COMMUNICABLE DISEASE NURSING

Situation: Ms Lora, a 50 y/o housewife is admitted to the hospital with a wound that is swollen and painful. The diagnosis
of tetanus is suspected.

1. The nurse must observe Ms. Lora for a symptom of tetanus that could be life threatening. The nurse should assess
Ms. Lora for:
A. Muscle rigidity
B. Restless and irritability
C. Spastic voluntary muscle contractions
D. Respiratory tract spasms

2. Ms. Lora started on tetracycline therapy. When giving oral tetracycline to Ms. Lora, the nurse should:
A. Provide orange or other citrus fruit juice with the medication.
B. Offer antacids 30 minutes after administration if GI side effects occur.
C. Provide medication an hour before or after milk products has been ingested.
D. Administer medication with meals or after milk

3. Ms. Lora asks the nurse about immunizations against tetanus. The nurse explains that the major benefit in using
tetanus antitoxin is that it:
A. Stimulates plasma cells directly.
B. Provides high titer of antibodies.
C. Provides immediate active immunity
D. Stimulates long lasting passive immunity

Situation: Ms. Sue Sy, a 22 y/o, is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of infectious hepatitis. Bedrest and diagnostic
studies are prescribed

4. An admission nursing assessment of Ms. Sue should reveal which of the following early symptoms of infectious
hepatitis
A. Loss of appetite
B. Jaundice
C. Left upper quadrant pain
D. Abdominal distention

5. The nurse should recognize which of the following factors in Ms. Sue history as most likely to be related to her
diagnosis?
A. Being bitten by an insect
B. Eating home-canned foods
C. Recent recovery from an upper respiratory infection
D. Contact with a person who was jaundiced

6. Bedrest is prescribed for Ms. Sue. The nurse should explain that the chief purpose of bedrest is to:
A. Minimize liver damage.
B. Control spread of the disease
C. Reduce the breakdown of fats for metabolic needs
D. Decrease the circulatory load to reduce cardiac effort

7. The nurse is planning care of Ms. Sue’s convalescent period. The nurse should expect that Ms. Sue will have the
most difficult with:
A. Relieving pain
B. Regulating bowel elimination
C. Maintaining a sense of well-being
D. Preventing respiratory complication

8. Tess, 17 years old came to the clinic because of fever and appearance of vesicular skin eruptions on her chest and
face. The physician gave a diagnosis of chicken pox. The nursing diagnosis to be considered in the presence of the
vesicles is/are the following:
A. Disturbance in body image and impairment of skin integrity
B. Disturbance in body image
C. Alteration in fluid volume
D. Actual impairment of skin integrity

9. To prevent the spread of chickenpox among other students the school nurse instructs Tess’ to keep herself at home
until:
 A. 24 hours after treatment is started
B. All vesicular lesions have dried
C. Acute symptoms have subside
D. 48 hours after antibiotic treatment

10. When an AIDS patient is prescribed zidovudine (AZT), important patient teaching to be given by the nurse includes:
A. Discontinuing it if vomiting occurs
B. Must be taken exactly ordered
C. Having blood counts done every 2 weeks
D. Getting abortion if pregnancy occurs

11. Which of the ff. statements about diphtheria is False?

A. Immunity is acquired through complete immunization of Diphtheria toxoid
B. Infants born to immune mothers maybe protected up to 5 months
C. Diphtheria transmission is increased in hospitals households, schools and other crowded areas
D. Recovery from clinical attack is always followed by a lasting immunity to the disease.

12. Nursing care of patient with diphtheria should include the ff.
A. Encouragement of fluids
B. Early ambulation
C. Omission of bath in severe cases
D. Planned nursing care to conserve patient’s energy

13. The ff. Modes of transmission of leptospirosis , EXCEPT

A. Contact of skin mucus membrane with contaminated water
B. Ingestion of contaminated food
C. Direct contact with tissues of infected animals
D. Droplet infection

14. In the care of patients with leptospirosis, which of the ff. is important?
A. Immunization of contacts
B. Use of mask and apron
C. Patient should be in mosquito proof area at night
D. Concurrent disinfection of articles soiled with urine

