NEET (Pre-Medical)

Conquer Batch | Minor Test-01

Time: 3:20 Hours Test Date: 11 June 2023 Maximum Marks: 720

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2. The test is of 3 hours 20 minutes duration and the Test Booklet contains 200 multiple-choice
questions (four options with a single correct answer) from Physics, Chemistry and Biology (Botany &
Zoology). 50 questions in each subject are divided into two Sections (A and B) as per details given
below:
(a) Section A shall consist of 35 (Thirty-five) Questions in each subject (Questions
Nos- 1 to 35, 51 to 85, 101 to 135 and 151 to 185). All questions are compulsory.
(b) Section B shall consist of 15 (Fifteen) questions in each subject (Question Nos-
36 to 50, 86 to 100, 136 to 150 and 186 to 200). In Section B, a candidate needs to attempt any
10 (Ten) questions out of 15 (Fifteen) in each subject.
Candidate are advised to read all 15 questions in each subject of Section B before they
start attempting the question paper. In the event of a candidate attempting more than
ten questions, the first ten questions answered by the candidate shall be evaluated.
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incorrect response, one mark will deducted from the total scores. The maximum are 720.
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(English)
 TEST SYLLABUS

Conquer Batch | Minor Test-01 | 11 June 2023

Physics: - Units, Dimensions and Measurements.

Chemistry: - Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Atomic

Structure.

Biology: - Animal Kingdom & The Living World,

Biological Classification.
 PART-A: PHYSICS
(3) 0.01 (4) 0.39
SECTION-A
1. ˆ the direction of cosines
If A = 2iˆ + 4ˆj − 5k 6. The component of vector A = 2iˆ + 3ˆj
of the vector A are along the vector ˆi + ˆj is
2 4 −5
(1) , and 5
45 45 45 (1) (2) 10 2
2
1 2 3
(2) , and (3) 5 2 (4) 5
45 45 45
4 4 7. The angle between the two vectors
(3) ,0and
45 45 ˆ
A = 3iˆ + 4ˆj + 5k and B = 3iˆ + 4ˆj − 5kˆ will
3 2 5
(4) , and be
45 45 45 (1) 90° (2) 0°
(3) 60° (4) 45°
 1 ˆ 1 ˆ
2. The expression  i+ j  is a
 2 2  8. A truck travelling due north at 20 m/s
(1) Unit vector turns west and travels at the same
(2) Null vector speed. The change in its velocity be
(1) 40 m/s N–W (2) 20 2 m/s N–W
(3) Vector of magnitude 2
(4) Scalar (3) 40 m/s S–W (4) 20 2 m/s S–W

3. The unit vector along ˆi + ˆj is 9. The magnitude of vector A,B and C are
(1) k̂ (2) ˆi + ˆj respectively 12, 5 and 13 units and
ˆi + ˆj ˆi + ˆj A + B = C then the angle between A and
(3) (4)
2 2
B is
(1) 0 (2) 
4. The angle made by the vector A = ˆi + ˆj (3)  / 2 (4)  / 4
with x- axis is
(1) 90° (2) 45° 10. Magnitude of vector which comes on
(3) 22.5° (4) 30° addition of two vectors, 6iˆ + 7ˆj and

3iˆ + 4ˆj is
5. If a unit vector is represented by
0.5iˆ + 0.8ˆj + ckˆ , then the value of ‘c’ is (1) 136 (2) 13.2

(1) 1 (2) 0.11 (3) 202 (4) 160

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch | Minor Test-01 1

 15. If | A + B| = | A| + |B| , then angle between
11. For the figure
A and B will be
(1) 90° (2) 120°
(3) 0° (4) 60°

16. Two vectors A and B are such that

A + B = A − B . Then

(1) A + B = C (2) B + C = A (1) A .B = 0 (2) A  B = 0

(3) C + A = B (4) A + B + C = 0 (3) A = 0 (4) B = 0

12. If vectors P, Q and R have magnitude 5, 17. ˆ is perpendicular to

If a vector 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 8k
12 and 13 units and P + Q = R, the angle
the vector 4ˆj − 4iˆ + kˆ . Then the value of
between Q and R is
 is
5
−1 5
(1) cos (2) cos −1
1
12 13 (1) –1 (2)
2
12 7
(3) cos−1 (4) cos−1 1
13 13 (3) − (4) 1
2

13. What is the angle between P and the

18. ˆ and B = 2iˆ − 2jˆ + 4kˆ then
If A = 3iˆ + ˆj + 2k
resultant of (P + Q) and (P − Q)
value of | A  B | will be
(1) Zero
−1
(2) tan (P / Q) (1) 8 2 (2) 8 3
−1
(3) tan (Q / P) (3) 8 5 (4) 5 8
−1
(4) tan (P − Q) / (P + Q)
19. If A  B = C, then which of the following
statements is wrong
14. The resultant of P and Q is
(1) C ⊥ A (2) C ⊥ B
perpendicular to P . What is the angle
(3) C ⊥ (A + B) (4) C ⊥ (A  B)
between P and Q
−1 −1
(1) cos (P / Q) (2) cos (−P / Q)
20. A force F = (5iˆ + 3ˆj) Newton is applied
(3) sin−1 (P / Q) (4) sin−1 ( −P / Q)
over a particle which displaces it from
its origin to the point r = (2iˆ − 1j)
ˆ metres.

