TABLE OF CONTENTS:

CHAPTER 1 THERMODYNAMICS
CHAPTER 2 FUELS & COMBUSTION
CHAPTER 3 DIESEL POWER PLANT
CHAPTER 4 GAS TURBINE
CHAPTER 5 STEAM POWER PLANT
CHAPTER 6 GEOTHERMAL & NON CONVENTIONAL POWER PLANTS
CHAPTER 7 NUCLEAR POWER PLANT
CHAPTER 8 BOILERS
CHAPTER 9 HYDROELECTRIC POWER PLANT
CHAPTER 10 VARIABLE LOAD PROBLEMS & ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING
CHAPTER 11 FLUID MECHANICS
CHAPTER 12 FLUID MACHINERIES
CHAPTER 13 HEAT TRANSFER
CHAPTER 14 REFRIGERATION
CHAPTER 15 AIR CONDITIONING
CHAPTER 16 MACHINE FOUNDATION & CHIMNEY
CHAPTER 17 INSTRUMENTATION
CHAPTER 18 BASIC EE
CHAPTER 19 LATEST BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS
 CHAPTER 1
THERMODYNAMICS

1. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Enthalpy of an ideal gas is a function only of ___________.

A. entropy
B. internal energy
C. temperature
D. pressure

Answer: C

2. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Which of the following is the most efficient thermodynamic cycle?

A. Brayton
B. Otto
C. Carnot
D. Diesel

Answer: C

3. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What is the first law of thermodynamics?

A. internal energy is due to molecular motions

B. entropy of the universe is increased by irreversible processes
C. energy can neither be crated nor destroyed
D. heat energy cannot be completely transformed into work

Answer: C

4. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

An ideal gas is compressed isothermally, what is the enthalpy change?

A. always negative
B. always positive
C. zero
D. undefined

Answer: C

5. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Name the process that has no heat transfer.
 A. isothermal
B. isobaric
C. Polytropic
D. adiabatic

Answer: D

6. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

An ideal gas is compressed in a cylinder so well insulated that there is essentially no
heat transfer. The temperature of the gas

A. decreases
B. increases
C. remain constant
D. is zero

Answer: B

7. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What is the SI unit of pressure?

𝑘𝑔
A.
𝑐𝑚2

𝑑𝑦𝑛𝑒𝑠
B. 𝑐𝑚2

C. Pascal
D. Psi

Answer: C

8. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The equation 𝐶𝑝 = 𝐶𝑣 + R applies to which of the following?

A. enthalpy
B. ideal gas
C. two phase state
D. all pure substances

Answer: B

9. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

In the flow process, neglecting kinetic and potential energies, the integral of Vdp
represents what?

A. heat transfer
 B. flow energy
C. enthalpy change
D. shaft work

Answer: D

10. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Mechanical energy of pressure transformed into energy of heat.

A. kinetic energy
B. enthalpy
C. heat exchanger
D. heat of compression

Answer: B

11. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The theory of changing heat into mechanical work.

A. thermodynamics
B. kinematics
C. inertia
D. kinetics

Answer: A

12. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Average pressure on a surface when a changing pressure condition exist.

A. back pressure
B. partial pressure
C. pressure drop
D. mean effective pressure

Answer: D

13. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Which of the following cycles consists two isothermal and two constant volume
processes?

A. diesel cycle
B. Ericson cycle
C. Stirling cycle
D. Otto cycle

Answer: C
14. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION
A control volume refers to what?

A. a fixed region in space

B. a reversible process
C. an isolated system
D. a specified mass

Answer: A

15. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

In the polytropic process, 𝑃𝑉 𝑛 = constant, if the value of n is infinitely large, the process
is

A. isobaric
B. isometric
C. isothermal
D. polytropic

Answer: B

16. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

If the temperature is held constant and the pressure is increased beyond the saturation
pressure, then the working medium must be:

A. compressed liquid
B. sub cooled liquid
C. saturated vapour
D. saturated liquid

Answer: A

17. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Is one whose temperature is below the saturation temperature corresponding to its
pressure.

A. super heated vapor

B. wet vapor
C. sub cooled liquid
D. saturated liquid

Answer: C

18. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Number of molecules in a mole of any substance is a constant called __________.

A. Rankine constant
 B. Avogadro’s number
C. Otto cycle
D. Thompson constant

Answer: B

19. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

If the pressure of a gas is constant the volume is directly proportional to the absolute
temperature.

A. Boyle’s law
B. Joule’s law
C. Charle’s law
D. Kelvin’s law

Answer: C

20. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom or the number of electrons in the orbit
of an atom.

A. atomic volume
B. atomic number
C. atomic weight
D. atomic mass

Answer: B

21. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

In a P-T diagram of a pure substance, the curve separating the solid phase from the
liquid phase is:

A. vaporization curve
B. fusion curve
C. boiling point
D. sublimation point

Answer: B

22. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

A water temperature of 18 °F in the water cooled condenser is equivalent in °C to
________.

A. 7.78
B. 10
C. 263.56
D. -9.44
 Answer: B

23. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The latent heat of vaporization in joules per kg is equal to _________.

A.5.4x102
B.4.13x10³
C.22.6x105
D.3.35x105

Answer: C

24. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Form of energy associated with the kinetic energy of the random motion of large number
of molecules.

A. internal energy
B. kinetic energy
C. heat of fusion
D. heat

Answer: D

25. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

If the temperature is held constant and the pressure is increased beyond the saturation
pressure, then the working medium must be:

A. saturated vapor
B. compressed liquid
C. saturated liquid
D. sub cooled liquid

Answer: B

26. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Is the condition of pressure and temperature at which a liquid and its vapor are
indistinguishable.

A. critical point
B. dew point
C. absolute humidity
D. relative humidity

Answer: A

27. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

 When a substance in gaseous state is below the critical temperature, it is called
___________.

A. vapor
B. cloud
C. moisture
D. steam

Answer: A

28. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Super heated vapour behaves

A. just as gas
B. just as steam
C. just as ordinary vapor
D. approximately as gas

Answer: D

29. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Which of the following provides the basis for measuring thermodynamic property of
temperature?

A. zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. first law of thermodynamics
C. second law of thermodynamics
D. third law of thermodynamics

Answer: A

30. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Which of the following is commonly used as liquid absorbent?

A. silica gel
B. activated alumina
C. ethylene glycol
D. none of these

Answer: C

31. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Mechanism designed to lower the temperature of air passing through it.

A. air cooler
B. air defense
C. air spill ove
 D. air cycle

Answer: A

32. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

A device for measuring the velocity of wind.

A. aneroid barometer
B. anemometer
C. anemoscope
D. anemograph

Answer: B

33. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Heat normally flowing from a high temperature body to a low temperature body where in
it is impossible to convert heat with out other effects.

A. first law of thermodynamics

B. second law of thermodynamics
C. third law of thermodynamics
D. zeroth law of thermodynamics

Answer: B

34. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The temperature at which its vapour pressure is equal to the pressure exerted on the
liquid.

A. absolute humidity
B. calorimeter
C. boiling point
D. thermal point

Answer: C

35. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

A nozzle is used to

A. increase velocity and decrease pressure

B. decrease velocity as well as pressure
C. increase velocity as well as pressure
D. decrease velocity and increase pressure

Answer: A

36. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

 The sum of energies of all the molecules in a system where energies appear in several
complex form.

A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. internal energy
D. frictional energy

Answer: C

37. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The total energy in a compressible or incompressible fluid flowing across any section in
a pipeline is a function of

A. pressure and velocity

B. pressure, density and velocity
C. pressure, density, velocity and viscosity
D. flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum and internal energy

Answer: D

38. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The ratio of the density of a substance to the density of some standard substance.

A. relative density
B. specific gravity
C. specific density
D. relative gravity

Answer: B

39. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Is one whose pressure is higher than the saturation pressure corresponding to its
temperature.

A. compressed liquid
B. saturated liquid
C. saturated vapor
D. super heated vapor

Answer: A

40. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The changing of solid directly to vapour without passing through the liquid state is called.

A. evaporation
B. vaporation
 C. sublimation
D. condensation

Answer: C
41. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION
Weight per unit volume is termed as __________.

A. specific gravity
B. density
C. weight density
D. specific volume

Answer: C

42. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What is the SI unit of force?

A. pound
B. Newton
C. Kilogram
D. Dyne

Answer: B

43. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The volume of fluid passing a cross-section of steam in unit time.

A. steady flow
B. uniform flow
C. discharge
D. Dyne

Answer: B

44. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What equation applies in the first law of thermodynamics for an ideal gas in a reversible
open steady-state system?

A. Q – W = 𝑈2 - 𝑈1
B. Q + VdP = 𝐻2 - 𝐻1
C. Q – VdP = 𝑈2 - 𝑈1
D. Q – PdV = 𝐻2 - 𝐻1

Answer: B

45. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

A pressure of 1 millibar is equivalent to
 𝑑𝑦𝑛𝑒𝑠
A. 1000 𝑐𝑚2

B. 1000 cm of Hg
C. 1000 psi

𝑘𝑔
D.1000 𝑐𝑚2

Answer: A

46. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at every instant of its state, it is
undergoing:

A. isobaric process
B. quasi-static process
C. isometric process
D. cyclic process

Answer: B

47. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What is the force which tends to draw a body toward the center about which it is
rotating?

A. centrifugal force
B. centrifugal in motion
C. centrifugal in advance
D. centripetal force

Answer: D

48. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What is the process that has no heat transfer?

A. reversible isometric
B. isothermal
C. polytropic
D. adiabatic

Answer: D

49. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Which of the engine is used for fighter bombers?

A. turbojet
 B. pulse jet
C. rockets
D. ramjet
Answer: A

50. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Exhaust gases from an engine posses:

A. solar energy
B. kinetic energy
C. chemical energy
D. stored energy

Answer: B

51. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

At critical point the latent enthalpy of vaporization is

A. temperature dependent
B. zero
C. minimum
D. maximum

Answer: B

52. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What is the force which tends to draw a body toward the center about which it is
rotating?

A. centrifugal force
B. centrifugal in motion
C. centrifugal advance
D. centripetal force

Answer: D

53. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

When a system deviates infinitesimally from equilibrium at every instant of its state, it is
undergoing

A. isobaric process
B. quasi – static process
C. isometric process
D. cyclic process

Answer: B
54. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION
A pressure of 1 millibar is equivalent to

A. 1000 dynes/cm²
B. 1000 cm of Hg
C. 1000 psi
D. 1000 kg/cm²

Answer: A

55. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Work done per unit charge when charged is moved from one point to another.

A. equipotential surface
B. potential at a point
C. electro static point
D. potential difference

Answer: B

56. How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium state of
a pure gaseous compound?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: B

57. Which of the following relations defines enthalpy?

A. h = u + p/T
B. h = u +pV
C. h = u + p/V
D. h = pV + T

Answer: B

58. Which of the following is true for water at a reference temperature where enthalpy is
zero?

A. internal energy is negative

B. entropy is non - zero
C. specific volume is zero
D. vapour pressure is zero
 Answer: A

59. On what plane is the Mollier diagram plotted

A. p - V
B. p - T
C. h - s
D. h - u

Answer: C

60. The compressibility factor z, is used for predicting the behaviour of non – ideal gasses.
How is the compressibility factor defined relative to an ideal gas? (subscript c refers to
critical value)

A. z = P/𝑃𝑐
B. z = PV/RT
C. z = T/𝑇𝐶
D. z = (T/𝑇𝑐 ) ( 𝑃𝑐 /P)

Answer: B

61. How is the quality x of a liquid – vapour mixture defined?

A. the fraction of the total volume that is saturated vapor

B. the fraction of the total volume that is saturated liquid
C. the fraction of the total mass that is saturated vapor
D. the fraction of the total mass that is saturated liquid

Answer: C

62. What is the expression for heat of vaporization?

A. ℎ𝑔
B. ℎ𝑓
C ℎ𝑔 - ℎ𝑓
D. ℎ𝑓 - ℎ𝑔

Answer: C

63. What is the value of the work done for a closed, reversible, isometric system?

A. zero
B. positive
C. negative
D. indeterminate

Answer: A
64. What is the equation for the done by a constant temperature system?
A. W = mRT ln (𝑉2 - 𝑉2 )
B. W = mRT (𝑇2 − 𝑇1 ) ln (𝑉2 / 𝑉1 )
C. W = MRT ln (𝑉2 /𝑉1)
D. W = RT ln (𝑉2 /𝑉1)

Answer: C

65. What is the true about the polytropic exponent n for a perfect gas undergoing an
isobaric process?

A. n > 0
B. n < 0
C. n = ∞
D. n = 0

Answer: D

66. How does an adiabatic process compare to an isentropic process?

A. adiabatic: heat transfer = 0, isentropic: heat transfer = 0

B. adiabatic: heat transfer = 0, isentropic: heat transfer = 0
C. adiabatic: reversible, isentropic: not reversible
D. both: heat transfer = 0; isentropic: reversible

Answer: D

67. During an adiabatic, internally reversible process, what is true about the change in
entropy?

A. it is always zero
B. it is always less than zero
C. it is always greater than zero
D. it is temperature - dependent

Answer: A

68. For an irreversible process, what is true about the change in entropy of the system and
surroundings?

𝑑𝑞
A. ds = 𝑑𝑡
B. ds = 0
C. ds > 0
D. ds < 0
 Answer: C

69. For which type of process does the equation dQ = Tds hold?

A. irreversible
B. reversible
C. isobaric
D. isothermal

Answer: B

70. Which of the following is true for any process?

A. ∆S (surrounding) + ∆ (system) > 0

B. ∆S (surrounding) + ∆ (system) < 0
C. ∆S (surrounding) + ∆ (system) ≤ 0
D. ∆S (surrounding) + ∆ (system) ≥ 0

Answer: D

71. Which of the following thermodynamic cycle is the most efficient?

A. Brayton
B. Rankine
C. Carnot
D. Otto

Answer: C

72. The ideal reversible Carnot cycle involves four basic processes. What type of processes
are they?

A. all isothermal
B. all adiabatic
C. all isentropic
D. two isothermal and two isentropic

Answer: D

73. What is the temperature difference of the cycle if the entropy difference is ∆S, and the
work done is W?

A. W - ∆S
B. W / ∆S
C. ∆S / W
D. ∆S - W
 Answer: B

74. Which of the following is not an advantage of a superheated, closed Rankine cycle over
an open Rankine cycle?

A. lower equipment cost

B. increased efficiency
C. increased turbine life
D. increased boiler life

Answer: D

75. Which of the following statements regarding Rankine cycle is not true?

A. use of a condensable vapour in the cycle increases the efficiency of the cycle
B. the temperatures at which energy is transferred to and from the working liquid are
less separated than in a Carnot cycle,
C. super heating increases the efficiency of a Rankine cycle
D. in practical terms, the susceptibility of the engine materials to corrosion is not a key
limitation on the operating efficiency.

Answer: D

76. Which one of the following is standard temperature and pressure (STP)

A. 0 K and 1atm pressure

B. 0 F and zero pressure
C. 32 F and zero pressure
D. 0 ℃ and 1atm pressure

Answer: D

77. A substance is oxidized when which of the following occurs?

A. it turns red
B. it loses electrons
C. it gives off heat
D. it absorbs energy

Answer: B

78. Which of the following is not a unit of pressure?

A. Pa
𝑘𝑔
B. 𝑚−𝑠
C. bars
 𝑘𝑔
D. 𝑚2
Answer: B

79. Which of the following is the definition of Joule?

A. Newton meter
𝑘𝑔 𝑚
B. 𝑠2
C. unit of power
D. rate of change of energy

Answer: A

80. Which of the following is the basis for Bernoulli’s law for fluid flow?

A. the principle of conservation of mass

B. the principle of conservation of energy
C. the continuity equation
D. Fourier’s law

Answer: B

81. Equation of state for a single component can be any of the following except:

A. the ideal gas law

B. any relationship interrelating 3 or more state functions
C. relationship mathematically interrelating thermodynamic properties of the material
D. a mathematical expression defining a path between states

Answer: D

82. The state of a thermodynamic system is always defined by its:

A. absolute temperature
B. process
C. properties
D. temperature and pressure

Answer: C

83. In any non quasi – static thermodynamic process, the overall entropy of an isolated
system will

A. increase and then decrease

B. decrease and then increase
C. increase only
D. decrease only
 Answer: C

84. Entropy is the measure of :

A. the internal energy of a gas

B. the heat capacity of a substance
C. randomness or disorder
D. the change of enthalpy

Answer: C

85. Which of the following statements about entropy is false?

A. entropy of mixture is greater than that of its components under the same condition
B. an irreversible process increases entropy of the universe
C. net entropy change in any closed cycle is zero
D. entropy of a crystal at 0 ℉ is zero

Answer: D

86. Work or energy can be a function of all of the following except :

A. force and distance

B. power and time
C. force and time
D. temperature and entropy

Answer: C

87. Energy changes are represented by all except which one of the following:

A. m𝐶𝑝 dt
B. - ∫ VdP
C. Tds - PdV
𝑑𝑄
D. 𝑇

Answer: D

88. U + pV is a quantity called :

A. shaft work
B. entropy
C. enthalpy
D. internal energy

Answer: C
89. In flow process, neglecting KE and PE changes, ∫ vdP represents which item below?

A. heat transfer
B. shaft work
C. enthalpy change
D. closed system work

Answer: B

90. Power, may be expressed in units of

A. ft - lb
B. Kw - hr
C. Btu
𝐵𝑡𝑢
D. ℎ𝑟

Answer: D

91. Equilibrium condition exist in all except which of the following?

A. in reversible process
B. in processes where driving forces are infinitesimals
C. in a steady state flow process
D. where nothing can occur without an effect on the system’s surrounding

Answer: C

92. In a closed system (with a moving boundary) which of the following represents work
done during an isothermal process?

A. W = 0
B. W = P (𝑉2 − 𝑉1 )
𝑉
C. W = 𝑃1 𝑉1 𝑙𝑛 𝑉2
1
𝑃2 𝑉2 − 𝑃1 𝑉1
D. W = 1−𝑛

Answer: C

93. A substance that exist, or is regarded as existing, as a continuoum characterized by a lo

w resistance to flow and the tendency to assume the shape of its container.

A. fluid
B. atom
C. molecule
D. vapor
 Answer: A

94. A substance that is homogenous in composition and homogenous and invariable in

chemical aggregation.

A. pure substance
B. simple substance
C. vapor
D. water

Answer: A

95. A substance whose state is defined by variable intensive thermodynamic properties.

A. pure substance
B. simple substance
C. vapor
D. water

Answer: B

96. A system in which there is no exchange of matter with the surrounding or mass does not
cross its boundaries.

A. open system
B. closed system
C. isolated system
D. non flow system

Answer: B

97. A system that is completely impervious to its surrounding or neither mass nor energy
cross its boundaries.

A. open system
B. closed system
C. isolated system
D. non flow system

Answer: C

98. A system in which there is a flow of mass across its boundaries.

A. open system
B. closed system
C. isolated system
D. non flow system
 Answer: A

99. The properties that are dependent upon the mass of the system and are total values
such as total volume and total internal energy.

A. intensive properties
B. extensive properties
C. specific properties
D. state properties

Answer: B

100. The properties that are independent of the mass of the system such as temperature,
pressure, density and voltage.

A. intensive properties
B. extensive properties
C. specific properties
D. state properties

Answer: A

101. The properties for a unit mass and are intensive by definition such as specific volume.

A. intensive properties
B. extensive properties
C. specific properties
D. thermodynamic properties

Answer: C

102. The condition as identified through the properties of the substance, generally defined by
particular values of any two independent properties.

A. state
B. point
C. process
D. flow

Answer: A

103. The only base unit with a prefix kilo is

A. kilogram
B. kilo meter
C. kilo Joule
 D. kilo Pascal

Answer: A

104. The force gravity on a body.

A. weight
B. specific gravity
C. attraction
D. mass

Answer: A

105. The mass per unit volume of any substance.

A. density
B. specific volume
C. specific weight
D. specific gravity

Answer: A

106. The force of gravity on unit volume is

A. density
B. specific volume
C. specific weight
D. specific gravity

Answer: A

107. The reciprocal of density is

A. specific volume
B. specific weight
C. specific gravity
D. specific heat

Answer: A

108. Avogadro’s number a fundamental constant of nature, is the number of molecules in a

gram – mole. This constant is

A. 6.05222x1023
B. 6.02252x1023
C. 6.20522x1023
D. 6.50222x1023
 Answer: B

109. The ratio of the gas constant to Avogadro’s number is :

A. Maxwell’s constant
B. Boltzmann’z constant
C. Napier’s constant
D. Joule’s constant

Answer: B

110. The absolute zero on the Fahrenheit scale is at

A. -459.7 ℉
B. 459.7 ℉
C. -273.15 ℃
D. 273.15 ℃

Answer: A

111. Absolute temperature on the Fahrenheit scale are called:

A. degrees Rankine
B. degrees Kelvin
C. absolute Fahrenheit
D. absolute Celsius

Answer: C

112. The absolute zero on the Celsius scale is at

A. -459.7 ℉
B. 459.7 ℉
C. -273.15 ℃
D. 273.15 ℃

Answer: C

113. What is the absolute temperature in Celsius scale?

A. degrees Rankine
B. degrees Kelvin
C. absolute Fahrenheit
D. absolute Celsius

Answer: B
114. The Fahrenheit scale was introduced by Gabriel Fahrenheit of Amsterdam, Holland in
what year?

A. 1592
B. 1742
C. 1730
D. 1720

Answer: D

115. The centigrade scale was introduced by Celsius in what year?

A. 1542
B. 1740
C. 1730
D. 1720

Answer: B

116. The national Bureau of standards uses, among others, the liquid – vapour equilibrium of
hydrogen at

A. -196 ℃
B. 196 ℃
C. 253 ℃
D. -253 ℃

Answer: D

117. The national Bureau of standards uses, among others, the liquid – vapour equilibrium of
nitrogen at

A. -196 ℃
B. 196 ℃
C. 253 ℃
D. -253 ℃

Answer: A

118. The liquid – vapour equilibrium of oxygen is at what temperature?

A. 197.82 ℃
B. -197.82 ℃
C. 182.97 ℃
D. -182.97 ℃

Answer: D
119. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Mercury is at what temperature?

A. 38.87 ℃
B. -38.87 ℃
C. 37.88 ℃
D. -37.88 ℃

Answer: B

120. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Tin is at what temperature?

A. -38.87 ℃
B. 38.87 ℃
C. 231.9 ℃
D. -231.9 ℃

Answer: C

121. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Zinc is what temperature?

A. 231.9 ℃
B. 419.505 ℃
C. 444.60 ℃
D. 630.5 ℃

Answer: B

122. The liquid – vapour equilibrium of sulphur is what temperature?

A. 231.9 ℃
B. 419.505 ℃
C. 444.60 ℃
D. 630.5 ℃

Answer: C

123. The solid liquid equilibrium of Antimony is what temperature?

A. 630.5 ℃
B. 419.505 ℃
C. 444.60 ℃
D. 231.9 ℃

Answer: A
124. The solid – liquid equilibrium of silver is at what temperature?
 A. 630.5 ℃
B. 960.8 ℃
C. 1063 ℃
D. 1774 ℃

Answer: B

125. The solid – equilibrium of Gold is at what temperature?

A. 630.5 ℃
B. 960.8 ℃
C. 1063 ℃
D. 1774 ℃

Answer: C

126. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Platinum is what temperature?

A. 630.5 ℃
B. 960.8 ℃
C. 1063 ℃
D. 1774 ℃

Answer: D

127. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Tungsten is what temperature?

A. 3730 ℃
B.3370 ℃
C.3073 ℃
D.3037 ℃

Answer: B

128. The device that measures temperature by the electromotive force?

A. thermometer
B. thermo couple
C. electro - thermometer
D. thermo seebeck

Answer: B

129. The emf is a function of the temperature difference between the junction, a
phenomenon called :

A. seebeck effect
 B. stagnation effect
C. Primming
D. electromotive force

Answer: A

130. The device that measure temperature by the electromotive force called thermo couple
was discovered by :

A. Galileo
B. Fahrenheit
C. Celsius
D. Seebeck

Answer: D

131. When two bodies, isolated from other environment, are in thermal equilibrium with a
third body, the two are in thermal equilibrium with each other.

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

Answer: A

132. The total entropy of pure substances approaches zero as the absolute thermodynamic
temperature approaches zero.

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

Answer: D

133. If any one more properties of a system change, the system is said to have undergone a
_______.

A. cycle
B. process
C. flow
D. control

Answer: B
134. When a certain mass of liquid in a particular state passes through a series of processes
and returns to its initial state, it undergoes a :

A. revolution
B. rotation
C. process
D. cycle

Answer: D

135. The term given to the collection of matter under consideration enclosed within a
boundary.

A. system
B. matter
C. environment
D. atoms

Answer: A

136. The region outside the boundary or the space and matter external to a system :

A. ex – system
B. surrounding
C. matter
D. extension

Answer: B

137. The true pressure measured above a perfect vacuum.

A. absolute pressure
B. gage pressure
C. atmospheric pressure
D. vacuum pressure

Answer: A

138. The pressure measured from the level of atmospheric pressure by most pressure
recording instrument like pressure gage and open – ended manometer.

A. gage pressure
B. atmospheric pressure
C. atmospheric pressure
D. absolute pressure

Answer: A
139. The pressure obtained from barometric reading.

A. absolute pressure
B. gage pressure
C. atmospheric pressure
D. vacuum pressure

Answer: C

140. It is a form of energy associated with the kinetic random motion of large number of
molecules.

A. internal energy
B. kinetic energy
C. heat
D. enthalpy

Answer: C

141. The heat needed to change the temperature of the body without changing its phase.

A. latent heat
B. sensible heat
C. specific heat
D. heat transfer

Answer: B

142. The heat needed by the body to change its phase without changing its temperature.

A. latent heat
B. sensible heat
C. specific heat
D. heat transfer

Answer: A

143. The measure of randomness of the molecules of the substance.

A. enthalpy
B. internal energy
C. entropy
D. heat

Answer: C
144. The heat energy transferred to a substance at a constant pressure process is
:____________.

A. enthalpy
B. heat
C. internal energy
D. entropy

Answer: A

145. It is the energy stored within the body.

A. enthalpy
B. heat
C. internal energy
D. entropy

Answer: C

146. A theoretically ideal gas which strictly follows Boyle’s law and Charle’s law of gases.

A. universal gas
B. perfect gas
C. combined gas
D. imperfect gas

Answer: B

147. In a confined gas, if the absolute temperature is held constant, the volume is inversely
proportional to the absolute pressure.

A. Boyle’s law
B. Charle’s law
C. Daltoon’s law
D. Avogadro’s law

Answer: A

148. In a confined gas if the absolute pressure is held constant the volume is directly
proportional to the absolute temperature.

A. Boyle’s law
B. Charle’s law
C. Dalton’s law
D. Avogadro’s law

Answer: B
149. The pressure exerted in a vessel by a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the
pressures that each separate gas would exert if it alone occupied the whole volume of
the vessel.

A. Boyle’s law
B. Charle’s law
C. Dalton’s law
D. Avogadro’s law

Answer: C

150. At equal volume, at the same temperature and pressure conditions, the gases contain
the same number of molecules.

A. Boyle’s law
B. Charle’s law
C. Dalton’s law
D. Avogadro’s law

Answer: D

151. A process in which the system departs from equilibrium state only infinitesimally at
every instant.

A. reversible process
B. irreversible process
C. cyclic process
D. Quasi – static process

Answer: D

152. A process which gives the same states/conditions after the system undergoes a series
of processes :

A. reversible process
B. irreversible process
C. cyclic process
D. Quasi – static process

Answer: C

153. A thermodynamic system that generally serve as a heat source or heat sink for another
system.

A. combustion chamber
B. heat reservoir
 C. heat engine
D. Stirling engine

Answer: B

154. A thermodynamic system that operates continuously with only energy (heat and work)
crossing its boundaries; its boundaries are impervious to the flow of mass.

A. heat engine
B. steady flow work
C. Stirling engine
D. Ericson engine

Answer: A

155. A surface that is impervious to heat is

A. isothermal surface
B. adiabatic surface
C. isochoric surface
D. isobaric surface

Answer: B

156. One of the consequences of Einstein’s theory of relativity is that mass maybe converted
into energy and energy into mass, the relation being given by the famous equation, E =
mc². What is the value of the speed of light c?

A. 2.7797x1010 cm/s
B. 2.9979x1010 cm/s
C. 1.7797x1010 cm/s
D. 2.9979x1010 cm/s

Answer: B

157. In the polytropic process we have p𝑣 𝑛 = constant, if the value of n is infinitely large, the
process is called:

A. constant volume process

B. constant pressure process
C. constant temperature process
D. adiabatic process

Answer: A

158. The thermodynamic cycle used in a thermal power plant is :

 A. Ericson
B. Brayton
C. Joule
D. Rankine

Answer: D

159. For the same heat input and same compression ratio :

A. both Otto cycle and Diesel cycle are equally efficient

B. Otto cycle is less efficient than diesel cycle
C. efficiency depends mainly cn working substance
D. none of the above is correct

Answer: C

160. A heat exchange process where in the product of pressure and volume remains
constant called:

A. heat exchange process

B. isentropic process
C. throttling process
D. hyperbolic process

Answer: D

161. Which of the following provides the basis for measuring thermodynamic property of
temperature?

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

Answer: A

162. 1 watt .....

A. 1 Nm/s
B. 1 Nm/min
C. 1 Nm/hr
D. 1 kNm/hr

Answer: A

163. Under ideal conditions, isothermal, isobaric, isochoric and adiabatic processes are :
 A. dynamic processes
B. stable processes
C. quasi – static processes
D. static processes

Answer: C

164. Isentropic flow is

A. perfect gas flow

B. irreversible adiabatic flow
C. ideal fluid flow
D. reversible adiabatic flow

Answer: D

165. Exhaust gases from an engine posses

A. solar energy
B. kinetic energy
C. chemical energy
D. stored energy

Answer: B

166. The extension and compression of a helical spring is an example of what process?

A. isothermal cycle
B. thermodynamic process
C. adiabatic process
D. reversible process

Answer: D

167. At critical point the latent enthalpy of vaporization is __________.

A. dependent on temperature
B. zero
C. minimum
D. maximum

Answer: D

168. Which of the following relations is not applicable in a free expansion process?

A. heat supplied is zero

B. heat rejected is zero
 C. work done is zero
D. change in temperature is zero

Answer: D

169. The triple point of a substance is the temperature and pressure at wich:

A. the solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium

B. the liquid and gaseous phase are in equilibrium
C. the solid, liquid and gaseous phases are in equilibrium
D. the solid does not melt, the liquid does not boil and the gas does not condense.

Answer: D

170. According to Clausius statement

A. heat flows from hot substance to cold substance unaided

B. heat cannot flow from cold substance to hot substance
C. heat can flow from cold substance to hot substance with the aid of external work
D. A and C

Answer: D

171. A heat engine is supplied heat at rate of 30,000 J/s gives an output of 9kW. The thermal
efficiency of the engine is __________.

A. 30%
B. 43%
C. 50%
D. 55%

Answer: A

172. The RMS velocity of hydrogen gas at N.T.P. is approximately ____________.

A. 3838 m/s
B. 1839 m/s
C. 4839 m/s
D. 839 m/s

Answer: B
173. Which of the following cycles has two isothermal and two constant volume processes?

A. joule cycle
B. diesel cycle
C. Ericson cycle
D. Stirling cycle
 Answer: D

174. “ it is impossible to construct a heat engine that operates in a cycle and receives a given
quantity of heat from a high temperature body and does an equal amount of work” The
above statement is known as :

A. Gay Lussac’s law

B. Kinetic theory
C. Kelvin – Planck’s law
D. Joule – Thomson’s law

Answer: C

175. For steam nozzle, which of the following ratios with have the value less than unity ?

A. (pressure at inlet) (pressure at outlet)

B. specific volume at inlet/ (specific volume at outlet)
C. temperature of steam at inlet/ (temperature of steam at outlet)
D. none of the above

Answer: B

176. A bell – Coleman cycle is a reversed

A. Stirling cycle
B. Brayton cycle
C. Joule cycle
D. Carnot cycle

Answer: C

177. Ericson cycle consists of the following four processes:

A. two isothermal and two constant volume

B. two isothermal and two constant isentropic
C. two isothermal and two constant pressure
D. two adiabatic and two constant pressure

Answer: C

178. A steam nozzle changes

A. kinetic energy into heat energy

B. heat energy into potential energy
C. potential energy into heat energy
D. heat energy into kinetic energy
 Answer: D

179. Which is not correct for calculating air standard efficiency?

A. all processes are reversible

B. specific heat remains unchanged at all temperature
C. no account of the mechanism of heat transfer is considered
D. gases dissociate at higher temperature

Answer: D

180. According to Pettlier Thomson effect:

A. it is impossible to construct a heat engine that operates in a cycle and receives a

given quantity of heat from a high temperature body and does an equal amount of work
B. it is impossible to construct a device that operates in a cycle and produces no effect
other than the transfer of heat from a cooler body to hotter body
C. when two dissimilar metals are heated at one end and cooled at other, e.m.f. that is
developed is proportional to difference of temperature at two ends
D. work can’t be converted into heat

Answer: D

181.In actual gasses the molecular collisions are :

A. plastic
B. elastic
C. inelastic
D. in plastic

Answer: C

182. The Beattie – Bridgeman equation of state is quite accurate in case of :

A. all pressures above atmospheric pressure

B. densities less than about 0.8 times the critical density
C. near critical temperature
D. none of the above

Answer: B
183. Which of the following statement about Van de Waals equation is correct?

A. it is valid for all pressure and temperatures

B. it represents a straight line on PV versus V plot
C. it has three roots of identical value at the critical point
D. the equation is valid for diatomic gases only
 Answer: C

184. The Clapeyron’s equation is applicable to :

A. 1 system in equilibrium
B. a change of state
C. a change of state when two phases are in equilibrium
D. a change of state when water and water vapour are involved

Answer: C

185. The vapour pressure is related to the enthalpy of vaporization by the:

A. Clausius – Claypeyron’s equation

B. Dalton’s law
C. Raoult’s law
D. Maxwell’s law

Answer: A

186. Solubility of a gas in a liquid at small concentration can be represented by which law?

A. Henry’s law
B. Clausius – Clapeyron’s equation
C. Dalton’s law
D. Roult’s law

Answer: A

187. A compound pressure gauge is used to measure:

A. complex pressure
B. variable pressure
C. average pressure
D. positive and negative pressure

Answer: D

188. Which of the engine is used for fighter bomber?

A. turboprop
B. turbojet
C. ramjet
D. pulsejet

Answer: B
189. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION
The thermal efficiency of gas – vapour cycle as compare to steam turbine or gas turbine

A. greater than
B. less than
C. not comparable
D. equal

Answer: A

190. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The process in which heat energy is transferred to thermal energy storage device is
known as:

A. adiabatic
B. regeneration
C. inter cooling
D. heat transfer

Answer: B

191.PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The absolute zero in Celsius scale is:

A. 100
B. 0
C. -273
D. 273

Answer: C

192. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What is the temperature when water and vapour are in equilibrium with the atmospheric
pressure?

A. ice point
B. steam point
C. critical point
D. freezing point

Answer: B

193. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The temperature of a pure substance at a temperature of absolute zero is:

A. unity
 B. zero
C. infinity
D. 100

Answer: B

194.PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

When the number of reheat stages in a reheat cycle is increased, the average
temperature:

A. increases
B. decreases
C. is constant
D. is zero

Answer: A

195. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

A temperature measurement in an ordinary thermometer which has constant specific
humidity.

A. critical temperature
B. dew point temperature
C. dry bulb temperature
D. wet bulb temperature

Answer: B

196. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

In a closed vessel, when vaporization takes place, the temperature rises. Due to the
rising temperature, the pressure increases until an equilibrium is established between the
temperature and pressure. The temperature of equilibrium is called:

A. dew point
B. ice point
C. superheated temperature
D. boiling point

Answer: D

197. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

When hot soup was served in a cup during dinner an engineer was so eager to drink it.
Since it was hot, he added cubes of ice to cool the soup and stirred it. He noticed that
dew starts to form at the outermost surface of the cup. What is this temperature equal to?

A. super heated temperature

B. equal to zero
 C. standard temperature
D. equal to air’s dew point temperature

Answer: D

198. Is the measure of the energy that is no longer available to perform useful work within
the current environment.

A. absolute entropy
B. absolute enthalpy
C. fugacity
D. molar value

Answer: A

199. A graph of enthalpy versus entropy for steam

A. Mollier diagram
B. Moody diagram
C. steam table
D. Maxwell diagram

Answer: A

200. The reaction of inertia in an accelerated body is called

A. kinetic reaction
B. endothermic reaction
C. kinematic reaction
D. dynamic reaction

Answer: A

201. A Mollier chart of thermodynamic properties is shown in which of the following

diagrams?

A. T – S diagram
B. P – V diagram
C. h – S diagram
D. p – h diagram

Answer: C

202. The following are included in the first law of thermodynamics for closed system
EXCEPT:

A. heat transferred in and of the system

 B. work done by or on the system
C. internal energy
D. kinetic energy

Answer: C

203. All processes below are irreversible except one. Which one?

A. magnetization with hysteresis

B. elastic tension and release of steel bar
C. in elastic deformation
D. heat conduction

Answer: B

204. The combination of condition that best describe thermodynamic process is given by
which of following?

I. Has successive states through which the system passes

II. When reversed leaves no change in the system
III. When reversed leaves no change in the system or the surroundings
IV. States are passes through so quickly that the surroundings do not change

A. I and II
B. I and III
C. I and IV
D. I and only

Answer: D

205. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The sum of the energies of all the molecules in a system where energies appear in
several complex forms is the:

A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. internal energy
D. frictional energy

Answer: C
206. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION
The Carnot refrigeration cycle includes all of the following processes except:

A. isentropic expansion
B. isothermal heating
C. isenthalpic expansion
D. isentropic compression
 Answer: C

207. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The maximum possible work that can be obtained cycle operating between two
reservoirs is found from:

A. processes irreversibility
B. availability
C. Carnot cycle
D. reversible work

Answer: C

208. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The following factors are necessary to define thermodynamic cycle except:

A. the working substance

B. high and low temperature reservoirs
C. the time it takes to complete the cycle
D. the means of doing work on the system

Answer: C

209. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

All of the following terms included in the second for open system except

A. shaft work
B. flow work
C. internal energy
D. average work

Answer: D

210. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The following terms are included in the first law of thermodynamics for open systems
except

A. heat transferred in and out of the system

B. work done by or in the system
C. magnetic system
D. internal system

Answer: C

211. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

 The following terms are included in the first law of thermodynamics for closed systems
except

A. heat transferred in and out of the system

B. work done by or on the system
C. internal energy
D. kinetic energy

Answer: D

212. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Which of the following statements about a path function is not true?

A. on a p – v diagram, it can represent work done

B. on a t – s diagram, it can represent heat transferred
C. it is dependent on the path between states of thermodynamic equilibrium
D. it represents values of p, v, t, and s between states that are path functions

Answer: D

213. A constant pressure thermodynamic process obeys:

A. Boyle’s law
B. Charle’s law
C. Amagat’s law
D. Dalto’s law

Answer: C

214. The first and second law of thermodynamics are:

A. continuity equations
B. momentum equations
C. energy equations
D. equations of state

Answer: C

215. Represents the temperature an ideal gas will attain when it is brought to rest
adiabatically.

A. absolute zero temperature

B. stagnation temperature
C. boiling temperature
D. critical temperature

Answer: B
216. Gauge pressure and absolute pressure differ from each other by:

A. the system units

B. atmospheric pressure
C. the size of the gauge
D. nothing they mean the same thing

Answer: B

217. Each of the following are correct values of standard atmospheric pressure except.

A. 1,000 atm
B. 14,962 psi
C. 760 torr
D. 1013 mm Hg

Answer: D

218. All of the following are properties of an ideal gas except:

A. density
B. pressure
C. viscosity
D. temperature

Answer: C

219. Which of the following is not the universal as constant?

A. 1545 ft – lb / lb mol - °R
B. 8.314 J/ mol. K
C. 8314 KJ / mol. K
D. 8.314 kJ / k mol. K

Answer: C

220. The following are all commonly quoted values of standard temperatures and pressure
except:

A. 32 ℉ and 14.696 psia

B. 273.15 K and 101.325 kPa
C. 0 ℃ and 760 mm Hg
D. 0 ℉ and 29.92 in Hg

Answer: D
221. The variation of pressure in an isobaric processes is:

A. linear with temperature

B. described by the perfect gas law
C. inversely proportional to temperature
D. zero

Answer: D

222. For fluid flow, the enthalpy is the sum of internal energy and __________.

A. entropy
B. work flow
C. pressure
D. temperature

Answer: B

223. A thermodynamic processes whose deviation from equilibrium is infinitesimal at all

times is _________.

A. reversible
B. isentropic
C. in quasi - equilibrium
D. isenthalpic

Answer: C

224. Which thermodynamic property best describes the molecular activity of a substance?

A. enthalpy
B. entropy
C. internal energy
D. External energy

Answer: C

225. Stagnation enthalpy represents the enthalpy of a fluid when, it is brought to

rest__________.

A. isometrically
B. adiabatically
C. isothermally
D. disobarically

Answer: B
226. During stagnation process, the kinetic energy of a fluid is converted to enthalpy which
results in an:

A. increase in the fluid specific volume

B. increase in the fluid pressure
C. increase in the fluid temperature and pressure
D. increase in the fluid temperature

Answer: C

227. The properties of fluid at the stagnation in state are called_____________.

A. stagnation property
B. stagnation phase
C. stagnation state
D. stagnation vapor

Answer: C

228. All of the following are thermodynamic properties except___________.

A. temperature
B. pressure
C. density
D. modulus of elasticity

Answer: D

229. A liquid boils when its vapor pressure equals

A. the gage pressure

B. the critical pressure
C. the ambient pressure
D. one standard atmosphere

Answer: C

230. A system composed of ice and water at 0 ℃ is said be: _____________.

A. a multiphase material
B. in thermodynamic equilibrium
C. in thermal equilibrium
D. all of the above

Answer: D
231. The heat of fusion of a pure substance is:

A. the change in phase from solid to gas

B. the change in phase from liquid to gas
C. the energy released in a chemical reaction
D. the energy required to melt the substance

Answer: D

232. The heat of vaporization involves the change in enthalpy due to:

A. the change in phase from solid to gas

B. the change in phase from liquid to gas
C. the energy released in a chemical reaction
D. the change in phase from solid to liquid

Answer: B

233. The heat of sublimation involves the change in enthalpy due to _____________.

A. the change in phase from solid to gas

B. the change in phase from liquid to gas
C. the energy released in a chemical reaction
D. the change in phase from solid to liquid

Answer: A

234. A specific property

A. defines a specific variable (eg . temperature)

B. is independent of mass
C. is an extensive property multiplied by mass
D. is independent of the phase of the substance

Answer: A

235. A material’s specific heat can be defined as:

A. the ratio of heat required to change temperature of mass by change in temperature

B. being different for constant pressure constant temperature processes
C. a function of temperature
D. all of the above

Answer: D

236. If a substance temperature is less than its saturated temperature, the substance is:
 A. sub cooled liquid
B. wet vapor
C. saturated vapor
D. superheated vapor

Answer: A

237. If a substance temperature is equal to its saturated temperature, the substance is

a_________.

A. sub cooled liquid

B. wet vapor
C. saturated vapor
D. superheated vapor

Answer: C

238. If a substance’s temperature is greater than saturation temperature, the substance is a

_________.

A. sub cooled liquid

B. wet vapor
C. saturated vapor
D. superheated vapor

Answer: D

239. Critical properties refer to

A. extremely important properties, such as temperature and pressure

B. heat required for phase change and important for energy production
C. property values where liquid and gas phase are indistinguishable
D. properties having to do with equilibrium conditions, such as the Gibbs and Helmholtz
functions.

Answer: C

240. For a saturated vapour, the relationship between temperature and pressure is given by:

A. the perfect gas law

B. Van der Waal’s equation
C. the steam table
D. a Viral equation of state

Answer: C

241. Properties of a superheated vapor are given by

 A. the perfect gas law
B. a super heated table
C. a one to one relationship, such as the properties of saturated steam
D. a viral equation of state

Answer: B

242. Properties of non – reacting gas mixtures are given

A. geometric weighting
B. volumetric weighting
C. volumetric weighting for molecular weight, density, and geometric weighting for all
properties except entropy
D. arithmetic average

Answer: C

243. The relationship between the total pressure mixture of non – reacting gases and their
partial volume given by:

A. gravimetric functions
B. volumetric functions
C. Dalton’s law
D. mole fractions

Answer: B

244. The relationship between the total pressure mixture of non – reacting gases and the
pressure constituent is given by:

A. gravimetric functions
B. volumetric functions
C. Dalton’s law
D. mole fractions

Answer: C

245. Which of the following is the best definition of enthalpy?

A. the ratio of heat added to the temperature increases in a system

B. the amount of useful energy in a system
C. the amount of energy no longer available to the system
D. the heat required to cause a complete conversion between two phases at a constant
temperature

Answer: B
246. Which of the following statements is not true for real gases?

A. molecules occupy a volume not negligible in comparison to the total volume of gas
B. real gases are subjected to attractive forces between molecules ( eg. Van der Waal’s
forces)
C. the law of corresponding states may be used for real gases
D. real gases are found only rarely in nature

Answer: D

247. The stagnation state is called the isentropic stagnation state when the stagnation
process is:

A. reversible as well dynamic

B. isotropic
C. adiabatic
D. reversible as well as adiabatic

Answer: D

248. The entropy of fluid remains constant process?

A. polytropic stagnation process

B. unsteady stagnation process
C. combustion process
D. isentropic stagnation process

Answer: D

249. All the following processes are irreversible except

A. stirring a viscous fluid

B. an isentropic deceleration of a moving per fluid
C. an unrestrained expansion of a gas
D. phase changes

Answer: B

250. All of the following processes are irreversible except:

A. chemical reactions
B. diffusion
C. current flow through an electrical resistance
D. an isentropic compression of a perfect gas.

Answer: D
251. All of the following processes are irreversible except:

A. magnetization with hysteresis

B. elastic tension and release of steel bar
C. in elastic deformation
D. heat conduction

Answer: B

252. Which of the following state(s) is/are necessary for a system to be in thermodynamic
equilibrium?

A. chemical equilibrium
B. thermal equilibrium
C. mechanical equilibrium
D. chemical, mechanical, and thermal equilibrium

Answer: D

253. Adiabatic heat transfer with in a vapour cycle refers to:

A. heat t transfer that is atmospheric but not reversible

B. the transfer of energy from one stream to another in a heat exchanger so that the
energy of the input streams equals the energy of the output streams
C. heat transfer that is reversible but not isentropic
D. there is no such thing as adiabatic heat transfer

Answer: B

254. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Which of the following gives polytropic under n?

𝑃
𝑙𝑜𝑔 2
𝑃1
A. 𝑉
log 1
𝑉2

𝑃
𝑙𝑜𝑔 1
𝑃2
B. 𝑉
𝑙𝑜𝑔 1
𝑉2

𝑉
𝑙𝑜𝑔 1
𝑉2
C. 𝑃
𝑙𝑜𝑔 2
𝑃1

𝑉
𝑙𝑜𝑔 1
𝑉2
D. 𝑃
𝑙𝑜𝑔 1
𝑃2
 Answer: A

255.PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The work done in an adiabatic process in a system.

A. is equal to the change in total energy in a closed system

B. is equal to the total net heat transfer plus the entropy change
C. is equal to the change in total energy of closed system plus the entropy change
D. is equal to the change in total energy of closed system plus net heat transfer

Answer: D

256. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Based on the first law of thermodynamics, which of the following is wrong?

A. the heat transfer equals the work plus energy change

B. the heat transfer Carnot exceed the work done
C. the net transfer equal the net work of the cycle
D. the net heat transfer equals the change if no work is done

Answer: B

257. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Assuming real process, the net entropy change in the universe

A. must be calculated
B. equals zero
C. is negative
D. is positive

Answer: D

258. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Which of the following types of flow meters is most accurate?

A. Venturi tube
B. Pilot tube
C. Flow nozzle
D. Foam type

Answer: B

259. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What is referred by control volume?
 A. an isolated system
B. closed system
C. fixed region in space
D. reversible process only

Answer: C

260. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What is the most efficient thermodynamic cycle?

A. Carnot
B. Diesel
C. Rankine
D. Brayton

Answer: A

261. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

How do you treat a statement that is considered scientific law?

A. we postulate to be true
B. accept as summary of experimental observation
C. we generally observed to be true
D. believe to be derived from mathematical theorem

Answer: B

262. ME BOARD QUESTION

An instrument commonly used in most research and engineering laboratories because it
is small and fast among the other thermometers

A. mercury thermometer
B. liquid – in – glass thermometer
C. gas thermometer
D. thermo couple

Answer: D

263. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

In an actual gases, the molecular collisions are

A. plastic
B. elastic
C. inelastic
D. in plastic
 Answer: C

264. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Which of the following is used in thermal power plant?

A. Brayton
B. Reversed Carnot
C. Rankine
D. Otto

Answer: C

265. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The elongation and compression of a helical spring is an example of

A. irreversible process
B. reversible process
C. isothermal process
D. adiabatic process

Answer: B

266. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Otto cycle consists of

A. two isentropic and two constant volume processes

B. two isentropic and two constant pressure processes
C. two adiabatic and two isothermal processes
D. two isothermal and two constant volume processes

Answer: A

267. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Brayton cycle ha

A. two isentropic and two constant pressure processes

B. two isentropic and two constant pressure processes
C. one constant pressure, one constant volume and two adiabatic processes
D. two isothermal, one constant volume and one constant pressure processes

Answer: B

268. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

A Bell – Coleman cycle is a reversed
 A. Stirling cycle
B. Joule cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Otto cycle

Answer: B

269. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

A steam nozzle changes

A. kinetic energy into heat energy

B. heat energy into potential energy
C. heat energy into kinetic energy
D. potential energy into heat energy

Answer: C

270. The pilot tube is a device used for measurement of

A. pressure
B. flow
C. velocity
D. discharge

Answer: C

271. PAST MEBOARD QUESTION

The continuity equation is applicable to

A. Viscous, un viscous fluids

B. Compressibility of fluids
C. conservation of mass
D. Steady, un steady flow

Answer: C

272. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The work done by a force of R Newtons moving in a distance of L meters is converted
entirely into kinetic energy and expressed by the equation:

A. RL = 2MV ²
B. RL = 2MV
1
C. RL = 2 MV ²
1
D. RL = 2 MV
 Answer: C

273.PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Gas being heated at constant volume is undergoes the process of

A. isentropic
B. adiabatic
C. isometric
D. isobaric

Answer: C

274. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Dew point is defined as

A. the temperature to which the air must be cooled constant pressure to produce
saturation
B. the where the pressure and temperature lines meet
C. the temperature which dew is formed in the air
D. the pressure which dew is formed in the air

Answer: A

275. PAST ME BOARD QUESSTION

What do you call the changing of an atom of element into an atom of different element
with a different atomic mass?

A. atomization
B. atomic transmutation
C. atomic pile
D. atomic energy

Answer: B

276. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What do you call the weight of the column of air above the earth’s surface?

A. air pressure
B. aerostatic pressure
C. wind pressure
D. atmospheric pressure

Answer: D

277. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What keeps the moisture from passing through the system?
 A. dehydrator
B. aerator
C. trap
D. humidifier

Answer: A

278. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What condition exists in an adiabatic throttling process?

A. enthalpy is variable
B. enthalpy is constant
C. entropy is constant
D. specific volume is constant

Answer: B

279. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The specific gravity of a substance is the ratio of density to the density of:

A. mercury
B. gas
C. air
D. water

Answer: D

280. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

A compound pressure gauge is used to measure:

A. complex pressure
B. variable pressure
C. compound pressure
D. positive and negative pressures

Answer: D

281. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Isentropic flow is

A. perfect gas flow

B. ideal fluid flow
C. frictionless reversible flow
D. reversible adiabatic flow
 Answer: D

282. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Under ideal conditions, isothermal, isobaric, and adiabatic processes are:

A. dynamic processes
B. stable processes
C. quasi – static processes
D. static processes

Answer: C

283. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

One watt is:

𝑁.𝑚
A. 1 𝑠
𝑁.𝑚
B. 1 𝑚𝑖𝑛
𝑁.𝑚
C. 1 ℎ𝑟
𝑘𝑁.𝑚
D. 1 𝑠

Answer: A

284. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

A temperature above which a given gas cannot be liquefied:

A. Cyrogenic temperature
B. Vaporization temperature
C. Absolute temperature
D. Critical temperature

Answer: D

285. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator on given temperature

A. absorptivity
B. emissivity
C. conductibility
D. reflectivity

Answer: B

286. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

 Which of the following occurs in a reversible polytropic process?

