence net electric field non zero
However the potential of 2 q 2 q and for negative charges q
q
4 0 .r 4 0 .r 4 0 .r
T o ta l V 0
19. 4 points charges each +q is placed on the circumference of a circle of diameter 2d in such a way that
they form a square. The potential at the centre is
1 4d 1 2q
1) 0 2) 1 4q 3) 4)
4 0 d 4 0 q 4 0 d
Sol: Potential at centre due to all charges are
Diagram
1 q q q q
4 0 d d d d
1 4q
4 0 d
20. Nature of equipotential surface for a point charge is
1) Ellipsoid with charge at foci
2) Sphere with charge at the centre of the sphere
3) Sphere with charge on the surface of the sphere
4) Plane with charge in the surface
Sol: Conceptual
21. The work done in carrying a charge q once around a circle of radius ‘a’ with a charge Q at its centre is
1) qQ 2) qQ 3) q 4) zero
4 0 a 4 0 a 2 4 0 a
Sol:
The electrical potential at any point on circle of radius a due to charge Q at its centre is
1 Q
V
4 0 a
It is an equipotential surface.
Hence, work done in carrying a charge q round the circle is zero
22. A rod with linear charge density is bent in the shape of circular ring. The electric potential at the
centre of the circular ring is.
2
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 0 2 0 0 0
q q
l 2 r
Sol:
1 q
V
4 0 r 2 0
23. When a positively charged conductor is placed near an earth connected conductor, its potential
1) Always increase 2) Always decreases
3) May increase or decrease 4) Remains the same
Sol: Conceptual
24. When ‘n’ small drops are made to combine to form a big drop, then the big drop’s
1) Potential increases to n1/2 times original potential and the charge density decreases to n1/3 times
original charge density
2) Potential increases to n2/3 times original potential and the charge density decreases to n1/3 times
original charge density
3) Potential and charge density decreases to n1/3 times original values
4) Potential and charge density increases to n times original values
Sol: R3 nr 3
1
R n3r
1 q
Vsmall
4 0 r
2
Q
VBig 1 V 3 small
4 0 R
25. A small sphere with mass 1.2g hangs by a thread between two parallel vertical plates 5.00cm apart. The
plates are insulating and have uniform surface charge densities and . The charge on the sphere is
q 9 106 C . What potential difference between the plates will cause the thread to assume an angle of
370 with the vertical as shown in figure?
1) 30V 2) 12V 3) 50V 4) 25V
Sol : F mg tan
Eq mg tan
Vq
mg tan
d
d 0.05m 1.2 103 Kg 10ms 2 tan 370
V mg tan =50V
q 9 106 C
Key : 3
26. A point charge q is placed inside a conducting spherical shell of inner radius 2R and outer radius 3R at a
distance of R from the centre of the shell. Find the electric potential at the centre of the shell.
1 q 1 4q 1 5q 1 2q
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 0 2 R 4 0 3R 4 0 6 R 4 0 3R
Sol :
kq kq kq kq 1 1 5kq
V 1
R 2 R 3R R 2 3 6 R
Key : 3
27. Two electric charges 12 C and 6C are placed 20cm apart in air. There will be a point P on the line
joining these charges and outside the region between them, at which the electric potential is zero. The
distance of P from 6C charge is
1) 0.10m 2) 0.15m 3) 0.20m 4) 0.25m
Sol :
Key : 3
28. Figure shows three circular arcs, each of radius R and total charge as indicated. The net electric potential
at the centre of curvature is
Q 5Q 3Q 3Q
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 0 R 12 0 R 32 0 R 2 0 R
Sol : Charge can be considered as located at a distance R from the centre. Total charge is Q 2Q 3Q 2Q
1 2Q Q
Hence V
4 0 R 2 0 R
Key : 1
29. Eight charged water drops, each with a radius of 1mm and a charge of 1010 C , coalesce to form a single
drop. The potential of the big is
1) 3.6V 2) 36V 3) 360V 4) 3600V
Sol :
1 q 9 109 1010
V 900V
4 0 r 103
V ' n 2/3V 82/3 900 3600V
Key : 4
30. In an isolated parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C, the four surface have charges Q1 , Q2 , Q3 and Q4
as shown. The potential difference between the plates is
Q1 Q2 Q3 Q4 Q Q3 Q Q3 Q Q4
1) 2) 2 3) 2 4) 1
2C 2C 2C 2C
Sol : Plane conducting surfaces facing each other must have equal and opposite charge densities. Here as the
plate areas are equal, Q2 Q3
The charge on a capacitor means the charge on the inner surface of the positive plate (here it is Q2 )
Potential difference between the plates
Charge Q 2Q
2 2
Capacitance C 2C
Q Q2 Q2 Q3
2
2C 2C
Key : 3
31. An uncharged conductor A is brought near a positively charged conductor B . Then
1) The charge on B will increase, but the potential of B will not change
2) The charge on B will not change, but the potential of B will decrease
3) The charge on B will decrease, but the potential of B will not change
4) The charge on B will not change, but the potential of B will increase
Sol : Charge will be induce on A, but total charge on A will remain zero. Negative charge of A will be more
closer to b than positive charge on A. So potential of B will decrease
Key :2
32. The diagram below show regions of equipotentials
A positive charge is moved from A to B in each diagram
1) In all the four cases the work done is the same
2) Minimum work is required to move q in figure (I)
3) Maximum work is required to move q in figure (II)
4) Maximum work is required to move q in figure (III)
Sol: Work done is given as W q V in all the four cases the potential difference from A to b is same
In all the four cases the work done is same
33. Identify the wrong statement
1) Equipotential surface due to a single point charge is spherical
2) Equipotential surface can be constructed for dipoles too
3) The electric field is normal to the equipotential surface through the point
4) The work done to move a test charge on the equipotential surface is positive
Sol: The work done to move a test charge on the equipotential surface is zero
Except (d) all other statements are correct
34. A charge Q is placed at the centre Work done in moving a charge q, from A to B so as to complete a
semicircle is
1) Qq 2) zero 3) 4) Qq
0 R 2 0 R 4 0 R
Sol:
If a charge is moved from one point to another over an equipotential work done be zero
35. There is an electric field in +X - direction. If the work done on moving a charge of 0.2C through a
distance of 2m along a line making an angle of 600 with +X – axis is 4J. The value of E in NC-1 is
1) 3 2) 4 3) 20 4) 60
Sol: W= F.dx = Eq dx cos
1
4 E 0.2 2
2
E 20
36. When a positive charge q is taken from lower potential to a higher potential point, then its potential
energy will
1) decrease 2) increase 3) remain unchanged 4) become zero
Sol: PE = Work done by external agent
= (Vf q Vi q),Vf V1 PE 0 i.e., PE will increase
37. An electric dipole when placed in a uniform electric field E will have minimum potential energy if the
dipole moment makes the following angle with E
1) 2) / 2 3) zero 4) 3 /2
0
Sol: U = -pE cos , U is minimum at = 0
38. Two positive point charges of 12µC and 8µC are 10 cm apart. The work done in bringing them 4cm
apart is
1) 5.8 J 2) 5.8 eV 3) 13 J 4) 13 eV
Sol: Work done, W U U 9 109 Q Q 1 1
f i 1 2
r2 r1
1 1
W9109 12106 8106 2 2
410 1010
1 2 .9 6 J 1 3 J
0
39. The electrostatic potential energy between proton and electron separated by a distance 1 is A is
1) 13.6 eV 2) 27.2eV 3) -14.4eV 4) 1.44 eV
Sol: Electric potential energy, U 1 q q
1 2
4 0 d
(9 10 ) (1.610 ) (1.61019 )J
9 19
U
1010
9 1 0 1 .6 1 0 9 e V 1 4 .4 e V
9
40. Three identical charges each of 2µC are place at the vertices of a triangle ABC as shown in the figure. If
AB+AC=12 cm and AB.AC = 32cm2, the potential energy of the charge at A is
1) 1.53 J 2) 5.31 J 3) 3.15 J 4) 1.35 J
Sol: We have AB+AC=12 cm
AB.AC=32 cm2
A B A C ( A B ) AC )2
AB AC 4
From Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
AB = 8 cm, AC = 4cm
Potential energy at point A.
1 1 1
UA q1 q 2
4 0 AB A C
9 109 4 1012 1 1
1.35J
102 8 4
41. If three charges are place at the vertices of equilateral triangle of charge q each. The net potential
energy, if the side of equilateral is l.
2 2 2 2
1) 1 q 2) 1 2 q 3) 1 3 q 4) 1 4 q
4 0 l 4 0 l 4 0 l 4 0 l
Sol: Potential energy, U 1 Q1 Q 2 Q Q Q Q
2 3 1 2
4 0 r1 r2 r3
Net potential energy , U 3 q2
n et .
4 0 l
42. Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side / as shown in the
figure. If the net electrostatic energy of the system is zero. Then Q is equal to
1) q 2) q 3) q 4) zero
2
Sol: Potential energy of the system,
Qq Kq2 K qQ
U K 0
l l l
Kq q
(Q q Q ) 0 Q
l 2
43. If identical charges (-q) are placed at each corner of a cube of side b, then electric potential energy of
charge (+q) which is placed at centre of the cube will be
2 2 2 2
1) 8 2 q 2) 8 2 q 3) 4 2 q 4) 4 q
4 0 b 0b 0b 3 0 b
Sol: Length of the diagonal of a cube having each side b is
3b. So, distance of centre of cube from each vertex is 3
23
Hence, potential energy of the given system of charge is
1 1( q ) ( q ) 4q 2
U 8 .
4 0 3b / 2 3 0 b
44. In an electron gun, electrons are accelerated through a potential difference of V volt. Taking electronic
charge and mass to be respectively ‘e’ and ‘m’, the maximum velocity attained by them is
2eV 2eV 2m V2
1) 2) 3) 4)
m m eV 2em
1 2
Sol: Ve mv
2
2eV
v
m
45. The work done (in joule) in carrying a charge of ‘X’ coulomb between two points having a potential
difference of ‘Y’ volte is
X X2 Y
1) 2) 3) 4) XY
Y Y X
Sol: W=VQ
46. When an alpha-particle is acceleration by a PD of 3 volt, its energy is
1) 1eV 2) 5eV 3) 3eV 4) 6eV
Sol: W Ve 3ev
47. Two charged particles having charge 1 C and -1 C and of mass 50g each are held at rest while their
separation is 2m. Now the charges are released. Find the speed of the particles when their separation is
1m.
1 3 3 2
1) ms 1 2) ms 1 3) ms 1 4) ms 1
5 5 10 7
Sol : Applying law of conservation of mechanical energy, we get
9 109 1012 9 109 1012 1 3
2m v 2 v ms 1
2 1 2 10
Key : 3
48. A 100eV electron is projected directly towards a large metal plate that has surface charge density of
2.0 106 Cm2 . From what distance must the electron be projected, if it is to just fail to strike that plate?
1) 0.44mm 2) 0.2mm 3) 1mm 4) 0.3mm
Sol : Electric field due to large metal plate is . Since the electron has energy of 100eV, so it can cross a
0
potential difference of 100V only. So 100 d
0
2.0 106
100 d d 0.44mm
8.85 1012
Key : 1
49. Four equal charges Q are placed at the four corners of a square of each side is a. Work done in removing a
charge -Q from its centre to infinity is
2Q 2 2Q 2 Q2
1) 0 2) 3) 4)
4 0 a 0 a 2 0 a
1 Q 4 2Q
VC 4
4 0 a / 2 4 0 a
Sol . Potential at centre of square =
4 2Q 4 2Q 2
W Q 0
4 0 a 4 0 a
Potential at infinite distance V 0
4 2Q 4 2Q 2
Require work W Q 0
4 0 a 4 0 a
Key : 3
50. An electron having charge e and mass m starts from the lower plate of two metallic plates separated by a
distance d. If the potential difference between the plates is V, the time taken by the electron to reach the
upper plate is given by
2md 2 md 2 md 2 2md 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
eV eV 2eV eV
Sol :
V eV
E , F eE
d d
F eV
a
m md
1 2 2d 2d md 2md 2
d at t
2 a eV eV
Key :1
51. If potential (in volts) in a region is expressed as V(x, y, z) = 6xy-y+2yz, the electric field (in N/C) at
point (1, 1, 0) is
1) (2iˆ 3 ˆj kˆ) 2) (6iˆ 9 ˆj kˆ) 3) (3iˆ 5 ˆj 3kˆ) 4) (6iˆ 5 ˆj 2kˆ)
Sol: The electric field E and potential V in a region are placed as
V ˆ V ˆ V ˆ
E i j k
x y z
Here, V(x, y, z) 6xy-y+2yz
E (6xy y 2 yz)iˆ (6xy y 2yz) ˆj (6xy y 2 yz)kˆ
x x x
ˆ
[(6y)iˆ (6x 1 2z)k (2y)k] ˆ
At point(1,1,0), E [(6(1)iˆ (6(1) 1 2(0) ˆj (2(1))kˆ]
(6iˆ 5 ˆj 2kˆ)
52. A proton released from rest in a uniform electric field of magnitude 8.0×104 V/m, directed along
positive x-axis. The proton undergoes a displacement of 0.30 m in the direction of the field. The change
in electric potential of the proton as a result of this displacement
1)2.4×104 V 2) 4.8 × 104 V 3) -2.4×104 V 4) -1.2 × 104 V
4 ˆ
Sol: E 8 .0 1 0 i V / m
d r 0 .3 0 iˆ m
Change in electric potential, d V E .d r
(8.0 104 iˆ).0.30iˆ 2.4 104 V
53. A particle of mass 1.96 × 10-15 kg is kept in equilibrium between two horizontal metal plates having
potential difference of 400 V separated apart by 0.02m. Then the charge on the particle is (e = electronic
charge)
1) 3e 2) 6e 3) 2e 4) 5e
Sol:
mg
qE m g or q
E
(1 .9 6 1 0 kg )(9 .8 m s 2 )
15
q
(2 1 0 4 V m 1 )
6 e ( e 1 .6 1 0 1 9 C )
54. A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric field. The electric potential is
1) maximum at C 2) same at all the three points A. B and C
3) maximum at A 4) maximum at B
Sol: In the direction of electric field, electric potential decreases
VB VC V A
55. A uniform electric field in the plane of the paper as shown, Here A, B, C, D are the points on the circle.
V1, V2, V3, V4 are the potentials at those points respectively. Then
1) VA = VC, VB = VD 2) VA = VC, VB > VD 3) VA > VC, VB > VD 4) VA = VB, VC > VD
Sol:
In direction of electric field, electrical potential decreases.
VC V A VD or
VC V D ,V A V B
56. The electric field in a certain region is given by E (5iˆ 3 ˆj ) kV/m .The potential difference (VB-VA)
between points A and B, having coordinates (4, 0, 3) n and (10, 3, 0) m respectively, is equal to
1) 21 kV 2) -21 kV 3) 39 kV 4) -39 kV
Sol: r
Here, V V E .dr
B (10,3,0)
B A (5iˆ 3 ˆj ).( dxiˆ dyjˆ dzkˆ )
RA ( 4,0,3)
5(10 4) 3(3 0) 30 9 21kV
57. The electric potential V at any point (x, y, z), all in metres in space is given by V= 4x2 volt. The electric
field at the point (1, 0, 2) in volt/meter, is
1) 8 along negative X-axis 2) 8 along positive X-axis
3) 16 along
negative X-axis 4) 16 along positive X-axis
E V
Sol:
w h e r e iˆ ˆj kˆ
x y z
E iˆ ˆj kˆ
x y z
Here, V 4x 2 , E 8x
Theelectric field at point (1,0,2) is
E (1 , 0 , 2 ) 8 iˆ V m 1
So electric field is along he negative X-axis
58. Charges +q,-q,+q,-q are placed on the vertices of a square ABCD respectively Let E be the electric
field and V the potential at the centre. If the charges on A and Care inter charged with those on D and C
respectively,
then
1) ERemains unchanged, V changes 2) Both E and V change
3) E and V remains unchanged 4) E changes V remains unchanged
Sol: Conceptual
59. For the arrangement of charges shown in the figure, potential is zero at
1)A,B and C 2) D,B and E 3) B only 4) A,B,C,D and E
1 q
Sol: V
4 0 r
1 q
E
4 0 r 2
60. There exists a uniform electric field in the space as shown. Four points A, B, C and D are marked which
are equidistant from the origin. If VA, VB, VC and VD are their potentials respectively, then
1) VA > VB > VC > VD 2) VA > VB > VD > VC
3) VA = VB > VC = VD 4) VB > VC > VA > VD
Sol : Electric potential decreases along the direction of electric potential, so VA > VB > VD > VC
Key : 2
2
61. The potential function of an electrostatic field is given by V 2 x volts. Determine the electric field
strength at the point (2m, 0, 3m).
1) E 4iˆ N/C 2) E 4iˆ N/C 3) E 8iˆ N/C 4) E 8iˆ N/C
dV
Sol : E 4 x
dx
At (2m, 0, 3m), E 4 2 8 N / C
E 8iˆ N/C
Key : 4
62. Variation of electric potential along the x-direction is shown in figure. The correct statement about
electric field is
1) X – component at point B is maximum
2) X – component at point A is toward positive x – axis
3) X – component at point C is along negative x – axis
4) X – component at point C is zero
dV
Sol : We know, E .
dx
dV
At B, 0 , hence Ex 0 .
dx
dV
At A, is positive, hence Ex is negative.
dx
dV
At C, is negative, hence Ex is positive.
dx
Key : 1
63. Mark the correct statement:
1) If E is zero at a certain point, then V should be zero at that point.
2) If E is not zero at a certain point, then V should not be zero at that point.
3) If V is zero at a certain point, then E should be zero at that point.
4) If V is zero at a certain point, then E may or may not be zero.
Sol : V is scalar quantity, and E is a vector quantity
Key : 4
64. A parallel plate capacitor is connected across a battery. Now, keeping the battery connected, a dielectric
slab is inserted between the plates. In this process
1) no work is done
2) work done by the battery, and the stored energy increases
3) work done by the external agent, and the stored energy decreases
4) work done by the battery as well as the external agent, the stored energy does not change
Sol : Extra charge will flow through battery, so work is done by battery. External agent will do negative work.
Key : 2
65. A parallel plate capacitor is connected to a battery. The plates are pulled apart with uniform speed. If x is
the separation between the plates, then the rate of change of electrostatic energy of the capacitor is
proportional to
1 1
1) x 2 2) x 3) 4) 2 +
x x
Sol :
1 1 0 A 2
U CV 2 V
2 2 x
dU 1 1 dx
0 AV 2 2
dx 2 x dt
dU 1 1
0 AV 2v 2
dx 2 x
dU 1
dx x 2
Key : 4
66. A parallel plate capacitor has plates of area A and separation d and is charged to a potential difference
V. The charging battery is then disconnected and the plates are pulled apart until their separation is 2d.
What is the work required to separate the plates?
1) 2 0 AV 2 / d 2) 0 AV 2 / d 3) 3 0 AV 2 / 2d 4) 0 AV 2 / 2d
Sol :
Key : 4
67. In the following diagram the work done in moving a point charge from point P to point A, B and C is
respectively as WA .WB and WC , then
C A
P
B
1) WA WB WC 2) WA WB WC 0 3) WA WB WC 4) WA WB WC
Sol : Charge when moved in a space of no field, does not experience any force and no work is done
WA WB WC 0
Key : 2
10
68. Seven capacitors, each of capacitance 2 F are to be combined to obtain a capacitance of F . Which
11
of the following combinations is possible?
1) 2 in parallel, 5 in series 2) 3 in parallel, 4 in series
3) 4 in parallel, 3 in series 4) 5 in parallel, 2 in series
Sol : Check the options separately.
C 5C 5 2 10
If 5 in parallel and 2 in series effective capacity is Ceff 5C F F
2 11 11 11
Key : 4
69. Two parallel plate capacitors of capacitances C and 2C are connected in parallel and charged to a
potential difference V. The battery is then disconnected, and the region between the plates of C is filled
completely with a material of dielectric constant K. The common potential difference across the
combination becomes
2V V 3V 3V
1) 2) 3) 4)
K 2 K 2 K 3 K 2
Q1 Q2 CV 2CV 3V
Sol : VC
C1 C2 KC 2C K 2
Key : 4
70. Three capacitors A, B and C are connected in a circuit as shown in figure. What is the charge in C on
the capacitor B?
1) 1/3 2) 2/3 3) 1 4) 4/3
Sol : Capacitors B and C are in parallel, and A is in series.
2 3 4 14
Ceq F
2 3 4 9
14 14
Q CeqV 7 6 C
9 9
3 14 / 9 2
Q will be divided between B and C, so charge on B is q C
3 4 3
Key : 2
71. In the circuit shown in the figure, the potential difference across the 4.5 F capacitor is
8
1) Volts 2) 4 Volts 3) 6 Volts 4) 8 Volts
3
Sol : Potential difference across 4.5 F capacitor is
9 12
V 8V
9 4.5
Key : 4
72. Two identical parallel plate capacitors are connected in series and then joined in series with a battery of
100V. A slab of dielectric constant K = 3 is inserted between the plates of the first capacitor. Then, the
potential difference across the capacitors will be respectively:
1) 25V, 75V 2) 75V, 25V 3) 20V, 80V 4) 50V, 50V
Sol :
C 100
V1 25V ,
3C C
V2 100 25 75V
Key : 1
73. In the circuit shown in figure, each capacitor has a capacity of 3 F . The equivalent capacity between A
and B is
1) 3 F 2)5 F 3) 6 F 4) 9 F
Sol :
Ceff 5 F
Key : 2
74. Several capacitors are connected as shown in figure. The effective capacity between A and B is
1) 8 F 2) 12 F 3) 4 F 4) 16 F
Sol :
12 4 30 6
Ceff 8 F
12 4 30 6
Key : 1
75. Three identical metallic plates are kept parallel to one another at separations a and b. The outer plates are
connected to the ground and the middle plate is given charge Q(figure). Then, the charge on the right side
of middle plate is
Q Qb Qb Qa
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 ab a b a b
Sol :
Q1 Q2
V
C1 C2
Q1 Q2 Q
Qa A Qa
Where Q2 and C2 0 . By solving Q2
a b b a b
Key : 4
76. A 16 F capacitor, initially charged to 5V, is started charging at t = 0 sec by a source at the rate of 40
t Cs 1 . How long will it take to raise its potential to 10V?
1) 1s 2) 2s 3) 3s 4) 4s
qi CVi 16 5 80 C ,
Sol :
q f CV f 16 10 160 C
qf
dq
Given 40t 40t
dt qi
2
40t
q f qi 160 80 20t 2 t 2 s
2
Key : 2
77. If area of each plate is A and the successive separations are d, 2d and 3d, then the equivalent capacitance
across A and B is
0 A A 3 A A
1) 2) 0 3) 0 4) 0
6d 4d 4d 3d
Sol : Plates can be rearranged as shown in figure. Plates 1 and 2 and plates 3 and 4 form two capacitors which
are in series between A and B. Plates 2 and 3 do not form any capacitor as they are at same potential.
0 A 0 A
d 3d
Ceq
C1C2
0 A
C1 C2 0 A 0 A 4d
d 3d
Key : 2
78. In the circuit shown in figure, the equivalent capacitance between the points X and Y is
1) 2 F 2) 3 F 3) 4 F 4) 5 F .
Sol : The circuit is redrawn as shown in the figure.
4
Ceq 1 2 5 F
2
Key : 4
79. Four identical plates, each having area A, are arranged as shown in Figure. Find the equivalent capacity
of the structure between A and B
1 0 A 2 0 A 1 0 A A
1) 2) 3) 4) 0
3 d 3 d 2 d d
Sol : Let the potentials of plates A and B be VA and VB respectively. As the plates (1) and (3) (figure) are
connected together, they will have a common potential, say V’. Now we will make an equivalent circuit
diagram by connecting the different plates across the assumed potential difference.
The equivalent capacitance between A and B can easily be calculated as follows :
2 2 0 A
Ceq C .
3 3 d
Key : 2
80. Five identical plates each of area A are joined as shown in the figure. The distance between the plates is
d. The plates are connected to a potential difference of V volts. The charge on plates 1 and 4 will be
0 AV 2 0 AV AV 0 AV AV 2 0 AV 0 AV 2 0 AV
1) ; 2) 0 ; 3) 0 ; 4) ;
d d d d d d d d
Sol : The given circuit can be redrawn as follows. All capacitors are identical and each having capacitance
A
C 0
d
0 A
Charge on each capacitor |=| Charge on each plate V
d
0 A
Plate 1 is connected with positive terminal of battery so charge on it will be V
d
Plate 4 comes twice and it is connected with negative terminal of battery. So charge on plate 4 will be
2 A
0 V
d
Key : 3
81. In figure, identical capacitors are connected in the following three configurations
5 3 4 3
1) C 2) C 3) C 4) C
3 5 3 4
Sol :
Key : 1
82. In figure, identical capacitors are connected in the following three configurations
The ratio of the total capacitances in (1) and (2), respectively is
1) 5: 4 2) 3 : 5 3) 4 : 5 4) 5 : 3
Sol :
Key : 4
83. A parallel plate capacitor has plates of area A and separation d and is charged to a potential difference
V. The charging battery is then disconnected and the plates are pulled apart unitl their separation is 2d.
What is the work required to separate the plates?
1) 2 0 AV 2 / d 2) 0 AV 2 / d 3) 3 0 AV 2 / 2d 4) 0 AV 2 / 2d
q2 1 1
Sol : W U 2 U1
2 C2 C1
A C A
C1 0 , C2 1 0
d 2 2d
AV
q C1V 0
d
1 0 AV 2
Solve to get W
2 d
Key :4
84. Three dielectrics of relative permittivities r1 1 , r2 2 and r3 3 are introduced in a parallel plate
capacitor of plate area A and separation is d. Find the effective capacitance between A and B
3 0 A 9 0 A 17 0 A 7 0 A
1) 2) 3) 4)
10 d 10 d 10 d 10 d
Sol : The given system can be made equivalent to two capacitors C1 and C2 in parallel
For upper part
A
0 r1
C1 2 0 A
d 2d
For lower part
A
0
C2 2 0 A / 2 6 0 A
d /2 d /2 d 1 1 5d
r2 r3 2 2 3
Then CAB C1 C2 (because C1 and C2 are in parallel)
0 A 6 0 A 17 0 A
2d 5d 10d
Key :3
85. Equipotential surfaces are shown in figure. Then the electric field strength will be
1) 100Vm 1 along X-axis 2) 100Vm 1 along Y-axis
3) 200Vm 1 at an angle 1200 with X-axis 4) 50Vm 1 at an angle 1200 with X-axis
Sol : Using dV E.dr
V E r cos
V
E
r cos
20 10
E
10 10 2 cos120 0
10 102
200V / m
10 102 sin 300 1/ 2
Key :3
86. The variation of potential with distance R from the fixed point is shown in figure.
The electric field at R = 5m is
1) 2.5Vm 1 2) 2.5Vm 1 3) 0.4Vm 1 4) 0.4Vm1
dV
Sol : e = negative of the slope of V-r graph
dr
V 5 5
2.5vot / m
dr 6 4 2
E 2.5 2.5volt / m
Key :1
87. The work done is taking a unit positive charge from P to A is WA and from P to B is WB .
Then
1) WA WB 2) WA WB 3) WA WB 4) WA WB 0
Sol : As potential at A and B is the same VA VB kQ / d . So work done in both the cases will be the same
Key :3
88. Mark the correct statement:
1) If E is zero at a certain point, then V should be zero at that point.
2) If E is not zero at a certain point, then V should not be zero at that point.
3) If V is zero at a certain point, then E should be zero at that point.
4) If V is zero at a certain point, then E may or may not be zero.
Sol : V is scalar quantity, and E is a vector quantity
Key :4
89. A spherical charged conductor has surface density of charge as . The electric field intensity on its
surface is E. If the radius of the surface is doubled, keeping unchanged, what will be the electric field
intensity on the new sphere?
1) E/2 2) E/4 3) 2E 4) E
Sol : E / 0 does not depend upon radius if is constant
Key :4
90. When a charge of 3 coulombs is placed in a uniform electric field, it experiences a force of 3000
Newton. Within this field, potential difference between two points separated by a distance of 1cm is
1) 10 volts 2) 90 volts 3) 1000 volts 4) 3000 volts
3000
Sol : V Ed 102 10V
3
Key :1
91. Four charges +Q, -Q, +Q, -Q are placed at the corners of a square taken in order. At the centre of the
square
1) E = 0, V = 0 2) E = 0, V 0 3) E 0, V 0 4) E 0, V 0
Sol : At centre, E = 0 and V = 0
Key :1
92. Eight drops of mercury of equal radii possessing equal charges combine to form a big drop. Then the
capacitance of bigger drop compared to each individual small drop is
1) 8 times 2) 4 times 3) 2 times 4) 32 times
Sol : Volume of 8 small drops = Volume of big drop
4 4
8 r 3 R 3 R 2r
3 3
As capacity is r, hence capacity becomes 2times
Key :3
93. A parallel plate condenser has a uniform electric field E(V/m) in the space between the plates. If the
distance between the plates is d (m) and area of each plate is A(m2) the energy (joule) stored in the
condenser is
1 1
1) 0 E 2 2) 0 EAd 3) 0 E 2 Ad 4) E 2 Ad / 0
2 2
Sol : The energy stored in the capacitor
1
U CV 2
2
1 A 2 A 0
U 0 Ed C and V Ed
2 d d
1
U 0 E 2 Ad
2
Key :3
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENTS
DAY – 13 (DT 18-04-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Chapter : CURRENT ELECTRICITY
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
PHYSICS
1. The charge flowing in a conductor varies with time as Q=at-bt2. Then for current, which statement is
incorrect.
A) decreases linearly with time
B) reaches a maximum and then decreases
C) fall to zero after time t=a/2b
D) changes at a rate -2b
Options:
1) A, B, D 2) A, C, D 3) B, C 4) Only B
dQ
Hint: i a 2bt
dt
a di
For i=0, t ; 2b
2b dt
Key : 2
2. The plot represents the flow of current through a wire in three different time intervals. The ratio of
charges flowing through the wire in the time intervals is
1) 2:1:2 2) 1:3:3 3) 1:1:1 4) 2:3:4
Hint : Area of i-t graph gives charge
Key : 3
3. A non conducting ring of radius R has charge Q distributed over it. If it rotates with an angular velocity
ω, the equivalent current will be
1) Q 2) Q / 2R 3) Q / 2 4) zero
Hint: i Q. f Q
2
Key: 3
4. A solid cylinder whose radius is R, rotates with a constant angular velocity ω. The potential difference
between surface of the cylinder and the axis is
mR 4 2 mR 2 2 mR 2 2
1) 2) 3) 4) None
2e 2e e
1 2
Hint: W= K.E; eV m R
2
Key: 2
5. Suppose the drift velocity vd in a material with the applied electric field E as vd E .Then V-I graph
for a wire made of such a material is best given by:
1) 2) 3) 4)
i V
Hint : vd E ; ; Vi2
nAe l
Key : 3
6. A straight conductor of uniform cross section carries a time varying current, which varies at the rate
di
I If s is the specific charge that is carried by each charge carrier of the conductor and l is the
dt
length of the conductor, then the total force experienced by all the electrons in the conductor
I I lI
1) F=IS 2) F 3) F 4) F
2 lS S S
i
Hint: P mnAl .vd mnAl .
nAe
li li
P
e/ m S
dP l di lI
F
dt S dt S
Key : 4
7. A straight conductor of uniform cross-section carries current I. If ‘s’ is the specific charge of an
electron, the momentum of all the electrons per unit length of the conductor, due to drift velocity of
electrons is
I I
1) 2) Is 3) I s 4)
s s
i li li
Hint : P mnAl .vd mnAl . ; P
nAe e/ m S
Key : 1
8. What is the drift velocity of electrons if the current flowing through a copper wire of 1mm diameter is
1.1A ?. Assume that each atom of copper contributes one electron: (given density of Cu= 9 C.G.S units
and atomic weight of Cu is 63)
1) 0.3mm/s 2) 0.5mm/s 3) 0.1mm/s 4) 0.2mm/s
i
Hint : VD
nAe
Key : 3
9. When 5V potential difference is applied across a wire of length 0.1m, the drift speed of electrons is
2.5 104 ms 1 . If the electron density in the wire is 8 1028 m 3 , the resistivity of the material is close to
1) 1.6 108 m 2) 1.6 107 m 3) 1.6 106 m 4) 1.6 105 m
Sol :
vd 2.5 10 4 m / s
V
n 8 10 28 / m3 ; I nevd ; p
ned d
5
1.6 105 m
810 1.6 10 2.5104 0.1
28 19
Key :4
10. An electric cell of e.m.f. E is connected across a copper wire of diameter d and length l. The drift
velocity of electrons in the wire is vd . If the length of the wire is changed to 2l, the new drift velocity of
electron in the copper wire will be
1) vd 2) 2vd 3) vd / 2 4) vd / 4
i E
Sol : vd and vd|
neA 2l n e
E E A E
R neA l n e A l n e
|
v 1 v
d vd| d
vd 2 2
Key :3
11. In a closed circuit, the current I (in ampere) at an instant of time t (in second) is given by I=4-0.08t. The
number of electrons flowing in 50s through the cross section of the conductor is
1) 1.25 1019 2) 6.25 1020 3) 5.25 1019 4) 2.25 10 20
Sol : Let the number of electrons =N
dQ
I 4 0.08t 4 0.08t
dt
50
Q
0
4 0.08t dt
50
0.08t 2
Ne 4t 100C
2 0
100 100
N 19
6.25 1020
e 1.6 10
Key :2
12. A steady current flows in a metallic conductor of non-uniform cross-section. The quantity/ quantities
constant along the length of the conductor is/are
1) Current, electric filed and drift speed 2) Drift speed only
3) Current and drift speed 4) Current only
Sol : If E be electric field, then current density j E
i
Also we know that current density j
A
Hence j is different for different area of cross-sections. When j is different, then E is also different. Thus
j
E is not constant. The drift velocity vd is given by v d different for different j values. Hence only
ne
current i will be constant.
Key :4
13. A conductor and a semiconductor are connected in parallel as shown in the figure that follows. At a
certain voltage both ammeters register the same current. If the voltage of the DC source is increased
then;
1) the ammeter connected to the semiconductor will register higher current than the ammeter connected
to the conductor
2) the ammeter connected to the conductor will register higher current than the ammeter connected to
the semiconductor
3) Both the ammeters connected to the semiconductor and conductor will register same current
4) Both the ammeters connected to the semiconductor and conductor will register no change in the
current
Sol : Both the ammeters connected to the semiconductor and conductor will register same current
Key :3
14. The length of germanium rod is 0.928cm and its area of cross-section is 1mm2. If for germanium, ni=
2.5x1019m-3 ,µh=0.19m2V-1S-1, µe=0.39m2V-1S-1 , then resistance is
1) 2.5kΩ 2) 4.0kΩ 3) 5.0kΩ 4) 10.0kΩ
L L
Hint: R
A ni e h e A
Key :2
n
15. Two resistances R1 and R2 provides series to parallel equivalents as then the correct relationship is
1
2 2 3/ 2 3/ 2
R R R R
1) 1 2 n 2 2) 1 2 n3/ 2
R2 R1 R2 R1
1/ 2 1/ 2
R R R R
3) 1 2 n 4) 1 2 n1/ 2
R2 R1 R2 R1
R1 R2 n
Hint:
R1.R2 1
R1 R2
Key :4
16. Determine the current drawn from a 12V supply with internal resistance 0.5 ohm . By the infinite
network shown in Fig. each resistor has 1 ohm resistance
.
1) 2.73 A 2) 4.73 A 3) 1.85A 4) 3.73A
Sol :
Key :4
17. Given the colours on the resistor as shown in fig are orange green violet and gold as read from left to
right find the resistance of resistor
Green
Gold
Violet
Orange
1) 320 k 5% 2) 350 M 5% 3) 480 M 10% 4) 350 M 10%
Sol :
Key :2
18. ABCD is a square where each side is a uniform wire of resistance 1Ω. A point E lies on CD such that if
a uniform wire of resistance 1Ω is connected across AE and constant potential difference is applied
across A and C, then B and E are equipotential,
CE CE 1 CE 1 CE
1) 1 2) 3) 4) 2
ED ED 2 ED 2 ED
Hint:
2 x 1
2 x 1 1
x 1
2
x 4x 2 0
x 2 2 1
Therefore
x
2 2 1 2
1 x
2 1
Key :4
19. The equivalent resistance between points M and N is (R=2Ω)
1) 2Ω 2) 3Ω 3) (4/3)Ω 4) None
2R
Hint: R1
3
Key : 3
20. In the figure a carbon resistor has bands of different colours on its body as mentioned in the figure. The
value of the resistance is
1) 2.2 k 2) 3.3 k 3) 5.6 k 4) 9.1k
Sol : R 91102 9.1 k
Key :4
21. A thick wire is stretched so that its length becomes two times. Assuming that there is no change in its
density, what is the ratio of change in resistance of wire to the initial resistance of wire
1) 2 : 1 2) 4 : 1 3) 3 : 1 4) 1 : 4
2
2 R l2 R 2
Sol : In stretching R l 2 22 2
R1 l1 R1 1
R2 4R1 . Change in resistance R2 R1 3R1
Changein resis tan ce 3R1 3
Now,
Original resi tan ce R1 1
Key :3
22. Two different conductors have same resistance at 0o C . It is found that the resistance of the first
conductor at t1o C is equal to the resistance of the second conductor at t2 o C . The ratio of the temperature
coefficients of resistance of the conductors, 1 / 2 is
t t t t t t
1) 1 2) 2 1 3) 2 1 4) 2
t2 t2 t1 t1
Sol : R1 R10 1 1t1 ; R2 R20 1 2t2
R1 1 1t1
As R1 R2 and R10 R20 , 1
R2 1 2 t2
1 t 2
1 1t1 1 2t2
2 t1
Key :4
23. In a conductor the current density is 2.5Am 2 , when an electric field of 15Vm 1 is applied to it. The
resistivity of the conductor is
1) 0.17m 2) 37.5 m 3) 8m 4) 6m
l
Hint: R
A
V l E.l l
;
i A i A
E E
i / A J
Key : 4
24. Resistivity of copper is 1.8 10 8 m and of aluminium is 2.5 108 m . If their densities are
7500 kg /m 3 and 2700 kg /m 3 respectively, and have same mass per unit length, then resistance per
unit length ratio of them is
1) 2 : 1 2) 3 : 4 3) 4 : 7 4) 7 : 4
R d R
Hint: ; .d
l A m m l
ld l
Key : 1
25. Two wires of equal radii but different resistivities 1 and 2 have lengths x1 and x2 respectively. If
they are joined in series, the resultant resistivity of the combination is
x 2 x1 2 12 x 2 x2
1) 1 2 2) 1 3) 4) 1 1
x1 x2 2 1 2 x1 x2
Hint : R R1 R2
Key :4
26. The current -voltage graph for a device is shown in the figure. The resistance is negative in region
1) AB 2) BC 3) ABC 4) none of the these
Sol :
Key :1
27. Variation of current passing through a conductor at the voltage applied across its ends is varied as
shown in the adjoining diagram. If the resistance is determined at the points A,B,C and D we will find
that resistances at
1) C and D are almost equal 2) B is higher than at A 3) C is higher than at B 4) A is lower than at C
Sol :
Key :1
28. V-I graphs for two materials is shown in the fig. The graphs are drawn at two different temperatures.
Then T1 T2 proportional to
I
T2
T1
V
1) cot 2 2) sin 2 3) tan 2 4) cos 2
Sol :
Key :1
29. A carbon filament has resistance of 120 at 00 C what must be the resistance of a copper filament
connected in series with carbon so that combination has same resistance at all temperatures
acarbon 5 104 / 0 C , acopper 4 103 / 0 C
1) 120 2) 15 3) 60 4) 210
Hint : R11 R2 2
Key :
30. The temperature coefficient of resistance of conductor varies as a 3T 2 2T . If R0 is resistance at
T 0 and R be resistance at T then
1) R R0 6T 2 2) R 2 R0 3 2T
3) R R0 1 T 2 T 3 4) R R0 1 T T 2 T 3
1 dR
Hint: .
R0 dt
dR R .dT C
0
R R 3T 2T dT C
0
2
R R0 T 3 T 2 C
For T=0, R=R0
Therefore C=R0
R R0 T 3 T 2 R0
R R0 T 3 T 2 1
Key :3
31. The thermistors are usually made of
1) metals with low temperature coefficient of resistivity
2) metals with high temperature coefficient of resistivity
3) metal oxides with high temperature coefficient of resistivity
4) semiconducting materials having low temperature coefficient of resistivity
Sol : semiconducting materials having low temperature coefficient of resistivity
Key : 4
32. A wire is bent in the form of a circle of radius 2m. Resistance per unit length of wire is 1 / / m.
Battery of 6V is connected between A and B. AOB 90o . Find the current through the battery
1) 8A 2) 4A 3) 3A 4) 9A
Sol : R 2 r 1/ 4
Here 1 and 3 will now be in parallel
Reff 3 / 4 I V / Reff 8 A
Key :1
33. An electron (charge=1.6 10 19 coulomb) is moving in a circle of radius 5.1 1011 m at a frequency of
6.8 1015 revolutions/sec. The equivalent current is approximately
1) 5.1 103 amp 2) 6.8 10 3 amp 3) 1.1 103 amp 4) 2.2 103 amp
Sol : i ev 1.61019 6.81015 1.1103 amp
Key :3
34. A current of 3A flows in a circuit shown in the figure. The potential difference between A and B is
1) 4V 2)3V 3)2V 4)(2/3)V
Hint:
1 2
VA 4 3 VB
3 3
Key :
35. A current of 2A is flowing through a cell of emf 5V and internal resistance 0.5 from negative to
positive electrode. If potential of negative electrode is 10V, then the potential of positive electrode is
1) 4V 2) 14 V 3) 6 V 4) 16 V
Hint:
10 2(0.5) 5 V 1
Key : 2
36. The current through 3 resistance is
14 12
1) A 2) 3 A 3) 2 A 4) A
3 5
V 6
Hint : i 2 A
R 3
Key :3
37. From the following circuit, potential at ‘O’ is
2A 4A 3A 1A
5A
O
1A 1A 1A 2A 1A
5
4V
1) 29 V 2) 12 V 3) 9 V 4) 21 V
Hint : i=5A ; 4+5(i)=V0 ; V0=29volt
Key :1
38. The potential difference between points A and B is
A 2V 2^^^ ^^^ 1 B
1A
5V
1) 0v 2) 10v 3) 4v 4) 5v
Hint; VA 2 1(2) 5 1(1) VB
VA VB
Key : 1
39. The potential difference between points A and B in the circuit is
1) 1V 2) 2V 3) 3V 4) 4V
V 16
Hint: i 2A
R 2 1 4 1
VAB i ( RAB ) 2(1) 2volt
Key : 2
40. The potential difference between B and C is 9 volts. Then R is
1)3Ω 2)4Ω 3)1Ω *4)2Ω
9 V1 VAB
Hint: i
3 1 RAB
V1 3volt
VAB 16 9 3 4V
9 VAB
3 RAB
9 4
3 RAB
4
RAB
3
4R 4
4 R 3
R 2
Key :4
41. The charge developed on 4 F condenser is
1) 18 µC 2) 4 µC 3) 8 µC 4) Zero
10
Hint: i 1A
64
q q
i (6) 6
4 10 2 106
q q
1(6) 6
4 10 2 10 6
q 8 10 6 C
Key :3
42. The reading of the ammeter as per figure shown is
1 3 1
1) A 2) A 3) A 4) 2A
8 4 2
2
Sol : Resistance across XY
3
2 8
Total resistance 2
3 3
2 6 3
Current through ammeter A
8/3 8 4
Key :2
43. A current of 2A flows in a system of conductors as shown. The potential difference VA VB will be
1) +2V 2) +1V 3) -1V 4) -2V
Sol : Current through each arm DAC and DBC = 1A
VD VA 2 and VD VB 3 VA VB 1V
Key :2
44. The potential difference between A and B in the following figure is
1) 24 V 2) 14 V 3) 32 V 4) 48 V
Sol : This is a series connection. Further whatever current enters A has to pass B. I 2 A
The total resistance 6 9 5 20 The effective potential across the resistances is 20 2 A 40V .
But 12 4 V is opposing the potential difference across AB therefore the potential difference applied
across AB is 40V+8V=48V
Key :4
45. For the circuit shown, the charge on the capacitor will be
CER1 CER2 CER1
1) CE 2) 3) 4)
R1 r R1 r R2 r
ER1 CER1
Sol : ER1 V R1 r ; V ; Q CV
R1 r R1 r
Key :2
46. A 3volt battery with negligible interval resistance is connected in a circuit as shown in the figure. The
current I, in the circuit will be
1) 1/3 A 2) 1 A 3) 1.5 A 4) 2 A
Sol : R
3 3 3 2 i 3 1.5 A
3 3 3 2
Key :3
47. The figure below shows currents in a part of electric circuit. The current i is
1) 1.7 amp 2) 3.7 amp 3) 1.3 amp 4) 1 amp
Sol : According to Kirchhoff’s law
At junction A, iAB 2 2 4 A
At junction B, iAB iBC 1 3 A
At junction C, i iBC 1.3 3 1.3 1.7 amp
Key :1
48. In the given figure, potential difference between A and B is
1) 0 2) 5 volt 3) 10 volt 4) 15 volt
Sol :
10
Equivalent resistance R 10 15 k
2
30
Current i 2 103 A
15
Hence, potential difference between A and B
2 103 3
V 10 10 10Volt
2
Key :3
49. The resistance between the terminal points A and B of the given infinitely long circuit will be
1)
3 1
2) 1 3
3) 1 3
4) 2 3
Sol : Let equivalent resistance between A and B be R, then equivalent resistance between C and D will also
be R.
R
R| 2 R R 2 2R 2 0
R 1
2 48
R 3 1
2
Key :3
50. In the following figure potential difference between the points D and C
1) 20V 2) 30V 3) 40V 4) 10V
Hint:
100 25
RDC 20
100 25
REC 60
320 60
VEC 120V
100 60
120 20
VDC 20V
100 20
Key :1
51. Two non-ideal batteries of unequal emf`s are connected in parallel. Consider the following statements
A) The equivalent emf is smaller than either of the two emf`s
B) The equivalent internal resistance is smaller than either of the two internal resistances
1) Both A and B are correct 2) A is correct but B is incorrect
3) B is correct but A is incorrect 4) Both A and B are in correct
Key :3
52. In the circuit shown in figure each battery is 5 V and has an internal resistance of 0.2 ohm. The reading
of ideal voltmeter V is
1) 5V 2) 10V 3) 15V 4) Zero
Hint:
V E ir
8E
V E .r ; V E E 0
8r
Key : 4
53. ‘n’ identical cells, each of emf E and internal resistance ‘r’ are joined in series to form a closed circuit
.The P.D across any one cell is
E
1) E 2) 3) nE 4) zero
n
Sol :
Key : 4
54. In the circuit shown the variable resistance X is to be adjusted such that the ideal ammeter reads the
same in both the positions of the key, when connected independently to 1 and then to 2. The reading of
the ammeter is 2A. If E=10 V, then x is
1) 5 2) 20 3) 50 4) Cannot be determined
Sol:
In position (1) ir 0i 2 2 r
Now, in position (2)
E ir E i x 0
2r 2r 10 2 x 0
x 5
Key : 1
55. In the figure shown the power generated in y is maximum when y 5 then R is
1) 2 2) 6 3) 5 4) 3
Hint : R+2=y ; R+2=5 ; R=3Ω
Key :4
56. Find the power supplied by 20 V cell in the figure shown
1) -10 W 2) 20 W 3) -20 W 4) 10 W
Hint :
The given circuit is equivalent to
Let ‘A’ be at zero volts
15 0
i1 3 A;
5
30 0
i2 3 A;
10
50
i3 1A,
5
55 0
i4 5A
11
i i1 i2 i3 i4 (3 3 1 5) 12 A
power supplied by 20 V cell (20)(i3 ) 20W
Here-ve sign indicates, current entering into cell, it is not supplying actually but consumes
Key :3
57. Consider the circuit shown in the figure. The current I 3 is equal to
1)5amp 2) 3amp 3) -3amp 4) -5/6 amp
Hint:
14 1
i1 A
28 2
18 1
i2 A
54 3
5
i3 i1 i2 A
6
Key :4
58. Figure represents a load consisting of three identical resistances connected to an electric energy source
of emf 12 V and internal resistance 0.6 . The ammeter reads 2 A. The magnitude of each resistance is
1) 3.6 2) 7.2 3) 16.2 4) 10.8
Hint:
V
i
Reff
12
2
R
0.6
3
Key :3
59. In the circuit shown in fig reading of voltmeter is v1 when only s1 is closed, reading of voltmeter is v2
when only s2 is closed then
3R
R S1
6R
S2
V
1) v1 v2 2) v1 v2 3) v1 v 2 4) v1 v2 0
Sol :
Key :2
60. Six batteries , each of 2 volts are connected in series so that they are aiding each other. Internal
resistance of each cell 0.5Ω. They are being charge using a direct supply of 110volts. To control the
current a 46Ω resistor is used in series. Power drawn from the supply is
1) 220W 2) 196W 3) 250W 4)210W
V 6E
Hint : i 2 A , Power P=Vi = 110x2=220W
6r R
Key :1
61. While connecting N identical cells each of emf E and internal resistance r in series two cells P and Q
are wrongly connected. They send current through an external resistance Nr. Then the terminal voltage
across P or Q is
E E E
1) Zero 2) 3N 4 3) 3N 4 4) N 4
2N N 2N
Sol :
Key : 2
62. An electrical circuit consists a resister of resistance 10 and battery of emf 5 V . By mistake an ideal
ammeter connected parallel to the resister. The current through the resister is …………
1) 0.2 ampere 2) 0 ampere 3) 2 ampere 4) 0.5 ampere
Hint : Resistance of the circuit is infinity, so current zero
Key : 2
63. A battery is charged at a potential of 15V for 8 hours when the current flowing is 10A. The battery on
discharge supplies a current of 5A for 15 hours. The mean terminal voltage during discharge is 14V.
The ‘Watt hour’ efficiency of the battery is
1) 80% 2) 90% 3) 87.5% 4) 82.5%
E
Hint: % watt hour efficiency = out 100
14 5 15 100 87.5%
Ein 15 10 8
Key : 3
64. A battery consists of a variable number (n) of identical cells, each having an internal resistance r
connected in series. The terminals of the battery are short-circuited. The following graph represents
current (I) in the circuit versus the number of cells
Sol :
Key :
65. Two batteries having same emf but having different internal resistance r1 and r2 (<r1 ) are connected
in series to an external resistance R as shown in figure. For this situation mark out the correct
statement(s)
1) Only one value of R exist for which potential difference across battery having internal resistance r1 is
zero
2) Only one value of R exist for which potential difference across battery having internal resistance r2 is
zero
3) No value of R exist for which potential difference across any of the battery is zero
4) For all value of R potential difference across both the batteries would be zero.
Sol : Only one value of R exist for which potential difference across battery having internal resistance r1 is
zero
Key :1
66. In the following circuit if VA VB 6V then the value of resistance R (in ohm) is
1) 5 2) 10 3) 15 4) 20
Hint:
E1r2 E2 r1
VA VB
r1 r2
7( R) 4(10)
6
10 R
R 20
Key :4
67. In the given circuit calculate potential difference between A and B
1)-5.8 V 2) -4.6 3) 5.8 V 4) -5.2 V
2
Hint: In first loop i 0.4 A
23
VA 3(0.4) 4 VB
VA VB 5.2volt
Key :4
68. The diagram shows a circuit with two identical resistors. The battery has a negligible internal resistance.
What will be effect on the ammeter and voltmeter reading respectively, if switch S is closed?
1) Both increases 2) Both decreases 3) Both becomes zero
4) Ammeter reading increases and voltmeter decreases
Key :1
69. A battery of emf E produces currents I1 and I 2 when connected to external resistances R1 and R2
respectively. The internal resistance of the battery is
I R I R I R I R I R I R I R I R
1) 1 2 2 1 2) 1 2 2 1 3) 1 1 2 2 4) 1 1 2 2
I 2 I1 I1 I 2 I1 I 2 I 2 I1
Sol : resistance of a battery respectively.
In the first case
E
Current flowing in the circuit I1 or E I1 R1 r -------(i)
R1 r
In the second case
E
Current flowing in the circuit I 2 or E I 2 R2 r -------(ii)
R2 r
Equating equations (i) and (ii) we get
I1 R1 r I 2 R2 r I1R1 I1r I 2 R2 I 2 r
I1R1 I 2 R2 I 2 I1 r I 2 I1 r I1R1 I 2 R2
I1 R1 I 2 R2
r
I 2 I1
Key :4
70. In the circuit shown, the current through the 5 resistor is
8 9 4 1
1) A 2) A 3) A 4) A
3 13 13 3
Sol : Applying Kirchhoff’s second law for closed loop AEFBA we get
I1 I 2 5 I1 2 2 0 or 7 I1 5I 2 2 -------(i)
Again, applying Kirchhoff’s second law for a closed loop DEFCD, we get
I1 I 2 5 I 2 2 2 0 or 5I1 7 I 2 2 -------(ii)
Multiplying (i) by 5 and (ii) by 7 , we get
35I1 25I 2 10 ----------(iii)
35I1 49I 2 14 ----------(iv)
Subtracting (iv)from (iii) we get
1
24 I 2 4 I 2 A
6
Substituting the value of I 2 in equation (i), we get
1 7 1
7 I1 2 5 7 I1 I1 A
6 6 6
The current through the 5 is
1 1 1
I1 I 2 A A A
6 6 3
Key :4
71. The electrical energy in kilowatt hour consumed in operating ten 50 watt bulbs at 20 hour per day in a
month of 30 days is
1) 300 2) 1500 3)2000 4) 5000
total.no.of .watt.hours 10 50 20 30
Hint : no.K .w.H 300
1000 1000
Key : 1
72. If the length of filament of a heater connected to cell is reduced by 10% the power of the heater will
1) decrease by about 9% 2) increase by about 11%
3) increase by about 19 % 4) decrease by about 10%
Hint :
V2 V2 1
P ; P
R l l
A
Key : 2
73. A battery of emf ‘e’ and internal resistance ‘r’ is connected to a resistor of resistance ‘r1’ and Q joules of
heat is produced in a certain time ‘t’. When the same battery is connected to another resistor r2, same
heat is produced in the same time ‘t’. Then, the value of ‘r’ is
r12 r22 1
1) 2) 3) r1 r2 4) r1r2
r2 r1 2
Hint: In the first case, pd across r1
Er1
V
r r1
Quantity of heat produced in r1
V2 E 2 r1
Q ….(1)
r1 r r1 2
Similarly heat produced in r2
V2 E 2 r2
Q ….(2)
r2 r r2 2
Equating (1) and (2) r = r1r2
Key :4
74. Incandescent bulbs are designed by keeping in mind that the resistance of their filament increases with
the increase in temperature. If at room temperature, 100W, 60W and 40W bulbs have filament
resistance R100 , R60 and R40 , respectively, the relation between resistance is (Same potential is applied
in each bulb)
1 1 1 1 1 1
1) 2) R100 R40 R60 3) R100 R60 R40 4)
R100 R40 R60 R100 R40 R60
Hint :
V2
P
R
For a given potential and temperature
1
P 100W 60W 40W
R
1 1 1
R100 R60 R40
Key :4
75. In the following circuit, bulb rated as 1.5 V, 0.45 W. If bulbs glows with full intensity then what will be
the equivalent resistance between X and Y?
1) 0.45 2) 1 3) 3 4) 5
Hint :
Key :2
76. A resistance R carries a current I . The power lost to the surroundings is 0 . Here λ is constant,
θ is temperature of resistance and 0 is temperature of surroundings. If the coefficient of linear
expansion is α, the strain in the resistance is
2 I 2R
1) I R 2) IR 3) 4) None
2
Hint: Power developed = power lost
I 2 R 0
I 2R
0
This is also increase in temperature of the resistance
l
Strain
l
l I 2R
Strain 0
l
Key :1
77. A resistance coil of 60 ohm is immersed in 42 kg of water. A current of 7 amp is passed through it. The
rise in temperature of water in one minute is
1) 40 C 2) 80 C 3) 10 C 4) 120 C
2
Hint; i Rt ms.
Key : 3
78. In the network shown, points A,B and C are at potentials of 70V, zero, and 10V
respectively, The power drawn by the net work is
B 0V
20
70V 10
A D 30
C 10V
1) 200W 2) 100W 3) 400W 4) Zero
Hint: i i1 i2
70 V V 0 V 10
10 20 30
V 40volt
2 2 2
V 2 70 40 40 0 40 10
Power P
R 10 20 30
= 90 + 80 + 30
= 200 watt
Key :1
79. Consider a cylindrical element as shown in figure. Current through the element is I and resistivity of
the material
1) Power loss in second half is four times that of first half
2) Voltage drop in first half is twice of voltage drop in second half
3) Current density in both halves are equal
4) Electric field in both halves is equal
Hint:
l
P i 2 R i2 2
r
1
P 2
r
Key :1
80. In the circuit shown in figure the heat produced in the 5ohm resistor due to the current flowing through
it is 10 calories per second. The heat generated in the 4ohm resistor in cal s–1 is
4 I2 6
A B
5
I1
1) 8 2) 2 3) 4 4) 5
i
Hint: i2 1
2
2
i1 5 10
i12 2
i12 2 1
i22
4 4 2
1
Heat across 4Ω i22 4 4 2cal / s
2
Key :2
81. An electric bulb, when connected across a power supply of 240V, consumes a power of 160W. If the
supply drops to 180V, what will be the power consumed?
1) 4 watt 2) 20 watt 3) 90 watt 4) 80 watt
2
Hint: the resistance of the filament =
Rated voltage
Power
2 2 2
R
240 360 Pconsumed
Vapp
180 90W
160 R 360
Key :3
82. An electric kettle has two coils. When one coil is switched on it takes 15 minutes to boil water and
when second coil is switched on it takes 30 minutes. Then
A. It takes 45 minutes to boil the same water when both coils are used in series
B. It takes 10 minutes to boil the same water when both coils are used in parallel
C. It takes 10 minutes to boil the same water when both coils are used in series
D. It takes 45 minutes to boil the same water when both coils are used in parallel
1) only A and B are true 2) only A and D are true
3) only B and C are true 4) only C and D are true
tt 15 30
Hint: ts t1 t2 45 min tp 1 2 10min
t1 t2 15 30
Key : 1
83. A , B , and C are identical bulbs ( 60W, 120V ) connected to a battery of voltage 120 V as shown. If the
bulb C is removed from the circuit , then regarding the brightness of the bulbs A and B which of the
following is correct
1) brightness of A increases, brightness of B decreases
2) brightness of A decreases, brightness of B decreases
3) brightness of A decreases, brightness of B increases
4) brightness of A increases, brightness of B increases
Hint: When the bulb ‘C’ is removed resistance of the circuit increases hence brightness of A decreases. But
current through B increases hence its brightness of A increases.
Key : 3
84. In the circuit shown, the potential difference across C1 and C 2 are respectively
1) 1 volt, 1 volt 2) 1 volt, 1.2 volt 3) 2 volt, 1 volt 4) 1 volt, 2 volt
Sol :
Key :2
85. A circuit is connected as shown in the figure with the switch S open. When the switch is closed, the total
amount of charge that flows from Y to X is
1) 0 2) 54 C 3) 27 C 4) 81 C
Hint :
Key :3
86. Current through wire XY of circuit shown is
1) 1 A 2) 4 A 3) 2 A 4) 3 A
50
Hint : After closing the switch, icell 24 A
3 4
4 3
(24)3 (24)4
i1 18 A and i2 16 A
1 3 4 2
ixy i1 i2 18 16 2 A
Key :3
87. In the given circuit the readings of the voltmeters V1 & V2 are respectively
1) 2V & zero 2) 8V & 2V 3) 6V & zero 4) 2V & 4V
Sol :
Key :1
88. In the circuit shown, the cell is ideal having emf 15V. If each resistance is 3Ω, the charge on capacitor at
steady state is
1) 24µC 2) 48µC 3) 36µC 4) Zero
V 15
Hint: R=5Ω, I 3 A , I1 2 A , I 2 1A , V=12volt, Q=CV=48µC
R 5
Key :2
89. In the circuit shown in figure, if current passing galvanometer is zero, the relation between resistance
and capacitors
B
R1 R2
A G C
C1 C2
E
D
R1 C2 R C R CC R
1) 2) 1 1 3) 1 1 2 4) 1 C1 C2
R2 C1 R2 C2 R2 C1 C2 R2
Hint: VA VB VA VD
q
i1 R1
C1
VB VC VD VC
q
i2 R2
C2
i1 R1 q / C1 C2
i2 R2 q / C2 C1
R1 C2
R2 C1
Key : 1
90. In the given circuit if current through galvanometer is zero, then current through ‘X’ is
2 4 8
1) 4A 2) A 3) A 4) A
3 3 3
5 10
Hint:
30( x ) 20
30 x
x 15
2(10 20) i (5 10)
i 4A
i (30) 4(30) 8
ix A
30 x 30 15 3
Key :4
91. In the circuit P R , the reading of the galvanometer is same with switch S open or closed. Then
1) I R I G 2) I P I G 3) I Q I G 4) I Q I R
Hint: i.e the bridge is balanced
Key : 1
92. The potential difference across 8 ohm resistance is 48 volt as shown in the figure. The value of potential
difference across X and Y points will be
1) 160 volt 2) 128 volt 3) 80 volt 4) 62 volt
Hint
6 48V
20 ?
48
20 160Volt
6
Key :1
93. If in the circuit shown, the internal resistance of battery is 1.5 and VP and VQ are the potential at P & Q
respectively what is the potential difference between P and Q
1) Zero 2) 4 volts VP VQ 3) 4 volt VQ VP 4) 2.5volt VQ VP
Hint: R=1.5+2.5=4Ω
V 20
i 5A
R 4
VP 3(2.5) 2(2.5) VQ
VQ VP 2.5volt
Key :4
94. When battery and galvanometer are interchanged in the case of Wheatstone bridge, then
1) if the bridge was in adjustment before interchange, it will not be in adjustment after the interchange
2) if the bridge was in adjustment before interchange, it will be in adjustment after the interchange
3) if the bridge was in adjustment before interchange, it may or may not be in adjustment after the
interchange
4) all the above
Key : 2
95. In a metre bridge experiment, resistance 2, 3 ohm are connected in the left and right gaps. When they
are interchanged, the balancing length is 61cm. What are the end corrections?
1) 2cm, 3cm 2) 4cm, 6cm 3) 1cm, 4cm 4) 6cm, 3cm
2 l
Hint: (for no end correction) l=40cm
3 100 l
2 40
If the end corrections are α,β , 2β=3α
3 60
3 61
When interchanged, solve for α and β
2 39
Key : 1
96. When an unknown resistance and a known resistance of 4 are used in the left and right gaps of a
metre bridge, the balancing point is 50cm. Find the shift in the balance point if a 4 resistor is now
connected parallel to the resistor in right gap
100 200 50 40
1) cm 2) cm 3) cm 4) cm
3 3 3 3
P l1
Hint:
Q l2
Key : 3
97. In the shown arrangement of the experiment of the meter bridge if AC corresponding to null deflection
of galvanometer and is x, what would be its value if the radius of the wire AB is doubled keeping the
length constant.