The work done on the particle is

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch | Minor Test-01 2

 (1) – 7 J (2) +13 J 26. If | A  B |= 3A.B, then the value of
(3) +7 J (4) +11 J
| A + B | is
1/2
21. If for two vectors A and B, A  B = 0, the  AB 
(1)  A 2 + B2 +  (2) A + B
vectors  3
(1) Are perpendicular to each other (3) (A2 + B2 + 3AB)1/2 (4) (A + B + AB)
2 2 1/2

(2) Are parallel to each other

(3) Act at an angle of 60°
27. A metal sphere is hung by a string fixed
(4) Act at an angle of 30°
to a wall. The sphere is pushed away
from the wall by a stick. The forces
22. The angle between vectors (A  B) and acting on the sphere are shown in the
(B  A) is second diagram. Which of the following
statements is wrong
(1) Zero (2) 
(3)  / 4 (4)  / 2

23. Let A = ˆiA cos  + ˆjA sin  be any vector.

Another vector B which is normal to A is

(1) î Bcos  + jB sin 

(2) î B sin  + jBcos  (1) P = Wtan  (2) T + P + W = 0

(3) î B sin  − jBcos  (3) T2 = P2 + W2 (4) T = P + W

(4) î Bcos  − jB sin 

28. Assertion : If | A + B | = | A − B | , then angle

between A and B is 90°

24. If | A  B | = | A .B |, then angle between A
Reason : A + B = B + A
and B will be
(1) If both assertion and reason are true
(1) 30° (2) 45°
and the reason is the correct explanation
(3) 60° (4) 90°
of the assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true
25. The area of the parallelogram whose
but reason is not the correct explanation
sides are represented by the vectors
of the assertion.
ĵ + 3kˆ and ˆi + 2ˆj − kˆ is
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(1) 61 sq.unit (2) 59 sq.unit (4) If the assertion and reason both are
false.
(3) 49 sq.unit (4) 52 sq.unit
29. Newton–second is the unit of
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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch | Minor Test-01 3

 (1) Velocity (3) Work and torque
(2) Angular momentum (4) Impulse and momentum
(3) Momentum
(4) Energy 35. The equation of state of some gases can
 a 
30. Density of wood is 0.5gm/ cc in the CGS
be expressed as  P + 2  (V − b) = RT .
 V 
system of units. The corresponding value Here P is the pressure, V is the volume,
in MKS units is T is the absolute temperature and
(1) 500 (2) 5 a,b,R are constants. The dimensions of
(3) 0.5 (4) 5000
' a ' are
(1) ML5 T −2 (2) ML−1T −2
 a 
31. The equation  P + 2  (v − b) constant. (3) M0L3 T 0 (4) M0L6 T 0
 v 
The units of a are
SECTION-B
(1) Dyne  cm5 (2) Dyne  cm4 36. The velocity of a freely falling body
3 2
(3) Dyne/cm (4) Dyne / cm changes as gphq where g is acceleration
due to gravity and h is the height. The
32. Select the pair whose dimensions are values of p and q are
same
1 1 1
(1) Pressure and stress (a) 1, (b) ,
2 2 2
(2) Stress and strain
1
(3) Pressure and force (c) ,1 (4) 1, 1
2
(4) Power and force
37. The dimensions of physical quantity X in
−1 −2
33. Dimensional formula ML T does not X
represent the physical quantity the equation Force = is given by
Density
(1) Young's modulus of elasticity
(1) M1L4 T −2 (2) M2L−2 T −1
(2) Stress
(3) Strain (3) M2L−2 T −2 (4) M1L−2 T −1
(4) Pressure 1
38. The dimension of is that of
0 0
34. Out of the following, the only pair that (1) Velocity (2) Time
does not have identical dimensions is (3) Capacitance (4) Distance
(1) Angular momentum and Planck's
constant
(2) Moment of inertia and moment of a
force

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch | Minor Test-01 4

39. The physical quantity which has (3) -2x sin (x2 - 1) (4) None of these
dimensional formula as that of
Energy 45. The derivative of sin3x cos3x is
is
Mass  Length (1) 3/5 sin2 2x cos 2x
(2) 3/4 sin2 2x cos 2x
(1) Force (2) Power
(3) 3/4 sin 2x cos2 2K
(3) Pressure (4) Acceleration
(4) 3 12 sin2 2x cos 2x
40. The percentage errors in the
measurement of mass and speed are 2%
and 3% respectively. How much will be 1
46. The value of  dx is :
the maximum error in the estimation of x +1
the kinetic energy obtained by measuring (1) In (x + 1) + C (2) ( x + 1) −2 + C
mass and speed
1
(1) 11% (2) 8% (3) +C (4) In (x – 1) + C
(3) 5% (4) 1%
( x − 1)2

41. What is the number of significant figures 47. The maximum or the minimum value of
in 0.310×103 the function y = 25x2 + 5 – 10x is:
(1) 2 (2) 3 (1) Ymin = 4 (2) Ymax = 8
(3) 4 (4) 6 (3) Ymin = 8 (4) Ymax = 4

The integral 1 x dx is equal to

5 2
42. The radius of a sphere is (5.3  0.1) cm. 48.
The percentage error in its volume is
125 124
0.1 0.1 (1) (2)
(1)  100 (2) 3   100 3 3
5.3 5.3
1
0.1  100 0.1 (3) (4) 45
(3) (4) 3 +  100
3.53 5.3 3

43. A physical quantity P is given by P= 49. As  increases from 0o to 90o, the value
1 of cos :
A3B2 (1) Increases
3
. The quantity which brings in the
C−4D 2 (2) Decreases
maximum percentage error in P is (3) Remains constant
(1) A (2) B (4) First decreases then increases.
(3) C (4) D
1
50. If tan  = and  lies in the first
44. Find the differentiation of cos (x + 1 ) by 2
5
using first principle. quadrant, the value of cos  is :
(1) 2x sin (x2 + 1) (2) -2x sin (x2 + 1)

