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Cell : The Unit of Life (c) Lysosome
(d) Ribosome
Q 1. Consider the following statements
Answer (d)
1. Lysosomes have hydrolytic enzymes.
2. Lysosomes are autophagic.
Q 6. Consider the following organelles.
3. Lysosomes can dissolve proteins, lipids
1. ChloroplastN
and carbohydrates.
2. Mitochondria
4. All lysosomes are same structurally and
3. Peroxisome
functionally.
Which of the organelle(s) given above is/are
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
concerned with photorespiration?
correct?
(a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 2
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Answer (d)
Answer (c)
Q 7. Number of chromosomes in Drosophila
Q 2. Consider the following statements
is
1. Chloroplast is known as ‘cell within a cell’.
(a) eight (b) ten
2. Chloroplast is the largest cell organelle
(c) twelve (d) fourteen
found in plant cells.
Answer (a)
3. Chloroplasts have singlestranded extra
chromosomal DNA.
Q 8. How many linkage groups are present in
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
man?
correct?
(a) 46 (b) 23
(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2
(c) 48 (d) 10
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Answer (b)
Answer (c)
Q 9. Which of the following phases is the
Q 3. Which of the following pairs of cell
longest phase in the meiotic cell division?
organelles mainly concerned with fatty acid
(a) Anaphase-II
metabolism in both plants and animals?
(b) Telophase-I
(a) Ribosomes and nucleus
(c) Prophase-I
(b) Lysosomes and mitochondria
(d) Metaphase-I
(c) Peroxisomes and mitochondria
Answer (c)
(d) Glyoxysomes and peroxisomes
Answer (c)
Q 10. Which of the following is the correct
sequence of the different phases of cell
Q 4. DNA is mainly found in the following
division?
organelles.
1. Anaphase 2. Telophase
1. Mitochondria
3. Prophase 4. Metaphase
2. Chloroplasts
Codes
3. Peroxisomes
(a) 3, 1, 4, 2 (b) 1, 3, 2, 4
4. Nucleus
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4
Which of the statements given above are
Answer (c)
correct?
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
Q 11. Chromosomes are best seen in
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these
(a) telophase (b) anaphase
Answer (b)
(c) metaphase (d) prophase
Answer (c)
Q 5. Which of the following cell organelles is
found in a cell that is very active in protein
Q 12. Which type of division occurs in
synthesis?
cleavage?
(a) Mitochondria
(a) Amitotic (b) Mitotic
(b) Chloroplast
(c) Meiotic (d) Both (b) and (c) (d) Mitochondria
Answer (b) Answer (d)

Q 13. In which one of the following types of Q 19. Which of the following parts are
cell divisions crossing over of chromosomes found in both plant and animal cells?
takes place? (a) Cell membrane, chloroplast, vacuole
(a) Mitosis (b) Meiosis (b) Cell wall, nucleus, vacuole
(c) Amitosis (d) Cytokinesis (c) Cell membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
Answer (b) (d) Cell wall, chloroplast, cytoplasm
Answer (c)
Q 14. Which is the correct order of phases in
prophase-I? Q 20. Which one among the following
(a) Leptotene, Diakinesis, Pachytene, statement is correct?
Diplotene, Zygotene (a) Prokaryotic cells possess nucleus
(b) Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, (b) Cell membrane is present in both
Diplotene, Diakinesis plant and animal cells
(c) Diakinesis, Pachytene, Diplotene, (c) Mitochondria and chloroplasts are
Zygotene, Leptotene not found in eukaryotic cells
(d) Diakinesis, Pachytene, Leptotene, (d) Ribosomes are present in
Diplotene, Zygotene eukaryotic cells only
Answer (b) Answer (b)

Q 15. Which of the following stages is Q 21. The living content of cell is called
associated with the formation of chiasmata protoplasm. It is composed of
during meiotic cell division? (a) only cytoplasm
(a) Leptotene (b) Zygotene (b) cytoplasm and nucleoplasm
(c) Pachytene (d) Diplotene (c) only nucleoplasm
Answer (c) (d) cytoplasm, nucleoplasm and other
organelles
Q 16. Which of the following organisms have Answer (d)
peptidoglycan compound as an important
constituent in cell wall? Q 22. Which of the following organism does
(a) Bacteria and cyanobacteria not obey the ‘cell theory’?
(b) Bacteria and unicellular eukaryote (a) Virus (b) Bacteria
(c) Archaebacteria and eukaryote (c) Fungi (d) Plants
(d) All members of Monera and Protista Answer (a)
Answer (a)
Q 23. The nucleic acid in a cell was
Q 17. Which of the following term is discovered by
associated with the failure of meiosis-II to (a) E Strasburger (b) A Kossel
occur after meiosis-I? (c) F Miescher (d) Huxley
(a) Brachymeiosis Answer (c)
(b) Dinomitosis
(c) Dimunition Q 24. The ‘cell theory’ for organisms was
(d) Karyokinesis proposed by
Answer (b) (a) Purkinje and Von Mohl
(b) Schleiden and Schwann
Q 18. Which organelle in the cell, other than (c) Carolus Linnaeus
nucleus, contain DNA? (d) Felix Dujardin
(a) Endoplasmic reticulum Answer (b)
(b) Golgi apparatus
(c) Lysosome
Q 25. The fact that new cells arise from pre- (c) Pectin (d) Chitin
existing cells was proposed by Answer (b)
(a) JE Purkinje (b) F Dujardin
(c) R Virchow (d) E Abbe Q 33. Consider the given cell organelles.
Answer (c) 1. Mitochondria
2. Plastids
Q 26. The scientists who first recognised 3. Ribosome
and named the nucleus was Which of the cell organelle(s) given above
(a) Robert Hooke is/are common in both plant and animal cells?
(b) Robert Brown (a) Only 2
(c) Theodore Schwann (b) 1 and 2
(d) Thomas Morgan (c) 1 and 3
Answer (b) (d) All of the above
Answer (c)
Q 27. Which of the following is a physical
basis of life? Q 34. Rigidity of cell wall is due to
(a) Mitochondria (b) Ribosome (a) chitin (b) lignin
(c) Protoplasm (d) Nucleus (c) suberin (d) pectin
Answer (c) Answer (b)

Q 28. The bacteria were discovered by which Q 35. The plasma membrane of animal cells
of the following person? is highly elastic. It is mainly due to the
(a) H Urey presence of
(b) E Haeckel (a) carbohydrates
(c) AV Leeuwenhoek (b) proteins
(d) Ivanowski (c) Iipids
Answer (c) (d) nucleic acids
Answer (b)
Q 29. The term ‘Meiosis’ is coined by
(a) Fleming Q 36. The secretory product pectin of cell wall
(b) Blackmann is chemically a
(c) Liebig (a) protein
(d) Farmer and Moore (b) carbohydrate
Answer (d) (c) Iipid
(d) nucleic acid
Q 30. The physical basis of life protoplasm Answer (b)
was named by
(a) Purkinje (b) J Huxley Q 37. Chromosomes are
(c) Robert brown (d) Sherington (a) present only in the nucleus of a cell
Answer (a) (b) the largest in number in human cells
(c) made up of DNA as a main component
Q 31. Which of the following is not present in (d) visible in all cells at every time
prokaryotes? Answer (c)
(a) Ribosomes
(b) Nuclear membrane Q 38. Consider the following statements
(c) Cell wall 1. Endoplasmic Reticulum (ER) is called as
(d) Plasma membrane ‘skeleton of cell’.
Answer (b) 2. ER is divided into three types according to
the presence or the absence of ribosome.
Q 32. Which one among the following is 3. Smooth ER is rich in actively protein
known as ‘animal starch’? secreting cells
(a) Cellulose (b) Glycogen
 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are 1. Cortical granules originate from Golgi
correct? bodies.
(a) Only 1 2. Cortical granules form the
(b) 1 and 2 fertilisation membrane.
(c) 2 and 3 3. Cortical granules are found only in ovum.
(d) Only 3 Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
Answer (a) correct?
(a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 3
Q 39. Match the following Columns. (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Answer (d)
Column I Column II
(Cell organelle) (Common
names) Classification of Plants
A. Ribosome 1. Suicidal bags and Animals
of cell Q 44. Match the following Columns.
B. Lysosome 2. Protein factory Column I Column II
of A. Gill slits 1. Birds
cells B. Scales 2. Osteichthyes
C. Mitochondria 3. Controller of C. Operculum 3. Chondrichthyes
cells D. Hairs 4. Reptilia
D. Nucleus 4. Power house E. Lungs 5. Mammalia
of cell Codes
ABCDE ABCDE
Codes (a) 3 4 2 5 1 (b) 1 2 4 3 5
(c) 5 4 2 1 3 (d) 1 2 5 4 3
ABCDABCD
Answer- (a)
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 1 4 2 3 Q 45. Consider the following statements
Answer (b) 1. Warm-blooded animals can remain active in
cold environment in which cold-blooded animals
Q 40. Which of the following cell can hardly move.
organelles functions as the powerhouse of a 2. Cold-blooded animals require much less
living cell? energy to survive than warm-blooded animals.
(a) Chloroplast (b) Mitochondria Which of the statement(s) givenabove is/are
(c) Ribosomes (d) Golgi apparatus correct?
Answer (b) (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 41. Which one of the following organelles is Answer- (c)
the smallest membrane bound organelle?
Q 46. Bats can fly in dark because they
(a) Ribosome (b) Golgi bodies (a) have strong wings
(c) Lysosome (d) Nucleolus (b) have sharp eyes
Answer (c) (c) produce ultrasonic waves
(d) are nocturnal
Q 42. When our cells are filled with dead or Answer- (c)
damaged organelles like mitochondria, ER,
etc. The degradation of these organelles is Q 47. Which one of the following characteristics is
mainly performed by common among parrot, Platypus and kangaroo?
(a) ribosomes (b) lysosomes (a) Oviparity
(c) peroxisomes (d) glyoxysomes (b) Toothless jaws
Answer (b) (c) Homeothermy
(d) Functional postanal tail
Answer- (c)
Q 43. Consider the following statements
Q 48. Which one among the following groups of Answer- (a)
animals maintains constant body temperature in
changing environmental conditions? Q 55. Bryophytes are photosynthetic but do not
(a) Birds (b) Amphibians have vascular tissue and true roots. This feature
(c) Fishes (d) Reptiles enables them to resemble with which of the
Answer- (a) following?
(a) Fungi (b) Algae
Q 49. Among the following animals, choose the (c) Pteridophytes (d) Angiosperms
one having three pairs of legs.
(a) Spider (b) Scorpion Answer- (b)
(c) Bug (d) Mite
Answer- (c) Q 56. Vascular tissue is found in
(a) Thallophyta (b) Bryophyta
Q 50. Which one among the following is the (c) Pteridophyta (d) Lichens
Sgeneric name of the causal organism of
elephantiasis? Answer- (c)
(a) Filaria
(b) Microfilaria Q 57. The gymnosperms are
(c) Wuchereria bancrofti (a) seed bearing plants
(d) Culex pipiens (b) non-flowering
Answer- (c) (c) thallus bearing
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Q 51. Which one among the following pairs is not Answer- (d)
correctly matched?
(a) Sandal wood Plant — Partial root parasite Q 58. When any plane passing through the
(b) Cuscuta — Parasite central axis of the body divides the organism into
(c) Nepenthes — Carnivorous two halves that are approximately mirror images,
(d) Mushrooms — Autotroph it is called
Answer- (d) (a) radial symmetry
(b) bilateral symmetry
Q 52. Match the following Columns. (c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Column-I Column-II Answer- (a)
A. Acsaris 1. Mammalia
B. Malarial 2. Arthropoda Q 59. If we sprinkle common salt on an
parasite 3. Nematoda earthworm, it dies due to
C. Housefly 4. Protozoa (a) osmotic shock
D. Cow (b) respiratory failure
Codes (c) toxic effect of salt
ABCD (d) closure of pores of skin
(a) 3 4 2 1 Answer- (a)
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 2 4 3 Q 60. Itching due to insect bite is caused
(d) 1 4 2 3 by
Answer- (a) (a) formic acid
(b) acetic acid
Q 53. Study of principle and procedures of (c) lactic acid
classification is called (d) maleic acid
(a) taxonomy (b) systematics Answer- (a)
(c) nomenclature (d) identification
Answer- (b) Q 61. Which of the following is the group with
closely related animal types?
Q 54. Which of the following does not contain (a) Sea star, sea lilly, sea hare
chlorophyll? (b) Dogfish, silverfish, crayfish
(a) Fungi (b) Algae (c) Leech, louse, snail
(c) Bryophyta (d) Pteridophyta (d) Jellyfish, sea fan, sea anemone
Answer- (d) (a) homologous organs
(b) analogous organs
Q 62. Which one of the following animals breathe (c) vestigial organs
through the skin? (d) None of the above
(a) Fish (b) Pigeon Answer (b)
(c) Frog (d) Cockroach
Answer- (c) Q 68. Vermiform appendix is vestigial in man
due to
Q 63. Match the following Columns.
Column I Column II (a) cellulose digestion
(b) omnivorous diet
A. Himalayan 1. Amphibia (c) heterodont condition
salamander (d) cooking habit
B. Indian shark 2. Chondrichthyes Answer (a)
C. Sea-horse 3. Osteichthyes
D. Tortoise 4. Reptilia Q 69. Which of the following have not
undergone much of a change during the
process of evolution over millions of years?
1. Crocodile 2. Cockroach 3. Horse
Codes
Codes
ABCD ABCD
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 2 4 3 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 1 3 4 (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
Answer- (a) Answer (a)

