LITERA VALLEY SCHOOL, PATNA

English Communicative
(Sample Paper)
Class IX
Time allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:
(i) The Question paper is divided into three sections:
Section A - Reading 20 marks
Section B - Writing and Grammar 34 marks
Section C - Literature 26 marks
(ii) All questions are compulsory.
(iii) You may attempt any section at a time.
(iv) All questions of that particular section must be attempted in the correct order.

Section A
Reading (20 marks)
1. Read the passage and answer the questions 8

Martin Luther King, one of the greatest men ever to walk on this earth, started the
defence
force with which the American Blacks got their rights gained freedom from the
distressing
racial discrimination.
Martin was born on January 15, 1929. His family lived on the outskirts of Atlanta.
The fact
that he could not play with White children, or that he had to offer a seat in the bus
to a
White, disturbed him. When he was eight years old, his father a Baptist pastor, told
the
family a sad story: Bessie Smith, a great singer, met with an accident. An
ambulance rushed
her to the nearest hospital, but she was not admitted because she was a Black. The
ambulance took her from one hospital to another, but she could not find a place for
herself
because these hospitals were only for the Whites. She died for want of blood. From
that day,
Martin Luther King dreamt of becoming a liberator of the Blacks.
King completed his studies at More House College, and then earned a doctor’s
degree in
theology at Boston University. In 1955, King married Alabama Soprano Coretta
Scott. That
very year he became a pastor and preached his first sermon in the Baptist Church
of Atlanta

As a young man, he was greatly impressed by Mahatma Gandhi’s success in the

political field
and the power of ahimsa. King decided to follow the path of non-violence and get
millions of
Black their due. He felt that the Blacks had immensely contributed towards the
building of
America, and there was no reason why they should not be treated with respect.
King drew
national attention in 1956. Since the Blacks were not permitted to sit in the same
buses as the
Whites, he led a boycott of public buses in Montgomery. A year later, after many
arrests and
treats, the US Supreme Court gave a ruling that racial segregation of public
transport was
unlawful. This victory taught the Blacks the power of non-violence. After 1957,
King began
visiting various places to deliver lectures. Soon he became a powerful orator,
drawing the
attention of people the world over.
King continued the fight, a peaceful fight, demanding the rights of the Blacks. In
1964, he was
awarded the Nobel Peace Prize. In 1967, King led many peaceful demonstration
against the
Vietnam War and in 1968 he declared a Poor People’s Campaign. On April 4, of that
very
year, while planning a demonstration of striking sanitation workers, he was shot
dead by an
assassin.
So, it was really a sad end of one of the greatest votaries of non-violence in recent
times.
Martin Luther died for a cause - for the rights of millions of American Blacks. His
sacrifice
didn’t go in vain. The American Blacks ultimately got their genuine rights and
gained
freedom from the hateful racial discrimination.
Answer the following questions briefly:
(i) Why is Martin Luther King of the greatest men that America has produced?
(ii) Name two things that disturbed king when he was still a child.
(iii) Why was Bessie Smith not admitted in any hospital?
(iv) Why did king lead a boycott of public buses in Montgomery in 1956?
(v) In which year was king awarded with Nobel peace prize?
(vi) When was king shot dead?
(vii) Why did Martin Luther king sacrifice his life?
(viii) Was king’s sacrifice go in vain? Why/why not?

2. Read the passage carefully. (12)

1. India sells the largest number of branded drugs in the world, almost 60,000 in
all. By
volume India is ranked 4th and comprises 8 percent of the global pharma market.
This
scenario becomes scary given that spurious and substandard drugs are a thriving
parallel
industry in our country. “When manufacturers sell chalk as life-saving drugs, such
criminals
should be given the death sentence,” says Dr. P.K. Dave, President of National
Academy of
Medical Sciences, Delhi and former Director of AIIMS.
2. Self-medication with genuine drugs also has disastrous fallouts. “I’ve lost count
of how
many patients come to us, when water crosses head level,” says Dr. Dave. While
Dr. Simran
Nundy, consultant gastro intestinal surgeon at Delhi’s Sir Ganga Ram Hospital,
observes:
“Patients come to me, after six months of taking antacids, to find they’re not
suffering from
indigestion but cancer of the stomach or gastric tract.” Most medical experts say
pill namedropping
is common. But besides superficial awareness patients know little about dosage,
duration and more importantly, side-effects. In Calcutta, Dr. Krishnangshu Ray,
head of
pharmacology at NRS Medical College and Hospital, agrees: “There’s a drug culture
in our
state where people assume they know which drug to take. This is a dangerous
habit which
accounts for at least 15 to 20 percent of complicated cases.”
3. Besides, no drug, not even an over the counter (OTC) medicine is totally safe.
Aspirin on an
empty stomach may lead to severe gastritis. Even paracetamol, considered the
safest
painkiller, when taken in high doses or for prolonged periods, can cause liver
damage. Then
there’s carelessness. Dr. Gupta observes: “People take cough suppressant for a
cough with
sputum, which in fact requires an expectorant. Or, they consume antibiotics
without a
doctor’s prescription for viral fever, allergic cold, dry cough, flu or sore throat,
which do not
require any antibiotic.” Self-medication of antibacterial drugs can be dangerous.
Frequent
treatment with ciprofloxacin for undiagnosed diarrhoea is one of the most common
reasons

for emergence of typhoid germs that are resistant to this drug.

4. What makes us such willing pill-swallowers? Dr. Wishvas Rane, Pune - based
health
activist, asserts: “Most viral conditions are self-limiting; 80 percent get cured on
their own.
This pill-popping attitude is nurtured by pharmaceutical firms.” This is particularly
true in
our unique pharma-sales culture where pills are available without bills and bills
can be
obtained without buying pills. Dr. Ashish Sabherwal, Joint Secretary, Indian
Medical
Association in Delhi, points out: “Patients just want momentary relief and aren’t
willing to
get to the root of the problem, so pills are eaten like peanuts.”
5. Another reason for spiralling self-treatment is that general practitioners or GPs,
doctors
who have shone the torch down our throats from our toothless babyhood to our
aiming
adulthood, are gradually vanishing.
6. In real life, we patients do not have a family friend and a philosopher - our GPs
who know
us by blood group, allergies, medical history and emotional upheavals. Hesitant
about
dashing off to intimidating ENT specialist when we have throat trouble, we just
check with
the chemist. That could be a dose for disaster.
A. Answer the following questions briefly:
(i) Why do people indulge in self-medication?
(ii) Why can self-medication have dangerous results?
(iii) What is the effect of an aspirin on our health when taken on an empty
stomach?
(iv) What does the habit of taking paracetamol for prolonged periods and in high
dosage cause?
B. Find a word in the passage which conveys similar meaning as the following:
(i) fake
(ii) most obvious/easily understood
(iii) sensitivity
(iv) result

Section B
Writing and Grammar( 34 marks)
3. As the Secretary of Old Students’ Association, draft a notice in about 50 words to
be put on the notice board regarding a meeting to be held for the celebration of
Annual Alumni Meet. 4

4. Kabir and Behan are planning something naughty. Pappa has just brought a bag
full of crackers. Write a set of six dialogues (3 Each) based on their conversation.
5

5. You are Siddharth of Pune. Write a letter of congratulations to your friend Rehan
whose elder brother is getting married soon. 7

6. Walking is not just an exercise but also pleasurable. Write paragraph using the
inputs as well as your own ideas on the topic walking and its benefits. You can
take help from your MCB unit (Sports). 8

[ Walking .. joy… admire beauty… refreshes mind… improves blood pressures..

weight control.. no comparison with driving]

7. Choose the best word from the options given below and complete the following
passage. (3)
Our sun and (i) ___ planets, including earth, (ii) ___ into existence at the same time
and
from a common source. Evidence (iii) ___ that the solar system (iv) ___ formed about
4.5-
5 billion years ago. It is thought to have (v) ___ from a huge, spinning cloud of
cosmic
dust and gas (vi) ___ solar nebula.
(i) (a) their(b) its(c) it’s(d) these
(ii) (a) come(b) coming(c) came(d) will come
(iii) (a) suggests(b) suggested(c) suggest(d) suggesting
(iv) (a) became(b) was(c) is(d) will
(v) (a) risen(b) arisen(c) arising(d) arose
(vi) (a) termed(b) term(c) terming(d) terms
8. The following passages have not been edited. There is an error in each of the
lines
against which a blank is given. Write the incorrect word and the correction in the
space
provided. (4)
Incorrect/correct
In one of the biggest seizures of wildlife good, (a)_______
customs officials in IGI airport (b) _______
arrested the resident of Srinagar (c) _______
on Tuesday for carried 25 (d) _______
shahtoosh shawl, 89 pashmina (e) _______
shawls or 55 stoles. The total (f) _______
value of the seized goods have (g) _______
been fixed at 1,68,54,176 according to experts (h) _______

9. Rearrange the following to form meaningful sentences. (3)

a) Wild / the/ forest/ the/ animals/ lives/ support/ of/ many
b) Complete the dialogue
Mother: Why are you looking so worried?
Daughter: My exams are approaching.
Mother asked her daughter (i) __________ . The daughter replied that (ii) _____ .