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch | Minor Test-01 5

 55. The wavelength of a spectral line for an
5 5
(1) (2) − electronic transition is inversely related
6 6
to
1 1
(3) (4) − (1) The number of electrons undergoing
6 6 the transition.
(2) The nuclear charge of the atom.
(3) The difference in the energy of the
PART-B: CHEMISTRY energy levels involved in the transition.
SECTION-A (4) the velocity of electron undergoing
51. Number of atoms in 558.5 g Fe (at. wt. the transition.
55.85) is :
(1) Twice that in 60 g carbon 56. 6.02 x 1020 of urea are present in 100 mL
(2) 6.023 x 1022 solution. The concentration of urea
(3) Half that in 8 g He solution is :
(4) 558.5 x 6.023 x 1023 (1) 0.1 M (2) 0.01 M
(3) 0.02 M (4) 0.001 M
52. What is the total energy of an electron
present in M-shell of the hydrogen 57. To neutralize completely 20 mL of 0.1 M
atom? aqueous solution of phosphorus (H3PO3)
(1) -1.511 eV (2) -3.4 eV acid the volume of 0.1 M aqueous KOH
(3) -13.6 eV (4) -1.541 eV solution required is :
(1) 60 mL (2) 20 mL
53. In a compound C, H, N atoms are present (3) 40 mL (4) 10mL
in 9 : 1 : 3.5 by weight. Molecular weight
of compound is 108. Its molecular 58. Two solutions of a substance (non-
formula is : electrolyte) are mixed in the following
(1) C2H6N2 (2) C3H4N manner; 480 mL of 1.5 M of first solution
(3) C6H8N2 (4) C9H12N3 with 520 mL of 1.2 M of second solution.
The molarity of final solution is:
54. What volume of hydrogen gas at 273 K (1) 1.20 M (2) 1.50 M
and 1 atm pressure will be consumed in (3) 1.344 M (4) 2.70 M
obtaining 21.6 g of elemental boron (at.
mass = 10.8) from the reduction of boron 59. If 1/6, in place of 1/12, mass of carbon
trichloride with hydrogen: atom is taken to be the relative atomic
(1) 44.8 L (2) 22.4 L mass unit, the mass of one mole of a
(3) 89.6 L (4) 67.2 L substance will :
(1) Decrease twice
(2) Increase two folds
(3) Remains unchanges
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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch | Minor Test-01 6

 (4) Be a function of the molecular mass
of element 65. The molarity of a solution obtained by
mixing 750 mL of0.5 (M) HCl with 250 mL
60. How many moles of magnesium of 2 (M) HCl will be:
phosphate, will contain 0.25 mole of (1) 1.00 M (2) 1.75 M
oxygen atom : (3) 0.975 M (4) 0.875M
(1) 2.5 x 10-2 (2) 0.02
(3) 3.125 x 10 -2
(4) 1.25 x 10-2 66. A gaseous hydrocarbon gives upon
61. Density of a 2.05 M solution of acetic combustion 0.72 g of water and 3.08 g of
acid in water is 1.02 g/mL. The molality CO2. The empirical formula of the
of the solution is : hydrocarbon is:
(1) 0.44 mol kg-1 (2) 1.14 mol kg -1
(1) C3H4 (2) C6H5
(3) 3.28 mol kg -1
(4) 2.28 mol kg -1
(3) C7H8 (4) C2H4

62. In the reaction : 67. The ratio of masses of oxygen and

3+
2Al (s) + 6HCl(aq.) → 2Al (aq.) −
+ 6Cl(aq.) + 3H2(g ) nitrogen in a particular gaseous mixture
is 1 : 4. The ratio of number of their
(1) 6 litre HCl(aq) is consumed for every 3L
molecule is
H2(g) produced.
(1) 7 : 32 (2) 1 : 8
(2) 33.6 litre H2(g) is produced regardless
(3) 3 : 16 (4) 1 : 4
of temperature and pressure for every
mole Al that reacts
68. Assertion : The atoms of different
(3) 67.2 litre H2(g) at STP is produced for
elements having same mass number but
every mole Al that reacts
different atomic number are known as
(4) 11.2 litre H2(g) at STP is produced for
isobars.
every mole HCl(aq) consumed
Reason : The sum of protons and
neutrons, in the isobars is always
63. The density (in g mL-1) of a 3.60 M
different.
sulphuric acid solution that is 29% H2SO4
(1) If both assertion and reason are true
(Molar mass 98 g mol-1) by mass will be :
and the reason is the correct explanation
(1) 1.64 (2) 1.88
of the assertion.
(3) 1.22 (4) 1.45
(2) If both assertion and reason are true
but reason is not the correct explanation
64. A 5.2 molal aqueous solution of methyl
of the assertion.
alcohol, CH3OH, is supplied. What is the
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
mole fraction of methyl alcohol in the
(4) If the assertion and reason both are
solution ?
false.
(1) 0.100 (2) 0.190
(3) 0.086 (2) 0.050

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch | Minor Test-01 7

69. 2  108 atoms of carbon are arranged (3) Electrons move in a circular path of
side by side. Calculate the radius of the fixed energy called orbits.
carbon atom if the length of this (4) Electrons and the nucleus are held
arrangement is 2.4 cm. together by electrostatic forces of
(1) 0.06 mm (2) 0.6 cm attraction.
(3) 0.06 nm (4) 0.6 nm
74. A commercially sold conc. HCI is 35%
70. A certain particle carries 2.5  10 C of -16 HCI by mass. If the density of this
static electric charge. Calculate the commercial acid is 1.46 g/mL, the
number of electrons present in it. molarity of this solution is :
(1) 15.6  103 (2) 1.56  103 (Atomic mass : Cl = 35.5 amu, H = 1 amu)
(3) 1.56  102 (4) 1.56  104 (1) 10.2 M (2) 12.5 M
(3) 14.0 M (4) 18.2 M
71. An ion with mass number 37 possesses
one unit of negative charge. If the ion 75. Electronic energy is negative because
contains 11.1% more neutrons than the (1) Electron has negative charge
electrons. Find the symbol of the ion. (2) Energy is zero near the nucleus and
decreases as the distance from nucleus
(1) 37
17
X− (2) 37
18
X−
increases
(3) 37
17
X+ (4) 37
18
X+ (3) Energy is zero at infinite distance
from the nucleus and decreases as the
72. Which of the following properties of electron comes towards nucleus
atom could be explained correctly by (4) These are interelectronic repulsions
Thomson Model of atom?
(1) Overall neutrality of atom. 76. Given that the abundances of isotopes
(2) Spectra of hydrogen atom.
54
Fe, 56
Fe and Fe are 5%, 90% and 5%
57

