CS MM : 720 Choose the correct answer : SECTION-A Let Fo, Fx. Fw and Fe be iaders a ees Gravitational force, strong Weak nuclear force ea force and electromagnetic forces respectively, then ay (2) (3) (4) 2. The centripetal acceleration of a particle performing uniform circular motion depends on the square of speed of particle and radius of circle. If percentage errorin measurement of speed is 0.1% and in radius is 0.2%, then maximum possible error in measurement of centripetal acceleration is (1) 0.4% (2) 0.3% (3) 0.2% (4) 0.1% 3. Ifthe position of particle moving along straight line is given by expression S = (4f + 2) (where Sis in metre and fis in second), then the acceleration of particle at t= 4 s is (1) ams? (2) 6ms? (3) 8ms* (4) 9ms* oO oe se Timo : 3 Hrs. 20 Min. IPHYSICS] The angular velocity of radial acceleration vector of 4 particle whieh is moving in uniform circular motion with angular velocity «is 3 4 @) 0 (4) 20 Abody has escape velocity vat the surface of earth. IK the body is thrown from surface of earth with velocity Vv , then the velocity of body at interstellar space is (yaw (2) Bu (3) vv @v ‘The slope of Pressure (P) versus volume (V) curve for a diatomic ideal gas undergoing a process is = ze then molar specific heat for process is (All m3 @ symbols have their usual meaning) (1) SRI mobK! (2) = 25RI mol K+ (3) 25RImoMK (4) 3.5R ImobK* The ratio of maximum to minimum intensity due to superposition of two waves is 4 : 1. If equation of one of the wave is yj = 4.5sin(40xt -7.6xx), then ‘equation of second wave can be (1) 2sin (40zt - 1.65) (2) 4cos (40xt - 1.622) (3) 1.Ssin (40zt~ 1.63x) (4) cos (40st~ 1.62x) ‘Space for Rough WorkDOr 3 1) ay a 36 In Fegion Ais of magnitude 4 NIG, then a Clectric field in region & given Ke 3 i leas Given by Ee ang OO" BAHON by Evandineionc | gy 23 6 3 49, The current from the battery in following chu 1 Al 6 le (Dis ideal diode) | 10V 400 ; -— | @) &=2NIc, Ee= anc “Moa ! @) &=4N0c. E, Sane SE (4) Es=4NIC, Eo=4nic (1) 0.1258 (2) 0258 9. The current density J at an area is (@) 054 (4) 1A (4i+6i) an. tereavocer A~(2i+4j) mn? ond | 44S seecie moving on a straight too under te | Current through area is 20 1A, then value of ais influence of force such that its acceleration varies ayy (22 as a= 4x, The velocity of particle as function of its @)3 a x-coordinate (x) is (C = constant) 10. An ideal inductor of inductance 2H has a constant | (1) v=2t+C aston current of 2 A flowing through it. The emf induced (3) W=axt+e (4) W=e+e al ee Lea ee speed 50 m/s at an angle 0 with G)av (2) 3v horizontal. If the ball is at same height at 3 s and § (3) Zero (@) av 5, then the range of ball is (g = 10 ms-2) 11, The potential difference V through which an (1) 120m (2) 180m e-particle must be accelerated from rest so as to an have a de Broglie wavelength of 3. (me = mass of (3) 220m (4) 240m proton, e = charge on proton) 16. Two blocks of 2 kg and 3 kg are tied to strings as : + shown in figure. They move in horizontal circle with ot 2 same angular speed. The ratio of tension Ts and Ts Témpei Bmpek’ inthe strings will, be We ‘i “ ° a yd 16mper. impel ra 7; 12, The ratio of longest wavelengths corresponding to ' T, Balmer and Paschen series of hydrogen spectrum, (1) 4:3 2) 2:4 is (3) 7:4 (4) 1:3 ‘Space for Rough Work18. 19. 47. A tigid rod CD inst a Sve hoizonta stan a sho wale th figure, The ratio of velocity of its both onds Ye at tho shown is - lo i Sor € ee 2) sino @) core (4) tano The mass density of two planets A and 8 are such that their escape velocities are in ratio 1: J2 and their radius are in ratio 2 1, The ratio of d planets A and Bis, geil ayant 2 1:8 (@) 1:4 (4) 3:2 A hypothetical specimen of material has stress- slrain curve as shown. The stress on specimen is slowly increased tll proportionality limit (point A). The energy stored per unit volume til proportionality fim, is 280 Stress| (MPa) ic 14x10? Strain (2) 152 x 102 Jem® (4) 57 103 Jim? (1) 196 x 108 Jim? (3) 107 » 10° im? a OL 20. Consider tho streamlines a8 shown in figure. The cloments of fluid have A, (ase) A (1) Radial