RECENCY REVIEW CENTER
MEDICINE AND SURGERY
2006 POST-REVIEW EXAMINATION
Multiple choice. Select the best answer.
1. A surgical approach which provides the greatest single incision
exposure of the peritoneal cavity of the horse:
a. left flank approach
b. right flank approach
c. paramedian approach
d. ventral midline approach
2. In tracheotomy, a tracheal window is produced by:
a. full resection of one tracheal ring
b. full resection of two adjacent tracheal rings
c. partial resection of one tracheal ring
d. partial resection of two adjacent tracheal rings
3. A classification of wound where a hollow muscular organ is opened with gross spillage of
contents, or alternatively, acute inflammation without pus formation is encountered is called:
a. clean wound
b. clean contaminated wound
c. contaminated wound
d. dirty wound
4. Type 7 fracture of the first phalanx is:
a. an avulsion fracture
b. a comminuted fracture
c. a fracture in the frontal plane
d. a transverse fracture
5. A method of acupuncture stimulation which burns leaves of Artemisia argyi is called:
a. cupping
b. hot packing
c. fire needling
d. moxibustion
6. In ventral midline laparatomy, this structure is split so as to provide reinforcement of the
peritoneum during suturing:
a. linea alba
b. external oblique muscle
c. round ligament
d. transverse muscle
7. Treatment of postanesthetic myositis includes the following,
except:
a. analgesic
b. fluid therapy
c. slinging
d. steroids
8. Typhlectomy is a surgical procedure for removal of a portion of
the:
a. cecum
b. colon
c. jejunum
d. ileum
9. Jejunocecal bypass operation is performed in the following conditions except:
a. ileocecal intussusception
b. ileum muscular hypertrophy
c. ileum obstipation
d. none of the above
10. Delayed primary closure is also called:
a. primary intention healing
b. secondary intention healing
c. tertiary intention healing
d. none of the above
11. A technique of castration involving crushing and ligation of
the spermatic cord enclosed in the vaginal tunic, with the testicle itself lying outside the opened
vaginal tunic is called:
a. closed technique
b. half-closed technique
c. open technique
d. primary closure technique
12. Moist proliferation of the dorsal and/or plantar/palmar skin, initially moist and later developing
wart-like proliferations is called:
a. heel erosion
b. sandcrack
c. vegetative dermatitis
d. verrucose dermatitis
13. Standard approach for cesarean section in cattle with uncontaminated fetus and capable of
tolerating surgery while standing:
a. left flank laparotomy
b. right flank laparotomy
c. paramedian laparotomy
d. ventral midline laparotomy
14. A type of hernia where the intestine protrudes through the vaginal ring into the inguinal region is
called:
a. inguinal hernia
b. interstitial hernia
c. true hernia
d. vaginal hernia
15. A procedure used for the treatment of stringhalt in horses is called:
a. cunean tenectomy
b. lateral digital extensor tenotomy
c. medial patellar desmotomy
d. superficial digital flexor tenotomy
16. Surgical procedure indicated for intractable paralysis of the penis in large animals:
a. amputation of the penis
b. local tumor excision
c. penis retraction operation
d. penile translocation
17. Type of graft where the donor graft is taken from a different animal but same species:
a. autogenous graft
b. heterogenous graft
c. homogenous graft
d. xenograft
18. An instrument used for surgical excision of horn bud is:
a. Barne’s dehorner
b. dehorning saw
c. embryotomy wire
d. Robert’s dehorning trephine
19. Destruction of tissue through controlled freezing is called:
a. cryonecrosis
b. cryosurgery
c. double freezing
d. cryotherapy
20. A surgical approach which gives access to the dorsolateral aspect of the guttural pouch is the:
a. hyovertebrotomy approach
b. Viborg’s triangle approach
c. Whitehouse approach
d. Modified Whitehouse approach
21. Sand cracks include the following except:
a. heel crack
b. quarter crack
c. sole crack
d. toe crack
22. Type 9 fracture of the first phalanx is a:
a. comminuted fracture
b. fracture on the frontal plane
c. fracture on the sagittal plane
d. transverse fracture
23. A more-than-180-degree rotation of a segment of jejunum or jejunum and ileum about the
mesentery and usually involves long segments of intestine is called:
a. impaction
b. intussusception
c. torsion