Q 64. Consider the following statements Q 70. Which of the following is the correct
1. Heart is three-chambered in fishes. sequence in which the given animal groups
2. Heart is four-chambered in birds. appeared on the earth during the course of
3. Most animals of class— Amphibia are evolution?
characterised by two pair of limbs. (a) Porifera — Annelida — Coelenterata —
4. In all reptiles respiration is by lungs only. Protozoa
Which of the above statements are correct? (b) Protozoa — Coelenterata — Porifera —
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1 and 3
Annelida
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 2, 3, 4
Answer- (d) (c) Annelida — Porifera — Protozoa —
Coelenterata
(d) Protozoa — Porifera — Coelenterata —
Genetics, Molecular Biology Annelida
Answer (d)
Q 65. Genetic variation arises by
(a) recombination Q 71. A haemophilic man marries with a
(b) mutation normal homozygous woman. What is the
(c) chromosomal aberrations probability that their son will be haemophilic?
(d) All of the above (a) 100% (b) 75%
Answer (d) (c) 50% (d) 0%
Answer (d)
Q 66. The evolution of human species took
place mainly in Q 72. The nearest relative of man are
(a) Asia (c) Europe (a) lemurs (c) new world monkeys
(b) Africa (d) China (b) apes (d) old world monkeys
Answer (b) Answer (b)

Q 67. The organs which are morphologically Q 73. Which is the correct sequence in order
different but perform the same function are of chronology?
called
1. Rediscovery of Mendel’s law of
inheritance. Q 80. Synthetic theory was proposed by
2. Darwin’s theory of evolution. (a) Morgan (b) Muller
3. Synthetic theory of evolution (c) Darwin (d) Dobzohansky
4. Hugo de Vries theory of mutation. Answer (d)

Codes Q 81. Microevolution can be measured by

(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 4, 1, 3 comparing observed allelic frequencies.
(c) 3, 2, 1, 4 (d) 4, 2, 3, 1 These can be predicted by
Answer (b) (a) chance
(b) the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium
Q 74. Which one of the following is an (c) differential mortality
example of vestigial organ in man? (d) Mendelian ratio
(a) Jaw apparatus (b) Ear muscles Answer (b)
(c) Canine teeth (d) Humerus
Answer (b) Q 82. The fossil of Archaeopteryx
represents the evidence of origin of e
Q 75. Arrange the following in the order of (a) birds from reptiles
their evolution. (b) mammals from reptiles
1. Amphibians 2. Fish (c) reptiles from amphibians
3. Reptiles 4. Birds (d) mammals from birds
Codes Answer (a)
(a) 1, 2, 4, 3 (b) 2, 1, 4, 3
(c) 2, 1, 3, 4 (d) 4, 1, 3, 2 Q 83. Two strands of DNA are held together
Answer (c) by
(a) hydrogen bonds
Q 76. Which one of the following theories was (b) covalent bonds
not proposed by Charles Darwin? (c) electrostatic force
(a) Natural selection (d) van der Waals’ forces
(b) Survival of the fittest Answer (a)
(c) Struggle for existence
(d) Inheritance of acquired characters Q 84. Match Column I with Column II
Answer (d) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below
Q 77. The theory of ‘survival of the fittest’ was Column I Column II
propounded by (Geological (Life form)
(a) Lamarck Time-Scale)
(b) Mendel
(c) Charles Darwin A. Pleistocene 1. Mammals
(d) Karl Landsteiner B. Palaeocene 2. Human genus
Answer (c) C. Permian 3. Invertebrates
D. Cambrian 4. Frogs
Q 78. According to Darwin, variations are
(a) heritable (b) non-heritable Codes
(c) mutational (d) environmental ABCDABCD
Answer (a) (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2
Q 79. Who proposed the mutation theory of Answer (a)
evolution?
(a) Huxley (b) Darwin Q 85. Which of the following cause(s)
(c) Lamarck (d) Hugo de Vries variation in the genetic material of progeny?
Answer (d) 1. Sexual reproduction
2. Asexual reproduction Q 92. Which one among the following is not
3. Mutations correct about Down’ssyndrome?
4. Epigenetic changes (a) It is a genetic disorder
Select the correct answer using (b) Affected individual has early ageing
the codes given below: (c) Affected person has mental retardation
(a) Only 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Affected person has furrowed tongue with
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 open mouth
Answer (d) Answer (b)

Q 86. The scientist who is considered as the

father of genetics? Q 93. What is the most conspicuous salient
(a) Lamarck feature of people with ‘Progeria’?
(b) Charles Darwin (a) More hairs on body
(c) Hugo de Vries (b) Less immunity to opportunistic infections
(d) Gregor Johann Mendel (c) Faster rate of ageing
Answer (d) (d) Suffer from infertility
Answer (c)
Q 87. Dr. Hargobind Khorana is credited for
the discovery of Q 94. The nucleic acid in cell was discovered
(a) synthesis of proteins by
(b) synthesis of genes (a) E Strasburger (b) A Kossel
(c) synthesis of nitrogenous bases (c) F Miescher (d) Huxley
(d) None of the above Answer (c)
Answer (a)
Q 95. The sugar in RNA is
Q 88. A pair of contrasting characters is (a) ribose (b) deoxyribose
called (c) sucrose (d) lactose
(a) phenotype (b) genotype Answer (a)
(c) allele (d) None of these
Answer (c) Q 96. Which base replaces thymine in RNA?
(a) Adenine (c) Guanine
Q 89. Which one of the following ratio (c) Uracil (d) Cytosine
represents a test cross? Answer (c)
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 9 : 7
(c) 1 : 1 : 1 (d) 1 : 1 : 1 : 1 Q 97. Transfer of genetic information from
ANSWER (d) one generation to the other is accomplished
by
Q 90. Addition of one chromosome to a (a) DNA (b) messenger RNA
diploid set is (c) transfer RNA (d) Both (b) and (c)
(a) trisomy (b) monosomy Answer (a)
(c) nullisomy (d) tetrasomy
Answer (a) Q 98. Chromosomes are
(a) present only in the nucleus of a cell
Q 91. A couple with blood types A and B may (b) the largest in number in human cells
have children with blood group (c) made up of DNA as a main component
(a) A and B (d) visible in all cells at every time
(b) A, B and AB Answer (c)
(c) A, B, AB and O
(d) Only AB Q 99. The heredity unit gene is made up of
Answer (c) (a) RNA (c) protein
(b) DNA (d) endoplasmic reticulum
Answer (b)
 Answer- (d)
Q 100. The correct model of DNA structure is
proposed by Q 108. Which of the following plants is not
(a) Jacob and Monod capable of manufacturing its own food?
(b) Watson and Crick (a) Algae (b) Mushroom
(c) Khorana (c) Carrot (d) Cabbage
(d) Baltimore and Temin Answer- (b)
Answer (b)
Q 108. Conditions necessary for
Q 101. Enzyme responsible for DNA photosynthesis is/are
replication is (a) chlorophyll and water
(a) polymerase (c) dehydrogenase (b) CO2
(b) proteolytic (d) carboxylase (c) light and suitable temperature
Answer (a) (d) All of the above
Answer- (d)
Q 102. DNA structure was discovered by
(a) Weismann (c) Sutton Q 109. Absorption of light in photosynthesis is
(b) Watson and Crick (d) Jacob done by
Answer (b) (a) water (b) air
(c) chlorophyll (d) carbon dioxide
Q 103. Which of the following is represented Answer- (c)
by X in figure?
Q 110. Which one of the following gases is
released from rice fields in the most
prominent quantities?
(a) Adenine (b) Guanine
(a) Carbon dioxide
(c) Uracil (d) Thymine
(b) Methane
Answer (c)
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Sulphur dioxide
Q 104. Genetic code is
ANSWER(b)
(a) singlet (b) doublet
(c) triplet (d) None of these
Q 111. Which pigment plays a major role in
Answer (c)
seed germination?
(a) Chloroplast (b) Chlorophyll
Q 105. Which of the following were first
(c) Xanthophyll (d) Phytochrome
formed?
Answer- (d)
(a) Genes (b) Cells
(c) Eobionts (d) Coacervates
Q 112. Match the following Columns.
Column I Column II
Q 106. Life originated in
(Cell organelles) (Physiological
(a) air (b) land
phenomena)
(c) water (d) All of these
Answer (d)
A. Mitochondria 1. Photosynthesis
The Plant Morphology B. Chloroplast 2. Transpiration
Physiology C. Stomata 3. Respiration
D. Cell 4. Osmosis
Q 107. Tips of leaves in grasses and
membrane
common garden plants show water drops in
Codes
early morning hours. This water accumulation
ABCD ABCD
is obtained from
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 3 1 2 4
(a) atmosphere (b) stomata
(c) 1 3 2 4 (d) 3 1 4 2
(c) vascular bundles (d) hydathodes
Answer- (b) (a) Adenine derivative – Kinetin
(b) Carotenoid derivative – ABA
Q 113. In which of the following cell (c) Terpenes – IAA
organelles do photo and thermochemical (d) Gas – Ethylene
reactions occur at different sites? Answer- (c)
(a) Mitochondria (b) Chloroplasts
(c) Ribosomes (d) Lysosomes Q 119. The hormone which suppresses the
growth of a plant?
Answer- (b) (a) Auxins (b) Cytokinins
(c) Gibberellins (d) ABA
Q 114. Which one of the following statements Answer- (d)
about photosynthesis is correct?
(a) Carbohydrates are the source of electrons Q 120. Consider the following statements
in photosynthesis with reference to human nutrition.
(b) CO2 is the source of electrons in 1. Banana is richer source of carbohydrates
photosynthesis than apples.
(c) Water is the source of electrons in 2. Banana contains some amount of protein
photosynthesis also.
(d) NADH is the source of electron in 3. Spinach has no protein at all.
photosynthesis 4. Potatoes are richer source of protein than
Answer- (c) peas. Which of the above statements are
correct?
Q 115. CO2 and O2 molecules can move (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4
freely across a plasma membrane. What (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these
determines the direction of carbon dioxide Answer- (a)
and oxygen molecules movement?
(a) Orientation of cholesterol in the plasma Q 121. Eyes of potato are useful for
membrane (a) nutrition
(b) Concentration gradient across the (b) respiration
membrane (c) photosynthesis
(c) Configuration of phospholipid in the (d) vegetative propagation
plasma membrane Answer- (d)
(d) Location of receptors on the surface of the
plasma membrane Q 122. Belladona plant is the source of
Answer- (b) alkaloid
(a) auxin (b) atropine
Q 116. Which one of the following is present (c) cocaine (d) nicotine
in chlorophyll which gives a green colour to Answer- (b)
plant leaves?
(a) Calcium (b) Magnesium Q 123. Stem cuttings are commonly used for
(c) Iron (d) Manganese regrowing
Answer- (b) (a) cotton (b) banana
(c) mango (d) sugarcane
Q 117. Wavelengths of which of the following Answer- (d)
colour of the visible spectrum of light are
maximally absorbed by green plants? Q 124. Vivipary is found in
(a) Green and yellow (b) Red and blue (a) mango (b) Brassica
(c) Green and red (d) Blue and yellow (c) mangrove plants (d) Cycas
Answer- (b) Answer- (c)