A. enthalpy remains constant

B. internal energy does not change
C. some heat transfer occurs
D. entropy remains constant

Answer: C

287. ME BOARD Oct. 1997

The instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure is:

A. rota meter
B. manometer
C. Venturi
D. Barometer

Answer: D

288.ME BOARD Oct. 1997

A pneumatic tool is generally powered by

A. water
B. electricity
C. steam
D. air

Answer: D

289. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Which of the following gasses can be used to measure the lowest temperature?

A. nitrogen
B. helium
C. oxygen
D. hydrogen

Answer: B

290. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The triple point of the substance is the temperature and pressure at which:

A. the solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium

B. the solid and gaseous phase are in equilibrium
C. the solid, liquid and gaseous phases are in equilibrium
D. the solid does not melt, the liquid does not boil and the gas does not condense
 Answer: D

291. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Which of the following relations is not applicable in free expansion processes?

A. heat rejected is zero

B. work done is zero
C. change in temperature is zero
D. heat supplied is zero

Answer: C

292. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Ericson cycle has

A. two isothermal and two constant pressure processes

B. two isothermal and two constant volume processes
C. two isothermal and two constant entropy processes
D. two adiabatic, one constant volume and constant pressure processes

Answer: A

293. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

A Stirling cycle has

A. two adiabatic and two constant volume processes

B. two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes
C. two isothermal and two constant pressure processes
D. two isothermal and two constant volume processes

Answer: D

294. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The temperature of the fluid flowing under pressure through a pipe is usually measured
by:

A. a glass thermometer
B. an electric resistance thermometer
C. a thermocouple
D. all of the above

Answer: D

295. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Specific heat capacity is an SI derived unit described as
 𝐽
A. 𝑘𝑔

𝑊
B. 𝑚𝐾

𝑘𝐽
C. 𝑘𝑔𝐾

𝐽
D. 𝑚

Answer: C

296. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Which of the following is mathematically a thermodynamic property?

A. a point function
B. discontinuous
C. a path function
D. exact differential

Answer: A

297. PAST ME BOARD QUSTION

When the expansion or compression of gas takes place “without transfer of heat” to or
form the gas, the property is called:

A. reversible
B. adiabatic
C. polytropic
D. isothermal

Answer: B

298. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Another name for the liquid valve is:

A. Freon valve
B. Shut – off valve
C. King valve
D. Master valve

Answer: C

299. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

A liquid whose temperature is lower than the saturation temperature corresponding to the
existing pressure:
 A. sub cooled liquid
B. saturated liquid
C. pure liquid
D. compressed liquid

Answer: A

300. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The law that states “entropy of all perfect crystalline solids is zero at absolute zero
temperature:

A. zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics

Answer: D

301. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What should be the temperature of both water and steam whenever they are present
together?

A. saturation temperature for the existing pressure

B. boiling point of water at 101.325 kPa
C. superheated temperature
D. one hundred degrees centigrade

Answer: A

302. A manometer is an instrument that is used to measure:

A. air pressure
B. heat radiation
C. condensation water level
D. air volume

Answer: A

303. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What is the area under the curve of temperature of entropy diagram?

A. volume
B. heat
C. work
D. entropy

Answer: B
304. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION
What do bodies at temperature above absolute emit?

A. energy
B. heat of convection
C. thermal radiation
D. heat of compression

Answer: C

305. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

In the absence of any irreversibilities, a thermo generator, a device that incorporates both
thermo electric effects, will have the efficiency of a/an

A. Carnot cycle
B. Otto cycle
C. Diesel cycle
D. Rankine cycle

Answer: A

306. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Both Stirling and Ericson engines are

A. internal combustion engine

B. external combustion engines
C. Carnot engines
D. Brayton engines

Answer: B

307. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Nozzles does not involve any work interaction. The fluid through this device experiences:

A. no change in potential energy

B. no change in kinetic energy
C. no change in enthalpy
D. vacuum

Answer: A

308. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

If the actual kinetic energy of a nozzle is Ka and Ki is the maximum value that can be
attained by an isentropic expansion from an initial to final state, then the efficiency of the
nozzle is:
 𝐾𝑖
A.𝐾𝑎

𝐾𝑎−𝐾𝑖
B. 𝐾𝑎

𝐾𝑎−𝐾𝑖
C. 𝐾𝑖

𝐾𝑎
D. 𝐾𝑖

Answer: D

309. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The convergent section of a nozzle increased velocity of the flow of the gas. What does it
to do pressure?

A. pressure becomes constant

B. pressure equals the velocity
C. it increases the pressure
D. it decreases the pressure

Answer: D

310. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

In a closed vessel, when vaporization takes place the temperature rise, Due to the rising
temperature, pressure increases until an equilibrium is establish between the
temperature and pressure temperature of equilibrium is called__________.

A. dew point
B. ice point
C. boiling point
D. superheated temperature

Answer: C

311. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

At steam point, the temperature of water and its vapour at standard pressure are:

A. extremes or maximum
B. unity
C. in equilibrium
D. undefined

Answer: C

312. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

 When hot soup was served in a cup during dinner, an engineer was so eager to drink it.
Since it was hot, he added cubes of ice to cool the soup and stirred it. He noticed that
dew starts to form on the outermost surface of the cup. He wanted to check the
temperature of the outermost surface of the cup. What is this temperature equal to?

A. superheated temperature
B. equal to zero
C. standard temperature
D. equal to air’s dew point temperature

Answer: D

313. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What do you call a conversion technology that yields electricity straight from sunlight
without the aid of a working substance like gas or steam without the use of any
mechanical cycle?

A. power conversion
B. Stirling cycle conversion
C. solar thermal conversion
D. photovoltaic – energy

Answer: D

314. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Which of the following property of liquid extend resistance to angular or shear
deformation:

A. specific gravity
B. specific weight
C. viscosity
D. density

Answer: C

315. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What is the pressure at the exit of a draft tube turbine?

A. below atmospheric
B. above atmospheric
C. atmospheric
D. vacuum

Answer: C

316. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

 When changes in kinetic energy of a compressed are negligible or insignificant, the work
input to adiabatic compressor is__________.

A. negligible
B. zero
C. infinity
D. equal to change in enthalpy

Answer: D

317. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What is the area under the curve of a pressure- volume diagram?

A. non flow work

B. steady flow work
C. heat
D. power

Answer: A

318. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

In Stirling and Ericson cycle, regeneration can

A. increase efficiency
B. decrease efficiency
C. control efficiency
D. limit efficiency

Answer: A

319. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?

A. conservation of mass
B. enthalpy – entropy relationship
C. entropy – temperature relationship
D. conservation of energy

Answer: D

320. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

In two – phase system, 30% moisture means

A. 70% liquid and 30% vapor

B. 70% vapor and 30% liquid
C. 30% liquid and 100% vapor
 D. 30% vapor and 100% liquid

Answer: B

321. ME BOARD Apr. 2002

At 101.325 kPa, the boiling point of water is 100 ℃, the pressure is decreased, the
boiling temperature will:

A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. drop to zero

Answer: B

322. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Which of the following is equivalent to 1 hp in Btu/hr

A. 778
B.2545
C. 746
D. 3.41

Answer: B

323. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What is the pressure above zero?

A. gage pressure
B. absolute pressure
C. vacuum pressure
D. atmospheric pressure

Answer: A

324. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

One Newton – meter is equal to

A. 1 Joule
B. 1 Btu
C. 1 Calorie
D. 1 Ergs

Answer: A

325. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

 Which of the following is the instrument used to measure fluid velocity?

A. pilot tube
B. Orsat apparatus
C. anemometer
D. viscosimeter

Answer: A

326. Cryogenic temperature ranges from:

A. -150 ℉ to -359 ℉
B. -250 ℉ to -459 ℉
C. -100 ℉ to -300 ℉
D. -200 ℉ to -400 ℉

Answer: B

327. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Steam at 2 kPa is saturated at 17.5℃. In waht _________ will the state be at 40℃ if the
pressure is 2.0 kPa.

A. superheated
B. saturated
C. sub cooled
D. supersaturated

Answer: A

328. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Acceleration is proportional to force.

A. Newton’s law
B. Archimedes principle
C. law of gravitation
D. theory of relativity

Answer: A
329. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION
Which of the following could be defined as simple push or pull

A. power
B. inertia
C. work
D. force

Answer: D
330. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION
The true pressure measured above a perfect vacuum is:

A. absolute pressure
B. atmospheric pressure
C. gauge pressure
D. vacuum pressure

Answer: A

331. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

If an initial volume of an ideal gas is compressed to one – half its original volume and to
twice its original temperature, the pressure:

A. doubles
B. halves
C. quadruples
D. triples

Answer: C

332. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

When the expansion or compression of gas takes place without transfer of heat to or
from the gas, the process is called:

A. isometric process
B. isothermal process
C. isobaric process
D. adiabatic process

Answer: D

333. A body radiates heat proportional to the fourth power of its absolute temperature:

A. Stefan – Boltzmann law

B. Planck’s law
C. Kirchhoff’s law
D. Maxwell’s law

Answer: A

334. All substances emit radiation, the quantity and quality of which depends upon the
absolute temperature are the properties of the material, composing the radiation body.

A. Stefan – Boltzmann law

 B. Planck’s law
C. Kirchhoff’s law
D. Maxwell’s law

Answer: B

335. For body in thermal equilibrium with the environment, the ratio of total emissive power to
the absorptivity is constant at any temperature.

A. Stefan – Boltzmann law

B. Planck’s law
C. Kirchhoff’s law
D. Maxwell’s law

Answer: C

CHAPTER 2
FUELS & COMBUSTION

1. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Which is not a viscosity rating?

A. redwood
B. SSU
C. Centi poise
D. entropy degrees API

Answer: D

2. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

Percent excess air is the difference between the air actually supplied and the theoretically
required divided by:

A. the theoretically air supplied

B. the actually air supplied
C. the deficiency of air supplied
D. the sufficient air supplied

Answer: A

3. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

What is the apparatus used in the analysis of combustible gases?
 A. calorimeter differential
B. calorimeter gas
C. calorimetry
D. calorimeter

Answer: D

4. PAST ME BOARD QUETION

Percent excess air is the difference between the actually supplied and the theoretical air
divided by:

A. the sufficient air supplied

B. the deficiency air supplied
C. the actually air supplied
D. the theoretically air supplied

Answer: D

5. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

The viscosity of most commercially available petroleum lubricating oil changes rapidly
above

A. 120 ℉
B. 180 ℉
C. 150 ℉
D. 130 ℉

Answer: B

6. PAST ME BOARD QUESTION

When 1 mol carbon combines with 1 mol oxygen

A. 2 mols carbon dioxide

B. 1 mol carbon dioxide
C. 1 mol carbon and 1 mol carbon dioxide
D. 1 mol carbon dioxide

Answer: B

7. ME BOARD QUESTION
What are the immediate undesirable products from the petroleum based lubricating oil
when subjected to high pressure and temperature?

A. gums, resins and acids

B. sulphur
C. Soots and ashes
 D. Carbon residue

Answer: A

8. What kind of boding do common gases that exist in free state as diatomic molecules
experiences?

A. ionic bonds
B. covalent bonds
C. metallic bonds
D. nuclear bonds

Answer: B

9. An Orsat’s apparatus is used for

A. volumetric analysis of the flue gas

B. gravimetric analysis of the flue gas
C. smoke density analysis of the flue gas
D. all of the above

Answer: A

10. A theorem that states that the total property of a mixture of ideal gases is the sum of the
properties that the individual gases would have if each occupied the total mixture volume
alone as the same temperature.

A. Gibbs theorem
B. Dalton’s theorem
C. Boltzmann’s theorem
D. Maxwell’s theorem

Answer: A

11. A small enough particles suspended in a fluid exhibit small random movements due to
the state collision of fluid molecules on the particle’s sum. This motion is
called____________.

A. Boltzmann motion
B. Rectilinear motion
C. Kinetic gas motion
D. Brownian motion

Answer: D
12. When two or more light atoms have sufficient emf (available only at high temperatures
and velocities) fuse together to form a heavier nucleus the process called____________.

A. fusion
B. fission
C. the photo electric effect
D. the Compton effect

Answer: A

13. What is the residue left after combustion of a fuel?

A. charcoal
B. ash
C. scraper
D. all of the choices

Answer: B

14. What is formed during incomplete combustion of carbon in fuels?

A. carbon dioxide
B. carbon monoxide
C. nitrogen oxide
D. oxygenated fuel

Answer: B

15. A gas produced by the combustion of fuel oil and cannot be found in the flue gases is:

A. oxygen
B. nitrogen
C. hydrogen
D. carbon dioxide

Answer: C

16. Which of the following chemical reactions in which heat is absorbed?

A. heat reaction
B. endothermic reaction
C. exothermic reaction
D. combustion reaction

Answer: B

17. A chemical reaction in which heat is given off.

 A. heat reaction
B. endothermic reaction
C. exothermic reaction
D. combustion reaction

Answer: C

18. Colorless, odourless mixture of nitrogen and oxygen with traces of other gases water
vapour and said impurities.

A. air
B. helium
C. water gas
D. nitrite

Answer: A

19. The transfer of air characteristics by horizontal motion is called____________.

A. convection
B. air transfer
C. advection
D. adhesion

Answer: C

20. Properties of non – reacting gas mixtures are given by

A. geometric weighting
B. volumetric weighting
C. volumetric weighting for molecular weight and density, and geometric weighting for all
other properties except entropy
D. arithmetic average

Answer: C

21. The process of separating two or more liquids by means of the difference in their boiling
point.

A. Engler distillation
B. Fractional distillation
C. Gas scrubbing
D. Fractional crystallization

Answer: B
22. The gaseous products of combustion of a boiler which contains carbon dioxide, carbon
monoxide, oxygen, nitrogen and water vapour is called____________.

A. flue gas
B. producer gas
C. product gas
D. universal gas

Answer: A

23. A substance whose burning with oxygen yields heat energy such as coal, petroleum and
natural gas.

A. air
B. fluid
C. fuel
D. gas

Answer: C

24. Stoichiometric ratio is

A. chemically correct air – fuel ratio by volume
B. chemically correct air – fuel ratio by weight
C. theoretically mixture of air for complete combustion
D. actual ratio of air to fuel for maximum efficiency

Answer: B

25. A type of radiation consisting of singly charged particles that generate to intermediate
distances.

A. nuclear radiation
B. alpha radiation
C. beta radiation
D. gamma radiation

Answer: C

26. The increase in velocity past the throat is due to rapid decrease in the:

A. fluid density
B. fluid specific volume
C. fluid temperature
D. fluid pressure

Answer: A
27. In an oxidation - reduction chemical reaction, all of the following occur except:

A. the exchange of electrons between elements

B. elements becoming more positive
C. elements becoming more negative
D. nuclear fusion

Answer: D

28. The residual oil left after the distillation of gasoline and kerosene from crude petroleum;
yellow to brown and used as a diesel fuel and enriching water gas.

A. diesel oil
B. gasoline oil
C. LPG
D. gas oil

Answer: D

29. A fuel gas obtained by the destructive distillation of soft coal is called__________.

A. gas scrub
B. coal gas
C. alco gas
D. water gas

Answer: B

30. Removing of impurities from a gas by bubbling it through a liquid purifying agent is
called__________.

A. gas scrubbing
B. gas purifying
C. gas liquefying
D. gas bubbling

Answer: A

31. During the fusion process, mass is lost and converted to energy according to:

A. the Heisenburg uncertainty principle

B. the Compton’s law
C. Einstein’s law
D. the second law of thermodynamics
 Answer: C

32. A finely divided carbon deposit by the smoke or flame is called__________.

A. fly ash
B. soot
C. residue
D. all of the choices

Answer: B

33. Rare gases such as helium, argon, krypton, xenon and radon that are non – reactive are
called_____________.

A. non - reactants
B. stop gases
C. insert gases
D. residual gases

Answer: C

34. Kinematics and dynamic viscosity vary from each of only by a factor equal to the :

A. fluid density
B. temperature
C. pressure
D. specific gas constant

Answer: A

35. The following properties are different for isomers of the same chemical compound:

A. density
B. melting point
C. number of atoms in a mole of each isomers
D. specific heat

Answer: C

36. Atomic weights of the elements in the periodic table are not whole numbers because of:

A. the existence of isotopes

B. imprecise measurements during the development of the periodic table
C. round – off error in calculating atomic weights
D. the exchange of reference of the atomic mass unit from oxygen – 16 to carbon – 12 in
1961.
 Answer: A

37. The tendency of a pure compound to be composed of same elements combined in a

definite proportion by mass.

A. Avogadro’s law
B. Boyle’s law
C. The law of definite proportions
D. Le Chatelier’s principle

Answer: C

38. How do you call the process of removing of impurities from a gas by bubbling it through a
liquid purifying agent?

A. gas scrubbing
B. gas purifying
C. gas liquefying
D. gas bubbling

Answer: A

39. What is the effect of catalyst in a chemical reaction?

A. absorb the exothermic heat of reaction

B. provide the exothermic heat of reaction
C. lower the activation energy
D. provide the heat of sublimation

Answer: C

40. The relationship between the concentration of products and reactants in a reversible
chemical reaction give by:

A. the ionization constant

B. the equilibrium constant
C. the solubility
D. Le Chatelier’s principle

Answer: B

41. What fuel gas obtained by the destructive distillation of soft coal?

A. gas scrub
B. coal gas
 C. alcogas
D. water gas

Answer: B

42. The process of splitting the nucleus into small fragments.

A. fusion
B. fission
C. the photo electric effect
D. the Compton effect

Answer: B

43. The ash that is removed from the combustor after the fuel is burn is the:

A. fly ash
B. bottom ash
C. scraper ash
D. top ash

Answer: B

44. A mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide made by passing steam over hot coke.

A. water gas
B. water vapor
C. hydrocarbon
D. air

Answer: A

45. All of the following are true of non – stoichiometric reactions except.

A. there is an excess of one or more reactants

B. the percentage yield measures the efficiency of the reaction
C. non – stoichiometric reactions are rare in the combustion process
D. in combustion, air is often the excess reactant to assure complete combustion of fuel

Answer: C

46. It is the ratio of the volume at the end of heat addition to the volume at the start of heat
addition.

A. compression ratio
B. air - fuel ratio
 C. volumetric ratio
D. cut – off ratio

Answer: D

47. Piston rings are made of:

A. alloy steel
B. carbon steel
C. copper
D. cast iron

Answer: D

48. ME BOARD QUESTION

Loss power is due to:

A. poor compression
B. restricted exhaust
C. clogging of air cleaner
D. low injection pressure

Answer: D

49. ME BOARD QUESTION

A branch system of pipes to carry waste emission away from the piston chambers of an
internal combustion engine is called

A. exhaust nozzle
B. exhaust deflection pipe
C. exhaust pipe
D. exhaust manifold

Answer: D

50. ME BOARD QUESTION

The type of filter where the filtering elements is replaceable.

A. paper edge filter

B. metal edge filter
C. pressure filter
D. filter with element

Answer: B

51. ME BOARD QUESTION

 When four events take place in one revolution of a crankshaft of an engine, the engine is
called:

A. rotary engine
B. steam engine
C. two stroke engine
D. four stroke engine

Answer: C

52. ME BOARD QUESTION

Which of the following does not belong to the group?

A. air injection system

B. mechanical injection system
C. time injection system
D. gas admission system

Answer: C

53. Specific heat capacity is an SI derived unit described as:

A. J/kg
B. W/m °K
C. J/m³
D. J/kg °K

Answer: D

54. ME BOARD QUESTION

A device whose primary function is to meter the flow refrigerant to the vapour.

A. sniffer valve
B. equalizer
C. thermostatic expansion valve
D. crossover valve

Answer: C

55. ME BOARD QUESTION

The internal combustion engines never work in

A. Rankine cycle
B. Diesel cycle
C. Dual combustion cycle
D. Otto cycle
 Answer: A

56. The general chemical formula for all hydrocarbons 𝐶𝑛 𝐻𝑚 . In different combinations of
interest, as steam combustion engine fuel, n varies from:

A. 1 to 26
B. 2 to 54
C. 2 to 26
D. 1 to 54

Answer: A

57. The general chemical formula for all hydrocarbons is 𝐶𝑛 𝐻𝑚 . In different combinations of
interest, as internal combustion engine fuel m varies from:

A. 1 to 26
B. 2 to 54
C. 2 to 26
D. 1 to 54

Answer: B

58. The general chemical formula of a paraffin fuel is

A. 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛
B. 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛−6
C. 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛+2
D. 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛−2

Answer: C

59. Naphthenes and olefins are types of hydrocarbons with chemical formula of:

A. 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛
B. 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛−6
C. 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛+2
D. 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛−2

Answer: A

60. Which of the following types of hydrocarbons have chemical formula of 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛−2 ?

A. diolefins
B. aromatics
C. asphaltics
D. paraffins
 Answer: A

61. Which of the following types of hydrocarbons have chemical formula of 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛−4 ?

A. diolefins
B. aromatics
C. asphaltics
D. paraffins

Answer: C

62. What is the chemical formula of an aromatic type hydrocarbon fuels?

A. 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛−6
B.𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛−2
C. 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛
D. 𝐶𝑛 𝐻2𝑛+2

Answer: A

63. At atmospheric condition, hydrocarbon molecules with a low number of carbon atoms, 1
to 4 are.

A. liquids
B. atomic
C. gases
D. light oils

Answer: C

64. Hydrocarbons with 5 to 15 carbon atoms are:

A. more or less volatile light oils

B. referred to as heavy oils
C. mixtures of many kinds of hydrocarbons
D. commercial fuels

Answer: A

65. Hydrocarbons with 16 to 26 carbon atoms are referred to as:

A. light oils
B. heavy oils
C. commercial fuels
D. lubricating oils
 Answer: B

66. In a four stroke engine if a valve opens 25° before B.D.C. and close 10° after T.D.C. the
valve should be:

A. puppet valve
B. exhaust valve
C. inlet valve
D. spring valve

Answer: B

67. In a hot wire anemometer the rate of heat loss from sensing element is a function of:

A. mass rate of flow

B. pressure
C. velocity of flow
D. all of the above

Answer: C

68. Sticking valve

A. valve tappet clearance incorrect

B. valve springs of defective material
C. valve guides gummed
D. lubricating oil of poor quality

Answer: B

69. Detonation of pinging noises is due to:

A. early timing of fuel injection

B. late timing of fuel injection
C. head of piston carbonized
D. valve springs weak or broken

Answer: B

70. The thermal efficiency of a dual cycle engine with fixed compression ratio and fixed
quantity of heat and with increase in pressure ratio, will

A. increase
B. remain same
C. decrease
D. depends on other factors
 Answer: A

71. Scavenging efficiency of a four stroke diesel engine is

A. in the range 80 – 95 percent

B. in the range 60 – 80 percent
C. below 60 percent
D. between 95% and 100%

Answer: D

72. Volumetric efficiency of a well designed engine may be in the range of:

A. 75 to 90 percent
B. 60 to 75 percent
C. 30 to 50 percent
D. below 30 percent

Answer: A

73. During idling in a compression ignition engine the air fuel ratio may be of the order of:

A. 30
B. 200
C. 150
D. 100

Answer: A

74. Vapour lock is

A. lock of vaporization of fuel to atmospheric pressure

B. excess fuel supply to engine because of faster evaporation
C. complete or partial stoppage of fuel supply because of vaporization of fuel in supply
steam
D. locking carburettor jets because of vapor pressure

Answer: C

75. Flash point of liquids is the temperature at which:

A. the fuel emits vapors at rate which produces an inflammable mixture with air
B. the fuel spontaneously ignites
C. the fuel ignites with a clearly visible flash
D. the fuel ignites without a spark
 Answer: A

76. The mean effective pressure of a diesel cycle have fixed compression ratio will increase if
cut off ratio is:

A. increased
B. decreased
C. independent of compression ratio
D. depends on other factor

Answer: A

77. Hot spots

A. do not exist in engines

B. are the hottest spot in the engine
C. are the spots where heavier functions of fuel vaporized
D. are the defects in S.I. in engines

Answer: C

78. Flash point for diesel fuel oil should be:

A. maximum 49 ℃
B. maximum 490 ℃
C. maximum 200 ℃
D. maximum 300 ℃

Answer: A

79. Morse test is conducted on:

A. single – cylinder engines

B. multi – cylinder engines
C. horizontal engines
D. vertical engines

Answer: B

80. Prony brake is used for testing of:

A. small engines
B. large engines
C. engines having small flywheel
D. high speed engines

Answer: A
81. Clog point of an oil refer to:

A. the point of maximum contamination of oil

B. the level of impurities beyond which oil ceases to flow
C. the temperature at which oil solidifies
D. the temperature at which paraffin and waxes in oil start precipitating

Answer: D

82. Otto cycle consists of:

A. two isentropic and two constant volumes processes

B. two isentropic and two constant pressure processes
C. two adiabatic and two isothermal processes
D. two isothermal and two constant volume processes

Answer: A

83. Diesel cycle consist of:

A. isentropic, isothermal, constant volume constant pressure processes

B. two constant volume, one constant pressure, one isothermal process
C. two isentropic, one constant volume and one constant pressure processes
D. two constant pressure, one constant volume, and one isentropic processes

Answer: C

84. Which is not correct for calculating air stand efficiency?

A. all processes are reversible

B. specific heat remains unchanged at temperature
C. no account of the mechanism of heat transfer considered
D. gases dissociate at higher temperatures

Answer: D

85. The king pin inclination is generally:

A. less than 0.5°

B. between 1° and 2°
C. between 2° and 5°
D. more than 9°

Answer: C

86. For balancing single cylinder engine a counter weight is added to:
 A. piston
B. piston pin
C. cam
D. crank

Answer: D

87. To measure the clearance between the valve and tappet of an automobile engine we use
a___________.

A. Vernier scale
B. feeler gauge
C. pneumatic gauge
D. slip gauge

Answer: B

88. By supercharging:

A. power stroke becomes stronger

B. loss in exhaust gets reduced
C. engine can be made to run smoother
D. thermal efficiency of the engine can be improved

Answer: D

89. Speedometer drive is generally taken from:

A. dynamo
B. flywheel
C. fan belt
D. front wheel

Answer: D

90. Odometer is:

A. an instrument that indicates the condition of battery

B. an instrument used for measurement of consumption
C. an instrument used for BHP measurement
D. an instrument used for distance measurement

Answer: D

91. Automobile radiator is filled with:

 A. acidic water
B. alkaline water
C. hard water
D. soft water

Answer: D

92. The ignition coil acts as:

A. a capacitor
B. an inductor
C. an RC circuit
D. a step up transformer

Answer: D
93. The self starting motor for automobile is a:

A. universal motor
B. DC shunt motor
C. DC series motor
D. synchronous motor

Answer: C

94. Starting motor current may be about

A. 0.15 A
B. 0.5 A
C. 5.1 A
D. 25 A

Answer: D

95. As a rule before the piston are remove, it is essential to remove the:

A. gudgeon pin
B. circlip
C. piston rings
D. crank shaft

Answer: C

96. Common causes for excessive oil consumption include:

A. heavy oil and light bearings

B. high speed and worn engine
C. short trips and cold weather
 D. frequent oil changes

Answer: B

97. The device that is used for reducing the exhaust noise is called_____________.

A. exhaust manifold
B. exhaust pipe
C. muffler
D. none of the above

Answer: C

98. The device that is used to measure the clearance between the valve and tappet of an
internal combustion engine is measured by using:

A. snap gauge
B. slip gauge
C. feeler gauge
D. micrometer

Answer: C

99. Which of the following instrument is used measuring specific gravity?

A. thermometer
B. hygrometer
C. anemometer
D. hydrometer

Answer: D

100. Exhaust gas leakage into the cooling system is likely to occur because of defective:

A. cylinder head gasket

B. manifold gasket
C. water pump
D. any of the above

Answer: A

101. Clutch slippage while clutch is engaged is specially noticeable________________.

A. during idling
B. at low speed
 C. during acceleration
D. during braking

Answer: C

102. To engage securely and prevent dragging the clearance between release bearing and
release collar in a clutch is generally:

A. 2 – 3 mm
B. 10 – 12 mm
C. 20 – 22 mm
D. 30 – 32 mm

Answer: A

103. Gudgeon pins are made of:

A. same material as that of piston

B. cast iron
C. hardened and ground steel
D. none of these

Answer: D

104. Latex is:

A. a plastic
B. a cover on writes carrying current to spark plugs
C. a variety of lubricant
D. a milky juice of rubber

Answer: D

105. Cross wires on grooves on tires

A. decrease the danger of skidding

B. absorb shocks because of road unevenness
C. provide good traction
D. provide better load carrying capacity

Answer: B

106. The diesel fuel pump is designed to supply fuel

A. just sufficient against the demand of the injector pump

B. in excess quantity than needed by the injector pump
 C. a constant quantity at all engine speeds
D. in sufficient quantity in accordance with the engine speed

Answer: D

107. The fuel injected into the cylinder in diesel engine when the piston is:

A. exactly at B.D.C. after compression stroke

B. exactly T.D.C. before compression stroke
C. approaching T.D.C. during compression stroke
D. approaching B.D.C. during exhaust stroke

Answer: C

108. In the cam, the distance between the base circle the nose is known as____________.

A. flank
B. nose
C. lobe
D. lift

Answer: D

109. Dirt or gum in fuel nozzle or jets can produce:

A. excessive fuel consumption

B. lack of engine power
C. smoky black exhaust
D. white exhaust

Answer: C

110. Oil pan is attached:

A. to the bottom of the cylinder block

B. in a separate away from the crank case
C. at the top of the cylinder block
D. any of the above

Answer: D

111. Excess oil consumption in engine may be because of:

A. leakage of oil through oil pan gasket

B. poor quality or improper viscosity of engine oil
C. excessive oil pressure
 D. any of the above

Answer: D

112. Wheel base of the vehicle is:

A. distance between front and rear axis

B. distance between the front tires
C. extreme length of the vehicles
D. width of tires

Answer: A
113. The percentage of heat released from fuel mixture, in an internal combustion engine
which converted into useful work is roughly:

A. 10 percent
B. 10 – 20 percent
C. 20 – 25 percent
D. 40 – 45 percent

Answer: C

114.The efficiency of hydraulic braking system is:

A. about 90 percent
B. 60 – 80 percent
C. 50 – 60 percent
D. 40 – 50 percent

Answer: A

115. The instrument that is used to check the state charge of a battery is called
a_______________.

A. hydrometer
B. battery charger
C. battery eliminator
D. anemometer

Answer: A

116.When not in use, the self discharge of an automobile battery in dry weather is generally:

A. 0.5 to 1%
B. 3 to 5%
C. 5 to 7.5%
D. not more than 10%
 Answer: A

117. A laminated glass on cracking:

A. bursts into sharp edged fragments

B. bursts into granular pieces
C. sand witched layer taps the fragments
D. breaks into the farm of crystals

Answer: C

118. Wax is applied on car body as:

A. it is water repellent
B. it seals off the pores
C. the surface shines
D. any of the above

Answer: D

119. A spark voltage requires a voltage of:

A. 112 V
B. 124 V
C. 220 V
D. 440 V

Answer: C

120. The minimum cranking speed in petrol engine is:

A. same as the normal operating speed

B. half of operating speed
C. one fourth of operating speed
D. 60 – 80 rpm

Answer: D

121. Which oil is more viscous?

A. SAE 30
B. SAE 50
C. SAE 80
D. SAE 40
 Answer: C

122. Engine oil is generally changed after:

A. 100 km
B. 1500 km
C. 1100 km
D. 2500 – 6000 km

Answer: D

123. The most probable cause for uneven wear of tires for truck is:

A. low the pressure

B. excessive camber
C. tires overloaded
D. any of the above

Answer: D

124. In a vehicle the most probable cause for hard steering may be:

A. low tire pressure

B. bent wheel spindle
C. tie rod ends tight
D. any of the above

Answer: D

125. Poor compression in a two stroke engine cannot be because of:

A. leaky valves
B. broken piston rings
C. leaking cylinder head gasket
D. poor fits between pistons, rings and cylinder

Answer: A

126. The number of exhaust manifolds in a V – 8 engine is:

A. one
B. four
C. there is no exhaust manifold
D. two
 Answer: D

127. The device for smoothing out the power impulses from the engine is known as:

A. clutch
B. fly wheel
C. gear box
D. differential

Answer: B

128. The firing order in case of four cylinder in the engines is generally_____________.

A. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3
B. 1 – 3 – 4 – 2
C. 1 – 4 – 3 – 2
D. either B or C

Answer: D

129. In case of four cylinder opposed cylinder engines, firing order is

A. 1 – 4 – 3 – 2
B. 1 – 3 – 4 – 2
C. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
D. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3

Answer: A

130. In a four stroke engine, for the combustion of one of fuel, the volume of air needed
would approximately

A. 1 cu. m
B. 2 cu. m
C. 5 – 7 cu. m
D. 9 – 10 cu. m

Answer: D

131.Theoretically air needed for the combustion of one kg of fuel is:

A. 100 kg
B. 14.5 kg
C. 16.7 kg
D. 27.4 kg
 Answer: B

132. Which of the following is the cause of loss power?

A. poor compression
B. restricted exhaust
C. clogging of air cleaner
D. low injection pressure

Answer: D
133. A valve in the carburettor of a internal combustion engines which regulates the
proportion of air gasoline vapors entering the cylinder.

A. gate valve
B. choke valve
C. check valve
D. globe valve

Answer: B

134. What device combines air and fuel for burning in cylinder?

A. intercooler
B. regenerator
C. fuel injection
D. carburettor

Answer: D

135. A passive restraint device consisting of bags in front of the driver and passenger.

A. air buoy
B. air bag
C. air balloon
D. air duct

Answer: B

136. The heat exchanger used in an Ericson cycle is:

A. regenerator
B. combustion chamber
C. intercooler
D. recuperator

Answer: D
137. In Stirling engine, the heat is added during

A. isothermal processes
B. isometric processes
C. isobaric processes
D. isentropic processes

Answer: A

138. In an Otto engine, the heat is added during

A. isothermal processes
B. isometric processes
C. isobaric processes
D. isentropic processes

Answer: B

139. Exhaust stroke gasoline engine is also known as

A. supercharging
B. choking
C. scavenging
D. knockling

Answer: C

140. The mechanical efficiency of a device is the ratio of the

A. mechanical energy input to the mechanical energy output of the device

B. ideal energy input to the actual energy input
C. actual energy extracted to the ideal energy extracted
D. actual to the ideal energy input

Answer: B

141. The smallest subdivision of an element that can take place in a chemical reaction is
a/an

A. atom
B. molecule
C. electron
D. proton

Answer: A
142. The smallest subdivision of a compound that can take in a natural state is a/an

A. atom
B. molecule
C. electron
D. proton

Answer: B

143. Elements with different atomic weights but the same atomic number are:

A. isomers
B. isotropes
C. isotopes
D. isobars

Answer: C

144. All of the following are characteristics of metals except:

A. high electrical conductivities

B. tendency to form positive ions
C. tendency to form brittle solids
D. high melting points

Answer: C

145. The following are all characteristics of non – metals except

A. having little or no luster

B. appearing o the right end of the periodic table
C. having low ductility
D. being reducing agents

Answer: D

146. Graduations in the properties of elements from one elements to the next are less
pronounced in:

A. the lanthanide series

B. periods
C. groups
D. active metals

Answer: C
147. All of the following are components of a chemical elements except:

A. protons
B. neutrons
C. electrons
D. ions

Answer: D

148. Which of the following is not a prefix used in naming isomers?

A. Para
B. Meta
C. Cis
D. Bi

Answer: D

149. All of the following are types of chemical bonds except:

A. ionic bonds
B. covalent bonds
C. metallic bonds
D. nuclear bonds

Answer: D

150. The equilibrium distance between elements in ionic bonds is function of all the following
except:

A. ionic change
B. coordination number
C. atomic weight
D. temperature

Answer: C

151. Which of the following statements is not characteristic of ionic compounds?

A. they are usually hard, brittle, crystalline solids

B. they have high melting points
C. they are non volatile and have low vapor pressures
D. they are good electrical conductors in the solid phase

Answer: D
152. What kind of bonding do common gases that exists a free state as diatomic molecules
experience?

A. ionic bonds
B. covalent bonds
C. metallic bonds
D. nuclear bonds

Answer: B

153. Measure the diffuser’s ability to increase the pressure of the fluid is :

A. speed recovery factor

B. pressure recovery factor
C. volume recovery factor
D. diffuser recovery factor

Answer: B

154. A decrease in stagnation pressure will decrease the mass flux through the:

A. diverging nozzle
B. converging nozzle
C. converging – diverging nozzle
D. none of these

Answer: A

155. What is the main power generating plant that produces the most electricity per unit
thermal energy in the fuel input and has the greatest surplus of electricity for most co
generation system?

A. steam engine
B. steam turbine
C. gas turbine
D. diesel engine

Answer: D

156. Air standard efficiency of a diesel engine depends on:

A. speed
B. compression ratio
C. fuel
D. torque
 Answer: B

157. What is meant by brake horse power?

A. power developed in the engine cylinder

B. final horse power delivered to the equipment
C. actual horse power delivered to the engine drive shaft
D. work required to raise a weight of 33,000 lbs at a height of one foot in one minute of
time

Answer: C

158. ME BOARD QUESTION

Average pressure on a surface when a changing pressure condition exist

A. back pressure
B. partial pressure
C. pressure drop
D. mean effective pressure

Answer: D

159. ME BOARD QUESTION

What air pressure is needed for air starting a diesel engine?

A. 350 psi
B. 250 psi
C. 450 psi
D. 150 psi

Answer: B

160. ME BOARD QUESTION

Mechanical energy of pressure transformed into energy of heat:

A. kinetic energy
B. enthalpy
C. heat exchanger
D. heat of compression

Answer: B

161. ME BOARD QUESTION

Ignition of the air – fuel mixture in the intake of the exhaust manifold

A. backlash
 B. back fire
C. exhaust pressure
D. back pressure

Answer: B

162. ME BOARD QUESTION

The total sulphur content in a diesel fuel must not excess_____________.

A. 0.3%
B. 0.5%
C. 0.8%
D. 0.11%

Answer: B

163. ME BOARD QUESTION

Total sulphur content in a diesel fuel oil must not excess.

A. 0.2%
B. 0.5%
C. 0.15%
D. 0.1%

Answer: B

164. ME BOARD QUESTION

The color of lubricating oil:

A. does not indicate contamination

B. does not indicate qualities
C. indicates qualities
D. indicates viscosity

Answer: B

165. ME BOARD QUESTION

There are two broad types in the classification of lubricating oils, these are straight and

A. active
B. in active
C. crooked
D. additives

Answer: D

166. ME BOARD QUESTION

 Most commercially available petroleum lubricating oil deteriorates starting from operating
temperature of:

A. 150 ℉
B. 200 ℉

C. 300 ℉
D. 250 ℉

Answer: B

167. ME BOARD QUESTION

An Orsat apparatus is used for

A. volumetric analysis of the flue gases

B. gravimetric analysis of the flue gases
C. smoke density analysis of the gases
D. all of the above

Answer: A

168. ME BOARD QUESTION

The indicator used to determine the anti – knock characteristics of gasoline.

A. anlline point
B. cetane number
C. octane number
D. diesel number

Answer: C

169. ME BOARD QUESTION

Amount of heat liberated by the complete combustion of a uniit weight or volume of fuel
is:

A. heating valve
B. latent heat
C. sensible heat
D. work of compression

Answer: A

170. ME BOARD QUESTION

Air that controls the rate of combustion in the combustion chamber is known as:

A. secondary air
 B. excess air
C. control air
D. primary air

Answer: A

171. ME BOARD QUESTION

Percentage of excess air is the difference between the air actually supplied and the
theoretically recquirment dived by:

A. actual air supplied

B. theoretical air supplied
C. theoretical less actual supplied
D. deficient air supplied

Answer: B

172. ME BOARD QUESTION

When fuel oil has a high viscosity then the fuel oil

A. will evaporate easily

B. will have a low specific gravity
C. will burn without smoke
D. will flow slowly through pipes

Answer: D

173. ME BOARD QUESTION

Engines using heavy fuels require heating of the fuel so that the viscosity at the injector
is:

A. around 200 SSU

B. 100 SSU or less
C. 200 SSU + 50
D. 150 SSU or slightly higher

Answer: D

174. ME BOARD QUESTION

A gas produced by the combustion of fuel oil and cannot be found in the flue gases is:

A. carbon dioxide
B. hydrogen
C. oxygen
D. nitrogen
 Answer: B

175. ME BOARD QUESTION

Amount of heat liberated by the complete combustion of a unit weight or volume of fuel is:

A. heating value
B. latent heat
C. sensible heat
D. work of compression

Answer: A

176. ME BOARD QUESTION

The products of complete combustion of gaseous hydrocarbons.

A. carbon dioxide and water

B. carbon monoxide
C. carbon monoxide, water and ammonia
D. water, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide

Answer: A

177. ME BOARD QUESTION

When the water in the products of combustion is in the vapor state, the heating value is:

A. lower heating value

B. higher heating value
C. gross calorific value
D. average heating value

Answer: A

178. ME BOARD QUESTION

At what temperature where in an oil of any grade becomes cloudy and it freezes, thus its
application is limited.

A. cold point
B. flash point
C. pour point
D. freezing point

Answer: A

179. ME BOARD QUESTION

Dry air can be approximated as _______% oxygen and _______% nitrogen by mole
numbers.
 A. 30% and 70%
B. 70% and 30%
C. 21% and 79%
D. 79% and 21%

Answer: C

180. ME BOARD QUESTION

When 𝐻2 O in the products of combustion is in liquid form, the heating value is known as

A. higher heating value

B. lower heating value
C. low and medium heating value
D. average heating value

Answer: A

181. ME BOARD QUESTION

Flow of fluids wherein its particles do not have definite paths and the paths of the
individual and distinguished particles across one another is:

A. non - uniform flow

B. unsteady flow
C. laminar flow
D. turbulent flow

Answer: D

182. ME BOARD QUESTION

If the composition of hydrocarbon fuel is known, the ratio between the nitrogen and
oxygen that is supplied in the air is:

A. equal
B. constant
C. intensity
D. fixed

Answer: B

183. ME BOARD QUESTION

The property of liquid in which they extend resistance to angular or shear deformation is:

A. specific gravity
B. specific weight
C. viscosity
D. density
 Answer: C

184. ME BOARD QUESTION

A property of lubricating oil that measures the thickness of the oil and will help determine
how long oil will flow at a given temperature is known as:

A. viscosity
B. flash point
C. cloud point
D. cloud point

Answer: A

185. ME BOARD QUESTION

The minimum amount of air required for a complete combustion of fuel is
called_____________.

A. dry air
B. excess air
C. theoretical air
D. flue gas

Answer: C

186. ME BOARD QUESTION

The temperature at which lubricating will form a cloud.

A. cloud point
B. pour point
C. critical point
D. boilling point

Answer: A

187. ME BOARD QUESTION

The ideal cycle based on the concept that the combustion process is both diesel and
gasoline in the combination of heat transfer processes that is constant pressure and
constant volume.

A. Ericson cycle
B. Dual cycle
C. Brayton cycle
D. Rankine cycle

Answer: B

188. The unit used for expressing API gravity is:

 A. gm/cc
B. dimensionless numbers
C. degrees
D. none of the above

Answer: C

189. ASTM coal classification is based on:

A. proximate analysis
B. orsat analysis
C. ultimate analysis
D. none of the above

Answer: A

190. API gravity of water is:

A. zero
B. 10
C. 1.0
D. 100

Answer: B

191. Which of the following variety of coal has highest content?

A. lignite
B. bitumious coal
C. grade 1 steam coal
D. coking coal

Answer: A

192. Which of the following is a petroleum fuel?

A. benzol
B. ethyl alcohol
C. methyl alcohol
D. naphta

Answer: D

193. Diesel engine fuels are rated by:

A. specific gravity
 B. calorific value
C. cetane number
D. ocane number

Answer: C

194. Which of the following needs to be filtered in a diesel engine?

A. air only
B. lubricating oil only
C. air and diesel oil only
D. air, diesel oil and lubricating oil

Answer: D

CHAPTER 3
DIESEL POWER PLANT

1. An engine in which the fuel is burned directly within the working cylinder

A. internal combustion engine

B. external combustion engine
C. compression ignition engine
D. spark ignition engine

Answer: A

2. An engine in which the fuel is burned outside of the power cylinder

A. internal cobustion engine

B. external combustion engine
C. compression ignition engine
D. spark ignition engine

Answer: B

3. An engine where the ignition is caused by heat of compression.

A. internal cobustion engine

B. external combustion engine
C. compression ignition engine
D. spark ignition engine

Answer: C
4. What temperature is required to ignite the fuel oil?

A. 800 to 1000 F
B. 700 to 900 F
C. 900 to 1100 F
D. 1000 to 1200 F

Answer: A

5. What air pressure is reqired to produce the required ignition temperature?

A. 350 to 500 psi

B. 250 to 400 psi
C. 450 to 600 psi
D. 150 to 300 psi

Answer: A

6. In a four stroke diesel engine, drawing air into the cylinder is what stroke?

A. first stroke
B. second stroke
C. third stroke
D. fourth stroke

Answer: A

7. Compressing air in a four stroke cycle is

A. first stroke
B. second stroke
C. third stroke
D. fourth stroke

Answer: B

8. Which of the following stokes is produced by the burning gases.

A. first stroke
B. second stroke
C. third stroke
D. fourth stroke

Answer: C

9. Which of the following strokes expels the burned gases?

 A. first stroke
B. second stroke
C. third stroke
D. fourth stroke

Answer: D

10. Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing into its current of air which provides
clean air for the next compression stroke.

A. scavenging
B. supercharging
C. choking
D. knocking

Answer: A

11. Increasing the total amount of charging air in the working cylinder of the engine

A. scavenging
B. supercharging
C. choking
D. knocking

Answer: B

12. The portion of the piston which extends below piston pin and serves as a guide for
the piston and connecting rod.

A. piston skirt
B. piston ring
C. piston scoring
D. piston seizure

Answer: A

13. Rings located in the grooves of the piston usually near the top and near the bottom.

A. piston skirt
B. piston ring
C. piston scoring
D. piston seizure

Answer: B
14. Binding of the piston and the cylinder wall as a result of the lubrication having been
destroyed by excessive temperature and friction.

A. piston skirt
B. piston ring
C. piston scoring
D. piston seizure

Answer: D

15. Grooves in the cylinder wall or piston or both. It is caused by the piston scraping the
cylinder wall in its movement without proper lubrication.

A. piston skirt
B. piston ring
C. piston scoring
D. piston seizure

Answer: C

16. A device which automatically governs or controls the speed of an engine.

A. servomotor
B. governor
C. indicator
D. speedometer

Answer: B

17. A combination of liquids which do not mix – or combined chemically.

A. emulsion
B. deposition
C. evaporation
D. separation

Answer: A

18. What temperature should be the maximum to which lubricating oil is permitted to rise?

A. not more than 100 F

B. not more than 200 F
C. not more than 300 F
D. not more than 400 F

Answer: A
19. What air pressure is needed for air starting a diesel engine?

A. 250 psi
B. 150 psi
C. 350 psi
D. 450 psi

Answer: A

20. At what temperature will self igniting cartridges ignite?

A. about 200 F
B. about 190 F
C. about 210 F
D. about 250 F

Answer: B

21. The fuel is supplied by one pump and switched to each cylinder by a multi outlet
rotating valve or ditributor

A. distributor system
B. injector system
C. non injector system
D. non distributor system

Answer: A

22. This is virtually a distributor two stage pumping system that is, modified distributor
system.

A. distributor system
B. injector system
C. non injector system
D. non distributor system

Answer: B

23. A chamber so proportioned with respect to the cleareance volume proper of the
cylinder that only about 30% of the combustion takes places with in the chamber
itself.

A. pre combustion chamber

B. separate combustion chamber
C. ante combustion chamber
D. mixed combustion chamber
 Answer: A

24. The entire charge is ignited in the separate combustion chamber before the initial
expansion takes place, passages and against the moving piston.

A. pre combustion chamber

B. separate combustion chamber
C. ante combustion chamber
D. mixed combustion chamber

Answer: B

25. A chamber so designed that injection takes place directly opposite its outlet, the
chamber extending backward from the outlet.

A. pre combustion chamber

B. separate combustion chamber
C. ante combustion chamber
D. air cell chamber

Answer: C

26. Fuel is injected only into the main cylinder, during expansion of the burning gasses in
the main chamber, when the pressure therein drops below that of the air in the cell.

A. pre combustion chamber

B. separate combustion chamber
C. ante combustion chamber
D. air cell chamber

Answer: D

27. What is the temperature of the air in the cylinder when the diesel engine is operating
at full load?

A. between 800 and 1100 F

B. between 800 and 1000 F
C. between 900 and 1200 F
D. between 900 and 1100 F

Answer: A

28. What are the axhaust gas temerature at normal operating conditions?

A. between 400 and 700 F

 B. between 500 and 800 F
C. between 300 and 600 F
D. between 200 and 500 F

Answer: A

29. How are high speed diesel engines started?

A. by an electric motor
B. by compressed air
C. by a diesel fuel
D. by an electric spark

Answer: A

30. What speeds are considered high speed diesel engine?

A. 100 to 2000 rpm or 3000 rpm

B. 100 to 1000 rpm
C. 100 to 1500 rpm
D. 100 to 1750 rpm

Answer: A

31. It is a device used for atomizing or cracking fuel oil and through which the fuel oil is
injected into the working cylinders of diesel engines.

A. atomizer
B. fuel spray nozzle
C. injector
D. cracker

Answer: A

32. What is the proper seat width of a spray valve?

A. 1/16 in.
B. 1/8 in.
C. 1/32 in.
D. ¼ in.

Answer: A
33. A cylindrical vessel connected in the fuel system to absorb the shock of the injection
pumps and to provide a reservoir at high pressure for supplying an even flow of fuel
oil to the cylinders.

A. absorber
B. accumulator
C. governor
D. injector

Answer: B

34. How hot are the exhaust gases

A. 400 to 700 F
B. 300 to 600 F
C. 200 to 500 F
D. 500 to 800 F

Answer: A

35. Which of the following is an automatic device used foor keeping constant air
pressure?

A. relief valve
B. unloader
C. strainer
D. barometer

Answer: B

36. What is the other term of the diameter of the circular cylinder?

A. bore
B. stroke
C. swept volume
D. clearance

Answer: A

37. What do you call the maximum distance traveled by the piston?

A. bore
B. stroke
C. swept volume
D. clearance
 Answer: B

38. Which of the following is the product of the cylinder area and stroke.

A. bore
B. stroke
C. swept volume
D. clearance

Answer: C

39. The ratio of the clearance volume to the swept volume.

A. fractional clearance
B. compression ratio
C. expansion ratio
D. cut off ratio

Answer: A

40. The piston is at maximum reach from the crankshaft to which of the following?

A. top dead center

B. bottom dead center
C. ¾ from top center
D. ¾ from bottom center

Answer: A

41. The piston is closest to the crankshaft to which of the following?

A. top dead center

B. bottom dead center
C. ¾ from top center
D. ¾ from bottom center

Answer: B

42. Which of the following engines where the expanding combustion gases act on one
end of the piston?

A. single acting engine

B. double acting engine
C. single expansion engine
D. double expansion engine

Answer: A
43. Wich of the following types of engine where the expanding combustion gases act on
both ends of the piston?

A. single acting engine

B. double actung engine
C. single expansion engine
D. double expansion engine

Answer: B

44. The compression ratio of a diesel engine varies from about:

A. 13.5 to 17.5
B. 8 to 10
C. 14 to 19
D. 10.5 to 14.5

Answer: A

45. In standard diesel, thermal efficiency was not much higher than about what percent?

A. 35%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%

Answer: A

46. A closed heat exchanger that transfer heat from compressed air to cooler air.

A. regenerator
B. intercooler
C. aftercooler
D. reheater

Answer: C

47. Which of the following is used to improve cold weather starting?

A. poppet valve
B. glow plug
C. check valve
D. spark plug

Answer: B
48. The rated power that the manufacturer claims the engine is able to provide on a
continuous basis without incurring damage.