acceleration only (2) Tangential acceleration only (8) Both radial and tangential acceleration (4) None of these 21. Acubical black body of side length [radiates 600 W power at 600 K. If the side is doubled and Temperature Is halved, then the new radiated power is (1) 150 (2) 125W (3) 100W (4) 75W ‘The graph of internal energy (U) versus temperature (7) of one mole of each gas A and B is shown in figure. The ratio of their specific heats at constant 22. pressure SPA is 7 ‘ B A + a= tan1(1.5R) f= tan-(2.5R) (1) 5:3 (2) 5:7 (3) 2:5 (4) 5:6 ‘Space for Rough Work2 2 2 3. A camot engine has an efficiency of 20% when operating between ae) Wo temperatures. If same engine has to work Ss heat pump, consuming 2 KW power, then the rate at which heat i delivored at higher temperature is (1) 4kw 2) kw (3) Bkw (4) toKw 4. Ifthe fundamental trequency in a closed organ pipe {sequal to fourth harmonic in open organ pipe. then the length of closed pipe and open pipe can be (1) 05m,4m 2) 1m,4m @) 2m,3m (4) 1m.2m ‘5. In vertical plane a rod of mass M and length L is pivoted at one end and attached to a spring of spring Constant K at other end as shown in figure. The angular frequency of small oscillations is (9= acceleration due to gravity) Kk | ML PK Bg 1 FF @ BK_3g Bg_ 3K aK 3a a) 9-3 @ M 2b @ 2b 2M 26. Electric field due to uniformly charged ring on axial line at distance r from centre of ring is E. Which of the following graphs correclly represent the variation of electric field E versus distance 1? (Radius of ring = R) E a) 27. 28. 5 @) (4) Two plates of area 10°m? are charged to + 4 nC and +6 uC. They are brought closer to form a capacitor of capacitance 1 uF. The potential difference across plates is (1) 10V (2) 10°V (@) 108V (4) 1V A part of circuit is shown in figure. The potential difference between points A and B at the given instant is 40 7A 20 A eH 8 av 6V (nC, 1 HF) 20 ronbay c (1) 15V (2) 1.75 (@) 20v (4) 24V ‘Space for Rough Work30. 34 placed in a Sold of4 T as shown in figure, The Equation of curve of wire ig (1) 12a Nand 48x Nm (2) 485 Nand 128 Nm (3) Zero and 485Nm (4) Zero and zero Two small bar magnets placed in a line are kept r distance apart, The force of interaction between the bar magnets is proportional to as @t z a @ 4 @ @ A metallic wire bent to form a shape as shown in figure moves in a transverse uniform magnetic field of 10 T with constant velocity of 5 mis. The magnitude of emf induced between ends A and Bis 32 33. 34, 36, (1) 125 (3) 175 (2) 150 (4) 200 An inductor of 5 mit, a capacitor of (100%) F and ‘an unknown resistance R are connected in series across a source of emf V = 20 V2 sin (100nb). Power loss in circuit is 40 W, the possible values of Reanbe (1) 20and8a (2) @Qand 160 (@) 20 and 160 (4) 182 and 100 ‘The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is, ‘gwen by 7 E, = 4-107 nx102x + 3nx10!r) N 10? x + 3x10! Ve The wavelength of wave is, (1) 107m (2) nx 102m (8) 2% 102m (4) ex 109m A ray is incident on equilateral prism such that its angle of incidence is equal to angle of emergence. Under this condition the deviation produced is 30°. The refractive index of prism is. 8 @ 2 (3) 15 (4) 1.2 ‘Young's double slit experiment is first performed in air then in water. If n bright fringe in water lies where 3rd bright fringe lies on screen in air. The (2 (3) 4 23 (4) 5 ‘Space for Rough WorknA ml SECTIONS 38. Upon emiting 9 photon the oral angular momentum of electron in hydrogen ees ere h by 55+ The probable energy of photon is (1) 14 ev (2) 12.10 (3) 0.66 ev (4) 12.75 ev 37. An electron is accelerated from rest through a Potential difference of V. Its de Broglie wavelength is (m = mass of electron, e = charge on electron) h 1) 2) f2mev 2) 2mev (3) o Far (4) None of these 38. The radioactivity of a certain radioactive substance 1 drops to => of its initial value in 20 seconds. Its mean life is 2) 4 seconds (1) 40 seconds ina (3) 30 seconds (4) 20) seconds ina 39. A truth table is given below. The logic gate having following truth table is AB 0 0j7 o4ft 104 1 1J0 (1) NOR (2) XOR (3) OR (4) NAND- 40. Ifa ball dropped