Destruction of the natural apical constriction. d.

All
of the above.

99. In which of the following is one-visit root canal treatment not recommended?
a. The pulp is necrotic and not symptomatic b.
The pulp is necrotic and symptomatic. c.
The pulp is necrotic and there is a draining sinus tract. d.
The pulp is vital and symptomatic. e.
None of the above.

100. The most important route of bacteria into the dental pulp is from: a.
General circulation via anachoresis. b.
Exposure to the oral cavity via caries. c.The
gingival sulcus. d.
None of these.

PROSTHODONTICS 1, 2, 3 ; DENTAL MATERIALS

1. Which is the most common reason for the failure of a casting to seat?
A. deficient margins B. overextended margins
C. proximal contacts D. buccal overcontouring

2. Final set amalgam should contain

A. 20–35% mercury B. 35–45% mercury.
C. 45–50% mercury. D. 55–65% mercury.

3. What is required in order for polymerization of resins to occur when desired?

A. Monomers. B. Free radicals.
C. Fillers. D. Polymers.
4. The typical polymerization shrinkage of resin composite is:
A. 2–3%. B. 4–5%. C. 6–7%. D. 8–9%.

5. The curing of resin composite is inhibited by:

A. Moisture. B. Filler. C. Calcium hydroxide. D. Oxygen.

6. Which of the following is not one of the setting reaction stages of glass ionomer cement?
A. Gelation stage. B. Dissolution stage.
C. Hardening stage. D. Polymerization stage.

7. Glass ionomers were first introduced in the:

A. 1950s. B. 1960s. C. 1970s. D. 1980s.

8. Which of the following is not a member of the polyalkenoic acid family?

A. Polyacrylic acid. B. Polyitaconic acid.
C. Polymaleic acid. D. Polyacetic acid.

9. The metal ion in glass ionomer which has raised concern over neurotoxicity is:
A. Magnesium. B. Aluminum. C. Tin. D. Zinc.

10. Hydrogen peroxide in dentistry ____.

A. has been in use for more than 100 years
B. has been found to promote bone healing
C. has no antimicrobial effects
D. cannot be used in conjunction with periodontal surgery

11. The carbamide peroxide reaction is defined as follows:

A. Carbamide peroxide degrades into hydrogen peroxide and water.
B. Carbamide peroxide degrades into oxygen and water.
C. Carbamide peroxide degrades into ammonia and carbon dioxide.
D. Carbamide peroxide degrades into hydrogen peroxide and urea.

12. The speech sounds that bring the mandible closest to the maxilla are the:
A. “s” sounds B. “t” and “th” sounds C. “f” and “v” sounds D. vowel sounds

13.Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort to heat and cold but not sweets
occurs. The most likely cause is;
A. gingival recession D. unseating of the bridge
B. deflective occlusal contact E. torsional forces on one abutment tooth
C. incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth

14. The means by which one part of a partial denture framework opposes the action of the retainer
in function is called;
A. tripoding C. stress-breaking
B. reciprocation D. indirect retention

15. For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most important to maintain the remain-
ing supporting tissues?
A. Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric occlusal contacts
B. Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth

16. The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal splint is:
A. increased rigidity C. increased durability
B. increased retention D. conservation of tooth surface

17. In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion rims and central bearing point are in
contact and the mandible is in centric relation, the length of the face is known as the:
A. interocclusal rest space C. physiologic rest position
B. vertical dimension D. rest vertical dimension
E. occlusal vertical dimension

18. In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:

A. limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture.
B. affect the position and arrangement of the posterior tooth
C. limit the thickness of the denture flange in the maxillary buccal space
D. determine the location of the posterior palatal seal of the maxillary denture.

19. Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic teeth in a removable partial denture?
Plastic teeth are:
A. resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable
B. resistant to stains D. retained well in acrylic resin

20. A patient who has a moderate bony undercut on the facial from canine-to-canine needs an im-
mediate maxillary denture. There is also a tuberosity that is severely undercut. This patient is best
treated by:
A. reducing surgically the tuberosity only.
B. reducing surgically the facial bony undercut only
C. reducing surgically both tuberosity and facial bony undercut
D. leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the denture base.

21. Which of the following direct retainers for a removable partial denture is the most esthetic?
A. A bar clasp C. an intracoronal attachment
B. A circumferential clasp D. a round, wrought-wire clasp

22. Under which of the following conditions will it be critical to mount a patient’s casts on the true
hinge axis?
A. When the patient has a severe Class II occlusal relation.
B. When the patient requires several fixed partial dentures.
C. When the dentist plans to change the vertical dimension through restorations.
D. When the dentist plans to fabricate dentures with high-cusped teeth on a fully adjusted articulator.

23. Which of the following is the best reason for pouring a condensation impression material as soon
as possible?
A. The degree of polymerization of condensation polymers is initially high and then decreases with
time.
B. Evaporation of a volatile by-product causes shrinkage of the set material.
C. If left unpoured, condensation impression materials expands as they absorb water from air.
D. Condensation polymers will start to react with the polymer of the impression tray and cause dis-
tortion.

24. Which of the following is a problem with the polyether impression materials?
A. Low modulus of elasticity
B. Low coefficient of thermal conductivity
C. dimensional instability when exposed to moisture
D. consistency very similar to the reversible hydrocolloid

25. The component common to most composite resins, sealants, bonding and glazing agents, and
resin cements for orthodontic bonds is;
A. inorganic filler C. poly (methyl methacrylate)
B. benzoyl methyl ether D. bisphenol A-glycidyl methacrylate

26. Dental amalgam will best withstand forces of;

A. Shear B. impact C. tension D. compression
27. The relationship of denture base to bone that resists dislodgement of the denture in a horizontal
direction is:
A. support B. pressure C. esthetics D. stability

28. Which of the following syringe materials is the most rigid and, therefore, the most difficult to
remove from the mouth?
A. Polyether C. Addition silicone
B. Polysulfide D. Condensation silicone E. reversible hydrocolloid

29. Which of the following describes the properties of improved zinc oxide-eugenol materials, except:
A. They provide an excellent marginal seal.
B. They have a palliative effect on the dental pulp.
C. They have thermal insulation qualities that compare to those of dentin
D. They are easily removed fro the cavity preparation.

30. Practitioner pickles gold alloy restorations by heating them to redness and plunging them into an
acid bath. This procedure can result in which of the following?
A. Oxidation of the metal C. warpage of the restoration
B. Porosity in the casting D. surface roughness of the restoration

31. A tray for a polysulfide rubber impression that lacks occlusal stops may result in:
A. holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth
B. a more prolonged period of setting in the mouth before the tray is removed
C. an inaccurate final impression because of permanent distortion during polymerization
D. an inaccurate final impression because of elastic distortion during removal from the mouth

32. When compared to other materials, which of the following is the main disadvantage of using
polyether elastomeric impression materials?
A. Tear easily C. are much stiffer
B. Stick to the teeth D. are not as accurate
E. have longer working time

33. An advantage of polysulfide impression material over reversible hydrocolloid material is that pol-
ysulfide impression material;
A. will displace soft tissue C. requires less armamentarium
B. is significantly more accurate D. is more accurate if saliva, mucus or blood is present.

34. In cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for corrosion resistance is:
A. silver B. nickel C. cobalt D. Chromium E. Tungsten

35. Dental plaster (type II) powder differs from dental stone (type IV) powder primarily in;
A. Density B. crystal structure
C. Chemical formula D. solubility in water

36. Polycarboxylate cement has which of the following advantages over zinc phosphate cement?
A. Longer working time C. increased compressive strength
B. Lower film thickness D. superior biologic compatibility

37. Elongated grains in the microstructure of a wrought wire indicates that it has been;
A. cold worked C. stress relief annealed
B. recrystallized D. hardened by heat treatment

38. Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates;

A. degree of translucency C. degree of saturation of the hue
B. combined effect of hue and value D. all of the above E. none of the above.
39. Which of the following materials will produce the most rigid restoration for frameworks of the
same dimension?
A. Wrought gold C. Cobalt-chromium alloys
B. Palladium alloys D. partial denture casting gold in the hardened condition

40. Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol as a
function of the ;
A. concentration of the fillers and plasticizers C. percent composition by weight of water
B. concentration of potassium sulfate D. temperature

41. The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial denture is best enhanced by:
A. using a higher carat solder C. increasing its width
B. increasing its height D. increasing the gap

42. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order to:
A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load C. improve embrasure contours
B. stabilize the abutment teeth D. improve mesiodistal spacing

43. A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a patient’s denture teeth to correct
the centric occlusion at the wax try-in appointment. Which of the following should this dentist do?
A. Make a new centric relation record and remount
B. Make a new face bow and centric record
C. Make a slight occlusal adjustments in the mouth
D. Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation patients

44. Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from which of the following?
A. Lingually inclined maxillary molars
B. Lingually inclined mandibular premolars
C. Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars
D. Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces

45. In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the dentist will use a hygienic pontic. Which
of the following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion of this
pontic?
A. The length of the pontic.
B. The masticatory force of the patient.
C. The position of the opposing contact areas.
D. The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.

46. The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration is;

A. moisture contamination C. excessive condensation of the porcelain
B. excessive firing D. inadequate condensation of the porcelain

47. On the articulator, the incisal guidance is the;

A. horizontal guidance
B. mechanical equivalent of the curve of Spee
C. same as the condylar guidance
D. mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap.

48. A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment tooth because;
A. it is stronger
B. better esthetics can be achieved
C. it can be treated as an independent abutment
D. less chair time is required in its fabrication

49. The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown preparation is that;
A. it is a dul knife edge. C. its position be supragingival
B. Its position be subgingivall D. its position be easily discernible

50. Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as an abutment tooth for a FPD?
A. Tooth with pulpal involvement
B. Tooth with minimal coronal structure
C. Tooth rotated and tipped out of line
D. Tooth with short , tapered root with long clinical crown

51. In the construction of a removable partial denture, when is a lingual plate preferred over a lin-
gual bar connector?
A. When more rigidity is required.
B. When the remaining teeth are widely spaced.
C. When the remaining anterior teeth are mobile.
D. When there is no space in the floor of the mouth.

52. Which of the following explains why mandibular molars should not be placed over the ascend-
ing area of the mandible?
A. The denture base ends where the ramus ascends.
B. The molars would interfere with the retromolar pad.
C. The teeth in this area would encroach on the tongue space
D. The teeth in this area would interfere with the action of the masseter muscle.
E. The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would dislodge the mandibular denture.

53. Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results in:
A. unseating of the denture C. greater retention
B. a tingling sensation D. increased gagging

54. For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on
the non-working side contacts which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth?
A. The facial inclines of the lingual cusps C. The lingual inclines of the lingual cusps
B. The lingual inclines of the facial cusps D. The central fossae

55. The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and there is an apparent loss of the
vermillion border of the lips. Which of the following procedures is indicated to correct the situation?
A. Moving the anterior teeth facially.
C. Increasing the interocclusal distance
B. Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension
D. Increasing the occlusal vertical dimension

56. Which classes of mandibular RPDs require an altered cast impression?

A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV E. both A & B

57. Examples of suprabulge clasps are the following except:

A. Circumferential B. Embrasure C. RPI D. Ring E. Hairpin

58.The following are indications for a linguoplate as a major connector for a mandibular RPD, ex-
cept
A. High floor of the mouth (<7 mm of vertical height) D. High lingual frenum
B. Absence of lingual tori E. One or more missing incisors
C. Periodontially involved incisors with possible loss in the future

59. The guide surface preparation should be curved

A. mesio-distally B. bucco-lingually
C. occluso-gingivally D. none of the above
60. The WORST clasp assembly for a terminal abutment on a mandibular class I RPD is
A. Mesial rest and I-bar
B. Mesial and distal rest and a 1/2 and 1/2 clasp
C. Distal rest and cast circumferential clasp
D. Mesial rest and modified T-bar

61.During biting, a maxillary Class I RPD will rotate around a line determined by the rigid metal
above the survey line and closest to the extension areas. This line is called
A. Camper's line B. Frankfort line C. Dual path line D. Axis of rotation

62. Function of clasp:

A. help stabilize the RPD by controlling occlusal movement.
B. help stabilize the RPD by controlling gingival movement.
C. may also function as indirect retainers.
D. prevent excessive biting forces on the abutments.

63. When surveying to determine the height of contour of the abutments, the mark on the tooth
must be made by the:
A. side of the lead marker. C. side of the analyzing rod
B. tip of the carbon marker D. tip of the analyzing rod

64. If a metal base is to be used

A. an altered cast impression should be made after framework try-in
B. a stock tray should be used for the final impression
C. a custom tray should be used for the final impression
D. interocclusal records must be made after tooth selection

65. Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual undercut and can be used on premo-
lars for either extension or tooth-supported RPDs?
A. half and half clasp B. lingual I-bar
C. lingual modified T-bar D. ring clasp

66. Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual undercut and is only used on molars?
A. half and half clasp B. lingual I-bar C. lingual modified T-bar D. ring clasp

67. Cleaning a removable partial denture in sodium hypochlorite may result in:
A. increased caries activity C. corrosion of the metal of the framework
B. increased periodontal problems D. A and B above

68. Cast retentive arms are usually selected when the RPD is tooth supported / or when the reten-
tive tips release during functional movements of extension RPDs.
A. First phrase is true, second phrase is false.
B. First phrase is true, second phrase is false.
C. First phrase is false, second phrase is false.
D. Both phrases are true.

69. Incisal rests:

A. are generally more positive vertical stops than cingulum rests.
B. may interfere with the opposing occlusion.
C. should not be used on maxillary incisors.
D. all of the above.

70. Which of the following steps is done LAST?

A. Rest preparation C. Centric relation records
B. Framework try-in D. Altered cast impression
71. In a circumferential clasp assembly, only one of the arms may extend into an undercut. The
other arm, the bracing or reciprocating arm, must be rigid and therefore, cannot extend into an un-
dercut.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. First statement is false, second statement is false.
D. First statement is true, second statement is true.

72. An anterior-posterior palatal strap major connector is less rigid than a horse-shoe major con-
nector because it (the A-P strap) has less width.
A. The first statement is true but the reason is false.
B. The first statement is false and the reason is also a false statement.
C. The first statement is true and the reason is true.
D. The first statement is false but the reason is a true statement.

73. Guide plates for anterior teeth

A. should be kept to the labial for best esthetics. C. be thinned on the labial aspect.
B. should be kept to the lingual for best esthetics. D. both B and C above.

74. Occlusal rest preparations should be

A. spoon shaped C. at least one millimeter deep
B. at least 1/3 the buccolingual width of the occlusal surface D. all of the above

75. In general, lingual plating should be supported

A. by the inclined surfaces of the mandibular incisors. C.with minor connectors.
B. with bracing arms. D. with rests.

76. The internal and external finish lines are

A. normally superimposed over each other.
B. normally offset from each other to avoid weakness in the framework.
C. normally designed and placed independently.
D. none of the above statements are true.

77. When placing the tripod marks on the diagnostic cast, the vertical arm of the surveyor
A. should have the analyzing rod in place.
B. should be moved up or down to touch the tissues at widely separated areas.
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Neither 1 nor 2 are true

78. The partial denture design should be finalized prior to

A. any emergency treatment. C. preparation of rest seats.
B. any fixed prosthodontic treatment. D. both B and C above.

79. The open latticework on a maxillary class I RPD:

A. covers the hamular notch. C. does not cover the tuberosity.
B. covers the tuberosity. D. requires substantial interarch space

80. The external finish line on a maxillary Class I RPD originates from the lingual of the guide plate
of the terminal abutment and ends
A. at the hamular notch. C. opposite the buccal pouch
B. in the glenoid fossa. D. opposite Stenson's duct.

81. The following factor/s may be responsible for the failure to seat the bridge:
A. Cusps may be high.
B. Under contouring axial surfaces of retainer.
C. Abutment teeth may have moved and one or more contacts may be overbuilt.
D. Incorrect hinge axis.
E. None of the above.

82. Trauma to the pulp following tooth preparation for fixed bridges arises from the following
cause/s:
A. Use of spray water.
B. Severing vital structures in dentin and an increase in temperature from frictional heat.
C. Coolant evacuation.
D. Anesthesia.
E. None of the above.

83. Following cementation, the bridge should be examined :

A. after 3 days. C. after 7 to 10 days.
B. after 14 days D. after 30 days E. none of these.

84. Intraradicular retainers is/are used on:

A. vital teeth
B. any tooth where a complete crown is indicated.
C. nonvital teeth when the coronal tissues cannot be saved.
D. any tooth where a three-quarter crown is indicated.
E. none of the above.

85. The construction of a bridge is normally scheduled after the following is/are completed:
A. surgery
B. surgery, periodontal therapy and operative dentistry
C. periodontal therapy
D. Operative dentistry
E. none of the above.

86. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or portural position, contact of teeth is:
A. maximum B. not present C. premature D. slight

87. Which of the following statements concerning selective grinding in complete denture fabrication
for centric relation are true?
A. Ideally selective grinding should result in harmonious cusp-fossa contacts of all upper and lower
fossa (and marginal ridges of bicuspsids)
B. Only grind cusp tips if they are premature in centric, lateral and protrusive movements.
C. Neither of the above statements are true.
D. Both of the above statements are true.
88. The shoulderless preparation:
A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

89. The chamfer cervical finish:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

90. The shoulder cervical finish:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown
91. Functional stresses applied to any portion of a partial denture can be distributed throughout the
mouth only when major and minor connectors are:
A. rigid C. cast in a base-metal alloy
B. flexible D. positioned in the same plane E. none of these.

92. Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to:
A. protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing forces
B. stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical forces of occlusion

93. A distal extension RPD is one that receives its support :

A. from the tissues only
B. mostly from the tissues and to a minor extent from the abutment teeth
C. mostly from the abutment teeth and to a minor extent from the tissues
D. equally from the abutment teeth and the tissues

94. Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of RPDs with distal extensions can best be avoided by:
A. using stressbreakers
B. employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth
C. maintaining tissue support of the distal extensions
D. clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area
E. maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of tension

95. Which teeth on a maxillary complete denture are the most important when considering esthet-
ics?
A. Maxillary laterals C. Maxillary canines
B. Maxillary centrals D. Maxillary first premolars

96.A broken-stress or nonrigid FPD is indicated when

A. constructing a mandibular FPD only
B. two or three missing teeth are to be replaced
C. retainers cannot be prepared to draw together without excessive tooth reduction
D. fixed splinting involves tow or three abutment teeth
E. retainers can be designed to have equal retentive qualities.

97. The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is:
A. failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gingival sulcus
B. lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth
C. lack of attention to tooth shape, position and contacts
D. lack of prominent cusps, deep sulci and sharp marginal ridges.

98. When preparing a partial veneer crown on a maxillary incisor, proximal grooves should be par-
allel to the:
A. long axis of the tooth C. incisal two-thirds of the facial surface
B. gingival two-thirds of the facial surface

99. Termination of a free end clasp is referred to as:

A. finger B. stop C. tang D. arm

100. Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be explored. In the adult pa-
tient the depth is:
A. less than 1.0mm C. more than 10mm
B. less than 0.75mm D. more than 1.0mm
 PROSTHODONTICS AND DENTAL MATERIALS

Treatment of choice for a patient with a maxillary complete den-

ture with severe bilateral tuberosity undercuts is to:
remove both tuberosity undercuts
reduce the tissue bilaterally
reduce the tissue on one side , if possible
none of the above. No treatment is necessary.

A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed

partial denture in order to:
improve the distribution of the occlusal load C. improve
embrasure contours
stabilize the abutment teeth D. improve
mesiodistal spacing

A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a pa-

tient’s denture teeth to correct the centric occlusion at the
wax try-in appointment. Which of the following should this
dentist do?
Make a new centric relation record and remount
Make a new face bow and centric record
Make a slight occlusal adjustments in the mouth
Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation patients

Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from

which of the following?
Lingually inclined maxillary molars
Lingually inclined mandibular premolars
Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars
Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces
In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the den-
tist will use a hygienic pontic. Which of the following will
primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlu-
sal portion of this pontic?
The length of the pontic.
The masticatory force of the patient.
The position of the opposing contact areas.
The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.

Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results

in:
unseating of the denture C. greater retention
a tingling sensation D. increased gagging

For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of

maxillary posterior teeth on the non-working side contacts
which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth?
The facial inclines of the lingual cusps C. The lingual
inclines of the lingual cusps
The lingual inclines of the facial cusps D. The central
fossae

The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and
there is an apparent loss of the vermillion border of the
lips. Which of the following procedures is indicated to cor-
rect the situation?
Moving the anterior teeth facially.
Increasing the interocclusal distance
Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension
Increasing the occlusal vertical dimension

The dentist should place the terminus of a retentive clasp arm

at (in) the:
junction of the gingival and middle one third of the clini-
cal crown
junction of the middle and occlusal one third of the clini-
cal crown
level of the free gingival margin
occlusal one third of the clinical crown

The speech sounds that bring the mandible closest to the maxilla
are the:
“s” sounds B. “t” and “th” sounds C. “f” and “v”
sounds D. vowel sounds

Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort

to heat and cold but not sweets occurs. The most likely cause
is;
gingival recession D. unseating of the
bridge
deflective occlusal contact E. torsional forces on one
abutment tooth
 incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment
teeth

The means by which one part of a partial denture framework op-

poses the action of the retainer in function is called;
tripoding C. stress-breaking
reciprocation D. indirect retention

For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most

important to maintain the remaining supporting tissues?
Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric
occlusal contacts
Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth

The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal

splint is:
increased rigidity C. increased durability
increased retention D. conservation of tooth
surface

In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion rims

and central bearing point are in contact and the mandible is
in centric relation, the length of the face is known as the:
interocclusal rest space C. physiologic rest posi-
tion
vertical dimension D. rest vertical dimension
E. occlusal vertical dimension

In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:

limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture.
affect the position and arrangement of the posterior tooth
limit the thickness of the denture flange in the maxillary
buccal space
determine the location of the posterior palatal seal of the
maxillary denture.

Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic

teeth in a removable partial denture? Plastic teeth are:
resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable
resistant to stains D. retained well in
acrylic resin

A patient who has a moderate bony undercut on the facial from

canine-to-canine needs an immediate maxillary denture. There
is also a tuberosity that is severely undercut. This patient
is best treated by:
reducing surgically the tuberosity only.
reducing surgically the facial bony undercut only
reducing surgically both tuberosity and facial bony under-
cut
leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the denture base.
Which of the following direct retainers for a removable partial
denture is the most esthetic?
A bar clasp C. an intracoronal attach-
ment
A circumferential clasp D. a round, wrought-
wire clasp

Under which of the following conditions will it be critical to

mount a patient’s casts on the true hinge axis?
When the patient has a severe Class II occlusal relation.
When the patient requires several fixed partial dentures.
When the dentist plans to change the vertical dimension
through restorations.
When the dentist plans to fabricate dentures with high-
cusped teeth on a fully adjusted articulator.

In complete denture fabrication, which of the following regu-

late/s the paths of the condyles in mandibular movements?
the height of the cusps of posterior teeth.
The amount of horizontal and vertical overlap.
The size and shape of the bony fossae and the menisci and
muscular influence.
The vertical occlusion, centric relation, and degree of
compensating curve.

A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment

tooth because;
it is stronger
better esthetics can be achieved
it can be treated as an independent abutment
less chair time is required in its fabrication

The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown

preparation is that;
it is a dul knife edge. C. its position be
supragingival
Its position be subgingivall D. its position be
easily discernible

Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as

an abutment tooth for a FPD?
Tooth with pulpal involvement
Tooth with minimal coronal structure
Tooth rotated and tipped out of line
Tooth with short , tapered root with long clinical crown

A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment

tooth because;
it is stronger
better esthetics can be achieved
it can be treated as an independent abutment
less chair time is required in its fabrication
The phenomenon where porcelain aapears different under varying
light conditions is;
metamerism C. transmittance
translucency D. opacification E. refractive
optics

Retention and resistance forms in full coverage preparations on

short molars can be enhanced by;
using zinc phosphate cement C. placing several verti-
cal groove
using a full shoulder finish line D. minimizing the
depth of occlusal carving

The posterior occlusal plane is determined on an occlusion rim

by paralleling the rim with the;
ala-tragus plane C. tragus-canthus plane
ala-canthus plane D. ala-external auditory meatus
plane

Which of the following adverse conditions may arise if occlusal

vertical dimension is increased?
The closing muscles may become strained
The opening muscles may become strained
The closing muscles may become too relaxed
Soreness may occur at the corners of the mouth.

A patient has a chronically tender, knife-edge mandibular resid-

ual ridge. In fabricating a complete denture for this pa-
tient, a dentist should consider which of the following?
Maximal extension of the denture- to distribute forces of
occlusion over a greater area.
Minimal extension of the denture- to limit tenderness to a
smaller area.
Decreased occlusal vertical dimension- to decrease biting
forces
A broad occlusal table- to provide a firmer contact in ec-
centric jar relations.

Tripod marks are placed on the cast after surveying for which of
the following reasons?
To record the undercut areas on the abutment teeth.
To help mount the cast on the articulator
To record the orientation of the cast to the articulator
To record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor.

In a complete maxillary denture, accurate adaptation of the bor-

der of the maxillary facial flange affects which of the fol-
lowing the most?
Speech B. support C. stability D. esthet-
ics
The distofacial periphery of the mandibular impression should
receive special attention. Which of the following anatomical
structures might cause soreness if the denture is overex-
tended?
Masseter C. pterygmandibular raphe
Buccinator D. internal pterygoid E. lateral
tendon of the temporal

A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and

mandibular distal-extension partial denture. The recommended
procedure is to
make impression of both simultaneously
start first on the maxillary complete denture
start first with the least stable prosthesis
relate first the mandibular partial denture frame

Which of the following mechanical properties limits the amount

of adjustment of a base metal removable clasp arm?
Hardness B. stiffness C. elongation D.
tensile strength

In lateral movements, the non-working condyle moves in what di-

rection?
Out, back and up C. down, forward and medially
Up, back and down D. down, forward and laterally
E. none of the above.

The most likely tissue reaction to gross overextension of a

complete denture that has been worn for a long time is:
epulis fissuratum C. papillary hyperplasia
pyogenic granuloma D. giant cell reparative granu-
loma

Which of the following properties of a gold alloy exceeds a

base-metal alloy in numerical value?
Hardness C. casting shrinkage
Specific gravity D. fusion temperature E. modulus elas-
ticity

Which of the following is the best reason for pouring a conden-

sation impression material as soon as possible?
The degree of polymerization of condensation polymers is
initially high and then decreases with time.
Evaporation of a volatile by-product causes shrinkage of
the set material.
If left unpoured, condensation impression materials expands
as they absorb water from air.
Condensation polymers will start to react with the polymer
of the impression tray and cause distortion.

Which of the following is a problem with the polyether impres-

sion materials?
Low modulus of elasticity
 Low coefficient of thermal conductivity
dimensional instability when exposed to moisture
consistency very similar to the reversible hydrocolloid

The component common to most composite resins, sealants, bond-

ing and glazing agents, and resin cements for orthodontic
bonds is;
inorganic filler C. poly (methyl methacrylate)
benzoyl methyl ether D. bisphenol A-glycidyl methac-
rylate

Dental amalgam will best withstand forces of;

Shear B. impact C. tension D. compres-
sion

The relationship of denture base to bone that resists dislodge-

ment of the denture in a horizontal direction is:
support B. pressure C. esthetics D. stabil-
ity

Failure of partial denture due tompoor clasp design can be best

avoided by:
Using stressbreakers D. using intracoronal attach-
ments
Using bar-type clasps E. altering tooth contours
clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns and nor-
mal bone support

Repeated fracture of a porcelain-fused to metal restoration is

due primarily to:
occlusal trauma C. failure to use a metal condi-
tioner
improper firing schedule D. an inadequately designed
framework

A patient who wears complete denture is having trouble pro-

nouncing the letter “t”. This is probably caused by:
too thick a palatal seal area
too thick a base in the mandibular denture
incorrect positioning of maxillary incisors
improper positioning of mandibular incisors

The distolingual extension of the mandibular impression for a

complete denture is limited by the action of the:
stylohyoid muscle C. lateral pterygoid muscle
medial pterygoid muscle D. superior constrictor
muscle

In RPD design. Guiding planes serve to:

aid in balancing occlusion D. assure predicta-
ble clasp retention
 from right angles to the occlusal plane E. eliminate the
necessity for precision attachments
eliminate the necessity for a back-action clasp

When the path of dislodgement is not controlled and rotational

dislodgement of extension bases occurs, remotely located ver-
tical metal stops placed in prepared seats can be used to en-
hance the effectiveness of retentive clasps. The vertical
metal stops are:
indirect claps C. indirect retainers
remote retainer D. forward retainers E. passive
retainers

Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may result in

poor denture retention D. increased interocclusal
distance
drooping of the corners of the mouth E. creases and
wrinkles around the lip
trauma to underlying supporting tissues

An advantage of a wide, thin palatal bar compared with a narrow

bar is that the wide bar:
is more stable C. can be rigid with less bulk
is easier to polish D. is less irritating to the
soft tissue

When a cusp is in deflective occlusal contact in centric rela-

tion, but does not contact in one or more of the eccentric
movements, grinding should be performed on:
both the cusp and the opposing area
the opposing fossa or the marginal ridge
the cusp that is in deflective occlusal contact
the opposing areas in eccentric positions.

Proper lip support for a patient with complete dentures is pro-

vided primarily by the;
convex surface of the labial flange
rounded contours of interdental papillae
proper pronouncement of sibilant sounds
thickness of the border in the vestibule
facial surfaces of teeth and stimulated attached gingiva.

In determining the posterior limit of a maxillary denture base,

which of the following is on the posterior border?
Hamular notch C. fovea palatini
Hamular process D. vibrating line E. pterygomandibular
raphe

Which of the following will increase retention of a complete

denture?
 Xerostomia D. Air chamber in midpalate
Foreshortened denture bases E. Increased salivary film
thickness
Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa

When the posterior maxillary buccal space is entirely filled

with the denture flange, interference may occur with movement
of the;
masseter muscle C. condyloid process
coronoid process D. zygomatic process

A patient complains of “looseness” with a new bilateral distal

extension RPD. This is probably caused by:
deflective occlusal contacts C. thin flanges on
acrylic bases
passive clasp pressure on abutment teeth D. insufficient
facial overlap on posterior teeth

When the mandible is in its physiologic rest position, the dis-

tance between occluding surfaces of maxillary and mandibular
teeth or occlusion rim is;
centric occlusion C. interocclusal distance
vertical dimension D. vertical dimension of rest

Translation in a mandibular opening movement occurs;

on closing from centric relation C. on initial opening
from centric relation
in the upper compartment of the TMJ D. in the lower
compartment of the TMJ

The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial denture

is best enhanced by:
using a higher carat solder C. increasing its width
B. increasing its height D. increasing the gap

Which of the following design characteristics of a partial den-

ture is most important to oral health?
Bracing B. support C. stability D. reten-
tion

The principal factor in minimizing the firing shrinkage of

porcelain is the;
fusion temperature C. uniformity of particle size
ratio of flux to feldspar D. thoroughness of condensation

In the construction of a removable partial denture, when is a

lingual plate preferred over a lingual bar connector?
When more rigidity is required.
When the remaining teeth are widely spaced.
When the remaining anterior teeth are mobile.
When there is no space in the floor of the mouth.
Which of the following explains why mandibular molars should not
be placed over the ascending area of the mandible?
The denture base ends where the ramus ascends.
The molars would interfere with the retromolar pad.
The teeth in this area would encroach on the tongue space
The teeth in this area would interfere with the action of
the masseter muscle.
The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would dislodge
the mandibular denture.

The Benneth movement exerts its greatest influence in;

lateral movements C. opening movements
protrusive movements D. closing movements

The face-bow is used to record;

centric relation C. relation of the
mandible to the maxilla
relation of the maxilla to the TMJ D. relation of
the mandible to the TMJ

The function of the compensating curve is;

to help provide a balanced occlusion in complete dentures
when the mandible is protruded.
To aid in establishing an incisal guide plane
The same as the function of the curve of Spee
None of the above.

A dentist relined a patient’s maxillary complete denture. This

patient returned repeatedly for adjustments of the erythema-
tous areas on the ridge crest. Which of the following is the
most likely cause?
An allergy to the acrylic resin that was used for relining.
Presence of a pressure spot in the relined impression
The loss of even centric relation contacts.
A decrease in the occlusal vertical dimension.

The one relation of the condyles to the fossae in which a pure

hinging movements is possible is:
centric occlusion C. postural position of the
mandible (rest vertical dimension)
retruded contact position D. transverse horizontal axis
(terminal hinge position)

To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered

joint of a fixed bridge should be so formed that it;
extends to the buccal margin of the retainer
fills the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally
is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually
is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact
area

An abutment tooth exhibiting an unfavorable survey line should;

 be restored C. have unfavorable con-
tours improved
be by-passed in the framework design D. receive only a
rest and not be clasped

The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration

is;
moisture contamination C. excessive condensation of
the porcelain
excessive firing D. inadequate condensation of
the porcelain

On the articulator, the incisal guidance is the;

horizontal guidance
same as the condylar guidance
mechanical equivalent of the curve of Spee
mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap.

In metal-ceramic crowns and FPD, the function of tin, indium and

other readily oxidized minor components of the alloy is to;
Improve bonding
Decrease porosity
React with the porcelain and make an opaque layer to mask
the metal
Improve thermal expansion matching between the metal and
the porcelain

Porcelain bonded to metal is strongest when

air fired C. tempered after firing
under compression D. fired several times before com-
pletion

Which of the following jaw-relation records should be used for

setting both the medial and superior condylar guides on an
arcon articulator?
Intercuspation C. lateral interocclusal records
Centric relation D. protrusive interocclusal records

An incorrect occlusal vertical dimension causes a patient to

overclose and to have a poor facial profile. To correct this
problem, the dentist should do which of the following?
increase the rest vertical dimension and increase the in-
terocclusal distance
decrease the rest vertical dimension and diminish the in-
terocclusal distance
decrease the occlusal vertical dimension and increase in-
terocclusal distance
increase the occlusal vertical dimension and diminish the
interocclusal distance

The secondary peripheral seal area of a mandibular complete den-

ture is the;
 labial border C. distolingual border
buccal border D. anterior lingual border

Which of the following describes a material with high compres-

sive strength but low tensile strength?
Tough B. brittle C. ductile D. malleable
E. resilient

Which of the following best explains why the dentist should pro-
vide a postpalatal seal in a complete maxillary denture? The
seal will compensate for:
errors in fabrication C. polymerization and
cooling shrinkage
tissue displacement D. deformation of the im-
pression material

For complete dentures, which of the following three factors af-

fect the correct positioning of lips?
Face-bow transfer, position of teeth, and correct rest ver-
tical dimension.
Face-bow transfer, thickness of the anterior border, and
correct occlusal vertical dimension.
Correct rest vertical dimension, thickness of the anterior
border and position of teeth.
Correct occlusal vertical dimension, thickness of the ante-
rior border and position of teeth.

Which of the following syringe materials is the most rigid and,

therefore, the most difficult to remove from the mouth?
Polyether C. Addition silicone
Polysulfide D. Condensation silicone E. reversible
hydrocolloid

Which of the following describes the properties of improved

zinc oxide-eugenol materials, except:
They provide an excellent marginal seal.
They have a palliative effect on the dental pulp.
They have thermal insulation qualities that compare to
those of dentin
They are easily removed fro the cavity preparation.

Practitioner pickles gold alloy restorations by heating them to

redness and plunging them into an acid bath. This procedure
can result in which of the following?
A. Oxidation of the metal C. warpage of the restora-
tion
B. Porosity in the casting D. surface roughness
of the restoration

A tray for a polysulfide rubber impression that lacks occlusal

stops may result in:
 holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth
a more prolonged period of setting in the mouth before the
tray is removed
an inaccurate final impression because of permanent distor-
tion during polymerization
an inaccurate final impression because of elastic distor-
tion during removal from the mouth

When compared to other materials, which of the following is the

main disadvantage of using polyether elastomeric impression
materials?
Tear easily C. are much stiffer
Stick to the teeth D. are not as accurate
E. have longer working time

An advantage of polysulfide impression material over reversible

hydrocolloid material is that polysulfide impression mate-
rial;
will displace soft tissue C. requires less armamen-
tarium
is significantly more accurate D. is more accurate
if saliva, mucus or blood is present.

In cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for cor-

rosion resistance is:
silver B. nickel C. cobalt D. Chromium E. Tungsten

Dental plaster (type II) powder differs from dental stone (type
IV) powder primarily in;
Density B. crystal structure C. Chemical formula
D. solubility in water

Polycarboxylate cement has which of the following advantages

over zinc phosphate cement?
Longer working time C. increased compressive
strength
Lower film thickness D. superior biologic compati-
bility

Elongated grains in the microstructure of a wrought wire indi-

cates that it has been;
cold worked C. stress relief annealed
recrystallized D. hardened by heat treatment

Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates;

degree of translucency C. degree of saturation of the
hue
combined effect of hue and value D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

Which of the following materials will produce the most rigid

restoration for frameworks of the same dimension?
Wrought gold C. Cobalt-chromium alloys
 Palladium alloys D. partial denture casting gold in the
hardened condition

Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of transfor-

mation from sol to gel and gel to sol as a function of the ;
concentration of the fillers and plasticizers C. per-
cent composition by weight of water
concentration of potassium sulfate D. temperature

Inlay wax patterns should be inserted as soon as possible after

fabrication in order to minimize changes in shape caused by;
Drying of the wax C. volatilization of wax compo-
nents
Reduction in temperature D. continued expansion of
the wax
E. relaxation of internal
stresses

The strength of dental investments for gold alloys is dependent

upon the amount of;
silica B. carbon C. gypsum D. alumina

The property that most closely describes the ability of a cast

gold inlay to be burnished is;
elastic limit C. percentage elongation
ultimate strength D. modulus of resilience E. modulus

of elasticity

Creep of a metal indicates that the metal;

lacks edge strength C. has insufficient retention
has excessive flexibility D. will deform under static
load
E. has insufficient crushing
strength

Which of the following properties of dental materials is time-

dependent?
Creep C. elastic limit
Resilience D. ultimate strength E. compressive
strength

The discolored, corroded, superficial layer frequently seen on

the surface of a dental amalgam restoration is most likely;
mercury B. a sulfide C. gamma-2 D. copper
oxide
 PROSTHODONTICS AND DENTAL MATERIALS

Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from which of the following?
Lingually inclined maxillary molars
Lingually inclined mandibular premolars
Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars
Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces

The dentist should place the terminus of a retentive clasp arm at (in) the:
junction of the gingival and middle one third of the clinical crown
junction of the middle and occlusal one third of the clinical crown
level of the free gingival margin
occlusal one third of the clinical crown

The means by which one part of a partial denture framework opposes the action of the retainer
in function is called;
tripoding C. stress-breaking
reciprocation D. indirect retention

For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most important to maintain the remain-
ing supporting tissues?
Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric occlusal contacts
Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth

Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic teeth in a removable partial denture?
Plastic teeth are:
resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable
resistant to stains D. retained well in acrylic resin
 Which of the following direct retainers for a removable partial denture is the most esthetic?
A bar clasp C. an intracoronal attachment
A circumferential clasp D. a round, wrought-wire clasp

Failure of partial denture due tompoor clasp design can be best avoided by:
Using stressbreakers D. using intracoronal attachments
Using bar-type clasps E. altering tooth contours
clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns and normal bone support

In RPD design. Guiding planes serve to:

aid in balancing occlusion D. assure predictable clasp retention
from right angles to the occlusal plane E. eliminate the necessity for precision attach-
ments
eliminate the necessity for a back-action clasp

A patient complains of “looseness” with a new bilateral distal extension RPD. This is probably
caused by:
deflective occlusal contacts
B. thin flanges on acrylic bases
C..passive clasp pressure on abutment teeth
D. insufficient facial overlap on posterior teeth

Which classes of mandibular RPDs require an altered cast impression?

A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III D. Class IV E. both A & B

2. Examples of suprabulge clasps are the following except:

A. Circumferential B. Embrasure C. RPI D. Ring E. Hair-
pin

3.The following are indications for a linguoplate as a major connector for a mandibular RPD,
except
A. High floor of the mouth (<7 mm of vertical height)
D. High lingual frenum
B. Absence of lingual tori
E. One or more missing incisors
C. Periodontially involved incisors with possible loss in the future

The WORST clasp assembly for a terminal abutment on a mandibular class I RPD is
A. Mesial rest and I-bar
C. Mesial and distal rest and a 1/2 and 1/2 clasp
B. Distal rest and cast circumferential clasp
D. Mesial rest and modified T-bar

During biting, a maxillary Class I RPD will rotate around a line determined by the rigid metal
above the survey line and closest to the extension areas. This line is called
A. Camper's line B. Frankfort line C. Dual path line D. Axis of rotation

Function of clasp:
A. help stabilize the RPD by controlling occlusal movement.
B. help stabilize the RPD by controlling gingival movement.
C. may also function as indirect retainers.
D. prevent excessive biting forces on the abutments.

When surveying to determine the height of contour of the abutments, the mark on the tooth must
be made by the:
A. side of the lead marker. C. side of the analyzing rod
B. tip of the carbon marker D. tip of the analyzing rod
 Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual undercut and can be used on premolars
for either extension or tooth-supported RPDs?
A. half and half clasp B. lingual I-bar
C. lingual modified T-bar D. ring clasp

Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual undercut and is only used on molars?
A. half and half clasp B. lingual I-bar
C. lingual modified T-bar D. ring clasp

Cast retentive arms are usually selected when the RPD is tooth supported / or when the retentive
tips release during functional movements of extension RPDs.
A. First phrase is true, second phrase is false.
B. First phrase is true, second phrase is false.
C. First phrase is false, second phrase is false.
D. Both phrases are true.