A. brakepower
B. continuous duty rating
C. interminnent rating
D. power rating

Answer: B

49. What is the peak power rating that can be produced on an occasional basis?

A. brakepower
B. continous duty rating
C. interminnent rating
D. power rating

Answer: C

50. Which of the following is the value of a property that includes the effect of friction?

A. brake value
B. friction value
C. indicated value
D. actual value

Answer: A

CHAPTER 4
GAS TURBINE

1. Brayton cycle has:

A. two isentropic and rtwo constant volume pressure

B. two isentropic and two constant pressure processes
C. one constant pressure, one constant volume , and two adiabatic processes
D. two isothermals, one constant volume and a constant pressure processes

Answer: B

2. Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating engines even for same adiabatic
compression ratio and work output because:

A. Otto cycle is highly efficient

 B. Brayton cycle is less efficient
C. Brayton cycle is foe slow speed engines only
D. large volume of low pressure air cannot be efficiency handled in reciprocating
engines

Answer: D

3. Which cycle is generally used for gas turbine?

A. Otto cycle
B. Dual cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Brayton cycle

Answer: D

4. When r is the compression ratio, the efficiency of Brayton cycle is given by:

A. 1 – 1/𝑟 (𝑘−1)/𝑘
B. 1 – 1/𝑟 𝑘−1
C. 1 – 1/𝑟 𝑘
D. 1 – 1/r

Answer: A

5. A regenerator in a gas turbine:

A. reduces heat loss during exhaust

B. allows use of higher compression ratio
C. improves thermal efficiency
D. allows use of fuels of interior quality

Answer: C
6. Which of the following compressor is generally used for gas turbines?

A. lobe type
B. centrifugal type
C. axial flow type
D. reciprocating type

Answer: C

7. The constant pressure gas turbine works on the principle of:

A. carnot cycle
B. Bell – Coleman cycle
C. Rankine cycle
 D. Brayton cycle

Answer: D

8. What type of gas turbine is used in air craft?

A. open cycle type

B. closed cycle type with reheating
C. closed type with reheating and regeneration
D. open cycle type with reheating, regeneration and intercooling

Answer: A

9. In a gas turbine combined cycle plant, a waste heat boiler is used to:

A. heat air from intercooler

B. gases from regenerator
C. recover heat from exhaust gases
D. none of the above

Answer: C

10. Overall efficiency of a gas turbine is:

A. equal to Carnot cycle efficiency

B. equal to Rankine cycle efficiency
C. less than Otto cycle efficiency
D. more than Otto or Diesel cycle efficiency

Answer: C
11. Which of the following turbine has least weight per bhp development?

A. Simple open cycle gas turbine

B. Open cycle gas turbine with inter-cooling and reheating
C. Open cycle gas turbine with inter-cooling reheating and regenerating
D. Closed cycle gas turbine

Answer: A

12. Which of the following is/are advantage of closed cycle gas turbine over open cycle gas
turbine?

A. no containing of working substance with combustion gases

B. inferior quality fuel can be used
C. low maintenance costs
 D. all of the above

Answer: D

13. The range of compression ratio in a gas turbine is :

A. 3 to 5
B. 5 to 8
C. 8 to 12
D. 12 to 20

Answer: B

14. A constant volume combustion gas turbine operates on:

A. Ericson cycle
B. Joule cycle
C. Brayton cycle
D. Atkinson cycle

Answer: D

15. Past ME Board Question

Heat exchanger used to provide heat transfer between the exhaust gases and the air prior
to its
entrance to combustor.

A. Evaporator
B. Combustion chamber
C. Regenerator
D. Heater

Answer: C

16. Past ME Board Question

How does the value for work for unit mass flow of air in the compressor and turbine
influenced by
the addition of a regenerator?

A. Slightly increased
B. Unchanged
C. Greatly decreased
D. Greatly increased

Answer: B

17. Past ME Board Question

 What is the ideal cycle for gas turbine work?
A. Brayton cycle
B. Stag combined cycle
C. Bottom cycle
D. Ericson cycle

Answer: A

18. Past ME Board Question

Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating engines even for same adiabatic compression
ratio and
work output because:
A. Brayton cycle is highly efficient
B. Brayton cycle is for low speed engines only
C. Brayton cycle needs large air-fuel ratio
D. Large volume of low pressure air cannot be efficient handled in reciprocating engines
Answer: D
19. Past ME Board Question
In order to increase the gas velocity gas turbines generally have fixed nozzles. This is allow
the:
A. Compression of gases
B. Condensation of gases
C. Expansion of gases
D. Evaporation of gases
Answer. C
20. Combustion turbines or gas turbines are the preferred combustion engines in application
much above _________.

A. 8 Mw
B. 9 mW
C. 10 MW
D. 7 MW

Answer: C
21. Large units gas turbine regularly operate:

A. In 100 gas to 200 MW range

B. In 50 to 100 MW range
C. Over 150 MW
D. Below 150 MW

Answer: A
22. Small units gas turbine operate below

A. 20 MW
B. 12 MW
C. 30 MW
D. 24 MW

Answer: C

23. Heavy duty gas turbine typically have:

A. Double shafts
B. Single shafts
C. Triple shafts
D. Quadruple shafts

Answer: B

24. Which of the following is basically a jet engine that exhausts into a turbine generator?

A. Aeroderivative gas turbine

B. Industrial gas turbine
C. Brayton engine
D. Joule turbine

Answer: A

25. Most aeroderivative combustion turbine produce less than:

A. 20 MW
B. 30 MW
C. 40 MW
D. 50 MW

Answer: C

26. The compression ratio based on pressure in the compression stage in a gas turbine is
typically:

A. 11 to 16
B. 5 to 8
C. 12 to 18
D. 8 to 14

Answer: A
27. The compression ratio based on pressure of heavy duty gas turbine is in the range of
________.

A. 14 to 15
B. 19 to 21
C. 11 to 16
D. 16 to 18

Answer: A

28. Aeroderivative combustion turbine have higher compression ratio typically:

A. 14 to 15
B. 19 to 21
C. 11 to 16
D. 16 to 18

Answer: B

29. Most heavy duty combustion turbines have how many compression stages?

A. 14 to 16
B. 18 to 20
C. 10 to 12
D. 16 to 18

Answer: D

30. The temperature of the gas entering the expander section is typically:
A. 1200 C to 1290 C
B. 1000 C to 1200 C
C. 1500 C to 1490 C
D. 1300 C to 1390 C

Answer: A

31. The exhaust temperature which makes the exhaust an ideal heat source for combined
cycles is typically:

A. 540 C to 590 C
B. 600 C to 650 C
C. 300 C to 350 C
D. 440 Cto 490 C

Answer: A

32. Most combustion turbines have:

 A. 2 to 3 expander stages
B. 3 to 4 expander stages
C. 4 to 5 expander stages
D. 1 to 2 expander stages

Answer: B

33. The exhaust flow rate in modern heavy duty turbines per 100 MW is approximately:

A. 240 to 250 kg/s

B. 140 to 150 kg/s
C. 340 to 350 kg/s
D. 440 to 450 kg/s

Answer: A

34. The Brayton gas turbine cycle is also known as:

A. Joule cycle
B. Stirling cycle
C. Ericsson cycle
D. Atkinson cycle

Answer: A

35. Approximately how many percent of the turbine power is used to drive the high efficiency
compressor?

A. 50 to 75 %
B. 60 to 85 %
C. 45 to 70 %
D. 30 to 55 %

Answer: A

36. Depending on the turbine construction details, the temperature of the air entering the turbine
will be between:

A. 650 C to 1000 C
B. 750 C to 1100 C
C. 550 C to 950 C
D. 850 C to 1200 C

Answer: A

37. Which of the following engines are typically used by Turbojet and turboprop?
 A. Open combustors
B. Closed combustors
C. Turbo combustors
D. High combustors

Answer: A

38. The full load thermal efficiency of existing heavy duty combustion turbines in simple cycle is
approximately:

A. 34 to 36 %
B. 30 to 32 %
C. 40 to 42 %
D. 26 to 28 %

Answer: A

39. New combustion turbine on the cutting edge of technology ( Advanced turbine system ) are
able to achieve

A. 38 to 38.5 %
B. 36 to 36.5 %
C. 40 to 40.5 %
D. 34 to 34.5 %
Answer: A
40. Aeroderivative commonly achieve efficiencies up to:

A. 42 %
B. 38 %
C. 45 %
D. 35 %

Answer: A

41. Which of the following is the typically backwork ratio of gas turbine?

A. 50 to 75 %
B. 40 to 65 %
C. 30 to 55 %
D. 35 to 60 %

Answer: A

42. Which of the following is an example of a generator?

 A. A counter flow heat exchanger
B. A cross flow heat exchanger
C. A mixed flow heat exchanger
D. A parallel heat exchanger

Answer: B

43. Which of the following is an effect of having a regenerator?

A. Less heat is added

B. Compressor work is reduced
C. Turbine work is increased
D. Compressor work is increased

Answer: A

44. A regenerator in a gas turbine has no effect i:

A. Compressor and turbine work

B. Heat added
C. Thermal efficiency
D. Combustor

Answer: A

45. In Brayton cycle multiple stages of compression and expansion will _________.

A. Increase thermal efficiency

B. Decrease thermal efficiency
C. Limit thermal efficiency
D. Control efficiency

Answer: A

46. In Brayton cycle, reheating and intercooling will __________.

A. Increase thermal efficiency

B. Decrease thermal efficiency
C. Limit thermal efficiency
D. Control efficiency

Answer. A

47. In a Brayton cycle, reheating has no effect in:

A. Heat added
 B. Thermal efficiency
C. Backwork ratio
D. Network

Answer: A

48. In a Brayton cycle, intercooling has no effect:

A. Turbine work
B. Thermal efficiency
C. Backwork ratio
D. Network

Answer: A

49. If Wt is the turbine power and Wc is the compressor power then the backwork ratio is

A. Wt /Wc
B. Wc /Wt
W𝑡 − W𝑐
C. W𝑡
Wt −W𝑐
D. W𝑐

Answer: B

50. If W𝑡 is the turbine power and Wc is the compressor power then network is:

A. Wt × Wc
B. Wc / Wt
C. Wt − Wc
D. Wt + Wc

Answer: C

51. Physical limitation usually preclude more than how many stages of intercooling and
reheating?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Answer. A

CHAPTER 5
STEAM POWER PLANT
1. Which of the following factors does bursting pressure of boiler does’nt depend?

A. Tensile strength of the shell

B. Thickness of the shell
C. Diameter of the shell
D. Shear strength

Answer: D

2. Which of the following factors does working pressure boiler does’nt depends?

A. Tensile strength of the shell

B. Thickness of the shell
C. Factor of safety
D. Type of fuel being fired

Answer: D

3. Total solid impurities in feed water for a boiler depends upon

A. Boiler pressure
B. Quantity of steam to be generated
C. Type of fuel available
D. Quantity of steam

Answer: A

4. A high pressure chamber or a device in which be paths of rapidly moving particles can be
observed and photographed.

A. Cloud chamber
B. Combustion chamber
C. Fission chamber
D. Air chamber

Answer: A

5. The formation of gas bubbles in a liquid is called

A. Bubbling
B. Foaming
C. Priming
D. Carryover

Answer: B
6. How many check valves should be provided between any feed pump and boiler?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Answer: B

7. The water level inside the boiler is indicated by the

A. Baffles
B. Fusible plug
C. Water walls
D. Water column

Answer: D

8. What is the highest pressure under which distinguishable liquid and vapor phases can exist is
equilibrium?

A. Maximum pressure
B. Atmosphere
C. Critical pressure
D. Peak pressure

Answer: C

9. What is the average fuel – oil temperature range of the oil in the discharge line to the boiler?

A. 180 – 200°F
B. 240 – 260°F
C. 160 – 180°F
D. 140 – 160°F

Answer: A

10. The lowest permissible water level of a boiler with an internal furnace is ________ the
height of the shell.

A. ½
B. 1/3
C. ¼
D. 1/5

Answer. B
11. In case of steam engine the cut off ratio is the ratio of

A. Pressure at cut off to supply pressure

B. Pressure at cut off to exhaust pressure
C. Pressure at cut off to mean effective pressure
D. Fraction of piston stroke which the piston has traveled when cut of occurs

Answer: D

12. In a condensing steam engine

A. Condensed steam is supplied

B. Steam condenses inside cylinder
C. Steam condenses as soon as it leaves the cylinder
D. Exhaust steam is condensed in a condenser

Answer: D

13. Flows through the nozzles and diffusers with increasing fluid velocity will create an
equivalent

A. Decrease in the static enthalpy of fluid

B. Increase in the static enthalpy of fluid
C. Decrease in the internal energy of fluid
D. Decrease in the dynamic enthalpy of fluid

Answer: A

14. The term V 2/2cp responds to the temperature rise during such a process and is called the

A. Kinetic temperature
B. High temperature
C. Dynamic temperature
D. Elevation temperature

Answer: C

15. All of the following mechanism can supply heat to a thermodynamics system except

A. Conduction
B. Natural convection
C. Adiabatic expansion
D. Radiation

Answer. C

16. The flow through the nozzle is

 A. Isentropic
B. polytropic
C. Isobaric
D. Isovolumic

Answer: A

17. If the reservoir is sufficiently large, the nozzle inlet velocity is

A. Maximum
B. Negative
C. Positive
D. Zero

Answer: D

18. Which of the following is the pressure applied at the nozzle discharge section?

A. Stagnant pressure
B. Critical pressure
C. Back pressure
D. Atmospheric pressure

Answer: C

19. When the back pressure is reduced to lowest exit pressure, the mass flow reach a maximum
value and the flow is said to be:

A. Stacked
B. Choked
C. Stuck-up
D. Clog-up

Answer: B

20. An increase stagnation pressure will the mass flux through the:

A. Diverging nozzle
B. Converging nozzle
C. Converging – diverging nozzle
D. None of these

Answer: B

21. A converging – diverging nozzle is the standard equipment in:

 A. Subsonic aircraft
B. Supersonic aircraft
C. Hypersonic aircraft
D. Trisonic aircraft

Answer: B

22. For back pressure values, abrupt changes in fluid properties occur in a very thin section of
converging – diverging nozzle under supersonic flow conditions, creating

A. Sound wave
B. Tidal wave
C. Shock waves
D. None of these

Answer: C

A. Fanno Line
B. Straight Line
C. Willan’s Line
D. Cross Cut Line

Answer: A

23. Is the locus of states which have the same value of stagnation enthalpy and mass flux are
called:

A. Fanno Line
B. Straight Line
C. Willan’s Line
D. Cross Cut Line

Answer: A

24. Combination of mass and momentum equations into a single and plotted in h-s plane yield a
curve called:

A. Fair line
B. Freh line
C. Cutting line
D. Rayleigh line

Answer: D

25. Generally steam turbines in power station operate at

A. 3000 rpm
 B. 1000 rpm
C. 4000 rpm
D. 575 rpm

Answer. A

26. Which of the following shows the relation of the steam consumption and the load of steam
turbine – generation?

A. Dalton’s line
B. Willan’s line
C. Jonval’s line
D. Rankine’s line

Answer: B

27. An inventor proposes to develop electrical power by withdrawing heat from the geyser field
of northern California and converting it all to work in power turbines. This scheme will not work
because:

A. The geyser field have only a limited lifetime

B. The salinity of the steam is too great
C. It violates the first law of thermodynamics
D. It violates the second law of thermodynamics

Answer: D

28. The isentropic efficiency of a turbine is given by

A. The ratio of actual to ideal energy extracted

B. The ratio of actual of ideal energy inputted
C. The ratio of ideal to actual energy extracted
D. None of the above

Answer: A

29. Past ME Board Question

Which of the following is not a main part of a typical coal burner?

A. Air registers
B. Nozzle
C. Atomizer
D. Ignitor

Answer: C

30. Past ME Board Question

 Measure of ability of a boiler to transfer the heat given by the furnace to the water and
steam is:

A. Grate efficiency
B. Stroke efficiency
C. Furnace efficiency
D. Boiler efficiency

Answer: D

31. Past ME Board Question

A goose neck is installed in the line connecting a statement gauge to a boiler to:

A. Maintain constant steam flow

B. Protect the gauge element
C. Prevent steam knocking
D. Maintain steam pressure

Answer: B

32. Past ME Board Question

Which of the following is a great advance of a fire tube boiler?

A. Steam pressure is not ready

B. Contains a large volume of water and requires long interval of time to raise steam and
not so flexible as to changes in steam demand
C. Cannot use impure water
D. Radiation losses are higher because fire is inside the boiler and surrounded by water

Answer: B

33. Past ME Board Question

One of the following task which is an example of preventive maintenance is

A. Cleaning the cup on a rotary cup burner

B. Cleaning a completely clog oil strainer
C. Replacing a leaking valve
D. Replacing a blown fuse

Answer: A

34. Past ME Board Question

The carbon dioxide (CO2 ) percentage in the flue gas of an efficiency fired boiler should be
approximately

A. 1 %
B. 12 %
 C. 18 %
D. 20 %

Answer: B

35. Past ME Board Question

When droplets of water are carried by steam in the boiler.

A. Priming
B. Foaming
C. Carryover
D. Embrittlement

Answer: A

36. Past ME Board Question

The process in which heat energy is transferred to a thermal energy storage device is
known as:

A. Adiabatic
B. Regeneration
C. Intercooling
D. Isentropic

Answer: B

37. Past ME Board Question

When the boiler pressure increase or when the exhaust pressure decrease, the amount of
moisture.

A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Constant
D. Zero

Answer: A

38. Past ME Board Question

When the number of reheat stages in a reheat cycle is increased, the average temperature

A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Is constant
D. Is zero

Answer: A
39. Past ME Board Question
A heat transfer device that reduce thermodynamics fluid from its vapor phase to its liquid
phase such as in vapor compression refrigeration plant or in a condensing steam plant.

A. Flash vessel
B. Cooling tower
C. Condenser
D. Steam separator

Answer: C

40. Past ME Board Question

A simultaneous generation of electricity and steam (or heat) in a single power plant.

A. Gas turbine
B. Steam turbine
C. Waste heat recovery
D. Cogeneration

Answer: D

41. Past ME Board Question

Is one whose pressure is higher than the saturation pressure corresponding to its
temperature.

A. Compressed liquid
B. Saturated liquid
C. Saturated vapor
D. Superheated vapor

Answer: A

42. Past ME Board Question

In a steam generator with good combustion control, what occurs if the load is increased?

A. Air temperature leaving air heater decreases

B. Air temperature entering air heater increases
C. Furnace pressure is approximately constant
D. Economizer gas outlet temperature decreases

Answer: C

43. Past ME Board Question

Total solid impurities in feed water for a boiler depends upon

A. Boiler pressure
B. Type of fuel available
 C. Quantity of steam to be generated
D. Quantity of steam

Answer: A

44. Past ME Board Question

The gaseous state of water.

A. Water gas
B. Blue gas
C. Water vapor
D. Yellow gas

Answer: C

45. A liquid boils when its vapor pressure equals

A. the gage pressure

B. the critical pressure
C. the ambient pressure
D. one standard atmosphere

Answer: C

46. Past ME Board Question

What are the main components in a combined cycle power plant?

A. Diesel engine and air compressor

B. Gas engine and waste heat boiler
C. Steam boiler and turbine
D. Nuclear reactor and steam boiler

Answer: B

47. Past ME Board Question

A change in efficiency of combustion in a boiler can usually be determined by comparing the
previously recorded readings with the current readings of the __________.

A. Stack temperature and CO

B. Over the fire drop and CO
C. Ringleman chart and CO2
D. Stack temperature and CO2

Answer: D

48. Past ME Board Question

A boiler steam gage should have a range of at least
 A. One half the working steam pressure
B. 1 and ½ times the maximum allowable working pressure
C. The working steam pressure
D. Twice the maximum allowable working pressure

Answer: B

49. Past ME Board Question

In a water tube boiler, heat and gases of combustion passed:

A. Through the combustion chamber only

B. Through the tubes
C. Away the tubes
D. Around the tubes

Answer: D

50. Past ME Board Question

A chemical water of feedwater treatment which uses calcium hydroxide and sodium
carbonate as reagents.

A. Thermal treatment
B. Lime soda treatment
C. Demineralization process
D. Ion exchange treatment

Answer: B

51. Past ME Board Question

The thermal efficiency of gas-vapor cycle as compared to steam turbine or gas turbine is

A. Greater than
B. Less than
C. Lower than
D. Equal to

Answer: A

52. Past ME Board Question

A rapid increase in boiler pressure occur when there is :

A. Moderate drop in steam load

B. Constant drop in steam load
C. Abrupt drop in steam load
D. Gradual drop in steam load
 Answer: C

53. Past ME Board Question

The most economical and low maintenance cost condenser.

A. Water – cooled
B. Air – cooled
C. Evaporative
D. Sub – cooled

Answer: B

54. Past ME Board Question

What is commonly used done to system when the turbine has excessive moisture?

A. Frosting
B. Diffusing
C. Reheating
D. Dehumidifying

Answer: C

55. Past ME Board Question

What is the result when the fluid kinetic energy during a stagnation process is transformed
to enthalpy?

A. Decrease in fluid volume

B. Rise in the temp. and pressure fluid
C. Rise in fluid’s volume
D. Decrease in the temp. and pressure of fluid

Answer: B

56. Past ME Board Question

How can the average temperature during heat rejection process of a Rankine cycle be
decreased?

A. Increase boiler pressure

B. Increase turbine pressure
C. Increase condenser pressure
D. Reduce turbine exit pressure

Answer: D

57. Past ME Board Question

Which of the following ascertains the effectiveness and the size of a condenser?
 A. Number of passes
B. Thickness of the shell
C. Tube sizes
D. Heat transfer

Answer: D

58. Past ME Board Question

A boiler has a bursting pressure, BP, of 600 kPa and a factor of safety, FS, of 8 is employed
in design. As an engineer, would you advice to have a working pressure, WP, of 500 kPa?

A. No, WP must be higher than 500 kPa

B. No, WP is only 75 kPa at FS of 8
C. Yes, since BP is 600 Pa
D. Yes, to attain better efficiency

Answer: B

59. Past ME Board Question

What cycle is used in vapor cycle of steam power plant?

A. Brayton cycle
B. Diesel cycle
C. Ericsson cycle
D. Rankine cycle

Answer: D

60. Past ME Board Question

Gauge cock in the boiler is designed to determine:

A. Level of steam
B. Specific heat
C. Level of water
D. Pressure

Answer: C

CHAPTER 6
GEOTHERMAL & NON CONVENTIONAL POWER
PLANTS

1. Refers to the internal heat from the earth.

A. Geothermal
 B. Thermal energy
C. Molten heat
D. Tectonic heat

Answer: A

2. A rock – forming crystalline mixed silicate which constitute about 60 % of the earth’s surface.

A. Soil
B. Feldspar
C. Flux
D. Flint

Answer: B

3. A compound rock, a crypto – crystalline from of silica, which is dens, tough, breaking with a
conchoidal fracture.

A. Gravel
B. Stalactite
C. Flint
D. Flux

Answer: C

4. is the process of using injection wells to buble air through groundwater.

A. Air stripping
B. Staged combustion
C. Sparging
D. Soil washing

Answer: C

5. A popular term used by utilities to mean upgrading existing plant.

A. Replanting
B. Repowering
C. Recharging
D. Reorganizing

Answer: B

6. A dense, fine grained, light colored igneous rock which is rich in silica.

A. Felsite
B. Feldspar
 C. Flint
D. Flux

Answer: A

7. An opening in lava or in volcanic area through which steam and other hot gases are escaping
into the air is called:

A. Fumarole
B. Volcanic leaks
C. Seismic outlets
D. Seismic leaks

Answer: A

8. Tidal power is the power generated from:

A. Waves of the ocean

B. Rise and fall tides
C. Thermal energy of ocean water
D. Raw sea water

Answer: B

9. Convert chemical energy directly into electrical energy.

A. Fuel oil
B. Magnetohydrodynamic generator
C. Battery
D. Thermoelectric generator

Answer: A

10. Generates a voltage from incident light, usually light the visible region.

A. Photovoltaic cell
B. Solar cell
C. Dry cell
D. A or B

Answer: D

11. All of the following terms are synonymous quantity of electromagnetic theory except:

A. Packets
B. Corpuscles
C. X-rays
 D. Photons

Answer: C

12. In geothermal power plant waste water is:

A. Recirculated after cooling in cooling lowers

B. Discharged into sea
C. Evaporated in ponds
D. Discharge back to earth

Answer: D

13. Past ME Board Question

In a liquid-dominated geothermal plant, what process occurs when the saturated steam
passes through the turbine?

A. Isobaric
B. Polytropic
C. Isometric
D. Isentropic

Answer: B

14. Past ME Board Question

What do you call a conversion technology that yields electricity straight from sunlight without
the aid of a working substance like gas or steam without the use of any mechanical cycle?

A. Power conversion
B. Stirling cycle conversion
C. Solar thermal conversion
D. Photovoltaic-energy conversion

Answer: D

15. Past ME Board Question

Tidal plant power is attractive because it has:

A. Low head and intermittent power

B. High lead
C. Cheap energy source
D. Expensive energy source

Answer: C

16. Past ME Board Question

 What do you call a conversion technology that yield electricity straight from sunlight without
the aid of working substance like gas or steam without the use any mechanical cycle?

A. Power conversion
B. Stirling cycle conversion
C. Solar thermal conversion
D. Photovoltaic-energy conversion

Answer: D

17. Past ME Board Question

Tidal power plant is attractive because it has:

A. Low head and intermittent power

B. High head
C. Cheap energy source
D. Expensive energy source

Answer: C

18. Tidal power is the power generated from:

A. Waves of the ocean

B. Rise and fall tides
C. Thermal energy of the ocean water
D. Raw sea water

Answer: B

19. Converts chemical energy directly into electrical energy.

A. Fuel cell
B. Magnetohydrodynamic generator
C. Battery
D. Thermoelectric generator

Answer: A

20. Generates a voltage from incident light, usually light in the visible region.

A. Photovoltaic cell
B. Solar cell
C. Dry cell
D. A or B

Answer: D
21. The statement that the product of the error in the measured determination of a particle’s
position and its momentum is of the order of Planck’s constant h is known as:

A. Bohr’s theory
B. D’Alembert’s paradox
C. The Heisenberg uncertainly principle
D. Planck’s law

Answer: C

22. The flow process through shock wave is high irreversible and cannot be approximated as
being:

A. Polytropic
B. Isometric
C. Hyperbolic
D. Isentropic

Answer: D

23. Beaufort scale is used for measuring what?

A. Beta and gamma radiations

B. Wind speed
C. Insolation
D. Depth of sea

Answer: B

24. Betz law is widely used in:

A. MHD system
B. Solar cell
C. Geothermal power
D. Wind mills

Answer: D

25. Rocks having excessive internal stresses may produces spalling. This rock are called as
_________.

A. Stratified rocks
B. Popping rocks
C. Crushed rocks
D. Swelling rocks

Answer: A
26. Solar energy arrives at the outside of the earth’s atmosphere at an average rate of _______.

A. 1.354 kW/m2
B. 1.543 kW/m2
C. 2.354 kW/m2
D. 2.543 kW/m2

Answer: A

27. How many percent of solar energy survives absorption and reflection?

A. 40 to 70 %
B. 30 to 60 %
C. 50 to 80 %
D. 20 to 50 %

Answer: A

28. Solar energy is captured in:

A. Sun capturer
B. Solar collector
C. Sun collector
D. Green house capturer

Answer: B

29. Which of the following solar collector are essential wide, flat boxes with clear plastic or glass
covering known as the glazing.

A. Flat plate collectors

B. Concentrating collectors
C. Focusing collector
D. Evacuated tube collector

Answer: A

30. Which of the following collectors use mirrors and a lenses to focus the suns energy on a
small absorbs area.

A. Flat plate collector

B. Concentrating collector
C. Non focusing collectors
D. Evacuated tube collectors

Answer: B
31. Which of the following collector are more complex to their efficiencies are higher?

A. Flat plate collector

B. Concentrating collector
C. Focusing collectors
D. Evacuated tube collectors

Answer: D

32. Which of the following collectors are useful when extremely hot transfer fluid is needed and
are general limited to commercial projects?

A. Flat plate collector

B. Concentrating collector
C. Focusing collectors
D. Evacuated tube collectors

Answer: D

33. The shading factor in calculating the heat absorbed by the solar collector has a value of
approximately”

A. 0.95 to 0.97
B. 0.85 to 0.87
C. 0.75 to 0.77
D. 0.65 to 0.67

Answer: A

34. The ratio of energy absorbed by the transfer fluid to the original incident energy striking the
collector.

A. Collector efficiency
B. Sun efficiency
C. Shading factor
D. Absorptance

Answer: A

35. As the difference between the ambient air and average plate (or inlet) temperatures
increase, what happens to the collector efficiency?

A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Constant
D. No effect
 Answer: B

36. Distributed collector system is also known as:

A. Trough electric system

B. Central receiver system
C. Power tower system
D. Dish/Stirling system

Answer: A

37. Center receiver system is also known as:

A. Trough electric system

B. Distributed collector
C. Power tower system
D. Dish/ Stirling system

Answer: C

38. Which of the following main approaches to solar energy generating systems describes that
parabolic tracking trough concentrator focus sunlight on evacuated glass tubes that run along
the collectors focal lines.

A. Trough electric system

B. Central receiver system
C. Power tower system
D. Dish/Stirling system

Answer: A

39. Trough electric technology is relatively mature but due to the flow temperature, average
annual thermal efficiencies are only:

A. 10 to 15 %
B. 5 to 10 %
C. 15 to 20 %
D. 25 to 30 %

Answer: A

40. A field of heliostats or tracking mirror concentrates solar energy onto a receiver on a central
tower.

A. Trough electric system

B. Distributed collector system
 C. Power tower system
D. Dish/ Stirling system

Answer: C

41. In a power tower system typical thermal efficiencies is in the range:

A. 10 to 15 %
B. 5 to 10 %
C. 15 to 20 %
D. 25 to 30 %

Answer: C

42. A dish engine system has an efficiency of

A. 10 to 15 %
B. 5 to 10 %
C. 14 to 19 %
D. 24 to 28 %

Answer: D

43. Practical and economic issues limit trough electric system about:

A. 200 MW
B. 100 MW
C. 300 MW
D. 400 MW

Answer: A

44. Practical and economic issues limit tower electricity system to approximately”

A. 100 to 200 MW
B. 150 to 250 MW
C. 100 to 300 MW
D. 150 to 400 MW

Answer: C

45. Thermal efficiency of a geothermal power plant is approximately:

A. 30 %
B. 22 %
C. 35 %
D. 15 %
 Answer: B

46. A flash stem cycle can be used if the hot water temperature is approximately:

A. 165 C or higher
B. 150 C or higher
C. 145 C to 200 C
D. Below 200 C

Answer: A

47. A binary cycle using a separate heat transfer fluid if the temperature of the hot water is
between approximately _________.

A. 165 C and 120 C

B. 200 C and 150 C
C. 225 C and 175 C
D. 300 C and higher

Answer: A

48. For every kilometer of depth, the temperature of the earth’s crust increase by:

A. 30 F
B. 40 F
C. 50 F
D. 20 F

Answer: A

49. Multiple wells produce steam at 690 to 820 kPa temperature of _______.

A. 205 C
B. 155 C
C. 250 C
D. 175 C

Answer: A

50. In a hot rock systems, water is injected through injection wells into artificially made fractured
rock beds of how many kilometers below the surface?

A. 1 to 6 km
B. 3 to 9 km
C. 4 to 10 km
D. 6 to 11 km
 Answer: A

CHAPTER 7
NUCLEAR POWER PLANT

1. Past ME Board Question

What is the suggested maximum permissible dose (MPD) of gamma ray exposure for general
individuals not working in nuclear setting, by choice, in rem/year?

A. 1
B. 5
C. ½
D. 3

Answer: C

2. Past ME Board Question

The number of protons in the nucleus of an atom of the number of electrons in the orbit of an
atom

A. Atomic volume
B. Atomic number
C. Atomic weight
D. Atomic mass

Answer: B

3. The process in which the nucleus splits into a smaller fragments.

A. Fusion
B. Fission
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Compton’s effect

Answer: B

4. The ability of the substance to absorb neurons is dependent upon which parameter?

A. Absorption cross section

B. Scattering cross section
C. Total cross section
D. Atomic number

Answer: A
5. What kind of bonding do common gases that exist in free as diatomic molecules
experiences?

A. Ionic bonds
B. Convalent bonds
C. Metallic bonds
D. Nuclear bonds

6. Which of the following is NOT a unit of energy?

A. Atomic unit
B. meV
C. dynes
D. ergs

Answer: C

7. The process in which a nucleus splits into smaller fragments.

A. Fusion
B. Fission
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Compton’s effect

Answer: B

8. Which of the following is NOT a unit of energy?

A. Calories
B. Joules
C. Pascals
D. MeV

Answer: C

9. The ability of a substance to absorb neurons is dependent upon which parameter?

A. Absorption cross section

B. Scattering cross section
C. Total cross section
D. Atomic number

Answer: A

10. Which of the following is NOT a unit of energy?

 A. Atomic unit
B. MeV
C. Dynes
D. Ergs

Answer: C

11. An electrically charged atom or radial which carries electricity through an electrolyte is
called:

A. Ion
B. Isotope
C. Molecule
D. Hole

Answer: A

12. What is the smallest particle of an element that can enter into a chemical reaction?

A. Molecule
B. Ion
C. Atom
D. Isotope

Answer: C

13. Beryllium, magnesium, and calcium all belong to which elemental grouping?

A. Noble elements
B. Halogens
C. Lanthanons
D. Alkaline earth metals

Answer: D

14. the thickness of material required to attenuate radiation to a particular level depends on

A. The particle
B. The energy
C. The shielding material
D. The particle, its energy, and the shielding material

Answer: D

15. Particles that easily stopped within a few millimeter because their double charge generate
path ionization and because they are susceptible to electrostatic interaction are:
 A. Alpha neurons
B. Alpha radiations
C. Beta radiations
D. Gamma radiations

Answer: B

16. Radiation consisting of singly charged particles that generate to intermediate distances are
called:

A. Fast neurons
B. Alpha radiation
C. Beta radiations
D. Gamma radiations

Answer: C

17. Radiation with no charge, which produces no ionization, and which is difficult to attenuate
thus posing a major health threat is

A. Slow neutrons
B. Alpha radiations
C. Beta radiations
D. Gamma radiations

Answer: D

18. The property of fluid at a location where the Mach number is unity (at the throat) are called:

A. Critical properties
B. Sonic properties
C. Dynamic properties
D. Stagnation properties

Answer: A

19. Gamma attenuation is a effected by:

A. Their photoelectric effect

B. Pair production
C. Compton scattering
D. The photoelectric effect, pair production, and Compton scattering

Answer: D

20. The amount of a radiation shield’s dimensional geometry that reduces to half of its original
value is called the _________.
 A. Half-value mass
B. Half-value thickness
C. Semi-cross section
D. Logarithmic decrement

Answer: B

21. The amount of a radiation shield’s density that reduces radiation to half of its original value
is called the _________.

A. Half – value mass

B. Half – value thickness
C. Semi – cross section
D. Logarithmic decrement

Answer: A

22. Radiation exposure, the measure of gamma radiation at the surface of an object, is
measured in:

A. Rems
B. Rads
C. Roentegens
D. Roentegens per second

Answer: D

24. Exposure is a measure of ionization surrounding a person, but biological damage is

dependent on the amount of energy.

A. Striking the surface

B. Passing through the body
C. Absorbed
D. Reflected by the surface

Answer: C

25. All of the following are practical application of Einstein’s principle of special relative except
_______.

A. Mass increase
B. Length contraction
C. Time dilation
D. Space warping

Answer: D
26. The postulated that no signal or energy can be transmitted with a speed greater than the
speed of light is consistent with _______

A. The Heisenburg uncertainly principle

B. The Compton effect
C. Einstein’s law
D. Newton’s second law

Answer: C

27. Total energy of an electron in the same shell is defined by the _________.

A. Principal quantum number

B. Azimuthal quantum number
C. Magnetic quantum number
D. Hund rule

Answer: A

28. The direction of a electron’s angular momentum vector is defined by the

A. Principal quantum number

B. Azimuthal quantum number
C. Magnetic quantum number
D. Electron spin quantum number

Answer: C

29. The electron’s spin angular momentum vector is defined by the

A. Azimuthal quantum number

B. Magnetic quantum number
C. Electron spin quantum number
D. Hand rule

Answer: C

30. The magnitude of an electron’s angular momentum vector is defined by the

A. Principal quantum number

B. Azimuthal quantum number
C. Electron spin quantum number
D. Hand rule

Answer: B
31. The fact that each orbital of a set of equal-energy orbitals must be occupied with an electron
before any orbitals has two electrons is specified by which of the following?

A. Principal quantum number

B. Azimuthal quantum number
C. Magnetic quantum number
D. Hand rule

Answer: D

32. The statement that no two electrons can have the same set of four quantum numbers is
known as the

A. Hand rule
B. Heisenburg uncertainly principle
C. Pauli exclusion principle
D. Schrodinger equation

Answer: C

33. All of the following terms describe the radiation lines from transition of electrons in an atom
except

A. Sharp
B. Principal
C. Obtuse
D. Fundamental

Answer: C

34. When electrons are not shared equally between two elements, and electrons spend more
time with one element than the other, the bonding is called:

A. Ionic bonding
B. Polar covalent bonding
C. Non – polar covalent bonding
D. Metallic bonding

Answer: B

35. When electrons are shared equally (e.g. when the atom are the same as in diatomic gases),
the bonding is called:

A. Ionic bonding
B. Polar covalent bonding
C. Non – polar covalent
D. Resonance bonding
 Answer: C

36. All of the following are units of energy except:

A. Atomic units
B. MeV
C. Dynes
D. Ergs

Answer: C

37. Einstein reasoned there was a discrete amount of energy needed to remove an electron
from a surface, with the rest of the incident photon’s energy contributing to the kinetic energy of
the photon., the amount of energy is called:

A. Binding energy
B. Work function
C. Coulomb energy
D. Fermi energy

Answer: B

38. Which of the following is not a postulate of Bohr’s theory of the hydrogen atom?

A. Electron orbit are discrete and non-radiating and an electron may not remain between
these orbits
B. The energy change experienced by an electron changing from one orbit to another is
quantized
C. Light waves exist simultaneously as high frequency electrical and magnetic waves
D. Angular momentum is quantized

Answer: C

CHAPTER 8
BOILERS

1. Which of the following is necessary to generate steam in a boiler?

A. A container
B. Heat
C. Water
D. All of the above

Answer: D
2. It is the part of the boiler with water on one side and heat on the other side.

A. Furnace volume
B. Fire side
C. Heating surface
D. Water side

Answer: C

3. A _________ boiler has heat and gases of combustion that pass through tubes surrounded
by water.

A. Fire tube
B. Cast iron sectional
C. Water tube
D. Straight-tube

Answer: A

4. A _________ boiler has water in the tubes and heat gases of combustion passing arounf the
tubes.

A. Fire tubes
B. Cast iron sectional
C. Water tube
D. Firebox

Answer: C

5. Which of the following are used in boiler to direct the gases of combustion over the boiler
heating surface?

A. Combustion control
B. Baffles
C. Fire tubes
D. Zone controls

Answer: B

6. The three-basic type of low pressure heating boilers ______, _______, and _______.

A. Firebox; vertical; locomotive

B. Scotch marine; wet-top ;dry-top
C. Straight-tube ;bent-tube ;multiple pass
D. Fire-tube ;water tube; cast iron sectional
 Answer: D

7. In a low pressure gas system, the gas regulator reduces that city gas pressure to _____ psi.

A. 0
B. 2
C. 1
D. 3

Answer: A

8. In the ________ air mixes the fuel and burns.

A. Fire tubes
B. Combustion chamber
C. Water tubes
D. Breeching

Answer: B

9. The function of the steam boiler is to _______.

A. Produce condensate
B. Create heat
C. Produce steam
D. Burn fuel

Answer: C

10. Which of the following is the most common type of the water tube boiler?

A. Firebox
B. Scotch marine
C. Vertical
D. Straight-tube multiple pass

Answer: D

11. Excess fuel oil in the fuel oil system returns to the:

A. Combustion chamber
B. Fuel oil tank
C. Burner
D. Suction line

Answer: B
12. It is the system that provides the air necessary for combustion.

A. Feedwater
B. Steam
C. Draft
D. Fuel

Answer: C

13. The gasses of combustion leave the boiler through the

A. Chimney
B. Blower
C. Air vent
D. Breeching

Answer: D

14. Which of the following boiler does not use tubes?

A. Cast iron sectional

B. Water tube
C. Scotch marine
D. Firebox

Answer: A

15. Which of the following will make a boiler work more efficiently?

A. More fuel is added

B. Fire tubes are decrease in size
C. The heating surface is increased
D. All of the above

Answer: C

16. What are the four system necessary to operate a boiler?

A. Combustion; draft; steam; boiler water

B. Water; steam; combustion; stoker
C. Boiler water; fuel; draft; condense
D. Feedwater; fuel; draft; steam

Answer: D

17. The ________ forms a vacuum that draws out of the condensate return the line into the
vacuum tank.
 A. Suction line
B. Main header
C. Vacuum pump
D. Heating equipment

Answer: C

18. Which of the following can be a function of the container in a boiler?

A. Holds the water

B. Collect the steam that is produced
C. Transfer heat to the water to produce steam
D. All of the above

Answer: D

19. At what temperature will water normally turns to steam?

A. 100°F
B. 200°F
C. 150°F
D. 212°F

Answer: D

20. Which of the following is true for cast iron sectional boilers?

A. Cast iron sectional boilers have fire tubes

B. These boiler do not require water
C. Can be expanded in size
D. None of the above

Answer: D

21. Which of the following is the most important valve boiler?

A. Main steam stop

B. Automatic nonreturn valve
C. Safety valve
D. Feedwater stop valve

Answer: C

22. The MAWP on a low pressure steam boiler is _______ psi

A. 10
 B. 20
C. 15
D. 30

Answer: C

23. Which of the following best defines a total force acting on a boiler?

A. Area times diameter

B. Area times pressure
C. Area times distance
D. The MAWP times pressure

Answer: B

24. The ASME code states the boilers with over _____ square feet heating surface must have
two or more safety valve.

A. 200
B. 400
C. 400
D. 500

Answer: D

25. The area of a safety valve 4” in diameter is how many square inches.

A. 2.3562
B. 6.2832
C. 3.1416
D. 12.5664

Answer: D

26. Which of the following is the only valve permitted between the safety valve and the boiler?

A. os&y gate
B. os&y globe
C. automatic nonreturn
D. no valve are permitted between the boiler and the safety valve

Answer: D

27. The range of the pressure gauge should be _______ time the MAWP of the boiler.

A. 1 to 2
B. 2 to 3
 C. 1 ½ to 2
D. 2 ½ to 3

Answer: C

28. The ASME code only allows ______ safety valve on boiler.

A. Deadweight
B. Spring-loaded pop-type
C. Lever
D. None of the above

Answer: B

29. How much is the total force on a safety valve 2 ½ in diameter and with the steam pressure
of 15 psi?

A. 19.5413
B. 73.63125
C. 29.4525
D. 93.7512

Answer: B

30. The steam pressure gauge on the boiler is calibrated to read in:

A. Inches of vacuum
B. Absolute pressure
C. Pounds per square inch
D. Pressure below atmospheric pressure

Answer: C

31. Live steam is prevented from entering the bourdon tube of the pressure gauge by which of
the following?

A. Automatic nenreturn valve

B. os&y valve
C. inspector’s test cock
D. siphon

Answer: D

32. What pressure gauge that can read whether vacuum pressure or not.

A. Compound
B. Suction
 C. Duplex
D. Vacuum

Answer: A

33. Which of the following best defines a vacuum?

A. A pressure above gauge

B. A pressure below atmospheric
C. A pressure below gauge
D. A pressure equal to gauge

Answer: B

34. Safety valves are designed to pop open and stay until there is a _______ psi drop in
pressure.

A. 0 to 1
B. 5 to 15
C. 2 to 4
D. Over 15

Answer: C

35. What type of boiler that uses safety valves?

A. Fire tube
B. Cast iron sectional
C. Water tube
D. All of the above

Answer: D

36. The water column is located at the NOWL so lowest visible part of the gauge glass is
_______ above the highest surface.

A. 2” to 3”
B. Just
C. 4” to 5”
D. Never

Answer: A

37. Blowback of a safety valve is to prevent:

A. Burner cycling
B. Premature popping
 C. Chattering
D. Feathering

Answer: C

38. The boiler bottom blowdown line should discharge to a(n) ________.

A. Sewer
B. Atmospheric tank
C. Blowdown tank
D. Return tank or open sump

Answer: C

39. If the desired cut-in pressure of the boiler is 6 psi and the desired cut-out pressure is 10 psi,
the differential pressure setting must be ______ psi.

A. 2
B. 6
C. 4
D. 8

Answer: C

40. Impurities that build up on the surface of the water in the boiler prevent _______ from
breaking through the surface of the water.

A. Air
B. CO2
C. Oxygen
D. Steam

Answer: D

41. To prevent air pressure from building up in the boiler when filling the boiler with water, the
______ must be open.

A. Safety valve
B. Boiler vent
C. Main steam stop valve
D. Manhole cover

Answer: B

42. To prevent a vacuum from forming when taking the boiler off-line, which of the following
must be opened when pressure is still on the boiler?
 A. Safety valve
B. Boiler vent
C. Main steam stop valve
D. Man hole cover

Answer: B

43. The operating range of the boiler is controlled by:

A. Squastat
B. Pressure control
C. Vaporstat
D. Modulating pressure control

Answer: B

44. The ________ regulates the high and low fire of the burner.

A. Aquastat
B. Pressure control
C. Vaporstat
D. Modulating pressure control

Answer: D

45. The best time to blow down the boiler to remove sludge and sediment is when the boiler is
at:

A. Its highest load

B. Half its load
C. Its lightest load
D. Anytime

Answer: C

46. The level of the water in the _______ indicates the water level in the boiler.

A. Condensate return tank

B. Gauge glass
C. Try cocks
D. Blowdown tank

Answer: B

47. When blowing down a boiler, the quick opening valve should always be opened _______
and close ________.
 A. First; first
B. Last; first
C. First; last
D. Last; last

Answer: C

48. Which of the following is added to boiler so that water changes scale-forming into a non-
adhering sludge?

A. Oxygen
B. Slag
C. Mineral
D. Chemicals

Answer: D

49. A _______ valve is installed before the ________ to allow the steam pressure gauge to be
changed if a malfunction occurs.

A. Globe; safety valve

B. Globe; U-tube siphon
C. Gate; siphon
D. Globe; pigtail siphon

Answer: C

50. What pressure gauge that reads more pressure than is actually in the boiler.

A. Broken
B. Uncalibrated
C. Slow
D. Fast

Answer: D

51. According to the ASME code, safety valve on low pressure boilers should be tested by hand
at least:

A. Once a month
B. Once a year
C. Once a shift
D. Twice a year

Answer: A

52. The purpose of the safety valve is prevent the pressure in the boiler from:
 A. Exceeding its MAWP
B. Causing a boiler explosion
C. Dropping below its MAWP
D. Relieving water pressure

Answer: A

53. The term applied when a safety opens and closes rapidly.

A. Feathering
B. Chattering
C. Pressurering
D. Hudding

Answer: B

54. The safety valve on a low pressure boiler opens when pressure in the boiler exceeds how
many psi?

A. 5
B. 15
C. 10
D. 30

Answer: B

55. After the total force of the steam has lifted the safety valve off its seat, the steam enters the
_______.

A. Huddling chamber
B. Steam holding tank
C. Combustion chamber
D. Main steam line

Answer: A

56. What causes false water level readings in the gauge glass?

A. Priming
B. Foaming
C. Carryover
D. Blowing down

Answer: B

57. Fusible plugs are required on _______ boilers by the ASME code.
 A. Coal-fired
B. Gas-fired
C. Fuel oil-fired
D. All of the above

Answer: D

58. On a pressure control, ________ pressure plus ________ pressure equals ________
pressure.

A. Differential; cut-out; cut-in

B. Cut-in; cut-out; differential
C. Cut-in; differential; cut-in
D. Cut-in pressures equals cut-out pressure

Answer: C

59. A burner should always start up in _______ fire and shut down in _______ fire.

A. Low; low
B. High; low
C. Low; high
D. High; high

Answer: A

60. The water in the boiler is heated, turns to steam, and leaves the boiler through the:

A. Feedwater line
B. Main steam line
C. Main header
D. Main branch line

Answer: B

61. When steams gives up its heat in a heat in a heat exchanger it turns to:

A. Low pressure steam

B. Makeup water
C. Condensate
D. Exhaust steam

Answer: C

62. A ________ pump discharge the return water back to the boiler.
 A. Feed
B. Gear
C. Return
D. Vacuum

Answer: D

63. How do you call a value that controls the flow of water in one direction only?

A. Gate
B. os&y
C. globe
D. check

Answer: D

64. The feedwater ________ valve should be located as close to the shell of the boiler as
practical.

A. Check
B. Nonreturn
C. Stop
D. Regulating

Answer: C

65. A ______ after each radiator allows _______ to pass through to the line.

A. Steam tarp; steam

B. Water trap; steam
C. Steam trap; condensate
D. Water trap; condensate

Answer: C

66. A. ________ valve should be located between the boiler and the valve on the feedwater
line.

A. Stop; check
B. Stop; regulator
C. Check; stop
D. Check; regulator

Answer: A

67. The feedwater ________ valve opens and closes automatically.

 A. Return
B. Check
C. Bypass
D. Equalizing

Answer: B

68. The vacuum pump pumps water and discharges air to the:

A. Expansion tank
B. Return tank
C. Compression tank
D. Atmosphere

Answer: D

69. The range of pressure on the vacuum switch is usually

A. 2 to 6 psi
B. 2” to 8
C. 6 to 12 psi
D. 8” to 12”

Answer: B

70. Top test the vacuum pump, the operator puts the selector switch in the _______ position.

A. Float
B. Float or vacuum
C. Vacuum
D. Continuous

Answer: D

71. Water added to the boiler to replace water lost due to leaks and blowing down is known as
_______ water.

A. Extra
B. Boiler
C. Makeup
D. Feed

Answer: C

72. Excessive use of cold city water makeup reduces overall efficiency because the water must
be _______ before use in the boiler.
 A. Vented
B. Filtered
C. Heated
D. Recirculated

Answer: C

73. The vacuum pump selector switch is normally in the position during the heating season.

A. Float or vacuum
B. Vacuum only
C. Float only
D. Continuous

Answer: A

74. The ________ shuts off the burner in the event of low water.

A. Low water alarm

B. Low water fuel cut-off
C. Feedwater regulator
D. Automatic low water feeder

Answer: B

75. Water is supplied to the condensate tank by the _______ pump.

A. Vacuum
B. Feedwater
C. Condensate
D. Return

Answer: A

76. The feedwater regulator is located at the _______ and is connected to the boiler in the same
manner as the ________.

A. Right side: gauge glass

B. NOWL; water column
C. Bottom blowdown
D. NOWL; safety valve

Answer: B

77. What maintains a constant water level in the boiler?

A. Gauge glass
 B. Automatic city water makeup feeder
C. Water column
D. Feedwater regulator

Answer: D

78. The low water fuel cut-off should be tested:

A. Daily
B. Semiannually
C. Monthly
D. Annualy

Answer: A

79. The burner should be ________ when the low water fuel cut-off is blown down.

A. Off
B. Tagged out
C. Firing
D. Tested

Answer: C

80. Which of the following valves must be used as boiler main steam stop valve?

A. Globe
B. Check
C. Gate
D. os&y gate

Answer: D

81. Gate valves should always be ________ or ________ closed.

A. Partially open; completely

B. Completely open; completely
C. Wide open; partly
D. Throttled; completely

Answer: B

82. Steam header valves should be ________ valves.

A. Globe
B. Check
C. Gate
 D. os&y gate

Answer: C

83. When open the os&y valve offers ______ to the flow of steam.

A. No resistance
B. Velocity
C. Throttling action
D. Full resistance

Answer: A

84. Steam traps are _______ devices.

A. Manual
B. Automatic
C. Electrical
D. semiautomatic

Answer: B

85. What valve should be used for throtting flow of material?

A. Gate
B. Check
C. Globe
D. Non-return

Answer: C

86. Steam traps removed ________ and ________ from the steam lines.

A. Air; water
B. Water; oil
C. Air; oil
D. Air; steam

Answer: A

87. Condensate in the steam can result in:

A. Carryover
B. Foaming
C. Priming
D. Water hammer
 Answer: D

88. Two types of steam trap are the ________ steam trap and the ________ steam trap.

A. Return; float
B. Nonreturn; thermostatic
C. Return; nonreturn
D. Nonreturn; float

Answer: C

89. The _______ steam trap is the most common steam trap used.

A. Thermostatic
B. Inverted bucket
C. Return
D. Nonreturn; float

Answer: A

90. Condensate from the nonreturn steam strap is pumped from the condensate return tank of
the:

A. Return tank
B. Feedwater heater
C. Vacuum tank
D. Boiler

Answer: D

91. Steam returning to the vacuum tank could cause the condensate pump to become:

A. Waterbound
B. Waterlogged
C. Steambound
D. Steamlogged

Answer: C

92. Steam strainer should be located on the line ________ the steam trap.

A. In front of
B. Above
C. After
D. Along sides of

Answer: A
93. As the steam pressure increases the steam temperature:

A. Decrease
B. Remains the same
C. Increases
D. Fluctuates

Answer: C

94. When the os&y valve is open the stem is in the _______ position.

A. Floating
B. Up
C. Locked
D. Down

Answer: B

95. The thermostatic steam trap opens and closes by a(n):

A. Float
B. Electric sensor
C. Inverted bucket
D. Flexible bellows

Answer: D

96. In the float the thermostatic trap the float rises to discharge:

A. Condensate
B. Feedwater chemicals
C. Steam
D. Water and steam

Answer: A

97. Steam trap that failed to open would cause the heating unit to become:

A. Steambound
B. Very hot
C. Waterlogged
D. All of the above

Answer: C
98. Which of the following whose main function is to remove dirt and impurities that may cause
the steam tap to malfunction?