(3) Position of electrons, protons and respectively, the atomic mass of Fe is:
neutrons in atom. (1) 55.85 u (2) 55.95 u
(4) Stability of atom. (3) 55.75 u (4) 56.05 u

73. Which of the following conclusions could 77. An organic compound made of C, H and
not be derived from Rutherford's - N contains 20% nitrogen. What will be its
particle scattering experiment? molecular mass if it contains only one
(1) Most of the space in the atom is nitrogen atom in it?
empty. (1) 70 (2) 140
(2) The radius of the atom is about 10 -10 (3) 100 (4) 65
m while that of nucleus is 10-15 m.
78. On complete combustion 0.30 g of an
organic compound gave 0.20 g of carbon
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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch | Minor Test-01 8

 dioxide and 0.10 g of water. The 83. One litre sea water (d = 1.03 g/cm3)
percentage of carbon in the given organic contains 10.3 mg O2 gas. Determine
compound is ______ (Nearest Integer) concentration of O2 in ppm.
(1) 16 (2) 17 (1) 100 (2) 10
(3) 18 (4) 19 (3) 0.10 (4) 0.01

79. 8 g of oxygen has the same number of 84. Production of iron in blast furnace
molecules as in: follows the following equation
(a) 11 g CO2 (b) 22 g CO2 Fe3O4(s) + 4CO(g) → 3Fe(l) + 4CO2(g)
(c) 7 g CO (d) 14 g CO when 4.640 kg of Fe3O4, and 2.520 kg of
(1) a, d (2) a, c CO are allowed to react then the amount
(3) b, c, d (4) b, c of iron (in g) produced is :
[Given : Molar Atomic mass (g mol-1): Fe
80. The pair, in which ions are isoelectronic = 56
with Al3+ is : Molar Atomic mass (g mol-1) : O = 16
(1) Br– and Be2+ (B) Cl– and Li+ Molar Atomic mass (g mol-1): C = 12
(C) S 2–
and K +
(D) O2–
and Mg 2+
(1) 1400 (2) 2200
(3) 3360 (4) 4200
81. Complete combustion of 1.80 g of an
oxygen containing compound (CxHyOz) 85. When an electron jumps from L to K
gave 2.64 g of CO2 and 1.08 g of H2O. The shell –
percentage of oxygen in the organic (1) Energy is absorbed
compound is : (2) Energy is released
(1) 50.33 (2) 53.33 (3) Energy is neither absorbed nor
(3) 51.63 (4) 63.53 released
(4) Energy is sometimes absorbed and
82. How do the energy gaps between some times released
successive electron energy levels in an
atom vary from low to high n values? SECTION-B
(1) All energy gaps are the same 86. Compound A contains 8.7% Hydrogen,
(2) The energy gap decreases as n 74% Carbon and 17.3% Nitrogen. The
increases molecular formula of the compound is,
(3) The energy gap increases as n Given : Atomic masses of C, H and N are
increases 12, 1 and 14 amu respectively. The molar
(4) The energy gap changes mass of the compound A is 162 g mol-1.
unpredictably as n increases (1) C4H6N2 (2) C2H3N
(3) C5H7N (4) C10H14N2

87. 1 g atom of nitrogen represents:

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NEET (Pre-Medical) | Conquer Batch | Minor Test-01 9

 (a) 14 g nitrogen 93. How many protons, electrons and
(b) 11.2 litre of N2 atNTP neutrons are present in 0.18 g of 31
p?
15
(c) 22.4 litre of N2 at NTP
(1) p = 5.418  1022, e– = 5.418  1022, n =
(d) 6.023 x 1023 molecules of N2
5.927  1021
(1) a, d (2) a, c
(2) p = 5.418  1022, e– = 5.9972  1022, n =
(3) b, c, d (4) a, b
5.418  1022

88. The nucleus of tritium contains (3) p = 5.7792  1022, e– = 5.7792  1022, n
(1) 1 proton + 1 neutron = 5.418  1022
(2) 1 proton + 3 neutron (4) p = 5.418  1022, e– = 5.418  1022, n =
(3) 1 proton + 0 neutron 5.7792  1022
(4) 1 proton + 2 neutron
94. Number of hydrogen ions present in 10
89. An isotone of 32
Ge 76
is millionth part of 1.33 cm3 of pure water
(1) 32 Ge77 (2) 33As77 at 25oC is
(3) 34 Se 77
(4) 36 Sc77 (1) 6.023 million
(2) 60 million
90. If 10 21
molecules are removed from 100 (3) 8.01 million
mg CO2, then number of moles of CO2 (4) 80.23 million
left are:
(1) 6.10  10–4 (2) 2.8  10–3 95. If CO2 gas is passed through 500 ml of
(3) 2.28  10–3 (4) 1.36  10–2 0.5(M) Ca(OH)2, the amount of CaCO3
produced is
91. Number of moles of electrons in 4.2 g N 3- (1) 10 g (2) 20 g
ion (nitride ion) is: (3) 50 g (4) 25 g
(1) 3 (2) 2
(3) 1.5 (4) 4.2 96. The mass of BaCO3 produced when
excess CO2 is bubbled through a solution
92. Potassium combines with two isotopes of 0.205 mol Ba(OH)2 is (Atomic mass of
of chlorine ( Cl 35
Cl) respectively to form
37 Barium = 137 g)
two samples of KCl. Their formation (1) 81 g (2) 40.5 g
follows the law of: (3) 20.25 g (4) 162 g
(1) constant proportions
(2) multiple proportions 97. The atomic weight of an element is 39.
(3) reciprocal proportions The number of neutrons in its nucleus is
(4) none of these one more than the number of protons.
The number of protons, neutrons and
electrons respectively in its atom would
be
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 (1) 19, 20, 19 NH3 is generated according to given
(2) 19, 19, 20 reactions.
(3) 20, 19, 19 Mg + O2 → MgO
(4) 20, 19, 20 Mg + N2 → Mg3N2
Mg3N2 + 6H2O → 3Mg (OH)2 + 2NH3
98. 24 gm pure sample of magnesium is Calculate the mass % of Mg converted
burned in air to form magnesium oxide into Mg3N2.
and nitride. When products are treated (1) 20 (2) 30
with excess of H2O, 3.4 gm of gaseous (3) 35 (4) 40
NH3 is generated according to given
reactions.
Mg + O2 → MgO
Mg + N2 → Mg3N2 PART-C: BIOLOGY (BOTANY)
Mg3N2 + 6H2O → 3Mg (OH)2 + 2NH3 SECTION-A
Calculate the amount of magnesium 101. Which of the following kingdom includes
oxide (in gm) in products. unicellular eukaryotes in Whittaker
(1) 28 (2) 20 classification
(3) 16.8 (4) 32 (1) Kingdom Monera
(2) Kingdom Protista
99. 24 gm pure sample of magnesium is (3) Kingdom Fungi
burned in air to form magnesium oxide (4) Kingdom Animalia
and nitride. When products are treated
102. Binomial nomenclature is
with excess of H2O, 3.4 gm of gaseous
(1) not applicable to cyanobacteria
NH3 is generated according to given
(2) not accepted by a number of
reactions.
countries
Mg + O2 → MgO
(3) universal with only one name to each
Mg + N2 → Mg3N2
organisms
Mg3N2 + 6H2O → 3Mg (OH)2 + 2NH3
(4) universal with two names to each
Calculate the amount of Mg(OH)2 (in gm)
organism
produced in above reaction.
(1) 11.6 (2) 17.4 103. Phylogenetic system of classification
(3) 23.2 (4) 15.8 refers to the grouping of plants on the
basis of
100. 24 gm pure sample of magnesium is (1) all morphological characters
burned in air to form magnesium oxide (2) evolutionary trends
and nitride. When products are treated (3) increasing complexities
with excess of H2O, 3.4 gm of gaseous (4) floral similarities