15. In order to protect individual form acquiring leptospirosis, health teaching should include
A. Cutting finger nails short and wash hand before eating
B. Avoid wading or swimming in water contaminated with urine of infected animals
C. Using mosquito nets and protective clothing
D. Immunization of contacts

16. Syphilis is characterized by:

A. Chancre
B. Ladder like fever
C. Thick yellowish purulent discharge
D. Painless vesicular eruptions

17. The diagnostic test for syphilis is

A. Urinalysis
B. Cervical smear
C. Rapid Plasma Reagin
D. Tzanck smear

18. Which of the ff. is a major activity of the leprosy control program
A. Recording and reporting
B. Training and information dissemination on multi drug therapy
C. Monitoring and follow up of cases
D. Cases finding and treatment with effective drugs

19. In order to prevent deformities in leprosy, health teaching must include

A. good rest and sleep
B. regular health check up
C. regular high protein diet
D. self care, exercise and physical therapy

20. Leprosy can be diagnosed with the following subsidiary signs EXCEPT
 A. thickening of nerves
B. madarosis
C. falling of hair and loss of sweat
D. tenderness of the affected part

21. Multiple Drug Therapy (MDT) is considered as an effective treatment modality for leprosy because of the following
advantages EXCEPT
A. It reduces communicability period of leprosy in 2 weeks time
B. It prevents development of resistance to drugs
C. It shortens the duration of treatment
D. It renders the patient resistant to the disease for life

22. Henry, 3 y/o had been vomiting for 1 day and diarrhea for 2 days. Which is most useful in assessing the degree of a
Henry’s dehydration
A. urinary output
B. skin turgor
C. mucous membrane
D. weight

23. Henry is placed on NPO and IV fluids are started. Which is the immediate goal of care?
A. to prevent further diarrhea
B. to maintain skin integrity
C. to restore the intravascular volume
D. to maintain normal growth and development

24. 350 ml of D5W is ordered to run over 8 hrs intravenously. At what rate should the nurse run the fluid? (Microdrip =
60 gtts/min)
A. 34 gtts/min
B. 43 gtts/min
C. 45 gtts/min
D. 54 gtts/min

25. The type of food to be given to Henry with diarrhea shall depend on which of the following factors.
A. food preferences
B. child’s age
C. pre-illness feeding pattern
D. all of these

26. Which of the following is the most important statement for the nurse to make prior to administering the MMR
(Measles, Mumps, Rubella) vaccine to an adolescent
A. “This vaccination will cause redness at the site of injection.”
B. “You may develop a rash in a day or two.”
C. “You may develop a swollen glands in a day or two.”
D. “You must avoid pregnancy for 3 months following vaccination.”

27. An infant is about to receive her first oral polio vaccine (OPV). An immunization of OPV would be contraindicated
to
A. an infant weighing 5.5 kg
B. an infant having diarrhea
C. an infant w/ history of milk allergy
D. the primary caregiver was HIV positive

28. The client becomes depressed about her diagnosis and tells the nurse “I have nothing worth living for now.” Which
of the following statements would be the best response by the nurse?
A. “There is much to live for; you may not develop AIDS for years.”
B. “You should not be too depressed; we are close to finding a cure for AIDS.”
C. “You are right; it is very depressing to have HIV.”
D. “Tell me more about how you are feeling about being HIV positive.”

29. The best definition of the action of the normal flora is that it
A. participates in maintaining a person’s health by inhibiting multiplication of disease causing microorganism
B. affects the method of transmission of the disease
C. assists with the formation of antibodies
D. assists in the digestion and absorption of nutrients

30. The DOH guidelines for universal precautions include all of the following EXCEPT
 A. gloves worn for touching all blood and body fluids
B. gloves worn for performing venipunctures
C. gloves changed after contact with each client
D. gloves worn at all times with infected clients

31. A client has active tuberculosis. Which of the following symptoms will he exhibit?
A. chest and lower back pain
B. chills, fever, night sweats
C. fever of 39°C, nausea
D. headache and photophobia

32. While giving health teaching to pregnant mothers, the community health nurse informed the mothers that tetanus
toxoid immunization should be started
A. anytime during pregnancy
B. last trimester of pregnancy
C. second trimester of pregnancy
D. first trimester of pregnancy