A. Vacuum pumps
B. Steam strainers
C. Globe valves
D. Steam separators

Answer: B

99. When a steam tap is functioning properly there is a ________ difference in temperature
between the trap inlet and discharge.

A. 5°F to10°F
B. 20°F to 30°F
C. 10°F to 20°F
D. No

Answer: C

100. When burning No. 6 fuel oil strainers should be cleaned at least once every to prevent
_______ hours.

A. 8
B. 12
C. 10
D. 24

Answer: D

101. When cleaning the fuel oil strainers the ________ must be carefully replaced to prevent
_________ from getting into the system.

A. Gasket ; fuel oil

B. Cover; water
C. Gasket; air
D. Cover; fuel oil

Answer: C

102. The _________ pump draws fuel oil from the fuel oil tank.

A. Transfer
B. Condensate
C. Fuel oil
D. Circulating
 Answer: C

103. The ________ valve protects the fuel lines and pump from excessive pressure.

A. Safety
B. Relief
C. Bypass
D. Stop

Answer: B

104. A high vacuum on the fuel oil suction gauge normally indicates either _______ or _______.

A. Low viscosity; a clogged vent

B. A closed discharged valve; hot fuel oil
C. Cold fuel oil; a dirty suction strainer
D. Water in the fuel oil; a warm pump

Answer: C

105. Fuel oil burners deliver the fuel oil to the furnace in a:

A. Steady stream
B. Half spray, half steam
C. Fine spray
D. None of the above

Answer: C

106. The rotary cup burner uses ________ and ________ to atomize the fuel oil.

A. High temperature; pressure

B. High temperature; air
C. High pressure; steam
D. A spinning cup; high velocity air

Answer: D

107. In a low pressure gas burner gas is mixed with air in the _________.

A. Burner register
B. Combustion chamber
C. Mixing chamber before the burner register
D. Boiler furnace

Answer: C
108. In a high pressure gas mixed with the air on the inside of the:

A. Burner register
B. combustion chamber
C. mixing chamber
D. boiler funace

Answer: A

109. Regardless of the type of fuel oil used the fuel oil must be _________ before it enters the
boilers furnace.

A. Pressurized
B. Treated
C. Atomized
D. Measured

Answer: C

110. On the low pressure gas system the manual reset cannot be opened until the:

A. Vaporstat proves pressure

B. Pilot is lighted
C. Boiler is vented
D. All of the above

Answer: B

111. Before any repair work is attempted on any gas-fired boiler the:

A. Insurance inspector must be notified

B. Main gas cock must be secured
C. State inspector must be notified
D. Main solenoid valve should be secured

Answer: B

112. In a low pressure gas system when the vaporstat proves gas pressure up to the zero-
reducing governor the ________ start up.

A. Induced draft fan

B. Pressure
C. Forced draft blower
D. Gas pump

Answer: C
113. The butterfly on the low pressure gas system is a _______ valve.

A. Slow-opening
B. Screw
C. Quick-opening
D. Globe

Answer: A

114. The amount of gas supplied to the burner in the low pressure gas system is controlled by:

A. Gas pressure
B. Steam pressure
C. The boiler operator
D. The amount of air passing through the butterfly valve

Answer: D

115. If low rater develop in the boiler having a low pressure gas system the _______ will secure
the gas to the burner.

A. Whistle valve
B. Manual reset valve
C. Vaporstat
D. Main gas solenoid

Answer: D

116. Combination gas/fuel oil burners permit the operator to switch from one fuel to another
________.

A. For economy
B. Because of a shortage of fuel being used
C. Because of a failure in the fuel system being used
D. All of the above

Answer: D

117. Hard coal, known as ________, has a ________ content.

A. Bituminous; high carbon

B. Anthracite; high volatile
C. Bituminous; high volatile
D. Anthracite; high carbon

Answer: D
118. Soft coal, known as ________, has a ________ content.

A. Bituminous; high carbon

B. Anthracite; high volatile
C. Bituminous; high volatile
D. Anthracite; high carbon

Answer: C

119. Boiler using soft coal must have _______ furnace volume to reduce the danger of
_______.

A. Small; overfiring
B. Large; smoking
C. Small; smoking
D. Large; overfiring

Answer: B

120. When burning soft coal, if the volatile gases reach the heating surface before they have
burned completely ________ and ________ develop.

A. Smoke; soot
B. Clinkers; ash
C. Uneven heat; ash
D. High temperature; smoke

Answer: A

121. The ________ of fuels oil is the lowest temperature at which it will flow as a liquid.

A. Fire point
B. Pour point
C. Flash poit
D. Viscosity

Answer: B

122. The ________ is the temperature at which fuel oil given off vapor that flashes when
exposed to an open flame.

A. Fire point
B. Pour point
C. Flash point
D. Viscosity

Answer: C
123. The _______ is the temperature at which fuel oil will burn continuously when to an open
flame.

A. Fire point
B. Pour point
C. Flash point
D. Viscosity

Answer: D

124. It is defined as the internal resistance of fuel oil flow?

A. Fire point
B. Pour point
C. Flash point
D. Viscosity

Answer: D

125. What must be done in order to lower the viscocity of the fuel oil?

A. Lower its temperature

B. Increase its temperature
C. Lower its pour point
D. Increase its pour point

Answer: B

126. A leak on the fuel oil suction line between the tank and the suction side of the fuel oil
pump would result in:

A. The suction gauge pulsating

B. Air entering the suction line
C. Pulsating of the fire in the boiler
D. All of the above

Answer: B

127. Strokes were developed to:

A. Increase efficiency of burning coal

B. Keep furnace temperature constant to protect brickwork
C. Allow for development of larger coal-fired boiler
D. All of the above

Answer: D
128. Any foreign matter in the coal feed mechanism of the screw-feed stoker is best removed
by:

A. Emptying the coal hopper

B. Reversing the stoker
C. Forcing it through with a heavy shear in
D. Using the cutoff gate at the bottom of the hopper

Answer: D

129. In the event of an obstruction clogging the feed screw a _______ is used to prevent of an
obstruction clogging the feed screw a _______ is used to prevent damage to transmission.

A. Slip clutch
B. Shear pin or key
C. Fuse
D. None of the above

Answer: B

130. In order to bank the stoker it is necessary to secure the _______ while _______ continues
to operate,

A. Combination fan; coal feeder

B. Coal feeder; forced draft fan
C. Feedwater; induced draft fan
D. Boiler stop valve; coal feeder

Answer: B

131. In a screw-feed stoker, what draft fan supplies air for combustion?

A. Induced
B. Forced
C. Combination
D. Natural

Answer: B

132. To prevent smoke and to aid in complete combustion in the screw-feed stoker, _______ is
provided using a separate damper control.

A. Underfire air
B. Retort air
C. Overfire air
D. Grate zone air
 Answer: C

133. The ram-feed stroke is a(n) ________ stoker.

A. Overfeed
B. Side feed
C. Travelling grate
D. Underfeed

Answer: D

134. The ram-feed stoker provides:

A. Uniform feed
B. Quick ash discharge
C. Even coal distribution
D. All of the above

Answer: D

135. Combustion is the rapid burning of fuel and oxygen resulting in:

A. Release of heat
B. Oxidation
C. Release of steam
D. Nitrogen and oxygen

Answer: A

136. What combustion occurs when all the fuel is burned using the theoretical amount of air?

A. Incomplete
B. Perfect
C. Complete
D. Imperfect

Answer: B

137. It is the burning of all the fuel using the minimum amount of excess air.

A. Incomplete combustion
B. Complete combustion
C. Perfect combustion
D. Imperfect combustion

Answer: B
138. ________ Combustion occurs when all the fuel is not burned resulting in formation of soot
and smoke.

A. Incomplete
B. Perfect
C. Complete
D. Imperfect

Answer: A

139. Which of the following is required to achieve complete combustion?

A. Proper atomization
B. Proper temperature of fuel
C. Time of complete combustion
D. All of the above

Answer: D

140. The combustion process must be complete before the gasses combustion come in contact
with the:

A. Atmosphere
B. Super heater
C. Heating surface
D. Main steam outlet

Answer: C

141. Soot buildup on heating surface:

A. Acts as an insulation
B. Prevents heat transfer
C. Increases temperature of gases of combustion
D. All of the above

Answer: D

142. The purpose of automatic combustion controls is to a control ________ and ________.

A. High fire; low rate

B. Stoker firing; fuel rate
C. overfire air; fuel mixture
D. proper air to fuel mixture; firing rate

Answer: D
143. At 0 psig. How many BTU are necessary to change 1lb of water at 212°F of steam?

A. 144
B. 970
C. 180
D. 1190

Answer: B

144. Radiation is:

A. The movement of liquid or gases created by a temperature difference

B. The transfer of heat by direct molecular contact
C. The weight of the substance compared to unity
D. A form of heat transfer

Answer: D

145. steam at 100 psi and 400°F is:

A. Saturated
B. Superheated
C. Wet
D. None of the above

Answer: B

146. Which of the following most closely defines sensible heat?

A. An established relationship comparing any substance to the heat content of water

B. Heat quantity that can be felt or measured by a thermometer
C. Heat quantity above the point of saturation
D. Measure heat intensity

Answer: B

147. What is required to raise the temperature of 1 lb of water from 32° to 212°F?

A. 144 BTU
B. 970.3 BTU
C. 180 BTU
D. Saturated heat

Answer: C

148. Increasing the pressure has what effect of the boiling point of water?
 A. No change
B. Temperature will be raised
C. Temperature will be lowered
D. Temperature will increase 2 °F for every psi

Answer: B

149. Heat absorbed by water when it changes from liquid to steam at the boiling point is called:

A. Sensible heat
B. Specific heat
C. Latent heat
D. Superheat

Answer: C

150. Heat may be transferred in how many ways?

A. One
B. Three
C. Two
D. Four

Answer: B

CHAPTER 9
HYDROELECTRIC POWER PLANT

1. In turbine installation, the air is removed from the condenser by _________.

A. Air pump
B. Air injector
C. Air ejector
D. Air jet

Answer: C

2. The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid loop is to:

A. Add energy to the flow

B. Add mass to the flow
C. Extract energy from the flow
D. None of the above
 Answer: C

3. A vena contracta in a fluid jet issuing through a hole in a plate in located approximately:

A. 10 diameters downstream of the hole

B. At jets minimum diameter
C. At the orifice minimum diameter
D. At the orifice maximum diameter

Answer: B

4. The following are all example of indirect (secondary) miscellaneous methods to measure flow
except:

A. Turbine and propeller meters

B. Magnetic flow meters
C. Positive displacement meters
D. Hot – wire anemometers

Answer: C

5. One could expect the possibility of Reynolds number similarity of all of the following cases
except:

A. Pumps
B. Fans
C. Turbines
D. Weirs

Answer: D

6. One could expect the possibility of Froude number similarity of all of the following cases
except:

A. Surface ships
B. Surface wave motion
C. Flow over weirs
D. Closed – pipe turbulent pipe flow

Answer: D

7. One could expect the possibility of Froude number similarity in all of the following case
except:

A. Motion of a fluid jet

B. Flow over spillways
C. Surge and food waves
 D. Subsonic airfoils

Answer: D

8. In fluid flow, linear momentum is:

A. A vector quantity equal to the product of mass and velocity

B. A scalar quantity equal to the product mass and velocity
C. A scalar quantity equal to the product of force and length of time is applied
D. The change in impulse

Answer: A

9. All of the following fluid phenomena are based on the force momentum principle of a flowing
fluid except:

A. Turbines
B. Pelton wheel
C. Diesel automobile engines
D. Jet engines

Answer: C

10. The fact that a fluid’s velocity increase as the cross sectional area of the pipe through which
it flow decrease is due to:

A. Bernouli’s equation
B. The continuity equation
C. The momentum eqation
D. The perfect gas law

Answer: B

11. In the absence of any heat work interactions and any changes in potential energy, the
stagnation enthalpy of fluid remains constant during ________.

A. Unsteady flow
B. Steady flow
C. Turbulent flow
D. Variable flow

Answer: B

12. When a falling object reach a speed at which the drag force equals its weight, it has
achieved:

A. Mach one
 B. A laminar boundary layer
C. A turbulent boundary layer
D. Terminal velocity

Answer: C

13. The coefficient of contraction is the ratio of the:

A. Area of vena contracta is the ratio of the:

B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. Effective head to the actual head

Answer: A

14. The coefficient of discharge is the ratio of the:

A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area

B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. Effective head to the actual head

Answer: B

15. The coefficient of velocity is equal to the:

A. Product of the coefficient of discharge and the coefficient of contraction

B. Actual velocity divided by the theoretical velocity
C. Sum of the coefficient of discharge and the coefficient of contraction
D. Difference of the coefficient of discharge and the coefficient of contraction

Answer: B

16. Which of the following is not similarity between a submerged culvert and a siphon?

A. They both operate full

B. Torricelli’s equation holds
C. Both can experience entrance and exit losses
D. In both, the water flow downhill

Answer: B

17. In parallel pipe system originating and terminating in common junctions.

A. Mass flows through each branch are equal

B. Pressure drops through each branch are equal
C. Lengths of each branch are equal
 D. Flow areas of each branch are equal

Answer: B

18. Flow through multi – loop system may be computed by:

A. Any closed – form solution of simultaneous equation

B. The hardy – cross method
C. Trial and error
D. All of the above

Answer: D

19. Flow measuring devices include all of the following except:

A. Venturi meters
B. Static pressure probes
C. Turbine and propeller meters
D. Magnetic dynamometers

Answer: D

20. Flow measuring devices include all of the following except:

A. Orifice plate meters

B. Hot-wire anemometers
C. Magnetic flow meters
D. Mercury barometers

Answer: D

21. Flow measuring devices include all of the following except:

A. Flow nozzles
B. Venture area meters
C. Pilot tubes
D. Precision tachometers

Answer: D

22. The following are example of indirect (secondary) measurements flow rates using
obstruction meters except:

A. Variable are meters

B. Venture meters
C. Volume tanks
D. Flow nozzles
 Answer: C

23. The following are example of indirect (secondary) measurements flow rates using
obstruction meters except:

A. Pilot static meters

B. Static pressure probes
C. Weight and mass scales
D. Direction – sensing probes

Answer: C

24. In series pipe systems, all of the following parameters vary from section except:

A. Pressure drop
B. Friction loss
C. Head loss
D. Mass flow

Answer: D

25. Venturi meter, pilot static gauges, orifice meters, flow nozzle, and differential manometers all
depend upon the relationship between:

A. Flow velocity and friction

B. Flow velocity and pressure
C. Friction and pressure
D. Pressure and mass flow

Answer: B

26. The combination of enthalpy and kinetic energy of fluid is termed as:

A. Latent enthalpy
B. Heat enthalpy
C. Throttling enthalpy
D. Stagnation enthalpy

Answer: D

27. The coefficient of velocity, Cv accounts for the:

A. Effects on the flow area of contraction, friction and turbulence

B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of the orifice
C. Changes in diameters of a converging pipe
D. Effects of compressibility
 Answer: B

28. Expansion factors take into account the:

A. Area of the vena contracta

B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of the orifice
C. Changes in diameters of a converging pipe
D. Effects of compressibility

Answer: D

29. The matching of scale model and full – scale results for a fluid dynamic phenomena with a
free surface requires equality of:

A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
C. Froude number
D. Cauchy number

Answer: C

30. The matching of scale model and full – scale results for a fluids dynamic phenomena
involving compressible

A. Reynolds number
B. Froude number
C. Cauchy number
D. Mach number

Answer: D

31. The matching of scale model and full – scale prototype results for a fluid dynamic
phenomena involving surface tension requires equality of:

A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
C. Froude number
D. Cauchy number

Answer: B

32. The matching of scale model and full – scale prototype results for a fluid dynamic
phenomena involving a fully submerged body requires equality of:

A. Reynolds umber
B. Weber number
 C. Froude number
D. Mach number

Answer: A

33. The water hammer phenomenon is primarily what kind of fluid mechanics?

A. Static (a phenomena independent of time)

B. Dynamic (a time – dependent phenomena)
C. Compressible
D. Incompressible

Answer: B

34. All of the following are forms of drag on a body moving through a fluid except:

A. Skin friction
B. Wake drag
C. Profile drag
D. D’ Alembert’s paradox drag

Answer: D

35. The magnitude of the drag coefficient of the sphere is water is dependent upon all of the
following except:

A. Fluid density
B. Fluid velocity
C. Units of measure ( SI o English Engineering System)
D. Drag force

Answer: C

36. The fact that there is no resistance to bodies moving through an ideal non – viscous) fluids
is known as:

A. Reynold’s analogy
B. D’ Alembert’s paradox
C. Newton’s second law
D. The second law of thermodynamics

Answer: B

37. One could expect the possibility of Reynolds number similarity in all of the following cases
except:

A. Submarines
 B. Torpedoes
C. Seaplane hulls
D. Supersonic aircraft

Answer: C

38. The function of a turbine is to:

A. Transfer heat from one fluid to another

B. Increase the total energy content of the flow
C. Extract energy from the flow
D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow

Answer: C

39. Piitot tube is used to measure the:

A. Velocity of mass
B. Velocity of pipe
C. Flow
D. Velocity of flow

Answer: D

40. Orifice coefficients are used to determine:

A. Energy losses
B. Energy gains
C. Mass losses
D. Energy losses and mass gains

Answer: A

41. The coefficient of velocity is the ratio of the:

A. area of vena contracta to the orifice area

B. actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. actual discharge velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. effective head to the actual head

Answer: C

42. The volume flow passes through a venturimeter is:

A. increasing
B. decreasing
C. constant
 D. varying

Answer: C

43. What must be done to change the direction of rotation of 440 -volt, 3 –phase induction
motor?

A. Reverse lines to start winding

B. Interchanges any two power leads
C. Replace any two wires to the rotor
D. Remove any power leads

Answer: B

44. A draft tube is a part of which plants?

A. Diesel engine power plant

B. Gas turbine power plant
C. Steam power plant
D. Hydro – electric power plant

Answer: D

45. Past ME Board Question

In the hydro – electric plant having a medium head and using a Francis turbine, the turbine
speed may be regulated through:

A. Deflector gate
B. Nozzle
C. Wicket gate
D. Forebay

Answer: C

46. Past ME Board Question

A Francis turbine has what flow?

A. Inward flow reaction

B. Outward flow reaction
C. Outward flow reaction
D. Inward flow impulse

Answer: A

47. Past ME Board Question

Which of the following is a type of water turbine?
 A. Parson
B. Hero
C. Pelton
D. Banki

Answer: C

48. Past ME Board Question

What is the use of a hydraulic jump?

A. Increase the flow rate

B. Reduce the flow rate
C. Reduce the velocity of flow
D. Reduce the energy of flow

Answer: D

49. Past ME Board Question

A Kaplan turbine is:

A. A high head mixed flow turbine

B. A inward flow impulse turbine
C. An outward flow reaction
D. Low head axial flow tubine

Answer: D

50. Past ME Board Question

The focus of elevation is:

A. Critical point
B. Hydraulic gradient
C. Energy gradient
D. Friction gradient

Answer: B

51. Past ME Board Question

The focus of elevation is which water will rise in the piezometer tube is termed:

A. Energy gradient
B. Friction head
C. Hydraulic gradient
D. Critical path

Answer: C
52. Past ME Board Question
The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a dam is:

A. Tailrace
B. Spiral casing
C. Surge tank
D. Penstock

Answer: D

53. Past ME Board Question

A type of water turbine where a jet of water is made to fall on the blades or buckets and due
to the impulse of water, the turbine starts to move.

A. Pelton wheel
B. Steam turbine
C. Frances turbine
D. Reaction turbine

Answer: A

54. Past ME Board Question

The lowest portion to storage basin from where the waters is not drawn is:

A. Bottom storage
B. Sub-soil storage
C. Spring reserve
D. Dead storage

Answer: D

55. Past ME Board Question

In a hydro-electric plant using a Francis turbine with medium head, the speed can be
regulated using the

A. Deflector gate
B. Nozzle
C. Wicket gate
D. Weir

Answer: C

56. Past ME Board Question

In the deep well installation or operation, the difference between static water level and
operating water level is known as _________.

A. Suction lift
 B. Drawdown
C. Priming level
D. Clogging

Answer: B

57. Past ME Board Question

Which of the following is a characteristic of an impulse turbine?

A. Steam striking blades on angle

B. No steam reaction to velocity
C. Steam striking blades at zero angle
D. Steam reserving direction

Answer: C

58. Past ME Board Question

What is the pressure at the exit of a draft tube in a turbine?

A. Below atmospheric
B. Vacuum
C. Atmospheric
D. Gage

Answer: C

59. Past ME Board Question

An impulse turbine are used for:

A. Low head
B. Medium head
C. High head
D. Very low head

Answer: C

60. Past ME Board Question

Which of the following is used as high head turbine?

A. Impulse
B. Francis
C. Reaction
D. Propeller

Answer: A

61. In pumped storage plant

 A. Power is produced by pumps
B. Water is stored by pumping to high pressure
C. Pressure accumulators are used
D. Downstream water is pumped upstream during offload periods

Answer: D

62. Past ME Board Question

What is the pressure at the exit of a draft in a turbine?

A. Below atmospheric
B. Vacuum
C. Atmospheric
D. Gage

Answer: C

63. Past ME Board Question

An impulse turbine has:

A. Low head
B. Medium head
C. High head
D. Very low head

Answer: C

64. Past ME Board Question

High head turbine is a/an:

A. Impulse
B. Francis
C. Reaction
D. Propeller

Answer: A

65. Past ME Board Question

The lowest portion to storage basin from where the water is not drawn is

A. Bottom storage
B. Sub-oil storage
C. Spring storage
D. Dead storage

Answer: D
66. Past ME Board Question
In a hydro-electric plant using a Francis with medium head, the speed can be regulated
using the

A. Deflector gate
B. Nozzle
C. Wicket gate
D. Weir

Answer: C

67. Past ME Board Question

In the deep well installation or operation, the difference between static water level and
operating water level is called _________.

A. Suction lift
B. Drawdown
C. Priming
D. Clogging

Answer: B

68. Which of the following is a characteristic of an impulse turbine?

A. Steam striking blades on angle

B. No steam reaction to velocity
C. Steam striking blades at zero angle
D. Steam reversing direction

Answer: C

69. Past ME Board Question

A type of water turbine where a jet of water is made to fall on the blades or buckets and due
to the impulse of water, the turbine starts to move.

A. Pelton wheel
B. Steam turbine
C. Francis turbine
D. Reaction turbine

Answer: A

70. Past ME Board Question

The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a dam is:

A. Tailrace
 B. Spiral casting
C. Surge tank
D. Penstock

Answer: D

71. Past ME Board Question

In the hydro – electric plant having a medium head and using a Francis turbine, the turbine
speed may be regulated through:

A. Deflector gate
B. Nozzle
C. Wicket gate
D. Forebay

Answer: C

72. Past ME Board Question

A Francis turbine has what flow?

A. Inward flow reaction

B. Outward flow impulse
C. Outward flow reaction
D. Inward flow impulse

Answer: A

73. Past ME Board Question

Which of the following is a type of water turbine?

A. Parson
B. Hero
C. Pelton
D. Banki

Answer: C

74. Past ME Board Question

Hydraulic jump is used to:

A. Increase the flow rate

B. Reduce the flow rate
C. Reduce the velocity of flow
D. Reduce the energy of flow

75. Past ME Board Question

A Kaplan turbine is:
 A. A high mixed flow turbine
B. An inward flow impulse turbine
C. An outward flow reaction turbine

Answer: D

76. Past ME Board Question

The focus of elevation is:

A. Critical point
B. Hydraulic gradient
C. Energy gradient
D. Friction gradient

Answer: B

77. Past ME Board Question

The locus of elevation to which water will rise in the piezometer tube is termed:

A. Energy gradient
B. Friction head
C. Hydraulic gradient
D. Critical path

Answer: C

78. In turbine installation, the air is removed from the condenser by:

A. Air pump
B. Air injector
C. Air ejector
D. Air jet

Answer:

79. The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid loop is to:

A. Add energy to the flow

B. Add mass to the flow
C. Extract energy from the flow
D. None of the above

Answer: C

80. A vena contracta in a fluid jet issuing through a hole in a plate is located approximately:

A. 10 diameters downstream of the hole

 B. At jets minimum diameter
C. At the orifice minimum diameter
D. At the orifice maximum diameter

Answer: B

81. The following are all example of indirect (secondary) miscellaneous methods to measure
flow except:

A. Turbine and propeller meters

B. Magnetic flow meters
C. Positive displacement meters
D. Hot – wire anemometers

Answer: C

82. One could expect the possibility of Reynolds number similarity in all of the following cases
except:

A. Pumps
B. Fans
C. Turbines
D. Weirs

Answer: D

83. One could expect the possibility of Froude number similarity in all of the following causes
except:

A. Surface ships
B. Surface wave motion
C. Flow over weirs
D. Closed – pipe turbulent pipe flow

Answer: D

84. One could expect the possibility of Froude number similarity in all of the following causes
except:

A. Motion of a fluid jet

B. Flow over spillways
C. Surge and flood waves
D. Subsonic airfoils

Answer: D

85. In fluid. Linear momentum is:

 A. A vector quantity equal to the product of mass and velocity
B. A scalar quantity equal to the product mass and velocity
C. A scalar quantity equal to the product of force and length of time is applied
D. The charge impulse

Answer: A

86. All of the following fluid phenomena are based on the force momentum principle of a flowing
fluid except:

A. Turbines
B. Pelton wheels
C. Diesel automobile engines
D. Jet engines

Answer: C

87. The fact that a fluid’s velocity increase as the pipe through which it flow decrease is due to:

A. Bernoull’s equation
B. The continuity equation
C. The momentum equation
D. The perfect gas law

Answer: B

88. In the absence of any heat and work interactions and any changes in potential energy, the
stagnation enyhalpy of a fluid remains constant during:

A. Unsteady law
B. Steady flow
C. Turbulent flow
D. Variable flow

Answer: B

89. When a falling object reaches a speed at which the drag force equals its weight, it has
achieved:

A. Mach one
B. A laminar boundary layer
C. A turbulent boundary layer
D. Terminal velocity

Answer: C
90. The coefficient of contraction is the ratio of the:

A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area

B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. Effective head to the actual head

Answer: A

91. The coefficient of discharge is the ratio of the

A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area

B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. Effective head to the actual head

Answer: B

92. The coefficient of velocity is equal to the:

A. Product of the coefficient of discharge and the coefficient of contraction

B. Actual velocity divided by the theoretical velocity
C. Sum of the coefficient of discharge and the coefficient of contraction
D. Difference of the coefficient of discharge and the coefficient of contraction

Answer: B

93. Which of the following is not a similarity between a submerged culvert and a siphon?

A. They both operate full

B. Torricelli’s equation holds
C. Both can experience entrance and exit losses
D. In both, the water flows downhill

Answer: B

94. In parallel pipe system originating and terminating in common junctions:

A. Mass flows through each branch are equal

B. Pressure drops through each branch are equal
C. Lengths each branch are equal
D. Flows areas of each branch are equal

Answer: B

95. Flows through multi – loop system may be computed by:

 A. Any closed – from solution of simultaneous equations
B. The hardy – cross method
C. Trial and error
D. All of the above

Answer: D

96. Flow measuring devices include all of the following except:

A. Venture meters
B. Static pressure probes
C. Turbine and propeller meters
D. Magnetic dynamometers

Answer: D

97. Flow measuring devices include all of the following except:

A. Orifice plate meters

B. Hot – wire anemometers
C. Magnetic flwo meters
D. Mercury barometers

Answer: D

98. Flow measuring devices include all of the following except:

A. Flow nozzles
B. Venture area meters
C. Pitot tubes
D. Precision tachometers

Answer: D

99. The following are examples of indirect (secondary) measurements to measure flow rates
using obstruction meters except:

A. Variable area meters

B. Venture meters
C. Volume tanks
D. Flow nozzle

Answer: C

100. The following are examples of indirect (secondary) measurements to measure flow rates
using obstruction meters except:
 A. Pitot static meters
B. Static pressure probes
C. Weight and mass scales
D. Direction – sensing probes

Answer: C

101. In series pipe system, all of the following parameters vary from section to section except:

A. Pressure drop
B. Friction loss
C. Head loss
D. Mass flow

Answer: D

102. Venturi meters, pitot static gauges, orifice meters, flow nozzles, and differential
manometers all depend upon the relationship between:

A. Flow velocity and friction

B. Flow velocity and pressure
C. Friction and pressure
D. Pressure and mass flow

Answer: B

103. The combination of enthalpy and kinetic energy of fluid is termed as:

A. Latent enthalpy
B. Heat enthalpy
C. Throtting enthalpy
D. Stagnation enthalpy

Answer: D

104. The coefficient of velocity, Cv , accounts for the:

A. Effect of the flow area of contraction, friction, and turbulence

B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of the orifice
C. Changes in diameters of a converging pipe
D. Effect of compressibility

Answer: B

105. Expansion factor take into accounts the:

A. Area of the vena contracta

 B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of the orifice
C. Changes in diameters of a converging pipe
D. Effects of compressibility

Answer: D

106. The matching of scale model and full – scale result for a fluid dynamic phenomena with a
free surface requires equality of:

A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
C. Froude number
D. Cauchy number

107. The matching of scale model and full – scale result for a fluid dynamic phenomena
involving compressible fluids requires equality of:

A. Reynolds number
B. Froude number
C. Cauchy number
D. Mach number

Answer: D

108. The matching of scale model and full – scale prototype results for a fluid dynamic
phenomena involving surface tension requires equality of:

A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
C. Froude number
D. Cauchy number

Answer: B

109. The matching of scale model and full – scale prototype results for a fluid dynamic
phenomena involving a fully submerged body requires equality of:

A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
C. Froude number
D. Mach number

Answer: A

110. The water hammer phenomenon is primarily what kind of fluid mechanics?

A. Static ( a phenomena independent of time)

 B. Dynamic ( a time – dependent phenomena)
C. Compressible
D. Incompressible

Answer: B

111. All of the following are forms of drag on a body moving through a fluid except:

A. Skin friction
B. Wake drag
C. Profile drag
D. D’ Alembert’s paradox drag

Answer: D

112. The magnitude of the drag coefficient of a sphere in water is dependent upon all of the
following except:

A. Fluid density
B. Fluid velocity
C. Units of measure (SI or English engineering system )
D. Drag force

Answer: C

113. The fact that there is no resistance to bodies moving through an ideal ( non – viscous )
fluids is known as:

A. Reynold’s anology
B. D’ Alembert’s paradox
C. Newton’s second law
D. The second law of thermodynamics

Answer: B

114. One could except the possibility of Reynolds number similarity in all of the following cases
except:

A. Submarines
B. Torpedoes
C. Seaplane
D. Supersonic aircraft

Answer: C

115. The function of a turbine is to

 A. Transfer heat from one fluid to anoher
B. Increase total energy content of the flow
C. Extract energy from the flow
D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow

Answer: C

116. Pitot is use to measure the:

A. Velocity of mass
B. Velocity of pipe
C. Flow
D. Velocity of flow

Answer: D

117. Orifice coefficient are used to determine

A. Energy losses
B. Energy gains
C. Mass losses
D. Energy losses and mass gains

Answer: A

118. The coefficient of velocity is the ratio of the

A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area

B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. Actual discharge velocity to the theoretical discharge velocity
D. Effective head to the actual head

Answer: C

119. The volume flow passes through a venturimeter is:

A. Increasing
B. Decreasing
C. Constant
D. Varying

Answer: C

120. Which of the following devices used to measure the discharge of outflow from vessel?

A. Pitot tube
B. Orifice
 C. Pump head
D. Obstruction meter

Answer: B

CHAPTER 10
VARIABLE LOAD PROBLEMS & ENVIRONMENTAL
ENGINEERING

1. The maximum continuous power available from a hydro – electric plant under the most
adverse hydraulic conditions is called _________.

A. Base power
B. Firm power
C. Primary power
D. Secondary power

2. The area under load curve divided by maximum demand represents:

A. Load factor
B. Connected load
C. Average load
D. Diversity factor

Answer: D

3. What is the reverse capacity of a plant?

A. Maximum demand – average demand

B. Plant capacity – maximum demand
C. Plant capacity – average demand
D. Plant capacity x (1 – load factor)

Answer: B

4. Load curve refers to the plot of:

A. Load versus generating capacity

B. Load versus current
C. Coad versus time
D. Load versus cost power

Answer: C

5. The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant capacity is called _________.
 A. Load factor
B. utilization factor
C. maximum load factor
D. capacity

Answer: B

6. Past ME Board Question

Peak load for a period of time divided by installed capacity is:

A. capacity factor
B. demand factor
C. utilization factor
D. load factor

Answer: C

7. Past ME Board Question

The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demand of the system to the maximum demand
of the whole system is:

A. diversity factor
B. utilization factor
C. power factor
D. demand factor

Answer: A

8. Past ME Board Question

The ratio between the actual power and the apparent power in any circuit is known as the
________ of that circuit.

A. Measured power
B. Capacity
C. Power
D. KVAR

Answer: C

9. Past ME Board Question

The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant capacity.

A. Load factor
B. Utilization factor
C. Maximum load factor
D. Capacity factor
 Answer: B

10. Past ME Board Question

The ratio of the average load to the peak load over a designated period of time is called

A. Load factor
B. Reactive factor
C. Diversity factor
D. Plant use factor

Answer: A

11. Past ME Board Question

The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of the system to the overall maximum
demand of the whole system.

A. Demand factor
B. Diversity factor
C. Power
D. Utilization factor

Answer: B

12. Load curve refers to the plot of:

A. Load versus generating capacity

B. load versus current
C. load versus time
D. load versus cost of power

Answer: C

13. Load curve refers to the plot of:

A. Load versus generating capacity

B. load versus current
C. load versus time
D. load versus cost of power

Answer: C

14. The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant capacity

A. load factor
B. utilization factor
C. maximum load factor
 D. capacity factor

Answer: B

15. The ratio of the average load to the peak load over designed period of time is called
_______.

A. load factor
B. reactive factor
C. diversity factor
D. plant use factor

Answer: A

16. Past ME Board Question

Peak load for a period of time divided by installed capacity is ________.

A. Capacity factor
B. Demand factor
C. Utilization factor
D. Load factor

Answer: C

17. The area under load curve divided by maximum demand represents

A. Load factor
B. Connected load
C. Average load
D. Diversity factor

Answer: D

18. Past ME Board Question

The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of the system to the overall maximum
demand of the whole system.

A. Demand factor
B. Diversity factor
C. Power factor
D. Utilization factor

Answer: B

19. Past ME Board Question

The ratio of the sum of individual maximum demands of the system to the maximum
demands of the whole system is known as ________.
 A. Diversity factor
B. Utilization factor
C. Power factor
D. Demand factor

Answer: A

20. Past ME Board Question

The ratio between the actual power and the apparent power in any circuit is known as the
________ of the circuit.

A. Measured power
B. Capacity
C. Power factor
D. KVAR

Answer: C

21. Yeast as raw material for beer making is added to the equipment called:

A. Fermenters
B. Brew kettle
C. Cooler
D. Starting tube

Answer: A

22. A major cause of air pollution resulting from the burning of fuel oil is:

A. Nitrous
B. Hydrogen
C. Sulfur dioxide
D. Silicon

Answer: C

23. Heavy water is:

A. B2 O
B. H2 O
C. W2 O
D. D2 O

Answer: D

24. Scintillation counter are used to detect:

 A. Beta rays
B. X – rays
C. Gamma rays
D. All of the above

Answer: D

25. All of the following are common types of chemical reactions except

A. Direct combination
B. Fission
C. Decomposition
D. Double replacement

Answer: B

26. Redox reaction can often be type of:

A. Direct combination
B. Fission
C. Decomposition
D. Double replacement

Answer: D

27. The fact that the amount of slightly solubla gas absorbed in a liquid is proportional to the
partial pressure of the gas is known as:

A. Dalton’s law
B. Henry’s law
C. Raoult’s law
D. Boyle’s law

Answer: B

28. All of the following pollutants are produced because decaying organic matter except:

A. Ammonia
B. Sulfur dioxide
C. Methane
D. Hydrogen sulfide

Answer: B

29. The velocity of radiations (v) and the frequency of radiations (f) are related to the
wavelength of radiations by:
 A. v/f
B. f/v
C. vf
D. v2f

Answer: A

30. Swimming pool water needs

A. Pre – chlorination
B. Super – chlorination
C. Dual – chlorination
D. De – chlorination

Answer: D

31. Aeration of water is done for all of the following purposes except for:

A. Removal of CO2
B. Removal of bad taste
C. Increasing the amount of oxygen in water
D. Removal of temporary hardness

Answer: D

32. Which of the following area of work requires lowed noise level?

A. Gymnasiums
B. Library
C. Lecture halls
D. Kitchens

Answer: B

33. Mycotoxins are poisonous chemicals produced by:

A. Bacteria
B. Molds
C. Virus
D. Algae

Answer: B

34. Turbidity in water is due to:

A. Algae
 B. Fungi
C. Organic salts
D. Finally divided particles of clay, silt and organic matter

Answer: D

35. Per capita consumption of water is generally taken as:

A. 50 – 100 liters
B. 150 – 300 liters
C. 400 – 500 liters
D. 750 – 1000 liters

Answer: B

36. Which of the following industries have the highest consumption of water for processing?

A. Foundry
B. Automobile industry
C. Paper mill
D. Aluminum industry

Answer: C

37. The ratio activity of water because of stronstium can be removed by:

A. Aeration
B. Alum coagulation
C. Phosphate coagulation
D. Lime

Answer: C

38. Chemical use for checking the growth of algae in reservoirs is

A. Copper sulfate
B. Alum
C. Bleaching powder
D. Brine

Answer: C

39. Which of the following is not pollutant from a sulfuric acid plants?

A. Sulfur dioxide
B. Sulfur trioxide
C. Acid moist
 D. Hydrogen sulfide

Answer: D

40. Which of the following is a cold cathode lamp?

A. Sodium vapor lamp

B. High pressure mercury vapor lamp
C. Low pressure mercury vapor lamp
D. Neon lamp

Answer: D

41. Which has an octane rating of more than 100?

A. Gobar gas
B. Methyl alcohol
C. Benzol
D. Ethyl alcohol

Answer: C

42. The part per million is identical to:

A. Grains per gallon

B. Pounds per cubic foot
C. Milligrams per kg
D. Tones per acre foot

Answer: C

43. In power plant an electrostatic precipitators is installed between:

A. Forced draft fan and induced draft fan

B. Furnace and chimney
C. Primary air and secondary air
D. Furnace and forced draft fan

Answer: B

44. At present, the number of true elementary particles, which include leptons and quarks, is
thought to be:

A. 4
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
 Answer: D

45. The effective size of a target atom that interacts with a moving particle is called its
________.

A. Length
B. Width
C. Cross section
D. Pseudo – area

Answer: C

46. Most nuclear particles can react with atoms in several different ways including ________.

A. Absorption
B. Scattering
C. Absorption and scattering
D. Reflection and absorption

Answer: C

47. The operation that produce highest noise level is:

A. Welding
B. Riveting
C. Machining
D. Pressing

Answer: B

48. The ratio absorbed by the transfer fluid to the original incident energy striking the collector.

A. Shading factor
B. Collector efficiency
C. Betz coefficient
D. Transmittance

Answer: B

49. A swinging support constructed as part of the vessel and that supports the manway cover
when it is unbolted and moved aside.

A. Davit
B. Handhole
C. Nozzle neck
D. Manway arm
 Answer: A

50. Is the subjective method in which the smoke density is visually compared to the five
standardized white-black grids.

A. Ringelman scale
B. Dalton scale
C. Smoke spot scale
D. Dew point scale

Answer: A

51. The ratio of fugacity at actual conditions to the fugacity at some reference state is known as:

A. Compressibility
B. Activity
C. Gravimetric coefficient
D. Saturation

Answer: B

52. A type of polymer used for detergents, milk bottles, oil containers and toys.

A. Polyvinyl chloride ( PVC)

B. Polystyrene (PS)
C. High density polyethelene (HDPE)
D. Polypropylene (PP)

Answer: C

53. A type of polymer used for grocery bags and food wraps.

A. Polyvinyl chloride ( PVC)

B. Polystyrene (PS)
C. Low density polyethelene (HDPE)
D. Polypropylene (PP)

Answer: C

54. A radioactive gas produced from the decay of radium within the rocks beneath building.

A. Spills
B. Radon
C. Smoke
D. Smog
 Answer: B

55. Consist of ground – level ozone and peroxyacyl nitrates (PAN).

A. Smog
B. Spills
C. Sulfur oxide
D. Smoke

Answer: A

56. A term used to mean the corrective steps taken to return the environment to its original
condition.

A. Stabilization
B. Remediation
C. Greenhouse effect
D. Opacity

Answer: B

57. The burning of low – sulfur fuel is known as:

A. Fuel switching
B. Fuel adding
C. Fuel binding
D. Fuel swapping

Answer: A

58. The removal of particulate matter from a gas flow by exposing the flow to a liquid or slurry is
known as:

A. Stripping
B. Spraying
C. Scrubbing
D. Absorption

Answer: C

59. The drop in a solvent’s vapor pressure and the increase in mole fraction as solute is added
is described by:

A. Dalton’s law
B. Henry’s law
C. Raoult’s law
D. Boyle’s law
 Answer: C

60. All of the following statements are characteristics of bases except _______.

A. They conduct electricity in aqueous solutions

B. They turn red litmus paper blue
C. They have a pH between 0 and 7
D. They neutralize acid forming salts and water

Answer: C

61. All of the following statements about conjugate acids and bases are true except ________.

A. A conjugate acids results when a base accept a protons

B. A conjugate base results when a base accepts a protos
C. Strong acids tend to give weak conjugate bases
D. The Bronsted – lowry theory defines bases as protons accepetors

Answer: B

62. Are any solid particulate matter that becomes airbone, with the exception of particulate
matter emitted from the exhaust stack of a combustion process.

A. Dusts or fugitive dusts

B. Dioxin
C. Fugitive emissions
D. CFCs

Answer: A

63. Equipment leaks from plant equipments are known as ________.

A. Fugitive leaks
B. Fugitive dusts
C. Fugitive exhausts
D. Fugitive emissions

Answer: D

64. What is a substance that absorbs or retains moisture?

A. Surface acting agent

B. Dry ultra-fine coal
C. Fossil fuel
D. Humectant
 Answer: D

65. Is a soluble compound that reduces a liquid’s surface tension or reduces the interfacial
tension between a liquid and a solid.

A. Surface – acting agent or surfactant

B. Humectant
C. Oxygenated
D. CKC

Answer: A

66. A material or substance that is accidentally or intentionally introduced to the environment in

a quality that exceeds what occurs naturally.

A. Waste
B. Sludge
C. Pollutant
D. Biosolids

Answer: C

67. Refers to organic waste produced from biological waterwaste treatment processes.

A. Toxic waste
B. Biosolids
C. Extrinsic waste
D. Process waste

Answer: B

68. A rule which states that any solid waste mixed with hazardous waste becomes harazdous.

A. The mixture rule

B. The derived from rule
C. The environmental rule
D. The hazard rule

Answer: A

69. A rule which states that any waste derived from the treatment of a hazardous waste remains
hazardous waste.

A. The mixture rule

B. The treatment rule
C. The derived from rule
D. The hazard rule
 Answer: C

70. Generally refers to sulfur trioxide SO3 in the flue gas.

A. Acid rain
B. Acid gas
C. Hydrochloric acids
D. Stack gas

Answer: B

71. What consists of weak solutions of sulfuric, hydrochloric, and to a lesser extent, nitric acids?

A. Stack gas
B. Acid rain
C. Acid compound
D. Pollutant

Answer: B

72. A fibrous silicate mineral material that is inert, strong and incombustible.

A. Fiberglass
B. Plastic
C. Rubber
D. Asbestos

Answer: D

73. An insulator with superior tensile strength but low heat resistance.

A. Rubber
B. Plastic
C. Fiberglass
D. Asbestos

Answer: C

74. Are highly concentrated liquid wastes produced in landfills.

A. Aerosols
B. Leachates
C. Nitrogen dioxide
D. Urea

Answer: B
75. What is the primary cause of smog formation?

A. Toxins
B. Dioxins
C. Oxidants
D. Nitrogen oxides

Answer: D

76. Is a water soluble organic compound prepared from ammonia. It has significant biological
and industrial usefulness.

A. Urea or carbamide urea

B. Nitrite
C. Chlorinated organics
D. Oxidants

Answer: A

77. Are by products of reaction between combustion products.

A. Photochemical
B. Oxidants
C. Organics
D. Sediments

Answer: B

78. “Particulate matter” is defined as all particles that are emitted by a combustion source. What
is another term for particulate matter?

A. Dust
B. Aerosol
C. Biosolids
D. Sediments

Answer: B

79. Are organic compounds manufactured in oily liquid and solid forms through the late 1970s
and subsequently prohibited.

A. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)

B. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
C. Trihalomethanes
D. Plastic
 Answer: A

80. A type of polymer used for styrofoam cups and “clam shell” fodd containers.

A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)

B. Polystyrene (PS)
C. Low density polyethelene (LDPE)
D. Polypropylene (PP)

Answer: B

81. A type of polymer used for labels, bottles and housewares.

A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)

B. Polystyrene (PS)
C. Low density polyethelene (LDPE)
D. Polypropylene (PP)

Answer: D

82. A type of polymer used for clear bottles.

A. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)

B. Polystyrene (PS)
C. Low density polyethelene (LDPE)
D. Polypropylene (PP)

Answer: A

83. Refers to the high – temperature removal of tarry substance from the interior of the carbon
granule leaving a highly porous structure.

A. Absorbent
B. Activated
C. Breakthrough
D. Adsorbent

Answer: B

84. A substance with high surface area per unit weight, and intricate pore structure, and a
hydrophobic surface.

A. Adsorbent substance
B. Absorbent substance
C. Homogeneous substance
D. Activated substance
 Answer: A

85. Is a high – temperature process that turns incinerator ash into a safe, glass – like material.

A. Advance oxidation
B. Biofitration
C. Vitrification
D. Bioventing

Answer: C

86. Refers to the use of compositing and soil beds.

A. Biofiltration
B. Biomediation
C. Bioventing
D. Bioreactors

Answer: A

87. Are open or closed tanks containing dozens or hundreds of slowly rotating disks covered
with a biological film microorganisms.

A. biofilter
B. bioreaction
C. biomediator
D. bioinventor

Answer: B

88. Refers to the treatment of contaminated in a large plastic – covered tank.

A. Bioventing
B. Biological recycling
C. Biocycle
D. Bioremediation

Answer: A

89. All of the following occur during oxidation of a substance except ________.

A. Oxidation state increases

B. Loss of electrons
C. The substance becomes less negative
D. Oxidation of the oxidizing agent

Answer: D
90. All of the following occur during reduction of a substance except _______.

A. An increase in negative charge

B. Loss of electrons
C. An oxidation state decrease
D. Reduction of the oxidizing agent

Answer: B

91. All of the following are units of energy except:

A. Calories
B. Joules
C. Pascal
D. meV

Answer: C

92. What do you call the mixture if the solute particles of a solid suspended in a liquid are larger
than molecules?

A. Solution
B. Suspension
C. Hydration
D. Saturated solution

Answer: B

93. What do you call the mixture when a solvent has dissolved as much solute as it can?

A. Solution
B. Mild solution
C. Hydration
D. Saturated solution

Answer: D

94. The equilibrium constant for weak solution is known as

A. Ionization constant
B. Arrhenius exponent
C. Solubility product
D. La Chatelier’s constant

Answer: A
95. What do you call the mixture if the solute particles of solid suspended in a liquid are larger
than the molecules?

A. Solution
B. Suspension
C. Hydration
D. Saturated solution

Answer: B

96. What do you call the mixture when a solvent has dissolved as much as solute it can?

A. Solution
B. Mild solution
C. Hydration
D. Saturated solution

Answer: D

97. The equilibrium constant for weak solution is known as:

A. Ionization constant
B. Arrhenius exponent
C. Solubility product
D. La Chantelier’s constant

Answer: A

98. If the solute particles of a solid suspended in a liquid are larger than molecules, the mixture
is known as:

A. Solution
B. Suspension
C. Hydration
D. Saturated solution

Answer: B

99. When a solvent has dissolved as much solute as it can, the mixture is called:

A. Solution
B. Suspension
C. Hydration
D. Saturated solution

Answer: D
100. When excess solute in a solution settles to the bottom of the container, the process is
called:

A. Salvation
B. Deemulsification
C. Precipitation
D. Equation

Answer: C

101. All of the following express units of concentration except:

A. Normality
B. Molarity
C. Formality
D. Isotropy

Answer: D
102. The desirable temperature inside an air conditioned auditorium is:

A. 0°C
B. 5°C
C. 10°C
D. 20°C

Answer: D

103. Which of the following acts as ignition accelerator for internal combustion engine fuels?

A. Acetone peroxide
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Aromatic compounds
D. n – heptane

Answer: A

104. Which of the following does not use ambient air for propulsion?

A. Turbo jet
B. Turbo – prop
C. Pulse jet
D. Rocket

Answer: B
105. Most observe properties of light and other radiant energy are consistent with waves in
nature, but in interaction with matter, electromagnetic energy behaves as through it consists of
discrete pieces or

A. Blocks
B. Balls
C. Quanta
D. Atomic masses

Answer: C
106. The amount of energy absorbed when a substance enters a solution is called the:

A. Heat of fussion
B. Heat of sublimation
C. Endothermic heat of solution
D. Exothermic heat of solution

Answer: C

107. The absorption of water by a dessicant often demonstrates:

A. Heat of fussion
B. Heat of sublimation
C. Endothermic heat of solution
D. Exothermic heat of solution

Answer: D

108. A substance that absorbs moisture from the air is:

A. Deliquescent
B. Efflorescent
C. Effervescent
D. A precipitant

Answer: A

109. The removal of a dissolved gas or other volatile component from liquid by exposing the
liquid to air or steam is known as:

A. Stripping
B. Gas absorption
C. Spraying
D. Scrubbing

Answer: A
110. Which of the following contribute to the deterioration of the Earth’s ozone layer?