The nonrigid connector is:

A. used for long spans C. used when alveolus is extremely reduced
B. a broken-stress joint D. used when alveolus is actively receding

Trauma to the pulp following tooth preparation for fixed bridges arises from the following cause/s:
A. Use of spray water.
B. Severing vital structures in dentin and an increase in temperature from frictional
heat.
C. Coolant evacuation.
D. Anesthesia.
E. None of the above.

Following cementation, the bridge should be examined :

A. after 3 days. C. after 7 to 10 days.
B. after 14 days D. after 30 days E. none of these.

Temporary protection for the porcelain jacket crown preparation should be accomplished by:
A. celluloid crown. D. gutta percha crown
B. a self-curing resin temporary crown E. none of these.
C. zinc oxide and eugenol

Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be explored. In the adult patient
the depth is:
A. less than 1.0mm C. more than 10mm
B. less than 0.75mm D. more than 1.0mm E. none of these.

Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be explored. In the young patient
the depth is:
A. more than 1.0mm B. more than 5.0mm
C. shallow D. more than 2.0mm E. none

The complete seating of a FPD requires evaluation of the following:

contact areas 3. centric occlusion
marginal finish line 4. functional occlusion and stability
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,3,4 D. 1,2,4 E. 1 only

FPD require the use of:

A. soft golds B. medium hard golds
C. hard golds D. Type A golds
Well-fired porcelain depends on good preliminary condensation. This is accomplished by the
following method/s: 1. Vibration 2. Pressure 3. Brushing 4. Capillary packing
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1,2,3 and 4 D. 1 only E. 4 only.

A disadvantage of the porcelain bonded to gold is:

A. porosity B.color stability
C. The casting of the restorative gold D. allergy E. none of these.

The first essential condition for physiologic tooth form for the FPD is:
A. hinge axis C. dentolabial relations
B. harmony of jaws D. functional occlusion E. none of these.

A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order to:
improve the distribution of the occlusal load C. improve embrasure contours
stabilize the abutment teeth D. improve mesiodistal spacing

In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the dentist will use a hygienic pontic. Which
of the following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion of
this pontic?
The length of the pontic.
The masticatory force of the patient.
The position of the opposing contact areas.
The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.

Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort to heat and cold but not sweets
occurs. The most likely cause is;
gingival recession D. unseating of the bridge
deflective occlusal contact E.torsional forces on one abutment tooth
incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth

In metal-ceramic crowns and FPD, the function of tin, indium and other readily oxidized minor
components of the alloy is to;
Improve bonding
Decrease porosity
React with the porcelain and make an opaque layer to mask the metal
Improve thermal expansion matching between the metal and the porcelain

Porcelain bonded to metal is strongest when

air fired C. tempered after firing
under compression D. fired several times before completion

To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered joint of a fixed bridge should be so

formed that it;
extends to the buccal margin of the retainer
fills the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally
is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually
is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact area

The shoulderless preparation:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impres-
sions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

The chamfer cervical finish:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
 B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

The shoulder cervical finish:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

The gold—veneer crown is indicated for any tooth where:

A. a three-quarter crown is indicated C. a buccal three quarter crown is indicated
B. a complete crown is indicated D .a mesial half crown is indicated

The primary stress bearing area of the lower arch:

slope of the residual ridge C. buccal shelf
crest of the residual ridge D. retromolar pad

Premature contacts in centric relation and any lateral slide as patient closes into centric occlu-
sion:
A. can be eliminated while bridge is under construction.
B. can be eliminated after bridge has been constructed.
C. need not be eliminated.
D. should be eliminated by grinding before the bridge is made.

The following amount of forward slide from centric relation to centric occlusion can be regarded
as normal in the absence of any periodontal pathology or mobile teeth:
A. 1mm. B. 4mm. C. Up to 2mm. D. 6mm.

Excessive vertical dimension may result in___?

A. poor denture retention C. wrinkles around the lip
B. drooping of commisures D. trauma to the underlying supporting tissues E. all of
these

Following extraction, alveolar process of the maxilla will resorb:

A. upward and forward direction C. downward and forward
B. upward and backward D. downward and backward

The working side is the :

A. balancing side C. side toward which the mandible is moved
B. side opposite to which the mandible move D. eccentric occlusion

47. Which is the best pre-extraction guide for complete dentures:

A. size of face C. color of teeth E. photographs
B. size of teeth D. casts of natural teeth

48. Which of the following factors is necessary in the adhesion of denture bases to the
tissue:
A. Rounded peripheries C. Atmospheric pressure E. All of them
B. Proper peripheral seal D. Thin film of saliva

49.. The distal palatal termination of the upper denture is best dictated by:
A. hamulus B. vibrating line
C. fovea palatine D. A and B only E. B and C only

50.. The oral structure which remains consistent through life:

A. residual ridge B. incisive papilla
 C. mental foramen D. maxillary tuberosity E. all of them

51. The inter arch distance is located between:

A. the edentulous ridges
B.. masticatory surface of the teeth with mouth open fully
C. masticatory surface of the teeth at rest
D. all of the above E. none of the above

52.. The following are the most important aspect of complete denture construction:
A. accurate impression C. proper occlusion
B. correct jaw relations D. all of the above E. none of the
above

Treatment of choice for a patient with a maxillary complete denture with severe bilateral tuber-
osity undercuts is to:
remove both tuberosity undercuts
reduce the tissue bilaterally
reduce the tissue on one side , if possible
none of the above. No treatment is necessary
Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results in:
unseating of the denture C. greater retention
a tingling sensation D. increased gagging

For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on
the non-working side contacts which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth?
The facial inclines of the lingual cusps C. The lingual inclines of the lingual
cusps
The lingual inclines of the facial cusps D. The central fossae

The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and there is an apparent loss of the
vermillion border of the lips. Which of the following procedures is indicated to correct the
situation?
Moving the anterior teeth facially.
Increasing the interocclusal distance
Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension
Increasing the occlusal vertical dimension

In complete denture fabrication, which of the following regulate/s the paths of the condyles in
mandibular movements?
the height of the cusps of posterior teeth.
The amount of horizontal and vertical overlap.
The size and shape of the bony fossae and the menisci and muscular influence.
The vertical occlusion, centric relation, and degree of compensating curve.

The distofacial periphery of the mandibular impression should receive special attention. Which
of the following anatomical structures might cause soreness if the denture is overextended?
Masseter C. pterygmandibular raphe
Buccinator D. internal pterygoid E. lateral tendon of the temporal

A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and mandibular distal-extension
partial denture. The recommended procedure is to
make impression of both simultaneously
start first on the maxillary complete denture
start first with the least stable prosthesis
relate first the mandibular partial denture frame

Which of the following will increase retention of a complete denture?

 Xerostomia D. Air chamber in midpalate
Foreshortened denture bases E. Increased salivary film thickness
Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa

The Benneth movement exerts its greatest influence in;

lateral movements C. opening movements
protrusive movements D. closing movements

The face-bow is used to record;

centric relation C. relation of the mandible to the max-
illa
relation of the maxilla to the TMJ D. relation of the mandible to the TMJ

The function of the compensating curve is;

to help provide a balanced occlusion in complete dentures when the mandible is
protruded.
To aid in establishing an incisal guide plane
The same as the function of the curve of Spee
None of the above.

A dentist relined a patient’s maxillary complete denture. This patient returned repeatedly for ad-
justments of the erythematous areas on the ridge crest. Which of the following is the most
likely cause?
An allergy to the acrylic resin that was used for relining.
Presence of a pressure spot in the relined impression
The loss of even centric relation contacts.
A decrease in the occlusal vertical dimension.

Which of the following describes the properties of improved zinc oxide-eugenol materials, ex-
cept:
They provide an excellent marginal seal.
They have a palliative effect on the dental pulp.
They have thermal insulation qualities that compare to those of dentin
They are easily removed fro the cavity preparation.

Practitioner pickles gold alloy restorations by heating them to redness and plunging them into
an acid bath. This procedure can result in which of the following?
A. Oxidation of the metal C. warpage of the restoration
B. Porosity in the casting D. surface roughness of the restoration

A tray for a polysulfide rubber impression that lacks occlusal stops may result in:
holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth
a more prolonged period of setting in the mouth before the tray is removed
an inaccurate final impression because of permanent distortion during polymeri-
zation
an inaccurate final impression because of elastic distortion during removal from the
mouth

An advantage of polysulfide impression material over reversible hydrocolloid material is that

polysulfide impression material;
will displace soft tissue C. requires less armamentarium
is significantly more accurate D. is more accurate if saliva, mucus or blood is
present.

In cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for corrosion resistance is:

silver B. nickel C. cobalt D. Chromium E. Tungsten
 Dental plaster (type II) powder differs from dental stone (type IV) powder primarily in;
Density B. crystal structure C. Chemical formula D. solubility in water

Polycarboxylate cement has which of the following advantages over zinc phosphate cement?
Longer working time C. increased compressive strength
Lower film thickness D. superior biologic compatibility

Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of transformation from sol to gel and gel to sol as
a function of the ;
concentration of the fillers and plasticizers C. percent composition by weight of
water
concentration of potassium sulfate D. temperature

Inlay wax patterns should be inserted as soon as possible after fabrication in order to minimize
changes in shape caused by;
Drying of the wax C. volatilization of wax components
Reduction in temperature D. continued expansion of the wax
E. relaxation of internal stresses

The strength of dental investments for gold alloys is dependent upon the amount of;
silica B. carbon C. gypsum D. alumina

75. The process of changing the rubber base product to a rubberlike material is
A. setting B. gelation C. vulcanization D. polymerization

The vapor pressure of mercury increase with:

A. increasing temperature C. contamination by dust
B. decreasing size of mercury droplets D. both A & B E. Both B & C.

Which of the following cement bases has the highest elastic modulus to best support an exten-
sive amalgam restoration?
A. zinc phosphate C. zinc polyacrylate
B. polymer-reinforced zinc oxide-eugenol D. glass ionomer

The following are classified as rigid impression materials, except:

A.Zinc oxide-eugenol B. impression plaster C. silicone rubber D. dental impression com-
pound

The impression material that shows the least dimensional change as a result of disinfection by
immersion is:
A. alginate B. agar C. polysulfide D. addition silicones E. polyether.

The gold content of an 18-K alloy is:

A. 50% B. 75% C. 100% D. 30%

81. The first procedure in casting:

A. impression B. investing C. preparation of wax pattern D. spatu-
lation.

82. The ff. are acidic dental cements except

A. silicate B. polycarboxylate C. zinc phosphate D. calcium hydroxide.

83. The ff. are causes of amalgam failure except

A. dimensional change B. fracture C. recurrent caries D. polished sur-
face.

84. Rapid disintegration of the investment from the casting ring is

 A. percolation B. investing C. quenching D. waxing.

85. The cleaning of the casted metal with an acid is

A. polymerization B. quenching C. soldering D. pickling.

86. The main ingredient of inlay wax is

A. carnauba B. paraffin C. gum dammar D. candillila wax.

87. The ff. are effects of wax pattern softened in a water bath except
A. thermal change B. spattering
C. easy to manipulate D. smearing of the surface of the wax.

88. The hottest portion of the flame in an air gas blowpipe

A. combustion B. reducing C. nozzle D. oxidizing zone.

89. Burnout is done in an electrical furnace for:

A. 30 min B.15 min C. 45 min. D.) one hour.

90. The passageway of the molten metal to reach the mold is

A. crucible B. sprue C. reservoir D. asbestos.

91. The size of the sprue depends upon

A. size of the wax pattern B. height of the casting ring
C. type of casting machine D. all of these

92. The following are classified as fillers except

A. borax C. diatomaceous earth E. zinc oxide
B. french chalk D. potassium sulfate.

93. The lag between liquefaction and gelation temperature is

A.. histeresis B. iceteresis C. syneresis D. hysteresis

94. The principal constituent by weight of reversible hydrocolloid

A. agar B. borax C. potassium sulfate D. zinc oxide E.water.

95. The ff. are ingredients of dental porcelain except

A. feldspar B. quartz C. silver D. glasses.

96. The area of the buccal frenum of a complete mandibular denture must be thinned to allow
for contraction of which of the following muscles?
Caninus B. masseter C. Zygomaticus D. Triangularis

97. Which of the following is not a member of the polyalkenoic acid family?
A. Polyacrylic acid. B. Polyitaconic acid.
C. Polymaleic acid. D. Polyacetic acid.

98. The metal ion in glass ionomer which has raised concern over neurotoxicity is:
A. Magnesium. B. Aluminum. C. Tin. D. Zinc.

99. When compared to other materials, which of the following is the main disadvantage of using
polyether elastomeric impression materials?
A. Tear easily C. are much stiffer
B. Stick to the teeth D. are not as accurate
E. have longer working time

100. An advantage of polysulfide impression material over reversible hydrocolloid material is that
polysulfide impression material;
 A. will displace soft tissue C. requires less armamentarium
B. is significantly more accurate D. is more accurate if saliva, mucus or blood is present.

PROSTHODONTICS 1, 2 & 3; DENTAL MATERIALS

1. Which classes of mandibular RPDs require an altered cast im-

pression?
A. Class I B. Class II C. Class III
D. Class IV E. both A & B

2. Examples of suprabulge clasps are the following except:

A. Circumferential B. Embrasure C.
RPI D. Ring E. Hairpin

3.The following are indications for a linguoplate as a major con-

nector for a mandibular RPD, except
A. High floor of the mouth (<7 mm of vertical height) D. High
lingual frenum
B. Absence of lingual tori E. One or more
missing incisors
C. Periodontially involved incisors with possible loss in the fu-
ture

4.The guide surface preparation should be curved

A. mesio-distally B. bucco-lingually C. occluso-
gingivally D. none of the above

5.The WORST clasp assembly for a terminal abutment on a mandibular

class I RPD is
A. Mesial rest and I-bar
C. Mesial and distal rest and a 1/2 and 1/2 clasp
B. Distal rest and cast circumferential clasp D. Mesial
rest and modified T-bar

6.During biting, a maxillary Class I RPD will rotate around a line

determined by the rigid metal above the survey line and closest to
the extension areas. This line is called
A. Camper's line B. Frankfort line C. Dual path
line D. Axis of rotation

7.Function of clasp:
A. help stabilize the RPD by controlling occlusal movement.
B. help stabilize the RPD by controlling gingival movement.
C. may also function as indirect retainers.
D. prevent excessive biting forces on the abutments.

8. When surveying to determine the height of contour of the abut-

ments, the mark on the tooth must be made by the: A. side of the
lead marker. C. side of the analyzing rod
B. tip of the carbon marker
D. tip of the analyzing rod

9. If a metal base is to be used

A. an altered cast impression should be made after framework try-
in
B. a stock tray should be used for the final impression
C. a custom tray should be used for the final impression
D. interocclusal records must be made after tooth selection

10.Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual un-

dercut and can be used on premolars for either extension or tooth-
supported RPDs?
A. half and half clasp B. lingual I-bar C. lingual
modified T-bar D. ring clasp

11. Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual un-

dercut and is only used on molars?
A. half and half clasp B. lingual I-bar C.
lingual modified T-bar D. ring clasp
12. Cleaning a removable partial denture in sodium hypochlorite
may result in:
A. increased caries activity
C. corrosion of the metal of the framework
B. increased periodontal problems D. A
and B above

13. Cast retentive arms are usually selected when the RPD is tooth
supported / or when the retentive tips release during functional
movements of extension RPDs.
A. First phrase is true, second phrase is false.
B. First phrase is true, second phrase is false.
C. First phrase is false, second phrase is false.
D. Both phrases are true.

14.Incisal rests:
A. are generally more positive vertical stops than cingulum rests.
B. may interfere with the opposing occlusion.
C. should not be used on maxillary incisors.
D. all of the above.

15.Which of the following steps is done LAST?

A. Rest preparation C.
Centric relation records
B. Framework try-in D. Al-
tered cast impression

16. In a circumferential clasp assembly, only one of the arms may

extend into an undercut. The other arm, the bracing or reciprocat-
ing arm, must be rigid and therefore, cannot extend into an under-
cut.
A. First statement is true, second statement is false.
B. First statement is false, second statement is true.
C. First statement is false, second statement is false.
D. First statement is true, second statement is true.

17. An anterior-posterior palatal strap major connector is less

rigid than a horse-shoe major connector because it (the A-P strap)
has less width.
A. The first statement is true but the reason is false.
B. The first statement is false and the reason is also a false
statement.
C. The first statement is true and the reason is true.
D. The first statement is false but the reason is a true state-
ment.

18. Guide plates for anterior teeth

A. should be kept to the labial for best esthetics. C. be
thinned on the labial aspect.
B. should be kept to the lingual for best esthetics. D.
both B and C above.

19. Occlusal rest preparations should be

A. spoon shaped C. at least one
millimeter deep
B. at least 1/3 the buccolingual width of the occlusal surface
D. all of the above

20. In general, lingual plating should be supported

A. by the inclined surfaces of the mandibular incisors. C.
with minor connectors.
B. with bracing arms. D. with rests.

21. The internal and external finish lines are

A. normally superimposed over each other.
B. normally offset from each other to avoid weakness in the frame-
work.
C. normally designed and placed independently.
D. none of the above statements are true.

22. When placing the tripod marks on the diagnostic cast, the ver-
tical arm of the surveyor
A. should have the analyzing rod in place.
B. should be moved up or down to touch the tissues at widely sepa-
rated areas.
C. Both 1 and 2 are true
D. Neither 1 nor 2 are true

23. The partial denture design should be finalized prior to

A. any emergency treatment. C.
preparation of rest seats.
B. any fixed prosthodontic treatment. D. both
B and C above.

24. The open latticework on a maxillary class I RPD:

A. covers the hamular notch. C.
does not cover the tuberosity.
B. covers the tuberosity.
D. requires substantial interarch space

25. The external finish line on a maxillary Class I RPD originates

from the lingual of the guide plate of the terminal abutment and
ends
A. at the hamular notch.
C. opposite the buccal pouch
B. in the glenoid fossa.
D. opposite Stenson's duct.

26. The following factor/s may be responsible for the failure to

seat the bridge:
A. Cusps may be high.
B. Under contouring axial surfaces of retainer.
C. Abutment teeth may have moved and one or more contacts may be
overbuilt.
D. Incorrect hinge axis.
E. None of the above.

27. Trauma to the pulp following tooth preparation for fixed bridges
arises from the following cause/s:
A. Use of spray water.
B. Severing vital structures in dentin and an increase in temperature
from frictional heat.
C. Coolant evacuation.
D. Anesthesia.
E. None of the above.

28. Following cementation, the bridge should be examined :

A. after 3 days. C. after 7 to 10 days.
B. after 14 days D. after 30 days E. none of these.

29. Intraradicular retainers is/are used on:

A. vital teeth
B. any tooth where a complete crown is indicated.
C. nonvital teeth when the coronal tissues cannot be saved.
D. any tooth where a three-quarter crown is indicated.
E. none of the above.

30. The construction of a bridge is normally scheduled after the

following is/are completed:
A. surgery
B. surgery, periodontal therapy and operative dentistry
C. periodontal therapy
D. Operative dentistry
E. none of the above.

31. Premature contacts in centric relation and any lateral slide as

patient closes into centric occlusion:
A. can be eliminated while bridge is under construction.
B. can be eliminated after bridge has been constructed.
C. need not be eliminated.
D. should be eliminated by grinding before the bridge is made.
E. none of the above.

32. The following amount of forward slide from centric relation to

centric occlusion can be regarded as normal in the absence of any
periodontal pathology or mobile teeth:
A. 1mm. B. 4mm. C. Up to 2mm. D. 6mm. E. None of tghese.

33. The incisal edge of the three-quarter crown retainer on the

cuspid tooth is:
A. about 45 degrees to long axis of tooth. C. 60 degrees to
long axis of tooth.
B. 30 degrees to long axis of tooth. D. 15 degrees to
long axis of tooth

34. The buccal three-quarter crown is a variation of the standard

three-quarter crown and is used on the:
A. maxillary molars C. maxillary cuspids
B. mandibular bicuspids D. mandibular molars E. None of
these.

35. The gold-veneer crown is indicated for any tooth where:

A. a three-quarter crown is indicated D. a mesial half
crown is indicated.
B. a complete crown is indicated E. none of these.
C. a buccal three-quarter crown is indicated

36. A telescopic crown :

A. is a mesial half crown
B. is a distal half crown
C. is a modified complete crown made as the coping and the crown.
D. Richmond crown

37. Telescopic crowns are indicated for:

A. nonvital teeth C. cases requiring shoulderless prepara-
tions
B. cuspids only D. broken-down crown

38.Indications for three-quarter crown retainers include:

A. when caries have eroded proximal and lingual surfaces.
B. cannot be used on any tooth (anterior or posterior)
C. cannot be used on periodontally involved tooth.
D. cannot be used on short anterior teeth

39. Temporary protection for the porcelain jacket crown preparation

should be accomplished by:
A. celluloid crown. D. gutta percha crown
B. a self-curing resin temporary crown E. none of these.
C. zinc oxide and eugenol

40. The nonrigid connector is:

A. used for long spans C. used when alveolus is extremely re-
duced
B. a broken-stress joint D. used when alveolus is actively re-
ceding

41.A good solder joint must have:

A. a triangular peripheral attachment
B. a complete and concave peripheral attachment
C. a partial and convex peripheral attachment
D. a partial and concave peripheral attachment
E. none of the above.

42. Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should
be explored. In the adult patient the depth is:
A. less than 1.0mm C. more than 10mm
B. less than 0.75mm D. more than 1.0mm E. none of these.

43. Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should
be explored. In the young patient the depth is:
A. more than 1.0mm B. more than 5.0mm C. shallow D. more than
2.0mm E. none

44. The complete seating of a FPD requires evaluation of the fol-

lowing:
contact areas 3. centric occlusion
marginal finish line 4. functional occlusion and sta-
bility
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,2,3,4 D. 1,2,4 E. 1 only

45. A curve of spee that is too flat produces:

A. molar cusps that are too short D. anterior teeth that are
too short
B. molar cusps that are too long E. none of the above.
C. anterior teeth that are too long

46. When the plane of occlusion is too low, the posterior cusps:
A. will appear too long C. will appear of normal length
B. will appear too short D. will appear out of occlusion
E. none of these.

47. FPD require the use of:

A. soft golds B. medium hard golds C. hard golds
D. Type A golds

48.Well-fired porcelain depends on good preliminary condensation.

This is accomplished by the following method/s: 1. Vibration
2. Pressure 3. Brushing 4. Capillary packing
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1,2,3 and 4 D. 1 only
E. 4 only.

49. A disadvantage of the porcelain bonded to gold is:

A. porosity B. color stability C. The casting of the restorative
gold D. allergy E. none of these.

50. The first essential condition for physiologic tooth form for the
FPD is:
A. hinge axis C. dentolabial relations
B. harmony of jaws D. functional occlusion E. none of these.

51. Which is the best pre-extraction guide for complete dentures:

A. size of face C. color
of teeth E. photographs
B. size of teeth D. casts
of natural teeth

52. Which of the following factors is necessary in the adhesion of

denture bases to the tissue:
A. Rounded peripheries C. Atmospheric
pressure E. All of them
B. Proper peripheral seal D. Thin film
of saliva
53-62. For these numbers, identify the impression materials with
its corresponding characteristics. Choose from the following:
A. zinc oxide eugenol paste C. reversible hy-
drocolloid E. Tru plaster
B. irreversible hydrocolloid D. rubber im-
pression

53. used for high thin mandibular ridges D

58. lose moisture and is affected by saliva B
54. burning sensation can be felt A
59. requires separating medium before pouring E
55. weight of stone may distort border B
60. absorbs mucus secretion from the palate E
56. final impression material of choice for complete denture A
61.does not absorb mucus secretion B
57. used for preliminary impression C
62. change size rapidly B

63. Prior to centric relation registration, guidelines to deter-

mine the width of the six anterior teeth:
A. low lip line B. cuspid line C. high lip line
D. midline

64-67. For these numbers, choose the right answer from the follow-
ing:
A. vertical dimension C. centric
relation E. occlusal contour rim
B. centric occlusion D. trial
record base

64. tentative blueprint for complete denture E

66. tooth to tooth relationship B
65. bone to bone relationship C
67. height of the face A

68-71. For these numbers, choose from the following:

A. overbite B. high lip line C. alar line
D. overjet

68. determines length of anterior teeth B

70. guide to set posterior teeth E
69. determines width of six anterior teeth C
71. horizontal overlap D

72. The distal palatal termination of the upper denture is best

dictated by:
A. hamulus B. vibrating line C. fovea palatine
D. A and B only E. B and C only

73. The oral structure which remains consistent through life:

A. residual ridge B. incisive papilla C. mental fora-
men D. maxillary tuberosity E. all of them
74. The inter arch distance is located between:
A. the edentulous ridges C. mastica-
tory surface of the teeth with mouth open fully
B. masticatory surface of the teeth at rest D. all of the above
E. none of the above

75. The following are the most important aspect of complete den-
ture construction:
A. accurate impression C. proper
occlusion
B. correct jaw relations D. all of
the above E. none of the above

76. The best pickling agent is: A. phosphoric acid B. hydrochlo-

ric acid C. sulfuric acid D. nitric acid.

77. The clinical signs of expansion of amalgam are the ff. except:
A. pain B. corrosion C.protrusion of amalgam D. smooth and
shiny.

78. The standard size of gold foil: A. 4 inches B. 4 meters

C. 4 mm. D. 4 inches sq.

79. U. S. P. labeled for a bottle of mercury is :

A. distilled B. redistilled C. pure mercury D. contam-
inated.

80. The ff. are ingredients of dental porcelain except

A. feldspar B. quartz C. silver D. glasses.

81. The first procedure in casting:

A. impression B. investing C. preparation of wax pattern
D. spatulation.

82. The ff. are acidic dental cements except

A. silicate B. polycarboxylate C. zinc phosphate D. calcium
hydroxide.

83. The ff. are causes of amalgam failure except

A. dimensional change B. fracture C. recurrent caries
D. polished surface.

84. Rapid disintegration of the investment from the casting ring

is
A. percolation B. investing C. quenching D.
waxing.

85. The cleaning of the casted metal with an acid is

A. polymerization B. quenching C. soldering
D. pickling.

86. The main ingredient of inlay wax is

A. carnauba B. paraffin C. gum dammar
D. candillila wax.

87. The ff. are effects of wax pattern softened in a water bath
except
A. thermal change B. spattering C. easy to manipulate D.
smearing of the surface of the wax.

88. The hottest portion of the flame in an air gas blowpipe

A. combustion B. reducing C. nozzle D. oxidizing zone.

89. Burnout is done in an electrical furnace for: A. 30 min

B.15 min C. 45 min. D.) one hour.

90. The passageway of the molten metal to reach the mold is

A. crucible B. sprue C. reservoir D. asbestos.

91. The size of the sprue depends upon

A. size of the wax pattern B. height of the casting ring
C. type of casting machine D. all of these

92. The following are classified as fillers except a) borax b)

diatomaceous earth c) zinc oxide d) french chalk e) potassium
sulfate.

93. The lag between liquefaction and gelation temperature is

A.. histeresis B. iceteresis C. syneresis D. hystere-
sis E. none of the above.

94. The principal constituent by weight of reversible hydrocolloid

A. agar B. borax C. potassium sulfate D. zinc
oxide E.water.

95. The adhesive material for polysulfide rubber is

A. dimethyl siloxane B. glass ionomer C. butyl rubber cement
D. silicate cement E. none of these

96. The process of changing the rubber base product to a rubber-

like material is
A. setting B. gelation C. vulcanization D. polymeriza-
tion E. none of the above.

97. The ff are causes of chalky stone cast except:

A. inadequate cleaning of the impression D. excess water left
in the impression
B. premature removal of the impression E. premature re-
moval of the cast
C. improper mixing of the cast stone.

98. The commercial accelerators for zinc oxide eugenol are the
following except
A. zinc acetate B. petrolatum C. glacial acetic acid D. cal-
cium chloride E. primary alcohol.
99. One that facilitates easy removal of the impression plaster
and the cast is
A.borax B. tomato starch C. potato starch D. buttered
starch.

100. Gypsum is
A. calcium sulfate hemihydrate B. alpha hemihydrate C. beta hemi-
hydrate D. calcium sulfate dihydrate.

PROSTHODONTICS AND DENTAL MATERIALS

The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial denture

is best enhanced by:
using a higher carat solder C. increasing its
width
increasing its height D. increasing the gap

A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed

partial denture in order to:
improve the distribution of the occlusal load
improve embrasure contours
stabilize the abutment teeth
improve mesiodistal spacing

A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a pa-

tient’s denture teeth to correct the centric occlusion at the
wax try-in appointment. Which of the following should this
dentist do?
Make a new centric relation record and remount
Make a new face bow and centric record
Make a slight occlusal adjustments in the mouth
Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation patients

Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from

which of the following?
Lingually inclined maxillary molars
Lingually inclined mandibular premolars
Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars
Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces

In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the den-

tist will use a hygienic pontic. Which of the following will
primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal
portion of this pontic?
The length of the pontic.
The masticatory force of the patient.
The position of the opposing contact areas.
The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.
In the construction of a removable partial denture, when is a
lingual plate preferred over a lingual bar connector?
When more rigidity is required.
When the remaining teeth are widely spaced.
When the remaining anterior teeth are mobile.
When there is no space in the floor of the mouth.

Which of the following explains why mandibular molars should not

be placed over the ascending area of the mandible?
The denture base ends where the ramus ascends.
The molars would interfere with the retromolar pad.
The teeth in this area would encroach on the tongue space
The teeth in this area would interfere with the action of
the masseter muscle.
The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would dislodge
the mandibular denture.

Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results

in:
unseating of the denture C. greater retention
a tingling sensation D. increased gagging
For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of
maxillary posterior teeth on the non-working side contacts
which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth?
The facial inclines of the lingual cusps
The lingual inclines of the lingual cusps
The lingual inclines of the facial cusps
The central fossae

The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and
there is an apparent loss of the vermillion border of the
lips. Which of the following procedures is indicated to cor-
rect the situation?
Moving the anterior teeth facially.
Increasing the interocclusal distance
Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension
Increasing the occlusal vertical dimension

The dentist should place the terminus of a retentive clasp arm

at (in) the:
junction of the gingival and middle one third of the clini-
cal crown
junction of the middle and occlusal one third of the clini-
cal crown
level of the free gingival margin
occlusal one third of the clinical crown

The speech sounds that bring the mandible closest to the maxilla
are the:
“s” sounds C. “t” and “th” sounds
“f” and “v” sounds D. vowel sounds
For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most
important to maintain the remaining supporting tissues?
Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric
occlusal contacts
Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth

The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal

splint is:
increased rigidity C. increased durability
increased retention D. conservation of tooth
surface

A dentist relined a patient’s maxillary complete denture. This

patient returned repeatedly for adjustments of the erythema-
tous areas on the ridge crest. Which of the following is the
most likely cause?
An allergy to the acrylic resin that was used for relining.
Presence of a pressure spot in the relined impression
The loss of even centric relation contacts.
A decrease in the occlusal vertical dimension.

The one relation of the condyles to the fossae in which a pure

hinging movements is possible is:
centric occlusion
retruded contact position
postural position of the mandible (rest vertical dimension)
transverse horizontal axis (terminal hinge position)

In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion rims

and central bearing point are in contact and the mandible is
in centric relation, the length of the face is known as the:
interocclusal rest space C. physiologic rest posi-
tion
vertical dimension D. rest vertical dimension
E. occlusal vertical dimension

In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:

limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture.
affect the position and arrangement of the posterior tooth
limit the thickness of the denture flange in the maxillary
buccal space
determine the location of the posterior palatal seal of the
maxillary denture.

Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic

teeth in a removable partial denture? Plastic teeth are:
resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable
resistant to stains D. retained well in
acrylic resin

A patient who has a moderate bony undercut on the facial from

canine-to-canine needs an immediate maxillary denture. There
 is also a tuberosity that is severely undercut. This patient
is best treated by:
reducing surgically the tuberosity only.
reducing surgically the facial bony undercut only
reducing surgically both tuberosity and facial bony under-
cut
leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the denture base.

Which of the following direct retainers for a removable partial

denture is the most esthetic?
A bar clasp C. an intracoronal attach-
ment
A circumferential clasp D. a round, wrought-
wire clasp

Under which of the following conditions will it be critical to

mount a patient’s casts on the true hinge axis?
When the patient has a severe Class II occlusal relation.
When the patient requires several fixed partial dentures.
When the dentist plans to change the vertical dimension
through restorations.
When the dentist plans to fabricate dentures with high-
cusped teeth on a fully adjusted articulator.

In complete denture fabrication, which of the following regu-

late/s the paths of the condyles in mandibular movements?
the height of the cusps of posterior teeth.
The amount of horizontal and vertical overlap.
The size and shape of the bony fossae and the menisci and
muscular influence.
The vertical occlusion, centric relation, and degree of
compensating curve.

Which of the following best explains why the dentist should pro-
vide a postpalatal seal in a complete maxillary denture? The
seal will compensate for:
errors in fabrication C. polymerization and
cooling shrinkage
tissue displacement D. deformation of the im-
pression material

For complete dentures, which of the following three factors af-

fect the correct positioning of lips?
Face-bow transfer, position of teeth, and correct rest ver-
tical dimension.
Face-bow transfer, thickness of the anterior border, and
correct occlusal vertical dimension.
Correct rest vertical dimension, thickness of the anterior
border and position of teeth.
Correct occlusal vertical dimension, thickness of the ante-
rior border and position of teeth.
Which of the following jaw-relation records should be used for
setting both the medial and superior condylar guides on an ar-
con articulator?
Intercuspation C. lateral interocclusal records
Centric relation D. protrusive interocclusal records

An incorrect occlusal vertical dimension causes a patient to

overclose and to have a poor facial profile. To correct this
problem, the dentist should do which of the following?
increase the rest vertical dimension and increase the in-
terocclusal distance
decrease the rest vertical dimension and diminish the in-
terocclusal distance
decrease the occlusal vertical dimension and increase in-
terocclusal distance
increase the occlusal vertical dimension and diminish the
interocclusal distance

Which of the following adverse conditions may arise if occlusal

vertical dimension is increased?
The closing muscles may become strained
The opening muscles may become strained
The closing muscles may become too relaxed
Soreness may occur at the corners of the mouth.

A patient has a chronically tender, knife-edge mandibular resid-

ual ridge. In fabricating a complete denture for this patient,
a dentist should consider which of the following?
Maximal extension of the denture- to distribute forces of
occlusion over a greater area.
Minimal extension of the denture- to limit tenderness to a
smaller area.
Decreased occlusal vertical dimension- to decrease biting
forces
A broad occlusal table- to provide a firmer contact in ec-
centric jar relations.

Tripod marks are placed on the cast after surveying for which of
the following reasons?
To record the undercut areas on the abutment teeth.
To help mount the cast on the articulator
To record the orientation of the cast to the articulator
To record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor.

In a complete maxillary denture, accurate adaptation of the bor-

der of the maxillary facial flange affects which of the fol-
lowing the most?
Speech B. support C. stability D. esthet-
ics

The distofacial periphery of the mandibular impression should

receive special attention. Which of the following anatomical
 structures might cause soreness if the denture is overex-
tended?
Masseter C. pterygmandibular raphe
Buccinator D. internal pterygoid E. lateral
tendon of the temporal

A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and

mandibular distal-extension partial denture. The recommended
procedure is to
make impression of both simultaneously
start first on the maxillary complete denture
start first with the least stable prosthesis
relate first the mandibular partial denture frame

Which of the following mechanical properties limits the amount

of adjustment of a base metal removable clasp arm?
Hardness B. stiffness C. elongation D. tensile
strength

A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and

mandibular distal-extension partial denture. The recommended
procedure is to
make impression of both simultaneously
start first on the maxillary complete denture
start first with the least stable prosthesis
relate first the mandibular partial denture frame

In lateral movements, the non-working condyle moves in what di-

rection?
Out, back and up C. down, forward and medially
Up, back and down D. down, forward and laterally
E. none of the above.

The most likely tissue reaction to gross overextension of a

complete denture that has been worn for a long time is:
epulis fissuratum C. papillary hyperplasia
pyogenic granuloma D. giant cell reparative granuloma

The relationship of denture base to bone that resists dislodge-

ment of the denture in a horizontal direction is:
support B. pressure C. esthetics D. stabil-
ity

Failure of partial denture due tompoor clasp design can be best

avoided by:
Using stressbreakers
using intracoronal attachments
Using bar-type clasps
altering tooth contours
clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns and nor-
mal bone support
Repeated fracture of a porcelain-fused to metal restoration is
due primarily to:
occlusal trauma C. failure to use a metal condi-
tioner
improper firing schedule D. an inadequately designed
framework

A patient who wears complete denture is having trouble pro-

nouncing the letter “t”. This is probably caused by:
too thick a palatal seal area
too thick a base in the mandibular denture
incorrect positioning of maxillary incisors
improper positioning of mandibular incisors

The distolingual extension of the mandibular impression for a

complete denture is limited by the action of the:
stylohyoid muscle C. lateral pterygoid muscle
medial pterygoid muscle D. superior constrictor
muscle

In RPD design. Guiding planes serve to:

aid in balancing occlusion
assure predictable clasp retention
from right angles to the occlusal plane
eliminate the necessity for precision attachments
eliminate the necessity for a back-action clasp

When the path of dislodgement is not controlled and rotational

dislodgement of extension bases occurs, remotely located ver-
tical metal stops placed in prepared seats can be used to en-
hance the effectiveness of retentive clasps. The vertical
metal stops are:
indirect claps C. indirect retainers
remote retainer D. forward retainers E. passive
retainers

Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may result in

poor denture retention
increased interocclusal distance
drooping of the corners of the mouth
creases and wrinkles around the lip
trauma to underlying supporting tissues

An advantage of a wide, thin palatal bar compared with a narrow

bar is that the wide bar:
is more stable C. can be rigid with less bulk
is easier to polish D. is less irritating to the
soft tissue

When a cusp is in deflective occlusal contact in centric rela-

tion, but does not contact in one or more of the eccentric
movements, grinding should be performed on:
 both the cusp and the opposing area
the opposing fossa or the marginal ridge
the cusp that is in deflective occlusal contact
the opposing areas in eccentric positions.

Proper lip support for a patient with complete dentures is pro-

vided primarily by the;
convex surface of the labial flange
rounded contours of interdental papillae
proper pronouncement of sibilant sounds
thickness of the border in the vestibule
facial surfaces of teeth and stimulated attached gingiva.

In determining the posterior limit of a maxillary denture base,

which of the following is on the posterior border?
Hamular notch C. fovea palatini
Hamular process D. vibrating line E. pterygomandibular
raphe

Which of the following will increase retention of a complete

denture?
Xerostomia
Air chamber in midpalate
Foreshortened denture bases
Increased salivary film thickness
Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa

Treatment of choice for a patient with a maxillary complete

denture with severe bilateral tuberosity undercuts is to:
remove both tuberosity undercuts
reduce the tissue bilaterally
reduce the tissue on one side , if possible
none of the above. No treatment is necessary.

Translation in a mandibular opening movement occurs;

on closing from centric relation
on initial opening from centric relation
in the upper compartment of the TMJ
in the lower compartment of the TMJ

When the posterior maxillary buccal space is entirely filled

with the denture flange, interference may occur with movement
of the;
masseter muscle C. condyloid process
coronoid process D. zygomatic process

A patient complains of “looseness” with a new bilateral distal

extension RPD. This is probably caused by:
deflective occlusal contacts
thin flanges on acrylic bases
passive clasp pressure on abutment teeth
insufficient facial overlap on posterior teeth
When the mandible is in its physiologic rest position, the dis-
tance between occluding surfaces of maxillary and mandibular
teeth or occlusion rim is;
centric occlusion C. interocclusal distance
vertical dimension D. vertical dimension of rest

Which of the following design characteristics of a partial den-

ture is most important to oral health?
Bracing B. support C. stability D. reten-
tion

The principal factor in minimizing the firing shrinkage of

porcelain is the;
fusion temperature C. uniformity of particle size
ratio of flux to feldspar D. thoroughness of condensation

An abutment tooth exhibiting an unfavorable survey line should;

be restored
have unfavorable contours improved
be by-passed in the framework design
receive only a rest and not be clasped

To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered

joint of a fixed bridge should be so formed that it;
extends to the buccal margin of the retainer
fills the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally
is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually
is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact
area

Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort

to heat and cold but not sweets occurs. The most likely cause
is;
gingival recession
unseating of the bridge
deflective occlusal contact
torsional forces on one abutment tooth
incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment
teeth

The means by which one part of a partial denture framework op-

poses the action of the retainer in function is called;
tripoding C. stress-breaking
reciprocation D. indirect retention

The Benneth movement exerts its greatest influence in;

lateral movements C. opening movements
protrusive movements D. closing movements

The face-bow is used to record;

centric relation
relation of the mandible to the maxilla
 relation of the maxilla to the TMJ
relation of the mandible to the TMJ

The function of the compensating curve is;

to help provide a balanced occlusion in complete dentures
when the mandible is protruded.
To aid in establishing an incisal guide plane
The same as the function of the curve of Spee
None of the above.

The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration

is;
moisture contamination
excessive condensation of the porcelain
excessive firing
inadequate condensation of the porcelain

On the articulator, the incisal guidance is the;

horizontal guidance
same as the condylar guidance
mechanical equivalent of the curve of Spee
mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlap.