Q 118. Which one of the following is not Q 125. Match the following Columns.
correctly matched?
Column I Column II Answer- (c)
(Mode of (Plants)
reproduction)
Q 131. Which of the following is not a seed-
A. Vegetative 1. Rubber, mango borne disease?
propagation by and guava (a) Brown leaf spot of rice
leaves (b) Black arm of cotton
B. Stem cuttings 2. Bryophyllum (c) Red rot of sugarcane
and (d) Potato mosaic
C. Grafting Begonia Answer- (d)
D. Vegetative 3. Potato
propagation by 4. Sugarcane, Q 132. Match the following Columns.
tubers rose
and Bougainvillea Column I Column II
(Plants) (Edible parts)
Codes
ABCD A. Pea 1. Mesocarp
(a) 2 4 1 3 B. Date palm 2. Cotyledons
(b) 1 4 3 2 C. Papaya 3. Bracts, perianth
(c) 3 2 4 1 and receptacle
(d) 4 2 1 3 D. Pineapple 4. Fleshy pericarp
Answer- (a)

Q 126. Seedless berry is produced in which Codes

of the following plant? ABCD ABCD
(a) Date palm (b) Papaya (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) Tomato (d) Banana (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 3 4 1 2
Answer- (d) Answer- (b)

Q 127. Which one among the following plants Q 133. The leaves used as wrappers for bidis
cannot be multiplied by cuttings? are obtained from which one of the following?
(a) Rose (b) Bryophyllum (a) Shikakai (b) Rudraksha
(c) Banana (d) Marigold (c) Tendu (d) Lemon grass
Answer- (c) Answer- (c)

Q 128. Which of the following is a living Q 134. Cutting and peeling of onions bring
fossil? tears to the eyes because of the presence of
(a) Blue-green algae (b) Fungus (a) sulphur in the cell
(c) Green algae (d) Ginkgo (b) carbon in the cell
Answer- (d) (c) fat in the cell
(d) amino acid in the cell
Q 129. Which one among the following kinds Answer- (d)
of organisms resides in the roots of pulses to
do nitrogen_fixation? Q 135. The antimalarial drug quinine is made
(a) Bacteria (b) Fungi from a plant. The plant is
(c) Protozoa (d) Virus (a) neem (b) Eucalyptus
Answer- (a) (c) cinnamon (d) cinchona
Answer- (d)
Q 130. Cloves, used as a spice, are derived
from which of the following plant parts? Q 136. Which one among the following is a
(a) Seeds (b) Fruits major source of sugar?
(c) Flower buds (d) Young leaves (a) Watermelon (b) Beetroot
(c) Sugarcane (d) Date Q 142. The genetically engineered ‘golden
Answer- (c) rice’ is rich in which of the following?
(a) Vitamin-A and nicotinic acid
Q 137. Golden fibre refers to (b) β-carotene and folic acid
(a) hemp (b) cotton (c) β-carotene and iron
(c) jute (d) nylon (d) Vitamin-A and niacin
Answer- (c) Answer- (c)

Q 138. Match the following Columns. Q 143. The plant dye henna imparts orange-
red colour to skin and hairs due to its reaction
Column I Column II with which of the following?
(Mineral) (Major sources) (a) Proteins and amino acids
(b) Lipids
A. Iron 1. Banana, date (c) Carbohydrates
B. Potassium 2. Palak (d) Nucleic acids
C. Iodine 3. Iodised Answer- (a)
common salt
D. Calcium 4. Milk, egg Q 144. The ultimate cause of water
movement in a plant stem against gravity is
Codes (a) osmosis (b) transpiration
ABCD ABCD (c) photosynthesis (d) diffusion
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4 Answer- (b)
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
Answer- (a) Q 145. Vaseline was applied to both the
surfaces of the leaves of a plant. Which of the
Q 139. Quinine is a drug used in the following process/processes would be
treatment of malaria, from which part of the affected?
plant is it obtained? 1. Photosynthesis
(a) Roots (c) Bark 2. Respiration
(b) Stem (d) Leaves 3. Transpiration
Answer- (c) Select the correct answer using the codes
given below:
Q 140. The branches of this tree root (a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2
themselves like new trees over a large area. (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
The roots then give rise to more trunks and Answer- (d)
branches. Because of this characteristic and
its longevity, this tree is considered immortal Q 146. Which one of the following elements is
and is anintegral part of the myths present in green pigment of leaf?
andlegends of India. Which tree isthis? (a) Magnesium (b) Phosphorus
(a) Banyan (c) Tamarind (Imli) (c) Iron (d) Calcium
(b) Neem (d) Peepal Answer- (a)
Answer- (a)
Q 147. Which of the following structures of a
Q 141. Which one of the following is plant is responsible for transpiration? e
responsible for the stimulating effect of tea? (a) Xylem (b) Root
(a) Tannin (c) Stomata (d) Bark
(b) Steroid Answer- (c)
(c) Alkaloid
(d) Flavonoid Q 148. Which of the following does not
Answer- (c) possess a specialised conducting tissue for
transport of water and other substances in
plants?
 (a) Marchantia (b) Marsilea Answer- (a)
(c) Cycas (d) Fern
Answer- (a) Q 154. Which one of the following
statements regarding potato is correct?
Q 149. Bagasse, a byproduct of sugar (a) It is a root
manufacturing industry, is used for the (b) It is a normal stem
production of (c) It is a modified stem
(a) glass (b) paper (d) It is a modified root
(c) rubber (d) cement Answer- (c)
Answer- (b)
Q 156. A leaf without petiole is known as
Q 150. Which one among the following is a (a) subpetiolate (b) sessile
micronutrient present in soil for various (c) zygomorphic (d) heteromerous
crops? Answer- (b)
(a) Calcium (b) Manganese
(c) Magnesium (d) Potassium Q 157. The largest flower in the world is
Answer- (b) (a) lotus (b) Rafflesia
(c) giant cactus (d) None of these
Q 151. Root hairs are the extension of Answer- (b)
(a) epiblema cells
(b) cortex cells Q 158. The fruit of coconut is
(c) pericycle cells (a) drupe (b) hesperidium
(d) xylem tracheids (c) composite fruits (d) berry
Answer- (a)
Answer- (a)
Q 152. Match the following Columns.
Column I Column II Q 159. Which of the following is correctly
matched?
A. Primary root 1. It is formed due (a) Tomato—Pome (b) Banana—Berry
to the repeated (c) Mango—Berry (d) Apple—Drupe
division of primary Answer- (b)
root.
B. Tap root system 2. It is primary root Q 160. Match the following Columns.
and its branches.
C. Fibrous root 3. Root arises any Column I Column II
place other than (Plants) (Seed dispersal
the root system. mechanism)
D. Adventitious 4. It is direct A. Coconut 1. By animals
root prolongation of the B. Drumstick 2. Explosive
radicle noticed mechanism
nearly in all C.Coklebur 3. By water
dicotyledonous (Xanthium)
plants D. Castor 4. By wind
Codes Codes
ABCD ABCD
(a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 2 1 3 ABCD ABCD
Answer- (d) (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 2 4 1 3
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 3 1 4 2
Q 153. Stem develops from Answer- (c)
(a) plumule (b) radicle
(c) pericarp (d) procambium Q 161. In groundnut, the root is
(a) nodulated (b) napiform Answer- (d)
(c) epiphytic (d) photosynthetic
Answer- (a) Q 169. Palak leaves are rich in
(a) vitamin-A (b) vitamin-D
Q 162. Which one of the following is dicot (c) iron (d) carotene
endospermic seed? Answer- (c)
(a) Maize (b) Bean
(c) Castor (d) Wheat Q 170. Pulse crops can fix atmospheric
Answer- (b) nitrogen because of
(a) root nodules (b) deep roots
Q 163. The apple fruit is called as false fruit (c) aerial roots (d) root hair
because Answer- (a)
(a) its pericarp is unconspicuous
(b) its actual fruit is located within edible Q 171. The plant which is parasite in nature is
fleshy thalamus (a) Cuscuta (b) Utricularia
(c) its develops from the inferior ovary (c) Rhizopus (d) Green plants
(d) its endocarp is cartilaginous Answer- (a)
Answer- (b)
Q 172. Out of the following elements which is
Q 164. Wood is the common name for required in largest quantity?
(a) vascular bundle (a) Phosphorus (b) Nitrogen
(b) cambium (c) Calcium (d) Sulphur
(c) secondary xylem Answer- (b)
(d) secondary phloem
Answer- (c)
Q 173. Interveinal necrosis in lemon leaf is
Q 165. The sharp and pointed outgrowths caused by deficiency of
present on the stem of rose are called (a) boron (b) molybdenum
(a) prickles (b) thorns (c) copper (d) zinc
(c) spines (d) hooks Answer- (c)
Answer- (a)
Q 174. Absorption of water increased by
Q 166. Cork cambium is which mineral?
(a) primary meristem (a) Magnesium (b) Zinc
(b) ground meristem (c) Calcium (d) Manganese
(c) lateral meristem Answer- (d)
(d) intercalary meristem
Answer- (c) Q 175. A limiting factor unique to a field
planted with corn year after year is most likely
Q 167. The characteristic odour of garlic (a) temperature (b) water
is due to which one of the following? (c) sunlight (d) soil nutrient
(a) Chlorine-containing compounds Answer- (d)
(b) Fluorine-containing compounds
(c) Nitrogen-containing compounds Q 176. Which of the following are
(d) Sulphur-containing compounds carnivorous plants?
Answer- (d) 1. Waterlilly 2. Pitcher plant
3. Sundew 4. Begonia
Q 168. Which one of the following Codes
nutrients is not a structural (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
component of the plant? (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) Nitrogen (b) Calcium Answer- (c)
(c) Phosphorus (d) Potassium
Q 177. Which one of the following plants is (a) air (b) water
preferred for mixed cropping in order to (c) hormones (d) All of these
enhance the bioavailability of nitrogen? Answer- (b)
(a) Wheat (b) Gram
(c) Maize (d) Barley Q 184. If there is no movement of water into a
Answer- (b) cell from outside medium, the medium is
known as
Q 178. Which factors affect the rate of (a) hypertonic (b) hypotonic
diffusion? (c) isotonic (d) transpiration
(a) Permeability of membrane Answer- (c)
(b) Temperature
(c) Pressure Q 185. The diffusion through a
(d) All of the above semipermeable membrane is known as
Answer- (d) (a) osmosis (b) imbibition
(c) guttation (d) transpiration
Q 179. Consider the following statements Answer- (a)
1. Vapour pressure of a solution is always
less than the vapour pressure of the pure Q 186. A membrane which permits selective
solvent. movement of molecules through it, is called
2. Osmotic pressure of a solution increases if (a) permeable membrane
the number of solute molecules is increased. (b) unit membrane
3. The temperature at which the liquid and (c) semipermeable
solid states of a substance have the same (d) impermeable membrane
vapour pressure is the freezing point. Answer- (c)
4. Osmotic pressure of a solution is inversely
proportional to the elevation in boiling point. Q 187. Roots can absorb minerals from the
Which of the above statement(s) is/are soil when they are in
correct? (a) solid state (b) liquid state
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 4 (c) ionic state (d) gaseous state
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Answer- (c)
Answer- (d)
Q 188. Water absorption can be increased by
Q 180. Osmosis takes place across keeping the plants
(a) semipermeable membrane (a) in the shade
(b) impermeable membrane (b) in dim light
(c) Both (a) and (b) (c) under the fan
(d) None of the above (d) covered with polythene bag
Answer- (a) Answer- (c)