from a height h rebounds back after hitting floor to a height of 0.64h, then percentage loss in energy due to impact is 4 42. (1) 50% (3) 36% Particles The velocity of A and 8 are 203 mis as shown in the figure. The angus, oti of B with respect 10 A at the given instants (4) 30% ‘A and B are separated by a distance 2 1OVE mvs ang 20v8 mis, fue 45° 8 2m a (1) rad/s (2) 5¥8 rads (3) 5(V3-1) rags (4) 5y2 radis ‘A body cools down from 80°C to 70°C in 99 ‘seconds. Time in vihich it will cool down from 60% to 50°C is (Temperature of surrounding is 15°C) (1) 100 seconds (2) 135 seconds (3) 150 seconds (4) 175 seconds The position (x) versus time (t) graph of particle undergoing SHM is shown in figure. The velocity of second is ticle at t = particl 3 x(m) os -05 (1) 2 mis (2) Ems 8 4 (3) 2 (4) x ms ‘Space for Rough Work(1) 1 unit (2) 2 unit (3) Sunit (4) 4 unit 45. An electric field in a py electric Fegion is =(i+]+k)nic The work done by el ven by lect fel in moving a unit charge from 74 =( (27+]) mis (1) 4J (2) BJ (3) 100 (4) Zero 46. Inthe given circuit wth steady current, the potential drop across the capacitor is 2v 2R i+2]) m to i iv 3V R 5 2v M5 2 (2) Th @) 1Vv (4) 2v OES 47, The potential drop on each element of LCR series, Circuit is shown in figure, The power factor of given, Circuit is Loe SEED. av av ev Ve V,sinot 3 1 3 M5 az 4 1 Oy > 48, The variation of magnetic moment (M) of electron in 1 orbit of hydrogen atom with principal quantum number mis best represented by (1) Man (2) Mant (3) Mant (4) Men? 49. The ratio of magnetic induction at centre of hydrogen atom due to moving electron in 1 orbit and 3" orbit of hydrogen atom is (1) 27:4 (2) 81:1 (8) 243:1 (4) None of these 50. In the arrangement shown in figure pulley. spring ‘and strings are ideal, All he surfaces are smooth, then the reading of spring balance is nearly ot 2 er /2 kg| Soe (1) 21.5N (2) 31.5N (3) 40N (4) 43N ‘Space for Rough Work51 52, 53, 55. Ss CCEA [CHEMISTRY] SECTION-A An organic compound contains 92.3% carbon (by Weight) and the rest is hydrogen. The correct empirical formula of the compound is (1) CH @) cH (3) chy (4) CHe The numbers of angular nodes and radial nodes in 3p orbital respectively are (1) 2and1 (2) 1and2 (3) 4 and 1 (4) tando Malch the atomic numbers given in column | with their IUPAC official name given in column I and identify the correct code [ [cotumnt Column i [ro (@) | Bohrium «103 (&) | Mendelevium «iy | 409 (©). | Lawrencium ™ [107 | (0) | Meitnorium (1) = (0) (i) — (A), (ii) = (0), (iv) ~ (a) (2) (i) = (b), (i) - (©), (il) ~ (2), iv) = (4) (3) ()~ (), (il) ~(b), (iit) —(€), fiv) - (A) (4) (i) (©). (ii) ~ (©), (ii) ~ (4), (iv) ~ (a) ‘Species which has the maximum bond order is (1) HE (2) O2 (3) Np (4) Ce Choose the correct option for the graphical representation of Gay Lussac’s Law, which shows a 56. 87. 5B. ture of a gas at ‘graph of pressure vs temperal different volume (Given : Vi < V2 < Vs < Vs) a @) Which of the following is the correct relationship between Ce and Cv for 1 mole of an ideal gas? (1) Ce+Cv=R (2) Ce-Cv=2R (3) Ce-Gv=R R (4) Cp-Cy The solubility of AgC! in 0.1 M NaCl aqueous solution is (Kip of AgCI is 1.8 * 10-9) (1) 1.8 « 10° mot L> (2) 1.8 10% mol L-* (3) 1.8 x 10° mol L-+ (4) 3 10° mol L> If the standard electrode potential (E*) values of Por/Pb, NFINi, KK, MgtIMg are — 0.13 V, ~ 0.25 V, ~ 2.93 V and ~ 2.36 V respectively. The correct order of reducing power of the metals is (1) K>Ni>Mg>Pb (2) Ni>Mg>K>Pb (3) Pb>Ni>Mg>K (4) K> Mg> Ni> Pb 2 Space for Rough Work60. 