A 1000MET401052301 Pages: 3

Reg No.:_______________ Name:__________________________

APJ ABDUL KALAM TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
Seventh Semester B.Tech Degree (S, FE) Examination May 2023 (2019 Scheme)

Course Code: MET401

Course Name: DESIGN OF MACHINE ELEMENTS
Max. Marks: 100 Duration: 3 Hours
PART A
Answer all questions, each carries 3 marks. Marks

1 What types of stresses are induced in shafts? (3)

2 What is the manufacturing method for connecting rod? (3)
3 Why are clutches usually designed on the basis of uniform wear? (3)
4 What is a differential band brake? (3)
5 State desirable properties of a good lubricant. (3)
6 Enumerate the advantages of needle roller bearings. (3)
7 What are the advantages of 20 degree full depth involute teeth gears? (3)
8 Compare the contact between mating teeth of parallel and crossed helical gears. (3)
9 What is the relationship between actual and virtual number of teeth and the pitch (3)
angle in bevel gears?
10 Why is the efficiency of worm gear drive low? (3)
PART B
Answer any one full question from each module, each carries 14 marks.
Module I
11 A shaft of a motor is supported at two points which are 900 mm apart. The motor (14)
develops 20 kW at 1500 rpm. The armature of the motor can be considered as a
uniformly distributed load of 15 N/mm, centrally spread over a length of 600 mm,
selecting a suitable material and choosing appropriate value for the factor of
safety, determining the diameter of the motor shaft.
OR
12 Select a suitable flat belt for a horizontal drive for a compressor. An electric motor (14)
of 6.5 kW having a speed of 1500 rpm is used to drive the compressor. The speed
of the compressor pulley is 500 rpm. Assume a service factor of 1.2, slip = 2.5 %,
and working stress of 2.3 MPa.

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 1000MET401052301

Module II
13 A single plate clutch having one pair of contacting surfaces to transmit 15 kW at (14)
1500 rpm. The coefficient of friction between contact face is 0.35 and the
permissible intensity of pressure should not exceed 0.6 N/𝑚𝑚2 . The outer
diameter of the clutch is 300 mm. Determine the clutch dimensions by assuming
uniform wear theory.
OR
14 A simple band brake is to be designed to stop the rotation of a shaft transmitting (14)
a power of 50 kW at a rated speed of 600 rpm. The diameter of the drum is 600
mm, angle of contact of the band on drum is 2250 and the total length of the lever
is 1000 mm. Distance between the fulcrum and the other end of the band is 300
mm. The drum rotates in the clockwise direction and free end of the lever at the
left side of the drum. Selecting suitable materials determine: (i) band dimensions,
(ii) brake lever dimensions, and (iii) diameter of fulcrum pin.
Module III
15 A lightly loaded 0.1 m long journal bearing is acted on by 0.6 𝑘𝑁 radial load. The (14)
0.07 m diameter journal is rotating at 1500 rpm. The viscosity of the oil is 3.5 𝑐𝑃
and radial clearance of 5 × 10−5 m. Determine the frictional power loss using
Petroff’s equation.
OR
16 Select suitable deep groove ball bearing for a shaft diameter of 50 mm. The shaft (14)
operates at 3000 rpm and is acted upon by steady and continuous 5000 N radial
load and 2000 N thrust load. The life expectancy of the bearing is 20000 hours.
Module IV
17 Design a pair of spur gear to transmit 20 kW power with velocity ratio of 4:1. The (14)
pinion is rotating at 1200 rpm. The centre distance between parallel shaft is 150
mm.The allowable static stress for pinion and gear materials are 206.3 MPa and
137.2 MPa respectively.
OR
18 Design a pair of equal diameter helical gears to transmit 35 kW at 1000 rpm. The (14)
parallel shafts are 0.5 m apart. Assume the helix angle is 300 , pressure angle is
200 stub. The gear is made of steel.

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 1000MET401052301

Module V
19 a) Under what circumstances the bevel gears are used? Give a detailed classification (4)
of bevel gears.
b) With a neat sketch explain the terminology of bevel gears. (10)
OR
20 Five kW of power at 1500 rpm is supplied to the worm shaft. The normal pressure (14)
angle is 200 degrees and coefficient of friction is 0.1. Determine the components
of gear tooth force acting on the worm and worm wheel. The worm and worm
gear is designated as 3/60/10/8.
****

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A 1000MET401122201 Pages: 4

Reg No.:_______________ Name:__________________________

APJ ABDUL KALAM TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
Seventh Semester B.Tech Degree Examination December 2022 (2019 scheme)