A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment

tooth because;
it is stronger
better esthetics can be achieved
it can be treated as an independent abutment
less chair time is required in its fabrication

The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown

preparation is that;
it is a dul knife edge. C. its position be su-
pragingival
Its position be subgingivall D. its position be
easily discernible

Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as

an abutment tooth for a FPD?
Tooth with pulpal involvement
Tooth with minimal coronal structure
Tooth rotated and tipped out of line
Tooth with short , tapered root with long clinical crown

In metal-ceramic crowns and FPD, the function of tin, indium and

other readily oxidized minor components of the alloy is to;
Improve bonding
Decrease porosity
React with the porcelain and make an opaque layer to mask
the metal
Improve thermal expansion matching between the metal and
the porcelain
Porcelain bonded to metal is strongest when
air fired C. tempered after firing
under compression D. fired several times before completion

The phenomenon where porcelain aapears different under varying

light conditions is;
metamerism C. transmittance
translucency D. opacification E. refractive
optics

Retention and resistance forms in full coverage preparations on

short molars can be enhanced by;
using zinc phosphate cement
placing several vertical groove
using a full shoulder finish line
minimizing the depth of occlusal carving

The posterior occlusal plane is determined on an occlusion rim

by paralleling the rim with the;
ala-tragus plane C. tragus-canthus plane
ala-canthus plane D. ala-external auditory meatus
plane

The secondary peripheral seal area of a mandibular complete

denture is the;
labial border C. distolingual border
buccal border D. anterior lingual border

Which of the following describes a material with high compres-

sive strength but low tensile strength?
Tough B. brittle C. ductile D. malleable
E. resilient

Which of the following syringe materials is the most rigid and,

therefore, the most difficult to remove from the mouth?
Polyether C. Addition silicone
Polysulfide D. Condensation silicone E. reversible
hydrocolloid

Which of the following describes the properties of improved

zinc oxide-eugenol materials, except:
They provide an excellent marginal seal.
They have a palliative effect on the dental pulp.
They have thermal insulation qualities that compare to
those of dentin
They are easily removed fro the cavity preparation.

Practitioner pickles gold alloy restorations by heating them to

redness and plunging them into an acid bath. This procedure
can result in which of the following?
A. Oxidation of the metal C. warpage of the restora-
tion
 B. Porosity in the casting D. surface roughness
of the restoration

Which of the following properties of a gold alloy exceeds a

base-metal alloy in numerical value?
Hardness C. casting shrinkage
Specific gravity D. fusion temperature E. modulus elas-
ticity

Which of the following is the best reason for pouring a conden-

sation impression material as soon as possible?
The degree of polymerization of condensation polymers is
initially high and then decreases with time.
Evaporation of a volatile by-product causes shrinkage of
the set material.
If left unpoured, condensation impression materials expands
as they absorb water from air.
Condensation polymers will start to react with the polymer
of the impression tray and cause distortion.

A tray for a polysulfide rubber impression that lacks occlusal

stops may result in:
holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth
a more prolonged period of setting in the mouth before the
tray is removed
an inaccurate final impression because of permanent distor-
tion during polymerization
an inaccurate final impression because of elastic distor-
tion during removal from the mouth

When compared to other materials, which of the following is the

main disadvantage of using polyether elastomeric impression
materials?
Tear easily C. are much stiffer
Stick to the teeth D. are not as accurate
E. have longer working time

An advantage of polysulfide impression material over reversible

hydrocolloid material is that polysulfide impression material;
will displace soft tissue
requires less armamentarium
is significantly more accurate
is more accurate if saliva, mucus or blood is present.

In cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for cor-

rosion resistance is:
silver B. nickel C. cobalt D. Chromium E. Tungsten

Dental plaster (type II) powder differs from dental stone (type
IV) powder primarily in;
 Density C. crystal structure
Chemical formula D. solubility in water

Polycarboxylate cement has which of the following advantages

over zinc phosphate cement?
Longer working time C. increased compressive strength
Lower film thickness D. superior biologic compatibility

Elongated grains in the microstructure of a wrought wire indi-

cates that it has been;
cold worked C. stress relief annealed
recrystallized D. hardened by heat treatment

Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates;

degree of translucency
degree of saturation of the hue
combined effect of hue and value
all of the above
none of the above.

Which of the following materials will produce the most rigid

restoration for frameworks of the same dimension?
Wrought gold C. Cobalt-chromium alloys
Palladium alloys D. partial denture casting gold in the
hardened condition

Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of transfor-

mation from sol to gel and gel to sol as a function of the ;
concentration of the fillers and plasticizers
percent composition by weight of water
concentration of potassium sulfate
temperature

Inlay wax patterns should be inserted as soon as possible after

fabrication in order to minimize changes in shape caused by;
Drying of the wax C. volatilization of wax compo-
nents
Reduction in temperature D. continued expansion of
the wax
E. relaxation of internal
stresses

The strength of dental investments for gold alloys is dependent

upon the amount of;
silica B. carbon C. gypsum D. alumina

The property that most closely describes the ability of a cast

gold inlay to be burnished is;
elastic limit C. percentage elongation
ultimate strength D. modulus of resilience
E. modulus of elasticity

Creep of a metal indicates that the metal;

 lacks edge strength C. has insufficient retention
has excessive flexibility D. will deform under static
load
E. has insufficient crushing
strength

Which of the following properties of dental materials is time-

dependent?
Creep C. elastic limit
Resilience D. ultimate strength E. compressive
strength

The discolored, corroded, superficial layer frequently seen on

the surface of a dental amalgam restoration is most likely;
mercury B. a sulfide C. gamma-2 D. copper
oxide

Which of the following is a problem with the polyether impres-

sion materials?
Low modulus of elasticity
Low coefficient of thermal conductivity
dimensional instability when exposed to moisture
consistency very similar to the reversible hydrocolloid

The component common to most composite resins, sealants, bond-

ing and glazing agents, and resin cements for orthodontic
bonds is;
inorganic filler C. poly (methyl methacrylate)
benzoyl methyl ether D. bisphenol A-glycidyl methacrylate

Dental amalgam will best withstand forces of;

Shear B. impact C. tension D. compres-
sion

“The LORD treats us according to our merits;

according to the cleanness of our hearts.”
Psalm 18:25
 PROSTHODONTICS 1,2,3 AND DENTAL MATERIALS
Shade AE if the answer is not in the choices given.

An advantage of a wide, thin palatal bar compared with a narrow

bar is that the wide bar:
A. is more stable C. can be rigid with less
bulk
B. is easier to polish D. is less irritating
to the soft tissue

When a cusp is in deflective occlusal contact in centric rela-

tion, but does not contact in one or more of the eccentric
movements, grinding should be performed on:
A. both the cusp and the opposing area C. the op-
posing fossa or the marginal ridge
B. the cusp that is in deflective occlusal contact D. the
opposing areas in eccentric positions.

Proper lip support for a patient with complete dentures is pro-

vided primarily by the;
A. convex surface of the labial flange D..
rounded contours of interdental papillae
B. proper pronouncement of sibilant sounds E.
thickness of the border in the vestibule
C .facial surfaces of teeth and stimulated attached gin-
giva.

In determining the posterior limit of a maxillary denture base,

which of the following is on the posterior border?
A. Hamular notch C. fovea palatini
B. Hamular process D. vibrating line E. ptery-
gomandibular raphe
 Which of the following will increase retention of a complete
denture?
A. Xerostomia D. Air chamber in
midpalate
B. Foreshortened denture bases E. Increased
salivary film thickness
Accurate adaptation of the denture base to the mucosa

Which of the following design characteristics of a partial den-

ture is most important to oral health?
A. Bracing B. support C. stability D. re-
tention

The principal factor in minimizing the firing shrinkage of

porcelain is the;
fusion temperature C. uniformity of particle size
ratio of flux to feldspar D. thoroughness of condensation

An abutment tooth exhibiting an unfavorable survey line should;

be restored C. have unfavorable con-
tours improved
be by-passed in the framework design D. receive only a
rest and not be clasped

To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered

joint of a fixed bridge should be so formed that it;
extends to the buccal margin of the retainer
fills the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally
is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually
is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact
area

Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort

to heat and cold but not sweets occurs. The most likely cause
is;
gingival recession D. unseating of the
bridge
deflective occlusal contact E. torsional forces
on one abutment tooth
incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment
teeth

The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial denture

is best enhanced by:
using a higher carat solder C. increasing its width
increasing its height D. increasing the gap

A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed

partial denture in order to:
improve the distribution of the occlusal load C. improve
embrasure contours
 stabilize the abutment teeth D. improve
mesiodistal spacing

A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a pa-

tient’s denture teeth to correct the centric occlusion at the
wax try-in appointment. Which of the following should this
dentist do?
Make a new centric relation record and remount
Make a new face bow and centric record
Make a slight occlusal adjustments in the mouth
Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation patients

Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from

which of the following?
Lingually inclined maxillary molars
Lingually inclined mandibular premolars
Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars
Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces

In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the den-

tist will use a hygienic pontic. Which of the following will
primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal
portion of this pontic?
The length of the pontic.
The masticatory force of the patient.
The position of the opposing contact areas.
The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.

The most frequent cause of porosity in a porcelain restoration

is;
moisture contamination C. excessive condensation of
the porcelain
excessive firing D. inadequate condensation of
the porcelain

On the articulator, the incisal guidance is the;

horizontal guidance C. mechanical equivalent of
the curve of Spee
same as the condylar guidance D. mechanical equivalent of
horizontal and vertical overlap.

A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment

tooth because;
it is stronger C. better es-
thetics can be achieved
it can be treated as an independent abutment D. less
chair time is required in its fabrication

The most important criterion for a gingival margin on a crown

preparation is that;
it is a dul knife edge. C. its position be
supragingival
 Its position be subgingivall D. its position be
easily discernible

Which of the following teeth is the least desirable to use as

an abutment tooth for a FPD?
Tooth with pulpal involvement
Tooth with minimal coronal structure
Tooth rotated and tipped out of line
Tooth with short , tapered root with long clinical crown

In the construction of a removable partial denture, when is a

lingual plate preferred over a lingual bar connector?
When more rigidity is required.
When the remaining teeth are widely spaced.
When the remaining anterior teeth are mobile.
When there is no space in the floor of the mouth.

Which of the following explains why mandibular molars should not

be placed over the ascending area of the mandible?
The denture base ends where the ramus ascends.
The molars would interfere with the retromolar pad.
The teeth in this area would encroach on the tongue space
The teeth in this area would interfere with the action of
the masseter muscle.
The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would dislodge
the mandibular denture.

Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results

in:
unseating of the denture C. greater retention
a tingling sensation D. increased gagging

For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of

maxillary posterior teeth on the non-working side contacts
which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth?
The facial inclines of the lingual cusps C. The lingual
inclines of the lingual cusps
The lingual inclines of the facial cusps D. The central
fossae

The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and
there is an apparent loss of the vermillion border of the
lips. Which of the following procedures is indicated to cor-
rect the situation?
Moving the anterior teeth facially. C. Increasing
the interocclusal distance
Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension D. Increasing
the occlusal vertical dimension

In a complete maxillary denture, accurate adaptation of the bor-

der of the maxillary facial flange affects which of the fol-
lowing the most?
 Speech B. support C. stability D. es-
thetics

The distofacial periphery of the mandibular impression should

receive special attention. Which of the following anatomical
structures might cause soreness if the denture is overex-
tended?
Masseter C. pterygmandibular raphe
Buccinator D. internal pterygoid E. lateral
tendon of the temporal

A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and

mandibular distal-extension partial denture. The recommended
procedure is to
make impression of both simultaneously
start first on the maxillary complete denture
start first with the least stable prosthesis
relate first the mandibular partial denture frame

Which of the following mechanical properties limits the amount

of adjustment of a base metal removable clasp arm?
Hardness B. stiffness C. elongation D.
tensile strength

A patient needs relining of both maxillary complete denture and

mandibular distal-extension partial denture. The recommended
procedure is to
make impression of both simultaneously
start first on the maxillary complete denture
start first with the least stable prosthesis
relate first the mandibular partial denture frame

The dentist should place the terminus of a retentive clasp arm

at (in) the:
junction of the gingival and middle one third of the clini-
cal crown
junction of the middle and occlusal one third of the clini-
cal crown
level of the free gingival margin
occlusal one third of the clinical crown

The speech sounds that bring the mandible closest to the maxilla
are the:
“s” sounds C. “t” and “th” sounds
“f” and “v” sounds D. vowel sounds

For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most

important to maintain the remaining supporting tissues?
Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric
occlusal contacts
Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth
The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal
splint is:
increased rigidity C. increased durability
increased retention D. conservation of tooth
surface

In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:

limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture.
affect the position and arrangement of the posterior tooth
limit the thickness of the denture flange in the maxillary
buccal space
determine the location of the posterior palatal seal of the
maxillary denture.

A dentist relined a patient’s maxillary complete denture. This

patient returned repeatedly for adjustments of the erythema-
tous areas on the ridge crest. Which of the following is the
most likely cause?
An allergy to the acrylic resin that was used for relining.
Presence of a pressure spot in the relined impression
The loss of even centric relation contacts.
A decrease in the occlusal vertical dimension.

The one relation of the condyles to the fossae in which a pure

hinging movements is possible is:
centric occlusion C. postural position of the mandible
(rest vertical dimension)
retruded contact position D. transverse horizontal axis
(terminal hinge position)

In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion rims

and central bearing point are in contact and the mandible is
in centric relation, the length of the face is known as the:
interocclusal rest space C. physiologic rest position
vertical dimension D. rest vertical dimension
E. occlusal vertical dimension

Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic

teeth in a removable partial denture? Plastic teeth are:
resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable
resistant to stains D. retained well in
acrylic resin

A patient who has a moderate bony undercut on the facial from

canine-to-canine needs an immediate maxillary denture. There
is also a tuberosity that is severely undercut. This patient
is best treated by:
reducing surgically the tuberosity only.
reducing surgically the facial bony undercut only
reducing surgically both tuberosity and facial bony under-
cut
leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the denture base.
Which of the following direct retainers for a removable partial
denture is the most esthetic?
A bar clasp C. an intracoronal attach-
ment
A circumferential clasp D. a round, wrought-
wire clasp

Under which of the following conditions will it be critical to

mount a patient’s casts on the true hinge axis?
When the patient has a severe Class II occlusal relation.
When the patient requires several fixed partial dentures.
When the dentist plans to change the vertical dimension
through restorations.
When the dentist plans to fabricate dentures with high-
cusped teeth on a fully adjusted articulator.

In complete denture fabrication, which of the following regu-

late/s the paths of the condyles in mandibular movements?
the height of the cusps of posterior teeth.
The amount of horizontal and vertical overlap.
The size and shape of the bony fossae and the menisci and
muscular influence.
The vertical occlusion, centric relation, and degree of
compensating curve.

Which of the following best explains why the dentist should pro-
vide a postpalatal seal in a complete maxillary denture? The
seal will compensate for:
errors in fabrication C. polymerization and
cooling shrinkage
tissue displacement D. deformation of the im-
pression material

For complete dentures, which of the following three factors af-

fect the correct positioning of lips?
Face-bow transfer, position of teeth, and correct rest ver-
tical dimension.
Face-bow transfer, thickness of the anterior border, and
correct occlusal vertical dimension.
Correct rest vertical dimension, thickness of the anterior
border and position of teeth.
Correct occlusal vertical dimension, thickness of the ante-
rior border and position of teeth.

In metal-ceramic crowns and FPD, the function of tin, indium and

other readily oxidized minor components of the alloy is to;
Improve bonding
Decrease porosity
 React with the porcelain and make an opaque layer to mask
the metal
Improve thermal expansion matching between the metal and
the porcelain

Porcelain bonded to metal is strongest when

air fired C. tempered after firing
under compression D. fired several times before com-
pletion

The phenomenon where porcelain aapears different under varying

light conditions is;
metamerism C. transmittance
translucency D. opacification E. refractive
optics

Retention and resistance forms in full coverage preparations on

short molars can be enhanced by;
using zinc phosphate cement C. placing several
vertical groove
using a full shoulder finish line D. minimizing
the depth of occlusal carving

The posterior occlusal plane is determined on an occlusion rim

by paralleling the rim with the;
ala-tragus plane C. tragus-canthus plane
ala-canthus plane D. ala-external auditory meatus
plane

Which of the following jaw-relation records should be used for

setting both the medial and superior condylar guides on an ar-
con articulator?
Intercuspation C. lateral interocclusal records
Centric relation D. protrusive interocclusal records

An incorrect occlusal vertical dimension causes a patient to

overclose and to have a poor facial profile. To correct this
problem, the dentist should do which of the following?
increase the rest vertical dimension and increase the in-
terocclusal distance
decrease the rest vertical dimension and diminish the in-
terocclusal distance
decrease the occlusal vertical dimension and increase in-
terocclusal distance
increase the occlusal vertical dimension and diminish the
interocclusal distance

Which of the following adverse conditions may arise if occlusal

vertical dimension is increased?
The closing muscles may become strained
The opening muscles may become strained
The closing muscles may become too relaxed
Soreness may occur at the corners of the mouth.
A patient has a chronically tender, knife-edge mandibular resid-
ual ridge. In fabricating a complete denture for this patient,
a dentist should consider which of the following?
Maximal extension of the denture- to distribute forces of
occlusion over a greater area.
Minimal extension of the denture- to limit tenderness to a
smaller area.
Decreased occlusal vertical dimension- to decrease biting
forces
A broad occlusal table- to provide a firmer contact in ec-
centric jar relations.

Tripod marks are placed on the cast after surveying for which of
the following reasons?
To record the undercut areas on the abutment teeth.
To help mount the cast on the articulator
To record the orientation of the cast to the articulator
To record the orientation of the cast to the surveyor.

In lateral movements, the non-working condyle moves in what di-

rection?
Out, back and up C. down, forward and medially
Up, back and down D. down, forward and laterally
E. none of the above.

The most likely tissue reaction to gross overextension of a

complete denture that has been worn for a long time is:
epulis fissuratum C. papillary hyperplasia
pyogenic granuloma D. giant cell reparative granu-
loma

The relationship of denture base to bone that resists dislodge-

ment of the denture in a horizontal direction is:
support B. pressure C. esthetics D. stabil-
ity

Failure of partial denture due tompoor clasp design can be best

avoided by:
Using stressbreakers D. using intracoronal at-
tachments
Using bar-type clasps E. altering tooth contours
clasping only those teeth with fairly long crowns and nor-
mal bone support

Repeated fracture of a porcelain-fused to metal restoration is

due primarily to:
occlusal trauma C. failure to use a metal condi-
tioner
 improper firing schedule D. an inadequately designed
framework

A patient who wears complete denture is having trouble pro-

nouncing the letter “t”. This is probably caused by:
too thick a palatal seal area
too thick a base in the mandibular denture
incorrect positioning of maxillary incisors
improper positioning of mandibular incisors

The distolingual extension of the mandibular impression for a

complete denture is limited by the action of the:
stylohyoid muscle C. lateral pterygoid muscle
medial pterygoid muscle D. superior constrictor
muscle

In RPD design. Guiding planes serve to:

aid in balancing occlusion
assure predictable clasp retention
from right angles to the occlusal plane
eliminate the necessity for precision attachments
eliminate the necessity for a back-action clasp

When the path of dislodgement is not controlled and rotational

dislodgement of extension bases occurs, remotely located ver-
tical metal stops placed in prepared seats can be used to en-
hance the effectiveness of retentive clasps. The vertical
metal stops are:
indirect claps C. indirect retainers
remote retainer D. forward retainers E. passive
retainers

Excessive vertical dimension of occlusion may result in

poor denture retention C. increased inter-
occlusal distance
drooping of the corners of the mouth E. creases and
wrinkles around the lip
trauma to underlying supporting tissues

Treatment of choice for a patient with a maxillary complete den-

ture with severe bilateral tuberosity undercuts is to:
remove both tuberosity undercuts C. reduce the
tissue bilaterally
reduce the tissue on one side , if possible D.
none of the above. No treatment is necessary.

Translation in a mandibular opening movement occurs;

on closing from centric relation C. on initial opening
from centric relation
in the upper compartment of the TMJ D. in the lower com-
partment of the TMJ
When the posterior maxillary buccal space is entirely filled
with the denture flange, interference may occur with movement
of the;
masseter muscle B. coronoid process C. condyloid process
D. zygomatic process

A patient complains of “looseness” with a new bilateral distal

extension RPD. This is probably caused by:
deflective occlusal contacts C. thin flanges
on acrylic bases
passive clasp pressure on abutment teeth D. insufficient
facial overlap on posterior teeth

When the mandible is in its physiologic rest position, the dis-

tance between occluding surfaces of maxillary and mandibular
teeth or occlusion rim is;
centric occlusion C. interocclusal distance
vertical dimension D. vertical dimension of rest

The strength of dental investments for gold alloys is dependent

upon the amount of;
silica B. carbon C. gypsum D. alumina

The property that most closely describes the ability of a cast

gold inlay to be burnished is;
elastic limit C. percentage elongation
ultimate strength D. modulus of resilience E. modulus
of elasticity

Creep of a metal indicates that the metal;

lacks edge strength D. has insufficient reten-
tion
has excessive flexibility E. will deform under
static load
has insufficient crushing strength

The means by which one part of a partial denture framework op-

poses the action of the retainer in function is called;
tripoding B. reciprocation C. stress-breaking D. in-
direct retention

The Benneth movement exerts its greatest influence in;

lateral movements C. opening movements
protrusive movements D. closing movements

The face-bow is used to record;

centric relation C. relation of the mandi-
ble to the maxilla
relation of the maxilla to the TMJ D. relation of
the mandible to the TMJ

The function of the compensating curve is;

 to help provide a balanced occlusion in complete dentures
when the mandible is protruded.
To aid in establishing an incisal guide plane
The same as the function of the curve of Spee
None of the above.