Section C
Literature and Long Reading Text (26 marks)
10. Read the extracts and answer the questions that follows: (4)
Two roads diverged in a yellow wood
And sorry I could not travel both
And be one traveller, long I stood
And looked down one as far as I could
To where it bent in the undergrowth;
(a) Name the poem and the poet of these lines.
(b) Why did the poet looked down as far as he could?
(c) What is the meaning of the word ‘diverged’?
(d)What do the roads represent in these lines?

11. Read the extracts and answer the questions that follows: (4)
You told him she was feeling poor. Did you? And so my brother is to be kept out of
bed. There’s gratitude for you!
a) Who are the speaker and listener here?
b) Who is ‘she’?
c) Who is the speaker’s brother? Why is kept out of bed?
d) Explain ‘There’s gratitude for you!’

10. Answer the following questions in about 30-40 words each. (2x6=12)
(a) “Two roads diverged in a yellow wood.” What do the two roads indicate here?
What was
the poet’s dilemma?
(b) What did Juliette expect as she put up the villa for sale?
(c) What was the story that went around the new suburb where the Hoopers bought
a house?
(d) What perplexed Pescud about the readers of Best Sellers?
(e) What poetic device is used in abundance in the ‘Song of the Rain’? Give two
examples.
(f) What is the message of the poem ‘The Brook’?

11. The grandmother touched the feet of her granddaughter. How did she justify
this
gesture of hers? (120 words) 6
Or
Why does Shakespeare compare this world to a stage? How has he interpreted the
different stages of life in the poem?
 fyVªk oSyh Ldwy] iVuk
vH;kl&i= ¼2023 & 24½
d{kk & uoe~
fo"k; & fgUnh
uke% ---------------------------------------------------- d{kk@[k.M% ----------------
iw.kkZof/k% & 3 ?kaVk iw.kkZad% & 80
lkekU; funsZ'k%
(i) bl iz”u&i= esa nks [k.M gSa & [k.M *v* vkSj [k.M *c*A
(ii) [k.M *v* esa dqy 45 Á”u gSa ftuesa ls dsoy 40 Á”uksa ds gh mÙkj nsus gSaA
(iii) [k.M *c* esa o.kZukRed Á”u gSaA Á”uksa esa mfpr vkarfjd fodYi fn, x, gSaA

[k.M & *v* oLrqijd Á'u ¼40 vad½

vifBr x|ka'k
1. fuEufyf[kr vifBr xn~;ka'k dks /;kuiwoZd i<+dj fn, x, Á'uksa ds mÙkj
fyf[k,A [1 X 5 = 5]

^^yksx vDlj Hkwy tkrs gSa fd vkt ftu yksxksa dh mez us mUgsa vlgk; cuk fn;k gS] ,d t+ekuk
og Hkh jgk gksxk] tc mu lw[ks nj[+rksa esa gfj;kyh jgh gksxh] ftldh Nk¡o esa u tkus fdrus
yksx lqdwu eglwl djrs gksx a sA vkt tks cw<+s gSa] dy os toku Fks vkSj mUgksua s vius ns”k] lekt
vkSj ifjokj ds fy, viuh {kerk ds vuqlkj cgqr dqN fd;k gksxkA ;g lgt izkd`frd izfØ;k
gS fd ,d ih<+h vxyh ih<+h dks tUe nsrh gS vkSj ;gh ugha] mls lkalkfjd la?k’kksZa esa viuk
vfLrRo dk;e j[kus ds fy, rS;kj Hkh djrh gS] fcYdqy oSls gh] tSls ,d fpfM+;k vius pwt+ksa
dk rc rd lkFk nsrh gS tc rd os mM+uk u lh[k ysa vkSj viuk isV ikyus dh {kerk muesa u
vk tk,A ysfdu balkuksa ds ekeys esa ;g dgkuh ,d dM+h vkSj vkxs c<+ rh gSA cpiu ekrk&firk
ds fu;a=.k esa chrrk gS] ukStokuh esa Hkh ,d Hkjkslk jgrk gS fd dksbZ rks gS] t+:jr ds oDr
ftldh vksj rkdk tk ldsA fQj thou dk og eksM+ vkrk gS tc ek¡&cki dh mez tokc nsus
yxrh gSA rc balkfu;r dk rdkt+k ;gh dgrk gS fd thou&la/;k esa jks”kuh djus dk dke oks
djs]a ftudh Hkksj dks mUgksua s lqugjk cuk;k FkkA ;s lp gS fd dekus&[kkus dh tn~nkstgn us
yksxksa dks bruk etcwj dj fn;k gS fd muds ikl nwljksa ds fy, oDr ugha gSA lqdwu ls cSBdj
nks cksy cksyuk Hkh vxj os pkgsa rks cksy ugha ikrsA ,sls esa cPpksa vkSj cqt+qxksZa ds fy, oDr
fudkyus dk eryc gks ldrk gS fd iwjh vFkZO;oLFkk gh fcxM+ tk,A**
¼d½ x|ka”k esa ^lw[kk nj[+r* fdls dgk x;k gS \
¼[k½ lw[ks nj[+rksa esa gfj;kyh jgus ds ek/;e ls ys[kd D;k dguk pkgrk gS \
¼x½ ^dekus&[kkus dh tn~nkstgn* ls D;k vfHkizk; gS \
 ¼?k½ yksx vDlj D;k Hkwy tkrs gSa vkSj D;ksa \
¼M+½ mi;qZDr x|ka”k dk lokZf/kd mi;qDr “kh’kZd D;k gks ldrk gS \
2. fuEufyf[kr vifBr xn~;ka'k dks /;kuiwoZd i<+dj fn, x, Á'uksa ds lgh fodYi pqudj mÙkj
fyf[k,A [1 X 5 = 5]