R1 R2
A B
x C
1) x 2) x 4 3) 4x 4) 2x
Sol :
Key :1
98. Metal wire is connected in the left gap and Germanium connected in the right gap of metre bridge and
balancing point is found at 50cm. Metal wire is heated and germanium is cooled so that variation of
resistance in them are equal. The balancing point
1) Will not shift 2) Shift towards left
3) Shift towards right 4) Depends on change of temperature
Sol :
Key :1
99. A meter bridge is used to determine the resistance of an unknown wire by measuring the balance point
length l . If the wire is replaced by another wire of same material but with double the length and half the
thickness, the balancing point is expected to be
1 1
1) 2) 3) 8l 4)16 l
8l 4l
Hint:
l
R1
r2
(2l )
R2 2
8R1
r
2
Key :3
100. When a known resistance 8 and conductor at 25°C are connected in the right and left gaps of a meter
bridge respectively, the balancing length is 40cm. If the temperature of the conductor is increased to
100°C, the balancing length becomes 50cm. The temperature coefficient of resistance of the conductor
is
1) 0.008/°C 2) 0.08/°C 3) 0.005/°C 4) 0.004/°C
Hint:
R1 60
8 40
16
R1
3
R2 50
8 50
R2 8
R2 R1
0.008 / 0C
R1t2 R2t1
Key :1
101. A metre bridge used for comparing two resistance has the usual 11 metre wire replaced by a similar wire
of 2.5 metre length. The change in the sensitivity S and the accuracy A of the measurement are related
as
1) S increases, A decreases 2) S increases, A increases
3) S decreases, A increases 4) S decreases, A decreases
Key :3
102. In a meter bridge experiment, resistances are connected as shown in figure. The balancing length l1 is
55cm. Now an unknown resistance x is connected in series with P and the new balancing length is found
to be 75cm. The value of x is
54 20 48 11
1) 2) 3) 4)
12 11 11 48
Sol : For the given meter bridge
P l1
; l1 55cm 100 l1 45cm
Q 100 l1
45 9 27
P 3Q ; Q 3 3
55 11 11
Where x is connected in series with P, l1 75cm
P x 75cm 27
3 x 3
Q 25cm 11
81 48
x 3 x
11 11
Key : 3
103. The length of a potentiometer wire is l. A cell of emf `e` is balanced at a length l/5 from the positive end
of the wire. Assuming there is no contribution in resistance from any part of the circuit except the
potentiometer wire, the balancing length for the same cell if length of the wire is increased by l/2 is
1) 2l/15 2) 3l/15 3) 3l/10 4) 4l/10
Hint :
L
const
l
L L L / 2 3L
; l
L l 10
5
Key : 3
104. A cell in the secondary circuit gives null deflection for 2.4m length of a potentiometer wire of length
10m. If the length of the potentiometer wire is decreased by 4m without changing the cells in primary or
secondary circuits, the balancing length (primary circuit contains only an ideal cell)
1) decreases by 0.96m 2) increases by 1.6m
3) remains same 4) increases by 3.6m
El
Hint: E ; l L
L
105. The sensitivity of a potentiometer can be increased by
1) decreasing the length of potentiometer wire
2) increasing potential gradient on the potentiometer wire
3) increasing emf of battery in the primary circuit
4) decreasing the potential gradient on the potentiometer wire
Key : 4
106. When 6 identical cells of no internal resistance are connected in series in the secondary circuit of a
potentiometer, the balancing length is l. If two of them are wrongly connected, the balancing length
becomes
1) l/4 2) l/3 3) l 4) 2l/3
Hint: 6E -------------(1)
6 2 2 E 1 --------------- (2)
(2) 2 E 1
; 1
(1) 6E 3
Key :2
107. Ten identicals ideal cells are connected in series in the secondary circuit of potentiometer. If some of the
cells are connected wrongly then the balancing length is reduced by 40%, then the number of wrongly
connected cells are
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
10 e.100 (1)
Hint:
10 2n e. 60 (2)
10 2n e 60
10 e 100
n2
Key :2
108. A potentiometer is used to determine the internal resistance of a 1.5 V cell. The balancing point of the
cell in open circuit is at 75 cm. When a resistor of 10 is connected across the cell, the balance point
shifts to 60 cm. The internal resistance of the cell is
1) 25 2) 2.5 3) 1.5 4) 3
l l
Hint: r 1 2 R
l2
Key : 2
109. In a potentiometer of 10 wires, the balance point is obtained on the sixth wire. To shift the balance point
to eighth wire, we should
1) Increase the resistance in the primary circuit
2) Decrease the resistance in the primary circuit
3) Decrease the resistance in series with the cell whose emf is to be measured
4) Increase the resistance in series with the cell whose emf is to be measured
Key : 1
110. A potentiometer is connected across A and B and a balancing length of 64 cm when potentiometer is
connected between A and C balancing length is 8 cm. The reading of the potentiometer when it is
connected between BC is
A B C
1) 8cm 2) 56cm 3) 64cm 4) 72cm
Hint:
e1 64
e1 e2 8
e1 e2 8
e1 64
e2 7 e2 7
;
e1 8 64 8
e2 7(8) 56cm
Key : 2
111. In an experiment for calibration of volt meter, a standard cell of emf 2v is balanced at 200cm length of
potentiometer wire. The P.D across resistance in the circuit is balanced at 100cm . If volt meter is
connected across the same resistance it reads resistance it reads 0.95v. The error in the volt meter is
a) 0.05v b) 0.5v c) 0.25v d) 0.025v
Hint:
e 200
V 100
2 200
V 100
V=1volt
Error=1-0.95=0.05volt
Key : 1
112. At the moment when the potentiometer is balanced,
1) Current flows only in the primary circuit
2) Current flows only in the secondary circuit
3) Current flows both in primary and secondary circuits
4) current does not flow in any circuit
113. A potentiometer circuit has been set up for finding the internal resistance of a given cell. The main
battery used across the potentiometer wire has an emf of 2.0V and a negligible internal resistance. The
potentiometer wire itself is 4m long. When the resistance R connected across the given cell has values
of
a) Infinity
b) 9.5Ω the balancing lengths on the potentiometer wire are found to be 3m and 2.85m respectively. The
value of internal resistance of the cell is
1)0.75Ω 2) 0.25Ω 3) 0.95Ω 4) 0.5Ω
Hint: If R is infinity, then between the two terminal of the cell emf `e` is present
If R is 9.5Ω then between the two terminals of the cell terminal voltage V is present
e Rr 3 9.5 r
r=0.5Ω
V R 2.85 9.5
Key : 4
114.
Figure shows potentiometer. Consider that the internal resistances of cells is negligible. AB is a
magnetic wire of length 10m and resistance 1 .
A : When S1 open and S 2 is closed the balancing length is 2m
B : When S1 is closed and S 2 is open the balancing length is 4m
1) Both A & B are false 2) A is true B is false
3) Both A & B are true 4) A is false B is true
Hint: cells in primary and secondary circuits are supporting one another hence balancing point do not occur.
Key : 1
115. In the arrangement shown in the figure when the switch S2 is open, the galvanometer
L
shows no deflection for . When the switch S2 is closed, the galvanometer shows no deflection for
2
5
L . The internal resistance of 6V cell, and the emf E of the other battery are respectively (internal
12
resistance of cell of emf E is negligible)
1) 3,8V 2) 2,12V 3) 2, 24V 4) 3,12V
E
Hint: 6
L
E L
6
L 2
E = 12V ––––––(1)
6 10 E 1
10 r L
6 10 12 5L
10 r L 12
12 = 10 + r, r 2
Key : 2
116. A Daniel cell is balanced on 125cm length of a potentiometer wire. Now the cell short-circuited by a
resistance 2 and the balance is obtained at 100cm. The internal resistance of the Daniel cell is
1) 0.5 2) 1.5 3) 1.25 4) 4 / 5
l l 25
Sol : r 1 2 R 2 0.5
l2 100
Key :1
117. A cell in secondary circuit gives null deflection for 2.5m length of potentiometer having 10m length of
wire. If the length of the potentiometer wire is increased by 1m without changing the cell in the primary,
the position of the null point now is
1) 3.5 m 2) 3m 3) 2.75 m 4) 2.0 m
L l 10 2.5
Sol : L 1; 1 1
L2 l2 11 l2
2.5 11
10l2 2.5 11 l2 2.75 m
10
Key :3
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENTS
DAY – 14 (DT 21-04-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Chapter : Moving Charges and Magnetism
1. Current I flows through a long conducting wire bent at right angles as shown in the figure. The
magnetic field at a point P on the right bisector of the angle XOY at a distance r from O is :-
i
0
SOL:. B1 B2 0 sin 45 1
4 r sin 45
KEY-4
2. Equal currents are flowing in three infinitely long wires along positive x, y and z direction. The
magnetic field at a point (0, 0, –a) would be (i = current in each wire) :-
KEY-1
3. Find magnetic field at point P in given diagram.
0 i
SOL ; 4. B sin 90 sin 45
4 r sin 45
KEY-3
4. Find magnetic induction at point 'O' in given
figure.
1
KEY- 2
5. Two infinite wires bent in the form of L shape carries current I as shown. What is magnetic field at O ?
I mI mI 0 I
(1) 0 (2) 0 (3) 0 (4)
4 r 2pr 4pr 2 2 r
SOL : B B1 B2 B3 B4 B on axis = 0
i
B at a distance = 0
4 r
KEY : 2
6. A circular current carrying coil has a radius R. The distance from the centre of the coil on the axis
th
where the magnetic induction will be 1 / 8 of its value at the centre of the coil is
1) R / 3 2) R 3 3) 2R 3
4) 2 3 R
0 2 IR 2
SOL Baxis
4 R 2 x 2 3/ 2
0 2 I
At centre, Bcentre
4 R
In the given problem,
0 2 IR 2 1 2 I
0
4 R 2 x 2 3/ 2
8 4 R
3/2
Or R 2 x 2 8R3
Solving we get x R 3
KEY : 2
7. A square conducting loop of side length L carries a current I. The magnetic field at the
centre of the loop is
1) independent of L 2) proportional of L
3) inversely proportional to L 4) linearly proportional to L
SOL: Magnetic field at the centre due to either arm
I 2 2I
B1 0 sin 45o sin 45o 0
4 L / 2 4 L
2
Field at centre due to the four arms of the square
2 2I
B 4 B1 4 0
4 L
i
i.e., B
L
KEY : 3
8. A current of1/ 4 ampere is flowing in a long straight conductor. The line internal of magnetic
induction around a closed path enclosing the current carrying conductor is
1) 107Wbm1 2) 4 107Wbm1 2 7 1
3) 16 10 Wbm 4) zero
1
SOL:. B.dI m0 I 4p 107 107 Wbm 1
4p
KEY : 1
9. The magnetic induction at centre O is
0 I 0 I 3 0 I 0 I 3 0 I 0 I 3m0 I m0 I
1) 2) 3) 4)
2a 2b 8a 8b 8a 8b 8a 8b
3 I 1 I 3 I I
SOL:. B 0 0 ; B 0 0
4 2a 4 2b 8a 8b
KEY : 2
10. In the below figure shows three cases in all cases the circular path has radius r and straight ones are
infinitely long. For the same current the ratio of field B at centre P in the three cases B1 : B2 : B3 is
3 1 3 1
1) : : 2) 1 : 1 :
2 2 4 2 2 2 4 2
3 1 3 1
3) : : 4) 1 : :
2 2 4 2 2 4 4 2
mI mI
SOL:. B1 0 ; B2 0
4r 4r
3
m I 3 mI m I 3 1
B3 0 0 0
2r 4 4pr 4pr 2 p
m I 3p 2 m0 I 2
3p 1
0
4r 2p 4r p 4 2
3 1
B1 : B2 : B3 : :
2 2 4 2
KEY :1
11. Two concentric coils, each of radius equal to 2 cm, are placed at right angles to each other. Currents
2
of 3A and 4A respectively are flowing through the two coils. The magnetic induction in Wbm at the
centre of the coils will be 0 4 107 Wb Am 1
5
1) 5 10 2) 7 105 3) 12 105 4) 105
SOL:.
m0 I m
Bx 2
0 310 2 3105 T
2 2p 10 4p
m I'
By 0 2
4105 T
2 2p 10
Bnet Bx2 By2 251010 5105 T
KEY : 1
12. The magnetic field at the centre of an equilateral triangular loop of side 2L and carrying a current i is
9 0i 3 30i 2 30i 3 0i
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 L 4 L L 4 L
SOL: Magnetic field at O is
i
B 3 0 sin 60o sin 60o
4 r
3 9 i
4
3 0 i 3
L
0
4 L
KEY : 1
13. Two wires AO and OC carry equal currents ias shown in figure. One end of both the wires extends to
infinity. Angle AOC is . The magnitude of magnetic field at point P on the bisector of these tow
wires at a distance r from point O is
4
1 cos
0 i 0 i i 2 0 i
1) cot 2) cot 3) 0 4)
2 r 2 4 r 2 2 r 4 r 2
sin
2
SOL: x r sin
2
1 cos
i i 2
BP 2 0 sin 90o sin 90o 0
4 x 2 2 r sin
2
KEY : 3
14. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current i. The current is uniformly distributed across
its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic field at a/2 and 2a is
1) 4 2) 1 3) 1/2 4) ¼
i2 i B 4
SOL:. B1 0 , B2 0 ; 1
2 a 4 a B2 1
Key : 1
15. Two very thin metallic wires are placed along X and Y-axis carry equal currents as shown in the
figure. AB and CD are lines at 45 with the axes with origin of axes at O. The magnetic field will
be zero on the line
Y
C B
I
I
O
X
D
A
1) AB 2) CD
3) Segment OB only of line AB 4) Segment OC only of line CD
SOL. Every point on line AB will be equidistant from x and Y-axis. So magnetic field at every point on line
AB due to wire 1 along X-axis is equal in magnitude but opposite in direction to the magnetic field due
to wire along Y-axis. Hence Bnet on AB 0
Key : 1
5
16. Which of the following is correct for the points outside the wire or beam?
1) A current-carrying wire produces magnetic field but not electric field
2) A current-carrying wire produces both magnetic field and electric field
3) A proton beam moving with some velocity produces only electric field
4) A proton beam moving with some velocity produces only magnetic field
SOL. A current –carrying wire does not produce electric field because it is electrically neutral. A proton
beam is positively charged. Hence, a moving proton beam produces both electric and magnetic field
Key : 1
17. Two parallel, long wires carry currents i1 and i2 with i1 i2 . When the current are in the same
direction, the magnetic field at a point midway between the wire is 10 mT. If the direction of i2 is
reversed, the field becomes 30 mT. The ratio i1 / i2 is
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
0
SOL. 10mT i1 i2
2 r / 2
0
30mT i1 i 2
2 r / 2
Dividing : i1 / i2 2
Key:3
18. Consider following coils each of one turn carrying current I. The magnitude of the magnetic
induction at X, Y, Z are B1 , B2 and B3 respectively. Then (assume side of square to be same in each
case)
I I
X I
Y Z
B2 B1
B3
a A a
1) B3 B1 B2 2) B2 B3 B1 3) B2 B1 B3 4) B1 B2 B3
SOL. B3 should be greater than B1 , because distance of centre from current is lesser in this case. B2 is
obviously least
Key : 1
19. A straight wire current element is carrying current 100 A, as shown in figure. The magnitude of
magnetic field at point P which is at perpendicular distance 3 1 m from the current element
if end A and end B of the element subtend angle 30 and 60 at point P, as shown, is
B
A
60
30
3 1 m
1) 5 106 T 2) 2.5 106 T 3) 2.5 105 T 4) 8 105 T
i
SOL. B 0 sin 1 sin 2
6
4 d
107 100 3 1
5 106 T
3 1 2 2
Key : 1
20. A coaxial cable is made up of two conductors. The inner conductor is solid and is of radius
R1 and the outer conductor is hollow of inner radius R2 and outer radius R3 . The space between
the conductors is filled with air. The inner and outer conductors are carrying currents of equal
magnitudes and in opposite directions. Then the variation of magnetic field with distance from
the axis is best plotted as
1) 2)
3) 4)
SOL. From Ampere’s law, the field at the axis is zero.
From x=zero to R1 , the field increase linearly as the charge enclosed increases.
From x R1 to R2 and from x R2 to R3 , the field decreases hyperbolically but with different slopes as
the media are different. Hence the required graph is
7
Key : 3
21. A current i ampere flows along the inner conductor of a coaxial cable and returns along the
outer conductor of the cable, then the magnetic induction at any point outside the conductor at a
distance r meter from the axis is
2i 2 i
1) 2) Zero 3) 0 4) 0
4 r 4 r
SOL. The respective figure is shown below Magnetic field at P due to inner and outer cohductors are equal
and opposite. Hence net magnetic field at P will be zero
Key : 2
22. Only the current inside Amperian loop contributes in
1) Finding magnetic field at any point on the Ampere’s loop
2) Line integral of magnetic field
3) Both 1 and 2
4) Neither of them
SOL. Magnetic field at any point on Ampere’s loop can be due to all currents passing through inside or
outside the loop. But net contribution in the left hand side will come from inside current only
Key : 2
23. B1 is the magnetic field due to bigger coil, B2 is the magnetic field due to smaller coil and Bnet is the
net magnetic field at the center of two concentric coils. If Bnet B1 and B2 B1 , then decide the
direction of currents I1 and I 2 in the two coils
1) Both clockwise 2) Both anticlockwise
3) Both opposite to each other 4) It can’t be predicted
SOL. Bnet B1
Obviously Bnet B1 B2 and B2 B1
The direction of I1 and I 2 will be in opposite sense to produce opposite magnetic fields.
Key : 3
24. A particle of charge q and mass m is moving along the x-axis with a velocity v and enters a
region of electric field E and magnetic field B as shown in figure below for which figure the net
force on the charge may be zero
8
Y Y
B E
v X v X
q q
E B
1) Z 2) Z
Y Y
E B E
v X v X
q q
B
B
3) Z 4) Z
SOL. The charge will not experience any force if Fe Fm . This condition is satisfied
Key : 2
25. Two circular X and Y, having equal number of turns, carry equal currents in the same sense and
subtend same solid angle at point O. If the smaller coil X is midway between O and Y, and if we
represent the magnetic induction due to bigger coil Y at O as BY and that due to smaller coil X at
O as BX, then
BY BY B 1 BY 1
1) 1 2) 2 3) Y 4)
BX BX BX 2 BX 4
SOL:. Magnetic field at O due to bigger coil Y, is
2
2 i 2r 0 8 ir 2
BY 0 . 3/2
.
4 d 2 2r 2 4 d 2 4r 2 3/ 2
Magnetic field at O due to smaller coil X is
2 ir 2 0 16 ir 2
BX 0 . 3/ 2
.
4 d 2 4 d 2 4r 2 3/ 2
2
r
2
B 1
Y
BX 2
Key : 3
26. Two wires of same length are shaped into a square and a circle. If they carry same current, ratio
of the magnetic moment is
1) 2 : 2) : 2 3) : 4 4) 4 :
2
l l2
SOL: Suppose length of each wire is l. Asquare
4 16
9
2
2 1 l2
Acircle r
2 4
Magnetic moment M iA
M A l 2 / 16
square square
M circle Acircle l2 / 4 4
Key : 3
27. A steady current I goes through a wire loop PQR having shape of a right angle triangle with PQ = 3x,
PR = 4x and QR = 5x. The magnitude of the magnetic field at P due to this loop is
7 0 I 480 I I 90 I
1) 2) 3) 0 4)
48x 7x x x
SOL :
Area of the triangle is
1 1 12x
PD 5x 3x 4x ; PD
2 2 5
KEY-1
28. Two identical conducting wires AOB and COD are placed at right angles to each other. The wire AOB
carries an electric current I1 and COD carries a current I 2 . The magnetic field on a point lying at a
distance d from O, in a direction perpendicular to the plane of the wires AOB and COD, will be given
by
1
I I2 2
1) 0 I12 I 22 2) 0 1
2 d 2 d
1
0
3)
2 d
I12 I 22 2 4) 0 I1 I 2
2 d
i i
SOL : B1 0 1 , B2 0 2
2 d 2 d
2 2
Bnet B1 B2 ; as B1 & B2 are mutually
0
Perpendicular .i.e, Bnet i12 i22
2 d
KEY- 3
29. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a direct current, the magnetic field associated with the current will
be
a) only inside the pipe
b) only outside the pipe
c) neither inside nor outside the pipe
d) both inside and outside the pipe
i
SOL : Because for inside the pipe i = 0 ; B 0 0
2 r
KEY-2
10
30.A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady current I. The current is uniformly distributed over its
a
cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic fields B and B ' , at radial distances and 2a respectively, from
2
the axis of the wire is
1 1
1) 2) 3) 1 4) 4
4 2
SOL : For points inside the wire
0 Ir
B r R
2 R 2
For points outside the wire
0 I
B r R
2 r
According to the question
0 I ( a / 2)
B 2 a 2 1:1
B' 0 I
2 (2a )
KEY- 3
31. A square conducting loop of side length L carries a current I. The magnetic filed at the centre of the
loop is
1) independent of L 2) proportional to L2
3) inversely proportional to L 4) linearly proportional to L
SOL : Magnetic field at the centre due
to either arms
0 I
B1 sin 450 sin 450
4 ( L / 2)
0 2 2 I
4 L
Field at centre due to four arms of the square
0 2 2 I 1
B 4 B1 ; i.e., B
L L
KEY-3
32. Two wires with currents 2A and 1A are enclosed in a circular loop. Another wire with current 3A is
situated outside the loop as shown. The around the loop is
1) 0 2) 30 3) 6 0 4) 20
SOL : According to Ampere’s circuital law
11
Since currents 2A and 1A are in the opposite direction.
KEY-1
33. Two long straight conductors are held parallel to each other 7cm apart. The conductors carry currents
of 9A and 16A in opposite directions. The distance of neutral point from the conductor carrying 16A
current is
1) 9cm 2) 16cm 3) 25cm 4) 63/25 cm
SOL : i1 9 A, i2 16 A
d
Dist of neutral pt from ' i1 ', x
i2
1
i1
7
x 9cm
16
1
9
From ' i2 ' ,distance = 9 + 7 = 16 cm
KEY-2
34. An infinitely long conductor PQR is bent to form a right angle as shown. A current I flows through
PQR . The magnetic field due to this current at the point M is H1 . Now another infinitely long straight
conductor QS is connected at Q so that the current is I/2 in QR as well as in QS, the current in PQ
remaining unchanged. The, magnetic field at M is now H 2 the ratio H1 / H 2 is given by
1 2
1) 2) 1 3) 4) 2
2 3
0i
SOL : B
2 r
KEY-3
a a
35. A straight section PQ of a circuit lies along the X-axis from x to x and carries a steady
2 2
current i. The magnetic field due to the section PQ at a point X=+a will be
1) Proportional to a 2) proportional to a 2
3) proportional to 1/a 4) Zero
SOL : Magnetic field on the axis of wire is zero
KEY-4
36. Two long straight conductors with currents I1 and I 2 are along X and Y axes. The equation of locus of
points of zero magnetic induction is
12
I2 X
1) Y X 2) Y
I1
I1 X
3) Y X 4) Y
I2 I1I 2
I I
SOL : 0 1 0 2
2 y 2 x
KEY-3
37. A closed circuit is in the form of a regular hexagon of side a. If the circuit carries a current I , what is
magnetic induction at the centre of the hexagon?
30 I 30 I
1) 2)
4 a 2 a
30 I 30 I
3) 4)
3 a a
0 I
SOL : B 6 sin sin
4 r
0 I
B6 sin 60 sin 60
3a
4
2
KEY-4
38. Two parallel, long wires carry currents i1 and i2 with i1 i2 . When the currents are in the same
direction, the magnetic field at a point midway between the wires is 10T . If the direction of i2 is
reversed, then the field becomes 30T . The ratio i1 / i2 is
1) 4 2) 3 3) 2 4) 1
SOL :
0i1 i
B1 0 2 0 i1 i2 10
d d d
2 . 2 .
2 2
0
B2 i1 i2 30
d
B1 i1 i2 10
B2 i1 i2 30
13
i1 4
2
i1 i2 3i1 3i2 2i1 4i2 ; i2 2
KEY-3
39. A long wire carrying a current i is bent at right angle. The magnitude of magnetic field at height d,
above the point of bending
2 0i 3 2 0i 5 2 0i 7 2 0i
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 d 4 d 4 d 4 d
SOL :
At distance d above O:
i
B1 B2 0 ar
4 d ; B1 is to B2
Resultant of B1 and B2
i
B B12 B22 2. 0
4 d
KEY-1
40. In a coaxial, straight cable, the central conductor and outer conductor carry equal current in opposite
directions. The magnetic field is zero
1) outside the cable
2) Inside the inner conductor
3) inside the outer conductor
4) in between the two conductors
SOL :
At distance r from centre (r > c)
Net enclosed current =0; hence Bp=0
KEY-1
41. A long thin hollow metallic cylinder of radius 'R' has a current i ampere. The magnetic induction 'B'-
away from the axis at a distance r from the axis varies as shown in
B B
2) 3)
r r
x=0 x=R x=0 x=R
1)
14
B B
3) 4)
r r r
x=0 x=R x=0 x=R
1
SOL : Bin Bon 0, Bout Straight line, Rectangular hyperbola
r,
KEY-1
42. Two thick wires and two thin wires, all of the same material and same length, form a square in three
different ways P, Q and R as shown in the figure. With correct connections shown, the magnetic field
at the centre of the square is zero in case of
1) P only 2) P and Q only
3) Q and R only 4) P and R only
SOL : In P and R only, as current divides equally in the two halves because of equal resistances in the two
halves. The currents in the two halves then make the field at centre zero
KEY-4
43. A long straight thin conductor has a current of 'i' ampere. The magnetic induction B away from the
conductor at a distance 'r' from its axis varies as shown in
1
SOL : For long st conductor B (rectangular hyperbola)
r
KEY-4
^ ^
44. A particle is moving with velocity v = i+ 3 j and it produces an electric field at a point given by
E = 2K . It will produce magnetic field at that point equal to ( all quantities are in S.I.units)
^ ^ ^ ^
6 i- 2 j 6 i 2 j
1) 2
2) 3) zero 4) can not be determined from the given data
c c2
V r 1 qr V E
SOL : B 0 q 3 and E
4 r 4 0 r 3
B 0 0 V E c2
KEY-1
45. Two observers moving with different velocities see that a point charge produces same magnetic field at
the same point A. Their relative velocity must be parallel to r , where r is the position vector of point
A with respect to point charge. This statement is.
15
1) true 2) false
3) nothing can be said
4) true only if the charge is moving perpendicular to the r
V r
SOL : B 0 q 3 ,V r must be same
4 r
Where V = velocity of charge with respect to observer
Let A and B are the observers
Then VC VA r VC VB r
or
VA VB r 0 or
VA VB r
KEY-1
46. If wire of length L form a loop of radius R and have n turn. Find magnetic field at centre of loop if
current flowing in loop is I :-
0 ni
SOL : B ; n 2 r L
2r
KEY-3
47. Shown in the figure is a conductor carrying a current I. The magnetic field intensity at the point O
(common centre of all the three arcs) is :-
i
SOL : B B1 B2 B3 B4 ; B1 0
4 r
KEY-1
48. In the given figure magnetic field at centre will be-
0 ni
SOL : B B12 B22 ; 34: BH tan
2r
KEY-3
49. Two tangent galvanometer coils of same radius connected in series. The current flowing produces
deflection of 60o& 45o. The ratio of number of turns in coil is :-
16
KEY-4
50. Two identical coils carrying equal currents have a common centre, and their planes are at right angles
to each other. Find the ratio of the magnitudes of the resultant magnetic field at the centre and the field
due to one coil alone :-
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 1 : 1
(3) 1 : 2 (4) 2 : 1
0 ni
SOL : B (due to one coil)
2r
B1 2 B (due to combination)
KEY-1
51. A tangent galvanometer has a coil of 25 turns and a radius of 15 cm. The horizontal component of the
earth's magnetic field is 3 × 10–5 T. The current required to produce a deflection of 45° in it is:-
(1) 0.29 A (2) 3.6 × 10–5 A
(3) 1.2 A (4) 0.14 A
ni ni
SOL : 0 BH tan ; 37: 0 BH tan
2r 2r
KEY-3
52. A tangent galvanometer has a coil of 100 turns and a radius of 20cm. The horizontal component of the
earth's magnetic field is
BH = 3 × 10–5T.Find the current which gives a deflection of 45º.
(1) 0.082 A (2) 0.053 A
(3) 0.091 A (4) 0.095 A
SOL :
KEY-4
53. A circular coil is in y-z plane with centre at the origin. The coil is carrying a constant current. Assuming
direction of magnetic field at x = –25 cm to be positive direction of magnetic field, which of the
following graphs shows variation of magnetic field along x-axis :-
SOL : M M 12 M 22 M1 iA
;
KEY-2
54. The magnitude of magnetic moment of the current loop shown in the figure is :-
(1) I2 (2) 2I2 (3) zero (4) none of these
KEY-2
17
55. A charged particle (charge q) is moving in a circle of radius R with uniform speed v. The associated
magnetic moment is given by
SOL :
KEY-1
56. Two similar coils of radius R are lying concentrically with their planes at right angles to each other.
The currents flowing in them are I and 2I, respectively. The resultant magnetic field induction at the
centre will be
I I
1) 0 2) 5 0
R 2R
3 0 I I
3) 4) 0
2R 2R
SOL : B B12 B22
2 2
I 2I I
B 0 0 ; B 5 0
2R 2R 2R
KEY-2
57. An electron moving in a circular orbit of radius r makes n rotations per second. The magnetic field
produced at the centre has magnitude
0 I 0 ne
SOL : B ; B
2r 2r
KEY-3
58. A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown in the adjoining figure. Linear parts of the wire are
very long and parallel to X-axis while semicircular portion of radius R is lying in Y-Z plane. Magnetic
field at point O is
18
SOL :
KEY-3
59. Two current loops (similar) are placed with their planes one along x-axis and the other along y-axis.
Then, the ratio of resultant magnetic field at a common point to the individual magnetic field is
1) 2 :1 2) 1: 2 3) 3 : 2 4) 3: 2
BR 2
SOL : BR B 2 B 2 2 B ;
B 1
KEY-1
60. The field normal to the plane of a wire of n turns and radius r which carries a current i is measured on
the axis of the coil at a small distance h from the centre of the coil. This is smaller than the field at the
centre by the fraction
3 h2 2 h2 3 r2 2 r2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 r2 3 r2 2 h2 3 h2
2in 0 ni
SOL : : Field at the centre B1 0 .
4 r 2 r
19
KEY-1
61. The ratio of the magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying circular loop and the magnetic field at
the centre of a square loop made from the same length of wire will be (same current I flows)
2 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 2 8 2 2 2 4 2
2
I 0I I B
SOL : B1 0 0 ; 1
2r B2 8 2
2
2
KEY-2
62. In a bent wire shown in fig, a current I is passed. Find the value of B at the common centre
0 I b a 2 Ia 2 0 Ib 2 0 Iab
1) 2) 0 3) 4)
4ab 4b 4a 4
0I 0I
SOL : B1 2 ; B2 2
4a 4b
B1 B1 B2
0 I 1 1 I b a 2
2 0
4 a b 4ab
KEY-1
63. Two tangent galvanometers having coils of the same radius are connected in series. A current flowing
in them produces deflections of 60 o and 45 o respectively. The ratio of the number of turns in the coils
3 1 3
1) 4 3
2) 3 1 / 1 3)
3 1
4)
1
SOL : In series current is same.
20
M1 tan 1 N tan 60o
or 1 3
M 2 tan 2 N 2 tan 45o
KEY-3
64. The magnetic induction at the centre O in the figure shown is ( i is the current )
`
0i 1 1 0i 1 1 0i 0i
a) b) c) R1 R2 d) R1 R2
4 R1 R2 4 R1 R2 4 4
SOL :
0 i
B1 .
4 R1
0i 1 1
So Bnet B1 B2 Bnet
4 R1 R2
KEY-1
65. A wire of length l is bent into a circular loop of radius R and carries a current I. The magnetic field at
the centre of the loop is B. The same wire is now bent into a double loop of equal radii. If both loops
carry the same current I and it is in the same direction, the magnetic field at the centre of the double
loop will be
1) zero 2) 2B 3) 4B 4) 8B
SOL : Magnetic field at the centre of loop
0 I .2 R
B . .....(i )
4 R 2
For the wire which is looped double let radius becomes r
l l
Then, 2 r; r
2 4
21
0 I .2 r 2
B' .
4 r2
l
' 0 I . 2 .2
B .
4 1
4
Il 16 2
B' 0 . .......(ii)
4 l2
0 I .l l
Now, B . R .....(iii)
4 l 2
2
2
Dividing Equation (ii) by Equation (iii), we get
0 I .l.16 2
' .
B l2 B'
4 4 B' 4B
B 0 Il.4 2 B
. 2
4 l
KEY-3
66. Magnetic field induction at the centre O of a square loop of side ‘a’ carrying current I as shown in
figure is
0 I I 2 0 I
a) b) 2 2 0 c) d)zero
2 a a a
SOL : AB and DC, AD and BC are the two current carrying pairs. They are so situated that currents of each
pair produce equal and opposite magnetic fields at the centre O of the loop. Hence, the resultant
magnetic field induction at the centre O of the loop is zero.
KEY-4
67. A wire of length L is shaped into a circle and then bent in such a way that the two semi-circles are
perpendicular. The magnetic moment of the system when current I flows through the system is
2iL2 3iL2 iL2 iL2
1) 8 2) 4 3) 4 4) 2 s
2 2
iL iL
SOL : M = iA = i r2 2
2r
4 4
2 2
M M M iL2 2iL2
M'
2 2 2 4 2T 8
KEY-1
68. Two coils X and Y having the same number of turns, carrying the same current and in the same sense
are arranged coaxially so that they subtend the same SOLid angle at point O. If the smaller coil is
midway between the larger coil and the point O, then the ratio of the magnetic field at O due to the two
coils is
22
1) 1 2) 4 3) 2 4) 8
R1 R2
SOL : . tan (or ) R1 2 R2
x x/2
R1
R2
x/2
x
2
o IR 1 o I 4 R22
B1
2( R12 x ) 2 3/2
2(4R22 x 2 )3/2
o IR22 o IR22 B1 43/ 2
B2 3/2
3/ 2
x2 4R2 x2 4
2 R22 2 2
4 4
KEY-3
69. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of a current carrying circular coil to its magnetic moment is K.
If both the current and radius are doubled, the new ratio will be
K K K
1) 2) 3) 4) 2K
8 4 2
o Ni
B B 1
SOL : 2r 2 3
M Ni r M r
KEY-1
70. A current I is flowing through a loop. The direction of the current and the shape of the loop are as
I
shown in the figure. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is 0 times (here, MA=R, MB=2R,
R
0
DMA 90 )
5
1) out of the plane of the paper
16
5
2) into the plane of the paper
16
7
3) out of the plane of the paper
16
23
7
4) into the plane of the paper
16
I 3 0 I
SOL : . B B1 B2 ; B 0
4 R 2 4 2
I 3 1 I 6 1 7 0 I
B 0 ; B 0
4 R 2 4 4R 4 16 R
KEY-4
71. Two particles each of mass m and charge q are attached to the two ends of a light rigid rod of length
2R. The rod is rotated at constant angular speed about a perpendicular axis passing through its centre.
The ratio of the magnitudes of the magnetic moment of the system and its angular momentum about
the centre of the rod is
1) q / 2m 2) q / m
3) 2q / m 4) q / m
SOL :
2q
M iA i. R 2 . R 2 q r 2
2 /
L I mR mR 2 2mR 2
2
M q
L 2m
KEY- 1
72. A long wire carries a steady current. It is bent into a circle of one turn and the magnetic field at the
centre of one turn coil is B. Now it is bent into a circular loop of n turns. The magnetic field at the
centre of the n turn coil will be
1) nB 2) n2 B 3) 2 n B 4) 2 n 2 B
I
SOL : B1 0 where 2 r1 l
2r1
I n
B2 0 where n 2 r2 l
2r2
B 1 r 1
1 2 2 B2 n 2 B
B2 r1 n n
KEY-2
73. The negatively charged disc in figure is rotated clock-wise. What is the direction of the magnetic field
at point A in the plane of the disc?
1) Into the page 2) Out of the page 3) Up the page 4) Down the page
SOL : Equivalent current is in anticlockwise direction. Hence upper face acts as North Pole.
KEY-1
24
74. The magnetic field due to a current – carrying circular loop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis at a
distance of 4 cm from the centre is 54T . What will be its value at the centre of the loop?
1) 250T 2) 150T 3) 125T 4) 75T
0nir 2 0ni
SOL : Ba ,Bc
2 3 /2 2r
2 x2 r
3/2
Bcentre 42 125
Baxis 3/ 2
; Bcentre 54 1 2 54 250 T
x2 3 27
1 r 2
KEY-1
75. A and B are two concentric circular conductors with centre O and carrying current I1 and I2 as shown
I
in figure. The ratio of their radii is 1:2 and ratio of their flux densities at O is 1:3. The value of 1 is
I2
1 1 1 1
a) b) c) d)
6 4 2 3
0 I
SOL : B ; I Br
2r
I1 B1 r1 1 1 1
I 2 B2 r2 3 2 6
KEY-1
76. The magnetic induction at a point on the axis of a circular coil is 1/ 2 2 times the magnetic induction at
the centre of the coil, when current is passed through the coil. If the radius of the coil is 10 cm, then the
distance of that point is
1) 5 cm 2) 10 cm 3) 15 cm 4) 20 m
0 NIR2 NI
SOL : Baxis 3
, Bcentre 0
2R
2 R2 x 2 2
BA 1 r3 1
; 3
3/2
Bc 2 2 r 2 x 2 2
r 1
; 2r 2 r 2 x 2 ; r x 10cm
2 2
r x 2
KEY-2
77. A cell is connected between the points A and C of a circular conductor ABCD of centre O with angle
AOC = 600. If B1 and B2 are the magnitudes of the magnetic fields at O due to the currents in ABC and
B1
ADC respectively, the ratio is
B2
25
1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 1 3) 1 : 2 4) 2 : 3
SOL :
KEY- 1
78. The diagram shows a SOLenoid and a loop such that the SOLenoid’s axis lies in the plane of the
loop. Both the SOLenoid and the loop carry constant currents in the directions as shown in the
diagram. If the loop is released from rest, the loop will
1) Move towards the SOLenoid, rotates clockwise
2) Move towards the SOLenoid, rotates anticlockwise
3) Move away the SOLenoid, rotates clockwise
4) Move away the SOLenoid, rotates anticlockwise
SOL. The loop rotates anticlockwise due to magnetic torque and as a result north and south poles will attract
each other
Key : 2
79. A long SOLenoid has 200 turns per centimetre and carries a current i. The magnetic field at its centre
is 6.28 10 2 Wb / m 2 . Another long SOLenoid has 100 turns per centimetre and it carries a current i/3.
The value of the magnetic field at its centre is
1) 1.05 10 3 Wb / m 2 2) 1.05 10 4 Wb / m 2
3) 1.05 10 2 Wb / m 2 4) 1.05 10 5 Wb / m 2
26
2
n I B 6.28 10
SOL: B 0 nI ; B| 0 Wb / m2 1.05 10 2 Wb / m 2
23 6 6
Key : 3
80. A current of 1/4 ampere is flowing through a toroid. It has 1000 number of turn per meter then value
of magnetic field (in wb/m ) along its axis is :
(1) 10–2 (2) 10–3 (3) 10–4 (4) 10–7
SOL : B 0 ni
KEY-3
81. A long SOLenoid of length L has a mean diameter D. It has n layers of windings of N turns each. If it
carries a current ‘i’ the magnetic field at its centre will be
1) proportional to D
2) inversely proportional to D
3) independent of D
4) proportional to L
SOL : Magnetic field due to SOLenoid is independent of diameter [Because B 0 ni ]
KEY-3
82. A long SOLenoid has 200 turns per cm and carries a current of 2.5 amps. The magnetic field at its
centre is ( 0 4 107 weber / amp m )
1) 3.14 102 weber / m2
2) 6.28 102 weber / m2
3) 9.42 102 weber / m2
4) 12.56 102 weber / m2
200
SOL : B 0 ni 4 107 2
2.5 6.28 102 wb / m2
10
KEY-3
83. A SOLenoid of length 50 cm and a radius of cross-section 1 cm has 1000 turns of wire wound over it.
If the current carried is 5 A the magnetic field on its axis near the centre of the SOLenoid is
approximately (permeability of free space 0 4 10 7 Tm A1 )
1) 0.63 102 T 2) 1.26 102 T 3) 2.51102 T 4) 6.3T
SOL : B 0 ni
KEY-2
84. The magnetic field at any point P in the open space inside a toroid of number of turns ‘N’, radius ‘r’
carrying current ‘I’ is
NI NI
1) 0 N I 2) 0 3) 0 4) zero
2 r 2r
SOL : B inside the open space of toroid is zero
KEY-4
85. A SOLenoid of length 20 cm and radius 2 cm is closely wound with 200 turns. The magnetic field
intensity at either end of the SOLenoid when the current in the winding is 5 amp. is
1) 2500 Amp/m 2) 2000 Amp/m 3) 1750 Amp/m 4) 2940 Amp/m
B ni 200 5 100
SOL : H 2500 Amp / m
0 2 2 20
KEY-1
86. The charge on a particle Y is double the charge on particle X. These two particles X and Y after
being accelerated through the same potential difference enter a region of uniform magnetic field
and describe circular paths of radii R1 and R2 respectively. The ratio of the mass of X to that of Y
is
27
2 2
2R R R12 2R1
1) 1 2) 1 3) 4)
R2 2 R2 2 R22 R2
1 2mV m r mx q y R1 mx 2 m R2
SOL: r x x 12
B q q ry qx m y R2 my 1 m y 2 R2
Key : 3
87. An electron is moving along positive x-axis. To get it moving in an anticlockwise circular path in
x-y plane, a magnetic field is applied
1) Along positive y-axis 2) Along positive z-axis
3) Along negative y-axis 4) Along negative z-axis
SOL:. Tomove the electron in xy plane, force on it must be acting in the y-direction
initially. The direction of F is known, and the direction of v is known, hence by applying Fleming’s
left-hand rule, the direction of magnetic field is also determined.
y xy-plane
F
e
x
v
z
Key : 2
87. A particle of mass 0.6g and having charge of 25nC is moving horizontally with a uniform velocity
1.2 104 ms 1 in a uniform magnetic field. Then the value of the magnetic induction is
g 10 ms 2
1) Zero 2) 10 T 3) 20 T 4) 200 T
SOL. Particle will move with uniform velocity when its acceleration is zero.
i.e., Fm mg mg qvB
mg 0.6 103 10
B 20T
qv 25 109 1.2 104
Fm
mg
Key : 3
88. A particle of specific charge C / kg is projected from the origin towards positive x-axis with a
velocity of 10 m/s in a uniform magnetic field B 2kT ˆ . The velocity v of particle after time
1
t s will be (in m/s)
12
1) 5 iˆ 3 ˆj 2) 5 3iˆ ˆj 3) 5 3iˆ ˆj 4) 5 iˆ ˆj
2 m
SOL. Time period, T
qB
2
T 1 s
2
28
1
Thus, particle will beat point P after t s
12
y
30
P
v 10 cos 30iˆ sin 30 ˆj
3 1
v 10 iˆ ˆj 5 3iˆ ˆj m / s
2 2
Key : 1
89. Three identical charge particles A, B and C are projected perpendicular to the uniform magnetic
field with velocities v1 , v2 and v3 v1 v2 v3 , respectively such that T1 , T2 and T3 are their
respective time period of revolution and r1 , r2 and r3 are respective radii of circular path
described. Then
r r r r r r
1) 1 2 3 2) T1 T2 T3 3) 1 2 3 4) r1 r2 r3
T1 T2 T3 T1 T2 T3
2 m mv e
SOL. T and r v
qB qB T
Key : 3
90. The frequency of a charged particle undergoing a circular motion in a uniform magnetic field is
independent of its
1) Speed 2) Mass 3) Charge 4) Magnetic induction
2 m
SOL. T
Bq
Clearly, T is independent of sped
Key : 1
91. A point charge is moving in clockwise direction in a circle with constant speed. Consider the magnetic
field produced by the charge at a fixed point P (not at the centre of
circle) on the axis of the circle. Then
1) it is constant in magnitude only
2) it is constant in direction only
3) it is constant both in direction and magnitude
4) it is constant neither in magnitude nor on direction
SOL. The point charge moves in circle as shown in figure. The magnetic field vectors at a point P on the
axis of circle are BA and BC at the instant the point charge is at A and C, respectively as shown in
figure.
Hence as the particle rotates in circle, only magnitude of magnetic field remains constant at P but its
direction changes.
29
Key : 1
92. When two charged particle of masses ratio 1 : 2 and charges ratio 4 : 1 are projected at angles of
30o and 60o with uniform magnetic field respectively with same velocities, then the ratio of their
pitches
3 8 3
1) 2) 3) 8 3 4)
8 3 4
2mv cos
SOL. P
qB
P1 m1 cos 1 q 2 1 cos 30 1 3 1 3
P2 m 2 cos 2 q1 2 cos 60 4 4 2 8
Key : 1
93. A long horizontal wire carries a current of 10 A. A charged particle of mass 1 mg moves parallel
to the wire with a constant velocity of magnitude 10 m/s. The distance of the charge from the
wire is 1 cm. The magnitude of the charge is
1) 5 mC 2) 5 C 3) 500 C 4) 5 C
2I
SOL:. The magnetic force on the charge particle is qvB qv 0 q 2 103
4 r
For net force on charged particles to be zero qvB= mg
or q 2 103 1 106 10
or q = 5 mili coulomb
Key : 1
94. Two infinite sheets carrying current in same direction (of equal current per unit length K) are
separated by a distance d. A proton is released from a point between the plates with a velocity
parallel to the sheets but perpendicular to the direction of current in the sheets. Then the path of
the proton is
P V
i
1) Circle 2) Helix 3) Straight line
4) Straight line only if it is released from a point exactly midway between the two plates
SOL. As the net force acting on the proton is zero, it will move straight.
Key : 3
95. When a charged particle is projected through a magnetic field perpendicular to its direction,
then
1) Both momentum and kinetic energy of the particle are not constant
2) Bothe momentum and kinetic energy of the particle are constant
3) Kinetic energy changes but the momentum remains constant
4) The momentum changes but kinetic energy remains constant
1
SOL. mV 2 KE
2
Since speed does not change, the KE remains same. Due to change in the direction of motion,
momentum changes
Key : 4
96. Following figure shows the path of an electron that passes through two regions containing
uniform magnetic fields of magnitudes B1 and B2. Its path in each region is a half circle, choose
the correct option
30
1) B1 is into the path and it is stronger than B2
2) B1 is into the page and it is weaker than B2
3) B1 is out of the page and it is weaker than B2
4) B1 is out of the page and it is stronger than B2
1
SOL . Direction of field can be found using Fleming’s left hand rule and r .
B
Key : 1
97. When proton and particle are projected in an uniform magnetic field with velocities of
30 m / s and 60 m / s at 30o and 60o with the magnetic field respectively then the ratio of their
radii
1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4) 4 3
4 3 2 3 3
mvsin
SOL . r
qB
r1 m1 q 2 v1 sin 1
r2 m 2 q1 v 2 sin 2
r1 1 2 sin 30 30 1
r2 4 1 sin 60 60 4 3
Key : 1
98. A proton and an particle enter a uniform magnetic field moving with the same speed. If the proton
takes 2 s to make 5 revolutions, then the periodic time for the particle would be
1) 50 s 2) 25 s 3) 10 s 4) 5 s
2 m m
SOL; T or T
Bq q
T 4m q 25
2 or T 2 s 10 s
Tp 2 q m 5
KEY : 3
99. An electron is launched with velocity v in a uniform magnetic field B. The angle between v and B lies
between o and / 2. Its velocity vector v returns to its initial value in a time interval of
2 m 2 2 m m
1) 2) 3)
eB eB eB
4) depends upon angle between v and B
SOL: Time interval in which v returns to its initial value is same as time period of the particle, hence the
2 m
required time
eB
KEY : 1
100. A particle with a specific charge s is fired with a speed v toward a wall at a distance d, perpendicular
to the wall. What minimum magnetic field must exist in this region for the particle not to hit the wall?
31
1) v / sd 2) 2v / sd 3) v / 2 sd 4) v / 4 sd
SOL: The particle moves in a circular path with radius d if it is to just miss the wall.
mv Bqr, r d
v v
Or B
q / m d sd
KEY : 1
101. A charged particle enters a uniform magnetic field with velocity vector at an angle of 45o with the
magnetic field. The pitch of the helical path followed by the particle is p. The radius of the helix will
be
p p 2p
1) 2) 2 p 3) 4)
2 2
2 m 2 m
SOL: p
Bq
v cos 45o
Bq
v sin 45o
mv sin 45o p
radius of helix
Bq 2
KEY :3
q
102. A particle of specific charge Ckg 1 is projected from the origin toward positive x-axis with a
m
velocity of10ms 1 in a uniform magnetic field B 2kT ˆ . The velocity v of particle after time t=1/12s
will be (in ms1 )
1) 5 iˆ 3 ˆj
2) 5 3iˆ ˆj
3) 5 3iˆ ˆj
4) 5 iˆ ˆj
2 m 2
SOL:. Time period, T ls
qB 2
l
Thus, particle will be at point P after t s
12
v 10 cos 30iˆ sin 30 ˆj
3 1
v 10 iˆ ˆj 5 3iˆ ˆj ms 1
2 2
KEY : 2
103. A point charge is moving in clockwise direction in a circle with constant speed. Consider the magnetic
field produced by the charge at a fixed point P (not at the centre of
circle) on the axis of the circle. Then
1) it is constant in magnitude only
2) it is constant in direction only
3) it is constant both in direction and magnitude
4) it is constant neither in magnitude nor on direction
32
SOL: The point charge moves in circle as shown in figure. The magnetic field vectors at a point P on the
axis of circle are BA and BC at the instant the point charge is at A and C, respectively as shown in
figure.
Hence as the particle rotates in circle, only magnitude of magnetic field remains constant at P but its
direction changes.
KEY : 1
104. If an electron and a proton having same moment enter perpendicular to a magnetic field, then
1) the curved path of electron and proton will be same (ignoring the sense of revolution)
2) they will move undeflected
3) the curved path of electron is more curved than that of proton.
4) the path of proton is more curved
mv 2 mv p
SOL: Bvq r r
r Bq Bq
All quantities on the right hand side remain unchanged. So r remains unchanged.
Key : 1
105. The time period of a charged particle undergoing a circular motion in a uniform magnetic field is
independent of its
1) speed 2) mass 3) charge 4) magnetic induction
2 m
SOL: T ; Clearly, T is independent of speed.
Bq
Key : 1
106. A proton of mass1.67 10 27 kg and charge1.6 10 19 C is projected with a speed of 2 106 m/s at an
angle of 600 to the X-axis. If a uniform magnetic field of 0.104 Tesla is applied along Y-axis, the path
of proton is
(1) A circle of radius = 0.2 m and time period 10 7 s
(2) A circle of radius = 0.1 m and time period2 10 7 s
(3) A helix of radius = 0.1 m and time period2 10 7 s
(4) A helix of radius = 0.2 m and time period4 10 7 s
mv sin
SOL : r
Bq
79. F q V B
KEY-2
107. A constant magnetic field exists parallel to positive Y axis. The direction of Lorentz force experienced
by an electron going along positive Z axis is :-
(1) +ve X axis (2) –ve X axis (3) –ve Y axis (4) –ve Z axis
KEY-1
108. A charged particle with specific charge S moves un deflected through a region of space containing
33
mutually perpendicular uniform electric and magnetic fields E & B. When electric field is switched
off, the particle will move in a circular path
of radius:-
mv
SOL : Bqv Eq, r
Bq
KEY-4
109. An electron moving with a speed ualong the positive x-axis at y = 0 enters a region of
uniform magnetic field B B0 k which exists to the right of y- axis. The electron exits from the
region after some time with the speed at co-ordinate y, then
(1) u, y 0 (2) u, y 0 (3) u, y 0 (4) u, y 0
SOL : In magnetic field speed of the particle is constant
KEY-3
110. An electron is moving at 106 m/sec in a direction parallel to a current of 5A flowing through an infinite
long straight wire separated by a perpendicular distance of 10cm in air. Magnetic force experienced by
the electron :-
(1) 1.6 × 10–19 N (2) 1.6 × 10–20 N (3) 1.6 × 10–18 N (4) 1.6 × 10–21 N
SOL : F Bqv sin
KEY-3
111. The charges 1, 2, 3 are moves in uniform transverse magnetic field then :-
(1) particle '1' positive and particle 3 negative
(2) particle 1 negative and particle 3 positive
(3) particle 1 negative and particle 2 neutral
(4) particle 1 and 3 are positive and particle 2 neutral
SOL : Apply fleming’s left hand rule
KEY-1
112. H+, He+ and O++ all having the same kinetic energy pass through a region in which is a uniform
magnetic field perpendicular to their velocity. The masses of H+, He+ and O++ are 1amu, 4amu and
16amu respectively then :-
(a) H+ will be deflected most
(b) O++ will be deflected most
(c) He+ and O++ will be deflected equally
34
(d) all will be deflected equally
(1) a, b (2) a, b, c (3) only a (4) a, c
2mKE
SOL : r
Bq
KEY-4
113. Under the influence of a uniform magnetic field a charged particle is moving in a circle of radius R
with Constant speed v. The time period of the motion
(a) depends on v and not on R
(b) depends on both R and v
(c) is independent of both R and v
(d) depends on R and not on v
SOL :
KEY-3
114. A particle mass m. charge Q and kinetic energy T enters a transverse uniform magnetic field of
induction B After 3s the kinetic energy or the particle will be
(a) 3T (b) 2 T (c) T (d) 4 T
SOL : After passing through a magnetic field, the magnitude of its mass and velocity of the particle remain
the same, so its energy does not change, i.e., kinetic energy will remain T.
KEY- 3
115. When a proton is released from rest in a room, it starts with an initial acceleration a0 towards west.
When it is projected towards north with a speed v0 it moves with an initial acceleration 3a0 toward
west. The electric and magnetic fields in the room are
SOL :
35
KEY-2
117. A proton and an alpha particle both enter a region of uniform magnetic field, B, moving at right angles
to the field B. If the radius of circular orbits for both the particles is equal and the kinetic energy
acquired by proton is 1 MeV, the energy acquired by the alpha particle will be
(1) 1 MeV (2) 4 MeV (3) 0.5 MeV (4) 1.5 MeV
SOL :
KEY-1
118. The figure shows three situations when an electron with velocity v travels through a uniform
magnetic field B . In each case, the direction of magnetic force on the electron is
1) +ve z-axis, -ve x-axis, +ve y-axis
2) –ve z-axis, -ve x-axis and zero
3) +ve z-axis, +ve y-axis and zero
4) –ve z-axis, +ve x-axis and zero
SOL :
KEY-2
119. A cyclotron in which protons are accelerated has a flux density of 1.57 T. The variation of frequency
of electric field is (in Hz)
1) 4.8 108 2) 8.4 108 3) 2.5 107 4) 4.8 106
Bq 1.57 1.6 1019
SOL : n
2 m 2 3.14 1.67 1027
KEY- 3
120. A cyclotron has an oscillator frequency 12MHz and a dee of radius 50cm. Calculate the magnetic
induction needed to accelerate deuterons of mass
3.3 1027 kg and charge 1.6 1019 C
36
a) 1.55wb / m2 b) 2.55wb / m2 c) 0.55wb / m2 d) 3.55wb / m2
n(2 m) 12 106 2 3.14 3.3 1027
SOL : B 1.55 wb / m 2
q 1.6 1019
KEY-1
121. A proton moving in a perpendicular magnetic field possesses kinetic energy E. The magnetic field
is increased 8 times. But the proton is constrained to move in the path of same radius. The kinetic
energy will increase
1) 1 8 times 2) 8 times 3) 16 times 4) 64times
2m KE
SOL : : r
Bq
KEY-4
122. A charged particle of charge q, mass m is moving with initial velocity ‘v’ as shown in figure in a
uniform magnetic field Bk . Select the correct alternative / alternatives.
1) Velocity of particle when it comes out from magnetic field is v v cos 300 i v sin 300 j
m
2) Time for which the particle was in magnetic field is
3qB
mV
3) Distance traveled in magnetic field is
3qB
4) all the above
SOL : (A), (B), (C)
mV
Arc AB r
3 3qB
1 T m
Time ' t '
2 3 6 3qB
KEY-4
123. A charged particle having kinetic energy E enters normally a region of uniform magnetic field between
two plates P1 and P2 as shown in the figure. If the particle just misses hitting the plate P2 , then the
magnetic field B in the region between the plates is
37
2mE mE mE 2mE
1) 2) 3) 4)
qd qd qd qd
SOL :
2mK 2mE
R
Bq Bq
particle misses the plate P2,
2mE 2mE
d B
Rd; Bq ; qd
2mE
Bmin
qd
KEY-4
124. The oscillating frequency of a cyclotron is 10 MHz. If the radius of its Dees is 0.5 m, then the kinetic
energy of a proton which is accelerated by the cyclotron is (nearly)
1) 10.2 MeV 2) 2.55 MeV 3) 20.4 MeV 4) 5.1 MeV
1 2 R
SOL : T
f v
v 2 Rf 2 0.5 107 107 m / sec
1 1 8.23 1013
K mv2 1.67 1027 2 1014 MeV
2 2 8.23 1013 J 1.6 1013
=5.1 MeV
KEY-4
125. A proton goes undeflected in a crossed electric and magnetic field (the fields are perpendicular to each
other) at a speed of 2.0 105 m / s . The velocity is perpendicular to both the fields. When the electric
field is switched off, the proton moves along a circle of radius 4.0 cm. The magnitudes of the electric
and the magnetic fields is. (Take mass of the proton 1.6 1027 kg )
1) 10 4 N / C , 0.05 T 2) 105 N / C , 0.05 T 3) 104 N / C , 0.04 T 4) 10 4 N / C , 0.04 T
38
SOL :
Fm Bqv0 , upward direction
Fe qE , downward direction
Fm Fe Bv0 E .....(i)
mv0
R
Bq .....(ii)
27 5
1.6 10 2 10
4 102 B 0.05 T
B 1.6 10 19
E Bv0 0.05 2 105 10 4 N / C
KEY-1
126. A charge particle A of charge q 2 C has velocity v 100 m / s . When it passes through point A and
has velocity in the direction shown. The strength of magnetic field at point B due to this moving charge
is (r 2m)
1) 2.5 T 2) 5.0 T 3) 2.0 T 4) None
qv r sin 30
SOL : B 0
4 r3
1
107 2 100
2 2.5 T
22
KEY-1
127. In a mass spectrometer used for measuring the masses of ions, the ions are initially accelerated by an
electric potential V and then made to describe semicircular paths of radius R using a magnetic field B.
charge on ion
If V and B are kept constant, the ratio will be proportional to
mass of the ion
1 1 2
1) 2) 3) R 4) R
R R2
B2q2 R2
SOL : KE qV qV
2m
q 2V q 1
2 2 2
m BR m R
KEY-2
128. Two particles X and Y having equal charge, after being accelerated through the same potential
difference enter a region of uniform magnetic field and describe circular paths of radii R1 and R2
respectively. The ratio of the mass of X to that of Y is
39
1
2
R 2 R1 R R2
1) 1 2) 3) 1 4)
R2 R2 R2 R1
2mqV
SOL : R , R m
. Bq
( V, B, q are constant)
2
R1 mX m R
X 1
R2 my mY R2
KEY-3
129. A charged particle moves in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular to it, with a radius of curvature
4cm. On passing through a metallic sheet it loses half of its kinetic energy. Then, the radius of
curvature of the particle is
1) 2cm 2) 4cm 3)8cm 4) 2 2 cm
mv m 2 KE 2m
SOL : R KE
qB qB m qB
R1 KE R 4
R2 1 2 2cm
R2 KE / 2 2 2
KEY-4
130.A changed particle enters a region of uniform magnetic field B with velocity v at an angle as shown
in the figure. Then the ratio of radius to pitch of helix, is :
2 tan
(1) (2) tan (3) cot (4)
tan 2
SOL : The radius of the helical trajectory is
mv sin
r
qB
2 mv cos
pitch, p
qB
Dividing eqn. (i) by eqn. (ii), we get:
r tan
p 2
KEY-4
131. When an electron beam passes through an electric field they gain kinetic energy, if the same electron
beam passes through magnetic field, then their
1) momentum increases
2) kinetic energy increases
3) energy and magnitude of momentum both remain unchanged
4) potential energy increases
SOL : Kinetic energy of electron is independent of magnetic field, because magnetic force always points
1
perpendicular to the particle velocity. The velocity remains constant. The energy mv 2 constant and
2
momentum (p=mv) constant
40
KEY-3
132. An ionized gas contains, both +ve and -ve ions which are initially at rest. The gas is subjected to E
toward positive x-axis, magnetic field' along +ve z axis. Then find the direction of deflection of
+ve charged ions
1) towards – ve y–axis
2) towards + ve y–axis
3) towards – ve x–axis
4) towards – ve z–axis
SOL :
F q v B
Incase of +ve charged ions, direction of F iˆ kˆ
( V direction is same as E )
ĵ
i.e +ve charged ions deflect towards -ve y-axis
KEY-1
133. A particle of specific charge starts moving form(0,0) under the action of electric field E e iˆ and
magnetic field B B0 kˆ . Its velocity at (x, 0, 0) is 4iˆ 3ˆj . Find the value of x
50 25 50 25
1) x 2) 3) 4)
2 e 2e 3e 3e
1 2 1
SOL :
2
mv F .S ; m 25 q F .S
2
25 25 25
2
eiˆ. xiˆ ; ex
2
; x
2 e
KEY-2
134. A charged particle with velocity v xiˆ yjˆ moves in a magnetic field B yiˆ xjˆ Magnitude of the
force acting on the particle is F. The correct option for F is
a) No force will act on particle if x = y b) Force is proportional to (x2—y2) if x > y
c) Force will act along y-axis if y < x d) Force is proportional to (x2 + y2) if y > x
1) a and b are true 2) a and c are true 3) b and d are true 4) c and d are true
SOL : F q V B
i j k
F q x y o
y x o
F q kˆ x 2
y2
F q x 2 y 2 ; If x = y; F = 0
and F x2 y 2
KEY- 2
135. Figure below shows three long straight wires P, Q and R carrying currents normal to the plane
of the paper. All the three currents have the same magnitude. Which arrow best shows the
direction of the resultant force on the wire P?
41
A
P
B Q
C D
R
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) D
SOL. The forces FQ and FB are the force applies by wires Q and R respectively on the wire P as shown in
figure. Their resultant force F is best shown by C
P
FQ Q
F
FR
Key : 3
136. A straight wire carrying a current i1 amp runs along the axis of a circular coil and carrying
current i2 amp. Then the force of interaction between the two current carrying conductors is
2i i 2i i
1) 2) Zero 3) 0 1 2 N / m 4) 1 2 N / m
4 r r
SOL. As shown in the following figure, straight wire is placed parallel to the magnetic field produced by
circular current. Hence force on wire F=0.