A. Carbon monoxide
B. Chlorofluorocarbons
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Refrigerants

Answer: B

111. Ozone filters out what type of radiation that damages crops and causes skin cancer?

A. Tropospheric radiation
B. Atmospheric radiation
C. X-rays
D. Ultraviolet radiation

Answer: D

112. All of the following affect of reaction except:

A. Exposed surface area

B. Concentrations
C. Temperature
D. Pressure

Answer: D

113. Le Chantelier’s principle predicts the direction of a state of chemical equilibrium based on
all of the following factors except:

A. Temperature
B. Specific volume
C. Pressure
D. Concentration

Answer: B

114. The amount of energy necessary to cause a reaction to occur is called the _______.

A. Heat of formation
B. Heat of solution
C. Activation of energy
D. Heat of fusion

Answer: C

115. The equilibrium constant for weak solutions is known as _______.

 A. The ionization constant
B. The Arrhenius exponent
C. The solubility product
D. Le Chantelier’s principle

Answer: A

116. The speed at which a reaction proceeds to equilibrium is the purview of ________.

A. Reaction kinetics
B. Le Chatelier’s principle
C. Neutralization
D. Ionization

Answer: A

117. The color of water is measured:

A. In terms of pH value
B. In terms of degree of hardness
C. In terms of platinum cobalt scale
D. Ppm of dissolved solids

Answer: C

118. What turbidimeter that gives direct readings in ppm?

A. Jackson turbidimeter
B. Hellige turbidimeter
C. Baylis turbidimeter
D. All of the above

Answer: A

119. Which of the following is not a sound absorptive material?

A. Rugs
B. Mirrors
C. Carpets
D. Heavy Drapes

Answer: B

120. The total cross section of a target atom is made up of _______.

A. The absorption cross section

 B. The scattering cross section
C. The absorption and scattering cross sections
D. The reflection and absorption cross sections

Answer: C

121. Which of the following cannot be a phenomenon of neutron interactions?

A. Inelastic scattering
B. Elastic scattering
C. Fission
D. Fusion

Answer: D

122. Which of the following cannot be used to describe neutron kinetic energy levels?

A. Cold
B. Thermal
C. Slow
D. Freezing

Answer: D

123. All of the following are words used to describe neutron kinetic energy levels except:

A. Slow (resonant)
B. Fast
C. Supersonic
D. Relativistic

Answer: C

124. The reduction of nuclear radiation intensity (called attenuation) is accomplished by:

A. Matter
B. Antimatter
C. Shielding
D. Neurons

Answer: C

125. The ability of substance to absorb neurons depends upon its ________.

A. Absorption cross section

B. Scattering cross section
C. Total cross section
 D. Atomic number

Answer: A

CHAPTER 11
FLUID MECHANICS

1. If the energy of the incident photons is less than the work function:

A. An electron will be ejected

B. More than one electron will be ejected
C. An electron will not be ejected
D. Less than one electron will be ejected

Answer: C

2. For supersonic, the pressure of fluid must decrease as the fluid flow area of the duct

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remain the same
D. None of these

Answer: A

3. Density in terms of viscosity is

A. Kinematic viscosity / dynamic viscosity

B. Dynamic viscosity / kinematic viscosity
C. Kinematic viscosity x dynamic viscosity
D. None of the above

Answer: B

4. Liquids and gases take the following characteristics (s) of their contents.

A. Volume
B. Shape
C. Shape and volume
D. Neither shape nor volume

Answer: B

5. Alcohol finds in manometers as:

A. It provides a suitable meniscus for the inclined tube

 B. Its density being less can provide longer length for a pressure difference, thus more
accuracy can be obtained
C. A and B above are correct
D. Cheap and easily available

6. Which of the following statement about a Newtonian fluid is most accurate?

A. Shear stress is proportional to strain

B. Viscosity is zero
C. Shear stress is multi – valued
D. Shear stress is proportional rate of strain

Answer: D

7. The normal stress is the same in all directions at a point in fluid:

A. Independent of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer

B. When there is no motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
C. Only if the fluid is frictionless
D. Only if fluid is frictionless and incompressible

Answer: B

8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of pressure?

A. It is the same in all direction at a point in the fluid

B. It acts normal to a surface
C. It is a shear stress
D. It is linear with depth

Answer: C

9. The length of mercury column at a place at an altitude will change with respect to that at
ground in.

A. A linear relation
B. A parabolic relation
C. Will remain constant
D. First slowly and then steeply

Answer: D

10. All of the following dimensionless parameters are applicable to the flow fluid problems
except the ________.

A. Reynolds number
B. Froude number
 C. Mach number
D. Blot number

Answer: D

11. Mass density of liquid (p) is given by which of the following?

A. P = mass / volume
B. P = metric slug / m2
C. P = kg sec 2 / m4
D. All of the above

Answer: D

12. The speed of sound in all fluids is most closely related to all f the following properties except
_________.

A. Compressibility
B. Density
C. Bulk modulus
D. Thermal conductivity

Answer: D

13. Under which condition, the specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m3 ?

A. At normal pressure of 760 mm

B. At 4°C temperature
C. At mean sea level
D. All of the above

Answer: D

14. All of the following can be characteristics of fluids except __________.

A. Kinetic viscosity
B. Surface tension
C. Bulk modulus
D. Hysteresis

Answer: D

15. Which of the following can be used to measure the flow of water in a pipe of diameter
3000mm?

A. Venturimeter
B. Rotameter
 C. Nozzle
D. Pitot tube

Answer: D

16. The pressure at a given depth due to several immiscible liquids is:

A. The average of the individual pressures

B. The sum of the individual pressure
C. Independ of the individual pressures
D. Unknown

Answer: B

17. The equation of continuity of flow is applicable if:

A. The flow is one dimensional

B. The flow is steady
C. The velocity is uniform over the cross – section
D. All of the above conditions are together

Answer: D

18. Uniform flow takes place when:

A. Condition remain unchanged with time at any point

B. Rate of change of velocity of fluid is zero
C. At every point the velocity vector is identical in magnitude and direction for any given
instant
D. The change in transverse direction is zero

Answer: C

19. The continuity equation of an ideal fluid flow:

A. States that the net rate of in – flow into any small volume must be zero
B. Applies to irrotational flow only
C. States that the energy remains constant along streamline
D. State that energy is constant everywhere in the fluid

Answer: D

20. A pitot tube can be used to measure fluid velocity as described by the Bernoulli’s equation
and the relationship between:

A. Kinetic energy and static pressure

B. Fluid pressure and height of the fluid
 C. Fluid pressure and impact energy
D. Pressure and momentum

Answer: A

21. In order to avoid vaporization in the pipe line, the pipe line over the ridge is laid in such a
way that it is not more tha:

A. 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient

B. 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient
C. 10.0 m above the hydraulic gradient
D. 5.0 above the hydraulic gradient

Answer: B

22. The stream function is a useful parameter in describing ___________.

A. The conservation of mass

B. The conservation of momentum
C. The conservation of energy
D. The equation of state

Answer: A

23. For high speed flow, the potential energy of the fluids are:

A. Positive
B. Negative
C. Negligible
D. None of these

Answer: C

24. McLeod gauge for low pressure measurement operates on the principle of __________.

A. Gas law
B. Boyle’s law
C. Charles law
D. Pascal’s law

Answer: B

25. A Kaplan turbine is

A. A high head flow turbine

B. An impulse turbine, inward flow
C. A reaction turbine, outward flow
 D. Low head axial flow turbine

Answer: D

26. The most common method for calculating frictional energy loss for laminar flowing fluids in
noncircular pipes is:

A. The Darcy equation

B. The Hagan – Poisevill equation
C. The Hazen – Williams equation
D. The Swamee – Jins equation

Answer: A

27. The parameter f in the expression for head-loss is

A. The fraction of flow that is totally turbulent

B. The darcy friction factor
C. The height of the roughness scale in turbulent flow
D. The static coefficient of friction

Answer; B

28. Friction factor for both laminar and turbulent flows can be found plotted in a

A. Steam table
B. Psychrometric chart
C. Moody diagram
D. Mollier diagram

Answer: C

29. Which of the following is relative velocity?

A. The difference between two velocities

B. Average velocity
C. Sum of two velocities
D. Vector difference of two velocities

Answer: D

30. Which of the following is the highest head?

A. 33 inch Hg
B. 31.0 ft. water
C. 1.013 kg kg/cm2
D. 75.0 cm of Hg
 Answer: A

31. For stable equilibrium of floating body its metacenter

A. Below the center of gravity

B. Below the center of buoyancy
C. Above the center of buoyancy
D. Above the center of gravity

Answer: D

32. Center of pressure of an inclined plane lies ________

A. At he centroid
B. Above the centroid
C. Below the centroid
D. At metacenter

Answer: C

33. The line of action of the buoyant forces always acts through the centroid of the ________

A. Submerged body
B. Volume of the floating body
C. Volume of the fluid vertically above the body
D. Displaced volume of the fluid

Answer: D

34. The hydraulic grade line of a pipeline denotes which of the flowing?

A. Total energy
B. Pressure energy
C. Potential energy
D. The sum of pressure energy and potential energy

Answer: D

35. The energy grades line of a pipeline denotes which of the following

A. Total energy
B. Pressure energy
C. Potential energy
D. The sum of pressure energy and potential energy

Answer: A
36. The presence of friction in the energy grade line will always cause the line to slope

A. Down in the direction of the flow

B. Upward in the direction of the flow
C. Level (no slope)
D. There is no effect of friction on the energy grade line

Answer: A

37. The pitot tube is a device used for measurement of

A. Pressure
B. Flow
C. Velocity
D. Discharge

Answer: C

38. Hydrometer is used to find out

A. Specific gravity of liquids

B. Specific gravity of solids
C. Specific gravity of gases
D. Relative humidity

Answer: A

39. The fluid forces taken into consideration in the Navier strokes equation are:

A. Gravity, Pressure and viscous

B. Gravity, pressure turbulent
C. Pressure, viscous and turbulence
D. Gravity, viscous and turbulence

Answer: A

40. Permissible velocity of water flowing through concrete tunnel, is generally

A. 4 – 5 m/s
B. 10 – 12 m/s
C. 13 – 16 m/s
D. 20 m/s

Answer: A

41. Orifice refers to an opening

 A. With closed perimeter and regulating from through which water flows
B. With prolonged sides having length of 2 to 3 diameters of opening in the thick wall
C. With partially full flow
D. In hydraulic structure with regulation provision

Answer: D

42. The value of coefficient of discharge in comparison to coefficient of velocity is found to be

________.

A. More
B. Less
C. Same
D. More/less depending on flow

Answer: B

43. Weir refers to an opening

A. Having closed perimeter and of regular form through which water flows
B. Having prolonged sides with length of 2 to 3 diameters of opening in thick wait
C. Having partially full flow
D. In hydraulic structure with regulation provision

Answer: C

44. Which of the following parameters determine the friction factor of turbulent flow in a rough
pipe?

A. Froude number and relative roughness

B. Froude number and Mach number
C. Reynolds number and relative roughness
D. Mach number and relative roughness

Answer: C

45. Power transmitted through a pipe is maximum when the loss of head due to friction is:

A. One – half of the total head supplied

B. One – third of the total head supplied
C. One – fourth of the total head supplied
D. Equal to the total head supplied

Answer: B

46. In a nozzle if back pressure is same as inlet pressure; then __________.

 A. No flow takes place
B. Maximum flow takes place
C. Flow becomes subsonic in diverging section
D. Flow becomes supersonic in converging as well as supersonic section

Answer: A

47. The flow on two sides of a normal shock wave is called _________.

A. Sonic
B. Sub – sonic
C. Supersonic
D. Supersonic on one side and sub – sonic on the other side

Answer: D

48. Which of the following is the basic of bernoulli’s law for fluid flow?

A. Continuity equation
B. Principle of conversation of energy
C. Fourier’ law
D. Principle of conservation of mass

Answer: B

49. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fluid pressure?

A. It is shear stress
B. It is the same in all direction at a point in the fluid
C. It acts normal to a surface
D. It is linear with depth

Answer: A

50. Refers to the compressibility of a fluid, the fractional change in fluid volume per unit change
in fluid.

A. Viscosity
B. Bulk modulus
C. Density
D. Pressure

Answer: D

51. A pitot tube can be used to measure fluid velocity as described by the Bernoulli equation
and the relationship between:
 A. Kinetic energy and static pressure
B. Fluid pressure and static pressure
C. Fluid pressure and impact energy
D. Pressure and momentum

Answer: A

52. the ratio of the area to the wetted perimeter is known as ________.

A. Flow factor
B. Hydraulic radius
C. Kutter’s C
D. Value of k in darcy – weisbach formula

Answer: B

53. What is the coefficient of contraction?

A. The ratio of the area of vena contracta to the area of the orifice
B. The ratio of actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. The ratio of the actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. The ratio of the effective head to the actual head

Answer: A

54. Where is vena contracta most likely located?

A. At the orifice
B. At a distance approximately ½ the diameter of the orifice
C. At a distance approximately equal to the diameter of the orifice
D. At a distance approximately twice the diameter of the orifice

Answer: B

55. A substance that is able to flow and yields to any force tending to change its shape without
changing its volume such as water and air.

A. Fluid
B. Flux
C. Gas oil
D. Water gas

Answer: A

56. The velocity of a fluid particle at the center of the pipe section is _________.
 A. Maximum
B. Minimum
C. Average
D. Logarithmic average

Answer: A

57. For supersonic flow, the pressure of the fluid must increase as the fluid flow area of the duct:

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Constant
D. None of these

Answer: B

58. Which is incorrect statement regarding apparent shear forces.

A. It can never be found in frictionless fluid regardless of its motion

B. It can never be found when the fluid is at rest
C. It depends upon cohesive forces
D. It may occur owing to cohesive when the fluid is at rest

Answer: D

59. The time required for half a quantity of radioactive particles to decay (disintegrate) is called
its _________.

A. Average life
B. Median life
C. Time Constant
D. Half time

Answer: D

60. SI unit of viscosity is:

A. 10 times poise
B. 9.81 times poise
C. 1 / 9.81 times poise
D. 1 / 10 time poise

Answer: A

61. For computation convenience, fluid are usually classed as:

A. Rotational or irrotational
 B. Real or ideal
C. Laminar or turbulent
D. Newtonian or non-Newtonian

Answer: B

62. Which of the following is not a dimensionless parameter?

A. Kinetic viscosity
B. Weber number
C. Darcy Weisbach friction factor
D. Froude number

Answer: A

63. Which of the following is not a characteristic of real fluids?

A. Finite viscosity
B. Non – uniform velocity distributions
C. Compressibility
D. Experience of eddy currents and turbulence

Answer: D

64. Which of the following is not the mass density of water?

A. 62.5 lbm/ft 3
B. 100 kg/m3
C. 1 g/cm3
D. 1 kg/L

Answer: B

65. The upper critical Reynolds number for pipe flow is:

A. Of no practical importance to designers

B. Always used to design pipes for strength
C. The number at which turbulent flow changes over to laminar flow
D. The number at which laminar flow changes into turbulent flow

Answer: A

66. Which of the following statements about gauge pressure is most correct? Gauge pressure
are measured relative to ________.

A. Atmospheric pressure
B. A vacuum
 C. Each other
D. The surface

Answer: A

67. The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is called ________.

A. Volumetric strain
B. Volumetric index
C. Compressibility
D. Adhesion

Answer: D

68. Compressibility of a fluid relates the fractional change in fluid volume per unit change in
fluid.

A. Temperature
B. Density
C. Pressure
D. Viscosity

Answer: B

69. Property of a fluid wherby its own molecules are attracted is known as _________.

A. Adhesion
B. Cohesion
C. Surface tension
D. Viscosity

Answer: B

70. The term subsonic flow refers to a flowing gas with a speed:

A. Less than the local speed of sound

B. Equal to the speed of sound
C. Greater than the speed of sound
D. Much greater than the speed of sound

Answer: A

71. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in at the directions if the fluid is:

A. Viscous
B. Viscous and static
C. Inviscous and in motion
 D. Viscous and is in motion

Answer: D

72. The statement that the hydrostatic pressure at a fluid exerts on an immersed object or on
container walls is a function only of fluid depth is

A. The perfect gas law

B. D’Alembert’s paradox
C. The hydrostatic paradox
D. Boyle’s law

Answer: C

73. Bernoulli’s equation is s/an ___________.

A. Momentum equation
B. Conservation of energy equation
C. Conservation of mass equation
D. Equation of state

Answer: B

74. AN ideal fluid is one that:

A. Is very viscous
B. Obeys Newton’s law viscosity
C. Is assumed in problems in condult flow
D. Is frictionless and incompressible

Answer: D

75. The relation between pressure and attitude in the atmospheric is given by the:

A. Perfect gas law

B. Conservation of mass
C. Barometric height relationship
D. First law of thermodynamics

Answer: C

76. The fact the buoyant force on a floating object equal to the weight of the water displaced is:

A. Bernoulli’s law
B. Archimedes principle
C. The law of diminishing returns
D. The conservation of mass
 Answer: B

77. Which of the following terms does not appear in the steady flow energy equation (the
extended Bernoulli’s equation)?

A. Kinetic energy
B. Potential energy
C. Friction losses
D. Hysteresis losses

Answer: D

78. Neglecting the force due to inertia, gravity and frictional resistance, the design of a channel
can be made by comparing

A. Weber number
B. Reynolds number
C. Froude’s number
D. Prant’l number

Answer: C

79. The difference between stagnation pressure and total pressure is:

A. Due to height difference

B. Due to kinetic energy
C. None of the terms are interchangeable
D. Important only in supersonic flow

Answer: C

80. Fully turbulent flow in a pipe is characterized by all of the following except:

A. A parabolic velocity profile

B. A momentum exchange due to fluid masses rather than molecules
C. A maximum velocity at the fluid center line
D. A 1/7 velocity profile

Answer: A

81. The laminar friction factor of fluid flowing through pipe is a function of all of the following
except:

A. Fluid velocity
B. Pipe diameter
C. Pipe roughness
 D. Reynolds number

Answer: C

82. The continuity equation is a applicable to:

A. Viscous unviscous fluids

B. Compressibility of fluids
C. Conservation of mass
D. Steady unsteady flow

Answer: C

83. The rise or fail of head ‘h’ in a capillary tube of diameter ‘d’ and liquid surface tension ‘s’ and
specific weight ‘w’ is given by:

A. 4s/wd
B. 4ds/w
C. 4wd/s
D. 4ws/d

Answer: A

84. The study of the practical laws of fluid flow and the resistance of open pipes and channels

A. Fluid mechanics
B. Hydraulics
C. Aerodynamics
D. Thermodynamics

Answer: B

85. Which of the following turbine is different from the others?

A. Fourneyron turbine
B. Francis turbine
C. Kaplan turbine
D. Prelton wheel

Answer: D

86. Running away seed of a Pelton wheel gives:

A. Actual operating speed

B. No load speed
C. Full load speed
D. No load speed when governor mechanism fails
 Answer: D

87. Which of the following turbine is different from the others?

A. Pelton wheel
B. Banki turbine
C. Jonval turbine
D. Kapitan turbine

Answer; D

88. The characteristic length of the Reynold’s number to calculate the friction in noncircular full
running pipe is based on the ________.

A. Run length
B. Pipe length
C. Hydraulic diameter (the equivalent diameter)
D. Wetted circumference

Answer: C

89. The hydraulic radius of noncircular pipe is:

A. The square root of the flow area

B. The ratio of the area to the wetted perimeter
C. The radius of the pipe of equivalent area
D. None of the above

Answer: B

90. The Darcy equation can be used for all liquids and flow except:

A. Water
B. Alcohol
C. Gasoline
D. Air flowing supersonically

Answer: D

91. The Hazen – Williams formula for head loss due to friction is based upon:

A. Rigorous mathematical derivation

B. Empirical data
C. Semi – empirical analysis
D. Screndipity
 Answer: B

92. The extended Bernoulli equation includes all of the following terms except:

A. Potential energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Nuclear energy
D. Friction losses

Answer: C

93. An equipotential line is one that:

A. Has no velocity component tangent to it

B. Has uniformly varying dynamic pressure
C. Has no velocity component normal to it
D. Exist in case of rotational flow

Answer: D

94. What is the use of a hydraulic jump?

A. Increase te flow rate

B. Reduce the flow rate
C. Reduce the velocity of flow
D. Reduce the energy of flow

Answer: D

95. What do you call the lowest portion to storage basin from where the water is not drawn?

A. Bottom storage
B. Sub soil storage
C. Spring reserve
D. Dead storage

Answer: D

96. The presence of friction in the hydraulic grade line will always cause the line to slope:

A. Down in the direction of the flow

B. Upward in the direction do the flow
C. Level (no slope)
D. There is no effect of friction on the energy grade line

Answer: A
97. The presence of a minor loss in the energy grade line will cause the line to slope:

A. Down in the direction of the flow

B. Upward in the direction of the flow
C. Vertically downward
D. There is no effect of friction on the energy grade line

Answer: A

98. What do you call the pressure which the fluid exerts on an immersed objects or container
walls?

A. Normal pressure
B. Standard liquid pressure
C. Hydrostatic pressure
D. Gage pressure

Answer: C

99. Viscosity for a fluid is defined as the constant of proportional between shear and what other
variable?

A. The spatial derivative of velocity

B. The time derivative of pressure
C. The time derivative of density
D. The spatial derivative of density

Answer: A

100. What is the classification of the fluid flow if the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent do not
layers and the paths of the individual particles do not cross each other?

A. Steady flow
B. Laminar Flow
C. Uniform flow
D. Turbulent flow

Answer: B

101. Which of the following refers to the measure of a fluid’s sensitivity to changes in viscosity
with changes in temperature?

A. Viscosity index
B. Coefficient of viscosity
C. Viscosity ratio
D. Viscosity factor
 Answer: A

102. IF the number is greater than 1 but lesser than 5, what is the standard classification of the
travel?

A. Transonic travel
B. Subsonic travel
C. Hypesonic travel
D. Supersonic travel

Answer: D

103. What is measured by a Pitot tube?

A. Volumetric discharge
B. Mass flow
C. Pressure
D. Velocity

Answer: D

104. What is the difference between the energy grade line and the hydraulic grade line?

A. Potential energy
B. Pressure energy
C. Kinetic energy
D. Friction losses

Answer: C

105. Kinetic energy is not neglected in calculations of:

A. High speed flow

B. Low speed flow
C. Steady flow
D. Equilibrium flow

Answer: A

106. Discharge losses through orifice are due to:

A. Friction losses
B. Minor losses
C. Both friction and minor losses
D. Pressure losses

Answer: C
107. Which of the following is considered as an important parameter in the study of
compressible flow?

A. Speed of fluid
B. Speed of sound
C. Speed of light
D. Speed of fluid flow

Answer: B

108. Is the velocity at which an infinitesimal small pressure wave travels through medium.

A. Subsonic velocity
B. Hypersonic velocity
C. Sonic velocity
D. Monatomic velocity

Answer: C

109. It is the ratio of the actual velocity of the fluid to the velocity of sound.

A. Mach number
B. Froude number
C. Sonic number
D. Euler number

Answer: A

110. The flow is called sonic when Mach number is:

A. Equal to 1
B. Less than 1
C. More than 1
D. None of these

Answer: A

111. The following flow is sub – sonic when Mach no. is:

A. Greater than 1
B. Less than 1
C. More than 1
D. None of these

Answer: B
112. The flow is supersonic when Mach no. is:

A. Greater than zero

B. Less than 1
C. greater than 1
D. none of these

Answer: C

113. The flow of transonic when

A. M=0
B. M<1
C. M>1
D. M=1

Answer: D

114. The pressure decrease as the temperature and velocity increase while the fluid velocity
and Mach number:

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remains constant
D. None of these

Answer: A

115. The Mach number is unity or one at the location of smallest flow area, called the:

A. Decreasing are
B. Throat
C. Increasing area
D. None of these

Answer: B

117. Which of the following is the example of a Newtonian fluid?

A. Motor oils
B. Gas
C. Paints
D. Clay slurries

Answer: B

118. What is the pressure of water?

 A. 150 kg/cm3
B. Less than 200 kg/cm2
C. More than 200 kg/cm2
D. 100 kg/cm2

Answer: C

119. Past ME Board Question

The volumetric change of the fluid caused by a resistance is called:

A. Volumetric change
B. Volumetric index
C. Compressibility
D. Adhesion

Answer: D

120. Past ME Board Question

The energy of a fluid flowing at any section in a pipeline is a function of:

A. Velocity of flow only

B. Pressure only
C. Height above a chosen datum, density, internal energy, pressure and velocity of flow
D. Pressure, height above a chosen datum, velocity of flow, density of liquid

Answer: C

121. Past ME Board Question

If the fluid travels parallel to the adjacent layers and the paths of individual particles do not
cross, the fluid is said to be:

A. Turbulent
B. Critical
C. Dynamic
D. Laminar

Answer: D

122. Past ME Board Question

Center of pressure on a inclined plane lies:

A. At the centroid
B. Above the centroid
C. Below the centroid
D. At the metacenter
 Answer: C

123. Past ME Board Question

At any instant, if the number of particles passing every cross – section of the stream is the
same, the flow is said to be:

A. Steady flow
B. Uniform flow
C. Continuous flow
D. Laminar flow

Answer: A

124. Past ME Board Question

The ratio of cross – sectional area flow to the wetted perimeter is:

A. Hydraulic lead
B. Hydraulic section
C. Hydraulic mean depth
D. Hydraulic gradient

Answer: C

125. Past ME Board Question

If A is the cross – sectional area of the flow and Pw is the wetted perimeter of a pipe, then
what is the hydraulic depth. Hd ?

A. Pw – A
B. Pw / A
C. A / Pw
D. Pw x A

Answer: C

126. Past ME Board Question

If Q is the volume in gallon; D is height or elevation in it, and m is weight in lbs per gallon,
what is the desired energy to lift the water from lower to higher elevation?

A. E = mD/Q
B. E = mDQ
C. E = mQ/D
D. E = QD/m

Answer: B

127. Past ME Board Question

 The flow of the convergent section of a nozzle is always subsonic. If the flow subsonic then
the Mach number is:

A. Greater than unity

B. Less than unity
C. Near unity
D. Unity

Answer: B

CHAPTER 12
FLUID MACHINERIES

Chapter 12 – Fluid Machinery

1. The volumetric efficiency of a compressor having clearance factor c is given by:
A. 1 + c – c (P2/P1)1/n
B. 1 + c + c (P2/P1)n-1
C. 1 + c – c (P2/P1)n
D. 1 + c + c (P2/P1)n+1
Answer : A
2. In case of axial flow compressors for minimum fluid friction and blade tip clearance losses,
the blades of an axial flow compressor are designed for _____.
A. 80% reaction
B. 85% reaction
C. 60% reaction
D. 53% reaction
Answer : D
3. Centrifugal blowers can supply
A. large volume of air at low pressures
B. small volume of air at high pressures
C. large volume of air at high pressures
D. small volume of air at low pressures
Answer : A
4. Which of the following is a safety device on a compressor?
A. Relief valve
 B. Strainer
C. Over speed shut down
D. Over pressure shut down
Answer : A
5. In a four stage compressor system, the first and stage pressures are 1 and 9 kg/cm2
respectively. What is the fourth stage delivery pressure?
A. 9 kg/cm2
B. 81 kg/cm2
C. 27 kg/cm2
D. 243 kg/cm2
Answer : C

6. For a six compression of air set, the minimum work conditions are :
A. pressure rise per stage will be equal
B. work done in successive stages will be in geometrical progression
C. cylinder volume will be the same
D. temperature rise in the cylinder will be the same
Answer : D
7. Which of the following give the optimum intermediate pressure in case of two stage
compression?
A. P2 = P1+P3/2
B. P2 = P1 + P1+P3/2
C. P2 = √ P1 P3
D. P2 = P1 + √ P12+ P32
Answer : C
8. In air compressor performance curve a surge line represents what?
A. limit of compressor efficiency
B. limit of compressor discharge
C. limit of stable operation
D. lower critical speed of shaft
Answer : C
9. Which of the following is a displacement compressor?
 A. Reciprocating air compressor
B. Vane blower
C. Centrifugal blower
D. Axial flow compressor
Answer : B
10. Stalling of the blades of axial flow compressor is:
A. an unsteady periodic and reverse of flow
B. the fixed mass flow rate irrespective of pressure ratio
C. the reduction in lift force at higher angle of incidence
D. all of the above
Answer : C

11. Surging is
A. an unsteady, periodic and reversal of flow in the compressor
B. the fixed mass flow rate irrespective of pressure ratio
C. the reduction in lift force at higher angle of incidence
D. none of the above
Answer : A
12. In an axial flow compressor, the pressure rise takes place in:
A. fixed blades only
B. moving blades only
C. both fixed and moving blades
D. none of the above
Answer : C
13. An axial flow compressor is suitable for:
A. high volume flow rates with small pressure rise
B. low volume flow rates with low pressure rise
C. high volume flow rates with high pressure rise
D. low volume flow rates with high pressure rise
Answer : A
14. Which of the following is a positive displacement rotary compressor?
A. Roots blower
B. Centrifugal compressor
C. Axial flow compressor
D. None of the above
Answer : A
15. Choking is
A. change of mass flow rate in proportion to pressure ratio
B. change of mass flow rate in inverse proportion to pressure ratio
C. fixed mass flow rate irrespective of pressure ratio
D. all of the above
Answer : C

16. Crankshaft of a reciprocating compressor is basically made of what?

A. semi-steel
B. aluminum alloy
C. steel forging
D. cast iron
Answer : D
17. Most plant air systems to operate the tools and machines which require 70 to 90 psig are
maintained at ____.
A. 90 to 110 psig
B. 110 to 130 psig
C. 130 to 150 psig
D. 70 to 90 psig
Answer : B
18. The capacity of portable air compressor used for construction, mining, road building, and
painting ranges from ____.
A. 1 ft3/min to 2000 ft3/min
B. 30 ft3/min to 2500 ft3/min
C. 1 ft3/min to 2500 ft3/min
 D. 30 ft3/min to 2000 ft3/min
Answer : A
19. The power of portable air compressors used for construction, mining, road building, and
painting ranges from:
A. 1 hp to 500 hp
B. ½ hp to 500 hp
C. 1 hp to 1000 hp
D. ½ hp to 1000 hp
Answer : B
20. Most permanent installations use piston compressors available as stock items in size
ranging from
A. 1 ft3/min to 2000 ft3/min
B. 30 ft3/min to 2500 ft3/min
C. 1 ft3/min to 2500 ft3/min
D. 30 ft3/min to 2000 ft3/min
Answer : B
21. Most permanent installations use piston compressors available as stock items of what
pressure?
A. 150 psi
B. 200 psi
C. 250 psi
D. 300 psi
Answer : A
22. When the piston is top center of the cylinder in a double-acting reciprocating compressor
A. all suction valves are open and all discharge valves are closed
B. all suction valves are closed and all discharge valves are open
C. all suction valves are closed and all discharge valves are open
D. all suction valves are open and all discharge valves are open
Answer : B
23. Past ME Board Question
Pump used to increase air pressure above normal, air is then used as a motive power
A. Air cooled engine
 B. Air compressor
C. Air condenser
D. Air injection
Answer : B
24. A device used for raising fluids from a lower to higher level/
A. Compressor
B. Pump
C. Turbine
D. Blowers
Answer : B
25. When a pump is operating at a vacuum of 4 in. Hg. Which of the following is not correct?
A. The pressure is 25.92 in Hg
B. The pressure is 10.721 psia
C. The pressure is 158.4 torr
D. The pressure is 0.8663 atm
Answer : C
26. The amount of energy actually entering the fluid from a pump is the
A. brake horsepower
B. hydraulic horsepower
C. theoretical horsepower
D. hydraulic, theoretical, or water horsepower
Answer : D
27. Primary purpose of a pump in a fluid loop is to
A. add energy to the flow
B. add mass to the flow
C. extract energy from the flow
D. none of the above
Answer : A
28. The isentropic efficiency of a pump is given by the
A. ratio of actual to ideal energy extracted
B. ratio of ideal to actual energy supplied
 C. ratio of ideal to actual energy extracted
D. ratio of actual to ideal energy supplied
Answer : B
29. The electrical efficiency of a device is the ratio of the :
A. electrical energy output to the electrical energy input
B. mechanical energy input to the mechanical energy output of the device
C. actual energy extracted to the ideal energy extracted
D. actual to the ideal energy input
Answer : A
30. The adiabatic pump efficiency is the ratio of the
A. electrical energy output to the electrical energy input
B. mechanical energy input to the electrical energy output of the device
C. ideal energy input to the pump to the actual energy input
D. actual energy extracted to the ideal energy extracted
Answer : C

31. a condenser’s water – circulating pump is belt-driven by an electric motor with an adjustable
pitch motor sheave. This sheave
A. permits adjustment of the pump
B. prevent overload and/or burnout of the pump and motor
C. prevents excessive wear on the belt and motor shaft bearings
D. facilitates belt replacement
Asnwer : C
32. The function of a pump or compressor is to
A. transfer heat from one fluid to another
B. increase the total energy content of the flow
C. extract energy from the flow
D. exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
Answer : B
33. Past ME Board Question
An after cooler on a reciprocating air compressor is used primarily to :
A. cool the lubricating oil
 B. condense the moisture in the compressed air
C. improve compressor efficiency
D. increase compressor capacity
Answer : B
34. Past ME Board Question
A receiver in an air compression system is used to:
A. avoid cooling air before using
B. increase the air discharge pressure
C. collect water and grease suspended in the air
D. reduce the work needed during compression
Answer : C
35. Past ME Board Question
Crankshaft of reciprocating compressor is basically made of:
A. semi-steel
B. aluminum alloy
C. cast iron
D. steel forging
Answer : C
36. Cooling water system consists of equipment to dissipate heat absorbed by the engine jacket
water, lube oil and heat to be removed from air intercooler is measurable to keep the engine
outlet water temperature constant and the differential of the cooling water at a minimum
preferably not to exceed:
A. 10 to 30 ˚F
B. 10 to 50 ˚F
C. 10 to 20 ˚F
D. 10 to 40 ˚F
Answer : C
37. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is the one of the most popular types of compressor utilized for
supercharging engine?
A. Roots type blower
B. Pulse turbo charger
C. Constant pressure turbo charger
 D. Turbo compressor
Answer : A
38. Past ME Board Question
The power required to deliver a given quantity of fluid against a given head with no losses in
the pump is called :
A. wheel power
B. brake power
C. hydraulic power
D. indicated power
Answer : C
39. Past ME Board Question
Fluids that are pumped in processing work are frequently more viscous than water. Which of
the following statement is correct?
A. Reynolds number varies directly as the viscosity
B. Efficiency of a pump increases as the viscosity increases
C. Increased fluid friction between the pump parts and the passing fluids increase useful
work
D. Working head increases as the viscosity
Answer : C
40. Past ME Board Question
A reciprocating pump is considered positive displacement pump because
A. displacement of the liquid is affected by the displacement of the piston
B. positive pressure is given to the liquid
C. liquid is discharge with positive pressure
D. liquid is lifted due to the vacuum created inside the cylinder
Answer : A
41. Past ME Board Question
To protect adequately the engine bearings, what type and better arrangement of lubricating
oil filter is practical?
A. Full-flow type filter installed between the lubricating oil pump and the bearings
B. Duplex filter installed before the lubricating pump
C. Bypass filter with cleanable and replaceable elements
D. Splash lubricating system in the crank case
Answer : A
42. Past ME Board Question
Medium pressure when applied to valves and fittings are suitable for a working pressure of:
A. 862 to 1200 kPa
B. 758 to 1000 kPa
C. 500 to 1000 kPa
D. 658 to 1050 kPa
Answer : A
43. Past ME Board Question
The function of an unloader on an electric motor-driven compressor is to
A. reduce the speed of the motor when the maximum pressure is reached
B. drain the condensate from the cylinder
C. release the pressure in the cylinder in order to reduce the starting load
D. prevent excess pressure in the receiver
Answer : C
44. Past ME Board Question
An unloader is used on air compressor to:
A. relieve air pressure
B. start easier
C. stop easier
D. run faster
Answer : A
45. Past ME Board Question
The performance of a reciprocating compressor is expressed as :
A. adiabatic work divided by adiabatic input
B. adiabatic work divided by indicated work
C. isothermal work divided by indicated work
D. isothermal work divided by adiabatic work
Answer : B
46. Past ME Board Question
For reciprocating compressor slip at positive or negative displacement.
 A. Cd = 1
B. Cd > 1
C.Cd < 1
D. Cd = 0
Answer : C
47. Past ME Board Question
In order that cavitation will not take place in the suction line of a pump, what should be the
sum of the velocity head and pressure head at suction compared to the vapor pressure of the
liquid?
A. Sufficiently lower
B. Constant
C. Adequately greater
D. Equal
Answer : C
48. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following components of a pump converts mechanical energy to pressure
energy?
A. Impeller
B. Valve
C. Shaft
D. Delivery pipe
Answer : A
49. Past ME Board Question
Mr. De La Cruz wanted to buy a pump for his farm. What suitable for deepwell?
A. Reciprocating
B. Airlift
C. Hand lift
D. Centrifugal
Answer : D
50. Past ME Board Question
A tank contains H2O. What is the intensity of pressure at a depth of 6 meters?
A. 68 kPa
 B. 58.8 kPa
C. 78.0 kPa
D. 48.7 kPa
Answer : B
51. Past ME Board Question
In order to avoid cavitation the NPSH of an installation should be :
A. at least equal or greater than the NPSH of the pump
B. at least equal or less than NPSH of the pump
C. equal to the NPSH of the pump
D. greater than the NPSH of the pump only
Answer : A
52. Past ME Board Question
The actual head, neglecting the kinetic energy in which the pump work against.
A. delivery head
B. pressure head
C. velocity head
D. suction head
Answer : B
53. Past ME Board Question
Flow of water in a pipe have a velocity at 10 meters per second. Determine the velocity
head of the water
A. 50.1 meters
B. 5.1 meters
C. 8.2 meters
D. 100 meters
Answer : B
54. Past ME Board Question
Find the velocity head for a velocity of 18 m/s.
A. 33.0 m
B. 0.92 m
C. 1.8 m
D. 16.5 m
Answer : D
55. Past ME Board Question
The size of a steam reciprocating pumps is generally designated by a three-digit number
size as 646. The first digit designates
A. stroke of the pump in inches
B. inside diameter of the steam cylinder measured in inches
C. percent clearance
D. number of cylinders
Answer :B
56. Past ME Board Question
If Qa is the actual discharge flow and Qb is the theoretical discharge flow, what will be the
coefficient of discharge be equal to during positive displacement slip?
A. Qa x Qb
B. Qb/Qa
C. Qa/Qb
D. 1 – Qa/Qb
Answer : C
57. Past ME Board Question
Two pumps are connected in series. If Qa is the discharge of Pump 1 and Q2 is the
discharge of Pump 2 where Q1<Q2, what is the discharge?
A. Q2
B. Q1
C. Q1 + Q2
D. Q1/Q2
Answer : A
58. A pump in which the pressure is developed principally by the action of centrifugal force.
A. Centrifugal pump
B. End suction pump
C. In line pump
D. Horizontal pump
Answer : A
59. A single suction pump having its suction nozzle on the opposite side of the casing from the
stuffing box and having the face of the suction nozzle perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of
the shaft.
A. Centrifugal pump
B. End suction pump
C. In line pump
D. Horizontal pump
Answer : B
60. A pump with the shaft normally in a horizontal position.
A. Centrifugal pump
B. End suction pump
C. In line pump
D. Horizontal pump
Answer : D
61. A centrifugal pump whose drive unit is supported by the pump having its suction and
discharge flanges on approximately the same center.
A. Horizontal split case pump
B. End suction pump
C. In line pump
D. Vertical shaft turbine pump
Answer : C
62. A centrifugal pump characterized by a housing which is split parallel to the shaft.
A. Horizontal split case pump
B. End suction pump
C. In line pump
D. Vertical shaft turbine pump
Answer : A
63. A centrifugal pump with one or more impellers discharging into one or more bowls and a
vertical educator or column pipe use to connect the bowls to the discharge head on which the
pump driver is mounted.
A. Horizontal split case pump
B. End suction pump
C. In line pump
 D. Vertical shaft turbine pump
Answer : D
64. A pump that takes suction from a public service main or private use water system for the
purpose of increasing the effective water pressure.
A. Horizontal split case pump
B. Submersible pump
C. Booster pump
D. Vertical shaft turbine pump
Answer : C
65. A vertical turbine pump with the pump and motor closed coupled and design to be installed
underground, as in the case of a deepwell pump.
A. Horizontal split case pump
B. Submersible pump
C. Booster pump
D. Vertical shaft turbine pump
Answer : A
66. An underground formation that contains sufficient saturated permeable material to yield
significant quantities of water.
A. Aquifer
B. Wet pit
C. Ground water
D. Well water
Answer : A
67. A timber, concrete or masonry enclosure having a screened inlet kept partially filled with
water by an open body of water such as pond, lake, or streams.
A. Aquifer
B. Wet pit
C. Ground water
D. Well water
Answer : B
68. Water which is available from a well, driven into water bearing subsurface strata (aquifer)
A. Aquifer
B. Wet pit
 C. Ground water
D. Well water
Answer : C
69. The level with respect to the pump of the body of water from which it takes suction when the
pump is not in operation.
A. static water level
B. pumping water level
C. suction head
D. discharge head
Answer : A
70. The level with respect to the pump, of the body of water from which it takes suction when
the pump is in operation.
A. static water level
B. pumping water level
C. suction head
D. drawdown
Answer : B
71. The vertical difference between the pumping water level and static water level.
A. static water level
B. pumping water level
C. suction head
D. drawdown
Answer : D
72. Imparts velocity to the liquid, resulting from centrifugal force as the impeller is rotated.
A. impeller
B. casing
C. stuffing box
D. shaft sleeve
Answer : A
73. Gives direction to the flow from the impeller and converts this velocity into pressure energy.
A. impeller
B. casing
 C. stuffing box
D. shaft sleeve
Answer : B
74. A means of throttling the leakage which would otherwise occur at the point of entry of the
shaft into the casing.
A. impeller
B. casing
C. stuffing box
D. shaft sleeve
Answer : B
75. Protects the shaft where it passes through the stuffing box.
A. impeller
B. casing
C. stuffing box
D. shaft sleeve
Answer : D
76. Keeps internal recirculation down to a minimum.
A. wearing rings
B. bearings
C. frame
D. coupling
Answer : A
77. Accurately locate shaft and carry radial and thrust loads.
A. wearing rings
B. bearings
C. frame
D. coupling
Answer : B
78. Which of the following is used to mount unit rigidly and support bearings.
A. wearing rings
B. stuffing box
C. frame
 D. coupling
Answer : C
79. Connects the pump to the driver.
A. wearing rings
B. bearings
C. frame
D. coupling
Answer : D
80. The most common means of throttling the leakage between the inside and outside of the
casing
A. packing
B. gland
C. seal gage
D. mechanical seal
Answer : A
81. To position and adjust the packing pressure.
A. packing
B. gland
C. seal gage
D. mechanical seal
Answer : B
82. Provides passage to distribute the sealing medium uniformly around the portion of the shaft
that passes through the stuffing box. Also known as water seal of lantern ring.
A. packing
B. gland
C. seal gage
D. mechanical seal
Answer : C

83. Provides a mechanical sealing arrangement that takes the place of packing.
A. packing
 B. gland
C. seal gage
D. mechanical seal
Answer : D
84. A positive displacement pump consisting of a fix casing containing gears, cams, screws,
vanes, plungers, or similar elements actuated by rotation of the drive shaft.
A. Rotary pumps
B. Reciprocating pumps
C. Deep well pumps
D. Centrifugal pumps
Answer : A
85.A positive displacement unit wherein the pumping action is accomplished by the forward and
backward movement of a position or plunger inside a cylinder usually provided with valves.
A. Rotary pumps
B. Reciprocating pumps
C. Deep well pumps
D. Centrifugal pumps
Answer : B
86. A type of rotary pump, consist of an eccentrically bored cam rotated by a shaft concentric in
a cylindrically bored casing, with an aburment or follower so arranged that with each rotation of
the drive shaft a positive quantity of liquid is displaced from the space between the cam and the
pump casing.
A. Cam and piston pump
B. Gear pump
C. Screw pump
D. Vane pump

Answer : A
87. A type of rotary pump, consists of two or more gears, operating in closely fitted casing so
arranged that when the gear teeth unmesh on one side liquid fills the space between the gear
teeth and is carried around in the tooth space to the opposite side and displaced as the teeth
mesh again.
A. Cam and piston pump
B. Gear pump
C. Screw pump
 D. Vane pump
Answer : B
88. A type of rotary pump, consists of two or three screw rotors so arranged that as the rotors
turn liquid fills the shape between the screw threads and is displaced axially as the rotor threads
mesh.
A. Cam and piston pump
B. Gear pump
C. Screw pump
D. Vane pump
Answer : C
89. A type of rotary pump, consists of one rotor in a casing machined eccentrically to the drive
shaft. The rotor is fitted with a series of vanes, blades or buckets which follow the bore of the
casing thereby displacing the liquid with each revolution of the drive shaft.
A. Cam and piston pump
B. Gear pump
C. Screw pump
D. Vane pump
Answer : D
90. A type of reciprocating pump having a steam cylinder with no lap on valves, a water cylinder
and a common piston rod.
A. Direct acting steam pump
B. Crank and flywheel reciprocating pump
C. Power driven pump
D. Piston pump
Answer : A
91. A type of reciprocating pump driven by compound cross compound, or triple expansion
steam engines.
A. Direct acting steam pump
B. Crank and flywheel reciprocating pump
C. Power driven pump
D. Piston pump
Answer : B
92. A type of reciprocating pump that receives its forward and backward motion of the piston
and plunger from the rotary motion of a revolving crankshaft by means of a crank and
connecting rod.
A. Direct acting steam pump
B. Crank and flywheel reciprocating pump
C. Power driven pump
D. Piston pump
Answer : C
93. A type of deep well pump which are refinement of the old hand pump that have played such
an important role in the country home and small town water supply from wells.
A. Plunger pump
B. Turbine pump
C. Ejector centrifugal pump
D. Air lift
Answer : A
94. A type of deep well pump that represent the application of vertical centrifugal pump to deep
well service and are built for heads up to 305 meters and for capacities up to 26,495 liters per
minute.
A. Plunger pump
B. Turbine pump
C. Ejector centrifugal pump
D. Air lift
Answer : B
95. A type of deep well pump that has come into wide use for small capacities combines a
single stage centrifugal pump at the top of the well and an ejector or jet located down in the
water.
A. Plunger pump
B. Turbine pump
C. Ejector centrifugal pump
D. Air lift
96. A type of deep well pump wherein compressed air is admitted to the well to lift water to the
surface, for successful operation of the system, the discharge pipe must have its lower end
submerged in the well water.
A. Plunger pump
B. Turbine pump
 C. Ejector centrifugal pump
D. Air lift
Answer : D

CHAPTER 13
HEAT TRANSFER

1. One of the reasons for insulating the pipes is:

A. They may not break under pressure
B. There is minimum corrosion
C. Capacity to withstand pressure is increased
D. Heat loss from the surface is minimized

Answer: D
2. The rate of radiant energy, that is emitted by a surface at any temperature and in
small wavelengths is found from the known rate of energy, that under the same
conditions will be emitted from a black surface, by multiplying with the
absorptivity. The above enunciation is called:
A. Lambert’s Law
B. Kirchhoff’s Law
C. Planck’s Law
D. Stefan Boltzmann’s Law

Answer: B
3. Which of the following is generally used to measure the temperature inside the
furnace?
A. Mercury thermometer
B. Alcohol thermometer
C. Ash thermometer
D. Optical pyrometer

Answer: D
4. All heat transfer processes:
A. Involve transfer of energy
B. Involve temperature difference between the bodies
C. Obey first law of thermodynamics
D. Obey second law of thermodynamics
Answer: B
5. What is thermal diffusivity?
A. A mathematical formula
B. A physical property of the material
C. A configuration for heat conduction
D. A dimensionless parameter

Answer: B
6. Which of the following is a unit of thermal diffusivity?
A. m²/hr
B. kcal/m²hr
C. kcal/m²hrºC
D. m²/hrºC

Answer: A
7. Non-isotropic conductivity is shown by which of the following?
A. Bass
B. Copper
C. Wood
D. Steel

Answer: C
8. For glass wool thermal conductivity changes from sample to sample due
changes in:
A. Structure
B. Density
C. Composition
D. All of the above

Answer: D
9. Which of the following is the S.I. unit of thermal conductivity?
A. W/m-hr-ºK
B. W/mºK
C. KJ/m-hr-ºC
D. W/m-hr-ºC

Answer: B
10. What is the value of the Prandt’l number for air?
A. 10
B. 6.7
 C. 67
D. 0.7

Answer: D
11. According to Prevost theory of heat exchange,
A. It is impossible to transfer heat from low temperature source to high
temperature source.
B. Heat transfer by radiation needs no medium
C. All bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
D. Heat transfer in most of the cases occurs by combination of conduction,
convection and radiation

Answer: C
12. Thermal conductivity of wood depends on which of the following?
A. Moisture
B. Temperature
C. Density
D. All of the above

Answer: D
13. A fur coat on an animal will help the animal to remain:
A. Warm in winter
B. Cool in winter
C. Warm in summer
D. Cool in summer

Answer: A
14. The nature of flow of a fluid inside a tube, whether it is turbulent or laminar, can
be ascertained by:
A. Flow velocity
B. Surface conditions
C. Viscosity of fluid
D. Reynolds number

Answer: D
15. By which of the following modes of heat transfer is the Stefan-Boltzmann law
applicable?
A. Conduction
B. Radiation
C. Conduction and radiation combined
 D. Convection and radiation combined

Answer: B
16. At all wave lengths and temperatures the monochromatic emissivity of a white
body is equal to:
A. Zero
B. 0.5
C. Unity
D. 0.1 to 0.5

Answer: A
17. The radiation from flames is having
A. Continuous radiation from burning spot particles of microscopic and
submicroscopic dimensions
B. Radiation from suspended larger particles of coal, coke, or ash contributing
to flame lumininossity
C. Infared radiation from water vapor and carbon dioxide
D. All of the above

Answer: D
18. The statement that the emissivity and absorptivity of a surface is surrounded by
its own temperature are the same for both monochromatic and total radiation is
called:
A. Lambert’s law
B. Kirchhoff’s law
C. D’ Alambart’s
D. Law of emissivity

Answer: B
19. A reservoir that supplies energy in the form of heat is called:
A. Source
B. Sink
C. Cold reservoir
D. Heat reservoir

Answer: A
20. In regenerator type heat exchanger, heat transfer occurs by:
A. Direct mixing of hot and cold fluids
B. A complete separation between hot and cold fluids
C. Flow of hot and cold fluids alternately over a surface
 D. Generation of heat again and again

Answer: C
21. Least value of Prandt’l number can be excepted in case of ________.
A. Liquid metals
B. Sugar solution
C. Salt solution
D. Water

Answer: A
22. “The boiling point of a solution is a linear function of water at the same pressure.”
The above statement is called ________.
A. Dubring’s rule
B. Petit and Dulong’s law
C. Fick’s rule
D. Reynold’s law

Answer: A
23. Floating heads are provided in heat exchangers to
A. Increase the pressure drop
B. Decrease the pressure drop
C. Facilitate maintenance
D. Avoid deformation of tubes because of thermal expansion

Answer: D
24. What do you call the first stage of crystal formation?
A. Nucleation
B. Foaming
C. Separation
D. Vortexing

Answer: A
25. In heat exchanger design, on transfer unit implies:
A. One fluid which is exchanging with another fluid of the same chemical
composition
B. The section of heat exchanger which will cause temperature drop of one
degree centigrade
C. The section of heat exchanger where heat transfer surface area has been
one square meter
 D. Condition when the change in temperature of one steam is numerically equal
to the average driving force

Answer: D
26. Dritus Boelter equation can be applied in case of fluids flowing in:
A. Transition region
B. Turbulent region
C. Laminar region
D. Any of the above

Answer: B
27. In sugar mills can just is evaporated in:
A. Zigzag tube evaporators
B. Long vertical tube evaporators
C. Short vertical tube evaporators
D. Horizontal tube evaporators

Answer: B
28. A 1-2 heat exchanger refers to which of the following?
A. Single pass on shell side and double pass on tube side
B. Single pass on tube side and double pass on shell side
C. Single liquid cools two liquids at different temperature
D. Two tubes of cold fluid pass through one tube of hot fluid

Answer: A
29. A correction of LMTD is essential in case of:
A. Parallel flow heat exchanger
B. Counter current heat exchanger
C. Cross flow heat exchanger
D. None of the above

Answer: C
30. Which of the following is used as entrainer in acetic acid – water separation?
A. Methyl alcohol
B. Phosphorus
C. Butyl acetate
D. Hexane

Answer: C
31. A type of radiation consisting of singly charged particles that generate to
intermediate distances.
A. Nuclear radiation
B. Alpha radiation
C. Beta radiation
D. Gamma radiation

Answer: C
32. An electrically charged atom or radical which carries electricity through an
electrolyte is called:
A. Ion
B. Isotope
C. Molecule
D. Hole

Answer: A
33. The energy of a body that can be traqnsmitted in the form of heat.
A. Heat energy
B. Thermal energy
C. Entropy
D. Internal energy

Answer: B
34. In an isometric process, the heat transferred is equal to:
A. Change in enthalpy
B. change in entropy
C. change in internal energy
D. work nonflow