d. volvulus
24. Defatting of the skin during scrubbing can be done by rinses of:
a. alcohol
b. hydrogen peroxide
c. potassium permanganate
d. povidone iodine
25. Changes in spavin are localized in the central tarsal bone, third metatarsal bone and:
a. first tarsal bone
b. second tarsal bone
c. third tarsal bone
d. fourth tarsal bone
26. In the correction of laryngeal hemiplegia, the needle is threaded to the cricoid cartilage and the
muscular process of the:
a. arytenoid cartilage
b. hyoid cartilage
c. pharyngeal cartilage
d. thyroid cartilage
27. Trephination of maxillary sinus is indicated for the following except:
a. empyema
b. neoplasms
c. repulsion of molar teeth
d. tympany
28. The following first phalanx injuries are classified as fractures except:
a. Type 2
b. Type 3
c. Type 4
d. Type 5
29. A type of perineal laceration when the submucosa and muscularis of the vulva, anal sphincter, and
the perineal body are involved, but there is no damage to the rectal mucosa:
a. first-degree
b. second-degree
c. third-degree
d. fourth-degree
30. Pinch or seed grafting is indicated when:
a. bandaging is possible
b. large area must be covered
c. no skin graft is available
d. small area must be covered
31. Epiphora is a condition when there is overflow of:
a. nasal secretions
b. saliva
c. tears
d. vaginal secretions
32. A technique for reconstructive surgery of wound which can be used as a relaxation procedure for
elliptical defects and for scar revision of the palpebra:
a. sliding H-flap
b. tension-relieving incisions
c. Z-plasty
d. None of the above
33. This condition is most often caused by foreign body penetration:
a. heel abscess
b. keratoma
c. septic pododermatitis
d. spastic paresis
34. Recommended suture pattern for repair of severed tendon is:
a. Bunnel pattern
b. Single locking-loop suture pattern
c. Double locking-loop suture pattern
d. Three locking-loop suture pattern
35. Ligation technique in amputation of the mammary gland:
a. single ligation
b. double ligation
c. triple ligation
d. crushing without ligation
36. Food restriction in adult cattle includes withholding of concentrates for:
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 36 hours
d. 48 hours
37. A procedure used for treatment of bone spavin is:
a. cunean tenectomy
b. lateral digital extensor tenotomy
c. medial patellar desmotomy
d. superficial digital flexor tenotomy
38. Prevention of postanesthetic rhabdomyolysis can be done through:
a. adequate padding
b. short surgery time
c. maintenance of blood pressure
d. all of the above
39. Right displacement of the abomasum about a horizontal axis running cranio-caudally:
a. flexio
b. rotation
c. torsion
d. twisting
40. The time soon after wounding during which the wound is contaminated, but not to a point where
the contamination cannot be overcome by the body’s natural defenses is called:
a. bronze period
b. diamond period
c. golden period
d. silver period
41. Type of hernia where there is adhesion between hernial content and internal hernial sac:
a. hernia accreta
b. incarcerated hernia
c. interstitial hernia
d. reducible hernia
42. A surgical approach for cesarean section in the sow which is difficult to perform because of
problem in positioning of the
sow:
a. vertical incision in the left paralumbar fossa and flank region
b. vertical incision in the right paralumbar fossa and flank region
c. horizontal incision in the ventral paralumbar area
d. ventral midline incision
43. Most common type of neoplasm in bovine penis
a. adenoma
b. carcinoma
c. fibropapilloma
d. sarcoma
44. The best material for rope restraint in large animals is:
a. abaca
b. cotton
c. nylon
d. rayon
45. An instrument needed for cricoaritenoidopexy is:
a. Buhner’s needle
b. Deschamp’s needle
c. Gerlach’s needle
d. Perivaginal needle
46. Cesarean section approach in standing cows:
a. left flank laparotomy
b. paramedian
c. right flank laparotomy
d. ventral midline
47. In cervicopexy, the external os of the cervix is sutured to the:
a. iliopubic eminence
b. pelvic ligament
c. prepubic tendon
d. vaginal wall
48. The aim of vestibuloplasty is to:
a. increase the vulvar cleft and lower the vestibular roof
b. increase the vulvar cleft and lower the vestibular roof
c. reduce the vulvar cleft and raise the vestibular roof
d. reduce the vulvar cleft and lower the vestibular roof