Q 181. When soil is wet and atmosphere is Q 189. A cell neither shrinks nor swells
humid plants lose water by when kept in a fluid, then the
(a) photosynthesis (b) osmosis fluid in the cell in relation to
(c) guttation (d) diffusion ambient fluid is called
Answer- (c) (a) hypertonic (b) hypotonic
(c) isotonic (d) hylaluronic
Q 182. Cohesion theory of ascent of sap was Answer- (c)
proposed by
(a) Dixon (b) Bore Q 190. Transpiration is very low during
(c) Pristley (d) Atkins storms due to
Answer- (a) (a) presence of moisture in wind
(b) low temperature during storms
Q 183. Cause of turgidity in plant cell is (c) high velocity of winds
(d) None of the above
Answer- (c) Animal Physiology
Q 196. Sweating during exercise indicates
Q 191. Which of the following plants open
operation of which one of the following
their stomata during night and close during
processes in the human body?
day time?
(a) Enthalpy (b) Homeostasis
(a) Fleshy xerophytes
(c) Phagocytosis (d) Osmoregulation
(b) Hydrophytes
Answer (b)
(c) Night jasmine
(d) None of the above
Q 197. It has been observed that astronauts
Answer- (a)
lose substantial quantity of calcium through
urine during space flight. This is due to
Q 192. Consider the statements and mark the
(a) hypergravity
correct one. There is decrease in the rate of
(b) microgravity
transpiration due to
(c) intake of dehydrated food tablet
(a) the presence of thick cuticle
(d) low temperature in cosmos
(b) the presence of sunken stomata
Answer (b)
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) None of the above
Q 198. The fibrous sheath that connects
Answer- (c)
the bones is called
(a) tendon (b) aponeuroses
Q 193. Which of the following statements is
(c) periosteum (d) ligament
correct?
Answer (d)
(a) Maximum transpiration occurs through
cuticle
Q 199. The white fibres are chemically
(b) Transpiration takes place when outer
formed of
atmosphere has per cent of moisture less
(a) collagen (b) elastin
than that of stomatal cavity
(c) myosin (d) reticulin
(c) There is increase in transpiration due to
Answer (a)
waxy coating on plants parts
(d) None of the above
Q 200. The longest bone in human
Answer- (b)
body is
(a) femur (b) skull bone
Q 194. Why do you feel cool under a tree but
(c) patella (d) fibula
not so under a tin shed on a sunny day?
Answer (a)
(a) The greenness of the tree gives the cool
feeling
Q 201. The protein present in bone is
(b) Photosynthesis absorbs heat
(a) chondrin (b) ossein
(c) The leaves convert water vapours into
(c) actin (d) myosin
water which is a heat absorbing process
Answer (b)
(d) The leaves give out water which
vapourises absorbing some heat as latent
Q 202. A band of white fibres which joins
heat
muscles to bone
Answer- (d)
(a) ligament (b) tendon
(c) elastin (d) actin
Q 195. In dry regions, the leaf size of a tree
Answer (b)
becomes smaller. It is so to
(a) reduce metabolism
Q 203. Muscle fatigue is due to the
(b) reduce transpiration
accumulation of
(c) maintain natural growth
(a) pyruvic acid (b) lactic acid
(d) protect plant from animals
(c) glycogen (d) succinic acid
Answer- (b)
Answer (b)
 Q 209. Number of spinal nerves in man is
Q 204. Match the following Columns. (a) 10 pairs (b) 12 pairs
Column I Column II (c) 21 pairs (d) 31 pairs
Answer (d)
A. Shoulder and 1. Ball and
joints socket Q 210. Outermost covering of brain of
B. Ankle, knee joints man is
and 2. Hinge joints (a) duramater (b) piamater
elbow (c) arachnoid (d) choroid
C. Toe bones 3. Ellipsoid joints Answer (a)
D. Bones in 4. Gliding joints
palm Codes Q 211. Which of the following makes skin
layer impervious to water?
(a) Collagen (b) Melanin
ABCDABCD (c) Keratin (d) Chitin
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2 Answer (c)
(c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 1 4 3
Answer (c) Q 212. Sweat glands occur in maximum
number in the skin of the
Q 205. Nissl’s granules are found in (a) forehead (b) armpits
(a) cartilage cells (b) nerve cells (c) back (d) palm of hands
(c) muscle cells (d) bone cells Answer (b)
Answer (b)
Q 213. Any chemical which causes loss of
Q 206. The junction of two neurons is called sensation is
(a) synapsis (b) synapticula (a) sedative (b) analgesic
(c) synapse (d) synaptic cleft (c) anaesthetic (d) stimulant
Answer (c) Answer (c)

Q 207. There is different parts of brain in the Q 214. Human body’s main organ of
figure. The darken portion of the figure balance is located in
represents (a) inner part of ear
(b) middle part of ear
(c) front part of brain
(d) top part of vertebral column
Answer (a)

Q 215. Convex lenses are used for the

correction of
(a) artigmatism
(a) cerebrum (b) short-sightedness
(b) cerebellum (c) cataract
(c) cerebral hemisphere (d) long-sightedness
(d) spinal cord Answer (d)
Answer (b)
Q 216. The amount of light entering the
Q 208. In human body, what is the number of eye is regulated by
cervical vertebrae? (a) cornea (b) pupil
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) iris (d) sclera
(c) 8 (d) 12 Answer (b)
Answer (b)
Q 217. Dim-vision in the evening and night of eye
results from the deficiency of which one of the B. Cones 2. Photoreceptor
following? cells
(a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-E C. Pupil 3. Regulate
(c) Vitamin-B12 (d) Vitamin-C amount of light
Answer (a) entering the eye
D. Retina 4. Iodopsin
Q 218. Human ear ossicles are pigment
(a) incus and stapes
(b) stapes
(c) incus, malleus and stapes Codes
(d) incus and malleus ABCDABCD
Answer (c) (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 2 4 3 1
Q 219. In neurons, action potential is Answer (d)
produced due to
(a) Ca2 + (c) Mn + Q 226. Due to contraction of eyeball, a
(b) K + (d) Na + long-sighted eye can see only
Answer (c) (a) farther objects which is corrected by using
convex lens
Q 220. Sensitive pigment layar of eye is (b) farther objects which is corrected by using
(a) sclerotic (b) retina concave lens
(c) cornea (d) None of these (c) nearer objects which is corrected by using
Answer (b) convex lens
(d) nearer objects which is corrected by using
Q 221. The largest cell in the human concave lens
body is Answer (b)
(a) nerve cell (b) muscle cell
(c) liver cell (d) kidney cell Q 227. Consider the following statements.
Answer (a) 1. A person with myopia can see distant
objects distinctly but cannot see nearby
Q 222. Myopia can be corrected by objects clearly.
(a) convex lens 2. A person with hypermetropia cannot see
(b) concave lens distant objects clearly.
(c) cylindrical lens 3. A person with presbyopia can see nearby
(d) cornea replacement objects without corrective glasses.
Answer (b) Which of the statement(s) given
above is/are not correct?
Q 223. Cones are with a pigment (a) Only 3 (b) 1 and 2
(a) iodopsin (b) rhodopsin (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these Answer (d)
Answer (a)
Q 228. SA node of mammalian heart is
Q 224. Rods and cones are present in known as
(a) iris (b) cornea (a) autoregulator (b) pacemaker
(c) sclerotic (d) retina (c) time controller (d) beat regulator
Answer (d) Answer (b)

Q 225. Match the following Columns.