Course Code: MET401

Course Name: DESIGN OF MACHINE ELEMENTS
Max. Marks: 100 Duration: 3 Hours

PART A
Answer all questions, each carries 3 marks. Marks

1 What is the advantage of having I section in connecting rods? (3)

2 Explain strength-based design and rigidity-based design. (3)
3 Explain uniform wear theory and uniform pressure theory in friction clutches. (3)
4 What do you mean by self-locking and self-energizing in brakes? (3)
5 Distinguish between hydrostatic and hydrodynamic bearings. (3)
6 Define (i) bearing characteristic number (ii) Sommerfeld number. (3)
7 What is Lewi’s form factor? How does it vary with number of teeth on gear? (3)
8 Define virtual number of teeth in helical gears. (3)
9 How will you estimate the wear strength of bevel gear? (3)
10 List the demerits of worm gear drive over other gear drives. (3)
PART B
Answer any one full question from each module, each carries 14 marks.
Module I
11 The rotating solid steel shaft is simply supported by bearings at points B and C (14)
and is driven by a gear (not shown) which meshes with the spur gear at D, which
has a 150-mm pitch diameter. The force F from the drive gear acts at a pressure
angle of 20°. The shaft transmits a torque to point A of TA = 340 N · m. The shaft
is machined from steel with yield tensile strength, σy = 420 MPa and ultimate
tensile strength,σut = 560 MPa. Using a factor of safety of 2.5, determine the
minimum allowable diameter of the 250-mm section of the shaft based on
maximum normal stress.

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 1000MET401122201

OR
12 Design a belt drive to transmit 30 hp at 740 rpm to an aluminium rolling machine, (14)
the speed ratio being 3. The distance between the pulleys is 3 m. Diameter of the
rolling machine pulley is 1.2 m.

Module II

13 a) The brake shown in the figure (with dimensions in mm) has a coefficient of (8)
friction of 0.30 with an angle of contact of 270˚ and is to operate using a maximum
force F of 400 N. If the band width is 50 mm, find the band tensions and the
braking torque.

b) The block-type hand brake shown in the figure (with dimensions in cm) has a face (6)
width of 12.5 mm and a mean coefficient of friction of 0.25. For an estimated
actuating force of 900 N, find the maximum pressure on the shoe and find the
braking torque

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 1000MET401122201

OR
14 a) A hydraulically operated multi disk plate clutch has an effective disk outer (8)
diameter of 6.5 cm and an inner diameter of 4 cm. The coefficient of friction is
0.24, and the limiting pressure is 0.3N/mm2. There are six planes of sliding
present. Using the uniform wear model, estimate the axial force F and the torque
T.

b) Derive an expression for the axial force and torque in the case of a cone clutch (6)
assuming uniform wear theory.

Module III
15 Select a suitable deep groove ball bearing for supporting a radial load 20 kN and (14)
axial load of 6 kN for a life of 4000 hours at 1000 rpm. Select from series 63.
Calculate expected life of the selected bearing.

OR
16 Design a suitable journal bearing for a centrifugal pump using the following data: (14)
Load on the bearing = 8 kN, diameter of the journal = 80 mm, speed = 1440 rpm,
at the working temperature 75˚C. Calculate cooling requirements, if any.

Module IV
17 Design a pair of spur gear to transmit 10 kW at a pinion speed of 2000 rpm. The (14)
driven gear is to run at 500 rpm. Selecting suitable materials, decide upon the
dimensions of the gear pair.

OR

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 1000MET401122201

18 Design a pair of helical gears to transmit 10 kW at 1000 rpm of the pinion. A (14)
speed reduction ratio of 5 is required. Give the details in a table and show the
nomenclature in a neat sketch.

Module V
19 A pair of bevel gears is required to transmit 30 kW at 500 rpm. The output shaft (14)
is running at 200 rpm and is at right angles to the input shaft. The gear is of cast
iron and the pinion of cast steel. Design the gears.

OR
20 Determine the dimensions of a pair of worm and worm wheel for transmitting 2 (14)
kW at a worm speed of 1200 rpm. The desired ratio is about 12. Choosing proper
materials decide all the dimensions.

****

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D 1000MCN401122201 Pages: 2

Reg No.:_______________ Name:__________________________

APJ ABDUL KALAM TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
Seventh Semester B.Tech Degree (S, FE) Examination May 2023 (2019 Scheme)

Course Code: MCN401

Course Name: INDUSTRIAL SAFETY ENGINEERING
Max. Marks: 100 Duration: 3 Hours

PART A
Answer all questions, each carries 3 marks. Marks
1 Write the importance of safety in organisations (3)
2 How can you describe safety policy (3)
3 How do you monitor the safety performance in industries (3)
4 Write the significance of work permit system (3)
5 How can workers' safety be ensured during underpinning work? (3)
6 List the various hazards of underwater works (3)
7 What are the various objectives of Maintenance (3)
8 List the safety precautions to be followed during grinding operation (3)
9 What do you meant by Hazard and Risk (3)
10 What is meant by MSDS (3)
PART B
Answer any one full question from each module, each carries 14 marks.
Module I
11 a) What are the causes of industrial accidents (7)
b) Explain the various theories of accident causation (7)
OR
12 With the help of a neat sketch explain safety organization structure. Also write (14)
the importance of safety organization structure.
Module II
13 Classify personal protective equipment used in industries. List the suitability of (14)
at least seven types of PPEs.
OR
14 a) Explain the role of management & employees in housekeeping? (7)