33. Other signs and symptoms of typhoid fever are

A. headache, body malaise, constipation, rose spots and spleenomegaly
B. malaise, diarrhea, abdominal pain, fever and chills
C. headache, periorbital pains, joint and muscle pains
D. abdominal pain, watery stools, vomiting and rapid dehydration

34. The early signs/symptoms of schistosomiasis are

A. enlargement of the abdomen, spleenomegaly
B. abdominal pain and soreness of the liver region
C. bloody and mucoid stool
D. itchiness of the skin at point of entrance of microorganism, fever

35. The mode of transmission of schistosomiasis is through

A. infected flies and rodents
B. use of unsanitary toilets
C. contact with infected stray animals
D. contact with water infected with cercaria

36. To prevent schistosomiasis in an endemic community, the community health nurse should advice members of the
community to
A. use safe water
B. use sanitary toilets
C. avoid washing, bathing or laundering in infected water
D. all these are appropriate preventive measures

37. Aling Susan develops herpes zoster. Which of the ff skin alterations would the nurse most likely to observe in this
client?
A. generalized group of vesicles occurring on the face, trunk, arms
B. patches of vesicles on an erythematous base occurring on upper extremities
C. non tender vesicular lesions occurring on the upper posterior trunk
D. unilateral groups of vesicles occurring along the distribution of the nerves

38. Which statement made by Aling Susan would be most helpful to the nurse in setting priorities of care?
A. “I am not sure how I got this rash”
B. “I hope this heals in time for my son’s wedding”
C. “It’s a little itchy but I know not to scratch”
D. “This hurts a lot, more at night, and I can’t sleep”

39. In planning nursing care for Aling Susan, the nurse should direct the care towards
A. reducing the incidence of thromboemboli
B. preventing secondary infections on the lesions
C. restoring intravascular volume
D. providing immunization for family members

40. Leptospirosis is most common during

A. December – February
B. March - May
C. June – August
 D. September – November

41. The routine examination is observed by sex workers to comply with what regulatory law
A. PD 825
B. PD 856
C. PD 865
D. PD 685

42. Which of the following activities to be high risk for acquiring hepatitis B?
A. Frequent use of marijuana
B. Intravenous drug use
C. Ingestion of large amounts of acetaminophen
D. Ingestion of contaminated seafood

43. Which of the following goals would be appropriate for the client with hepatitis B? The client will:
A. adhere to measures to prevent the spread of infection to others
B. adhere to low sodium, low protein diet
C. verbalize the importance of using sedatives to provide adequate rest
D. avoid social activities with friends after discharge from the hospital

44. The client tells the nurse, “I feel so isolated from my friends and family. Nobody wants to be around me” What
would be the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client?
A. Anxiety related to feelings of isolation
B. Social isolation related to significant other’s fear of contracting disease
C. Powerlessness related to lack of social support
D. Self esteem disturbance related to feelings of rejection

45. Prophylaxis for hepatitis B includes

A. prevention of constipation
B. screening of blood donors
C. avoiding shellfish in the diet
D. limiting hepatotoxic drugs

Situation: Theresa, an OFW from China for 5 years, went home for a month vacation. Three days after her arrival her
husband developed high grade fever accompanied by cough and colds. The symptoms persisted for 2 days until finally
Theresa brought her husband to the hospital and was tentatively diagnosed as SARS (Severe Acute Respiratory
Syndrome).

46. The ER nurse knew that SARS is caused by

A. Retrovirus
B. Myxovirus
C. Arbovirus
D. Togavirus

47. Based on history, the nurse can consider Theresa as

A. Patient
B. Carrier
C. Suspect
D. Contact

48. What measures would the city health officer do to prevent the spread to other members in the community where
Theresa stays?
A. Disinfection
B. Isolation
C. Quarantine
D. Sterilization

49. In transporting Theresa’s husband to radiology department, the health aide is doing it correctly if
A. He wears mask while transporting the client
B. He asks the client to wear mask before transporting him
C. He uses a hospital passage way where there are only few people
D. He just ask the personnel to do the procedure inside the client’s room

50. Which of the following nursing care is of highest priority in the care of Theresa’s husband
A. Increasing the client’s body resistance
 B. Provision of comfort measures
C. Maintain patent airway
D. Prevention of spread of infection

51. A client comes to the clinic complaining of weight loss, fatigue and low grade fever. Physical examination reveals a
slight enlargement of the cervical lymph nodes. To assess possible causes for the fever, it would be mot appropriate
for the nurse to initially ask
A. “Have you been sexually active lately?”
B. “Do you have a sore throat at the present time?”
C. “Had you been exposed recently to any one with an infection?
D. “When did you notice that your temperature had gone up?”