^^cky et+nwjh gekjs ns”k ds fy, v{kE; vijk/k gSA ns”k esa vkt u tkus fdrus cPps cky
et+nwjh dj jgs gSa] D;k mUgsa gekjh rjg thus dk vf/kdkj ugha gS \ jkts”k tks”kh us cM+s gh
ekfeZd rjhds ls ^cky&Jfed* ds Åij d:.k jl dh dfork fy[kh gS& ^cPps dke ij tk jgs
gSa lqcg&lqcg!* vFkkZr~ i<+kbZ&fy[kkbZ NksMd
+ j cPps et+nwjh djus dke ij tk jgs gSaA D;k muds
thou esa [ksy dk eSnku ugha gS\ D;k muds fy, iqLrdky; vkSj ikB”kkyk ugha gSa\ bl rjg ds
Hkko&cks/k vkSj ihM+k cks/k ls jfpr jkts”k tks”kh dh dfork vk/kqfud lH; lekt ds Åij ,d
izdkj dk O;aX; Hkh izLrqr djrh gSA oSf”od Lrj ij “kkafr ds fy, o’kZ 2014 ds ukscy iqjLdkj
izkIrdrkZ Jh dSyk”k lR;kFkhZ] tks ^cpiu cpkvks vkanksyu* ds l`tudrkZ ekus tkrs gSa] dk dguk
gS fd ^^cky&Jfedksa dh igpku ds laca/k esa lcls cM+h leL;k mez dk fu/kkZj.k djuk gSA**
muds tkx:drk vfHk;ku ds dkj.k vc cgqr lhek rd yksx tkuus yxs gSa fd 14 lky ds
cPps ls dke djkuk ,d naMuh; vijk/k gSA blesa mez dk fu/kkZj.k dj ikuk csgn dfBu dke
gSA blesa cPpksa dk “kks’k.k djus okys yksx mudh mez&lhek 14 o’kZ ds Åij fn[kkdj dkuwuh
izfØ;k ls ca/kueqDr gks tk;k djrs gSaA ;fn dBksj fu;e cukdj mfpr dk;Zokgh dh tk,]rks
cky et+nwjh ds Åij cgqr lhek rd yxke yxkbZ tk ldrh gSA**
¼d½ fuEufyf[kr esa ls izLrqr x|ka”k dk lokZf/kd mi;qDr “kh’kZd D;k gksxk\
¼v½ ukscy iqjLdkj izkIrdrkZ Jh dSyk”k lR;kFkhZ
¼c½ ckyJe% leL;k vkSj lek/kku
¼l½ i<+kbZ&fy[kkbZ ls oafpr cpiu
¼n½ ckyJe% dkuwuh izfØ;k
¼[k½ jkts”k tks”kh dh dfork dk ewy vk”k; D;k gS\
¼v½ dfo /keZ dk ikyu djuk
¼c½ cpiu dk fp=.k djuk
¼l½ cPpksa ds izfr rRdkyhu lekt dh laosnughurk dks O;Dr djuk
¼n½ mijksDr lHkh
¼x½ cky Jfedksa dh igpku ds lac/a k esa lcls cM+h leL;k fdls ekuk x;k gS\
¼v½ fo|ky;ksa dh lhfer la[;k dks
¼c½ i<+kbZ ds izfr cPpksa dh mnklhurk dks
¼l½ lekt esa i<+kbZ dks de egRo nsus dks
¼n½ mez dk fu/kkZj.k djus dks
¼?k½ ^cpiu cpkvks vkanksyu* dk lekt ij D;k izHkko iM+k\
¼v½ yksx tkuus yxs fd 14 o’kZ ls de vk;q ds cPpksa ls dke djkuk ,d vijk/k gS
¼c½ yksx tku x, fd f”k{kk dk D;k egRo gS
 ¼l½ yksx tkuus yxs fd [ksy Hkh cPpksa ds fy, vko”;d gS
¼n½ yksx tku x, fd cpiu thou dk loksZŸke le; gS
¼M+½ x|ka”k ds vuqlkj cky et+nwjh ij jksd dSls yxkbZ tk ldrh gS\
¼v½ dBksj fu;e cukdj mfpr dk;Zokgh }kjk
¼l½ cky et+nwjh dks egRo u nsdj
¼c½ tkx:drk vfHk;ku }kjk
¼n½ cPpksa dks dke ij u Hkstdj
O;kdj.k% cgqfodYikRed iz'u
3. ¼d½ ftu “kCnksa esa iz;ksxkuqlkj dqN ifjorZu mRiUu gksrk gS] os dgykrs gSa% [1 X 2 = 2]

¼v½ vfodkjh “kCn ¼l½ in

¼c½ fodkjh “kCn ¼n½ inca/k
¼[k½ O;kdj.k ds fu;eksa esa ca/kdj “kCn D;k cu tkrs gSa \
¼v½ vO;; ¼l½ laKk
¼c½ fo”ks’k.k ¼n½ in
4. ¼d½ vuqLokj dh n`f’V ls “kq) “kCn dkSu&lk gS\ [1 X 2 = 2]

¼v½ ijr=a ¼l½ ijar=

¼c½ ijra= ¼n½ iajr=
¼[k½ ^eUgxk* “kCn esa mfpr LFkku ij vuqukfld dk iz;ksx djus ij mldk ekud :Ik D;k
gksxk\
¼v½ eagxk ¼l½ e¡gxk
¼c½ eg¡xk ¼n½ egxk¡
5. ¼d½ ^Lokxr* “kCn esa dkSu&lk milxZ iz;qDr gqvk gS \ [1 X 4 = 4]

¼v½ Lo ¼l½ Lok

¼c½ lq ¼n½ xr
¼[k½ ^”kkjhfjd* “kCn esa iz;qDr izR;; gS %&
¼v½ d ¼l½ bd
¼c½ fjd ¼n½ jhd
¼x½ ^izflf)* “kCn esa fufgr milxZ] ewy”kCn ,oa izR;; dk mfpr la;ksx pqusaA
¼v½ izl $ b) $ bZ ¼l½ iz $ fl) $ b
¼c½ iz $ fl) $ bZ ¼n½ dksbZ ugha
¼?k½ ^t;* “kCn esa dkSu&lk milxZ yxkus ls og ^t;* dk foyksekFkZd gks tkrk gS \
¼v½ fo ¼l½ ijk
¼c½ ifj ¼n½ v
6. fuEukafdr “kCnksa ds laf/k&foPNsn gsrq lgh mÙkj pqudj fy[ksAa [1 X 2 = 2]

¼d½ fgrS’kh
¼v½ fgr $ ,s”kh ¼l½ fgrs $ ‘kh
¼c½ fgr $ ,’kh ¼n½ fgrS $ ‘kh
¼[k½ equh”oj
¼v½ eq $ fu”oj ¼l½ ewfu $ bZ”oj
¼c½ ewuh $ bZ”oj ¼n½ eqfu $ bZ”oj
7. fn, x, “kCnksa dh laf/k gsrq lgh mÙkj dk pquko djsAa [1 X 2 = 2]

¼d½ ekr` $ vkns”k

¼v½ ekr`n”s k ¼l½ ek=ksns”k
¼c½ ek=kns”k ¼n½ ekrkns”k
¼[k½ mifj $ mDr
¼v½ mi;qZDr ¼l½ mijksDr
¼c½ mi;qDr ¼n½ mij;qDr
8. ¼d½ fdl fpg~u dk iz;ksx xf.kr esa Hkh fd;k tkrk gS \ [1 X 2 = 2]

¼v½ vorj.k fpg~u ¼l½ dks’Bd

¼c½ ;kstd ¼n½ yk?ko fpg~u
¼[k½ fy[krs le; tc dksbZ “kCn NwV tkrk gS] rc mls fy[kus ds fy, fdl fpg~u dk iz;ksx
gksrk gS \
¼v½ fooj.k fpg~u ¼l½ galin
¼c½ yk?ko fpg~u ¼n½ foHkktd
9. vFkZ ds vk/kkj ij okD; ds Hksn pqudj fy[ksaA [1 X 2 = 2]

¼d½ ^;fn isM+ ugha dVrs rks vkWDlhtu dh deh ugha gksrhA*
¼v½ ladsrokpd okD; ¼l½ fu’ks/kokpd okD;
¼c½ iz”uokpd okD; ¼n½ lansgokpd okD;
¼[k½ ^uo o’kZ vkids fy, [kqf”k;k¡ yk,A^
¼v½ fo/kkuokpd okD; ¼l½ fu’ks/kokpd okD;
¼c½ bPNkokpd okD; ¼n½ lansgokpd okD;
10. ifBr in~;ka'k ds vk/kkj ij fn, x, Á'uksa ds lgh fodYi pqudj mÙkj
fyf[k,A [1 X 5 = 5]
^^;g egku n`”; gS
Pky jgk euq’; gS
vJq&Losn&jDr ls yFkiFk] yFkiFk] yFkiFk!
vfXuiFk] vfXuiFk] vfXuiFk!**
 ¼d½ ^;g egku n`”; gS* iafDr esa fdl n`”; dks egku dgk x;k gS\
¼v½ izd`fr ds thounkf;uh n`”; dks
¼c½ vk¡lw cgkrs euq’; ds n`”; dks
¼l½ jDr ls yFkiFk euq’; ds n`”; dks
¼n½ fujarj ifjJe djrs gq, euq’; ds n`”; dks
¼[k½ thou iFk ij euq’; fujarj dSls vkxs c<+ jgk gS\
¼v½ [kwu&ilhuk cgkdj ¼l½ fopfyr gksdj
¼c½ lgtrkiw.kZ <ax ls ¼n½ nq%[kh gksdj
¼x½ dfo ds vuqlkj] fdldk la?k’kZ nwljksa ds fy, izsj.kknk;d gksrk gS\
¼v½ dfBu le; esa gkj ekuus okyksa dk
¼c½ fdlh Hkh ifjfLFkfr esa gkj u ekuus okyksa dk
¼l½ nwljksa ij fuHkZj jgus okyksa dk
¼n½ mijksDr lHkh
¼?k½ esgur djus okyk euq’; fdlls yFkiFk fn[kkbZ nsrk gS\
¼v½ vk¡lqvksa ls ¼l½ ilhus ls
¼c½ [kwu ls ¼n½ mijksDr lHkh
¼M+½ dfo ds vuqlkj] dSls yksx var esa viuh eaft+y dks gkfly dj ysrs gaS\
¼v½ fdlh ls enn ysus okys
¼c½ thou ds var esa gkj ekuus okys
¼l½ y{; fu/kkZfjr u djus okys
¼n½ fcuk fopfyr gq, vkxs c<+us okys
11. dkO; [kaM ds vk/kkj ij fn, x, Á'uksa ds lgh fodYi pqudj mÙkj
fyf[k,A [1 X 2 = 2]