The secondary peripheral seal area of a mandibular complete

denture is the;
labial border B. buccal border C. distolingual
border D. anterior lingual border

Which of the following describes a material with high compres-

sive strength but low tensile strength?
Tough B. brittle C. ductile D. malleable
E. resilient

Which of the following syringe materials is the most rigid and,

therefore, the most difficult to remove from the mouth?
Polyether C. Addition silicone
Polysulfide D. Condensation silicone E. reversible
hydrocolloid

Which of the following describes the properties of improved

zinc oxide-eugenol materials, except:
They provide an excellent marginal seal.
They have a palliative effect on the dental pulp.
They have thermal insulation qualities that compare to
those of dentin
They are easily removed fro the cavity preparation.

Practitioner pickles gold alloy restorations by heating them to

redness and plunging them into an acid bath. This procedure
can result in which of the following?
A. Oxidation of the metal C. warpage of the restora-
tion
B. Porosity in the casting D. surface roughness
of the restoration

Which of the following properties of a gold alloy exceeds a

base-metal alloy in numerical value?
Hardness C. casting shrinkage
Specific gravity D. fusion temperature E. modulus elas-
ticity

Which of the following is the best reason for pouring a conden-

sation impression material as soon as possible?
The degree of polymerization of condensation polymers is
initially high and then decreases with time.
 Evaporation of a volatile by-product causes shrinkage of
the set material.
If left unpoured, condensation impression materials expands
as they absorb water from air.
Condensation polymers will start to react with the polymer
of the impression tray and cause distortion.

A tray for a polysulfide rubber impression that lacks occlusal

stops may result in:
holding the tray for the entire time in the mouth
a more prolonged period of setting in the mouth before the
tray is removed
an inaccurate final impression because of permanent distor-
tion during polymerization
an inaccurate final impression because of elastic distor-
tion during removal from the mouth

The discolored, corroded, superficial layer frequently seen on

the surface of a dental amalgam restoration is most likely;
mercury B. a sulfide C. gamma-2 D. copper
oxide

Which of the following is a problem with the polyether impres-

sion materials?
Low modulus of elasticity
Low coefficient of thermal conductivity
dimensional instability when exposed to moisture
consistency very similar to the reversible hydrocolloid

The component common to most composite resins, sealants, bond-

ing and glazing agents, and resin cements for orthodontic
bonds is;
inorganic filler C. poly (methyl methacrylate)
benzoyl methyl ether D. bisphenol A-glycidyl methac-
rylate

Dental amalgam will best withstand forces of;

Shear B. impact C. tension D. compres-
sion

When compared to other materials, which of the following is the

main disadvantage of using polyether elastomeric impression
materials?
Tear easily C. are much stiffer
Stick to the teeth D. are not as accurate
E. have longer working time

An advantage of polysulfide impression material over reversible

hydrocolloid material is that polysulfide impression material;
will displace soft tissue C. requires less armamen-
tarium
is significantly more accurate D. is more accurate
if saliva, mucus or blood is present.
 In cobalt-chromium alloys, the constituent responsible for cor-
rosion resistance is:
silver B. nickel C. cobalt D. Chromium E. Tungsten

Dental plaster (type II) powder differs from dental stone (type
IV) powder primarily in;
Density C. crystal structure
Chemical formula D. solubility in water

Polycarboxylate cement has which of the following advantages

over zinc phosphate cement?
Longer working time C. increased compressive
strength
Lower film thickness D. superior biologic compati-
bility

Elongated grains in the microstructure of a wrought wire indi-

cates that it has been;
cold worked C. stress relief annealed
recrystallized D. hardened by heat treatment

Chroma is that aspect of color that indicates;

degree of translucency C. degree of saturation of the
hue
combined effect of hue and value D. all of the above

Which of the following materials will produce the most rigid

restoration for frameworks of the same dimension?
Wrought gold C. Cobalt-chromium alloys
Palladium alloys D. partial denture casting gold in the
hardened condition

Reversible hydrocolloids exhibit the property of transfor-

mation from sol to gel and gel to sol as a function of the ;
concentration of the fillers and plasticizers C.
percent composition by weight of water
concentration of potassium sulfate D. tempera-
ture

Inlay wax patterns should be inserted as soon as possible after

fabrication in order to minimize changes in shape caused by;
Drying of the wax C. volatilization of wax compo-
nents
Reduction in temperature D. continued expansion of
the wax
E. relaxation of internal
stresses
 Which of the following properties of dental materials is time-
dependent?
Creep C. elastic limit
Resilience D. ultimate strength E. compressive
strength

PROSTHODONTICS AND DENTAL MATERIALS

In selecting anterior teeth for complete denture patients, one considers the patient’s
facial size
II. age
III. sex
IV. physical features
I, II, III B. I, II, IV C. I, IV D. all of the above

Freeway space is synonymous with:

physiologic rest position
interocclusal distance
interdental arch space
intermaxillary space
both A and B

After extractions and healing, the maxillary denture-bearing area discloses bony un-
dercuts in both tuberosity areas. Usually, the best treatment for this condition is to:
 surgically reduce the undercuts just enough to allow a path of insertion
do no surgical trimming on the ridge, but reduce the denture base in the under-
cut area
use soft liner inserts in tuberosity areas of maxillary denture
reduce both bony undercuts tuberosities so that no bony undercut exists any-
where on the ridge

Dental plaster powder differs from dental stone powder primarily in:
chemical formula
crystal structure
solubility in water
physical nature of the particle

In arranging prosthetic teeth for balanced occlusion, increasing the incisal guidance:
increases the condylar guidance
decreases the height of the cusps
increases the compensating curve
increases the plane of orientation

A patient in excellent health and wearing complete dentures complains of a burning

sensation in the anterior palate. This is most likely caused by:
a nicotinamide deficiency
deflective occlusal contact
failure to relieve the incisive papillae area
excessive thickness of the denture in the rugae area

To locate a hinge axis on a patient, one should use:

a simple facebow
a kinematic facebow
eccentric records
centric relation registrations

A patient has a complete maxillary denture against natural teeth. He complains of pain
in the area of the left TMJ. Examination of the posterior teeth indicates that these
teeth contact first on the right side. Patient then slides forward and to the left to ef-
fect good cusp interdigitation. What treatment procedure should be instituted to re-
lieve this patient’s symptoms?
markedly reduce the cusp height of the mandibular posterior teeth on the right
side
grind the right posterior teeth to a flat plane
re evaluate and correct the posterior occlusion
reduce the occlusal vertical dimension

Why would a clear surgical template be used for an immediate denture?

To aid the dentist in placing sutures
To prevent bleeding for the first 24 hours.
As an aid in trimming bone to fit the immediate denture
To facilitate shortening the borders so the denture will fit securely.

Where should grinding be accomplished if the following conditions exist? The dis-
tobuccal cusp of the mandibular right first molar strikes prematurely in centric
 occlusion in the central fossa of the maxillary first molar, the distobuccal cusp of the
mandibular right first molar is not premature in working or balancing occlusion.
Grind the central fossa of the maxillary molar
Grind the distobuccal cusp of the mandibular molar
Adjust the cusp tip and the fossa
Either A or B is acceptable

The mesiobuccal cusp of the mandibular left first molar is in deflective occlusal contact
in centric occlusion but not in lateral excursions. What might be spot ground to ef-
fect a balanced occlusion? The:
mesiobuccal cusp of the mandibular right first molar
marginal ridges of the maxillary first molar and second premolar
mesiobuccal cusp of the maxillary left first molar
distolingual cusp of the mandibular left first molar

Selective grinding is a procedure used routinely:

to reduce the vertical dimension of occlusion
to reduce the inclination of condylar guidance
for final correction of any existing occlusal disharmony in dentures
to improve the esthetics of the final arrangement of the anterior teeth

The most important copnsideration in checking custom trays for accurate muscle
molding is:
stability
a tight posterior seal
stability and lack of displacement
a tight peripheral seal disregarding displacement

When a patient wearing complete dentures makes a whistling sound while enunciating
the S sound, it is caused by:
the anterior teeth being placed too far labially
the anterior teeth being placed too far lingually
too great a vertical overlap
the palatal vault being too high and narrow

The shape and amount of the distobuccal extension of a complete mandibular edentu-
lous impression is determined during border molding by the:
ramus of the mandible
lateral pterygoid muscle
tone of the buccinator muscle
size and location of the buccal frena
position and action of the masseter muscle

In recording centric relation, the mandible can be retruded by having the patient:
relax the jaw muscle while the dentist manually manipulates the chin up and
down
protrude and retrude the mandible repeatedly
turn the tongue backward toward the posterior border of the palate
make repeated swallowing movements
all of the above.
The path of the condyle during free mandibular movements is governed primarily by
the:
height of the cusps of the posterior teeth
amount of horizontal and vertical overlap
vertical dimension, centric relation, and degree of the compensating curve
shape of the fossa and meniscus and the muscular influence.

The physiologic rest position has practical significance during the evaluation of maxil-
lomandibular relations, especially as related to:
centric relation
centric occlusion
vertical dimension
protrusive occlusion

The setting time of a zinc oxide eugenol impression paste may best be accelerated by:
adding a drop of oleic acid to the mix
chilling the mixing slab and the spatula
adding a drop of water to the mix
increasing the amount of eugenol
increasing the amount of zinc oxide

Heating a gypsum cast at a temperature of 110°C for one hour will:

drive off its excess gauging water only
have minimal effect on its cushing strength
weaken it because its water of crystallization is driven off
strengthen it because it is a recorded fact that the dry crushing strength of gyp-
sum is high when compared with the wet crushing strength
none of the above.

In processing methyl methcrylate, the resin may show porosity if the flask is placed in
boiling water. Where in the denture is this type of porosity most likely to occur?
Throughtout
In the thickest part
Near the borders
Close to the surface
On the tissue surface

In patients with complete dentures, fissures found at the corners of the mouth are most
frequently caused by:
avitaminosis
II. insufficient vertical
III. blood dyscrasias
IV. general hyperactivity
A. I, II B. I, II, III C. I, III D. II, III E. II, III, IV

The posterior palatal seal for a maxillary denture:

is placed immediately posterior to the vibrating line
II. helps to compensate for the lack of adaptation caused by shrinkage of
acrylic
III. is not necessary if a metal base is made
IV. will vary in outline and depth according to the palatal form encountered.
I, II B. I, III C. II, III D. II, IV E. III, IV
For achieving a natural appearance in complete denture, the anterior teeth must ap-
pear separate and distinct from one another. This may be accomplished by employ-
ing:
diastema
II. the shadow effect
III. different shades of teeth
IV. wedge shaped spaces at the incisal thirds
I, II B. I, II, III C. I, III D. II, III, IV E. all of these

At the trial in of maxillary and mandibular complete dentures, the “f” sound disclosed
the upper incisal edges of the teeth just making contact with the wet line of the lower
lip. Production of the sibilant sound suggests that the mandibular anterior teeth are
in a protrusive relation with no vertical overlap. It may be concluded that:
maxillary anterior teeth are correctly set for length
II. maxillary anterior teeth are set with insufficient facial fullness
III. vertical dimension of occlusion is too great
IV. mandibular anterior teeth are set too far facially
V. mandibular anterior teeth are too long
I, II B. I, IV C. II, III D. II, V E. III, V

All of the components listed below may be involved in the 180 degree encirclement
rule, except:
I-bar C. minor connector
B. guide plate D. open latticework E. none of these

What is the correct relationship of the foot of an I-bar to the survey line (height of con-
tour) on a terminal abutment for an extension RPD?
The foot should be entirely above the survey line
The foot should be partially above and partially below the survey line
The foot should be totally below the survey line
The relationship of the foot of the I-bar and the survey line is of no consequence.
E. none of these.

Reason(s) for selecting a mandibular lingual plate major connector is/are?

the presence of lingual tori
anticipated loss of one or more of the remaining teeth
a high lingual frenum
all of the above
E. both A & C are correct

Which of the following clasps commonly utilize lingual undercuts?

ring clasp C. half and half clasp
B. extended arm clasp D. both A & B E. Both A & C

A cingulum rest should be placed?

between the occlusal and middle thirds of the incisor teeth
above the middle third of the incisor teeth
at the junction of the gingival and middle thirds of the incisor teeth
on the disto-incisal edges of the incisor teeth

The external finish line is?

 the external junction of framework metal and denture base plastic
the external junction of framework metal and supporting tissues
the external junction of the framework metal and the natural teeth
D. the external junction of the natural teeth and the denture base plastic.

A “bead line”
is used only on mandibular major connectors
is a seal at the interface of framework metal and tissues
should taper off as it approaches the marginal gingiva of the abutment teeth
both A and B
Both B & C

The superior border of a mandibular lingual bar major connector should be?
at least 3mm from the tooth/tissue junction
at least 2mm from the tooth/tissue junction
located at the tooth/tissue junction
at least 3mm above the tooth/tissue junction

The internal finish line is?

the butt joint between the metal and plastic on the tissue side of the eden-
tulous area
the butt joint between the metal and plastic on the outer surface of the RPD
a type of posterior palatal seal
a special type of bead line

A class 1 modification 0 RPD normally has how many clasps?

1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

If a mandibular RPD abutment must be covered, the FPR impression should include:
all the abutment teeth for the RPD
a full arch impression
the retromolar pads
both A and B
all of the above

A tissue undercut may preclude the selection of?

a suprabulge calsp C. a half and half clasp
B. an infrabulge clasp D. a combination of clasp

A combination clasp assembly generally has:

a cast bracing arm C. a wrought wire retentive arm
B. a distal rest D. both A & B E. all of
these

Which of the following should be considered in diagnosis for an RPD patient?

interarch space C. occlusal contacts
B. tissue undercuts D. both A & C E. all of
these

A lingual plate mandibular major connector may be selected because:

 the mandibular incisors are tilted lingually D. both B & C
there are mandibular tori present E. all of these
C. there is a high lingual frenum

A master cast for a RPD should be blocked out and duplicated before:
overlapped incisors are recontoured D. both A & B
rest preparations are prepared E. all of these
the framework is waxed up

Rest placement on a terminal abutment of a Class 1 RPD depends on:

the opposing occlusion D. both A & C
the tilt of the abutment E. all of these
C. tissue undercuts

A general rule for rest placement on an abutment adjacent to an extension area is?
Place the rest on the occlusal surface on the opposite side of the tooth
from the extension area.
Place the rest on the occlusal surface adjacent to the extension area
Place rests on both the mesial and distal occlusal surfaces
D. Do not place a rest on this tooth.

Low fusing metal is associated with which of the following procedures?

the altered cast impression D. making records for RPDs
physiological adjustment of the framework E. all of these
the RPD remount cast

Physiologic adjustment of the framework:

is usually done at delivery of the RPD
should be done at the framework try-in appointment
is usually done at the records appointment
D. may be omitted in the presence of strong abutments and good residual ridges

Physiologic adjustment is related to:

the aixs of rotation D. both A & B
adjustment of the framework to the teeth E. all of these
functional movement of the framework

The external finish line on a maxillary Class 1 RPD originates from the lingual of the
guide plate of the terminal abutment and ends___?
at the hamular notch C. opposite the buccal pouch
B. in the glenoid fossa D. opposite Stensen’s duct

The open latticework on a maxillary Class 1 RPD

covers the hamular notch C. does not cover the tuberosity
B. covers the tuberosity D. does not require substantial interarch
space

The partial denture design should be finalized prior to:

 any emergency treatment C. preparation of rest seats
any fixed prosthodontic treatment D. both B & C E. all of
these

When placing the tripod marks on the diagnostic cast, the vertical arm of the surveyor:
should have the analyzing rod in place
should be moved up or down to touch the tissues at widely separated areas
both A and B are true
D. Neither A nor B are true.

The internal and external finish lines are:

normally superimposed over each other
normally offset from each other to avoid weakness in the framework
normally designed and placed independently
none of the avove statements are true.

In general, lingual plating should be supported:

by the inclined surfaces of the mandibular incisors C. with bracing arms
with minor connectors D. with rests

Occlusal rest preparations should be:

spoon shaped
at least 1/3 the buccolingual width of the occlusal surface
at least one millimeter deep
both A & B
all of the above.

Guide plates for anterior teeth:

should be kept to the labial for best esthetics D. both A & B
should be kept to the lingual for best esthetics E. both B & C
be thinned on the labial aspect

An anterior-posterior palatal strap major connector is less rigid than a horse-shoe ma-
jor connector because it (the A-P strap) has less width.
The first statement is true but the reason is false
The first statement is false and the reason is also a false statement
The first statement is true and the reason is true
The first statement is false but the reason is a true statement.

What is the required clearance if the occlusal surface of a metal restoration is porce-
lain?
.05mm B. 1.0mm C. 1.5mm D. 2.0mm E. none of these

Finish line often used for tilted abutments:

shoulder B. knife edge C. chamfer D. beveled shoulder

Preferred finish line for veneer metal restorations:

chamfer B. knife edge C. shoulder D.. acute edge

The occlusogingival thickness of a hygienic pontic should be:

 no less than 2.0mm C. more than 2.0mm
no less than 3.0mm D. more than 3.0mm

Amount of facial reduction for metal ceramic system:

0.5-1.0mm B. 1.2-1.5mm C. 1.5-2.0mm D. 1.0-2.0mm

Crown preparation margins for FPD are best placed:

subgingival C. supragingival
B. equi-gingival D. 0.5mm below the gingival crest

Tooth preparation for FPD must terminate ____ to avoid violating the biologic width:
1.0mm from the alveolar crest C. 1.0mm from the gingival crest
B. 2.0mm from the alveolar crest D. 2.0mm from the gingival crest

Minimum acceptable crown:root ratio for FPD is:

1:1 B. 1:2 C. 1:3 D. 2:3 E. none of these

The proximal grooves for a partial crown preparation on a maxillary incisor should be
parallel to the:
Incisal 2/3 of the labial surface C. gingival 2/3 of the labial surface
middle third of the labial surface D. long axis of the tooth

Primary pontic design for non-appearance zone:

spheroid B. hygienic C. modified ridge lap D. ridge lap

Secondary retention and resistance factors in the preparation of FPD restorations:

I. pins II. Opposing walls III. boxes IV. grooves
A. I, II, III B. I, III, IV C. II, III, IV D. II only

Partial veneer restorations:

¾ crowns IV. 7/8 crown
mesial half corwn V. laminates
telescopic crowns
A. I,II,III,IV B. II, III, IV, V C. I, II, IV, V D. I and II only

Resistance to displacement for a short walled preparation for a FPD crown on a large
tooth can be improved by:
placing axial grooves
lengthening the crown
preparing parallel walls
A. I and II B. I and II C. II and III D. I, II, III

Dentogingival attachment between the base of the gingival sulcus and the alveolar
crest composed of approximately of 1mm of juinctional epithelium and connective
tissue.
biologic width C. alveolar gingiva
attachment epithelium D. gingival epithelium E. none of these

Which of the calsp assemblies utilize a primary rest and an auxialiary rest?
RPA clasp C. infrabuldge clasp
ring clasp D. extended clasp arm
Which of the following steps is done LAST?
rest preparation C. centric relation records
framework try-in D. altered cast impression

Cleaning a RPD in sodium hypochlorite may result in:

increased caries activity C. corrosion of the metal of the
framework
increased periodontal problems D. both A & B.

Which of the following clasp assemblies utilizes a lingual undercut and can be used
on premolars for either extension or tooth-supported RPDs?
half and half clasp C. lingual modified T-bar
B. lingual I-bar D. ring clasp

If a metal base is to be used:

an altered cast impression should be made after framework try-in
a stock tray should be used for the final impression
a custom tray should be used for the final impression
interocclusal records must be made after tooth selection

What is the absolute maximum number of posterior teeth which can be safely replaced
with a fixed bridge?
A. one B. two C. three D. four E. none

The following are major components of the high noble metal alloys used in fabricating
metal-ceramic restorations?
I. Gold II. Platinum III. Palladium
A. I and II B. II and III C. II only D. all of them

Soldering flux is composed of what materials?