B
Key : 2
137. A conductor in the form of a right angle ABC with AB= 3 cm and BC= 4 cm carries a current of
10 A. There is a uniform magnetic field of 5T perpendicular to the plane of the conductor. The
force on the conductor will be
1) 1.5 N 2) 2.0 N 3) 2.5 n 4) 3.5 n
SOL. According to the question, figure can be drawn as shown below
Force on the conductor ABC = Force on the conductor AC
5 10 5 102 2.5N
Key : 3
42
138. A wire carrying current i is placed in a uniform magnetic field in the form of the
x
curve y a sin 0 x 2 L . The force acting on the wire is
L
iBL
1) 2) iBL 3) 2iBL 4) Zero
SOL. The given portion of the curved wire may be treated as a straight wire of length 2L which experience a
magnetic force Fm Bi 2 L
Key : 3
139. Two long wires are hanging freely. They are joined first in parallel and then in series and they
are connected with a battery. In both cases, which type of force acts between the two wires
1) Attraction force when in parallel and repulsion force when in series
2) Repulsion force when in parallel and attraction force when in series
3) Repulsion force in both cases
4) Attraction force in both cases
SOL. When connected in parallel, the current will be in the same direction and when connected in series the
current will be in the opposite direction
Key : 1
140. A long wire AB is placed on a table. Another wire PQ of mass 1.0 g and length 50 cm is set to
slide on two rails PS and QR. A current of 50A is passed through the wires. At what distance
above AB, will the wire PQ be in equilibrium
1) 25 mm 2) 50 mm 3) 75 mm 4) 100 mm
SOL. Suppose in equilibrium wire PQ lies at a distance R above the wire AB
2i
Hence in equilibrium mg Bil mg 0 il
4 r
2
2 50
10 3 10 10 7 0.5 R 25mm
r
Key : 1
141. Same current i=2A is flowing in a wire frame as shown in the figure. The frame is a combination
of two equilateral triangles ACD and CDE of side 1 m. It is placed in uniform magnetic field B
43
=4T acting perpendicular to the plane of frame. The magnitude of magnetic force acting on the
frame is
1) 24 N 2) Zero 3) 16 N 4) 8 N
SOL. F CAD F CD F CED
Net force on frame = 3F CD 3 2 1 4 F ilB 24 N
Key : 1
142. Figure shows an equilateral triangle PQR of side carrying currents, placed in uniform magnetic
field B. The magnitude of magnetic force on triangle is
1) iB 2) 2iB 3) 3iB 4) Zero
SOL.
i 2i 2i i
2i
= +
2i 2i (B)
(A)
Force in figure (A) is zero, and force in figure (B) = I lB.
Key : 1
143. A conducting wire bent in the form of a parabola y 2 2 x carries a current i=2A as shown in
figure. This wire is placed in a uniform magnetic field B 4kˆ Tesla. The magnetic force on the
wire is (in newton)
y(m)
2 x(m)
B
44
1) 16iˆ 2) 32 iˆ 3) 32iˆ 4) 16 iˆ
SOL. Leffective AB 4 ˆj
F I L B ILeff B 2 4 ˆj 4 kˆ 32iN
ˆ
Key : 2
144. A conducting rod of mass 50 gm and length 10 cm can slide without friction on two long,
horizontal rails. A uniform magnetic field of magnitude 5 mT exists in the region as shown. A
source S is used to maintain a constant current 2A through the rod. If the motion of rod starts
from the rest, its speed after 10s from the start of the motion will be
Rod S
1) 2 cm/s 2) 8 cm/s 3) 12 cm/s 4) 20 cm/s
SOL. The rod will move towards left with acceleration
ilB ilB
a and v t 20 cm / s
m m
Key : 4
145. An arbitrary shaped closed coil is made of a length L and current I Amp is flowing in it. If the
plane of the coil is perpendicular to the magnetic field B , then the force on the coil is
1) Zero 2) BIL 3) 2BIL 4) BIL/2
SOL. L 0 ; Hence F i L B 0
Key : 1
146. Three long straight wire are connected parallel to each other across a battery of negligible
internal resistance. The ratios of their resistance are 3: 4: 5. What is the ratio of distance of
middle wire from the others if the net force experienced by it is zero?
1) 4; 3 2) 3: 1 3) 5: 3 4) 2: 3
SOL . The wires are in parallel and ratio of their resistances are 3: 4: 5. Hence currents in wires are in the
1 1 1
ratio : :
3 4 5
k k k
i1 , i2 , i3
3 4 5
0 2i1i2
Force between top and middle wire F1
4 r1
1 1
2 k 2
3 4
0
4 r1
45
1 1 2
k
0 4 5
Force between bottom and middle wire F2
4 r2
r 5
As the forces are equal and opposite, so F1 F2 1
r2 3
Key : 3
147. A loop of flexible conducting wire of length l lies in magnetic field B which is normal to the plane of
loop. A current I is passed through the loop. The tension developed in the wire to open up is
BIl BIl
1) BIl 2) 3) 4) BIl
2 2 2
SOL: BI dl 2T sin d / 2
BI rd 2T d / 2 is small ,sin
T BIr BIl / 2
KEY :3
148. Three long straight and parallel wires are arranged as shown in figure. The force experienced by 10cm
length of wire Q is
1) 1.4104 N toward the right 2) 1.4104 N toward the left
3) 2.6 104 N toward the right 4) 2.6 104 N toward the left
4 107 20 10 10 102 4 107 10 30 10 102
SOL: F
2 2 102 2 10 102
4 107 10 102
2 100 30 20 107 70 1400107
2 10
KEY : 1
149. A horizontal overhead power line is at a height 4m from the ground and carries a current 100A from
east to west. The magnetic field directly below it on the ground due to electric current is
0 4107 Tm / A
1) 5 10 6 T southward 2) 2.5 10 7 T northward 3) 2.5 10 7 southward 4) 5 10 6 northward
2i
SOL:. B 0 5 10 6 T
4 r
Key : 1
150.
46
In the given figure force on wire ABC will be (B = 2T) :-
(1) 4(3+2 ) N (2) 20 N (3) 10 N (4) 40 N
2 2
SOL : F F F 1 2
KEY-2
151.
In the given diagram loop tends to :-
(1) expand (2) Contract (3) rotate about x–axis (4) rotate about y–axis
SOL : Apply Flemings left hand rule
KEY-2
152. A wire PQ carries a current 'i' is placed perpendicular to a long wire XY carrying a current I. The
direction of force on PQ will be
(1) towards right (2) towards left
(3) upwards (4) downwards
SOL : Apply Flemings left hand rule and right hand thumb rule
KEY-4
153. A current carrying wire AC is placed in a uniform transverse magnetic field then the force on wire AC
:-
(1) 3N (2) 4.2N (3) 6N (4) 4N
SOL : F i l B 118: F Bi 2 L
KEY-1
154. Force exist on a current carrying wire which is placed in external magnetic field, due to :–
(1) free electrons in wire (2) free positive ions in wire (3) (1) & (2) both (4) none
KEY-1
155. PQ is a uniform rod of length and mass m carrying current I and is suspended in uniform magnetic
47
field of induction B acting inward as shown in figure. The tension in each string is
mg Bi mg Bi
1) mg Bi 2) mg Bi 3) 4)
2 2
mg Bil
SOL : 2T Bil mg ; T
2
KEY-3
156. A horizontal wire of length 10 cm and mass 0.3 g carries current of 5A. The magnitude of the magnetic
field which can support the weight of the wire is
2
( g 10 m / s )
1) 3 103T 2) 6 103T 3) 3 104 T 4) 6 104T
SOL :
mg
O
B
+
H3N - CH - C - N - CH2 - COO
CH3 H
-
; il sin
0
B is minimum if 90
mg 0.3 103 10
Bmin
il 5 0.1 6 103 T
KEY- 2
157. A metal wire of mass 10 gm and length 10cm is placed on a smooth inclined plane of inclination 600
such that the length of wire is prependicular of length of incline. If a current of 3A is passed through
the wire, vertically downward magnetic field applied for which the wire remains stationary on the
inclined plane is (g=10 m/s2)
1) 3T 2) 1/3T 3) 1/ 3T 4) 3T
SOL : mg sin F cos
mg sin Bil cos
3 1
10 103 10 B 3 10 102
2 2
1
B T
3
KEY-3
158. A current carrying loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field pointing negative z direction. Branch
PQRS is a three quarter circle, while branch PS is straight. If force on branch PS is F, force on branch
PQR is
48
Y
P
B
X
Q S
F F
1. 2F 2. 3. 4. 2 F
2 2
SOL : Force on PS F I ( 2 R ) B ____(1)
& Force on PQR I (2 R ) B ______(2)
From (1) & (2)
2F
Force on PQR 2F
2
KEY-1
159. An infinitely long, straight conductor AB is fixed and a current is passed through it. Another movable
straight wire CD of finite length and carrying current is held perpendicular to it and released. Neglect
weight of the wire
(1) The rod CD will move upwards parallel to itself
(2) The rod CD will move downward parallel to itself
(3) The rod CD will move upward and turn clockwise at the same time
(4) The rod CD will move upward and turn anti-clockwise at the same time
SOL : . Apply Flemings left hand rule
KEY-3
160. A square loop, carrying a steady current I, is placed in a horizontal plane near a long straight conductor
carrying a steady current 7(at a distance d from the conductor as shown in the figure. The loop will
experience
(a)a net repulsive force away from the conductor
(b)a net torque acting upward perpendicular to the horizontal plane
(c)a net torque acting downward normal to the horizontal plane
(d)a net attractive force towards the conductor
SOL :
The force on sides QR and SQ is equal and opposite hence no net force due to these sides.
Let F1 and F3 are the forces on sides PQ and RS respectively,
49
KEY-4
161. In the given diagram a rod is rotating with angular velocity . Mass of this rod is m, charge q and
length then find out magnetic moment of this rod :-
SOL : : M iA
KEY-1
162. A spherical shell of radius 'R' carries uniformly distributed charge 'Q' is rotated about it's diameter with
angular speed find it's magnetic moment:-
SOL : M iA
KEY-1
163. A loop carrying current I lies in the x-y plane as shown in the figure. The unit vector k is coming out
of the plane of the paper. The magnetic moment of the current loop is:
1) a 2 I k 2) 1 a 2 I k 3) 1 a 2 I k
4) 2 1 a 2 I k
2 2
SOL : M i A
KEY-2
164. A uniform conducting wire of length 18a and resistance R is wound up as current carrying coil in the
shape of a regular hexagon of sides a. If the coil is connected to a voltage source V0, then the magnetic
moment of coil is
50
V 3 V a2 7 3 V a2 11 3 V a 2
1) 6 3 0 a 2 Am2 2) 9 0
Am2 3) 0
Am 2 4) 0
Am2
R 2 R 2 R 2 R
SOL : M i A
KEY-2
165. A wire of length 1 metre is to be wound in the form of a coil have maximum magnetic moment. The
suitable number of turns among the following is
1) 1 2) 1000 3) independent of no of turns 4) none
l
SOL : M = niA; l 2 r n r
2 n
2
l
A r 2 ; M ni 2 2
4 n
il 2 1
M ; M
4 n n
So for least no of turns ‘M’ is maximum
KEY-1
166. A circular loop of area1 cm 2 , carrying a current of 10 A, is placed in a magnetic field of 0.1 T
perpendicular to the plane of the loop. The torque on the loop due to the magnetic field is
1) Zero 2) 10 4 Nm 3) 10 2 Nm 4) 1 Nm
SOL. Since magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of the loop, so magnetic
moment vector of loop will be parallel to the magnetic field. Hence, torque on the loop will be zero
Key : 1
167. A current-carrying loop is free to turn in a uniform magnetic field. The loop will then come into
equilibrium when its plane is inclined at
1) 0 to the direction of the field 2) 45 to the direction of the filed
3) 90 to direction of the field 4) 135 to the direction of the filed
SOL. In equilibrium angle between M and B is zero. It is happened when plane of the coil is perpendicular
to B
B
M
Key : 3
168. A circular current loop of magnetic moment M is in an arbitrary orientation in an external
magnetic field B. The work done to rotate the loop by 30 about an axis perpendicular to its
plane is
MB MB
1) MB 2) 3 3) 4) Zero
2 2
51
SOL. The rotation of the loop by 30 about an axis perpendicular to its plane make no change in the angle
made by axis of the loop with the direction of magnetic field, therefore the work done to rotate the
loop is zero
Key : 1
169. A circular coil of radius R and a current I, which can rotate about a fixed axis passing through
its diameter is initially placed such that its plane lies along magnetic field B. Kinetic energy of
loop when it rotate through an angle 90 about fixed axis is (assume that I remains constant)
2 R 2 BI 3
1) R BI 2) 3) 2 R 2 BI 4) R 2 I
2 2
SOL. Loss in potential energy = Gain kinetic energy
MB cos 90 MB cos 0 KE
= MB =KE
R 2 BI KE
Key : 1
170. A toroid of mean radius a, cross-section radius r and total number of turns N carries current i.
The torque experienced by the toroid if a uniform magnetic field of strength B is applied
1) is zero 2) is BiN r 2
3) is BiN a 2 4) depends on the direction of magnetic field
SOL. The resultant magnetic dipole moment of toroid is zero
Torque acting on it is zero
Key : 1
171. A rectangular coil of length 0.12 m and width 0.1 m having 50 turns of wire is suspended vertically in
a uniform magnetic field of strength 0.2 Weber/m2. The coil carries a current of 2 A. If the plane of the
coil is inclined at an angle of 30° with the direction of the field, the torque required to keep the coil in
stable equilibrium will be
(1) 0.12 Nm (2) 0.15 Nm (3) 0.20 Nm (4) 0.24 Nm
SOL :
KEY-3
172. A triangular loop of side 1 carries a current I. It is placed in a magnetic field B such that the plane of
the loop is in the direction of B. The torque on the loop is
3 2 2 3
1) Zero 2) IBl 3) I B 4) IB 2
2 4
0
SOL : Since 90
3 2 3 2
Hence NIAB 1 I B I B
4 4
52
KEY-4
173. A rectangular coil of 100 turns has length 5 cm and width 4 cm. It is placed with its plane parallel to a
uniform magnetic field and a current of 2A is sent through the coil. The magnitude of the magnetic
field B, if the torque acting on the coil is 0.2 N-m is
1) 0.5 T 2) 0.6 T 3) 0.4 T 4) Zero
SOL :
0.2
MB sin NiAB sin 90 0 NiAB NilbB B Nilb 100 2 5 4 10 4 0.5T
KEY-1
174. A rectangular coil of wire carrying a current is suspended in a uniform magnetic field. The plane of the
coil is making an angle of 30° with the direction of the field and the torque experienced by it is 1 and
when the plane of the coil is making an angle of 60° with the direction of the field the torque
experienced by it is 2 . Then the ratio 1 : 2 is
1) 1: 3 2) 3:1 3) 1:3 4) 3:1
SOL : BAIn cos ; cos
1 cos 30 3/2
3 /1
2 cos 60 1/ 2
KEY-2
175. A circular wire loop of radius R, mass m and current I lies on a rough surface. There is a horizontal
magnetic field B . How large can current I be before one edge of loop will lift of the surface
mg RB mg R2B
1) 2) 3) 2 4)
RB mg RBg mg
SOL : B I R 2 B
magnetic field
mg
mgR ; mgR I R 2 B ; I
weight RB
KEY-1
176. In order to increase the sensitivity of a Moving Coil Galvanometer, one should decrease
1) the strength of its magnet 2) the torsional constant of its suspension
3) the number of turns of the coil 4) the area of its coil
NAB
SOL . Sensitivity S
C
Key : 2
177. If the current is doubled, the deflection also doubled in
1) A tangent galvanometer 2) A moving coil galvanometer
3) Both 1 and 2 4) None of these
SOL :In MCG i
Key : 2
178. In Moving Coil Galvanometer there is a deflection of for a current of 3A in a rectangular coil of
6
resistance , then find the voltage sensitivity of that Moving Coil Galvanometer
53
36
1) 6 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
36
SOL: i , v i 6
i G iG 6
Key : 1
179. Two galvanometers A and B required 3mA and 5mA respectively to produce the same reflection of 10
divisions, then
1) A is more sensitive than B 2) B is more sensitive than A
3) A and B are equally sensitive 4) Sensitiveness of B is 5/3 times that of A
S i 5
SOL: S A B S A S B
i S B iA 3
Key : 1
180. A galvanometer of resistance G is shunted by a resistance S ohm. To keep the main current in the
circuit unchanged, the resistance to be put in series with the galvanometer is
SOL : : Current will be unchanged if resistance remains the same, so
KEY-3
181. An ammeter A, a voltmeter V and a resistance R are connected as shown in the figure. If the voltmeter
reading is 1.6V and the ammeter reading is 0.4A, then R is
1) equal to 4 2) greater than 4 3) less than 4 4) between 3 and 4
1.6
SOL : . R ; R 4
C 0.4
KEY-2
182. A galvanometer of coil resistance100 is connected to a shunt of resistance 10 . The current through
the galvanometer is i1 , the current through the shunt is i 2 and the total
current into the combination is i3 , then the ratio i1 : i 2 : i3 is
1) 1 : 10 : 11 2) 10 : 1 : 11
3) 11 : 10 : 1 4) 10 : 11 : 1
S
SOL : Ig I ; i1 : i 2 : i3 i g : is : i
GS
10
ig i ; i 11i g
110
i
11i g i g is ; 10i g is i g s
10
i g : is : i 1:10 :11
KEY-1
183. A galvanometer having a coil resistance of 60 shows full scale deflection when a current of 1.0 amp
passes through it. It can be converted into an ammeter to read currents upto 5.0 amp by
1) putting in parallel a resistance of 240
54
2) putting in series a resistance of 15
3) putting in series a resistance of 240
4) putting in parallel a resistance of 15
Ig 1
SOL : S= G 60 15
I Ig 5 1
It should be connected in parallel.
KEY-4
184. A galvanometer has a current range of 0 to 1 mA and voltage range 50 mV. The shunt required to
convert this into an ammeter range 0.1A is
50 42 50 50
Ω Ω Ω
1) 99 2) 182 3) 989 4) 229
50mV
SOL : : G 50
1mA
G i 0.1
S ; n 3
n 1 i g 10
G 50
99;s
100 1 99
KEY-1
185. A moving coil galvanometer has 100 turns and each turns has area of 2cm 2 . The magnetic field
produced by the magnet is 0.01 T. The deflection in the galvanometer coil is 0.05 rad when a current
of 10 mA is passed through it. Find the torsional constant of the spiral spring.
1) 2 10 5 Nm rad 2) 4 10 5 Nm rad 3) 3 10 5 Nm rad 4) 5 10 5 N m / rad
k NABi
SOL : We have, i K
NAB
100 2 10 0.01 10 10 3
4
or k
0.05
k 4.0 10 5 Nm rad 1
KEY- 2
186. A galvanometer of resistance 25 is shunted such that 10th part of the main current passes through the
meter. Then the shunt is
1) 9 / 25 2) 25 / 9
3) 11/ 7 4) 1
i
SOL : Given that G 25 and ig
10
Shunt resistance,
G 25 25
S
i i 9
1 i
ig 1
10
KEY-2
187. A voltmeter of range 0V 30V is to be connected to a voltage line of 150V. The maximum current
that the voltmeter can withstand is 5mA. In order to connect the voltmeter safely to the voltage line,
the series resistance required is :
(1) 240K (2) 24K (3) 2.4K (4) 240
SOL : . The resistant to be connected in series is given by
55
R s V 1 R,
I
Given that V=30 volt, I=5mA=5× 10 3 amp
Hence, the resistance of voltmeter
V 30
R 6 103
I 5 103
Now, V 1 is the line voltage to be measured (new range of voltmeter). Hence
150
Rs 6 103 = 24 103
5 10 3
r2
B cos t
2 150 V 30
or R n 1 G n 5; G 6000
30 i 5103
R 5 1 6000 24 k
KEY-2
188. A voltmeter has an internal resistance of 1000 and gives full scale deflection when 2 V is applied
across the terminals. Now a resistance of 4000 is connected in series with it. Then it gives full scale
deflection with
1) 8 V 2) 10 V 3) 6 V 4) 4 V
V
SOL : R n 1 G where n 2
V1
4000 1000 n 1 ; n 5
v2 v2
5 ; v 2 10V
v1 2
KEY-2
189. The deflection in a moving coil galvanometer falls from 50 divisions to 10 divisions when a shunt of
12 ohm is applied. What is the resistance of the galvanometer?
1) 48 2) 46 3) 24 4) 12
SOL : In case of a galvanometer, I α θ
i G G
Or n 5; S 12 G 48
ig n 1 4
KEY-1
190. When 500 A current is passed through a galvanometer of 20 , it gives a full scale deflection. The
56
external resistance need to be connected to measure 5V is
1) 98 parallel 2) 9980 parallel
3) 98 series 4) 9980 series
SOL : V ig R G ; 5 500 106 R 20
R = 10000 – 20 = 9980 in series
KEY-4
57
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENTS-1
DAY – 15 (DT 22-04-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Chapter : Magnetism and Matter
===========================================================================
1. Which is incorrect?
(1) The angle of dip at magnetic poles is 90°
(2) Due to earth magnetic field cosmic articles which coming from space can never reach the magnetic
equator.
(3) At magnetic poles density of cosmic particles is maximum
(4) Magnetic meridian is a straight line.
Key: 4
2. Dip angle are 30o and 45o at two different places, then ratio of horizontal component of earth magnetic
field at these place will be
Sol. BH B cos
Key: 1
3. If the dip circle is set at 45° to the magnetic meridian, then the apparent dip is 30°. The true dip. of the
place is :-
tan
Sol.. tan 1
cos
Key: 2
4. The real angle of dip, if a magnet is suspended at an angle of 30° to the magnetic meridian and the dip
needle makes an angle of 45° with the horizontal is:-
2 3 1
(1) tan 1
3
(2) tan 1
2
(3) tan 1 3 (4) tan 1
3
tan
Sol.. tan 1
cos
Key: 2
5. The angle of dip at a place is 40.6° and the intensity of the vertical component of the
earth's magnetic field V = 6 x 10–5 tesla. The total intensity of the earth's magnetic field (I) at this
place is
( sin 40.6 o 0.65 )
1) 7 × 10–5 tesla 2) 6 × 10–5 tesla 3) 5 × 10–5 tesla 4) 9.2 × 10–5 tesla
Sol.. From the relation BV = I sin
V 6 105 6 105
I = 9.2 × 10–5 tesla
sin sin40.6 0.65
Key: 4
6. A dip circle lies initially in the magnetic meridian. If it is now rotated through angle in the horizontal
plane, then tangent of the angle of dip is changed in the ratio
1) 1 : cos 2) cos : 1 3) 1 : sin 4) sin : 1
Key: 1
7. At a certain place of latitude 2 0 on the surface of earth, the angle of dip is
1) 2 0 2) 4 0 3) 86 0 4) 88 0
1
Sol.. tan tan ; tan 2 tan
2
For small angles 2 2 2 4o
Key: 2
8. A magnetic needle free to rotate in a vertical plane parallel to the magnetic meridian has its north tip
pointing down at 22 o with the horizontal. The horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field at the
place is known to be 0.35G then the magnitude of the earth’s magnetic field at the plane is
cos 22o 0.9272
1) 0.455 G 2) 0.378 G 3) 1G 4) 0.1G
BH 0.35 0.35
Sol.. B H B cos B o
0.378G
Bcos cos 22 0.9272
Key: 2
9. If 1 and 2 be the apparent angles of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each other,
then the true angle of dip is given by:-
1) tan 2 tan 2 1 tan 2 2 2) cot 2 cot 2 1 cot 2 2
3) tan 2 tan 2 1 tan 2 2 4) cot 2 cot 2 1 cot 2 2
tan tan
Sol.. tan 1 cos ....(1)
cos tan 1
tan tan tan
tan 2 sin ....(2)
cos 90 sin tan 2
Squaring and adding eq 1&2
tan 2 tan 2
cos 2 sin 2
tan 2 1 tan 2 2
1 tan 2 cot 2 1 cot 2 2
cot 2 cot 2 1 cot 2 2
Key: 4
10. At a place where the dip is 30 0 a weight of 90 gram is to be placed at one end of a magnetic needle of
pole strength 9.8 a-m to keep it horizontal. The magnetic field induction due to earth at that place is
a)9T b)0.09T c)0.045T d)45T
l
S N
Sol.
Torque = m V.2l 2l= magnet length
Torque due to weight = W l
mV 2l w l
W 90 10 3 9.8
V 45 10 3
2m 2 9.8
V
tan
H
H V cot V cot 30 V 3
B H 2 V 2 3V 2 V 2 2V 2 45 103 90 103 0.09T
Key: 2
11. The correct value of dip angle at a place is 45 0 . If the dip circle is rotated by 45 0 out of the meridian,
then the tangent of the angle of apparent dip at the place is
a) 1 b) ½ c) 1/ 2 d) 2
BV
Sol.. tan δ = and
BH
BV1 BV
tan δ1 =
BH BH cos 450
1
tan δ
tan δ1 =
cos 45
tan tan 450 1
Key: 4
12. If 1 and 2 be the angles of dip observed in two vertical planes at right angles to each other and be the
true angle of dip, then
1) cos 2 cos 2 1 cos 2 2 2) sec 2 sec 2 1 sec 2 2
3) tan 2 tan 2 1 tan 2 2 4) cot 2 cot 2 1 cot 2 2
SOL: Let be the angle which one of the planes make with the magnetic meridian the other plane makes an
angle 90o with it. The components of H in these planes will be H cos and H sin respectively. If
1 and 2 are the apparent dips in these two planes, then
V V
tan 1 i.e. cos --------(i)
H cos H tan 1
V V
tan 2 i.e. sin -------(ii)
H sin H tan 2
Squaring and adding (i) and (ii), we get
2
2 2 V 1 1
cos sin 2
2
H tan 1 tan 2
V2 H2
i.e., 1
H2
cot 2
1 cot 2
2 or
V2
cot 2 1 cot 2 2 i.e. cot cot 2 1 cot 2 2
KEY 4
13. A dip needle lies initially in the magnetic meridian when it shows an angle of dip at a place. The dip
circle is rotated through an angle x in the horizontal plane and then it shows an angle of dip | . Then
tan |
is
tan
1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4) cos x
cos x sin x tan x
BV
SOL: In first case tan ---------(i)
BH
BV
Second case tan | --------(ii)
BH cos x
tan | 1
From Eqs. (i) and (ii),
tan cos x
KEY 1
14. The figure illustrates how B, the flux density inside a sample of unmagnetised ferromagnetic material
varies with B0 , the magnetic flux density in which the sample is kept. For the sample to be suitable for
making a permanent magnet
1) OQ should be large, OR should be small
2) OQ and OR should both be large
3) OQ should be small and OR should be large
4) OQ and OR should both be small
SOL: In the given figure OQ refers to retentivity while OR refers to coercivity, for permanents both
retentivity and coercivity should be high
KEY 2
15. The B-H curves (a) and (b) shown in the figure are associated with
1) a diamagnetic and a paramagnetic substance respectively
2) a paramagnetic and a ferromagnetic substance respectively
3) soft iron and steel respectively
4) steel and soft iron respectively
SOL: The hysteresis loss for soft iron is low. On the other hand, hysteresis loss for steel is high
KEY 3
16. An electron is revolving in a circular orbit of radius r in a hydrogen atom. The angular momentum of
the electron is l. The dipole moment associated with it is
1) 2e / m l 2) e / 2m l 3) e / m l 4) 2m / e l
e 2 evr
SOL: M IA ; M r ; M
T 2
l
But l mvr or r
mv
ev l e
M or m l
2 mv 2m
KEY 2
17. A magnetised wire of moment M is bent into an arc of a circle subtending an angle 60 o at the centre;
then the new magnetic moment is
1) 2M / 2) M /
3) 3 2 M/ 4) 3M/
SOL: New magnetic moment.
1
2M
M|
2 M sin / 2
2 M sin / 6
2 3M
/3 /3
KEY 4
18. A magnet needle makes 4 vibrations per second at a place where H 3.5 10 5 T . What is the value of H
atthat place, where the same needle makes 3 vibrations per second?
1) 1.96 10 5 T 2) 3.5 10 5 T 3) 4.0 10 5 T 4) 3.96 10 5 T
9 H 31.5 105 9
SOL: n H or 5
or H 1.96 10 5 T
16 35 10 16
KEY 1
19. Two bar magnets when placed with their similar poles together makes 20 vib/min. When one of them is
reversed the number of vibrations become 15 vib/min. What is the ratio of their dipole moment?
1) 7 : 45 2) 25 : 7 3) 1 : 4 4) 4 : 1
2 2 2 2
M T T n n 400 225 625 25
SOL: Here, 1 22 12 12 22
M 2 T2 T1 n1 n2 400 225 175 7
KEY 2
20. The magnetic field intensity H at the centre of a long solenoid having n turns per unit length and
carrying a current I, when no material is kept in it is
n
1) 0nI 2) nI 3) 4) 0
I nI
SOL: B 0 nI ; Also, B 0 H ; 0 H 0 nI ; H nI
KEY 2
21. The susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material is K at 27 o C . At what temperature will its susceptibility
be 0.5 K?
1) 54 o C 2) 327 o C 3) 600 o C 4) 237 o C
1
SOL: By Curie’s law, m ; 0.5T K 273 27 or T 600K
T
o
t 600 273 C 327 o C
KEY 2
22. If the total magnetic field due to earth is 28 A/m, then the total magnetic induction due to earth is
1) 28 T 2) 280 T 3) 0.352 gauss 4) 0.352 T
7 4
SOL: B 0 H 4 10 28 10 gauss; B 0.352 gauss
KEY 3
23. A magnet is parallel to uniform magnetic field. If it is rotated by 60 o ,the work done is 0.8 J. How much
work is done in moving it 30o further?
1) 0.8 10 7 ergs 2) 0.4 J 3) 8 J 4) 0.8 10 7 ergs
SOL: W Mb cos 1 cos 2
When the magnet is rotated from 0 o to 60 o , then work done is 0.8 J
MB
0.8 MB cos 0o cos 60o ; MB 1.6 N m
2
In order to rotate the magnet through an angle of 30o , i.e., from 60o to 90o , the work done is
W | MB cos 60o cos 90 o
1 MB 1.6
MB 0 0.8 J 0.8 107 ergs
2 2 2
KEY 1
24. The relative permeability and permeability of a material are r and r , respectively. Which of the
following values of these quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic material?
1) r 0.5, r 0.5 2) r 1.5, r 1.5 3) r 0.5, r 1.5 4) r 1.5, r 0.5
SOL: For diamagnetic materials, 0 1 , and for any material, r 1.
KEY 4
25. The coericivity of a small magnet where the ferromagnet gets demagnetized is 3 103 Am 1 . The current
required to be passed in a solenoid of length 10cm and number of turns 100, so that the magnet gets
demagnetized when inside the solenoid, is
1) 3 A 2) 6 A 3) 30 mA 4) 60 mA
100
SOL: 0 H 0ni ; 3 103 i i 3A
0.1
KEY 1
26. Curie temperature is the temperature above which
1) a paramagnetic material becomes ferromagnetic
2) a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic
3) a paramagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
4) a ferromagnetic material becomes diamagnetic
SOL: Curie temperature is that temperature above which a ferromagnetic material becomes paramagnetic.
KEY : 2
27. The true value of angle of dip at a place is 60°, the apparent dip in a plane inclined at an angle of 30°
with magnetic meridian is
1 2
1) tan 1 2) tan 1 2 3) tan 1 4) None of these
2 3
tan
Sol.. tan ' , where ' = Apparent angle of dip
cos
= True angle of dip, = Angle made by vertical plane with magnetic meridian.
tan 600
tan ' 0
2 ' tan 1 2
cos 30
Key: 2
28. A coil of area A = 0.5 m2 is situated in a uniform magnetic field B = 4.0 wb/m2 and area vector makes
an angle of 60o with respect to the magnetic field as shown in figure. The value of the magnetic flux
through the area A would be equal to
Sol. BA cos
Key: 2
29. When a piece of a ferromagnetic substance is put in a uniform magnetic field. Flux density inside it is
four times the flux density away from the piece. The magnetic permeability of the material is :
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
Key: 4
30. The total magnetic flux in a material of area A, which produces a pole of strength mp when placed in a
magnetic field of strength H, will be :-
(1) 0 (AH + mp ) (2) 0 AH
(3) 0 mp (4) 0 [ mp AH + A]
Key: 1
31. If 0 and 0 are respectively the electric permitivity and the magnetic permeability of free space and
and the corresponding quantities in a medium , the refractive index of the medium is
0 0 0
1) 2) 3) 4)
0 0 0 0 0
Key: 1
32. Two identical dipoles each of magnetic moment 1.0A m2 are placed at a separation of 2m with their
axes perpendicular to each other. What is the magnetic field at a point midway between the dipoles?
1) 5 107 T 2) 2 107 T 3) 1107 T 4) 3 107 T
SOL: The point P will be in end-on position with respect to one dipole and in broad-side on position with
respect to the other
0 2m1 0 2 M1 2 1
B1 107 2 1 2 107 So, B1 107 3 2 107 T
4 r13 4 r13
1
0 M 2 1
And B2 3
107 3 110 7 T
4 r2 1
B1 and B2 are perpendicular to each other,
B B12 B22
107 22 12
5 107 T
KEY 1
33. A vertical straight conductor carries a current vertically upwards. A point P lies to the east of it at a
small distance and another point Q lies to the west at the same distance. The net magnetic field at P is
1) Greater than at Q 2) Same as at Q
3) Less than at Q
4) Depends on magnetic field of conductor
Sol. At P net field = B BH ; At Q net field= B BH
Key: 1
34. Two short magnets placed along the same axis with their like poles facing each other repel each other
with a force which varies inversely as
1) square of the distance 2) cube of the distance 3) distance
4) fourth power of the distance
SOL: Both the magnets are placed in the field of one another, hence potential energy of dipole (2) is
2M
U 2 M 2 B1 cos 0 M 2 B1 M 2 0 . 3 1
4 r
dU
By using F , Force on magnet (2) is
dr
dU 2 d 2 M 1M 2 0 M 1M 2
F2 0 . 3 .6
dr dr 4 r 4 r4
6M 1 M 2 1
It can be proved F1 F2 F 0 . 4
F 4
4 r r
KEY 4
35. Two identical short bar magnets, each having magnetic moment M, are placed at a distance of 2d apart
with axes perpendicular to each other in a horizontal plane. The magnetic induction at a point midway
between them is
0 0 2 M 0
1)
4
2 Md
3
2)
4
3 Md
3
3) 0 3
d
4)
4
5 dM
3
SOL: At point P net magnetic field Bnet B12 B22
0 2M M
Where B1 . 3 and B2 0 . 3
4 d 4 d
5M
Bnet 0. 3
4 d
KEY4
36. Two short bar magnets of equal dipole moments M are fastened perpendicularly at their centre (as
shownin the figure). The magnitude of the magnetic field at a distance d from the centre of the bisector
of the right angle is
0 M M 2 2 2M 0 2 M
1) 3
2) 0 3) 0 4)
4 d 4 d 3
4 d 3 4 d 3
SOL: Resultant magnetic moment of the two magnets is M net M 2 M 2 2M
Imagine a short lying along OP with magnetic moment equal to M 2 . Thus point P lies on the axial
line of the magnet.
0 2 2 M
Magnitude of magnetic field at P is given by B .
4 d3
KEY 3
37. A bar of mass M is suspended by two wires. Assume that a uniform magnetic field B is directed into
the page. When the current through the bar is I, then the tension in each supporting wire is
Mg Mg BIL
1) 2) 2BIL 3) Mg BIL 4)
2 2
SOL:
Mg BIl
2T BIl Mg or T
2
KEY 4
38.. A very small magnet is placed in the magnetic meridian with its south pole pointing north. The null
point is obtained 20 cm away from the centre of the magnet. If the Earth's magnetic field (horizontal
component) at this point is 0.3 gauss, the magnetic moment of the magnet is
1) 8.0 x 102e.m.u. 2) 1.2 x 103e.m.u.
3
3) 2.4 x 10 em.u. 4) 3.6 x 103 emu.
Sol.
At neutral point
2M
B BH 3
0.3 M = 1.2 × 103 emu.
20
Mass number of Nucleus
Key: 2
39. The magnetic field in a certain region is given by B 4i
k tesla. How much magnetic flux passes
through the loop of area 0.1 m2 in this region if the loop lies flat in xy plane?
1) -0.01 2) -0.02 3) -0.03 4) -0.04
Key: 1
40. Two identical short bar magnets each having magnetic moment of ‘M’ are kept at a distance of 2d with
their axes perpendicular to each other in a horizontal plane. The magnetic induction at midway between
them is
M M M M
a) 0 2 3
4
d
b) 0 3 3
4
d
c) 0 . 3
4 d
d) 0 5 3
4 d
2M M 2 2 2 2
Sol. Ba 0 3 Be 0 3 B Be Ba Be 2Be 5Be
4 d 4 d
Key: 4
41. A square of side x m lies in the x-y plane in a region, where the magnetic field is given by
B B0 3iˆ 4jˆ 5kˆ T , where B0is constant. The magnitude of flux passing through the square is
2
1) 5B0x Wb 2) 3B0x2Wb 3) 2B0x2Wb 4) B0x2Wb
Key: 1
42. A bar magnet is placed with its North pole pointing North. Neutral point is at a distance ‘d’ from the
centre of magnet. The net magnetic induction at the same distance on the axial line of the magnet is
1) 2 BH 2) 3 BH 3) BH 4) 7 BH
Sol;. Be BH and B Ba BH 2 Be BH 2 BH BH 3BH
Key: 2
43. Two short bar magnets of magnetic moments 0.125 Am2 and 0.512 Am2 are placed with their like poles
facing each other. If the distance between the centres of the magnet is 0.26m.The distance of neutral
point from the weaker magnet is
1) 0.13m 2) 0.2m 3)0.26m 4) 0.1m
d 0.26
Sol. x 1
1
0.1m
2 1
M / M 3 1 0.512 3
1
0.125
Key: 4
44. The induction field at a point distant d from centre of a short bar magnet on the axial line is B. The
distance of a point on the equatorial line of the same magnet, where the field is 2B, is
1) 2-2/3 d 2) 2-1/3d 3) 2d 4) 22/3d
2M M
Sol. Baxial 0 . 3 , Be 0 . 3
4 d 4 d
3
B 2M d 2
3 ; d 2 d1 22/3
2B d1 M
Key: 1
45. A very long magnet of pole strength16 A-m is placed vertically with its one pole on the table. At what
distance from the pole, there will be a neutral point on the table. (BH = 4 x 10-5 Wbm-2)
1) 0.4 m 2) 0.2 m 3) 0.4 m 4) 0.8 m
m 16
Sol. BH B 0 2 ; 4 10 5 10 7 2 ; d 0.2m
4 d d
Key: 2
46. Two north poles each of pole strength 8Am are placed at corners A and C of a square ABCD. The pole
that should be placed at B to make D as null point is
1) North pole of pole strength 8 2Am 2) North pole of pole strength 16 2Am
3) North pole of pole strength 8 2Am 4) North pole of pole strength 16 2Am
0 m 8
Sol. BB 2B ; 2
2 0 2
4 ( 2a ) 4 a
m 16 2
Key: 4
0.4
47. The relation between and H for a specimen of iron is 12 10 4 henry/metre. The value of
H
H which produces flux density of 1 tesla will be
1) 250 A/m 2) 500 A/m 3) 750 A/m 4) 1000 A/m
Key: 2
48. A paramagnetic sample shows a net magnatisation of 8 A/m when placed in an external magnetic field
of 0.6 T at a temperature of 4K. When the same sample is placed in an external magnetic field of 0.2 T
at a temperature of 16 K, the magnatisation will be
2
1) 1.5 A/m 2) 2.4 A/m 3) A/m 4) 6 A/m
3
Key: 3
49. A magnetic field strength (H) 3 10 A/m produces a magnetic field of Induction (B) of 12 T in an
iron rod. The relative permeability of iron is
1) 10 2) 10 3) 10 4) 10
Key: 2
50. A short bar magnet is allowed to fall along the axis of horizontal metallic ring. Starting from rest, the
distance fallen by the magnet in one second may be (g = 10 m/ )
1) 4.0m 2) 5.0 m 3) 6.0m 4) 7.0 m
Key: 1
51. The number of turns in the coil of an AC generator is 5000 and the area of the coil is 0.25 m2 , the coil
is rotated at the rate of 100 turns per second in a magnetic field of 0.2 weber / m2 . The peak value of
the emf generated is nearly
1) 786 kV 2) 440 kV 3) 220 Kv 4) 157.1 kV
Sol: eo BAN , BAN 2 f 0.2 0.25 5000 2100 157 KV
Key: 4
52. The percentage increase in the magnetic field B when the space within a current carrying toroid is
flilled with aluminium (the susceptibility of aluminium 2.110 ) is
5
1) 103 2) 2.1103 3) 4 103 4) 3 103
Sol:. r 1 , B r
B2 B1 1
% r 100 100
B1 1
Key: 2
53. Figure shows the magnetic hysteresis loop that is the B H curve for ferromagnetic material. Mark the
incorrect statement
1) The value of B at H= 0 is called remanence
2)The value of H at c is called coercivity
3)A permanent magnet has low remanence and low coercivity
4)An electromagnet has low remanence and low coercivity
KEY 3
54. A short bar magnet is placed with its north pole pointing north .The neutral points is 10 cm away from
the centre of magnet. If BH 0.4G ,calculate moment of the magnet.
1) 0.6A m2 2) 0.4A m2 3) 0.8A m2 4) None of these
M
SOL: At neutral point BH 0 3
4 r
3
M
BH r 3
0.4 104 10 102 0.4 Am 2
0 / 4 107
KEY 2
55. Two identical bar magnets are fixed with their centres at a distance d apart. A stationary charge Q is
placed at P in between the gap of the two magnets at a distance D from the centre O as shown in the fig.
The force on the charge Q is
1) directed along OP 2) directed along PO
3) directed perpendicular to the plane of paper 4) zero
SOL: Stationary charge does not experience any force in magnetic field
KEY 4
56. A 250-turn rectangular coil of length 2.1 cm and width 1.25 cm carries a current of 85 A and subjected
to magnetic field of strength 0.85T. Work done for rotating the coil by 180 against the torque is nearly
1) 4.55 J 2) 2.3 J 3) 1.15 J 4) 9.5 J
SOL: Work= MB cos 1 cos 2
Work= MB cos 0 cos180 0
W NiAB 1 1
W 9.5 J
KEY 4
57. Which of the following demonstrate that earth has a magnetic field ?
1) A freely suspended bar magnet always points in the random direction.
2) A large quantity of iron ore is found buried in the earth
3) The intensity of cosmic rays of charged particle coming from space to earth is more at the poles than
at the equator
4) The earth is surrounded by an ionosphere (a shell of charged particles)
KEY 3
58. Due to earth’s magnetic field charged cosmic rays particle
1) required greater kinetic energy to reach the equator than pole
2) required less kinetic energy to reach the equator than pole
3) can never reach the pole
4) can never reach the equator
KEY 1
59. A freely suspended magnetic needle makes an angle with the horizontal because
1) the gravitational force of earth attracts one pole and repels the other
2) one pole is heavier than the other
3) magnetic needle cannot be in equilibrium
4) due to earth’s magnetism one pole dips
KEY 4
60. A sensitive magnetic instrument can be shielded very effectively from an outside field by placing it
inside a box of
1) Teak wood 2) Plastic material
3) Soft iron of high permeability 4) A metal of high conductivity
KEY 3
61. The B-H curves(a) and (b) drawn below are associated with
1) A diamagnetic and a ferromagnetic substance respectively
2) A paramagnetic and a ferromagnetic substance respectively
3) Soft iron and steel respectively 4) Steel and soft iron respectivley
KEY 3
62. Soft iron is used in many parts of electrical machines for
1) Low hysteresis loss and low permeability
2) Low hysteresis loss and high permeability
3) High hysteresis loss and low permeability
4) High hysteresis loss and high permeability
KEY 2
63. Which of the following statements is incorrect about hysteresis?
1) This effect is common to all ferromagnetic substances
2) The hysteresis loop area is proportional to the thermal energy developed per unit volume of the
material
3) The hysteresis loop area is independent of the thermal energy developed per unit volume of the
material
4) The shape of the hysteresis loop is characteristic of the material
KEY 3
64. Among the following properties describing diamagnetism identify the property that is wrongly stated
1) Diamagnetic material do not have permanent magnetic moment
2) Diamagnetism is explained by orbital motion of electron
3) Diamagnetic materials have a small positive susceptibility
4) The magnetic moment of individual electrons neutralize each other
KEY 3
65. A short bar magnet placed with its axis at 300 with an external field of 800G experiences a torque of
0.016 Nm. The bar magnet is replaced by a solenoid of cross- sectional area 2 104 m2 and 1000 turns,
but of the same magnetic moment. Determine the current flowing through the solenoid
1) 3A 2) 1A 3) 2A 4) 4A
2
SOL: Magnetic moment ms NIA 0.40 Am
0.40 1000 I 2 104
I 0.40 104 / 1000 2 2 A
KEY 3
66. If the B-H curves of two samples of P and Q of iron are as shown below, then which one of the
following statement is correct?
1) Both P and Q are suitable for making permanent magnet
2) P is suitable for making permanent magnet and Q for making electromagnet
3) P is suitable for making electromagnet and Q is suitable for permanent magnet
4) Both P and Q are suitable for making electromangets
SOL: For permanent magnet we prefer a material with high retentivity (So as to make a stronger magnet) and
high coercivity (so that magnetization any not be wiped out easily). For electromagnet we prefer high
saturated magnetism low coercivity and least possible area of hysteresis loop so that electromagnet
develops high magnetization cycle is least. Therefore, P is suitable for making permanent magnet and O
for Making electromagnet
KEY 2
67. A dip circle is kept in such a way that its plane makes an angle of 300 with the magnetic meridian. The
measured value of the angle of dip is 450 . What will be its true value at that place?
1) tan 1 1/ 2 2) tan 1 1
3) tan 1 3 / 2
4) tan 1 1/ 3
SOL: B1H BH cos 30 0 , tan 1 BV / BH cos 30 0
So that tan BV / BH tan 1 cos 300
Where and 1 are the true and measured values of the angle of dip
KEY 3
68. Which of the following statements is correct for diamagnetic materials :
(1) r 1 (2) is negative and low
(3) does not depend on temperature (4) All of the above
Key: 4
69. A super conductor exhibits perfect :
(1) Ferromagnetism (2) Anti ferromagnetism
(3) Para magnetism (4) Diamagnetism
Key: 4
70. If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom of diamagnetic material, paramagnetic material and
ferromagnetic material are denoted by d , p and f respectively, then :-
(1) p 0 and f 0 (2) d 0 and p 0
(3) d 0 and f 0 (4) d 0 and p 0
Key: 4
71. The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic substance at –73ºC is 0.0060, then its value at–173ºC
will be :-
(1) 0.0030 (2) 0.0027 (3) 0.0180 (4) 0.0045
Key: 2
1
Sol:.
T
72. Which one of the following is Ferro – magnetic:
1) Co 2) Zn 3) Hg 4) Pt
Key: 1
73. Hysteresis property is shown by
1) paramagnetic and diamagnetic 2) Diamagnetic
3) paramagnetic 4) Ferromagnetic
Key: 4
74. For an isotropic medium B, 0 , H and M are related as (where B, 0 , H and M have their usual
meaning in the context of magnetic material
1) (B–M) = 0 H 2) M = 0 (H+M) 3) H = 0 (H+M) 4) B = 0 (H+M)
Key: 4
75. Ferromagnetic substance contain :-
(1) empty sub shell (2) partially empty sub shell
(3) full fill subs hell (4) none of these
Key: 2
76. Substances in which the magnetic moment of a single atom is not zero, are known as :-
(1) Diamagnetic (2) Ferromagnetic
(3) Paramagnetic (4) Non magnetic
Key: 3
77. Susceptibility of a magnetic substance is found to depend on temperature and the strength of the
magnetizing field. The material is a :
(1) Diamagnetic (2) Ferromagnetic (3) Paramagnetic (4) Superconductor
Key: 2
78. When a diamagnetic substances is inserted in a current carrying coil, then magnetic field is
(1) Decreased (2) Unchanged (3) Increased
(4) Increased or decreased depending upon the relative volume of the substance
Key: 1
79. The hard ferromagnetic material is characterized by :-
(1) Narrow hysteresis loop (2) Broad hysteresis loop
(3) High mechanically hardness, all over (4) Mechanically hard surface
Key: 2
80. A dip circle is so placed that the magnetic needle in it is vertical. The circle is then rotated through 0
about a vertical axis and the angle of dip measured in this position is found to be . What is the true
angle of dip at that place?
1) tan 1 sin cot 2) tan 1 cos tan 3) tan 1 sin tan 4) tan 1 cos cot
SOL: As tan BV / BH so when the needle is vertical, i.e., 900 , BH 0 , i.e., the plane of dip circle is
perpendicular to the magnetic meridian. Now if the plane of dip circle is rotated by from this
position, the angle between magnetic meridian and plane of dip circle will be 900 and as angle of
dip in this plane is
BV1 BV
tan =
1
BH BH cos 900
tan
or, tan i.e., tan 1 sin tan
sin
KEY 3
81. At a certain place the angle of dip is 30 and the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is 0.50
oesrsted. The earth’s total magnetic field in oersted is
1) 3 2) 1 3) 1/ 3 4) 1/ 2
SOL: BH B cos B BH 0.50 0 0.50 1
cos cos 30 3/2 3
KEY 3
82. The relative permeability of air is :-
(1) Zero (2) 1.04 (3) Infinity (4) 1
Key: 2
83. The correct I–H curve for paramagnetic materials
Key: 3
84. The correct measure of magnetic hardness of a material is :-
(1) Remnant magnetism (2) Hysteresis loss (3) Coercively (4) Curie temperature
Key: 3
85. Steel is not attracted by a magnet, because steel is
(1) Non–magnetic (2) Un magnetized (3) Diamagnetic (4) Ferromagnetic
Key: 1
86. Cause of Ferromagnetism:-
(1) Orbital motion of electron (2) Spin motion of electron
(3) Permanent magnetic dipole moment (4) None
Key: 3
87. The area of hysteresis loop of a material is equivalent to 250 joule. When 10 kg material is magnetized
by an alternating field of 50Hz then energy lost in one hour will be if the density of material is 7.5
gm/cm3.
(1) 6 × 104 joule (2) 6 × 104 erg (3) 3 × 102 joule (4) 3 × 102 erg
Key: 1
88. The coercively of a bar magnet is 100A/m. It is to be demagnetized by placing it inside a solenoid of
length 100 cm and number of turns 50. The current flowing the solenoid will be :-
(1) 4A (2) 2A (3) 1A (4) zero
Key: 2
89. All the magnets loss their magnetic moments when
1) dipped in water 2) dipped in oil 3) brought near a piece of iron 4) strongly heated
Key: 4
90. The basic magnetization curve for a ferromagnetic material is shown in figure. Then, the value of
relative permeability is highest for the point
1) P 2) Q 3) R 4) S
B
Sol. B 0rH r = slope of B.H curve
H
According to the given graph, slope of the graph is highest at point Q.
Key: 3
91. Relative permittivity and permeability of a
material are ∊ and μ respectively. Which of the following values of those quantities are allowed for
diamagnetic material ?
1) r 1.5 r 0.5 2) r 0.5 r 0.5 3) r 1.5 r 1.5 4) r 0.5 r 1.5
Key: 1
92. The dipole moment of each molecule of paramagnetic gas is 1.5 1023 Am2 . The temperature of gas is
27°C and the number of molecules per unit volume in it is 2 1026 m3 .The maximum possible intensity
of magnetization in the gas will be (in A/m) is
1) 3 103 2) 4 103 3) 5 105 4) 6 104
Key: 1
93. A solenoid having 5000 turns/m carries a current of 2A. An aluminum ring at temperature 300K inside
the solenoid provides the core. IF the magnetization I is 5 102 A / m, find the susceptibility of
aluminum at 300K
1) 5 10 8 2) 5 10 6 3) 5 10 3 4) 5 10 4
Sol. H ni 5000 2 10 4 A / m ; I H
I 5 10 2
4
5 10 6
H 10
Key: 2
94. A paramagnetic sample shows a net magnetization of 0.8 Am 1 , when placed in an external magnetic
field of strength 0.8 T at a temperature 5K. When the same sample is placed in an external magnetic
field of 0.4 T at a temperature of 20K. The magnetization is
1) 0.8 Am 1 2) 0.8 Am 2 3) 0.1 Am 2 4) 0.1 Am 1
Sol. For paramagnetic sample (Curie’s law) I B / T
where, I1 0.8 A / m and B1 0.8T
and T1 5K B2 0.4T
T2 20 K I2 ?
I1 B2 / T1 I1 B1 T2 0.8 0.8 20 0.4 5
I2 0.1 Am 1
I 2 B2 / T2 I 2 B2 T1 I2 0.4 5 2
Key: 4
95. The 1 / T graph for an alloy of paramagnetic nature is shown in Fig. Then the curie constant is
0.4
0.3
0.2
0.1
0
0 2 4 6 7
–3 –1
1/T(in 10 K )
1) 57 K 2) 2.8 103 K 3)570 K 4) 57 10 3 K
C 1000
Sol. ; C T 0.4 57.14K
T 7
Key: 1
96. When a magnet of vibration magnetometer heated, its magnetic moment decreases by 36%. The time
period of oscillation :-
(1) Increases by 25% (2) Decreases by 25%
(3) Increases by 64% (4) Decreases by 64%
I T2 M 1
Sol. T ; 1 100 1 100
M T1 M 2
Key: 1
97. A magnet oscillating a horizontal plane has a time period of 2s at a place where the angle of dip is 30o
and 3s at another place where the angle of dip is 60 o . The ratio of resultant magnetic fields at the two
places is
4 3 4 9 9
1) 2) 3) 4)
7 9 3 4 3 3
1 1
Sol. Time period, T
BH B cos
T1 B2 cos 2
T2 B1 cos 1
2
B T 2 cos 2 3 cos 60o 9
1 22 o
B2 T1 cos 1 2 cos 30 4 3
Key: 3
98. A compass needle whose magnetic moment is 60A m 2 pointing geographical north at a certain place,
where the horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is 40Wb / m2 , experiences a torque
1.2 103 N m .What is the declination of the place?
1) 150 2) 300 3) 450 4) 600
SOL:
C MBH sin
Where is the angle between the geographical and magnetic meridians(called angle of declination).
Substituting the given data,
sin
1.2 103
1 1
i.e., sin 1 300
6
60 40 10 2 2
KEY 2
99. Two magents of equal mass are joined at right angles to each other as shown in figure. The magnet N1S1
has a magnetic moment 3 times that of N 2 S 2 . This arrangement is pivoted so that it is free to rotate in
the horizontal plane. When in equilibrium, what angle will the magnet N1S1 subtend with the magnetic
meridian?
BH
N1
N2
S2
S1
1 1 1 1
1) tan 1 2) tan 1 3) tan 1 4) tan 1
2 3 4 5
SOL:
For equilibrium of the system torques on M 1 and M 2 due to BH must counter balance each other , i.e,
M1 BH M 2 BH
If is the angle between M 1 and BH then the angle between M 2 and BH will be 900 ; so
M 1 BH sin M 2 BH sin 90 0
i.e., tan M 2 M 1 , 1
i.e., tan 1
M1 3M 3 3
KEY 2
100. A magnetic needle lying parallel to a magnetic field requires W units of work to turn it through 600 .
What is the torque needed to maintain the needle in this position?
1) W 2) 2W 3) 3W 4) 2W
SOL: In case of a dipole in a magnetic filed,
W MB(cos 1 cos 2 )
And C MB sin
Here, 1 0 0 and 2 600
So, W MB (1 cos ) 2 MB sin 2
2
And C MB sin 2 MB sin cos
2 2
C
So, cot ,
W 2
i.e., C W cot 300 3 W
KEY 3
101. Two bar magnets of same length and breadth but having magnetic moments M and 2M are joined
together pole for pole and suspended by a string. The time of oscillation of this assembly in a magnetic
field of strength B is 3sec. What will be the period of oscillation if the polarity of one of the magnets is
changed and the combination is again made to oscillate in the same field?
1) 3s 2) 3 3s 3) 3 2s 4) 3 5s
SOL: As magnetic moment is a vector, so when magnets are joined together pole for pole
M M 2 M 3M , so
I1 I 2
T 2 ………(1)
3MB
When the polariry of one of the magnets is reversed,
M 1 M 2M M ; So
I1 I 2
T 1 2 …….(2)
MB
Dividing Eq. (2) by (1)
T1
T
3, i.e, T 1 3 T 3 3 sec
KEY 2
102. A magnet makes 10 oscillation per minute at a place where the angle of dip is 450 and the total intensity
is 0.4 gauss. Calculate the number of oscillations made per sec by the same magnet at another place
where the angle of dip is 600 and the intensity of the field is equal to 0.5 gauss 0.8 2 1.06
1/2
1) 6.36 2)1.06 3) 0.157 4) 2.36
SOL: In case of angular SHM of a magnet in a magnetic field
1 1
T 2 2
MBH MB cos
[as BH B cos ]
So for a given magnet at two different places,
T2 B1 cos 1 0.4cos 450
T1 B2 cos 2 0.5cos 600
1/2
0.8 2 1.06
But as here T1 60 /10 6s
So, T2 1 1.06 6,
f2
i.e., f2 1
0.157 Hz
1.06 6
KEY 3
103. The magnetic needle of an oscillation magnetometer, executes 45 oscillations per minute at a place
where the dip is 370 . The oscillation frequency at a place where the dip is 600 will be
( the ratio of the magnetic fields at the two places is 405:512)
1) 35 per minute 2) 40 per minute 3) 50 per minute 4) 55 per minute
1 1 1
SOL: T 2 2
f MBH MB cos
f B cos
f1 45 405 4 / 5
f2 f2 512 1 / 2
45 16
f2 40
92
KEY 2
104. A magnetic needle suspended parallel to magnetic field requires 3J of work to turn it through 60 The
torque needle in this new position will be :
3
1) 3J 2) J 3) 2 3J 4) 3J
2
SOL:
W MB cos 1 cos 2
1 MB
MB cos 00 cos 600 MB 1
2 2
MB 2 3 J
3
And M B MB sin 2 3 3 J
2
KEY 4
105. A magnet makes 40 oscillations per minute at a place having magnetic field of 0.1 × 10–5T. At another
place, it takes 2.5 sec to complete one vibration. The value of earth's horizontal field at that place is :
(1) 0.25 × 10–6 T (2) 0.36 × 10–6T
–8
(3) 0.66 × 10 T (4) 1.2 × 10–6T
Key: 2
106. A bar magnet has a magnetic moment equal to 5×10-3weber×m. It is suspended in a magnetic field
which has a magnetic induction (B) equal to tesla. The magnet vibrates with a period of
vibration equal to 15 sec. The moment of inertia of the magnet is
Sol
Key: 4
107. A bar magnet is oscillating in the Earth's magnetic field with a period T. What happens to its period and
motion if its mass is quadrupled
(a) Motion remains S.H.M. with time period= 2T
(b) Motion remains S.H.M. with time period= 4T
(c) Motion remains S.H.M. and period remains nearly constant
T
(d) Motion remains S.H.M. with time period .
2
Sol.
Key: 1
108. A vibration magnetometer placed in magnetic meridian has a small bar magnet. The magnet executes
oscillations with a time period of 2 s in earth's horizontal magnetic field of 24 T. When a horizontal
field of 18 T is produced opposite to the earth's field by placing a current carrying wire, the new time
period of magnet will be
(a) 1s (b) 2 s (c) 3s (d) 4s
Sol. Time period in vibration magnetometer
Key: 2
109. A magnet of magnetic moment 2J/T is aligned in the direction of magnetic field of 0.1 T. What is the
net work done to bring the magnet normal to the magnetic field
1) 0.1J 2) 0.2J 3) 1J 4) 2J
Key: 2
110. A magnet oscillating in a horizontal plane has a time period of 2 second at a place where the angle of
dip is 30° and 3 seconds at another place where the angle of dip is 60°. The ratio of resultant magnetic
field at the two places is
4 3 4 9 9
1) 2) 3) 4)
7 9 3 4 3 3
1 1 T B2 cos 2
Sol. T 1
BH B cos T2 B1 cos 1
2
B1 T22 cos 2 3 cos 600 9 1 2
B2 T12 cos 1 2 cos 300 4 2 3
B1 9
B2 4 3
Key: 3
111. The magnetic needle of a vibration magnetometer makes 12 oscillations per minute in the horizontal
component of earth’s magnetic field. When an external short bar magnet is placed at some distance
along the axis of the needle in the same line it makes 15 oscillations per minute. If the poles of the bar
magnet are inter changed, the number of oscillations it takes per minute is
1) 61 2) 63 3) 65 4) 67
1 MBH 1 M BH B 1 M BH B
Sol. n1 ; n2 and n
2 I 2 I 2 I
Key: 2
112. If the strength of the magnetic field is increased by 21% the frequency of a magnetic needle oscillating
in that field
1) Increase by 10% 2) Decrease by 10%
3) Increase by 11% 4) Decrease by 21%
B
Sol. n B , n2 n1 2
B1
n n
% change 2 1 100
n1
Key: 1
113. When two identical bar magnets placed one above the other, such that they are mutually perpendicular
and bisect each other. The time period of oscillation in a horizontal magnetic field is 4 seconds. If one
of the magnets is removed the time period of the other in the same field
( 21/4 =1.189)
1) 1.34 sec 2) 2.34 sec 3) 3.36 sec 4) 4.34 sec
I
Sol. T 2
MBH
T1 I1 M 2 2I M
21/ 4
T2 I2 M1 I 2M
T1 4
T2 1/ 4
3.36sec
2 1.189
Key: 3
114. A short magnetic needle is pivoted in a uniform magnetic field of strength 1T. When another magnetic
field of strength 3 T is applied to the needle in a perpendicular direction, the needle deflects through
an angle ,where is
1) 30o 2) 45o 3) 90o 4) 60 o
3
SOL: In balance condition B2 B1 tan tan 60 o
1
KEY 4
115. Two magnets of equal mass are joined at right angles to each other as shown the magnet 1 has a
magnetic moment 3 times that of magnet 2. This arrangement is pivoted so that it is free to rotate in the
horizontal plane.
1 1
1) tan 1 2) tan 1 3) tan 1 1 4) 0 o
2 3
SOL: For equilibrium of the system torques on M 1 and M 2 due to BH must counter balance each other i.e.,
M 1 BH M 2 BH . If is the angle between M 1 and BH will be 90o ; so M1BH sin M 2 BH sin 90
M2 M 1 1
tan tan 1
M 1 3M 3 3
KEY 2
116. Two magnets of equal mass are joined at right angle to each other. Magnet N1S1 has a magnetic moment
3 times that of N 2 S2 . This arrangement is pivoted so that it is free to rotate in a horizontal plane. When
in equilibrium, is
1) 0 o 2) 30o 3) 45o 4) 60 o
SOL: MB sin ; and B are constants
Now, 3 sin 1 sin 90o cos
1
tan or 30 o
3
KEY 2
117. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side I is suspended between the pole pieces of a
permanent magnet such that B is in plane of the coil. If due to a current i in the triangle a torque acts
on it. then the side I of the triangle is [2005]
Sol. Torque acting on equilateral triangle in a magnetic field B is
Key: 3
118. A magnet of magnetic moment 50iA ˆ m 2 is placed along the x-axis in a magnetic field
B 0.5iˆ 3.0ˆj T. The torque acting on the magnet is
1) 175kˆ N m 2) 150kˆ N m
3) 75kˆ N m 4) 25 37kˆ N m
Sol. Torque is a vector quantity and it is given by M B
50iˆ 0.5jˆ 3.0jˆ 150 ˆi ˆj 150kˆ N m
Key: 2
119. The restoring couple of a magnet oscillating in the uniform magnetic field is provided by
a) horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field
b) gravity
c) torsion in the suspended thread
d) magnetic field of magnet
Sol. Restoring couple is due to horizontal component of earths magnetic field
Key: 1
120. A bar magnet of 5 cm long having a pole strength of 20 A.m. is deflected through 30o from the
320
magnetic meridian. If H A / m , the deflecting couple is
4
1) 1.6 104 Nm 2) 3.2 105 Nm
3) 1.6 105 Nm 4) 1.6 10 2 Nm
Sol. C MB sin m 2l (o H )sin
Key: 3
121. An electron moving around the nucleus with an angular momentum l has a magnetic moment
e e 2e e
1) l 2) l 3) l 4) l
m 2m m 2 m
Key: 2
122. Two magnets have the same length and the same pole strength, But one of the magnets has a small hole
at its centre. Then
1) both have equal magnetic moment
2) one with hole has smaller magnetic moment
3) one with hole has larger magnetic moment
4) one with hole loses magnetism through the hole
Key: 2
123. A bar magnet of length l and magnetic dipole moment M is bent in the form of an arc as shown in
figure.