¼d½ ^tSls olar dk x;k ir>M+ dks ykSVk gw¡* iafDr ls D;k vk”k; gS\ dfork ^u;s bykds es*a ds
vk/kkj ij crk,¡A
¼v½ le; dh ifjorZu”khyrk
¼c½ lq[k dk nq%[k esa cny tkuk
¼l½ nq%[k dk lq[k esa cny tkuk
¼n½ _rq dk cny tkuk
¼[k½ ^xhr&vxhr* dfork esa dfo ds eu esa D;k var}ZU} pyrk gS\
¼v½ unh ds nq%[k dk D;k dkj.k gks ldrk gS
¼c½ izd`fr ds xhr Js’B gSa ;k izsfedk ds
¼l½ mlds }kjk xk;k xhr lqanj gS ;k izd`fr }kjk u xk;k tk ldk vxhr lqanj gS
¼n½ izseh dk xhr Js’B gS ;k “kqd dk xhr
12. fuEufyf[kr ifBr xn~;ka'k dks /;kuiwoZd i<+dj fn, x, Á'uksa ds lgh fodYi pqudj mÙkj
fyf[k,A [1 X 5 = 5]

**jkeu us vusd Bksl joksa vkSj rjy inkFkksZa ij izdk”k dh fdj.k ds izHkko dk v/;;u fd;kA
mUgksua s ik;k fd tc ,do.khZ; izdk”k dh fdj.k fdlh rjy ;k Bksl josnkj inkFkZ ls xqt+jrh gS
rks xqt+jus ds ckn mlds o.kZ esa ifjorZu vkrk gSA otg ;g gksrh gS fd ,do.khZ; izdk”k dh
fdj.k ds QksVkWu tc rjy ;k Bksl jos ls xqt+jrs gq, buds v.kqvksa ls Vdjkrs gSa rks bl Vdjko
ds ifj.kkeLo:Ik os ;k rks ÅtkZ dk dqN va”k [kks nsrs gSa ;k ik tkrs gSaA nksuksa gh fLFkfr;k¡
izdk”k ds o.kZ esa cnyko ykrh gSaA ,do.khZ; izdk”k dh fdj.kksa esa lcls vf/kd ÅtkZ cSaxuh jax
ds izdk”k esa gksrh gSA cSaxuh ds ckn Øe”k% uhys] vklekuh] gjs] ihys] ukjaxh vkSj yky jax dk
uacj vkrk gSA bl izdkj yky&o.khZ; izdk”k dh ÅtkZ lcls de gksrh gSA ,do.khZ; izdk”k
rjy ;k Bksl joksa ls xqt+jrs gq, ftl ifjek.k esa ÅtkZ [kksrk ;k ikrk gS] mlh fglkc ls mldk
o.kZ ifjofrZr gks tkrk gSA**
¼d½ ,do.khZ; izdk”k dh fdj.k fdlh rjy ;k Bksl josnkj inkFkZ ls xqt+jrh gS rks xqt+jus ds
ckn D;k izHkko iM+rk gS\
¼v½ izdk”k dh fdj.ksa fc[kj tkrh gSa ¼l½ mlds o.kZ esa ifjorZu gksrk gS
¼c½ izdk”k xk;c gks tkrk gS ¼n½ dksbZ ifjorZu ugha gksrk
¼[k½ ,do.khZ; izdk”k dh fdj.kksa esa lcls vf/kd ÅtkZ fdl jax ds izdk”k esa gksrh gS\
¼v½ lQsn ¼l½ yky
¼c½ dkyk ¼n½ cSaxuh
¼x½ ,do.khZ; izdk”k dh fdj.kksa esa cSaxuh ds ckn Øe ds vuqlkj fdldk uacj vkrk gS\
¼v½ uhys] vklekuh] gjs] ihys] ukjaxh vkSj yky
¼c½ vklekuh] uhys] gjs] ihys] ukjaxh vkSj yky
¼l½ vklekuh] ihys] gjs] uhys] ukjaxh vkSj yky
¼n½ Ukhys] ihys] gjs] vklekuh] ukjaxh vkSj yky
¼?k½ fdl jax ds izdk”k dh ÅtkZ lcls de gksrh gS\
¼v½ uhys ¼l½ yky
¼c½ ihys ¼n½ vklekuh
¼M+½ ,d o.khZ; izdk”k rjy ;k Bksl joksa ls xqt+jrs gq, ftl ifjek.k esa ÅtkZ [kksrk ;k ikrk gS
rks
¼v½ mlh fglkc ls mldk o.kZ ifjofrZr gks tkrk gS
¼c½ mlh fglkc ls mldk o.kZ ifjofrZr ugha gksrk gS
¼l½ mlh fglkc ls mldk o.kZ xgjk gks tkrk gS
¼n½ mlh fglkc ls mldk o.kZ Qhdk gks tkrk gS
13. x|&[kaM ds vk/kkj ij fn, x, Á'uksa ds lgh fodYi pqudj mÙkj fyf[k,A [1 X 2 = 2]

¼d½ euq’; ds thou esa iks”kkd dk D;k egRo gS\

 ¼v½ iks”kkd euq’; ds lkekftd Lrj dk fu/kkZj.k djrh gS
¼c½ iks”kkd ds }kjk euq’; nwljs euq’; esa Hksn djrk gS
¼l½ iks”kkd fo”ks’k ifjfLFkfr esa >qdus ugha nsrh
¼n½ mijksDr lHkh
¼[k½ fganh dfork dh lcls lqanj iafDr;ksa esa ls ,d ;g gS% ^^ftlds dkj.k /kwfy Hkjs ghjs
dgyk,**& ;gk¡ ^/kwfy Hkjs ghjs* fdUgsa dgk x;k gS\
¼v½ ghjs&lh ped okyh /kwy dks
¼c½ /kwy ls Hkjs ghjs dks
¼l½ /kwy ls lus xk¡o ds cPpksa dks
¼n½ buesa ls dksbZ ugha
[kaM & ^c* o.kZukRed iz'u ¼40 vad½
14. fuEufyf[kr rhu iz'uksa esa ls fdUgha nks Á”uksa ds mÙkj yxHkx 60 “kCnksa esa nhft,A [3 X 2 = 6]
¼d½ *rqe dc tkvksxs] vfrfFk* ikB ds ek/;e ls ys[kd us ikBdksa dks D;k lh[k nh gS\
¼[k½ dfo;ksa dh /kkj.kk dks ys[kd us ;qfDr&”kwU; D;ksa dgk gS\
¼v½ jkeu~ ds izkjafHkd “kks/k dk;Z dks vk/kqfud gB;ksx D;ksa dgk x;k gS\
15. fuEufyf[kr rhu iz'uksa esa ls fdUgha nks Á”uksa ds mÙkj yxHkx 60 “kCnksa esa nhft,A [3 X 2 = 6]
¼d½ dfo jSnkl vU; dfo;ks]a tSls& ukenso] dchj] f=ykspu] l/kuk ,oa lSuq dh ppkZ D;ksa djrs
gSa\
¼[k½ ^jfgeu nsf[k cM+su dks y?kq u nhft;s Mkfj* dgdj dfo D;k lans”k nsuk pkgrs gSa\
¼x½ ^[kq”kcw jprs gSa gkFk* “kh’kZd dfork esa dfo fdl Hk;adj leL;k dk fp=.k djrk gS\
16. fuEufyf[kr rhu iz'uksa esa ls fdUgha nks iz'uksa ds mÙkj yxHkx 60 “kCnksa esa nhft,A [3 X 2 = 6]
¼d½ ^euq’; dk vuqeku vkSj Hkkoh ;kstuk,¡ dHkh&dHkh fdruh feF;k vkSj myVh fudyrh gSaA*
ikB ^Le`fr* ds vk/kkj ij mDr iafDr dk vk”k; Li’V dhft,A
¼[k½ ^mukdksVh* dk vFkZ Li’V djrs gq, crykb, fd ;g LFkku bl uke ls D;ksa izfl) gS\
¼x½ ^iqLrdsa ys[kd dks le`) cukrh gSaA**& bl dFku dh leh{kk djrs gq, crkb, fd ys[kd
/keZohj Hkkjrh dks iqLrdsa ,df=r djus dh vknr dSls yxh\
jpukRed ys[ku
17. fn, x, ladsr fcanqvksa ds vk/kkj ij fdlh ,d fo’k; ij yxHkx 120 “kCnksa esa vuqPNsn
fy[ksAa [6]