61 ident the eorrot option, Hot Le ist | ermanent ) aPcOw | |ien hardness of water a | aes (b) | Oxidising as weut | (iy | Cac ang wall | Gi aa [Sree | [So (c) | Used as moderator 120; in nuclear reactor ‘ en (a) | Calgon (v) | 020 @ © © @ mai) yw (2) qi) Gi) ivy 2G) Gi) ao i) Gi) Statement iClis deliquescent and crystall a hydrate LiCl-2H20 eat ‘Statement Il: Lithium hydrogencarbonate does not exist in the solid form, In the light of above statements identify the correct option. (1) Both statement | and statement Il are correct (2) Both statement | and statement Il are incorrect (3) Statement | is correct but statement II is incorrect, (4) Statement | is incorrect but statement II is correct Select an incorrect statement from the following about silicates (1) The basic structural unit of silicates is SiO} (2) A large number of silicates minerals exist in nature (3) ZSM-5 used to convert gasoline into alcohols (4) Mica and feldspar are the examples of silicates 62. On treating sodium fusion extract with sodium nitroprusside, violet colour appears which indicates the presence of an element X. The element X and. the violet coloured species formed respectively are (1) Nitrogen, [Fes{Fe(CN)sla"*H20 (2) Sulphur, [Fe(SCN)}* (3) Sulphur, [Fe(CN)sNOS}~ (4) Phosphorus, (NHs)s POs.12MoOs IUPAC name of the following compound is No, 63, CH, (1) 4-Fluoro-1-ethyl-3-nitrobenzene (2) 1-Ethyl-4-fuoro-3-nitrobenzene (3) 1-Fluoro-4-ethyl-2-nitrobenzene (4) 4-€thyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene Consider the following sequence of reactions Coc 2p Htew gO .g_ Resterbee 4p 64, Major product D is (1) Benzene (2) Toluene (3) 1,3, Serimethyl benzene (4) Ethyl benzene ‘Which of the following is not a green house gas? (1) CFCs (2) Ozone (3) Methane (4) Dinitrogen 66. An element has a face centered cubic structure with a cell edge of 312 pm. The atomic radius is (1) 202 pm (2) 156 pm 65. (3) 110.3 pm (4) 130.8 pm ‘Space for Rough Workoe 67. 69. 70. n The boiling point of a 0.3 molal aquaous solution of AICl (ex = 80%) is (Kv for water is 0.52 K kg mol") (1) 100.35°C (2) 100.53°C (3) 053° (4) 99.47°¢ The number of Faraday’s required to produce 12.7 9 of Cu from CuCk is (atomic mass of Cu=635u) (1) O4F (2) 02F (3) 04F @) 1 Ifthe initial concentration for a first order reaction Is halved, then the hall life period is (1) Unchanged (2) Doubled (3) Halved (4) Tripled Which of the following ions has the maximum coagulating power for the coagulation of TiQz sol? (1) ae (2) Cat (3) POS" (4) [Fe(CN)s}* Match the elements given in column | with the techniques used for refining them given in column I and identify the correct code Column | Column i (@) [Tin |_| Electrolytic refining (b)_| Copper Liquation (©) | Indium | Gi) | van Arket method (@)_| Titanium | (iv) | Zone refining (1) @)~ (id, (0) = @, (©) = (i), (4) = Gv) (2) (a) = (i), (b) — (i), (&) = (il), (A) - (iv) (3) (a) = (ii), (b) — (i), (c) - (iv), (¢) = ill) (4) (a) =(, (0) ~ (id, (c) - (v), (4) — Gi) 72, Correct order of boiling point of hydrides of group 45, is (1) Bikts > NH > SbHy > AsHs > PHs (2) NH > PHa > AsHa > Sb > Bis (3) Bikts > SbHs > NHa > AsHs > PHs (4) Biks > SbHs > AsHs > PHs > NH 73, Statement |: Cu’ disproportionates in aqueous medium to Cu® and Cu. Statement Il: Cu® oxidises Ito lz In the light of above statements, identify the correct option. (1) Statement 1 is correct but statement II is incorrect (2) Both statement | and statement Il are incorrect (3) Both statement | and statement Il are correct (4) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement II is correct 74. For which of the following ions, the spin only magnetic moment is maximum? (1) Fe (2) com (3) Mrz (4) So 75. Which of the following has the smallest C-O bond length? (1) [Fe(CO}s] (2) [Mn(CO)s]” (8) M(CO}s- (4) (Cr(CO}s) 76. Maximum, number of isomers (excluding stereoisomers) obtained during the monochlorination of 2, 2-dimethyl butane with Clz in the presence of sunlight is 2 (2) 3 @) 4 @) 5 ‘Space for Rough Work78. 79. CESSRICE fertbutde tat A OD 0, on ‘Aand 8 respectively are aa) ne Ph 1 ‘ a Ae AY Ph a & eo pel Ph mm Oe LK oe Phenol on reaction with chromic acid produces OH OH “ ©. @) ‘OH o# 9° 9° (8) a O Which of the following compounds on reaction with Grignard reagent followed by hydrolysis gives & ketone? (1) COz (3) CHsCH2CHO (2) CHsCH:CN (4) CHsCH:0H ‘All india Aakash T. SIE 80. Which of the following compounds reduces Tollon's reagent as well as Febling’s solution and gives. yollow precipitate on reaction with {2 and NaOH? (1) cH, 0H, 6-H i (2) ©-#-# i (2) cH, —C—cH, @) cH, 6-4 81. Which ofthe folowing compounds on reaction with Hinsberg’s reagent gives an. alkali insoluble product? (1) CHsCHaNH2- (2) CH:CHANHCH:CH: ® Orcn (4) CH, —CH, —N—CH,—CH, oHcH, 82. Deficiency of which of the following vitamin causes cheiiosis? (1) Thiamine (2) Riboflavin (@) Ascorbic acid (4) Pyridoxine 83, Polyamide among the following is (1) Nyion-6, 6 (2) Dacron (3) Glyptal (4) Bakelite 84, Which of the following is an antifertlity drug? (1) Salvarsan (2) Oftoxacin (3) Tetracyciine (4) Norethindrone ‘Space for Rough Work85, 87, 88. 