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104. Five kingdom classifications was not 109. Lowest obligate category and highest
based on which of following criterion? category in hierarchical system
(1) Mode of nutrition respectively are
(2) Mode of Locomotion (1) Species and kingdom
(3) Complexity of cell structure (2) Genus and kingdom
(4) Complexity of body organization (3) Variety and kingdom
(4) Sub species and kingdom
105. In Whittaker's five kingdoms of
classification, which kingdom includes
110. The kingdom not included in three
archaebacteria, eubacteria and
kingdom classification was
cyanobacteria?
(1) Protista (2) Monera
(1) Monera (2) Protista
(3) Animalia (4) Plantae
(3) Fungi (4) Plantae
106. Fimbriae in bacteria are meant for
111. Which one of the following is not a
(1) Attachment to solid surface
correct statement?
(2) Transfer of genetic material from
(1) Herbarium houses dried, pressed and
donor to recipient
preserved plant specimens
(3) Producing conjugation tube
(2) Botanical gardens have collection of
(4) Absorbing DNA from dead relatives
living plants of reference
during trans formation
(3) Zoological park has collection of
photographs of plants and animals
107. In bacteria true sexual reproduction is
(4) Key is a taxonomic aid for
absent because
identification of plants and animals
(1) They donot have well defiened
nucleus
112. The scientific term for biological
(2) There is absence of spindles
classification categories is the:
(3) There is absence of meiosis and
(1) Species (2) Taxon
syngamy
(3) Phylum (4) Domain
(4) The chromosomes are naked and
called prochromosomes
113. Statement-I: Higher the taxa, more are
the characteristics that members within
108. Protista is a link between
the taxon share.
(1) Bacteria and green algae
Statement-II: Lower the category,
(2) Virus and bacteria
greater is the difficulty of determining
(3) Prokaryotic and multicellular
the relationship to other taxa at the
eukaryotic organisms
same level
(4) Dinoflagellates and zooflagellates
(1) I is true but II is false
(2) I is false but II is true
(3) Both I and II are true
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 (4) Both I and II are false 119. Which covers the largest number of
organism:-
114. ICBN stands for: (1) Genus (2) Family
(1) International Code for Bacterial (3) Phylum (4) Class
Nomenclature
(2) International Code for Botanical 120. Which of the following is not true about
Nomenclature binomial nomenclature :-
(3) International Congress of Biological (1) They are latinised
Names (2) Generia name starts with capital
(4) Indian Code of Botanical letter
Nomenclature (3) When printed in italics they are
separately underlined
(4) They are printed in italics
115. Ascending order of ranks of taxa are :-
(1) Genus, Species, order, family 121. Binomial system of nomenclature means
(2) Species, genus, family, order that name of every organism is
(3) Species, genus, order, family (1) One scientific and one popular name
(4) Family, order, genus, species (2) A name given by two scientists
(3) Consist of two word
116. Phylogenetic classification is one which (4) A number in an international
is based on :- catalogue by which an organism is
(1) Habit of plants identified
(2) Over all similarities
(3) Common Evolutionary descent 122. In Binomial system when name of any
(4) Number of plant characters plant is hand written then, it should by-
(1) Italicized
117. Species are considered as :- (2) Underline cummulatively
(1) Units of variety (3) Underlined separately
(2) Real unit of taxonomy (4) Closed in bracket
(3) The highest unit of taxonomy
(4) Real basic unit of classification 123. The name of plant family ends with :-
(1) – ales (2) – oideae
118. Two organism of same class but (3) – aceae (4) Any of these
different families will be kept under the
same :- 124. The first word in a biological name
(1) Genera (2) Species represents the genus while the second
(3) Order (4) Family component denotes the :-
(1) Common name (2) Specific Epithet
(3) Family name (4) None of these
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 (4) Metabolism and consciousness
125. As we go higher from species to kingdom
the number of common characteristics 130. Technically, the most complicated
goes on :- feature of a living organism is :
(1) Increasing (1) Growth
(2) Decreasing (2) Reproduction
(3) First increase than decrease (3) Metabolism
(4) First decrease than increase (4) Consciousness