Column I Column II Q 229. Match the following Columns.
Column I Column II
A. Rods 1. Nervous coat (Glands) (Body functions
 controlled) 1. They are steroids, proteins, peptides or
amino acids derivatives.
A. Adrenal 1. Growth of 2. They are not produced by body organs and
bones are mostly taken as supplements.
B. Pancreas 2. Level of blood 3. They do not influence the working of those
calcium organs which have secreted them.
C. Parathyroid 3. Salt and water 4. They act as coenzymes and help enzymes
balance in the to perform their function.
body Select the correct answer using
D. Pituitary 4. Level of blood the code given below:
sugar (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
Codes (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Answer (a)
ABCDABCD
(a) 1 4 3 2 (b) 3 1 2 4 Q 234. A deficiency of which one of the
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 4 2 3 1 following minerals is most likely to lead to an
Answer (c) immunodeficiency?
(a) Calcium (b) Zinc
Q 230. Which of the following endocrine (c) Lead (d) Copper
glands is shown in the below Answer (c)
figure.
Q 235. The gestation period of cows is
(a) 150 day (b) 280 day
(c) 300 day (d) 365 day
Answer (b)

Q 236. Which of the following is an egg

laying mammal?
(a) Bat (b) Penguin
(a) Pituitary gland (c) Whale (d) Spiny anteater
(b) Thymus gland Answer (d)
(c) Adrenal gland
(d) Pineal body Q 237. In the human body, Cowper’s
Answer (c) glands form a part of which one of the
following?
Q 231. Progesterone and relaxin are (a) Digestive system
secreted by (b) Endocrine system
(a) testes (b) pituitary (c) Reproductive system
(c) thyroid (d) ovary (d) Nervous system
Answer (d) Answer (c)

Q 232. Spermatogenesis in mammalian Q 238. Artificial insemination involves

testes is controlled by the use of
(a) FSH (b) LH (a) natural semen and natural diluent
(c) progesterone (d) ICSH (b) natural semen and artificial diluent
Answer (a) (c) artificial semen and natural diluent
(d) artificial semen and artificial diluent
Answer (c)
Q 233. Which of the following statements
correctly describe the properties of Q 239. Mother’s milk is preferred to cow’s
hormones? milk because it contains
(a) more fats and more lipids
(b) less fats and less lipids statements is correct?
(c) less fats and more lipids (a) All proteins are enzymes
(d) more fats and less lipids (b) All enzymes are proteins
Answer (b) (c) None of the enzymes is protein
(d) None of the proteins is enzyme
Q 240. Implantation of blastocyst occurs on Answer (b)
(a) 5th day (b) 4th day
(c) 6th day (d) 7th day Q 248. Which one among the following
Answer (c) statements about blood transfusion is
correct? Blood group B can give blood to
Q 241. The release of seminal fluid in the (a) blood group B and receive from group AB
vagina of female is called (b) blood groups B and AB and receive from
(a) ejaculation (b) insemination group B and O
(c) coitious (d) implantation (c) blood groups B and AB and receive from
Answer (b) group A and O
(d) blood group O and receive from
Q 242. The ovum released from the ovary group B
is received by Answer (b)
(a) uterus (b) vagina
(c) urethra (d) ostium Q 249. Which one among the following
Answer (d) vitamins is necessary for blood
clotting?
Q 243. Sperm entry in the ovum is (a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-D
assisted by (c) Vitamin-K (d) Vitamin-C
(a) hyaluronidase (b) hyaluronic acid Answer (c)
(c) fertilisin (d) antifertilisin
Answer (a) Q 250. The pH of human blood is normally
around
Q 244. The cavity present in the (a) 4.5-5.5 (b) 5.5-6.5
Graafian follicle is (c) 7.5-8.0 (d) 8.5-9.0
(a) amniotic cavity (b) archenteron Answer (c)
(c) antrum (d) ostium
Answer (c) Q 251. The crew and passengers of a flying
aircraft suffer generally from chronic
Q 245. Testosterone is secreted by obstructive pulmonary disease due to the
(a) Leydig’s cells (b) Sertoli cells (a) solar radiation
(c) corpus luteum (d) oxyntic cells (b) ozone concentration
Answer (a) (c) nitrogen oxide
(d) particulate pollutant
Q 246 . Why are pregnant women Answer (c)
recommended substantial intake of green
leafy vegetables in their diet, especially in the Q 252. Which one among the following
1st trimester? gases readily combines with the haemoglobin
(a) They are a rich source of chlorophyll of the blood?
(b) They are a rich source of lecithin (a) Methane
(c) They are a rich source of folic acid which (b) Nitrogen dioxide
is required for DNA synthesis (c) Carbon monoxide
(d) They are a rich source of essential fatty (d) Sulphur dioxide
acids required for cell anabolism Answer (c)
Answer (c)
Q 253. What would happen if human blood
Q 247. Which one among the following becomes acidic (low pH)?
(a) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin
is increased Q 259. Match the following Columns.
(b) Oxygen carrying capacity of haemoglobin Column I Column II
is decreased (Gland) (Hormone)
(c) RBC count increases
(d) RBC count decreases A. Pancreas 1. Cortisol
Answer (b) B. Pituitary 2. Vitamin-D
C. Adrenal 3. Thyroid
Q 254. The gastrointestinal hormones stimulating
namely secretin and cholecystokinin secreted hormone
by duodenal epithelium activate D. Kidneys 4. Glucagon
respectively which organs to discharge their
secretions? Codes
(a) Pancreas and gall bladder ABCDABCD
(b) Gall bladder and stomach (a) 4 3 1 2 (b) 4 1 3 2
(c) Pancreas and stomach (c) 2 1 3 4 (d) 2 3 1 4
(d) Stomach and small intestine Answer (a)
Answer (c)
Q 260. Deficiency of which of the following
Q 255. Human blood is a viscous fluid. elements is responsible for weakening of
This viscosity is due to bones?
(a) proteins in blood 1. Calcium 2. Phosphorus
(b) platelets in plasma 3. Nitrogen 4. Carbon
(c) sodium in serum Select the correct answer using the
(d) RBC and WBC in blood codes given below:
Answer (d) (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Only 1 (d) Only 4
Q 256. In humans, which one among Answer (a)
the following with reference to breathing is
correct? Q 261. Which of the following statement(s)
(a) During inhalation, diaphragm relaxes is/are correct?
(b) During exhalation, thorax cavity expands 1. Amnion contains fluid.
(c) During inhalation, intra-pleural pressure 2. Ultrasound scan can detect the
becomes more negative sex of an embryo. e 2014 (I)
(d) Unlike inhalation, normal exhalation is an Select the correct answer using the
active process codes given below:
Answer (c) (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q 257. Blood does not coagulate inside Answer (c)
the body due to the presence of
(a) haemoglobin (b) heparin
(c) fibrin (d) plasma Q 262. Which of the following statement(s)
Answer (b) is/are correct regarding fats?
1. Fats are needed for the formation of cell
Q 258. A person feeds on rice and vegetable membrane.
made up of potato only. He is likely to suffer 2. Fats help the body to absorb calcium from
from deficiency of e 2013 (II) food.
(a) carbohydrate and vitamins 3. Fats are required to repair damaged tissue.
(b) proteins 4. Body cannot release energy in fats as
(c) carbohydrate and proteins quickly as the energy in carbohydrates.
(d) proteins and fats Select the correct answer using the
Answer (b) codes given below:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) Only 1 structures or cells is not present in connective
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 tissues?
Answer (a) (a) Chondrocytes (b) Axon
(c) Collagen fibre (d) Lymphocytes
Q 263. Which of the following statements Answer (b)
are correct?
1. Coronary artery supplies blood to Q 268. Which one among the following
heart muscles. statements is not true for mammals?
2. Pulmonary vein supplies blood to (a) They possess hairs on the body
lungs. (b) Some of them lay eggs
3. Hepatic artery supplies blood to (c) Their heart is three-chambered
kidneys. (d) Some are aquatic
4. Renal vein supplies blood to Answer (c)
kidneys.
Previous Years’ Questions Q 269. Neutrophils and lymphocytes
Select the correct answer using originate from
the codes given below: e 2014 (II) (a) kidney tubule
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 1 (b) spleen
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (c) bone marrow
Answer (b) (d) lymph node
Answer (c)
Q 264. Which one among the following is
the correct pathway for the elimination of Q 270. Absorption of water in the human
urine? body can be found in
(a) Kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra 1. renal tubule in kidney.
(b) Kidneys, urethra, bladder, ureters 2. hepatic cells in liver.
(c) Urethra, ureters, bladder, kidneys 3. large intestine.
(d) Bladder, ureters, kidneys, urethra 4. pancreatic duct.
Answer (a) Select the correct answer using
the codes given below:
Q 265. Assertion (A) During indigestion, (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3
milk of magnesia is taken to get rid of the (c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 3
stomach pain. Reason (R) Milk of magnesia Answer (b)
is a base and it neutralises the excess acid in
the stomach. Q 271. Cobalt is associated with
Codes (a) growth hormone
(a) Both A and R are true and R is (b) vitamin-B12
the correct explanation of A (c) haemoglobin
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is (d) intestinal enzymes
not the correct explanation of A Answer (b)
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true Q 272. Glucose is a source of energy.
Answer (a) Which one of the following types
of molecule is glucose?
Q 266. In human digestive system, the (a) Carbohydrate (b) Protein
process of digestion starts in (c) Fat (d) Nucleic acid
(a) oesophagus (b) buccal cavity Answer (a)
(c) duodenum (d) stomach
Answer (b) Q 273. Which one of the following
vitamins has a role in blood clotting?
Q 267. Which one among the following (a) Vitamin-A (b) Vitamin-B
(c) Vitamin-D (d) Vitamin-K
Answer (d) Answer (c)

Q 274. Which one of the following Q 280. The richest source of vitamin-D is (a)
hormones contains peptide chain? cod liver oil (b) spinach
(a) Oxytocin (b) Corticotrophic (c) milk (d) cheese
(c) Insulin (d) Cortisone Answer (a)
Answer (c)
Q 281. Cow milk is a rich source of
Q 275. In Artificial Insemination (AI) process, (a) vitamin-A (b) vitamin-B
which of the following is/are introduced into (c) vitamin-C (d) fatty acids
the uterus Answer (a)
of the female?
(a) Only egg Q 282. Which milk contains more fat?
(b) Fertilised egg (a) Cow (b) Buffalo
(c) Only sperms (c) Camel (d) Reindeer
(d) Egg and sperm Answer (a)
Answer (c)
Q 283. Protein-calorie malnutrition causes
Q 276. Plants contain a variety of sterols (a) malaria (b) hepatitis
like stigmasterol, ergosterol, sitosterol, etc. (c) typhoid (d) kwashiorkor
which very closely Answer (d)
resemble cholesterol. These plant
sterols are referred as Q 284. Which of the following does not
(a) phytosterols (b) calciferols belong to vitamin-B group?
(c) ergocalciferols (d) lumisterols (a) Riboflavin (b) Tocopherol
Answer (a) (c) Cyanocobalamin (d) Nicotinic acid
Answer (b)
Q 277. Which of the following pairs of
vitamin and disease is/are correctly matched? Q 285. Match the following Columns.
1. Vitamin-A – Rickets Column I Column II
2. Vitamin-B1 – Beri-beri (Vitamins) (Chemical
3. Vitamin-C – Scurvy names)
Select the correct answer using
the codes given below: A. Vitamin-A 1. Riboflavin
(a) Only 2 (b) 2 and 3 B. Vitamin-B2 2. Niacin
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 C. Vitamin-B3 3. Retinol
Answer (b) D. Vitamin-C 4. Ascorbic acid
Codes
Q 278. Which one of the following is
considered as ‘good cholesterol’ with ABCDABCD
reference to individuals facing the risk of (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
cardio-vascular diseases and hypertension? (c) 3 1 2 4 (d) 2 3 1 4
(a) High Density Lipoprotein (HDL) Answer (c)
(b) Low Density Lipoprotein (LDL)
(c) Triglyceride Q 286. Consider the following statements
(d) Fatty acids regarding human nutrition.
Answer (a) 1. Spinach is a good source of vitamin-A.
2. Excess vitamin-D in diet promotes
Q 279. Vitamin-B complex represents a group hypercalcemia
of how many vitamins? 3. One of the causes of pain in the joints is
(a) 5 (c) 9 due to vitamin-C deficiency.
(b) 6 (d) 11
4. Diarrhoea is one of the symptoms of muscles
pellagra. Which of the above statements are
correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4 Codes
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these ABCDABCD
Answer (a) (a) 1 2 5 4 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 3 (d) 2 1 4 5
Q 287. Bleeding and rupturing of blood Answer (d)
vessels is prevented by
(a) vitamin-E (b) vitamin-C Q 294. Match the following Columns.
(c) vitamin-K (d) vitamin-B2 Column I Column II
Answer (c)
A. Enzyme 1. Retinol
Q 288. Which enzyme is present in bile juice? B. Vitamin 2. Keratin
(a) Bilin (b) Bilirubin C. Protein D. 3. Maltase
(c) Biliverdin (d) None of these Hormone 4. Adrenalins
Answer (d) Codes
ABCDABCD
Q 289. Digestive gland of prawn is (a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 2 3 1 5
(a) hepatopancreas (c) thyroid (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 3 1 2 4
(b) liver (d) pancreas Answer (d)
Answer (a)
Q 295. Honey has the largest percentage of
Q 290. Omasum is absent in (a) water (b) starch
(a) goat (b) cow (c) glucose (d) sucrose
(c) camel (d) buffalo Answer (c)
Answer (c)
Q 296. Which fruit can diabetic patients eat
Q 291. Coagulation of milk is done by freely?
(a) casein (b) rennin (a) Banana (b) Guava
(c) pepsin (d) trypsin (c) Orange (d) Mango
Answer (b) Answer (b)