I. Sodium pyroborate II. Boric acid III. Silica
A. I and II B. II and III C. II only D. all of them

Which of the following types of porcelain is usually used when manufacturing porcelain
teeth?
high fusing B. medium fusing C. low fusing D. any of
them

When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or postural position, contact of teeth is:
maximum B. not present C. premature D. slight

Balancing side (non-working side) interferences generally occur on the inner aspects
of which teeth?
facial cusps of mandibular molars C. lingual cusps of mand molars
B. facial cusps of maxillary premolars D. facial cusps of maxillary molars

The following are situations in which a RPD is specifically indicated rather than a
FPD, except:
distal extension
long span edentulous area
periodontally involved abutment teeth
anterior esthetics
 following recent extractions
economics
A. I, II, III, IV, V B. II, III, IV, V, VI C. I, II, III, IV, V, VI

The following are advantages of polysuilfide impression materials, except:

not affected by water transfer like alginate
viscosity displaces soft tissues
more stable than alginate
do not affect hardness of cast
pouring can be delayed up to one hour.

A reverse three-quarter crown is most frequently done on which tooth below?

maxillary molar C. maxillary premolar
B. mandibular molar D. mandibular premolar

In the intercuspal position, the DB cusp of a permanent mandibular first molar oc-
cludes where?
the interproximal marginal ridge area between max second premolar and first
molar
central fossa of the maxillary first molar
central fossa of the maxillary second molar
the interproximal marginal ridge area between maxillary first molar and second
molar

Which position is one in which there is a relative muscular equilibrium?

retruded contact position C. protruded contact position
B. postural position D. none of these

The liquid (monomer) used in heat-cured or self-cured resins is usually what?

poly-methylmethacrylate C. benzoyl peroxide
B. hydroquinone D. methyl-methacrylate

The powder (polymer) used in heat-cured or self-cured resins is what?

poly-methylmethacrylate C. benzoyl peroxide
B. hydroquinone D. methyl-methacrylate

This is added to the monomer to aid in the inhibition of polymerization during storage.
poly-methylmethacrylate C. benzoyl peroxide
B. hydroquinone D. methyl-methacrylate

This is the constituent of a dental gypsum-bonded investment that functions as the re-
fractory material and provides the thermal expansion for the investment?
Cristobalite C. calcium sulfate hemihydrate
Graphite D. potassium sulfate

What is the primary component of gypsum before it is processed into dental plaster or
stone?
potassium sulfate hemihydrate C. calcium nitrate hemihydrate
B. calcium sulfate hemihydrate D. potassium nitrate hemihydrate

Which of the following cements is indicated when maximum retention is required or

when the pulp is of no concern?
 Polycarboxylate B. glass ionomer C. zinc phosphate D. ZOE

This pontic looks lost like a tooth, replacing all the contours of the missing tooth, fills
the embrassures and overlaps the ridge with a large concave contact. This type of
pontic should never be used.
ridge lap B. hygienic C. saddle D. conical E. none of
these

Used to describe a pontics which do not have any contact with the tissue.
ridge lap B. hygienic C. saddle D. conical E. none of
these

This design gives the illusion of being a tooth, but possesses all convex surfaces for
ease of cleaning.
ridge lap B. hygienic C. saddle D. conical E. none of
these

The shape of this pontic is cleanable, but the triangular shaped spaces around the tis-
sue contact have a tendency to collect debris.
ridge lap B. hygienic C. saddle D. conical E. none of
these

In casting the metal substructure for a metal-ceramic crown, it is necessary to use

which type of investment?
gypsum bonded C. sulfate bonded
B. phosphate bonded D. any of these E. all of these
Which of the folliwng medicaments are commonly used for cord impregnation?
Epinephrine C. alum (aluminum potassium sulfate)
B. sodium sulfate D. calcium chloride E. both A and
C

Which of the following metals is most ductile?

Silver B. gold C. platinum D. copper

In metal-ceramic restorations, where does failure or fracture usually occur?

in the porcelain C. in the metal
B at the porcelain-metal interface

Which of the following alloys are used for casting large prosthetic appliances (partials)?
Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV

/dent
11-25-2008
 PROSTHODONTICS 1, 2, 3 ; DENTAL MATERIALS
Shade AE if the answer is not in the given choices.

When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or portural position,

contact of teeth is:
A. maximum B. not present C. premature D. slight

Which of the following statements concerning selective grinding in com-

plete denture fabrication for centric relation are true?
Ideally selective grinding should result in harmonious cusp-fossa
contacts of all upper and lower fossa (and marginal ridges of
bicuspsids)
Only grind cusp tips if they are premature in centric, lateral and
protrusive movements.
Neither of the above statements are true.
Both of the above statements are true.

The shoulderless preparation:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making com-
pound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical
region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish
lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

The chamfer cervical finish:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making com-
pound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical
region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish
lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

The shoulder cervical finish:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making com-
pound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical
region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish
lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

The gold—veneer crown is indicated for any tooth where:

 A. a three-quarter crown is indicated C. a buccal three quar-
ter crown is indicated
B. a complete crown is indicated D .a mesial half crown is in-
dicated

Indications for three-quarter crown retainers includes:

A. when caries have eroded proximal and lingual surfaces
B. cannot be used on any tooth (anterior or posterior)
C. cannot be used on periodontally involved tooth
D. cannot be used on short anterior teeth

Contraindications to the use of the three-quarter crown are:

A. anterior teeth with short clinical crown and incisor tapered crowns
B. periodontally involved tooth C. teeth with eroded proximal sur-
faces D. teeth with eroded lingual surfaces E. none of the choices.

Which of the following presents as a painless, firm, pink or red nodular

proliferation of the mucosa?
inflammatory papillary hyperplasia C. denture stomatitis
fibrous hyperplasia D. Moniliasis

If you are fabricating both mandibular and maxillary immediate dentures

for a patient, the ideal treatment is which of the following?
Fabricate the maxillary immediate first.
Fabricate the mandibular first.
Fabricate both the maxillary and mandibular immediate at the same
time.
Makes no difference which one you fabricate first.

All new dentures should be evaluated within how many hours?

A. 3 hours b. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 48 hours

Functional stresses applied to any portion of a partial denture can be

distributed throughout the mouth only when major and minor con-
nectors are:
A. rigid C. cast in a base-metal alloy
B. flexible D. positioned in the same plane E.
none of these.

Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to:

protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing
forces
stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical
forces of occlusion

A distal extension RPD is one that receives its support :

from the tissues only
mostly from the tissues and to a minor extent from the abutment
teeth
mostly from the abutment teeth and to a minor extent from the
tissues
equally from the abutment teeth and the tissues

Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of RPDs with distal extensions

can best be avoided by:
using stressbreakers
employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth
 maintaining tissue support of the distal extensions
clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area
maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal
degree of tension

Functional stresses applied to any portion of a partial denture can be

distributed throughout the mouth only when major and minor connect-
ors are:
A. rigid C. cast in a base-metal alloy
B. flexible D. positioned in the same plane

Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to:

protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing
forces
stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical
forces of occlusion

A distal extension RPD is one that receives its support :

from the tissues only
mostly from the tissues and to a minor extent from the abutment
teeth
mostly from the abutment teeth and to a minor extent from the
tissues
equally from the abutment teeth and the tissues

Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of RPDs with distal extensions

can best be avoided by:
using stressbreakers
employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth
maintaining tissue support of the distal extensions
clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area
maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal
degree of tension

Balancing side (non-working side) interferences generally occur on the

inner aspects of which teeth?
facial cusps of mandibular molars
facial cusps of maxillary premolars
lingual cusps of mandibular molars
facial cusps of maxillary molars

Which of the following concerning centric relation is/are TRUE?

The mandible cannot forced into centric relation from the rest posi-
tion because the patient’s reflex neuromascular defense would re-
sist the applied force
The mandible should be relaxed and gently guided into centric rela-
tion.
In fixed and removable prosthodontics, centric relation should be
established prior to designing the frameworks.
When a centric relation record is taken in the natural dentition,
imprints of the teeth should be confined to cusp tips and the
registration material should not be perforated.
A. 1 & 2 B. 1,2 & 3 C. 2 & 3 D. 1,2,3 & 4 E. 3 only.

A semi-rigid connector is used:

A. because of difficulty in soldering
 B. if a rigid connector interferes with the physiologic movement of
abutment teeth and does not transmit torsional stresses
C. where parallelism exists in the abutment teeth
D. where long spans are present

A semi-rigid connector:
A. is always located in the distal surface of the anterior retainer
B. in the mesial surface of the anterior retainer
C. in the strongest abutment tooth
D. in long spans

Porcelain should be the material of choice :

when a facing is demanded for cosmetic reasons
when the material is to be used without the support of metal
for other than for veneer purposes
since extensive inflammatory changes occur in adjacent soft tis-
sue

The retentive clasp, as it flexes over the highest convexity of abut-

ment exerts some horizontal force, which can be neutralized with this
attribute of the RPD:
A. passivity B. encirclement C. neutral zone D. re-
ciprocation E. retention.

The retruded contact position is what type of position?

A. “tooth-guided” B. “ligament-guided” C. “muscle-guided”

An edentulous patient has slight undercuts in both tuberosities and

also in the facial of the anterior maxilla. To construct a satisfac-
tory maxillary complete denture, you should reduce which of the fol-
lowing?
All undercuts C. Both tuberosity undercuts
The anterior undercut only D. None of them.

Before an accurate face-bow transfer record can be made on a patient,

which of the following must be determined?
Location of the hinge axis point. C. Vertical dimension of
occlusion.
The inclination of each condyle. D. Centric relation.

Delineates the height of contour:

A. undercut gauge B. analyzing rod C. mandrel D. wax trimmer E.
carbon marker and sheath.

In circumferential clasps, these should be on the same level to dissi-

pate stress as flexible tip passes over tooth’s greatest convexity:
A. rest B. minor connector C. retentive arm D. re-
ciprocal arm

Prevents vertical dislodgement of RPD:

A. rest B. minor connector C. retentive arm D. reciprocal
arm

The terminal third of the retentive arm is:

A. rigid B. semi-rigid C. flexible

Posterior border of denture clearance from the fovea palatina / vibrat-

ing line:
 A. 2mm B. 4mm C. 6mm D. 8mm E. 10mm.

Low survey line that allows placement of the retentive terminus of a

clasp arm on the gingival one-third of the abutment tooth indi-
cates that:
the angle of cervical convergence is small.
the angle of cervical convergence is large
the abutment tooth must be recontoured
a bar clasp is the clasp design of choice

A refitting procedure consisting of resurfacing the tissue side of

the denture with new base material is referred to as:
reline B. rebase C. reconstruction D. all
of the choices

Which of the following is not a function of occlusal rests?

maintenance of the correct occlusal relation of the artificial
teeth
guiding of prosthesis along planned path of insertion
stabilization of clasp arms in their planned position
resistance of cervical movement of prosthesis

Aesthetic is an important consideration when deciding between a fixed

or a removable partial denture for which of the following Kennedy
classification?
Kennedy Class I C. Kennedy Class III
Kennedy Class II D. Kennedy Class IV

In protrusive movement, the condyles of the mandible have moved in which

direction?
backward and upward B.downward and forward C. nei-
ther of the two.

Which of the following is the superior attachment for the pterygoman-

dibular raphe?
Hamular notch B. Fovea palatine C.Pterygoid hamu-
lus

The ease and accuracy of border molding depends on which of the follow-
ing?
1. An accurately fitting custom tray.
Control of bulk and temperature of the modeling compound.
The tray being thoroughly dried.
A. 1 and 2 B. 2 and 3 `C. 1,2 and 3 D. 1 only

Which teeth on a maxillary complete denture are the most important when
considering esthetics?
Maxillary laterals C. Maxillary canines
Maxillary centrals D. Maxillary first premolars

A broken-stress or nonrigid FPD is indicated when:

constructing a mandibular FPD only
two or three missing teeth are to be replaced
retainers cannot be prepared to draw together without excessive
tooth reduction
 fixed splinting involves tow or three abutment teeth
retainers can be designed to have equal retentive qualities.

The most frequent cause of failure of a cast crown restoration is:

failure to extend the crown preparation adequately into the gin-
gival sulcus
lack of attention in carving occlusal anatomy of the tooth
lack of attention to tooth shape, position and contacts
lack of prominent cusps, deep sulci and sharp marginal ridges.
.

When preparing a partial veneer crown on a maxillary incisor, proxi-

mal grooves should be parallel to the:
long axis of the tooth C. incisal two-thirds
of the facial surface
gingival two-thirds of the facial surface

Termination of a free end clasp is referred to as:

A. finger B. stop C. tang D. arm

Main purpose of tilting the cast in surveying:

To locate the undercut.
To locate the height of contour.
To provide the most desirable path of placement.
To aid in designing.

The location of the clasps is determined by:

Clinical examination C. Surveying the cast
Radiograph D. Position of the remaining natural
teeth

The scriber of a surveyor:

Marks the clasp outline. C. Dictates the RPD design.
Guarantee undercut retention. D, Mark the greatest convexity of
the tooth.

Achieves >180 degrees encirclement of abutment:

A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronal D. ex-
tracoronal

Maintains three point contact on abutment :

A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronal D. extracoro-
nal

Achieves retention by the use of key and keyway system :

A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronal D. extracoro-
nal

Direct retention is achieved by clasps:

A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronal D. extracoro-
nal

Counteracts the force exerted on the undercut area on one side of the
abutment:
A. major connector C. lingual plate
 B. minor connector D. retentive arm E. reciprocal
arm.

A porcelain jacket crown will fracture when:

used in an end-to-end occlusion
fabricated for a mandibular incisor
allowed to contact the opposing teeth in centric occlusion
subjected to tensile forces by the opposing teeth
subjected to compressive forces by the opposing teeth

The nonrigid connector maybe used in the construction of a FPD only

when the span is:
short and the supporting alveolus is extensively reduced.
Short and the supporting alveolus is not extensively reduced.
Long and the supporting alveolus is extensively reduced.
Long and the supporting alveolus is not extensively reduced.
None of the above.

A post and core is preferred to a post crown for an abutment tooth

because:
it is stronger C. it can be treated as an
independent abutment
better esthetics can be achieved D. less chair time is re-
quired in its fabrication

The limiting structure of the upper denture are as follows, except:

A. vestibular spaces C. pterygomandibular raphe
B. hamular notches D. posterior palatal seal area in the re-
gion of the vibrating line

Also known as the emergency retentive force:

A. atmospheric pressure C. interfacial surface tension
B. capillary attraction D. cohesion
E. adhesion.

The primary stress bearing area of the lower arch:

slope of the residual ridge C. buccal shelf
crest of the residual ridge D. retromolar pad

The construction of a bridge is normally scheduled after the following

is/are completed:
A. surgery
B. surgery, periodontal therapy and operative dentistry
C. periodontal therapy
D. Operative dentistry

Premature contacts in centric relation and any lateral slide as patient

closes into centric occlusion:
A. can be eliminated while bridge is under construction.
B. can be eliminated after bridge has been constructed.
C. need not be eliminated.
D. should be eliminated by grinding before the bridge is made.

The following amount of forward slide from centric relation to centric

occlusion can be regarded as normal in the absence of any per-
iodontal pathology or mobile teeth:
A. 1mm. B. 4mm. C. Up to 2mm. D. 6mm.
The incisal edge of the three-quarter crown retainer on the cuspid tooth
is:
A. about 45 degrees to long axis of tooth. C. 60 degrees to
long axis of tooth.
B. 30 degrees to long axis of tooth. D. 15 degrees to
long axis of tooth

Of what importance is tongue size and position to the prognosis of a

complete denture?
A. of little or no importance
B. large tongue helps stabilize lower dentures
C. patients with large tongues often experience poor lower denture
stability.

Factors affecting the stability of dentures, are as follows, except:

A. location and arrangement of artificial teeth C. quality of final
impression
B. size and form of basal seat D. all of the choices
E. none of these.

This is a resistance of a denture to the vertical component of masti-

cation.
A. retention B. stability C. support D. lip
esthetic E. health of basal seat.

The nonrigid connector is:

A. used for long spans C. used when alveolus is extremely
reduced
B. a broken-stress joint D. used when alveolus is actively
receding

A good solder joint must have:

A. a triangular peripheral attachment
B. a complete and concave peripheral attachment
C. a partial and convex peripheral attachment
D. a partial and concave peripheral attachment

Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be

explored. In the adult patient the depth is:
A. less than 1.0mm C. more than 10mm
B. less than 0.75mm D. more than 1.0mm

Before preparing the abutment teeth the gingival crevice should be

explored. In the young patient the depth is:
A. more than 1.0mm C. more than 5.0mm
B. shallow D. more than 2.0mm

Excessive vertical dimension may result in___?

A. poor denture retention C. wrinkles around the lip
B. drooping of commisures D. trauma to the underlying supporting
tissues E. all of these

Following extraction, alveolar process of the maxilla will resorb:

A. upward and forward direction C. downward and forward
 B. upward and backward D. downward and backward

The working side is the :

A. balancing side C. side toward which the man-
dible is moved
B. side opposite to which the mandible move D. eccentric occlusion

Qualities of shade that refers to the amount of color per unit area:
A. brilliance B. saturation C. translucency D. hue

A direct restorative materials used frequently to restore a portion of

a posterior tooth that is subject to large biting forces has the
following properties:
A. esthetics B. high strength C. ease of casting D. thermal
insulation

Rank the following dental materials in order of increasing values of

their coefficient of thermal expansion: 1. dental amalgam 2. human
teeth 3. porcelain 4. unfilled acrylic plastics: \
A. 2,3,1,4 B. 3,2,4,1 C. 3,2,1,4 D.
2,3,4,1.

The following statements describe percolation, except:

A. Percolation usually decreases with time after insertion of dental
amalgam
B. Percolation is caused by differences in the coefficient of thermal
expansion between tooth and the restorative material when heated or
cooled.
C. Percolation is thought to be undesirable because of possible ir-
ritation to the dental pulp and recurrent decay.
D. Percolation is not likely to occur with unfilled acrylic restora-
tions.

A curve of spee that is too flat produces:

A. molar cusps that are too short C. anterior teeth that
are too short
B. molar cusps that are too long D. anterior teeth that are too
long

When the plane of occlusion is too low, the posterior cusps:

A. will appear too long C. will appear of normal
length
B. will appear too short D. will appear out of occlu-
sion

FPD require the use of:

A. soft golds B. medium hard golds C. hard golds
D. Type A golds

Well-fired porcelain depends on good preliminary condensation. This is

accomplished by the following method/s:
 1. Vibration 2. Pressure 3. Brushing 4. Capillary pack-
ing
A. 1 and 3 B. 2 and 4 C. 1,2,3 and 4 D. 1 only E. 4 only.

The vapor pressure of mercury increase with:

A. increasing temperature C. contamination by dust
B. decreasing size of mercury droplets D. both A & B E.
Both B & C.

Which of the following cement bases has the highest elastic modulus to
best support an extensive amalgam restoration?
A. zinc phosphate C. zinc polyacrylate
B. polymer-reinforced zinc oxide-eugenol D. glass ionomer

The following are classified as rigid impression materials, except:

A.Zinc oxide-eugenol B. impression plaster C. silicone rubber D.
dental impression compound

The impression material that shows the least dimensional change as a

result of disinfection by immersion is:
A. alginate B. agar C. polysulfide D. addition silicones E.
polyether.

The gold content of an 18-K alloy is:

A. 50% B. 75% C. 100% D. 30%

The following statements about heat curing resin are true , except:
A. the method of activation is by heat or boiling
B. the peak temperature is as high as that of self-curing resin
C. the initial strength properties is higher than self-curing resin
D. color is more stable
\
Aids in inhibition of polymerization during storage:
A. benzoyl peroxide C. hydroquinone
B. dibutyl phthalate D. methyl methacrylate E.
gelatin talc.

The widely used method for fabrication of metallic appliance outside

the mouth:
A. firing B. casting C. pickling D. quenching
E. fluxing.

The monomer is principally:

A./ benzoyl peroxide C. dibutyl phthalate
B. polymethyl methacrylate D. methyl methacrylate E.
hydroquinone.

Dental porcelain used as a veneer over cast metal crowns:

A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. any of these.

Also known as “inlay golds” :

A. Type 1 and Type 2 B. Type II & Type III C. Type III &
IV D. Type I & IV

Increases the toughness of wax and resistance to cracking and flaking:

A. paraffin B. gum dammar C. carnauba wax D. candelilla
wax E. any of these.
dental porcelain used as a veneer over cast metal crowns:
A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. any of these.

Even correctly mixed zinc phosphate cement is irritating to the pulp.

How can this irritation be minimized?
Place 2 coats of cavity varnish over the preparations
Add 1 drop of eugenol to the cement after mixing.
Apply eugenol with a cotton pellet to the preparation.
decrease the liquid powder ratio ratio of the cement

Two of the most common causes of clicking in complete dentures are:

reduced vertical dimension and improperly balanced occlusion
excessive vertical dimension and poor denture retention
use of too large a posterior tooth and too little horizontal
overlap
improper relation of teeth to the residual ridge and excessive
anterior vertical overlap

The area of the buccal frenum of a complete mandibular denture must

be thinned to allow for contraction of which of the following mus-
cles?
Caninus B. masseter C. Zygomaticus D. Triangularis

The incisal guidance on the articulator is the:

horizontal guidance
same as the condylar guidance
mechanical equivalent of the compensating curve
mechanical equivalent of horizontal and vertical overlaps.
None of the above.