49. This is a technique of grafting wherein the skin of an area juxtaposed to the wound is raised from
its bed but left attached to its vascular supply before being placed over the new area:
a. full-thickness graft
b. pedicle graft
c. seed graft
d. split skin graft
50. In diaphragmatic herniorrhaphy in horses, the thorax is approached through the:
th
a. 5 intercostal space
th
b. 7 intercostal space
th
c. 9 intercostal space
th
d. 11 intercostal space
51. When you want to prescribe a drug for your client, prescribe a drug:
a. which is not available in your own pharmacy, but the best drug for the patient
b. which is available in your own pharmacy, but not the best drug for the patient
c. which is a sample given by a drug company
d. any of the above
52. The veterinarian’s primary obligation is to:
a. the animal
b. the general public
c. the veterinary profession
d. his career
53. Which if the following statements is not true:
a. The twitch can be applied to the lower lip in horses
b. The twitch can be applied to the ears in horses
c. The twitch can be applied to the upper lip in horses
d. None of the above
54. Directional signboards used by veterinarians along the street where the veterinarian is practicing
shall not be more than
a. one
b. two
c. three
d. four
55. Which of the following clients you may refuse to serve?
a. clients who have not paid their last bill
b. referrals from other veterinarians
c. disgruntled clients from other veterinarians
d. first-time clients
56. In horses, covering refers to:
a. an enclosure for holding animals
b. the act of mating in horses
c. covered or open enclosure where horses are exercised freely under supervision
d. act or art of riding on horseback
57. The five basic freedoms of animals do not include:
a. freedom from physical discomfort and pain
b. freedom to conform to essential behavior patterns
c. freedom from fear and distress
d. none of the above
58. The appropriateness of euthanasia should be questioned for an:
a. animal at the beginning stage of a progressive illness
b. animal injured so badly that the prognosis is poor and the
treatment cost great
c. animal with cancer and terminal complications
d. animal subjected to toxicity experiments
59. An example of impossible prescription is:
a. Where the brand name is not in parenthesis.
b. Where the brand name is indicated and instructions added which
tend to obstruct, hinder or prevent proper generic dispensing.
c. When only the generic name is written but is not legible.
d. All of the above
60. A consultant who was requested by the attending veterinarian
can:
a. offer other services with compensation
b. offer other services for free
c. give advice outside the scope of official call
d. revisit the patient with the consent of the attending veterinarian
61. Dog shows can be held in the open field:
a. any time of the day
b. between 8:00-11:00 AM
c. between 1:00-4:00 PM
d. between 10:00 AM-2:00 PM
62. Declawing can be performed in a cat when:
a. it always goes out of the house
b. it always stays inside the house
c. it can either go out or into the house
d. none of the above
63. It is considered unprofessional or unethical to:
a. Write testimonials as to the proprietary remedies
b. Guarantee a cure.
c. Act or serve as judge in accredited animal shows.
d. all of the above
64. Agricultural or sport animals:
a. do not have some basic moral rights
b. do not have interests that must be taken into account
c. may be used by people for people’s benefit
d. do not count as individual animals
65. The following are the objectives of Republic Act 9268, except:
a. administration and conduct of licensure examinations
b. supervision and regulation of the practice of veterinary medicine
c. integration of veterinarians under an accredited veterinary professional organization
d. administration of continuing professional education for veterinarians
66. The animal’s capacity to experience pain depends more on:
a. the amount of pain
b. the duration of pain
c. the negative psychological state
d. all of the above
67. The size of the letters of the name of the veterinarian in window or building signs should not be
bigger than:
a. 12 cm
b. 16 cm
c. 20 cm
d. 25 cm
68. A veterinarian when consulted in an emergency by the client
another:
a. can attend to other conditions besides that leading to the emergency.