Q 292. Consider the following substances Q 297. Which of the following vitamins and
1. Ascorbic acid deficiency diseases is not correctly matched?
2. Folic acid (a) Vitamin-A – Night blindness
3. Nicotinic acid (b) Vitamin-B1 – Pellagra
4. Pantothenic acid (c) Vitamin-D – Deformities in bones
Which of the above are vitamins? (d) Vitamin-K – Haemorrhage
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer (b)
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer (b) Q 298. The protein content of edible portion
of egg is
Q 293. Match the following Columns. (a) 15% (b) 13.3%
Column I Column II (c) 10.3% (d) 5%
Answer (b)
A. Vitamin-C 1. Night
B. Vitamin-A blindness Q 299. Consider the following statements.
C. Vitamin-D D. 2. Scurvy Keratin is
Vitamin-B12 3. Ricket 1. a protein
4. Anaemia 2. a hormone
5. Destruction of 3. present in hair
4. present in nail D. Calcium 4. Milk, egg
Which of the above statements(s) is/are
correct? Codes
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 ABCDABCD
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
Answer (d) (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
Answer (a)
Q 300. Match the following Columns.
Column I Column II Q 304. Which among the following oils has
(Sources) (Rich in) the maximum protein content?
(a) Castor oil (b) Sunflower oil
A. Fish liver oil 1. Vitamin-C (c) Soybean oil (d) Safflower oil
B. Egg 2. Vitamin-B Answer (c)
complex
C. Lettuce 3. Vitamin-D Q 305. Anaemia is a common health problem
D. Cow milk 4. Vitamin-A especially in women. Which one of the
following deficiencies is most frequently
Codes responsible for anaemia in India?
ABCDABCD (a) Calcium (b) Iron
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 2 4 1 3 (c) Iodine (d) Zinc
(c) 3 2 1 4 (d) 4 2 3 1 Answer (b)
Answer (c)
Q 306. Primary source of vitamin-D for
Q 301. Match the following Columns. human beings is
Column I Column II (a) citrus fruit (b) green vegetables
(Sugar) (Source) (c) yeast (d) sun
Answer (d)
A. Cellulose 1. Honey
B. Fructose 2. Sugarcane Q 307. Match the following Columns.
C. Maltose 3. Cotton wool Column I Column II
D. Sucrose 4. Starch (Vitamin) (Chemical
compound)
Codes
ABCDABCD A. Vitamin-A 1. Thiamine
(a) 3 1 4 2 (b) 3 4 1 2 B. Vitamin-B1 2. Retinol
(c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 2 4 1 3 C. Vitamin-C 3. Ascorbic acid
Answer (a) D. Vitamin-E 4. Tocopherol

Q 302. The vitamin(s), which is/are generally Codes

excreted in urine, is/are ABCDABCD
(a) vitamin-A (b) vitamin-E (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) vitamin-C (d) vitamin-D and K (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 1 3 4
Answer (c) Answer (d)

Q 303. Match the following Columns. Q 308. Which one of the following contains
Column I Column II vocal cords?
(Mineral) (Major Source) (a) Larynx (c) Glottis
(b) Pharynx (d) Primary bronchus
A. Iron 1. Banana, date Answer (c)
B. Potassium 2. Palak
C. Iodine 3. Iodised
common salt
Q 309. Which one of the following is (c) pituitary (d) thyroid
considered as the easily digestible source of Answer (d)
protein?
(a) Egg albumin (b) Soybean Q 317. Which one among the following will be
(c) Fish flesh (d) Red meat absorbed fastest through the wall of digestive
Answer (a) system?
(a) Black coffee as a hot beverage
Q 310. Wisdom teeth are (b) DDT taken as a poison
(a) incisors (b) canines (c) Raw alcohol taken as a drink
(c) premolars (d) molars (d) Ice-cream as a dessert
Answer (d) Answer (c)

Q 311. Chemically silk fibres are Q 318. When we eat something we like,
predominantly our mouth waters. This is actually not water,
(a) protein but fluid secreted from
(b) carbohydrate (a) nasal glands (b) oval epithelium
(c) complex lipid (c) salivary glands (d) tongue
(d) mixture of polysaccharide and fat Answer (c)
Answer (a)
Q 319. Which among the following is the
Q 312. Which one of the following enzyme is correct increasing order of Ph found in human
present in saliva? body?
(a) Pepsin (b) Ptyalin (a) Gastric juice, saliva, blood
(c) Trypsin (d) Chymotrypsin (b) Blood, saliva, gastric juice
Answer (c) Saliva, blood, gastric juice
Q 311. Which one of the following is true (d) Gastric juice, blood, saliva
stomach? Answer (a)
(a) Ruman (b) Reticulum
(c) Omasum (d) Abomasum Q 320. Consider the following statements
Answer (d) 1. Iodine is necessary for the thyroid gland to
make adrenaline.
Q 313. Dental formula of human baby is 2. Iodine deficiency leads to goitre in human
(a) 2102/2102 (b) 2103/2103 beings.
(c) 2100/2100 (d) 2123/2123 3. Iodine is secreted by pancreas and helps
Answer (a) in regulating cholesterol level.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
Q 314. Acidity in stomach involves correct?
(a) headache (a) Only 2 (b) 1 and 2
(b) stomach aches (c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
(c) asthma Answer (a)
(d) hormonal deficiency
Answer (b) Q 321. In human beings, the opening of
the stomach into the small intestine is called
Q 315. The cells of pancreas that produce (a) caecum (b) ileum
glucagon are (c) oesophagus (d) pylorus
(a) α-cells (c) Both (a) and (b) Answer (d)
(b) γ-cells (d) β-cells
Answer (a) Q 322. Anaerobic respiration occurs in
(a) ants (b) earthworms
Q 316. Metabolic rate in mammals is (c) tapeworms (d) echinoderms
controlled by Answer (c)
(a) pancreas (b) liver
Q 323. Oxygen content in inspired air is Q 331. The blood pressure is the pressure of
(a) 4% (b) 20% blood in
(c) 16% (d) 25% (a) arteries (b) veins
Answer (b) (c) auricles (d) ventricles
Answer (a)
Q 324. Which is the main form in which CO2
is transported by blood? Q 332. A reptile with a four-chambered
(a) Carbonic acid heart is
(b) Oxyhaemoglobin (a) crocodile (b) turtle
(c) Bicarbonates (c) snake (d) lizard
(d) Carboxyhaemoglobin Answer (a)
Answer (c)
Q 333. Blood grouping was discovered by
Q 325. The largest quantity of air that can be (a) William Harvey (b) Landsteiner
expired after a maximal inspiration is (c) Robert Koch (d) Louis Pasteur
(a) residual volume Answer (b)
(b) tidal volume
(c) lung volume Q 334. How many molecules of O2 can
(d) vital capacity of lungs associate with a molecule of haemoglobin in
Answer (d) man?
(a) One (b) Two
Q 326. Which one of the following helps in air (c) Three (d) Four
conditioning? Answer (d)
(a) Nasal chambers (b) Nostrils
(c) Pharynx (d) Alveoli Q 335. Between which one of the following
Answer (a) sets of blood groups, is the blood transfusion
possible?
Q 327. Respiratory enzymes in bacteria are (a) A and O (A donor)
present in (b) B and A (B donor)
(a) mitochondria (c) A and AB (A donor)
(b) Golgi complex (d) AB and O (AB donor)
(c) plasma membrane Answer (c)
(d) endoplasmic reticulum
Answer (a) Q 336. Which of the statements given
below are correct?
Q 328. Which one of the following animals 1. A person having blood group-A can donate
breathe through the skin? blood to persons having blood group-A and
(a) Fish (b) Pigeon blood group-AB.
(c) Frog (d) Cockroach 2. A person having blood group-AB can
Answer (c) donate blood to persons having blood
groups-A, B, AB or O.
Q 329. Life of RBCs in human blood is of 3. A person with blood group-O can donate
(a) 30 days (b) 60 days blood to persons having any blood group.
(c) 120 days (d) 15 hours 4. A person with blood group-O can receive
Answer (c) blood from the person of any of the blood
groups.
Q 330. Element that is not found in blood is Select the correct answer using the
(a) iron (b) magnesium code given below:
(c) copper (d) chromium (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
ANSWER (c) (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these
Answer (a)
Q 337. Second heart sound is
(a) lubb at the end of systole Q 346. Pacemaker in heart is
(b) lubb at the beginning of systole (a) AV node (b) SA node
(c) dupp at the end of diastole (c) Purkinje fibres (d) Bundle of His
(d) dupp at the beginning of diastole Answer (b)
Answer (d)
Q 347. Vein carrying oxygenated blood is
Q 338. Open type circulatory system is called
found in (a) pulmonary (b) all capillaries
(a) insects (b) leeches (c) aorta (d) None of these
(c) molluscs (d) All of these Answer (a)
Answer (d)
Q 348. Which chamber of human heart
Q 339. The ECG is employed to detect pumps fully oxygenated blood to aorta and
(a) cholesterol (b) blood pressure hence to the body?
(c) cardiac cycle (d) atherosclerosis (a) Right auricle (b) Left auricle
Answer (c) (c) Right ventricle (d) Left ventricle
Answer (d)
Q 340. Membrane surrounding the heart is
(a) peritoneum Q 349. The abnormal rise in RBC count is
(b) pleura called
(c) pericardium (a) lukemia (b) leukopenia
(d) mucous membrane (c) thrombocytosis (d) polycythmia
Answer (c) Answer (d)

Q 341. The blood pressure is measured by Q 350. Consider the following respiratory
(a) haemoglobinometer pigments.
(b) stethoscope 1. Haemoglobin
(c) sphygmomanometer 2. Haemocyanin
(d) pulse rate 3. Haemoerythrin
Answer (c) 4. Haemocyanoglobin
Iron is contained in
Q 342. Heart with single circulation is (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
found in (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1, 2 and 4
(a) mammals Answer (b)
(b) reptiles
(c) fishes and amphibians Q 351. Match the following Columns.
(d) only fishes Column I Column II
Answer (d) (Protein) (Type)