Answer: C
35. A substance that is able to absorb liquids or gases and is used for removing
them from a given medium or region.
A. Absorbent
B. Cohesive
C. Adsorbent
D. Adhesive

Answer: A
36. Radiant heat transfer is described by:
A. Newton’s law
 B. Fourier’s law
C. The logarithmic mean temperature
D. Kirchhoff’s law

Answer: D
37. A reservoir that absorbs energy in the form of heat is called ______.
A. Source
B. Sink
C. Cold reservoir
D. Heat reservoir

Answer: B
38. When the entire heat exchanger is selected as control volume, heat becomes
_______.
A. Unity
B. zero
C. Undefined
D. Indeterminate

Answer: B
39. Heat is conducted in the direction of:
A. Increasing temperature
B. Decreasing temperature
C. Increasing and decreasing temperature
D. Constant temperature

Answer: B
40. The heat transfer term in the first law of thermodynamics may be due to any of
the following except:
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Internal heat generation (e.g., chemical reaction)

Answer: D
41. All heat transfer processes require a medium of energy exchange except:
A. Conduction
B. Natural convection
C. Forced convection
D. Radiation
Answer: D
42. Thermal conduction is described by:
A. Newton’s law
B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference
C. The Stefan-Boltzmann law
D. Fourier’s law

Answer: D
43. Convection is described by which of the following laws?
A. Newton’s law
B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference
C. The Stefan-Boltzmann law
D. Fourier’s law

Answer: A
44. Radiation heat transfer is described by:
A. Newton’s law
B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference
C. Fourier’s law
D. Kirchhoff’s law
Answer: D
45. The equivalent of ratio of emissive power to absorptivity for bodies in thermal
equilibrium is described by:
A. Newton’s law
B. The logarithmic mean temperature difference
C. Fourier’s law
D. Kirchhoff’s law

Answer: D
46. The temperature potential between temperature at the two ends of a heat
exchanger are given by:
A. The logarithmic mean temperature difference
B. The Stefan-Boltzmann law
C. Fourier’s law
D. Kirchhoff’s law

Answer: A
47. The function of a heat exchanger is to:
 A. Increase the water temperature entering the boiler and decrease combustion
requirements
B. Transfer heat from one fluid to another
C. Increase the total energy content of the flow
D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow

Answer: B
48. The function of a super heater is to:
A. Increase the water temperature entering the boiler and decrease combustion
requirements
B. Transfer heat from one fluid to another
C. Increase the total energy content of the flow
D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow

Answer: D
49. What is the series of processes that eventually bring the system back to its
original condition?
A. reversible process
B. irreversible process
C. cycle
D. isentropic process
Answer: C
50. Past ME Board Question
A theoretical body which when heated to incandescence would emit a continuous
light-ray spectrum.
A. Black body radiation
B. Black body
C. Blue body
D. White body
Answer: B
51. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following is the reason for insulating the pipes?
A. They may not break under pressure
B. There is minimum corrosion
C. Capacity to withstand pressure
D. Heat loss from the surface is minimized
Answer: D
52. Past ME Board Question
Heat transfer due to density differential
 A. Convection
B. Nuclear
C. Conduction
D. Radiation
Answer: A
53. Past ME Board Question
The term “exposure” in radiological is used as a measure of a gamma ray or an
X-ray field in the surface of an exposed object. Since this radiation produces
ionization of the air surrounding the object, the exposure is obtained as
A. number of ions produced per mass of air x coulombs per kg
B. mass of air x surface area of an exposed object
C. mass of air over surface area of an exposed object
D. number of ions produced per mass of air + coulombs per kg
Answer: A
54. Past ME Board Question
The passing of heat energy from molecule to molecule through a substance
A. conduction
B. radiation
C. conservation
D. convection
Answer: A
55. Past ME Board Question
The radiant heat transfer depends on:
A. Temperature
B. Heat rays
C. Heat flow from cold to hot
D. Humidity

Answer: B
56. Past ME Board Question
What kind of heat exchanger where water is heated to a point that dissolved
gases are liberated?
A. Evaporator
B. Condenser
C. Intercooler
D. Deaerator

Answer: D
57. Past ME Board Examination
 Heat transfer processes which include a change of phase of a fluid are
considered _________.
A. Convection
B. Thermal radiation
C. Conduction
D. Radiation

Answer: A
58. Past ME Board Question
A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air over its top surface. The heat that is first
transferred to the air layer close to the block is by conduction. It is eventually
carried away from the surface by ________.
A. Convection
B. Radiation
C. Conduction
D. Thermal radiation

Answer: A
59. Past ME Board Question
A body that is hot compared to its surroundings illuminates more energy than
they give. The heat is transferred from one to another by energy wave motion.
What is this mode of heat transfer?
A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Condensation

Answer: A
60. What is the heat transfer due to density differential?
A. Convection
B. Conduction
C. Nuclear
D. Radiation

Answer: A
61. What do you call the passing of heat energy from molecule to molecule through
substance?
A. Conduction
B. Conservation
C. Radiation
D. Convection
Answer: A
62. The transmission of heat from one place to another by fluid circulation between
the spots of different temperature is called ________.
A. Convection
B. Conservation
C. Radiation
D. Conduction

Answer: A
63. Which of the following requires the greatest amount of heat per kilogram for a
given increase in temperature?
A. Ice
B. Water
C. Steam
D. Copper

Answer: B
64. What do you call the effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at a given
temperature?
A. Absorptivity
B. Conductivity
C. Emissivity
D. Reflectivity

Answer: C
65. The natural direction of the heat between two reservoirs is dependent on which
of the following?
A. Their temperature difference
B. Their internal energy
C. Their pressures
D. Their states, whether solid, liquid and gas

Answer: A
66. Why are metals good conductors of heat?
A. Because they contain free electrons
B. Because their atoms are relatively far apart
C. Because their atoms collide infrequently
D. Because they have reflecting surfaces

Answer: A
67. In natural convection a heated portion of a fluids moves because:
A. Its molecular motions become aligned
B. Of molecular collisions within it
C. Its density is less than that of the surrounding fluid
D. Of currents in the surrounding fluid

Answer: C
68. In order to emit electromagnetic radiation, an object must be at a temperature:
A. Above 0 K
B. Above 0°C
C. Above that of its surroundings
D. High enough for it to glow

Answer: A
69. The rate at which an object radiates electromagnetic energy does depend on its:
A. Surface area
B. Mass
C. Temperature
D. Ability to absorb radiation

Answer: B
70. Sublimation refers to:
A. The vaporization of a solid without first becoming liquid
B. The melting of a solid
C. The vaporization of a solid
D. The condensation of a gas into liquid

Answer: A
71. In the process of freeze dying, ice goes directly into water vapor. What is the
temperature at which this process can take place?
A. Below the triple point of water
B. At the triple point of water
C. Above the triple point of water
D. Any of the above, depending on the pressure

Answer: A
72. What usually happen when a vapor condenses into a liquid?
A. It evolves heat
B. It generates heat
C. Its temperature increases
 D. It boils with temperature less than 100°C

Answer: A
73. In a cooling tower, the water is cooled mainly by:
A. Condensation
B. Convection
C. Evaporation
D. Conduction

Answer: C
74. How do you classify a body that has an emissivity factor of 0.7?
A. Gray body
B. Black body
C. White body
D. Theoretical body

Answer: A
75. At what particular condition that no more heat can that be removed from a
substance and the temperature can no longer be lowered?
A. Freezing point
B. Absolute zero
C. Critical point
D. Ground zero

Answer: B
76. What refers to the heat transfer wherein the heat is transferred from one point to
another by actual movement of substance?
A. Conduction
B. Radiation
C. Convection
D. Absorption

Answer: C
77. The ratio of the radiation of actual body to the radiation of a blackbody is known
as ________.
A. Emittance
B. Reflectance
C. Absorptance
D. Transmittance
Answer: A
78. Which of the following is the usual geometric view factor for a black body?
A. Zero
B. Infinity
C. One
D. Indeterminate

Answer: C
79. What happens to the heat transferred radially across insulated pipe per unit
area?
A. The heat will flow at constant rate
B. Decreases with the increase in thermal conductivity
C. Decreases from pipe wall to insulated surface
D. Partially increases from pipe wall to insulated surface

Answer: C
80. What do you call a change of phase directly from vapor to solid without passing
through the liquid state?
A. Sublimation
B. Solidification
C. Vaporization
D. Deposition

Answer: D
81. Which of the following is the Stefan-Boltzmann constant?
A. 5.77 x 10ˉ W/m²K
B. 7.67 x 10ˉ W/m²K
C. 4.78 x 10ˉ W/m²K
D. 5.67 x 10ˉ W/m²K

Answer: D
82. What is the usual value of transmissivity for opaque materials?
A. 0
B. Indeterminate
C. 1
D. Infinity

Answer: A
83. A body whose emissivity is less than 1 is known as a real body. What is the other
term for real body?
 A. Gray body
B. White body
C. Black body
D. Theoretical body

Answer: A
84. What refers to an ideal body that absorbs all of the radiant energy that intrudes
on it and also emits the maximum possible energy when acting as a source?
A. White body
B. Black body
C. Gray body
D. Red hot body

Answer: B
85. The thermal resistance for one dimensional steady conduction heat transfer
through cylindrical wall in the radial direction is expressed in which of the
following functions?
A. Linear
B. Exponential
C. Logarithm
D. Trigonometric

Answer: C
86. The law which states that “the ratio of the emissive powers to absorptivities are
equal when the two bodies are in thermal equilibrium” is known as:
A. Stefan-Boltzmann law
B. Newton’s law of convection
C. Fourier’s law
D. Kirchhoff’s law of radiation

Answer: D
87. It refers to the ratio of the internal thermal resistance of a solid to the boundary
layer thermal resistance (or external resistance of the body).
A. Biot number
B. Prandtl number
C. Nusselt number
D. Reynolds number

Answer: A
88. It refers to the ratio of the rate of heat transferred by conduction to the rate of
energy stored.
A. Reynolds number
B. Fourier’s number
C. Biot number
D. Prandtl number

Answer: B
89. A hot block is cooled by blowing cool air over its top surface. The heat that is first
transferred to the air layer close to the block is by conduction. It is eventually
carried away from the surface by:
A. Conduction
B. Radiation
C. Thermal
D. Convection

Answer: D
90. It is term used to describe the energy of a body that can be transmitted in the
form of heat.
A. Enthalpy
B. Thermal energy
C. Entropy
D. Internal energy

Answer: B
91. Which of the following is the equivalent heat transferred of a gas undergoing
isometric process?
A. Change in enthalpy
B. Change in entropy
C. Change in internal energy
D. Work nonflow

Answer: C
92. What do you call a substance that is able to absorb liquids or gases and is
usually used for removing liquids (or gases) from a given medium or region?
A. Absorbent
B. Liquefier
C. Adsorbent
D. Adhesive

Answer: A
93. In which direction that heat is transferred through conduction?
A. Increasing temperature
B. Decreasing temperature
C. Increasing and decreasing temperature
D. Constant temperature

Answer: B
94. Which of the following statements is based on Prevost theory of heat exchange?
A. All bodies above absolute zero emit radiation
B. The substance moves because of the decrease in its density which is caused
by increase of temperature
C. The substance moves because of the application of mechanical power such
as a fan
D. Heat transfer in most of the cases occurs in combination of conduction,
convection and radiation

Answer: A
95. Which of the following is the emissivity of white body ?
A. Zero
B. 0.5
C. 1
D. 0<e<1

Answer: A
96. The mechanism of heat transfer in which there is no medium (i.e. water, air, solid
concrete) required for the heat energy to travel is:
A. Conduction
B. Radiation
C. Convection
D. Diffusion

Answer: B
97. The temperature potential between temperature at the two ends of a heat
exchanger are given by:
A. The algorithmic mean temperature difference
B. The Stefan-Boltzmann law
C. Fourier’s law
D. Kirchhoff’s law

Answer: A
98. Which of the following best describe function of heat exchanger?
A. Increase the water temperature entering the system
B. Transfer heat from one fluid to another
C. Evaluate the total energy content of the flow
D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow

Answer: B
99. What refers to a form of energy associated with the kinetic random motion of
large number of molecules?
A. Heat
B. Heat of fusion
C. Entropy
D. Internal energy

Answer: A
100. How much is the part of light that is absorbed by the body that transmits
and reflects 80% and 10% respectively?
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 20%
D. 5%

Answer: A
101. In convection heat transfer, what happens to the heat transfer coefficient if
the viscosity of the fluid increases?
A. The heat transfer coefficient will increase
B. The heat transfer coefficient will decrease
C. The heat transfer coefficient remains constant
D. None of the above

Answer: B
102. How do you call a phenomenon wherein the heat is transferred by motion
of fluid under the action of mechanical device?
A. Forced convection
B. Natural convection
C. Forced conduction
D. Thermal radiation

Answer: A
103. In condition heat transfer, what happens to the heat transfer per unit time
when the thermal conductivity decreases?
A. The heat flow will increase
B. The heat flow remains constant
C. The heat flow will decrease
D. The heat flow will partially increase and then will decrease

Answer: C
104. Which of the following is the driving force in heat transfer?
A. Temperature gradient
B. Thickness gradient
C. Viscosity gradient
D. Dielectric gradient

Answer: A
105. Which of the following is the measure of the relative effectiveness of
momentum and energy transport by diffusion in the velocity and thermal
boundary layer?
A. Nusselt’s number
B. Prandtl number
C. Reynold’s number
D. Dimensional measurement

Answer: B
106. Which of the following is the property of the solid that provides the
measure of the rate of heat transfer to the energy storage?
A. Thermal efficiency
B. Thermal diffusivity
C. Thermal conductivity
D. Thermal radiography

Answer: B
107. Two metals were kept together at room temperature and it was found out
that one is colder than one another. Which of the following is the best reason why
one metal is colder than the other?
A. The heat transfer coefficient of one metals is of higher
B. One metal is of lower temperature as compared to the other
C. One metal is of higher temperature as compared to the other
D. The thermal conductivity of one metal is high as compared to the other

Answer: D
108. In convection heat transfer, what happens to the heat transfer coefficient if
the viscosity of the fluid decreases?
A. The heat transfer coefficient also increases
B. The heat transfer coefficient will decrease
C. The heat transfer coefficient remains constant
D. The heat transfer coefficient partially increases the decreases

Answer: A
109. A body that is hot compared to its surroundings illuminates more energy
than it receives, while its surrounding absorbs more energy than they give. The
heat is transferred from one to another by energy of wave motion. What is this
mode of heat transfer?
A. Radiation
B. Conduction
C. Convection
D. Condensation

Answer: A
110. What do you call theoretical body where absorptivity and emissivity are
independent of the wavelength over the spectral region of the irradiation and the
surface emission?
A. White body
B. Opaque body
C. Black body
D. Transparent body

Answer: D
111. Which of the following is the structure designed to prevent the spread of
the having a fire resistance rating of not less than four hours?
A. Fire escape
B. Fire exit
C. Fire shield
D. Fire wall

Answer: D
112. Which of the following heat exchange device used to provide heat transfer
between the exhaust gases and air prior to the entrance of a combustor?
A. Regenerator
B. Economizer
C. Condenser
 D. Reheater

Answer: A
113. Which of the following transfer of heat is involve in changing of boiling
water (at 100°C) to vapor at the same temperature?
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Radiation
D. Evaporation

Answer: B
114. Which of the following is the science of the temperature?
A. Cryogenics
B. Thermo-kinetics
C. Thermodynamics
D. Ergonomics

Answer: A
115. Which of the following thermal state of the body considered as reference
to communicate heat to the other bodies?
A. Temperature
B. Pressure
C. Internal energy
D. Entropy

Answer: A
116. The true mean temperature different is also known as:
A. The average mean temperature difference
B. The algorithmic mean temperature difference
C. The trigonometric mean temperature difference
D. The exponential temperature difference

Answer: B
117. Which of the following can be a geometric view factor of a gray body?
A. Greater than one
B. Less than one
C. Equal to one
D. Greater than zero but less than one

Answer: D
118. The heat transfer by conduction occurs in which of the following?
A. Only in liquids
B. Only in solids
C. Only in liquids and gases
D. In solids, liquid and gases

Answer: D
119. Which of the following reasons why one gram of steam at 100°C causes
more serious burn than gram of water at 100°C?
A. Steam is less dense than boiling water
B. The steam has higher specific heat
C. Steam contains more internal energy
D. Steam is everywhere thus it strikes greater force

Answer: C
120. What usually happens when vapor condenses into liquid?
A. It absorbs heat
B. It rejects heat
C. Its temperature increases
D. Its temperature decreases

Answer: B
121. Which of the following has the highest thermal conductivity?
A. Mercury
B. Gasoline
C. Water
D. Alcohol

Answer: A
122. Which of the following is the requirement of the temperature of a body for
it to emit radiation?
A. Above zero Celsius
B. Above zero kelvin
C. Above of the temperature of the surroundings
D. High enough for it to glow

Answer: B
123. Which of the following is the color of iron when it is heated to a highest
temperature?
A. White
 B. Red
C. Orange
D. Yellow

Answer: A
124. Which of the following is the reason why metals are good conductors of
heat?
A. Metals contain free electrons
B. Metals have atoms the frequently collide one another
C. Metals have reflecting surfaces
D. Atoms in metals are very far to each other

Answer: A
125. The rate at which heat flows through a slab of some material does not
depend on which of the following?
A. The thickness of the slab
B. The area of the slab
C. The temperature difference between two faces
D. The specific heat of the material

Answer: D
126. Which of the following is the primary function of a thermal radiator?
A. To transferring the heat by using moving fluids
B. To transfer heat from hot to cold body by using a forced-draft fan
C. To transfer heat by allowing molecules to vibrate one to another
D. To transfer heat with or without a medium

Answer: D
127. What is the reason why Styrofoam is a good insulating material?
A. Because it contains many tiny pocket of air
B. Styrofoam is a white object
C. The structure of Styrofoam is very unstable and heat cannot flow
D. Styrofoam structure is very dense

Answer: A
128. What usually happens to the surroundings when water vapor condenses?
A. It warms the surrounding
B. The surrounding temperature decreases
C. It neither warm nor cold the surrounding
D. The surroundings will be dehumidified
Answer: A
129. The rate of radiation does not depend on which of the following?
A. Temperature of the radiating body
B. The emissivity of the radiation surface
C. The area of the radiating body
D. The thickness of the radiating body

Answer: D
130. Which of the following is not a good conductor of heat?
A. Metals
B. Rocks
C. Glass
D. Asbestos

Answer: D
131. Which of the following is not a unit of the rate of heat transfer?
A. Watt
B. Btu per hour
C. Cal/s
D. Btu/Hp-hr

Answer: D

132. The thermal conductivity does not depend on which of the following?
A. Chemical composition
B. Physical state or texture
C. Temperature and pressure
D. Gravitational pull

Answer: D
133. In Maxwell’s theory for thermal conductivity of gases and vapors, which of
the following is the value of “a” for triatomic gases?
A. 1.7
B. 2.4
C. 1.3
D. 2.4

Answer: A
134. Which of the following conductivities where Sutherland equation is used?
A. Thermal conductivities of solids
 B. Thermal conductivities of gases
C. Thermal conductivities of metals
D. Thermal conductivities of liquids

Answer: B
135. For pure metals, what happens to the thermal conductivity if the
temperature is extremely high?
A. Approaches infinity
B. Decreases except for ferrous metals
C. Almost constant except for ferromagnetic materials
D. Increases except for steel

Answer: C
136. Which of the following liquids that has the highest thermal conductivity?
A. Gasoline
B. Glycerin
C. Water
D. Alcohol

Answer: C
137. Which of the following is not a heat exchanger?
A. Condenser
B. Boilers
C. Evaporators
D. Water hammer

Answer: D
138. Which of the following heat exchangers where fluid flow in the same
direction and both are of changing temperatures?
A. Parallel flow
B. Cross flow
C. Counter flow
D. Mixed flow

Answer: A
139. What happens to the thermal conductivity of diatomic gases if the
temperature is increase?
A. The thermal conductivity will also increase
B. The thermal conductivity decreases
C. The thermal conductivity remains constant
 D. The thermal conductivity partially increases then decreases

Answer: A
140. What device is used to measure the amount of infrared radiation in each
portion of a person’s skin that is emitted?
A. Thermograph
B. Thermometer
C. Pyrometer
D. Potentiometer

Answer: A
141. The heat transfer by convection occurs in which of the following?
A. Only in gases
B. Only in liquids
C. Only in gases and liquids
D. Only in gases and solids

Answer: C
142. In convection heat transfer, what mechanism heat transfer where the fluid
moves due to the decrease in its density caused by increase in temperature?
A. Forced convection
B. Natural convection
C. Density convection
D. Radial convection

Answer: B

CHAPTER 14
REFRIGERATION

1. Which of the following could be used to check a leak in an ammonia system?

A. Litmus paper
B. Halide torch
C. Sulfur stick
D. A and C
Answer: D
2. Ammonia leaks in the condenser can be detected by :
 A. smelling the discharge water
B. applying litmus paper to the circulating water
C. adding oil peppermint to the system and tracing the smell
D. applying a soapy solution to the condenser heads and looking for bubbles
Answer: B
3. A sulfur stick burning in the presence of ammonia will give off a _______.
A. dense yellow smoke
B. dense red smoke
C. dense white smoke
D. dense green smoke
Answer: C
4. An ammonia leak will turn litmus paper ________.
A. blue
B. green
C. red
D. yellow
Answer: A
5. In an ammonia system the oil gauge must be kept.
A. closed except when checking oil level
B. open at all times
C. close when machine is shut down
D. open when machine is shut down
Answer: A
6. Valves and piping in an ammonia system are made of :
A. brass
B. bronze
C. iron
D. copper
Answer: C
7. The relief valve on an ammonia machine is located :
A. on the discharge pipe from the condenser
 B. on the discharge pipe from the compressor
C. in the compressor head
D. A and B
Answer: C
8. When purging an ammonia condenser into a bucket of water, one can tell when the air is out
of ammonia starts to come through by the :
A. smell of the ammonia being liberated from the water
B. color of the water turning green
C. color of the water turning bluish
D. change of bubbling sound of air to the crackling sound of ammonia
Answer: D
9. The crossover connection in an ammonia system can be used to _______.
A. hot-gas defrost
B. pump air out of the system
C. add refrigerant to the system
D. reduce the pressure on the discharge side of the condenser
Answer: A

10. How is an ammonia system purged so that operator will not be overcome by the fumes?
A. Into a bucket of lube oil
B. Back into the compressor
C. Into a bucket of water
D. Into the atmospheric line
Answer: C
11. Thermal expansion valves are usually of the :
A. diaphragm
B. magnetic type
C. bellows type
D. A or C
Answer: D
12. When checking zinc plates in a condenser, one should :
A. install all new plates
 B. clean the plates and renew worn out ones
C. ground each plate to the shell
D. paint the plates with red lead
Answer: C
13. The scale trap is located between the :
A. compressor and oil separator
B. expansion valve and evaporators coil
C. king (liquid) valve and expansion valve
D. evaporator coils and compressor
Answer: C
14. When the evaporator coils are located in the icebox, the system is known as :
A. indirect system
B. direct system
C. high-pressure system
D. low-pressure system
Answer: B
15. The purge valve is located :
A. on the receiver discharge
B. in the highest part of the system
C. in the lowest part of the system
D. on the evaporators coils
Answer: B
16. The solenoid valve is :
A. a pressure-controlled stop valve
B. a temperature-controlled stop valve
C. a Freon-controlled check valve
D. none of the above
Answer: B
17. The thermal expansion valve is located between the :
A. solenoid valve and evaporator coils
B. charging valve and the solenoid valve
 C. receiver and the king valve
D. king valve and the solenoid valve
Answer: A
18. The purpose of the scale trap is to :
A. dissolved scale and dirt in the system
B. remove insoluble gases from the refrigerant
C. remove dirt, scale and metal chips from the refrigerant
D. control the amount of scale going to the compressor
Answer: C
19. The oil separator (trap) is located between the :
A. compressor discharge valve and the condenser
B. receiver and the expansion valve
C. receiver and the king valve
D. condenser and the receiver
Answer: A
20. The charging connection in a refrigerating system is located :
A. before the receiver
B. between the condenser and the receiver
C. between the receiver and the king valve
D. between the king valve and the solenoid valve
Answer: D
21. The dehydrator is located between the
A. condenser and receiver
B. receiver and the expansion valve
C. condenser and the king valve
D. receiver and the king valve
Answer: B
22. The charging valve is located between the :
A. king valve and the expansion valve
B. evaporator coils and the compressor
C. compressor and the receiver
 D. receiver and the condenser
Answer: A
23. The solenoid valve is located between the :
A. thermal expansion valve and the evaporator
B. scale trap and the thermal expansion valve
C. king valve and the scale trap
D. automatic and manual expansion valves
Answer: B
24. A device used to keep moisture from passing through the system is called :
A. humidifier
B. dehydrator
C. aerator
D. trap
Answer: B
25. The relief valve is located on the :
A. discharge side on the condenser
B. outlet of the evaporator coils
C. receiver tank
D. discharge side of the compressor
Answer: D
26. The dehydrator is used :
A. to remove moisture from the system
B. when adding refrigerant to the system
C. to remove air from the system
D. A and B
Answer: D
27. Which of the following is another name for the liquid valve?
A. Freon valve
B. king valve
C. shutoff valve
D. master valve
Answer: B
28. If no gasket are used in the piping joints of a Freon system, the joints must be :
A. welded joints
B. finished joints
C. ground joints
D. soldered joints
Answer: C
29. A device for holding open the suction valve and drawing gas from the suction manifold and
returning it to the suction line without compressing it is called _____.
A. relief valve
B. suction line by-pass
C. cylinder unloader
D. discharge line by-pass
Answer: C
30. The solenoid valve can be typed as a ____.
A. bellows valve
B. bimetallic valve
C. thermal valve
D. magnetic valve
Answer: D
31. The bulb for the thermal expansion valve is located
A. near the evaporator coil outlet
B. in the middle of evaporator coils
C. near the evaporator coil inlet
D. on the bottom row of evaporator coils
Answer: A
32. The elements of a thermostat switch are usually of the ____.
A. pilot-valve type
B. bimetal type
C. diaphragm type
D. valve type
Answer: B
33. The expansion valve is located between the
A. compressor and condenser
B. evaporator and compressor
C. receiver and evaporator
D. condenser and receiver
Answer: C
34. The oil separator is located between the
A. condenser and dehydrator
B. compressor and condenser
C. evaporator and compressor
D. solenoid valve and thermal expansion valve
Answer: B
35. Zinc rods are found in the
A. salt-water side of condenser
B. compressor crankcase
C. evaporator coils
D. refrigerant side of condenser
Answer: A
36. A double-trunk piston is used to
A. prevent oil from mixing with the refrigerant
B. absorb some of the side thrust
C. prevent gas from getting to crankcase
D. all of the above
Answer: D
37. Which of the following gasket materials should be used on a Freon system?
A. Asbestos
B. Metallic
C. Rubber
D. A and B
Answer: D
38. Many pressure gauges on a Freon system have two dials or graduations on one gauge. The
two dials represent
 A. suction and discharge pressure
B. pressure and temperature
C. liquid and gas pressure
D. cooling water inlet and outlet temperatures
Answer: B
39. A double-pipe condenser has ________.
A. two pipes for cooling water and one for refrigerant
B. a small pipe inside a larger pipe, the cooling water passing through the small pipe and
the refrigerant through the large pipe
C. two piping system side by side, one with cooling water and one with refrigerant
D. none of the above
Answer: B
40. When there is a Freon leak, the halide torch will burn
A. orange
B. green
C. blue
D. white
Answer: B
41. Large leaks in a Freon system cannot always be detected with halide torch because it
changes color with the slightest amount of Freon present. A large leak can be detected easier
by applying _____.
A. sheets of litmus paper to all joints and watch for color change
B. a soapsuds solution, mixed with a little glycerin to hold the solution together, and
watch for bubbles
C. a thin layer of mineral oil to all joints and watch for bubbles
D. a lighted candle at the joints and watch for leaky spots blowing candle flame
Answer: B
42. The relief valve on a CO2 machine is located
A. next to the king valve
B. in the compressor head
C. on the discharge pipe between the compressor and the discharge valve
D. on the discharge pipe from the condenser
Answer: C
43. The discharge pressure of the compressor should be :
A. the pressure which corresponds to a temperature from 5˚F to 15 ˚F below that of the
condenser discharge
B. the pressure which corresponds to a temperature equal to that of the condenser
discharge
C. the pressure which corresponds to a temperature from 5˚F to 15 ˚F higher than the
condenser discharge
D. none of the above
Answer: C
44. The purpose of relief valves on the refrigerant machines is to :
A. by-pass the compressor when dehydrating
B. prevent overloading in the iceboxes
C. prevent excessive pressure in case of stoppage on the discharge side of the system
D. A and B
Answer: C
45. A leaky suction valve can usually be detected by
A. a higher suction pressure
B. a fluctuating suction pressure gauge
C. closing the suction valve having no effect on the suction pressure
D. any f the above
Answer: D
46. Too low suction pressure could be caused by
A. too much oil in the system
B. shortage of refrigerant gas
C. dirty scale traps
D. an y of the above
Answer: D
47. What do you call a system in which the evaporator coils are located in a brine solution and
the brine is pumped through the icebox?
A. an indirect system
B. a double-evaporator system
C. a direct system
D. a low-pressure system
Answer: A
48. Before securing a compressor to do a maintenance work on it, be sure to
A. purge the system
B. have space parts ready
C. pump down the system
D. B and C
Answer: D
49. Obstruction of the expansion valve is usually caused by
A. scale
B. congealed oil in the system
C. water in the system
D. any of the above
Answer: D
50. Excess frost on the evaporator coils
A. does not affect the system
B. take load off compressor
C. reduces efficiency of the plant
D. keeps the icebox cooler
Answer: C
51. Air circulation in the icebox is accomplished by the use of which of the following?
A. hollow sidewalls
B. diffuser fans
C. louver doors
D. air vents to deck
Answer: B
52. The cooling-water side of the condenser should be opened for inspection every
A. six months
B. two years
C. year
D. three months
Answer: D
53. Some causes of a noisy compressor are
A. worn bearings, pins, etc.
B. slugging due to flooding back of refrigerant
C. too much oil in the crankcase
D. any of the above
Answer: D
54. If the thermal expansion valve becomes inoperative, the iceboxes will have to be controlled
by the ____.
A. king valve
B. manual expansion valve
C. manual solenoid valve
D. solenoid valve
Answer: B
55. Sweating of the crankcase is caused by which of the following?
A. too much oil in the system
B. insufficient superheat
C. too much superheat
D. expansion valve hung up
Answer: A
56. Which of the following is the usual cause of slugging ?
A. too much refrigerant in the system
B. too much oil in the system
C. expansion valve not operating properly
D. too much cooling water to condenser
Answer: C
57. What operates a low-pressure cutout switch?
A. bellows
B. spring tension
C. a magnet
D. water pressure
Answer: A
58. Which of the following must be checked up if an automatic Freon system will not start up?
 A. high-pressure cutout
B. reset mechanism
C. low-pressure cutout
D. all of the above
Answer: D
59. Which of the following is the probable cause of hot suction line ?
A. insufficient lubrication
B. too much refrigerant
C. insufficient refrigerant
D. expansion valve closed too much
Answer: C
60. What do you call the device that is used as a low-pressure control and high-pressure cutout
on a compressor?
A. pressure controller
B. controller switch
C. cutout
D. cutout switch
Answer: A
61. If the solenoid valve closed by accident, the compressor would be stopped by which of the
following?
A. automatic tip
B. low-pressure cutout switch
C. low-water cutout switch
D. high-pressure cutout switch
Answer: B
62. The purpose of the low-pressure cutout switch is to :
A. cut out the compressor at a set pressure
B. maintain a preset suction pressure to the compressor
C. maintain liquid refrigerant at the suction of the compressor
D. cut compressor in and out a preset pressure
Answer: D
63. If the cooling water to the condenser suddenly fails?
 A. an alarm will ring to notify the engineer
B. the compressor will shut down
C. the expansion valve will close
D. the solenoid valve will close
Answer: B
64. The most likely cause of high superheat would be
A. too much refrigerant
B. expansion valve open too wide
C. expansion valve closed too much
D. back-pressure valve is set to high
Answer: C
65. What do you call the liquid reaching the compressor through the suction?
A. superheating
B. overflowing
C. flooding back
D. recycling
Answer: C
66. The suction pressure switch is operated by which of the following?
A. electric current
B. pressure on a bellows
C. a relay cutout
D. thermocouple
Answer: B
67. If the compressor short-cycles on the high-pressure cutout, which of the following would you
check?
A. check for too much refrigerant in the system
B. if plenty og cooling water is running through but it is not picking up heat, the
condenser tubes need cleaning
C. be sure system is getting cooling water
D. all of the above
Answer: D
68. A Freon unit will tend to short-cycle when operating under :
 A. normal conditions
B. heavy foads
C. light loads
D. all of the above
Answer: C
69. Air is remove from the system by
A. opening the purge valve
B. increasing the amount of cooling water
C. running the refrigerant through an aerator
D. running the refrigerant through a deaerator
Answer: A
70. Short-cycling means that the machine
A. run to slow
B. stops and starts frequently
C. run too fast
D. ground out frequently
Answer: B
71. The suction pressure in a Freon system should be
A. the pressure which corresponds with a temperature about 20˚F above the
temperature of the icebox
B. the pressure which corresponds with a temperature about 20˚F below the
temperature of the icebox
C. the pressure which corresponds with a temperature of the icebox
D. none of the above
Answer: B
72. If any of the electrically controlled devices in a Freon system malfunction, which of the
following valve will also automatically shut off?
A. king valve
B. condenser cooling-water inlet valve
C. expansion valve
D. solenoid valve
Answer: D
73. A leaky discharge valve can usually be detected by
A. a drop in icebox temperature
B. a discharge pressure lower than normal
C. a fluctuating high-pressure gauge
D. any of the above
Answer: D
74. The dehydrating agent in a Freon system is usually
A. sodium chloride
B. calcium chloride
C. activated alumina
D. slaked lime
Answer: C
75. If the compressor short-cycles on the low-pressure cutout, the trouble might be :
A. too much frost on the evaporator coils
B. dirty traps and strainers
C. lack of refrigerant
D. any of the above
Answer: D
76. If an electrically operated compressor failed to start the cause might be :
A. a blown fuse
B. burned out holding coils in solenoid valve
C. an open switch
D. any of the above
Answer: d
77. The high-pressure side of the system is sometimes referred to as the
A. hot side
B. suction side
C. cold side
D. cooling side
Answer: A
78. If the compressor were to run continuously without lowering the temperature, the trouble
would probably be :
 A. leaky discharge valves
B. insufficient refrigerant in the system
C. leaks in the system
D. any of the above
Answer: D
79. Which of the following would cause a high head pressure?
A. a suction valve not open enough
B. too much cooling water
C. insufficient cooling water
D. icebox door left open
Answer: C
80. If frost forms on the cylinders, the cause would be
A. charging valve left open
B. expansion valve not open wide enough
C. expansion valve open too wide
D. dehydrator not working properly
Answer: C
81. Which of the following would cause low head pressure?
A. insufficient cooling water
B. too much cooling water
C. insufficient refrigerant gas
D. B and C
Answer: D
82. Too high suction pressure could be cause by
A. leaky suction vlaves
B. expansion valve bulb not working properly
C. expansion valve open too wide
D. any of the above
Answer: D
83. Which of the following would cause high pressure?
A. air in the condenser
 B. insufficient cooling water
C. dirty condenser
D. any of the above
Answer: D
84. an excessive high head pressure could be caused by
A. an insufficient cooling water to the condenser
B. insufficient cooling water to the evaporator coils
C. solenoid valve shutoff
D. too much cooling water to the condenser
Answer: A
85. Which of the following would cause high preesure?
A. expansion valve open too wide
B. dirty dehydrator
C. king valve not open wide enough
D. expansion valve not open wide enough
Answer: A
86. If a compressor runs continuously, the cause might be a
A. clogged scale trap
B. defective thermal bulb
C. stuck high-pressure switch
D. stuck low-pressure switch
Answer: D
87. Low suction pressure is caused by
A. expansion valve causing flooding back
B. solenoid valve not functioning properly
C. leaky compressor suction valves
D. air in the system
Answer: B
88. How is a Freon system purged?
A. with a reefer pump
B. the same as an ammonia system
 C. back to the extra supply tank
D. the same as a CO2 system
Answer: D
89. If the compressor discharge temperatures is higher than the receiver temperature :
A. add more refrigerant to the system
B. decrease the amount of cooling water to the condenser
C. increase the amount of cooling water to the condenser
D. remove some of the refrigerant from the system
Answer: B
90. How is a CO2 system purged
A. when CO2 comes out of the purge valve, frost will from on a piece of metal held near
the outlet
B. through the king valve
C. pumped out with a suction pump
D. the CO2 will come out of the purge valve in liquid form
Answer: A
91. If the head pressure is too high :
A. the relief valve should open and let excess refrigerant pass to receiver
B. close in on the suction valve
C. the relief should open before the high-pressure cutout
D. the high-pressure cutout switch should operate before the relief valve opens
Answer: D
92. The system should be purged
A. while starting up
B. after the system has been shut down for a few hours
C. while system is operating
D. once a week
Answer: B
93. If the compressor had been running satisfactorily for a long period of time but suddenly the
compartment temperature started to rise, the trouble might be
A. a refrigerant leak has developed
B. the expansion valve may contain frozen water
 C. the solenoid valve has jammed shut
D. any of the above
Answer: D
94. If the compressor had been running satisfactorily for a long period of time but the oil level
was rising slowly, one should:
A. check the dehydrator cartridge
B. check to see if there is too much refrigerant in the system
C. shut down the compressor and check the oil level with the machine stopped
D. drain out sufficient oil to bring it down to the proper running level
Answer: C
95. The purpose of oil trap is :
A. to add oil to the compressor
B. to remove oil from the refrigerating gas
C. to remove oil from the charging tank
D. none of the above
Answer: B
96. Too much oil in the compressor would :
A. absorb too much refrigerant from the system
B. deposit oil on the condenser tubes
C. damage the expansion valve
D. cause leakage through the shaft seals
Answer: A
97. The oil level in the compressor should be checked
A. just before starting the compressor
B. after a long period of operation
C. after an extended lay-up period
D. while the compressor is in operation
Answer: B
98. The agent used in an indirect reefer system is
A. calcium chloride
B. potassium chloride
C. sodium chloride
 D. A or C
Answer: D
99. Air can be prevented from getting into the system by
A. running the refrigerant through an aerator
B. keeping the dehydrator clean at all times
C. keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the high-pressure side tight
D. keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the low-pressure side tight
Answer: D
100. Which of the following would not cause high suction pressure ?
A. suction valve not adjusted properly
B. expansion valve stuck open
C. leaky suction valve
D. insufficient refrigeration
Answer: D
101. Water in the refrigerant is liable to
A. freeze on the expansion valve seat and cut the flow of refrigerant
B. clog the oil trap
C. freeze in the king (liquid) valve
D. emulsify the oil in the compressor
Answer: A
102. The function of the expansion valve is to :
A. regulate the amount of liquid refrigerant to the expansion coils
B. change the refrigerant to a liquid
C. shut off the flow refrigerant to the condenser
D. change the high-pressure liquid to a low-pressure liquid
Answer: A
103. When heavy electrical currents are involved, the thermostat will be operated by a :
A. pressure pipe
B. fusetron
C. relay
D. small circuit breaker
Answer: C
104. Before securing a compressor to do maintenance work on it, be sure to :
A. have a gas mask handy
B. make arrangements to have perishables taken care of
C. notify the engineer
D. A and B
Answer: D
105. When securing a Freon system for repairs.
A. pump down to 1 to 2 pounds pressure
B. pump down to a slight vacuum
C. pump down to 10 to 15 pounds pressure
D. remove all refrigerant from the system
Answer: A
106. When charging Freon system, all the valves should be in their normal position except the :
A. solenoid valve
B. purge valve
C. king valve
D. expansion valve
Answer: C
107. The purpose of the receiver is to :
A. cool the refrigerant gas
B. separate the oil from the refrigerant
C. store the refrigerant
D. condense the refrigerant
Answer: C
108. The solenoid valve controls the
A. amount of refrigerant entering the evaporator coils
B. amount of refrigerant going to the expansion valve
C. amount of refrigerant going to the compressor
D. pressure of the refrigerant going to the evaporator coils
Answer: B
109. The purpose of the evaporator is to
A. absorb latent heat of vaporization
B. absorb latent heat of fusion
C. transfer latent heat of vaporization
D. transfer latent heat of fusion
Answer: A
110. The purpose of the dehydrator is to
A. add more refrigerant to the system
B. remove oil from the refrigerant
C. remove moisture from the crankcase oil
D. remove moisture from the refrigerant
Answer: D
111. The principle of mechanical refrigeration is
A. the conversion of a liquid to a gas
B. the absorption of temperature under heat , pressure. Compression and expansion
C. the compression of a liquid under temperature and expansion
D. the absorption of heat under temperature, compression, pressure and expansion
Answer: D
112. A thermostat is a
A. temperature-operated switch
B. pressure-operated switch
C. superheat-operated switch
D. back pressure-operated switch
Answer: A
113. The thermal expansion valve responds to the
A. amount of superheat in the vapor
B. amount of superheat in the liquid
C. temperature in the evaporator coils
D. pressure in the evaporator coils
Answer: A
114. The expansion valve on a Freon system controls the
 A. superheat of the gas leaving the compressor
B. back pressure in the evaporator
C. temperature of the icebox
D. superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator
Answer: D
119. Oil is added to a Freon compressor by
A. shutting down the machine and pouring in through the crankcase inspection plate
opening
B. pumping in with an electric-driven pump
C. pumping in with a hand pump
D. pouring through oil hole in base
Answer: C
120. When adding oil to a Freon system, one must be sure that
A. the condenser is shut down
B. all air is removed from the pump fitting
C. there is not too high suction pressure
D. the discharge pressure is not too high
Answer: B

121. To help a person who had been overexposed to ammonia gas, one would :
A. apply cold compresses
B. apply artificial respiration
C. douse with cold water
D. wrap in warm blankets
Answer: B
122. Ammonia will corrode
A. brass
B. copper
C. bronze
D. all of the above
Answer: D
123. A refrigerating unit of one ton capacity can remove
 A. 100 Btu’s per min.
B. 288 Btu’s per min.
C. 200 Btu’s per min.
D. 500 Btu’s per min.
Answer: C
124. The refrigerant with the lowest boiling point is
A. NH3
B. F12
C. CO2
D. F22
Answer: C
125. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the removal of\
A. 288,000 Btu per 24 hrs.
B. 28,800 Btu per 24 hrs.
C. 28,000 Btu per 24 hrs.
D. 280,000 Btu per 24 hrs.
Answer: A
126. The boiling point of Freon-12 at atmospheric pressure is
A. +22 ˚F
B. -22 ˚F
C. +22 ˚C
D. -20 ˚C
Answer: B
127. the boiling point of CO2 at atmospheric pressure is
A. - 110˚F
B. + 110˚F
C. + 110˚C
D. – 110 ˚C
Answer: A
128. The boiling point of NH3 at atmospheric pressure is
A. + 28˚C
 B. + 28˚F
C. - 28˚C
D. - 28˚F
Answer: D
129. Which of the following would you apply if a person got Freon in his eyes
A. clean water
B. soapy water
C. sodium bicarbonate
D. sterile mineral oil
Answer: D
130. A double-seated valve allows the valve to be
A. packed only in the closed position
B. packed in the wide open or closed position
C. operated as a suction or discharge valve
D. removed for replacement without shutting down
Answer: B
131. The amount of CO2 or Freon in a cylinder is measured by
A. pressure
B. weight
C. volume
D. psi
Answer: B
132. The latent heat of fusion of ice is :
A. 500 Btu
B. 188 Btu
C. 144 Btu
D. 970 Btu
Answer: C
133. Latent heat
A. can be measured with a pyrometer
B. cannot be measured with a thermometer
 C. changes as the refrigerant cools
D. can be measured with a thermometer
Answer: B
134. Absolute zero is
A. 144˚ below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
B. the same as zero on the Fahrenheit scale
C. 970˚ below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
D. 460˚ below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
Answer: D
135. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the cooling effect of
A. 2,000 lbs. of ice melting in 24 hrs
B. 2,000 lbs. of water being converted to ice
C. 2,000 lbs. of ice melting in 12 hrs
D. 2,240 lbs. of ice melting in 24 hrs
Answer: A
136. Which of the following best described a Freon ?
A. odorless
B. non-poisonous
C. colorless
D. all of the above
Answer: D
137. What is another name of discharge pressure?
A. absolute pressure
B. head pressure
C. suction pressure
D. condenser pressure
Answer: B
138. Which of the following is the oil used in a refrigeration system?
A. vegetable oil
B. straight mineral oil
C. lube oil SAE 20
 D. lube oil SAE 10
Answer: B
139. One disadvantage of CO2 system is the fact that
A. it is difficult to a condense the refrigerant if the circulating water temperature is too
high
B. it takes more refrigerant to keep the iceboxes cold
C. due to high pressure it is difficult to keep oil from mixing with the refrigerant
D. it is difficult to condense the refrigerant if the circulating water temperature is too low
Answer: A
140. The disadvantage of a CO2 system over an ammonia system is the fact that ________.
A. the pipes and fittings of a CO2 system must be of the high-pressure type
B. the CO2 system operates at a much higher pressure
C. the CO2 system requires a larger prime mover
D. all of the above
Answer: D
141. A good refrigerant should be :
A. non-inflammable
B. non-poisonous
C. non-explosive
D. all of the above
Answer: D
142. What tonnage of refrigerating machine is required if the refrigerating system extracted
48,000 Btu per hour?
A. 2 tons
B. 5 tons
C. 4 tons
D. 3 tons
Answer: C
143. What is the combination of a wet and dry bulb thermometer is called a
A. hygrometer
B. psychrometer
C. hydrometer
 D. A or B
Answer: D
144. A pressure controller is usually operated by the movement of a
A. bellows
B. siphon
C. diaphragm
D. A or C
Answer: D
145. The critical temperature of a refrigerant is :
A. the temperature at which it will freeze
B. the temperature above which it cannot be liquefied
C. the temperature below which it cannot be liquefied
D. none of the above
Answer: B
146. If the critical temperature of a refrigerant is too close to the desired condensing
temperature, the equipment must necessarily be of :
A. extra heavy construction
B. the direct expansion type
C. light construction
D. the indirect expansion type
Answer: A
147. A good refrigerant should have a
A. high sensible heat
B. low sensible heat
C. high latent heat
D. latent heat
Answer: C
148. Which of the following is the most common method of heat flow in refrigeration?
A. conduction
B. expulsion
C. radiation
D. convection
Answer: D
149. From which of the following processes where the largest quantities of heat are available ?
A. vaporization
B. melting
C. fusion
D. cooling
Answer: A
150. What is the most common Freon gas used in centrifugal compressors?
A. F-12
B. F-11
C. F-22
D. F-21
Answer: B
151. What is the most common Freon gas used in reciprocating compressors?
A. F-12
B. F-11
C. F-22
D. F-21
Answer: A
152. What is the other name of hygrometer?
A. hydrometer
B. manometer
C. psychrometer
D. A or C
Answer: C
153. The temperature in the meat and fish box should be approximately
A. 10˚ to 20˚F
B. -10˚ to 0˚F
C. 0˚ to -10˚F
D. -10˚ to 10˚F
Answer: A
154. The temperature in the vegetable box should be approximately
A. 35˚ to 45˚F
B. 10˚ to 20˚F
C. 40˚ to 50˚F
D. 15˚ to 30˚F
Answer: A
155. The temperature in the dairy box should be approximately
A. 20˚ to 30˚F
B. 0˚ to 10˚F
C. 10˚ to 20˚F
D. 30˚ to 40˚F
Answer: D
156. Which of the following can be the cause of low head pressure?
A. too much or too cold condensing water
B. leaky discharge valves
C. insufficient charge of refrigerant
D. any of the above
Answer: D
157. If thermostatic expansion valve did not appear to be functioning properly, the cause could
be :
A. foreign matter in the valve
B. ruptured control bulb tubing
C. moisture in the system
D. any of the above
Answer: D
158. Which of the following is used in measuring the density of a brine solution?
A. litmus paper
B. a chemical rest
C. a hydrometer
D. A or B
Answer: C
159. Which of the following would not be cause for a refrigerating system to short cycle on HP
cutout?
A. discharge valve leaking
B. pressure cutout set incorrectly
C. system overcharged with refrigerant
D. insufficient cooling water
Answer: A
160. Excessive head pressure is caused by :
A. air or noncondensable gas in the system
B. dirty condenser tubes
C. insufficient cooling water to condenser
D. any of the above
Answer: D
161. The capacity of a centrifugal type compressor is controlled by which of the following?
A. regulating the discharge pressure
B. regulating the speed
C. regulating the suction pressure
D. B or C
Answer: D
162. Where is solenoid coil installed?
A. vertically above the valve
B. horizontally above the valve
C. vertically below the valve
D. horizontally below the valve