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 1000MCN401122201

b) What procedures should be taken during confined space access to protect a (7)
worker's life?
Module III
15 a) Identify various hazards that may arise during the various stages of building (7)
construction.
b) Mention the safety precautions that will be implemented to avoid scaffolding- (7)
related incidents.
OR
16 Discuss the important types of ergonomic hazards associated with industries. (14)
How can we reduce its impact?
Module IV
17 Explain the safety precautions to be followed while doing various material (14)
handling assessments and techniques in industries
OR
18 a) Briefly explain the maintenance of chains slings (7)
b) Briefly explain the maintenance of clamps (7)
Module V
19 a) What is meant by HAZOP? How do you conduct a HAZOP analysis? (7)
b) Briefly explain Criticality Analysis (7)
OR
20 How do you classify fires and explain various types of fire extinguishers used in (14)
industries?
****

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D 1000MCN401122205 Pages: 2

Reg No.:_______________ Name:__________________________

APJ ABDUL KALAM TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
Seventh Semester B.Tech Degree Examination December 2022 (2019 scheme)

Course Code: MCN401

Course Name: INDUSTRIAL SAFETY ENGINEERING
Max. Marks: 100 Duration: 3 Hours
PART A
Answer all questions, each carries 3 marks. Marks
1 Explain any three unsafe acts which are responsible for accidents in industries. (3)
2 List any important six responsibilities of worker/workmen towards the safety (3)
measures in an organization.
3 What is respiratory protective equipment (RPE)? Explain the features of any (3)
one type of RPE.
4 How does frequency rate and incidence rate support safety analysis? (3)
5 List any important six safety practices used with ladders in construction sites. (3)
6 Explain any important four safety practices in excavation works. (3)
7 Mention any four potential hazards associated with wire rope used for material (3)
handling.
8 Discuss the key elements of a hearing conservation program. (3)
9 Explain the hierarchy of control of chemical hazards. (3)
10 Why material safety data sheet is mandatory for chemical products? (3)
PART B
Answer any one full question from each module, each carries 14 marks.
Module I
11 a) With suitable schematics, describe the different types of safety organization. (6)
b) Explain the responsibilities of safety officer in the implementation of safety in (8)
industries.
OR
12 List the various accident causation theories and explain any two in detail with (14)
relevant schematics.
Module II
13 a) Explain the benefits of good housekeeping? Also, explain the five ‘S’ (5 S) (9)
concept in housekeeping.
b) With suitable sketches explain the important functions of any two PPE used for (5)
eye protection.

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 1000MCN401122205

OR
14 a) What are the major objectives of a work permit system in a hazardous work (5)
site?
b) Discuss any five potential hazards associated with hot works. Hence, mention (9)
any eight safety measures referred to hot work permits.
Module III
15 a) You are appointed as a safety manager for a demolition work of a 10-storey (8)
building in a congested residential area. What are the safety measures that you
need to ensure for the completion of the work?
b) Discuss the major ergonomic hazards associated with construction industries. (6)
OR
16 a) What are the safety precautions to be taken before entering a confined space? (9)
b) Discuss some important aspects of construction safety provisions in National (5)
Building Code.
Module IV
17 a) With suitable sketches explain the operation of any two types of safety guards (8)
suitable for industrial applications.
b) Explain the potential hazards associated with grinding operations. (6)
OR
18 a) Discuss the safety issues associated with gas welding operations. (8)
b) Discuss about the handling capacity assessment for lifting process associated (6)
with manual material handling.
Module V
19 a) Explain the need for a Preliminary Hazard Analysis in a hazardous industry. (6)
b) Explain the important features and functions of any four different types of fire (8)
extinguishers.
OR
20 a) What is the significance of Hazard and Operability Analysis? How do you (8)
conduct a HAZOP analysis?
b) Discuss about different types of chemical hazards with suitable examples. (6)
****

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B 1000MET463122201 Pages: 4

Reg No.:_______________ Name:__________________________

APJ ABDUL KALAM TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
Seventh Semester B.Tech Degree Examination December 2022 (2019 scheme)

Course Code: MET463

Course Name: OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT
Max. Marks: 100 Duration: 3 Hours

PART A
Answer all questions, each carries 3 marks. Marks

1 Define business process reengineering (BPR). (3)

2 What are the factors affecting plant location? (3)
3 Distinguish between design capacity and system capacity. (3)
4 Give an example of a fixed-position layout for producing a product and providing (3)
a service.
5 Describe the Delphi method for forecasting. (3)
6 How does adjusted exponential smoothing differ from exponential smoothing? (3)
7 What is master production schedule? (3)
8 Discuss about MRP II. (3)
9 What are the objectives of scheduling? (3)
10 Distinguish between single machine scheduling and flow shop scheduling. (3)
PART B
Answer any one full question from each module, each carries 14 marks.
Module I
11 Describe the four basic types of production systems with suitable examples. Show (14)
them in product process matrix. What are the advantages and disadvantages of
each? When should each be used?
OR
12 There are five existing facilities which are to be served by a single new facility. (14)
The details of the existing facilities are shown in the following table.
Existing facility (i) 1 2 3 4 5
Coordinates (ai, bi) 5, 10 20, 5 15, 20 30, 25 25, 5
No. of trips of loads/year (wi) 100 300 200 300 100