89, for NEET-2023) {Identity the incorrect statement (1) Many tivatent anthanoid ions are coloured both inthe solid state and in aqueous solution (2) The basicity increases from La(OH)s to Lu(OH)» (3) Mischmetal consists 95% of a tanthanoid metal (4) The identical radii of Zr and Hf, is a ‘consequence of the lanthanoid contraction SECTION.8 In which of the following case maximum number of ‘oxygen atoms are present? (1) 0.5 mol of KeCr.0; (2) 500 mL of 0.1 M H:S0s(aq) (3) 5.6 Lof Os at STP (4) 6.39 of HNO In which of the following options, the order of arrangement agrees with the variation of properly indicated against it? (1) Li< Be n>1 @) >to ml (@) tune n £2, Consider he folowing statements 1 In case of positive deviation from Raouts law, A ~ B inlractions are weaker than those between A~A and B-B i, dma for both ideal as well as non-deal solution is greater than zero I. Solution which shows a large positive deviation from Raoult’s law form minimum boling, azeotrope ata specific concentration Correct statements among the follwing are (1) fend tony) Nand ill only (@) ktand wt (4) Handi only 93, For the cell reaction, Ni(s)+2Ag" (aq) -»N?*(aq)+ 2Aas) E*cen = 1.05 V at 298 K. The standard Gibbs energy of the cell eaction is (1) = 232.17 kJ mol (3) — 202.65 kJ mol" (2) ~ 198.42 kd mot (4) ~ 102.82 kJ mol ‘Space for Rough Work94, 95, 96. 97. 101. For a first order reaction, if 20% of the reaction ‘completion takes place in 10 s, the time required for 80% completion of the reaction is approximately (1) 40s (2) 100s 3) 70s (4) 908 Match the compounds given in column | with their shapes given in column Il and identify the correct code. CUT (1) CHiCH = CHCHs (2) CHsCHiCH = CHy (3) CHiCHsCH = CHCHs (4) (CHs)sC = CHCHs 98. Nitrobenzene on reaction with alkaline glucose solution gives (1) Phenythydroxy! amine (2) Azoxybenzene er Column Solu Der [| Seem Oe (4) Hycrazobenzene (©) [xeOFs [| Square planar 89._ {the enthalpy of combustion of carbon is ~xkd met, (©) | xeFs (ii) [Linear then the heat released upon formation of 8.8 g of (@_[Xe0F: | (iy) | Square pyramidal COz from carbon and oxygen gas is (1) (@)= (9. (0) = GH. (0) = Gi), (B)— (w) (1) 0.02x ks (2) O.1xks 2) (@)~ Gi), &)~ G, (©). (6) =() @) 02x eae (2) (@)~ Gi), &) =v), (6) 19,2) 0) 100. Consider the following sequence of reaction, (4) (a) (wv), bo) semis ey, non mt, 5 BuO, Which of the following compounds is not formed by © ATomo 7PU are Wurtz reaction? Major product D is (1) 2, 3-dimethy! butane (2) Butane i. (3) Ethane (4) Methane CoN La, An alkene (A) on reductive ozonolysis givens B and ” Of @ or C. B on reaction with dilute alkali followed by heating gives 2-methylpent-2-enal and C on reaction with ry NHICH, conc alkali gives methanol and methanoate ion. The alkene (A) is 8) or @) or [BOTANY] ‘SECTION-A Non-membrane bound organelle involved in protein synthesis is (1) Centriole (2) Ribosome (3) Endoplasmic reticulum (4) Nucleus 402. Which among the following structures are not seen in prokaryotic unicellular organisms? (1) Flagetta 2) Pi (3) Cilia (4) Fimbriae 103. What willbe the amount of DNA in meiosis I product if meiccyte is containing 20 pg DNA in Gi phase? (1) 10pg (2) 5p9 (3) 20pg (4) 15pq ‘Space for Rough WorkUE CLC) 104. Systematics differs from taxonomy as the former includes (1) Characterisation (2) Classification (3) Evolutionary relationships among organisms (4) Nomenclature 105. (A) These organisms have a very simple structure but are very complex in behaviour, (8) They exhibit a primitive form of sexual reproduction. (C) They lack nuclear membrane. The above given statements