600
The new magnetic dipole moment will be
3M 2M M
1) M 2) 3) 4)
2
2 M sin / 2
Sol. M 1
1
2 M sin 60 / 2 2 M 2 3M
/ 3 / 3
Key: 2
124. Four magnets of magnetic moments M, 2M, 3M and 4M are arranged in the form of a square such that
unlike poles are in contact. Then the resultant magnetic moment is
1) 2 2M 2) 2M 3) 10 M 4) 2 M
Sol. M and 3M are opposite M13 2M
2M and 4M are opposite M 24 2M
M13 & M 24 are perpendicular
M res (2M ) 2 (2M )2 2 2M
Key- 1
125. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 'M' is bent in the form of an arc which makes angle 60°. The
percentage change in the magnetic moment is
1) 9% Increase 2) 9% Decrease 3) 4.5% Decrease 4) 4.5% Increase
2M sin
Sol. M | 2 2M sin 30 3M
/3
3M
M
M' M
Percentage change in the magnetic moment 100 100
M M = - 4.5 %
Key: 3
126. A magnetised wire is bent into an arc of a circle subtending an angle 600 at its centre. Then its magnetic
moment is X. If the same wire is bent into an arc of a circle subtending an angle 900 at its centre then its
magnetic moment will be
1)
x 2
2) x 3)
2 2 x
4) 3 x
3 3 3 2 2
2 M sin 30 3M x
Sol. x ; x M
/3 3
2 M sin 45 4 M 1 2 2M 2 2
x1 x
/2 2 3
2 2x
x1
3
Key: 3
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENTS-2
DAY – 16 (DT 23-04-2020)
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
Chapter : ALTERNATING CURRENT
========================================================================
1. If reading of an ammeter is 10A, then the peak value of current is
10 5
(1) A (2) A (3) 20 2A (4) 10 2A
2 2
Sol: Ammeter reads the root mean square value of current (Irms) is related to the peak value of current (I0)
by the relation
I
I rms 0 I 0 2 I rms 2 10 A 10 2 A
2
Key: 4
2. The time taken by an alternating current of 50 Hz in reaching from zero to its
maximum value will be
(1) 0.5 s (2) 0.005 s (3) 0.05 s (4) 5 s
Sol: The relation between frequency (f) and time (T) is
1 1
T 0.02s
f 50
Time taken to reach the maximum value is
T 0.02
t 0.005s
4 4
Key: 2
3. If an AC main supply is given to be 200V. The average emf during a positive half cycle
will be
(1) 198V (2) 220V (3) 240V (4) 220 2V
Sol: Erms 220V
E0
Erms E0 2 Erms
2
2
Average emf over half cycle E0 0.637 1.41 220 198.15V
Key: 1
4. An alternating current of rms value 10 A is passed through a 12Ω resistor. The
maximum potential difference across the resistor is
(1) 20 V (2) 90 V (3) 169.68 V (4) None of these
Sol: Given I rms 10 A and R 12
Erms I rms R 10 12 120V
Now, maximum potential difference Erms 2 120 2 169.68V
Key: 3
5. An alternating emf given by equation e 300sin 100 t V is applied to a resistance
100Ω. The rms current through the circuit is (in amperes)
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 1
3 9 6
(1) (2) (3) 3 (4)
2 2 2
Sol: The given equation, e 300sin 100 t ... i
We know that, e e0 sin t ... ii
On comparing Eqs. (i) and (ii), we get
e0 300V and R 100
The rms current through the circuit I rms ?
e 300 3
I rms 0 A
2R 2 100 2
Key: 1
6. A direct current of 5 amp is superimposed on an alternating current I =10 sin t flowing through a
wire. The effective value of the resulting current will be
1) (15/2) amp 2) 5 3 amp 3) 5 5 amp 4) 15 amp
1/2
T I 2 dt 1/2
Sol : Given: I 5 10sin t . I o 1
T
5 10sin t dt
2
eff .
T dt T
o
o
1/2
1 T
25 100sin t 100sin 2 t
T o
1 T
sin t dt 0
T o
But as,
1 T 2 1
And sin t dt
T o 2
1/2
1
So, I eff . 25 100
2 5 3 amp
Key: 2
t
7. The electric current in a circuit is given by i i0 for some time. The rms current for the period
t 0 to t is
i i i
1) 0 2) 0 3) 0 4) i0
2 3 2
1/ 2
1/ 2 2 t2
i 2 dt 0 i0 2 dt
1/2
0
1 i2
02
2
i0
Sol : iRMS
dt
0 t dt 3
0
Key: 2
8. The equation of an alternating voltage is V=100 sin 100 t volt. Its peak value and frequency are
1) 100 V, 50 Hz 2) 50 V, 100 Hz 3) 200 V, 100 Hz 4) 100 V, 200 Hz
Sol : V V0 sin t , 2 f
100
f 50 Hz ; Vo 100 volt
2 2
Key: 1
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 2
9. The phase difference between current and voltage in an AC circuit is /4 radian. If the frequency of
AC is 50 Hz, then the phase difference is equivalent to the time difference:
1) 0.78 s 2) 15.7 ms
3) 0.25 s 4)2.5 ms
Sol :
Key: 4
10. An ac source is of 120 volt, 60 Hz. The value of the voltage after 1/360 sec from the start will be
1) 146.4 volt 2) 42.4 volt
3) 106.8 volt 4) 20.2 volt
1
Sol : V Vo sin t Vo sin 2 nt = 120 2 sin 2 60 120 2 sin
360 3
Key: 1
11. The voltage of an ac source varies with time according to the equation V 50sin100 t cos100 t ,
where ‘t’ is in second and V is in volt. Then
100
1) The peak voltage of the source is 100 V 2) The peak voltage of the source is V
2
3) The peak voltage of the source is 25 V 4) The frequency of the source is 50 Hz
Sol : V 50 sin100 t cos100 t 25sin 200 t
Key: 3
12. If the voltage in an circuit is represented by the equation, V 220 2 sin 314t . The average
voltage is
1) 141.4V 2) 198.17V
3) 191.30V 4) 180.42V
2 2
Sol : In case of ac, Vav V0 311 198.17 V
Key: 2
13. Write the equation of an alternating emf of 120V, and its frequency 60Hz
1)e=(169.7 sin 120 t ) volt
2) e=(152.7 sin 110 t ) volt
3)e=(143.7 sin 150 t ) volt
4) e=(156.7 sin 130 t )volt
Sol : e eo sin(2 ft ) ( 2 120)sin (2 f t )
169.7 sin (2 60t ) 169.7 sin (120 t )volt
Key: 1
14. In a circuit, the value of the alternating current is measured by hot wire ammeter as 10 ampere. Its peak
value will be
1) 10 A 2) 20 A 3) 14.14 A 4) 7.07 A
Sol : I o 2 Irms 1.414 10 14.14 A
Key: 3
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 3
15. In an ac circuit I=100 sin 200 t . The time required for the current to achieve its peak value will be
1 1
1) sec 2) sec
100 200
1 1
3) sec 4) sec
300 400
1 1
Sol : I I o sin t 100 100 sin (2 ft ) , 2 ft , t sec
2 4 f 4 100
Key: 4
16. A complex current wave is given by i = 5 + 5 sin (100 t) A. Its average value over one time period is
given as:
(1) 10 A (2) 5 A (3) 50 A (4) 0
T T T
5 5sin100wt dt 5dt 5sin100wtdt 5T 0
Sol : iavg 0
0 0
5amp
T T T
Key: 2
17.. If i1 = 3 sin t and i2 = 4 cos t, then i3 is :-
3 4
Sol : i3 i1 i2 5 sin t cos t 5 sin t cos530 cos t sin 530 5 sin wt 530
5 5
Key: 3
18. In a certain circuit current changes with time according to i 2 t . Root mean square value of current
between t = 2 to t = 4s will be:-
(1) 2A (2) 3 A (3) 2 3A (4) 130V
1/2
1/2 4
2 4
4t dt 1/2
t 2 4
Sol : i 2 i dt 2 2 12amp
rms
4
2 2 2
2 dt
Key: 2
19. If instantaneous current is given by i 4 cos ( t ) amperes, then the r.m.s. value of current is
1) 4 amperes 2) 2 2 amperes
3) 4 2 amperes 4) Zero amperes
io 4
Sol : ir .m . s . 2 2 ampere
2 2
Key: 3
20. A generator produces a voltage that is given by V 240 sin120 t , where t is in seconds. The frequency
and r.m.s. voltage are
1) 60 Hz and 240 V 2) 19 Hz and 120 V
3) 19 Hz and 170 V 4) 754 Hz and 70 V
120 7
Sol : 19 Hz
2 2 22
240
Vr . m. s . 120 2 170 V
2
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 4
Key: 3
21. An alternating current is given by the equation i i1 cos t i2 sin t . The r.m.s. current is given by
1 1
a) (i1 i2 ) b) (ii i2 ) 2
2 2
1 2 2 1/ 2 1
c) (i1 i2 ) d) (i12 i22 )1 / 2
2 2
i12 i22 1 2 2 1/ 2
Sol : irms (i1 i2 )
2 2
Key: 3
22. The rms value of potential difference F shown in the figure is
Sol :
Key: 2
23. The reactance of a coil when used in the AC power supply (220 V, 50Hz) is 50Ω. The
inductance of the coil is nearly
(1) 0.16 H (2) 0.22 H (3) 2.2 H (4) 1.6 H
Sol: Reactance of the coil or inductive reactance is given as
X L L 2 fL
Where, f is frequency
Given X L 50, f 50 cps
X X 50 1
L L L 0.16 H
2 f 2 50 2 3.14
Key: 1
24. In an AC circuit, an alternating voltage e 200 2 sin100t volt is connected to a capacitor
of capacity 1μF. The rms value of the current in the circuit is
(1) 100 mA (2) 200 mA (3) 20 mA (4) 10 mA
Sol: Given, e 200 2 sin100t and C 1 F
Erms 200V
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 5
1 1
XC 6
10 4
C 110 100
E 200
I rms rms 4 2 102 A 20 mA
X C 10
Key: 3
25. An alternating voltage V 30 sin 50t 40 cos 50t is applied to a resistor of resistance
10 . The rms value of current through resistor is
5 10
1) A 2) A 3) 5 A 4) None of these
2 2
Sol : V 30 sin 50t 40 cos50t 50sin 50t 530
Vrms 50 / 2 5
I rms A
Z 10 2
Key: 1
26. A 10 F capacitor, is connected across a 200 V, 50 Hz ac supply. The peak current through the circuit
is
0.6 0.6
1) 0.6 A 2) 0.6 2 A 3) A 4) A
2 2
V V
Sol : io o o CVo
Z XC
Key: 2
27. Which of the following graphs represents the correct variation of inductive reactance XL with
frequency v?
1) 2)
3) 4)
Sol : X L L L 2
Key: 2
28. An alternating voltage E 200 2 sin 100t V is connected to a 1 F capacitor through an ac ammeter.
The reading of the ammeter is
1) 20 mA 2) 20 2mA 3) 10 2mA 4) 40 mA
E 200 2
Sol : I rms rms ; E rms 200V
z 2
1 1 200
Z 6
104 ; I rms 4 20 mA
C 100 10 10
Key: 1
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 6
29. A coil of inductance 5.0 mH and negligible resistance is connected to an alternating voltage V =
10sin(100t). The peak current in the circuit will be
1) 2A 2) 5A 3) 10A 4) 20A
V 10
Sol : I max 0 20 A
L 100 5 103
Key: 4
30. The rmsvalue of an alternating current, which when passed through a resistor produces heat three times
of that produced by direct current of 2A in the same resistor, is
1) 6 A 2) 3 A 3) 2 A 4) 2 3A
i2 Q2 3
Sol : Q i 2 Rt i2 3 i1 , 2 3A
i1 Q1 1
Key: 4
31. An alternating emf, e=300 sin (100 ) t volt is applied to a pure resistance of 100 . Calculate the rms
current through the circuit.
1) 2.121A 2) 3.123 A 3) 4.232 V 4) 7.342 V
300 i 3
Sol : io 3; , Irms o 1.5 2 1.5 1.414 2.1210 A
100 2 2
Key: 1
32. An inductor of inductance 2mH is connected to an alternating emf of 50Hz. Find the inductive
reactance
1) 0.6284 2) 0.4648 3) 0.2675 4) 0.3846
3 1
Sol : X L 2 f L 2 3.14 50 2 10 6.28 10 0.628
Key: 1
33. The magnetic field energy in an inductor changes from maximum to minimum in 5ms when connected
to an AC source. The frequency of the source is
1) 20 HZ 2) 50 HZ 3) 200 HZ 4) 500 HZ
T 1
Sol : . t 5 10 3 f 50 HZ
4 4f
Key: 2
34. An inductive coil has a resistance of 100Ω. When an AC signal of frequency 1000 Hz is
applied to the coil, the voltage leads the current by 45o. The inductance of the coil is
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
10 20 40 60
X
Sol: tan L
R
L R 100 1
tan 45o L
R 2 1000 20
tan 45o 1
Key: 2
35. An inductor of 1 H is connected across a 220 V, 50 Hz supply. The peak value of the
current is approximately
(1) 0.5 A (2) 0.7 A (3) 1 A (4) 1.4 A
E0
Sol: Current I 0
XL
E0 220 2 220 2 220 2
I0 1A
L 1 2 50 100 100 3.14
Key: 3
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 7
36. The impedance of a circuit, when a resistance R and an inductor of inductance L are
connected in series in an AC circuit of frequency f, is
(1) R 2 2 f 2 L2 (2) R 4 2 f 2 L2 (3) R 2 4 2 f 2 L2 (4) R 2 2 2 f 2 L2
Sol: In L-R circuit,
Impedance Z R 2 X L2
Here, X L L 2 fL Z R 2 4 2 f 2 L2
Key: 1
37. In a series L-C-R circuit, resistance R = 10Ω and the impedance Z = 10Ω The phase
difference between the current and the voltage is
(1) 0o (2) 30o (3) 45o (4) 60o
2
Sol: Impedance, Z R2 X L X C
2 2
10 10 X L X C
2
100 100 X L X C X L X C 0 .. i
Let φ is the phase difference between current and voltage
X XC 0
tan L tan
R R
0 from Eq. i
Key: 1
38. A resistor and a capacitor are connected in series with an AC source. If the potential
drop across the capacitor is 5V and that across resistor is 12V, then applied voltage is
(1) 13 V (2) 17 V (3) 5 V (4) 12 V
Sol: Let the applied voltage be V volt
Here, VR 12V , VC 5V
2 2
V VR2 VC2 12 5 144 25 13V
Key: 1
39. In an AC circuit, the current lag behind the voltage by /3. The components of the circuit
is/are
(1) R and L (2) L and C (3) R and C (4) only R
Sol: Since, current lags behind the voltage in phase by a constant angle, then circuit must contain R and L
Key: 1
40. In a circuit L, C and R are connected in series with an alternating voltage source of
frequency f. The current leads the voltage by 45o. The value of C is
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 f 2 fL R f 2 fL R 2 f 2 fL R f 2 fL R
1
L
Sol: tan C
R
φ being the angle by which the current leads the voltage.
Given, φ=45o
1 1
L L
tan 45o C 1 C
R R
1 1
R L C
C L R
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 8
1 1
C
L R 2 f 2 fL R
Key: 3
41. In an L-C-R circuit, the capacitance is made ¼, then what should be change in
inductance so that the circuit remains in resonance?
(1) 8 times (2) ¼ times (3) 2 times (4) 4 times
Sol: The condition for resonance is that the frequency of the applied emf should be equal to the natural
frequency of the circuit when the resistance of the circuit is zero.
1 1
The frequency f
2 LC
C
Given, C , L1 L
4
1 1
Now, the frequency will be f '
2 C
L2 .
4
Since, f ' f L2 4 L
Hence, inductance should be mad four times.
Key: 4
42. An AC source of angular frequency is fed across a resistor R and a capacitor C in
series. The current registered is I. If now the frequency of source is changed to /3 but
maintaining the same voltage), the current in the circuit is found to be halved. Calculate
the ratio of reactance to resistance at the original frequency
3 2 1 4
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 5 5 5
Sol:
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 9
Key: 1
1
43. The power factor of an R-L circuit is . If the frequency of AC is doubled, then what
2
will be the power factor?
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
3 5 7 11
1 R
Sol: Power factor, cos
2 R 2 L2
2
This gives, L R when is doubled, we find
R R 1
cos '
2 2 2 2 2
R 4 L R 4R 5
Key: 2
44. Power dissipated in an L-C-R series circuit connected to an AC source of emf e is
2
2 2 1
e R L
e2 R C
(1) 2
(2)
2 1 R
R L
C
2
1
e2 R 2 L
C e2 R
(3) (4)
R 1
2
R2 L
C
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 10
Sol: Given e = erms
2
1
Impedance, Z R 2 L
C
Now, power of AC circuit is given by
E R
EI cos E
Z Z
2
e e2 e2 R
R 2
.R 2
Z 2 2 1
1 R L
R2 L
C C
Key: 1
45. For a series L-C-R circuit at resonance, the statement which is not true?
(1) Peak energy stored by a capacitor = peak energy stored by an inductor
(2) Average power = apparent power
(3) Wattless current is zero
(4) Power factor is zero
Sol: For a series L-C-R circuit at resonance,
Phase difference, φ = 0o Power factor = cosφ = 1
1
and peak energy stored in capacitor U C CV 2c
2
1 1 1
U C CI 2 X c2 CI 2 2 2
2 2 w0 c
1 LC 1 2
I2 LI U L
2 C 2
Key: 4
46. For high frequency, L-C circuit, the maximum charge on the capacitor is Q.
The charge on the capacitor, when the energy is stored equally between the
electric and magnetic field is
Q Q Q Q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 2 3 3
Sol: Maximum energy stored in a capacitor of capacitance C, charge Q is
1 Q2
U
2 C
Since, energy is stored equally between electric and magnetic fields,
1 1 Q2
E
2 2 C
Q '2 1 Q 2 Q
Now, . Q'
2C 2 2C 2
Key: 2
47. Alternating current is transmitted at far off places
(1) at high voltage and low current (2) at high voltage and high current
(3) at low voltage and low current (4) at low voltage and high current
Sol: Alternating current is transmitted at far off places at high voltage and low current.
Key: 1
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 11
48. An inductive coil has a resistance of 100 when an AC signal of frequency 1000Hz is applied to the
45o . The inductance of the coil in henry is
coil, the voltage leads the current by
1 1 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
10 20 40 60
X L
Sol : tan L 1
R R
R 100 1
L
2 1000 20
Key: 2
49. An alternating e.m.f. 100 cos 100 t volt is connected in series to a resistance of 10 ohm and inductance
100 mH. The phase difference between the current in the circuit and the e.m.f. is
1) 4 2) Zero 3) 4
1
WL 100 10
Sol : tan 1;
R 10 4
Key: 1
50 In an L-R circuit, an inductance of 0.1 H and a resistance of 1 are connected in series with an ac
source of voltage V=5 sin 10t. The phase difference between the current and applied voltage will be
1) 2) 3) 4) 0
2 4
R R
Sol : cos
2 2
R X R ( L)2
2
Key: 2
51. An emf is applied to an LR circuit of inductance 3 mH and resistance . The amplitude of current in
circuit is
1) 0.8A 2) 0.6 A 3) 0.4 A 4) 0.2 A
Vo Vo
Sol : io
R 2 X L2 R 2 ( L)2
Key: 1
52. An ac source of angular frequency is fed across a resistor R and a capacitor C in series. The current
registered is I. If now the frequency of source is changed to / 3 (but maintaining the same voltage),
the current in the circuit is found to be halved. The ratio of reactance to resistance at the original
frequency is
3 3 5 5
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 5 3 3
V V
Sol : I .....................(1)
Z 1
2
R2
C
I V
...................(2)
2 3
2
R2
C
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 12
2 1 2 2 3
2
From 1 and 2, 4 R R C
C
5 5 XC 1 3
3R 2 2
2
3R ;
C C R CR 5
Key: 2
53. A 50 W, 100V lamp is to be connected to an ac mains of 200V, 50 Hz. The capacitance which is
essential to put in series with the lamp is
50 25 100 50
1) mF 2) mF 3) mF 4) F
3 3 3 3
V2 1002
Sol : Resistance of the bulb R 200
P 50
2002 1002 VC2 VC 100 3 volts
i 200 1
VC
C 1
2 C
R2
C
200 1
100 3
1
2 C
2002
C
2 2
1 1
3 2002 4 C
C
2
1 1
3 200 2 200 3
C C
1 1 100 50
C 4
106 F
200 3 2 50 2 310 2 3 = 3
Key: 4
54. a capacitor of 10 F and an inductor of 1 H are joined in series. An ac of 50Hz is applied to this
2
combination. The impedance of the combination is 9.86
14 14 15 16
1) 2) 4)
3)
3
1 1
Sol : . Z X L XC L 100
. C 100105
1000 100 2 1000 986 1000 14
100
Key: 2
55. A 200 km long telegraph wire has capacity of 0.014μF / km . If it carries an alternating current of
frequency 5 kHz , what should be the value of an inductance required to be connected in series so that
the impedance is minimum?
1) 0.72 mH 2) 0.18 mH
3) 0.96 mH 4) 0.36 mH
Sol : Impedance is minimum when XL X C
1 1
L L 2
C C
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 13
C 200 0.014 2.8 F
1 1 1000 103 10
L 2
2 mH 0.36mH
3 2 2
4 25 2.8 100 2.8 2.8
2 5 10 2.8 106
Key: 4
56. When 100V dc is applied across a solenoid, a current of 1A flows in it. When 100V ac is applied
across the same solenoid the current drops to 0.5A. If the frequency of the ac source is 50 Hz, the
impedance and inductance of the solenoid are
1) 200 and 0.55H 2) 100 and 0.86H
3) 200 and 1.0H 4)1100 and 0.93H
100 100
Sol : R 100 ; Z 200
1 0.5
Z2 R 2 X 2L X L 200 2 100 2
100 3 L 100 3 2fL 100 3
2 50 L 100 3
3 1.732
L 0.55H
22
Key: 1
57. In the circuit of figure X and Y are identical bulbs which are initially glowing with equal brightness.
The inductor is having an air-core and the capacitor has air as the dielectric medium between its plates.
A dielectric (K) is now filled between the plates of the capacitor , then
1) X will glow brighter than Y
2) Y will glow brighter than X
3) X and Y will keep on glowing with equal brightness
4) change of brightness cannot be predicted
Sol : When dielectric is filled between the plates of capacitor, its capacitance increases. So XC decreases.
Then current flowing through bulb Y increases
Key: 2
58. A coil of self-inductance L is connected in series with a bulb B and an ac source. Brightness of the
bulb decreases when
1) an iron rod is inserted in the coil
2) frequency of the ac source is decreased
3) number of turns in the coil is reduced
4) a capacitance of reactance XC XL is included in the same circuit
Sol : When iron rod is inserted in the coil, impendence of the coil decreases
Key: 1
59. In the given circuit, R is a pure resistor,L is a pure inductor. S is a 100 V, 50 HZ ac source and A is an
ac ammeter. With either K1 or K2 alone closed, the ammeter reading is I . If the source is changed to
100V, 100HZ, the ammeter reading with K1 alone closed and with K2 alone closed will be
respectively,
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 14
1 I
1) I , 2) I , 2 I 3) 2 I , I 4) 2 I ,
2 2
Sol : In the first case, X L L 2 x50 L 10 L
In second case, X ' L ' L 2 x100 L 200 L 2 X L
100 100 100 I
iL I , i 'L '
XL X L 2XL 2
In R, current remains same.
Key: 1
60 An LR Circuit consists of a resistance of 50 and a coil of inductive reactance 120 . If the circuit is
connected across 260 volt ac mains, the current in circuit is
26 26 13
1) 2 A 2) A 3) A 4) A
17 5 6
E 260 260 260 260
Sol : i 2A
2
R X 2 2
50 120 2
2500 14400 16900 130
Key: 1
61 When an L-R combination is connected in series with 12V-50Hz supply, a current of 0.5A flows
through the combination. The current differs in phase from applied voltage by / 3 rad. Then
resistance is
1) 24 2) 12 3) 6 4) 3
L
Sol : Tan ; L R tan
R
R 2 ( 3R )2 Z 2 , 4R 2 Z 2 ,
24
RZ/2 12
2
Key: 2
62 An emf E=4cos 1000t volt is applied to an L-R circuit of inductance 3 mH and resistance 4 . The
amplitude of the current in the circuit is
4 5
1) 1.0A 2) 0.8 A 3) A 4) A
7 7
E 4 4
Sol : io o 0.8 A
Z 2
R ( L ) 2 5
Key: 2
63. An alternating voltage V=200 sin 100t, where V is in volt and t seconds, connected to a series
combination of 1 Micro farad capacitor and10K resistor through an AC ammeter. The reading of the
ammeter will be
1) 2 mA 2) 10 2 Ma 3) 2 mA4) 10 mA
2 2 2
1 4 2 1 2 1
2
Sol : Z 10 ; Z Z
R 6
104 108 108 104 2
c c 100 10
200
io 4 10 2 mA
10 2
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 15
io 10 2mA
irms 10mA
2 2
Key: 4
64 If a circuit made up of a resistance 1 and inductance 0.01Hz, and alternating emf 200V at 50 Hz is
connected then the phase difference between the current and the emf in the circuit is
1) tan 1 ( ) 2) tan 1 3) tan 1 4) tan 1
2 4 3
2 fL 1 2 50 0.01
Sol : Tan1 tan
1
tan
R 1
Key: 1
65. A 20 volt AC is applied to a circuit consisting of resistance and a coil with a negligible resistance. If
the voltage across the resistance is 12 volt, the voltage across the coil is
1) 16 V 2) 10 V 3) 8 V 4) 6 V
2 2
Sol : VL V VR VL 20 12 400 144 256 16 volt
2 2
,
Key: 1
66. In the alternating current shown in the figure, the currents through inductor and capacitor are1.2 amp
and 1.0 amp respectively. The current drawn from the generator is
1) 0.4 amp 2)0.2 amp 3)1.0 amp 4) 1.2 amp
Sol : itotal iL iC 1.2 1.0 0.2amp
Key: 2
67. When an ac generator of 120 V is connected in series with a capacitor and a resistor of 30 , the
circuit carries a current 1·5A. The potential difference across the capacitor will be –
(1) 1·11 V (2) 111 V
(3) Zero (4) 220 V
vrms
Sol : i z R2 X c2 xc2 z 2 R2
Z and
Solve for c ; vc i0 X c
Key: 2
68. A capacitor of capacitance 100 µF and a resistance of 100 is connected in series with A.C. supply of
220 V, 50 Hz. The current leads the voltage by:-
(1) tan–1(1/2 ) (2) tan–1 (1/ )
(3) tan–1(2/ ) (4) tan–1(4/ )
x 1 x
Sol : tan C ; tan C
R R
Key: 2
69. An AC voltage E = E0 sin 100t is applied to a circuit. If the phase difference between current and
voltage is found to be , then:-
4
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 16
(1) R = 100 , C = 1 Μf (2) R = 1 k , C = 10 μF
(3) R = 10 k , L = 1 H (4) R = 1 k , L = 10 H
x x
Sol : tan L C
R and choose answer by option verification
Key: 2
70. When 100V D.C is applied across a coil a current of 1A flows through it. When 100V A.C of 50 Hz is
applied to the same coil only 0.5A flows. The inductance of the coil is
1) 0.55 H 2) 55 mH
3) 0.5 mH 4) 5.5 mH
V 100
Sol : R 100
i 1
V 100 2
Z RMS 200 R 2 LW 200
iRMS 0.5
Key: 1
71.The graphs given below depict the dependence of two reactive impedances X1 and X2 on the frequency of
the alternating e.m.f. applied individually to them. We can then say that
1) X1 is an inductor and X2 is a capacitor
2) X1 is a resistor and X2 is a capacitor
3) X1 is a capacitor and X2 is an inductor
4) X1 is an inductor and X2 is a resistor
1
Sol : We have X C and X L L 2f
C 2f
Key: 3
72. An AC voltage is applied to a resistance R and an inductor L in series. If R and the inductive reactance
are both equal to 3 , the phase difference between the applied voltage and the current in the circuit is
X L L
Sol : tan
R R
Key: 1
73. In given LCR circuit, the voltage across the terminals of a resistance & current will be-
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 17
1) 400V, 2A 2) 800V, 2A 3) 100V, 2A 4) 100V, 4A
e e 100
Sol : i Rms Rms 2A
Z R 50
VR iR 2 50 100V
Key: 3
74. In a series resonant RLC circuit, if L is increased by 25% and C is decreased by 20%, then the resonant
frequency will:
1) Increases by 10%
2) Decreases by 10%
3) Remain unchanged
4) Increases by 2.5%
1 L2C2
Sol : 0 1
LC 2 L1C1
Key: 3
75. A circuit contains R, L and C connected in series with an A. C. Source. The values of the reactance’s
for inductor and capacitor are 200 Ω and 600 Ω respectively and the impedance of the circuit is Z1.
What happens to the impedance of the same circuit if the values of the reactance’s are interchanged:
1) the impedance will remain unchanged
2) the impedance will increase
3) the impedance will decrease
4) the phase angle will remain unchanged
2
1
Sol : Z R L
2
c
Key: 1
76. For a series R-L-C circuit:
a) voltage across L and C are differ by π
b) current through L and R are in same phase
c) voltage across R and L differ by π/2
d) voltage across L and current through C are differ by π/2
1) a,b,c 2) b,c,d 3) c,d,a 4) All
Sol : According to phasor diagram
Key: 4
1
77. A series LCR circuit exhibits resonance at a frequency W0 . The quality factor Q is
LC
CR LW0 WE R
1) 2) 3) 0 4)
W0 R L W0 C
X orX c
Sol : Q L
R
Key: 2
78. The figure shows variation of R, X L and X C With frequency f in a series L, C, R circuit. Then for
what frequency point, the circuit is inductive.
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 18
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) At all points
Sol : At A X C X L , at B X C X L , at C X C X L
At C point circuit is inductive
Key: 3
79. A circuit consists of a resistor, an inductor and a capacitor connected in series. If the resistance of the
resistor is 25 and the value of inductive reactance is equal to capacitive reactance, then the net
impedance of the circuit will be
1) 5 2) 25 3) 125 4) 625
Sol : The impedance of the L-C-R circuit is given by
2
Z R 2 X L XC
2
Or Z R 2 X L X L R ( XL= XC)
Z = 25 ( R= 25 )
Key: 2
80. With the aim of determining the resonance frequency, an inductance, a capacitance and a resistance are
connected to an ac source of a variable frequency. It was noticed that at frequencies 1 and 2 , current
amplitudes in the circuit assumes the same value. The resonance frequency is ----
1 2 1 2 12
1) 2) 3) 12 4)
2 2 2
Sol :
Key: 3
81. In series LCR circuit L=1H,C=6.25 micro farad and R=1 ohm. In resonance condition
its quality factor is ----
1)400 2)200 3)125 4)25
1 L 1
Sol : Quality factor (Q) = 400
R C 6.25 106
Key: 1
82. In series resonant L-C-R circuit has a quality factor (Q-factor) 0.4, bandwidth of 1.3 kHz and
capacitance 0.1 F. The value of inductances is then
1) 0.1 H 2) 0.94 H 3) 2H 4) 10 H
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 19
Sol : Quality factor Q =
2 1 2 f 2 f1
1 1 1
But ; Q
LC 2 LC f 2 f1
1 1
0.4
2 L 0.110 5 1.3 103
1
Or L 2
= 0.94 H
4 2 0.4 1.3 103 50.1105
Key: 2
83. The value of alternating e.m.f in the following circuit will be
1) 220 volt 2) 140 volt 3) 20 volt 4) 100 volt
2 2
Sol : V VR2 VL VC = 802 40 100 100V
Key: 4
84. In an LCR circuit the capacitance is changed from C to 4C. For the same resonant frequency, the
inductance should be changed from L to
L L
1) 2) 3) 2L 4) 4L
4 2
1
Sol : : f for same frequency L1C1 L2C2
2 LC
L
LC L 2 4C L 2
4
Key: 1
85. A 10 ohm resistance, 5mH coil and 10 F capacitor are joined in series. When a suitable frequency
alternating current source is joined to this combination, the circuit resonates. If the resistance is halved,
the resonance frequency
1) is halved 2) is doubled 3) remains unchanged 4) is quadrupled
Sol : Resonant frequency is independent of resistance
Key: 3
86. What is the value of inductance L for which the current is maximum in a LCR circuit with C 10 F
and 1000 s 1 ?
1) 10 mH 2) 100 Mh 3) 1 mH
4) Cannot be calculated unless R is known
1 1 1
Sol : Current is maximum at resonance so L 2 2
0.1H 100mH
LC C 1000 10 106
Key: 2
87 In a series LCR circuit R=10 and the impedance Z=20 . Then the phase difference between the
current and the voltage
1) 60o 2) 30o 3) 45o 4) 90o
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 20
2
1 1 2 2
Sol : Z 2 R 2 L L C Z R 400 100 300
C ,
1
L
C 300
Tan 3 60o
R 10 ,
Key: 1
88. A 0.03H inductor, a 10 resistor and a 3 F capacitor are connected in series, At what frequency will
they resonate? What will be the phase difference between the emf and current at resonance?
1
1) 10 4 Hz , 00 2) 6 104 Hz,00
6
3) 3 104 Hz,30o 4) 104 Hz ,45o
1 1 1
Sol : L ; ; 2 fo
C LC LC
1 1
fo
2 LC 2 3 102 3 106
1 1 1
4
10 4 Hz
2 3 10 6
Phase difference between emf and current is zero at resonance
Key: 1
89. An LCR series circuit is at resonance with 10V each across L, C and R. If the resistance is halved the
respective voltages across L, C and R are :-
(1) 10V, 10V and 10V (2) 20V, 20V and 5V
(3) 20V, 20V and 10V (4) 5V, 5V and 5V
v
Sol : If R R / 2 i rms
R
vL ixL vC ixC vR iR
Key: 3
90. The value of L, C and R for a circuit are 1H, 9F and 3. What is the quality factor for the circuit at
resonance :-
1 1
(1) 1 (2) 9 (3) (4)
9 3
1 L
Sol : Q
R C
Key: 3
91. If E = 200Volt, R = 25 , L=2H and C=2μF and the frequency is variable then the current at f = 0 and
f = will be respectively –
(1) 0A, 8A (2) 8A, 0A (3) 8A, 8A (4) 0A, 0A
Sol : When f = 0, xL 0 & xC
f xL xC 0 I 0
Key: 4
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 21
92. An LCR series circuit with 100 ohm resistance is connected to an ac source of 100 V and angular
frequency 300 rad/s. When the capacitance is removed, the current lags behind the voltage by 45°,
when the inductance is removed; the current leads the voltage by 45°. The current flowing in the
circuit when all the three are connected will be –
(1) 1A (2) 1·5 A (3) 2A (4) 3 A
X X
Sol : Tan L C is removed only L and R Tan 450 L L is removed only R and C
R R
X L R Similarly X C R
2
Z R2 X L XC ; Z R 100
v0 100
i0 1A
Z 100
Key: 3
93. The graph shows variation of I with f for a series R-L-C network. Keeping L and C constant. If R
decreases :
(a) Maximum current (Im) increases (b) Sharpness of the graph increases
(c) Quality factor increases (d) Band width increases
(1) a, b, c (2) b, c, d (3) c, d, a (4) All
e 1 L
Sol : imax max and Q
R R C
Key: 1
94. In a given series LCR circuit R=4 , XL=5 and XC = 8 , the current :-
(1) Leads the voltage by tan–1(3/4) (2) Leads the voltage by tan–1(5/8)
(3) Lags the voltage by tan–1(3/4) (4) Lags the voltage by tan–1(5/8)
x L xC
Sol : tan
R
Key: 1
95. When L.C.R. series circuit is connected to an alternating emf E=200sin(100 t + /6)volt. Then I =
2sin(100 t + /3)amp current flows in circuit. The reactance of circuit is :-
(1) 100 capacitive (2) 50 inductive
(3) 50 3 capacitive (4) 50 3 inductive
Sol : If xL xC Inductive circuit
If xC xL capacitive circuit
Key: 1
96. In a series LCR circuit voltage across resistor, inductor and capacitor are 1V, 3V and 2V respectively.
At the instant t when the source voltage is given by
V V0 cos t , the current in the circuit will be
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 22
I I0 cos t I I0 cos t
4 2) 4 3) I I cos t 4) I I cos t
0 0
1) 3 3
VL VC
Sol : VL VC , inductive circuit and tan
VR
Key: 2
97. A coil of inductive reactance 31Ω has a resistance of 8 Ω . it is placed in series with a condenser of
capacitative reactance 25Ω the combination is connected to an a.c source of 110volt. The power factor
of the circuit is:
1) 0.56 2) 0.64 3) 0.80 4) 0.33
R R
Sol : cos
Z R2 X X
2
L C
Key: 3
98.The instantaneous values of alternating current and voltages in a circuit are given as
1 1
i sin 100 t e sin 100 t / 3 volt The average power in Watts consumed in the circuit
2 2
is
1 1 1 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 8 4 4
i0e0
Sol : Pavg cos
2
Key: 2
99. The power factor of a circuit in which a box having unknown electrical devices connected in series
with a resistor of resistance 3 is 3/5. The reactance of the box is
1. 5 2. 5 / 3 3. 4 4. 4 / 3
R 3
Sol : cos Z R 2 x 2 5
Z 5
Key: 3
100. In an AC circuit V and I are given by V = 150 sin (150t) volt and I = 150 sin (150 t ) amp. The
3
power dissipated in the circuit is
1) 106 W 2) 150 W 3) 5625 W 4) zero
Sol : I o 150 A,Vo 150V
1
Power P Vo I o cos 0.5 150 150 cos 60 ;P = 5625W
2
Key: 3
101. In an ac circuit, V and I are given by
V = 100 sin (100 t) volts, I 100 sin 100 t mA . The power dissipated in circuit is
3
4
a) 10 watt b) 10 watt
c) 2.5 watt d) 5 watt
100 100 10 3 104 103 1 10
Sol : P Vr.m.s. ir.m.s. cos cos 2.5 watt
2 2 3 2 2 4
Key: 3
102. In the circuit, as shown in the figure, if the value of R.M.S current is 2.2 ampere, the
power factor of the box is
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 23
1 3 1
1) 2) 1 3) 4)
2 2 2
Sol :
As RMS voltage across resistor is equal to RMS voltage of source circuit is in resonance
XL XC
R R R 1
Power factor Z 2
R XC 2 2
R XL 2
2
Key: 1
103. A capacitor C = 2 F and an inductor with L = 10 H and coil resistance 5 are in series in a circuit.
When an alternating current of r.m.s. value 2A flows in the circuit, the average power in watts in the
circuit is
1) 100 2) 50 3) 20 4) 10
Sol :
= 20 watt
Key: 3
104. An inductance L, a capacitance C and a resistance R may be connected to an AC
source of angular frequency , in three different combinations of RC, RL and RLC in series. Assume
that L 1/(C ) .The power drawn by the three combinations are
P1, P2, P3 respectively. Then,
1) P1> P2> P3 2) P1 = P2< P3 3) P1 = P2> P3 4) P1 = P2 = P3
Sol :
2
Vrms R
Z2
As X L X C , impedence for LR and CR circuit is same and is minimum for LCR circuit
P1 P2 P3 ;
Key: 2
105. A resistor of 500 and an inductance of 0.5H are in series with an ac source
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 24
which is given by V 100 2 sin 1000t . The power factor of the combination is
1 1
1) 2) 3) 0.5 4) 0.6
2 3
Sol :
R R
cos
Z R 2 L
2
Key: 1
1 1
106. If the power factor changes from to then what is the increase in impedance in AC?
2 4
1) 20 % 2) 50 % 3) 25 % 4) 100 %
R
Sol : Power factor cos
Z
1
If R is constant, then ; cos
Z
Z1 Cos2 1/ 4 1
Z 2 2Z1
Z2 cos 1 1/ 2 2
Percentage change = 2Z Z 100 = 100 %
1 1
Z1
Key: 4
107. Average power in the L – C – R circuit depends upon
1) Current only 2) Phase difference only
3) emf only 4) Current, emf and phase difference
Sol : Pavg irms erms cos
Key: 4
108. In an ac circuit V and I are given by V = 100 sin 100t volt and I = 100sin(100t+ /3)milliampere. The
power dissipated in the circuit is
1) 104 watt 2) 10 watt 3) 2.5 watt 4) 5 watt
3
Sol : P Vrms I rms cos 100 100 10 cos 2.5W
3
2 2
Key: 3
109. In a LR – circuit, the inductive reactance is equal to the resistance R of the circuit. An e.m.f. E E0
cos t applied to the circuit. The power consumed in the circuit is
E02 E02E02 E2
1) 2) 4) 0 3)
R 2R 4R 8R
E0 i0 R
Sol : P Ermsirms cos
2 2 Z
E E R E2R
0 0 P 0 2
2 Z 2 Z 2Z
E02
Given X L R so, Z 2 R P
4R
Key: 3
110. In a series resonant LCR circuit, if L is increased by 25% and C is decreased by 20%, then the resonant
frequency will :-
(1) Increase by 10% (2) Decrease by 10%
(3) Remain unchanged (4) Increase by 2.5%
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 25
f1 L2 C 2
Sol :
f2 L1 C1
Key: 3
111. An alternating e.m.f. of angular frequency is applied across an inductance. The instantaneous power
developed in the circuit has an angular frequency :-
1) 2) 3) 4) 2
4 2
v I
Sol : Instantaneous power in inductor p m m cos
2
Key: 4
112. The self inductance of a choke coil is 10 mH. When it is connected with a 10V dc source, then the loss
of power is 20 watt. When it is connected with 10 volt ac source, then loss of power is 10watt. The
frequency of ac source will be
(1) 50 Hz (2) 60 Hz (3) 80 Hz (4) 100 Hz
2
V 100
Sol : R 5 Also
P 20
V 2 V 2 R
Pavg Rms cos rms
z z z
Key: 3
113. In an electrical circuit R, L, C and an a.c. voltage source are all connected in series. When L is
removed from the circuit, the phase difference between the voltage and the current in the circuit is
/3. If instead, C is removed from the circuit the phase difference is again /3. The power factor of the
circuit is :
1 1
(1) 1 (2) 3 / 2 (3) (4)
2 2
R
Sol : X L X C Z R Hence cos
Z
Key: 1
114. In an AC circuit, V and I are given by V=150 sin (150t) volts and I = 150 sin 150t amperes. The
3
power dissipated in the circuit is:
(1) 100 W (2) 150 W (3) 5625 W (4) zero
Sol : Power dissipated ; p vrms .I rms cos
Key: 3
115. The power factor of the circuit in figure is
1/ 2 . The capacitance of the circuit is equal to :-
(1) 400µF (2) 300µF (3) 500µF (4) 200µF
1
Sol : Power factor cos ; R
2 cos 2
1
R 2 Lw
wC
Key: 3
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 26
116. A coil has an inductance of 0.7 henry and is joined in series with a resistance of 220 . When the
alternating emf of 220 V at 50 Hz is applied to it then the phase through which current lags behind the
applied emf and the wattles component of current will be respectively
1) 300 , 1 A 2) 450 , 0.5 A
3) 600, 1.5 A 4) none of these
X L
Sol : tan L , Watt less component of current = i sin
R R
Key: 2
117. A resistance R draws power P when connected to an AC source. If an inductance is now placed in
series with the resistance, such that the impedance of the circuit becomes Z, the power drawn will be
Sol :
Key: 1
118. The primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the
linked with the primary coil is given by 4t , where is in weber, t is time in
magnetic flux
second and 0 is a constant, the output voltage across the secondary coil is
(a) 90V (b) 120V (c) 220 V (d) 30 V
Sol :
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 27
Key: 2
119. A transformer is used to light a 100 W and 110 V lamp from a 220 V mains. If the main current is 0.5
A, the Efficiency of the transformer is approximately;
(a) 30% (b) 50% (c) 90% (d) 10%
Sol :
Key: 3
120. A transformer having efficiency of 90% is working on 200 V and 3 kW power supply. If the current in
the secondary coil is 6 A, the voltage across the secondary coil and the current in the primary coil
respectively are
(a) 300V, 15A (b) 450V, 15A
(c) 450V, 13.5 A (d) 600V, 15 A
Sol :
Key: 2
121. In a transformer, number of turns in the primary are 140 and that in the secondary are 280. If current in
primary is 4A then that in the secondary is
1) 4A 2) 2A 3) 6A 4) 10A
N P VP iS N i 4 140
Sol : iS P P 2A
N S VS iP NS 280
Key: 2
122 A power transmission line feeds input power at 2300 v to a step down transformer with its primary
windings having 4000 turns. The number of turns in the secondary in order to get output power at
230V is------
1) 4 2) 4000 3) 40 4)400
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 28
VS N S 230 N
Sol : ; S ; N S 400
VP N P 2300 4000
Key: 4
123. A transformer has an efficiency of 80%. It works at 4 kW and 100V. If secondary voltage is 240 V,
the current in primary coil is
1) 0.4 A 2) 4 A 3) 10 A 4) 40 A
Sol : (4) As Ep Ip = Pi
Pi 4000
IP 40 A
Ep 100
Key: 4
124. A current of 5 A is flowing at 220 V in the primary coil of a transformer. If the voltage produced in the
secondary coil is 2200 V and 50% of power is lost, then the current in the secondary will be
1) 0.25 A 2) 0.5 A 3) 2.5 A 4) 5 A
Sol : Given the power output is 50% of the input power, is iSVS = (1/2)iPVP; Also given iP = 5A, VP = 220V
and VS = 2200V
iS 1 iP VP iS 1 5A 220V 0.25A.
2 VS 2 2200V
Key: 1
125 A transformer is employed to reduce 220 V to 11 V. The primary draws a current of 5 A and the
secondary 90 A. The efficiency of the transformer is
1) 20% 2) 40% 3) 70% 4) 90%
VS i S 11 90
Sol : 100 100 90%
VP iP 220 5
Key: 4
126. The output of a step - down transformer is measured to be 24V when connected to a 12W light bulb.
The peak value of current is :-
1
(1) A (2) 2 A (3) 2A (4) 2 2A
2
v2 v
Sol : p ;i
R R
Key: 1
127. In a step-up transformer, turn ratio is 8 : 1.A 60Hz, 120 volt input is connected with its primary coil.
4
Load resistance in secondary coil is 10 . Find current in secondary coil.
(1) 96 A (2) 0.96 A (3) 9.6 A (4) 96 Ma
N 8
Sol : s ; v p ip vs is
Np 1
Key: 4
128. A step-down transformer transforms a supply line voltage of 2200 volt into 220 volt. The primary coil
has 5000 turns. The efficiency and power of transformer are 90% and 8 kilowatt respectively. Then the
number of turns in the secondary is :-
(1) 5000 (2) 50 (3) 500 (4) 5
p vi
Sol : out 100; s s 100
pin vpip
Key: 3
129. The output voltage of an ideal transformer, connected to a 240V a.c. main is 24V. When this
transformer is used to light a bulb with rating(24V, 24W), calculate the current in the primary coil of
the circuit.
(1) 0.3A (2) 0.1A (3) 0.8A (4)1.02A
Sol : For ideal transform
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 29
pin pout ; vpip vs is
Key: 2
130. A RC series circuit of R = 15 and C 10 F is connected to 20 volt DC supply for very long time.
Then capacitor is disconnected from circuit and connected to inductor of 10 mH. Find amplitude of
current
1) 0.2 10 A 2) 2 10 A 3) 0.2 A 4) 10 A
Sol : After infinite time potential difference across capacitor is 20volt so charge will be maximum
Q CV 10 106 20 2 10 4 C
When charged capacitor is connected to inductor then there will be LC oscillations
Q 2 104
1 2 Q2 I0
LI 0 ; LC 10 103 10 10 6
2 2C 2 10 4
0.2 10 A
107
Key: 1
131. In an oscillating L-C circuit, maximum charge on the capacitor is Q. The charge on this capacitor,
when the energy is stored equally between the electric and magnetic fields is :-
Sol : If vB vE
maximum charge Q
Change of capacitor =
2 2
Key: 4
132. A fully charged capacitor C with initial charge q0 is connected to a coil of self inductance L at t = 0.
The time at which the energy is stored equally between the electric and the magnetic fields is :-
1) 2 LC 2) LC
3) LC 4) LC
4
q2 1 2
Sol : q q0 cos t and i q0 sin t Given Li , on solving t LC
2c 2 4
Key: 4
133. A capacitor of capacitance 2 F is connected in the tank circuit of an oscillator oscillating with a
frequency of 1 kHz. If the current flowing in the circuit is 2 mA , the voltage of the capacitor will be
1) 0.16 V 2) 0.32 V 3) 79.5 V 4) 159 V
1 1 1
Sol : f and cv 2 Li 2
2 LC 2 2
Key: 1
134. A condenser of capacity C is charged to a potential difference of V1. The plates of the condenser are
then connected to an ideal indictor of inductance L. The current through the inductors when the
potential difference across the condenser reduces to V2 is?
1/ 2 2 1/ 2
C
1)
V 2
1 V
2
2 2)
C V 2
1
2
V 2 3)
C V 2
1
V 2 1/ 2
C V1 V2 2
4)
L L L L
1 2 1 2 1 2 C V12 V22
Sol : CV1 CV2 Li i
2 2 2 L
Key: 1
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 30
135. An LC circuit contains a 40mH inductor and a 25 F capacitor The time is measured from the instant
the circuit is closed. The energy stored in the circuit is completely magnetic at times ( in milli
seconds)
1) 0, 3.14, 6.28 2) 0, 1.57, 4.71
3) 1.57, 4.71, 7.85 4) 1.57, 3.14, 4.71
3.14
Sol : t LC 40 103 25 106 1.57
2 2
The times are t , 3t, 5t , _ _ _ _
Key: 3
NARAYANA GROUP Page : 31
TOPIC: ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
Single Correct Answer Type
1. A step-down transformer is used on a 1000 V line to deliver 20 A at 120 V at the secondary coil. If the
efficiency of the transformer is 80%, the current drawn from the line is
a) 3 A b) 30 A c) 0.3 A d) 2.4 A
2. When a bar magnet falls through a long hollow metal cylinder fixed with its axis vertical, the final
acceleration of the magnet is
a) Equal to zero b) Less than
c) Equal to d) Equal to in the beginning and then more than
3. The coils of a step down transformer have 500 and 5000 turns. In the primary coil an ac of 4 at
2200 is sent. The value of the current and potential difference in the secondary coil will be
a) 20 , 220 b) 0.4 , 22000 c) 40 , 220 d) 40 , 22000
4. A step-down transformer reduces the voltage of a transmission line from 2200 V to 220 V. The power
delivered by it is 880 W and its efficiency is 88%. The input current is
a) 4.65 mA b) 0.045 A c) 0.45 A d) 4.65 A
5. A 100% efficient transformer has 100 turns in the primary and 25 turns in its secondary coil. If the current
in the secondary coil is 4 amp, then the current in the primary coil is
a) 1 b) 4 c) 8 d) 16
6. A conducting loop having a capacitor is moving outward from the magnetic field then which plate of the
capacitor will be positive
v
A
B
a) Plate − b) Plate −
c) Plate − and Plate − both d) None
7. The number of turns of primary and secondary coils of a transformer are 5 and 10 respectively and the
mutual inductance of the transformer is 25 ℎ . Now the number of turns in the primary and secondary
of the transformer are made 10 and 5 respectively. The mutual inductance of the transformer in ℎ
will be
a) 6.25 b) 12.5 c) 25 d) 50
8. When a certain circuit consisting of a constante.m.f. ,an inductance and a
resistance is closed, the current in it increases with time according to curve 1.
After one parameter( , or )is changed, theincrease in current follows curve
2 when the circuit is closed second time. Which parameter was changed and in
what direction
i
1
2
t
a) is increased b) is decreased c) is increased d) is decreased
9. 2m long wire is moved with a velocity 1ms in a magnetic field of intensity 0.5 Wbm in direction
perpendicular to the field. The emf induced in it will be
a) 2 V b) 1 V c) 0.1V d) 0.5 V
10. A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction Btesla with its plane normal
Page|1
to the field. Now, the radius of the loop starts shrinking at the rate . Then, the induced emf at the
instant when the radius is ,is
a) b) 2 c) d)
2
11. A coil of 1000 turns is wound on a book and this book is lying on the table. The vertical component of
earth’s magnetic field is0.6 × 10 T and the area of the coil is 0.05 m . The book is turned over once
about a horizontal axis is 0.1 s. This average emf induced in the coil is
a) 0.03 V b) 0.06 V c) Zero d) 0.6 V
12. Mutualinductance of two coils can be increased by
a) Decreasing the number of turns in the coils b) Increasing the number of turns in the coils
c) Winding the coils on wooden core d) None of the above
13. If a coil made of conducting wires is rotated between poles pieces of the permanent magnet. The motion
will generate a current and this device is called
a) An electric motor b) An electric generator c) An electromagnet d) All of the above
14. A circular coil has 500 turns of wire and its radius is 5 cm. The self inductance of the coil is
a) 25 × 10 mH b) 25 mH c) 50 × 10 H d) 50 × 10 mH
15. A conducting rod of length l is moving in a transverse magnetic field of strength B with velocity v. The
resistance of the rod is R. the current in the rod is
c) Zero
a) b) d)
16. The graph gives the magnitude ( ) of a uniform magnetic field that exists throughout a conducting loop,
perpendicular to the plane of the loop. Rank the five regions of the graph according to the magnitude of the
emf induced in the loop, greatest first
B
t
a b c d e
a) > ( = ) < ( = ) b) > ( = ) > ( = )
c) < < < < d) > ( = ) > ( = )
17. 5 long solenoid having 10 ℎ resistance and 5 inductance is joined to a10 battery. At steady
state the current through the solenoid in will be
a) 5 b) 1 c) 2 d) Zero
18. A horizontal straight wire 20 m long extending from east to west is falling with a speed of 5.0ms ,at right
angles to the horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field0.030 ×
10 Wbm . the instantaneous value of the emf induced in the wire will be
a) 6.0 mV b) 3 mV c) 4.5 mV d) 1.5 mV
19. If the coefficient of mutual induction of the primary and secondary coils of an induction coils is 5 H and
current of 10 A is cut-off in 5 × 10 s, the emf inducted (in volt) in the secondary coil is
a) 5 × 10 b) 1 × 10 c) 25 × 10 d) 5 × 10
20. In the circuit shown below, the key is closed at = 0. The current through the battery is
( )
a)
( )
at = 0 and at = ∞ b) at = 0 and at = ∞
( )
c) at = 0 and
( )
at = ∞ d) at = 0 and at = ∞
Page|2
21. An transformer is employed to reduce 220 to 11 . The primary draws a current of 5 and the
secondary 90 . The efficiency of the transformer is
a) 20% b) 40% c) 70% d) 90%
22. Which of the following phenomena is utilised in the construction of mouth piece of a telephone now a
days?
a) Thermo electric effect b) Photo electric effect
c) Change of resistance with pressure d) Electromagnetic induction
23. Two circuits have coefficient of mutual induction of 0.09 ℎ . Average e.m.f. induced in the secondary by
a change of current from 0 to 20 in 0.006 in the primary will be
a) 120 b) 80 c) 200 d) 300
24. The particle accelerator that uses the phenomenon of electromagnetic induction is the
a) Cyclotron b) Betatron
c) Van de Graff generator d) Cockroft- Walton generator
25. At a place the value of horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field is 3 × 10 / .A
metallic rod of length 2 placed in east-west direction, having the end towards east, falls vertically
downward with a constant velocity of 50 / . Which end of the rod becomes positively charged and what
is the value of induced potential difference between the two ends
a) End , 3 × 10 b) End , 3 c) End , 3 × 10 d) End , 3
26. The number of turns in the coil of an ac generator is 5000 and the area of the coil is 0.25 . The coil is
rotated at the rate of 100 / in a magnetic field of 0.2 / . The peak value of the emf generated
is nearly
a) 786 b) 440 c) 220 d) 157.1
27. A rectangular loop of sides 10 cm and 5 cm with a cut is stationary between the pole pieces of an
electromagnet. The magnetic field of the magnet is normal to the loop. The current feeding the
electromagnet is reduced so that the field decreased from its initial value of 0.3 T at the rate of 0.02 Ω. If
the cut is joined and the loop has a resistance of 2.0Ω, the power dissipated by the loop as heat is
a) 5 nW b) 4 nW c) 3 nW d) 2 nW
28. An axle of truck is 2.5 m long. If the truck is moving due north at 30 ms at a place where the vertical
component of the earth’s magnetic field is 90 T, the potential difference between the two ends of the axle
is
a) 6.75 mV with west end positive b) 6.75 mV with east end positive
c) 6.75 mV with north end positive d) 6.75 mV with south end positive
29. A square loop of side 22 is converted into circular loop in 0.4 . A uniform magnetic field of 0.2
directed normal to the loop then the induced in the loop is
a) 6.6 × 10 b) 6.6 × 10 c) 4.6 × 10 d) 4.60 × 10
30. A conducting rod of length is falling with a velocity perpendicular to a uniform horizontal magnetic
field . The potential difference between its two ends will be
1
a) 2 b) c) d)
2
31. Two pure inductors each of self inductance are connected in parallel but are well separated from each
other. The total inductance is
a) 2 b) c) d)
2 4
32. A physicist works in a laboratory where the magnetic field is 2 . She wears a necklace enclosing area
0.01 in such a way that the plane of the necklace is normal to the field and is having a resistance
= 0.01 Ω. Because of power failure, the field decays to 1 in time 10 . Then what is the total
heat produced in her necklace?( = )
a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 40
33. A coil has 1,000 turns and 500 cm as its area. The plane of the coil is placed at right angles to a magnetic
induction field of 2 × 10 Wbm . The coil is rotated through 180°in 0.2 s. the average emf induced in the
coil, in mV, is
Page|3
a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20
34. A coil having 500 turns of square shape each of side 10 cm is placed normal to magnetic field which is
increasing at 1 Ts . The induced emf is
a) 0.1 V b) 0.5 V c) 1 V d) -5 V
35. The current in a circuit builds up to 3/4th of its steady state value in 4 . The time constant of this circuit
is
1 2 3 4
a) b) c) d)
ln 2 ln 2 ln 2 ln 2
36. A 50 ac current of peak value 2 A flows through one of the pair of coils. If the mutual inductance
between the pair of coils is 150 , then the peak value of voltage induced in the second coil is
a) 30 b) 60 c) 15 d) 300
37. An air core solenoid has 1000 turns and is one long. Its cross-sectional area is 10 . Its self
inductance is
a) 0.1256 b) 12.56 c) 1.256 d) 125.6
38. The magnetic induction in the region between the pole faces of an electromagnet is 0.7 / . The
induced e.m.f. in a straight conductor 10 long, perpendicular to and moving perpendicular both to
magnetic induction and its own length with a velocity2 / is
a) 0.08 b) 0.14 c) 0.35 d) 0.07
39. Quantity that remains unchanged in a transformer is
a) Voltage b) Current c) Frequency d) None of these
40. Which of the following is not an application of eddy currents
a) Induction furnace b) Galvanometer damping
c) Speedometer of automobiles d) X-ray crystallography
41. Which of the following figure correctly depicts the Lenz’s law. The arrows show the movement of the
labelled pole of a bar magnet into a closed circular loop and the arrows on the circle show the direction of
the induced current
a) b) c) d)
42. A coil having an area is placed in a magnetic field which changes from to 4 in a time interval . The
e.m.f. induced in the coil will be
3 4 3 4
a) b) c) d)
43. A power transformer is used to step up an alternating e.m.f. of 220 to 11 to transmit 4.4 of power.
If the primary coil has 1000 turns, what is the current rating of the secondary? Assume 100% efficiency for
the transformer
a) 4 b) 0.4 c) 0.04 d) 0.2
44. The ratio of secondary to primary turns is 9:4. If power input is , what will be the ratio of power output
(neglect all losses) to power input
a) 4:9 b) 9:4 c) 5:4 d) 1:1
45. A transformer has an efficiency of 80%. It is connected to a power input of 5kW at 200 V. If the secondary
voltage is 250 V, the primary and secondary currents are respectively
a) 25 A, 20 A b) 20 A, 16 A c) 25 A, 16 A d) 40 A, 25 A
46. The self induced emf in a coils of 0.4 henry self inductance when current in it is changing at the rate of
50As-1, is
a) 8 × 10 V b) 8 × 10 V c) 200 V d) 500 V
47. In a step-up transformer the voltage in the primary is 220 and the current is 5 . The secondary voltage is
found to be 22000 . The current in the secondary (neglect losses) is
a) 5 b) 50 c) 500 d) 0.05
48. There is a uniform magnetic field directed perpendicular and into the plane of the paper. An irregular
Page|4
shaped conducting loop is slowly changing into a circular loop in the plane of the paper. Then
a) Current is induced in the loop in the anticlockwise direction
b) Current is induced in the loop in the clockwise direction
c) AC is induced in the loop
d) No current is induced in the loop
49. If a current of 10 flows in one second through a coil, and the induced e.m.f. is 10 , then the self-
inductance of the coil is
2 4 5
a) b) c) d) 1
5 5 4
50. If a charge in current of 0.01 in one coil produces a change in magnetic flux of 1.2 × 10 in the other
coil, then the mutual inductance of the two coils in henry is
a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 1.2 d) 3
51. When the current changes from +2 A to -2 A in 0.05 s, an emf of 8 V is induced in a coil. The coefficient of
self-induction of the coil is
a) 0.2 H b) 0.4 H c) 0.8 H d) 0.1 H
52. The primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 1500 turns respectively. If the magnetic
flux ϕ linked with the primary coil is given by ϕ = ϕ + 4t, where ϕ is in weber, is time in second and
ϕ is a constant, the output voltage across the secondary coil is
a) 90 V b) 120 V c) 220 V d) 30V
53. The coefficient of mutual inductance of two coils is 6 . If the current flowing in one is 2 , then
the induced e.m.f. in the second coil will be
a) 3 b) 2 c) 3 d) Zero
54. The armature of dc motor has 20Ω resistance. It draws current of 1.5 ampere when run by 220 dc
supply. The value of back e.m.f. induced in it will be
a) 150 b) 170 c) 180 d) 190
55. In an induction coil, the secondary e.m.f. is
a) Zero during break of the circuit b) Very high during make of the circuit
c) Zero during make of the circuit d) Very high during break of the circuit
56. A short solenoid of length 4 cm, radius 2 cm and 100 turns is placed inside and on the axis of a long
solenoid of length 80 cm and 1500 turns. A current of 3 A flows through the short solenoid. The mutual
inductance of two solenoids is
a) 2.96 × 10 H b) 5.3 × 10 H c) 3.52 × 10 H d) 8.3 × 10 H
57. When a magnet is pushed in and out of a circular coil connected to a very senstitive galvanometer as
shown in the adjoining diagram with a frequency , then
N S
G
a) Constant deflection is observed in the galvanometer
b) Visible small oscillations will be observed in the galvanometer if is about 50
c) Oscillations in the deflection will be observed clearly if = 1 or 2
d) No variation in the deflection will be seen if = 1 or 2
58. The north pole of a long horizontal bar magnet is being brought closer to a vertical conducting plane along
the perpendicular direction. The direction of the induced current in the conducting plane will be
a) Horiz ontal b) Vertical c) Clockwise d) Anticlockwise
59. Two different loops are concentric and lie in the same plane. The current in the outer loop is clockwise and
increasing with time. The induced current in the inner loop then, is
a) Clockwise b) Zero
c) Counter clockwise d) In a direction that depends on the ratio of the loop
Page|5
radii
60. The wing span of an aeroplaneis 20 . It is flying in a field, where the vertical component of magnetic
field of earth is 5 × 10 , with velocity 360 /ℎ. The potential difference produced between the
blades will be
a) 0.10 b) 0.15 c) 0.20 d) 0.30
61. The figure shows certain wire segments joined together to form a coplanar loop. The loop is placed in a
perpendicular magnetic field in the direction going into the plane of the figure. The magnitude of the field
increases with time. I1 and I2 are the currents in the segments ab and cd . Then,
a) >
b) <
c) is in the direction and is in the direction
d) is in the direction and is in the direction
62. A simple pendulum with bob of mass and conducting wire of length swings under gravity through an
angle 2 θ. The earth’s magnetic field component in the direction perpendicular to swing is B. Maximum
potential difference induced across the pendulum is
θ θ θ θ
a) 2 sin (g ) / b) sin (g ) c) sin (g ) / d) sin (g )
2 2 2 2
63. Two circular coils have their centres at the same point. The mutual inductance between them will be
maximum when their axes
a) Are parallel to each other b) Are at 60°to each other
c) Are at 45°to each other d) Are perpendicular to each other
64. A wire of length 1 is moving at a speed of 2 perpendicular to its length and in a homogenous
magnetic field of 0.5 . The ends of the wire are joined to a circuit of resistance 6 Ω. The rate at which
work is being done to keep the wire moving at constant speed is
1 1 1
a) b) c) d) 1
12 6 3
65. A metal conductor of length 1 m rotates vertically about one of its ends at angular velocity 5 rad/s. If the
horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is
0.2 × 10 T, then the emf developed between the ends of the conductor is
a) 5 μV b) 5 mV c) 50 μV d) 50 mV
66. If in a coil rate of change of area is , current becomes 1 form 2 in 2 × 10
magnetic field is 1 , then self inductance of the coil is
a) 2 b) 5 c) 20 d) 10
67. The north pole of a long bar magnet was pushed slowly into a short solenoid connected to a galvanometer.
The magnet was held stationary for a few seconds with the north pole in the middle of the solenoid and
then withdrawn rapidly. The maximum deflection of the galvanometer was observed when the magnet
was
a) Movingtowards the solenoid b) Movinginto the solenoid
c) At rest inside the solenoid d) Movingout of the solenoid
68. Which of the following is constructed on the principle of electromagnetic induction
Page|6
a) Galvanometer b) Electric motor c) Generator d) Voltmeter
69. A highly conducting ring of radius is perpendicular to and concentric with the axis of a long solenoid as
shown in fig. The ring has a narrow gap of width in its circumference. The solenoid has cross sectional
area and a uniform internal field of magnitude . Now beginning at = 0, the solenoid current is
steadily increased so that the field magnitude at any time is given by ( ) = + where > 0.