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 1000MET463122201

i) Find the optimum location of the new facility based on centre of

gravity method.
ii) Plot existing facilities and the location of a new facility on a grid map.
Module II
13 A company is setting up an assembly line to produce 192 units per 8-hour shift. (14)
The following table identifies the work elements, times, and immediate
predecessors:
Work Time (Sec) Immediate
Element Predecessors
A 40 None
B 80 A
C 30 D, E, F
D 25 B
E 20 B
F 15 B
G 120 A
H 145 G
I 130 H
J 115 C, I
Group the activities in to work stations using rank positional weight method and
compute the balancing efficiency.
OR
14 a) Explain the steps involved in systematic layout planning (SLP) with the help of a (10)
block diagram.
b) State the basic differences between construction type and improvement type (4)
layout algorithms.
Module III
15 A manufacturing company has monthly demand for one of its products as follows: (14)
Month Feb. March April May June July Aug. Sept.
Demand 520 490 550 580 600 420 510 610
Develop a three-period moving average forecast and a three-period weighted
moving average forecast with weights of 0.50, 0.30, and 0.20 for the most recent

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 1000MET463122201

demand values, in that order. Calculate MAD for each forecast, and indicate which
would seem to be most accurate.
OR
16 a) What are the types of demand pattern? Explain them with suitable sketches. (8)
b) Give and explain the three measures of goodness of a forecast. (6)
Module IV
17 a) What do you mean by aggregate planning? List and explain various pure strategies (10)
and mixed strategies?
b) What are the different methods to determine effective lot size in MRP? (4)
OR
18 A firm producing hand trolley has following master production schedule (MPS) (14)
Week 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Demand 200 NIL NIL 240 NIL 240 NIL 220
Each hand trolley has a bin, two-wheel assemblies, two handle bars and a
mounting base. Each wheel assembly has a wheel and two bearings. Order
quantities, lead times and inventories on hand at the beginning of period 1 are
shown below.
Part Order Lead Time Inventory on
Quantity Hand
(Week)

Hand trolley 350 1 220

Bin 400 2 250
Wheel 800 2 120
assemblies
Handle bars 850 2 105
Mountingbase 250 1 250

Wheel 600 2 300

Bearing 1500 2 200

A shipment of 800-wheel assemblies is already scheduled to be received at

beginning of week 2. Also, another shipment of 250 mounting base is scheduled
to be received at beginning of week 3. Complete material requirement plan for
Hand trolley, Bin, Wheel assemblies and Handle bars.

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 1000MET463122201

Module V
19 Consider the following problem in single machine scheduling with independent (14)
jobs.
Job-j 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Processing time (tj) 5 12 8 10 3 15 8 6
Due date (dj) 10 16 11 16 6 25 12 14
Weight (wj) 2 1 1 2 3 4 2 3
(i) Find the optimal sequence which will minimize the mean flow time
and also obtain the mean flow time.
(ii) Determine the sequence which will minimize weighted mean flow
time. Also find the weighted mean flow time.
OR
20 Find the optimal sequence that minimizes the total time required in performing (14)
the following jobs on three machines in order A, B, C. Find makespan, idle times
on machine B & machine C, and draw Gantt chart. Processing times (in hours) are
given in the following table.
Job 1 2 3 4 5
Machine A 8 10 6 7 11
Machine B 5 6 2 3 4
Machine C 4 9 8 6 5
****

Page 4of 4
B 1000MET463122203 Pages: 3

Reg No.:_______________ Name:__________________________

APJ ABDUL KALAM TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
Seventh Semester B.Tech Degree (S, FE) Examination May 2023 (2019 Scheme)

Course Code: MET463

Course Name:OPERATIONS MANAGEMENT
Max. Marks: 100 Duration: 3 Hours

PART A
Answer all questions, each carries 3 marks. Marks

1 Define operations management. (3)

2 What is make or buy decisions? (3)
3 Distinguish between design capacity and system capacity. (3)
4 State the basic differences between construction type and improvement type (3)
layout algorithms
5 Explain different types of demand patterns (3)
6 What are the different uses of forecasting? (3)
7 What do you meant by aggregate planning? (3)
8 Explain bill of materials structure . Give an example. (3)
9 Differentiate between single machine scheduling and flow shop scheduling (3)
10 Write steps of McNaughton’s algorithm (3)
PART B
Answer any one full question from each module, each carries 14 marks.
Module I
11 a) There are five existing facilities which are to be served by a single new facility. (7)
The details of existing facilities are shown in the table

Existing 1 2 3 4 5
Facility
Coordinates 5, 10 20, 5 15, 20 30, 25 25, 5
No of trips of 100 300 200 300 100
loads/year

Find optimum location of the new facility based on gravity location concept

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 1000MET463122203

b) Explain different types of production system. Write the advantages and (7)
disadvantages of each production system.
OR
12 a) Write in detail any seven factors influencing plant location. (7)
b) Explain the system concept of production with suitable diagram. (7)
Module II
13 a) Explain Systematic Layout Planning with suitable diagram. (7)
b) Write different steps of CRAFT Algorithm. (7)
OR
14 a) Write different steps of ALDEP Algorithm. (7)
b) Write different steps of CORELAP Algorithm. (7)
Module III
15 a) A Firm uses simple exponential smoothing with smoothing constant = 0.3 to (14)
forecast demand. The forecast for first week of January was 500 units, where
actual demand turned out to be 450 units,
i) Forecast demand for second week of January.
ii) Assume the actual demand during second week of January turned out to be
550 units, forecast the demand up to February third week assuming subsequent
demands as 475, 450, 470, 525, 470 units.
OR
16 a) Given below is a series of weekly demand data that a company collected on one (10)
of its product and forecast for corresponding weeks, made by a forecast method
which company is testing. Compute mean absolute deviation and mean squared
error based on six weeks of data
Week 1 2 3 4 5 6
Demand 142 181 144 174 192 176
Forecast 155 157 159 161 163 165

b) Explain the measures of forecast accuracy. (4)