Q 343. Increase in the number of WBC is A. Haemoglobin 1. Structural

referred as proteins
(a) anaemia (b) polythaemia B. Collagen 2. Contractile
(c) leukopenia (d) leukemia proteins
Answer (d) C. Albumin and 3. Transport
Glutamin proteins
Q 345. The lifespan of human WBC is
about D. Actin and 4. Storage
(a) less than 10 days (c) 120 days myosin proteins
(b) 24 hours (d) 100 hours Codes
Answer (a)
ABCDABCD
(a) 1 3 4 2 (b) 2 1 3 4 Q 359. Ammonia is the chief nitrogenous
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 1 2 4 3 waste in
Answer (c) (a) mosquitoes
(b) tadpole of frog
Q 352. Heart is innervated by (c) cartilaginous fishes
(a) trigeminal (b) vagus (d) desert mammals
(c) facial (d) glossopharyngeal Answer (b)
Answer (c)

Q 353. Which of the following parts of blood

Human Health
carry out the function of body defence? and Diseases
(a) Red blood cells (b) White blood cells
(c) Platelets (d) Haemoglobins Q 360. Which of the following is the science
Answer (b) dealing with tumour?
(a) Carcinology (b) Serology
Q 354. What does sphygmomanometer (c) Oncology (d) Chronology
measure? Answer- (c)
(a) Blood pressure
(b) Velocity of fluids Q 361. The persons working in textile
(c) Temperature factories such as carpet weavers are
(d) Curvature of spherical surfaces exposed to which of the following
Answer (a) occupational diseases?
(a) Asbestosis
Q 355. White blood cells act (b) Asthma and tuberculosis
(a) as a defence against infection (c) Silicosis
(b) as source of energy (d) Siderosis
(c) for clotting blood Answer- (b)
(d) as a medium for oxygen transport from
lung to tissues
Answer (a) Q 362. HIV mainly infects
(a) α-globulin
Q 356. Which one among the following (b) cytotoxic T-lymphocytes
animal tissues transport hormones and heat (c) helper lymphocytes
and maintains water balance? (d) killer lymphocytes
(a) Epithelial tissue (b) Muscular tissue Answer- (c)
(c) Blood (d) Nervous tissue
Answer (c) Q 363. Minamata disease is caused by
(a) automobile exhausts containing lead
Q 357. Which one of the following is (b) air with sulphur
considered normal blood pressure in man? (c) industrial wastes having mercury
(a) 120/80 mm water compounds
(b) 120/80 mm blood (d) water from tanneries
(c) 120/80 mm mercury Answer- (c)
(d) 120/80 mm air
Answer (c) Q 364. Which of the following is a water
borne disease?
Q 358. The yellow colour of urine is due (a) Tuberculosis (b) Cholera
to the presence of (c) Influenza (d) Malaria
(a) bile (b) lymph Answer- (b)
(c) cholesterol (d) urochrome
Answer (d) Q 365. BCG is used against
(a) tuberculosis (b) typhoid
(c) hydrophobia (d) measles (a) Iron (b) Chloride
Answer- (a) (c) Fluoride (d) Potassium
Answer- (c)
Q 366. A girl ate sweets contaminated with
flies, due to this she suffered from a disease Q 373. Cancer is more common in older
diagnosed as people because e 2013
(a) kwashiorkor (b) tuberculosis (a) their immune systems have degenerated
(c) diphtheria (d) cholera (b) the supply of certain hormones declines
Answer- (d) with age
(c) their bodies are unable to adjust to the
Q 367. Which of the following statements is changing environment
true with respect to leukemia? (d) they have accumulated more mutations
(a) Number of RBCs increases in blood Answer- (d)
(b) Number of WBCs increases in blood
(c) Number of both RBCs and WBCs Q 374. Consider the following statements
decreases regarding antibiotics
(d) Deficiency of minerals 1. They are used to destroydisease-causing
Answer- (b) bacteria.
2. They can be applied to the skin, swallowed
Q 368. Myocardial infarction is a serious or injected to fight microorganisms inside the
disease of body.
(a) heart (b) brain 3. They are effective against disease-causing
(c) lungs (d) kidneys viruses.
Answer- (a) 4. The first antibiotic to be discovered was
tetracycline. Which of the statement(s) given
Q 369. Cancer located in connective tissues above is/are correct?
is called (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(a) carcinoma (b) sarcoma (c) Only 1 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(c) leukaemia (d) metastasis Answer- (a)
Answer- (b)
Q 375. Which one of the following diseases in
Q 370. Which of the following diseases are humans can spread through air?
transmitted from one person to another? (a) Dengue (b) Tuberculosis
1. AIDS 2. Cirrhosis (c) HIV-AIDS (d) Goitre
3. Hepatitis-B 4. Syphilis Answer- (b)
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below: Q 376. The word ‘vaccination’ has been
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 3 and 4 derived from a Latin word which relates to
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) All of these (a) pig (b) horse
Answer- (b) (c) cow (d) dog
Answer- (c)
Q 371. Mosquito can be a vector for following
diseases except Q 377. Measles is a disease caused by
(a) yellow fever (b) dengue fever (a) bacteria (b) virus
(c) filaria (d) kala-azar (c) protozoan (d) worm
Answer- (d) Answer- (b)

Q 372. Which one among the following Q 378. The mandate of the scheme entitled
elements/ions is essential in small quantities ‘Directly Observed Treatment, Short-Course
for development of healthy teeth but causes (DOTS)’ launched by WHO is to ensure
mottling of the teeth if consumed in higher that
quantities?
(a) doctors treat patients with medicine for a
short duration Q 384. Which disease cannot be prevented
(b) doctors do not start treatment without a by immunisation?
trial (a) Polio (b) Diphtheria
(c) patients complete their course of drug (c) Angina (d) Tuberculosis
(d) patients voluntarily take vaccines Answer- (c)
Answer- (c)
Q 385. Cholera Bacillus was discovered by
Q 379. Penicillin inhibits synthesis of (a) Louis Pasteur (b) Ronald Ross
bacterial (c) Robert Koch (d) Joseph Lister
(a) cell wall (b) protein Answer- (c)
(c) RNA (d) DNA
Answer- (a) Q 386. Match the following Columns.
Column I Column II
Q 380. Most antibiotics target bacterial A. Ascariasis 1. Bacteria
parasites interfering with various factors of B. Giardiasis 2. Nematode
growth or metabolism such as C. Hepatitis 3. Protozoan
1. synthesis of cell wall. D. Tetanus 4. Virus
2. bacterial protein synthesis. Codes
3. synthesis of nuclear membrane. ABCD ABCD
4. mitochondria function. (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 3 2 1
Select the correct answer using the codes (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 1 2 3
given below: Answer- (a)
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 2 Q 387. A pregnant woman is advised to
Answer- (a) undergo abortion if she contracts a disease
called
Q 381. Dengue virus is known to cause low (a) measles (b) smallpox
platelet count in blood of patient by (c) chickenpox (d) German measles
1. interfering in the process of platelet Answer- (b)
production in bone marrow.
2. infecting endothelial cells. Q 388. Which of the following diseases was
3. binding with platelets. prevalent among red Indians?
4. accumulating platelets in intestine. (a) Fibrosis (b) AIDS
Select the correct answer using the codes (c) Syphilis (d) Gonorrhoea
given below: Answer- (c)
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Q 389. Fever causing substance is called
Answer- (d) (a) pathogen (b) pyrogen
(c) interferon (d) antigen
Q 382. DPT is a vaccine for Answer- (b)
(a) diarrhoea, polio and typhoid
(b) diphtheria, whooping cough and tetanus Q 390. Match the following Columns.
(c) diarrhoea, polio and tetanus Column I Column II
(d) diphtheria, whooping cough and typhoid (Diseases) (Causative
Answer- (b) agents)

Q 383. Which of the following cannot be A. Syphilis 1. Vibrio

controlled by vaccination? B. Sore throat 2. Bacilli
(a) Smallpox (b) Diabetes C. Cholera 3. Spirilla
(c) Polio (d) Whooping cough D. TB 4. Cocci
Answer- (b) (Tuberculosis)
Codes Codes
ABCD ABCD ABCD ABCD
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 2 4 3 1 (a) 3 4 1 2 (b) 3 4 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 2 1 3 (c) 4 3 2 1 (d) 4 3 1 2
Answer- (c) Answer- (a)

Q 391. Match the following Columns. Q 395. Match the following Columns.
Column I Column II
Column I Column II (Diseases) (Causative agent)
(Scientist) (Work)

A. FG Banting 1. Vaccination for A. Typhoid 1. Bacteria

smallpox B. Malaria 2. Virus
B. J Lister 2. Germ theory C. AIDS 3. Worms
C. Louis Pasteur 3. Use of carbolic D. Ringworm 4. Protozoa
acid as an 5. Fungi
D. E Jenner antiseptic
4. Discovery of Codes
insulin ABCD ABCD
(a) 2 3 5 1 (b) 1 4 2 5
Codes (c) 3 1 2 5 (d) 1 2 3 4
ABCD ABCD Answer- (b)
(a) 4 3 2 1 (b) 4 2 1 3
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 1 4 3 2 Q 396. To suspect HIV/AIDS in a young
Answer- (a) individual, which one among the following
symptoms is mostly considered?
Q 392. Which of the following diseases are (a) Long standing jaundice and chronic liver
preventable by vaccine? disease
1. Tetanus 2. Polio (b) Severe anaemia
3. Leprosy 4. Pertussis (c) Chronic diarrhoea
Select the correct answer using the codes (d) Severe persistent headache
given below: Answer- (d)
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these Q 397. Insects that can transmit diseases to
Answer- (c) human are referred to as
(a) carriers (b) reservoirs
Q 393. Which one of the following causes the (c) vectors (d) incubators
chikungunya disease? Answer- (c)
(a) Bacteria (b) Helminthic worm
(c) Protozoan (d) Virus Q 398. For which one among the following
Answer- (d) diseases no vaccine is yet available?
(a) Tetanus (b) Malaria
Q 394. Match the following Columns. (c) Measles (d) Mumps
Column I Column II Answer- (b)
(Vaccines) (Diseases)
Q 399. Match the following Columns.
A. BCG vaccine 1. Malaria Column I Column II
B. BPL vaccine 2. Sore throat (Agent of (Disease
C. Chloroquine 3. Tuberculosis transmission) transmitted)
D. Penicillin 4. Rabies
A. Anopheles 1. Kala-azar
Mosquito
B. Culex mosquito 2. Dengue Q 406. Which among the following is the
C. Aedes 3. Malaria first hormone produced by genetic
D. Sandfly 4. Filaria engineering?
(a) Insulin (b) Corticol
Codes (c) Thyroxine (d) Testosterone
ABCD ABCD Answer (a)
(a) 3 2 4 1 (b) 1 4 2 3
(c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 3 4 2 1 Q 407. The genetically engineered ‘Golden
Answer- (d) rice’ is rich in which of the following?
(a) Vitamin-A and nicotinic acid
Q 400. Which of the following diseases is (b) β-carotene and folic acid
caused due to allergic reaction? (c) β-carotene and iron
(a) Leprosy (b) Typhoid (d) Vitamin-A and niacin
(c) Asthma (d) Tetanus Answer (c)
Answer- (c)
Q 408. Consider the following statements
Q 401. Amnesia is related to 1. Dolly, the cloned sheep.
(a) sleeping sickness 2. George and Charlie, the cloned calves.
(b) loss of sight 3. Headless frog.
(c) loss of hearing Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
(d) loss of memory incorrect?
Answer- (d) (a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these
Q 402. Protein-calorie malnutrition causes Q 409. Match the following Columns.
(a) malaria (b) hepatitis Column I Column II
(c) typhoid (d) kwashiorkor
Answer- (d) A. Maize 1. Arjun
B. Paddy 2. Jaya
Q 403. Which of the following is not a C. Wheat 3. Ranjit
mosquito borne disease?
(a) Dengue fever Codes
(b) Malaria ABCABC
(c) Sleeping sickness (a) 1 2 3 (b) 2 3 1
(d) Filariasis (c) 3 2 1 (d) 3 1 2
Answer- (c) Answer (c)