¼d½ ^esd bu bafM;k* vfHk;ku

• vfHk;ku dk mn~ns”;
• vfHk;ku dh lQyrk ds dkjd
• vkfFkZd le`f)
 vFkok
¼[k½ xaxk dh dgkuh] xaxk dh tqckuh
• vkjaHk
• ifjp;
• orZeku fLFkfr
vFkok
¼x½ dkYg djS lks vkt dj
• lwfDr dk Li’Vhdj.k
• lQyrk dk ea= gS& le; fu;kstu
• Vkyus dh izo`fÙk ?kkrd
18. vius fons”kh fe= dks Hkkjrh; jhfr&fjokt+ksa ds ckjs esa crkrs gq, yxHkx 120 “kCnksa esa i=
fyf[k,A [6]

vFkok
lk{kjrk vfHk;ku esa vius ;ksxnku dk ftØ djrs gq, firkth dks yxHkx 120 “kCnksa esa i=
fy[ksAa
19. xk¡o esa ck<+ vk xbZ gSA nks fe= ck<+&ihfM+rksa dh lgk;rk ds fy, tkuk pkgrs gSaA muds chp gqbZ
ckrphr dks yxHkx 100 “kCnksa esa fy[ksAa [5]

20. uhps fn, x, fp= dks /;ku ls ns[kdj eu esa mHkjs fopkjksa dks yxHkx 100 “kCnksa esa
fy[ksAa [5]
 LITERA VALLEY SCHOOL, PATNA
SAMPLE PAPER (2023-24)
CLASS-IX
SUBJECT-MATHEMATICS (STANDARD)
SUBJECT CODE-041

TIME ALLOWED: 3 Hrs MAXIMUM MARKS: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper has 5 sections A-E .

2. Section A has 20 MCQ’s carrying 01 mark each.
3. Section B has 5 questions carrying 02 marks each.
4. Section C has 6 questions carrying 03 marks each.
5. Section D has 4 questions carrying 05 marks each.
6. Section E has 3 case based integrated units of assessments (04 marks
each) with sub- parts of the value 1,1 and 2 marks each respectively.
7. All questions are compulsory. However, an integral choice in 2 Qs of 5
marks,2Qs of 3 marks and 2 Questions of 2 marks has been provided.
An integral choice has been provided in the 2 marks questions of
Section E.
8. Draw neat figures wherever required. Take =22/7 wherever required if
not stated..

Section-A

Section A consists of 20 questions of 1 mark each.

1. √3 is a polynomial of degree:
1
(a) (b) 1 (c ) 0 (𝑑 ) 2
2

2. The simplest form of 0.545454…..

27 6 4
(a) (𝑏) (𝑐 ) (𝑑 ) 𝑁𝑜𝑛𝑒
50 11 7

3. The area of triangle AOB having vertices A(0,6),O(0,0) and B(6,0) is

(a) 12sq units (b) 36sq units (c ) 18sq units (d) 24sq units
4. Which of the following points doesn't lie on the line 3y=2x-5 ?
 (a) (7,3) (b) (1,-1) (c ) (-2,-3) (d) (-5,5)

5. The graph of the line y=-3 does not pass through the point:

(a) (2, −3) (𝑏) (3, −3) (𝑐) (0, −3) (𝑑) (−3,2)

6. How many linear equations in x and y can be satisfied by x=2 ,y=3 ?

(a) only one (b ) only two (c ) Infinitely many (d) None of these

7. Euclid's fifth postulate is also known as:

(a) Playfair's axiom (b) Incidence axioms on line
(c ) Corollary (d) Parallel lines axiom
8. In a triangle ABC, if 3∠A = 4∠B = 6∠C, then A:B:C=?

(a) 3:4:6 (b) 4:3:2 (c ) 2:3:4 (d ) 6:4:3

9. Two complementary angles are such that twice the measure of the one is
equal to the three times the measure of the other. The larger of the two
measures:

(a) 72° (b) 54° (c ) 63° (𝑑 ) 36°

10. In the given figure, AB=AC and OB= OC. Then ∠ABO : ∠ACO =?

(a) 1:1 (b) 2:1 (c ) 1:2 (d ) None of these

11. The quadrilateral formed by joining the angle bisectors of a

parallelogram form a :

(a ) Rectangle (b) Parallelogram (c ) Square (d) Rhombus

12. An equilateral triangle of side 9 cm is inscribed in a circle. The radius of

the circle is
 (a) 3cm (𝑏)3√2cm (𝑐 )3 √3 cm (𝑑 )6 cm

13. In the given figure, O is the centre of a circle and ∠ABC=45°. Find
∠OAC.

(a) 45° (b) 55° (c) 90° (d) 60°

14. The base of an isosceles triangle is 16 cm and its area is 48 cm². The
perimeter of triangle is

(a) 41cm (𝑏)36𝑐𝑚 (𝑐 )48𝑐𝑚 (𝑑 )324𝑐𝑚

15. A river 1.5 m deep and 36 m wide is flowing at the rate of 3.5 km/hr.
Find the amount of water (in cubic meters) that runs into the sea per
minute:

(a) 3150 m³/min (b ) 2250 m³/min (c ) 2150 m³/min (d) 3450 m³/min

16. A cone, a hemisphere and a cylinder stand on equal bases and have the
same height. The ratio of their volume is:
(a) 1:2:3 (b) 2:1:3 (c ) 3:2:1 (d) 2:3:1
17. The angles of a triangles are in the ratio 3:5:7. The triangle is

(a) Acute angled (b) Obtuse angled

(c) Right angled (d) an isosceles triangle

18. . The measure of an angle is five times its complement. The angle
measures?

(a ) 25° (b) 35° (c ) 65° (d) 70°

DIRECTION: In the question number 19 and 20, a statement of
assertion(A) is followed by a statement of Reason(R). Choose the correct
option

19. Statement A (Assertion): √3 is an irrational number.

Statement B (Reason): Square root of a positive integer which is not a

perfect square is an irrational .

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

20. Statement A (Assertion): The area of an isosceles triangle having base=

8cm and each of the equal sides = 5cm is 12cm2.

Statement B (Reason): The area of an isosceles triangle having each of the

1
equal sides as a units and base as b units is b √4𝑎2 − 𝑏 2 .
4

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of Assertion (A).

(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true but Reason (R) is not the
correct explanation of Assertion (A).

(c) Assertion (A) is true but Reason (R) is false.

(d) Assertion (A) is false but Reason (R) is true.

 Section-B

Section B consists of 5 questions of 2 marks each.

21. The angles of a cyclic quadrilateral ABCD are A=(6x+10), B=(5x),

C=(x+y), D=(3y−10). Find x and y, and hence find the values of the four
angles.