Module IV
17 a) List and explain various pure and mixed strategies. (7)
b) Explain different methods available for lot sizing in Material Requirement (7)
Planning (MRP)

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 1000MET463122203

OR

18 a) Explain Master Production Schedule( MPS) with flowchart showing relationship (10)
of MPS with other manufacturing and control activities.
b) What do you meant by Aggregate planning? (4)
Module V
19 a) Explain different measures of performance in a single machine scheduling (4)
problem with independent jobs.
b) Consider following problem in single machine scheduling with independent jobs (10)
Job 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
Processing 5 12 8 10 3 15 8 6
time
Due Date 10 16 11 16 6 25 12 14
Weight 2 1 1 2 3 4 2 3

Obtain optimal schedule for each of following performance measures:

i)To Minimize mean flow time
ii) To Minimize maximum lateness
iii) To Minimize weighted mean flow time.
OR
20 a) Find the sequence that minimizes the total time required in performing the (10)
following jobs on three machines in order ABC. Check whether Johnson’s rule
can be extended to this problem. Also find makespan and draw Gantt chart .
Processing times (in hours) are given in the following table

Job 1 2 3 4 5

Machine A 11 13 15 12 20

Machine B 10 8 6 7 9

Machine C 12 20 15 19 7

b) Explain Palmer Heuristic. (4)

****

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B 1000MET443122201 Pages: 2

Reg No.:_______________ Name:__________________________

APJ ABDUL KALAM TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
Seventh Semester B.Tech Degree Examination December 2022 (2019 scheme)

Course Code: MET443

Course Name: AEROSPACE ENGINEERING
Max. Marks: 100 Duration: 3 Hours
PART A
Answer all questions, each carries 3 marks. Marks

1 Why the temperature of atmosphere changes with altitude? (3)

2 What do you mean by pressure and density altitudes? (3)
3 Explain Circulation theory of lift. (3)
4 The pressure at a point on the wing of an airplane is 8.28×104N/m2. The airplane (3)
is flying with a velocity of 70m/s at sea level. Calculate the pressure coefficient at
this point on the wing?
5 What is induced drag? Explain. (3)
6 Why is it more convenient to speak of the lift coefficient and drag coefficient (3)
rather than the lift and drag of an airfoil?
7 How aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces are done in aircrafts? (3)
8 Define orbital velocity. Derive the expression. (3)
9 Is Ram Jet engine self-starting? Explain, (3)
10 How an airspeed indicator measure the speed of an airplane? (3)
PART B
Answer any one full question from each module, each carries 14 marks.
Module I
11 a) Calculate the pressure density and temperature of standard atmosphere at an (8)
altitude of 14 km?
b) Draw the pressure distribution over the top surface for attached and separated flow (6)
over an airfoil. Discuss the various factors applicable to flow separation.
OR
12 a) Obtain the expression for lift, using dimensional analysis. (9)
b) Explain circulation theory of lift and obtain the Kutta-Joukowski equation for lift. (5)
Module II
13 a) How a finite wing can be replaced by horse shoe vortex system? (7)
b) Using Prandtl lifting line theory show that the induced angle of attack is constant (7)
along the span for an elliptical lift distribution?

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 1000MET443122201

OR
14 a) Distinguish between skin friction frag, form drag and wave drag? How to reduce (5)
the effect of wave drag in airplane wing?
b) Find the total drag of an airplane flying level at a speed of 320km/hr for which the (9)
total drag coefficient is given by CD=0.0293+0.0398CL2. Wing area is 12.5m2 and
weight of the airplane is 20KN. Take span efficiency factor as 0.8
Module III
15 a) Derive the condition for minimum power requirement in steady and level flight of (7)
an aircraft?
b) An airplane has a wing loading of 3500N/m2 and its drag equation is (7)
𝐿
CD=0.016+0.055CL2. Calculate the maximum (𝐷) ratio , minimum Thrust
requirement at a speed of 200m/s.
OR
16 a) Derive an expression for take-off ground roll distance required. (10)
b) What is service ceiling? Explain. (4)
Module IV
17 a) A high speed subsonic DC-10 airline is flying at a pressure altitude of 10km. A (7)
pitot tube on the wing tip measured a pressure of 4.24×104N/m2 . Calculate the
Mach number at which the airplane is flying . If the ambient temperature is 230K
calculate the true airspeed and calibrated airspeed ?
b) Explain the working principle of i) Rate of climb meter ii) Turn and back (7)
indicator
OR
18 a) What are the different methods to balance the control surfaces of an airplane? (7)
b) Explain different static and dynamic stability conditions. (7)
Module V
19 a) Draw a neat sketch of turbo jet engine, indicate the various components and (10)
explain the working.
b) Why the variable area nozzle geometry is introduced in turbo jet engine. (4)
OR
20 a) Draw a schematic diagram of a closed circuit supersonic wind tunnel? Why the (7)
diffuser throat of a supersonic tunnel is made larger compared to nozzle throat?
b) The operation of a scram jet engine is very short duration. Discuss the main (7)
problems associated with designing a scramjet engine for high speed applications?
****