Applied Biology Q 410. Which one of the following is

responsible for converting milk into curd?
Q 4O4. By using which one of the following
(a) Fungi (b) Bacteria
techniques, is DNA fingerprinting done?
(c) Virus (d) None of these
(a) ELISA (b) RIA
Answer (b)
(c) Northern blotting (d) Southern blotting
Answer (d)
Q 411. Which of the following is used in
the production of yoghurt?
Q 405. Which of the following techniques
(a) Streptococcus thermophilous
can be used to establish the paternity of a
(b) Lactobacillus bulgaris
child?
(c) Streptococcus lactis
(a) Protein analysis
(d) Both (a) and (b)
(b) Chromosome counting
Answer (d)
(c) Quantitative analysis of DNA
(d) DNA fingerprinting
Q 412. A milkman puts banana leaf in milk
Answer (d)
jar, because banana leaf
(a) gives a fresh flavour to milk Answer (c)
(b) makes the milk acidic and resistant to
yeast Q 417. Match the following Columns.
(c) makes the milk basic and resistant Column I Column II
to yeast (Microorganisms) (Uses)
(d) increases the whiteness of milk
Answer (c) A. Aeromonas 1. Cloning vector
hydrophila
Q 413. Match the following Columns.
Column I Column II B.Methanobacteri 2. Microbial fuel
a cells
A. Wine 1. Barley 3. Yogurt
B. Beer 2. Sugarcane C. Agrobacterium preparation
C. Whisky juice tumefaciens
D. Rum 3. Grapes 4. Biogas
4. Molasses D. Lactobacillus synthesis
bulgaricus
Codes
ABCDABCD
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 3 4 1 2 Codes
(c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 2 4 1 3 ABCDABCD
Answer (c) (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
Q 414. Which one of the following is not a Answer (a)
constituent of biogas?
(a) Methane (b) Carbon dioxide Q 418. Which among the following are the
(c) Hydrogen (d) Nitrogen dioxide major reasons behind preferring Eucalyptus
Answer (d) tree in the planned forestation process?
1. Plantation grows very fast.
Q 415. Which of the following gases is 2. Plantation makes the soil more fertile.
released from rice fields in the most 3. Wood from Eucalyptus tree is easily
prominent quantities? converted into pulp for paper industry.
(a) Carbon dioxide Select the correct answer using
(b) Methane the codes given below:
(c) Carbon monoxide (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(d) Sulphur dioxide (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Answer (b) Answer (a)

Q 416. Consider the following statements Q 419. The macronutrients provided by

about bioremediation. inorganic fertilisers are
1. It may be defined as any process that uses (a) carbon, iron and boron
microorganisms or their enzymes to return (b) magnesium, manganese and sulphur
the environment altered by contaminants to (c) magnesium, zinc and iron
its original condition. (d) Nitrogen phosphorus and potassium
2. Bioremediation may be employed in order Answer (d)
to attack specific contaminants, such as
chlorinated pesticides that are degraded by Q 420. Which one among the following
bacteria. groups of items contains only biodegradable
Which of the statement(s) given items?
above is/are correct? (a) Paper, grass, glass
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (b) Wood, flower, iron-scrap
(c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (c) Sewage, plastic, leather
(d) Cowdung, paddy-husk, vegetable wastes
Answer (d) Q 427. Methyl isocyanate gas, which was
involved in the disaster in Bhopal in
Q 421. The main constituent of gobar gas December, 1984, was used in the Union
or biogas is Carbide factory for production of
(a) ethane (b) methane (a) dyes (b) detergens
(c) propane (d) acetylene (c) explosives (d) pesticides
Answer (b) Answer (d)

Q 422. Which one of the following types of Q 428. The germplasm is required for the
pesticides is convenient to control stored propagation of plants and animals.
grain pests? Germplasm is the
(a) Systemic pesticides 1. genetic resources.
(b) Fumigants 2. seeds or tissues for breeding.
(c) Contact poisons 3. egg and sperm repository.
(d) Stomach poisons 4. a germ cell’s determining zone.
Answer (b) Select the correct answer using
the codes given below.
Q 423. Which one among the following cattle (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3
breed produces highest amount of milk? (c) 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
(a) Brown swiss (b) Holstein Answer (b)
(c) Dutch belted (d) Blaarkop
Answer (b) Q 429. If excess fertiliser is applied to a
plant without water, the plant will
Q 424. Who among the following is (a) be stunted in growth
considered as the ‘father of genetic (b) develop modifications
engineering’? (c) die due to plasmolysis
(a) Philip Drinker (d) remain unaffected
(b) Paul Berg Answer (c)
(c) Thomas Addison
(d) Alpheus S Packard Jr Q 430. The free-living aerobic soil
Answer (b) bacterium which fixes nitrogen
(a) Azotobacter (b) Nostoc
Q 425. Genetic screening is (c) Clostridium (d) Frankia
(a) analysis of DNA to check the presence of Answer (a)
a particular gene in a person
(b) analysis of gene in a population Q 431. Match the following Columns.
(c) pedigree analysis Column I Column II
(d) screening of infertility in parents
Answer (a) A. Sugarcane 1. Quinine
B. Cinchona 2. Molasses
Q 426. Genetically Modified (GM) crops C. Hevea 3. Iodine
contain modified genetic material due to the D. Se Answer () 4. Rubber
1. introduction of new DNA. a kelp
2. removal of existing DNA.
3. introduction of RNA. Codes
4. introduction of new traits. ABCDABCD
Select the correct answer using (a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1
the codes given below: (c) 1 2 3 4 (d) 2 3 4 1
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 Answer (a)
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
Answer (d)
Q 432. Consider the following (d) increases the soil acidity
microorganisms. Answer (c)
1. Azotobacter
2. Clostridium Q 438. Which one among the following
3. Bacillus polymyxa group of items contains only biodegradable
4. VAM (Vascular Arbuscular Mycorrhiza) items?
Which of the microorganism(s) given above (a) Wood, grass, plastic
is/are free-living nitrogen-fixing bacteria? (b) Wood, grass, leather
(a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (c) Fruit peels, lime juice, China clay cup
(c) Only 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (d) Lime juice, grass, polystyrene cup
Answer (b) Answer (b)

Q 433. Consider the following plants. Q 439. Endosulfan, which has been in
1. Lentil 2. Cow pea news these days, is a/an
3. Sunnhemp 4. Wheat (a) pesticide (b) fertiliser
Which of the plants given above (c) sulpha drug (d) antibiotic
is/are used as ‘Green manure in Answer (a)
India’?
(a) Only 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3 Q 440. Which one among the following
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these industries produces the most non-
Answer (b) biodegradable wastes?
(a) Thermal power plants
Q 434. What are the components of the (b) Food processing units
fungicide ‘Bordeaux mixture’? (c) Textile mills
(a) Magnesium sulphate and sodium (d) Paper mills
hydroxide Answer (a)
(b) Copper sulphate and magnesium
hydroxide Q 441. Which among the following
(c) Copper sulphate and calcium statements about biofertilisers are correct?
hydroxide 1. Azotobacter is one of the nitrogen-fixing
(d) Copper sulphate and sodium bacteria used as a biofertiliser.
hydroxide 2. They have to be applied to the leaves of
Answer (c) the plant only.
3. They alter the chemical composition of the
Q 435. In the rice field, which of the soil.
following is used as biofertiliser? 4. They can be used along with organic
(a) Rhizobium (b) Pseudomonas fertilisers. Select the correct answer using
(c) Nitrobacter (d) Azolla the codes given below.
Answer (d) (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
Q 436. From which plant listed below Answer (a)
maximum amount of ethanol for biofuel is
obtained? Q 442. Which one of the following is not
(a) Wood (b) Tapioca biodegradable?
(c) Maize (d) Sugarcane (a) Woollen mat (b) Silver foil
Answer (d) (c) Leather bag (d) Jute basket
Answer (b)
Q 437. Plants die when over fertilised,
because the fertiliser Q 443. Which one of the following plants
(a) damage the wall of delicate root hairs is used for green manuring in India?
(b) blocks absorption of nitrogenous ions (a) Wheat (b) Sunnhemp
(c) causes dehydration of plant by exosmosis (c) Cotton (d) Rice
Answer (b) Q 449. Which one among the following is the
‘chemical knives (scissors)’ used in genetic
Q 444. Which among the following are engineering?
the most important raw materials for (a) Polymerase (b) Ligases
manufacturing of soap? (c) Endonucleases (d) Plasmid
(a) Fats and caustic alkali Answer (c)
(b) Fats and potash
(c) Fats and acid Q 450. Match the following Columns.
(d) Vegetable oil and potash Column I Column II
Answer (a) (Techniques) (Compounds)

Q 445. Consider the following statements A. Northern 1. RNAs

about Vechur cattle breed. blotting
1. Vechur is the world’s smallest cow. B. Southern 2. Proteins
2. It is indigenous breed found in Kerala. blotting
3. Its milk protein has medicinal value. C. Western 3. Lipids
4. Commonly used in farming. blotting
Which of the statements given above are D. Far-Eastern 4. DNAs
correct? blotting
(a) 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these Codes
Answer (d) ABCDABCD
(a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
Q 446. Cattle are capable of digesting (c) 1 2 4 3 (d) 1 4 2 3
cellulose present in the grass and/or fodder Answer (d)
that they eat. This ability is attributed to the
(a) presence of cellulose degrading bacteria Q 451. Match the following Columns.
in the rumen Column I Column II
(b) production of cellulose by the cattle rumen (Scientists) (Discoveries)
(c) acids present in the rumen
(d) prolonged retention of cellulose in the A. Banting and 1. Hybridoma
rumen Best technology
Answer (a) B. Milstein 2. Isolation of
Kohler insulin
Q 447. ELISA test is prescribed for 3. In vitro
(a) cancer (b) typhoid C. Steward Miller fertilisation
(c) polio (d) AIDS 4. Coconut milk
Answer (d) D. PC Steptoe in
tissue culture
Q 448. Restriction enzymes are those
enzymes that can Codes
(a) cut RNA ABCDABCD
(b) cut single-stranded DNA (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 1 4 3
(c) cut double-stranded DNA (c) 4 2 1 3 (d) 4 1 2 3
(d) hydrolyse proteins Answer (b)
Answer (c)