Answer: A
163. What is the condition of the compressor when purging a refrigeration system?
A. the compressor is running
B. compressor is running but the condenser secured
C. shut down
D. running with the bypass open
Answer: C
164. What must be done first when opening a single packed stop valve?
A. loosen the packing before opening
B. tighten packing before opening
C. check to see that the seal is not scored
D. none of the above
Answer: A
165. Excessive head pressure is caused by :
A. flooded condenser tubes
B. too much cooling water to condenser
C. cooling water temperature too high
D. A or C
Answer: D
166. Everything is in its normal operating position when charging a system except the ____.
A. compressor discharge valve
B. purge value
C. solenoid valve
D. king valve
Answer: D
167. How often the condenser must be cleaned?
A. once a year
B. every month
C. when pressure goes above normal
D. every 6 months
Answer: D
168. Which do you think is the cause of a hot suction line of a refrigerating compressor?
A. lack of refrigerant
B. insufficient condensing cooling water
C. excess refrigeration
D. B or C
Answer: A
169. Which of the following vital components of the refrigeration system where both temperature
and pressure are increased?
 A. compressor
B. condenser
C. evaporator
D. A or C
Answer: C
170. The refrigerant temperature is at its maximum just before it enters the ________.
A. expansion valve
B. compressor
C. condenser
D. evaporator
Answer: C
171. The greatest decrease in refrigerant temperature occurs in the _____.
A. evaporator
B. compressor
C. condenser
D. A or C
Answer: A
172. What do you call the storage tank for liquid refrigerant ?
A. receiver tank
B. charging tank
C. purging
D. any of the above
Answer: A
173. A precooler is sometimes installed between the ______.
A. compressor and condenser
B. condenser and expansion valve
C. expansion valve and evaporator
D. evaporator and compressor
Answer: B
174. The solenoid valve controls which of the following?
A. pressure in the evaporator coils
 B. amount of refrigerant entering the evaporator
C. flow of refrigerant to the expansion valve
D. amount of circulating water to the condenser
Answer: C
175. Closing the solenoid valve will stop the compressor through the _______.
A. low water-pressure cutout switch
B. bypass relief valve
C. low-pressure cutout switch
D. high-pressure cutout switch
Answer: C
176. What are the four basic methods of determining whether the proper amount of refrigerant is
being added to the system?
A. bull’s-eye, weight, pressure and frost line
B. temperature, weight, pressure and frost line
C. bull’’s-eye, wight, pressure and dip stick
D. bull’s-eye, weight, litmus test and frost line
Answer: A
177. What is the cause of liquid slugging ?
A. a liquid in the compressor clearance space
B. excessive liquid refrigerant in the receiver
C. the presence of liquid in the condenser causing excessive noise
D. the pounding of liquid refrigerant in the suction line at a point of restriction
Answer: A
178. All refrigerator compressor valves are opened and closed by ______.
A. a cam shaft
B. springs
C. manual
D. B or C
Answer: B
179. Which of the following is also known as the hidden heat in refrigeration work?
A. sensible heat
B. heat intensity
 C. latent heat
D. A or C
Answer: C
180. A bull’s eye in an full liquid line will appear _____.
A. cloudy
B. clear
C. latent
D. A or C
Answer: B
181. A compressor capacity reduction device reduces compressor capacity ______.
A. by reducing the compressor speed
B. by bypassing hot gas
C. as the refrigerant load dictates
D. by reducing compressor horsepower proportionately
Answer: C
182. If a Freon -12 compressor trip out on “cut-out,” the solenoid valve closes by which of the
following
A. an electrical release
B. temperature and spring control
C. pressure and bellows control
D. bellows control
Answer: A
183. The thickness of the head gasket is important because it may cause _________.
A. re-expansion
B. decreased efficiency due to increased clearance
C. the piston to stroke the head
D. all of the above
Answer: D
184. If the expansion valve capillary tube is pinched, which of the following must be replaced?
A. tube
B. diaphragm
C. bulb
 D. all of the above
Answer: D
185.When removing reusable refrigerant from a system, the line to the storage drum must?
A. be made of copper
B. have no bends in it
C. contain a strainer-dryer
D. be above the level of the compressor
Answer: C
186. Which of the following must be considered when adding or removing oil from a refrigerator
unit?
A. use new oil
B. do not overcharge
C. watch crankcase pressure
D. all of the above
Answer: D
187. Where is the excess refrigerant removed?
A. suction side of the side
B. discharge side of the system
C. bypass
D. charging side of the system
Answer: D
188. A double trunk piston is used to _______.
A. absorb side thrust
B. seal off gas from crankcase
C. prevent oil from mixing with gas
D. all of the above
Answer: D
189. How do you call the process of changing a solid to a liquid?
A. evaporation
B. vaporization
C. fusion
D. condensation
Answer: C
190. If there is too much lube oil in the system, what must be done?
A. remove same at once
B. wait until overhaul to remove
C. wait until next recharging to remove
D. any of the above
Answer: A
191. The temperature bulb of the thermo-expansion valve is attached to which of the following?
A. icebox coil
B. evaporator coil outlet
C. evaporator coil inlet
D. wall of the icebox
Answer: B
192. What is the use of the suction pressure regulating valve?
A. cuts in the compressor
B. maintains the back pressure in the evaporator coils
C. cuts out the compressor
D. controls the expansion valve
Answer: B
193.How is a one-ton plant described?
A. remove one ton of heat from the reefer box
B. melt one ton of ice in 24 hrs
C. make one ton of ice in 24 hrs
D. remove the heat required to melt one ton in 24 hrs
Answer: D
194. The temperature bulb of the solenoid valve is attached to the _______.
A. icebox coil
B. wall of the icebox
C. evaporator coil inlet
D. evaporator coil outlet
Answer: B
195. What usually happens if the specific gravity of the brine is too low?
A. the brine will freeze
B. solids will deposits
C. it will be more heat-absorbing
D. all of the above
Answer: A
196. The cooling water regulator is automatically actuated by which of the following?
A. the discharge pressure of the refrigerant
B. the temperature of the refrigerant
C. an electric relay
D. a thermo relay
Answer: A
197. What will happen to the capacity if the superheat is increased on the suction side?
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains the same
D. will double
Answer: B
198. Which do you think is very important in adjusting compressor “V” belts?
A. allow about ½ slack
B. make it as tight as possible
C. make belt just tight enough to turn pulley
D. keep belts parallel
Answer: A
199. Which of the following is important is important for evaporator coils?
A. it must be placed in the top of the compartment
B. it must be secured to the sides
C. it should have air completely surrounding them
D. it must placed in front of circulating
Answer: C
200. If there were a 15˚F to 20˚F temperature differential between the temperature
corresponding to the pressure at the compressor discharge and the temperature at the
condenser outlet, it would probably indicate the need for ______.
A. more refrigerant
B. purging the system
C. more circulating water
D. less circulating
Answer: B
201. Which of the following is the most appropriate definition of the latent heat ?
A. heat removed melt ice
B. heat removed to change temperature of a substance
C. head added to change temperature of a substance
D. heat added to change the state of a substance
Answer: D
202. If the compressor discharge becomes frosted, the probable cause would be _________.
A. refrigerant flooding back
B. expansion valve improperly set
C. too much cooling water
D. insufficient cooling water
Answer: A
203. The low-pressure control switch :
A. is a safety device
B. actuates the cooling water
C. cuts out the compressor to maintain proper flow
D. regulates the king valve
Answer: C
204. Which of the following is an indications of faulty Freon compressor valves?
A. compressor runs continously
B. low head pressure – high suction pressure
C. gradual or sudden decrease in capacity
D. any of the above
Answer: D
205. What is the probable cause if a compressor runs continuously?
A. a clogged condenser
B. insufficient refrigerant
C. faulty cooling water valve
D. any of the above
Answer: D
206. To test a thermostat valve, immerse the bulb in :
A. crushed ice
B. hot water
C. oil
D. none of the above
Answer: A
207. If a compartment requires the removal of 36,000 Btu per hour, how much is the necessary
compressor capacity?
A. 6 tons
B. 3 tons
C. 2 tons
D. 1 tons
Answer: B
208. Which of the following must be done to eliminate frost on the discharge pipe of the
compressor?
A. open the expansion valve
B. regulate water to the condenser
C. crack bypass valve
D. none of the above
Answer: D
209. The following are standard characteristic of Freon – 11 exept :
A. non-toxic
B. separates from water
C. boiling point over 200˚F
D. very volatile
Answer: C
210. Which of the following type valves are not found on a Freon – 12 system?
A. bellows
B. duplex
C. diaphragm
D. singled packed
Answer: B
211. How much will be removed by one-ton refrigeration unit?
A. 200 Btu per min.
B. 144 Btu per min.
C. 400 Btu per min.
D. 2000 Btu per min.
Answer: A
212. Which of the following is the primary purpose of the evaporator?
A. transmit latent heat of fusion
B. transmit latent heat of evaporation
C. absorb latent heat of fusion
D. absorb latent heat of evaporation
Answer: D
213. An automatically controlled Freon-12 compressor will start when the ______.
A. expansion valve opens
B. solenoid valve opens
C. expansion valve closes
D. solenoid valve closes
Answer: B
214. A single trunk piston-type compressor is undesirable for a Freon unit because the :
A. lubricant mixes with the refrigerant
B. refrigerant reduces the crankcase pressure
C. lubricant temperature becomes excessive
D. refrigerant becomes superheated
Answer: A
215. Calcium chloride is sometimes used in refrigeration system as a :
 A. refrigerant
B. lubricant
C. primary coolant
D. secondary coolant
Answer: D
216. When the outlet temperature of the evaporator exceeds the inlet temperature the condition
is called _____.
A. boiling
B. superheating
C. melting
D. freezing
Answer: B
217. Which of the following refrigerant would give the most trouble when operating with warm
circulating water?
A. Freon-12
B. CO2
C. Ammonia
D. Ethyl chloride
Answer: B
218. As Freon leaves the expansion valve :
A. pressure increases – volume increases
B. pressure decreases – volume increases
C. pressure decreases – volume decreases
D. pressure increase – volume decreases
Answer: B
219. The suction pressure switch is actuated by :
A. pressure on a bellows
B. temperature on a bellows
C. a thermo-pressure regulator
D. a thermostatic temperature device
Answer: B
220. A thermometer senses which of the following?
 A. latent heat
B. sensible heat
C. heat of fusion
D. specific heat
Answer: B
221. File pounds of water heated to raise the temperature 2˚F requires how many Btu?
A. 20 Btu
B. 5 Btu
C. 2 Btu
D. 10 Btu
Answer: D
222. Superheat is heat added ______.
A. in changing liquid to vapor
B. after all liquid has been changed to vapor
C. to increase pressure
D. to increase temperature
Answer: B
223. The expansion valve does not seem to be operating properly. There is high superheat.
Test by listening to the sound of Freon flooding through the tubes and _________.
A. warm bulb with hand
B. place bulb in cold water
C. place bulb in hot water
D. any of the above
Answer: A
224. What do you call a material in a dryer?
A. drain
B. dryer
C. desiccant
D. A or C
Answer: C
225. What is the main function of a receiver?
A. separate the oil from the refrigerant
 B. cool the hot gases
C. store the refrigerant
D. condense the refrigerant
Answer: C
226. During the re-expansion portion of the refrigeration compressor cycle
A. the suction valve is open
B. the suction valve is closed
C. the discharged valve is closed
D. B and C
Answer: D
227. Absolute zero on the Fahrenheit scale is equal to :
A. -273˚
B. -460˚
C. 0˚
D. -100˚
Answer: B
228. A quick method of detecting a leaky condenser on a Freon system would be to _____.
A. compare temperatures and pressures
B. test circulating water with proper chemicals
C. open vent on head and test with halide torch
D. use soapsuds on condenser outlet fittings
Answer: C
229. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Freon-12?
A. corrosive
B. non-flammable
C. odorless
D. boiling point -21˚F
Answer: A
230. In a discharge line between the compressor and the condenser one would find :
A. high pressure , high temperature gas
B. high pressure , low temperature liquid
 C. high temperature , high pressure liquid
D. high pressure , low temperature gas
Answer: A
231. For a low speed compressor the belt drive is preferred to the direct drive because it :
A. eliminates the use of mineral lubricating oils
B. permits the use of a smaller high speed motor
C. absorbs torsional vibration
D. reduces the number automatic controls
Answer: B
232. Refrigerant leakage from the compressor crankcase is prevented by
A. using skirt type pistons
B. maintaining a vacuum in the crankcase
C. using shaft seals
D. using lantern rings
Answer: C
233. The heat used to change a liquid to a gas or vapor is called latent heat of
A. absorption
B. vaporization
C. fusion
D. liquid
Answer: B
234. What is the compression ration a refrigerator compressor?
A. the ratio of the absolute suction pressure to the absolute discharge pressure
B. the ratio of the absolute discharge pressure to the absolute suction pressure
C. the ratio of the excessive liquid refrigerant in the receiver to that in the system
D. none of the above
Answer: B
235. The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to maintain a constant ________.
A. superheat
B. flow
C. pressure
 D. temperature
Answer: A
236. A refrigerant gives up heat when it
A. vaporizes
B. evaporates
C. condenses
D. boils
Answer: C
237. The cooling component of a refrigeration cycle is called _____.
A. a receiver
B. an evaporator
C. a condenser
D. a desiccant
Answer: B
238. When ordering an expansion valve which of the following information is necessary ?
A. size and pressure
B. size, tonnage, temperature and pressure
C. pressure and temperature
D. size and tonnage
Answer: B
239. A hot crankcase and cylinder head accompanied by a low suction pressure would be
caused by
A. excess refrigerant
B. insufficient refrigerant
C. air in the system
D. stuck discharge valve
Answer: B
240. Which of the following characteristic that is not desirable in a refrigerant?
A. low latent heat of fusion
B. high latent heat of vaporization
C. low latent heat of vaporization
D. A and C
Answer: C
241. The principle of the centrifugal system is based on which of the following?
A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. Lenz’s law
D. Boyle’s law
Answer: A
242. The temperature in the vegetable box should be approximately
A. -5˚F
B. 20˚F
C. 38˚F
D. 10˚F
Answer: C
243. The compressor will run continuously if there is
A. insufficient refrigerant
B. air in the system
C. too heavy a load
D. any of the above
Answer: D
244. A direct refrigeration system is one which :
A. ice is used for cooling
B. a secondary coolant is pumped through the evaporator coils
C. the refrigerant passes through coils in the evaporator
D. any of the above
Answer: C
245. A “ CARRENE “ is a type of :
A. refrigerant oil
B. refrigerant
C. scale cleaner
D. none of the above
Answer: B
246. What is the first step that must be done when securing a system?
A. open bypass valve
B. close receiver ( king ) valve
C. open solenoid valve
D. cut out compressor on high pressure
Answer: B
247. When securing a Freon-12 system for repairs
A. open the line at 1 to 2 pounds pressure
B. open the line at 5 to 10 pounds pressure
C. pump down to a slight vacuum
D. pump down to 10” vacuum
Answer: A
248. The most common reason for small usage of CO2 system is :
A. it is too dangerous
B. its upkeep is too high
C. the machinery is too heavy
D. it is too costly
Answer: C
249. To increase heat transfer in the evaporator
A. increase suction pressure
B. increase air circulation
C. defrost coils
D. B and C
Answer: D
250. When the compressor is operated in short spurts after a lay-up or overhaul the purpose is
to :
A. allow refrigerant time to circulate
B. determine actual compressor oil level
C. effect gradual cooling
D. none of the above
Answer: D
251. Which of the following types of valve are not used for suction or discharge ?
 A. gate
B. diaphragm
C. metallic
D. ring
Answer: A
252. What usually happened if brine has a high specific gravity?
A. it will freeze
B. it will crystallize
C. nothing will happen
D. it will sodify
Answer: B
253. When does the refrigerant gives-up heat ?
A. when it evaporates
B. when it condenses
C. when it vaporizes
D. when it boils
Answer: B
254. The thermostatic expansion valve is designed to maintain constant _______.
A. pressure
B. flow
C. temperature
D. superheat
Answer: D
255. A reactor plate is essential to the operation of a ________.
A. thermostatic valve
B. halide torch
C. solenoid bulb
D. none of the above
Answer: B
256. The greatest decrease in the temperature of the refrigerant is at the ______.
A. condenser
B. expansion valve
 C. evaporator
D. receiver
Answer: B
257. The temperature of the refrigerant is highest just before it enters the :
A. receiver
B. evaporator
C. condenser
D. king valve
Answer: C
258. A hot suction line could be caused by :
A. insufficient refrigerant
B. excess refrigerant
C. excess cooling water
D. insufficient cooling water
Answer: A
259. Which of the following devices will prevent the relief valve from opening in the event of
excessive pressure?
A. water failure switch
B. high-pressure cutout switch
C. low-pressure cutout switch
D. any of the above
Answer: B
260. Which of the following would cause the suction switch to remain open?
A. insufficient spring tension
B. too much spring tension
C. bellows broken or jammed
D. A or B
Answer: C
261. Which of the following would not cause high head pressure?
A. air in system
B. overcharge of refrigerant
C. circulating water too warm
 D. liquid freezing back
Answer: D
262. A cold diffuser is a :
A. type of condenser
B. special valve used as a bypass
C. type of evaporator
D. none of the above
Answer: C
263. Which do you think is the effect of subcooling ?
A. it causes flooding back to the compressor
B. it reduces the horsepower per ton of refrigeration
C. it increases the compression ratio
D. it increases the horsepower per ton of refrigeration
Answer: B
264. Subcooling is to :
A. cool the evaporator below its normal temperature
B. cool the liquid before it enters the evaporator
C. cool a liquid at constant pressure to a temperature lower than its condensing
temperature
D. cool the refrigerant gas before it enters the receiver
Answer: C
265. When figuring compression ratio, the ratio will increase with a ______.
A. lower suction pressure
B. higher suction pressure
C. higher discharge pressure
D. A and C
Answer: D
266. Copper tubing is used in Freon system because :
A. it has less internal resistance
B. it is cheaper
C. it is easier to check leaks
D. iron corrodes
Answer: A
267.The cooling water regulator is actuated by
A. an electric relay
B. pressure of the refrigerant
C. temperature of the refrigerant
D. none if the above
Answer: B
268. If there is a 20˚F temperature drop between the temperature corresponding to the pressure
at the compressor discharge and the condenser outlet, one should :
A. decrease the amount of circulating water
B. increase the amount of circulating water
C. purge the system
D. none of the above
Answer: C
269. If refrigeration controls were constructed with little or no differential, the :
A. compressor would short cycle
B. icebox would get too cold
C. icebox would get too warm
D. refrigerant would be subcooled
Answer: A
270. What is the use of back pressure regulating valve?
A. controls the evaporator temperature by throttling the flow of liquid refrigerant
B. maintains a fixed pressure in the evaporator coils
C. controls the flow of circulating water in the condenser tubes
D. controls the temperature in the evaporator
Answer: B
271. If the thermal bulb becomes loose on the evaporator coils, it will cause _______.
A. an electrical short
B. flooding back of the refrigerant
C. improper operation of expansion valve
D. any of the above
Answer: C
272. External frost on inlet of expansion valve indicates :
A. expansion valve plugged or dirty
B. head pressure too high
C. refrigerating compartment too cold
D. air in system
Answer: A
273. Subcooling the refrigerant results in :
A. less circulating water needed
B. effect of refrigerant increased
C. liquid less likely to vaporize
D. B and C
Answer: D
274. Which of the following is the reason when the crankcase is cooler than the suction line?
A. too much refrigerant
B. insufficient refrigerant
C. expansion valve open too wide
D. suction valve leaking
Answer: A
275. If the outlet of the thermostatic valve is warmer than the inlet, it indicates
A. flooding back
B. thermostatic valve working properly
C. thermostatic valve not working properly
D. solenoid valve not working properly
Answer: C
276. High temperature of cylinder heads and crankcase is caused by :
A. insufficient refrigerant
B. too much refrigerant
C. high head pressure
D. noncondensable gases
Answer: A
277. Frost on the high-pressure side of a thermostatic expansion valve would probably be
caused by
 A. high head pressure
B. dirty expansion valve
C. refrigerator box too cold
D. loss of circulating water to condenser
Answer: B
278. A Freon-12 gage shows pressure and _____.
A. superheat temperature
B. saturation temperature
C. back pressure
D. vacuum
Answer: B
279. Moisture in a system will cause a :
A. faulty expansion valve
B. high suction pressure
C. high suction temperature
D. low discharge temperature
Answer: A
280. Which of the following is not essential to a centrifugal-type compressor system?
A. evaporator
B. distiller
C. condenser
D. expansion valve
Answer: B
281. A scale trap in a Freon system will be found on the :
A. receiver
B. discharge side
C. suction side
D. condenser
Answer: C
282. Which of the following would cause expansion valve failure?
A. dirt in the valve
 B. moisture in the system
C. bulb in icebox ruptured
D. any of the above
Answer: D
283. Two compressor should not be run in parallel because :
A. there is a possibility of losing oil
B. it will give over-capacity
C. it is not efficient
D. A or B
Answer: A
284. The process that takes place in the evaporator is called
A. transfer of the latent heat of vaporization
B. absorption of the latent heat of vaporization
C. absorption of the latent heat of fusion
D. transfer of the latent heat of fusion
Answer: B
285. What is the use of the low-water cutout switch ?
A. recirculates the cooling water when there is too much refrigerant in the condenser
B. stops the compressor when there is no refrigerant running to the evaporator
C. stops the flow of refrigerant when the condenser temperature is too low
D. stops the compressor when there is insufficient cooling water
Answer: D
286. The high-pressure cutout switch :
A. stops the flow of refrigerant when condenser pressure is too high
B. recirculates the refrigerant through the compressor under emergency conditions
C. stops flow of water to condenser when there is no refrigerant passing through
D. stops compressor when head pressure is too high
Answer: D
287. Zinc rods are found in the :
A. gas side of the condenser
B. salt water side of the compressor
 C. evaporator area
D. compressor crankcase
Answer: B
288. Which of the following is not essential to a compression refrigeration system?
A. a receiver
B. a condenser
C. an evaporator
D. a dehydrator
Answer: A
289. What is the effect if the refrigerant is removes from the system too fast?
A. it may flood the evaporator
B. it may freeze-up the condenser
C. it will lower the icebox temperature
D. none of the above
Answer: B
290. Closing the solenoid valve stops the compressor through the :
A. high – pressure cutout switch
B. low water – pressure cutout switch
C. low – pressure cutout switch
D. high water – pressure cutout switch
Answer: C
291. A precooler, if used, is located between the :
A. expansion valve and evaporator
B. compressor and condenser
C. evaporator and compressor
D. condenser and expansion valve
Answer: D
292. When the outlet temperature at the evaporator exceeds the inlet temperature, the condition
is known as :
A. superheating
B. desuperheating
C. dehydrating
 D. saturating
Answer: A
293. The purpose of providing hot-gas defrosting facilities :
A. defrosting without raising compartment temperature above 32˚F
B. thawing frozen coils
C. defrosting automatically
D. B or C
Answer: A
294. The suction control switch on the compressor is a
A. thermal element
B. thermostat
C. pressure element
D. bellows
Answer: C
295. With one machine serving several compartment, when one compartment reaches the
desired temperature the temperature in that compartment is maintained by :
A. the expansion valve
B. the solenoid valve
C. the back-pressure valve
D. any of the above
Answer: B
296. The back-pressure regulating valve :
A. controls the water flow through the condenser
B. stops the flow of liquid refrigerant when temperature drops in evaporator
C. maintains a fixed pressure in the evaporator coils
D. none of the above
Answer: C
297. Falty F-12 compressor valve will be indicated by :
A. low head pressure-high suction pressure
B. compressor running continuously
C. gradual or sudden decrease in capacity
D. all of the above
Answer: D
298. How were tubing joints done ?
A. brazed
B. bypassed
C. screwed
D. silver soldered
Answer: D
299. When starting a refrigerating unit, be sure the water side of the condenser is :
A. secured
B. bypassed
C. vented
D. B and C
Answer: C
300. The water regulating valve is operated by the
A. compressor discharge pressure
B. compressor discharge temperature
C. compressor suction pressure
D. none of the above
Answer: D
301. High superheat of the vapour in the system would cause ______.
A. An increase in capacity
B. A more efficient unit
C. A decrease in capacity
D. A and B
Answer: C
302. The solenoid valve is actuated by which of the following?
A. A bellows
B. A magnet
C. A spring
D. Any of the above
Answer: B
303. Which of the following stops the compressor before the relief valve opens?
A. Low water-pressure cutout
B. High-pressure cutout
 C. Low oil-pressure cutout
D. Low-pressure cutout
Answer: B
304. What is the effect if the thermal bulb is loose on the evaporator coils?
A. Improper operation of expansion valve
B. Flooding back of refrigerant
C. Vibration causing leaks
D. Improper operation of solenoid valve
Answer: A
305. If the superheat on the suction side of the compressor is increased, what happen to the
tonnage capacity of the unit?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. No change
D. None of the above
Answer: B
306. What do you usually do to correct slugging and flooding back?
A. Change the discharge pressure
B. Clean the traps
C. Remove some refrigerant
D. Check the expansion valve
Answer: D
307. In a Freon-11 system there is no
A. Receiver
B. Distiller
C. Condenser
D. Evaporator
Answer: B
308. The suction pressure control valve is actuated by which of the following?
A. Thermostat
B. Bellows
C. Thermal element
D. Pressure diaphragm
Answer: D
309. Which of the following would cause the crankcase and head to get hot with low suction
pressure?
A. Excess refrigeration
B. Air in system
C. Insufficient refrigeration
 D. Insufficient cooling water
Answer: C
310. Which of the following is the function of a suction pressure regulating valve?
A. Cuts out the compressor
B. Controls the expansion valve
C. Cuts in the compressor
D. Maintains proper back pressure
Answer: D
311. Which of the following is the cause if the outlet of a thermostatic valve is warmer than the
inlet side?
A. Valve is working properly
B. Valve is not working properly
C. Solenoid valve is not working properly
D. None of the above
Answer: B
312. How is a thermostatic valve tested?
A. Immersing its bulb in warm water
B. Immersing its bulb in ice water
C. Holding its bulb in one’s hand
D. Shorting out the cutout switch
Answer: B
313. Which of the following will cause an automatically controlled F-12 compressor to start?
A. Closing of the expansion valve
B. Opening of the expansion valve
C. Closing of the solenoid valve
D. Opening of the solenoid valve
Answer: D
314. Where is the solenoid coil installed?
A. Horizontally over the valve
B. Vertically over the valve
C. Vertically below the valve
D. Horizontally below the valve
Answer: B
315. The refrigerating effect of a refrigerant is:
A. Quantity of heat that 1 pound of refrigerant absorbs while flowing through the evaporator
under given condition
B. Amount of heat it can remove in a given time
C. Quantity of heat that 1 pound of refrigerant absorbs
D. A or B
Answer: A
316. The “refrigerating effect” of a refrigerant is always:
A. More than its latent heat
B. More than its sensible heat
C. Less than its sensible heat
D. Less than its latent heat
Answer: D
317. What will happen if the expansion valve is opened too wide?
A. Liquid will flood back to the compressor
B. It will make no difference, as the automatic expansion valve is still operating
C. The condenser coils will overheat
D. A or C
Answer: A
318. Which of the following should not be used to clean scale traps?
A. Compressed air
B. Cotton waste
C. Kerosene
D. Diesel oil
Answer: B
319. If one of the ship’s service boxes suddenly stops cooling, the most likely cause would be
the malfunction of the:
A. Discharge valve
B. King valve
C. Solenoid valve
D. Expansion valve
Answer: C

320. Which of the following items is not important when using a halide torch?
A. Move flame slowly around the joints
B. Hold flame close to the joints
C. Adjust to a clear white flame
D. Adjust to a clear blue flame
Answer: C
321. A system should be purged when the liquid outlet temperature from the condenser is more
than the temperature corresponding to the discharge pressure.
A. 10°F above
B. 20°F below
C. 20°F above
D. 5°F below
Answer: D
322. Which of the following would cause the compressor to run continuously?
A. Low-pressure switch jammed
B. High-pressure switch jammed
C. Clogged strainer
D. Defective thermal bulb
Answer: A
323. In a vapor compression cycle the lowest temperature is found in ________.
A. Receiver
B. Condenser
C. Compressor
D. Evaporator
Answer: D
324. The moisture in a refrigeration system can be removed with the help of which of the
following?
A. Driers
B. Evaporators
C. Dehumidifiers
D. Coolers
Answer: A
325. Which of the following refrigerants has lowest freezing point temperature?
A. Freon 12
B. Ammonia
C. Freon 22
D. Freon 11
Answer: C
326. During compression in a vapour compression cycle when the refrigerant is super-heated,
what happens to the performance?
A. C.O.P is reduced
B. C.O.P remains unchanged
C. Work done is increased
D. Refrigerating effect is reduced
Answer: A
327. A Bell-Colman cycle is also known as ________.
A. Reversed Otto cycle
B. Reversed Joule cycle
C. Reversed Rankine cycle
D. Reversed Carnot cycle
Answer: B
328. Critical temperature is that temperature above which:
A. A gas will never liquefy
B. A gas gets immediately liquefy
C. Water gets evaporated
D. Water will never evaporate
Answer: A
329. Rating of a domestic refrigerator is of the order of:
A. 0.1 ton
B. 50 tons
C. 100 tons
D. 4 tons
Answer: A
330. What is the usual COP of a domestic refrigerator?
A. Less than 1
B. More than 1
C. Equal to 1
D. Depends upon the make of it
Answer: B
331. Horsepower per ton of refrigeration is expressed as:
A. 4.75/COP
B. 4.75xCOP
C. COP/4.75
D. 4.75/COP
Answer: C
332. The highest temperature in vapour compression cycle is produced during:
A. Expansion valve
B. Evaporator
C. Condenser discharge
D. Compressor discharge
Answer: D
333. Which type of compressor is used in refrigeration system?
A. Reciprocating
B. Centrifugal
C. Rotary sliding vane
D. All of the above
Answer: D
334. What is the reason why a thermometer in vapor compression system is installed close to
the compressor?
A. Because it helps the operator in adjusting compressor for greatest efficiency
 B. Because temperature indicates whether liquid or vapor refrigerant is going to
compressor
C. Because temperature helps in calculating the coefficient of performance
D. Because the performance of other units of the cycle can be controlled
Answer: A
335. Which refrigerant has the highest critical point temperature?
A. Ammonia
B. Freon 11
C. Freon 12
D. Freon 22
Answer: B
336. White ice is
A. Fast cooled water
B. Sub cooled water
C. Due to dissolved air, gases and impurities
D. Formed by blowing air during freezing
Answer: C
337. Clear ice is
A. Is pure ice
B. Contains dissolved gases
C. Contains dissolved air
D. Is formed by blowing air during freezing
Answer: D
338. Dry ice is
A. Free from water
B. Free from dissolved air or gases
C. Does not contain impurities
D. Solidified form of carbon dioxide
Answer: D
339. The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon can be detected by:
A. Halide torch which detection forms greenish flame lighting
B. Sulfur sticks which on detection form white smoke
C. Using certain reagents
D. Smelling
Answer: A
340. The lower horizontal line of the following of the refrigeration cycle plotted on pressure-
enthalpy diagram represents:
A. Compression of the refrigerant vapor
B. Evaporation of the refrigerant liquid
C. Condensation of the refrigerant vapor
 D. Metering of the refrigerant liquid
Answer: B
341. Which of the following uses a secondary refrigerant
A. Domestic refrigerator
B. Room air conditioner
C. Deep freezer
D. Ice plant
Answer: D
342. Which of the following secondary refrigerants generally used in milk chilling plants?
A. Brine
B. Ammonia solution
C. Glycol
D. Sodium silicate
Answer: C
343. What is the cycle where a refrigeration system generally operates?
A. Open cycle
B. Closed cycle
C. Mixed cycle
D. Hybrid cycle
Answer: B
344. Which of the following is also known as refrigerant NO. R-717?
A. Ammonia
B. Freon 22
C. Freon 12
D. Methyl chloride
Answer: A
345. In which part of the vapour compression cycle there is abrupt change in pressure and
temperature?
A. Solenoid valve
B. Evaporator
C. Expansion valve
D. Drier
Answer: C
346. What do you call a plate or vane used to direct or control movement of fluid or air within the
confined area?
A. Baffle
B. Bellows
C. Regulator
D. Diffuser
Answer: A
347. Brazing is used for joining two ________.
A. Two ferrous material
B. One ferrous and non-ferrous material
C. Two non-ferrous materials
D. Two non-metals
Answer: C
348. Which refrigerant is used for the air-conditioning of passenger aircraft cabin?
A. Ammonia
B. Freon 12
C. Freon 11
D. Air
Answer: D
349. Oil separator in a refrigeration cycle is installed between the ______.
A. Compressor and condenser
B. Condenser and evaporator
C. Metering device and evaporator
D. None of the above
Answer: A
350. A flash chamber is installed in the refrigeration circuit so as to:
A. Improve overall heat transfer coefficient
B. Reduce pressure losses through the evaporator
C. Reduce the size of evaporator by avoiding vapors going to evaporator
D. All of the above
Answer: D
351. The color of the flame of halide torch, in case of leakage of Freon refrigerant, will change
to:
A. Yellow
B. Red
C. Green
D. Orange
Answer: C
352. What is the Boiling temperature of F-12?
A. -33.33°C
B. -78.5°C
C. -29.8°C
D. -40°C
Answer: C
353. Which is the Boiling temperature of F-22?
 A. -33.33°C
B. -29.8°C
C. -78.5°C
D. -40°C
Answer: D
354. The following gas is preferred in refrigeration system:
A. F-11
B. F-22
C. CO²
D. NH³
Answer: B
355. The bhp/ton refrigeration requirement with increase in condenser temperature, in a vapour
compression system that uses reciprocating compressor receiving refrigerant gas at constant
suction temperature, will follow:
A. Linearly decreasing characteristic
B. Linearly increasing characteristic
C. First increase rapidly and then decrease slowly
D. First increase slowly and then rapidly
Answer: B
356. Antifreeze chemicals are:
A. Same as refrigerants
B. Those that are added to refrigerants for better performance
C. Those that lower down the freezing points of liquids
D. Those that do not freeze at all
Answer: C
357. The capacity in ice making is always
A. Less than the refrigerating effect
B. Greater than the refrigerating effect
C. Equal to the refrigerating effect
D. Directly proportional to the refrigerating effect
Answer: D
358. To check the lack of refrigerant or clogged refrigerant lines
A. Installing service valves must be necessary
B. Installing king valve must be an option
C. Sight glasses can be possibly used
D. Discharge pressure and temperature must be monitored
Answer: A
359. Past ME Board Examination
Can any refrigerant be used with a booster system?
A. Yes
B. No
C. Used for some
D. Used for all
Answer: B
360. Past ME Board Question
What is the chemical formula of methylene chloride?
A. CHCIF
B. CHCI
C. CCIF
D. CBRF
Answer: B
361. Past ME Board Question
What is the chemical formula of butane?
A. CHCI
B. CH
C. CHO
D. CH
Answer: D
362. Past ME Board Question
Type of refrigerant control which maintains pressure difference between high side and low side
pressure in refrigerating mechanism:
A. Suction valve
B. Expansion valve
C. Service valve
D. Solenoid valve
Answer: B
363. Past ME Board Question
The dividing point between the high pressure and low pressure sides of the refrigeration cycle
occurs at the:
A. Expansion valve
B. Compressor
C. Condenser
D. Cooling coil
Answer: A
364. Past ME Board Question
Boiling temperature of Freon 12 is:
 A. -33.33°C
B. -78.5°C
C. -29.8°C
D. -40.7°C
Answer: C
365. Past ME Board Question
Boiling temperature of Freon 22 is:
A. -33.33°F
B. -29.8°C
C. -78.5°C
D. -41.04°C
Answer: D
366. Past ME Board Question
The fastest way to remove frost from a direct -expansion finned – tube evaporator is to:
A. Send hot gas through the coil
B. Scrape off frost
C. Wash with warm water
D. Shut down warm let frost melt
Answer: A
367. Past ME Board Question
You want to change refrigerants in a Freon-12 plant using a reciprocating single- acting
compressor. Which refrigerant requires the smallest amount of change to the system?
A. Carbon dioxide
B. Ammonia
C. Methyl chloride
D. Aqua ammonia
Answer: C
368. Past ME Board Question
Soft copper tubing is used for refrigerant piping, erected on premises containing other than
Group 1 refrigerant must be protected by ______.
A. Supporting it by approved clamps
B. Limiting its length between supports up to 10 feet
C. A rigid or flexible metal enclosure
D. Wrapping it with insulation tape throughout its length
Answer: C
369. Past ME Board Question
A Freon-12 refrigeration system is fitted with thermal expansion valves. The valves are rated in:
A. Pound per minute
 B. Superheat setting
C. Tons of refrigeration
D. Cubic feet per minute
Answer: C
370. Past ME Board Question
The vapour cycle in thermal efficiency as the refrigeration cycle is to the ______.
A. Energy efficiency ratio
B. COP for a refrigerator
C. COP for a heat pump
D. Carnot efficiency
Answer: B
371. Past ME Board Question
The main purpose of a subcooler in a refrigerating system especially a two- stage system is to:
A. Increase the heat rejection per ton and avoid system shutdown
B. Improve the flow of evaporator gas per ton and increase the temperature
C. Reduce the total power requirements and return oil to the compressor
D. Reduce the total power requirements and heat rejection to the second stage
Answer: D
372. Past ME Board Question
Ton of refrigeration is a unit equivalent to:
A. 50.4 kCal/sec
B. 12,660 kN-m/hr
C. 3413 kW/-hr
D. 2545 Btu/hr
Answer: B
373. Past ME Board Question
In a refrigerating system, the heat absorbed in the evaporator per kg mass of refrigerant passing
through:
A. Equals the increase in enthalpy
B. Does not depend on the refrigerant used
C. Is decreased if pre-cooler is used
D. Equals the increase in volume
Answer: A
374. Past ME Board Question
Lithium bromide is used in refrigeration system in:
A. Condensate return lines
B. Absorbers
C. Centrifugal compressors
 D. Ion exchangers
Answer: B
375. Past ME Board Question
A refrigeration system in which only part of the refrigerant passes over the heat transfer surface
is evaporated and the balance is separated from the vapour and recirculated.
A. Direct expansion system
B. Chilled water system
C. Flooded system
D. Multiple system
Answer: C
376. Past ME Board Question
A device whose primary function is to meter the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator.
A. Sniffer valve
B. Equalizer
C. Thermostatic expansion valve
D. Crossover valve
Answer: C
377. Past ME Board Question
Select the one in which secondary refrigerant is used.
A. Domestic refrigerator
B. Room air conditioner
C. Deep freezer
D. Ice plant
Answer: D
378. Past ME Board Question
An odorless refrigerant whose boiling point varies over a wide range of temperatures.
A. Freon 22
B. Freon 12
C. Ammonia
D. Freon 11
Answer: A
379. Past ME Board Question
The part that directs the flow of refrigerant through the compressor
A. Wrist pin
B. Valve
C. Piston
D. Connecting rod
Answer: B
380. Past ME Board Question
The highest temperature in vapor compression cycle is produced during:
A. Receiver
B. Evaporator
C. Condenser discharge
D. Compressor discharge
Answer: D
381. Past ME Board Question
The boiling point of Freon 22 is:
A. -41.04°F
B. 20.60°F
C. -38.40°F
D. -31.40°F
Answer: A
382. Past ME Board Question
The secondary refrigerant used in milk chilling plants is generally:
A. Brine
B. Ammonia
C. Glycol
D. Sodium silicate
Answer: C
383. Past ME Board Question
The sensible heat ratio is 0.8. That is
A. 20% latent heat and 60% sensible heat
B. 80% sensible heat and 20% latent heat
C. 80% sensible heat and 20% sensible heat and latent heat
D. 20% latent heat and 80% sensible heat and latent heat
Answer: B
384. Past ME Board Question
The effect of superheating the refrigerant is to:
A. Increase the COP
B. Increase and decrease the COP
C. Decrease the COP
D. Maintains the COP
Answer: A
385. Past ME Board Question
The ice making capacity is always
 A. Directly proportional to the refrigerating effect
B. Less than the refrigerating effect
C. Greater than the refrigerating effect
D. Equal to the refrigerating effect
Answer: A
386. Past ME Board Question
The amount of sensible heat for a sensible heat ration of 0.80 and a total cooling load of 100 is:
A. 80
B. 20
C. 100
D. 60
Answer: A
387. Past ME Board Question
The high pressure of refrigeration system consist of the line to the expansion valve, the receiver,
the uppermost half of the compressor and the:
A. Line after the expansion valve
B. Lower most half of compressor
C. Condenser
D. Evaporator
Answer: C
388. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following materials is suitable for tubing in refrigeration application where
refrigerant ammonia is employed?
A. Plastic
B. Brass
C. Steel
D. Copper
Answer: C
389. Past ME Board Question
If PV is the power required for a vapor-compression refrigeration system, then what is the power
required for an air-refrigeration system, assuming that they have the same capacity?
A. 5PV
B. 2PV
C. PV/10
D. 1/PV
Answer: A
390. Past ME Board Question
Tons of refrigeration in Btu/24 hours is
 A. 288,000
B. 28,800
C. 290,000
D. 29,000
Answer: A
391. Past ME Board Question
R-22 is:
A. Dichloridfluoromethane
B. Monochlorodifluoromethane
C. Methyl chloride
D. Trichlorodifluoromethane
Answer: B
392. Past ME Board Question
A salimeter reads the:
A. Density of brine
B. Rate of brine
C. Dew point temperature
D. Relative humidity
Answer: A
393. Past ME Board Question
Which of the following measures the density of salt in water?
A. Salimeter
B. Hydrometer
C. Pitot tube
D. Calorimeter
Answer: A
394. Past ME Board Question
What is the device used to protect the compressor from overloading due to high head pressure?
A. Overload relay
B. Hold back suction valve
C. Thermostatic expansion valve
D. Expansion valve
Answer: A
395. Past ME Board Question
The purpose of the expansion valve is to control the flow of the refrigerant to the evaporator.
The other function is to:
A. Reduce the pressure of the liquid refrigerant
B. Increase the pressure of the vapor refrigerant
 C. Reduce the pressure of the vapor refrigerant
D. Increase the pressure of the liquid refrigerant
Answer: A
396. Past ME Board Question
It prevents the refrigerant from the condenser to go back to the compressor.
A. Check valve
B. Float switch
C. Expansion valve
D. Low side float
Answer: A
397. If the freezing point of water is 0°C, which of the following is its melting point?
A. Slightly less than 0°C
B. Slightly more than 0°C
C. 0°C
D. 32°C

Answer: C

CHAPTER 15
AIR CONDITIONING

1. How do you call the water vapor content of air?

A. moisture
B. humidity
C. dew
D. vapor

Answer: B

2. When air contains all of the water vapor it can hold, it is said to be

A. simulated
B. loaded
C. saturated
D. moistured

Answer: C

3. What is the instrument used to register relative humidity?

A. hygrometer
B. hydrometer
C. perometer
D. manometer

Answer: A

4. Humidity is a measure of which of the following?

A. water vapor content

B. temperature
C. latent heat
D. any of the above

Answer: A

5. Air conditioning is the process of :

A. keeping a place cool

B. removing the heat from a specific area
C. maintaining air at a required temperature and humidity
D. A or C

Answer: C

6. In an air-conditioning system, before the air is circulated to the required are it is:

A. cooled
B. filtered
C. dehumidified
D. all of the above

Answer: D

7. The temperature at which water vapor in the atmosphere begins to condense is known as
the:

A. vapor point
B. dew point
C. moisture point
D. none of the above

Answer: B

8. Saturation temperature is the same as:

A. dew point
B.vapor temperature
C. steam temperature
D. humidity

Answer: A
9. When the bypass factor is B, the coil efficiency for sensible cooling of air equal to:

A. 1+B
B. 1-B
C. 1-B/B
D. 1+B/B

Answer: B

10. The psychrometric chart in air conditioning determines the

A. wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures

B. psychrometric temperature requirements
C. saturation temperature and relatives humidity
D. moist air conditions

Answer: D

11. Which of the following is considered as comfort condition in air conditioning?

A. 40 C DBT, 80% RH
B. 30 C DBT, 60% RH
C. 30 C DBT, 80% RH
D. 20 C DBT, 60% RH

Answer: D

12. The drift loss in cooling towers is about :

A. 1% only
B. 12 to 15%
C. 10 to 20%
D. 30 to 40%

Answer: C

13. Cooling towers are used for cooling water :

A. to be injected in circulating air

B. to be used for humidification
C. to be used for filtration of air
D. to be used for cooling the compressor

Answer: D

14. By which of the following processes heat mainly dissipates in cooling towers?

A. conduction
B. convection
C. radiation
D. evaporation

Answer:D

15. Which one is commonly used liquid absorbent?

A. silica gel
B. activated alumina
C.ethylene glycol
D. any one of the above

Answer: C

16. in sensible heating cooling following parameter remains unchanged

A. dry bulb temperature

B. wet bulb temperature
C. relative humidity
D. humidity ratio

Answer: D

17 Heating and dehumidification can be obtained simultaneously if air passed through:

A. sprays of water kept at a temperature higher than the dew point temperature of the entering
air
B. a solid absorbent surface
C. a liquid absorbent spray
D. any one of B and C

Answer: D

18. Dirt and foreign materials normally build-up on the side of the condenser tubes. To ensure
adequate condenser capacity, a certain factor is used in calculating the overall heat transfer
through the walls of the tubes including the heat transfer through the walls of the tubes including
the heat transfer rate of the layers dirt and foreign materials. What is the factor?

A. booster factor
B. factor of safety
C. fouling factor
D. compression factor

Answer: C

19. The engineer was tested to design the air conditioning system for a ball room dance hall.
Considering that this involve a lot of activity from its users,the engineer would design that will
require:

A. maximum attainable effective temperature

B. constant effective temperature
C. higher effective temperature
D. lower effective temperature

Answer: A

20. What is the value of the Mach No. throat of the converging-diverging nozzle?

A. zero
B. two
C. one
D. ten

Answer: C

21. What do bodies at a temperature above absolute zero?

A. it emits Energy
B. it emits Thermal Radiation
C. it emits Heat for conduction
D. it emits Heat for convection

Answer: B

22. When air is saturated, the wet bulb depression is:

A. zero
B. indefinite
C. unity
D. 100 %

Answer: A

23. In a window air conditioning unit which if the following is done by the owner?

A. semiannual cleaning or replacement of filters

B. annual cleaning of the evaporator, condenser, fan blades, fan motor, compressor and casing
C. Inspection of fan motors and lubricate them
D. all of these

Answer: A

24. Fan motors in air conditioning units have:

A. 2 or 3 speeds
B. 3 or 4 speeds
C. 1 or 2 speeds
D. 4 or 5 speeds

Answer: A

25. Which of the following capacitors that can usually be found in an air conditioning unit?
A. starting capacitors
B. running capacitors
C. fan motor capacitors
D. all of these

Answer: D

26. Which of the following troubles commonly occurs inside an air conditioning unit?

A. stuck compressor
B. clogged refrigerant circuit
C. short circuit, open circuit, grounded motor winding
D. all of these

Answer: D

27. The motor condition of an air conditioning unit can be checked with:

A. the continuity of light or with an ohmmeter

B. the flow of refrigerant in the receiver
C. the discharge pressure in the compressor
D. all of these

Answer: A

28. An air conditioning system wherein the entire systems are mounted in the cabinet:

A. console air conditioners

B. centralized air conditioners
C. packaged type air conditioners
D. multizone split ductless system

Answer: A

29. The use of water to carry heat occupied spaces

A. hydronic heating system

B. water boiling system
C. hydrokinetic heating system
D. hydraulic heating system

Answer: A

30. The method of cooling which primarily used where ambient air temperatures are high and
relative humidity is used:

A. swamp cooling
B. evaporative cooling
C. condensate cooling
D. hydroionic cooling
Answer: A

31. The other name for Swamp Cooling is:

A. Evaporative Cooling
B. Condensate Cooling
C. Wet Roof Cooling
D. Excelsior Cooling

Answer: C

32. Evaporative Condenser is used to cool

A. condenser vapor
B. condenser surface
C. condensate liquid
D. all of these

Answer: A

33. A method of cooling which uses water as refrigerant. Pressure on the water surface is
reduced to lower its boiling temperature.

A. Steam Jet Cooling

B. Evaporative Cooling
C. Vortex Tube Cooling
D. Pressurized Cooling

Answer: A

34. Palladium Chloride may be used to measure the presence of :

A. vapor
B. CO
C. ammonia
D. refrigerant

Answer: B

35. The amount of CO can be determined by the color of Palladium Chloride. An amount of 30
ppm to 70 ppm will cause:

A. slight darkening
B. grey color
C. red color
D. black color

Answer: A

36. The term used to express the amount moisture in a given sample of air. It is compared with
amount of moisture in a given sample of air.
A. humidity
B. relative humidity
C. absolute humidity
D. humidity ratio

Answer: B

37. How should the window type air conditioning unit can be placed?

A. slant toward the inside of the home

B. slant toward the outside of the home
C. level
D. slant at approximately 15 degrees from the horizontal

Answer: B

38. A dehumidifier is usually a small hermitic refrigerating system. It has both a condenser and
an evaporator.
Many older systems use R-12 or R-500. The newer units use:

A. R-124a
B. R-145a
C. R-217a
D. R-121a

Answer: A

39. The normal cut-out setting of a window unit thermostat is between:

A. 13 degrees C to 16 degrees C
B. 16 degrees C to 21 degrees C
C. 17 degrees C to 22 degrees C
D. 10 degrees C to 15 degrees C

Answer: A

40. Thermostat are used with most window units. They have differentials which may vary
between:

A. 2 degrees C to 4 degrees C
B. 3 degrees C to 5 degrees C
C. 4 degrees C to 5 degrees C
D. 1 degrees C to 2 degrees C

Answer: A

41. In an air conditioning unit, the thermostat fails. The unit did not start. How do you test the
operation of the thermostat?

A. Cover the air outlet and air inlet with a cloth. The air will recirculate into the unit and the
temperature will quickly drop to the cut out temperature
B. Cover the outlet and the air will not circulate and the thermostat functions because no air
movement
C. Cover both the inlet and outlet so that the recirculating air has the same temperature
D. Never cover any air passage so that air can freely move and thermostat functions well

Answer: A

42. Which of the following duhimidifier is often used to reheat the air after moisture is removed?

A. Evaporator
B. Chiller
C. Condenser
D. Compressor

Answer: C

43. Which of the following refrigerant is added sometimes to other refrigerant to improve oil
circulation?

A. R-117
B. R-778
C. R-170 (ethane)
D. R-270

Answer: C

44. A refrigeration that deals with producing temperature of -157 degrees C or lower.

A. Low temperature
B. Extremely low temperature refrigeration
C. Absolute zero refrigeration
D. Cryogenics

Answer: D

45. Measurement of a device's ability to remove atmospheric air from test air.

A. Atmospheric Dust Spot Efficiency

B. Atmospheric Dry Air Efficiency
C. Test air Efficiency
D. Baudelot Air Efficiency

Answer: A

46. A liquid mixture having constant maximum and minimum boiling points. Refrigerants
comprising this mixture do not combine chemically, yet the mixture provides constant
characteristics.

A. Azeotropic Mixture
B. Homogeneous Mixture
C. Conzeotropic Mixture
D. Cyrogenic Mixture

Answer: A

47. Refrigerant in Group A1 (R-11). Chemical combination of carbon , chlorine, and flourine.

A. Carrene
B. Cerrene
C. CCL group
D. HCL group

Answer: A

48. Which of the following refrigerants is popular in the industrial refrigerating system; also
popularly absorption system of refrigerant.

A. R-117 (ammonia)
B. R-600 (butane)
C. R-611 (methyl formate)
D. R-504

Answer: A

49. Which of the following is a function of air conditioning?

A. Temperature and Humidity Control

B. Air Filtering, Cleaning, and Purification
C. Air Movement and Circulation
D. All of these

Answer: D

50. Oxygen is approximately what percent by weight in the atmosphere?

A. 23%
B. 27%
C. 77%
D. 73%

Answer: A

51. Substances that have the ability to absorb moisture from the air are called:

A. Desiccants
B. Moisturizer
C. Dehygroscopic substances
D. Moisture absorber

Answer: A
52. When the dry bulb and the wet bulb temperatures are identical, the air is said to be:

A. saturated
B. compressed
C. humidified
D. dehumidified

Answer: A

53. In what form that water exists in air?

A. solid
B. liquid
C. vapor
D. saturated

Answer: C

54. When air is heated, what happened to its relative humidity?

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remain constant
D. may increase or decrease depending on temperature

Answer: B

55. The horizontal Scale ( abscissa ) in the psychrometric chart represents:

A. Dry bulb temperature

B. Wet bulb temperature
C. Relative Humidity
D. Humidity

Answer: A

56. Most people are comfortable with the relative humidity of :

A. 30% to 70%
B. 10% to 40%
C. 20% to 30%
D. 40% to 80%

Answer: A

57. The temperature below which vapor in the air will start to condense :

A. condensing temperature
B. dry bulb temperature
C. dew point temperature
D. wet bulb temperature

Answer: C

58. Which of the following is not used as method to measure air velocities?

A. hot wire anemometer

B. rotating anemometer
C. swinging vane velocimeter
D. open type barometer

Answer: D

59. It is a form of oxygen photochemically produced in nature.

A. Ozone
B. Oxidation
C. Oxidation Agent
D. DO2

Answer: A

60. What is the Chemical formula of Ozone?

A. O3
B. O2
C. D2O
D. O1

Answer: A

61. In the upper atmosphere, ozone is made by ultraviolet light reacting with:

A. Oxygen
B. Hydrogen
C. Nitrogen
D. Water Vapor

Answer: A

62. The ozone concentration of 0.10 parts per million (ppm) is generally considered the
maximum permissible for how many hours exposure?

A. 8 hrs.
B. 4 hrs.
C. 7 hrs.
D. 3 hrs.

Answer: A

63. How many moisture be removed from air ?

A. Condensation
B. Absorption
C. A and B
D. none of these

Answer: C

64. In cooling cycle, the dry bulb temperature (db) of the air is lowered. when this happens the
relative humidity

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. increases or decreases depending on the temperature at which it is cooled

Answer: A

65. What is the effect of superheating the refrigerant?

A. it increases the coefficient of performance

B. it decreases the coefficient of performance
C. it lowers the boiling point of the refrigerant
D. it increases the suction pressure of the refrigerant

Answer: A

66. In sensible heating the absolute humidity remains contant but the relative humidity :

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. zero

Answer: B

67. The relative humidity becomes 100% and where the water vapor starts to condense.

A. dew point
B. cloud point
C. saturated point
D. critical point

Answer: A

68. Why should you avoid bending or twisting of fan blades in an air conditioning unit?

A. it will not cause ice build-up

B. it will wear out the motor bearings and cause noise
C. it may not slice suction line
D. it decreases the volume flow of refrigerant
Answer: B

69. A type of refrigerant that will not damage the ozone layer.

A. Hydrofluorucarbons ( HCF's )
B. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons ( HCHF's )
C. R-22
D. R-12

Answer: A

70. Which of the following refrigerants damages the ozone layer?

A. Hydrochlorofluorocarbons ( HCHF's )
B. R-12
C. R-22
D. All of these

Answer: D

71. Large bulb alcohol thermometer used to measure air speed or atmospheric conditions by
means of cooling.

A. Kata Thermometer
B. Kelvin Thermometer
C. JJ Thompson Thermometer
D. Wet bulb Thermometer

72. Which of the following components of the window air conditioning system must be cleaned
annually?

A. evaporator and condenser

B. motor and compressor
C. fan blades and fan motor
D. all of these

Answer: D

73. The phenomenon that warm air rise and cold air settle is called:

A. stratification
B. sedimentation
C. setting due
D. ventilation

Answer: A

74. Air delivered to the room from the supply duct, moving at a velocity of 150ft/min is called:

A. primary air
B. secondary air
C. saturated air
D. air turbulance

Answer: A

75. Carries needed to deliver air to the conditioned space. It is made of metals like alluminum,
galvanized sheet steel and some structural materials that will not burn.