52. The nursing staff has a team conference on AIDS and discusses the routes of transmission of a human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV) the discussion reveals that an individual has no risk of exposure to HIV when that
individual:
A. Has intercourse with just the spouse
B. Makes a donation of a pint of whole blood
C. Limits sexual contact to those HIV antibodies
D. Uses a condom every time there is sexual intercourse

53. When taking the blood pressure of a client who has AIDS the nurse must:
A. Wear clean gloves
B. Use barrier techniques
C. Wear mask and gown
D. Wash hands thoroughly

54. A client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) and cryptococcal pneumonia is incontinent of feces
and urine and is producing copious sputum. When providing care for this client the nurse’s priority should be to:
A. Wear goggles when suctioning the client
B. Use gown, mask, and gloves when bathing the client
C. Use gloves to administer oral medications to the client
D. Wear a gown when assisting the client with the bedpan

55. In addition to Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia, a client with AIDS also has ulcer 4cm in diameter on a leg.
Considering the client’s total health status, the most critical nursing diagnosis would be:
A. Social isolation
B. Impaired skin integrity
C. Impaired gas exchange
D. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements

56. Jimmy comes to the clinic complaining of sore throat and a rash. Because of his active sexual history, serologic
testing is performed to confirm diagnosis of syphilis. The symptoms indicate that Jimmy’s syphilis can be classified
as:
A. Late
B. Primary
C. Latent
D. Infectious

57. The major body system affected in tertiary syphilis is the:

A. Reproductive
B. Cardiovascular
C. Integumentary
D. Lower Respiratory

58. Jimmy was later diagnosed as having late stage of syphilis. When obtaining a health history, the nurse recognizes that
the statement by Jimmy that would most support this diagnosis would be:
A. “I have noticed a wart on my penis”
B. “I’ve losing a lot of hair lately”
C. “I have sores all over my mouth”
D. “I’m having trouble keeping my balance”

59. A chronically ill, elderly female client tells the home care nurses that the daughter with whom she lives seems run
down and disinterested in her own health as well as the health of her children, ages 2, 5 and 7. The client tells the
nurse that her daughter coughs a great deal and does a lot of sleeping. In this situation, the nurse should pursue the
daughter’ condition for potential case finding because:
A. Children younger than 12 y/o are very susceptible to tuberculosis
 B. Deaths from tuberculosis have been generally on the decrease
C. Tuberculosis has been dramatically rising in the general population
D. Aging agents with chronic illness are most adversely affected by tuberculosis

60. During routine physical examination, a client’s chest x-ray film reveals a lesion in the right upper lobe. When the
nurse obtains a history from the client, the information that supports the physician’s tentative diagnosis of PTB is;
A. Frothy sputum and fever
B. Dry cough and pulmonary congestion
C. Night sweats and blood-tinged sputum
D. Productive cough and engorged neck veins

61. A tuberculin test is performed as a part of routine examination. The nurse should instruct the client to make an
appointment so the test can be read in:
A. 3 days
B. 5 days
C. 7 days
D. 10 days

62. The nurse notes 12 mm of induration at the site of a mantoux test when the client returns to the health office to have
it read. The nurse should explain to the client that this:
A. Test result is negative, and no follow up is needed
B. Test was used for screening and a Tine test will now be done
C. Skin test is inconclusive and will have to be repeated in 6 weeks
D. Result indicates a need for further test, including chest x-ray

63. To make a definitive diagnosis of TB, the nurse understands that the physician must order a:
A. Chest x-ray film
B. Pulmonary function test
C. Tuberculin skin test
D. Sputum for acid fast testing