Assuming that no charge can flow across the gap, the end of ring which has excess of positive charge and
the magnitude of induced e.m.f. in the ring are respectively
a) , b) , c) , d) ,
70. A copper disc of radius 0.1 m is rotated about its centre with 20 rev − s in a uniform magnetic field of
0.1 T with its plane perpendicular to the field. The emf induced across the radius of the disc is
π π
a) V b) V c) 20π mV d) 10π mV
20 10
71. Two conducting circular loops of radii and are placed in the same plane with their centres
coinciding. If ≫ , the mutual inductance between them will be directly proportional to
a) / b) / c) / d) /
72. A movable wire is moved to the right crossing an anti-clock-wise induced current, figure. The direction of
magnetic induction in the region P points
a) To the right b) To the left
c) Up the paper d) Down into the paper
73. The transformation ratio in the step-up transformer is
a) One
b) Greater than one
c) Less than one
d) The ratio greater or less than one depends on the other factors
74. Two coils and having turns 300 and 600 respectively are placed near each other, on passing a current
of 3.0 in , the flux linked with is 1.2 × 10 and with it is 9.0 × 10 . The
mutual inductance of the system is
a) 2 × 10 ℎ b) 3 × 10 ℎ c) 4 × 10 ℎ d) 6 × 10 ℎ
75. Faraday’s laws are consequence of conservation of
a) Energy b) Energy and magnetic field
c) Charge d) Magnetic field
76. The oscillating frequency of a cyclotron is 10 MHz. If the radius of its dees is 0.5 m, the kinetic energy of a
proton, which is accelerated by the cyclotron is
a) 10.2 MeV b) 2.55 MeV c) 20.4 MeV d) 5.1MeV
77. The magnetic flux across a loop of resistance 10Ω is given by = 5 − 4 + 1 weber. How much current
is induced in the loop after 0.2 sec
a) 0.4 b) 0.2 c) 0.04 d) 0.02
78. The resistance and inductance of series circuit are 5Ω and 20 respectively. At the instant of closing the
switch, the current is increasing at the rate 4 / . The supply voltage is
a) 20 b) 80 c) 120 d) 100
79. The north and south poles of two identical magnets approach a coil, containing a condenser, with equal
Page|7
speeds from opposite sides. Then
Rear side
1
S N S N
v 2 v
Observer
Front side
a) Plate 1 will be negative and plate 2 positive
b) Plate 1 will be positive and plate 2 negative
c) Both the plates will be positive
d) Both the plates will be negative
80. An aluminium ring faces an electromagnet . The current through can be altered
A B
Front
side
Observer i+ –
Rear
side
a) Whether increases or decreases, will not experience any force
b) If decreases will attract
c) If increases, will attract
d) If increases, will repel
81. A coil of wire of a certain radius has 600 turns and a self inductanceof 108 . The self inductance of a 2nd
similar coil of 500 turns will be
a) 74 b) 75 c) 76 d) 77
82. A copper ring having a cut such as not to form a complete loop is held horizontally ad a bar magnet is
dropped through the ring with its length along the axis of the ring, figure. The acceleration of the falling
magnet is
a) G b) Less than g c) More than g d) Zero
83. A short-circulated coil is placed in a time-varying magnetic field. Electrical power is dissipated due to the
current induced in the coil. If the number of turns were to be quadrupled and the wire radius halved, the
electrical power dissipated would be
a) Halved b) The same c) Doubled d) Quadrupled
84. An ideal transformer has 100 turns in the primary and 250 turns in the secondary. The peak value of the
ac is 28 . The . . . secondary voltage is nearest to
a) 50 b) 70 c) 100 d) 40
85. A wheel with ten metallic spokes each 0.50 long is rotated with a speed of 120 / in a plane
normal to the earth’s magnetic field at the place. If the magnitude of the field is 0.4 gauss, the induced
e.m.f. between the axle and the rim of the wheel is equal to
a) 1.256 × 10 b) 6.28 × 10 c) 1.256 × 10 d) 6.28 × 10
86. A rectangular loop is being pulled at a constant speed , through a region of certain thickness , in which a
uniform magnetic field is set up. The graph between position of the right hand edge of the loop and the
induced emf will be
d
× × × × × ×
x
× × × B × ×
v
× × × × ×
× × × × × ×
× × × × × ×
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a) E b) E c) E d) E
O x O x O x O x
87. If the current is halved in a coil, then the energy stored is how much times the previous value
1 1 c) 2 d) 4
a) b)
2 4
88. The self-inductance of the motor of an electric fan is 10 H. In order to impart maximum power at 50 Hz, it
should be connected to a capacitance of
a) 4 μF b) 8 μF c) 1 μF d) 2 μF
89. An electric motor operates on a 50 supply and a current of 12 . If the efficiency of the motor is 30%,
what is the resistance of the winding of the motor
a) 6Ω b) 4Ω c) 2.9Ω d) 3.1Ω
90. The total charge, induced in a conducting loop, when it is moved in a magnetic field depends on
a) Rate of change of magnetic on b) Initial magnetic flux only
c) Total change in magnetic flux and resistance d) Final magnetic flux only
91. A transformer rated at 10k W is used to connect a 5 kV transmission line to a 240 V circuit. The ratio of
turns in the windings of the transformer is
a) 5 b) 20.8 c) 104 d) 40
92. The resistance in the following circuit is increased at a particular instant. At this instant the value of
resistance is 10Ω. The current in the circuit will be
10 mH
5V RH
a) = 0.5 b) > 0.5 c) < 0.5 d) = 0
93. If rotational velocity of a dynamo armature is doubled, then induced e.m.f. will become
a) Half b) Two times c) Four times d) Unchanged
94. A step-down transformer is connected to 2400 line and 80 amperes of current is found to flow in
output load. The ratio of the turns in primary and secondary coil is 20:1. If transformer efficiency is 100%,
then the current flowing in primary coil will be
a) 1600 b) 20 c) 4 d) 1.5
95. Fluxϕ (in weber) in a closed circuit of resistance 20Ω varies with time t (in se cond) according to
equationϕ = 6 − 5 + 1.
The magnitude of the induced current at t =0.25 s is
a) 1.2 A b) 0.8 A c) 0.6 A d) 0.1 A
96. In an ideal transformer the number of turns of primary and secondary coil is given as 100 and 300
respectively. If the power input is 60 , the power output is
a) 100 b) 300 c) 180 d) 60
97. In the diagram shown if a bar magnet is moved along the common axis of two single turn coils and in
the direction of arrow
a) Current is induced only in & not in
b) Induced currents in & are in the same direction
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c) Current is induced only in and not in
d) Induced currents in & are in opposite directions
98. A 10 wire kept in east-west direction is falling with velocity 5 / perpendicular to the field
0.3 × 10 / . The induced e.m.f. across the terminal will be
a) 0.15 b) 1.5 c) 1.5 d) 15.0
99. A circular coil of diameter 21 cm is placed in a magnetic field of induction 10 T. the magnitude of flux
-4
linked with coil when the plane of coil makes an angle 30°with the field is
a) 1.44 × 10 Wb b) 1.732 × 10 Wb c) 3.1 × 10 Wb d) 4.2 × 10 Wb
100. The adjoining figure shows two bulbs and , resistor and an inductor . When the switch is turned
off
B1 S
R
B2
L
a) Both and die out promptly b) Both and die out with some delay
c) dies out promptly but with some delay d) dies out promptly but with some delay
101. The mutual inductance between two coils is 1.25 ℎ . If the current in the primary changes at the rate of
80 / , then the induced e.m.f. in the secondary is
a) 12.5 b) 64.0 c) 0.016 d) 100.0
102. An electron moves along the line PQ which lies in the same plane as a circular loop of conducting wire as
shown in figure. What will be the direction of the induced current in the loop?
a) Anticlockwise b) Clockwise
c) Alternating d) No current will be induced
103. A coil of area80 and 50 turns is rotating with 2000 about an axis
perpendicular to a magnetic filed of 0.05 . The maximum value of the e.m.f. developed in it is
10 4 2
a) 200 b) c) d)
3 3 3
104. A motor having an armature of resistance 2Ω is designed to operate at 220 mains. At full speed, it
develops a back e.m.f. of 210 . When the motor is running at full speed, the current in the armature is
a) 5 b) 105 c) 110 d) 215
105. If the number of turns in a coil becomes doubled, then it self inductance will be
a) Double b) Halved c) Four times d) Unchanged
106. The current through a4.6 inductor is shown in the following graph. The induced emf during the time
interval = 5 − to 6 − will be
i (Amp)
A
7
B
5
C
0 2 5 6 t (millisec)
a) 10 b) −23 × 10 c) 23 × 10 d) Zero
107. The current in an induction coil varies with time according to the graph shown
i
O t
P a g e | 10
in figure. Which of the following graphs shows the induced emf ( ) in the coil with time
a) E b) E c) E d) E
O t O t O t O t
108. A conducting ring of radius 1 is placed in an uniform magnetic field of 0.01 oscillating with
frequency 100 with its plane at right angles to . What will be the induced electric field
a) / b) 2 / c) 10 / d) 62 /
109. A capacitor is fully charged with a battery. Then the battery is removed and a coil is connected with the
capacitor in parallel, current varies as
a) Increases monotonically b) Decreases monotonically
c) Zero d) Oscillates indefinitely
110. Two coils are placed close to each other. The mutual inductance of the pair of coils depends upon
a) The rates at which currents are changing in the two coils
b) Relative position and orientation of the two coils
c) The materials of the wires of the coils
d) The currents in the two coils
111. Shown in the figure is a circular loop of radius and resistance . A variable magnetic field of induction
= is established inside the coil. If the key ( ) is closed, the electrical power developed right after
closing the switch is equal to
B
R
K
10
a) b) c) d)
5
112. An aircraft with a wing-span of 40 files with a speed of 1080 ℎ in the eastward direction at the
constant altitude in the northern hemisphere, where the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field is
1.75 × 10 . Then the emf that develops between the tips of the wings is
a) 0.5 b) 0.35 c) 0.21 d) 2.1
113. A metal of radius 100 cm is rotated at a constant angular speed of 60 rads in a plane at right angles to an
external field of magnetic induction 0.05 Wbm . The emf induced between between the centre and a
point on the rim will be
a) 3 V b) 1.5 V c) 6 V d) 9 V
114. The current is flowing in two coaxial coils in the same direction. On increasing the distance between the
two, the electric current will
a) Increase b) Decrease
c) Remain unchanged d) The information is incomplete
115. The number of turns in primary coil of a transformer is 20 and the number of turns in the secondary is 10.
If the voltage across the primary is 220 V, what is the voltage across the secondary?
a) 110 V b) 130 V c) 190 V d) 310 V
116. The network shown in the figure is a part of a complete circuit. If at a certain instant the current is 5
and is decreasing at the rate of 10 / then − is
A B
1 15 V 5mH
a) 5 b) 10 c) 15 d) 20
117. According to Lenz’s law of electromagnetic ni duction
a) The induced emf is not in the direction opposing the change in magnetic flux.
b) The relative motion between the coil and magnet produces change in magnetic flux
c) Only the magnet should be moved towards coil
P a g e | 11
d) Only the coil should be moved towards magnet
118. If the switch in the following circuit is turned off, then
a) The bulb will go out immediately whereas after sometimes
b) The bulb will go out immediately whereas after sometime
c) Both and will go out immediately
d) Both and will go out after sometime
119. A transformer is employed to
a) Obtain a suitable dc voltage b) Convert dc into ac
c) Obtain a suitable ac voltage d) Convert ac into ac
120. In step-up transformer, relation between number of turns in primary ( ) and number of turns is
secondary ( ) co ils is
a) is greater than b) is greater than c) is equal to d) = 2
121. A coil of N =100 turns carries a current I =5 A and creates a magnetic flux ϕ = 10 Tm per turn. The
value of its inductance L will be
a) 0.05 mH b) 0.10 mH c) 0.15 mH d) 0.20 mH
122. Core of transformer is made up of
a) Soft iron b) Steel c) Iron d) Alnico
123. Eddy currents are produced when
a) A metal is kept in varying magnetic field
b) A metal is kept in the steady magnetic field
c) A circular coil is placed in a magnetic field
d) Through a circular coil, current is passed
124. In a transformer the primary has 500 and secondary has 50 . 100 is applied to the
primary coil, the voltage developed in the secondary will be
a) 1 b) 10 c) 1000 d) 10000
: HINTS AND SOLUTIONS :
1 (a) and finally equals the weight of the magnet. The
80 120 × 20 magnet then attains a constant final terminal
=
100 1000 × velocity . ., magnet ultimately falls with zero
120 × 20 acceleration in the tube
= = 3A
1000 × 0.8 3 (c)
2 (a) = = . The transformer is step-down type,
If bar magnet is falling vertically through the
hollow region of long vertical copper tube then so primary coil will have more turns. Hence
the magnetic flux linked with the copper tube 5000 2200
= = ⇒ = 220 . = 40
(due to ‘non-uniform’ magnetic field of magnet) 500 4
changes and eddy currents are generated in the
body of the tube by Lenz’s law. The eddy currents
oppose the falling of the magnet which therefore
experience a retarding force. The retarding force
increases with increasing velocity of the magnet
P a g e | 12
4 (c) 14 (b)
Efficiency of transformer, Self inductance of coil is
Output power μ
η= =
Input power 2
88 880 4 × 10
⇒ = = × (500) × × (5 × 10 )
100 2
⇒ = 1000 W = 25 × 10 H = 25 mH
Input current , = 15 (c)
Since the rod is moving in transverse magnetic
1000
= = 0.45 A field, so it will cut no flux passing through the field
2200
and hence no induced emf is produced. So, no
5 (a)
current will flow through the rod.
For 100% efficient transformer
25 16 (b)
= ⇒ = = ⇒ = ⇒ Induced emf =
4 100
= 1 . ., ∝ (=slope of − graph)
6 (a) B
Crosses (×) linked with the loop are decreasing, B C
so induced current in it is clockwise, . ., from
→ . Hence electrons flow from plate and A D
t
so plate becomes positively charged a b c d e
7 (c) In the given graph slope of > slope of ,
slope in the ′ ′ region = slope in the ′ ′ region = 0,
=
slope in the ′ ′ region = slope in the ′ ′region ≠ 0.
8 (a) That’s why > ( = ) > ( = )
= slope of − graph; slope of graph (2) < 17 (b)
In steady state current passing through solenoid
slope of graph (1) so < ; Also 10
= = = 1
∝( ⇒ > 10
/ )
18 (b)
9 (b) Induced emf
The emf induced will be =
= = 1 × 0.5 × 2 = 1 V
= 0.30 × 10 × 20 × 5.0 = 3mV
10 (b)
19 (b)
Induced emf is given by The induced emf in the secondary is given by
ϕ ϕ
= − = − = −
If the radius of loop is at a time , then the
or | | =
instantaneous magnetic flux is given by
ϕ = πr 10
∴ | |= 5× = 1 × 10 V
5 × 10
∴ = − ( ) 20 (c)
2 At = 0 inductor behaves as broken wire then
= −
=
= −2
Numerically, = 2
11 (b)
− − (cos 0°− cos180°) At = ∞ Inductor behaves as conducting wire
= =
( + )
× × . × × . = =
= = /( + )
.
= 0.06 V 21 (d)
P a g e | 13
11 × 90 ( ) ×
= × 100 = × 100 = 90 % So, = = 10
.
220 × 5
33 (b)
22 (c)
= 1000, = 500cm = 500 × 10
In the construction of mouth piece of a telephone,
= 5 × 10 m
we use the phenomenon of change of resistance
= 2 × 10 Wb − m , θ = 0°,
with pressure (of sound waves).
θ = 180°, ∆ = 0.2 s
23 (d)
Initial flux linked with coil
20
= = 0.09 × = 300 ϕ = cos θ
0.006
24 (b) = cos 0°
Betatron uses the phenomenon of =
electromagnetic induction. Final flux ϕ = cos 180
25 (b) = (−1) = −
Induced potential difference between two ends Change in flux ϕ = ϕ − ϕ
= = = − −( ) = −2
= 3 × 10 × 2 × 50 = 30 × 10 ∴ Inducedemf
−∆ϕ (−2 ) 2
= 3 = = − =
By Fleming’s right hand rule, end becomes ∆ ∆ ∆
2 × 1000 × 2 × 10 × 5 × 10
positively charged =
0.2
26 (d)
= 10 × 10 V = 10 mV
= = (2 )
34 (d)
= 2 × 3.14 × 1000 × 5000 × 0.2 × 0.25 = 157
The magnetic flux through area A placed in
27 (a)
magnetic field B is
Here, = 10 × 5 = 50cm = 50 × 10 m
ϕ = cos θ
= 0.2 Ts given, θ = 0°, = 1 Ts ,
= 2Ω = (10) cm = 10 m
ϕ ∴ ϕ = 1 × 10
= = . = 50 × 10 × 0.02 = 10 V By Faraday’s law, induced emf is
Power dissipated in the form of heat ∆ϕ
= −
10 × 10 − 4 Δ
= = = 0.5 × 10 W = −500 × 10 = −5 V
2
= 5 × 10 W = 5nW 35 (b)
28 (a) We know that = 1− or =
While moving due north, the truck intercepts /
1−
vertical component of earth’s field.
∴ = = (90 × 10 )2.5 × 30 [where = = time constant]
= 6.75 × 10 V = 6.75 mV = 1− or /
= 1− =
According to Lenz’s law, west end of the axle will /
= 4 or = ln 4
be positive.
29 (a) 4 2
⇒ = = ⇒ =
2( − ) ln 4 2 ln 2 ln 2
= = = = 6.6 × 10 36 (a)
31 (c) The current flows through the coil 1 is
Inductors obey the laws of parallel and series = sin
combination of resistors Where is the peak value of current
32 (a) Magn etic flux linked with the coil 2 is
( ) = = sin
= and = Where is the mutual inductance between the
1 × (1 − 2)× 0.01 × cos 0° two coils
= = 10
10 The magnitude of induced emf in coil 2 is
P a g e | 14
47 (d)
| |= = ( sin )= cos
220
∴ Peak value of voltage induced in the coil 2 is = ⇒ = ⇒ = 0.05
22000 5
= = 150 × 10 × 2 × 2 × 50 = 30 48 (a)
37 (c) As the shape of the loop is changing and hence,
4 × 10 × (1000) × 10 × 10 the flux linked with the loop changes. There will
= =
1 an induced emf hence, induced current in the coil.
= 1.256 Applying right hand screw rule we get induced
38 (b) current in anticlockwise direction.
= ⇒ = 0.7 × 2 ×(10 × 10 ) = 0.14 49 (d)
41 (a) 10
When a north pole of a bar magnet moves | |= ⇒ 10 = × ⇒ = 1
1
towards the coil, the induced current in the coil 50 (c)
flows in a direction such that the coil presents its 1.2 × 10
north pole to the bar magnet as shown in figure = ⇒ = = 1.2
0.01
(a). Therefore, the induced current flows in the 51 (d)
coil in the anticlockwise direction. When a north ( )
Induced emf, = − = − .
pole of a bar magnet moves away from the coil,
(4)
the induced current in the coil flows in a direction 8=
0.05
such that the coil presents its such pole to the bar 8 × 0.05
magnet as shown in figure (b) ∴ = = 0.1 H
4
52 (b)
The magnetic flux linked with the primary coil is
given by
ϕ = ϕ+4
Therefore induced current flows in the coil in the So, voltage across primary
clockwise direction ϕ
= = (ϕ + 4 )
42 (a)
−3 = 4 V(as ϕ = constant)
= − =
Also, we have
43 (b) = 50 and = 1500
4.4 × 10 From relation,
= = = 0.4
11 × 10
=
44 (d)
Since all the losses are neglected Or = = 4 = 120V
So =
53 (d)
45 (c)
In secondary e.m.f. induces only when current
Efficiency = through primary changes
Input power=5000 W 54 (d)
Input voltage=200 V − 220 −
= ⇒ 1.5 = ⇒ = 190
∴ primary current, = = 25 A 20
56 (a)
Output power = 5000 × = 4000 W μ
=
Output voltage =250 V
Secondary current, = = 16 A (4 × 3.14 × 10 ) × 1500 × 100 ×
{3.14(2 × 10 ) }
46 (c) ∴ =
80 × 10
The induced emf is given by = 2.96 × 10 H
| |= ⇒ = = 2.96 × 10 H
57 (c)
= 0.4 × 500 = 200 V
When frequency is high, the galvanometer will not
P a g e | 15
show deflection 67 (d)
58 (d) More rapid is the movement of bar magnet, more
According to Lenz’s law is the deflection observed in the galvanometer
59 (c) 68 (c)
The induced current will be in such a direction so In a generator e.m.f. is induced according as
that it opposes the change due to which it is Lenz’s rule
produced 69 (a)
60 (a) Since the current is increasing, so inward
360 × 1000 magnetic flux linked with the ring also increases
= = 5 × 10 × × 20 = 0.1
3600 (as viewed from left side). Hence induced current
61 (d) in the ring is anticlockwise, so end will be
Cross⨂ magnetic field passing from the closed positive
loop is increasing. Therefore, from Lenz’s law
Induced emf| | = = ( + )⇒| |=
induced current will produce dot ⨀ magnetic
field. Hence, induced current is anticlockwise.
70 (c)
62 (a)
From Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction
ℎ = − cos θ
ϕ
= − = −
Given, = 0.1 T, = 20, = = (0.1)
∴ = −0.1 × 20 × π(0.1) = 20π mV
71 (d)
Mutualinductance between two coil in the same
plane with their centers coinciding is given by
⇒ ℎ = (1 − cos θ) ….(i)
2
∴ = 2gℎ − 2g (1 − cos θ) = ℎ
4
θ
= 2g 2 sin 72 (d)
2
θ Using Fleming’s right hand rule, the direction of
⇒ = 2 g sin
2 magnetic induction ⃗ in the region is
Thus, maximum potential difference downward into the paper.
= 73 (b)
θ Transformation ratio, = =
= × 2 g sin
2
= 2 sin ( ) / For step-up transformer,
> , , > , hence, > 1.
64 (b)
74 (b)
Rate of work = = = ; also = =
= ⇒ 9 × 10 = ×3⇒
= 3 × 10
(0.5) × (2) × (1) 1 75 (a)
⇒ = = = Faraday’s laws involve conversion of mechanical
6 6
65 (c) energy into electrical energy. This is in
The emf developed between the ends of the accordance with the law of conservation of energy
conductor 76 (d)
1 KE of charged possible in a cyclotron,
=
2
1 =
= × 0.2 × 10 × (1) × 5 2
2 But frequency =
= 50μV
(2 )
66 (d) ∴ = = 2
5 (2 − 1) 2
= . = ⇒1× = × ⇒ Or = 2 ×(3.14) × 1.67 × 10 ×
10 2 × 10
= 10 (10 × 10 ) × (0.5)
P a g e | 16
= 8.23 × 10 J 250
= ⇒ = ⇒ = 50
8.23 × 10 100 28/√2
∴ = = 5.1 × 10 eV = 5.1 MeV
1.6 × 10 85 (d)
77 (b) 120
= = 0.4 × 10 × (0.5) × (3.14)×
Magnetic flux, = 5 −4 + 1 60
= 6.28 × 10
∴ = 10 − 4
86 (b)
The induced emf is = = −(10 − 4) As increases so increases, . ., induced
At, = 0.2 , = −(10 × 0.2 − 4) = 2 emf( ) is negative. When loop completely enters
The induced current is = = = 0.2 in the magnetic field, emf = 0
78 (b) When it exists, increases but decreases,
= 1− ⇒ = − − = . . . , is positive
87 (b)
At = 0; = = ⇒4= ⇒ = 80 1 1 1
= , . ., = = = ⇒
79 (b) 2 2 4
By the movement of both the magnets, current 1
=
will be anticlockwise, as seen from left side, . ., 4
plate 1 will be positive and 2 will be negative 88 (c)
Rear side Given, = 10H , = 50 Hz
1 For maximum power
S N S N =
2 1
v
Observer v =
Front side
80 (d) 1
=
A B
i 1
∴ =
4 × 50 × 50 × 10
= 0.1 × 10 F = 1 μF
Observer
89 (c)
= × 100 ⇒ = 0.3
If current through increases, magnetic field (× )
( . × )
linked with coil increases. Hence anticlockwise Now, = ⇒ 12 = ⇒ = 2.9Ω
current induces in coil . As shown in figure both 90 (c)
the currents produce repulsive effect Total charge induced in a loop depends on
81 (b) resistance and change in magnetic flux linked
500 with the loop.
= ⇒ = ⇒ 108 = 75
600 91 (b)
82 (a) In transformer
Though emf is induced in the copper ring, but
=
there is no induced current because current
because of cut in the ring. Hence nothing opposes 5000
= = 20.8
the free fall of the magnet. Therefore, = g. 240
83 (b) 92 (b)
If resistance is constant (10Ω) then steady
Power = ; hence = − where =
current in the circuit = = 0.5 . But
∴ = − . Also ∝
resistance is increasing it means current through
Where = resistance, = radius, = length the circuit starts decreasing. Hence inductance
∴ ∝ ⇒ = 1 comes in picture which induces a current in the
circuit in the same direction of main current. So
84 (a) > 0.5
P a g e | 17
93 (b) 2000 4
∴ = 50 × 0.05 × 80 × 10 × 2 × =
∝ 60 3
94 (c) 104 (a)
1 − 220 − 210 10
= ⇒ = ⇒ = 120 = = = = 5
20 2400 2 2
105 (c)
For 100% efficiency =
From formula
⇒ 120 × 80 = 2400 ⇒ = 4
ϕ μ μ
95 (d) = = =
2 2
From, Faraday’s second law, = − ⇒ ∝
= −[12 − 5] So, if N is doubled, self inductance will be four
= −[12 × (0.25) − 5] = + 2 times.
Now, = = = 0.1 A 106 (c)
Rate of decay of current between = 5 to
96 (d)
Efficiency of a transformer, 6 = = − (Slope of the line )
Power output = − = −5 × 10 / . Hence induced emf
= ×
Power input
For an ideal transformer, = 1 = − = −4.6 ×(−5 × 10 ) = 23 × 10
∴ Power output = Power input = 60 107 (c)
98 (b) Emf induces during ‘ ’ = 0
Induced e.m.f. = = 0.3 × 10 × 10 × 5 emf induces during ‘ ’ is constant throughoutemf
= 1.5 × 10 = 1.5 induces during ‘ ’ is constant throughout
99 (b) magnitude of emf induced during ‘ ’ is equal to
Magnetic flux , ϕ = ∫ . = cos θ, where θ is the magnitude of emf induced during ‘ ’. But the
angle between normal to the area dA with direction opposite
magnetic field B. i
a
Here, θ = (90°− 30° ) = 60°
and θ = 10 ×π × 10 × cos 60° b c
t
= 1.732 × 10 Wb
108 (b)
100 (c)
In a constant magnetic field conducting ring
Current in will promptly become zero while
oscillates with a frequency of 100
current in will slowly tend to zero
101 (d) . ., = , in time flux links with coil
changes from to zero ⇒ Induced emf=
= = 1.25 × 80 = 100
102 (a)
4 4 × 4 × 0.01 × × 1
From right hand thumb rule, the magnetic field = = = =
/4 1/100
passing through the loop due to the current will
= 2
be perpendicular to the plane of the page pointing
Induced electric field along the circle, using
downwards. The direction of current in the loop
will be such as to oppose the increase of this field Maxwell equation ∮ . = − = =
(Lenz’s law), hence direction of induc
ed current 1 4
⇒ = × × = = = 2 /
in the loop is anticlockwise. 2 2 2
110 (b)
Mutualinductance of the pair of coils depends on
distance between two coils and geometry of two
coils.
111 (d)
103 (c)
2000 = ; = − ( )= ( )=
= ; = 2 = 2 ×
60
P a g e | 18
1 116 (c)
⇒ = ( ) =
By using Kirchhoff’s voltage law
At the time of starting = 0 so = − + − = ⇒ − = 15
( ) 1 15 V 5mH
⇒ = =
A B
112 (c) 117 (b)
= 40 , = 1080 ℎ = 300 and According to Lenz’s law of electromagnetic
= 1.75 × 10 ⇒ = = 1.75 × 10 × induction, the relative motion between the coil
40 × 300 = 0.21 and magnet produces change in magnetic flux.
113 (b) 119 (c)
The emf developed between the centre and the A transformer is a device used to convert
rim is alternating current at high voltage into low
1 1 voltage and −
= = × 0.05 × 60[1] = 1.5 V
2 2 120 (a)
114 (a) In step-up transformer, number of turns in
Induced current in both the coil assists the main primary coil is less than the number of turns in
current so current through each coil increases secondary coil.
A B , > 1
121 (d)
The inductance of a coil of wire of turns is given
Observer by
115 (a) ϕ
=
Given, = 20, = 10, = 220V
Where is current and ϕ the magnetic flux.
∴ Transformation ratio, k
Given, = 100, = 5A, ϕ = 10 Tm (turn)
= 10
∴ = 100 × = 0.20 mH
5
or = ×
10
= × 220 = 110 V
20
P a g e | 19
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENTS
DAY – 17 (DT 26-04-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Chapter : DUAL NATURE
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
PHYSICS
1. If 5 % of the energy supplied to a bulb is irradiated as visible light, how many quanta are emitted per sec
by a 100 watt lamp? Assume wavelength of visible light as 5.6 × 10–5 cm.
(1) 1.4 × 1019 (2) 2.0 × 10–4
(3) 1.4 × 10 –19 (4) 2.0 × 104
nE hc
Sol : P Where E h
t
Key :1
2. 10–3 watt and 5000 Å light is directed on a photoelectric cell. If the current in the cell is 0.16 A, the
percentage of incident photons which produce photoelectrons, is
(1) 0.4% (2) 0.04%
(3) 20% (4) 10%
n hc
Sol : P
t
Key :2
3. A l00 watt light source is emitting radiations of wavelength 5000Å. The rate of emission of photons is of
the order of :
(1) 1040 (2) 1020 (3) 1010 (4) 105
nE nh n P
Sol : P P ;
t t t hc
Key :2
4. A sensor is exposed for time t to a lamp of power P placed at a distance . The sensor has a circular
opening that is 4d in diameter. Assuming all energy of the lamp is given off as light, the number of
photons entering the sensor if the wave length of light is is :-
( >> d)
P d 2t 4P d 2 t
(1) (2)
hc 2 hc 2
2
P d t P d 2 t
(3) (4)
4 hc 2 16 hc 2
nhc
Sol : E nh
Key :1
5. A 200W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength 0.6 m . Assuming it to be 25% efficient
converting electrical
energy of light, the number of photons of yellow light , it emits per second is :
20 19
1) 62 10 2) 3 10
20 18
3) 1.5 10 4) 6 10
Power P
Sol : Number of photons per second =
Energy of photon hc /
25
200
100
6.6 1034 3 108
0.6 106
50 6 10 7 50
= 10 20 1.515 1020
66 3 10 27 33
Key : 3
6. The number of photons of wavelength 540nm emitted per second by an electric bulb of power 100W is
34
(taking h 6 10 J s )
16 17 20 18
1) 3 10 2) 3 10 3) 3 10 4) 3 10
nhc
Sol : Power, P
t
n 6 10 34 3 108
100 9
n 31020
540 10 1
Key : 3
7. The momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV in kg m/s will be (nearly)
1) 7 1024 2) 1022
22
3) 5 10 4) 0.33106
13
Sol : P E 1.6 108 5.3 1022 5 1022 Kg m / s
C 3 10
Key : 3
8. A 5 W source emits monochromatic light of wavelength 5000 Å. When placed 0.5 m away, it liberates
photoelectrons from a photosensitive metallic surface. When the source is moved to a distance if 1.0 m,
the number of photoelectrons liberated will be reduced by factor of
(1) 4 (2) 8 (3) 16 (4) 2
Sol : Intensity of light is inversely proportional to square of distance of source
1 I d2 1
i.e. I 2 ; 2 12
d I1 d2 4
No. of photoelectrons emitted intensity
Key : 1
9. Find the number of electrons emitted per second by a 24 W source of monochromatic light of
wavelength 6600 Å, assuming 3% efficiency for photoelectric effect (take h 6.6 10 –34 Js )
(1) 48 1019 (2) 48 1017
(3) 8 1019 (4) 24 1017
n n P 3
Sol : P E ;
t t E hc
3 6600 10 10
34 8
24 1017
6.6 10 3 10
Key : 4
10. When light radiation of frequency double the threshold frequency and of certain intensity is incident on a
metal surface the saturation current is ‘I’. If the intensity is doubled and frequency is made one-third the
saturation current is
1) I 2) 2I/3 3) 2I 4) 0
Sol : In the second case 0 no photoelectric effect
( 0 threshold frequency)
Key : 4
11. When a point source of light is at a distance of one metre from a photo cell, the cut off voltage is found to
be V. If the same source is placed at 2m distance from photo cell, the cut off voltage will be
1) V 2) V/2
3) V/4 4) V / 2
Sol :
Key : 1
12. The minimum intensity of light to be detected by human eye is 10-10bW/m2. The number of photons of
wavelength 5.6×10-7m entering the eye, with pupil area 10-6m2,per second for vision will be nearly
(1) 100 (2) 200 (3) 300 (4) 400
hc
Sol : Intensity I=n n=no.of photons entering per unit time
A
IA
n=
hc
1010 5.6 10 7 10 6
n= =300
6.6 10 34 3 108
Key :3
13. The ratio of de Broglie wavelength of molecules of hydrogen and helium in two gas jars kept separately
at temperatures of 27° C and 127°C respectively is :-
1) 2/ 3 2) 2/3
3) 3 /4 4) 8 /3
h
Sol : K = boltzmann constant
3mKT
T = Temperature
Key : 4
14. What will be the ratio of the de Broglie wavelengths of proton and α-particle of same kinetic energy
(1) 2:1 (2) 1:2 (3) 4:1 (4) 1:4
Sol : de Broglie wavelength
h
λ= (I)
mV
h
λ= (II)
2mK
h
λ= (III)
2mV
p 2
=
a 1
Key :1
15. A radiation of wavelength 200nm is propagating in the form of a parallel surface. The intensity of the
beam is 5mW and its cross-sectional area is 1.0 mm2. Find the pressure exerted by radiation on the
metallic surface if the radiation is completely reflected in Nm -2.
(1) 2×10-5 (2) 6.33×10-5 (3) 3.33×10-5 (4) 8×10-5
2I
Sol : Radiation pressure =
c
Key :3
16. The de Broglie wavelength associated with a nitrogen molecule at atmospheric pressure and temperature
27℃ will be nearly
(1) 0.1A (2) 0.2A (3)0.3A (4) 0.4A
Sol : Temperature=(T)=300K
Atomic mass of nitrogen = 14.00
Mass of nitrogen molecule (m)
=2×14V=28V
=28×1.6606×10-27Kg
=46.52×10-27Kg
Key :3
17. What potential must be applied on an electron microscope so that it may produce an electron
wavelength 1A?
(1) 50V (2) 100V (3) 150.5V (4) 200V
150
Sol :λ A
V
λ =1A
150
1=
V
V=150V
Key :3
18. When the momentum of a proton is changed by an amount P0, the corresponding change in the de
Broglie wavelength is found to be 0.25%. Then the original momentum of the proton was
(1) P0 (2) 100 P0 (3) 400 P0 (4)4 P0
h
Sol : λ=
p
1
λα
p
p
p
p
p
P0 0.25 1
= =
p 100 400
P0 1
=
p 400
P=400P0
Key :3
19. The ratio of de Broglie wavelengths of molecules of hydrogen and helium which are at temperature
27℃ and 127℃, respectively is
1 3 8
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1
2 8 3
h
Sol : P=m =
1
α
m
3RT
rms=
M
1 M 2T2 4 400 8
2 M1T1 2 300 3
Key :3
20. Which of the following figure represent the variation of particle momentum with the associated de
Broglie wavelength?
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Sol : Rectangular hyperbola
Key :1
21. If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased to 16 times its previous value, the percentage change in
the de Broglie wavelength of the particle is
(1) 60 (2) 50 (3) 25 (4) 75
h h 1
Sol : p= = =
p 2mKE
1
1=
2m(100)
1 1
2= = 1
2m(1600) 4
1
1
= 1 2 ×100= 4 ×100=75%
1 1
Key :4
22. The de Broglie wavelength of neutrons in thermal equilibrium at temperature T is
3.08 0.308 0.0308 30.8
(1) A (2) A (3) A (4) A
T T T T
h 3RT
Sol : = =
m m
Key :4
23. The de Broglie wavelength of the electron in the ground state of the hydrogen atom is (radius of the first
orbit of hydrogen atom =0.53A)
(1) 1.67A (2) 3.33A (3) 1.06A (4) 0.53A
2 2
e m km 1
Sol :K 2 = m = e K=
r r r 4 0
Key :2
24. The ratio of the de Broglie wavelength of α-particle to that of a proton being subjected to the same
magnetic
field so that the radii of their paths are equal to each other assuming the field induction vector
B is perpendicular to the velocity vectors of the α-particle and the proton is
1 1
(1) 1 (2) (3) (4) 4
4 2
m
Sol : r= m αq
Bq
Key :3
25. An electron of mass m, when accelerated through a potential difference V, has de Broglie wavelength λ.
The de Broglie wavelength associated with proton mass M accelerated through the same potential
difference will be
M m M m
(1) λ[ ] (2) λ[ ] (3) λ (4) λ
m M m M
1 h
Sol : Ve= m 2 =
2 m
Key :4
26. An electron of mass m and a photon have same energy E. The ratio of de Broglie wavelength associated
with them is (c being velocity of light):
E 1/2 1 2m 1 E
(1)[ ] (2) c(2mE)1/2 (3) [ ] 1/2 (4) [ ] 1/2
2m c E c 2m
2 2
1 p h
Sol : For electron E= m 2=
2 2m 2me 2
h 2 2mE e 2
hc Ep 2 E P
∴E= 2
2mE e 2 h=
P c c
e 2 E
2
p 2mc 2
1//2
e 1 E
p c 2m
Key :4
27. If an electron and a proton have the same de Broglie wavelength, then the kinetic energy of the electron
is
(1) Zero (2) less than that a proton
(3) more than that of a proton (4) equal to that of a proton
Sol : More than photon
Key :3
28. An electron and a photon possess the same de Broglie wavelength. If Ee and Ep are the energies of
E
electron and photon, respectively and v and c are their respective velocities, then e is equal to
Ep
v v v v
(1) (2) (3) (4)
c 2c 3c 4c
1 h
2=
Sol : Ee= m 2 m =
2 2 e
hc
EP=
P
Ee
=
E P 2c
Key :2
29. The log-log graph between the energy E of an electron and its de Broglie wavelength λ will be
(1) (2) (3) (4)
h
Sol : Ee=
2 e
h
logEe=log -log e
2
= speed of electron
Key :3
30. In a TV tube the electrons are accelerated by a potential difference of 10 kV. Then, their de Broglie
wavelength is nearly
o o o o
(1) 1.2 A (2) 0.12 A (3) 12 A (4) 0.01 A
hc 2 1025
Sol : E=vq= 10 103 1.6 10 19
o
1.25A
Key :1
31. If 0 is the de Broglie Wavelength for a proton accelerated through a potential difference of 100V, the
de Broglie wavelength for α-particle accelerated through the same potential difference is
(1)2 20 (2) 0 (3) 0 (4) 0
2 2 2 2
Sol : 2 20
Key :1
32. The de Broglie wavelength of neutron at 927℃ is λ. What will be its wavelength at 27℃?
(1) (2) (3) 4λ (4) 2λ
2 4
1
Sol : α
T
Key :4
33. In the experiment of photo electric effect, wavelength of light is and minimum de-Broglie wavelength
of photo electrons is ' .Threshold wavelength of metal 0 . Correct relation is (m = mass of electron) :-
1 1 h
(1)
0 2mC ( ' ) 2
1 1 1
(2)
0 m( ' )
1 1 h2
(3)
0 2mC ( ' ) 2
1 1 h
(4)
0 2mC 2 ( ' )2
1 2 hc hc
Sol : mvmax
2 0
Key :1
34. If kinetic energy of an electron is increased by 4%then percentage change in de-Broglie wavelength:-
(1) decreases by 2% (2) decreases by 1%
(3) increases by 5% (4) None of these
h 1 KE2
Sol : ; 1
2 mKE KE 2 KE1
Key :1
35. An -particle and a deuteron are moving with velocities v and 2v respectively. What will be the ratio of
their de Broglie wavelengths –
(1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 :1
(3) 1: 2 (4) 2 : 1
md vd
Sol :
d m v
Key :1
36. If E and P are the energy and the momentum of a photon respectively then on reducing the wavelength of
photon -
(1) P and E both will decrease
(2) P and E both will increase
(3) P will increase and E will decrease
(4) P will decrease and E will increase
1
Sol : EP
Key :2
37. An electron with speed v and a photon with speed c have the same de-Broglie wavelength. If the kinetic
energy and momentum of electrons is Ee and pe and that of photon is Ep and pp respectively, then the
correct statement is:-
E 2c P 2c
(1) e (2) e
Ep v Pp v
Ep 2c Pp 2c
(3) (4)
Ee v Pe v
h
Sol : , p 2 mKE
mv
Key : 3
e
38. A proton and electron are accelerated through same potential, then will be :-
p
(1) 1 (2) me / m p
(3) m p / m e (4) m p / me
h mp q p
Sol : ; e
2mqv p me qe
Key : 4
39. Energy of an electron and photon are equal. If wavelength of electron is 1Å then wavelength of the
photon is approx:-
(1) 82.67 Å (2) 1 Å
(3) 124 Å (4) 1.67 Å
Sol :
Key : 1
40. In third orbit of hydrogen atom, de Broglie wavelength of electron is then radius of third orbit is :–
3
(1) 3 (2) (3) (4)
2 2
2 r n 3
Sol : 2 r n ; ; r
n 2 2
Key : 4
41. Which of the following statements is wrong-
(1) De-Broglie waves are probability waves.
(2)De-Broglie wavelength of a moving particle is inversely proportional to its momentum.
(3) Wave nature is associated with atomic particles only.
(4) In general wave nature of matter is not observed.
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
42. An electron of mass m and charge e initially at rest gets accelerated by a constant electric field E. The
rate of change of de-Broglie wavelength of this electron at time t ignoring relativistic effects is
h eEt
1) 2
2)
eEt E
mh h
3) 4)
eEt 2 etE
Eq Ee
Sol : After t seconds V=0+at= t t
m m
h hm d h d (1/ t ) h
;
mv mEet dt Ee dt Eet 2
Key : 1
43. A photon collides with a stationary hydrogen atom in ground state in elastically. Energy of the colliding
photon is 10.2 eV. After a time interval of the order of micro second another photon collides with same
hydrogen atom in elastically with an energy of 15 eV. What will be observed by the detector
1) 2 photon of energy 10.2 eV
2) 2 photon of energy of 1.4 eV
3) One photon of energy 10.2 eV and an electron of energy 1.4 eV
4) One photon of energy 10.2 eV and another photon of 1.4 eV
Sol : Due to 10.2 eV photon one photon of energy 10.2 eV will be detected.
Due to 15 eV photon the electron will come out of the atom with energy (15 - 13.6) = 1.4 Ev
Key : 3
44. A proton accelerated through a potential difference of 100V has de-Broglie wave length 0 . The de-
Broglie wavelength of an particle, accelerated through 800V is
o o o
1) 2) o 3) 4)
2 2 4 8
Sol : h h qvm
p p p
P 2mqv q v m
1 100 1 1 1
o
2 800 1 64 8 8
Key : 4
45. A proton and an particle have the same de-Broglie wavelength. What is the other quantity equal for
both of them?
1) Charge 2) Energy 3) Speed 4) Momentum
h
Sol : , p p p ; p
p
Key : 4
46. Two electrons are moving with the same speed v. One electron enters a region of uniform electric field
while the other enters a region of uniform magnetic field. Then after some time if the de-Broglie
wavelengths of the two are 1 and 2 then
1) 1 2 2) 1 2
3) 1 2 4) 1 2 or 1 2
Sol : The electrons may be accelerated or retarded.
Key : 4
47. Which of the following graphs represents the variation of the particle momentum and the associated de-
Broglie wavelength?
h 1
Sol : or
p p
i.e., p graph is a rectangular hyperbola.
Key : 3
48. The de-Broglie wavelength of an electron in the first Bohr orbit is
1) equal to one-fourth the circumference of the first orbit
2) equal to half the circumference of first orbit
3) equal to twice the circumference of first orbit
4) equal to the circumference of the first orbit
nh nh
Sol : mvr ; 2r ;
2 mv
Key : 4
49. If the kinetic energy of the particle is increased by 16 times, the percentage change in the de Broglie
wavelength of the particle is
1) 25% 2) 75% 3) 60% 4) 50%
1
Sol :
KE
2 KE1 KE1 1
1 KE2 16 KE1 4
2 1
1 1
1 4
2 1 3
100 100 75%
1 4
Key : 2
50. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron at 27°C is . What will be its wavelength at 927°C
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3 4 9
1 T
Sol : neutron 1 2
T 2 T1
1
273 927 1200
2
2 273 27 300
2
2
Key : 1
51. The potential energy of a particle of mass m is given by
E : 0 x 1
U x 0
0 : x 1
1 and 2 are the de-Broglie wavelengths of the particle, when 0 x 1 and x 1respectively. If the
total energy of particle is 2E0 , the ratio 1 will be
2
1
1) 2 2) 1 3) 2 4)
2
h
Sol : K .E. 2 E0 E0 E0 (for 0 x 1) 1
2mE0
h
K .E. 2E0 0 2E0 (for x 1 ) 2 1 2
2m2 E0 2
Key : 3
52. The de Broglie wavelength associated with a proton increases by 25%, if its momentum is decreased
by p0 . The initial momentum was
p p
(1) 4 p0 (2) 0 (3) 5 p0 (4) 0
4 5
Sol : 2 1 0.25
1
2 5 P 5
1
1 4 P2 4
4P
P1 P2 Po P1 1 Po P1 5Po
5
Key : 3
53. Electrons having energy E have de Broglie wavelength . The energy to be added to an electron to
reduce its de Broglie wavelength to /2 is
1) E 2) 2E 3) 3E 4) 4E
h 1
Sol :
2 mE E
1 1 E'
; , 2 E ' 4E Energy to be added = 4E-E = 3E
E 2 E' E
Key : 3
54. Two identical particles are moving in the same direction and are associated with de Broglie wavelengths
of 1 and 2(1<2). If they collide and the collision is completely inelastic, then the de Broglie
wavelength of the compound particle is
2λ1λ 2
1) 2) λ1λ 2
λ 2 λ1
λλ λ λ2
3) 1 2 4) 1
λ1 λ 2 2
Sol : 1 = h/p1 and 2 = h/p2. The magnitude of total momentum after collision is p1 + p2
= h/(p1 + p2).
h
1 2
h h 1 2
1 2
Key : 3
55. An unstable particle at rest suddenly explodes in to three equal fragments which move in the same
horizontal plane. Two of them moving in perpendicular directions are associated with de Broglie
wavelength of each. The de Broglie wavelength associated with the third fragment is
1) 2 2) 3)/ 2 4) /2
Sol :
P
P'
h h h
Here P , P' 2P ' 2 '
2
Key : 3
56. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of a -particle to that of a proton being subjected to the same
magnetic field so that the radii of their paths are equal to each other assuming the field induction vector
B is perpendicular to the velocity vectors of the -particle and the proton is
1 1
1) 1 2) 3) 4)2
4 2
Sol : Sol in a When a charged particle (charge q, mass m) enters perpendicularly magnetic field B then,
mv
radius of the path described by it r mv qBr .
qB
h
Also de-Broglie wavelength
mv
h q p rp 1
qBr
p q r 2
rp r
Key : 3
57. An electron moving with an initial velocity v v0 i and is in a magnetic field B B0 j . Then, its de-
Broglie wavelength
1) remains constant
2) increases with time
3) decreases with time
4) first increases then decreases
Sol : Given, v v0 i
B B0 j
B0
V0
X
Force on charged particle moving in external magnetic field = q v0 i B0 j
q is negative, force is in direction of - k (into the plane of paper) For force perpendicular to
velocity, the particle execute uniform circular motion. Since, magnitude of velocity v 0 is constant.
h h
de-Broglie wavelength, =constant
mv mV0
Key : 1
58. A particle is projected horizontally with a velocity 10 m/s. What will be the ratio of de-Broglie
wavelength of the particle, when the velocity vector makes an angle 300 and 600 with the horizontal
1) 3 : 1 2) 1: 3
3) 2 : 3 4) 3:2
Sol : cos
1 cos300 3/2
0
3 :1
2 cos 60 1
2
Key : 1
59. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle moving with a velocity 2.25 108 m / s is equal to the
wavelength of photon. The ratio of kinetic energy of the particle to the energy of the photon is
(velocity of light is 3 10 8 m / s )
(1) 1 8 (2) 3 8 (3)5 8 (4) 7 8
Sol :
Key : 2
60. The ratio of the de Broglie wavelength of proton and particle which have been accelerated through
same potential difference is
1) 2 3 2) 3 2 3) 2 2 4) 3 3
Sol : K.E gained by a charge q after being accelerated through a potential difference v Volt is given by
1 2
mv
qV = 2
2qV
V
m and mv 2mqV
h h
mv 2mqv
de Broglie wavelength
h
p
2m p q pV p
Now ,
For particle
h p m q V
2 m q V m p q pV p
V V p
Putting , we get
p m q 4 2
82 2
mp q p 1 1
Key : 3
61. The kinetic energy of an electron gets tripled then the de Broglie wavelength associated with it changes
by a factor
1 1
1) 2) 3 3) 4) 3
3 3
Sol : For an electron
h
De Broglie wavelength, 2mK
Where h = Planck’s constant, m = mass of an electron, K = kinetic energy of an electron
Since m remains the same,
1
K
K' 3K
1
'
K K or 3
Key : 3
62. The ratio of the de Broglie wavelengths of a proton and an particle will be 1 : 2 if their
1) kinetic energies are in the ratio 1:8
2) kinetic energies are in the ratio 8:1
3) velocities are in the ratio 1:8
4) velocities are in the ratio 8:1
h p 1 mv 1
Sol : ,
p 2 mp v p 2
v 1 vp
8
vp 8 v
Key : 4
63. An electron and a photon, each has a de-Broglie wavelength of 1.2A0 . The ratio of their energies will be
1) 1:1 2) 1:10
3)1:100 4) 1:1000
h
Sol : me ve m p v p ;
P=constant
1
me ve 2 1 m v 2 2
Ee 2 e e 1 c ve 1v
2
e
E pn mpc 2 m p c 2 ve c 2 c
h
e
me ve
h 6.64 1034
ve 31 10
0.6 107
me e 9.1 10 1.2 10
1 ve 1 0.6 107
1:100
2 c 2 3 108
Key : 3
64. A proton, a neutron, an electron and an - particle have same energy. Then, their de-Broglie
wavelengths compare as
1) p n e
2) p n e
3) e p n
4) e p n
Sol : We know that the relation between and K is given by
h
K Kinetic energy
2 mK
Here, for the given value of energy K
1
m
p : n : e :
1 1 1 1
: : :
mp mn me m
Since, m p mn , hence p n
As, m m p , therefore p
As, me mn , therefore e n
Hence p = n e
Key : 2
65. If de-Broglie wavelength of
I) a bullet of mass 0.40 kg travelling with speed of 1.0 kms-1 is 1
II) a ball of mass 0.60 kg moving at a speed of 1.0 ms-1 is 2
III) a dust particle of mass 1.0 109 kg drifting with a speed of 2.2 ms-1 is 3
Then,
1) 1 2 3 2) 2 1 3
3) 1 2 3 4) 3 1 2
h
Sol : Using and p mv ,
p
p1 m1v1 (0.4kg 1kms 1 ) 400kg ms 1
p2 m2 v2 (0.6kg 1ms 1 ) 0.6kg ms 1
p3 m3v3 (1.0 109 2.2) 2.2 10 9 kg ms 1
p1 p2 p3
1
1 2 3
p
Key : 3
66. A particle is dropped from a height H. The de-Broglie wavelength associated with particle is proportional
to
1) H 2) H 1/2 3) H 0 4) H 1/2
Sol : Velocity gained by particle
v 2 gH
h h h
H 1/2
p mv m 2 gH
Key : 4
67. The de-Broglie wavelength of a neutron in thermal equilibrium with heavy water at a temperature T
(Kelvin) and mass m, is
h h
1) 2)
mKT 3mKT
2h 2h
3) 4)
3mKT mKT
Sol : de-Broglie wavelength
h h
mv 2m KE
h h
;
3 3mKT
2m KT
2
Key : 2
68. A particle A with mass mA is moving with a velocity V and hits a particle B of mass mB which is at rest
(one dimensional motion) If the collision is elastic, the change in the de-Broglie wavelength of the
particle A is
h 2mB
1)
V mA (mA mB )
h 2mA
2)
mB (mA mB )
V
h 2mB
3)
V mA (mA mB )
h 2mA
4)
V mB (mA mB )
h h
Sol : initial ; final
mAV mAV1
m mB
Where V1 A V
mA mB
h m A mB
final
m A m A mB V
h mA mB
Change in final initial 1
mAV mA mB
h 2 mB
V m A m A mB
Key : 1
69. The de-Broglie wavelength of a photon is twice the de-Broglie wavelength of an electron. The speed of
C
the electron Ve (C – speed of light). Then
100
( Ee energy of electron, E p energy of photon)
Ee Ee
1) 104 2) 102
Ep Ep
Pe Pe
3) 104 4) 103
meC meC
h h2
Sol : e Ee
2me Ee 2me e2
hc hc
Ep Since p 2e ; E p
p 2e
Ep hc 2me e2 e me c
Ee 2e h2 h
h h h 100
But e
mVe m c me c
e
100
E p h 100 me c
Ee mec h
Ep E
102 ; e 102
Ee Ep
Key : 2
70. A particle moving with a speed that is one eighth of the speed of light in vacuum, has a de Broglie
wavelength half that of a photon having energy E. Neglecting relativistic variation of mass of the
particle, the kinetic energy of the particle is
1) E/16 2) E/4 3) E/8 4) 8E
1 1 hc
Sol : particle photon
2 2 E
h 2E
Momentum of the particle P
partilce C
1 1 2E C C E
Kinetic energy of particle KE PV V KE
2 2 C 8 8 8
Key : 3
o o
71. The energy that should be added to an electron to reduce its de Broglie wavelength from 2A to1A is
1) four times the initial energy
2) equal to the initial energy
3) twice the initial energy
4) thrice the initial energy
h
Sol : de Broglie wavelength,
2 mE
h 2
1
or E 2
or E 2
2 m
2 2
E 1 1
1 2 or E2 4E
E2 1 2 4
The energy should added to decrease the
wavelength E2 E1 4 E E 3E
Key : 4
72. In a photo emissive cell, with exiting wavelength , the fastest electron has speed v. If the exciting
wavelength is changed to 3 / 4 , the speed of the fastest emitted electron will be
1
2
(1) v 3
1
2
(2) 4
v
4
3
1
2
(3) less than v 4
1
(4) greater than 4
v
2
3 3
1 hc
Sol : mv 2
2 h
1 2 4hc
m v1
2 3h
2 4hc
V 1 3h
V2 hc
h
4 hc 1
V1
2
3 h 3
V hc
h
1
V1
2
4 4
3
V 3 hc 3
h
4
V1 V
3
Key : 4
73. A photoelectric surface is illuminated successively by monochromatic light of wavelengths and . If
2
the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in the second case is 3 times than in the first
case, the work function of the surface of the material is
(h= Planck’s constant, c= speed of light)
hc hc 2hc hc
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 3
Sol : According to Einstein photoelectric equation
hc
E Kmax W , E
Where, Kmax is maximum kinetic energy of emitted electron and W is work function of an electron
hc
KE1 W
2hc
KE2 W
KE2 3KE1
2hc 3hc
W 3W
hc
2W
hc
W
2
Key : 1
74. The work function of cesium is 2.14 eV. Find the wavelength of the incident light if the photo current is
brought to zero by a stopping potential of 0.60 volt :
(1) 454 nm (2) 640 nm
(3) 540 nm (4) None of these
Sol :
Key : 1
75. The graph between the energy of photoelectrons (E) and the wavelength of incident light (ƛ)is
E E
E
(1) (2) (3) (4) sp
Sol : Hyperbolic
Graph between Energy of photoelectrons (E) & Wavelength of incident light (λ)
hc
E=
1
Eα
Key :4
76. A proton is accelerated through potential difference of 1V then K.E of proton will be
(1) 1840eV (2) 0.1eV (3) 1eV (4) 1/1840eV
Sol : Potential difference (V) =1V
Kinetic Energy acquired =q×V
=1.6×10-19×1
=1.6×10-19J
=1eV
Key :3
77. The wavelength of a 1KeV photon is 1.24×10-9 m. what is frequency of 1MeV photon
(1) 1.24×1015HZ (2) 2.4×1020HZ (3) 1.24×1018HZ (4) 2.4×1023HZ
hc
Sol : Energy E=
hc
E= =1Kev
λ =1.24×10-9m
hc=E λ
hc=1Kev× λ
hc=1.24×10-9×103
=1.24×10-6evm
hc
E= =1mev
1.24 10 6 evm
1×106=
1.24 10 6 evm
λ=
1 106
λ=0.81×10-12evm
c
v=Frequency=
8
3 10 m / s
v=
0.81 1012 evm
v=2.43×1020Hz
Key :2
78. A 200 W sodium street lamp emits yellow light of wavelength 0.6 µm. assuming it to be 25% efficient
in converting electrical energy to light, the number of photons of yellow light it emits per second is
(1)62×1020 (2) 3×1019 (3) 1.5×1020 (4) 6×1018
25 hc n 6.6 1034 3 108
Sol : ×200=n =
100 0.6 10 6
50 0.6 106
n= 26
=1.5×1020
6.6 3 10
Key :3
79. On making ultraviolet light of energy 6.2eV incident on aluminum surface, faster photoelectrons are
emitted. If the work function of aluminum surface is 4.2eV, then the kinetic energy of these fastest
electrons will be
(1) 3.2×10-19 J (2) 3.2×10-17 J (3) 3.2×10-16 J (4) 3.2×10-11 J
Sol : K.E of fastest electron
=E -∅0
=(6.2-4.2)eV
=2.0eV
=2×1.6×10-19J=3.2×10-19J
Key :1
80. Light of wavelength 3000A in photoelectric effect gives electron of maximum K.E 0.5 eV. If
wavelength changes to 2000 A then maximum K.E of emitted electrons will be
(1) Less then 0.5eV (2) 0.5eV
(3) Greater than 0.5eV (4) PEE does not occurs
Sol : Greater than 0.5eV
Key :3
81. A point source causes photoelectric effect from a small metal plate. Which of the following curves may
represent the saturation photocurrent as a function of the distance between the source and metal?