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B 1000MET443122203 Pages: 2

Reg No.:_______________ Name:__________________________

APJ ABDUL KALAM TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
Seventh Semester B.Tech Degree (S, FE) Examination May 2023 (2019 Scheme)

Course Code: MET443

Course Name: AEROSPACE ENGINEERING
Max. Marks: 100 Duration: 3 Hours
PART A
Answer all questions, each carries 3 marks. Marks

1 Explain the variation of temperature in different regions of atmosphere (3)

2 Calculate the pressure and density altitudes at which the airplane is flying an (3)
airplane flying at an altitude where the pressure and temperature are 33.5 kPa and
255.5 K, respectively.
3 Discuss the term aerodynamic centre. (3)
4 Explain why the concept of circulation theory of lift. (3)
5 Explain the term power-off glide (3)
6 Discuss the terms Range and Endurance of an aircraft. (3)
7 Explain how true air speed is calculated. (3)
8 Explain turn and back indicator with sketches. (3)
9 Discuss on (i) open type wind tunnels (ii) closed type wind tunnels. (3)
10 Explain the uses of wind tunnel. (3)
PART B
Answer any one full question from each module, each carries 14 marks.
Module I
11 a) Derive the expressions for pressure and density in isothermal region of (8)
atmosphere
b) Describe the air-foil nomenclature with a neat sketch. (6)
OR
12 a) Calculate the temperature, pressure and density at 9km in standard atmosphere. (8)
b) Draw and explain the pressure distribution around a 2D airfoil. (6)
Module II
13 a) Discuss the Prandtl’s lifting-line theory and explain its significance. (8)
b) Describe Skin friction and Skin friction drag. (6)
OR

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 1000MET443122203

14 a) Derive the expression for induced drag. (6)

b) Calculate the total drag on an airplane of wing plan area 30 m2, span 15m, wight (8)
300kN, Oswald efficiency factor 0.78 and profile drag coefficient 0.0072 when
flying at 300km/h at 10km altitude.
Module III
15 a) Derive an expression for thrust required for a level unaccelerated flight. (6)
b) Calculate the maximum rate of climb of an aircraft of mass 320ton, flying at (8)
200m/s at 6km altitude. The coefficient of parasite drag is 0.002. The Oswald
efficiency factor for the flight is 0.85, span 79.8m, wing area 840m2, the flight is
powered by four turbojet engines, each producing 300kN thrust at this altitude
OR
16 a) Derive the expression for ground run distance for take-off. (10)
b) Draw the variation of power required and power available with velocity for jet (4)
aircrafts and propeller type air crafts.
Module IV
17 a) Explain how aerodynamic balancing of control surfaces done in aircraft. (6)
b) Discuss the functions and working of airspeed indicator with sketches. (8)
OR
18 a) Explain the functions of flight instruments (a) airspeed indicator (b) altimeter (6)
(c) vertical speed indicator
b) Explain how different control surfaces are used for the control of an aircraft (8)
Module V
19 a) Discuss how different parameters are measured using wind tunnel. (6)
b) Derive an expression for escape velocity stating what it is. Calculate the (8)
approximate value of escape velocity for the earth.
OR
20 a) Explain subsonic wind tunnel with the help of a sketch. (6)
b) With the help of neat sketches explain the working of turbo fan engines and (8)
compare them with turbo jet engines
****

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B 1000MET413122202 Pages: 2

Reg No.:_______________ Name:__________________________

APJ ABDUL KALAM TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
Seventh Semester B.Tech Degree (S, FE) Examination May 2023 (2019 Scheme)

Course Code: MET413

Course Name: ADVANCED METHODS IN NONDESTRUCTIVE TESTING
Max. Marks: 100 Duration: 3 Hours

PART A
Answer all questions, each carries 3 marks. Marks

1 Explain the principle of magnetic particle inspection? (3)

2 What are the properties required for a good penetrant? (3)
3 Explain Snell’s Law? (3)
4 Explain piezoelectric effect? Give any two examples of piezoelectric material? (3)
5 What are the radiation sources used in RT? (3)
6 Name the special units used for radiation quantities? (3)
7 State the theory of TOFD? (3)
8 List any three phased array probes? (3)
9 What do you understand by “digitisation of X ray films”? (3)
10 Explain the concept of leak testing? (3)
PART B
Answer any one full question from each module, each carries 14 marks.
Module I
11 a) What is penetrant? Explain different types of penetrants? (7)
b) With neat sketch, explain any two magnetisation techniques used in magnetic (7)
particle inspection?
OR
12 a) Explain various methods of liquid penetrant inspection? (7)
b) With neat sketch explain the working principle of eddy current testing? (7)
Module II
13 a) Explain the Ultrasonic testing techniques with neat sketches? (7)
b) Explain the types of Transducers used in Ultrasound testing? (7)
OR
14 a) Explain the working principle of EMAT with neat sketch? (7)