64. A client with PTB is being treated on an outpatient basis. The nurse should expect that the physician would order a
diet that:
A. Includes liquid protein supplements
B. Has frequent small high calorie meals
C. Is low in calories but high in carbohydrate
D. Contains food high in calories and low in protein

65. The nurse is to obtain a sputum specimen. Which instructions would result in the best specimen
A. “Take a deep breath, cough. Then spit into the container”
B. “Tomorrow you will need to collect whatever you cough up in this container”
C. “ Spit any sputum you have in your mouth into this container”
D. “Cough and deep breathe first thing tomorrow morning and collect whatever you cough up. Now practice
coughing”

66. A client was diagnosed to have PTB associated with HIV infection. The test results are crucial for the nurse to review
before starting antitubercular pharmacotherapy is:
A. Liver function studies
B. Pulmonary function studies
C. ECG and Echocardiogram
D. WBC and ESR

67. One of the additional drugs ordered by the physician is Pyrazinamide (PZA). The nurse evaluates that the teaching
concerning the drug was effective when the client says, “I will:
A. Drink at least two quarts of fluid per day”
B. Take the medication 2 hrs after each meal”
C. Report any changes in vision to the physician”
D. Expect a discoloration of my urine, sweat and tears”

68. In planning nursing care to TB patients, the nurse incorporates which of the following as the best strategy to assist
the client in coping with his illness?
A. Encourage the patient to visit the pastoral care department chaplain
B. Ask the family members if they wish a psychiatric consult
C. Provide reassurance that continued compliance with medication therapy is the most proactive way to cope up with
the disease
D. Allow the client to deal with the disease in an individual fashion
69. After providing health teachings in the prevention of transmission of TB. The nurse evaluates that the client needs
further reinforcement of information if the client makes which of the following statements?
A. “It’s very important to wash my hands after I touch my mask, tissues or body
fluids”
B. “I should cough into tissues and throw them away carefully”
C. “It’s important to cover my mouth if I laugh, sneeze or cough”
D. “I should use disposable plates, forks and knives”

70. When teaching a client with TB about recovery after discharge from the hospital, the nurse should reinforce that the
treatment measure with the highest priority is:
A. Having sufficient rest
B. Getting plenty of fresh air
C. Changing the current life-style
D. Consistently taking prescribed medication

71. Isko comes to the ER because he has a discharge from his penis. The physician suspects gonorrhea and orders a
culture and sensitivity test to assist with the diagnosis. To obtain the culture the nurse should:
A. Instruct client to provide a semen specimen
B. Swab the discharge as it appears on the prepuce
C. Obtain a mucosal scraping from the anterior urethra
D. Teach the client how to obtain a clean catch specimen of urine

72. The health history reveals that Isko has engaged in receptive anal intercourse. The nurse should assess Isko for
A. Melena
B. Constipation
C. Anal itching
D. Ribbon shaped stools

73. The nurse provides instructions to the mother of a child with mumps regarding respiratory isolation procedures. The
mother asks the nurse about the length of time required for the isolation. The most appropriate response of the nurse is
A. “Respiratory isolation is not necessary”
B. “Mumps is not transmitted by the respiratory tract”
C. “Respiratory isolation is indicated for 9 days following the onset of parotid swelling”
D. “Respiratory isolation is indicated for 18 days following the onset of parotid swelling”

74. A nursing student asks the pediatric nurse to describe the signs and symptoms associated with the most common
complication of mumps. The pediatric nurse best response would be
A. A red swollen testicle
B. Pain
C. Nuchal rigidity
D. Deafness

75. The clinic nurse prepares to administer an MMR vaccine to a 5 y/o child. The nurse would administer this vaccine
A. intramuscularly in the anterolateral aspect of the thigh
B. subcutaneously in the gluteal muscle
C. intramuscularly in the deltoid muscles
D. subcutaneously into the outer aspect of the upper arm

76. A 4 months old child has severe febrile disease and is scheduled for DPT and OPV immunization. The mother called
the clinic, ask the nurse if she should bring the child for immunization. The nurse most appropriate response would be
A. “keep him at home; we’ll give him double dose next time”
B. “Bring him in, his illness will not interfere with his immunization”
C. “keep him at home until his temperature and infection is resolved”
D. “Bring him in, we’ll give him antibiotic and immunization”

77. Which of the following statements correctly characterizes infection?

A. Infection remains one of the most critical health care problems, even in highly industrialized countries
B. Infection results from the invasion of body tissues by microorganisms that subsequently multiply with or
without activating an immune response
C. The severity of infection varies with the pathogenicity and number of invading microorganisms and the
strength of host defenses
D. Bacterial infections are hard to overcome because most species develop a resistance to antibiotics
Situation: A 15 months old Julia is admitted to the hospital with a temp of 38.5 C, petechiae, and purpuric lesions on her
skin. A diagnosis of meningococcemia is established.