b. should not refer the patient back to the attending veterinarian upon completion of the
treatment
c. cannot accept the case if the client refuses to go back to the original veterinarian
d. cannot institute radical changes in the treatment previously prescribed
69. An ethical theory which regards the results of an action as a definitive factor of its moral worth:
a. consequentialism
b. emotivism
c. intuitionism
d. utilitarianism
70. Mares shall be bred not earlier than:
a. 1 ½ lunar years of age
b. 2 lunar years of age
c. 2 ½ lunar years of age
d. 3 lunar years of age
71. A veterinarian may not supervise the:
a. collection of sample for blood examination
b. ovariohysterectomy in a cat
c. vaccination in a dog
d. none of the above
72. An example of erroneous prescription is:
a. Where the brand name precedes the generic name.
b. Where the generic name is not legible and a brand name which is legible is written.
c. When the generic name does not correspond to the brand name.
d. All of the above
73. Which of the following is unlawful:
a. cock fight
b. dog fight
c. bull fight
d. spider fight
74. Professional cards can include the following, except:
a. veterinarian's name
b. title
c. specialization
d. services offered
75. Which of the following statements is true:
a. Docking of tails and trimming of ears in horses is prohibited unless for health purposes.
b. Docking of tails in horses is prohibited at all times.
c. Trimming of ears in horses is prohibited at all times.
d. Docking of tails and trimming of ears in horses are prohibited at all times
76. If there is a threat of a highly communicable disease, the owners:
a. can volunteer their animals for vaccination
b. can opt not to vaccinate their animals
c. can be compelled to present their animals for vaccination
d. can sell their animals immediately
77. A person is not qualified to take the Veterinary Medicine Licensure examination if he:
a. is a foreigner whose country has reciprocity with the Philippines in the practice of
veterinary medicine
b. has graduated from a department offering veterinary medicine
c. is a citizen of the Philippines
d. has been accused of an offense involving moral turpitude
78. According to the Rules and Regulations on the Conduct of Scientific Procedures Using Animals,
the term animal refers to:
a. any animal
b. domestic vertebrate animal
c. wild vertebrate animal
d. domestic and wild vertebrate animal
79. The Veterinary Medicine Week was declared not to:
a. showcase veterinary researches and discoveries
b. underscore the role played by veterinarians in nation-building
c. recognize the act of safeguarding animal and human health by veterinarians
d. focus public attention on the shortage of veterinarians
80. A branch of veterinary ethics which deals with the application of ethical standards to
veterinarians by administrative government bodies is called:
a. administrative veterinary ethics
b. descriptive veterinary ethics
c. normative veterinary ethics
d. official veterinary ethics
81. Show veterinarians for dog shows:
a. can be any licensed veterinarian
b. should be a veterinarian accredited by the Animal Welfare Division of the Bureau of
Animal Industry
c. can be any licensed veterinarian with a Professional Tax Receipt and PRC ID
d. should be a veterinarian accredited by the Animal Welfare Division of the Bureau of