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 1000MET413122202

b) Explain the working principle of ultrasonic guided waves? List any two (7)
advantages of ultrasonic guided wave method?
Module III
15 a) Explain radio graphic inspection techniques? (8)
b) What is sensitometry? Discuss the importance of characteristic curves? (6)
OR
16 a) Explain the working principle and application of flash radiography? (7)
b) Explain the working principle and application of Fluoroscopy? (7)
Module IV
17 a) Explain the working principle of Phased array technique? (6)
b) Explain the calibration procedure in TOFD? (8)
OR
18 a) Explain the principle and application of structural health monitoring? (6)
b) How do we interpret defects in TOFD technique. Explain? (8)
Module V
19 a) Explain any four types of leak testing? (8)
b) Compare film, CR and DR methods? (6)
OR
20 a) Name the classification of thermographic testing? Explain any two methods of (8)
thermographic testing?
b) Explain the working principle of Acoustic emission inspection? (6)
****

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B 1000MET413122201 Pages: 2

Reg No.:_______________ Name:__________________________

APJ ABDUL KALAM TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
Seventh Semester B.Tech Degree Examination December 2022 (2019 scheme)

Course Code: MET413

Course Name: ADVANCED METHODS IN NONDESTRUCTIVE TESTING
Max. Marks: 100 Duration: 3 Hours

PART A
Answer all questions, each carries 3 marks. Marks

1 Explain about different types of visual inspection (3)

2 List the advantages and disadvantages of magnetic particle inspection technique (3)
3 Explain about ultrasonic guided waves (3)
4 What is Snell’s law of critical angle? (3)
5 What are the different types of screens used in radiography inspection (3)
6 Explain about different types of radiation detectors used during radiography (3)
inspection
7 Explain the significance of wedges used during phased array inspection (3)
8 Write short notes about beam steering of ultrasound waves (3)
9 Explain the significance of heat sensitive paints during NDT (3)
10 Write short notes about the significance of thermo mechanical behaviour of (3)
materials during thermo graphic evaluation
PART B
Answer any one full question from each module, each carries 14 marks.
Module I
11 a) With neat sketches explain the working of liquid penetration inspection technique (8)
b) With the help of simple figure, explain the standard depth of penetration during (6)
eddy current testing
OR
12 a) With neat figures, explain any two types of magnetisation techniques used during (8)
magnetic particle inspection
b) Explain the process of coating thickness measurement by employing eddy current (6)
testing technique

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 1000MET413122201

Module II
13 a) With neat sketches, explain the different types of ultra-sonic testing techniques (8)
b) Explain the working of laser shearography (6)
OR
14 a) Differentiate between Fresnel and Fraunhofer effects (8)
b) With the help of a neat diagram, detail about the generation of ultrasonic waves (6)
Module III
15 a) Explain about different types of inspection techniques employed during (8)
radiography testing
b) What are the parameters based on which the radiography image quality is defined (6)
OR
16 a) What is real time radiography? List the merits of the process (8)
b) With neat sketches, differentiate between neutron radiography and motion (6)
radiography
Module IV
17 a) Explain the working of phased array inspection technique (8)
b) Explain the theory and significance of time-of-flight diffraction (6)
OR
18 a) Explain the synthetic aperture focusing technique (8)
b) What is the significance of probe angle during phased array inspection (6)
Module V
19 a) With diagram, explain acoustic emission testing technique (8)
b) Explain any two types of leak testing technique (6)
OR
20 a) Explain the different types of thermo graphic NDT techniques (8)
b) Differentiate between digital radiography and computed tomography (6)
****

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C 1000EET435122202 Pages: 2

Reg No.:_______________ Name:__________________________

APJ ABDUL KALAM TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
Seventh Semester B.Tech Degree Examination December 2022 (2019 scheme)

Course Code: EET435

Course Name: RENEWABLE ENERGY SYSTEMS
Max. Marks: 100 Duration: 3 Hours
PART A
Answer all questions, each carries 3 marks. Marks
1 Explain about the role of non-conventional energy sources on the basis of current (3)
energy demands of the world.
2 Explain the principle of solar energy conversion into heat energy. (3)
3 List out any four environmental impacts of OTEC systems (3)
4 What are the different components of the tidal power plant? Explain. (3)
5 Three-bladed wind rotor with blade length of 52 m is operating in a wind (3)
stream having wind velocity of 13 m/s. Air density is 1.23 kg/m3 and power
coefficient may be taken as 0.3. Calculate the extractable power from the wind.
6 Discuss the advantages and disadvantages of horizontal and vertical axis wind (3)
mills.
7 Define biomass gasification. List different types of biomass gasifiers. (3)
8 What are the factors affecting the biogas generation? (3)
9 What are the risks for the hydrogen energy storage? (3)
10 What are fuel cells? List out the applications of fuel cells. (3)
PART B
Answer any one full question from each module, each carries 14 marks.
Module I
11 a) What are solar collectors? Give their classification and compare them based on (10)
construction and area of applications.
b) Write about any three types of solar cells based on construction materials (4)
OR
12 a) Explain about stand alone and grid connected solar photo voltaic systems (10)
b) Explain the voltage- current characteristics of a solar cell with neat sketch (4)
Module II
13 a) Discuss the basic principle of OTEC. Describe a closed cycle OTEC with its (10)
advantages and disadvantages.
b) What is biofouling? How it affects efficiency of energy conversion and how (4)
can it be minimised?