The side shift (Bennet) movement exerts its greatest influence in:
lateral movements C. protrusive movements
retrusive movements D. opening and closing movements

The hinge axis face-bow transfer is of value because it:

assures an accurate centric relation record
enables alteration in vertical dimension on the articulator
facilitates mounting the mandibular cast in the center of the
articulator
maintains the condyles in their most retruded positions in the
glenoid fossae
 PROSTHODONTICS 1, 2, 3 ; DENTAL MATERIALS

1. A FPD is indicated to replace maxillary first and second premolars. The abutment teeth, which are
in normal alignment, are the canine and the first molar. The connectors of choices are: A. precision
attachment on both the canine and the molars
B. a soldered joint on the canine and a nonprecision dovetail keyway on the molar
C. a soldered joint on the molar with a subocclusal rest on the canine
D. soldered joints on both canine and the molar.

2. When a nonrigid connector is used in a FPD, the path of insertion of the key into the keyway
should be parallel to: A. the path of insertion of the retainer carrying the keyway
B. the path of insertion of the retainer not involved with the keyway
C. the paths of insertion of both retainers
D. none of the above.

3. Retention and resistance forms in full coverage preparations on short molars can be achieved
by: A. using a zinc phosphate cement D. placing several vertical grooves
B. using a full shoulder finish line E. minimizing the depth of occlusal carving.

4. Which of the following are important when evaluating abutments for FPD?
I. crown-root ratio II. Root configuration III. Periodontal surface area
A. I & II B. I & III C. II & III D. I only E. I, II & III

5. A low sag factor in a metal-ceramic FPD can cause:

I. flow of metal under functional leads II. high abrasion resistance
III. less deformation of bridge spans when fired IV. poor metal-ceramic bond strength
V. contamination of porcelain
A. I & II B. II & III C. III only D. IV & V E. all of the choices
6. Three weeks after insertion of fixed bridge, marked discomfort to heat and cold but not sweets
occurs. The most likely cause is;
A. gingival recession B. unseating of the bridge C. deflective occlusal contact
D. torsional forces on one abutment tooth
E. incomplete coverage of cut surfaces of prepared abutment teeth

7. To be biologically and mechanically acceptable, a soldered joint of a fixed bridge should be so

formed that it;
A.extends to the buccal margin of the retainer
B. fills the entire interproximal space occlusogingivally
C. is thin occlusogingivally and wide buccolingually
D. is circular in form and occupies the region of the contact area
E. none of the above

8. Repeated fracture of a porcelain-fused to metal restoration is due primarily to:

A. occlusal trauma C. failure to use a metal conditioner
B. improper firing schedule D. an inadequately designed framework

9. In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the dentist will use a hygienic pontic. Which
of the following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion of this pon-
tic?
A. The length of the pontic. . B. The position of the opposing contact areas.
C. The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.
D. The masticatory force of the patient

10. The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial denture is best enhanced by:
A. using a higher carat solder C. increasing its width
B. increasing its height D. increasing the gap

11. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order
A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load B. improve embrasure contours
C. stabilize the abutment teeth D. improve mesiodistal spacing

12. Arrange the following steps for clinical trial insertion and adjustment of a FPD.
I. Check margins II. Check centric contacts
III. Adjust functional contacts IV. Adjust proximal contacts and pontic tips.
A. I, II, III, IV B. I, IV, II, III C. II, I, III, IV D. IV, I, II, III

13. When a rigid connector is used in a FPD, the path of insertion of the key to the keyway should
be parallel to:
A. the path of insertion of the retainer carrying the keyway
B. the path of insertion of the retainer not involved with the keyway
C. the paths of insertion of both retainers D. none of the above.

14. Which of the following are important when evaluating abutments for fixed prostheses?
I. crown-root ration II. Root configuration
III. Periodontal surface area
A. I & II B. I & III C. II & III D. I, II & III

15. Functional stresses applied to any portion of a partial denture can be distributed throughout the
mouth only when major and minor connectors are:
A. rigid C. cast in a base-metal alloy
B. flexible D. positioned in the same plane E. none of these.

16. Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to:
A. protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing forces
B. stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical forces of occlusion
17. A distal extension RPD is one that receives its support :
A. from the tissues only
B. mostly from the tissues and to a minor extent from the abutment teeth
C. mostly from the abutment teeth and to a minor extent from the tissues
D. equally from the abutment teeth and the tissues

18. Periodontal damage to abutment teeth of RPDs with distal extensions can best be avoided
A. using stressbreakers
B. employing bar clasps on all abutment teeth
C. maintaining tissue support of the distal extensions
D. clasping at least two teeth for each edentulous area
E. maintaining the clasp arms on all abutment teeth at the ideal degree of tension

19. Functional stresses applied to any portion of a partial denture can be distributed throughout the
mouth only when major and minor connectors are:
A. rigid C. cast in a base-metal alloy
B. flexible D. positioned in the same plane

20. Occlusal rest seats for RPDs are prepared primarily to:
A. protect occlusal surfaces C. resist lateral chewing forces
B. stabilize the partial dentures D. resist vertical forces of occlusion

21. Balancing side (non-working side) interferences generally occur on the inner aspects of which
teeth?
A. facial cusps of mandibular molars B. facial cusps of maxillary premolars
C. lingual cusps of mandibular molars D. facial cusps of maxillary molars

22. A semi-rigid connector is used:

A. because of difficulty in soldering
B. if a rigid connector interferes with the physiologic movement of abutment teeth and does
not transmit torsional stresses
C. where parallelism exists in the abutment teeth
D. where long spans are present

23. A semi-rigid connector:

A. is always located in the distal surface of the anterior retainer
B. in the mesial surface of the anterior retainer
C. in the strongest abutment tooth D. in long spans

24. Porcelain should be the material of choice :

A. when a facing is demanded for cosmetic reasons
B. when the material is to be used without the support of metal
C. for other than for veneer purposes
D. since extensive inflammatory changes occur in adjacent soft tissue

25. The retentive clasp, as it flexes over the highest convexity of abutment exerts some horizontal
force, which can be neutralized with this attribute of the RPD:
A. passivity B. encirclement C. neutral zone D. reciprocation E. retention.

26. The retruded contact position is what type of position?

A. “tooth-guided” B. “ligament-guided” C. “muscle-guided”

27. An edentulous patient has slight undercuts in both tuberosities and also in the facial of the
anterior maxilla. To construct a satisfactory maxillary complete denture, you should reduce which of
the following?
A. All undercuts C. Both tuberosity undercuts
B. The anterior undercut only D. None of them.

28. Before an accurate face-bow transfer record can be made on a patient, which of the following
must be determined?
A. Location of the hinge axis point. C. Vertical dimension of occlusion.
B. The inclination of each condyle. D. Centric relation.

29. Delineates the height of contour:

A. undercut gauge B. analyzing rod C. mandrel
D. wax trimmer E. carbon marker and sheath.

30. In circumferential clasps, these should be on the same level to dissipate stress as flexible tip
passes over tooth’s greatest convexity:
A. rest B. minor connector C. retentive arm D. reciprocal arm

31. Prevents vertical dislodgement of RPD:

A. rest B. minor connector C. retentive arm D. reciprocal arm

32 The terminal third of the retentive arm is:

A. rigid B. semi-rigid C. flexible

33. Posterior border of denture clearance from the fovea palatina / vibrating line:
A. 2mm B. 4mm C. 6mm D. 8mm E. 10mm.

34. Low survey line that allows placement of the retentive terminus of a clasp arm on the
A. gingival one-third of the abutment tooth indicates that:
B. the angle of cervical convergence is small.
C. the angle of cervical convergence is large
D. the abutment tooth must be recontoured
a bar clasp is the clasp design of choice

35. A refitting procedure consisting of resurfacing the tissue side of the denture with new base
material is referred to as:
A. reline B. rebase C. reconstruction D. all of the choices

36. The flexibility of a retentive arm of clasp depends on which of the following?
1. length of the clasp 4. cross-sectional form
2. thickness of the clasp 5. taper of the clasp
3. width of the clasp 6. clasp material
A. 1,2,3,5,6 B. 1,2,3,5 C. 1,2,3,6 D. all of the above

37. Which of the following describes the major connector?

A. The connecting tang between the denture and other units of the prosthesis.
B. The part of the denture base which extends from the necks of the teeth to the border
of the denture.
C. The units of a partial denture that connects parts located on one side of the arch
with those on the opposite side.
D. Both B & C are correct
E. none of the above.

38. Speech difficulties (clicking) related to complete denture can be caused by:
1. excessive vertical dimension of occlusion (VDO)
2. lack of retention of mandibular or maxillary denture
3. porcelain teeth hitting termination of speech during swallowing
A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. all of the above.
39. What is the absolute maximum number of posterior teeth which can be safely replaced with a
fixed bridge? A. one B. two C. three D. four

40. The following are major components of the high noble metal alloys used in fabricating metal-
ceramic restorations? 1. Gold 2. Platinum 3. Palladium
A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. all of these

41. Soldering flux is composed of what materials? 1. sodium pyroborate 2. boric acid 3. silica
A. 1,2 B. 1,3 C. 2,3 D. all of these

42. Which of the following presents as a painless, firm, pink or red nodular proliferation of the mu-
cosa?
A. inflammatory papillary hyperplasia C. denture stomatitis
B. fibrous hyperplasia D. moniliasis

43. If you are fabricating both mandibular and maxillary immediate dentures for a patient, the ideal
treatment is which of the following?
A. Fabricate the maxillary immediate first
B. Fabricate the mandibular immediate first
C. Fabricate both the maxillary and mandibular immediate at the same time
D. Makes no difference which one you fabricate first.

44. Which of the following statements concerning selective grinding in complete denture fabrication
for centric relation are true?
A. Ideally, selective grinding should result in harmonious cusp-fossa contacts of all upper and lower
fossa ( and marginal ridges of bicuspids).
B. Only grind cusp tips if they are premature in centric, lateral and protrusive movements.
C. Neither of the above statements are true.
D. Both of the above statements are true.

45. Which of the following are functions of the posterior palatal seal?
1. completes the border seal of the maxillary canine
2. prevents impaction of food beneath the tissue surface of the denture
3. improves the physiologic retention of the denture
46. compensates for shrinkage of the denture resin during the processing
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 1,2,4 E. all of these

46. Which of the following types of porcelain is usually used when manufacturing porcelain teeth?
A. high fusing B. medium fusing C. low fusing

47. When the mandible is in the physiologic rest or postural position, contact of teeth is?
A. maximum B. not present C. premature D. slight

48. All new dentures should be evaluated within how many hours?
A. 3 hours B. 12 hours C. 24 hours D. 48 hours.

49. What muscle moves the disk of the TMJ forward?

A. Digastric B. lateral pterygoid C. mylohyoid D. geniohyoid

50. All things being ideal, which restoration is usually the treatment of choice?
A. removable partial denture B. fixed partial denture C. both RPD & FPD

51. Balancing side (non-working) interferences generally occur on the inner aspects of which teeth?
A. facial cusps of mandibular molars C. lingual cusps of mandibular molars
B. facial cusps of maxillary premolars D. facial cusps of maxillary molars

52. The following are situations in which a RPD is specifically indicated rather than a FPD:
1. distal extensions
2. short span edentulous area
3. periodontally involved abutment teeth
4following recent extractions
A. 1,2,3 B. 2,3,4 C. 1,3,4 D. 1,2,4 E. all of the above.

53. The strength of a soldered connector of a fixed partial denture is best enhanced by:
A. using a higher carat solder C. increasing its width
B. increasing its height D. increasing the gap

54. A dentist primarily splints adjacent abutment teeth in a fixed partial denture in order to:
A. improve the distribution of the occlusal load
B. improve embrasure contours
C. stabilize the abutment teeth
D. improve mesiodistal spacing

55. A dentist determined that it would be necessary to adjust a patient’s denture teeth to correct the
centric occlusion at the wax try-in appointment. Which of the following should this dentist do?
A. Make a new centric relation record and remount
B. Make a new face bow and centric record
C. Make a slight occlusal adjustments in the mouth
D. Make adjustments only for Class II jaw relation patients

56. Major connectors most frequently encounter interferences from which of the following?
A. Lingually inclined maxillary molars
B. Lingually inclined mandibular premolars
C. Facially inclined maxillary molars and premolars
D. Bony areas on the facial aspect of edentulous spaces

57. In constructing a fixed partial denture for a patient, the dentist will use a hygienic pontic. Which
of the following will primarily determine the faciolingual dimension of the occlusal portion of this pon-
tic?
A. The length of the pontic.
B. The masticatory force of the patient.
C. The position of the opposing contact areas.
D. The width and crestal position of the edentulous ridge.

58. In the construction of a removable partial denture, when is a lingual plate preferred over a lingual
bar connector?
A. When more rigidity is required.
B. When the remaining teeth are widely spaced.
C. When the remaining anterior teeth are mobile.
D. When there is no space in the floor of the mouth.

59. Which of the following explains why mandibular molars should not be placed over the ascending
area of the mandible?
A. The denture base ends where the ramus ascends.
B. The molars would interfere with the retromolar pad.
C. The teeth in this area would encroach on the tongue space
D. The teeth in this area would interfere with the action of the masseter muscle.
E. The occlusal forces over the inclined ramus would dislodge the mandibular denture.

60. Excessive depth of the posterior palatal seal usually results in:
A. unseating of the denture C. greater retention
B. a tingling sensation D. increased gagging
61. For a complete denture balanced occlusion, the lingual cusps of maxillary posterior teeth on the
non-working side contacts which areas of the mandibular posterior teeth?
A. The facial inclines of the lingual cusps
B. The lingual inclines of the lingual cusps
C. The lingual inclines of the facial cusps
D. The central fossae

62. The lower one third of a patient’s face appears too short and there is an apparent loss of the
vermillion border of the lips. Which of the following procedures is indicated to correct the situation?
A. Moving the anterior teeth facially.
B. Increasing the interocclusal distance
C. Decreasing the occlusal vertical dimension
D. Increasing the occlusal vertical dimension

63. The dentist should place the terminus of a retentive clasp arm at (in) the:
A. junction of the gingival and middle one third of the clinical crown
B. junction of the middle and occlusal one third of the clinical crown
C. level of the free gingival margin
D. occlusal one third of the clinical crown

64. The speech sounds that bring the mandible closest to the maxilla are the:
A. “s” sounds C. “t” and “th” sounds
B. “f” and “v” sounds D. vowel sounds

65. For an extension-base RPD, which of the following is the most important to maintain the remain-
ing supporting tissues?
A. Using stress releasing clasps C. limiting eccentric occlusal contacts
B. Preserving denture base support D. using plastic teeth

66. The primary advantage of an external splint over an internal splint is:
A. increased rigidity C. increased durability
B. increased retention D. conservation of tooth surface

67. A dentist relined a patient’s maxillary complete denture. This patient returned repeatedly for
adjustments of the erythematous areas on the ridge crest. Which of the following is the most likely
cause?
A. An allergy to the acrylic resin that was used for relining.
B. Presence of a pressure spot in the relined impression
C. The loss of even centric relation contacts.
D. A decrease in the occlusal vertical dimension.

68. The one relation of the condyles to the fossae in which a pure hinging movements is possible is:
A. centric occlusion
B. retruded contact position
C. postural position of the mandible (rest vertical dimension)
D. transverse horizontal axis (terminal hinge position)

69. In a complete denture patient, when the teeth, occlusion rims and central bearing point are in
contact and the mandible is in centric relation, the length of the face is known as the:
A. interocclusal rest space C. physiologic rest position
B. vertical dimension D. rest vertical dimension
E. occlusal vertical dimension

70. In an edentulous patient, the coronoid process can:

A. limit the distal extension of the mandibular denture.
B. affect the position and arrangement of the posterior tooth
C. limit the thickness of the denture flange in the maxillary buccal space
D. determine the location of the posterior palatal seal of the maxillary denture.

71. Which of the following is the primary reason for using plastic teeth in a removable partial denture?
Plastic teeth are:
A. resistant to wear C. esthetically acceptable
B. resistant to stains D. retained well in acrylic resin

72. A patient who has a moderate bony undercut on the facial from canine-to-canine needs an im-
mediate maxillary denture. There is also a tuberosity that is severely undercut. This patient is best
treated by:
A. reducing surgically the tuberosity only.
B. reducing surgically the facial bony undercut only
C. reducing surgically both tuberosity and facial bony undercut
D. leaving the bony undercuts and relieving the denture base.

73. When the mandible is in its physiologic rest or portural position, contact of teeth is:
A. maximum B. not present C. premature D. slight

74. Which of the following statements concerning selective grinding in complete denture fabrication
for centric relation are true?
A. Ideally selective grinding should result in harmonious cusp-fossa contacts of all upper and lower
fossa (and marginal ridges of bicuspsids)
B. Only grind cusp tips if they are premature in centric, lateral and protrusive movements.
C. Neither of the above statements are true.
D. Both of the above statements are true.

75. The shoulderless preparation:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

76. The chamfer cervical finish:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

77. The shoulder cervical finish:

A. greatly facilitates the adaptation of copper bands in making compound impressions.
B. provides a well—defined finish line and adequate space in cervical region
C. is the least conservative of the three types of cervical finish lines
D. requires building up the short mesial end of the crown

78. The gold—veneer crown is indicated for any tooth where:

A. a three-quarter crown is indicated C. a buccal three quarter crown is indicated
B. a complete crown is indicated D .a mesial half crown is indicated

79. Indications for three-quarter crown retainers includes:

A. when caries have eroded proximal and lingual surfaces
B. cannot be used on any tooth (anterior or posterior)
C. cannot be used on periodontally involved tooth
D. cannot be used on short anterior teeth

80. Contraindications to the use of the three-quarter crown are:

A. anterior teeth with short clinical crown and incisor tapered crowns
B. periodontally involved tooth C. teeth with eroded proximal surfaces
D. teeth with eroded lingual surfaces E. none of the choices.

81. In lateral movements, the non-working condyle moves in what direction?

A.Out, back and up C. down, forward and medially
B. Up, back and down D. down, forward and laterally
E. none of the above.

82. The most likely tissue reaction to gross overextension of a complete denture that has been worn
for a long time is:
A. epulis fissuratum C. papillary hyperplasia
B. pyogenic granuloma D. giant cell reparative granuloma

83. The relationship of denture base to bone that resists dislodgement of the denture in a horizontal
direction is:
A. support B. pressure C. esthetics D. stability

84 Before an accurate face-bow transfer record can be made on a patient, which of the following
must be determined?
A. Location of the hinge axis point. C. Vertical dimension of occlusion.
B. The inclination of each condyle. D. Centric relation.

85. Delineates the height of contour:

A. undercut gauge B. analyzing rod C. mandrel
D. wax trimmer E. carbon marker and sheath.

86. In circumferential clasps, these should be on the same level to dissipate stress as flexible tip
passes over tooth’s greatest convexity:
A. rest B. minor connector C. retentive arm D. reciprocal arm

87. Aesthetic is an important consideration when deciding between a fixed or a removable partial
denture for which of the following Kennedy classification?
A. Kennedy Class I C. Kennedy Class III
B. Kennedy Class II D. Kennedy Class IV

88. In protrusive movement, the condyles of the mandible have moved in which direction?
A. backward and upward B.downward and forward C. neither of the two.

89. Which of the following is the superior attachment for the pterygomandibular raphe?
A. Hamular notch B. Fovea palatine C.Pterygoidhamulus

90. Termination of a free end clasp is referred to as:

A. finger B. stop C. tang D. arm

91. Main purpose of tilting the cast in surveying:

A. To locate the undercut.
B. To locate the height of contour.
C. To provide the most desirable path of placement.
D. To aid in designing.

92. The location of the clasps is determined by:

A. Clinical examination C. Surveying the cast
B. Radiograph D. Position of the remaining natural teeth

93. The scriber of a surveyor:

A. Marks the clasp outline. C. Dictates the RPD design.
B. Guarantee undercut retention. D, Mark the greatest convexity of the tooth.
94. Achieves >180 degrees encirclement of abutment:
A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronalD. extracoronal

95. Maintains three point contact on abutment :

A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronalD. extracoronal

96. Achieves retention by the use of key and keyway system :

A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronal D. extracoronal

97. Direct retention is achieved by clasps:

A. suprabulge B. infrabulge C. intracoronalD. extracoronal

98. The limiting structure of the upper denture are as follows, except:
A. vestibular spaces C. pterygomandibular raphe
B. hamular notches D. posterior palatal seal area in the region of the vibrating line

99. Also known as the emergency retentive force:

A. atmospheric pressure C. interfacial surface tension
B. capillary attraction D. cohesion E. adhesion.

100. The primary stress bearing area of the lower arch:

A. slope of the residual ridge C. buccal shelf
B. crest of the residual ridge D. retromolar pad

RESTORATIVE DENTISTRY AND COMMUNITY DENTISTRY

Shade AE if the answer is not in the choices given.