are true for (1) Bacteria (2) Fungi (3) Plants (4) Protists 106. The consumer-decomposer protists that have features resembling with plants, animals and fungi are (1) Euglenoids. (2) Slime moulds (3) Diatoms (4) Dinoflageliates 107. Formation of sexual spore is absent in (1) Aspergillus (2) Albugo (3) Agaricus (4) Trichoderma 108, Common type of genetic material found in bacterial viruses is (1) ssRNA (2) ssDNA (3) dsDNA (4) dsRNA 109. Which among the following characters is not seen in members of potato family? (1) Swollen placenta (2) Epiphyllous stamens (3) Valvate aestivation (4) Axile placentation 110. Modification of leaves into tendrils is a characteristic feature of (1) Pumpkin (2) Watermelon (3) Pea (4) Cucumber 111, Match the following columns and select the correct option. Column [Column a. | Rhizome | () | Asparagus b. | Comm (i | Chrysanthemum c. | Sucker (ii) | Colocasia 4. |Ciadode | (iv) | Ginger (1) tiv), Bai), efi, iy i), efi), iv) ).btiv), ei), A) (4) atv), bai, (9), aa) 112. Presence of conjunctive tissue is a characteristic, feature of (1) Dicot leat (2) Dicot root (3) Monocot stem (4) Monocot leat 113. A: These are thin walled parenchymatous cells with, numerous intercellular spaces produced by activity of phellogen. B: They create pressure on epidermis which soon results in rupture of epidermal cells and form lenticels. Above statements are true for (1) Hydathodes (2) Stomata (3) Complementary cells, (4) Buliform cells ‘Space for Rough Work414, Inthe given diagram, whi Which absorbing capacity? MS maximum water ‘All India Aakash Test Serlos for NEET-2023 1 118, Statement A: Mosses along with lichens are the first organisms to colonise rocks. Statement B: Diploid spores germinate to produce ‘gametophyte in bryophytes. Consider the above siatements and select the correct option: (1) Only statement A is correct, (2) Only statement B is correct (3) Both statements A and B are correct (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect Ma 2)B 119, How many molecules of ATP are required in @c hates reduction step of Calvin cycle to produce one molecule of sucrose? 415. A hydathode consists of a’ pore in epider epidermis followed by large intercellular spaces and loo. Or es arranged parenchyma call sely (@) 18 (4) 36 (1) Epithem = co saa a Incrrst mate wt leon transport (3) Accessory cells (4) Ray parenchyma (1) NADH dehydrogenase - Complex | 416. A: Itis based on natural affinities among organisms, (2) Cytochrome bes ~ Complex Il B: This classification system was given by Bentham (3) Succinate dehydrogenase ~ Complex I oe (4) Cytochrome c oxidase - Complex V ‘Above given statements are true for 421. Surface area of a leaf has increased from 50 cm? to 55 cm?, Caiculale its relative growth rate and select 1) Sexual system of ficati a) system of classification Rae (2) Natural classification system (1) 5% (3) Artificial classification system (2) 10% (4) Phylogenetic classification system (3) 50% 117. Gelidium and Gracitaria (4) 100% 422. Interflowering period which is used to build up resources for next flowering is a part of (1) Juvenile phase (2) Senescent phase (8) Reproductive phase (4) Post reproductive phase (1) Are members of | Rhodophyceae and Chlorophyceae respectively (2) Are source of products which are used in preparation of jellies (3) Produce algin which is used commercially (4) Show isogamous reproduction ‘Space for Rough WorkAll India Aakash Test Sor ESE 123. Which among the following anther wall layers has polyploid cells with increased DNA content? (1) Midao layer (2) Endothecium {@) Epidermis (4) Tapetum 124 In angiosperms, _A meiotic division(s) and __ mnilotic divisions are required {o form mate gametes from microspore mother cell. Here A and, Bare respectively (1) 2and1 (2) Vand 2 (3) Zand 3. (4) Zand 4 125. The most common ovule found in 82% of angiosperm families is (1) Anatropous ovule (2) Orthotropous ovule (3) Hemianatropous ovule (4) Amphitropous ovule 126. The graphical representation to calculate the probability of all possible genotypes of offspring in a genetic cross is called (1) Pedigree (2) Punnett square (3) Idiogram (4) Karyotype 427. The starch synthesis regarding the grain size in garden pea show _A__ for Bb genotype. Here A is (1) Codominance (2) Dominance (3) Incomplete dominance (4) Multiple allelism Cee 128. Match the fotowing columns and sole! tho coret pon Golumnt x0 po bo [xxx ype le [2w-zZipe _| Columnett Butterflies Grasshopper ti), fv), id ).b¢i), ctv), ai) human genome, (1) afi, Bali), ef). dfiv) (2) a (3) ali, BG), cli, div). (4) 129, Select the incorrect match wr (1). Dystrophin = Largest human gene (2) Single = 1.4 million locations nucleotide polymorphism (3) Chromosome 1 - Has 231 genes only (4) TOF gene - 14bases 430. Synthesis of which of the following will be affected if RNA polymerase Ill is removed from the cell? (1) 5.85 rRNA (2) 5S 1RNA (8) 28S rRNA (4) RNA 4131, Match the following columns and select the correct ‘option Column Golumn-tl (Wariety) (Resistance to diseases) a. | Himgin (_| Bacterial bight b. | Pusa Swarnim | (i)_| White rust . | Puse Sadabahar_| (ii) | Hillbunt 4. | Pusa Komal (iv) | Chilli mosaic virus (1) afi, BG, of), dQ) (2) afi), bq), of), dQ) (3) ali), BG, efi), di) (4) ai), bGw), of), ai) ‘Space for Rough WorkCee t-4 (Codo-A) 432. Arlt is produced by the bacterium by genetic engineering, and is modified B:It is used as clot buster for removing clots f rom the blood vessels of Patients. wi undergone myocardial infarction, "NYE Above statements are true for (1) Statins (2) Proteases (3) Streptokinase (4) Cyclosporin A 4133. Population is said to be stable when (1) Population size dectines with time (2) Pre-reproductive individuals are only marginally more than the reproductive individuals (3) Pre-reproductive individuals are higher in proportion as compared to post-reproductive individuals (4) Age pyramid is urn-shaped 134. All given are characteristics of anthropogenic ecosystem, except (1) Have litle diversity (2) Are self regulatory in nature (3) High productivity (4) Simple food chain 135, Amount of living material present in different trophic levels at a given time is called (1) Standing state (2). Standing crop (3) Standing quality (4) Seral stage SECTION-B : It helps in formation of plasma membrane during cytokinesis. B; Root cap cells are rich in this organelle as it secretes mucilage for the lubrication of root tip. 136. Above statements are true for (2) SER (4) Golgi apparatus (1) Vacuoles (3) Lysosomes ‘Sorlos for NEET-2023 ‘All India Aakash Tos 197. Gz phase of coll cycle involves duplication of all he organelles, oxcopt (1) Centrioles (2) Chloroplast (3) Mitochondria (4) Golgi bodies 138. The infectious RNA particles which are devoid of protein coat are (1) Viruses (2) Prions @) Virusoids (4) Viroids 199, Margins of petals in whorl just touch each other without overlapping in (1) China rose (2) Calotropis (8) Cotton (4) Cassia 140. Hypodermis is sclerenchymatous in (1) Monocot leat (2) Dicot stem (8) Dicot root (4) ‘Monocot stem 4141. Which among the following algae has stored food very similar to amylopectin and glycogen? (1) Laminaria (2) Porphyra (3) Ulothrix (4) Fucus 142. How many ATP molecules are required to produce 4 ammonia molecules during biological nitrogen fixation? ms (2) 16 (3) 32 (4) 24 143. The fipening of fruits can be delayed so that they can be left on tree for longer period. This is done by application of (1) Auxin (2) Gibberellin (3) ABA (4) Ethylene Space for Rough Work144, 145, 146. 151 162. All of the given statements. are cleistogamy. except (1) It ensures seed formation oven in absence of pollinating agent (2) I is cheaper for plant as no costly nectar or fragrance needs to be produced by plant (3) The offsprings produced have limited genetic diversity (4) There is no loss of pollen grains, Which among the following is an incorrect statement w.r.t Down's syndrome? (1) This disorder develops due to trisomy of sex chromosome (2) It atises due to formation of (n + 1) male or female gamete by non-disjunction and subsequent fertilization by normal gamete {8) Its characterized by many loops on finger tips and big wrinkled