Animal Industry with a valid PRC ID and PTR
82. Which of the following clients you are required to serve?
a. questionable clients
b. strange clients
c. ugly clients
d. troublesome clients
83. A veterinarian, according to Republic Act 9268 is one who has:
a. obtained a DVM degree
b. passed the Veterinary Medicine Licensure Examination
c. a Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card
d. a Certificate of Registration, Professional Identification Card and Professional Tax
Receipt
84. An ethical theory which allows for the existence of incompatible moral maxims which vary
between cultures and regards moral concepts as emotional and therefore falling outside the category
of truth:
a. absolutism
b. pragmatism
c. relativism
d. situational ethics
85. The best honorable means by which the veterinarian may make known and advance his reputation
for skill and competence in the practice of veterinary medicine is through:
a. advertising
b. awards received
c. scientific presentations
d. his professional services to his patients and the public
86. Before doing blood transfusion in the animal, you should first get:
a. authorization from the owner
b. results from clinical examination
c. results from laboratory tests
d. tentative diagnosis of the disease
87. A veterinarian can not delegate to a veterinary auxiliary the:
a. clinical examination of a patient
b. diagnosis of the disease
c. treatment protocol for the disease
d. all of the above
88. Humane killing of a vertebrate animal to provide cells, tissues and/or organs for in vitro studies is
what type of replacement for animal research?
a. direct replacement
b. indirect replacement
c. relative replacement
d. partial replacement
89. A branch of veterinary ethics which deals with the process of the articulation and application of
ethical standards for veterinarians by the organized profession is called:
a. administrative veterinary ethics
b. descriptive veterinary ethics
c. normative veterinary ethics
d. official veterinary ethics
90. Euthanasia can be conducted when:
a. an alternative to euthanasia might cause the patient to suffer or to experience a diminished
quality of life
b. keeping alive the animal will cause unwanted inconvenience
c. the animal is chronically aggressive and mean
d. the owner wants it
91. The following cannot be included in advertising:
a. Secret remedies or exclusive method
b. Fixed fees for given services
c. Hospital or clinic equipment and other special services rendered therewith
d. All of the above
92. In research in animals, the following should be strictly observed:
a. humane treatment of animals
b. no unnecessary pain
c. no unnecessary suffering
d. none of the above
93. The moral duties and obligations of a veterinarian include:
a. moral duties to the clients
b. obligations to animals
c. obligations to himself
d. all of the above
94. The veterinarian may not make available materials useful in safeguarding or promoting health
such as:
a. discoveries
b. inventions
c. research works
d. none of the above
95. Anticruelty position states that the animal:
a. can experience any pain or suffering
b. can experience bearable pain or suffering
c. should not experience pain or suffering
d. should not experience unnecessary pain or suffering
96. The view that that each person’s (or each society’s) ethical opinions are as right and correct as any
other is called:
a. consequentialism
b. ethical relativism
c. ethical skepticism
d. utilitarianism
97. A veterinarian may identify himself as veterinary practitioner only in the following manners:
a. calling card
b. letterheads
c. announcement card
d. all of the above
98. For bereaved clients, the veterinarian should:
a. let another person relate the bad news
b. allow the client to be with his pet during the procedure, if he/she so desires.
c. explain all the details of what happened to the pet
d. take care of the burial of the pet
99. Obligations based on religion, conscience, personal awareness of correct behavior or in a sense
of duty is called:
a. legal rights
b. moral rights
c. natural rights
d. none of the above
100. Before they are allowed to race, horses shall have completed:
a. 18 months
b. 24 months
c. 30 months
d. 36 months
MEDICINE AND SURGERY
Answer Key
1. d
2. d
3. c
4. b
5. d
6. c
7. d
8. a
9. a
10. c
11. b
12. d
13. a
14. c
15. b
16. a
17. c
18. d
19. a
20. a
21. c
22. d
23. d
24. a
25. c
26. a
27. d
28. a
29. b
30. b
31. c
32. c
33. c
34. c
35. b
36. b
37. a
38. d
39. a
40. c
41. a
42. d
43. c
44. b
45. b
46. a
47. c
48. d
49. b
50. c
51. a
52. b
53. b
54. b
55. c
56. b
57. d
58. a
59. c
60. d
61. b
62. b
63. d
64. c
65. d
66. b
67. b
68. d
69. a
70. c
71. d
72. a
73. a
74. d
75. a
76. c
77. b
78. d
79. a
80. a
81. d
82. c
83. c
84. c
85. d
86. a
87. d
88. c
89. d
90. c
91. d
92. d
93. d
94. d
95. d
96. b
97. d
98. b
99. b
100. b