(1) a (2) b (3) c (4) d
Sol : The saturation photocurrent as a function of the distance between the source and metal
Key :4
82. The work function for three different metals A,B,C are WA,WB and Wc, respectively, with WA>WB>WC.
The graph between stopping potential (V0) and frequency (V) for them would look like
C A
C BA ABC B B
A C
V0 V0 V0 V0
(1) V (2) V (3) V (4) V
Sol :
C BA
V0
V
Key :1
83. The anode voltage of a photocell is kept fixed. The wavelength ƛ of the light falling on the cathode is
gradually changed. The plate current I of the photocell varies as follows
(1) (2) (3) (4)
Sol : Plate current I of the photocell varies
Key :4
84. When a certain metal surface is illuminated with light of frequency , the stopping potential of
photoelectric current is V0. When the same surface is illuminated by light of frequency the stopping
2
V
potential is 0 . The threshold frequency for photoelectric emission is
2
(1) (2) (3) 2 (4) 4
6 3 3 3
Sol : Einstein’s photo electric question
hc e(V0 ) w
=
2
hc V0
=e +w
4
hc V
=
3
V0=V/3
Key :2
85. The work function of a metallic surface is 5.01 eV. The photoelectrons are emitted when light of
wavelength 200A falls on it. The potential difference applied to stop the fastest photoelectrons is
[h=4.14×10-15eV sec]
(1) 1.2 volts (2) 2.24 volts (3) 3.6 volts (4) 4.8 volts
Sol : Energy of incident
12375
E=
2000
E=6.18eV
According to relation
E=w0+eV0
(E w 0 )
V0=
e
(6.18eV 5.01eV )
V0=
e
V0=1.17V
V0=1.17V≈1.2V
V0=1.2Volts
Key :1
86. light of wavelength ƛ strikes a photosensitive surface and electrons are ejected with kinetic energy E. If
the kinetic energy is to be increased to 2E, the wavelength must be changed to ƛ’ where
(1) ƛ’= (2) ƛ’= 2 ƛ (3) < ƛ’< ƛ (4) ƛ’> ƛ
2 2
hc
Sol : E= -w
< λ1< λ
2
Key :3
87. when monochromatic radiation of intensity I falls on a metal surface, the number of photoelectrons and
their maximum kinetic energy are N and T, respectively. If the intensity of radiation is 2I, the the
number of emitted electrons and their maximum kinetic energy are respectively,
(1) N and 2T (2) 2N and T (3) 2N and 2T (4) N and T
Sol : 2N and T
1. Kinetic energy of photoelectron defends on the frequency incident
2. A number of the photoelectron depends upon the intensity
So the number of emitted
Key :2
88. Two identical photo cathodes receive light of frequencies f1 and f2. If the velocity of the respectively , v1
and v2 , then
2h 2h
(1) v12-v22= ( f1- f2) (2) v1+v2=[ ( f1+ f2)]1/2
m m
2h 2h
(3) v12+v22= ( f1+ f2) (4) v1-v2==[ ( f1- f2)]1/2
m m
2h
Sol : V12-V22= (F1-F2)
m
Key :1
89. Monochromatic radiation emitted when electron on hydrogen atom jumps from first excited to the
ground state irritates a photosensitive material. The stopping potential is measured to be 3.75 V. The
threshold frequency of the material is
(1) 4×1015Hz (2) 5×1015Hz (3) 1.6×1015Hz (4) 2.5×1015Hz
Sol : Energy released from emission of electron
E=(-3.4)-(-13.6)
E=10.2eV
∅=E-ev=hV
E eV
V=
h
10.2 3.57
= e
6.67 1034
V=1.6×1015Hz
Key :3
90. A silver ball of radius 4.8 cm is suspended by thread in the vacuum chamber. UV light of wavelength
200nm is incident on the ball for sometime during which a total energy of 1×10-7 J falls on the surface.
Assuming on an average one out of 103 photons incident is able to eject electron, the potential on sphere
will be
(1) 1V (2) 2V (3) 3V (4) Zero
hc
Sol : E=n n= number of photon
E 10 7 200 10 9
n= = =1011
hc 6.6 10 34 3 108
1011
9 109 3 e
1 Q 10 9 109 108 1.6 10 19
V= = = =3Volts
4 0 R 4.8 102 4.8 10 2
Key :3
91. A photon energy E ejects a photoelectron from a metal surface whose work function is W0. If this
electron enters into a uniform magnetic field of induction B in a direction perpendicular to the field and
describes a circular path of radius r, then the radius r, is given by,
2m(E W0 )
(1) (2) 2m(E W0 )eB
eB
2e(E W0 ) 2m(E W0 )
(3) (4)
mB eB
m
Sol : r=
Bq
2( E 0 )
m
r= m
Be
2( E 0 )
r=
eB
E=ꙍ0+KEmax
1
E- ꙍ0= m 2
2
2( E 0 )
m
Key :4
92. Figure represents the graph of kinetic energy (K) of photoelectron (in eV) and frequency (v) for a metal
used as cathode in photoelectric experiment. The work function of a metal is
(1) 1eV (2) 1.5 eV (3) 2eV (4) 3eV
Sol : y-intercept of graph gives work function in ‘eV’
Key :3
93. Photoelectric emission is observed from a metallic surface for frequencies u1 and u2 of the incident light
rays (u1>u2). If the maximum values of kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted in the two cases are
in the ratio 1:k, then the threshold frequency of the metallic surface is
u v ku u 2 ku 2 u1 u u
(1) 1 2 (2) 1 (3) (4) 2 1
k 1 k 1 k 1 k
KE1 hu1 0
Sol :
KE 2 hu 2 0
1 hu1 0
K hu 2 0
h(u2-Ku1)= ꙍ0(1-k)
=h 0(1-k)
ku1 u 2
0=
k 1
Key :2
94. Photons of energy 6 eV are incident on a metal surface whose function is 4 eV. The minimum kinetic
energy of the emitted photoelectrons will be
(1) 0eV (2) 1eV (3) 2 eV (4) 10 eV
Sol : KEmax=0eV
KEmax=6-4=2eV
Key :1
95. A photosensitive metallic surface has work function . If proton of energy 3 fall on this surface , the
electron comes out with a maximum velocity of 6×106ms-1. When the photo energy is increased to 9 ,
then maximum velocity of photoelectron will be
(1) 12×106m/s (2) 6×106m/s (3) 3×106m/s (4) 24×106m/s
Sol : h = ꙍ0+KEmax
1
3Q=Q+ m (6×106)2
2
1
9Q=Q+ m 2
2
8Q 2
2Q (6 106 ) 2
=12×106m/s
Key :1
96. The work functions of silver and sodium are 4.6 and 2.3 eV, respectively. The ration of the slope of
stopping potential versus frequency plot for Silver to that of Sodium is
(1) 1:1 (2) 2:1 (3) 3:1 (4) 1:2
Sol : w1=4.6eV KEmax=h -w0
h w
w2=2.3eV V= - 0
e e
h
Slope of stopping potential vs frequency graph is
e
h h
∴ : =-1:1
e e
Key :1
97. The radiation corresponding to 3→2 transition of hydrogen atom falls on a metal surface to made to
enter a magnetic field of 3×10-4T. If the radius of the largest circular path followed by these electrons is
10.0mm, the work function of the metal is close to
(1) 1.8eV (2) 1.1eV (3) 0.8eV (4) 1.6eV
1 1 1 1
Sol : E=13.6 2 2 =13.6 2 2
n1 n2 2 3
5 17
=13.6× = =eV
49 9
m
r=
Bq
p=m =Bqr
p 2 B 2 e 2 r 2 (3 10-4 ) 2 (1.6 10-19 ) 2 (102 ) 2
KEmax= = =
2m 2m 2 9.1 10-39
Work function =E-KEmax=1.1eV
Key :2
98. The kinetic energy of the most energetic photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface is doubled when
the wavelength of the incident radiation is reduced from λ1 to λ2. The work function of the metal is
hc 2hc 2hc 2hc
(1) (2λ2- λ1) (2) (2λ2- λ1) (3) (λ1+ λ2) (4) (λ1- λ2)
12 12 12 12
hc
Sol : KE1= -w0
1
hc
KE2= -w0 KE2=2KE1
2
Key :1
99. The stopping potential for the photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface of work function 1.7 eV is
10.4 V. Identify the energy levels of hydrogen atom which will result in emission of wavelength equal
to that incident radiation for the above photoelectric effect
(1) n=3to1 (2) n=3to2 (3) n=2to1 (4) n=4to1
Sol : E=1.7+10.4=12.1eV
1 1
=13.6 2 2
n1 n2
Key :1
100. Light of wavelength 2475 A is incident on barium photoelectrons emitted describes a circle of radius
1
100cm by a magnetic field of flux density ×10-5Tesla. Work function of the barium is
17
e
(given =1.7×1011)
m
(1) 1.8eV (2) 2.1eV (3) 4.5eV (4) 3.3eV
1
Sol : h =w0+ m 2
2
12400
W0= -0.5
2475
=5-0.5=4.5eV
P=m =Ber
P 2 B 2 e2 r 2
KE= =
2m 2m
2 2
B r e
= (e)
2 m
1 10-10
= ×1×1.7×1011eV
17 2
=0.5eV
Key :3
101. When light of wavelength 300 nm falls on a photoelectric emitter, photoelectrons are liberated. For
another emitter, light of wavelength 600nm is sufficient for liberating photoelectrons. The ratio of the
work function of the two emitters is
(1) 1:2 (2) 2:1 (3) 4:1 (4) 1:4
Sol : h = ꙍ0+KEmax [Here KEmax=0]
w01 h1 2 600
w02 h2 1 300
Key :2
102. From the figure describing photoelectric effect we may infer correctly that
(1) Na and AI both have the same threshold frequency
(2) Maximum kinetic energy for both the metals depend linearly on the frequency
(3) The stopping potentials are different for Na and AI for the same change in frequency
(4)AI is a better photosensitive material than Na
Sol : Slopes are equal
KEmax=h =w0
Y=mx-c(linear equation)
Key :2
103. What is the Broglie wavelength of 1kg mass moving with a velocity of 10m/s?
(1) 6.626×10-35 \m (2)6.626×10-33m (3) 6.626×10-34m (4) 6.626×10-36m
h
Sol : λ=
mV
6.626 1034
λ=
1 10
λ=6.626×10-35m
Key :1
104. In a photoelectric experiment, the potential difference V that must be maintained between the illuminated
surface and the collector so as just to prevent any electron from reaching the collector is determined for
different frequencies f of the incident illumination. The graph obtained is shown. The maximum kinetic
energy of the electrons emitted at frequency f1 is :-
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 1
105. The graph is showing the photocurrent with the applied voltage of a photoelectric effect experiment.
Then :-
(1) A & B will have same intensity and B & C have same frequency
(2) B & C have same intensity and A & B have same frequency
(3) A & B will have same frequency and B & C have same intensity
(4) A & C will have same intensity and B & C have same frequency
Sol : A and B have same intensity B and C have same force
Key : 1
106. The metallic surface is illuminated with monochromatic light of wavelength and stopping potential for
photoelectric current is 5V0.When the same metallic surface is illuminated with a light of wavelength
the stopping potentials is V0. What is the threshold wavelength for the surface?
8
(1) (2) 8
3
1 1
Sol : 5v0 hc (1)
0
1 1
v0 hc (1)
0
Solve for 0
Key :1
107. The cathode of a photoelectric cell is changed such that the work function changes from W1 toW2 (W2 >
W1). If the current before and after change are I1 and I2, all other conditions remaining unchanged, then
(assuming hv>W2)
(1) I1 = I2 (2) I1< I2
(3) I1> I2 (4) I1< I2< 2I
Sol : Current depends on intensity only
Key :1
108. The surface of a metal is illuminated with light of 400 nm. The maximum kinetic energy of the ejected
photoelectrons was found to be 1.68 eV. The work function of the metal is : (hc = 1240 eV nm)
(1) 3.09 eV (2) 1.42 eV
(3) 1.51 eV (4) 1.68 Ev
hc
Sol : KEmax w
Key :
109. The work function of a surface of a photo sensitive material is 6.2 eV. The wavelength of the incident
radiation for which the stopping potential is 5V lies in the:-
(1) Infrared region
(2) X-ray region
(3) Ultraviolet region
(4) Visible region
hc
Sol : ev0 6.2 ev Solve for
Key : 2
110. Threshold wavelength of a metal surface is
5×10–10 m. When it is illuminated by light of wavelength 2×10–10 m , stopping potential is V0what will be
stopping potential if wavelength of light is doubled :-
V
(1) 0 (2) 2V0
2
(3) 0.5V0 (4) 0.5V0
1 1
Sol : v0 hc (1)
0
1 1
x hc (2) Solve for x
2 0
Key : 4
111. If the surface of a metal successively exposed to radiation of wavelength 1 = 350 nm and 2 =450 nm,
the maximum velocity of photo electrons will differ by a factor of 2. The work function of this metal is :-
(1) 2.8 × 10–20 J (2) 6.1 × 10–17 J
(3) 3.2 × 10–18 J (4) 4.0 × 10–19 J
c
Sol : KEmax h w
Key : 4
112. The figure shows the variation of photo current with anode potential for a photo-sensitive surface for
three different radiations. Let Ia, Ib and Ic be the intensities and fa, fb and fc be the frequencies for the
curves a, b and c respectively.
(1) fa = fb and Ia Ib (2) fa = fc and Ia = Ic
(3) fa = fb and Ia = Ib (4) fa = fc and Ib = Ic
Sol : a and b have same frequency due to same stopping potential and a and b have different intensities due
to different current.
Key :1
113. Maximum velocity of photoelectrons emitted by a metal surface is 1.2 × 106 m/s. Assuming the specific
charge of the electron to be 1.8 × 1011 C/kg, the value of the stopping potential in volt will be :-
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 6
2v0 e
Sol : v
m
v0 Stopping potential
Key :3
114. When the energy of the incident radiation is increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the photoelectrons
increase from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work function of the metal is
1) 1.5 eV 2) 0.65 eV
3) 1.0 eV 4) 1.3 eV
Sol : E1 0.5 (1)
E2 0.8 (2)
120 6
E2 E1 E1
100 5
solving 1.0 eV
Key : 3
115. Work function for three different metals are WA ,WB and WC where WA WB >WC . The graph between
stopping potential V0 and frequency of incident radiation 'V ' is plotted. Which is the correct graph?
Sol : As work function is greater for a given frequency K max is less hence stopping potential is less
Key : 2
116. The maximum velocity of an electron emitted by light of wavelength incident on the surface of a metal
of work function , is
1/ 2
2(hc ) 2(hc )
1) m 2)
m
1/ 2 1/2
2(hc ) 2(h )
3) m 4)
m
Sol : Where h = Planck's constant, m = mass of electron and c = speed of light.
According to Einstein’s photoelectric equation
1/2
hc 1 2(hc )
mv 2 v
2 m
Key : 3
117. When a point source of monochromatic light is at a distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell, the cut-
off voltage and the saturation current are 0.6 volt and 18 mA respectively. If the same source is placed 0.6
m away from the photoelectric cell, then
1) The stopping potential will be 0.2 V
2) The stopping potential will be 0.6 V
3) The saturation current will be 6 mA
4) The saturation current will be 18 mA
Sol : Cut off voltage is independent of intensity and hence remains the same. Since distance becomes 3
times, so intensity (I) becomes I . Hence photo current also decreases by this factor i.e. becomes
9
18
2 mA .
9
Key : 2
118. Light from a hydrogen discharge tube is incident on the cathode of a photoelectric cell the work function
of the cathode surface is 4.2 eV. In order to reduce the photo-current to zero the voltage of the anode
relative to the cathode must be made
1) – 4.2 V 2) – 9.4 V
3) – 17.8 V 4) +9.4 V
Sol : E W0 eV 0
For hydrogen atom, E 13 . 6 eV
+ 13.6 = 4.2 + eV0
(13 .6 4 . 2) eV
V0 9.4 V
e
Potential at anode = – 9.4 V
Key : 2
119. The stopping potential V for photoelectric emission from a metal surface is plotted along Y-axis and
frequency of incident light along X-axis. A straight line is obtained as shown. Planck's constant is given
by
Y
V
0 X
1) Slope of the line
2) Product of slope on the line and charge on the electron
3) Product of intercept along Y-axis and mass of the electron
4) Product of Slope and mass of electron
Sol : K max h h 0 eV0 h h 0 V0 h h 0
e e
h
Comparing this equation with y mx c , we get slope m h me
e
Key : 1
120. Work function of lithium and copper are respectively 2.3 eV and 4.0 eV. Which one of the metal will be
useful for the photoelectric cell working with visible light ? (h = 6.6 10–34J-s, c = 3 108m/s)
1) Lithium 2) Copper
3) Both 4) None of these
12375
Sol : From 0
W0
12375
The maximum wavelength of light required for the photoelectron emission, (0 ) Li 5380 Å .
2.3
12375
Similarly (0 )Cu = 3094 Å.
4
Since the wavelength 3094 Å does not in the visible region, but it is in the ultraviolet region. Hence to
work with visible light, lithium metal will be used for photoelectric cell
Key : 2
121. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy of photoelectrons
ejected and the frequency of incident radiation is
Kinetic energy
Kinetic energy
Frequency Frequency
1) 2)
Kinetic energy
Kinetic energy
Frequency Frequency
3) 4)
Sol : According to Einstein equation
h h 0 K max K max h h 0 on comparing it with y mx c, it is clear to say that,
This is the equation of straight line having positive slope (h) and negative intercept (h 0 ) on KE axis
Key : 1
122. For the photoelectric effect, the maximum kinetic energy E k of the emitted photoelectrons is plotted
against the frequency of the incident photons as shown in the figure. The slope of the curve gives
Ek
1) Charge of the electron
2) Work function of the metal
3) Planck's constant
4) Ratio of the Planck’s constant to electronic charge
Sol : Comparing Einstein’s equation
K max h h 0 , with y mx c, we get slope, m h
Key : 3
123. In an experiment on photoelectric effect the frequency f of the incident light is plotted against the
stopping potential V0 . The work function of the photoelectric surface is given by (e is electronic charge)
Y
V0
A
O X
0
1) OB e in eV 2) OB in volt
3) OA in eV
4) The slope of the line AB
h W
Sol : Using Einstein’s equation, V0 0
e
e
Comparing this equation with y mx c
W
We get intercept on – V0 axis 0
e
W0
OB W0 OB e
e
Key : 3
124. For a photoelectric cell the graph showing the variation of cut of voltage (Vo) with frequency () of
incident light is best represented by
Vo Vo
1) 2)
Vo
V0
3) 4)
Sol : According to Einstein’s equation
h W
h = W0 + Kmax V0 0
e e
W0
This is the equation of straight line having positive slope (h/e) and intercept on V0 axis, equals to
e
Key : 1
125. The correct graph between the maximum energy of a photoelectron and the inverse of wavelength of the
incident radiation is given by the curve
C
A
Kmax
B
0 1/0 1/
1) A 2) B 3) C
4) None of the above
Sol : K max h h 0 hc hc i.e. graph between Kmax and 1
will be straight line having slope (hc) and
0
hc
intercept on – KE axis
0
Key : 3
126. A silver sphere (work function 4.6 eV)is suspended in vacuum chamber by an insulating thread.
Ultraviolet light of wavelength 0.2 m falls on the sphere. Then its maximum potential will be
0
hc 12400 ev A
1. 4.6 V 2. 6.2 V
3. 1.6 V 4. 1 V
Sol :
Key :3
127. The work function of a metal is 4.2eV. Two photons of each energy 2.5 eV strike an electron of the
metal. Then
1) the electron emitted with zero energy
2) electron is not emitted
3) electron is emitted with energy 0.8 eV
4) electron is emitted with energy 1.7 eV
Sol : Work function of aluminum = 4.2 eV (Given)
Number of photons = 2 (Given)
Energy of each photon = 3.5eV (Given)
Electron emission refers to the process of an electron escaping from a metal surface. Every possible
atom has a positively charged nuclear part and many negatively charged electrons around it.
The energy of two photons cannot be added at the moment, when the photons collide with electron.
Thus, all the energy of photon will be dissipated or wasted as the energy generated is not sufficient to
knock it out.
Thus, if two photons, each of energy 3.5 eV strike an electron of aluminum, then emission of electrons
is not possible.
Key :2
15 o
128. Threshold frequency for a metal is 10 Hz . Light of wave length 4000 A falls on its surface. Which
of the following statements is correct?
1) No photo electric emission takes place
2) Photo electron come out with zero speed.
3
3) Photo electron come out with 10 m/s speed
6
4) Photo electron come out with 10 m/s speed
Sol : Frequency
C 3 108
10
0.75 1015
4000 10
0.75 1015 o 1015 Hz
Hence, no photoelectric emission takes place
Key : 1
15
129. A photon of energy 8eV is incident on a metal surface of threshold frequency 1.6 10 Hz . The
maximum kinetic energy of photo electrons emitted is h 6.6 10 34
J sec,1eV 1.6 1019 J
1) 1.4 eV 2) 0.8 eV
3) 4.2eV 4) 2.8eV
15
Sol : E h 8eV ,o 1.6 10 Hz
h Wo KEmax KEmax h h o
6.6 1034 1.6 1015
KEmax 8
1.6 1019
= 8-6.6 = 1.4eV
Key : 1
o
130. The work function of a metal is 1eV. Light of wavelength 3000 A is incident on this metal surface. The
velocity of emitted photoelectrons will be nearly
1) 107 m/s 2) 1 105 m/s
3) 1 104 m / s 4) 1 106 m / s
Sol : From Einstein’s photoelectric equation E W0 K max
12375
Now, E 4.125eV
3000
Kmax E W0 4.125eV 1eV 3.125eV
1
mv2max 3.125 1.6 1019 J
2
2 3.1251.61019
vmax 1106 m / s
9.11031
Key : 4
o
131. In a photoelectric experiment for 4000 A incident radiation, the potential difference to stop the ejection is
o
2V. If the incident light is changed to 3000 A , then the potential required to stop the ejection of electrons
will be
1) 2V 2) less than 2V
3) zero 4) greater than 2V
Sol : By decreasing the wavelength of incident light energy of incident light will increase.
Key : 4
132. The work functions of metals A and B are in the ratio 1 : 2. If light of frequencies f and 2f are incident on
metal surfaces of A and B respectively, the ratio of the maximum kinetic energies of photoelectron
emitted is (f is greater than threshold frequency of A, 2f is greater than threshold frequency of B)
1) 1 : 1 2) 1 : 2 3) 1 : 3 4) 1 : 4
Sol : K1 hf W K 2 2hf 2W
K1 1
K2 2
Key : 2
133. The surface of a metal is illuminated with the light of 400 nm. The maximum kinetic energy of the
ejected photoelectrons was found to be 1.68 eV. The work function of the metal is: hc 1240eV .nm
1) 1.42 eV 2) 1.52 eV
3) 1.68 eV 4) 3.09 eV
hc 12400
KEmax ev 1.68ev
Sol : 4000
3.1 1.68 ev 1.42ev
Key : 1
134. When photons of energy h fall on an aluminum plate (of work function=E0), photoelectrons of
maximum kinetic energy K are ejected. If the frequency of the radiation is doubled, the maximum kinetic
energy of the ejected photoelectrons will be
1) K 2) K + h
3) K + E0 4) 2K
Sol : K E W hv Eo and K 1 h 2v Eo
hv E0 hv ; K 1 K hv
Key : 2
135. The threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission from a material is 5200 Å. Photo-electrons will be
emitted when this material is illuminated with monochromatic radiation from a
1) 50 watt infrared lamp
2) 1 watt infrared lamp
3) 50 watt ultraviolet lamp
4) 1 watt orange lamp
Sol : In this case, for photoelectric emission the wavelength of incident radiations must be less than 5200Å.
Wavelength of ultraviolet radiations is less then this value (5200 Å) but wavelengths of orange and
infrared radiations are higher than this value.
Key :3
136. When monochromatic radiation of intensity I falls on a metal surface, the number of photoelectrons and
their maximum kinetic energy are N and T respectively. If the intensity of radiation is 2I, the number of
emitted electrons and their maximum kinetic energy are respectively
1) N and 2T 2) 2N and T
3) 2N and 2T 4) N and T
Sol : Number of photoelectrons Intensity
When I is doubled, N will also be doubled.
Maximum kinetic energy is independent of intensity
Hence number of emitted electrons is 2N and maximum KE is T.
Key :2
137. Two identical metal plates show photoelectric effect by a light of wavelength A falling on plate A and
B on plate B A 2B . The maximum kinetic energy is
1) 2 K A K B 2) K A K B / 2
3) K A 2 K B 4) K A K B / 2
hc hc
Sol : W0 K max W0 K A ………… (i)
A
hc
and W0 K B ……….. (ii)
B
1 1
Subtracting (i) from (ii), hc K B K A
B A
1 1
hc KB K A
B 2B
hc
KB KA ……………(iii)
2 B
From (ii) and (iii), 2K B 2K A W0 K B
2K A K B W0
K W K
K A B 0 which gives K A B
2 2 2
Key : 2
138 The figure shows a plot of photocurrent versus anode potential for a photo sensitive surface for three
different radiations. Which one of the following is a correct statement?
(1) Curves a and b represent incident radiation of different frequencies and different intensities
(2) Curves a and b represent incident radiations of same frequency but of different intensities
(3) Curves b and c represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities
(4) Curves b and c represent incident radiations of same frequency having same intensity
Sol: Curves A and B represents incident radiations of same frequency but of different intensities, stopping
potential depends on frequency, current depends on intensities
Key : 2
139. Light of wavelength A and B fall on two identical metal plates A and B respectively. The maximum
kinetic energy of photoelectrons is K A and K B respectively, then one of the following relations is true?
A 2 B
KB
1) K A 2) 2K A K B
2
3) K A 2K B 4) K A 2K B
hc hc
Sol : KA W KA W
A A
2hc A
KB
A
W B 2
K B 2K A W
KB
K B 2K A 2K A K B K A
2
Key : 1
140. A silver ball of radius 4.8 cm is suspended by a thread in the vacuum chamber. UV light of wavelength
200 nm is incident on the ball for some time during which a total energy of 1 10–7J falls on the surface.
Assuming on an average one out of 103 photons incident is able to eject electron. The potential on sphere
will be
a)1V b)2 V c)3 V d) Zero
E 1 10 7 200 10 9
Sol : n 34 8
1 10 11
hc 6 . 6 10 3 10
10 11
Number of electrons ejected n 3
10 8
10
1 ne 9 109 108 1.6 1019
V 3V
4 0 r 4.8 102
Key : 3
141. The electric filed in an electromagnetic wave is represented by E 10sin(2 1015 t ) Vm 1 . If this
electromagnetic radiation falls on a metal with a work function 1.6 eV, the maximum kinetic energy of
the photoelectrons emitted nearly
a) 2.5 eV b) 1.4 eV
c) 0.8 eV d) 4.1 eV
Sol : E 10 sin 2 10 t v / m
15
E E0 sin t
2 2 1015 1015 Hz
6.62 1034 1015
use KE h 1.6
1.62 1019
KEmax 4.09 1.6 2.49ev 2.5ev
Key : 1
142. When a light of wavelength and photon energy 2 eV falls on a metal surface, electrons are emitted with
maximum speed v. If the wavelength is decreased by 25 % the maximum speed of the emitted electron
becomes 2v. The work function of the metal surface is
a) 2.4 eV b) 1.78 eV
c) 4.2 eV d) 3.6 eV
hc
Sol : 2eV
3
When decreased by 25% then '
4
hc 4 hc 8
eV
' 3 3
hc
KE W
1 2
mv 2 W ......(i)
2
1 8
m 4v 2 W ......(ii)
2 3
(i ) / (ii)
1 2 W 6 3W 16
8 3W 24 12W 9W 16 W 1.78ev
4 8 3W 8 3W 9
3
Key : 2
143. If the wavelength of the incident radiation changes from 1 to 2 , then the maximum kinetic energy of
the emitted photo electrons changes from K1 to K 2 , then the work function of the emitter surface is
K K K 2 K1
a) 1 1 2 2 b) 1 2
2 1 1 2
K 2 K1 2 1
c) d)
1 K1 2 K 2 2 K1 1 K 2
hc
Sol : Max KE , K W
hc hc
K1 W K1 W .......(i)
1 1
hc hc
K2 W K 2 W .......(ii )
2 2
Equ.(i ) / (ii )
2 K1 W
1 K 2 W
K 2 2 W 2 K11 W 1
W (2 1 ) K11 K 22
K11 K 2 2
W
2 1
Key : 1
144. When radiation of wavelength is incident on a metallic surface, the stopping potential is 4.8 volts. If
the same surface is illuminated with radiation of double the wavelength, then the stopping potential
becomes 1.6 volts. Then the threshold wavelength for the surface is
1) 2 2) 4
3) 6 4) 8
Sol : 4.8×e=hc/λ−ϕ−−−−−−−−−1)
1.6×e=hc/2λ−ϕ−−−−−−2)
From 1 and 2
so, 3(hc/2λ−ϕ)= hc/λ−ϕ
3hc/2λ−3ϕ=hc/λ−ϕ
hc/2λ=2ϕ
hc/ λT=hc/4λ=ϕ
So, threshold wavelength is 4λ.
Hence, the answer is (2).
Key : 2
145. The figure shows stopping potential V0 and frequency v for two different metallic surfaces A and B. The
work function of A, as compared to that of B is
1) less 2) more
3) equal 4) nothing can be said
Sol : From the given graph it is clear that if we extend the given graph for A and B, intercept of
the line A on V axis will be smaller as compared to line B means work function of A is
smaller than that of B.
Key : 1
146. What retarding potential is necessary to stop the emission of photoelectrons, if the work function of the
target material is 1.24eV and wavelength of incident light is 436 nm ? (Take hc = 1240 eV nm)
1) 1.6 V 2) 1.2 V 3) 2.8 V 4) 13.2 V
hc
E hn
Sol : Energy of photon,
1240eV nm
E 2.84eV
or 436 nm
According to Einstein equation for photoelectric effect
K max hu 0 2.84 1.24 1.6eV
In terms of stopping potential
K max eVS ; 1.6eV eVs , ir VS 1.6V
Key : 1
147. A metallic surface is irradiated by a monochromatic light of frequency and stopping potential is found to
be V1. If the light of frequency irradiates the surface, the stopping potential will be
h h
V1 1 2 V1 2 1
1) e 2) e
e h
V1 2 1 V1 1 2
3) h 4) e
1
K max mv 2 eVS
Sol : Maximum kinetic energy 2
Where Vs is the stopping potential.
According to Einstein’s photoelectric effect
hv1 0 eV1 ---(i)
hv2 0 eV2 -----(ii)
h v1 v2 e V1 V2
h h
v1 v2 V1 V2 V2 V1 v2 v1
e or e
Key : 2
148. A surface irradiated with light of wavelength 480 nm gives out electrons with maximum velocity v m/s,
the cut off wavelength being 600 nm. The same surface would release electrons with maximum velocity
2v m/s if it is irradiated by light of wavelength
1) 325 nm 2) 360 nm
3) 384 nm 4) 300 nm
1 2 1 1
mv hc
Sol : 2 0 ---- ( i)
1 2 1 1
m 2v hc
2 0
------ ( ii)
Divide ( i) by (ii) , we get
1 1
1 1
1 0
1 480 600
4 1 1 4 1 1
0 or 600
Solving for we get
300 nm
Key : 4
149. In a photoelectric experiment. the graph of frequency of incident light (in HZ) and stopping potential V
(in Volt) is as shown in the figure. from figure, the value of the planck’s constant is (e is the elementary
V(volt)
a
b
c
Hz
charge)
ab cb ac ac
e e e e
1) cb 2) ab 3) bc 4) ab
h
Sol : Slope = e’
------ ( i)
From the graph in the question
ab
Slope = bc ----- ( ii)
from ( i) and (ii) we get
ab
he
bc
Key : 1
150. The figure shows the variation of photocurrent with anode potential for a photo- sensitive surface for
three different radiations. Let I a , I b and I c and be the intensities and a ,b and c be the frequencies
for the curves a, b and c respectively Then
Photocurrent
c
b a
O Anode potential
a b I I
1) and a b
2) a c and I a Ic
3) a b and I a Ib
4) b c and Ib Ic
Sol : From the graph, we note that the saturation
current is same for curves b and c but different for curve a. Therefore, intensities of b and c will be
equal but different from that of a i.e. I a Ib but
Ib I c
As stopping potential is same for curves a
and b, hence . a b Thus answer (1) is correct
Key : 1
151. Two photons of energies twice and thrice the work function of a metal surface. Then the ratio of
maximum velocities of the photoelectrons emitted in the two cases respectively is
1) 2 :1 2) 3 :3
3) 3: 2 4) 1 : 2
Sol : Let 0 be the work function of a metal surface
Given : E1 20 and E2 30
According to Einsten’s photoelectric equation
Incident energy = Work function + Maximum kinetic energy of an emitted electrons
E1 0 K max ------------ (i)and
1
E K
and 2 0 max ---------- (ii)2
or K max E1 0 ---------- (iii)
1
and K max E2 0 -------- (iv)
2
Divide ( iii) by (iv) , we get
K max1 20 0 1
K max 2 30 0 2
2
vmax 1 vmax1 1
2
1
vmax 2 vmax 2 2
or 2
or
Key : 4
152. The electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state ( n = 3) to its ground state ( n = 1) and the
photons thus emitted irradiate a photosensitive material. If the work function of the material is 5.1 eV,
13.6
the stopping potential is estimated to be ( the energy of the electron in nth state En 2 eV)
n
1) 5.1 V 2) 12.1 V
3) 17.2 V 4) 7V
Sol : Energy released when electron in the atom jumps from excited state ( n = 3) to ground state ( n = 1) is
13.6 13.6
E h E3 E1 2
32 1
13.6
13.6 12.1eV
9
Therefore, stopping potential
eVs h 0 = 12.1 - 5.1;
[ Work function 0 5.1 ev]
Key : 4
153. Photons with energy 5eV are incident on a cathode C in a photoelectric cell. The maximum energy of
emitted photoelectrons is 2eV. When photons of energy 6eV are incident on C, no photoelectrons will
reach the anode A, if the stopping potential of A relative to C is
1) - 1 V 2) - 3V 3) + 3V 4) + 4V
1 2
eVs mvmax hv 0
Sol : 2
2 5 0 0 3eV
In second case
eVs 6 3 3eV Vs 3V
VAC 3V
Key : 2
154. A photosensitive metallic surface is illuminated alternately with lights of wavelength 3100 Å and 6200
Å. It is observed that maximum speeds of the photoelectrons in two cases are in ratio 2: 1. The work
Function of the metal is (hc = 12400 eVÅ)
(1) 1 eV (2) 2 eV
4 2
(3) eV (4) eV
3 3
1
Sol : m (2V ) 2 (4eV ) … (1)
2
1
m(V ) 2 (2eV ) … (2)
2
Solving equations (1) and (2)
1
4. mv 2
2 4ev 4
; eV
1 2 2ev 3
mv
2
Key : 3
155. If the light of wavelength is incident on metal surface, the ejected fastest electron has speed v . If the
3
wavelength is changed to , the speed of the fastest emitted electron will be
4
4 4
1) smaller than v 2) greater than v
3 3
3) 2v 4) zero
hc 1 2
Sol : w mv ..............(1)
2
4hc 1
w mv12 ...................(2)
3 2
4v2 2w
From 1 and 2 v1
3 3m
4
v1
3
Key : 2
156. The stopping potential (V0)-frequency (v) graph for a given emitter surface is given. The threshold
wavelength is
2V
( V0 )
1V
5 6 7 8
( V x 1014 HZ)
1) 4500A0 2) 6000A0 3) 5000 A0
4) cannot be estimated from given data
hc c
Sol : Vo 5 x1014 ; W ho ; o
o o
3 108
6000 A0
5 1014
Key : 2
157. When a piece of metal is illuminated by a monochromatic light of wavelength , then stopping potential
is 3Vs. When same surface is illuminated by light of wavelength 2 , the stopping potential becomes Vs.
The value of threshold wavelength for photoelectric
effect is
4
1) 4 2) 8 3) 4) 6
3
1 1
Sol : 3eVs hc (1)
0
1 1
And eVs hc (2)
2 0
1 1
0 ( )2
3 o
1 1 o 2
2 o
3o 6 2o 2 ; 0 4
Key : 1
158. Light of two different frequencies whose photons have energies 1 eV and 2.5 eV respectively illuminate
to same metallic surface of work function 0.5 eV. Ratio of maximum speeds of emitted electrons will be
1) 1:4 2) 1:2 3) 1:1 4) 1:5
1 2
Sol : mv E Wo
2
v1 E1 Wo
v2 E2 Wo
1 0.5 0.5 1 1
2.5 0.5 2 4 2
Key :2
159. A photon of energy h is absorbed by a free electron of a metal having work function h
1) The electron is sure to come out
2) The electron is sure to come out with a kinetic energy h
3) Either the electron doesn’t come out or it come out with a kinetic energy h
4) It may come out with kinetic energy less than h
Sol : It may come out with kinetic energy less than h
Key :4
160. The graph between 1/ and stopping potential (V) of three metals having work functions 1 , 2 and 3
in an experiment of photoelectric effect is plotted as shown in the figure. Which of the following
statement (s) is/are correct ? (Here is the wavelength of the incident ray).
i) Ratio of work functions 1 : 2 : 3 1: 2 : 4
ii) Ratio of work function 1 : 2 : 3 4 : 2 :1
iii) tan is directly proportional to hc/e, where h is planck’s constant and c is the speed of light
iv) The violet colour light can eject photoelectrons form metal 2 and 3.
1) i, iii 2) i, ii 3) ii, iv 4) iii, iv
Sol : From the relation,
hc hc 1
eV or V
e e
This is equation of straight line.
hc
Slope is tan
e
hc hc hc
1 : 2 : 3 : : 1: 2 : 4
01 02 03
1 0
0.001nm1 or 01 10000 A
01
1 0
0.002nm 1 or 02 5000 A
02
1 0
0.004nm 1 or 03 25000 A
03
0
Violet colour has wavelength 4000 A .
So, violet colour can eject photoelectrons from metal – 1 and metal -2
Key : 1
161. Electrons with de-Broglie wavelength fall on the target in an X-ray tube. The cut-off wavelength of the
emitted X-rays is :-
h h
Sol :
p 2 mKE
h2 2 mc 2
EK , 0
2 m 2 h
Key : 1
162. The wavelength of most energetic X-rays emitted when a metal target is bombarded by 40 keV electrons,
is approximately:-
(1) 300 Å (2) 10 Å
(3) 4 Å (4) 0.31 Å
0 12400
Sol : A
E (ev)
Key : 4
163. The dependence of the short wavelength limit min on the accelerating potential V is represented by the
curve of figure
B
log min
A
C
logV
1) A 2) B 3) C 4) None of these
hc hc 1
Sol : K max h h 0 i.e. graph between Kmax and will be straight line having slope (hc) and
0
hc
intercept on – KE axis
0
Key : 1
164. The graph that correctly represents the relation of frequency of a particular characteristic X-ray with the
atomic number Z of the material is
Z Z
1) I 2) I
Z Z
3) I 4) I
Sol : By Moseley’s law, a( Z b ) or, a 2 (Z b )2
Comparing with the equation of a parabola, y 2 4 ax it conforms to graph c.
Key : 3
165. X - rays are diffracted from a crystal of lattice plane spacing 2A0. The maximum wavelength that can be
diffracted is
1) 1A0 2) 2A0 3) 2.5A0 4) 4A0
Sol : According to Bragg’s formula
2d sin and d 2 A0
for maximum wavelength max 2d
max 4A0
Key : 4
166. Electrons with de Broglie wavelength fall on the target in an X- ray tube. The cut-off wavelength of the
emitted X - rays is
2mc 2 2h
0 0
1) h 2) mc
2m 2 c 2 3
0
3) h2 4) 0
Sol : Let K be the kinetic of the incident electron. Its linear momentum p 2mk The de Broglie wavelength is
h h h2
K
related to the linear momentum as or p 2mk 2 m 2
The cut -off wavelength of the emitted X- ray is related to the kinetic energy of incident electron
as
hc h2 2mc 2
K 2
0
0 2m h
Key : 1
167. There are two sources of light each emitting with a power of 100W. One emits X-rays of wavelength
1nm and the other visible light at 500nm. The ratio of number of photons of X-rays to the photons of
visible light of the given wavelength
1) 1 : 50 2) 1 : 5000 3) 1 : 54) 1 : 500
Sol : Let wavelength X-rays - 1 ; wavelength of visible light 2
Here power and hence E is const.
E hc hc
P n1 n2
t 1 2
n n n 1
1 2 1 1
1 2 n2 2 500
Key : 4
168. When a beam of accelerated electrons hits a target a continuous X-ray spectrum is emitted from the
target. Which of the following wavelengths is absent in X-ray spectrum, if the X-ray tube is operating at
40,000 volts
0 0 0 0
1) 1.5 A 2) 1.0 A 3) 0.5 A 4) 0.25 A
hc 12400 1.24 0
Sol : min 0.31A
eV 40000 4
0
Wavelength less than 0.31 A is absent
Key : 4
169. If an X-ray spectrum is formed due to transition of an electron from an outer shell to an inner shell and if
we consider the spectral lines K , L and M , then
1) K and L have a common inner shell
2) K and L have a common outer shell
3) L and M have a common outer shell
4) L and M have a common inner shell
Sol : L is transition from N to L
M is transition from N to M
In both of them, the outer shell is same.
Key : 3
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENTS-2
DAY – 16 (DT 23-04-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Chapter : Electromagnetic Waves
============================================================================
1. The average energy density of an electromagnetic wave given by E 50 N / C sin t kx will be
nearly:
8 3 7 3 6 3 5 3
1) 10 J / m 2) 10 J / m 3) 10 J / m 4) 10 J / m
1 1 2
Sol: Average energy density of electromagnetic wave, U av. 0 E0 8.85 10 50
2 12
2 2
10 8 J / m 3
Key:1
2. The average magnetic energy density of an electromagnetic wave of wavelength travelling in free
space is given by(peak magnetic field = B0)
B20 B20 2B20 B0
1) 2 2) 2 0 3) 0 4) 0
Sol: Energy density of an electromagnetic wave is
1 1 B2
U 0 E 2
2 2 0
B2
So, the magnetic energy density is
20
Key:2
3. The rms value of the electric field of the light coming from the Sun is 720 N/C. The averagetotal
energy density of the electromagnetic wave is
9 3 12 3
1) 6.37 10 J / m 2) 81.35 10 J / m
3) 81.35 1012 J / m3
4) 4.58 106 J / m3
1 2
Sol: Average energy density
2
0 Erms 2
1 2 2
2
0 E rms
2 0 E rms
12
8.8 10 720 720 4.58 10 6 J / m 3
Key:4
4. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetizing fields are 100 V/m and 0.265 A/m,
respectively. The maximum energy flow is
(1) 26.5 W/m2 (2) 36.5 W/m2 (3) 46.7 W/m2 (4) 765 W/m2
Sol : Maximum rate of energy flow, S=E0H0
Given, E0 = 100 V/m, H0 = 0.265 A/m
S = 100 × 0.265 = 26.5 W/m2
Key : 1
5. The energy of gamma (γ) ray photon is Eγ and that of an X-ray photon is EX. If the visible
light photon has an energy of Ev, then we can say that
(1) E X E Ev (2) E Ev E X (3) E EX Ev (4) E X Ev E
Sol : E 1 MeV , E X 100eV to100 keV
and Ev 1.6 eV to 3.4 eV
So, we can say that E E X Ev .
Key : 3
6. The energy of the em waves is of the order of 15 keV. To which part of the spectrum does it
belong?
(1) γ-rays (2) X-rays (3) Infrared rays (4) Ultraviolet rays
Sol : Wavelength of the ray
hc 0
0.826 A
E
0
Since 100 A
So it is X-ray
Key : 2
7. In an electromagnetic wave, the electric and magnetising fields are100 Vm1 and 0.265 Am 1 . The
maximum energy flow is
1) 26.5 W / m 2 2) 36.5 W / m 2 3) 46.7 W / m 2 4) 765 W / m 2
Sol: Here E0 100V / m, B0 0.265A / m
Maximum rate of energy flow S E0 B0
100 0.265 26.5W / m 2
Key: 1
8. A lamp emits monochromatic green light uniformly in all directions. The lamp is 3% efficient in
converting electrical power to electromagnetic waves and consumes 100W of power. The amplitude of
the electric field associated with the electromagnetic radiation at a distance of 10m from the lamp will
be
1) 1.34 V/m 2) 2.68 V/m 3) 5.36 V/m 4) 9.37 V/m
1 P P
Sol: Sav 0 cE 02 2
E0
2 4R 2R 2 0C
3
1.34 V / m
2 3.14 100 8.85 10 12 3 108
Key: 1
9. A linearly polarised E.M. wave given as E E0 i cos Kz t is incident normally an a perfectly
reflecting infinite wall at Z=a. if wall material is optically inactive the reflected wave will be given as
1) Er E0 i cos Kz t
2) Er E0 i cos t Kz
3) Er E0 i cos Kz t
4) Er E0 i sin t Kz
Key:2
10. A plane electromagnetic wave propagating in the x-direction has wavelength of 6.0 mm. The
electric field is in the y-direction and its maximum magnitude of 33 Vm–1. The equation for
the electric field as function of x and t is
(1) 11 sin (t–x/c) (2) 33 sin ×1011 (t–x/c)
(3) 33 sin (t–x/c) (4) 11 sin ×1011 (t–x/c)
Sol : Angular frequency,
2 c 2 3 108
2 v 3
1011 rad s 1
6 10
The equation for the electric field, along y-axis for electromagnetic wave is
x
E y E0 sin t 33sin 1011 t x / c
c
Key : 2
11. An electromagnetic wave going through vacuum is described by E=E0sin(kx–t),
B=B0sin(kx–t). Which of the following equations is true?
(1) E0 k B0 (2) E0 B0 k (3) E0 B0 k (4) None of the
above
E0
Sol : As, c
B0
2
Also, k and 2 v
These relations give E0 k B0
Key : 1
12. If the magnitude field of a light wave oscillates parallel to y-axis and is given by
B y Bm sin kz t , the direction of wave travel and the axis along which the electric vector
oscillates is
(1) ve y axis, z axis (2) ve z axis, x axis (3) ve x axis, y axis (4)
ve x axis, z axis
Sol : Given By Bm sin kz t .
According to this equation the direction of propagation is along z-axis the direction of electric vector
must be perpendicular both y and z-axis. So it is along x-axis.
Key : 2
13. The magnetic field of plane electromagnetic wave is given by
By 2 107 sin 0.5 103 x 1.5 1011 t
The electromagnetic wave is
(1) a visible light (2) an infrared wave (3) a microwave (4) a radio wave
Sol : We have, By 2 10 sin 0.5 10 x 1.5 10 t
7 3 11
Comparing with the standard equation, we get
B y B0 sin kx t k 0.5 103
2
0.01256
0.5 103
The wavelength range of microwaves is 10–3 to 0.3. The wavelength of this wave lies between 10–3
to 0.3, so the equation represents a microwave.
Key : 3
14. Statement A: The electromagnetic waves of shorter wavelength can travel longer distances on earth’s
surface than those of longer wavelengths.
Statement B: shorter the wavelength, the larger is the velocity of wave propagation .
Also, shorter the wavelength, shorter is the velocity of wave propagation.
1) Statement A and Statement B are correct and B is correct explanation of A
2) Both Statement A and Statement B are correct but B is not correct explanation of A
3) Statement A is correct and Statement B is incorrect
4) Both Statement A and B are incorrect
Key:1
15. The electric field associated with an em wave in vacuum is given by E 40cos(kx 6 108 t ) volt/m.
The value of k is
1) 6 m1 2) 3m1 3) 2 m1 4) 0.5 m 1
w
Sol: Wave velocity =
K
Key:3
16. The electric and magnetic field of an electromagnetic wave are
1) In opposite phase and perpendicular to each other
2) In opposite phase and parallel to each other
3) In phase and perpendicular to each other
4) In phase and parallel to each other
Sol: Elec. And mag. waves will be always perpendicular and in phase
Key:1
17. In an EM wave propagating along X-direction magnetic field oscillates at a frequency of 3×1010 Hz
along Y-direction and has an amplitude of 10–7T.The expression for electric field will be :-
(1) Ez = 30 sin 2 (100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
(2) Ez = 300 sin 2 (100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
(3) Ey = 30 sin 2 (100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
(4) Ez = 300 sin 2 (100x – 3×1010 t) V/m
8 7
Sol: E0 = C B0 = 3 10 10 = 30.
Electric field oscillations are along Z-axis E B direction of em wave
Key:1
18. An electromagnetic wave, going through vacuum is described by E E0 sin kx t . Which of the
following is independent of wavelength
1) k 2) 3) k / 4) k
2
Sol: The angular wave number k ; where is the wavelength. The angular frequency is w 2v.
k 2 / 1 1
The ratio = constant
2v v c
Key: 3
19. A circular ring of radius r is placed in homogenous magnetic field perpendicular to the plane of the
ring. The field B changes with time according to the equation B=Kt, where K is a constant and t is the
time. The electric field in the ring is
Kr Kr Kr K
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 3 2 2r
d d Kr
Sol: E.dI B or E2r Kt r 2 or E
dt dt 2
Key: 3
20. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components to the intensity of
EM waves is
1) 1 : 1 2) C 2 :1 3) C :1 4) C :1
Key:1
21. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz travels in free space along the positive X-
direction. At a particular point in space and time , E 6.3 j in V/m. Then B at this point will be (in
tesla)
1. 2.1 10 6 k
2. 2.1 10 6 k
3. 2.1 10 6 j
4. 2.1 10 6 i
Sol:
Key:2
22. The amplitude of the magnetic field part of a harmonic electromagnetic wave in vacuum is B0 = 510
nT. The amplitude of the electric field part of the wave will be
1) 513V/m 2) 315V/m 3) 153V/m 4) 15.3V/m
Sol: E0 = CB0
E0 = 3 108 510 10-9 = 153 V/m.
Key:3
23. A plane electromagnetic wave of frequency 25 MHz travels in free space along the x-direction At a
particular point in space and time, E 6.3 jV / m . What is B at this point?
1) 2.1 108 K T 2) 2.1 108 K T
3) 3.5 106 K T 4) 3.0 105 K T
Key:1
24. In an apparatus, the electric field was found to oscillate with an amplitude of 18 V/m. The magnitude
of the oscillating magnetic field will be
1) 4 106 T 2) 6 108 T 3) 9 109 T 4) 11 1011T
E E
Sol: C B
B C
Key:2
25. Amplitude of electric field in EM wave is give as E0 = 300 V/m. Amplitude of magnetic field will be :-
(1) 10–8 T (2) 10–6 T (3) 10–10 T (4) 10–7 T
Sol: E0 CB0
300 3 108 B0 B0 10 6 T
Key:2
26. A radio receiver antenna that is 2m long is oriented along the direction of the electromagnetic wave
and receives a signal of intensity 5 1016 W / m 2 . The maximum instantaneous potential difference
across the two ends of the antenna is
1) 1.23 V 2) 1.23mV 3) 1.23V 4) 12.3mV
1 2I 2 5 10 16 V
Sol: I 0CE 02 E 0 0.61 106
2 0 C 8.85 m
V
Also E0 0 V0 E 0d 0.61106 2 1.23V
d
Key: 1
27. An EM wave radiates out wards from a dipole antenna. E0 is amplitude of electric field vector. The
electric field E0 which transports significant energy from the source falls off as
1 1 1
1) 3 2) remains constant 3) 2 4)
r r r
Key:4
28. The electric field intensity produced by the radiations coming from 100W bulb at a 3m distance is E.
The electric field intensity produced by the radiations coming From 50 W bulb at the same distance is
1) E/2 2) 2E 3) E / 2 4) 2E
Key: 3
29. A sensor is exposed for time t to a lamp of power P placed at a distance . The sensor has a circular
opening that is 4d in diameter. Assuming all energy of the lamp is given off as light, the number of
photons entering the sensor if the wave length of light is is
( >> d)
P d 2t 4P d 2t P d 2t P d 2t
(1) (2) (3) (4)
hc 2 hc2 4hc 2 16hc2
p 2 n hc pd 2 t
Sol: (2d) t ; n
4 2 hcl 2
Key:1
30. In an electromagnetic wave the rms value of electric field is 100 V/m. The intensity of the wave is
1) 30.2 W/m 2 2) 15.3 W/m 2 3) 26.5 W/m 2 4) 15.7 W/m 2
2
Sol: I Erms 0c
2
I= 100 8.85 10 12 3 108
I= 26.5W / m2
Key:3
31. The intensity of solar radiation at the earths surface is 1Kw m-2. The power entering the Pupil of an eye
of diameter 0.5 cm is
1) 39.2 mw 2) 19.6 mw 3) 9.8 mw 4) 4.9 mw
2
Sol: P I r
Key:2
32. How many photons of a radiation of wavelength 5 107 m must fall per second on a blackened
plate in order to produce a force of 6.62 105 N ? At what rate will be temperature of plate rise if its
mass is 19.86kg and specific heat is equal to 2500 J kg K 1 ?
1) 4 1022 , 6 10 2 / o Cs 1 2) 5 1022 , 4 102 / o Cs 1
3) 8 1022 , 2 102 / o Cs 1 4) 6 1022 , 8 102 / o Cs 1
Sol: If n is the number of photons falling per second on the plate, then the total momentum per second of the
h
incident photons is P n
Since the plate is blackened, all photons are absorbed by it
P h P h F. 6.62 105 5 107
n ; Since F n n or n 5 1022
t t h 6.62 1034
hc
Energy of each photon
Since n photons fall on the plate per second, the total energy absorbed by the plates in one second is
hc dQ dT
E n 1986 Js 1 ; i.e., 1986Js 1; mc 1986
dt dt
dT
1986 / 19.86 2500 4 10 2 / o Cs 1
dt
Key: 2
33. A plane electromagnetic wave of wave intensity 6 W / m 2 strikes a small mirror area 40cm 2 , held
perpendicular to the approaching wave. The momentum transferred by the wave to the mirror each
second will be
1) 6.4 10 7 kg m / s 2 2) 4.8 103 kg m / s 2
3) 3.2 10 9 kg m / s 2 4) 1.6 1010 kg m / s 2
2U 2Sav A 2 6 40 10 4
Sol: Momentum transferred in one second p 8
1.6 1010 kg m / s 2
c c 3 10
Key: 4
34. Light with an energy flux of 25 104 watt / m2 falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal
incidence. If the surface area is 15 cm 2 , the average force exerted on the surface is
1) 2.5 106 N 2) 1.2 106 N 3) 3 106 N 4) 1.25 106 N
2 IA 2 25 10 4 15 10 4
Sol: F 8
2.5 10 6 N
C 3 10
Key:1
35. Electromagneticwave of intensity 1400 W/m2 falls on metal surface on area 1.5m2 is completely
absorbed by it. The force exerted by beam
1) 14 10 5 N 2) 14 10 6 N 3) 7 105 N 4) 7 106 N
IA 1400 1.5
Sol: F 8
7 106 N
C 3 10
Key: 4
36. Light with energy flux of 24Wm-2 is incident on a well polished disc of radius 3.5cm for one hour. The
momentum transferred to the disc is
1) 1.1 kg ms 1 2) 2.2 kg ms 1 3) 3.3 kg ms 1 4) 4.4 kg ms 1
2U 2 I At 2 I R 2 t 2 24 3.14 3.5 3.5 104 3600
Sol: P P
C C , C , 3 108
Key:2
37. Light with energy flux 36w/cm2 is incident on a well polished metal square plate of side 2cm. The
force experienced by it is
1) 0.96 N 2) 0.24 N 3) 0.12 N 4) 0.36 N
2U 2 I At IA 2 36 4
Sol: F 2 96 108 0.96 N
Ct Ct C 3 108
Key:1
38. A plane electromagnetic wave is incident on a material surface. If the wave delivers momentum p and
energy E, then:
1) p = 0, E = 0 2) p 0, E 0 3) p 0, E = 0 4) p = 0, E 0
Sol: An electromagnetic wave has both momentum and energy.
Key:2
39. A photon and an electron have the same de Broglie wavelength. Which has greater total energy?
Explain.(E1: photon energy, E2: electron energy)
1) E2 E1 2) E1 E2 3) E1 E2 4) E1 3E 2
Sol: Let be the de Broglie wavelength of the electron and also the wavelength of the photon. If m and v are
the mass and the velocity of the electron, then de Broglie wavelength of the electron
h
mv
hc
Energy of the photon having wavelength , E1
mv
Since wavelength of the photon is same as that of the electron, E1 hc or E1 mvc ----(i)
h
According to Einstein’s mass-energy equivalence relation, the energy of the electron (mass m)
E 2 mc 2 mc c -----(ii)
Since c v, from Eqs. (i) and (ii), it follows that E2 E1
i.e., the total energy of electron is greater than that of the photon.
Key: 1
40. The oscillating electric and magnetic vectors of an electromagnetic wave are oriented along
1) The same direction but differ in phase by 900
2) The same direction and are in phase
3) Mutually perpendicular directions and are in phase
4) Mutually perpendicular directions and differ in phase by 900
Sol: E and B are mutually perpendicular to each other and are in phase i.e., they become zero and minimum
at the same place and at the same time
Key: 3
41. The speed of light in an isotropic medium depends on
(1) the nature of the source (2) its wavelength
(3) its direction of propagation (4) its intensity
Sol : The speed of light in an isotropic medium depends on its wavelength.
Key : 2
42. For a medium with permittivity and permeability μ, the velocity of light is given by
(1) / (2) (3) 1 / (4) /
Sol : Velocity of light 1 / , where μ is permeability and ε is permittivity of the medium.
Key : 3
43. In electromagnetic spectrum, the frequencies of γ-rays, X-rays and ultraviolet rays are
denoted by n1, n2 and n3 respectively, then
(1) n1 n2 n3 (2) n1 n2 n3 (3) n1 n2 n3 (4) n1 n2 n3
16 14
Sol : Frequency range of ultraviolet rays 10 8 10 n3
Frequency range of X-rays 3 1019 1016 n2
Frequency range of γ-rays 5 1020 3 1019 n1
n1 n2 n3
Key : 1
44. Out of the following options which one can be used to produce a propagating
electromagnetic wave?
(1) A charge moving at constant velocity (2) A stationary charge
(3) A chargeless particle (4) An accelerating charge
Sol : To generate electromagnetic waves we need accelerating charge particle.
Key : 4
45. The wavelength of X-rays is in the range
(1) 0.01 Å to 1Å (2) 0.001 nm to 1 nm
(3) 0.001 μm to 1μm (4) 0.001 cm to 1 cm
Sol : X-rays wavelength range 11011 mto1108 m 0.001 nm to 1 nm
Key : 2
46. The electromagnetic wave having the shortest wavelength is
(1) X-rays (2) γ-rays (3) infrared rays (4) microwaves
Sol : The electromagnetic wave having the shortest wavelength is γ-rays.
Key : 2
47. An electromagnetic radiation has an energy of 13.2 keV. Then, the radiation belongs to the
region of
(1) visible light (2) ultraviolet (3) infrared (4) X-ray
hc
Sol : Energy of a photon, E
hc 6.6 1034 3 108
Wavelength,
E 13.2 103 1.6 1019
0
0.9375 1010 m 1A
Wavelength range of X-rays is from 10–11 m to 10–8 m [i.e., 0.1Å to 100Å]
Therefore, the given electromagnetic radiation belongs to the X-ray region of electromagnetic
spectrum.
Key : 4
48. Green-house effect is the heating up of earth’s atmosphere due to
(1) green plants (2) Infrared rays (3) X-rays (4) Ultraviolet rays
Sol : Infrared rays is the cause of greenhouse effect. The glass transmits visible light and short infrared rays
which are absorbed by plants. Then it emits long infrared rays, which are reflected back by glass.
Key : 2
49. Which of the following is not true for electromagnetic waves?
1) transport energy
2) they have momentum
3) they travel at different speeds in air depending on their frequency
4) they travel at different speeds in medium depending on their frequency
Key:3
50. The ultra high frequency band of radiowaves in electromagnetic wave is used as in
1) television waves 2)cellular phone communication
3) commercial FM radio 4) both 1 and 3
Key:2
51. The source of electromagnetic waves can be a charge:
(1) moving with a constant velocity
(2) moving in a circular orbit
(3) at rest (4) in an electric field
Sol: Electromagnetic wave can be produced by an accelerated or an oscillating charge. In option
(b), the charge will be in accelerated motion
Key:2
52. Infrared waves are produced by
1) decay of the nucleus
2) jumping electrons from higher to lower energy levels
3) hot bodies and molecules
4) klystron valve
Sol: Infra red rays are produced by hot bodies
Key:3
53. The velocity of light in vaccum can be changed by changing
1) Wavelength 2) Frequency 3) Amplitude 4) None of the above
Key:4
54. The relative permeability of glass is 3/8 and the dielectric constant of glass is 8. The refractive index of
glass is
1) 1.5 2) 1.1414 3) 1.732 4) 1.6
r r
Sol:
Key:3
55. The wave length of the green light of mercury is 550 nm. If the refractive index of the glass is 1.5, the
time period of the electrical vector in glass nearly (C0 3 108 ms 1 )
9 15
1) 1.8 10 S 2) 3.6 10 S
15 15
3) 9 10 S 4) 1.8 10 S
Sol: CT , T 550 10 550 10 5.5 10
9
17 15
1.8 1015 sec
C 3 108 3 3
Key: 4
56. The All India Radio station at Vijayawada transmits its signals at 840 K C/s. The length of the radio
wave is
1) 35.7 m 2) 357 m 3) 35.7 km 4) 3.57 m
C 3 108 3
C n; 3
104 357m
Sol: n 840 10 84
Key:2
57. In an electromagnetic wave in vacuum. The electrical and magnetic fields are 40 V / m and
0.4 10 7 T . The pointing vector
1 1 1 1
1) 4.4 Wm 2) 0.44 Wm 3) 5.65 Wm 4) 4.0 Wm
E B 40 0.4 107
Sol: S ; 7
4Wm1
o 4 10
Key:4
58. A long straight wire of resistance R, radius ‘a’ and length ‘L’ carries a constant current ‘I’. The
pointing vector for the wire is
IR IR2 I 2R I 2R
1) 2 a l 2) a l 3) al 4) 2 a l
EB
S
o
Sol:
Key:4
59. The electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in a medium is represented by
Ex 0;
N rad rad
E y 2.5 cos 2 106 t 102 x
C m s
Ez 0
The wave is
1) Moving along y-direction with frequency 2 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m
2) Moving long x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 100m
3) Moving along x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m
4) Moving along -x-direction with frequency 106 Hz and wavelength 200 m
Sol: Comparing with standard equation E y Eo cos(t kx )
2
f 106 Hz ; k 102 ; 200m
Key:3
60. Which of the following statement is false for the properties of electromagnetic waves?
1) Both electric and magnetic field vectors attain the maxima and minima at the same place and the
same time
2) The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided equally between electric and magnetic vectors
3) Both electric and magnetic field vectors are parallel to each other and perpendicular to the direction
of propagation of wave
4) These waves do not require any material medium for propagation
Sol: E and B are perpendicular and which are perpendicular direction of propagation
Key:3
61. The electric and the magnetic field, associated with an electromagnetic wave, propagating along the
+z=axis, can be represented by
E E0 kˆ, B B0 iˆ
1) 2) E E0 ˆj , B B0 ˆj
E E0 ˆj , B B0 kˆ
3) 4) E E0iˆ, B B0 ˆj
Sol: Eo iˆ Bo ˆj Eo Bo kˆ
Key:4
62. The decreasing order of wavelength of infrared, microwave, ultraviolet an gamma rays is
1) Gamm arrays, Ultraviolet, infrared, microwaves
2) Microwaves, gamm rays, infrared, ultraviolet
3) Infrared, microwave, ultraviolet, gamm rays
4) Microwave infrared, ultraviolet, gamma rays
Key:4
63.The electric field associated with an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is given by
E iˆ 40 cos ( kz 6 108 t ), where E, z and t are in volt/m, metre and second respectively. The value of
wave vector k is
1 1 1 1
1) 2 m 2) 0.5 m 3) 6 m 4) 3 m
8
E Eo cos(kz t ) ; K 6 10 2m1
Sol:
v 3 108
Key:1
64. A radiation of energy ‘E’ falls normally on perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum transferred to
the surface is (C=velocity of light)
E 2E 2E E
2 2
1) C 2) C 3) C 4) C
E
P 2 P 2
Sol: c
Key: 2
65. The energy of the electromagnetic waves is of the order of 15 keV. To which part of the spectrum does
it belong?