22. If P(x+3,7)=P(-1,7). Find the value of x.

23. Calculate adjusted frequency of each class interval.

Class 10-15 15-20 20-30 30-50

Interval

Frequency 6 10 10 8

24. Using remainder theorem find the remainder when f(x) is divided by g(x),
f(x)=x24-x19-2 , g(x)=x+1.

OR

Find the value of k, if (x-1) is factor of p(x)= 3x2+kx+√2.

25. In a ABC, if 2A=3B=6C, Calculate the measures of A, B and

C.

OR

In a ABC, if A+B=65 , B+C=140. Find the measures of each angle of

the triangle.

Section-C

Section C consists of 6 questions of 3 marks each.

26. Represent 2+ 3 on a number line

27. Taxi fare in a city is as follows. For the first kilometre, the fare is Rs 8 and for
the subsequent distance it is Rs 5 per kilometre. Taking the distance covered as x
km and total fare as Rs y. Write a linear equation for this information and draw its
graph. [Use answer sheet to draw graph].

28. Prove that the straight line joining the mid points of the diagonals of a
trapezium is parallel to parallel sides.
OR
ABC is a triangle and through vertices A, B and C lines drawn parallel to
BC, AC and AB respectively, intersect at P, Q and R. Then prove that the
perimeter of triangle PQR is double perimeter of ABC.

29 In the given figure AB= AC. D is a point on AC and E on AB such that AD= ED =
EC= BC. Find the ratio of <A:<B .

30. Find the percentage increase in the area of a triangle if each side is doubled.

OR

ΔABC is an equilateral triangle where each side is of length x units. Find the area of
ΔABC, using heron’s formula. Hence find the area of equilateral ΔABC if its
perimeter is 120m.

31. Without actual division, prove that (2x4 +3x3-12x2-7x+6) is exactly

divisible by (x2+x-6).

Section-D

Section D consists of 4 questions of 5 marks each.

𝒂𝒎+𝒏 𝒄𝒙+𝒚
32. If 𝒙 = ( 𝒃𝒑+𝒒 ) 𝒂𝒏𝒅 𝒚 = (𝒅𝒈−𝒉) are two rational numbers, where 𝒂𝟐 = 𝒃𝟑 = 𝟔𝟒 , 𝒄𝟒 =

𝒅𝟐 = 𝟏𝟔., x+y= m+n=5, p+q=g-h=3, then find 2 rational and 2 irrational

numbers between x and y.

OR

If (27)0.4444……+0.222….. = x, (27)0.212121……+0.121212….. = y. Then find the value of (𝑥)2 +(𝑦)2 .

33. Without actual division, what must be subtracted from (𝒙⁴ + 𝟐𝒙³ − 𝟐𝒙² + 𝟒𝒙 + 𝟔)
so that the result is exactly divisible by (𝒙² +2x – 3)?

34. A circular park of radius 20m is situated in a colony. Three boys Anku, Brijesh
and Chirag are sitting at equal distances on its boundary, each having a toy
telephone in his hands to talk to each other. Find length of the string of each
phone.

OR

Prove that the base angles of an isosceles trapezium are equal.

35. The volumes of two spheres are in the ratio 64:27 and the sum of their radii is
7cm.Find the difference in their Total Surface Area.

Section-E

Case study based questions are compulsory.

36. Once four friends Rahul, Arun, Ajay and Vijay went for a picnic at a hill
station. Due to peak season, they did not get a proper hotel in the city. The
weather was fine so they decided to make a conical tent at a park. They were
carrying 300 m² cloth with them. As shown in the figure they made the tent
with height 10 m and diameter 14 m. The remaining cloth was used for the
floor.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions.

(i) How much Cloth was used for the floor?

(ii) What was the volume of the tent?

(iii) What was the total surface area of the tent?

OR

What was the lateral height of the tent?

37. Anil is a Mathematics teacher in Hyderabad. After Periodic test 3, he asks

students to collect the Mathematics marks of all the students of Class IX- A, B,
and C. A student is able to collect marks from some students. Rekha scored
least mark 6 in the class and Ram scored the highest mark 59 in the class. He
prepares the frequency distribution table using the collected marks and draws
Histogram using the table as shown in the adjoining figure.

Based on the above information, answer the following questions .

(i) What is the width of the class?

(ii) What is the total number of students in the Histogram?

(iii) How many students scored 50% and above marks?

OR

How many students scored less than 50% marks?

38. A group of students is studying the properties of triangles. They

encountered the following scenario:

Three friends, Rahul, Sana, and Tina, participated in a kite-flying competition.

They noticed that their kites formed a triangular shape in the sky. They made
the following observations:

1. The lengths of two sides of the kite triangle are equal.

2. The measure of the largest angle of the kite triangle is 90 degrees.
3. The sum of the measures of the three angles of the kite triangle is 180
degrees.
4. The lengths of the three sides of the kite triangle are in the ratio 3:4:5.

Based on this information, answer the following questions::

(i) Name the type of triangle formed by their kites .

(ii) Find the length of the third side of the kite.

(iii) Find the measure of the smallest angle of the kite

OR

The kite triangle is an example of a triangle that satisfies which congruency

criteria.

*****************************************************
 Class IX Session 2023-24
Subject - Science
Sample Question Paper - 1

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 80

General Instructions:

1. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

2. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some questions. A student is expected to

attempt only one of these questions.

3. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.

4. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers to these questions should in the

range of 30 to 50 words.

5. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each. Answers to these questions should in

the range of 50 to 80 words.

6. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each. Answer to these questions should be

in the range of 80 to 120 words.

7. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04 marks each with sub-parts.

Section A
1. Ram heats a beaker containing ice and water. He measures the temperature of the content of the beaker as a [1]
function of time. Which of the following would correctly represent the result?

a) III b) IV

c) I d) II
2. Robert Brown is a well known scientist as he discovered ________. [1]

a) Lysosme b) Cell

c) Nucleus d) Vacuole
3. A car travels 10 m in 5 seconds, 20 m in the next 10 seconds, and 30 m in the last 10 seconds. The average speed [1]
of the motion is:

a) 30 ms-1 b) 2.2 ms-1

c) 2.4 ms-1 d) 2.0 ms-1

Page 1 of 15
 4. Preventive and control measures adopted for the storage of grains include [1]

a) strict cleaning b) fumigation

c) all of these d) proper drying

5. While preparing a temporary mount of cheek cells, teacher asked Rohit to pick up the stain. He had four bottles [1]
A, B, C, and D containing methylene blue, glycerine, distilled water, Canada balsum. Which one should he pick?

a) B b) C

c) D d) A
6. The primary function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum in liver cells is: [1]

a) detoxification b) protein synthesis

c) carbohydrate metabolism d) catabolism of proteins

7. A change in the physical state can be brought about [1]

a) when energy is either given to, or taken out b) without any energy change
from the system

c) only when energy is taken out from the d) only when energy is given to the system
system
8. Roshini is making a temporary mount of onion peel. What precautions should be taken to avoid the entry of air [1]
bubbles in the slide?

a) Coverslip should be gently dropped over the b) Peel should be immersed in stain for over an
peel hour

c) Peel should be allowed to fold over itself d) Coverslip should be dropped on to the peel
once or twice from a certain height
9. In the experiment to establish the relation between loss in weight of an immersed solid with the weight of water [1]
displaced by it, the upthrust experience by the object in tap water and in salty water are Uw and Us respectively,

then :

a) Uw < Us b) Uw > Us

c) Uw = Us d) Us = 2Uw

10. A car accelerates uniformly from 18 km/h to 36 km/h in 5 minutes. The acceleration is [1]

a) 5 ms-1 b) 1 ms-2

c) 1 km/s2 d) 216 ms-2

11. How many electrons are present in the species He2+ ion? [1]

a) 2 b) 0

c) 4 d) 8
12. On observing onion peel slide under low power of compound microscope which set of structures are clearly [1]
seen.

a) Nucleus, cell membrane, vacuole, b) Cell Wall, vacuole, nucleus, cytoplasm

chromosomes

Page 2 of 15
 c) Cell wall, cell membrane, mitochondria, d) Cell wall, nucleus, vacuole, chromosomes.
vacuole
13. Which of the following is an incorrect pair? [1]
A. Lysosome - Secretory granules.
B. Nucleus - Brain of the cell
C. Mitochondria - a powerhouse of the cell
D. Chloroplast - Kitchen of the cell

a) (A) b) (D)

c) (B) d) (C)
14. Tyndall effect is observed in which one of the following? [1]

a) True solution b) Starch + Water

c) Alum + Water d) NaCl + Water

15. Which of the following are homogeneous in nature [1]
i. ice
ii. wood
iii. soil
iv. air

a) (iii) and (iv) b) (i) and (iii)

c) (i) and (iv) d) (ii) and (iv)

16. ________ crops are grown during the rainy season, in the months of June to October. [1]

a) Kharif b) Oil

c) Cereal d) Rabi
17. Assertion (A): If a particle is moving with constant velocity, then the average velocity for any time interval is [1]
equal to instantaneous velocity.
Reason (R): If average velocity of a particle moving on a straight line is zero for a given time interval, then
instantaneous velocity at some instant within this interval may be zero.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

18. Assertion (A): Naphthalene, camphor, iodine, ammonium chloride are some common examples of the [1]
substances which undergo sublimation.
Reason (R): All solids are first converted to liquids and then gases on heating.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

19. Assertion (A): Vascular or conductive tissue is a distinctive feature of complex plants. [1]
Reason (R): Vascular tissue has made survival of complex plants possible in the terrestrial environments.