A. duct
B. air inlet
C. air outlet
D. diffuser

Answer: A

76. From what principle that air ducts operate?

A. principle of pressure difference

B. principle of temperature difference
C.forced draft fan principle
D. principle of natural convection

Answer: A

77. Which of the following is the common classification of ducts?

A. conditioned air-duct
B. recirculating
C. fresh-air duct
D. all of these

Answer: D

78. It is used deliver concentrated air streams into a room. Many have one-way or two-way
adjustable air stream deflectors.

A. register
B. grille
C. diffuser
D. damper

Answer: A

79. It is used to control air-throw distance, height, and spread, as well as the amount of air.

A. grille
B. register
C. diffuser
D. damper
Answer: A

80. It is used to deliver widespread, fan shaped flows of air into the room.

A. grille
B. register
C. diffuser
D. damper

Answer: C

81. Which of the following fans in air conditioning systems which can be classified as centrifugal
flow?

A. axial fan
B. propeller fan
C. bi-axial fan
D. none of these

Answer: B

82. The most common controller in the heating and cooling systems.

A. thermostat
B. pressure gage
C. barometer
D. sling psychometer

Answer: A

83. A thermostat that functions as increase or decrease instead of starting and stopping system
is called:

A. modulate
B. heating-cooling the thermostat
C. interlocked
D. compound thermostat

Answer: A

84. A number used to compare energy usage for different areas. It is calculated by dividing the
energy consumption by the fottage of the conditioned area.

A. energy utilization unit

B. energy utilization efficiency
C. energy utilization index
D. energy utilization ratio

Answer: C

85. The ratio of the rated cooling capacity divided by the amount of electrical power used:
A. energy efficiency ratio (EER)
B. energy efficiency index (EE)
C. cooling efficiency (CE)
D. energy cooling ratio (ECR)

Answer: A

86. Heat exchanger in which water flows by gravity over the outside of the tubes or plates.

A. baudelot cooler
B. free cooler
C. newtonian cooler
D. bourdon cooler

Answer: A

87. A popular air conditioning system that includes a single outdoor condenser, 3 independent
evaporators, and individual evaporator temperature control. The condensing unit is located
outside on a slab. They are frequently used in legal and medical offices, motels and homes
without ducts.

A. multizone ductless split system

B. packaged terminal air conditioner
C. console air conditioner
D. window type air conditioner

Answer: A

88. An air conditioning system which is a combination of heating and cooling system. It is
designed to serve an individual room or zone.

A. Multizone Ductless Split System

B. Packaged Terminal Air Conditioner
C. Console air Conditioner
D. Window Type air Conditioner

Answer: B

89. Which of the following is to be checked as regular monthly maintenance schedule of a

console air conditioning units?

A. Water Leaks
B. Fan Speeds
C. Cooling Tower
D. Duct Dampers, Registers and Diffusers

Answer: D

90. Which of the following is to be checked as part of the weekly maintenance shedule of a
console air
conditioners?

A. Filters
B. Humidifiers
C. Safety valves
D. Cooling Tower

Answer:D

91. A mechanism that removes moisture.

A. Humidifiers
B. Dehumidifiers
C. Moisturizers
D. Cooling Towers

Answer: B

92. When coil surface temperature is below the dew point of the air.

A. moisture will condense out of the air*

B. vapor will evaporate through the air
C. air is dehumidified
D. air is humidified and saturated

Answer: A

93. Nitrogen occupied almost how much of the Earth's Atmosphere.

A. One-fourth
B. Three-fourths
C. One-half
D. One-third

Answer: B

94- Water in vapor form remains a vapor as long as its

temperature is what relations to the dew point temperature.
A. above
B. equals
C. below
D. almost

Answer: C

95. An instrument used in measuring air velocity by velocity-pressure method.

A. Pitot Tube
B. Anemometer
C. Aneroid Barometer
D. Flowmeter
Answer: A

96. What is the specific humidity of dry air?

A. 100
B. 20
C. 0
D. 50

Answer: C

97. When hot soup was served in a cup during dinner, an engineer was so eager to drink it.
Since It was hot, he added ice cubes of ice to cool the soup stirred it. He noticed that dew starts
to form on the outermost surface of the cup. He wanted to check the temperature of the
outermost surface of the cup. What is this temperature equal to?

A. superheated temperature
B. equal to zero
C. standard temperature
D. equal to air's dew point temperature

Answer: D

98. The temperature at which the water vapor in the gas begins to condense in a constant
pressure process.

A. Dew point
B. Vapor point
C. Flue point
D. Gas point

Answer: A

99. All of the following processes can be found on a psychrometric chart except :

A. humidification
B. sensible heating
C. natural convection
D. sensible cooling

Answer: C

100. All of the following processes can be found on a psychrometric chart except:

A. heating and humidifying

B. cooling and dehumidification
C. black body radiation
D. evaporative cooling

Answer: C
101. Which is not commonly used to cool and dehumidify equipment?

A. Calcium chloride
B. Activated alumina
C. Sodium zeolite
D. Silica gel

Answer: A

102. All of the following temperatures have meaning in psychrometrics except:

A. dry - bulb temperature

B. wet - bulb temperature
C. adiabatic wall temperature
D. dew point

Answer: C

103. The relative humidity is given by the :

A. ratio of the actual humidity to the saturated humidity at the same temperature and pressure
B. ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor to saturation pressure
C. ratio of wet-bulb to dry-bulb temperature
D. ratio of dry bulb temperature to dew point

Answer: B

104. The determination of properties and behavior of atmospheric air usually the purview of :

A. thermodynamics
B. psychrometrics
C. forced convection
D. Kirchoff's law

Answer: B

105. Past ME Board Question

Which of the following statements is correct? The relative humidity of an air water vapor mixture

A. is the ratio of the partial pressure of the water vapor to the partial pressure of the air.
B. indicates the mass of water vapor in the mixture
C. is equal to the mole fraction of water vapor in the mixture at the mixture temperature.
D. is the ratio of the partial pressure of water vapor to
the saturation pressure at the mixture temperature

Answer: D

106. Past ME Board Question

In sensible cooling process, moisture content.
A. does not change
B. decreases
C. indeterminate
D. increases

Answer: A

107. Past ME Board Question

What amount of air is required in a low bypass factor?

A. Greater
B. Lesser
C. Indeterminate
D. Constant

Answer: B

108. Past ME Board Question

The design of an air supply duct of an air conditioning
system ________.

A. adds moisture to the air

B. lowers the temperature of the air
C. does not affect the moisture of air
D. affects the distribution

Answer: D

109. Past ME Board Question

What is the lowest temperature to which water could
possibly be cooled in a cooling tower?

A. The effective temperature

B. The temperature of adiabatic compression
C. The wet bulb depression
D. The dew point temperature of the air

Answer: B

110. Past ME Board Question

Combined process of cooling and humidifying is also known as :

A. heating and humidifying

B. cooling tower
C. evaporative cooling process
D. moisture removal process

Answer: C

111. Past ME Board Question

In a cooling tower, the water is cooled by :
A. condensation
B. evaporation
C. convection
D. conduction

Answer: C

112. Past ME Board Question

Which of the following types of air dryers works by absorbing moisture on a solid dessicant or
drying material such as activated alumina, silicon gel or molecular sieve?

A. Regenerative dryer
B. Deliquescent dryer
C. Spray dryer
D. Refrigerated dryer

Answer: B

113. Past ME Board Question

The relationship of water vapor in the air at the dew point temperature to the amount that would
be in the air if the air were saturated at the dry bulb temperature is:

A. partial pressure actual at dew point

B. percentage humidity
C. relative humidity
D. partial pressure of water

Answer: C

114. Past ME Board Question

When the air is saturated the wet bulb depression is:

A. zero
B. indefinite
C. unity
D. 100 %

Answer: A

115. Past ME Board Question

A temperature measurement in an ordinary thermometer which has constant speciﬕc
humidity.

A. Critical temperature
B. Dew point temperature
C. Dry bulb temperature
D. Wet bulb temperature

Answer: B
116. Past ME Board Question
During sensible heating, the humidity remains constant but the relative humidity.

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. zero

Answer: B

117. Past ME Board Question

The relative humidity becomes 100% and where the water vapor starts to condense.

A. Critical point
B. Saturated point
C. Dew point
D. Cloud point

Answer: C

118. Past ME Board Question

What is the specific humidity of dry air?

A. 150
B. 100
C. 50
D. 0

Answer: D

119. Past ME Board Question

An engineer inspected an air-conditioning unit. He found out that the unit does not produce any
cooling effect, however, the air-conditioning unit is running. 2, He checked the temperatures of
the condenser and evaporator and had the unit run. He found out that there was no change in
the temperature. What should he do?

A Replace fuse
B. Charge with new refrigerant
C. Replace relay
D. Adjust door seal

Answer: B

120. Past ME Board Question

What is the temperature range of air in air conditioning application where the dry air can be
considered ideal gas?

A. 100°C to 125°C
B. 50°C to 75°C
C. 75°C to 100°C
D. -10°C to 50°C
Answer: D

121. Past ME Board Question

What is the value of air stratification in air conditioning design fit for human comfort?

A minimum
B. maximum
C. less than air temperature
D. equal to air temperature

Answer: C

CHAPTER 16
MACHINE FOUNDATION & CHIMNEY

1. Past ME Board Question

Foundations are preferably built of concrete in the proportion of what measure of portland
cement: sand: crushed stones?

A. 1:2:5
B. 2:4:6
C. 2:3:5
D. 1:2:4

Answer: D

2. Past ME Board Question

For design stability, the center of gravity of the total combined engine, driven equipment and
foundation should be kept _______.

A. anywhere
B. above the foundation top
C. in line with surface of the foundation
D. below the foundation top

Answer: D

3. The machine foundation must have a factor of safety of

A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7

Answer: B

4. The diesel engine foundation safe soil bearing pressure is :

A. 4,890 kg/cm2
B. 4,500 kg/cm2
C. 4,490 kg/cm2
D. 4,125 kg/cm2

Answer: A

5. Anchor bolts in a machine foundation should be embedded in a concrete af at least how

many times of the bolt diameter?

A. 15
B. 20
C. 30
D. 25

Answer: C

6. As a good practical rule, the foundation depth may be taken as how may times of the engine
stroke?

A. 2.2 to 3.2
B. 3.2 to 4.2
C. 2.5 to 3.5
D. 3.5 to 4.5

Answer: B

7. To secure the belts embedded within the foundation, the distance of the edges of the
foundation from the bedplate must be _______.

A. 120 mm to 300 mm
B. 150 mm to 330 mm
C. 100 mm to 280 mm
D. 200 mm to 380 mm

Answer: A

8. The weight of the machine foundation is how many times of the weight of the engine ?

A. 4 to 5 times
B. 3 to 5 times
C. 2 to 3 times
D. 4 to 6 times

Answer: B

9. To eliminate transmission of vibration, the foundation should be isolated from floor slabs or
building footings at least how many mm around its perimeter

A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30

Answer: C

10. The minimum vertical distance from the floor or soil level to the top edge of the foundation
must be around ______.

A. 150 mm
B. 100 mm
C. 200 mm
D. 120 mm

Answer: D

11. For stability, the total combined engine, driven equipment, and foundation center of gravity
must be kept ________.

A. below the foundations top

B. above the foundations top
C. 120 mm above the foundations top
D. none of the above

Answer: A

12. There shall be no foundation bolts less that ____.

A. 12 mm in diameter
B. 16 mm in diameter
C. 18 mm in diameter
D. 20 mm in diameter

Answer: A

13. The weight of steel bar reinforcements should be how many times the weight of the
foundation?

A. 1/2% to 1%
B. 1% to 1.5%
C. 2% to 5%
D. 3.2% to 4.2%

Answer: A

14. Concrete foundation should have steel bar reinforcements placed vertically and horizontally
to avoid ______.

A. breaking
B. thermal cracking
C. melting
D. vibration

Answer: B

15. Foundations bolt length should be at least how many times the anchor bolt diameter?

A. 16 times
B. 18 times
C. 20 times
D. 30 times

Answer: B

16. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and surrounded by a pipe sleeve with an
inside diameter of at least how many times the diameter of the anchor bolt?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Answer: A

17. For a diesel engine's foundation, in pouring a concrete mixture, it should be poured :

A. one time
B. two times
C. three times
D. four times

Answer: A

18. For foundations of steam turbine, the concrete mixture should be ______.

A. 1:2:4
B. 1:3:5
C. 1:3:4
D. 1:2:4

Answer: A

19. The steam turbine foundation should be designed to support the machine load plus how
many percent for impact, condenser load, floor loads and dead loads ?

A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 30

Answer: C
20. Which of the following draft rely on the stack effect to draw off combustion gases?

A. natural draft
B. forced draft
C. induced draft
D. balanced draft

Answer: A

21. Fans located before the furnace that are used to supply air for burning

A. natural draft
B. forced draft
C. induced draft
D. balanced draft

Answer: B

22. Forced draft fans are run at relatively high speeds in the range of :

A. 1200 to 1800 rpm

B. 1000 to 1600 rpm
C. 1500 to 2000 rpm
D. 900 to 1500 rpm

Answer: A

23. Chimneys that rely on natural draft are sometimes reffered to as

A. natural chimney
B. gravity chimney
C. normal chimney
D. stack

Answer: B

24. Force draft fans create a positive pressure of :

A. 0.5 to 2.5 kPa

B. 1.0 to 3.0 kPa
C. 2.0 to 4.0 kPa
D. 0.2 to 2.2 kPa

Answer: A

25. Fans that are used to draw combustion products through the furnace bed, stack and
pollution control system by injecting air into the stack after combustion.

A. natural draft
B. forced draft
C. induced draft
D. balanced draft

Answer: C

26 The term used when the static pressure is equal to the atmospheric pressure.

A. natural draft
B. forced draft
C. induced draft
D. balanced draft

Answer: D

27. In order to keep combustion products inside the combustion chamber and stack system,
balanced draft system may actually operate with a slight

A. negative pressure
B. positive pressure
C. positive and negative pressures
D. absolute pressure

Answer: A

28. The static pressure drop due to friction through the boiler and stack.

A. draft loss
B. available draft
C. stack effect
D. fan boost

Answer: A

29. The difference between the theoretical draft loss.

A. draft loss
B. available draft
C. stack effect
D. fan boost

Answer: B

30. In a balanced system the available draft is:

A. unity
B. zero
C. 100
D. infinite

Answer: B

31. The total pressure supplied by the fan at maximum operating conditions.
A. net rating or fan boost
B. draft loss
C. available draft
D. stack effect

Answer: A

32. Generally the higher the chimney

A. the smaller the stack effect

B. the greater the stack effect
C. stack effect is zero
D. stack effect approaches unity

Answer: B

33. Modern stacks are seldom built higher than

A. 60 m
B. 50 m
C. 40 m
D. 30 m

Answer: A

34. Most stacks are built of height less than:

A. 60 m
B. 50 m
C. 40 m
D. 30 m

Answer: D

35. The average flue gas temperature is

A. the temperature entering the stack

B. the temperature leaving the stack
C. the temperature halfway up the stack
D. the sum of the temperatures

Answer: C

36. The coefficient of velocity is approximately

A. 0.30 to 0.50
B. 0.40 to 0.60
C. 0.20 to 0.40
D. 0.50 to 0.70
Answer: A

37. For realistic problems, the achievable stack effect probably should be considered to be:

A. 75% of the ideal

B. 80% of the ideal
C. equal of the ideal
D. half of the ideal

Answer: B

38. Guyed stacks seldom exceed:

A. 1.83 m in diameter
B. 2.83 in diameter
C. 1.45 in diameter
D. 2.45 in diameter

Answer: A

39. The angle between the stack and the guy wire is usually :

A. 30 degrees
B. 45 degrees
C. 60 degrees
D. 75 degrees

Answer: C

40. Guyed stacks height seldom exceed

A. 30.48 m
B. 34.80 m
C. 43.80 m
D. 48.30 m

Answer: A

41. The maximum unit pressure of turbine and generator on the reinforced concrete should not
exceed

A. 17.62 kg/cm2
B. 18.62 kg/cm2
C. 16.62 kg/cm2
D. 19.62 kg/cm2

42. Foundations should be isolated from floor slabs or building footings by at least how many
mm to eliminate transmission of vibration.

A. 25 mm
B. 15 mm
C. 35 mm
D. 45 mm

Answer: A

43. Concrete foundations should have steel bar reinforcements placed both vertically and
horizontally to avoid

A. vibrations
B. thermal cracking
C. breakdown
D. rupture

Answer: B

44. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and surrounded by a pipe sleeve with an
inside diameter of at least how many times the diameter of the anchor bolt?

A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

Answer: A

45. Foundation bolts of specified size should be used and surrounded by a pipe sleeve with a
length of at least how many times the diameter of the bolt?

A. 18
B. 14
C. 15
D. 16

Answer: A

46. Foundation should be designed to support the machine load plus how many % for impact,
condenser load, floor load, and dead load?

A. 25
B. 34
C. 15
D. 36

Answer: A

47. In guyed steel stacks, the angle between wires in a set of 3 is:

A. 120 degrees
B. 110 degrees
C. 135 degrees
D. 145 degrees
Answer: A

48. Guys are usually applied in how many sets?

A. 1 to 3
B. 2 to 4
C. 3 to 5
D. 4 to 6

Answer: A

49. The empirical coefficient e in machine foundation if not given is assumed

A. 0.11
B. 0.25
C. 0.32
D. 0.15

Answer: A

50. The term suction units is used with

A. natural draft
B. forced draft
C. induced draft
D. balanced draft

Answer: C

CHAPTER 17
INSTRUMENTATION

1. An instrument used for measuring evaporation, generally that of water, into the atmosphere.

A. aerometer
B. atmometer
C. anemometer
D. fadometer

Answer: B

2. An instrument for testing the resistance of material to fading when they are exposed to
artificial sunlight or ultraviolet light under controlled conditions.

A. fadometer
B. fulgurator
C. odometer
D. atmometer

Answer: A

3. The type of calorimeter in which the specific heat of a specimen is measured by the quantity
of ice it melts is the :

A. ice calorimeter
B. heat calorimeter
C. vapor calorimeter
D. hysometer

Answer: A

4. An instrument used for determination of the boiling point of water for estimating the altitude
above sea level from its known variation with atmospheric pressure.

A. vapor calorimeter
B. hysometer
C. boiler
D. vapor bomb

Answer: B

5. A unit of work or energy equal to 107 ergs. It is equivalent to the work done by a force of one
Newton acting through a distance of one meter.

A. Btu
B. Calorie
C. Joule
D. Watt

Answer: C

6. An elegtromagnetic device for separating isotopes by electrical sorting of their ions.

A. ion sorter
B. isotopes sorter
C. isotron
D. jolly balance

Answer: C

7. A device used for the determination of the specific gravity of a substance by weighing it in air
and in water.

A. kelvin balance
B. spring balance
C. hysometer
D. jolly balance
Answer: D

8. which of the following instruments is NOT used to measure flow rates?

A. anenometer
B. rotameter
C. flowmeter
D.velometer

Answer: D

9. An instrument used to measure the quality of steam is the :

A. psychometer
B. gas calorimeter
C. pyrometer
D. steam calorimeter

Answer: D

10. An instrument used to measure the density if gases is known as:

A. aerovane
B. aerometer
C. hygrometer
D. atmometer

Answer: A

11. Which of the following is the apparatus used for mixing air with other fluids?

A. carburetor
B. dehydrator
C. gas mixer
D. aerotor

Answer: D

12. A device that supplies air to an air - injection system is called :

A. air pump
B. air nozzle
C. gas scrubber
D. air injector

Answer: B

13. An intrument used for measuring pressure, flow velocity an discharge rate of a fluid flowing
in a conduit.

A. kampometer
B. flowmeter
C. pitot tube
D. katharometer

Answer: B

14. An instrument used for measuring radiant energy especially in the thermal region.

A. kampometer
B. luxmeter
C. kapnometer
D. katharometer

Answer: A

15. An instrument for the determination of the composition of the gas mixture by measuring
variations in the thermal conductivity.

A. kampometer
B. atmometer
C. kapnometer
D. katharometer

Answer: D

16. An apparatus used for measuring the surface tension of a liquid by recording the force
necessary to detach a metal ring from the surface.

A. tachometer
B. tensionmeter
C. odometer
D. telemeter

Answer: B

17. An instrument used for measuring various quantities at a distance.

A. tachometer
B. odometer
C. DME
D. telemeter

Answer: D

18. An apparatus used for determination of the transition point by measuring the temperature at
which the vapor pressure of the two modifications become equal.

A. tensionmeter
B. tensimeter
C. tachometer
D. bourdon gauge
Answer: B

19. An instrument for measuring the revolutions per minute of a rotating shaft.

A. tachometer
B. odometer
C. all of the choices
D. speedometer

Answer: A

20. A device used for demonstrating the extreme force exerted by water when it freezes is
called:

A. ice calorimeter
B. hysometer
C. ice bomb
D. freezer

Answer: C

21. A device to measure vertical distances or displacements?

A. kampometer
B. kapnometer
C. altimeter
D. cathetometer

Answer: D

22. A precision instrument for measuring very short time intervals.

A. clinometer
B. chronoscope
C. stop watch
D. decremeter

Answer: B

23. Which of the following is a laboratory method for the determination of the boiling range of
petroleum?

A. jolly balance
B. kelvin balance
C. engler distillation
D. fractional distillation

Answer: C

24. An instrument used to measure the humidity in the air.

A. hygrometer
B. hydrometer
C. pressure gage
D. wind vane

Answer: A

25. An instrument used to measure the specific gravity or relative density of liquids.

A. hygrometer
B. hydrometer
C. u-tube
D. manometer

Answer: B

26. An apparatus used for the determination of the concentration of solid or liquid particles
dispersed in a gas, such as the density of smoke or fog.

A. kampometer
B. atmometer
C. kapnometer
D. katharometer

Answer: C

27. Past ME Board Question

Hydrometer is used to find out:

A. specific gravity of liquids

B. specific gravity of solids
C. specific gravity of gases
D. relative humidity

Answer: A

28. Past ME Board Question

What is the clockwork operated device which records continuously the humidity of the
atmosphere?

A. hetograph
B. hygrometer
C. hygrodeik
D. hyrograph

Answer: D

29. Past ME Board Question

A device whose function is to pass an information in an unchanged form or in some modified
form.
A. relay
B. sensor
C. transmitter
D.transducer

Answer: A

30. Past ME Board Question

A general term for a device that receives information in the form of one or more physical
quantities, modifies the information and or its form if required and produces a resultant output
signal.

A. converter
B. transducer
C. sensor
D. scanner

Answer: B

31. Past ME Board Question

An engine indicator is generally used to measure what?

A. steam temperature
B. heat loss
C. steam cylinder pressure
D. gauge reading errors

Answer: C

32. Past ME Board Question

In the processing section, there is an instrument frequently used to measure the flow rate of
fluids. what is the instrument consisting of a vertical passage with variable cross-sectional
area, float and a calibrated scale?

A. rotameter
B. pitot tube
C. rota aire
D. manometer

Answer: A

33. Past ME Board Question

What is the function of a steam separator?

A. trapping the steam and letting water through

B. throttling
C. changing direction of the steam flow
D. steam metering

Answer: A
34. Past ME Board Question
A salimeter reads what?

A. density of brine
B. dew point temperature
C. rate of brine
D. relative humidity

Answer: A

35. Past ME Board Question

Which of the following measures the density of salt in the water?

A. salimeter
B. pitot tube
C. hydrometer
D. odometer

Answer: A

CHAPTER 18
BASIC EE

1. Ebb current refers to:

A. eddy current
B. the movement of the tidal current away from the shore or down the tidal stream
C. the removal by screen of undesirable fine materials from broken ore
D. none of the above

Answer: D

2. In power station practice ''spinning reverse'' is

A. reverse generating capacity that is in operation but ot in service

B. reverse generating capacity that is connected to bus and ready to take load
C. reverse generating capacity that is available for service but not in operation
D. capacity of the part of plant remains under maintenance

Answer: B

3. Turn around efficiency of battery energy storage system is about

A. 75%
B. 40%
C. 25%
D. 80%
Answer: A

4. Most of the generators in thermal power plants run at :

A. 15000 rpm
B. 1500 rpm
C. 700 rpm
D. 3000 rpm

Answer: B

5. The power supplied to domestic consumers is at 220 volts. This represents:

A. mean value of voltage

B. seak value of voltage
C. RMS value of voltage
D. none of the above

Answer: C

6. The conductors that are used for transmitting bulk of power at high voltage are which of the
following type?

A. cadmium copper
B. galvanized steel
C. any of the above
D. copper

Answer: D

7. When the conductor is suspended between two supports at the same level its shape
becomes

A. catenary
B. cycloid
C. semi circle
D. parabola

Answer: A

8. Sag is provided in overheated transmission lines so that:

A. repairs can be carried out easily

B. corona can be reduced
C. skin effect can be reduced
D. safe tension is not exceeded

Answer: D

9. The string efficiency in an AC system is

A. 50.75%
B. 100%
C. 25.50%
D. 70.7%

Answer: D

10. Satellites are powered by:

A. solar cells
B. thermo-electric generators
C. thermionic converters
D. photo-electric cells

Answer: A

11. A ship is powered by :

A. steam turbine
B. diesel engine
C. steam turbines or diesel engine
D. steam turbines, diesel engine, hydraulic turbines or nuclear reactors

Answer: C

12. Which of the following plant is suitable for peak load?

A. diesel engine plant

B. steam power plant
C. nuclear power plant
D. all of the above

Answer: A

13. The term 'critical' is associated with power plant of the type:

A. steam power plant

B. diesel engine power plant
C. hydro-electric power plant
D. nuclear power plant

Answer: D

14. A turbo charger is a part of a:

A. thermal power plant

B. diesel engine power plant
C. hydro-electric power plant
D. nuclear power plant
Answer: B

15. Which of the following plant has least pollution problem?

A. steam power plant

B. gas turbine power plant
C. nuclear power plant
D. hydro-electric power plant

Answer. D

16. Which of the following power plant can be installed within the shortest time?

A. nuclear power plant

B. hydro-electric power plant
C. gas turbine power plant
D. diesel engine power plant

Answer: D

17. Which of the following item consumes least power?

A. toaster
B. desert cooler
C. electric shaver
D. electric iron

Answer. C

18. Which of the following needs highest level of illumination?

A. proof reading
B. hospital wards
C. railway platforms
D. foyer for cinema halls

Answer: A

19. The lamp that is used for cinema projection is a:

A. frosted GLS lamp

B. nitrogen filled GLS lamp
C. mercury vapor lamp
D. carbon arc lamp

Answer: D

20. In flourescent tube circuit, choke acts as a

A. a starter
B. a device for improving the power factor
C. a current limiting device
D. a source of heat

Answer: B

21. Transient disturbances are due to:

A. switching operations
B. load variations
C. faults
D. any of the above

Answer:D

22. Bottoming cycle is quite common in:

A. cement plants
B. sugar mills
C. paper mills
D. all of the above

Answer: A

23. Which of the following is the most highly developed device for confining plasma with
magnetic field?

A. tokamak
B. tomahawk
C. breeder reactor
D. cyclotron

Answer: A

24. Fuses and circuit breakers do not protect electric motors from :

A. short circuiting
B. motor burnout
C. overload
D. overheating

Answer: D

25. Corona generally results in:

A. violet glow
B. hissing noise
C. production of ozone gas
D. all of the above

Answer: D
26. Which of the following affects corona?

A. conductor size
B. spacing between conductors
C. line voltage
D. all of the above

Answer: D

27. The statement that the product of the error in the measured determination of a particle's
position and its momentum is of the order of Plank's constant "h" is known as

A. Bohr's theory
B. D'Alembert's paradox
C. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle
D. Planck's law

Answer: C

28. The phenomenon of physical adhesion of molecules of the surfaces of solids without
chemical reaction is

A. dredging
B. absorption
C. coking
D. liquation

Answer: B

29. Fuses and circuit breaker do not protect electric motors from:

A. short circuiting
B. motor burnout
C. overload
D. overheating

Answer: D

30. In which of the following systems where Betz law is widely used?

A. MHD systems
B. solar cells
C. geothermal power plants
D. wind mills

Answer: D

31. At what rpm where most of the generator in thermal power plants run?

A. 15000 rpm
B. 1500 rpm
C. 750 rpm
D. 3000

Answer: B

32. Turnaround efficiency of the battery energy storage system is about

A. 75%
B. 40%
C. 25%
D. 80%

Answer: A

33. The conductors that are used for transmitting bulk of power at high voltage are of which of
the following type?

A. cadmium copper
B. galvanized steel
C. any of the above
D. copper

Answer: D

34. Corona generally results in

A. violet glow
B. hissing noise
C. production of ozone gas
D. all of the above

Answer: D

35. Which of the following affects corona?

A. coductor size
B. spacing between conductors
C. line voltage
D. all of the above

Answer: D

36. When a conductor is suspended between two supports at the same level its shape
becomes

A. catenary
B. cycloid
C. semicircle
D. parabola

Answer: A
37. Past ME Board Question
What is the unit of electromagnetic wave frequency?

A. volts
B. horsepower
C. hertz
D. knot

Answer: C

CHAPTER 19
LATEST BOARD EXAM QUESTIONS

1. Past Board Question

A pump with capacity Q1 and head H1 series with another pump with capacity Q2 and head H2.
What is the head developed if Q2 is less than Q1?

A. 2 H2 H1
B. H2 + H1
C. H2 / H1
D. H2H1

Answer: B

2. Past Board Question

At ordinary temperature what substance will behave as inert gas and will not react in the
combustion process?

A. nitrogen
B. sulfur
C. hydrogen
D. carbon

Answer: A

3. Past Board Question

Which of the following cycles is ideal for spark-ignition reciprocating engine?

A. Diesel cycle
B. Dual cycle
C. Rankine Cycle
D. Otto cycle

Answer: D

4. Past Board Question

What is the relative humidity when the dew point and dry bulb temperature are equal?
A. 110 %
B. O %
C. 100 %
D. 50%

Answer: C

5. Past Board Question

Reheating process is normally employed in steam plane when:

A. there is excess steam

B. subcooling is required
C. turbine undergoes excessive moisture
D. dehumidifying is required

Answer: C

6. Past Board Question

Where does the final removal of water vapor In an absorption refrigeration system occur?

A. analyzer
B. generator
C. condenser
D. rectifier

Answer: D

7.Past Board Question

If the average temperature liquid of power cycle during heat addition process is as high
as possible, then the thermal efficiency of the cycle will:

A. increase
B. remain constant
C. decrease
D. zero

Answer: A

8. Past Board Question

What is the temperature of lubricant at which it will ignite thus limit its application?

A. cold point
B. burning point
C. flash point
D. use point

Answer: C

9. Past Board Question

What is the heat that is removed from the space to be cooled, which is the same as the heat
absorbed by the cooling coils?

A. heating capacity
B. enthalpy
C. work compression
D. refrigerating effect

Answer: D

10. Past Board Question

An air conditioning system In Wthh water is chilled or cooled and which passes the evaporator
coils.

A. chilled water system

B. direct expansion
C. absorption
D. water circulation system

Answer: A

11. Past Board Question

A multi-stage refrigeration system which is realizable in using different refrigerants.

A. direct
B. cascade
C. flooded
D. vapor

Answer: B

12. Past Board Question

Very large pipe diameter means a thicker wall and high cost. It also means

A. zero pressure drop

B. high pressure drop
C. constant temperature
D. low pressure drop

Answer: B

13. Past Board Question

Aside from maintaining appropriate temperature for food cold storage, how is desiccation
minimized or decreased?

A. low oxygen
B. maintain humidity ratio
C. low air circulation
D. increase humidity ratio

Answer: B
14. Past Board Question
During combustion process, only limited air is supplied and not enough to supply two molecule
of oxygen per one molecule of carbon, then the product is:

A. hydration
B. carbon monoxide
C. carbonic acid
D. carbon dioxide

Answer: B

15. Past Board Question

As far as combustion chamber design is considered, the maximum power output of a given
engine can be increased by:

A. increasing combustion time

B. increasing combustion chamber volume
C. decreasing combustion chamber volume
D. providing small values

Answer: C

16. Past Board Question

A water conservation device which employs both air and water is condensed a condenser and
cooling tower combined into one is called:

A. shell and tube condenser

B. air-cooled condenser
C. water-cooled condenser
D. evaporative condenser

Answer: D

17. Past Board Question

lnorder to perform efficiently, a power cycle must be communicated with the outside
temperature of its surroundings and into one is called;

A. Kirchoff's Law
B. Second Law of Thermodynamics
C. Kelvin-Planck Law
D. First Law of Thermodynamics

Answer: B

18. Past Board Question

Water is heated in a container. lt eXpands and becomes less dense and lighter. lt rises up the
container because of its reduced density and replaced by cooler air. As this process continues,
the heat is transferred and disturbed all throughout. What is this mode of heat transfer called?

A. condenser
B. radiation
C. conduction
D. convection

Answer: D

19 Past Board Question

When required, a regulator water valve in refrigerating
system should be

A. on the suction line on compressor Iine

B. in the water inlet
C. anywhere in the system
D. in the water outlet

Answer: D

20. Past Board Question

When there is no work between the thermodynamic system and its surrounding, the quantity of
net heat transfer is equal to:

A. total energy of an open system

B. temperature of an open system
C. temperature of a closed system
D. total energy of a closed system

Answer: D

21. Past Board Question

In order to attain equilibrium in the condenser, the cooling tower range must be _____ with
respect to temperature rise in the condenser.

A. greater
B. equal
C. less
D. zero

Answer: B

22. Past Board question

If ice will form in a solution of water and salt, then it is at a temperature called:

A. dew point
B. freezing point depression
C. boiling point depression
D. critical point

Answer: B

23. Past Board Question

The flow of the convergent section of a nozzle is always subsonic. If the flow is subsonic then
the mach number is:
A. greater than unity
B. less than unity
C. near than unity
D. unity

Answer: B

24. Past Board Question

One hundred twenty percent theoretical air was supplied for combustion. What is the equivalent
excess equal to:

A. 20 %
B. 100 %
C. 240 %
D. 120 %

Answer: A

25. Past Board Question

If Pi is the indicated horsepower and Pb is the indicated horsepower of a compressor, then what
is mechanical efficiency, Em, equal to:

A. Em = Pb/Pi
B. Em = Pi/Pb
C. Em = Pb-Pi
D. Em = Pi-Pb

Answer: B

26. Past Board Question

What is the least number of compressor a multistage system that will use?

A. three
B. two
C. four
D. one

Answer: B

27. Past Board Question

The relation between the Fahrenheit absolute scale and the Celsius absolute scale is:

A. R= 1.8 °K
B. R=32 °K
C. R=3.2 °K
D. R= 18 °K

Answer: A

28. Past Board Question

The sum of the internal energy and the product of pressure and specific volume is
known as the:

A. enthalpy
B. entropy
C. total work
D. total internal energy

Answer: A

29. Past Board Question

A refrigeration control that guards the compressor form overloads brought about by abruptly
increases loads resulting from defrosting, warm products and others, is called:

A. safety valve
B. suction hold-back valve
C. solenoid valve
D. expansion valve

Answer: B

30. Past Board Question

What does fossil-fuel fired power plants release, which in turn produces the key ingredient in
acid rain?

A. nitrogen
B. sulfur emission
C. carbon monoxide
D. carbon dioxide

Answer: B

31. Past Board Question

The fraction of the radiation energy incident on a surface which is absorbed by the surface is
called:

A. Convection
B. Absorptivity
C. Emission
D. Radiation

Answer: B

32. Past Board Question

Which of the following power plants uses energy from uranium to produce electric power?

A. Diesel Plant
B. Geothermal Plant
C. Nuclear Plant
D. Hydroelectric Plant i
Answer: C

33. Past Board Question

Ice cubes added to a glass of water and stirred. Moisture starts to form on the outer surface of
the glass. At his point. what is the temperature at the outer surface called?

A. critical temperature
B. surface temperature
C. dew point temperature
D. saturation temperature

Answer: C

34. Past Board Question

The force when applied to a mass of one kilogram will give mass an acceleration of one meter
per second for every second called:

A. Watt
B. Joule
C. Newton
D. Pascal

Answer: C

35. Past Board Question

The kinetic energy of a moving fluid is used to isentropically compressed the fluid to state of
zero velocity. The temperature ofa moving fluid at the state zero velocity is called:

A. stagnation temperature
B. partial temperature
C. critical temperature
D. absolute temperature

Answer: A

36. Past Board Question

The dew point temperature of the product of combustion in the saturation temperature that
corresponds to the partial pressure of the ____ in the products.

A. SO2
B. H2O
C. N2
D. CO2

Answer: B

37. Past Board Question

What do we call a devrce that is used to boiler operation that will stop the burner or at least
send a signal to the operator if the water drops to a low level that is no longer safe?

A. safety valve
B. dead - weight valve
C. high water cut off
D. low water out off

Answer: D

38. Past Board Question

Dry analysis is a fractional analysis of the products of combustion which does not include:

A. water vapor
B. carbon dioxide
C. sulfur dioxide
D. carbon monoxide

Answer: A

39. Past Board Question

The size of a reciprocating pump is stamped on the builder's plate 3" x 4" x 6'. The diameter of
the liquid cylinder is:

A. 5"
B. 6"
C. 3"
D. 4"

Answer: D

40. Past Board Question

One foot water is equal to:

A. 0.4138Ib/in.2
B. 68.3lb/ft.2
C. 0.8673lb/in.2
D. 62.43lb/ft.2

Answer: D

41. Past Board Question

The freezing point of R - 22 is:

A. -109 °F
B. -252 °F
C. -256 °F
D. -211 °F

Answer: C

42. Past Board Question

Which of the following is a type of evaporator?

A. shell-and-tube- condenser
B. sell-and-tube-water cooler
C. oil lantern rings
D. polyphase motors

Answer: A

43. Past Board Question

For Brayton cycle. the result of regeneration is:

A. increase in thermal efficiency

B. decrease thermal efficiency
C. moderate thermal efficiency
D. low thermal efficiency

Answer: A

44. Past Board Question

If the pressure exerted on a liquid is higher than the saturation corresponding to its temperature,
the liquid is a:

A. saturated liquid
B. subcooled liquid
C. superheated liquid
D. highly superheated liquid

Answer: B

45. Past Board Question

In a power driven pump. each piston stroke is displaced by 360° divided the ______.

A. revolution per minute

B. bore
C. length of the stroke
D. number of cylinders

Answer: D

46. Past Board Question

If the air is compressed without discarding heat, then what do you call this kind of compression?

A. isobaric
B. isochoric
C. adiabatic
D. isothermal

Answer: C

47. Past Board Question

If a gas posses internal energy, then it is due to its;

A. velocity
B. pressure and volume values
C. height from a certain datum level
D. molecular motion

Answer: D

48. Past Board Question

The pressure of ammonia was detected in brine solution. How can ammonia be removed?

A. freeze the brine solution

B. heat the brine to a high temperature enough to free the ammonia
C. throw the brine solution
D. lower the temperature of the brine

Answer: B

49. Past Board Question

What will happen when the pressure at any point inside a centrifugal pump goes below the
vapor pressure corresponding to the temperature of the liquid?

A. turbulent flow
B. laminar flow
C. cavitation
D. priming

Answer: C

50. Past Board Question

What does a negative Joule-Thompson coefficient means during a throttling process?
A. fluid pressure is constant
B. fluid temperature drop
C. fluid temperature rises
D. fluid pressure zero

Answer: C

51. Past Board Question

For steam power plants, increasing the operating pressure of the boiler will:

A. increase thermal efficiency

B. decrease thermal efficiency
C. bring thermal efficiency to zero
D. make thermal efficiency constant

Answer: A

52. Past Board Question

The ratio of the average load to that of the rated capacity of a plant is called:

A. output factor
C. load factor
B. demand factor
D. capacity factor

Answer: D

53. Past Board Question

What is the method used to evaluate all welds performed on pressure parts of boiler tube
materials?

A. hydrostatic test
B. Orsat analysis
C. vacuum test
D. radiographic test

Answer: D

54. Past Board Question

If the pressure is disregarded in the various other components of a steam of gas power plants,
the pressure rise in the pump or compressor is _______ to the pressure drop in the turbine.

A. inversely proportional
B. constant
C. equal
D. varying

Answer: C

55. Past Board Question

What is the effect on saturated temperature if the pressure of the fluid is decreased?

A. there is no effect
B. saturation temperature decreases
C. saturation temperature remains constant
D. saturatlon temperature increases

Answer: B

56. Past Board Question

lf V3 is the cylinder volume after the combustion process of 8 Diesel cycle and V2 is its cylinder
volume before combustion, then calculate the cut-off ratio, r.

A. r = V3 - V2
B. r = V2 - V3
C. r = V2/V3
D. r = V3/V2

Answer: D

57. Past Board Question

Compare the temperature of discharge vapor refrigerant leaving the compressor for a
superheated cycle and the saturated cycle. for the same condensing temperature and pressure.

A, there is no difference
B. higher for the superheated cycle
C. higher. for the saturated cycle
D. lower for the Superheated cycle

Answer: B

58. Past Board Question

A valve that releases steam from the boiler by opening at a pre-determined pressure in order to
keep the steam pressure from rising more than the pressure from which the valve is set is called
a

A. ammonia valve
B. stop valve
C. check valve
D. safety valve

Answer: D

59. Past Board Question

What is the relationship of the capacity of a centrifugal pump, Q, to impeller diameter. D, when
there are two impeller diameters in the same pump?

A. Q is directly proportional to the square of the ratio of D

B. Q is inversely proportional to the ratio of D
C. Q is directly proportional to the ratio of D
D. Q is inversely proportional to the square of the ratio of D

Answer: C

60. Past Board Question

If Wt is the turbine shaft work of a gas turbine unit, Wc is its compressor shaft work and Q is the
heat supplied in duel, then determine its thermal efficiency.

A. Q / (Wt 4- Wc)
B. Q / (Wt + We)
C. (wt + We) / Q
D. (Wt - Wc) / Q

Answer: D

61. Past Board Question

The schedule number of a pipe, N, indicates the thickness of the pipe wall. If the allowable
stress of the pipe is S, then what is the internal pressure equal to?

A. N-S
B. N/S
C. N*S
D. S/N
Answer: C

62. Past Board Question

What is the pressure present inside the casing of an impulse turbine?
A. vacuum
B. atmospheric pressure
C. above atmospheric
D. zero

Answer: B

63. Past Board Question

In order to remove the fly ashes from the flue gas, which of the following must a power plant be
equipped with?

A. condenser
B. demineralizer
C. electrostatic precipitator
D. desulphurization plant

Answer: C

64. Past Board Question

If Hs is the total suction head of a pump, Hp is its suction surface pressure, and Hf is its suction
friction head, then calculate the total suction head. Ht.

A. Ht=Hs-Hp-Hf
B. Ht=Hs+Hp-Hf
C. Ht=Hs+Hp+Hf
D. Ht=Hs-Hp+Hf

Answer: C

65. Past Board Question

The constant spending of certain percentage of circulated water in a cooling tower in order to
prevent accumulation of dissolved mineral solids and other impurities in the condenser water is
called

A. approach
B. drift
C. range
D. bleed-off

Answer: D

66. Past Board Question

What process is employed when the turbine steam power plants experience excessive
moisture?

A. reheating
B. supercooling
C. suboooling
D. freezing

Answer: A

67. Past board Question

A company is interested to produce a water turbine wherein only little energy is required or
necessary because the guide vanes are to be controlled. The turbine must be a:

A. gas turbine
B. propeller turbine
C. Kaplan turbine
D. Francis turbine

Answer: C

68. Past Board Question

lf Et is the total net energy generated by a plant in a certain period of time and Er is the rated
net energy capacity of the plant during the same period of time then what is the plant operating
factor?

A. Er - Et
B. Et/ Er
C. Et - Er
D. Er/ Et

Answer: B

69. Past Board Question

If W is the work output of a heat engine and H is the total heat input of an engine. then
determine its thermal efficiency, e.

A. e=H/W
B. e=W/H
C. e=WxH
D. e=I - (W - H)

Answer: B

70. Past Board Question

Which of the following is converted to mechanical energy by a water.

A. lnternal energy
B. kinetic energy
C. potential energy
D. hydraulic energy

Answer: C

71. Past Board Question

What must be the value of the available Net PositiVe Suction Head (NPSH) of a centrifugal
pump compared to its require NPSH to avoid losing priming?

A. available NPSH lesser than required NPSH

B. available NPSH equal than required NPSH
C. available NPSH greater than required NPSH
D.available NPSH constant at all times

Answer: C

72. Past Board Question

What type of fuel is used with stationary power plants where gas is available by pipeline?

A. gaseous fuels
B. solid fuels
C. coal
D. liquid fuels

Answer: A

73. Past Board Question

Wb is shaft work of an engine and Wi is the indicated work of an engine. If mechanical friction is
present in the engine mechanism, then:

A. Wb is equal to Wi
B. Wb is less than Wi
C. Wb is proportional to Wi
D. Wb is greater then Wi

Answer: B

74. Past Board Question

What is the saturation pressure at the critical temperature, or the lowest pressure in which a
substance can be in the liquid state at its critical pressure?

A. external pressure
B. critical pressure
C. condensing pressure
D. evaporation pressure

Answer: B

75. Past Board Question

What is the significance of a high dielectric strength of lubricating oil?

A. oil is thick
B. oil is contaminant-free
C. oil is thin
D. oil is not clean

Answer: B
76. Past Board Question
Theoretically. what is the effect of the compressor clearance on horsepower?

A. varies in direct proportion

B. increase power
C. decrease power
D. there is no effect

Answer: D

77. Past Board Question

Compare the refrigerating effect per unit mass of refrigerant circulated for a superheated cycle
that produces useful cooling and a saturated cycle. for the same vaporizing and condensing
temperature.

A. lower for a superheated cycle

B. greater for a saturated cycle
C. the same
D. greater for a superheated cycle

Answer: D

78. Past Board Question

It is important to take some moisture from the air to dehumidify it if the relative humidity reaches
high levels. To do this, it requires cooling the air:

A. at wet-bulb temperature
B. above its dew point temperature
C. at critical temperature
D. below its dew point temperature

Answer: D

79. Past Board Question

What does enthalpy measure in a substance?

A. its coldness
B. its heat content
C. its humidity
D. its dew point

Answer: B

80. Past Board Question

Pneumatic tools are powered by:

A. natural gas
B. air
C. electricity
D. steam
Answer: B

81. Past Board Question

The pump will not cavitate if the available Net Positive Suction Head (NPSH) is:

A. less than the required NPSH

B. equal or lesser than the required NPSH
C. equal or greater than the required NPSH
D. zero compared to the mquired NPSH of 1

Answer: C

82. Past Board Question

A water-tube condenser has a total of 60 tubes. If these are two passes, then compute the
number of tube per pass.

A. 6C
B. 15
C. 3C
D.2

Answer: B

83. Past Board Question

if Ev is the volumetric efficiency of a reciprocating pump, then determine SLIP which represents
all losses of capacity given in percentage of the displacement.

A. 1/Ev
B. 1-1/EV
C.1-Ev
D. Ev+1

Answer: C

84. Past Board Question

What is the relationship of the horsepower of a centrifugal pump, Hp, to the impeller speed, S, if
the pump is at two different rotative speeds?

A. Hp is inversely proportional to the cube of the ratio of S

B. Hp is directly proportional to the ratio of S
C. Hp is inversely proportional to the ratio of S
D. Hp is directly proportional to the cube of the ratio of S

Answer: D

85. Past Board Question

What is likely to occur when sections of the lmpeller of a centrifugal pump are handling vapor
and other sections are handling liquid?

A. erosion of the pump

B. high head and low capacity
C. excessive vibration
D. complete failure to operate

Answer: D

86. Past Board Question

When vapor compression takes place on one side of the piston and one during one revolution of
the crankshaft, then the compressor is :

A. double-acting
B. four-cycle
C. two-revolution
D. single-acting

Answer: D

87. Past Board Question

ln Stirling and Erickson Cycles, the efficiency can be increased by:

A. compressibility
B. superheating
C. regeneration
D. subcooling

Answer: C

88. Past Board Question

Which of the following is used to control refrigeration compressor capacity?

A. dehumidifier
B. check valve
C. solenoid valve
D. unloader

Answer: D

89. Past Board Question

During a cooling and dehumidifying process, sensible and latent heats are removed in the
cooling coil. If Hs is the sensible heat and Ht is the total heat transferred. then determine the coil
sensible factor.

A. Ht - Hs
B. Hs- Ht
C. Ht/Hs
D. Hs/ Ht

Answer: D

90. Past Board Question

Based on PSME code, what should be provided in each stream outlets if two or more boilers
will be connected in parallel?

A. relief and check valves

B. non-retum and shut-off valves
C. expansion and shut-off valves
D. expansion and check valves

Answer: B

91. Past Board Question

The diesel cycle is the ideal cycle for a:

A, absorption
B. steam-jet
C. compression-ignition engine
D. gas turbine

Answer: C

92. Past Board Question

If a Carnot cycle is at the same maximum and minimum temperatures as a Rankine cycle. then
how would you compare the efficiency of a Rankine cycle to that of the Carnot cycle?

A. efficiency is the same

B. higher efficiency
C. efficiency is the higher .by 30%
D. lower efficiency

Answer: D

93. Past Board Question

Compute the wall gain load of a load storage room when A is the outside surface area of the
wall. D is the temperature differential across the wall, and U is the overall coefficient of heat
transition.

A. AU/D
B. D/N
C. A/UD
D. AUD

Answer: D

94. Past Board Question

If m is the mass of dry air and H is the specific enthalpy of the water vapor in air and r is the
humidity ratio, then determine the latent heat of any dry air.

A. m/(r-H)
B. r/(H-m)
C. (m-r)/H
D. m(rxH)
Answer: D

95. Past Board Question

When an electric motor nameplate indicates a "100-kw electric motor"• then what does a 100-
kw rating refers to?

A. thermal energy input

B. thermal energy output
C. electrical power output
D. mechanical power output

Answer: D

96. Past Board Question

For a hydraulic power to be transmitted at its maximum what should be the value of loss of head
due to friction if H is the total available head?

A. 11H
8. 1/3 H
C. 1/4 H
D. 5H

Answer: C

97. Past Board Question

The ratio of the average load during a certain time to peak the load occurring during the same
period of time is called:

A. demand factor
B. capacity factor
C. load factor
D. output factor

Answer: C

98. Past Board Question

Based on the PSME Code, what should be the effective temperature of the air to be maintained
for comfort cooling at an air movement from 0.0761 to 0.127 meter per second?

A. 25 - 29 degrees C
B. 35 - 39 degrees C
C. 20 - 24 degrees C
D. 30 - 34 degrees C

Answer: C

99. Past Board Question

If R is the delivery rate of a pump. H is the total pumping head and e is the efficiency of the
pump, then compute the power required to drive the pump.
A. R/H x e
B. 1 - (R+H)/e
C. (RxH)/e
D. (h - R)/e

Answer: C

100. Past Board Question

There are three basic boiler types, namely:

A. water-tube, horizontal tube and cast-iron boilers

B. cast-iron. fire-tube and water tube boilers
C. fire-tube, cast-steel nad water tube boilers
D. HRT, fire-tube and Marine Boilers

Answer: B

101. Past Board Question

The amount of heat necessary to bring up the temperature of a unit mass of a substance
through a unit degree is called:

A. specific volume
B. thermal heat
C. total heat
D. specific heat

Answer: D

102. Past Board Question

What is the specific gravity of an oil which has a baume reading g of 28 degrees F?

A. 0.215
B. 0.562
C. 0.886
D. 0.774

Answer: C

103. Past Board Question

If C is the capacity of the compressor in a refrigeration system and F is the heat rejection factor,
then calculate the condenser load, L.

A. L = F - C
B. L = F / C
C. L = C x F
D. L = C / F

Answer: C

104. Past Board Question

Based on the PSME Code, what should be the humidity of air to be used for comfort cooling?
A. 75% - 80% relative humidity
B. 50% - 60% relative humidity
C. 60% - 70% relative humidity
D. 70% - 75% relative humidity

Answer: B

105. Past Board Question

What is the cause of pressure drop in the boiler, condenser and the pipings between different
Components? Because of this drop, steam leaving the boiler is at a lower pressure.

A. positive slip
B. fluid friction
C. negative slip
D. low thermal efficiency

Answer: B