1) rays 2) X-rays 3) Infrared rays 4) Ultraviolet rays
hc 12400
Ao
E E electron volts 12400 o
Sol: , A
15000
Key: 2
66. The electromagnetic waves do not transport
1) Charge 2) Energy 3) Momentum 4) Information
Key: 1
67. The conduction current is same as displacement current when source is
1) AC only 2) DC only 3) Both AC or DC 4) Neither DC nor AC
Key: 3
68. Maxwell’s equation B. ds 0 is a statement of
1) Faraday’s law of induction 2) Modified Ampere’s law
3) Gauss’s law of electricity 4) Gauss’s law of magnetism
Key: 4
d
69. The Maxwell’s equation B. dl 0 I o is a statement of
dt
1) Faraday’s law of induction 2) Modified Ampere’s law
3) Gauss’s law of electricity 4) Gauss’s law of magnetism
Key: 2
70. The charging current for a capacitor at any instant is 0.25 A. The displacement current across the
capacitor plates at that instant is
1) 0.5 A 2) 0.25 A 3) 2.5A 4) 1 A
id i
Sol:
Key: 2
71. The following figure shows capacitor made of two circular plates. The capacitor is being charged by
an external source which supply constant current equal to 0.15A. Obtain displacement charged by
dV
constant current across plates. Given 1.87 109 Vs 1
dt
1) 1 A 2) 1.5 A 3) 0.15 A 4) 3 A
0dC
Sol: Displacement current Id
dt
d q
But E EA A
0A 0
d q 0 dq dq
I d 0 I
dt 0 0 dt dt
Here I 0.15A Id 0.15A
Key: 3
72. A Parallel plate condenser consists of two circular plates each of radius 2cm separated by a distance of
0.1 mm. A time varying potential difference of 5 1013V / s is applied across the plates of the
condenser. The displacement current is
2
1) 5.50 A 2) 5.56 10 A
3 4
3) 5.56 10 A 4) 2.28 10 A
A dV
i o 1 (2 102 )2
d dt 50
Sol: 9
3
51013 103 5.56 103 A
4 9 10 0.110 9
Key: 3
73. The area of each plate of a parallel plated condenser is 144 cm2. The electrical field in the gap between
the plates changes at the rate of 1012 Vm-1s-1. The displacement current is
4 0.4 40 1
A A A A
1) 2) 3) 4) 10
1 1 0.4
dE 9
144 104 1012 4 101 A
Sol: I o A 4 9 10
dt , ,
Key: 2
74. The charge on a parallel plate capacitor is varying as q q0 sin 2 f t . The plates are very large and
close together. Neglecting edge effects, the displacement current through the capacitor is
q
1) 2) 2 fq0 cos 2 f t
0
2 fq0
cos 2 f t
3) 0 4) 2 fq sin 2 f t
0
dq
Sol: qo cos(2 f t ) 2 f
dt
Key: 2
75. A condenser is charged using a constant current. The ratio of the magnetic fields at a distance of R/2
and R from the axis is (R) is the radius of plate)
1) 1:1 2) 2:1 3) 1:2 4) 1:4
o ir oi
Bin 2
Bout
Sol: 2 R ; 2 R
R
2
2
R
B1 1
B2 1 2
R
Key: 3
76. The magnetic field between the plates of radius 12 cm separated by distance of 4mm of a parallel plate
capacitor of capacitance 100 pF. Along the axis of plates having conduction current of 0.15 A is
1) Zero 2) 1.5 T 3) 15 T 4) 0.15 T
i r
B o D2
Sol: 2 R
Key: 1
77. Which of the following statement is true for displacement current :-
(1) It is due to drift of electrons in a conductor
(2) It is due to diffusion of electrons in a semi-conductor
(3) It is due to change in electric flux with time
(4) It is due to change in magnetic flux with time
d E
Sol: id E 0 dt
Key: 3
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT
DAY – 17 (DT 26-04-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Chapter : ATOMS
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
PHYSICS
1 2
1. An particle of energy mv bombards a heavy target of change Ze. Then the distance of closest
2
approach for the particle will be proportional to
1) v 2 2) 1/ m 3) 1/ v 4 4) 1/ Ze
1
Sol : mv 2 ke
Ze 2e r 1
, 0
2 r0 m
Key : 2
2. An- particle accelerated through V volt is fired towards a nucleus. Its distance of closest approach
is r. If a proton is accelerated through the same potential and fired towards the same nucleus, the
distance of closest approach of proton will be
1)r 2) 2r 3) r/2 4) r/4
Kq Ze
Sol : qV ; r is independent of q
r
Key : 1
3. Alpha particles are fired at a nucleus. Which of the paths shown in figure is not possible ?
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
Sol : Path three is not possible
Key : 3
4. A charged particle q is shot towards another charged particle Q which is fixed with a speed v. It
approaches Q upto a closest distance r and then returns. It q is shot with speed 2v then the closest
distance of approach would be
r r
(1) (2) (3) 2r (4) r
4 2
1 r v2 4 r
Sol : v 2 ; 1 22 ; r2
r r2 v1 1 4
Key : 2
5. When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state to an excited state:
1) both KE and PE increase 2) both KE and PE decrease
3) the PE decreases and KE increases 4) the PE increases and KE decreases
2 2
e e
Sol : As PE ke and KE ke , when atom is raised to excited state, r increase and PE increase
r 2r
(i.e., becomes less negative and KE decrease
Key : 4
6. The electron in the hydrogen atom jumps from excited state ( n = 3) to its ground state ( n = 1) and
the photons thus emitted irradiate a photosensitive material. If the work function of the material is
5.1eV, the stopping potential is estimated to be:
1) 5.1V 2) 12.1V 3) 17.2V 4) 7V
Sol : Energy of the emitted photon, hv E3 E1
13.6eV 13.6eV
12.1eV
32 12
hv 0 12.1eV 5.1eV
As hv eV0 0 , V0 7V
e e
Key : 4
7. Which of the following transitions in hydrogen atoms emits photon of highest frequency ?
1) n = 1 to n = 2 2) n = 2 to n = 6 3) n = 6 to n = 2 4) n = 2 to n = 1
Sol : Highest frequency emission will be of maximum energy difference.
Energy difference is more in n=2n=2 to n=1n=1 than n=6n=6 to n=2.n=2.
Key :4
8. The wavelengths involved in the spectrum of deuterium 12 H are slightly different from those of
hydrogen spectrum, because
1) sizes of the two nuclei are different 2) masses of the two nuclei are different
3) attraction between the electron and the nucleus is different in the two cases
4) nuclear forces are different in the two cases
Sol : mass of 1 H 1 are different hence, the corresponding wavelength are different
Key : 2
9. The wavelength of radiation of radiation emitted is 0 when an electron in hydrogen atom jumps
from 3rd to 2nd orbit. If in the hydrogen atom itself, the electron jumps from fourth orbit to second
orbit, then wavelength of emitted radiation will be
25 27 20 16
1) 0 2) 0 3) 0 4) 0
16 20 27 25
1 1 1 5R 1 1 1 3R 5 R / 36 20 20
Sol : As R 2 2 and R 2 2 , or 0
0 2 3 36 2 4 16 0 3R / 16 27 27
Key : 3
10. As the electron in Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom passes from state n = 2 to n = 1, the kinetic energy K
and potential energy U change as :
1) K two fold, U also two fold 2) K four fold, U also four fold
3) K four fold, U two fold 4) K two fold, U four fold
1
Sol : As E K U , K U constant and E 2 , by changing n 2 to n 1 , E becomes four fold
n
and so do K and U
Key : 2
11. In a Bohr atom the electron is replaced by a particle of mass 150 times the mass of the electron and
the same charge. If a0 is the radius of the first Bohr orbit of the orbital atom, then that of the new
atom will be
a0 a
1) 150 a0 2) 150 a0 3) 4) 0
150 150
Ke2 mv2
Sol : 2 ------(i)
r r
nh
mvr -------(ii)
2
1
Solving (i) and (ii) r
m
a
a 0 m r 150m r 0
150
Key : 4
12. Electrons from n=2 to n=1 in Hydrogen atom is made to fall on a metal surface with work function
1.2ev. The maximum velocity of photo electrons emitted is nearly equal to
1) 6 105 m / s 2) 3 105 m / s 3) 2 105 m / s 4) 18 105 m / s
1 1 1 3R
Sol : R 2 2
1 2 4
4
121nm
3 1.1 107
hc 1 1240 1
1.2 mv 2 1.2 mv 2
2 121 2
1 1
9.047eV mv 2 9.047 1.6 10 19 9.1 10 31 v 2
2 2
6
v 1.78 10 m / s
Key : 4
13. In hydrogen spectrum Lα line arises due to transition of electron from the orbit n=3 to the orbit n=2.
In the spectrum of single ionized helium there is a line having the same wavelength as that of the Lα
line. This due to the transition of electron from the orbit:
1) n 3 to n 2 2) n 4 to n 2 3) n 5 to n 3 4) n 6 to n 4
1 1 1
Sol : RZ2 2 2
n1 n 2
Key :4
14. Davison – Germer experiment verified
1) Particle nature of radiations 2) Particle nature of electrons
3) Wave nature of electrons 4) Transverse nature of electromagnetic radiation
Sol : Wave nature of electron
Key :3
15. Consider an electron in the nth orbit of a hydrogen atom in the Bohr model. The circumference of the
orbit can be expressed in terms of the de-broglie wavelength “ ” of that electron as
1) 0.53 n 2) n 3) 13.6 4) n
Sol : 2r n
Key :4
16. In hydrogen atom Electrons in a certain energy level “n=n1” falls to ground state can emit “3”
spectral lines. When the electrons are in another energy level “n=n2” fall to ground state they can
emit “6” spectral lines. The ratio of orbital speeds of electrons from “n1” orbit to the “n2’ orbit is
1) 4:3 2) 3:4 3) 2:1 4) 1:2
n n 1
Sol : No. of spectral lines
2
n n 1 n n 1
3 1 1 n1 3 &6 2 2 n2 4
2 2
C Z
Velocity
137 n
V1 n 2 4
V2 n1 3
Key :1
17. Whenever a hydrogen atom emits a photon in Balmer series
1) It need not emit any more photon
2) It may emit another photon in Paschen series
3) It must emit another photon in Lyman series
4) It may emit another photon in Balmer series
Sol : It must emit another photon in Lymann series
Key :3
18. The wavelengths involved in the spectrum of deuterium H are slightly different from those of
2
1
hydrogen spectrum, because
1) sizes of the two nuclei are different
2) masses of the two nuclei are different
3) attraction between the electron and the nucleus is different in the two cases
4) nuclear forces are different in the two cases
Sol : mass of 1 H 1 are different hence, the corresponding wavelength are different
Key : 2
19. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6eV, the energy required to remove the
electron from the first excited state of Li is :
1) 30.6eV 2) 13.6eV 3) 3.4eV 4) 6.8eV
13.6 2
Sol : As En Z eV , for Li ,
n2
13.6 2 122.4
En 2 3 eV 2 eV
n n
122.4
E E E2 0 2 eV 30.6eV
2
Key : 1
20. When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state to an excited state :
1) both KE and PE increase 2) both KE and PE decrease
3) the PE decreases and KE increases 4) the PE increases and KE decreases
2 2
e e
Sol : As PE ke and KE ke , when atom is raised to excited state, r increase and PE increase
r 2r
(i.e., becomes less negative and KE decrease
Key : 4
21. In a hypothetical system, a particle of mass m and charge -5q is moving around a very heavy particle
of charge q. Assume that Bohr’s model is applicable to this system, the velocity of mass m in first
orbit is
3q 2 3q 2 5q 2 5q 2
1) 2) 3) 4)
2 0 h 4 0 h 2 0 h 4 0 h
K 5q 2 mv2
Sol : -------(1)
r2 r
nh
mvr -------(2)
2
Solving (1) and (2)
10Kq 2 .
V
nh
5q 2
For 1st orbit V
2 0 h
Key : 3
22. When an electron jumps from higher orbit to the second orbit in hydrogen , the radiation emitted out
will be in R 1.09 107 m 1 :
1) ultraviolet 2) visible region 3) infrared region 4) X-ray region
1 1 1 1 2 1 1
Sol : RZ2 2 2 R 1 2
n1 n 2 2
4
366 nm
1.09 107
Key : 2
23. An orbital electron in the ground state of hydrogen has the magnetic moment 1 .This orbital
electron is excited to 3rd excited state by some energy transfer to the hydrogen atom. The new
magnetic moment of the electron is 2 , then
1) 1 22 2) 21 2 3) 161 2 4) 41 2
e 2
Sol : 1 iA .r
T
e.V 2 C Z n2
.r e . 0.529
2r 137 n Z
2 n 2 4
n ;
1 n1 1
Key :4
24. Magnetic field at the centre ( at nucleus ) of the hydrogen like atom ( atomic number =Z ) due to the
motion of electron in nth orbit is proportional to
n3 n4 Z2 Z2
1) 5 2) 3) 3 4) 5
Z Z n n
i eV 1
Sol : B 0 0
2r 2r 2r
V Z.Z2 Z3
B B B
r2 n.n 4 n5
Key :4
25. A charged particle is moving in a uniform magnetic field in a circular path. The kinetic energy of the
particle is now doubled. If the initial radius of the circular path was R, the radius of the new circular
path will be
1) R/2 2) 2 R 3) 2R 4) R/2
2
mV qBR
Sol : qVB V
R m
2 2 2
1 q B R 2
K.E. m 2 ; K.E. R
2 m
K.E 2 R 22
R2 R 2
K.E1 R 2
Key :2
0.51 1010
26. The radius of the smallest electron orbit in hydrogen-like ion is metre; then it is :
4
1) hydrogen atom 2) He+ 3) Li2+ 4) Be+3
Sol : Radius of nth orbit
n2
rn r0 Be3
2
Key :4
27. The wavelength of the least energetic photon in the Balmer spectrum of hydrogen atom is :-
1) 365 nm 2) 656 nm 3) 912 nm 4) 725 nm
1 1 1
Sol : R 2 2 , For Balmer n1=2
n1 n2
Key :2
28. A gamma ray photon creates an electron positron pair. If the rest mass energy of an electron is
0.5MeV and the total kinetic energy of the electron positron of pair is 0.78 MeV, then the
energy of the gamma ray photon must be :
1) 0.78 MeV 2) 1.78 MeV 3) 1.28 MeV 4) 0.28 MeV
Sol : e1 e1
E 0.5 0.5 0.78
E 1.78 Mev
Key :2
29. Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom correspond to increasing values of energy i.e., EA<EB<EC.
If 1, 2, 3 are the wavelengths of radiation corresponding to the transition C toB, B to A and C to A
respectively, which of the following relation is correct?
12
1) 3 1 2 2) 3 3) 1 2 3 0 4) 32 12 22
1 2
hc hc hc
Sol :
1 2 3
1 2 1
12 3
12
3
1 2
Key :2
30. The electric potential energy of interaction between nucleus of an atom and an electron is given by U
r
= U0 n ,where r0 is a constant. Assuming Bohr's model to be applicable, the correct relation
ro
between r (Bohr's radius) and principal quantum number (n) is :-
1 1
1) rn n 2) rn 3) rn n 2 4) rn 2
n n
12
Sol : 3
1 2
r
U eV ev0 log
r0
dU ev0
F
dr r
mv 2 ev0
r r
ev0
v
m
nh
r
2 mv
r rn n
Key :1
31. An electron of stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level. The
velocity that the atom acquired a result of photon emission will be :
(m is the mass of the atom, R is Rydberg constant and h is Planck's constant)
25m 25m 24hR 25hR
1) 2) 3) 4)
24hR 25hR 25m 24m
h1 1 1 1
Sol :V & R 2 2
m n1 n2
n2 5, n1 1
Key :3
32. The wavelength of K line from an element of atomic number 51 is . From another element the
wavelength of K line is 4 . What is the atomic number of the second element?
1) 25 2) 26 3) 100 4) 99
Sol : a Z 1
Key :2
33. A cathode ray tube contains a pair of parallel metal plates 1.0 cm apart and 3.0 cm long. A narrow
horizontal beam of electron with a velocity3 × 107 m/s passed down the tube midway between the
plates. When a potential difference of 550 V is maintained across the plates, it is found that the
electron beam is so deflected that it just strikes the end of one of the plates. Then the specific charge
of the electron in C/kg is :-
1) 1.8 × 109 2) 1.8 × 1010 3) 1.8 × 1011 4) 1.8 × 1012
1 v4
Sol : m 2 2 vq
2 d E
Key : 3
34. Ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to Lyman and Balmer series in hydrogen spectrum is:-
Sol : Forlyman n1 1, n2 2
1 1 3R
R 1 (1)
L 4 4
For Balmer n1 2, n2 3
1 1 1 5R
R (2)
B 4 9 36
5
On solving L
B 27
Key : 2
35. The radius of the smallest electron orbit in hydrogen-like ion is (0.51 × 10–10) metre; then it is :
(1) hydrogen atom (2) He+ (3) Li2+ (4) Be+3
n2
Sol : Radius of nth orbit ; rn r0 Be 3
2
Key : 4
36. An ionized gas contains both positive and negative ions. If it is subjected simultaneously to an electric
field along the +x direction and a magnetic field along the +z direction, then :-
(1) Positive ions deflect towards +y direction and negative ions towards –y direction
(2) All ions deflect towards +y direction
(3) All ions deflect towards –y direction
(4) Positive ions deflect towards –y direction and negative ions towards +y direction
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 3
37. If 13.6 eV energy is required to ionize the hydrogen atom, then the energy required to remove an
electron from n = 2 is-
(1) 10.2 eV (2) 0 eV (3) 3.4 eV (4) 6.8 eV
Sol : Erequired E E1
Key : 2
38. The largest wavelength in the ultraviolet region of the hydrogen spectrum is 122 nm. The smallest
wavelength in the infrared region of the hydrogen spectrum (to the nearest integer) is
(1) 802 nm (2) 823 nm (3) 1882 nm (4) 1648 nm
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 2
39. In Millikan's oil drop experiment an oil drop carrying a charge Q is held stationary by a potential
difference 2400V between the plates. To keep a drop of half the radius stationary the potential
difference had to be
made 600 V. What is the charge on the second drop
4 vq 4 3 vq v q
Sol : Eq 3 dg ; r 1 31 2 3 2
3 d 3 r1 r2
Key : 2
40. In an atom, two electrons move around the nucleus in circular orbits of radii R and 4R. The ratio of the
time taken by them to complete one revolution is -
(1) 1/4 (2) 4/1 (3) 8/1 (4) 1/8
1 1 1
Sol : R 2 2
n1 n2
Key : 4
41. A gamma ray photon creates an electron positron pair. If the rest mass energy of an electron is 0.5MeV
and the total kinetic
energy of the electron positron of pair is 0.78 MeV, then the energy of the gamma ray photon must be :
(1) 0.78 MeV (2) 1.78 MeV (3) 1.28 MeV (4) 0.28 MeV
Sol : e1 e1 ; E 0.5 0.5 0.78
E 1.78 Mev
Key : 1
3h
42. The angular momentum of an electron in hydrogen atom is . Here h is the Plank's constant. The
2
kinetic energy of this electron is:
(1) 4.53 eV (2) 1.51 eV (3) 3.4 eV (4) 6.8 eV
nh h
Sol : mvr , 2
2 mv
h
2 r
2mKE
Key : 2
43. Two hydrogen atoms in the ground state collide in elastically. The minimum amount by which their
kinetic energy is reduced will be :
(1)10.20 eV (2) 20.40 eV (3) 13.6 eV (4) 27.2 eV
Sol : E E2 E1
Key : 1
44. In Bohr's model of hydrogen-like species, which of the following is true?
(1) KE of electron in ground state of hydrogen atom is equal to KE of electron in n = 3 state of Li2+
(2) KE of electron in n = 3 state of hydrogen is equal to KE of electron is ground state of Li2+
(3) Energy of hydrogen atom in its ground state is equal to energy of Li2+ ion in n = 2state
(4) None of these
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 1
45. Monochromatic radiation of wavelength is incident on a hydrogen sample containing atoms in the
ground state. Hydrogen atoms absorb the light and subsequently emit radiation of ten different
wavelengths. The value of is :
(1) 95 nm (2) 103 nm (3) 73 nm (4) 88 nm
n n 1 1 1 1
Sol : and R 2
2 1 n
Key : 1
46. When the electron jumps from a level n=4 to n=1,the momentum of the recoiled hydrogen atom will be
:-
(1) 6.5×10–27 kg-ms–1
(2) 12.75×10–19 kg-ms–1
(3) 13.6×10–19 kg-ms–1 (4) zero
1 1 1 15 R
Sol : R 2 2
n1 n 16
By law of conservation at angular momentum
h h 16h
O p ; p
15R
On Solving
p 6.4 1027 kgm / s
Key : 1
47. The energy of the electromagnetic waves is of the order of 15 keV. To which part of the spectrum does
it belong?
(1) -rays (2) X-rays
(3) Infra-red rays (4) Ultraviolet rays
Sol : x-rays having energy in order of 15 kev
Key : 2
48. In Millikan's oil drop experiment an oil drop of radius r and charge Q is held in equilibrium between
the plates of a charged parallel plate capacitor when the potential difference is V. To keep a drop of
radius 2r and with a charge 2Qin equilibrium between the plates the potential difference required is:-
(1) V (2)V/2 (3) 4V (4) V/2
vq v q
Sol : 1 31 2 3 2
r1 r2
Key : 3
49. The moment of momentum for an electron in the second orbit of hydrogen atom as per Bohr's model
is:-
h 2h
(1) (2) 2 h (3) (4)
h
nw 2h h
Sol : mvr
2 2
Key : 1
50. An electron in a hydrogen atom makes a transition from n = n1 to n = n2. The time period of the
electron in the initial state is eight times that in the final state. The possible values of n1 and n2 are:-
(1) n1 = 4, n2 = 2 (2) n1 = 8, n2 = 2
(3) n1 = 8, n2 = 1 (4) n1 = 5, n2 = 3
3
n3 T1 n1
Sol :T 2 ;
z T2 n2
Key :4
51. The wavelength of K line from an element of atomic number 51 is . From another element the
wavelength of K line is 4 . What is the atomic number of the second element?
(1) 25 (2) 26 (3) 100 (4) 99
2 3 2
Sol : a Z 6 . Rc Z 1
4
Key :2
52. The transition from the state n = 3 to n = 1 in a hydrogen like atom results in ultraviolet radiation.
Infrared radiation will be obtained in the transition from :
(1) 4 2 (2) 4 3 (3) 2 1 (4) 3 2
hc 1
Sol : E ;
E
E is max for n = 4, n = 3 for infrared
Key :2
53. A particle of charge q and mass m performs uniform circular motion. If L and M are its angular
momentum and magnetic moment respectively then L/M is :-
q 2m m q
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2m q q m
evr evr evr
Sol : i , m i A r2
2 2 r 2
L mvr 2 2m
m evr e
Key :2
54. Two separate monochromatic light beams A and B of the same intensity are falling normally on a unit
area of a metallic surface. Their wavelength are A and B respectively. Assuming that all the incident
light is used in ejecting the photo electrons, the ratio of the number of photo electrons from the beam A
to that from B is
2
1) A / B 2) A / B 3) B / A 4)1
Sol : Conceptual
Key :2
55. Threshold wavelength for photo electric emission from a metal surface is 5200 Å. Photo electrons will
be emitted when this surface is illuminated with monochromatic radiation from.
1) 1 W IR lamp 2) 50 W UV lamp
3) 50 W IR lamp 4) 10 W IR lamp
Sol : Conceptual
Key :2
56. A laser beam ( = 633 nm) has an power of
3 mW. What will be the pressure exerted on a surfaceby this beam if the cross sectional area is 3 mm2.
(Assume perfect reflection and normal incidence)
1) 6.6 103 N / m 2 2) 6.6 106 N / m 2 3) 6.6 109 N / m 2 4) 6.6 N / m 2
Sol : Conceptual
Key :2
57. When a point source of monochromatic light is at a distance of 0.2 m from a photoelectric cell, the cut
off voltage and the saturation current are 0.6 volt and 18mA respectively. If the same source is placed
0.6 m away from the photoelectric cell, then
1) The stopping potential will be 0.2 V
2) The stopping potential will be 0.6 V
3) The saturation current will be 6mA
4) The saturation current will be 18mA
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 2
58. The energy of hydrogen atom in nth orbit is En, then the energy in nth orbit of single ionizedhelium
atom will be
1) 4 En 2) En / 4 3) 2 En 4) En / 2 b
Sol :
Key : 1
59. The frequency of 1st line of Balmer series in H2 atom is v0). The frequency of 1st line emitted by
singly ionized He atom is
1) 2V0 2)4V0 3) V0/2 4) V0/4
Sol :
Key : 2
60. Energy E of a hydrogen atom with principal
13.6
quantum number n is given by E eV The energy of a photon ejected when the electron jumps
n2
from n = 3 state to n = 2 state of hydrogen is approximately
(1) 1.5eV (2) 0.85 eV (3) 3.4 eV (4) 1.9eV
Sol :
Key : 4
61. The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is-13.6 eV. When its electron is in the first excited state, its
excitation energy is
(1)3,4eV (2) 6.8 eV (3) 10.2eV (4) zero
Sol :
Key : 3
62. In a Rutherford scattering experiment when a projectile of charge Z1 and mass M1approaches a target
nucleus of charge Z2 and mass M2, the distance of closest approach is r0. The energy of the projectile is
(1) directly proportional to M1×M2
(2) directly proportional to Z1Z2
(3) inversely proportional to Z1
(4) directly proportional to mass M1
Sol :
Key : 2
63. The ionization energy of the electron in the hydrogen atom in its ground state is 13.6 eV. The atoms
are excited to higher energy levels to emit radiations of 6 wavelengths. Maximum wavelength of
emitted radiation corresponds to the transition between
(1) n = 3 to n = 2 states
(2) n = 3 to n = 1 states
(3) n = 2 to n = 1 states
(4) n = 4 to n = 3 states
Sol :
Key : 4
64. The energy of a hydrogen atom in the groundstate is -13.6 eV. The energy of a He+ ion inthe first
excited state will be
(1) -13.6 eV (2) -27.2 eV
(3) -54.4 eV (4) -6.8 eV
Sol :
Key : 1
1 2
65. An alpha nucleus of energy mv bombards a heavy nuclear target of charge Ze. Then the distance of
2
closest approach for the alpha nucleus will be proportional to
1 1 1
1) 2) v 2 3) 4) 4
Ze m v
Sol :
Key : 3
66. Out of the following which one is not a possible energy for a photon to be emitted by hydrogen atom
according to Bohr's atomic model?
(1) 1.9Ev (2) 11.1 eV
(3)13.6 eV (4) 0.65 eV
Sol :
Key : 2
67. Electron in hydrogen atom first jumps from third excited state to second excited state and then from
second excited state to first excited state. The ratio of wavelengths 1 : 2 emitted in two cases is
(1) 7/5 (2) 27/20
(3) 27/5 (4) 20/7
Sol :
Key : 3
68. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by a monochromatic radiation of k= 975 . Number of
spectral lines in the resulting spectrum emitted will be
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 6 (4)10
Sol :
Key : 3
69. Consider 3rd orbit of He+(Helium) using non-relativistic approach the speed of electron in this orbit
will be (given K = 9×109constant
Z = 2 and h (Planck’s constant ) = 6.6×10-34 Js)
1) 2.92 106 m/ s 2) 1.46 106 m/ s 3) 0.73 106 m/ s 4) 3.0 108 m/ s
Sol :
Key : 2
70. In a hypothetical Bohr hydrogen, the mass of the electron is doubled. The energy E0 and the radius r0 of
the first orbit will be ( a0 is the Bohr radius)
(1) E 0 27 .2 eV ; r0 a 0 / 2
(2) E 0 27 . 2 eV ; r0 a 0
(3) E 0 13 . 6 eV ; r0 a 0 / 2
(4) E 0 13 . 6 eV ; r0 a0
Sol : Here radius of electron orbit r 1/m and energy E m, where m is the mass of the electron.
Hence energy of hypothetical atom
a0
E0 2 (13 . 6 eV ) 27 .2 eV and radius r0
2
Key : 1
71. If in Rutherford’s experiment, the number of particles scattered at 90 o angle are 28 per min, then
number of scattered particles at an angle 60 o and 120 o will be
(1) 112/min, 12.5/min (2) 100/min, 200/min
(3) 50/min, 12.5/min (4) 117/min, 25/min
1 1
Sol : N 4 N1 7 112
sin / 2 (sin 30 o )4
1
and N2 7 12 . 5 .
(sin 60 o )4
Key : 1
72. A neutron with velocity V strikes a stationary deuterium atom, its kinetic energy changes by a factor of
(1) 15 (2) 1
16 2
(3) 2 (4) None of these
1
Sol : Neutron velocity = v, mass = m
Deuteron contains 1 neutron and 1 proton, mass = 2m
v u=0 v1 v2
N d N d
m m 2v2
befor After
In elastic collision both momentum and K.E. are conserved pi = pf
mv = m1v2 + m2v2 mv = mv1 + 2mv2... (i)
By conservation of kinetic energy
1 1 1
mv 2 mv 12 (2m )v 22 ... (ii)
2 2 2
By solving (i) and (ii) we get
m1 m 2 2m 2 m 1 2m v
v1 v v v1
m1 m 2 (m1 m 2 ) 3m 3
1 1 Ki K f v2
Ki mv 2 , K f mv 12 1 12
2 2 Ki v
1 8
1 (Fractional change in K.E.)
9 9
Key : 4
73. In the following atoms and moleculates for the transition from n= 2 to n = 1, the spectral line of
minimum wavelength will be produced by
(1) Hydrogen atom (2) Deuterium atom
(3) Uni-ionized helium (4) di-ionized lithium
1 1 1
Sol : RZ 2 2 2
1 2
For di-ionised lithium the value of Z is maximum.
Key : 4
74. The ionization potential for second He electron is
(1) 13.6 eV (2) 27.2 eV
(3) 54.4 eV (4) 100 eV
Sol : For the ionization of second He electron. He will act as hydrogen like atom.
Hence ionization potential
Z 2 13 . 6 volt (2)2 13 .6 54 .4 V
Key :3
75. Ionization potential of hydrogen atom is 13.6 V. Hydrogen atoms in the ground state are excited by
monochromatic radiation of photon energy 12.1 eV. The spectral lines emitted by hydrogen atoms
according to Bohr's theory will be
(1) One (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four
Sol : Final energy of electron 13 .6 12 . 1 1 .51 eV . which is corresponds to third level i.e. n 3 . Hence
n(n 1) 3(3 1)
number of spectral lines emitted 3
2 2
Key : 3
76. An electron jumps from the 4th orbit to the 2nd orbit of hydrogen atom. Given the Rydberg's constant
R 10 5 cm 1 . The frequency in Hz of the emitted radiation will be
3 3
(1) 10 5 (2) 10 15
16 16
9 3
(3) 10 15 (4) 10 15
16 4
1 1 1 3R 16 16
Sol : R 2 2 10 5 cm
2 4 16 3R 3
c 3 10 10 9
Frequency n 10 15 Hz
16 10 5 16
3
Key :3
77. The following diagram indicates the energy levels of a certain atom when the system moves from 2E
level to E, a photon of wavelength is emitted. The wavelength of photon produced during its
transition from 4 E level to E is
3
2E
4/3E
(1) /3 (2) 3 / 4
(3) 4 / 3 (4) 3
hc hc
Sol : 2E E E
4E hc E hc '
E 3 ' 3
3 ' 3 '
Key :4
78. When a hydrogen atom is raised from the ground state to an excited state
(1) P.E. increases and K.E. decreases
(2) P.E. decreases and K.E. increases
(3) Both kinetic energy and potential energy increase
(4) Both K.E. and P.E. decrease
Sol : P.E. 1 and K.E. 1
r r
As r increases so K.E. decreases but P.E. increases.
Key : 1
79. In Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, the lowest orbit corresponds to
(1) Infinite energy (2)The maximum energy
(3) The minimum energy (4) Zero energy
Sol : In hydrogen atom, the lowest orbit (n = 1) corresponds to minimum energy (– 13.6 eV).
Key : 3
80. Which of the following statements about the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom is false
(1) Acceleration of electron in n = 2 orbit is less than that in n = 1 orbit
(2) Angular momentum of electron in n = 2 orbit is more than that in n = 1 orbit
(3) Kinetic energy of electron in n = 2 orbit is less than that in n = 1 orbit
(4) Potential energy of electron in n = 2 orbit is less than that in n = 1 orbit
Sol : As n increases P.E. also increases.
Key : 4
81. The ratio of longest wavelength and the shortest wavelength observed in the five spectral series of
emission spectrum of hydrogen is
4 525
(1) (2)
3 376
900
(3) 25 (4)
11
Sol : Shortest wavelength comes from n1 to n2 1 and longest wavelength comes from n1 6 to n2 5 in
1 1 1
the given case. Hence R 2 2 R
min 1
1 1 1 36 25 11
R 2 2 R R
max 5 6 25 36 900
max 900
min 11
Key :4
82. If scattering particles are 56 for 90 o angle then this will be at 60 o angle
(1) 224 (2) 256
(3) 98 (4) 108
Sol : According to scattering formula
4
1 N sin( 1 / 2)
N 4
2
sin ( / 2) N 1 sin( 2 / 2)
4
90 o
4
sin sin 45 o
N 2
2
N1 60 o sin 30
o
sin 2
N 2 ( 2 )4 N 1 4 56 224
Key : 1
83. When an electron in hydrogen atom is excited, from its 4th to 5th stationary orbit, the change in angular
momentum of electron is (Planck’s constant: h 6 .6 10 34 J- s )
(1) 4. 16 10 34 J- s (2) 3 . 32 10 34 J-s
(3) 1 . 05 10 34 J-s (4) 2 .08 10 34 J-s
Sol : Change in the angular momentum
n 2 h n1 h h
L L 2 L1 L (n 2 n1 )
2 2 2
6 .6 10 34
(5 4 ) 1 .05 10 34 J - S
2 3 .14
Key : 3
84. The time of revolution of an electron around a nucleus of charge Ze in nth Bohr orbit is directly
proportional to
n3
(1)n (2)
Z2
n2 Z
(3) (4)
Z n
2r n2h2
Sol : T ; r = radius of nth orbit
v mZe 2
ze 2
v = speed of e in nth orbit
2 0 nh
4 02 n 3 h 3 n3
T 2 4
T
mZ e Z2
Key :2
85. The radius of the Bohr orbit in the ground state of hydrogen atom is 0.5 Å. The radius of the orbit of the
electron in the third excited state of He will be
(1) 8 Å (2) 4 Å
(3) 0.5 Å (4) 0.25 Å
2
n
Sol : By using rn r0 ; Where r0 = Radius of the Bohr orbit in the ground state atom . So for He third
Z
42
excited state n 4 , Z 2, r0 0 .5 Å r4 0 . 5 4Å
2
Key : 2
86. The ratio of the speed of the electron in the first Bohr orbit of hydrogen and the speed of light is equal
to (where e, h and c have their usual meanings)
(1) 2hc /e 2 (2) e 2 h/2c
(3) e 2 c/2h (4) 2e 2 /hc
2Ze 2
Sol : Speed of electron in nth orbit (in CGS) vn (k = 1)
nh
For first orbit H2 ; n = 1 and Z = 1
2e 2 v 2e 2
So v
h c hc
Key :4
87. The ratio of the wavelengths for 2 1 transition in Li++, He+ and H is
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 1 : 4 : 9
(3) 4 : 9 : 36 (4) 3 : 2 : 1
1 1 1 1
Sol : RZ 2 2 2 2
n
1 n 2 Z
Li : He : H 4 : 9 : 36
Key :3
88. If the binding energy of the electron in a hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, the energy required to remove the
electron from the first excited state of Li is
(1) 122.4 eV (2) 30.6 eV
(3) 13.6 eV (4) 3.4 eV
13 .6 13 .6
Sol : En Z 2 . For first excited state n = 2 and for Li , z 3 E 9 30 . 6 eV
n2 4
Key :2
89. Which state of triply ionised Baryllium (Be ) has the same orbital radius as that of the ground state of
hydrogen
(1) n = 4 (2) n = 3
(3) n = 2 (4) n = 1
th
Sol : Radius of n orbit for any hydrogen like atom
n2
rn r0
Z
( r0 radius of first orbit of H 2 -atom)
If rn r0 n Z. For Be+++, Z = 4 n = 2.
Key : 3
90. The magnetic moment ( ) of a revolving electron around the nucleus varies with principal quantum
number n as
(1) n (2) 1 / n
(3) n 2 (4) 1 / n 2
neh
Sol : Orbital magnetic moments of an electron 1
4 me
1 n
Key : 1
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT-1
DAY – 18 (DT 27-04-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Chapter : NUCLEI
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. A heavy nucleus at rest breaks into two fragments which fly off with velocities in the ratio 8:1. The
ratio of radii of the fragments is
1) 1:2 2) 1:4 3) 4:1 4) 3:1
Sol : m1v1 m2 v2 m1 8 m2 1
m1 1
m2 8
R1 1
R R 0 .A1/3 ;
R2 2
Key :1
2. The mass of a 3Li7 nucleus is 0.042 amu less that the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The
binding energy per nucleon of 3Li7 nucleus is nearly
1) 46 MeV 2) 5.6 MeV 3) 3.9 MeV 4) 23 MeV
B.E 931.5 0.042
Sol : 5.6MeV
A 7
Key : 2
1
3. An particle of energy mv 2 bombards a heavy target of change Ze. Then the distance of closest
2
approach for the particle will be proportional to
1) v2 2) 1 / m 3) 1/ v 4 4) 1 / Ze
1 Ze 2e , 1
Sol : mv2 ke r0
2 r0 m
Key : 2
4. A radio isotope X with a half-life 1.4 109 Yr decays to Y which is stable. A sample of the rock from
a cave was found to contain X and Y in the ratio 1:7. The age of the rock is
1) 1.96 10 9 Yr 2) 3.92 109 Yr 3) 4.20 109 Yr 4) 8.40 10 9 Yr
Sol : N N 0 .et 1 8.e t
ln 2
e t 8 t 3ln 2 .t 3ln 2
t1/2
t 3t1/ 2 3 1.4 109 4.2 109 years
Key :3
5. After 300 days, the activity of a radioactive sample is 5000 dps (disintegration per second). The
activity becomes 2500 dps after another 150 days. The initial activity of the sample (in dps) is
1) 20000 2) 10000 3) 7000 4) 25000
t 300
Sol : A A 0 e 5000 A 0e
A
e300 0 ------(1)
5000
A
2500 A 0 .e 450 e 450 0 ----(2)
2500
Equation
2 e150 2 150 ln 2
1
Substituting in equation (1)
ln 2
300 A A
e 150 0 4 0 A 0 20000
5000 5000
Key :1
6. What are the respective numbers of and particles emitted in the following radioactive decay?
X 200 80 Y168
90
1) 8 and 8 2) 8 and 6 3) 6 and 8 4) 6 and 6
200 168
Sol : Number of -particles emitted = 8
4
Change in atomic number due to emission of 8 -particles = 90 8 2 74 . Since atomic number of Y
is 80, 6 particles are emitted i.e.,
8 6
90 X 200 74 Y '168 80 Y 168
Key :2
7. The decay constant of a radioisotope is λ.If A1 and A2 are its activities at times t1 and t2 respectively,
the number of nuclei which have decayed during the time (t1-t2) is:
(1) A1t1 – A2t2 (2) A1 - A2 (3) (A1-A2)/ λ (4) λ(A1 - A2)
Sol : As A1 N1 , A2 N 2 , N1 N 2 A1 A2 /
Key :3
8. In a nuclear reactor, moderators slow down the neutrons which come out in a fission process. The
moderator used have light nuclei. Heavy nuclei will not serve the purpose because :
1) they will break up
2) elastic collision of neutrons with heavy nuclei will not slow them down
3) the net weight of the reactor would be unbearably high
4) substance with heavy nuclei do not occur in liquid or gaseous state at room temperature
Sol : Elastic collision of Neutron’s with heavy nucleus will not slow them
Key :2
9. The reactor in which the number of fissionable nuclides produced are more than the used is called
1) breeder reactor 2) Pressurised reactor
3) Heterogeneous reactor 4) Homogenerous reactor
Sol : Breeder reactor
Key : 1
10. In the reaction 12 H 13 H 42 He 10 n , if the binding energies of 12 H,13 H and 24 He are respectively a,b
and c (in MeV), then the energy (in MeV) released in this reaction is
1) a + b + c 2) a + b – c 3) c – a – b 4) c + a – b
Sol : Q BE 2 He 0 n BE 1 H 1 H
4 1 2 3
c 0 a b c a b
Key : 3
11. When 92 U 235 undergoes fission. About 0.1% of the original mass is converted into energy. Then the
amount of 92 U 235 should undergo fission per day in a nuclear reactor so that it provides energy of
200 mega watt electric power is
1) 9.6 102 kg 2) 4.8 102 kg 3) 19.2 102 kg 4) 1.2 102 kg
nE 6 0.1 mc 2
Sol : P 200 10
t 100 24 60 60
3
m 192 10
Key : 3
BE
13. The for deuterium and helium are 1.1Mev and 7.0 Mev respectively. What energy in joules will
A
be released when 1013 deuterons take part in the reaction .
1)37.76 2)23.6 3)28 4)18.88
2 2 4
Sol : 1 H 1 H 2 H e
BE1
1.1 BE1 2.2
2
BE 2
7 BE 2 28
4
Q 28 2.2 25.8MeV
2--------- 25.8 MeV
1013 --------- ? (E)
1013 25.8
E MeV 1013 12.9 106 1.6 1019 20.64 J
2
Key :4
14. A small quantities of a solution containing N 24 radio-nuclide of half life T and activity Ro is injected
into blood of a person.1cm 3 of sample of blood taken from the blood of the person shows activity R1 .
If the total volume of the blood in the body of the person is V, find the time after which sample is
taken
T Ro T VRo T VR1 T R1
1) ln 2) ln 3) ln 4) ln
ln(2) VR1 1 ln(2) R1 1 ln(2) Vo ln(2) VRo 1
Sol : R N
m
V
R V (Volume)
R 0 V and R |0 1
R10 1
; R1 R 10 .et
R0 V
R 0 t R
R1 .e e t 0
V R 1V
R ln 2 R T R 0
t ln 0 .t ln 0 t ln
R1V T R1V ln 2 R 1V
Key :1
15. Two deuterium nuclei each of mass ‘m’ fuse together to form a Helium nucleus, releasing and
energy E.If ‘c’ is the velocity of light , the mass of Helium nucleus formed will be
E E E E
1) 2m 2 2) 2
3) m 2 4) 2m 2
c mc c c
2 2 4
Sol : 1 H 1 H 2 H e
2mc2 m0c 2 E
2mc 2 E E
2
m0 m 0 2m 2
c c
Key :4
18. Two radioactive elements X and Y have half-lifetimes of 50 minutes and 100 minutes, respectively.
Samples X and Y initially contain equal numbers of atoms. After 200 minutes, the
number of undecayed atoms of X
ratio is
number of undecayed atoms of Y
1) 4 2) 2 3) 1/2 4) ¼
t
Sol : N N 0e
Key :4
19. A certain radioactive substance has a half-life of5 years. Thus for a nucleus in a sample of the
element, the probability of decay in ten years is
1) 50% 2) 75% 3) 100% 4) 60%
n
N 1
Sol :
N0 2
Key :2
20. Atomic weight of thorium is A = 232 and the
atomic number is Z = 90. After disintegration to last element Pb is obtained which has A = 208 and Z
= 82. In this process the number of emitted and particles are-
1) 4 and 6 2) 6 and 4 3) 3 and 2 4) 2 and 3
0
Sol : Concept of emission of 2He 4 and B e
1
Key :2
21. Consider the following reaction 11 H 13 H 12 H 12 H .
The atomic masses are given as m 11 H 1.007825 u , m 12 H 2.014102 u, m 13 H 3.016049 u .
The Q– value of the above reaction will be
1) –4.03 MeV 2) –2.01 MeV 3) 2.01 MeV 4) 4.03 MeV
1 3 2 2
Sol : H H H H
1 1 1 1
B.eP B.ER
Key :1
22 . Which is not unit of radioactivity ?
1) Becquerel 2) Curie 3) Sievert 4) Thomson
Sol : Thomson is not a unit of ratio activity
Key :4
23 . There are two radioactive samples A and B with decay constant A and B. Their activity (R) is
plotted against number of active nuclei (N). Which one is correct :-
1) A B 2) A B 3) A B 4) Can't be obtained
dN
Sol : N ; Disintegration constant
dt
Key :3
24. Two radioactive nuclei P and Q in a given sample decay into a stable nucleus R. At time t=0,number
of P species are 4 N0 and that of Q areN0. Half-life of P (for conversion to R) is 1 minute where as
that of Q is 2 minutes. Initially there are no nuclei of R present in the sample. When number of
nuclei of P and Q are equal, the number of nuclei of R present in the sample would be :-
9 N0 5N 0
1) 2N0 2) 3N0 3) 4)
2 2
1
Sol : t nT N N1 N 2
2
Key :3
25. The binding energies of nuclei X and Y are E1 and E2 respectively. Two atoms of X are fused to give
one atom of Y and an energy Q is released. Then
1) Q = 2E1 – E2 2) Q = E2–2E1 3) Q = 2E1 + E2 4) Q = 2E2 + E1
Sol : Q E2 2E1
Key :3
26. A nucleus disintegrates into two nuclear parts, which have their velocities in the ratio 2: 1. The ratio
of their nuclear sizes will be:
(1) 21/3: 1 (2) 1:31/2 (3) 31/2: 1 (4) 1: 21/2
m 1
Sol : As m1v 1 m2 v2 , 1
m2 2
Further, as m 4 / 3 r 3 , m r 3 or r m1/3
1
1
r m 3 1
Thus, 1 1 1/ 2 3 1: 2 3
r2 m2
Key : 4
27. When U238 nucleus, originally at rest, decays by emitting an alpha particle having a speed u, the
recoil speed of the residual nucleus is:
(1) 4u/238 (2) -4u/234 (3) 4u/234 (4) -4u/238
Sol : As m1u m2 v 0 , 4u 234v 0 or v 4u / 234
(conservation of linear momentum)
(as m1 4 , m2 238 4 234 )
Recoil speed of the residual nucleus = 4u / 234
Key : 3
28. The counting rate observed from a radioactive source at t=0s was 1600 counts per second and at
t=8s, it was 100 counts per second. The counting rate observed at t= 6s will be:
(1) 400 (2) 300 (3) 200 (4) 150
Sol :
Key :3
29. The half –life of a radioactive isotope X is 20 years and its atomic weight is 226 kg per kilomol. The
number of atoms that will decay from its 1g sample per second will be:
(Avogadro’s number N = 6.023 x 1023 atoms/mol)
(1) 40 years (2) 60 years (3) 80 years (4) 100 years
N0 8
Sol : As 23 , 1t / T1/2 23
N 1
Or t 3T1/2 3 20 years 60 years
Key :2
30. Half –life of a substance is 20 minutes. What is the time between 33% decay and 67% decay?
(1) 40 min (2) 20 min (3) 30 min (4) 25 min
N
Sol : As e t ,
N0
1
i) e t1
3
2 1
ii) e /2 ; e 1 2 or e 1 2 2
t t t t
3 2
In 2
or t1 t2 half-life = 20 min
Key : 2
31. What are the respective numbers of and particles emitted in the following radioactive decay?
200
90 X 80 Y168
1) 8 and 8 2) 8 and 6 3) 6 and 8 4) 6 and 6
200 168
Sol : Number of -particles emitted = 8
4
Change in atomic number due to emission of 8 -particles = 90 8 2 74 . Since atomic number of
Y is 80, 6 particles are emitted i.e.,
8 6
90X 200 74 Y '168 80 Y 168
Key :2
32. The binding energy of a deuteron is 2.2 MeV and that of 42 He is 28 MeV. If two deuterons are fused
to form one 42 He , then the energy released is
1) 30.2 MeV 2) 25.8 MeV 3) 23.6 MeV 4) 19.2 MeV
Sol :
Key :3
33. A nuclear reactor delivers a power of 10W. Find fuel consumed by the reactor per hour, if its
efficiency is 20%. (Given c = 3 x 108 m/s)
1) 2 x 10-6 g/h 2) 9 x 10-12 g/h 3) 8 x 10-9 g/h 4) 2 x 10-9 g/h
output power
Sol : As efficiency ,
input power
10W
Input power = 50W 50 J / s
20 / 100
E 50 J / s
As E m c 2 , m 2 2
c 3 108 m / s
50
10 16 kg / s 2 109 g / h
9
Key : 4
34. A nucleus mn X emits one particle and two particles. The resulting nucleus is
m 4 m 6 m 6 m 4
1) n 2 Y 2) n 4 Z 3) n Z 4) n X
m 4
m He2 4 m 4 2 e
0
1
Sol : n X n 2 X n X
4 0
( -particle : He , - particle :
2 1 e)
Key : 4
1 4
35. A fresh radioactive sample is given at t= 0. Its decay fractions are at t1 instant and at t 2 instant.
5 5
Its mean life is :-
N N
Sol : e t e t1 (1)
N0 N01
N
e t2 (2)
NO2
Solve for mean life
Key :2
36. Half-life of a radioactive substance is 20 minute. The time between 20% and 80% decay will be
(1) 20 min (2) 40 min
(3) 30 min (4) 25 min
Sol :
Key :2
37. The half-life of a radioactive substance against -decay is 1.2 × 107s. What is the decay rate for 4.0 ×
1015 atoms of the substance?
(1) 4.6 × 1012 atoms/s (2) 2.3 × 1011 atoms/s
(3) 4.6 × 1010 atoms/s (4) 2.3 × 108atoms/s
Sol :
Key :4
38. Decay rate for a certain mass of a radioactive
substance measured at different times varies with time as shown in fig. count rate at t = 8 hr will be :-
25
(1) decays/sec (2) 50 decays/sec
2
(3) 500 decays/sec (4) 750 decays/sec
t
Sol : N N 0e
Key :1
39. When a slow neutron is captured by a U235 nucleus, a fission results which releases 200 MeV of
energy. If the output of a nuclear reactor is1.6MW, what is the rate of nuclei (per sec) undergoing
fission?
(1) 8 × 10–3 (2) 1 × 1013
(3) 1 × 1025 (4) 5 × 1016
Sol :
Key :4
40. A radioactive element X decays into another stable element Y. Half life of X is 2hrs. Initially only X
is present. After time t the ratio of atoms of X and Y is found to be 1 : 3, then t in hours is:-
(1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6
Sol : Assume initial composition to contain only X(N).
Given that one half life is 2 hours.
After one half life.
Amount of X remaining is =1/2 N
Amount of Y is =1/2N
Hence ratio is 1:1
After two half lives.
Amount of X remaining is =1/4N
Amount of Y is =3/4N
Hence ratio is 1:3
After three half lives.
Amount of X remaining is =1/8N
Amount of Y is =7/8N
Hence ratio is 1:7
The ratio of 1:4 is obtained somewhere between two and three half lives. Since each half life is 2 hours
long. Some where between 4 to 6 hours the ratio of 1:4 is obtained.
Key :2
41. The radius of a nucleus with nucleon number 16 is 3 × 10–15 m. Then, the radius of a nucleus with
nucleon number 128 will be :-
(1) 3 × 10–15 m (2) 6 × 10–15 m
–15
(3) 9 × 10 m (4) 24 × 10–15 m
1/3
1/3 R A
Sol : R R0 A ; 1 1
R2 A2
Key :2
42.
The above is a plot of binding energy per nucleon Eb, against the nuclear mass M; A, B, C, D, E,F
correspond to different nuclei. Consider four reactions :-
(i) A + B C + Q (ii) C A + B + Q
(iii) D + E F + Q (iv) F D + E + Q
Where Q is the energy released ? In which reactions is Q positive?
(1) (ii) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iii)
Sol : When two nucleons combine to form a third one, and energy is released, one has fusion reaction. If
a single nucleus splits into two, one has fission. The possibility of fusion is more for light elements
and fission takes place for heavy elements. Out of the choices given for fusion, only A and B are
light elements and D and E are heavy elements. Therefore A + B → C + ε is correct. In the
possibility of fission is only for F and not C. Therefore F → D + E + ε is the correct choice
Key :3
43. A nucleus with Z = 92 emits the following in a sequence , , , , , , , , , , , , .
.The Z of the resulting nucleus is-
(1) 76 (2) 78 (3) 82 (4) 74
4 0
Sol : 2He ; B 1e
B 1e 0 ; Z eff Z 8 2 2 1
Z 14 92 14 78
Key :2
44.
The ratio of N1 to N2 when N2 is maximum is :
(1) at no time this is possible (2) 2
n2
(3)1/2 (4)
2
dN 2
Sol : N1 2 N 2
dt
dN 2
For n2 to the maximum, 0
dt
N
N1 2 N 2 or 1 2
N2
Key :2
45. Assuming that about 20 MeV of energy is released per fusion reaction, 1H2 + 1H30n1 + 2He4, the
mass of 1H2 consumed per day in a future fusion reactor of power 1 MW would be approximately
(1) 0.1 gm (2) 0.01 gm
(3) 1 gm (4) 10 gm
Sol :
Key :1
46. The half-life period of a radioactive element is10 days. Then how long does it take for 90% of a
given mass of this element to disintegrate -
(1) 19 days (2) 27 days
(3) 33 days (4) 47 days
1
3
1 1 th
Sol : After three half-lives (i.e., 30 days) it remains , so it will remain 10 , approximately
3 8
in 33 days.
Key :3
47. A certain radioactive material ZXA starts emitting and particles successively such that the end
product is Z–3YA–8. The number of and particles emitted are –
(1) 4 and 3 respectively
(2) 2 and 1 respectively
(3) 3 and 4 respectively
(4) 1 and 2 respectively
A A 4 A4
B
Sol : x E Y
Z Z 2 Z 2 1
Key :4
48. There are three lumps of a given radioactive substance. Their activity is in the ratio of
1 : 2 : 3 now. What will be the ratio of their activities at any further date -
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 (2) 2 : 1 : 3
(3) 3 : 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 3 : 1
dN
Sol : N
dt
Key :1
49. A radioactive nucleus emits an -particle and a neutron simultaneously with same speed but in
opposite direction in order to form a stable nuclei. If the speed of emitted particles is v and A is the
mass number of radioactive nucleus, then speed of stable nucleus is
Sol : By law of conservation of linear momentum
Key :1
50. A nucleus ruptures into two nuclear parts which have their velocity ratio equal to 2 : 1. What will be
the ratio of their nuclear sizes-
(1) 21/3 : 1 (2) 1 : 21/3(3) 31/2 : 1 (4) 1 : 31/2
Sol : r r0 A1/3 A r 3
Key :2
51. Two nucleons are at a separation of 1 fm. The net force between them is F1 if both are neutrons, F2 if
both are protons, and F3 if one is a proton and the other is a neutron
(1) F1 > F2 > F3 (2) F2 > F1 > F3
(3) F1 = F3 > F2 (4) F1 = F2 > F3
Sol : Force between two proton is less than force between two neutrons (or) neutron proton
Key :3
226
52. The number of and emitted during the radioactive decay chain starting from 88 Ra and ending
206
at 82 Pb is
(1) 3and 6 (2) 4 and 5
and and
226 222 222 206
B
Sol : Ra Y X ....... Pb
88 86 83 82
Key :3
53. A certain radioactive substance has a half-life of 5 years. Thus for a nucleus in a sample of the
element, the probability of decay in ten years is
(1) 50% (2) 75% (3) 100% (4) 60%
n
R N 1
Sol : R N R N ;
R0 N 0 2
Key :2
54. A freshly prepared radioactive source of half-life 2 hours emits radiation of intensity which is 64
times the permissible safe level. The minimum time after which it would be possible to work safely
with the source is :
(1) 6 hours (2) 12 hours
(3) 24 hours (4) 128 hours
n
dN 1 t
Sol : n
dt 2 T1
2
6
T1/ 2 2h ; 2 64 6 2 12
Key :2
55. The mass defect for the nucleus of helium is 0.0303 a.m.u. What is the binding energy per nucleon
for helium in MeV?
(1) 28 (2) 7 (3) 4 (4) 1
Sol : B.E m 931.5 MeV
B.E
B.E per nucleon
mass number
Key : 2
56. In an -decay the kinetic energy of -particle is 48 MeV and Q-value of the reaction is 50 MeV.
The mass number of the parent nucleus is (Assume that daughter nucleus is in ground state):
(1) 96 (2) 100 (3) 104 (4) None
Sol : Q B.EP B.ER
Key :2
57. Heavy stable nuclei have more neutrons than protons. This is because of the fact that:
(1) Neutrons are heavier than protons
(2) Electrostatic force between protons is repulsive
(3) Neutrons decay into protons through beta decay
(4) Protons decay into neutrons through beta decay
Sol : Conceptual
Key :2
58. The decay rate of sample of radioactive nuclide I128 after time 4 min and 36 min is 322 and 161
counts/s. Find half life for this radionuclide.
(1) 28 min (2) 32 min (3) 16 min (4) 40 min
dN 0.693
Sol : N ;
dt 1
T
2
Key :2
59. Consider the following reaction
The atomic masses are given as
The Q– value of the above reaction will be
(1) –4.03 MeV (2) –2.01 MeV
(3) 2.01 MeV (4) 4.03 MeV
1 3 2 2
Sol : H H H H ; B.eP B.ER
1 1 1 1
Key :1
60. A radioactive material decays by simultaneous emission of two particles with respective half lives
1620 and 810 years. The time (in years) after which one-fourth of the material remains is :
(1) 1080 (2) 2430 (3) 3240 (4) 4860
n
dN 1 t
Sol : n
dt 2 T1
2
Key :1
61. Binding energy per nucleon verses mass number curve for nuclei is shown in the figure. W, X, Y and
Z are four nuclei indicated on the curve. The process that would release energy is :-
(1) Y 2Z (2) W X + Z
(3) W 2Y (4) X Y + Z
Sol : By B.E per nucleon curve
Key :3
62. A radioactive substance is being produced at a constant rate of 10 nuclei/s. The decay constant of the
1
substance is s–1. After what time the number of radioactive nuclei will become 10 from zero?
2
Assume decay law holds for the sample :
1
(1) 2.45 s (2) log(2) s (3) 1.386 s (4) s
ln 2
dN
Sol : N
dt
Key :3
63. How long a nuclear power plant of 10MW power can be operated by using fission energy of 20 kg
U235 consider 50% fission energy can be converted in electricity :
(1) 6 yrs (2) 3 yrs (3) 6000 yrs (4) 2000 yrs
nE
Sol : P
t
Key :2
64. Which conservation is must in a nuclear reaction:
(1) Baryon number (2) Lepton number
(3) Charge (4) All of the above
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 4
65. In a radioactive disintegration, the ratio of initial number of atoms to the number of atoms present at
an instant of time equal to its mean life is :-
(1) 1/e2 (2) 1/e (3) e (4) e2
Sol :Let the initial number of atoms at time t=0 be N0.
Let N be the number of atoms at any instant t
1
Mean life τ= , where λ is disintegration constant.
Given , t=τ
According to radioactive disintegration law,
t
N= N 0e
1
N0
or N N 0e
e
N0
or e
N
Key :3
66. The half life of a radioactive isotope 'X' is 50 years. It decays to another element 'Y' which is stable.
The two elements 'X' and 'Y' were found to be in the ratio of 1 : 15 in a sample of a given rock. The
age of the rock was estimated to be :-
(1) 150 years (2) 200 years
(3) 250 years (4) 100 years
1 N
t log 0
Sol :t 2 N
log 2
Key :1
67. At t = 0, number of active nuclei in a sample is N0. How much no. of nuclei will decay in time
between its first mean life and second half life?
N N N N N N
(1) 0 (2) 0 0 (3) 0 0 (4) 0
e e 4 2 e 4
N0 N 0
Sol : Number of nuclei decay
e 4
Key :2
68. A radioactive element X with a half-life period of 2 hours decays giving a stable element Y. After a
time t the ratio of X to Y atoms is 1 : 7. Then t is:-
(1) 4 hr (2) 6 hr
(3) Between 4 hr and 6 hr (4) 14 hr
Sol :
Key :2
69. The binding energy per nucleon of Xp is7.97 MeV and that Xp+1 is 7.75 MeV. The energy(in MeV)
required to remove a neutron from Xp+1is (Take P = 16)
(1) 3.52 (2) 3.64
(3) 4.23 (4) 7.86
Sol :
Key :3
70. 16 g sample of a radioactive element is taken from Bombay to Delhi in 2 hour and it was found that
1g of the element remained (un disintegrated). Half life of the element is :-
(1) 2 hour (2) 1 hour (3) 1/2 hour (4)1/4 hour
Sol :
Key :3
71. A radioactive isotope is being produced at a constant rate X. Half-life of the radioactive substance is
Y. After some time the number of radioactive nuclei become constant. The value of this constant is :-
XY X
(1) (2) XY (3) XY log e 2 (4)
log e 2 Y
Sol :
Key :1
72. The radius of Germanium (Ge) nuclide is measured to be twice the radius of 94 Be . The number of
nucleons in Ge are :-
(1) 73 (2) 74 (3) 75 (4) 72
t
Sol : A A0 e
Key :1
73. Which reaction is not part of proton-proton cycle :-
(1) 1H 1 1 H 1 1 H 2 v Q
(2) 1H 2 1 H 2 2 He3 0 n1 Q
(3) 1H 2 1 H 1 2 He3 Q
(4) 2 He3 2 He3 2 He4 2 1 H 1 Q
Sol : By proton – proton cycle
Key :2
74. A certain radioactive element has half-life of 4days. The fraction of material that decays in 2days is
1) 1 / 2 2) 1/ 2 3) 2
4) 2 1 / 2
N0
Sol : After n half-lives, the radioactive nuclei remaining is
2n
N
So, number of nuclei disintegrated in n half-lives is N 0 n0
2
1 1
For n , the fraction disintegrated is 1
2 2
Key :4
75. Half life period of a radioactive sample is T. Let x fraction disintegrates in time 't'. How much
t
fraction will decay in time
2
x x x
(1)
2
(2)
2
(3)1
2
(4) 1 1 x
t1 t2
N 1 T1 N 1t
Sol : 2 ; 2
N0 2 N0 2
Key :4
76. The activity of a sample of radioactive material is A1 at time t1 and A2 at time t2 (t2> t1). If its mean
life is T, then which of the following is true?
(1) A1t1 A2t2 (2) A1 A2 t2 t1
(3) A2 A1e ( t1 t2 )/T (4) A2 A1( t1 / t2 )/T
Sol :
Key :3
77. The half life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days. The time interval (t2 – t1) between the time t2 when
2/3 of it has decayed and the time t1 when 1/3 of it had decayed is :-
(1) 60 days (2) 15 days
(3) 30 days (4) 50 days
Sol :
Key :4
78. In pair annihilation an electron and a positron destroy each other. In this process :-
(1) A photon of energy equal to their total energy is produced
(2) Such a photon is produced whose sum of rest mass energy and kinetic energy is equal to their
total energy
(3) Two photons are produced which move in opposite directions
(4) Two photons with identical energy originate at rest
Sol : Conceptual
Key :3
79. The variation of decay rate of two radioactive samples A and B with time is shown in figure. Which
of the following statements is correct?
(1) Decay constant of A is greater than that of B hence A always decays faster than B
(2) Decay constant of B is greater than that of Abut its decay rate is always smaller than that of A
(3) Decay constant of A is greater than that of B but it does not always decay at faster rate than B
(4) Decay constant of B is greater than that of Abut still its decay rate becomes equal to that of A at a
later instant
Sol : We find that rate of decay of A is faster than that of B. It means decay constant of A is greater than
that of B. However, the two curves intersect at P. Beyond P, B decays faster than A. And at P, decay
rate of both A and B is the same.