Page 3 of 15
 a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

20. Assertion (A): Rutherford’s atomic model was that it could not explain the stability of atoms. [1]
Reason (R): Any charged particle during acceleration would radiate energy, and while revolving, it would lose
its energy and eventually fall into the nucleus.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct b) Both A and R are true but R is not the
explanation of A. correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true.

Section B

21. The kinetic energy of an object of mass m moving with a velocity of 5 ms-1 is 25 J. What will be its kinetic [2]

energy when its velocity is doubled? What will be its kinetic energy when its velocity is increased to three
times?
OR
It is possible that an object is in the state nof accelerated motion due to external force acting on it, but no work is
being done by the force? Explain with example.
22. Why are gases highly compressible? [2]
23. A stone is dropped in a well 44.1 m deep. The sound of splash is heard, 3.13 s after the stone is dropped. Find [2]

the velocity of the sound in air. (Take g = 9.8 ms-2)

24. Explain why should we wear cotton clothes in summer. [2]

25. A force of 5 N gives a mass m1, an acceleration of 10 ms-2 and a mass m2, an acceleration of 20 ms-2. What [2]

acceleration would it give if both the masses were tied together?

OR
Explain, why is it difficult for a fireman to hold a hose, which ejects large amounts of water at a high speed.
26. Write the electronic configuration of any one pair of isotopes and isobars. [2]
Section C
27. i. What is meant by frequency of sound waves? [3]
ii. Give the range of frequencies of sound waves that an average human ear can detect.
iii. A source of wave produces 20 crests and 20 troughs in 0.2 s. The distance between a crest and next trough is
50 cm. Find the
a. wavelength
b. frequency
c. time period of the wave.
28. Study the data given below and answer the questions which follow: [3]

Particle Electrons Protons Neutrons

A 2 3 4

B 10 9 8

C 8 8 8

D 8 8 10

Page 4 of 15
 i. Write the mass number and atomic number of particles A, B, C, D.
ii. Which particles represent a pair of isotopes? Explain.
29. A ball starts from rest and rolls down 16 m down an inclined plane in 4 s. [3]
(a) What is the acceleration of the ball?
(b) What is the velocity of the ball at the bottom of the inclined plane?
OR
Discuss the graphs A, B and C shown in the figure. Compare the total distance travelled and the displacements.
Which graph represents a motion with negative acceleration?

30. Prachi and Kanchi were observing a building having two different staircase. One slanting and other vertically [3]
spiral. Prachi was of the opinion that a person using slanting staircase will be doing more work against gravity
but Kanchi thought otherwise. They started arguing. Sanchi, their friend, explained and gave entirely different
view and pacified them.
a. What according to you was the explanation given by Sanchi?
b. What appreciable values do you see in the Sanchi?
31. The velocity-time graph of a ball moving on the surface of a floor is shown in the figure. Find the force acting [3]
on the ball if the mass of the ball is 50 g.

32. Write main differences between plant cell and animal cell. [3]
OR
A solution of 3% glucose and a solution of 8% glucose are kept in a trough separated by a semipermeable membrane.
What will you observe after 1 hour?
33. Briefly describe striated and smooth muscles with their functions. [3]
Section D
34. What are the differences between the mass of the object and its weight? [5]
OR
A stone is dropped from the edge of a roof.
i. How long does it take to fall 4.9 m?

Page 5 of 15
 ii. How fast does it move at the end of that fall?
iii. How fast does it move at the end of 7.9 m?
iv. What is its acceleration after 1s and after 2 s?
35. Why are mitochondria called powerhouse of the cell? Give three similarities and one difference between [5]
mitochondria and plastid.
OR
i. State what will happen when human red blood cells are placed in a hypotonic salt/sugar solution.
ii. Why plant cell shrinks when kept in a hypertonic solution.
iii. Why lysosomes are known as suicidal bags?
36. Distinguish between compounds and mixtures. [5]
Section E
37. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Animal tissue has various types of epithelial tissue, connective tissue, muscular tissue, and nervous tissue and of
tissue one of them is the connective tissue which consists of blood, bone, cartilage. Blood is the fluid matrix
called plasma in which red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelet are suspended while bone form the
framework that supports the body it also anchors the muscle and supports the main organ of the body. Two bones
are connected by a ligament. cartilage is a solid matrix composed of sugar and protein.
(i) Name the tissue which connects muscle to a bone.
(ii) Matrix of bone cells are composed of
OR
Two bones are connected by ligament how muscle connects to the bone?
38. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
Fish is a cheap source of animal protein for our food. Fish liver oil is rich in vitamin A and D. Basically fisheries
are of two types:
i. Fin fishery: It includes capturing, management and exploitation of cartilaginous and bony fishes.
ii. Shell fishery: It includes capturing, management and exploitation of crustaceans (prawns, crabs) and
molluscs (oysters, mussels etc.).
Depending upon the mode of obtaining fish, fisheries are of two types: Capture fishing and Culture fishing.

(i) Mention the two types of fisheries depending upon the mode of obtaining fish.
(ii) Which fatty acid is exclusively found in fish?
(iii) Is Rohu a bony fish or not? In which type of fisheries it is used?
OR
What is the difference between capture fishery and culture fishery?
39. Read the text carefully and answer the questions: [4]
A suspension is a heterogeneous mixture in which the solute particles do not dissolve but remain suspended
throughout the bulk of the medium. Particles of a suspension are visible to the naked eye. The particles of a
suspension scatter a beam of light passing through it and make its path visible. Due to the relatively smaller size
of particles, as compared to that of a suspension, the mixture appears to be homogeneous. The scattering of a

Page 6 of 15
beam of light is called the Tyndall effect. The components of a colloidal solution are the dispersed phase and the
dispersion medium. The solute-like component or the dispersed particles in a colloid form the dispersed phase,
and the component in which the dispersed phase is suspended is known as the dispersing medium.

(i) Differentiate between Dispersed phase and Dispersion medium?

(ii) Differentiate between Homogeneous and Heterogeneous mixture?
(iii) What is emulsion?
OR
Give an example of solid sol?​​

Page 7 of 15
 LITERA VALLEY SCHOOL, PATNA
SAMPLE PAPER (2023-24)
CLASS- IX
SUBJECT: SOCIAL SCIENCE
DURATION: 3 HRS
MAXIMUM MARKS: 80

General Instructions:

(i) The question paper comprises Six Sections - A, B, C, D, E, and F. There are 37 questions
in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.

(ii) Section A - Question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each. (Write your answer in words
with option numbers)

(iii) Section B - Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying
2 marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 40 words. (Answer in
points)

(iv) Section C - Question no. 25 to 29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3
marks each. The answer to each question should not exceed 60 words. (Answer in points)

(v) Section D - Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks
each. The answer to each question should not exceed 120 words. (Answer in points)

(vi) Section E - Question no. 34 to 36 are Source based questions with three sub-
questions and are of 4 marks each.

(vii) Section F - Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37 I
from History (2 marks) and 37 II from Geography (3 marks). (Answer in the map only)

(viii) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has
been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions has to be
attempted.