78. In planning for Julia’s care, the nurse priority is

A. Inform the parents of the child’s condition
B. Monitor changes in intracranial pressure
C. Maintain bedrest
D. Maintain quiet environment

79. Julia is acutely ill. Which of the following measures will be essential for the nurse to incorporate in Julia’s care?
A. prevent the development of herpetic lesions of the lips
B. exercise her extremities passively several times a day
C. reducing environmental stimuli
D. maintain optimum nutrition

80. She was started with antibiotic and sulfonamides. Since Julia is receiving sulfonamides, it is important for the nurse
to include which of the following measures in her daily care?
A. weigh her and observe her for edema
B. give her extra fluids and measuring her intake and output
C. take her BP and apical pulse at regular, specified intervals
D. observe her frequently for signs of photophobia and hyperreflexia

81. When approaching homosexual clients with AIDS, it is most important for nurses to:
A. Have a strong sense of their own sexual activity
B. Admit their feelings of uncomfortableness to the client
C. Pay particular attention to establishing a meaningful rapport
D. Become aware of their own attitudes regarding homosexuality

82. Erick, a 26 y/o homosexual is diagnosed with AIDS. The primary nurse reports to the nursing team that the client
wept when told of the diagnosis. One of the nursing assistants Responds, “I don’t feel sorry for him. He made his bed
and now he can lie in it.” This comment is likely a result of the nursing assistant’s:
A. Values and beliefs about sexual life-styles
B. Anger and mistrust of homosexual males in general
C. Discomfort with men who are unable to control their emotions
D. Hostility over having to care for someone with a sexually related disease

83. Erick comments to the nurse, “There are so many rotten people around. Why couldn’t one of them get aids instead of
me?” The nurse could best respond:
A. “It seems unfair that you should be so ill.”
B. “I can understand why you’re afraid of death.”
C. “Have you thought of speaking with a minister?”
D. “I’m sure you really don’t wish this on someone else.”

84. The nurse is aware that children with AIDS are even more prone to infection than adults with AIDS because:
A. Even the immune system of a healthy child is incapable of producing antibodies
B. The AIDS virus attacks children’s immune systems through different mechanisms
C. Children with AIDS are exposed to many more pathogens than are adults with AIDS
D. Children have fewer circulating antibodies due to lack of previous exposure to pathogens

85. When a child is admitted with a diagnosis of AIDS, to protect the staff, the nurse should immediately institute:
A. Strict Isolation
B. Enteric Isolation
C. Protective isolation
D. Body secretion Isolation

Situation: Mr. Jones, a 65 y/o, is seen in an out patient department. His diagnosis is herpes zoster involving the trigeminal
nerve of the right face. He has vesicles and rashes on the right cheek. His prescription includes acetaminophen with
codeine (Tylenol)

86. In assessing Mr. Jones, it would be important for the nurse to obtain the answer to which of the following questions?
A. Has Mr. Jones been exposed to anyone with chicken pox?
B. Does Mr. Jones have a history of developing chancre sores?
C. Is Mr. Jones using a new shaving cream?
D. Has Mr. Jones ever had a dermatologic reaction to food?
87. What should the nurse expect to find during the initial assessment of herpes zoster?
A. Rhinorrhea, small red lesion including some vesicles that are widespread over the face and body
B. Painful vesicular eruption following the nerve pathway
C. Blisters on the lips and in the corners of the mouth
D. Painful fluid filled vesicles in the genital area

88. To relieve Mr. Jones itchiness in the affected area, which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan
of care?
A. Removal of the scabs
B. Applying cool compresses
C. Applying petrolatum jelly
D. Cleansing the oozing discharge

89. Two months later, during the follow up visit to the clinic, Mr. Jones asks the nurse, “Why do I still have pain where I
had the herpes zoster?” The nurse’s response should address which of the following information?
A. The pain is a manifestation of the client’s fears.
B. The pain will persist for some time.
C. The pain indicates that infection is still present.
D. The pain is evidence of muscle pain.