Key : 3
80. The total energy of an electron is 3.555 MeV, then its kinetic energy is
1) 3.545 MeV 2) 3.045 MeV
3)3.5 MeV 4) None
Sol :
Key : 2
81. In a breeder reactor, useful fuel obtain from U 238 is
1) Ac 233 2) Th 238 3) U 235 4) Pu 239
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 4
82. Which one is best neutron moderator in all respects.
1) barium oxide 2) Water 3) Graphite 4) heavy water
Sol : Conceptual
Key : 4
83. In a mean life a radioactive sample
1) About 1/3 of substance disintegrate
2) About 2/3 of substance disintegrate
3) About 90% of the substance disintegrate
4) Almost all the substance disintegrates
Sol : Conceptual
Key :3
84. During mean life of a radioactive element, the fraction that disintegrates is
Sol :
Key : 3
85. A sample of radioactive element has a mass of 10 gm at an instant t=0. The approximate mass of this
element in the sample after two mean lives is
1) 1.35 gm 2) 2.50 gm
3) 3.70 gm 4) 6.30 gm
Sol :
Key :1
86. In a radioactive material the activity at time t1 is R1 t2 and at a later time t2 it is R1. If the decay constant of
the material is . Then
Sol : (a) The decay rate K of a radioactive material is the number of decays per second. From radioactive decay
law,
Key :1
87. Two radioactive substances A and B have decay constants 5 and respectively. At t = 0 they have the
2
1
same number of nuclei. The ratio of number of nuclei of A to those of B will be after a time interval
e
Sol : Number of nuclei remained after time t can be writen as
Key :4
88. In radioactive decay process, the negatively charged emitted / -particles are
(a) the electrons present inside the nucleus
(b) the electrons produced as a result of the
decay of neutrons inside the nucleus
(c) the electrons produced as a result of
collisions between atoms
(d) the electrons orbiting around the nucleus
Sol : Beta decay can involve the emission of eitherelectrons or positrons. The electrons or positrons emitted in a
-decay do not exist inside the nucleus. They are only created at the time of emission, just as photons are
created when an atom makes a transition from higher to a lower energy state. In negative -decay a
neutron in the nucleus is transformed into a proton, an electron and an antineutrino. Hence, in radioactive
decay process, the negatively charged emitted /J-particles are the electrons produced as a result of the
decay of neutrons present inside the nucleus.
Key :2
89. The mass of a37 Li nucleus is 0.042u less than the sum of the masses of all its nucleons. The binding energy
per nucleon of 37 Li nucleus is nearly
(a) 46 MeV(b) 5.6 MeV(c) 3.9 MeV(d)23 MeV
Sol :
Key :2
90. The activity of a radioactive sample is measured as NQ counts per minute at t = 0 and N0 counts per minute at
t = 5 min. The time (in minute) at which the activity reduces to half its value is
Sol :
Key :4
91. The half-life of a radioactive isotope X is 50 years. It decays to another element Y which is stable. The two
elements X and Y were found to be in the ratio of 1 : 15 in a sample of a given rock. The age of the rock was
estimated to be
(a) 200 yr (b) 250 yr
(c)100yr (d) 150 yr
Sol :
Key :1
92. The power obtained in a reactor using U235 disintegration is 1000 kW. The mass decay of U235 per hour is
(a) 20 g (b) 40 g
(c) 1 g (d) 10 g
Sol :
Key :2
93. A radioactive nucleus of mass M emits a photon of frequency v and the nucleus recoils. The recoil energy will
be
Sol :
Key :1
94. Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because
(a) atoms get ionised at high temperature
(b) kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the coulomb repulsion between nuclei
(c) molecules break up at high temperature
(d) nuclei break up at high temperature
Sol : Fusion reaction takes place at high temperature because kinetic energy is high enough to overcome the
coulomb repulsion between nuclei.
Key :2
95. Two radioactive nuclei P and Q, in a given sample decay into a stable nucleus R. At time t = 0, number of P
species are 4N0 and that of Q are N0. Half-life of P (for conversion to R) is 1 min whereas that of Q is 2 min.
Initially there are no nuclei of P present in the sample. When number of nuclei of P and Q are equal, the
number of nuclei of R present in the sample would be:
Sol :
Key :2
96. A mixture consists of two radioactive materials A1 and A2 with half-lives of 20 s and 10 s respectively.
Initially the mixture has 40 g of A1 and 160 g ofA2. The amount of the two in the mixture will become equal
after
(a) 40s (b) 60s (c) 80s (d) 20s
Sol :
Key :1
2
97. The half-life of a radioactive nucleus is 50 days. The time interval (t2 – t1) between the time t2 when of it
3
1
has decayed and the time t1 when of it had decayed is
3
(a) 30 days (b) 50 days
(c) 60 days (d) 15 days
Sol :
Key :2
SR+LT BIPC ALL BATCHES DAILY PRACTICE ASSIGNMENT-2
DAY – 18 (DT 27-04-2020)
SUBJECT : PHYSICS
Chapter : SEMICONDUCTORS AND ELECTRONICS
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
1. P-type semi conductor is
1) negatively charged
2) Positively charged
3) neutral
4) may be positive or negative
Sol : p-type semi conductor is neutral
Key :3
2. The objective of adding impurities in the extrinsic semiconductor is
1) to decrease the conductivity of the semiconductor
2) to decrease the density of total current carriers
3) to increase the density of either holes or electrons
4) to eliminate the electron-hole pairs produced in intrinsic semiconductor.
Sol : Impurities increase density of total current carriers
Key :3
3. Carbon silicon and germanium have four valence electrons each. These are characterized by valence
and conduction bands separated by energy band gap respectively equal to Eg , Eg and Eg .
c Si Ge
Which of the following statements is true?
1) Eg Eg Eg
Si Ge C
2) Eg C Eg Ge Eg Si
3) Eg C Eg Si Eg Ge
4) Eg C Eg Si Eg Ge
Sol : Eg c Eg si Eg Ge
Key :3
4. Which of the following statements is correct ?
1) n - type germanium is negatively charged and p - type germanium is positively charged
2) n - type germanium is positively charged and p - type germanium is negatively charged
3) both n - type and p- type germanium are negatively charged
4) Both n - type and p - type germanium are electrically neutral
Sol : Both n - type and p- type germanium are electrically neutral.
Key :4
5. Two pieces one of germanium and the other of aluminum are cooled from T1K to T2 K . The
resistance of
1) Aluminium increases and that of germanium decreases
2) Each of them decreases
3) Aluminium decreases and that of germanium increases
4) Each of them increases
Sol : With the decrease of temperature resistance of semiconductor increases and resistance of conductor
decreases
Key :3
6. With the rise of temperature the resistivity of a semiconductor
1) remains uncharged 2) increases
3) decreases
4) first increases and then decreases
Sol : More free electrons are available for conduction when temperature increases and hence resistivity
decreases
Key :3
7. A semiconductor is damaged by a strong current, because
1) lack of free electrons
2) decrease in electrons
3) excess of electrons 4) none of these
Sol :
Key :3
8. C and Si both have same lattice structure, having 4 bonding electrons in each. However, C is
insulator where as Si is intrinsic semiconductor. This is because
1) The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the second orbit, whereas in the case of Si they
lie in the third.
2) The four bonding electrons in the case of C lie in the third orbit, whereas for Si they lie in the
fourth orbit.
3) In case of C the valance band is not completely filled at absolute zero temperature.
4) In case of C the conduction band is partly filled even at absolute zero temperature
Key :1
9. The resistivity of a pure semiconductor is 0.5 Ωm. If the electron and hole mobility be 0.39 m2/V-s
and 0.19 m2 /V-s respectively, then calculate the intrinsic carrier concentration.
1) 2.16×1019/m3 2) 4.32×1030 /m3
3) 1020 /m3 4) 1015/m3
1 1
Sol : ( e h )ne ; n
( e h )e
1
0.5 (0.39 0.19) 1.6 1019
2.16 1019 / m3
Key :1
10. Pure si at 500 k has equal number of electron ne and hole nh concentrations to 1.5 1016 m 3 .
Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5 10 22 m 3 . The doped semiconductor is of
1) P-type having electron concentration ne 5 109 m 3
2) n-type with electron concentration ne 5 1022 m 3
3) p-type with electron concentration ne 2.5 1010 m 3
4) n-type with electron concentration ne 2.5 1023 m3
16 2
Sol : ni2 ne nh ne
1.5 10 5 109 m3
22
4.5 10
Key :1
11. In semiconductor the concentrations of electrons and holes are 8 1018/m3 and 5 1018/m
respectively. If the mobilities of electrons and holes are 2.3 m2/volt-sec and 0.01 m2/volt-sec
respectively, then semiconductor is
1) N-type and its resistivity is 0.34 ohm-metre
2) P-type and its resistivity is 0.034 ohm-metre
3) N-type and its resistivity is 0.034 ohm-metre
4) P-type and its resistivity is 3.40 ohm-metre
Sol : ne 8 1018 / m3 , nh 5 10 18 / m 3
m2 m2
e 2.3 , h 0.01
volt sec volt sec
ne nh so semiconductor is N-type
1
Also conductivity e(ne e nh h )
Resistivity( )
1 1.6 1019 [8 10 18 2.3 5 10 18 0.01]
= 0.34 -m.
Key :1
12. The intrinsic charge carrier density in germanium crystal at 300K is 2.5 1013 / cm3 . If the electron
density in an n-type germanium crystal at 300K be 5 1016 / cm3 , the hole density in this n-type
crystal at 300K would be
1) 2.5 1013 / cm3 2) 5 106 / cm3
3) 1.25 1010 / cm3 4) 0.2 104 / cm3
10
Sol : ni 2.5 10
Intrinsic charge carrier density
Electron density ne 5 1016
If nh is hole density, then
ni2 ne nh
(2.5 1013 )2 (5 1016 )(nh )
6.25 1026
nh
5 1016
nh 1.25 1010 / cm3
Key :3
13. A silicon specimen is made into a p - type semiconductor by doping on the average one indium atom
28 3
per silicon atoms. If the number density of atoms in the silicon specimen is 5 10 atom / m . The
number of acceptor atoms in silicon will be
1) 2.5 10 atom / cm3
30
15
2) 1.0 10 atom / cm3
13
3) 1.0 10 atom / cm3
34
4) 2.5 10 atom / cm3
Sol : Number density of atoms in Si
atoms atoms
5 1028 3
5 1022
m cm3
Since 1 atom of indium is doped in silicon atoms
Total number of doped indium atoms
5 10 22 atoms
7
11015
5 10 cm3
Number of acceptor atoms in Silicon
atoms
1 1015
cm 3
Key :2
12 3
What is the conductivity of a semiconductor ( in m ) if electron density = 5 10 / cm and hole
1 1
14.
density 8 10 / cm ? e
13 3 2.3m 2V 1S 1 , h 0.01m2V 1S 1
1) 5.634 2) 1.968
3) 3.421 4) 8.964
2 1 1
Sol
: Here, e 2.3m V S
h 0.01m 2V 1s 1
ne 5 1012 / cm3 5 1018 / m 3
nh 8 1013 / cm 3 8 1019 / m 3
e ne e nh h
1.6 1019 5 1018 2.3 8 1019 0.01
1.6 10 1 11.5 0.8 1 1
= 1.968 m
Key :2
th
1
15. In a semiconducting material, 5 of the total current is carried by the holes and the remaining is
carried by the electrons. The drift speed of electrons is twice that of holes at this temperature, the
ratio between the number densities of electrons and holes is
21 3
1) 2) 5 3) 4) 2
6 8
1
Ih I
Sol : Current carried by the holes, 5
Where I is the total current
4
Ie I
Current carried by the electrons, 5
Ve 2vh
Where and are the drift speeds of electrons and holes respectively.
I e ne Aeve
------- (i)
Key :2
16. A pure semiconductor has equal and hole concentration of 1016 m3 . Doping by indium increases nh to
4.5 1022 m3 . What is ne in the doped semiconductor ?
1) 106 m3 2) 1022 m3
1032
3) m 3 4) 4.5 1022 m3
4.5 10 22
2 ni2 1016 1016 3
Sol : nB nn n ; ne
i m
nn 4.5 1022
Key :3
17. The ratio of electron and hole currents in a semi conductor is 7/5 and the ratio of drift velocities of
electrons and holes is 7/4, then the ratio of concentrations of electrons and holes will be
1) 5/4 2) 4/7 3) 5/8 4)4/5
I e ne (vd )e ne 7 4 4
Sol : I ne Avd ; ; x
I h nh (v d )h nh 5 7 5
Key :4
18. A pure silicon crystal of length 0.1m and area104 m2 has the mobility of electron e and holes
h as 0.135m2 / Vs and 0.048m2 / Vs , respectively, if the voltage applied across it is 2V and the
intrinsic charge concentration is ni 1.5 106 m3 , then the total current flowing through the crystal is
1) 8.78 1017 A 2) 6.25 1017 A
3) 7.89 1017 A 4) 2.456 1017 A
Key :1
AV 10 4 2 I 8.78 1017 A
Sol : I e(ne e nh h ) 1.6 10 19 (1.5 10 6 0.048 1.5 10 6 0.135)
l 0.1
19. Find the current produced at room temperature in a pure germanium plate of area 2 104 m2 and of
thickness 1.2 103 m when a potential of 5V is applied across the faces. Concentration of carriers in
6
germanium at room temperature is 1.6 10 per cubic metre. The mobilities of electrons and holes are
0.4m2V 1s1 and 0.2m2V 1s1 respectively. The heat energy generated in the plate in 100 second is
1) 2.4 1011 J 2) 3.4 1011 J
3) 5.4 1011 J 4) 6.4 1011 J
Sol : ne nh ni
ni e( e h ) 1.6 1.6 0.6 10 13
Current produced in germanium plate
V 5
I JA E. A A 1.6 1.6 0.6 10 13 3
2 10 4 A
d 1.2 10
Heat generated in the plate,
H V I t
5 1.28 1013 100 6.4 1011 joule
Key :4
20. A P- type semiconductor has acceptor levels 57 meV above the valence band. The maximum
wavelength of light required to create a hole is (Planck’s constant h 6.6 1034 J s )
0 0
1) 57 A 2) 57 10 3 A
0 0
3) 217100 A 4) 11.61 10 33 A
hc hc 6.6 10 34 3 108
Sol : E
E 57 10 3 1.6 10 19
0
217100 A
Key :3
th
1
21. In a semiconducting material, of the total current is carried by the holes and the remaining is
4
carried by the electrons. The drift speed of electrons is thrice that of holes at this temperature, the
ratio between the number densities of electrons and holes is
1)1 : 1 2) 1 : 4 3) 1 : 6 4) 1 : 7
1
Sol : Current carried by the holes, I h I
4
Where I is the total current
Current carried by the electrons
I 3
I e I I ; Ve 3vh
4 4
Where ve and vh are the drift speeds of electrons and holes respectively.
I e ne Aeve ------- (i)
I h nh Aevh ------- ( ii )
Where ne and nh are the number densities of electrons and holes respectively
I n Aeve 3I 4 n e 3vh
e e ;
I h nh Aevh 4I n h vh
n e : n h 1:1
Key :1
22. In an unbiased p – n junction,
1) Potential at ‘p’ is more than at ‘n’
2) Potential at ‘p’ is less than at ‘n’
3) Potential at ‘p’ is equal to than at ‘n’
4) Potential at ‘p’ is positive and that at ‘n’ is negative
Sol : From this graph potential at p – side is less than that at n – side
potential
distance
Key :2
23. On increasing reverse voltage in a p-n junction diode the value of reverse current will
1) gradually increases
2) first almost remains constant and then suddenly increase
3) remains constant
4) gradually decrease
Sol : Reverse current will be almost constant first and then suddenly increase
Key :2
24. The diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current when the junction is
1) forward biased 2) reverse biased
3) un biased
4) both forward and reverse biased
Sol : It will be more when forward biased
Key :1
25. The depletion region is
1) region of like charges
2) neutral region
3) region of infinite energy
4) region free of current carriers
Sol : It is emptied of free current carriers
Key :4
26. The barrier potential of a p-n junction depends on
i) type of semiconductor material
ii) amount of doping
iii) temperature
Which one of the following is correct?
1) i and ii only 2) ii only
3) ii and iii only 4) i, ii and ii
Sol : Barrier potential depends on all the three
Key :4
27. If the two ends of a p – n junction are joined by a wire
1) there will not be a steady current in the circuit
2) there will be a steady current from the n –side to the p – side
3) there will a steady current from the p – side to the n - side
4) there may or may not be a current depending upon the resistance of the connecting wire
Sol : No steady current
Key :1
28. The dominant mechanisms for motion of charge carriers in forward and reverse biased
silicon p-n junctions are
1) drift in forward bias, diffusion in reverse bias
2) diffusion in forward bias, drift in reverse bias
3) diffusion in both forward and reverse bias
4) drift in both forward and reverse bias
Sol : Diffusion in forward bias, drift in reverse bias
Key :2
29. Avalanche breakdown is due to
1) Collision of minority charge carrier
2) Increase in depletion layer thickness
3) Decrease in depletion layer thickness
4) None of these
Sol : At high reverse voltage, the minority charge carriers, acquires very high velocities. These by
collision break down the covalent bonds, generating more carriers. This mechanism is called
avalanche breakdown.
Key :1
30. Pick out the incorrect statement regarding reverse saturation current in the p-n junction diode
1) this current doubles for every 100oC rise of temperature
2) this current is due to minority carriers
3) the current carriers are produced by thermal agitation
4) reverse saturation current is also known as leakage current
Key :1
31. An electric field is applied to a semiconductor. Let the number of charge carriers density is 'n' and
the average drift speed be v. If the temperature is increased
1) both n and v will increase
2) n will increase but v will decrease
3) v will increase but n will decrease
4) both n and v will decrease
Key :2
32. If the two ends of a p-n junction are joined by a wire
1) there will not be a steady current in the circuit
2) there will be a steady current from the n-side to the p-side
3) there will a steady current from the p-side to the n-side
4) there may or may not be a current depending upon the resistance of the connecting wire
Key :1
33. Diffusion current in a p-n junction is greater than the drift current in magnitude
1) if the junction is forward-biased 2) if the junction is reverse-biased
3) if the junction is unbiased 4) in no case
Key :1
34. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of current flowing through AB is :
1) 0 A 2) 10-2 A 3)10-1 A 4) 10-3 A
Sol : Since diode is in forward basis
V 4 ( 6) 10
i 3
3 10 2 A
R 1 10 10
Key :2
35. The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure has constant voltage drop at 0.5 V at all currents
and a maximum power rating of 100 milli watts across the diode. What should be the value of the
resistor R, connected in series with diode for obtaining maximum current ?
1. 6.76 2. 20
3. 5 4. 5.6
Sol : P Vi ; V iR
Key :3
36. As shown in figure, the current in the part of circuit is
1) 0.03 A 2) 0.02 A
3) 0.04 A 4) 0.05 A
Sol : Here the diode is in forward bias (Rf = 0)
V 63
i 0.02 A
R 150
Key : 2
37. In the following figure, the diodes which are forward biased, are
A)
B)
C)
D)
1) C only 2) C and A 3) B and D 4) A,B and D
Sol : Always more positive voltage, is positive terminal less positive voltage, is negative terminal
Key :4
38. Which of the following is reverse biased?
10V
15V
1)
-5V
2) -10V
-10V
3)
5V
4) 10V
Sol : Current flows from high potential to low potential
Key :3
39. A diode has a barrier potential of 0.7v and a current of 20mA passes through it when battery of emf
3v is connected to it. The wattage of the diode is
1) 0.046 W 2) 0.7 W
3) 3 W 4) 0.014W
Sol : Wattage of diode = (current through) it x (P.D across it)
0.7 20 103 14 103 0.014W
Key :4
40. Current in the circuit will be (diodes assumed to be ideal one)
1 1
1) A 2) A
6 10
1 1
3) A 4) A
2 4
The diode in lower branch is forward biased and diode in upper branch is reverse biased
Sol :
5 5 1
i A
20 30 50 10
Key :2
41. A potential barrier of 0.5V exists across a p-n junction. If the width of depletion layer is 106 m, then
intensity of electric field in this region will be
1) 1 10 6 V / m 2) 5 10 5V / m
4
3) 4 10 V / m 4) 2 10 6 V / m
V 0.5
Sol : E 6 5 105
d 10
Key :2
42. The value of current in the following diagrams is(diode assumed to be ideal one)
-4V 3 -1V
1) 0.1 amp 2) 0.01 amp
3) 1 amp 4) zero
Sol : Current flows from high potential to low potential
Key :4
43. When a silicon P-N junction is in forward biased with series resistance, it has knee voltage of 0.6V.
Current flow in it is 5mA, when PN junction is connected with 2.6V battery, the value of series
resistance is
a) 100 b) 200
c) 400 d) 500
Sol : R
2.6 0.6 400
5 10 3
Key :3
44. A cell of emf 4.5 V is connected to a junction diode whose barrier potential is 0.7V. If the external
resistance in the circuit is 190 , the current in the circuit is
1) 20mA 2) 2mA
3) 23mA 4) 200Ma
V 3.8 2
Sol : V 4.5 0.7 3.8V ; R 190, i 20mA
R 190 100
Key :1
45. In the given figure, a diode D is connected to an external resistance R=100 and an e.m.f of 3.5 V.
If the barrier potential developed across the diode is 0.5V, the current in the circuit will be
D 100
R
3.5V
1) 35mA 2) 30mA
3) 40mA 4) 20mA
V 3
Sol : Potential difference on R=3.5-0.5 = 3.0 Volt current in circuit i 30 mA
R 100
Key :2
46. The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below. The current flowing
though the resistance R1 will be
1) 1.43A 2) 3.13A
3) 2.5A 4) 10.0A
Sol : Current will not flow through D1 as it is reverse biased. Current will flow through cell,
R1 , D2 and R3
10
i 2.5 A
22
Key :3
47. When forward bias is applied to a P-N junction, then what happens to the potential barrier VB , and
the width of charge depleted region x
1) VB increases, x decreases
2) VB decreases, x increases
3) VB increases, x increases
4) VB decreases, x decreases
Sol : In forward biasing both VB and x decreases.
Key :4
48. The diode used in the circuit shown in the figure has a constant voltage drop of 0.5 V at all currents
and a maximum power rating of 100 milliwatts. What should be the value of the resistor R,
connected in series with the diode for obtaining maximum current
R 0.5 V
1.5 V
1) 1.5 2) 5
3) 6.67 4) 200
P 100 10 3
Sol : The current through circuit i 0.2 A
V 0.5
1
voltage drop across resistance = 1.5 – 0.5 = 1 V R 5 .
0.2
Key :2
49. Ge and Si diodes conduct at 0.3 V and 0.7 V respectively. In the following figure if Ge diode
connection are reversed, the valve of V0 changes by
Ge
V0
12 V
Si 5 k
1) 0.2 V 2)0.4 V 3) 0.6 V 4)0.8 V
Sol : Consider the case when Ge and Si diodes are connected as show in the given figure.
Equivalent voltage drop across the combination Ge and Si diode = 0.3 V
12 0.3
Current i 2.34 mA
5 k
Out put voltage V0 = Ri= 5 k 2.34 mA = 11.7 V
Now consider the case when diode connection are reversed. In this case voltage drop across the
diode's combination = 0.7 V
12 0.7
Current i 2.26 mA
5 k
V0 iR 2.26 mA 5 k 11.3V
Key :2
50. In the following circuit find I1 and I2(Diodes are ideal)
2k
i2
10 V
14k 12k
i1
1) 0, 0 2) 5 mA, 5 mA
3) 5 mA, 0 4) 0, 5 mA
Sol : The equivalent circuit can be redrawn as follows
10
From figure it is clear that current drawn from the battery i i2 5mA and i1 0.
2
Key :4
51. In the circuit shown in the figure, if the diode forward voltage drop is 0. 3 V, the volt age difference
between A and B is :-
1) 1.3 V 2) 2.3 V 3) 0 V 4) 0.5 V
Sol : VA iR1Vd iR2 = VB
VA 0.2 103 5 103 0.3
0.2 103 5 103 = VB
VA VB = 2.3 V
Key :2
52. Ge and Si diodes conduct at 0.3V and 0.7V respectively. In the following figure if Ge diode
connection are reversed, the value of V0 change by
1) 0.2V 2) 0.4V 3) 0.6V 4) 0.8V
Sol : Consider the case when Ge and Si diodes are connected as per the diagram
Equivalent voltage drop across the combination Ge and Si diode = 0.3V
12 0.3
Current i 2.34mA
5k
Output voltage
V0 Ri 5k 2.34mA 11.7V
Now consider the case when diode connection is reversed. In this voltage drop across the diode’s
combination = 0.7V
12 0.7
Current i 2.26mA
5k
V0 iR 2.26mA 5k 11.3V
Hence change in the value of
V0 11.7 11.3 0.4V
Key :2
53. In the circuit shown (Fig). If the diode forward voltage drop is 0.3V, the voltage difference between
A and B is
1) 1.3V 2) 2.3V 3) 0V 4) 0.5V
3
Sol : VA 0.2 10 5 103 0.3
0.2 103 5 103 VB 0
VA VB 2.3volt
Key : 2
54. If the diodes are ideal the current through cell is
D1
5
3
3
2 D2
2
20V
1) 4A 2) 2A 3) 3A 4)1.5A
Sol :
D1
5
3
3
2 D2
2
20V
In the given diagram diode D1 is reverse biased, D2 is forward biased
Therefore the effective resistance of circuit is = Reff = 2+3+3+2 = 10
Given E = 20V
E
From i
Reff
20
i
10
i 2A
Key : 2
55. In the figure shown the equivalent resistance between A and B is
1) 9.6 2) 24
3) 18.4 4) 16
Sol :
The given circuit is a balanced wheatstone bridge.
4 12 (6 18) = 16 24 = 96 =9.6
Effect resistance of circuit is =
4 12 6 18 40 10
Key :1
56. The equivalent resistance of the circuit shown in figure between the points A and B if VA VB is
1) 10 2) 20 3) 5 4) 40
Sol : Diode is in reverse bias, so effective resistance between A and B is 20
Key :2
57. The circuit shown in the figure contains two diodes each with a forward resistance of 30 and with
infinite backward resistance. If the battery is 3V, the current through the 50 resistance
( in ampere) is
1) Zero 2) 0.01 3) 0.02 4) 0.03
Sol : In the circuit, the upper diode D is reverse biased and the lower diode D2 is forward biased. Thus,
there will be no current across upper diode junction. The effective circuit will be as shown in figure.
30
70
50
3V
Total resistance of circuit
R = 50 + 70 + 30 = 150
V 3V
I 0.02 A
Current in circuit, R 150
Key :3
58. A junction diode has a resistance of 25 when forward biased and 2500 when reverse biased. The
current in the diode for the arrangement shown will be
.
5V 10
.0V
1 1 1 1
A A A A
1) 15 2) 7 3) 25 4) 480
Sol : Here, p - n junction is forward biased. Therefore
V 5 1
I A
Current, r R 25 10 7
Key : 2
59. In the given circuit the current through the battery is
1) 0.5 A 2) 1A 3) 1.5 A 4) 2A
Sol : In the given circuit, diode D1 is reverse biased, so it will not conduct. Diodes D2 and D3 are
forward
biased, so they will conduct. The corresponding equivalent circuit is as shown in the figure
The equivalent resistance of the circuit is
Req
5 5 20 10 20 200 20
5 5 20 10 20 30 3
10V
I 1.5 A
20
Current through the battery, 3
Key :3
60. When the voltage drop across a p- n junction diode is increased from 0.65V to 0.70 V, the change in
the diode current is 5mA. The dynamic resistance of the diode is
1) 20 2) 50 3) 10 4) 80
V
rd
Sol : Dynamic resistance, I
0.7V 0.65V 0.05 1000
rd 10
5 10 3 A 5
Key :3
61. In the following circuit, if D1 and D2 are ideal diodes, then the value of l1 and l 2 are respectively .
1)Zero, zero 2) 5 mA, 5 mA
3) 5 ma, Zero 4) Zero, 5mA
Sol :
10
i1 0 ; i2 5mA
2 103
Key :3
62. The current through an ideal PN- junction diode shown in the following circuit diagram will be
1) Zero 2) 1 mA
3) 10 mA 4) 30 mA
Sol : Diode is in reverse bias
Key :1
63. Which of the following semiconductor diodes is reverse biased?
1) 2)
3) 4)
Sol : P-side more negative than N – side
Key :1
64 The depletion layer of silicon diode is 1 m wide and the knee potential is 0.6 V. Then the electric
field in the depletion layer will be
1) zero 2) 0.6 V/m
4
3) 6 10 V / m 4) 6 105 V / m
v 0.6
Sol : E 6 0.6 106 6 105V / m
d 10
Key :4
65. In figure assuming the diodes to be ideal
1) D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased and hence current flows from A to B
2) D2 is forward biased and D1 is reverse biased and hence no current flows from B to A and vice
versa
3) D1 and D2 are both forward biased and hence current flows form A to B
4) D1 and D2 are both reverse biased and hence no current flows from A to B and vice versa
Sol : From the figure D1 is reverse biased. So it acts as open circuit.
There fore no current flows from B to A
Key :2
66. The given circuit has two ideal diodes connected as shown in the figure below. The current flowering
through the resistance R1 will be
1) 1.43 2) 3.13 A
3) 2.5 A 4) 10.0A
Sol : Current will not flow through D1 as it is reverse biased. Current will flow through cell.
R1, D2 and R3
V 10
i 2.5 A
R 202
Key :3
67. The correct curve between potential (V) and distance (d) near p – n junction is
V
P n
1)
d
P n
2)
d
V
P n
3)
d
P n
4)
d
Sol : Conceptual
Key :1
68. The reverse bias in a junction diode is changed from 5V to 15V then the value of current changes
from 38 A to 88 A. The resistance of junction diode will be
1) 4 105 2) 3 105
3) 2 105 4) 106
V 15 5 10 10 6
Sol : R
I 88 38 106 50 106 5
10
105 2 105
5
Key :3
69. VA and VB denote potential of A and B, then the equivalent resistance between A and B in adjoining
circuit is (ideal diode)
1) 15 if VA VB 2) 30 if VA VB
3) Both 1 and 2 4) Neither 1 nor 2
Sol : If VA VB diode is forward bias
30 30
Reff = 15
30 30
If VA VB diode is reverse bias
Reff = 30
Key :3
70. A zener diode, having breakdown voltage equal to 15V, is used in a voltage regulator circuit shown
in the figure. The current through the diode is
1) 10 mA 2) 15 mA
3) 20 mA 4) 5 Ma
Sol : For resistance element of 1k
15
i1 15mA
1
For resistance element of 250
20 15
i250
250
5 20
20mA
250 1000
izener 20 15 5mA
Key :4
71. Of the diodes down in the following diagrams, which one is reverse biased?
12V
1) R
5V
2) R
10V
5V
3)
R
10V
4)
5V R
Sol : In reverse bias condition, n-region is connected to high potential and p-region is connected to low
potential
Key :3
72. A semiconductor X is made by doping a germanium crystal with arsenic (Z = 33). A second
semiconductor Y is made by doping a germanium crystal with indium (Z = 49). The two are joined
end to end and connected to a battery as shown. Which of the following statements is correct?
X Y
1) X is P-type, Y is N-type and the junction is forward biased
2) X is N-type, Y is P-type and the junction is forward biased
3) X is P-type, Y is N-type and the junction is reversed biased
4) X is N-type, Y is P-type and the junction is reversed biased
Sol : Arsenic has five valence electrons, so it a donor impurity. Hence X becomes N-type semiconductor.
Indium has only three outer electrons, so it is an acceptor impurity. Hence Y becomes P-type
semiconductor. Also N (i.e., X) is connected to positive terminal of battery and P (i.e., Y) is
connected to negative terminal of battery so PN-junction is reverse biased.
Key :4
73. A diode having potential difference 0.5 V across its junction which does not depend on current, is
connected in series with resistance of 20 across source. If 0.1A passes through resistance then
what is the voltage of the source?
1) 1.5V 2) 2.0V
3) 2.5V 4) 5V
'
Sol : V V IR 0.5 0.1 20 2.5V
Key :3
74. In the following circuits PN-junction diode D1 , D2 and D3 are ideal for the following potential of A
and B, the correct increasing order of resistance between A and B will be
D1 R
D2 R 2
D R
R 3 R
4
4
A B
(i) -10V, -5V (ii) -5V, -10V
(iii) -4V, -12V
1) (i) < (ii) < (iii) 2) (iii) < (ii) < (i)
3) (ii) = (iii) < (i) 4) (i) = (iii) < (ii)
Sol : (i) VA 10V and VB 5V
Diode D1 and D3 are reverse biased and D2 is forward biased
R R R
RAB R
4 2 4
(ii) When VA 5V and VB 10V
Diode D2 is reverse biased D1 and D2 is forward biased
R R R
R
4 2 4
(iii) In the case equivalent resistance between A and B is also R
Hence (ii) = (iii) < (i)
Key :3
75. Find the VAB
10
30V
VAB 10 10
1) 10V 2) 20V 3) 30V 4) 40V
Sol : Diode is in forwards biasing hence the circuits can be redrawn as follows
30
VAb 5 10V
(10 5)
Key :1
76. In the following circuit the equivalent resistance between A and B is
4 6
A B
2
10V 2V
12
8
20
1) 2) 10 3) 16 4) 20
3
Sol : According to the given figure A is at lower potential w.r.t B. Hence both diodes are in reverse
biasing so equivalent, circuit can be redrawn as follows.
Equivalent resistance between A and B
R 8 2 6 16
Key :3
77. A potential barrier of 0.50V exists across a P-N junction. If the depletion region is 5.0 107 m wide,
the intensity of the electric field in this region is
1) 1.0 106V / m 2) 1.0 105V / m
3) 2.0 105V / m 4) 2.0 106V / m
V 0.5
Sol : E 7
106V / m
d 5 10
Key :1
78. Assuming that the silicon diode having
resistance of 20, the current through the diode is (knee voltage 0.7 V)
1) 0 mA 2) 10 mA
3) 6.5 mA 4) 13.5 Ma
Sol : Here diode is forward biased with
voltage = 2 – 0 = 2 V.
VB = Vknee + IR
2 = 0.7 + I x 200
(Total resistance = 180 + 20=200)
1.3
I 6.5 mA
200
Key : 3
79. The circuit shown in the figure contains two diodes each with a forward resistance of 50 and with
infinite backward resistance. If the battery voltage is 6V, the current through the 100 resistance (in
ampere) is
1) zero 2) 0.02 3) 0.03 4) 0.036
Sol : In the circuit, diode D1 is forward biased,
while D2 is reverse biased. Therefore, current i
through D1 and 100 Re sis tan ce will be
6
i 0.02 A
50 100 150
Here 50 is the resistance of D1 in forward biasing.
Key :2
80. In the circuit, if the forward voltage drop for the diode is 0.5 V, the current will be :-
1) 3.4 mA 2) 2 mA
3) 2.5 mA 4) 3 mA
V 8 0.5
Sol : i 3.4 mA
R 2.2
Key :1
81. The circuit has two oppositely connected ideal diodes in parallel. What is the current flowing in the
circuit
1) 1.71 A 2) 2.00 A
3) 2.31 A 4) 1.33 A
12 12
Sol : i 2A
42 6
Key :2
82. Find the current through 1 resistance –
1) 2 amp 2) 1 amp
3) 3 amp 4) None of these
6 6
Sol : i 2A
2 1 3
Key :1
83. For a given circuit output voltage across load Resistance will be :-
(3) Zero (4) None of these
Key :4
84. In given circuit calculate voltage across a-b :-
1) 10V 2) 20V 3) 30V 4) 40V
Key :3
85. Best representation of PN junction –
1) 2)
3) 4)
Key :3
86. Find VAB
1) 10V 2) 20V 3) 30V 4) none
Key :1
87. Two identical P-N junction are connected in series with a battery in three ways (fig below) the
potential drops across the two P-N junction are equal in
1) circuit 1 and 2 2) circuit 2 and 3 3) circuit 3 and 1 4) circuit 1 only
Key :2
88. A two Volts battery forward biases a diode however there is a drop of 0.5 V across the diode which is
independent of current. Also a current greater then 10 mA produces large joule loss and damages
diode. If diode is to be operated at 5 mA, the series resistance to be put is
1) 3k 2) 300 k 3) 300 4) 200 k
Key :3
89. If in a p-n junction, a square input signal is applied as shown.
Then the output across RL will be
+5V
RL
-5V
10V
+5V
-5V
1) 2) 3) 4) -10V
Sol : This is the circuit where p-n junction is acting as a half –wave rectifier so the output will be
Key :3
90. A 220V ac supply is connected between points A and B (Fig). What will be the potential difference
V across the capacitor?
1) 220V 2) 110V 3) 0V 4) 220 2 V
Key :4
Sol : Capacitor once gets charged upto maximum potential. After that for any other lesser value of p. d
across A and B diode is reverse biased and it does not allow charge to flow in opposite direction.
V
From Vrms max
2
Vmax Vrms 2 220 2volts
91. The value of ripple factor for full wave rectifier is
1) 41 % 2) 141% 3) 48.2 % 4) 121%
Sol : Ripple factor for full wave rectifier = 0.482
Expressed in %, It is 48.2%
Key :3
92. The value of ripple factor for half wave rectifier is
1) 41 % 2) 141% 3) 48.2 % 4) 121%
Sol : Ripple factor for half wave rectifier = 121%
Key :4
93. If a full wave rectifier circuit is operating from 50 Hz mains, the fundamental frequency in the ripple
will be
1) 25 Hz 2) 50 Hz
3) 70.7 Hz 4) 100 Hz
Sol : In full wave rectifier the fundamental frequency in ripple is twice of input frequency.
Key :4
94. A full wave rectifier circuit along with the input and output voltage is shown in the figure then
output due to diode (2) is
1) A, C 2) B, D 3) B, C 4) A, D
Key :2
95. The given graph represents V-I characteristic for a semiconductor device :
Which of the following statements is correct
1) It is V-I characteristic for solar cell where, point A represents open circuit voltage and point B
short circuit current.
2) It is for a solar cell and point A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively.
3) It is for photodiode and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and current, respectively.
4) It is for a LED and points A and B represent open circuit voltage and short circuit current,
respectively.
Key :1
96. What happens during regulation action of a Zener diode?
(i) The current and voltage across the Zener diode remains constant
(ii) The current through series resistance Rs changes
(iii) The Zener resistance is constant
(iv) The resistance offered by Zener changes
Select the correct option out of the following :
1) i and iv 2) ii and iii
3) ii and iv 4) i and ii
Sol : Resistance of Zener diode decreases at breakdown voltage and so current through Rs increases after
breakdown
Key :3
97. If the voltage between the terminals A and B is 17 V and Zener breakdown voltage is 9 V, then the
potential across R is
1) 6 V 2) 8 V 3)9 V 4) 17 V
Sol : The potential across R is =17v-9v=8v
Key :2
98. In the circuit given, the current through the Zener diode is
1) 10 mA 2) 6.67 mA
3) 5 mA 4) 3.33 mA
Key :4
Sol :
The voltage drop across R2
VR 2 VZ 10V
The current through R2 ,
V 10
IR2 R2 0.667 102 A 6.67 mA
R2 1500
The current through R1
V 5
I R1 R1 102 A 10mA
R1 500
The current through the zener diode,
I Z I R1 I R2 (10 6.67)mA 3.33mA
99. In the figure shown the potential drop across the series resistor is
1) 30 V 2) 60V 3) 90V 4) 120V
Sol : Potential drop across series resistance = 120V-90V=30V
Key :1
100. Find the current through zenor diode
1) 5mA 2) 7.5 mA
3) 2.5 mA 4) 12.5 mA
5 15
Sol : iL 3
5mA ; i 7.5mA
110 2 103
i iZ iL iZ i iL
=(7.5-5) mA = 2.5 mA
Key :3
101. Match the following
List - I List - II
I mA
Reverse bias
Vz Forward bias
VV
I A
A) Photodiode 1)
mA
Reverse bias
volts
I1
I2
I3 A
I4
I 4 > I3 > I2 > I1
B) Light emitting diode 2)
I
Red Green Blue
Yellow
V
C) Solar cell 3)
I
V open circuit voltage
I sc
Short circuit current
D) Zenar diode 4)
1) A 2, B 3, C 4, D 1
2) A 1, B 4, C 2, D 3
3) A 1, B 2, C 3, D 4
4) A 2, B 4, C 1, D 3
Key :1
102. A sinusoidal voltage of peak value 200 volt is connected to a diode and resistor R in the circuit
shown, so that half wave rectification occurs. If the forward resistance of the diode is negligible
compared to R, the rms value of voltage across R is approximately (in volt) –
1) 200 2) 100 3) 100 / 2 4) 141
Key :2
103. In the given circuit, the voltage across the load is maintained at 12 V. The current in the zener diode
varies from 0-50mA. What is the maximum wattage of the diode ?
1) 12 w 2) 6 w 3) 0.6 w 4) 1.2 w
Key :3
104. In a transistor the collector current is always less than the emitter current because :-
1) Collector side is reverse biased and the emitter side is forward biased
2) A few charge carriers are lost in the base and only remaining ones reach the collector
3) Collector being reverse biased, attracts less electrons
4) Collector side is forward biased and emitter side is reverse biased
Key :2
105. The device that can act as a complete electronic circuit is
1) Zener diode 2) Junctions diode
3) Integrated circuit 4) Junction transistor
Key :3
106. The input resistance of a silicon transistor is 100 . Base current is changed by 40 A which results
in a change in collector current by 2mA. This transistor is used as a common emitter amplifier with a
load resistance of 4 K . The voltage gain of the amplifier is
1) 4000 2) 1000 3) 2000 4) 3000
Key :3
1 1
107. For a transistor x & y where & are current gains in CB and CE modes respectively.
Then
1) x+y=1 2) x-y=1
3) 2x=1-y 4) x+y=0
1 1 I 1 1 I
Sol : x E ;y B
I C IC I C IC
IE IB
I E I B I E I B IC
x y 1
I C IC IC IC
Key :2
108. In a transistor current gain is 100. If load resistance is 3kΩ and input resistance is 1kΩ what will be
voltage gain?
1) 100 2) 150 3) 200 4) 300
I out Rout RL 3 103
Sol : Voltagegain 100 300
Iin Rin Ri 1103
Key :3
109. Transfer characteristics [Output voltage V0 vs input voltage Vi ] for a base biased transistor in CE
configuration is as shown in the figure. For using transistor as a switch , it is used
1. in region III
2. Both in region (I) and (III)
3. In region II 4. In region I
Key :2
110. A transistor is operated in common emitter configuration at VC 2V such that a change in base
current from 100 A to 300 A produces a change in the collector current from 10mA to 20mA.
The current gain is
1) 75 2) 100 3) 25 4) 50
3 3 3
Sol : I C 20 10 10 10 10 10
I B 300 106 100 10 6 200 10 6
Key :4
111. In a CE transistor amplifier, the audio signal voltage across the collector resistance of 2k is 2V. If
the base resistance is 1 k and the current amplification of the transistor is 100, the input signal
voltage is:
1) 0.1 V 2) 1.0 V 3) 1 mV 4) 10 mV
Sol : Vi/ p iC RL 2V ; Given RL = 2 103
Vi / p 2 i
ic 3
103 A . Also given current amplification factor = C 100
RL 2 10 iB
i
iB C
100
103
Also given iB 2 105 A
10
Vi/ p I B RB 105 1000 10mV
Key :4
112. The voltage gain of an amplifier with 9% negative feedback is 10. The voltage gain with out
feedback will be
1) 1.25 2) 100 3) 90 4) 10
A 9
Sol : A1 0.09 ; A1 10
1 A ; 100
A
10 ; 10 0.9 A A ; 10 0.1A
1 0.09 A
A 100
Key :2
113. The minimum potential difference between the base and emitter required to switch a silicon
transistor ‘ON’ is approximately
1) 1V 2) 3V 3) 5V 4) 4.2 V
Key :1
114. In a negative feedback amplifier , the total phase shift in the circuit will be
1) 00 2) 900 3) 1800 4) 3600
Sol : 1800 phase shift in negative feed back amplifier.
Key :3
115. For a p-n-p transistor in CB configuration, the emitter current IE is 1mA and 0.95. The base
current and collector current are
1) 0.95 mA, 0.05mA
2) 0.05 mA, 0.95mA
3) 9.5 mA, 0.5mA
4) 0.5 mA, 9.5mA
I C I
Sol : ; 0.95 C I C 0.95 mA
I E 1mA
I b I E I C 1 0.95 0.05mA
Key :2
116. If l1 , l2 , l3 are the lengths of the emitter, base and collector of a transistor then
1) l1 l2 l3 2) l3 l2 l1
3) l3 l1 l2 4) l3 l1 l2
Sol
: Emitter has moderate thickness 1 , base is very thin 2 and collector has large thickness 3 .
Hence 3 1 2 .
Key :4
117. For a transistor the parameter = 99. The value of the parameter is
1) 0.91 2) 0.99 3) 9.9 4) 9
99
Sol : 0.99
1 1 99
Key :2
118. A npn transistor is connected in common emitter configuration in a given amplifier. A load
resistance of 800 is connected in the collector circuit and the voltage drop across it is 0.8 V. If
the current amplification factor is 0.96 and the input resistance of the circuit is 192 , the voltage
gain and the power gain of the amplifier will respectively be
1) 80,960 2) 100, 2400
3) 96,192 4) 200, 2200
Sol : Given 0.96
0.96
So, 24
1 0.04
Voltage gain for common emitter configuration
R 800
AV . L 24 100
Ri 192
Power gain for common base configuration
PV AV 24 100 2400
Key :2
119. For the transistor circuit shown below, if = 100, voltage drop between emitter and base is 0.7 V
then value of VCE will be
1) 10 V 2) 5 V 3) 13 V 4) 0 V
5 0.7
Sol : ib 0.5 mA I c I b 100 0.5 mA
8.6
By using VCE VCC Ic RL 18 50 10 3 100 13V
Key :3
120. For a transistor, the current amplification factor is 0.8. The transistor is connected in common emitter
configuration. The change in the collector current when the base current changes by 6 mA is
1) 6 mA 2) 4.8 mA
3) 24 mA 4) 8 mA
Ic
Sol : 0.8 ; I B 6mA ; ;
l I b
I C I b
Key :3
121. In an n - p- n transistor , 1010 electrons enter the emitter in 106 . If 2% of the electrons are lost in
the base. The current transfer ratio is
1) 0.88 2) 0.78 3) 0.98 4) 0.68
Charge
Sol : Current =
time
The emitter current IE is given by
Ne 10 1.6 10
10 19
IE 6
1.6 103
t 10
A = 1.6Ma
The base current IB is given by
2
IB 1.6mA 0.032mA
100
In a transistor
I E I B IC
I C I E I B 1.6mA 0.032mA 1.568mA
Current transfer ratio
I C 1.568
0.98
IE 1.6
Key :3
122. An n - p- n transistor having ac current gain of 50 is to be used to make an amplifier of power gain of
300? What will be the voltage gain of the amplifier?
1) 8.5 2) 6 3) 4 4) 3
Sol : Power gain = Voltage gain Current gain
Power gain 300
Voltage gain = = =6
current gain 50
Key :2
123. A transistor amplifier in CE configuration has load resistance RL 10 k and input resistance
Ri 100 . If = 0.98 then voltage gain of the amplifier is
1) 4900 2) 49 3) 98 4) 9800
RL RL
Sol : Av 4900
Ri 1 Ri
Key :1
124. For transistor CE configuration find the value of if = 0.9.
1) 3 2) 6 3) 9 4) 12
Key :3
125. In a common emitter transistor, the current gain is 80. If change in base current is 250 A, then the
change in collector current is
1) 80 250 A 2) 250 80 A
250
3) 250 80 A 4) A
80
lc
Sol : Current gain ,
lb
lc lb 80 250 A
Key :1
126. The input resistance of a silicon transistor is 100 . Base current is changed by 40 A which
results in a change in collector current by 2 mA. This transistor is used as a common emitter
amplifier with a load resistance of 4k . The voltage gain of the amplifier is
1) 4000 2) 1000 3) 2000 4) 3000
V R I R
Sol : Voltage gain 0 0 C 0
Vin Rin I B Rin
2 10 3 4 103
2000
40 10 6 100
Key :3
127. For a single transistor amplifier, the collector load is RL = 2K and input resistance Ri = 1K . If
the current gain is 50, then the voltage gain of the amplifier is
1)50 2) 25 3) 100 4)75
R 2
Sol : Av L 50 x =100
Ri 1
Key :3
128. The current gain in the common emitter mode of a transistor is 10. The input impedance is 20k
and load of resistance is 100 k . The power gain is
1) 300 2) 500 3) 200 4) 100
Sol : The power gain in case of CE amplifier,
R
Power gain = (Voltage gain)2 x Resistance gain 2 x 0 = (10)2 x 5 = 500
Ri
Key :2
In an n - p- n transistor, 1013electrons enter the emitter in10 sec . If4% of the electrons are lost in
6
129.
the base. The current transfer ratio is
1) 0.88 2) 0.78 3) 0.28 4) 0.96
Charge
Sol : Current =
time
The emitter current IE is given by
Ne 10 1.6 10
13 19
IE 1.6 A
t 106
The base current IB is given by
4
IB 1.6 A 0.064 A
100
In a transistor ; I E I B I C
I C I E I B 1.6 A 0.064 A 1.536 A
I C 1.536
Current transfer ratio 0.96
IE 1.6
Key :4
130. In an NPN transistor circuit, the collector current is 10 mA. If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the
collector, the emitter current ( iE ) and base current ( iB ) are given by
1) iE 1mA, iB 9mA
2) iE 9 mA, iB 1 mA
3) iE 1mA, iB 11 mA
4) iE 11mA, iB 1 mA
Sol :
Key :4
131. In the following common emitter configuration an npn transistor with current gain 100 is used.
The output voltage of the amplifier will be
1) 10 mV 2) 0.1 V 3) 1.0 V 4) 10 V
R
Sol : o/p voltage V0 Vi L
R BE
10 103
V0 1 10 3 100
103 = 1 volt
Key :3
132. In an n-p-n transistor circuit, the collector current is 10mA. If 90% of the electrons emitted reach the
collector
i) The emitter current will be 9Ma
ii) The emitter current will be 11mA
iii) The base current will be 1mA
iv) The base current will be -1mA
1) i, iii 2) ii, iii 3) ii, iv 4) iii, iv
Sol : Given : ic 10mA ic 10mA 0.9 ie
Giventhat ic is 90% of ie
10
ie mA 11mA
0.9
and ib ie ic 11 10 mA 1mA
Key :2
133. In the following common emitter circuit if = 100, VCE =7V, VBE =Negligible, RC=2k ,then IB
is
1) 0.01 mA 2) 0.04 mA
3) 0.02 mA 4) 0.03 mA
VCE 8 I C 4
Sol : I C 4mA ; ;100 ; Ib 0.04mA
RL 2 103 I b Ib
Key :2
134. A transistor is used as an amplifier in CB mode with a load resistance of 5k the current gain of
amplifier is 0.98 and the input resistance is 70 . The voltage gain and power gain respectively are
1) 70, 68.6 2) 80, 75.6
3) 60, 66.6 4) 90, 96.6
Key :1
135. For a transistor, the current amplification factor is 0.8. The transistor is connected in common emitter
configuration. The change in the collector current when the base current changes by 6 mA is :-
1) 6 mA 2) 4.8 Ma 3) 24 Ma 4) 8 mA
Key :3
136. In a NPN transistor, 108 electrons enter the emitter in 10–8 s. If 1% electrons are lost in the base, the
fraction of current that enters the collector and current amplification factor are respectively
1) 0.8 and 49 2) 0.9 and 90
3) 0.7 and 50 4) 0.99 and 99
Key :4
137. The input resistance of a common emitter transistor amplifier, if the output resistance is 500 K , the
current gain = 0.98 and power gain is 6.0625×106, is :-
1) 198 2) 300
(3) 100 4) 400
Key :1
138. NPN transistors are preferred to PNP transistors because they have :-
1) Low cost
2) Low dissipation energy
3) Capability of handling large power
4) Electrons having high mobility than holes
Key :4
139. An n-p-n transistor in a common emitter mode is used as a simple voltage with a amplifier collector
connected to load resistance RL and to the base through a resistance RB. The collector-emitter voltage
VCE = 4V, the base-emitter voltage VBE = 0.6V, current through collector is 4 mA and the current
amplification factor = 100. Calculate the value of RB :-
1) 1k 2) 85k
3) 185k 4) None
Key :3
140. In the circuit shown in figure, when the input voltage Vi = 2.5 V, [Assume VBE, VCE negligible] then
find .
1) 133 2) 100 3) 83 4) 40
Key :1
141. In the following common emitter configuration an 'npn' transistor with current gain = 100 is used
the output voltage of amplifier will be
10k
V out
1mV 1k
1) 10 mV 2) 0.1 V 3) 1.0 V 4) 10 V
Key :3
ic
142. In CB configuration of transistor ac current gain is 0.98 , determine current gain of CE
i E
configuration
1) 49 2) 98 3) 4.9 4) 24.5
Key :1
143. What is the voltage gain in a common emitter amplifier where input resistance is 3 and load
resistance is 24 ( = 6) ?
1) 2.2 2) 1.2 3) 4.8 4) 48
Key :4
144. A common emitter amplifier has a voltage gain of 50, an input impedance of 100 and an output
impedance of 200 . The power gain of the amplifier is
1) 100 2) 500 3) 1000 4) 1250
Key :4
145. The voltage gain of an amplifier with 9% negative feedback is 10. The voltage gain without
feedback will be
1) 1.25 2) 100 3) 90 4) 10
Key :2
146. The combination of the gates shown below forms
1) AND gate 2) XOR gate
3) OR gate 4) NAND gate
Sol : Output of G1 is A , Output of G2 is B
Output of G3 is A B A.B A.B
Output of G4 is ( A.B ) ( A.B ) A.B
NAND gate
Key :4
147. The truth – table given below is for which gate ( ‘A’ , ‘B’ are inputs and ‘C’ is the out put)
A 0 0 1 1
B 0 1 0 1
C 1 1 1 0
1) OR 2) AND
3) NAND 4) OR and AND
Sol : For ‘NAND’ gate C AB
i.e.
0.0 0 1; 0.1 0 1;1.0 0 1;1.1 1 0
Key :3
148. The output of diagram of logic circuit is given below
W
X
F
W
Y
1) W+(X+Y) 2) W+(XY)
3) W.(X.Y) 4) W.(X+Y)
Sol : F (W X )(W Y )
WW W .Y X .W X .Y
W (1 Y ) XW XY W XW XY
W (1 X ) XY W XY
Key :2
149. The Boolean expression which satisfies the output of this logic gate is C=A.B which is for AND gate
The output Y, when all the three inputs are
first high and then low, will respectively
be
1) 1, 0 2) 1, 1 3) 0, 0 4) 0, 1
Sol : If input A = B = C = 1 (high)
then Y = A.B .C = 1.1 .1=0
if A B C 0 low
then y= A.B .C = 0.0 .0 =1
Key :4
150. Truth table for system of four NAND gates as shown in figure is:
1) 2)
3) 4)
Sol : Output of given circuit is
R=A.A.B . B.A.B =A.A.B+B.A.B
=A. A+B +B. A+B =A.A+A.B+B.A+B.B
=0+A.B+B.A+0 =A.B+B.A
Key :3
151. The circuit is equivalent to
1) NOR gate 2) OR gate 3) AND gate 4) NAND gate
Sol : Y A B .It is NOR gate
A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 0
1 0 0
1 1 0
Key :1
152. The logical circuit shown bellow has the input waveforms ‘A’ and ‘B’ as shown . Pick out the
correct waveform.
1)
2)
3)
4)
Sol : Output equation y A B A . B A.B
Key :1
153. The combination of ‘NAND’ gates shown here under (figure) are equivalent to
1)An OR gate and an AND gate respectively
2) An AND gate and a NOT gate respectively
3) An AND gate and an OR gate respectively
4) An OR gate and a NOT gate respectively
Sol : Given combination can be reduced as
C A.B A B A B (De morgan’s theorem)
Hence output C is equivalent to OR gate.
C AB. AB AB AB AB AB AB
In this case output C is equivalent to AND gate
Key :1
154. For the given combination of gates, if the logic states of inputs A,B,C are as follows A = B = C = 0
and A = B = 1, C = 0 then the logic states of output D are respectively
a) 0,0 b) 0,1 c) 1,0 d) 1,1
Sol : The output D for the given combination
D A B .C A B C
If A = B = C = 0 then D 0 0 0 0 0 1 1 1
If A=B=1, C = 0 then D 1 1 0 1 0 0 1 1
Key :4
155. The inputs to the digital circuit are shown below. The output Y is
1) A B C 2) A B C
3) A B C 4) A B C
Sol
: A.B C A B C
Key :3
156. Which gate can be obtained by shorting both the input terminals of a NOR gate
1) OR 2) NOT
3) AND 4) NAND
Sol : It is nothing but a NOT gate
Key :2
157. How many NAND gates are used to form an AND gate
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
Sol : Two ‘NAND’ gates are required as follows
Y AB. AB AB
Key :2
158.
What will be the input of A and B for the Boolean expression A B . A . B 1
1) 0,0 2) 0,1 3) 1,0 4) 1,1
Key :1
Sol : The given Boolean expression can be written as
Y A B . A.B A.B . A B
A A .B A B.B A.B A B A B
159. Which logic gate produces ‘LOW’ output when any of the inputs is ‘HIGH’
1) AND 2) OR
3) NAND 4) NOR
Key :4
160. The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output Y. The
voltage waveforms of A,B and the output Y are as given
The logic gate is
1) NOR gate 2) OR gate
3) AND gate 4) NAND gate
Sol :
Key :4
161. Which logic gate is represented by the following combination of logic gates?
A
Y
B
1) OR 2) NAND
3) AND 4) NOR
Sol : Y A B; Y A.B AB
Key :3
162. The only function of a NOT gate is to
1) stop a signal
2) recomplement a signal
3) invert an input signal
4) act as universal gate
Sol : NOT gate is negation.
If input is A, output will be A
Key :3
163. The Boolean expression for the truth table given below is
A B Y
0 0 1
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
1) Y A B 2) Y A B
3) Y A B 4) Y A B
Sol : For Y A B ,truth table is satisfied
Key :1
164. The output is low when either of the input is high or both inputs are high. Then of the following
gates that satisfies these conditions is
1) OR 2) NOR 3) AND 4) NAND
Sol : For NOR gate, Y A B
A B Y A B
0 0 1
1 0 0
0 1 0
1 1 0
Key :2
165. The combination of the following gates produces
A
Y
B
1) NAND gate 2) AND gate
3) NOR gate 4) OR gate
Sol : Y A.B A.B
Key :2
166. Identify the gate used in the following diagram
A
LOGIC Output
Input
GATE
B
1) AND 2) OR 3) NAND 4) NOR
Key :1
Sol : The out put is high only when both A and B inputs are high. So it is an AND gate
167. Number 725 represented in decimal number system is represented in binary number system as
1) 1011010101 2) 1001010101
3) 10010101 4) 11100011
Key :1
Sol : 2 725
2 362 1
2 181 0
2 90 1
2 45 0
2 22 1
2 11 0
2 5 1
2 2 1 725 10 1011010101 2
2 1 0
0 1
168. The circuit given below is equivalent to
NOR NAND NOT
1) OR gate 2) NOR gate
3) AND gate 4) NAND gate
Sol : Output of NAND = A B . A B A B
Output of NOT, Y A B = NOR gate
Key :2
169. In the adjoining circuit, A and B represent two inputs and C represents the output. The circuit
represents
A
C
B
1) NOR gate 2) AND gate
3) NAND gate 4) OR gate
Sol : Truth table for the circuit is as follows
A B C
0 0 0
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 1
This table is similar to OR gate
Key :4
170. An AND gate is followed by a NOT gate in series. With two inputs A and B, the Boolean expression
for the output Y will be
1) A B 2) A.B 3) A.B 4) A B
A A.B Y A.B
B
Sol :
Key :2
171. In integrated circuits, depending on level of integration, the number of logical gates in VLSI is
1) 10 2) 100 3) 1000 4) >1000
Sol : For very large scale integration, number of logical gates > 1000
Key :4
172. Digital circuits can be made by respective use of
1) AND gates 2) OR gates
3) NOT gates 4) NAND gates
Sol : NAND gate is a universal gate
Key :4
173. Which gate corresponds to the action of parallel switches?
1) OR gate 2) NOR gate
3) NAND gate 4) AND gate
Sol :
A
B
Y= A+ B
Key :1
174. The combination of gates shown below yields
A
1) NAND gate 2) OR gate
3) NOT gate 4) XOR gate
Sol :
Key :2
175. The following figure shows a logic gate circuit with two inputs A and B and the output C. The
voltage waveforms of A, B and C are as shown below. The logic gate is
1) OR gate 2) AND gate
3) NAND gate 4) NOR gate
Sol : Output of OR gate is high, when either of the inputs are high
Key :1
176. In the given circuit A, B and C are inputs and Y is the output
1) High for all the high inputs
2) High for all the low inputs
3) Low when A =1, B =1, C=0
4) Low when A =0, B =0, C= 1
Sol
: Y A B .C
Key :3
177. The decimal equivalent of the binary number 11010.101 2 is
1) 9.625 2) 25.265
3) 26.625 4) 26.265
Key :4
178. Name the gate represented by the following circuit.
1) OR gate 2) XOR gate
3) NOR gate 4) AND gate
Sol :
Y A B . AB
= A B. A B
= AA AB AB BB
= AB AB
= XOR gate
Key :2
179. The logic circuit shown below has the point wave form ‘A’ and ‘B’ as shown. Pick out the correct
output wave form
output is
1)
2)
3)
4)
Sol : Y A B A.B
When both inputs are high, then only output is high.
Key :3
180. The circuit diagram shows a logic combination with the states of outputs X, Y and Z given for inputs
P, Q, R and S all at state 1. When inputs P and R change to state 0 with inputs Q and S still at 1, the
states of outputs X, Y and Z change to
1) 1, 0, 0 2) 1, 1, 1
3) 0, 1, 0 4) 0, 0, 1
Sol :
Key :3
181. Figure gives a system of logic gates. From the study of truth table it can be found that to produce a
high output (1) at R, we must have
1) X = 0, Y = 1 2) X = 1, Y = 1
3) X = 1, Y = 0 4) X = 0, Y = 0
Key :3
182. The combination of gates shown below yields:-
1) NAND gate 2) OR gate
3) NOT gate 4) XOR gate
Key :2
183. Output W is given by –
1) X .Y X
2) X Y . Z
3) X .Y . Z 4) Both 2 and 3
Key :4
184. The input and the output wave form of a logic gate is shown in diagram, then identify the logic gate
:-
1) AND gate 2) OR gate
3) NAND gate 4) NOT gate
Key :1
185. How many NAND gates are required to get OR gate
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
Key :3
![HINT : [P] = [ML2T-3]
Using the relation,
n2 = n1ቂ
ெభ
ெమቃ
௫
ቂ
భ
మቃ
௬
ቂ
்భ
்మቃ
௭
= 1 x 106ቂ
ଵ
ଵ ቃ
ଵ
ቂ
ଵ
ଵ](https://screenshots.scribd.com/Scribd/252_100_85/356/702956481/2.jpeg)
![On solving equations (1) and (2) and (3) X =
ିହ
ଶ , y = z =
ଵ
ଶ
Hence dimension of time are [ܩ
భ
మℎ
భ
మܿିఱ
మ]
K](https://screenshots.scribd.com/Scribd/252_100_85/356/702956481/3.jpeg)
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