126. Classes with a few similar characters are 131. History of evolutionary relations of
assigned to a higher category called :- organism (species) is called:-
(1) Division (2) Kingdom (1) Phylogeny
(3) Order (4) None of these (2) Affinity
(3) Ontogeny
127. Which of the following are considered as (4) Developmental relation
the twin characteristics of growth?
I. Responses to stimuli. 132. 'Species Plantarum and 'Systema
II. Increases in mass. Naturae' were written by:
III. Increases in the number of (1) Linnaeus
individuals. (2) Wallace
IV. Increases in width. (3) Hooker
(1) II and IV (4) Prantl
(2) III and IV
(3) II and III 133. Match the column :
(4) I, II, III and IV Column-I Column-II
A Genus (i) Group of related orders
128. When scientific nomenclature is hand B Family (ii) Group of related families
written they are separately underlined to C Order (iii) Group of related genera
indicate : D Class (iv) Group of related species
(1) Their latin origin
(2) Wild species (1) A = (i), B = (ii), C = (iii), D = (iv)
(3) They are found in botanical garden (2) A = (iv), B = (ii), C = (i), D = (iii)
(4) Now they are extinct (3) A = (iv), B = (iii), C = (ii), D = (i)
(4) A = (iii), B = (ii), C = (i), D - (iv)
129. Which of the following is the exclusive
defining feature of living organisms ? 134. Select odd one out of among the
(1) Growth and reproduction following.
(2) Growth and consciousness (1) consciousness
(3) Reproduction and metabolism (2) metabolism

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 (3) cellular organisation (2) Consciousness and cellular
(4) self consciousness organisation
(3) Growth and reproduction
135. The classification which is based one or (4) Metabolism and reproduction
two morphological character will be :-
(1) Rational classification 139. Which of the following statement is
(2) Empirical classification wrong ?
(3) Natural classification (1) Reproduction can not be an all-
(4) Artificial classification inclusive defining characteristic of living
organisms
SECTION-B (2) Metabolism is a defining feature of all
136. In given taxonomic sequence A, B and C living organisms
could be? (3) Growth can be taken as a defining
property of living organisms
(4) Consciousness is the defining
property of living organisms

140. Living organism are

(1) Self replicating
(2) Evolving
(3) Self regulating interacting system
(1) A → Sub species, B → Family, C → (4) All of the above
Kingdom
(2) A → Species, B → Order, C → Family 141. How many of the following are defining
(3) A → Species, B → Family, C → Order feature of living beings
Intrinsic Growth, Extrinsic Growth,
(4) A → Order, B → Family, C → Kingdom
Metabolism, Reproduction, Cellular
organisation, Consciousness
137. Consciousness is a ________ feature and
(1) Two (2) Three
self consciousness is a ________ feature
(3) Four (4) One
of all life forms
(1) Defining, defining
142. Read the following statement from (A) to
(2) Non-defining, non-defining
(E) and find out number of wrong
(3) Non-defining, defining
statements :
(4) Defining, non-defining
(A) Chemotaxonomy is based on
chemical constituent as well as
138. For bacteria we are not very clear about
cytological character of the cell
the usage of terms like
(B) Growth is defining property when it
(1) Growth and metabolism
occurs only externally
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 (C) Practical classification is based on 147. The number of species that are known
economic importance of plants and described ranges between :
(D) ICBN gives standard names for plants (1) 1-2 million (2) 1.7 - 1.8 billion
(1) Three (2) Two (3) 1.7 - 1.8 million (4) 7 million
(3) One (4) Four
148. The words 'Dog' Wheat, 'Rice',
143. Select incorrect statement 'Mammals', 'Plants' etc represent :-
(1) Biology is the story of living organism (1) Class at same level
on the earth (2) Taxa at same level
(2) Human being is the only organism (3) Order at different level
who is aware of himself (4) Taxa at different level
(3) non living object also exhibit 149. Statement-I: In the single-celled
metabolism organisms, we are not very clear about
(4) Dead organism does not grow the usage of the two terms - growth and
reproduction.
144. Which of the following set of organisms Statement-II: When it comes to
reproduce by fragmentation (asexual unicellular organisms like bacteria,
mode of reproduction)? unicellular algae or amoeba,
(1) Amoeba, Fungi and earthworm reproduction is synonymous with growth,
(2) Fungi, filamentous algae and i.e., increase in number of cells.
protonema of mosses (1) Both I and II are true statements
(3) Hydra, Fungi, Amoeba and bacteria (2) Both I and II are false statements
(4) Earthworm, bacteria and fungi (3) I is true but II is false statements
(4) I is false but II is true statements
145. In angiosperms, floral features are
commonly used for identification, why? 150. Statement-I: Cellular organization of the
(1) Flower can be preserved easily body is the defining feature of life forms.
(2) Flower are attractive to work with Statement-II: Metabolic reactions cannot
(3) Flower have aroma and different be demonstrated outside the body in
colour cell-free systems.
(4) Reproductive parts are more (1) Both I and II are true statements
conservative (2) Both I and II are false statements
(3) I is true but II is false statements
146. Photoperiod affects reproduction in (4) I is false but II is true statements
(1) In plants only
(2) In animals only PART-D: BIOLOGY (ZOOLOGY)
(3) Both plants and animals SECTION-A
(4) All plants and animals 151. All of the following can be considered as
the basis of animal classification except
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 (1) Patterns of digestive, circulatory and 154. Select the animal that is a living fossil
reproductive system and have segmented body.
(2) Number of germ layers during (1) Limulus (2) Bombyx
embryonic development (3) Apteryx (4) Pinctada
(3) Levels of organisation
(4) Types of cell division 155. An undifferentiated layer, (A) is present
between the ectoderm and endoderm in
152. From the list of animals given below in (B) .
box, how many have cellular level of Select the option that fills the blanks (A)
organisation? and (B) correctly.
Euspongia, Hydra, Sycon, Spongilla, (1) A — Mesoglea, B — Sponges
Aurelia, Adamsia (2) A — Mesoderm, B — Coelenterates
(1) Six (2) Three (3) A — Mesoglea, B — Ctenophores
(3) Four (4) Two (4) A — Mesoderm, B — Comb jellies