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 1000EET435122202

OR
14 a) What are the different classifications of tidal power plants. Explain the (10)
components and detailed working operation of double basin tidal power plant
with neat sketch.
b) What are the limitations of the tidal power production? (4)
Module III
15 a) What is mean by betz limit? Derive the expression for the power extracted by a (8)
wind turbine.
b) What are the different types of generators used with wind turbines? (6)
OR
16 a) Describe the construction of a three-bladed horizontal shaft wind turbine (8)
generator unit. Explain the terms yaw control and pitch control.
b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of a vertical axis wind turbine (6)
system?
Module IV
17 a) Describe the construction and working of a biogas plant, its material aspects, (10)
and utilization of plant products with a neat diagram
b) Explain the advantages and uses of biogas. (4)
OR
18 a) What are the different types of biogas plants? Explain the construction, working (10)
of a fixed dome type biogas plant and floating dome type biogas plant
b) What are the factors affecting the selection of a particular model of a biogas (4)
plant?
Module V
19 a) Explain about the components of a small hydro electric power generation (8)
scheme with the help of a neat diagram.
b) Explain about any two methods of hydrogen production. (6)
OR
20 a) Explain the working of a H2O2 fuel cell and also write the advantages and (8)
disadvantages of a fuel cell
b) What are the advantages and applications of hydrogen energy? (6)
****

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C 1000EET435122201 Pages: 3

Reg No.:_______________ Name:__________________________

APJ ABDUL KALAM TECHNOLOGICAL UNIVERSITY
Seventh Semester B.Tech Degree (S, FE) Examination May 2023 (2019 Scheme)

Course Code: EET435

Course Name: RENEWABLE ENERGY SYSTEMS
Max. Marks: 100 Duration: 3 Hours
PART A
Answer all questions, each one carries 3 marks. Marks

1 List any three advantages and disadvantages of solar PV systems. (3)

2 Compare concentrating and non-concentrating collectors. (3)
3 What are the important criteria for selecting a site for the installation of an OTEC (3)
system?
4 Explain the principle of tidal energy conversion. (3)
5 Derive the equation for estimating the power in wind available at a site. (3)
6 What is meant by pitch control in a wind turbine? What is its importance? (3)
7 Draw the block diagram representation of biomass to the ethanol conversion. (3)
8 Explain the different stages in the biomass gasification process. (3)
9 Discuss the different methods used for the storage of hydrogen. (3)
10 How does the polarisation effect in a fuel cell affect the conversion efficiency? (3)
PART B
Answer any one full question from each module, each one carries 14 marks.
Module I
11 a) Describe the classification of energy sources with suitable examples. (6)
b) With a neat sketch, explain how the solar energy is harvested using a central tower (8)
collector. List any two advantages.
OR
12 a) What are the important parameters to be considered while selecting a solar panel (7)
for its good performance? How is its performance affected by the variation in
insolation?

b) Explain the working of a stand-alone PV system with a suitable block diagram. (7)

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 1000EET435122201

Module II
13 a) Explain the principle of an OTEC system. List any 2 advantages and limitations. (6)
What are its environmental impacts (any 4 points)?

b) With the help of block diagrams, differentiate the working of an open cycle and (8)
a closed cycle OTEC system.

OR
14 a) Elaborate on how the tidal phenomena occur with suitable sketches. List 2 (7)
advantages and disadvantages of tidal energy conversion systems.

b) Draw and label the layout of a double basin-type tidal power plant and explain the (7)
working.

Module III
15 a) Define the capacity factor of a wind energy system. What is the capacity factor of (5)
a WES delivering average energy of 10000GWh for the last 10 years if its rated
power capacity is 300MW?
b) Prove that the maximum wind turbine output is extracted when the downwind (10)
velocity is one-third of the upwind velocity.
OR
16 a) With the help of a neat sketch, explain the important parts of a horizontal axis (10)
wind energy system. What are the aerodynamic forces acting on the blades of
the turbine?
b) Determine the power in the wind if the wind speed is 8 m/s and the blade length (5)
is 50 m. Air density is 1.23 kg/m3. What is the maximum theoretical value of the
power that can be extracted from the wind using a turbine? If the power coefficient
of a turbine is 0.30 at a wind velocity of 20m/s, what is the power output of the
turbine?
Module IV
17 a) Urban areas are having the issue of managing waste on a day-to-day basis. Propose (7)
a scheme to convert this waste to electrical energy.
b) What are the factors that affect biogas production? (7)
OR
18 a) Explain the construction and working of a biomass gasifier. (7)

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 1000EET435122201

b) Compare the constructional features of the KVIC and Janata models of biogas (7)
plants with suitable sketches.
Module V
19 a) Draw and label the layout of a micro-hydro project and explain its working. (7)
b) How is hydrogen produced using the electrolytic method? Explain with a suitable (7)
diagram.
OR
20 a) Describe the construction and working of an alkaline fuel cell. List two (7)
applications.
b) Which are the different turbines used in small hydro projects and their selection (7)
criteria?
****

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