tongue (4) Itis not a Mendelian disorder (3) Suspension culture (4) Somatic hybridisation 147, Major component of biogas is (1) CHe (2) CO2 (3) He (4) Hes 148. Mark odd one out wt mutualism. (1) Lichens (2) Mycorthizae (8) Sea anemone on hermit crab (4) Fig and fig wasp 449. _A__ are the most species rich taxonomic group ‘among invertebrates. Here Ais (2) Molluscs (4) Fishes (1) Insects, (3) Crustaceans 450. Which is not the main component of photochemical The method of producing thousands of plants through tissue culture is called smog? (1) Micropropagation (1) (2) NOx (2) Somaclones 3) SOz (4) PAN [ZOOLOGY] SECTION-A ‘The type of epithelium found in PCT of nephron is, (1) Brush bordered columnar epithelium (2) Brush bordered cuboidal epithelium (3) Ciliated columnar epithelium (4) Simple squamous epithelium All of the following properties are shown by the type of epithelium that covers the dry surface of the skin, except (1) Made up of more than one layer of cells (2) Has limited role in secretion and absorption (3) Provides protection against mechanical and chemical stresses. (4) Same category of epithelium is found in the inner lining of ducts of salivary glands and fallopian tubes 183. The mouth part of cockroach that consists o! grinding and incising region is (1) Labrum (2) Labium (3) Mandible (4) Hypopharynx ‘Space for Rough WorkCLIC 454. Choose the edd one wr female cockroach, (1) Collateriat glands ) Urecos @) Spermatheca (4) vos be Respiratory rhythm centre : Pneumotaxic centre (1) Pons (2) Corebetium (3) Cerebrum (4) Midbrain 456. Which one of the follows iomotecul phosphorylated lycerde found inol nano (1) Valine (2) Arachidonic acia @) Uridylic acia (4) Lecithin 487. The hormone that stimulates the: and pancreatic enzymes is (1) Secretin (2) cok (3) Gastrin (4) oP : 4188. At which phase of cardiac cycle in an adult human, maximum filling of ventricles takes place under ‘normal physiological conditions? (1) Ventricular systole (2) Atrial systole (3) Joint (4) Atrial diastole 159, Choose the correct statement among the given options * the structures found in the analogy, + Medulla oblongata release of ble juice stole (1) Renin is a proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of infants which helps in the digestion of milk proteins. (2) Mucus and bicarbonates play an important role in lubrication and protection of mucosal epithelium. (3) Brunner's glands are present in the mucosa of stomach and secrete pepsinogen. (4) Saliva secreted into the oral cavity contains salivary amylase, lysozyme but lacks electrolytes. UE 160. Solact the incorract match w.rt. the wall of ‘alimentary canal (1) { serosa’ = | Outermost tayer (2)| Muscutaris | - | Arranged into an outer | cicular and an inner longitudinal layer Formed of loose. connective tissues @) | Sub-mucosa ‘® [w= ial Select the organism that is considered as @ ‘gregarious insect. (1) Limulus (2) Locusta 3) Loligo (4) Laccifer At the resting state of skeletal muscle fibres, a subunit of which of the following masks the active binding sites for myosin on the actin fiaments? (1) Tropomyosin (2) Meromyosin Forms rugae in the stomach 161 162 (3) F-actin (4) Troponin 163. Select the incorrect statement w.r.. human skeleton, (1) Axial skeleton comprises 80 bones distributed along the main axis of the body. (2) Skull is composed of two set of bones-cranial ‘and facial, that totals to 22 bones. (3) The vertebral column serves as the point of attachment for the ribs. (4) A cup shaped bone called patella covers the knee dorsally, Certain granular bodies named NissI's granules are found in all ofthe following, except (1) Dendrites (2) Axon. (3) Cyton (4) Perikaryon 164, ‘Space for Rough Work Synapsids — Thecodonts —> Dinosaurs (2) Early reptiles + Synapsids —> Pelycosaurs — Therapsids (3) Pelycosaurs > Therapsids > Thecodonts > Mammals (4) Sauropsids > Synapsids > Thecodonts — Therapsids 200. Select the diagnostic method whichis based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction. (1) PCR (2) Serum analysis @) ELISA (4) IDNA technology a ‘Space for Rough Work