153. Observe the given diagrams and select 156. Select the odd one w.r.t. type of
the option that identifies the structure symmetry commonly present in them.
incorrectly. (1) Sponges (2) Ctenophores
(3) Coelenterates (4) Echinoderms

157. Select the correct statement w.r.t adult

Porifers.
(1) Fertilisation is external with direct
development.
(2) Water enters the body of poriferans
via osculum and leaves via ostia.
(3) Sponges are hermaphrodite i.e., eggs
(1) Structure (a) is found in annelids, and sperms are produced by the same
molluscs, arthropods, echinoderms, individual.
hemichordates and chordates. (4) The body is supported by a skeleton
(2) Structure (b) is present in made up of calcium and magnesium
aschelminthes in which the body cavity only.
is lined by mesoderm completely.
(3) Structure (c) is present in 158. Which of the following have the most
platyhelminthes. complex level of organisation?
(4) In structure (c), there is no cavity (1) Coelenterates (2) Porifers
between the body wall and gut wall. (3) Platyhelminthes (4) Annelids

159. Choose the correct match.

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 (1) Taenia — Incomplete digestive system 164. Scypha exhibits
(2) Locusta — Absence of blood a. Indirect development
capillaries b. Capacity of regeneration
(3) Asterias — Presence of radula c. Alternation of generation
(4) Gorgonia — Bilateral symmetry d. Bioluminescence
Select the option with correct set.
160. Read the given statements and select (1) a, b and c (2) c and a
the correct option. (3) a, b, c and d (4) a and b
Statement (A): Metagenesis refers to
occurrence of drastic change in sponges. 165. Which of the following animals does not
Statement (B): Chitinous exoskeleton is undergo metamorphosis?
mainly responsible for diversification of (1) Pleurobrachia (2) Pheretima
insects on land. (3) Pinctada (4) Pila
(1) Both statements (A) and (B) are
correct 166. Complete the analogy and select the
(2) Both statements (A) and (B) are correct option.
incorrect Water canal system : Bath sponge ::
(3) Only statement (A) is correct Water vascular system : ______
(4) Only statement (B) is correct (1) Sea hare (2) Sea lily
(3) Sea pen (4) Sea fan
161. Select the group of animals that possess
closed type of circulation. 167. The property of a living organism to emit
(1) Earthworm, Silkworm, Tongueworm light, called bioluminescence, is well
(2) Salamander, Earthworm, Turtle marked in
(3) Roundworm, Tongueworm, Honeybee (1) Sea walnut (2) Sea pen
(4) Lizard, Earthworm, Tongueworm (3) Sea cucumber (4) Sea urchin

162. What is true about Nereis, Periplaneta 168. Select the correct match w.r.t genus, its
and Apis? characteristics and taxon.
(1) They all belong to the same phylum (1) Genus : Hirudinaria; Characteristics :
(2) They all have jointed anal style Digestion of food is extracellular;
(3) They all possess dorsal heart Taxon : Aschelminthes
(4) None of them is aquatic (2) Genus : Bombyx; Characteristics :
Malpighian tubules for respiration;
163. Bilateral symmetry first evolved in the Taxon : Arthropoda
members of phylum (3) Genus : Saccoglossus;
(1) Arthropoda (2) Aschelminthes Characteristics : Open circulatory
(3) Platyhelminthes (4) Chordata system; Taxon : Hemichordata

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 (4) Genus : Echinus; Characteristics :
Hermaphrodite; Taxon : 174. Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t.
Echinodermata kingdom Animalia.
(1) All members are multicellular i.e. their
169. The excretory organ in an animal which body is made up of more than one cell.
has a rudimentary structure in its collar (2) In higher phyla, tissues are grouped
region that is similar to notochord, is together to form organs.
(1) Integumentary nephridia (3) Members have different grades of
(2) Proboscis gland organisation.
(3) Antennal gland (4) All bilaterally symmetrical animals
(4) Septal nephridia have ventral, solid and double nerve
cord.
170. Which set includes arthropods of
economic importance providing useful 175. The water vascular system of Ophiura
products to humans? (1) Participates in conduction of impulses
(1) Limulus, Locusta, Bombyx (2) Functions in locomotion and feeding
(2) Culex, Limulus, Laccifer (3) Is bilateral in organisation, even
(3) Apis, Bombyx, Laccifer though the adult animal is not bilaterally
(4) Anopheles, Locusta, Limulus symmetrical
(4) Helps in reproduction
171. Choose the mismatch.
(1) Ancylostoma — Filarial worm 176. An apple snail, an Octopus and pearl
(2) Fasciola — Liver fluke oyster all share
(3) Meandrina — Brain coral (1) A radula
(4) pennatula — Sea pen (2) Presence of exoskeleton
(3) Separate sexes
172. Complete the analogy and select the (4) Asymmetry
correct option.
Dentalium : Tusk shell :: Chaetopleura : 177. Select the second largest phylum of
_____ animal kingdom.
(1) Apple snail (2) Chiton (1) Arthropoda (2) Mollusca
(3) squid (4) Devil fish (3) Echinodermata (4) Hemichordata