(ix) In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question,
wherever necessary.

SECTION - A

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1×20 = 20 Marks)

1. Arrange the following statements in sequential order based on the events that shaped
the French Revolution.

(i) The Tennis Court Oath

(ii) Louis XVI called an assembly of the Estates General

(iii) Louis XVI accorded recognition to the National Assembly

(iv) The crowd stormed and destroyed the Bastille

Options:

(a) i - iv - iii - ii

(b) iii - iv - i - ii

(c) ii - i - iv - iii

(d) iii - iv - ii - i

2. In Pakistan, "The Legal Framework Order" had given the President the right to dismiss the:

(a) National or Provincial Assemblies

(b) Judiciary

(c) Local Government

(d) Panchayats

3. In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). Read the Statements and Choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): The proportion of people working in different activities varies in developed and
developing countries.

Reasons (R): Developed countries have a higher proportion of their workforce engaged in primary
activities.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct

4. Match column I with column II.

Column I Column II

(i) Motilal Nehru A. Chairman of the Drafting Committee.

(ii) B.R Ambedkar B. President of the Constituent Assembly.

(iii) Rajendra Prasad C. Member of the Constituent Assembly.

(iv) Sarojini Naidu D. Prepared a Constitution for India in 1928

(a) (i)- A, (ii)- B, (iii)- C, (iv)- D

(b) (i)- C, (ii)- A, (iii)- D, (iv)- B

(c) (i)- D, (ii)- A, (iii)- B, (iv)- C

(d) (i)- B, (ii)- C, (iii)- A, (iv)- D

5. ______________ is the Standard Meridian of India.

(a) 83°20' E

(b) 82°30'W

(c) 82°30'E

(d) 82°20'E

6. Identify the person from the picture given below:

(a) Rousseau

(b) Napoleon Bonaparte

(c) Stalin

(d) Maximilian Robespierre

7. Which of the following statements about the President is wrong?

(a) S/He is the Head of the State.

(b) S/He is the highest formal authority in the Country.

(c) S/He exercises only nominal powers.

(d) S/He is elected directly by the people.

8. MSP stands for ___________

(a) Maximum Support Price

(b) Minimum Support Price

(c) Mostly Support Price

(d) Minimum Sample Price

9. The landmass surrounded by sea from all sides is known as ________

(a) Peninsula

(b) Island

(c) Bangar

(d) Coral

10. Hjalmar Schacht was _____________

(a) An economist

(b) A philosopher

(c) A military dictator

(d) A politician

11. Every ________ person in India is poor.

(a) 3rd

(b) 4th
(c) 5th

(d) 10th

12. What can be done in case of violation of the rights in a democracy?

(a) Citizens can directly approach the Court of law for the protection

(b) Citizens can only approach to local government

(c) Citizens can approach to the representatives

(d) Citizens can approach to the IAS Officers

13. Arrange the following in the correct sequence:

(i) Allied victory in Europe

(ii) Proclamation of Weimar Republic

(iii) World War I begins

(iv) The United States joins Second World

Options:

(a) (i)-(iii)-(ii)-(iv)

(b) (ii)- (i)-(iii)-(iv)

(c) (iv)-(ii)-(iii)-(i)

(d) (iii)-(ii)-(iv)-(i)

14. In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the Statements and Choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): Unemployment tends to decrease economic overload.

Reasons (R): The dependence of the unemployed on the working population increases.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

15. Which of the following statements is against the democratic process of elections?
(a) Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections

(b) Elections must be held regularly immediately after the term is over

(c) The right to vote should be given to the selected people only

(d) Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner

16. Which of these is not a freedom available under the 'Right to Freedom' in India?

(a) Freedom of speech and expression

(b) Freedom to incite people to rebel against the government

(c) Freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner

(d) Freedom to form associations and unions

17. The river Indus rises in Tibet, near lake ______________.

(a) Sambhar

(b) Amarkantak

(c) Mansarowar

(d) Chilika

18. In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read
the Statements and Choose the correct option:

Assertion (A): China's famine of 1961-63 was the worst recorded famine in world history.

Reasons (R): Nearly three crore people died in this famine.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong.

(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct

19. The main purpose of buffer stock is _____________

(a) To solve the problem of shortage of food

(b) To support the farmers

(c) To create the stock for profit

(d) To save the food grains from pest attack

20. Antyodaya Anna Yojana and Annapurna Scheme are linked with:

(a) Mid-Day Meal Scheme

(b) Special Nutrition Programme

(c) Public Distribution System

(d) NREGA

SECTION - B

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2×4=8 Marks)

21. State the ways in which the Nazi State established total control over its people.

22. What is meant by a code of conduct? How does it control the activities of parties and candidates?

23. Why do the houses in Rajasthan have thick walls and flat roofs?

24. Explain any two social indicators through which poverty is looked upon.

SECTION - C

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3×5=15 Marks)

25. Which three causes led to the 'subsistence crisis' in France during the Old Regime?

Or

How did the women suffer in France during the Old Regime?

26. What was the Mandal Commission? Mention its specific recommendation.

Or

"The Prime Minister is the head of the Government." Justify the statement.

27. Describe different types of unemployment found in India.

28. Write a note on 'Public Distribution System'.

29. What legal procedures have to be followed by a police officer if s/he arrests or detains any citizen?

SECTION - D

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5×4=20 Marks)

30. How was democracy destroyed in Germany? Explain.

Or

What was the impact of the First World War on German society? Describe.

31. "State has to be neutral and impartial in dealing with all religion." Explain the characteristic features
of India that are being highlighted through this statement.

32. Why is population very important in a country?

OR

Describe important features of the Northern Plains.

33. What has our government done to provide food security to the poor? Describe any three schemes
launched by the government.

OR

Give an account of inter-state disparities in poverty in India.

SECTION - E

SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS (4×3=12 Marks)

34. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:

The year 1904 was a particularly bad one for Russian workers. Prices of essential goods
rose so quickly that real wages declined by 20 percent. The membership of workers'
associations rose dramatically. When four members of the Assembly of Russian Workers,
which had been formed in 1904, were dismissed at the Putilov Iron Works, there was a
call for industrial action. Over the next few days over 110,000 workers in St Petersburg
went on strike demanding a reduction in the working day to eight hours, an increase in
wages, and an improvement in working conditions.

(i) Why the year 1904 is considered unfortunate for Russian workers? (1)

(ii) Why did thousands of workers in St. Petersburg favour a strike? (1)

(iii) What were the demands of the Industrial workers in Russia during the beginning of
the twentieth century? (2)

35. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:

The PDS has proved to be the most effective instrument of government policy over the years in stabilizing
prices and making food available to consumers at affordable prices. It has been instrumental in averting
widespread hunger and famine by supplying food from surplus regions of the country to the deficit ones.
In addition, the prices have been under revision in favour of poor households in general. The system,
including the minimum support price and procurement, has contributed to an increase in foodgrain
production and provided income security to farmers in certain regions.

(i) What are the grounds on which the PDS system has faced severe criticism? (2)

(ii) What is Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY)? (1)

(iii) What do you mean by 'subsidy'?(1)

36. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:

The Himalayan uplift out of the Tethys Sea and subsidence of the northern flank of the peninsular plateau
resulted in the formation of a large basin. In due course of time this depression, gradually got filled with
deposition of sediments by the rivers flowing from the mountains in the north and the peninsular plateau
in the south. A flat land of extensive alluvial deposits led to the formation of the northern plains of India.
The land of India displays great physical variation. Geologically, the Peninsular Plateau
constitutes one of the ancient landmasses on the earth's surface. It was supposed to be
one of the most stable land blocks.

(i) Mention any one feature of the Peninsular Plateau. (1)

(ii) Which sea is associated with the formation of the Himalayas? (1)

(iii) What do you understand by 'The Peninsular Plateau'? (2)

SECTION - F

MAP QUESTIONS (1×5=5 Marks)

I. (HISTORY) Identify the following places:

A. An Allied Power during the Second World War

B. An Axis Power during the Second World War

II. (GEOGRAPHY) On an outline map of India mark and label any three of the following.
(1×3=3)

i) Area receiving rainfall over 400 cm

ii) River Narmada

iii) Satpura Range

iv) Anai Mudi