90. To detect any difficulty in coping with viral hepatitis, the nurse should ask which of the following questions?
A. “Are you losing weight”
B. “Do you have a fever”
C. “Do you rest sometime during the day”
D. “Have you enjoyed having visitors”

91. The client with viral hepatitis has anorexia and complaining that he is losing his taste for food. In order to provide
adequate nutrition the nurse teaches the client to
A. Eat a good supper when anorexia is not as severe
B. Eat less often, preferably only three large meals daily
C. Drink lots of fluids, especially carbonated beverages
D. Select foods high in fat

92. A sexually active 20 y/o client has developed viral hepatitis. Which of the following statements made by the client
indicates a need for further teaching?
A. “I can never drink alcohol again”
B. “I won’t go back to work right away”
C. “A condom should be used for sexual intercourse”
D. “My close friends should get the vaccine”

93. A client with jaundice associated with hepatitis expresses concern over the change in skin color. The nurse should
recognize that this color change is due to:
A. Stimulation of the liver to produce an excess quantity of bile pigments
B. The inability of the liver to remove normal amounts of bilirubin from blood
C. Increased destruction of the red blood cells during the acute phase of the disease
D. Decreased prothrombin levels, leading to multiple sites of spontaneous intradermal bleeding

94. A client with jaundice complained of severe pruritus. To relieve the discomfort, the nurse would expect the physician
to order:
A. Sponge bath with alcohol
B. Application of talcum powder
C. Bath with sodium bicarbonate solution
D. Application of baby oil to the involved areas

95. Trichinosis, a roundworm infestation, is mainly acquired from

A. Consumption of infected meat, usually pork
B. Person to person contact
C. Inhalation of airborne spores
D. Skin trauma with contaminated soil

96. After an acute episode of hepatitis, a client is to be discharged to continue recovery at home. The nurse should expect
that the diet the physician will order would be:
A. Low-calorie, high-protein, low carbohydrate, low fat
B. High calorie, low protein, high carbohydrate, high fat
C. Low calorie, low protein, low carbohydrate, moderate fat
D. High calorie, high protein, high carbohydrate, moderate fat
 Situation: Joshua, age 9, is brought to the OPD by his mother because she noted worms, and possibly eggs, and what she
thought might be blood in his stools. The boy denies any symptoms, but his mother says he seems tired, and appears quite
pale. Hookworm disease is suspected.

97. As an important part of history taking, the nurse will ask Joshua:
A. “What kind of meat did you eat?”
B. “Do you ever eat unwashed raw vegetables?”
C. “Do you sleep with your brother or share clothing with him?”
D. “Have you been walking barefoot outdoors?”

98. In addition to Mebendazole or Pyrantel to treat his hookworm infection, Joshua will need:
A. An iron rich diet or iron supplements to prevent or correct anemia
B. Alcohol rubs or tepid baths and antipyretics to reduce fever
C. Nasogastric suction to control vomiting if he develops intestinal obstruction
D. To avoid laxatives or induced vomiting because of danger of autoinfection

99. The clinic nurse suspects the possibility of pinworm infection (enterobiasis). The nurse instructs the mother to obtain
a cellophane tape rectal specimen. Which of the following is the appropriate instruction regarding obtaining this
specimen?
A. Obtain the specimen when the child is put to bed
B. Obtain the specimen after bathing
C. Obtain the specimen after toileting
D. Obtain the specimen in the morning when the child awakens

100. The child is in the convalescent stage and being prepared for discharge. The nurse provides home care instructions to
the parents of a child with pertussis. Which of the following will not be a component of the teaching plan?
A. Maintain respiratory isolation and a quiet environment for at least 2 weeks
B. Coughing spells may be triggered by noises or episodes of fright
C. Encourage fluid intake
D. Good handwashing techniques must be instituted to prevent spreading the disease to others