178. Tissue grade of organization occurs in:

173. Nereis can be characterised by all of the
(1) Hydra (2) Sponge
following except
(3) Starfish (4) Liver fluke
(1) Aquatic annelid possessing parapodia
(2) Possessing metameres 179. Match the phyla listed under column-I
(3) Closed circulatory system with the level of organization given under
(4) Monoecious column-II. Choose the answer which
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 gives the correct combination of the (Phylum) (Body cavity)
alphabets of the two columns: A Platyhelminthes p Enterocoel
Column-I Column-II B Nematoda q No body cavity
(Phylum) (Level of Organization) C Annelida r Pseudocoel
A Porifera p Tissue D Echinodermata s Schizocoel
B Protozoa q Protoplasmic (1) A = s, B = q, C = r, D = p
C Cnidaria r Organ-system (2) A = q, B = r, C = s, D = p
D Chordata s Cellular (3) A = r, B = q, C = s, D = p
(1) A = s, B = q, C = p, D = r (4) A = s, B = r, C = q, D = p
(2) A = q, B = r, C = s, D = p
(3) A = s, B = r, C = q, D = p 183. In which of the following groups, all
(4) A = r, B = q, C = s, D = p animals are hermaphrodites?
(1) Tapeworm, Toad, Starfish
180. Match the symmetry listed under (2) Hydra, Leech, Tapeworm
column-I with the phyla given under (3) Hydra, Ascaris, Pheretima
column-II. Choose the answer which (4) Hydra, Homo sapiens, Leech
gives the correct combination of the
alphabets of the two columns: 184. Metameric segmentation is the
Column-I Column-II characteristic of:
(Symmetry) (Phylum) (1) Mollusca and Chordata
A Asymmetry p Arthopoda (2) Annelida and Arthropoda
B Radial symmetry q Cnidaria (3) Echinodermata and Annelida
C Bilateral symmetry r Porifera (4) Platyhelminthes and Arthropoda
(1) A = q, B = p, C = r
(2) A = p, B = q, C = r 185. The radial symmetry is observed in:
(3) A = r, B = p, C = q A. Platyhelminthes B. Coelenterates
(4) A = r, B = q, C = p C. Aschelminthes D. Annelids
E. Echinoderms
181. Which of the following is diploblastic? (1) B and E only (2) B, C and E only
(1) Hydra (2) Palaemon (3) B, C and A only (4) A, C and E only
(3) Fasciola (4) Pheretima
SECTION-B
182. Match the names of phyla listed under 186. The animals of which phylum are called
column-I with the body cavity given acoelomates?
under column-II. Choose the answer (1) Annelida (2) Mollusca
which gives the correct combination of (3) Echinodermata (4) Platyhelminthes
the alphabets of the two columns:
Column-I Column-II

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187. Read the following statements and
select the correct option.
A. Circulatory system in arthropods is of
closed type.
B. Parapodia in annelids help in
swimming.
C. Phylum Mollusca is the second largest
animal phylum.
D. Aschelminthes are dioecious.
(1) A alone is wrong
(2) C alone is wrong
(3) D alone is wrong
(4) C and D are wrong
(1) Ctenophora (2) Hemichordata
188. Which group or animals belong to the (3) Aschelminthes (4) Platyhelminthes
same phylum?
191. Consider following features:
(1) Prawn, Scorpion, Locusta A. Organ system level of organisation
(2) Sponge, Sea anemone, Starfish
B. Bilateral symmetry
(3) Earthworm, Pinworm, Tapeworm C. True coelomates with segmentation of
(4) Malarial parasite, Amoeba, Mosquito
body
Select the correct option of animal
189. Match column I with column II and
groups which possess all the above
choose the correct answer. characteristics.
Column I Column II (1) Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
(A) Incomplete 1. Sponges (2) Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
digestive system (3) Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata
(B) Cellular level of 2. Coelenterates (4) Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
organization
(C) Radial symmetry 3. Annelids 192. Match the following organisms with their
(D) Pseudocoelomate 4. Platyhelminthes respective characteristics :
(E) Metamerism 5. Aschelminthes Column I Column II
(1) A = 4; B = 1; C = 2; D = 5; E = 3 (A) Pila 1. Flame cells
(2) A = 3; B = 4; C = 1; D = 2; E = 5 (B) Bombyx 2. Comb plates
(3) A = 4; B = 5; C = 2; D = 3; E = 1 (C) Pleurobrachia 3. Radula
(4) A = 1; B = 2; C = 3; D = 4; E = 5 (D) Taenia 4. Malpighian tubules
(1) A = 3; B = 2; C = 1; D = 4
190. Identify the phylum X: (2) A = 3; B = 4; C = 2; D = 1
(3) A = 2; B = 4; C = 3; D = 1

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 (4) A = 3; B = 2; C = 4; D = 1 (c) Radial symmetry
(4) Mesodermal endoskeleton
193. Match the following genera with their
respective phylum : 199. Water vascular system is found in:
Column I Column II (1) Sea pen (2) Sea horse
(A) Ophiura 1. Mollusca (3) Sea anemone (4) Sea cucumber
(B) Physalia 2. Platyheltninthes
200. An important characteristic that
(C) Pinctada 3. Echinodermata
Hemichordates share with Chordates is :
(D) Planaria 4. Coelenterata
(1) pharynx with gill slits
(1) A = 4; B = 1; C = 3; D = 2 (2) absence of notochord
(2) A = 3; B = 4; C = 1; D = 2 (3) pharynx without gill slits
(3) A = 1; B = 3; C = 4; D = 4 (4) ventral tubular nerve cord
(4) A = 3; B = 4; C = 2; D = 1
194. The devil fish and sea hare are:
(1) molluses
(2) crustaceans
(3) coelenterates
(4) marine 1ish and mammal

195. The phenomenon of torsion occurs in:

(1) Gastropoda (2) Pelecypoda
(3) Cephalopoda (4) Amphineura

196. Phylum Mollusca can be distinguished

from other invertebrates by the presence
of:
(1) a mantle and gills
(2) shell and non-segmented body
(3) a mantle and non-segmented body
(4) bilateral symmetry and exoskeleton

197. The adult animal in this phylum is

radially symmetrical; but its larva
exhibits bilateral. symmetry:
(1) Annelida (2) Coelenterata
(3) Arthropoda (4) Echinodermata

198. Which of the following is an exclusively

echinoderm character?
(a) Tube feet
(2) Coelom divided

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